# Clinical

HTAN Clinical Data Model Schema

## Demographics

**Information about the demographics**

| Attribute | Type | Required | Description |
|-----------|------|----------|-------------|
| `ETHNIC_GROUP` | [EthnicGroupEnum](#ethnicgroupenum) | Yes | Ethnic group of the participant (caDSR:2192217) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `GENDER_IDENTITY` | [GenderIdentityEnum](#genderidentityenum) | Yes | Gender identity of the participant |
| `SEX` | [SexEnum](#sexenum) | Yes | Sex of the participant |
| `RACE` | [RaceEnum](#raceenum) | Yes | Race of the participant (caDSR:2192199) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `HTAN_PARTICIPANT_ID` | string | Yes | HTAN ID associated with a patient based on HTAN ID SOP (Primary Key) |

## Diagnosis

**Information about the diagnosis**

| Attribute | Type | Required | Description |
|-----------|------|----------|-------------|
| `PRIMARY_DIAGNOSIS_NCI_THESAURUS_ID` | [PrimaryDiagnosisNCIThesaurusIDEnum](#primarydiagnosisncithesaurusidenum) | Yes | NCI Thesaurus concept identifier for primary diagnosis. Note that NCI Thesaurus offers very broad and very granular cancer types. Please select the most granular disease term most relevant to your research atlas. For example, for Ovarian Cancer, use: C4908: Ovarian Carcinoma, and not a more specific code such as: C139964: Stage I Ovarian Cancer AJCC v8. (caDSR:14905532) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_DIAGNOSIS` | integer | Yes | Age at the time of diagnosis expressed in number of days since birth. Use -1 if this data point is not available. (caDSR:15019300) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `TISSUE_OR_ORGAN_OF_ORIGIN_UBERON_CODE` | [tissue_or_organ_of_origin_uberon_enum](#tissue-or-organ-of-origin-uberon-enum) | Yes | UBERON identifier indicating the tissue or organ where the disease of interest originated, e.g. UBERON:0000002. (caDSR:14883047) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `TUMOR_GRADE` | [TumorGradeEnum](#tumorgradeenum) | Yes | Degree of abnormality of cancer cells as a measure of differentiation and aggressiveness. (caDSR:11325685) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `TUMOR_STAGED` | [TumorStagedEnum](#tumorstagedenum) | Yes | Indicator of whether the tumor was staged using the AJCC classification system. |
| `CLINICAL_T_STAGE` | [ClinicalTStageEnum](#clinicaltstageenum) | Conditional: Required when TUMOR_STAGED is "Yes" | Required when TUMOR_STAGED is "Yes" |
| `CLINICAL_N_STAGE` | [ClinicalNStageEnum](#clinicalnstageenum) | Conditional: Required when TUMOR_STAGED is "Yes" | Required when TUMOR_STAGED is "Yes" |
| `CLINICAL_M_STAGE` | [ClinicalMStageEnum](#clinicalmstageenum) | Conditional: Required when TUMOR_STAGED is "Yes" | Required when TUMOR_STAGED is "Yes" |
| `AJCC_STAGING_SYSTEM_EDITION` | [AJCCStagingSystemEditionEnum](#ajccstagingsystemeditionenum) | Conditional: Required when TUMOR_STAGED is "Yes" | Required when TUMOR_STAGED is "Yes" |
| `AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_LAST_KNOWN_DISEASE_STATUS` | integer | Yes | Age in days of subject at the time of their last known disease status. Use -1 if this data point is not available. (caDSR:14589579) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `LAST_KNOWN_DISEASE_STATUS` | [LastKnownDiseaseStatusEnum](#lastknowndiseasestatusenum) | Yes | Most recently documented condition or state of an individual's disease. (caDSR:12447172) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `TUMOR_CLASSIFICATION_CATEGORY` | [TumorClassificationCategoryEnum](#tumorclassificationcategoryenum) | Yes | Classification of a tumor at a particular time based primarily on histopathological characteristics. (caDSR:12922545) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `METASTASIS_AT_DIAGNOSIS` | [MetastasisAtDiagnosisEnum](#metastasisatdiagnosisenum) | Yes | State of metastatic disease at the time of primary tumor diagnosis. (caDSR:3438571) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `METHOD_OF_DIAGNOSIS` | [MethodOfDiagnosisEnum](#methodofdiagnosisenum) | Yes | Type of clinical or laboratory procedure(s) used in the determination of a disease diagnosis. (caDSR:14857681) (Aligns to CRDC Node) |
| `GLEASON_GRADE_GROUP` | [GleasonGradeGroupEnum](#gleasongradegroupenum) | No | The Gleason grade group for prostate cancer, derived from the primary and secondary Gleason pattern scores. (caDSR:5918370) |
| `HTAN_PARTICIPANT_ID` | string | Yes | HTAN ID associated with a patient based on HTAN ID SOP (Primary Key) |

## Exposure

**Information about the exposure**

| Attribute | Type | Required | Description |
|-----------|------|----------|-------------|
| `SMOKING_HISTORY` | [SmokingHistoryEnum](#smokinghistoryenum) | Yes | Current or past smoking status. (caDSR:3626148) (Aligns to CRDC Node) |
| `YEARS_SMOKED` | integer | Conditional: Required when SMOKING_HISTORY is Current smoker, Current Every-Day Smoker, Current Some-Day Smoker, or Former Smoker | Required when SMOKING_HISTORY is Current smoker, Current Every-Day Smoker, Current Some-Day Smoker, or Former Smoker |
| `PACK_YEARS_SMOKED` | integer | Conditional: Required when SMOKING_HISTORY is Current smoker, Current Every-Day Smoker, Current Some-Day Smoker, or Former Smoker | Required when SMOKING_HISTORY is Current smoker, Current Every-Day Smoker, Current Some-Day Smoker, or Former Smoker |
| `ALCOHOL_HISTORY_INDICATOR` | [AlcoholHistoryIndicatorEnum](#alcoholhistoryindicatorenum) | Yes | Response indicating whether or not an individual has ever consumed alcohol. (caDSR:7537144) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `ENVIRONMENTAL_EXPOSURE` | [EnvironmentalExposureEnum](#environmentalexposureenum) | Yes | Response indicating whether or not an individual was exposed to potentially harmful environmental agents (caDSR:15753166) (Aligns to CRDC Node) |
| `ENVIRONMENTAL_EXPOSURE_TYPE` | [EnvironmentalExposureTypeEnum](#environmentalexposuretypeenum) | Conditional: Required when ENVIRONMENTAL_EXPOSURE is Yes | Required when ENVIRONMENTAL_EXPOSURE is Yes |
| `HTAN_PARTICIPANT_ID` | string | Yes | HTAN ID associated with a patient based on HTAN ID SOP (Primary Key) |

## FamilyHistory

**A class to capture information about the cancer history of family members.**

| Attribute | Type | Required | Description |
|-----------|------|----------|-------------|
| `FAMILY_MEMBER_CANCER_HISTORY` | [FamilyMemberCancerHistoryEnum](#familymembercancerhistoryenum) | Yes | Response to indicate if any relative has a medical history that includes cancer. (caDSR:13309936) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `RELATIVES_WITH_CANCER_HISTORY` | integer | Conditional: If FAMILY_MEMBER_CANCER_HISTORY is "Yes", then RELATIVES_WITH_CANCER_HISTORY becomes required  | Number of relatives the individual has with a known history of cancer. Use -1 if this data point is not available. (caDSR:15907364) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `HTAN_PARTICIPANT_ID` | string | Yes | HTAN ID associated with a patient based on HTAN ID SOP (Primary Key) |

## FollowUp

**Clinical follow-up information**

| Attribute | Type | Required | Description |
|-----------|------|----------|-------------|
| `AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_FOLLOWUP` | integer | Yes | Age in days of the subject at the the time of follow-up. Use -1 if this data point is not available. (caDSR:15748634) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE` | [ProgressionOrRecurrenceEnum](#progressionorrecurrenceenum) | Yes | Response indicating whether or not a subject has a progressive disease or a recurrent disease. (caDSR:13529783) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE_ANATOMIC_SITE_UBERON_CODE` | [tissue_or_organ_of_origin_uberon_enum](#tissue-or-organ-of-origin-uberon-enum) | Conditional: Required when PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE is "Yes" | Required when PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE is "Yes" |
| `PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE_TYPE` | [ProgressionTypeEnum](#progressiontypeenum) | Conditional: Required when PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE is "Yes" | Required when PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE is "Yes" |
| `EVIDENCE_OF_RECURRENCE_TYPE` | [EvidenceOfRecurrenceTypeEnum](#evidenceofrecurrencetypeenum) | Conditional: Required when PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE is "Yes" | Required when PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE is "Yes" |
| `AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE` | integer | Conditional: Required when PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE is "Yes" | Required when PROGRESSION_OR_RECURRENCE is "Yes" |
| `DISEASE_RESPONSE` | [DiseaseResponseEnum](#diseaseresponseenum) | Yes | Result of an evaluation to determine whether pathologic and/or clinical changes resulted from treatment. (caDSR:13383448) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `ECOG_SCORE_PERFORMED` | [EcogScorePerformedEnum](#ecogscoreperformedenum) | Yes | Indicator of whether an ECOG performance status score was obtained for the individual. (caDSR:5943795) (Aligns to CRDC Standard CDE) |
| `ECOG_PERFORMANCE_STATUS` | [ECOGPerformanceStatusEnum](#ecogperformancestatusenum) | Conditional: Required when ECOG_SCORE_PERFORMED is "Known" | Required when ECOG_SCORE_PERFORMED is "Known" |
| `MENOPAUSE_STATUS` | [MenopauseStatusEnum](#menopausestatusenum) | No | Menopausal status of the individual. (caDSR:2434914) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `HTAN_PARTICIPANT_ID` | string | Yes | HTAN ID associated with a patient based on HTAN ID SOP (Primary Key) |

## MolecularTest

**Information about the molecular test**

| Attribute | Type | Required | Description |
|-----------|------|----------|-------------|
| `TIMEPOINT_LABEL` | string | No | Label to identify the time point at which the clinical data or biospecimen was obtained (e.g. Baseline, End of Treatment, Overall survival, Final). NO PHI/PII INFORMATION IS ALLOWED. (caDSR:8031077) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_MOLECULAR_TEST_START` | integer | Yes | Age in days of the subject at the start of a molecular analysis. Use -1 if this data point is not available. (caDSR:15879017) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_MOLECULAR_TEST_STOP` | integer | No | Age in days of the subject at the end of a molecular analysis. (caDSR:15879662) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `GENE_SYMBOL` | [gene_symbol_enum](#gene-symbol-enum) | Yes | Gene symbol of the gene targeted or included in molecular analysis. (caDSR:11280318) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `MOLECULAR_ANALYSIS_METHOD` | [MolecularAnalysisMethodEnum](#molecularanalysismethodenum) | Yes | Description of the method used for clinical molecular analysis. (caDSR:6142401) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `MOLECULAR_ANALYSIS_RESULT` | [MolecularAnalysisResultEnum](#molecularanalysisresultenum) | Yes | Description of the result of clinical molecular analysis. (caDSR:6142397) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `AA_CHANGE` | string | No | Alphanumeric value used to describe the amino acid change for a specific genetic variant, e.g., R116Q, as determined by clinical testing. (caDSR:6142508) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `CLINICAL_BIOSPECIMEN_TYPE` | [ClinicalBiospecimenTypeEnum](#clinicalbiospecimentypeenum) | Yes | Kind of material taken from a biological entity for testing, diagnostic, propagation, treatment or research purposes. (caDSR:7069877) (Aligns to CRDC Node) |
| `COPY_NUMBER` | integer | No | The quantity of gene copies resulting from a mutation. (caDSR:13367966) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `EXON` | integer | No | Exon number targeted or included in a clinical molecular analysis. (caDSR:6142411) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `MOLECULAR_CONSEQUENCE` | [MolecularConsequenceEnum](#molecularconsequenceenum) | No | Description of the molecular consequence of genetic variation identified by a clinical test. (caDSR:13367935) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `PATHOGENICITY` | [PathogenicityEnum](#pathogenicityenum) | No | Description of a variant's level of involvement in the cause of the individual's disease according to the standards outlined by the American College of Medical Genetics and Genomics (ACMG). (caDSR:14532361) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `TEST_ANALYTE_TYPE` | [TestAnalyteTypeEnum](#testanalytetypeenum) | No | Sample type or material being subjected to analysis. (caDSR:15063661) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `TEST_UNITS` | [TestUnitsEnum](#testunitsenum) | No | Preferred unit of measure (UOM) for a laboratory test result, per NCI standards or per protocol specification. (caDSR:2195977) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `TEST_RESULT` | string | No | Specific result of a clinical molecular test. Use this field only if one of the permissible values in MOLECULAR_ANALYSIS_RESULT isn't relevant. Please provide TEST_UNITS if applicable. (caDSR:2230153) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `VARIANT_ORIGIN` | [VariantOriginEnum](#variantoriginenum) | No | Biological origin of a specific genetic variant identified by a clinical test. (caDSR:14473382) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `VARIANT_TYPE` | [VariantTypeEnum](#varianttypeenum) | No | Description of the type of genetic variation. (caDSR:6142402) (No CRDC Standard Available) |
| `HTAN_PARTICIPANT_ID` | string | Yes | HTAN ID associated with a patient based on HTAN ID SOP (Primary Key) |

## Therapy

**Information about therapeutic interventions**

| Attribute | Type | Required | Description |
|-----------|------|----------|-------------|
| `INITIAL_DISEASE_STATUS` | [InitialDiseaseStatusEnum](#initialdiseasestatusenum) | Yes | Status of the individual's malignancy when the treatment began. (caDSR:15907348) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `TREATMENT_INTENT_TYPE` | [TreatmentIntentTypeEnum](#treatmentintenttypeenum) | Yes | Anticipated outcome for therapy. (caDSR:15157467) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `TREATMENT_TYPE` | [TreatmentTypeEnum](#treatmenttypeenum) | Yes | Type of treatment administered. (caDSR:14737565) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `PHARMACOTHERAPY_TYPE` | [PharmacotherapyTypeEnum](#pharmacotherapytypeenum) | Yes | Whether single or combination pharmacotherapy was used. (caDSR:15743233) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `THERAPEUTIC_AGENTS` | [AntineoplasticAgentEnum](#antineoplasticagentenum) | Conditional: Required when TREATMENT_TYPE is Chemotherapy, Concurrent Chemoradiation, or Pharmacotherapy | Required when TREATMENT_TYPE is Chemotherapy, Concurrent Chemoradiation, or Pharmacotherapy |
| `THERAPY_ANATOMIC_SITE_UBERON_CODE` | [tissue_or_organ_of_origin_uberon_enum](#tissue-or-organ-of-origin-uberon-enum) | Conditional: Required when TREATMENT_TYPE is a surgical or radiation therapy | Required when TREATMENT_TYPE is a surgical or radiation therapy |
| `AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_TREATMENT_START` | integer | Yes | The age in days of the subject at the time that this treatment was started. Use -1 if this data point is not available. (caDSR:12304720) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_TREATMENT_END` | integer | Conditional: Required when treatment has ended; use -1 if not available | Required when treatment has ended; use -1 if not available |
| `OFF_TREATMENT_REASON` | [OffTreatmentReasonEnum](#offtreatmentreasonenum) | Conditional: Required when AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_TREATMENT_END is present | Required when AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_TREATMENT_END is present |
| `REGIMEN_OR_LINE_OF_THERAPY` | [RegimenOrLineOfTherapyEnum](#regimenorlineoftherapyenum) | Conditional: Required when TREATMENT_TYPE is Chemotherapy, Concurrent Chemoradiation, or Pharmacotherapy | Required when TREATMENT_TYPE is Chemotherapy, Concurrent Chemoradiation, or Pharmacotherapy |
| `NUMBER_OF_CYCLES` | integer | Conditional: Required when TREATMENT_TYPE is pharmacotherapy | Required when TREATMENT_TYPE is pharmacotherapy |
| `RESPONSE` | [DiseaseResponseEnum](#diseaseresponseenum) | Conditional: Required when AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_TREATMENT_END is present | Required when AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_TREATMENT_END is present |
| `HTAN_PARTICIPANT_ID` | string | Yes | HTAN ID associated with a patient based on HTAN ID SOP (Primary Key) |

## VitalStatus

**Information about the vital status**

| Attribute | Type | Required | Description |
|-----------|------|----------|-------------|
| `VITAL_STATUS` | [VitalStatusEnum](#vitalstatusenum) | Yes | Survival status for individual. (caDSR:2847330) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_LAST_KNOWN_SURVIVAL_STATUS` | integer | Yes | Age in days when the last known survival status of the subject was captured. Use -1 if this data point is not available. (caDSR:12305768) (Aligns to CDRC Standard CDE) |
| `AGE_IN_DAYS_AT_DEATH` | integer | Conditional: Required when VITAL_STATUS is Dead | Required when VITAL_STATUS is Dead |
| `CAUSE_OF_DEATH` | [CauseOfDeathEnum](#causeofdeathenum) | Conditional: Required when VITAL_STATUS is Dead | Required when VITAL_STATUS is Dead |
| `CAUSE_OF_DEATH_SOURCE` | [CauseOfDeathSourceEnum](#causeofdeathsourceenum) | Conditional: Required when VITAL_STATUS is Dead | Required when VITAL_STATUS is Dead |
| `HTAN_PARTICIPANT_ID` | string | Yes | HTAN ID associated with a patient based on HTAN ID SOP (Primary Key) |

## ClinicalRecordAttributes

**Base attributes shared by all clinical record types**

| Attribute | Type | Required | Description |
|-----------|------|----------|-------------|
| `HTAN_PARTICIPANT_ID` | string | Yes | HTAN ID associated with a patient based on HTAN ID SOP (Primary Key) |

## Enums

### AJCCStagingSystemEditionEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| 1st | Preceding all others in time or space or degree.: The form in which a text (especially a printed book) is published. |
| 2nd | Coming next after the first in position in space or time or degree or magnitude.: The form in which a text (especially a printed book) is published. |
| 3rd | Following the second position in an ordering or series; coming next after the second and just before the fourth in position.: The form in which a text (especially a printed book) is published. |
| 4th | Following the third position in an ordering or series; coming next after the third and just before the fifth in position.: The form in which a text (especially a printed book) is published. |
| 5th | Following the fourth position in an ordering or series; coming next after the fourth and just before the sixth in position.: The form in which a text (especially a printed book) is published. |
| 6th | Following the fifth position in an ordering or series; coming next after the fifth and just before the seventh in position.: The form in which a text (especially a printed book) is published. |
| 7th | A natural number greater than 6 and less than 8 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of six and one.: The form in which a text (especially a printed book) is published. |
| 8th | A natural number greater than 7 and less than 9 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of seven and one.: The form in which a text (especially a printed book) is published. |

### AlcoholHistoryIndicatorEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Data not available | Data from an original source is not present, accessible or ready for use or service. |
| No | The non-affirmative response to a question. |
| Not applicable | Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context. |
| Not reported | Not provided or available. |
| Pending | Not yet decided or settled; awaiting conclusion or confirmation. |
| Refused | To decline to do, accept, give, or allow something. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| Yes | The affirmative response to a question. |

### AntineoplasticAgentEnum

NCI Thesaurus Preferred Name for antineoplastic agents, as derived from https://evs.nci.nih.gov/ftp1/NCI_Thesaurus/Drug_or_Substance/Antineoplastic_Agent.xls

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| 10-Deacetyltaxol | An analog of paclitaxel with antineoplastic activity.  10-Deacetyltaxol binds to and stabilizes the resulting microtubules, thereby inhibiting microtubule disassembly which results in cell- cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and apoptosis. |
| 117-126:FGF-5 Peptide | A fragment of fibroblast growth factor-5 (FGF-5). Originally isolated from a renal cell carcinoma cell line that overexpressed FGF-5, FGF-5:117-126 peptide is recognized by tumor infiltrating cytotoxic T lymphocytes. Overexpressed by several cancer cell types, this peptide is being tested as a potential target for antineoplastic immunotherapies. (NCI04) |
| 11C Topotecan | A semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin, a cytotoxic, quinoline-based alkaloid extracted from the Asian tree Camptotheca acuminata radiolabeled with carbon 11 (11C) with antineoplastic and radiotracer properties. During the S phase of the cell cycle, topotecan inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA, resulting in DNA breaks that inhibit DNA replication and trigger apoptotic cell death. Quantitation of 11C topotecan accumulated ... |
| 11D10 AluGel Anti-Idiotype Monoclonal Antibody | A monoclonal anti-idiotype antibody adsorbed to aluminum hydroxide gel (AluGel) with potential antineoplastic activity.  11D10 AluGel anti-idiotype monoclonal antibody mimics the human milk fat globule (HMFG) antigen found in breast and other cancers.  Vaccination with 11D10 AluGel anti-idiotype monoclonal antibody may induce a host antibody response against tumor cells positive for the HMFG antigen. (NCI04) |
| 12-Allyldeoxoartemisinin | A semi-synthetic analogue of Artemisinin - a sesquiterpene lactone extracted from the dry leaves of Artemisia Annua (sweet wormwood) used as anti-malaria agent. Limited data is available on Artemisinin antineoplastic activity. |
| 13-Deoxydoxorubicin | An analogue of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin.  13-Deoxydoxorubicin intercalates DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis.  This agent was designed to be a non-cardiotoxic anthracycline antibiotic. |
| 14C BMS-275183 | An orally bioavailable taxane compound, a C-4 methyl carbonate analogue of paclitaxel, labeled with radioactive carbon 14, with potential antineoplastic and radioimaging activities. BMS-275183 binds to tubulin and as a result inhibits microtubule disassembly or assembly. This leads to cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase, thereby resulting in an inhibition of cell division and ultimately cell death. BMS-275183 may be useful for treating multi-drug resistant tumors as it does not appear to be a... |
| 17beta-Hydroxysteroid Dehydrogenase Type 5 Inhibitor ASP9521 | A selective, orally bioavailable inhibitor of 17beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 5 (17bHSD5, aldo-keto reductase 1C3; AKR1C3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ASP9521 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of 17bHSD5. This prevents the conversion of the adrenal androgens dehydroepiandrosterone and androstenedione into 5-androstenediol and testosterone. By blocking testosterone production, ASP9521 may inhibit the growth of testosterone-dependent cance... |
| 2,6-Diaminopurine | One of a number of organic compounds that share a similar purine structure and possess antiviral and antitumor properties. 2,6-Diaminopurine nucleosides are versatile synthetic precursors for specific N-6 modifications of antiviral and antitumor agents. (NCI04) |
| 2,6-Dimethoxyquinone | A methoxy-substituted benzoquinone and bioactive compound found in fermented wheat germ extracts, with potential antineoplastic and immune-enhancing activity. 2,6-Dimethoxyquinone (2,6-DMBQ) inhibits anaerobic glycolysis thereby preventing cellular metabolism and inducing apoptosis. As cancer cells use the anaerobic glycolysis pathway to metabolize glucose and cancer cells proliferate at an increased rate as compared to normal, healthy cells, this agent is specifically cytotoxic towards cance... |
| 2-Deoxy-D-glucose | A non-metabolizable glucose analog in which the hydroxyl group at position 2 of glucose is replaced by hydrogen, with potential glycolysis inhibiting and antineoplastic activities. Although the exact mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, upon administration of 2-deoxy-D-glucose (2-DG), this agent competes with glucose for uptake by proliferating cells, such as tumor cells. 2-DG inhibits the first step of glycolysis and therefore prevents cellular energy production, which may res... |
| 2-Ethylhydrazide | A podophyllic acid derivative of podophyllotoxin, a substance extracted from the mandrake root Podophyllum peltatum.  Possessing potent antineoplastic properties, 2-ethylhydrazide binds to and inhibits topoisomerase II and its function in ligating cleaved DNA molecules, resulting in the accumulation of single- or double-strand DNA breaks, the inhibition of DNA replication and transcription, and apoptotic cell death. |
| 2'-F-ara-deoxyuridine | A deoxyuridine prodrug with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon cellular uptake, 2'-F-ara-deoxyuridine (FAU) is phosphorylated by thymidine kinase to FAU monophosphate and subsequently methylated in the 5'-position by thymidylate synthase (TS) to its activated form, 1-(2-deoxy-2-fluoro-beta-D-arabinofuranosyl) 5-methyluracil monophosphate (FMAUMP). FMAUMP is incorporated into DNA leading to an inhibition of DNA synthesis and so cell growth. The catalytic activity of TS is critical to acti... |
| 2-Fluoroadenine | A fluorinated heterocyclic 2-ring compound. 2-fluoroadenine is the base moiety for many carbocyclic and acyclic nucleoside analogues, which may be used in antineoplastic studies. |
| 2-Fluorofucose | An orally bioavailable fluorinated analog of fucose that is a protein fucosylation inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, 2-fluorofucose (2-FF) mimics fucose and is converted to guanosine diphosphate (GDP)-2FF, which prevents the formation of the fucosylation substrate GDP-fucose, and the incorporation of fucose into glycoproteins by fucosyltransferase. As fucosylation of glycoproteins plays a key role in many biological processes, such ... |
| 2G-1 TCR Retroviral Vector-Transduced Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes isolated from renal cell cancer (RCC) patient and transduced with 2G-1 TCR, a retroviral vector encoding the alpha and beta chains of a T-cell receptor that recognizes TNF-related apoptosis inducing ligand (TRAIL) bound to death receptor 4 (DR4), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. After transduction, expansion in culture, and introduction into the RCC patient, 2G-1 TCR retroviral vector-transduced lymphocytes may sti... |
| 2-Hydroxyestradiol | A metabolite formed during the metabolism of 17beta-estradiol by hydroxylation of the carbon at position 2 by the CYP450 enzymes 1A1/1A2. Theoretically, 2-hydroxyestradiol (2-OHE2) is able to undergo redox cycling, which generates active radicals and induces DNA damage; however, this estradiol metabolite is very unstable in vivo and is quickly inactivated by catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)-mediated O-methylation and converted to 2-methoxyestradiol (2-MeE2). 2-MeE2 exerts antineoplastic ac... |
| 2-Hydroxyestrone | A metabolite formed during the catabolism of estrone by the liver through the hydroxylation of the carbon at position 2 by cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes, including CYP1A1 and 1A2, with potential anticarcinogenic activity. The mechanism of action for the antitumor activity of 2-hydroxyestrone is not known but this metabolic product has minimal estrogenic activity compared to the parent compound and other estrone metabolites. Additionally, O-methylation of this compound produces 2-methoxyestrad... |
| 2-Hydroxyflutamide Depot | A depot formulation containing a bioresorbable, controlled-release, calcium sulphate-based paste of the nonsteroidal antiandrogen 2-hydroxyflutamide (2-HOF) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon injection into the tumor site in the prostate, 2-hydroxyflutamide depot slowly releases 2-HOF, which competitively binds to androgen receptors (ARs), blocking the binding of dihydrotestosterone (DHT). This may inhibit androgen-dependent DNA and protein synthesis, resulting in tumor cell growth ... |
| 2-Methoxyestradiol | An orally bioavailable estradiol metabolite with potential antineoplastic activity.  2-Methoxyestradiol inhibits angiogenesis by reducing endothelial cell proliferation and inducing endothelial cell apoptosis.  This agent also inhibits tumor cell growth by binding to tubulin, resulting in antimitotic activity, and by inducing caspase activation, resulting in cell cycle arrest in the G2 phase, DNA fragmentation, and apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| 2-Methoxyestradiol Nanocrystal Colloidal Dispersion | An orally bioavailable liquid formulation containing the small molecule 2-methoxyestradiol with potential antineoplastic activity. 2-Methoxyestradiol, a naturally occurring estradiol metabolite, exerts its antitumor effect by inhibiting endothelial cells as well as tumor cells through multiple mechanisms. This agent binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubule formation, thereby preventing mitosis and subsequent cellular proliferation. In addition, 2-methoxyestradiol induces caspase activation, ... |
| 2-Methoxyestrone | A metabolite formed during the methylation of 2-hydroxyestrone (2-OHE1) by catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT), with potential anticarcinogenic and minimal estrogen activities. The mechanism of action for the antitumor activity of 2-methoxyestrone (2-OMeE1) is not known. A high 2-methoxyestrone (2-OMeE1)/2-OHE1 ratio indicates higher methylation efficiency and correlates with a lower cancer risk. |
| 3-bromopyruvate-based Agent KAT-101 | An orally bioavailable formulation of a derivative of 3-bromopyruvate (3-BP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of 3-BP-based agent KAT-101, the 3-BP derivative, being structurally similar to lactic acid, specifically binds to and enters cancer cells through monocarboxylic acid transporters (MCTs), which are transporters for lactic acid and are overexpressed on cancer cells. Inside the cancer cells, KAT-101 interferes with both glycolysis and mitochondrial oxida... |
| 3-bromopyruvate-based Agent KAT-201 | An intratumoral (IT) formulation of a derivative of 3-bromopyruvate (3-BP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon IT administration of 3-BP-based agent KAT-201, the 3-BP derivative, being structurally similar to lactic acid, specifically binds to and enters cancer cells through monocarboxylic acid transporters (MCTs), which are transporters for lactic acid and are overexpressed on cancer cells. Inside the cancer cells, KAT-201 interferes with both glycolysis and mitochondrial oxidative... |
| 3'-C-ethynylcytidine | A synthetic cytidine nucleoside containing a covalently bound ethynyl group with potential antineoplastic and radiosensitizing activities. 3'-C-ethynylcytidine is metabolized in tumor cells to ethynylcytidine triphosphate (ECTP), which inhibits RNA synthesis by competitive inhibition of RNA polymerases I, II and III; subsequently, RNase L is activated, resulting in apoptosis. RNase L is a potent antiviral and antiproliferative endoribonuclease that cleaves singled stranded RNA, causes 28s rRN... |
| 4H11-28z/fIL-12/EGFRt-expressing Autologous T-lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) MUC16ecto and encoding the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), fused to the signaling domain of the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (28z), and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. U... |
| 4'-Iodo-4'-Deoxydoxorubicin | An iodinated doxorubicin analogue with antiamyloid activity. 4'-Iodo-4'-deoxydoxorubicin (IDOX) binds with high affinity to five types of natural amyloid fibrils including immunoglobulin light chains, amyloid A, transthyretin (methionine-30 variant), beta-protein (Alzheimer), and beta2-microglobulin. This agent may inhibit fibril growth, increasing the solubility of amyloid tissue deposits and facilitating their clearance. IDOX has also been shown to insulin amyloid fibrillogenesis in vitro. |
| 4-Nitroestrone 3-Methyl Ether | A synthetic derivative of estradiol. 4-nitroestrone 3-methyl ether inhibits estrogen sulfotransferase (EST), a progesterone-induced secretory endometrial enzyme which affects estrogen receptor levels.  This agent has been shown to be an effective growth inhibitor of some chemically induced animal mammary tumors. (NCI04) |
| 4-Peptide Melanoma Vaccine | An emulsion of 4 melanoma peptides with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, 4-peptide melanoma vaccine may stimulate an immune response against 4 different melanoma associated antigens. This may lead to a reduction in tumor cell proliferation of cancer cells expressing these antigens. |
| 4-Thio-2-deoxycytidine | An orally bioavailable 4-thio modified 2-deoxycytidine analog, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of 4-thio-2-deoxycytidine (TdCyd), this cytidine analog gets incorporated into DNA during replication and inhibits the activity of DNA methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1), which blocks DNA hypermethylation. This results in DNMT1 depletion, hypomethylation of DNA, and the reactivation of tumor suppressor genes that were silenced by hypermethylation; this results in antitumor activ... |
| 5-Aza-4'-thio-2'-deoxycytidine | An orally bioavailable, nucleoside analog and DNA methyltransferase I (DNMT1) inhibitor, with potential DNA hypomethylating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, 5-aza-4'-thio-2'-deoxycytidine (Aza-TdC) gets incorporated into DNA, where it binds to the active site of DNMT1, a maintenance methyltransferase that contributes to the hypermethylation and silencing of tumor suppressor genes. The formation of covalent DNMT1-DNA complexes inhibits DNMT1, prevents DNA methylation of CpG ... |
| 5-Fluoro-2-Deoxycytidine | An antimetabolite consisting of a fluorinated pyrimidine analog with potential antineoplastic activity. As a prodrug, 5-fluoro-2-deoxycytidine is converted by intracellular deaminases to the cytotoxic agent 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU). 5-FU is subsequently metabolized to active metabolites including 5-fluoro-2-deoxyuridine monophosphate (FdUMP) and 5-fluorouridine triphosphate (FUTP). FdUMP binds to and inhibits thymidylate synthase, thereby reducing the production of thymidine monophosphate, which... |
| 6 Melanoma Helper Peptide Vaccine | A multi-epitope vaccine containing the following six class II MHC-restricted peptides: gp100, MelanA/MART-1, two tyrosinase peptides, and the cancer/testis antigens MAGE-A3 and MAGE-A1,2,3,6, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, melanoma helper peptides induce an antigen-specific, Th1-dominant, CD4+ T-cell response, potentially augmenting cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) responses and maintaining immunologic memory against tumor cells expressing melanoma-specific antigens. The 6... |
| 6-Phosphofructo-2-kinase/fructose-2,6-bisphosphatases Isoform 3 Inhibitor ACT-PFK-158 | An inhibitor of 6-phosphofructo-2-kinase/fructose-2,6-bisphosphatases (PFK-2/FBPase) isoform 3 (PFKFB3) and derivative of 3-(3-pyridinyl)-1-(4-pyridinyl)-2-propen-1-one (3PO), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PFKFB3 inhibitor PFK-158 binds to and inhibits the activity of PFKFB3, which leads to the inhibition of both the glycolytic pathway in and glucose uptake by cancer cells. This prevents the production of macromolecules and energy that causes the enhanced cellul... |
| 7-Cyanoquinocarcinol | A semisynthetic analogue of the Streptomyces melanovinaceus-derived tetracyclic antitumor antibiotic quinocarmycin with potential antineoplastic activity. Quinocarmycin belongs to the naphthyridinomycin/saframycin class of antitumor antibiotics. These antibiotics appear to act through DNA alkylation. |
| 7-Hydroxystaurosporine | A synthetic derivative of staurosporine with antineoplastic activity. 7-hydroxystaurosporine inhibits many phosphokinases, including the serine/threonine kinase AKT, calcium-dependent protein kinase C, and cyclin-dependent kinases. This agent arrests tumor cells in the G1/S of the cell cycle and prevents nucleotide excision repair by inhibiting the G2 checkpoint kinase chk1, resulting in apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| 8-Azaguanine | A purine analogue with potential antineoplastic activity.  8-Azaguanine interferes with the modification of transfer ribonucleic acid (tRNA) by competing with guanine for incorporation into tRNA catalyzed by the enzyme tRNA-guanine ribosyltransferase (tRNA-guanine transglycosylase).  Altered guanine modification of tRNA has been implicated in cellular differentiation and neoplastic transformation.  8-Azaguanine also inhibits the formation of 43S and 80S initiation complexes, thereby interferi... |
| 8-Chloroadenosine | An antimetabolite and a chlorine derivative of the purine nucleoside adenosine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, 8-chloro-adenosine is phosphorylated to form 8-chloro-adenosine triphosphate (8-chloro-ATP), which functions as a ribonucleoside analogue and competes with ATP during transcription. Therefore, this agent causes RNA synthesis inhibition, inhibits cellular proliferation, and induces apoptosis. |
| 9-Ethyl 6-Mercaptopurine | A synthetic alkyl derivative prodrug of the antineoplastic agent 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP).  In vivo, 9-ethyl 6-mercaptopurine appears to be converted to 6-MP, which substitutes for the normal nucleoside and fraudulently incorporates into DNA and inhibits de novo purine synthesis, thereby inducing cell death. (NCI04) |
| 9H-Purine-6Thio-98D | An antimetabolite analogue of purine with antineoplastic and immuno-suppressant properties.  9H-Purine-6Thio-98D substitutes for the normal nucleoside and fraudulently incorporates into DNA and inhibits de novo purine synthesis, thereby inducing cell death. In vivo, this agent, also known as 6MP-arabinoside, may occur as a metabolite of the antineoplastic agent mercaptopurine. (NCI04) |
| A2A/A2B Adenosine Receptor Antagonist INCB106385 | An orally bioavailable antagonist of both the immunomodulatory checkpoint molecules adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A) and A2B receptor (A2BR; ADORA2B), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, A2A/A2B adenosine receptor antagonist INCB106385 competes with tumor-released adenosine for binding to A2AR and A2BR expressed on numerous intra-tumoral immune cells, such as dendritic cells (DCs), natural killer (NK) cells, macrophages and T-lymphocy... |
| A2A/A2B Adenosine Receptor Antagonist YZJ-5053 | An orally bioavailable antagonist of both the immunomodulatory checkpoint molecules adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A) and A2B receptor (A2BR; ADORA2B), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, A2A/A2B adenosine receptor antagonist YZJ-5053 competes with tumor-released adenosine for binding to A2AR and A2BR expressed on numerous intra-tumoral immune cells, such as dendritic cells (DCs), natural killer (NK) cells, macrophages and T-lymphocyte... |
| A2AR Antagonist EXS21546 | An orally bioavailable immune checkpoint inhibitor and antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, A2AR antagonist EXS21546 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents tumor-released adenosine from interacting with the A2A receptors, thereby blocking the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and ac... |
| A-65 | An amide analogue of Trichostatin A studied for potential antineoplastic activity.  A-65 inhibits zinc-dependent histone deacetylase, inducing terminal cell differentiation and anti-angiogenic activity. (NCI04) |
| Abagovomab | A murine IgG1 monoclonal anti-idiotype antibody, containing a variable antigen-binding region that functionally mimics the three-dimensional structure of a specific epitope on the ovarian cancer tumor-associated antigen CA-125, with potential antineoplastic activity. With a variable antigen-binding region that acts as a surrogate antigen for CA-125, abagovomab may stimulate the host immune system to elicit humoral and cellular immune responses against CA-125-positive tumor cells, resulting in... |
| Abarelix | A synthetic decapeptide and antagonist of naturally occurring gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Abarelix directly and competitively binds to and blocks the gonadotropin releasing hormone receptor in the anterior pituitary gland, thereby inhibiting the secretion and release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). In males, the inhibition of LH secretion prevents the release of testosterone.  As a result, this may relieve symptoms associated with prostate hypert... |
| Abemaciclib | An orally available cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor that targets the CDK4 (cyclin D1) and CDK6 (cyclin D3) cell cycle pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Abemaciclib specifically inhibits CDK4 and 6, thereby inhibiting retinoblastoma (Rb) protein phosphorylation in early G1. Inhibition of Rb phosphorylation prevents CDK-mediated G1-S phase transition, thereby arresting the cell cycle in the G1 phase, suppressing DNA synthesis and inhibiting cancer cell growth. Overexpress... |
| Abemaciclib Mesylate | The mesylate salt of abemaciclib, an orally available cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor that targets the cyclin D1-CDK4 and cyclin D3-CDK6 cell cycle pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Abemaciclib specifically inhibits CDK4 and 6, thereby inhibiting retinoblastoma (Rb) protein phosphorylation in early G1. Inhibition of Rb phosphorylation prevents CDK-mediated G1-S phase transition, thereby arresting the cell cycle in the G1 phase, suppressing DNA synthesis and inhibiting c... |
| Abequolixron | An orally bioavailable agonist of the nuclear receptor liver X receptor beta (LXRbeta; NR1H2; LXR-b), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, abequolixron selectively targets and binds to LXRbeta, thereby activating LXRbeta-mediated signaling, leading to the transcription of certain tumor suppressor genes and the downregulation of certain tumor promoter genes. This particularly activates the expression of apolipoprotein E (ApoE), a tumor suppre... |
| Abexinostat | An orally bioavailable hydroxamate-based pan-inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC), with potential antineoplastic and radiosensitizing activities. Upon administration, abexinostat inhibits HDAC, resulting in an accumulation of highly acetylated histones, followed by the induction of chromatin remodeling; the selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes; and the tumor suppressor protein-mediated inhibition of tumor cell division and induction of tumor cell apoptosis. In addition, abexin... |
| Abexinostat Tosylate | The tosylate salt form of abexinostat, an orally bioavailable hydroxamate-based pan-inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC), with potential antineoplastic and radiosensitizing activities. Upon administration, abexinostat inhibits HDAC, resulting in an accumulation of highly acetylated histones, followed by the induction of chromatin remodeling; the selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes; and the tumor suppressor protein-mediated inhibition of tumor cell division and induction of tu... |
| Abipapogene Suvaplasmid | A therapeutic DNA vaccine composed of three parts, one encodes the E6/E7 fusion protein of human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 (HPV16), the second is a dimerization entity and the third part encodes a protein that specifically binds to antigen presenting cells (APCs), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration, abipapogene suvaplasmid expresses HPV16 E6/7 and a protein that targets receptors on APCs. Upon binding to APCs and subsequent int... |
| Abiraterone | A steroidal compound with antiandrogen activity. Abiraterone inhibits the enzymatic activity of steroid 17alpha-monooxygenase (17alpha-hydrolase/C17,20 lyase complex; CYP17A1), a member of the cytochrome p450 family that catalyzes the 17alpha-hydroxylation of steroid intermediates involved in testosterone synthesis. Administration of this agent may suppress testosterone production by both the testes and the adrenals to castrate-range levels. |
| Abiraterone Acetate | An orally active acetate ester form of the steroidal compound abiraterone with antiandrogen activity. Abiraterone inhibits the enzymatic activity of steroid 17alpha-monooxygenase (17alpha-hydrolase/C17,20 lyase complex), a member of the cytochrome p450 family that catalyzes the 17alpha-hydroxylation of steroid intermediates involved in testosterone synthesis. Administration of this agent may suppress testosterone production by both the testes and the adrenals to castrate-range levels. |
| Abiraterone Acetate/Niraparib | An orally bioavailable fixed dose combination agent containing the acetate ester prodrug of the steroidal compound abiraterone, an inhibitor of the cytochrome p450 (CYP) family member 17 alpha-hydroxylase/C17,20-lyase (CYP17; CYP17A1), and the tosylate monohydrate salt form of niraparib, an inhibitor of poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) types 1 and 2 (PARP-1 and -2), with anti-androgen and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of abiraterone acetate/niraparib, abiraterone acetate i... |
| Abiraterone Amorphous Solid Dispersion Formulation DST-2970 | An orally bioavailable, amorphous solid dispersion formulation of the steroidal compound abiraterone, with potential antiandrogen activity. Upon oral administration, abiraterone inhibits the enzymatic activity of steroid 17alpha-monooxygenase (17alpha-hydrolase/C17,20 lyase complex; CYP17A1), a member of the cytochrome p450 family that catalyzes the 17alpha-hydroxylation of steroid intermediates involved in testosterone synthesis. This may suppress testosterone production by both the testes a... |
| Abiraterone Decanoate | The decanoate form of abiraterone, a steroidal compound with antiandrogen activity. Abiraterone inhibits the enzymatic activity of steroid 17alpha-monooxygenase (17alpha-hydrolase/C17,20 lyase complex; CYP17A1), a member of the cytochrome p450 family that catalyzes the 17alpha-hydroxylation of steroid intermediates involved in testosterone synthesis. Administration of this agent may suppress testosterone production by both the testes and the adrenals to castrate-range levels. |
| Abiraterone Decanoate Depot | A depot formulation containing the decanoate ester of abiraterone, a steroidal compound with antiandrogen activity. Upon administration, abiraterone inhibits the enzymatic activity of steroid 17alpha-monooxygenase (17alpha-hydrolase/C17,20 lyase complex; CYP17A1), a member of the cytochrome p450 family that catalyzes the 17alpha-hydroxylation of steroid intermediates involved in testosterone synthesis. This suppresses testosterone production by both the testes and the adrenals to castrate-ran... |
| Abituzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human alpha v integrin subunit with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Abituzumab, a chimeric antibody which includes the antigen binding sites of the anti-integrin mouse antibody 17E6, binds to and inhibits the activity of alphaVbeta3 integrin (vitronectin receptor); this may result in the inhibition of endothelial cell-cell interactions, endothelial cell-matrix interactions, and integrin-mediated tumor angiogenesis an... |
| Abivertinib Maleate Anhydrous | The maleate salt form of abivertinib, an orally available, irreversible, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutant-selective inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, abivertinib covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of mutant forms of EGFR, including the drug-resistant T790M EGFR mutant, which prevents signaling mediated by mutant forms of EGFR. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-mutated tumor cells. EGFR, a recept... |
| Acai Berry Juice | A juice product obtained from the fruit of the acai palm tree (Euterpe oleracea) with anti-inflammatory, antioxidant and potential chemopreventive activities. Besides high amounts of vitamins, minerals and fatty acids, acai berry is rich in phytonutrients such as anthocyanins and flavones which are potent scavengers of reactive oxygen species. The fruit also contains high amounts of the flavone velutin which exhibits potent anti-inflammatory properties. Velutin is able to inhibit the degradat... |
| Acalabrutinib | An orally available inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, acalabrutinib inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of malignant B cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the src-related BTK/Tec family of cytoplasmic... |
| Acalisib | An inhibitor of the beta and delta isoforms of the 110 kDa catalytic subunit of class IA phosphoinositide-3 kinases (PI3K) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Acalisib inhibits the activity of PI3K, thereby preventing the production of the second messenger phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3), which decreases tumor cell proliferation and induces cell death. PI3K-mediated signaling is often dysregulated in cancer cells; the targeted inhibition of PI3K is d... |
| Acasunlimab | A recombinant, Fc-silenced immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody targeting both the human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, acasunlimab simultaneously targets and binds to 4-1BB, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes, and PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells... |
| Acazicolcept | An Fc fusion protein comprised of a human inducible T-cell costimulator ligand (ICOSL) variant immunoglobulin domain (vIgD) that binds to both inducible T-cell costimulator (ICOS; CD278) and cluster of differentiation 28 (CD28), with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, acazicolcept targets and binds to both CD28 and ICOS expressed on certain T-cells. This prevents the activation of CD28 and ICOS by its ligands, thereby blocking the two T-cell costimulatory pathways and t... |
| Aceglatone | A derivative of D-glucaro-1, 4-lactone with chemopreventive and anti-tumor activities. One of the key processes in which human body eliminates toxic chemicals as well as hormones (such as estrogen) is by glucuronidation. When beta-glucuronidase deconjugates these glucuronides, it prolongs the stay of the hormone or toxic chemical in the body. Elevated beta-glucuronidase activity has been implicated to be associated with an increased risk for hormone-dependent cancers like breast, prostate, an... |
| Acetylcysteine | A synthetic N-acetyl derivative and prodrug of the endogenous amino acid L-cysteine, a precursor of the antioxidant glutathione (GSH), with mucolytic, antioxidant, and potential cytoprotective, cancer-preventive, and anti-inflammatory activities.  Upon administration, acetylcysteine exerts its mucolytic activity by reducing disulfide bonds in mucoproteins, resulting in liquification of mucus and reducing its viscosity. It is also used for the treatment of acetaminophen overdose as it can rest... |
| Acetylglucosaminyltransferase V Inhibitor PhOx430 | An inhibitor of the glycosyltransferase N-Acetylglucosaminyltransferase V (GnT-V), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, GnT-V inhibitor PhOx430 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of GnT-V, a glycosylation enzyme that synthesizes the beta1, 6-GlcNAc branch in N-glycans. This inhibits the glycosylation of tumor cells and downregulates cell surface receptors implicated in tumor cell growth and metastasis. GnT-V and its product N-glycans, upregulated in various ty... |
| Acimtamig | A tetravalent bispecific antibody directed against human CD30 and the human low affinity IgG Fc region receptor (FCGR3A; CD16A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, acimtamig binds to the CD16A expressed on natural killer (NK) cells with two of its binding sites and to CD30 on CD30-expressing tumor cells with the other two binding sites, thereby selectively cross-linking tumor and NK cells. This may result in NK cell activation, antibody-depende... |
| Acitretin | An orally-active metabolite of the synthetic aromatic retinoic acid agent etretinate with potential antineoplastic, chemopreventive, anti-psoratic, and embryotoxic properties.  Acitretin activates nuclear retinoic acid receptors (RAR), resulting in induction of cell differentiation, inhibition of cell proliferation, and inhibition of tissue infiltration by inflammatory cells.  This agent may also inhibit tumor angiogenesis. (NCI04) |
| Acivicin | A modified amino acid and structural analog of glutamine.  Acivicin inhibits glutamine amidotransferases in the purine and pyrimidine biosynthetic pathways, thereby inhibiting tumor growth in cell lines dependent on glutamine metabolism. (NCI04) |
| Aclacinomycin B | An antineoplastic oligosaccharide anthracycline antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces galilaeus.  Aclacinomycin B intercalates into DNA and inhibits both the topoisomerase I and II enzymes, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and ultimately, interfering with RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Aclarubicin | An oligosaccharide anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces galilaeus. Aclarubicin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerases I and II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis. Aclarubicin is antagonistic to other agents that inhibit topoisomerase II, such as etoposide, teniposide and amsacrine. This agent is less cardiotoxic than doxorubicin and daunorubicin. |
| Acodazole | A synthetic imidazoquinoline with antineoplastic activity. Acodazole intercalates into DNA, resulting in disruption of DNA replication.  Use of this agent has been associated with significant cardiotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Acodazole Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of acodazole, a synthetic imidazoquinoline with antineoplastic activity. Acodazole intercalates into DNA, resulting in disruption of DNA replication.  Use of this agent has been associated with significant cardiotoxicity. |
| Acolbifene Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of acolbifene, a fourth-generation estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) with potential lipid lowering and antineoplastic activity. Acolbifene specifically binds to estrogen receptors in responsive tissue, including liver, bone, breast, and endometrium. The resulting ligand-receptor complex is translocated to the nucleus where, depending on the tissue type, it promotes or suppresses the transcription of estrogen-regulated genes, thereby exerting its agonistic or antag... |
| Acridine | A polycyclic aromatic dye with antineoplastic, antimicrobial and imaging activities. Acridine and its derivatives intercalate within DNA and RNA by forming hydrogen-bonds and stacking between base pairs resulting in DNA crosslinks and strand breaks. In addition, acridine and its derivatives are a potent inhibitor of topoisomerase II enzyme. This results in the inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis, predominantly occurring during S phase of the cell cycle and ultimately leads to cell death. |
| Acridine Carboxamide | A tricyclic acridine-based (or carboxamide-based) drug with dual topoisomerase inhibitor and potential antineoplastic activities. Acridine carboxamide inhibits both topoisomerases I and II and intercalates into DNA, resulting in DNA damage, the disruption of DNA repair and replication, the inhibition of RNA and protein synthesis, and cell death. |
| Acronine | A natural alkaloid with an acridine structure isolated from the bark of the plant Acronychia baueri (Australian scrub ash) with antineoplastic properties.  Acronycine appears to alkylate DNA and interfere with DNA replication. (NCI04) |
| ACSS2 Inhibitor MTB-9655 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the enzyme human acetyl coenzyme A synthetase short chain family member 2 (ACSS2; acetyl CoA synthetase 2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the ACSS2 inhibitor MTB-9655 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of ACSS2. This prevents acetate metabolism to acetyl-CoA which may lead to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. ACSS2, an enzyme that converts acetate to acetyl-CoA, is upregulated ... |
| Actinium Ac 225 DOTATATE RYZ101 | A radioconjugate consisting of the somatostatin analog tyrosine-3-octreotate (Tyr3-octreotate or TATE) labeled, via the macrocyclic chelating agent 1,4,7,10-tetraazacyclododecane-1,4,7,10-tetra-acetic acid (DOTA), with the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of actinium Ac 225 DOTATATE RYZ101, the TATE moiety targets and binds to SSTRs, with a much higher affinity for type 2 SSTR, present on the cell membranes of many types ... |
| Actinium Ac 225 FPI-2059 | A radioconjugate consisting of a neurotensin receptor type 1 (NTSR1)-targeting small molecule antagonist labeled with the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of actinium Ac 225 FPI-2059, the NTSR1-targeting moiety targets and binds to NTSR1 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, the radioisotope moiety delivers a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to NTSR1-expressing tumor cells. NTSR1, a G protein-coupled receptor for the t... |
| Actinium Ac 225 FPI-2068 | A radioimmunoconjugate composed of FPI-2053, a humanized bispecific antibody targeting epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; c-Met), chelated to the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA), and radiolabeled with the alpha-emitting radionuclide actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of actinium Ac 225 FPI-2068, the FPI-2053 moiety targets and binds to the extrac... |
| Actinium Ac 225 Lintuzumab | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of the humanized monoclonal antibody lintuzumab conjugated to the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225 with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of actinium Ac 225 lintuzumab specifically binds to the cell surface antigen CD33 antigen, delivering a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to cells expressing CD33. CD33 is a cell surface antigen expressed on normal non-pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells and overexpressed on myelo... |
| Actinium Ac 225 PSMA-I&T | A radioconjugate composed of PSMA-I&T, a human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting ligand that is linked via the bifunctional tmacrocyclic chelating agent 1,4,7,10-tetraazacyclododecane-1-(glutamic acid)-4,7,10-triacetic acid (DOTAGA; DOTA-GA), to the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of actinium Ac 225 PSMA-I&T, PSMA-I&T targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, the radioisotope moiet... |
| Actinium Ac 225 Rosopatamab Tetraxetan | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) labeled with the alpha particle-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac-225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, actinium Ac 225 rosopatamab tetraxetan binds to the extracellular domain of PSMA with high affinity, thereby delivering alpha radiation to PSMA expressing cells. PSMA, a type II membrane protein expressed in all types of prostatic tissue... |
| Actinium Ac 225 Vofatamab | A radioimmunoconjugate containing vofatamab, a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the fibroblast growth factor receptor type 3 (FGFR3) labeled, via a chelating agent, with the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of actinium Ac 225 vofatamab, the vofatamab moiety specifically targets and binds to FGFR3. Upon binding, the radioisotope moiety delivers a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to FGFR3... |
| Actinium Ac 225-DOTA-anti-CEA Monoclonal Antibody M5A | A radioimmunoconjugate comprised of M5A, a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 5 (CEA or CEACAM5), conjugated with the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA), and labeled with the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of actinium Ac 225-DOTA-anti-CEA monoclonal antibody M5A specif... |
| Actinium Ac 225-DOTA-Daratumumab | A radioimmunoconjugate containing daratumumab, a human immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein CD38, conjugated to the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA), and labeled with the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of actinium Ac 225-DOTA-daratumumab, the monoclonal antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to c... |
| Actinium Ac 225-DOTA-h11B6 JNJ-69086420 | A radioimmunoconjugate containing h11B6, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody that targets human kallikrein-2 (hK2), conjugated with the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA), and labeled with the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of actinium Ac 225-DOTA-h11B6 JNJ-69086420, the monoclonal antibody moiety of JNJ-69086420 targets and binds to hK2, thereby... |
| Actinium Ac 225-DOTA-MTI-201 | A radioconjugate composed of a melanocyte-stimulating hormone receptor (MSHR; melanocortin-1 receptor; MC1R; melanin-activating peptide receptor; melanotropin receptor)-targeting ligand conjugated to the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA), and labeled with the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of actinium Ac 225-DOTA-MTI-201, MT-201 targets and binds to MC1R-expressing ... |
| Actinium Ac 225-FL-020 | A radioconjugate composed of FL-020, a human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting ligand, conjugated to the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of actinium Ac 225-FL-020, FL-020 targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, the radioisotope moiety delivers a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. PSMA, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and type II transmembrane prote... |
| Actinium Ac 225-FPI-1434 | A radioconjugate consisting of veligrotug, a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against insulin-like growth factor-1 receptor (IGF-1R) linked, via a bifunctional chelate, to the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of actinium Ac 225-FPI-1434, the veligrotug moiety targets and binds to IGF-1R expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, the radioisotope moiety delivers a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to IGF-1R-expressing t... |
| Actinium Ac 225-PSMA-Trillium | A radioconjugate composed of PSMA-trillium, a human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting small molecule that is linked to an albumin-binding moiety, and conjugated to the alpha-emitting radioisotope actinium Ac 225, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, actinium Ac 225-PSMA-trillium targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, the radioisotope moiety delivers a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. PSMA, a tu... |
| Actinomycin C2 | A natural analogue of actinomycin, a chromopeptide antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterial genus Streptomyces. Actinomycin C2 inhibits DNA replication as well as RNA and protein synthesis by various mechanisms including, intercalating into the minor groove of DNA and interfering with the function of topoisomerase II. In addition, actinomycin C2 appears to block the interaction between the SH2 domain of growth factor receptor-bound protein-2 (GRB2) and the Src homology 2 domain c... |
| Actinomycin C3 | A natural analogue of actinomycin, a chromopeptide antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterial genus Streptomyces. Actinomycin C3 inhibits DNA replication as well as RNA and protein synthesis by various mechanisms such as intercalating into the minor groove of DNA and interfering with the function of topoisomerase II. |
| Actinomycin F1 | A chromopeptide antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces chrysomallus.  Actinomycin F1 intercalates into the minor groove of DNA and binds to topoisomerase II, leading to the inhibition of DNA replication and RNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Activated Marrow Infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of cells, which consists of autologous marrow infiltrating lymphocytes (MILs), that are manipulated in vitro, with potential antitumor and immune stimulating activities. MILs are harvested from autologous bone marrow from multiple myeloma patients and, in vitro, are exposed to and activated by anti-CD3/anti-CD28 monoclonal antibodies covalently attached to super-paramagnetic microbeads. After removal of the beads and expansion of the cells in culture, the activated MILs (aMILs) ... |
| Activin Type 2B Receptor Fc Fusion Protein STM 434 | A soluble fusion protein containing the extracellular domain of the activin receptor type 2B (ACVR2B or ActRIIB) fused to a human Fc domain, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, STM 434 selectively binds to the growth factor activin A, thereby preventing its binding to and the activation of endogenous ActRIIB. This prevents activin A/ActRIIB-mediated signaling and inhibits the proliferation of activin A-overexpressing tumor cells. Activin A, a member of the... |
| Acyclic Nucleoside Phosphonate Prodrug ABI-1968 | A prodrug of an acyclic nucleoside phosphonate, with potential anti-viral and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, acyclic nucleoside phosphonate prodrug ABI-1968 is taken up by viral-infected cells and converted to its active metabolite. The metabolite is incorporated into DNA chains by DNA polymerases, which results in the termination of DNA synthesis, inhibits viral replication and induces apoptosis and inhibits the proliferation of susceptible virally-infected tumor cells. |
| Acylfulvene-derived Prodrug LP-184 | A tumor-site activated acylfulvene-derived prodrug and alkylating agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, acylfulvene-derived prodrug LP-184 becomes activated by prostaglandin reductase 1 (PTGR1), an oxidoreductase that is specifically upregulated in certain tumor cell types. The active form of LP-184 covalently binds to and alkylates DNA at N3-adenine, thereby causing double strand breaks. As tumor cells often carry DNA damage repair (DDR) mutations and are theref... |
| Ad5.SSTR/TK.RGD | An RGD-4C-modified, infectivity-enhanced, bicistronic type 5 adenovirus expressing herpes simplex virus thymidine kinase (HSV-tk) gene, a therapeutic suicide gene, and the somatostatin receptor type 2 (SSTR2) gene with potential antineoplastic activity. Modification with the double cyclic peptide RGD-4C allows the virus to bind to cellular integrins, frequently expressed on the surfaces of ovarian cancer cells, instead of the coxsackie and adenovirus (CAR) receptor, which is often nonfunction... |
| Ad5-CMV-NIS | A recombinant type 5 adenovirus (Ad5), encoding the gene for the human sodium-iodide symporter (NIS) linked to the cytomegalovirus (CMV) promoter, with potential gene transfection activity. Upon intratumoral injection, Ad5-CMV-NIS is taken up by tumor cells, resulting in the cellular expression of NIS. Subsequently, orally administered iodine 131 is taken up by NIS-expressing tumor cells, which may result in the selective accumulation of a cytotoxic dose of beta and gamma radiation in non-thy... |
| Ad5F35-LMP1/LMP2-Transduced Autologous Dendritic Cells | Autologous dendritic cells (DCs) transduced with the replication-deficient adenoviral vector Ad5F53 encoding the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) transmembrane latent membrane proteins 1 and 2 (LMP1/LMP2) with potential immunostimulatory activity. Vaccination with Ad5F35-LMP1/LMP2-transduced autologous dendritic cells may stimulate a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against LMP1- and LMP2-expressing tumor positive cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis and inhibition of tumor cell prolife... |
| Ad5-SGE-REIC/Dkk-3 MTG-201 | A replication incompetent adenoviral vector type 5 (Ad5) encoding the tumor suppressor gene dickkopf-3 (DKK3; reduced expression in immortalized cells; REIC; Dickkopf WNT signaling pathway inhibitor 3), and containing the super gene expression (SGE) system, composed of the triple tandem enhancer sequences of human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT), simian virus 40 (SV40) and cytomegalovirus (CMV), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral (IT) in... |
| Ad5-survivin-transduced Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine containing autologous dendritic cells (DCs) that are transduced with a replication-deficient adenovirus type 5 vector (Ad5) encoding a mutated form of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) survivin, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, Ad5-survivin-transduced autologous DC vaccine may elicit an immune response against cancer cells expressing survivin by activating cytotoxic T-cells (CTLs). This leads to an induction of c... |
| Ad5-yCD/mutTK(SR39)rep-ADP | A second generation, replication-competent adenovirus type 5 containing a yeast cytosine deaminase(yCD)/mutant sr39 herpes simplex virus thymidine kinase fusion (yCD/mutTKsr39) gene and the 11.6 kDa adenovirus death protein (ADP) gene with potential oncolytic activity. Upon intratumoral administration and transduction of Ad5-yCD/mutTK(SR39)rep-ADP into tumor cells and subsequent expression of cytosine deaminase and viral thymidine kinase, administered prodrugs 5-fluorocytosine (5-FC) and ganc... |
| Ad5-yCD/mutTKSR39rep-hIL12 | A replication-competent oncolytic adenovirus encoding the murine pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) gene and two suicide fusion genes, a yeast cytosine deaminase (yCD) and a mutant form of herpes simplex virus type 1 thymidine kinase (HSV-1 TKSR39), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration of Ad5-yCD/mutTKSR39rep-hIL12, the adenovirus selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, which results in direct tumor cell lysis... |
| Adagloxad Simolenin | A carbohydrate-based immunostimulant comprised of the Globo H hexasaccharide 1 (Globo H) epitope linked to the immunostimulant carrier protein keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of adagloxad simolenin, the carbohydrate antigen Globo H may stimulate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against Globo H-expressing tumor cells, thereby decreasing tumor cell proliferation. Globo H is a tumor associated antigen (TAA) commonly found on a v... |
| Adagrasib | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor that targets the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration adagrasib covalently binds to cytosine 12 within the switch II pocket of GDP-bound KRAS G12C, thereby inhibiting mutant KRAS-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduct... |
| Adakitug | A human monoclonal antibody against the pro-inflammatory mediator interleukin-8 (IL-8; CXCL8), with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, adakitug directly binds to IL-8, thereby inhibiting the binding of IL-8 to its receptors CXCR1 and CXCR2. This inhibits activation of IL-8-mediated signaling transduction pathways, which decreases proliferation of susceptible tumor cells. Also, BMS-986253 effectively blocks binding of IL-8 to neutrophils and inhibits neutrophil activatio... |
| Adavosertib | A small molecule inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase WEE1 with potential antineoplastic sensitizing activity. Adavosertib selectively targets and inhibits WEE1, a tyrosine kinase that phosphorylates cyclin-dependent kinase 1 (CDK1, CDC2) to inactivate the CDC2/cyclin B complex. Inhibition of WEE1 activity prevents the phosphorylation of CDC2 and impairs the G2 DNA damage checkpoint. This may lead to apoptosis upon treatment with DNA damaging chemotherapeutic agents. Unlike normal cells, most p53... |
| AdC68 Expressing PSA/PSMA/PSCA Vaccine PF-06755992 | A prime cancer vaccine comprised of a genetically engineered, replication-deficient chimpanzee adenovirus serotype-68 (AdC68) encoding the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human prostate-specific antigen (PSA), prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and prostate stem cell antigen (PSCA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of AdC68 expressing PSA/PSMA/PSCA priming vaccine PF-06755992, the adenovirus infects and expresses PSA, PSMA and PSCA. T... |
| Adebrelimab | An immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4), humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, adebrelimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed death 1 (PD-1). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signaling and enhances th... |
| Adecatumumab | A recombinant human IgG1 monoclonal antibody (MoAb) directed against the tumor associated antigen (TAA) epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM) with potential antitumor activity. Adecatumumab binds to EpCAM, which may result in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) directed against EpCAM-expressing tumor cells. EpCAM (CD326), a cell surface protein upregulated on many tumor cell types, promotes the proliferation, migration and invasiveness of tumor cells; for some cancers, overexp... |
| Adenosine A2A Receptor Antagonist CS3005 | An orally bioavailable immune checkpoint inhibitor and antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, A2AR antagonist CS3005 selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents tumor-released adenosine from interacting with the A2A receptors, thereby blocking the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation of T-ly... |
| Adenosine A2A Receptor Antagonist DZD2269 | An immune checkpoint inhibitor and antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, A2AR antagonist DZD2269 selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents tumor-released adenosine from interacting with the A2A receptors, thereby blocking the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation of T-lymphocytes, and stim... |
| Adenosine A2A Receptor Antagonist ILB2109 | An orally bioavailable immune checkpoint inhibitor and antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, A2AR antagonist ILB2109 selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents tumor-released adenosine from interacting with the A2A receptors, thereby blocking the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation o... |
| Adenosine A2A Receptor Antagonist JNJ-86974680 | An immune checkpoint inhibitor and antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, A2AR antagonist JNJ-86974680 selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents tumor-released adenosine from interacting with the A2A receptors, thereby blocking the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation of T-lymphocytes, and... |
| Adenosine A2A Receptor Antagonist NIR178 | An orally bioavailable immune checkpoint inhibitor and antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, A2AR antagonist NIR178 selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents tumor-released adenosine from interacting with the A2A receptors, thereby blocking the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation of T-ly... |
| Adenosine A2A Receptor Antagonist TT-10 | An immune checkpoint inhibitor and antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, A2AR antagonist TT-10 selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents tumor-released adenosine from interacting with the A2A receptors, thereby blocking the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation of T-lymphocytes, and stimul... |
| Adenosine A2A Receptor Antagonist/Phosphodiesterase 10A PBF-999 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of both the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A) and phosphodiesterase 10A (PDE-10A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, A2A/PDE-10A inhibitor PBF-999 selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This blocks tumor-released adenosine from interacting with A2AR and prevents the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation of T-lymphoc... |
| Adenosine A2B Receptor Antagonist PBF-1129 | An orally bioavailable antagonist of the immunomodulatory checkpoint molecule adenosine A2B receptor (A2BR; ADORA2B), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, A2BR antagonist PBF-1129 competes with adenosine for binding to A2BR expressed on various cancer cell types and numerous immune cells, such as dendritic cells (DCs), mast cells, macrophages and lymphocytes. This inhibits A2BR activity and prevents adenosine/A2BR-mediated sign... |
| Adenosine A2B Receptor Antagonist TT-4 | An orally bioavailable antagonist of the immunomodulatory checkpoint molecule adenosine A2B receptor (A2BR; ADORA2B), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, A2BR antagonist TT-4 competes with adenosine for binding to A2BR expressed on various cancer cell types and numerous immune cells, such as dendritic cells (DCs), mast cells, macrophages and lymphocytes. This inhibits A2BR activity and prevents adenosine/A2BR-mediated sig... |
| Adenosine A2B Receptor Antagonist TT-702 | An orally bioavailable prodrug and selective antagonist of the immunomodulatory checkpoint molecule adenosine A2B receptor (A2BR; ADORA2B), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, A2BR antagonist TT-702 is converted to its active metabolite TT-478. TT-478 selectively binds to and blocks A2BR expressed on various cancer cell types and numerous immune cells, such as dendritic cells (DCs), mast cells, macrophages and lymphocytes... |
| Adenosine Axis Inhibitor | Any agent that inhibits the formation of adenosine. |
| Adenosine Receptor A2A/A2B Antagonist M1069 | An orally bioavailable antagonist of both the immunomodulatory checkpoint molecules adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A) and A2B receptor (A2BR; ADORA2B), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, adenosine A2A/A2B receptor antagonist M1069 competes with tumor-released adenosine for binding to A2AR and A2BR expressed on numerous intratumoral immune cells, such as dendritic cells (DCs), natural killer (NK) cells, macrophages and T-lymphocytes. T... |
| Adenovector Encoding MDA7 | A nonreplicating adenoviral vector (adenovector) encoding the melanoma differentiation-associated 7 gene (MDA7) with potential antineoplastic activity. After intratumoral injection and adenovector-mediated gene transfer of MDA7 into tumor cells, the expressed MDA7 transgene may inhibit tumor cell proliferation and induce tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Adenovector-transduced AP1903-inducible MyD88/CD40-expressing Autologous PSMA-specific Prostate Cancer Vaccine BPX-201 | A genetically-modified, dendritic cell-based (DCs) vaccine in which the autologous cells are transduced with an adenoviral vector expressing the tumor antigen prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and a fusion protein composed of synthetic ligand inducible adjuvant iMC composed of a drug-inducible costimulatory CD40 receptor (iCD40) and the adaptor protein MyD88, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The iCD40 contains a membrane-localized cytoplasmic CD40 domain ... |
| Adenoviral Brachyury Vaccine ETBX-051 | A therapeutic cancer vaccine composed of a replication-defective, serotype 5 adenovirus (Ad5) with the viral genes early 1 (E1), early 2b (E2b), and early 3 (E3) deleted, and the human transcription factor brachyury encoded, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, the adenoviral brachyury vaccine ETBX-051 expresses the brachyury protein. The expressed brachyury may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against ... |
| Adenoviral Cancer Vaccine PF-06936308 | A cancer vaccine composed of a replication-defective E1-deleted adenovirus vector based on chimpanzee adenovirus serotype 68 (AdC68) expressing three not yet disclosed tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination with the adenoviral cancer vaccine PF-06936308, the adenovirus infects cells and expresses the TAAs. In turn, the TAAs activate the immune system to produce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cells exp... |
| Adenoviral MUC1 Vaccine ETBX-061 | A therapeutic cancer vaccine composed of a replication-defective, serotype 5 adenovirus (Ad5) with the viral genes early 1 (E1), early 2b (E2b), and early 3 (E3) deleted, and the human glycoprotein mucin 1 (MUC1) encoded, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, the adenoviral MUC1 vaccine ETBX-061 expresses the MUC1 protein. The expressed MUC1 may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells expres... |
| Adenoviral Transduced hIL-12-expressing Autologous Dendritic Cells INXN-3001 Plus Activator Ligand INXN-1001 | Autologous dendritic cells tranduced with a replication incompetent adenovirus encoding human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) (INXN-3001) in combination with the proprietary orally bioavailable, small molecule activator ligand INXN-1001, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Production of IL-12 is controlled by an inducible DNA element that allows transcription initiation only in the presence of the ligand inducer INXN-1001. Upon intratumoral injectio... |
| Adenoviral Tumor-specific Neoantigen Priming Vaccine GAd-209-FSP | An off-the-shelf neoantigen priming vaccine comprised of a great ape adenovirus (GAd) encoding tumor-specific neoantigens (TSNAs) derived from as of yet undisclosed frameshift peptides (FSPs) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of the adenoviral tumor-specific neoantigen priming vaccine GAd-209-FSP, the adenovirus infects cells and expresses the TSNAs. This stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) r... |
| Adenoviral Vector Ad5-CEA(6D) Vaccine | A replication-defective, E1- and E2b-deleted oncolytic adenoviral serotype 5 (Ad5) encoding an epitope of human carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) with potential antineoplastic activity. Adenoviral vector Ad5-CEA(6D) vaccine expresses a highly immunogenic analogue of CEA [CAP1-(6D)]. Upon administration, this vaccine may induce both humoral and cellular immune responses against tumor cells expressing the CEA antigen, thereby resulting in the immune-mediated inhibition of tumor cell proliferation ... |
| Adenoviral Vector Encoding VEGF-C LX-1101 | A genetically engineered, replication-deficient adenovirus carrying the gene encoding for the human vascular endothelial growth factor C (VEGFC; VEGF-C; Flt4 ligand), with potential pro-angiogenic activity. Upon perinodal administration of the AdAptVEGF-C adenoviral vector LX-1101, the adenovirus infects cells and promotes expression of VEGF-C. In turn, VEGF-C induces vascular and lymphatic endothelial cell proliferation locally, and may help re-grow the lymphatic system and improve symptoms ... |
| Adenovirus 5 CEA/MUC1/Brachyury Vaccine Tri-Ad5 | A combination of three therapeutic cancer vaccines each containing a replication-defective, oncolytic adenoviral serotype 5 (Ad5) and each encoding a different tumor-associated antigen (TAA): human carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), human glycoprotein mucin 1 (MUC1), and human transcription factor brachyury, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, the Ad5 CEA/MUC1/brachyury vaccine Tri-Ad5 expresses the CEA, MUC1 and brachyury proteins. T... |
| Adenovirus 5/F35-Human Guanylyl Cyclase C-PADRE | A recombinant adenoviral serotype 5 (Ad5) in which the Ad5-based vector fiber is replaced by the fiber from the human B adenovirus serotype 35 (F35), encoding for the human guanylyl cyclase C (hGCC), and fused to the synthetic Pan DR epitope (PADRE), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon intramuscular administration of the Ad5/F35-hGCC-PADRE, the Ad5/F35 targets CD46, which is expressed widely on most tumor cells, and the virus is taken up by cells. Once inside t... |
| Adenovirus 5-Human Guanylyl Cyclase C-PADRE Vaccine | A replication-defective, recombinant adenoviral serotype 5 (Ad5) encoding human guanylyl cyclase C (hGCC) and the synthetic Pan DR epitope (PADRE), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon intramuscular administration, the Ad5-hGCC-PADRE vaccine expresses hGCC, which may induce both humoral and cellular immune responses against tumor cells expressing the hGCC antigen. This results in the immune-mediated inhibition of tumor cell proliferation, and leads to tumor deat... |
| Adenovirus B7-1 | A gene-viral vector complex comprised of an adenovirus vector and B7-1 gene targeting the CD80 antigen.  Adenovirus B7-1 is used as a component in antineoplastic vaccines to elicit a cytotoxic T-cell response. (NCI04) |
| Adenovirus Encoding Rat HER-2/neu | A replication-defective oncolytic adenovirus, encoding rat Her-2/neu (ErbB-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, adenovirus encoding rat HER-2/neu may induce an immune response against tumor cells expressing the HER-2/neu antigen, which may result in the immune-mediated inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and tumor cell death. Her-2/neu, a tumor-associated antigen and member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of tyrosine kinases, is overexpress... |
| Adenovirus Encoding Recombinant Human Endostatin | A replication-defective, recombinant oncolytic adenovirus encoding human endostatin with potential antineoplastic activity. Endostatin, a 20 kDa C-terminal proteolytic fragment of collagen XVIII, is an important angiogenesis inhibitor. Upon intratumoral administration, the adenovirus infects and replicates in tumor cells. The expressed endostatin may inhibit endothelial cell proliferation and angiogenesis which may result in a reduction of tumor growth. |
| Adenovirus Encoding Tyrosinase/MART-1/MAGEA6-transduced Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) transduced with a recombinant adenoviral vector encoding three full length human melanoma associated antigens (MAAs), tyrosinase, melan-A (MART-1) and the melanoma antigen A6 (MAGEA6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intradermal administration, adenovirus encoding tyrosinase/MART-1/MAGEA6-transduced autologous DC vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tyrosinase/MART-1/MAGEA6-p... |
| Adenovirus Expressing Mutant HPV E6/E7 | A cancer vaccine comprised of a genetically engineered, replication-deficient adenovirus encoding inactive, mutant forms of the human papillomavirus (HPV) transforming proteins E6 and E7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of adenovirus expressing mutant HPV E6/E7, the adenovirus infects and expresses the E6 and E7 proteins. The expressed E6 and E7 proteins stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response agains... |
| Adenovirus HER2-Transduced Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) transduced with a replication-deficient adenovirus vector encoding HER-2 with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, adenovirus HER2-transduced autologous dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against HER-2-positive tumor cells, which may result in tumor cell death and decreased tumor growth. HER-2, a tyrosine kinase receptor for epidermal growth factor (EGF) (also ... |
| Adenovirus Serotype 26-expressing HPV16 Vaccine JNJ-63682918 | A prime cancer vaccine comprised of a genetically engineered, replication-deficient adenovirus serotype 26 (Ad26) encoding the oncogenic human papillomavirus 16 (HPV16), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of Ad26-expressing HPV16 vaccine JNJ-63682918, the adenovirus infects and expresses HPV16. The expressed proteins stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing HP... |
| Adenovirus Serotype 26-expressing HPV18 Vaccine JNJ-63682931 | A prime cancer vaccine comprised of a genetically engineered, replication-deficient adenovirus serotype 26 (Ad26) encoding the oncogenic human papillomavirus 18 (HPV18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of Ad26-expressing HPV18 vaccine JNJ-63682931, the adenovirus infects and expresses HPV18. The expressed proteins stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing HP... |
| Adenovirus-Encoding E.coli PNP | A replication-incompetent adenovirus encoding E. coli purine nucleoside phosphorylase (Ad/PNP) used as a prodrug activating agent. Administered intratumorally, Ad/PNP expresses the enzyme PNP, which may catalyze systematically administrated fludarabine phosphate prodrug into its active form 2-fluoroadenine (F-Ade). F-Ade inhibits DNA polymerase alpha, ribonucleotide reductase and DNA primase, thereby interrupting DNA synthesis and inhibiting tumor cell growth. Localized prodrug activation pro... |
| Adenovirus-expressing TLR5/TLR5 Agonist Nanoformulation M-VM3 | A nanoparticle-based formulation containing a recombinant non-replicating adenovirus (Ad) encoding toll-like receptor 5 (TLR5) and its specific ligand protein 502S, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, the Ad preferentially and specifically infects cells expressing the Coxsackievirus and adenovirus receptor (CAR), which is highly expressed in certain human tumors, and expresses both TLR5 and a specific agonistic ligand in the same cell. 502S bind... |
| Adenovirus-mediated Human Interleukin-12 | A replication incompetent adenovirus encoding human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) (Ad.hIL-12), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, the adenovirus selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, which may result in tumor cell lysis. Synergistically, IL-12 expressed by the adenovirus may activate the immune system by promoting the activation of natural killer cells (NKs), inducing secretion of interferon-gamma an... |
| Adenovirus-mediated Human Interleukin-12 INXN-2001 Plus Activator Ligand INXN-1001 | A replication incompetent adenovirus encoding the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) (INXN-2001) in combination with the proprietary activator ligand INXN-1001, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Production of IL-12 is controlled by an inducible DNA element that allows transcription initiation only in the presence of the ligand inducer. Upon intratumoral administration of INXN-2001 and oral administration of INXN-1001, INXN-1001 is able to induc... |
| Adenovirus-p53 Transduced Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) transduced with a recombinant adenovirus encoding p53 peptide, with potential immunomodulating activity. Intradermal vaccination with adenoviral-p53 transduced dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing mutant p53, resulting in tumor cell lysis. p53, a tumor suppressor gene, is mutated in many tumor cells, resulting in the loss of apo... |
| Adenovirus-PSA Prostate Cancer Vaccine | A cancer vaccine composed of a genetically engineered, replication-deficient type 5 adenovirus carrying the human prostate-specific antigen (PSA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous vaccination with the adenovirus-PSA prostate cancer vaccine, the adenovirus infects cells and expresses PSA. In turn, PSA may activate the immune system and may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response against PSA-expressing tumor cells. PSA, a tumor associated antige... |
| Aderbasib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the ADAM (A Disintegrin And Metalloprotease) family of multifunctional membrane-bound proteins with potential antineoplastic activity. Aderbasib represses the metalloproteinase 'sheddase' activities of ADAM10 and ADAM17, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. The metalloproteinase domains of ADAMs cleave cell surface proteins at extracellular sites proximal to the cell membrane, releasing or "shedding" soluble protein etcodomains ... |
| AdGMCAIX-transduced Autologous Dendritic Cells | Autologous dendritic cells (DCs) transduced with a recombinant, replication-defective adenoviral vector expressing the fusion gene granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) and carbonic anhydrase IX (CA-IX or CA9) (GMCA-9), with potential immunomodulating activity. The autologous DCs are transduced ex vivo and express the GMCA-9 fusion protein on the cell surface. Upon intradermal administration of the AdGMCAIX-transduced autologous DCs back into the patient, the DCs activate ... |
| ADH-1 | A small, cyclic pentapeptide vascular-targeting agent with potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. ADH-1 selectively and competitively binds to and blocks N-cadherin, which may result in disruption of tumor vasculature, inhibition of tumor cell growth, and the induction of tumor cell and endothelial cell apoptosis. N-cadherin, a cell- surface transmembrane glycoprotein of the cadherin superfamily of proteins involved in calcium-mediated cell-cell adhesion and signaling mechani... |
| Ad-hCMV-Flt3L | A human serotype 5, replication-defective, first generation adenoviral vector, with the viral E1a and E3 protein encoding regions deleted, which is engineered to express the soluble, immune-mediated stimulatory gene human fms-like tyrosine kinase 3 ligand (Flt3L), under the transcriptional control of the CMV promoter, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration, Ad-hCMV-Flt3L is transduced into tumor cells and Flt3L is expressed. Flt3L stimulates both the proliferation of d... |
| Ad-hCMV-TK | A human serotype 5, replication-defective, first generation adenoviral vector, with the viral E1a and E3 protein encoding regions deleted, which is engineered to express the herpes simplex virus thymidine kinase (HSV-tk) gene under the transcriptional control of the CMV promoter. This agent, when administered in conjunction with a synthetic acyclic guanosine analogue, possesses potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration into the peritumoral region after tumor resection, adenoviral... |
| Ad-ISF35 | A replication-defective adenovirus vector (Ad-ISF35), which encodes a membrane-stabilized, chimeric human-mouse CD40 binding protein (CD40 ligand; CD40L; CD154), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, Ad-ISF135 preferentially transduces tumor cells and immunoregulatory cells in the tumor microenvironment. This increases the expression of CD154 in tumor cells, activates CD40 and stimulates signaling and immunoactivation, which are both ... |
| Ad-RTS-hIL-12 | An inducible adenoviral vector encoding human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12; IL12), which is under the transcriptional control of the RheoSwitch Therapeutic System (RTS) (Ad-RTS-hIL-12), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. RTS consists of two fusion proteins: Gal4-EcR, which contains a modified ecdysone receptor (EcR) fused with the DNA binding domain of the yeast Gal4 transcription factor, and VP16-RXR, which contains a chimeric retinoid X recepto... |
| AdRTVP-1-Transduced Prostate Cancer Cell-Based Vaccine | A cell-based vaccine comprised of prostate cancer cells transduced with an adenoviral vector encoding human RTVP-1 (AdRTVP-1), with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. RTVP-1, also referred to as glioma pathogenesis-related protein 1 (GLIP1), is down-regulated in prostate tumors. Regulated by tumor suppressor p53, the expression of RTVP-1 functions as a tumor suppressor, and is abundant in normal human prostate epithelial cells as well as in differentiated macrophages. ... |
| Ad-sig-hMUC-1/ecdCD40L Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant adenoviral vector encoding the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human MUC-1 (hMUC-1) linked to the extracellular domain (ecd) of the co-stimulatory molecule CD40 ligand (CD40L) and an adenovirus signal sequence that encodes a secretory signal peptide (Ad-sig) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Due to the presence of the secretory signal peptide expressed by Ad-sig in the vaccine construct, transfected cells may secrete a ... |
| AE37 Peptide/GM-CSF Vaccine | A vaccine containing HER2/Neu-derived epitope (amino acids 776-790) linked to li-Key peptide (li-Key/HER2/neu hybrid peptide or AE37), and combined with granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential antineoplastic and immunoadjuvant activities. Upon vaccination, AE37 may activate the immune system and stimulate T-helper cells against HER2/Neu expressing cancer cells. GM-CSF may potentiate the immune response against cancer cells expressing the HER2/Neu antigen. The... |
| Aerosol Gemcitabine | An aerosol inhalation formulation containing gemcitabine (GCB), a broad-spectrum antimetabolite and deoxycytidine analogue, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon inhalation via a nebulizer, GCB is converted intracellularly by deoxycytidine kinase to its active metabolites difluorodeoxycytidine di- and triphosphate (dFdCDP, dFdCTP). dFdCDP inhibits ribonucleotide reductase (RNR), thereby decreasing the deoxynucleotide pool available for DNA synthesis; dFdCTP competes with deoxycytidine ... |
| Aerosolized Aldesleukin | An aerosol formulation of aldesleukin, a recombinant form of interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon IL-2 inhalation, this cytokine activates lymphokine-activated killer cells and natural killer cells, and induces expression of cytotoxic cytokines, such as interferon-gamma and transforming growth factor-beta. This may eventually halt tumor cell growth. Localized administration of IL-2 may decrease toxicity and increase efficacy. |
| Aerosolized Liposomal Rubitecan | An aerosolized liposomal preparation of rubitecan, a water-insoluble derivative of camptothecin with potential antineoplastic activity. Rubitecan (or 9-nitro-20 (S)-camptothecin) and its active metabolite 9-aminocamptothecin (9-AC) selectively stabilize topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes during S-phase, thereby inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-strand DNA breaks and producing potentially lethal double-strand DNA breaks when encountered by the DNA replication machine... |
| Afamitresgene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding an affinity-enhanced T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted peptide human melanoma antigen A4 (MAGE-A4) C1032, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, afamitresgene autoleucel targets and binds to tumor cells expressing MAGE-A4. This r... |
| Afatinib | An orally bioavailable anilino-quinazoline derivative and inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) epidermal growth factor receptor (ErbB; EGFR) family, with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, afatinib selectively and irreversibly binds to and inhibits the epidermal growth factor receptors 1 (ErbB1; EGFR), 2 (ErbB2; HER2), and 4 (ErbB4; HER4), and certain EGFR mutants, including those caused by EGFR exon 19 deletion mutations or exon 21 (L858R) mutations. This may result in ... |
| Afatinib Dimaleate | The dimaleate salt form of afatinib, an orally bioavailable anilino-quinazoline derivative and inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) epidermal growth factor receptor (ErbB; EGFR) family, with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, afatinib selectively and irreversibly binds to and inhibits the epidermal growth factor receptors 1 (ErbB1; EGFR), 2 (ErbB2; HER2), and 4 (ErbB4; HER4), and certain EGFR mutants, including those caused by EGFR exon 19 deletion mutations or exon 21 (... |
| Afeletecan Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of afeletecan, a water-soluble camptothecin derivative conjugated to a carbohydrate moiety exhibiting antineoplastic activity. Afeletecan stabilizes the topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complex and forms an enzyme-drug-DNA ternary complex. As a consequence of the formation of this complex, both the initial cleavage reaction and religation steps are inhibited and subsequent collision of the replication fork with the cleaved strand of DNA results in inhibition of DNA rep... |
| Afimoxifene | A tamoxifen metabolite with both estrogenic and anti-estrogenic effects.  Afimoxifene has a higher affinity for the estrogen receptor than tamoxifen, and functions as an antagonist in breast cancer cells. |
| AFP Gene Hepatocellular Carcinoma Vaccine | A cancer vaccine composed of naked plasmid DNA of the gene for the tumor-associated antigen alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), a macromolecule that acts as a specific immunologic target for hepatocellular carcinoma. This agent exerts an antitumor effect by inducing cytotoxic T-lymphocytes to attack AFP-expressing tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Afuresertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B) with potential antineoplastic activity. Afuresertib binds to and inhibits the activity of Akt, which may result in inhibition of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway and tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. Activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis and dysregulated PI3K/Akt signaling may contribute to tumor resistance to a varie... |
| Agaricus blazei Murill Extract | A dietary supplement containing an extract of the Basidiomycete fungus Agaricus blazei Murill with potential chemopreventive, antineoplastic and immunopotentiating activities. Agaricus blazei Murill extract contains high levels of phytochemicals, especially beta-D-glucans. Beta-D-glucans may promote dendritic cell (DC) maturation; increase interferon gamma (IFN-gamma), tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) and immunoglobulin levels; and may enhance natural killer (NK) cell activity, potenti... |
| Agatolimod Sodium | The tricosasodium salt of a synthetic 24-mer oligonucleotide containing 3 CpG motifs with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulatory activity. Agatolimod selectively targets Toll-like receptor 9 (TLR9), thereby activating dendritic and B cells and stimulating cytotoxic T cell and antibody responses against tumor cells bearing tumor antigens. |
| Agerafenib | An orally available v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (B-raf) serine/threonine protein kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Agerafenib specifically and selectively inhibits the activity of the mutated form (V600E) of B-raf kinase. This inhibits the activation of the RAF/mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK)/extracellular signal-related kinase (ERK) signaling pathway and may result in a decrease in the proliferation of tumor cells expressing the mutated... |
| Aglatimagene Besadenovec | An adenoviral vector engineered to express the herpes simplex virus thymidine kinase (HSV-tk) gene, which, when administered in conjunction with a synthetic acyclic guanosine analogue, possesses potential antineoplastic activity. Aglatimagene besadenovec is transduced into tumor cells, sensitizing tumor cells that overexpress HSV-tk to synthetic acyclic guanosine analogues. Subsequently, a low dose of a synthetic acyclic guanosine analogue such as valacyclovir (VCV) or ganciclovir (GCV) is gi... |
| Agonistic Anti-OX40 Monoclonal Antibody INCAGN01949 | An agonistic human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody that recognizes the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, agonistic anti-OX40 monoclonal antibody INCAGN01949 selectively binds to and activates OX40 on activated T-cells, thereby potentiating T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling. OX40 activation inhibits regulatory T-cell (Treg)-mediated suppression of effector T-cells, induces the prolifera... |
| Agonistic Anti-OX40 Monoclonal Antibody MEDI6469 | An agonistic monoclonal antibody against the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-OX40 monoclonal antibody MEDI6469 selectively binds to and activates OX40. OX40 activation induces proliferation of effector T-lymphocytes. In the presence of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), this may promote an immune response against the TAA-expressing tumor cells. OX40, a cell surface glycoprotein and membe... |
| AhR Inhibitor DA-4505 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AhR; class E basic helix-loop-helix protein 76; bHLHe76), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, AhR inhibitor DA-4505 specifically targets and binds to AhR, inhibits AhR activation, prevents AhR-mediated signaling, and AhR-dependent tumor cell proliferation. Abrogation of AhR activation prevents the activation of immune-tolerant dendritic cells (DCs), regulatory... |
| AIM2(-1)/HT001(-1)/TAF1B(-1) Frameshift Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing the three frame shift peptides (FSP) AIM2(-1), HT001(-1) and TAF1B(-1), with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, the AIM2(-1)/HT001(-1)/TAF1B(-1) FSP vaccine may induce an immune response against microsatellite instability (MSI) colorectal cancer-associated antigens. Frame shift mutations of AIM2 (absent in melanoma 2, an interferon-inducible protein), HT001 (asteroid homolog 1 or ASTE1, with an unknown function) and TAF1B (TATA box-binding pr... |
| AKR1C3-activated Prodrug AST-3424 | A small-molecule nitro-benzene, aldo-keto reductase 1C3 (AKR1C3)-activated prodrug of N,N'-bisethylenephosphoramidate, a DNA bis-alkylating agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, AKR1C3-activated prodrug AST-3424 is converted to its active form by AKR1C3, which is upregulated in certain tumor cell types while not expressed in normal healthy cells. The active metabolite selectively binds to and alkylates DNA in AKR1C3-overexpressing tumor cells, resulti... |
| AKT 1/2 Inhibitor BAY1125976 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase AKT (protein kinase B) isoforms 1 and 2 (AKT1/2) with potential antineoplastic activity. AKT1/2 inhibitor BAY1125976 selectively binds to and inhibits the phosphorylation and activity of AKT1/2 in a non-ATP competitive manner, which may result in the inhibition of the phosphatidylinositol 3 (PI3K)/AKT/mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) signaling pathway. This may lead to both the reduction of cell proliferation and the ... |
| Akt Inhibitor LY2780301 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B) with potential antineoplastic activity. Akt inhibitor LY2780301 binds to and inhibits the activity of Akt, which may result in inhibition of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway, thereby leading to inhibition of cell proliferation and the induction of apoptosis in tumor cells. Activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis and dysregulated PI3K/Akt signaling may c... |
| Akt Inhibitor MK2206 | An orally bioavailable allosteric inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B) with potential antineoplastic activity. Akt inhibitor MK2206 binds to and inhibits the activity of Akt in a non-ATP competitive manner, which may result in the inhibition of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway and tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. Activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis and dysregulated PI3K/Akt... |
| Akt Inhibitor NTQ1062 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Akt inhibitor NTQ1062 targets, competitively binds to and inhibits the activity of Akt, which may result in the inhibition of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway, thereby leading to the inhibition of cell proliferation and the induction of apoptosis in tumor cells. Activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway is frequently associated with... |
| Akt Inhibitor SR13668 | An orally bioavailable indole-3-carbinol (I3C) analogue inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B) with potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. Akt inhibitor SR13668 binds to and inhibits the activity of Akt, which may result in inhibition of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway and tumor cell proliferation, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. Activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis and dysregulated... |
| AKT/RSK/S6K Inhibitor TAS0612 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinases AKT (protein kinase B), 90S ribosome S6 kinase (p90RSK; RSK) and 70S ribosome S6 kinase (p70S6K; S6K), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AKT/RSK/S6K inhibitor TAS0612 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of AKT, p90RSK and p70S6K. This inhibits both the AKT/mTOR/p70S6K and RAS/RAF/MEK/p90RSK signaling pathways and prevents the phosphorylation, nuclear translocation, and activation of the t... |
| Akt-1 Antisense Oligonucleotide WGI-0301 | A lipid nanoparticle preparation of archexin, a 20-mer antisense (AS) oligodeoxynucleotide (ODN) against the proto-oncogene Akt, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of AS ODN WGI-0301, archexin binds to Akt-1 mRNA, inhibiting translation of the transcript. Suppression of Akt-1 expression may result in the inhibition of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K)/Akt-mediated signaling. This may inhibit proliferation and induce apoptosis of tumor cells in which Akt-1 is ov... |
| AKT1 E17K Inhibitor ALTA2618 | An orally bioavailable covalent inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase AKT (protein kinase B; v-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1) isoform 1 mutation AKT1 E17K, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AKT1 E17K inhibitor ALTA2618 targets, allosterically binds to and inhibits AKT1 E17K. This may inhibit growth of and induce apoptosis in AKT1 E17K-driven cancers. AKT1 E17K, overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, drives cancer cell prolifer... |
| Akt-1/2 Inhibitor-treated Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes | Autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) harvested directly from the infiltrate of a patient's tumor and treated with an inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinases Akt-1 and -2 (Akti-1/2) during ex vivo expansion, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the Akti-1/2-treated TILs recognize and kill cancer cells. Akt inhibition promotes the immunologic memory of the TILs and enhances their expansion, in vivo long-term persistence and antitumor activity. |
| Alacizumab Pegol | A pegylated, cross-linked, humanized divalent-Fab' antibody fragment directed against vascular endothelial growth factor receptor-2 (VEGFR-2) with potential antiangiogenic and antitumor activities. Alacizumab pegol binds to and inhibits VEGFR-2, which may inhibit angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. Multivalent Fab' antibody fragments may exhibit improved retention and internalization properties compared to their parent IgGs. |
| Alanosine | An amino acid analogue and antibiotic derived from the bacterium Streptomyces alanosinicus with antimetabolite and potential antineoplastic activities. L-alanosine inhibits adenylosuccinate synthetase, which converts inosine monophospate (IMP) into adenylosuccinate, an intermediate in purine metabolism. L-alanosine-induced disruption of de novo purine biosynthesis is potentiated by methylthioadenosine phosphorylase (MTAP) deficiency. The clinical use of this agent may be limited by its toxici... |
| Albumin-binding Cisplatin Prodrug BTP-114 | A proprietary, albumin-binding platinum (Pt)-based complex containing a prodrug form of the platinum compound cisplatin and a maleimide moiety, with an ability to strongly and selectively bind human serum albumin (HSA), and with potential antineoplastic activity.  Upon intravenous administration, the maleimide group of BTP-114 rapidly conjugates with HSA in the bloodstream; this prolongs the blood circulation, enhances the half-life, and alters the biodistribution of BTP-114, as compared to c... |
| ALC1 Inhibitor EIS-12656 | An orally bioavailable allosteric inhibitor of the chromatin remodeling enzyme chromodomain-helicase-DNA-binding protein 1-like (CHD1L; amplified in liver cancer 1; ALC1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ALC1 inhibitor EIS-12656 selectively targets, allosterically binds to and inhibits the activity of ALC1, thereby preventing ALC1/poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP)-mediated repair of DNA breaks in tumor cells. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand brea... |
| Alcestobart | A monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory receptor lymphocyte-activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, alcestobart targets and binds to LAG-3 expressed by tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks the interaction between LAG-3 and major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC II) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and tumor cells. This prevents the ne... |
| Aldastotug | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the immune checkpoint molecule sialic acid-binding immunoglobulin (Ig)-like lectin 15 (Siglec-15; SIGLEC15; S15; CD33L3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, antineoplastic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon administration, aldastotug targets and binds to S15 on the surface of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) and certain tumor cells. Binding to S15 may disrupt TAM-mediated activities such as promotion of tumor initiation and metastasis ... |
| Aldesleukin | A recombinant analog of the endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) with immunoregulatory and antineoplastic activities. Aldesleukin binds to and activates the IL-2 receptor, followed by heterodimerization of the cytoplasmic domains of the IL-2R beta and gamma(c) chains; activation of the tyrosine kinase Jak3; and phosphorylation of tyrosine residues on the IL-2R beta chain, resulting in an activated receptor complex. Various cytoplasmic signaling molecules are recruited to the activated rec... |
| ALDH Inhibitor NYH817G and Mitochondrial Complex 1 Inhibitor NYH100P | An orally bioavailable combination agent composed of the aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH) inhibitor NYH817G and the mitochondrial complex 1 (NADH-ubiquinone oxidoreductase) inhibitor NYH100P, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of ALDH inhibitor NYH817G and mitochondrial complex 1 inhibitor NYH100P, NYH817G targets and binds to ALDH, and prevents the formation of NADH. It also inhibits lactate dehydrogenase A (LDH-A), thereby preventing lactate formation from pyruvat... |
| ALDH1/3 Inhibitor ABD-3001 | A suicidal inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenases 1 (ALDH1) and 3 (ALDH3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ALDH1/3 inhibitor ABD-3001 targets, binds to and irreversibly inhibits the activity of ALDH1 and ALDH3. This results in the accumulation of reactive aldehydes in tumor cells, which interferes with oncogenic signaling pathways and tumor cell proliferation. In addition, the inhibition of ALDH1 and ALDH3 disrupts glutathione redox balance in tumor cells, leading t... |
| Aldoxorubicin | A 6-maleimidocaproyl hydrazone derivative prodrug of the anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin (DOXO-EMCH) with antineoplastic activity. Following intravenous administration, aldoxorubicin binds selectively to the cysteine-34 position of albumin via its maleimide moiety. Doxorubicin is released from the albumin carrier after cleavage of the acid-sensitive hydrazone linker within the acidic environment of tumors and, once located intracellularly, intercalates DNA, inhibits DNA synthesis, and in... |
| Alectinib | An orally available inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, alectinib binds to and inhibits ALK kinase, ALK fusion proteins as well as the gatekeeper mutation ALKL1196M known as one of the mechanisms of acquired resistance to small-molecule kinase inhibitors. The inhibition leads to disruption of ALK-mediated signaling and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in ALK-overexpressing tumor cells. ALK belongs t... |
| Alefacept | A recombinant dimeric fusion protein consisting of the extracellular CD2-binding domain of the human leukocyte function-associated antigen 3 (LFA-3; CD58) linked to the Fc portion of human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) with potential immunosuppressive activity. Alefacept binds to the CD2 receptor expressed on the majority of T lymphocytes, blocking the binding of endogenous LFA-3, located on antigen-presenting cells (APCs), to the CD2 receptor; the activation and proliferation of T lymphocytes in ... |
| Alemtuzumab | A recombinant DNA-derived humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein, CD52. Alemtuzumab is an IgG1 kappa with human variable framework and constant regions, and complementarity-determining regions derived from a rat monoclonal antibody. This agent selectively binds to CD52, thereby triggering a host immune response that results in lysis of CD52 + cells. CD52 is a glycoprotein expressed on the surface of essentially all normal and malignant B and T cells, a ma... |
| Alestramustine | The l-alanine ester form of estramustine, a combination of the nitrogen mustard normustine coupled via a carbamate to estradiol, with antineoplastic activity. Upon conversion of alestramustine to estramustine, estramustine binds to microtubule-associated proteins (MAPs) and beta tubulin, thereby interfering with microtubule dynamics and leading to microtubule disassembly and cell cycle arrest. Due to the estrogen moiety, this agent is able to selectively bind to and be taken up by estrogen re... |
| Alextatug | An engineered, human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against a ribonucleoprotein (RNP) complex, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, alextatug targets and binds to its RNP complex antigen on tumor cells. This may activate the innate immune system, change the local tumor microenvironment (TME) and promote T cell-mediated killing of tumor cells. The tumor-restricted RNP complex is expressed in a variety of tumor cells. |
| Alflutinib Mesylate | The mesylate salt form of alflutinib, an orally available selective inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutant form T790M, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, alflutinib specifically binds to and inhibits the tyrosine kinase activity of EGFR T790M, a secondarily acquired resistance mutation. This prevents EGFR T790M-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR T790M-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase that is mutated in ... |
| Algenpantucel-L | A cancer vaccine comprised of irradiated allogeneic pancreatic cancer cells transfected to express murine alpha-1,3-galactosyltransferase with potential antitumor activity. Vaccination is associated with the expression of murine alpha-1,3-galactosyl (alpha-gal) carbohydrate residues on cell membrane glycoproteins and glycolipids of the vaccine pancreatic cancer cell allograft; murine alpha-gal epitopes, not present on human cells, then induce a hyperacute rejection of the vaccine pancreatic c... |
| Alintegimod | An orally bioavailable, allosteric, small molecule activator of integrin cell adhesion receptors very late antigen-4 (VLA-4; integrin alpha4/beta1) and lymphocyte function-associated antigen-1 (LFA-1; integrin alphaL/beta2), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, alintegimod activates VLA-4 and LFA-1 expressed on the surface of leukocytes, thereby promoting the VLA-4- and LFA-1-mediated adhesion of leukocytes to counter-receptors vascular cell... |
| Alisertib | A second-generation, orally bioavailable, highly selective small molecule inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Aurora A kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Alisertib binds to and inhibits Aurora A kinase, which may result in disruption of the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus, disruption of chromosome segregation, and inhibition of cell proliferation. Aurora A kinase localizes to the spindle poles and to spindle microtubules during mitosis, and is thought to reg... |
| Alitretinoin | An orally- and topically-active naturally-occurring retinoic acid with antineoplastic, chemopreventive, teratogenic, and embryotoxic activities. Alitretinoin binds to and activates nuclear retinoic acid receptors (RAR) and retinoid X receptors (RXR); these activated receptors act as transcription factors, regulating gene expression that results in the inhibition of cell proliferation, induction of cell differentiation, and apoptosis of both normal cells and tumor cells. |
| ALK Inhibitor ASP3026 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ASP3026 binds to and inhibits ALK tyrosine kinase, ALK fusion proteins and ALK point mutation variants. Inhibition of ALK leads to the disruption of ALK-mediated signaling and the inhibition of cell growth in ALK-expressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin receptor superfamily and plays an important role in ner... |
| ALK Inhibitor NVL-655 | An orally bioavailable, brain-penetrant, selective small molecule inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ALK inhibitor NVL-655 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits ALK fusion proteins and activating mutations, including the acquired resistance mutations solvent front mutation (SFM) G1202R and the compound mutations G1202R/L1196M and G1202R/G1269A. The inhibition of ALK leads to ... |
| ALK Inhibitor PLB 1003 | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PLB1003 selectively binds to and inhibits wild-type ALK, ALK fusion proteins and ALK point mutation variants. Inhibition of ALK leads to the disruption of ALK-mediated signaling and inhibits tumor cell growth in ALK-expressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin receptor superfamily and plays an important role in n... |
| ALK Inhibitor TAE684 | A small molecule inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and nucleophosmin-anaplastic lymphoma kinase (NPM-ALK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, TAE684 binds to and inhibits ALK and NPM-ALK tyrosine kinases, which leads to a disruption of ALK- and NPM-ALK mediated signaling and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in ALK- and NPM-ALK overexpressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin receptor superfamily and plays an... |
| ALK Peptide Vaccine | A peptide cancer vaccine directed against the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ALK peptide vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against ALK-expressing tumor cells. ALK dysregulation and gene rearrangements are associated with a variety of tumor cell types. |
| ALK/c-Met Inhibitor TQ-B3139 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and hepatocyte growth factor receptor (c-Met; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TQ-B3139 binds to and inhibits the activity of ALK and c-Met, which leads to the disruption of ALK- and c-Met-mediated signaling and the inhibition of cell growth in ALK- and c-Met-expressing tumor cells. ALK and c-Met, overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell ty... |
| ALK/FAK/Pyk2 Inhibitor CT-707 | An orally available inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), focal adhesion kinase (FAK) and proline-rich tyrosine kinase 2 (Pyk2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ALK/FAK/Pyk2 inhibitor CT-707 selectively binds to and inhibits ALK , FAK and Pyk2. The inhibition leads to disruption of ALK- , FAK- and Pyk2-mediated signal transduction pathways and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in ALK-, FAK- and Pyk2-overexpressing tumor ce... |
| ALK/ROS1 Inhibitor XZP-3621 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and c-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ALK/ROS1 inhibitor XZP-3621 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of ALK and ROS1, which leads to the disruption of ALK- and ROS1-mediated signaling and the inhibition of cell growth in ALK- and ROS1-expressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin receptor superfamily and plays an important ro... |
| ALK/TRK Inhibitor TSR-011 | An orally available inhibitor of both the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and the tropomyosin-related kinases (TRK) TRKA, TRKB, and TRKC, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ALK/TRK inhibitor TSR-011 binds to and inhibits both ALK and TRK kinases. The inhibition leads to disruption of ALK- and TRK-mediated signaling and impedes tumor cell growth in ALK/TRK-overexpressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin receptor superfamily and plays a... |
| ALK-FAK Inhibitor CEP-37440 | An orally available dual kinase inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and focal adhesion kinase (FAK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ALK-FAK inhibitor CEP-37440 selectively binds to and inhibits ALK kinase and FAK kinase. The inhibition leads to disruption of ALK- and FAK-mediated signal transduction pathways and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in ALK- and FAK-overexpressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin recep... |
| Alkotinib | An orally available inhibitor of multiple kinases, including the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and c-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, alkotinib binds to and inhibits the wild-type, point mutations and fusion proteins of ALK and ROS1. Inhibition of these kinases leads to the disruption of downstream signaling pathways and the inhibition of proliferation in tumor cells which these kinases are overexpressed, rear... |
| Alkylglycerol/Rosemary Capsules | An orally available capsule containing alkylglycerols and Rosmarinus officinalis extracts standardized to diterpenes, including carnosic acid and carnosol, with potential antineoplastic and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon administration, carnosic acid and carnosol may induce apoptosis by decreasing apoptosis regulator B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2) expression, decrease tumor cell growth through inhibition of mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) phosphorylation, and inhibit metastatic activity b... |
| Allitinib | An orally bioavailable and irreversible inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) epidermal growth factor receptors 1 (EGFR; ErbB1) and 2 (ErbB2; HER2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, allitinib selectively and irreversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of both EGFR and HER2, which prevents signaling mediated by EGFR and HER2. This may inhibit tumor growth and angiogenesis in tumor cells overexpressing these RTKs. EGFR and HER2 are RTKs th... |
| Allodepleted T Cell Immunotherapeutic ATIR101 | A cell-based immunotherapeutic product containing T-lymphocyte-enriched leukocytes that are devoid of alloreactive T-lymphocytes, that can potentially be used to restore lymphocyte levels after stem cell transplantations and are derived from partially matched (haploidentical) family donors for blood cancer patients who do not have a matching stem cell donor available. Host alloreactive T-cells, which can cause graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), are eliminated from the donor lymphocytes ex vivo... |
| Allogeneic AML Antigen-expressing Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of allogeneic, immortalized dendritic precursor cells derived from a patient with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon ex vivo stimulation and expansion of the precursor cells into mature, fully functional dendritic cells (DCs) and subsequent administration, the allogeneic AML antigen-expressing DC vaccine may elicit a potent cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) and antibody response against AML antigen-expressing... |
| Allogeneic Anti-B7-H3 CAR Gamma Delta T-cells QH104 | A preparation of a subset of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that express only gamma chain and delta chain T-cell receptors (TCRs) and that are engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the immunoregulatory protein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-B7-H3 CAR gamma delta T-cells QH104 target and bind to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells, thereby induci... |
| Allogeneic Anti-BCMA CAR T Cells ALLO-605 | A preparation of allogeneic, transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered, gene-edited T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and engineered to express a constitutively active chimeric cytokine receptor (CACCR), with potential immunostimulating and antineop... |
| Allogeneic Anti-BCMA CAR T Cells P-BCMA-ALLO1 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation composed of human allogeneic T-cells and containing primarily stem cell memory T-cells (Tscm) that are transfected by electroporation with a proprietary transposon-based DNA plasmid vector (PiggyBac; PB) encoding for an undisclosed drug selection gene encoding for a selectable marker to generate close to 100% CAR-based product, a caspase-based safety switch to reduce or eliminate the product in vivo if needed, and a B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor nec... |
| Allogeneic Anti-BCMA CAR-transduced T-cells ALLO-715 | A preparation of allogeneic, 'off-the-shelf' (OTS), universal transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered, gene-edited T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from a monoclonal antibody specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immu... |
| Allogeneic Anti-BCMA/CS1 Bispecific CAR-T Cells | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting both the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17) and human CS1 (CD2 subset 1; SLAM family member 7; SLAMF7; CD319; CRACC), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-BCMA/CS1 bispecific CAR-T cells target and bind to tumor cells expressing BCMA and/or CS1 and induce ... |
| Allogeneic Anti-BCMA-CAR T-cells PBCAR269A | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf, T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified using a proprietary synthetic nuclease-based system to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-BCMA-CAR T-cells PBCAR269A specifically recognize and kill BCM... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD123 CAR-NK Cells JD123 | A preparation of off-the-shelf (OTS), allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain (IL3RA; cluster of differentiation 123; CD123), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD123 CAR-NK cells JD123 recognize, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in CD123-expressing tumor cells. CD123 is normally ... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD19 CAR Double-negative T Cells RJMty19 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) cell preparation composed of healthy, donor-derived CD4 and CD8 double-negative T-lymphocytes (DNTs) that are transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a humanized chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-CD19 CAR DNTs RJMty19 specifically targets and binds to tumor cells expressing CD19. This induces selective toxi... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD19 CAR T-cells ATA3219 | A preparation of allogeneic human Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-sensitized T-lymphocytes that have been engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19), with a modified CD3zeta signaling domain 1xx, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD19 CAR T-cells ATA3219 recognize and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxici... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD19 CAR T-cells PBCAR19B | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 (cluster of differentiation 19), a single short hairpin RNA (shRNA) that disrupts the expression of beta-2 microglobulin (B2M) component of the class 1 major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules, and a HLA-E gene, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD19 CAR-gamma/delta T-cells QH103 | A preparation of a subset of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that express only gamma chain and delta chain T-cell receptors (TCRs) and that are engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD19 CAR-gamma/delta T-cells QH103 target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. Ga... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD19 CAR-NK Cells QN-019a | A preparation of allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-CD19 CAR-NK cells QN-019a recognize, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen overexpressed in B-cell lineage maligna... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD19 Gamma-delta CAR-T Cells UTAA09 | A preparation of a subset of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that express only gamma chain and delta chain T-cell receptors (TCRs) and that are transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD19 gamma-delta CAR-T cells UTAA09 specifically target and bind to tumor cells expressing CD19, thereby inducing selective toxi... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD19 T-cells ThisCART19A | A preparation of allogeneic engineered T-lymphocytes expressing a lentiviral vector encoding chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and an anti-CD3 single chain antibody with the KDEL peptide fused to its C-terminus, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD19 CAR T-cells ThisCART19A specifically target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby selectively lysing CD19-expressing tum... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD19 Universal CAR-T Cells CTA101 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), universal, gene-edited T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD19 universal CAR-T cells CTA101 specifically target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby selectively lysing CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen overexpr... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD19/CD22 CAR-BBz T-cells | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a bivalent lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) CD19 and CD22, linked to the co-stimulatory domain 4-1BB (CD137) coupled to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (TCRzeta; CD247; CD3zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-CD19/CD22 CAR-BBz T-cells bind to and induce selective ... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD19-CAR-CD28-IL-15-expressing Natural Killer T-cells | A preparation of allogeneic natural killer T-lymphocytes (NKTs) that have been engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor associated antigen (TAA) CD19, interleukin 15 (IL-15) and the costimulatory T-cell-specific surface glycoprotein CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD19-CAR-CD28-IL-15-expressing NKTs target, bind to, and induce selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD20 CAR T Cells LUCAR-20SP | A preparation of donor-derived T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 20 (CD20), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD20 CAR T-cells LUCAR-20SP specifically recognize and kill CD20-expressing tumor cells. CD20, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein, is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen ex... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD20 CAR T-cells LUCAR-20S | A preparation of donor-derived T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20 (cluster of differentiation 20), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD20 CAR T-cells LUCAR-20S specifically recognize and kill CD20-expressing tumor cells. The CD20 antigen, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein, is a B-cell specific cell surface... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD20/CD22 Universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UCART20x22 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), universal transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) specific for the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 20 (CD20) and CD22, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Using TALEN technology, the T-cell receptor (TCR) alpha chain (TRAC) and CD52 genes are inactivated. Upon administr... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD20-CAR T-cells PBCAR20A | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), T-lymphocytes, derived from healthy donors, that have been genetically modified using a proprietary synthetic endonuclease-based system to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20 (cluster of differentiation 20), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD20-CAR T-cells PBCAR20A specifically recognize and kill CD20-expressing tumor ce... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD30 CAR-Epstein-Barr Virus-specific T-lymphocytes | A preparation of allogeneic human Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-specific T-lymphocytes (EBVSTs) that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) recognizing the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 30 (CD30), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD30 CAR-EBVSTs specifically recognize and bind to CD30-expressing EBV-infected tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. CD30, a cell su... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD33 CAR NK Cells | A preparation of off-the-shelf natural killer (NK) cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the cluster of differentiation 33 (CD33) antigen, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-CD33 CAR NK cells target and bind to CD33 expressed on the surface of tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing CD33. CD33 is expressed on normal non-pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells ... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD33 CAR T-cells VCAR33 | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes, derived from the same matched healthy donor who provided a stem cell transplant and transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the CD33 antigen, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD33 CAR T-cells VCAR33 specifically recognize and kill CD33-expressing tumor cells. CD33 is expressed on normal non-pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells and ... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD33 CAR-NK Cells QN-023a | A preparation of off-the-shelf (OTS), allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells, derived from genetically engineered human induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs), that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 33 (CD33), and containing a high-affinity, non-cleavable CD16 (hnCD16) to enhance antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC), an interleukin-15 (IL-15) molecule to increase the ... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD38 DAR-T Cells STI-1492 | A preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes that are gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to disrupt the expression of endogenous T-cell receptor (TCR) alpha and to express a dimeric antigen receptor (DAR) composed of a fragment antigen-binding variable region (Fab) recognizing the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 38 (CD38), linked to the intracellular signaling domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and t... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD5 CAR T Cells | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for CD5, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-CD5 CAR T cells target and bind to CD5-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective cytotoxicity in CD5-expressing tumor cells. CD5 is a T-cell surface glycoprotein expressed on the surface of normal T-cells and overexpressed on various B- and T-... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD5 CAR-CD28zeta T-lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified allogeneic T-cells expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against cluster of differentiation 5 (CD5) and linked to the co-stimulatory signaling domains CD28 and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (CD28zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-CD5 CAR-CD28zeta T-lymphocytes target and bind to CD5-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective cytotoxicity ... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD5-IL-15/IL-15sushi-safety Switch CAR T Cells | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a humanized anti-CD5 single chain variable fragment (scFv) domain linked to a interleukin (IL)-15/IL-15sushi domain and a safety switch, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-CD5-IL-15/IL-15sushi-safety switch CAR T cells target and bind to CD5-expressing tumor cells, thereby i... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD7 CAR T Cells | A preparation of donor-derived T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the allogeneic anti-CD7 CAR T cells specifically recognize and bind to CD7-expressing tumor cells, resulting in specific T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis. CD7 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed by T-cells and... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD7 CAR T Cells 4SCAR7U | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), universal, gene-edited T-lymphocytes expressing a fourth-generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD7 CAR T cells 4SCAR7U specifically target and kill CD7-expressing tumor cells. CD7 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed by T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells and their precursors. It ... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD7 CAR-T Cells BEAM-201 | A preparation of off-the-shelf (OTS) donor-derived T-lymphocytes that have been multiplex base-edited and transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD7 CAR-T cells BEAM-201 specifically target and kill CD7-expressing tumor cells. CD7 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed by T-cells and natural k... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD7 CAR-T Cells WU-CART-007 | A preparation of off-the-shelf (OTS) donor-derived T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the allogeneic anti-CD7 CAR-T cells WU-CART-007 specifically recognize and bind to CD7-expressing tumor cells, resulting in specific T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis. CD7 is a transmembrane glyco... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD70 CAR/dnTGF-BRII-expressing Gamma Delta T-cells ADI-270 | A preparation of allogeneic Vdelta1 gamma delta T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human cluster of differentiation 70 (CD70) and a dominant negative (dn) form of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta; TGFb) receptor II (dnTGF-BRII), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD70 CAR/dnTGF-BRII-expressing gamma delta T-cells ADI-270 recognize and bind ... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD70-CAR T-cells ALLO-316 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes obtained from healthy donors that are engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human cluster of differentiation 70 (CD70) and gene-edited with transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN) to inactivate the endogenous T-cell receptor alpha constant (TRAC) and CD52 loci, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction int... |
| Allogeneic Anti-CD70-CAR-IL-15-transduced Cord Blood-derived Natural Killer Cells | A preparation of allogeneic, umbilical cord blood (CB)-derived natural killer cells (NKs) that have been engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human cluster of differentiation 70 (CD70) and interleukin-15 (IL-15), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-CD70-CAR-IL-15-transduced CB-derived NK cells target, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in CD70-expressi... |
| Allogeneic Anti-HA-1 TCR-engineered T-cells TSC-100 | A preparation of donor-derived T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for HLA-A*02:01-restricted minor histocompatibility antigen HA-1 (HA1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Following allogeneic haploidentical hematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT) in HLA-A*02:01 positive patients, allogeneic anti-HA-1 TCR-engineered T-cells TSC-100 specifically recognize and bind to HA-1 expressed on tumor cells. This m... |
| Allogeneic Anti-HA-2 TCR-engineered T-cells TSC-101 | A preparation of donor-derived T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for HLA-A*02:01-restricted minor histocompatibility antigen HA-2 (HA2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Following allogeneic haploidentical hematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT) in HLA-A*02:01 positive patients, allogeneic anti-HA-2 TCR-engineered T-cells TSC-101 specifically recognize and bind to HA-2 expressed on tumor cells. This m... |
| Allogeneic Anti-HER2 CAR-NK Cells AB-201 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), natural killer (NK) cells derived from cord blood (CB), ex vivo expanded and genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-HER2 CAR-NK cells AB-201 recognize, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in HER2-express... |
| Allogeneic Anti-interleukin-13 Receptor Alpha 2 Universal CAR-T Cells | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), universal, gene-edited T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for interleukin-13 receptor alpha 2 (IL13Ra2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-IL13Ra2 UCAR-T cells target and bind to IL13Ra2 expressed on the surface of tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing IL13Ra2. IL13Ra2, a cancer-associated receptor, is overexpres... |
| Allogeneic Anti-NY-ESO-1-TCR-IL-15-transduced Cord Blood-derived Natural Killer Cells | A preparation of allogeneic, umbilical cord blood (CB)-derived natural killer cells (NKs) that have been engineered to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 and interleukin-15 (IL-15), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-NY-ESO-1-TCR-IL-15-transduced CB-derived NKs target, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in NY-ESO-1-expressing tumor cell... |
| Allogeneic Autophagosome-enriched Vaccine DPV-001 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) autophagosome-enriched tumor vaccine composed of dendritic cell (DC)-targeting microvesicles containing short lived proteins (SLiPs) and defective ribosomal products (DRiPs) derived from tumor cells, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The DriPs- and SLiPs-filled autophagosome microvesicles are made by treating two human non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) cell lines, UbiLT3 (non-specific histopathology) and UbiLT6 (adenocarcinoma-like) with b... |
| Allogeneic B7.1/HLA-A1 Transfected Tumor Cell Vaccine | An allogeneic whole cell vaccine, derived from irradiated allogenic tumor cells manipulated to express human B7.1 (CD80 antigen) and human leukocyte antigen (HLA) A1, with potential antitumor activity. Vaccination with allogeneic B7.1/HLA-A1 transfected tumor cell vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against similar host tumor cells, resulting in decreased tumor cell proliferation. |
| Allogeneic Calibrated Release IL-15-expressing Logic-Gated Gene Circuit Anti-CD33/FLT3 CAR-NK Cells SENTI-202 | A preparation of off-the-shelf (OTS) natural killer (NK) cells engineered to express three chimeric proteins: 1) a bivalent activating chimeric antigen receptor (aCAR), controlled by OR logic gated gene circuit, specific for the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 33 (CD33) and FLT3 tyrosine kinase receptor (Fms-like tyrosine kinase 3; FLT3; FLT-3; CD135; fetal liver kinase-2; FLK2) (CD33 OR FLT3 (OR GATE) aCAR), 2) an inhibitory CAR (iCAR) recognizing endomucin (EMCN)... |
| Allogeneic CAR T Cells CT0594CP | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) specific for as of yet undisclosed tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic CAR T cells CT0594CP specifically targets and binds to tumor cells that express the undisclosed TAAs, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Allogeneic CAR-T Cells | Allogeneic T-lymphocytes engineered to contain one or more chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) that specifically target one or more specific antigen(s). |
| Allogeneic CD123CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified allogeneic T-cells transduced with a replication-incompetent, self-inactivating lentiviral vector expressing a hinge-optimized, chimeric antigen receptor (CAR), comprised of a CD28 co-stimulatory signaling domain fused to CD3 zeta, the single-chain variable fragment of CD123 antigen (interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain or IL3RA), and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic ... |
| Allogeneic CD123-specific Universal CAR123-expressing T-lymphocytes | Allogeneic, off-the-shelf, universal transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain (IL3RA; cluster of differentiation 123; CD123), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon transfusion of allogeneic CD123-specific universal CAR123-expressing T-lymphocytes (UCART123), t... |
| Allogeneic CD16-expressing Natural Killer Cells CYNK-101 | A population of cryopreserved, off-the-shelf (OTS) allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells derived from human placental hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) expressing the CD34 surface antigen, and engineered to express a high-affinity, non-cleavable CD16 (hnCD16) Fc receptor, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulatory activities. Upon infusion of CYNK-101, the allogeneic CD16-expressing NK cells bind to the Fc portion of tumor cell-bound monoclonal antibodies that were administered as induc... |
| Allogeneic CD19/CD20-specific CAR-T Cells P-CD19CD20-ALLO1 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes containing primarily stem cell memory T-cells (Tscm) that have been genetically modified to express two chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) CD19 and CD20, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic CD19/CD20-specific CAR-T cells P-CD19CD20-ALLO1 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in CD19- and/or CD20-expressing... |
| Allogeneic CD19-CAR CD45RA-negative T-cells | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes, depleted of CD45RA-positive cells, that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 (cluster of differentiation 19) fused to the co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the CD3-zeta (CD3z) T-cell signaling domain (4-1BBz), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. CD45RA depletion results in a cellular product that contains a high amount of memo... |
| Allogeneic CD19CAR-CD28-CD3-zeta-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of allogeneic, donor-derived T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment), fused to the extracellular, transmembrane and intracellular signaling domains of the T-cell co-stimulatory receptor CD28 and the cytoplasmic signaling domain of the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (19-28z), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon admi... |
| Allogeneic CD19CAR-transfected Cytokine-induced Killer Cells | A preparation of allogeneic cytokine-induced killer (CIK) cells derived from peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) transfected with the Sleeping Beauty (SB) transposon, CD19CAR (CARCIK-CD19), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. CIK cells are CD3- and CD56-positive, non-major histocompatibility complex (MHC)-restricted, natural killer (NK)-like T-lymphocytes. Upon infusion following an allogeneic stem cell transplantation, the CARCIK-CD19 cells bind to CD19-expr... |
| Allogeneic CD19-OX40-CD3zeta-CAR-mbIL-15-expressing Natural Killer Cells NKX019 | A preparation of off-the-shelf (OTS), allogeneic and ex vivo expanded natural killer cells (NKs) that are engineered to express membrane-bound IL-15 (mbIL15) and a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 that is coupled to the co-stimulatory domain of OX40 (CD134), and to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta; CD3zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of allogeneic CD19-OX40-CD3zeta-CAR-mbIL... |
| Allogeneic CD19-specific CAR-modified CD8 Plus Central Memory-derived Virus-specific T Cells | A preparation of allogeneic Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)- and human cytomegalovirus (CMV)-specific CD8+ central memory-derived T effector-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) anti-CD19/CD3 zeta chain fusion protein coupled to the intracellular signal domain of CD28 antigen, with potential immunostimulating, anti-viral and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion, allogeneic CD19-specific CAR-modified CD8+ central memory-derived virus-specifi... |
| Allogeneic CD19-specific Universal CAR19-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of allogeneic, frozen, 'off-the-shelf', universal transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered, gene-edited T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, and containing a RQR8 transgene, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Using TALEN technology, the T-cell receptor (TCR) alpha chain and CD52 genes are deleted from the CAR19 T-cells. Upon infusion, allogeneic universa... |
| Allogeneic CD20 CAR-grafted Gamma Delta T-cells ADI-001 | A preparation of a subset of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that express only gamma chain and delta chain T-cell receptors (TCRs) and that are engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20 (cluster of differentiation 20), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic CD20 CAR-grafted gamma delta T-cells ADI-001 specifically target and bind to tumor cells expressing CD20. This induces secreti... |
| Allogeneic CD22-specific Universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UCART22 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), universal transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human CD22 with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, allogeneic CD22-specific universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UCART22 express anti-CD22-CAR on their cell surfaces and bind to the CD22 a... |
| Allogeneic CD3- CD19- CD57+ NKG2C+ NK Cells FATE-NK100 | A preparation of pharmacologically-enriched, allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells derived from a related but not completely matched human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-haploidentical donor that is seropositive for cytomegalovirus (CMV+), with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, the donor peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are treated to remove T-lymphocytes (CD3+) and B-lymphocytes (CD19+). The remaining leukocytes are cultured for 7 days with the cytokine... |
| Allogeneic CD3- CD19- Selected Natural Killer Cells | Human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-haploidentical donor-derived natural killer (NK) cells that are activated with the cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15), with immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, the HLA-haploidentical donor peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are treated to remove T-lymphocytes (CD3+) and B-lymphocytes (CD19+) cells. In turn, NK cells are expanded and activated with IL-15. Upon infusion of the allogeneic CD3- CD19- selected NK cells, these cells... |
| Allogeneic CD33CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the CD33 antigen, coupled to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCRzeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic CD33CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing T-lymphocytes target and induce selective toxicity in CD33-expressing tumor cells. CD33 is expressed on normal no... |
| Allogeneic CD34-positive E-rosetted T-cell Depleted Peripheral Blood Stem Cells | A preparation of CD34+ selected peripheral blood stem cells (PBSCs) that are depleted of T-cells via erythrocyte rosetting (E-rosetting) and intended for allogeneic stem cell transplant. Administration of this particular preparation of CD34+E- T-cell depleted PBSCs may potentially reduce the occurrence of graft-versus-host disease (GvHD) without increasing the risk of graft failure or poor graft function |
| Allogeneic CD4+ Memory Th1-like T Cells/Microparticle-bound Anti-CD3/anti-CD28 | A preparation consisting of allogeneic, differentiated Th1-like T cells bound to T cell-stimulating monoclonal antibodies with potential antitumor activity. More specifically, allogeneic CD4+ memory Th1-like T cells/microparticle-bound anti-CD3/anti-CD28 are composed of a proprietary preparation of mismatched, allogeneic differentiated CD4+ memory Th1-like T cells bound to paramagnetic, epoxy-covered 4.5 micron microparticles with covalently bound anti-CD3/anti-CD28 monoclonal antibodies at a... |
| Allogeneic CD56-positive CD3-negative Natural Killer Cells | A population of allogeneic lymphocytes expressing the CD56 surface antigen and exhibiting a lack of CD3, with immunomodulating activity. Upon infusion of allogeneic CD56-positive CD3-negative natural killer (NK) cells, these cells are able to secrete cytokines and recognize and kill tumor cells as well as virally-infected cells. CD56 is a transmembrane glycoprotein also known as NCAM (Neural Cell Adhesion Molecule). |
| Allogeneic CD8+ Leukemia-associated Antigens Specific T Cells NEXI-001 | A preparation of allogeneic CD8+ T cells targeting multiple undisclosed leukemia-associated antigens, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Following peripheral blood mononuclear cell (PBMC) collection from the original stem cell donor and ex vivo priming and expansion, the allogeneic CD8+ leukemia-associated antigens specific T cells NEXI-001 are re-introduced into the leukemia patient, where they target and kill tumor cells expressing these leukemia-associated antig... |
| Allogeneic Cellular Vaccine 1650-G | A pluripotent, allogeneic, tumor cell vaccine composed of irradiated tumor cells from the non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) cell line 1650 and the immunoadjuvant recombinant granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF) (1650-G), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic cellular vaccine 1650-G may stimulate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) expre... |
| Allogeneic CMV Antigen-specific CD4+/CD8+ T-lymphocytes | A population of allogeneic T-lymphocytes specifically reactive to cytomegalovirus (CMV) with potential antiviral activity. Allogeneic CMV antigen-specific T-cells are prepared via ex vivo stimulation of donor-derived peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) with major cytomegalovirus structural protein, pp65 (ppUL83). T-cells that secrete interferon (IFN)-gamma in response to pp65 antigen exposure are selected and expanded for administration. Administration of the CMV antigen-specific CD4+ ... |
| Allogeneic CRISPR-Cas9 Engineered Anti-CD19 CAR T Cells CTX110 | A preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes transduced with a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to eliminate endogenous TCR, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction into the patient, the allogeneic CRISPR-Cas9 engineered anti-CD19 CAR T-cells CTX110 recognize and bind to CD19-overexpre... |
| Allogeneic CRISPR-Cas9 Engineered Anti-CD19 CAR T-cells CTX112 | A preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes transduced with a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to eliminate endogenous TCR, transforming growth factor-beta receptor II (TGFbRII), and Regnase-1, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction into the patient, the allogeneic CRISPR-Cas9 engine... |
| Allogeneic CRISPR-Cas9 Engineered Anti-CD70 CAR-T Cells CTX130 | A preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to disrupt expression of endogenous TCR and major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules and modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human cluster of differentiation 70 (CD70), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction into t... |
| Allogeneic CRISPR-edited Anti-BCMA CAR-T Cells CB-011 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf T-lymphocytes genetically modified and clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-edited to contain a deletion of the TRAC gene, a site-specific insertion of a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) into the TRAC gene, a deletion of the B2M gene, and a site-specific insertion of a gene encod... |
| Allogeneic CRISPR-edited Anti-CD19 CAR T Cells PACE CART19 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment (scFv) and the co-stimulatory domain 4-1BB (CD137) coupled to the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), and electroporated with clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to eliminate the expression of endogenous TCR, H... |
| Allogeneic CRISPR-edited Anti-CD19 CAR T Cells PBLTT52CAR19 | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with genetic modification of CD52 and T-cell receptor alpha constant (TRAC) loci via clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic CRISPR-edited anti-CD19 CAR T cells PBLTT52CAR19 recognize and bind t... |
| Allogeneic CRISPR-edited Anti-CD19 CAR-T Cells CB-010 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf T-lymphocytes genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, and clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-edited to eliminate endogenous T-cell receptor (TCR) and programmed death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed cell death-1) expression, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic CRISPR-edited a... |
| Allogeneic CRISPR-edited Anti-CLL-1 CAR-T Cells CB-012 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf T-lymphocytes genetically modified and clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-edited to contain the deletion of the TRAC gene, the site-specific insertion of a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) C-type-lectin-like molecule-1 (CLL-1; CLL1; C-type lectin domain family 12 member A; CLEC12A; CD371) into the TRAC gene, the knockout of programmed death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programme... |
| Allogeneic CS1-specific Universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UCARTCS1A | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), universal transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human CS1 (CD2 subset 1; SLAM family member 7; SLAMF7; CD319; CRACC), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion of allogeneic CS1-specific universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UCARTCS1A, thes... |
| Allogeneic Cytokine-induced Memory-like NK Cells WU-NK-101 | A population of off-the-shelf (OTS) donor-derived cytokine-induced, memory-like, cytotoxic natural killer (NK) cells (CIML NKs) containing NK cell-activating surface receptors, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The allogeneic NK cells are pre-activated ex vivo using the human-derived cytokines interleukin (IL)-12, IL-15, and IL-18, which induces the differentiation of the NK cells into CIML NK cells, which contain more NK cell-activating surface receptors. The pre... |
| Allogeneic Dendritic Cell-Myeloma Idiotype Vaccine | A cell-based vaccine composed of allogeneic dendritic cells pulsed ex-vivo with an autologous myeloma idiotype with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, allogeneic dendritic cell-myeloma idiotype vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against myeloma cells, resulting in cell lysis. |
| Allogeneic Dendritic Secretomes | A preparation of allogeneic dendritic cell (DC) secretomes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic DC secretomes may help activate an anti-tumor immune response. |
| Allogeneic EBV-transformed B-lymphoblastoid Cell Line Lysate-pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine KSD-101 | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous monocyte-derived dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with allogeneic Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-transformed B-lymphoblastoid cell line (BLCL) lysate, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, DCs are loaded with allogeneic EBV-transformed BLCL lysate. Upon re-administration of the allogeneic EBV-transformed BLCL lysate-pulsed autologous DC vaccine KSD-101, the immune system is exposed to EBV-specific antigens,... |
| Allogeneic Epstein-Barr Virus-Specific Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of allogeneic Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the allogeneic EBV-specific CTLs are either harvested from a donor with an EBV-positive tumor or are donor CTLs activated against EBV-specific antigens ex vivo. Administration into a patient exerts a CTL response against EBV-positive tumor cells or EBV-infected cells. This results in cell lysis and inhibition of cancer cell proliferation. EBV... |
| Allogeneic Ex-vivo-treated Peripheral Blood Mononuclear Cells | A preparation of allogeneic peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) treated and induced ex vivo to undergo early apoptosis, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of allogeneic ex-vivo-treated PBMCs, the early apoptotic cells are engulfed by macrophages and immature dendritic cells (DCs). This leads to immune modulation, which may result in immune-mediated tumor cell death. |
| Allogeneic Gamma Delta T-cells GDKM-100 | A preparation of a subset of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that express only gamma chain and delta chain T-cell receptors (TCRs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the allogeneic gamma delta T-cells GDKM-100, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma delta T-lymphocytes play a ... |
| Allogeneic Gamma-delta T-lymphocytes KB-GDT-01 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation of unmodified, donor-derived T-lymphocytes that express only gamma chain and delta chain T-cell receptors (TCRs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the allogeneic gamma-delta T-lymphocytes KB-GDT-01, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Ga... |
| Allogeneic Gamma-delta T-lymphocytes TCB-008 | A preparation of ex vivo-expanded, allogeneic T-lymphocytes that express only gamma chain and delta chain T-cell receptors (TCRs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the allogeneic gamma-delta T-lymphocytes TCB-008, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma-delta T-lymphocy... |
| Allogeneic Gene-modified Gamma Delta T-cells | A preparation of genetically modified allogeneic gamma delta T-lymphocytes, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic gene-modified gamma delta T-cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma delta T-lymphocytes play a key role in the activation of the immune system and do not ... |
| Allogeneic Glioblastoma Stem-like Cell Line Lysate-pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with lysates from an allogeneic glioblastoma (GBM) stem-like cell line, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration allogeneic glioblastoma stem-like cell line lysate-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine exposes the immune system to GBM stem cell antigens, which may result in cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against GBM cells. This leads to GBM cell ly... |
| Allogeneic GM-CSF-Based Myeloma Cell Vaccine | An allogeneic tumor cell vaccine containing myeloma cancer cells transfected with the granulocyte macrophage-colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) gene with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon vaccination, allogeneic GM-CSF-based myeloma cellular vaccine secretes GM-CSF, which may potentiate a tumor-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against myeloma cancer cell-associated antigens. |
| Allogeneic GM-CSF-Secreting Breast Cancer Vaccine | An allogenic vaccine consisting of irradiated breast cancer cells transfected with the granulocyte macrophage-colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) gene. Upon vaccination, the genetically modified cells secrete GM-CSF, thereby potentiating a tumor-specific T cell response against breast cancer cell-asociated antigens. |
| Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Breast Cancer Vaccine SV-BR-1-GM | A vaccine consisting of irradiated allogeneic breast cancer cells, derived from the breast cancer cell line SV-BR-1 that are transfected with the immunostimulant granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF; CSF2) gene, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration of the allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting breast cancer vaccine SV-BR-1-GM, the genetically-modified cells secrete GM-CSF. This potentiates a tumor-specific cytotoxic T-lymphoc... |
| Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Lethally Irradiated Pancreatic Tumor Cell Vaccine | An allogeneic tumor vaccine composed of lethally irradiated allogeneic pancreatic tumor cells that are genetically modified to secrete the immunostimulatory cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal injection, allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting lethally irradiated pancreatic tumor cell vaccine secretes GM-CSF at the injection site. In turn, GM-CSF may stimulate the body's immune system against ... |
| Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Lethally Irradiated Prostate Cancer Vaccine | An allogeneic whole cell vaccine expressing human granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF) with potential antineoplastic activity. Tumor cells from prostate cancer patients are harvested and then genetically modified to secrete GM-CSF, an immune stimulatory growth factor that plays a key role in stimulating the body's immune responses against tumor cells. Because the vaccine is derived from allogenic cells, it has demonstrated a favorable side effect profile than other approa... |
| Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Lethally Irradiated Whole Melanoma Cell Vaccine | An allogeneic cancer vaccine composed of lethally irradiated whole melanoma cancer cells that are genetically modified to secrete the immunostimulatory cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal injections, allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting lethally irradiated whole melanoma cell vaccine secretes GM-CSF. In turn, GM-CSF may stimulate the body's immune system against tumor cells by enhancing the... |
| Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Myeloma Vaccine | An allogeneic plasma cell myeloma vaccine consisting two multiple myeloma cell lines, H929 and U266, admixed with GM-CSF-secreting K562 cells, with potential antineoplastic and immunopotentiating activities. Upon administration, the secreted GM-CSF modulates the proliferation and differentiation of a variety of hematopoietic progenitor cells, with some specificity towards stimulation of leukocyte production, and may reverse treatment-induced neutropenia. This agent also promotes antigen prese... |
| Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Tumor Vaccine PANC 10.05 pcDNA-1/GM-Neo | An allogeneic cancer vaccine composed of lethally irradiated, whole pancreatic cancer cells transfected with a plasmid carrying the gene for cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting tumor vaccine PANC 10.05 pcDNA-1/GM-Neo secretes GM-CSF thereby activating dendritic cells, promoting antigen presentation to B- and T-cells, and promoting a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response.... |
| Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Tumor Vaccine PANC 6.03 pcDNA-1/GM-Neo | An allogeneic cancer vaccine composed of lethally irradiated, whole pancreatic cancer cells transfected with a plasmid carrying the gene for cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting tumor vaccine PANC 6.03 pcDNA-1/GM-Neo secretes GM-CSF thereby activating dendritic cells, promoting antigen presentation to B- and T-cells, and promoting a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response. ... |
| Allogeneic HAdV Antigen-specific T-lymphocytes | A population of allogeneic T-lymphocytes specifically reactive to human adenovirus (HAdV) with potential antiviral activity. Allogeneic HAdV antigen-specific T-cells are prepared via ex vivo stimulation of donor-derived peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) with HAdV hexon protein. T-cells that secrete interferon (IFN)-gamma in response to HAdV antigen exposure are selected and expanded for administration. Infusion of the HAdV antigen-specific T-lymphocytes into hematopoietic stem cell t... |
| Allogeneic HLA-A2/4-1BB ligand-expressing Melanoma Vaccine | An allogeneic melanoma cell vaccine derived from a cell line with high expression of melanoma associated antigens and genetically modified to express both HLA-A2 and 4-1BB ligand, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the 4-1BB ligand of the allogeneic HLA-A2/4-1BB ligand-expressing melanoma vaccine binds to 4-1BB on activated T-lymphocytes, which induces a strong immune response against HLA-A2 positive melanoma cells. |
| Allogeneic HPV-specific Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes | A population of allogeneic cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) that are specifically reactive to human papillomavirus (HPV), with potential antiviral and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion of the allogeneic HPV-specific CTLs, these CTLs induce selective toxicity in HPV-positive cancer cells and other HPV-infected cells. HPV is associated with various cancer cell types. |
| Allogeneic Hypoimmune Anti-CD19 CAR T-cells SC291 | A preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes transduced with a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, and modified ex vivo to disrupt the expression of major histocompatibility (MHC) class I and MHC class II molecules and to express CD47, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction into the patient, the allogeneic hypoimmune anti-CD19 CAR T-cells SC291 recognize and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells. This... |
| Allogeneic iC9/CD19-CAR-CD28-zeta-2A-IL15-transduced Cord Blood-derived Natural Killer Cells TAK-007 | A preparation of allogeneic, umbilical cord blood (CB)-derived natural killer cells (NKs) transduced with a retroviral vector expressing interleukin-15 (IL-15) and encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 that is coupled to the co-stimulatory domains of CD28 and to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), and is linked to the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9; iC9), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activi... |
| Allogeneic IL13-Zetakine/HyTK-Expressing-Glucocorticoid Resistant Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes GRm13Z40-2 | A preparation of glucocorticoid receptor (GR) negative, allogeneic cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) expressing a membrane-tethered interleukin 13 (IL13) cytokine chimeric T-cell antigen receptor (zetakine), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon transfection of donor T-lymphocytes with a plasmid encoding a fusion protein of the IL13-zetakine and the selection-suicide expression enzyme HyTK, these modified CTLs are expanded and introduced into a patient with glioblastoma multiforme (GBM). ... |
| Allogeneic Invariant Natural Killer T-cells agenT-797 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the shelf, natural killer T-cells (NKTs) expressing an invariant (alpha, beta) T-cell receptor (iNKTs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of allogeneic iNKT agenT-797, the invariant T-cell receptor (TCR) and natural-killer group 2, member D receptor (NKG2D; KLRK1; natural killer cell activating receptor group 2D) expressed by these cells recognize CD1d-restricted lipid ligands and stress ligands, which are expre... |
| Allogeneic iPSC-derived Anti-CD19-CAR/IL-15-expressing NK Cells CNTY-101 | A preparation of allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells derived from a clonal master induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) line, and engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from the anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody FMC63 and coupled to the CD28 and zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) costimulatory signaling domains, and interleukin 15 (IL-15), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activit... |
| Allogeneic iPSC-derived Anti-MICA/B CAR/CD16/IL-15RF-expressing CD38-eliminated NK Cells FT536 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), natural killer (NK) cells derived from a clonal master induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) line, and engineered and multiplex-edited to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the alpha 3 domain of the natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D or KLRK1) ligands MHC class I polypeptide-related sequence A (MICA) and B (MICB), a high-affinity, non-cleavable CD16 (hnCD16) Fc receptor and a recombinant fusion of IL-15... |
| Allogeneic Irradiated Melanoma Cell Vaccine CSF470 | An allogeneic cancer vaccine composed of a mixture of lethally irradiated whole melanoma cancer cells obtained from four different melanoma cell lines, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal injections, allogeneic irradiated melanoma cell vaccine may stimulate the body's immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response and antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) against the melanoma cancer cells. |
| Allogeneic Large Multivalent Immunogen Breast Cancer Vaccine | A cancer vaccine, containing human-specific large multivalent immunogens (LMIs) isolated from the membrane fraction of cells from a breast cancer cell line, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic large multivalent immunogen breast cancer vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against tumor cells that express the breast cancer cell-specific LMIs. |
| Allogeneic Large Multivalent Immunogen Melanoma Vaccine LP2307 | A cancer vaccine, containing human-specific large multivalent immunogen (LMI) isolated from plasma membrane fractions of the melanoma cell lines MSM-M1 and MSM-M2, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic large multivalent immunogen melanoma vaccine LP2307 may stimulate a CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against melanoma tumor cells that express melanoma-specific LMI. |
| Allogeneic LMP1/LMP2-Specific Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL), specifically reactive to the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) latent membrane proteins (LMP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) are collected from a donor and are exposed ex vivo to dendritic cells (DCs) transfected with a replication-deficient adenovirus encoding EBV LMP1/2 to generate LMP1/2-specific CTL which are subsequently expanded. Administration of allogeneic LMP1-/LMP2- specific CTL to pat... |
| Allogeneic Melanoma Vaccine AGI-101H | A cancer vaccine derived from two gentically modified human melanoma cell lines with potential antineoplastic activity. Allogeneic melanoma vaccine AGI-101H consists of a 1:1 mixture of cells from two genetically modified human melanoma cell lines, designated as Mich1H6 and Mich2H6, that have been gamma-irradiated to render the cells non-proliferative. Upon administration, this vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic immune response against melanoma tumor cells. |
| Allogeneic Mesothelioma Tumor Lysate-pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with a mixture of lysates from five allogeneic mesothelioma tumor cell lines, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, DCs are loaded with allogeneic mesothelioma tumor cell lysates. Upon re-administration of the allogeneic mesothelioma tumor lysate-pulsed autologous DC vaccine, the immune system is exposed to an undefined amount of mesothelioma-associated antigens, which... |
| Allogeneic MUC1-C-specific CAR-T Cells P-MUC1C-ALLO1 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes containing primarily stem cell memory T-cells (Tscm) that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the C-terminal subunit of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mucin-1 (MUC1-C) and gene-edited to knockout both the T-cell receptor (TCR) and major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I proteins, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration... |
| Allogeneic Natural Killer Cell Line MG4101 | A population of allogeneic, cytotoxic natural killer (NK) cells with potential antitumor activity. Allogeneic natural killer cell line MG4101 is derived from cells of a normal, healthy donor upon leukapheresis and activation. |
| Allogeneic Natural Killer Cell Line NK-92 | A proprietary, human cytotoxic cell line composed of allogeneic, activated, interleukin-2 (IL-2) dependent-natural killer cells derived from a 50-year old male patient with rapidly progressive non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, with potential antineoplastic activity. As NK-92 cells are devoid of killer inhibitory receptors (KIRs; also called killer cell immunoglobulin-like receptors), which are negative regulators of NK cell activity, cancer cells are unable to suppress the cancer cell killing ability o... |
| Allogeneic Natural Killer Cells CHM 0201 | A preparation of off-the-shelf (OTS) allogeneic, natural killer (NK) cells that are activated and expanded ex vivo, with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic NK cells CHM 0201 recognize and lyse cancer cells. These cells also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines, which further stimulate an anti-tumor immune response. |
| Allogeneic Natural Killer Cells DVX201 | A preparation of allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells, with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic NK cells DVX201 may directly lyse cancer cells. These cells also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines and further stimulate a systemic immune response against cancer cells. |
| Allogeneic Natural Killer Cells IDP-023 | A preparation of off-the-shelf (OTS) allogeneic, natural killer (NK) cells that contains g minus NK cells (G-NKs), with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic NK cells IDP-023 recognize and lyse cancer cells. These cells also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines, which further stimulate an anti-tumor immune response. G-NKs are deficient in the FceR1g protein and show increased cytokine secretion, higher levels of cytolytic enzymes, increased persisten... |
| Allogeneic Natural Killer Cells PB103 | A preparation of allogeneic, natural killer (NK) cells, with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic NK cells PB103 may lyse cancer cells. These cells also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines, which further stimulate an anti-tumor immune response. |
| Allogeneic Natural Killer Cells SAR445419 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS) ex vivo-expanded natural killer (NK) cells, with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion of the allogeneic NKs SAR445419, these cells may lyse cancer cells. |
| Allogeneic Nicotinamide-expanded Natural Killer Cells | Allogeneic, nicotinamide (NAM)-expanded natural killer (NK) cells, with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic NAM-expanded NK cells may lyse cancer cells. These cells also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines, which further stimulate an anti-tumor immune response. Ex-vivo treatment with the vitamin B3 derivative NAM increases the in-vivo homing, retention and proliferation potential of the NK cells. |
| Allogeneic NKG2D CAR Memory T-cells | A preparation of donor-derived memory T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) encoding human natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D or KLRK1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the allogeneic NKG2D CAR memory T-cells specifically recognize and bind to tumor cells expressing NKG2D ligands (NKG2DLs), resulting in cytokine secretion and lysis of NKG2D ligand-expressing tumor cells. NKG2DLs, such a... |
| Allogeneic NKG2DL-targeting CAR-grafted Gamma Delta T Cells | A preparation of a subset of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that express only gamma chain and delta chain T-cell receptors (TCRs) and that are engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) encoding for human natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D or KLRK1; natural killer cell activating receptor group 2D), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the NKG2DL-targeting CAR-grafted gamma delta T cells, these cells specifically ta... |
| Allogeneic NKG2D-OX40-CD3zeta-CAR-mbIL-15-expressing Natural Killer Cells NKX101 | A preparation of off-the-shelf (OTS), allogeneic and ex vivo expanded natural killer cells (NKs) that are engineered to express membrane-bound IL-15 (mbIL15) and a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) encoding for human natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D; KLRK1; natural killer cell activating receptor group 2D) that is coupled to the co-stimulatory domain of OX40 (CD134), and to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta; CD3zeta), with potential immunomodulating and ant... |
| Allogeneic NK-like Cells GAIA-102 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), ex-vivo activated and expanded natural killer (NK)-like cells, with a CD3-negative/CD56bright/CD57-negative immature phenotype, with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion, allogeneic NK-like cells GAIA-102 may lyse cancer cells. These cells also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines, which further stimulate anti-tumor immune responses. |
| Allogeneic PD-L1 Tumor-targeted High-affinity Natural Killer Cells | A preparation of natural killer (NK) cells that are derived from NK-92 cells, a human cytotoxic cell line composed of allogeneic NK cells derived from a 50-year old male patient with rapidly progressive non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL), that are genetically engineered to express the high-affinity CD16/FcgammaRIIIa (158V) allele, endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-retained interleukin (IL)-2 and a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1), with potential immunomodulati... |
| Allogeneic Plasmacytoid Dendritic Cells Expressing Lung Tumor Antigens PDC*lung01 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation composed of irradiated allogeneic plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs) loaded with seven immunogenic, human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02:01 serotype-restricted peptides derived from the lung tumor antigens cancer/testis antigen 1 (NY-ESO-1), melanoma antigen A3 (MAGE-A3), MAGE-A4, multi-MAGE, a peptide shared by multiple MAGE-A proteins, survivin, mucin1 (MUC1) and melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells 1 (Mart-1; Melan-A), with potential immunostimulating an... |
| Allogeneic Polymer-encapsulated IL-2-secreting Retinal Pigmented Epithelial Cells AVB-001 | A preparation of polymer-encapsulated cells, obtained from the human immortalized retinal pigment epithelia (RPE) cell line ARPE-19, that have been genetically engineered to express the human cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2; IL2), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intraperitoneal administration, allogeneic polymer-encapsulated IL-2-secreting RPE cells AVB-001 produces IL-2 locally, which binds to the IL-2 receptor (IL-2R) and activates IL-2/IL-2R-mediated signal... |
| Allogeneic Renal Cell Carcinoma Vaccine MGN1601 | A whole cell vaccine comprised of irradiated allogeneic renal cell carcinoma (RCC) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Allogeneic renal cell carcinoma vaccine MGN1601 contains two active ingredients: 1) genetically modified allogeneic RCC cells that are transiently transfected with four different MIDGE (Minimalistic Immunogenically Defined Gene Expression) vectors encoding IL-7, GM-CSF, CD80 and CD154 and 2) the synthetic DNA-based immunomodulator dSLIM-30L1, a TLR... |
| Allogeneic Rituximab Conjugated Gamma Delta T-cells ACE1831 | An off-the-shelf preparation of a subset of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that express only gamma chain and delta chain T-cell receptors (TCRs) conjugated to a DNA linker, attached via DNA hybridization to rituximab conjugated to another DNA linker, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the allogeneic rituximab conjugated gamma delta T-cells ACE1831, rituximab targets and binds to CD20 expressed on tumor cells. The gamma delta T-cells secrete interfe... |
| Allogeneic shRNA-based Anti-BCMA CAR T-cells CYAD-211 | A preparation of human allogeneic, 'off-the-shelf' (OTS), non-gene edited T-lymphocytes that are engineered to co-express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and a single short hairpin RNA (shRNA) that disrupts the expression of the CD3zeta component of the T-cell receptor (TCR), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upo... |
| Allogeneic TCR alpha/beta-positive T-lymphocyte-depleted Peripheral Blood Stem Cells | A preparation of allogeneic T-cell receptor (TCR) alpha/beta-positive T cell-depleted peripheral blood stem cells (PBSCs), that can potentially be used for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). Allogeneic PBMCs are processed, using the proprietary CliniMACS device, to remove TCRalpha/beta T-cells, while retaining other cells, such as donor-derived natural killer (NK) cells and gamma/delta T-cells. As TCR alpha/beta-positive T-cells appear to be related to the development of graft ve... |
| Allogeneic TCRa/b-depleted HA-1 Minor Histocompatibility Antigen-Reactive TCR-Modified RQR8-expressing T Cells BSB-1001 | A preparation of T-cell receptor (TCR) alpha and beta (TCRa/b)-depleted donor-derived T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentivirus vector encoding a TCR specific for HLA-A*02:01-restricted minor histocompatibility antigen HA-1 (HA1) and expressing RQR8, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Following HLA-matched allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT) in HLA-A*02:01 positive patients, allogeneic TCRa/b-depleted HA-1 minor histocompatibility an... |
| Allogeneic TCR-CD3 complex/CD16/IL-15-expressing Natural Killer Cells | A preparation of allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells that have been engineered to express a T-cell receptor (TCR)-CD3 complex, CD16 Fc receptor, and interleukin 15 (IL-15), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic TCR-CD3 complex/CD16/IL-15-expressing NK cells lyse tumor cells. Upon coadministration with tumor-targeting and CD3-targeting bispecific antibodies, the tumor-targeting moiety binds to the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) expre... |
| Allogeneic Third-party Suicide Gene-transduced Anti-HLA-DPB1*0401 CD4+ T-cells CTL 19 | A preparation of allogeneic, third-party, CD4+ T-lymphocytes that specifically recognizes the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-DPB1*0401 and transduced with a suicide gene, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, allogeneic third-party suicide gene-transduced anti-HLA-DPB1*0401 CD4+ T-cells CTL 19 specifically target and kill HLA-DPB1*0401-positive leukemic cells. The suicide gene causes the destruction of the T-cell clone upon the administration and presence of ganciclovir,... |
| Allogeneic T-lymphocytes Expressing NY-ESO-1-C259-specific TCR | Genetically engineered human allogeneic T-lymphocytes that are transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the cancer/testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo and introduction into the patient, the allogeneic T-lymphocytes expressing NY-ESO-1-C259-specific TCR specifically target and bind to NY-ESO-1-overexpressing tumor cells. This may result in the specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (C... |
| Allogeneic Tri-functional Anti-CD19 CAR-NK Cells | A preparation of allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells transduced with a retroviral vector expressing the immunostimulatory cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15) and encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) that is coupled to the co-stimulatory domains cluster of differentiation 28 (CD28, T-cell-specific surface glycoprotein CD28), cluster of differentiation 137 (CD137; 4-1BB), and the zeta chain of the T-cell rec... |
| Allogeneic Tumor Cell Vaccine | A vaccine composed of tumor cells isolated from the tumor of one patient, killed and processed, and administered to another patient to stimulate cytotoxic immune responses to a similar tumor cell type. The cells found in this type of whole-cell vaccine express many cell-surface tumor-associated antigens. This vaccine is frequently administered with an adjuvant immunostimulant. (NCI04) |
| Allogeneic Variable Delta 1 Gamma-delta T-lymphocytes GDX012 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation of allogeneic variable delta 1 (Vd1) gamma-delta (gd) T-lymphocytes, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the allogeneic Vd1 gd T-lymphocytes GDX012, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma delta T-lymphocytes play a key role in the activa... |
| Almurtide | A synthetic muramyl dipeptide (MDP) analogue with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activity. As a derivative of the mycobacterial cell wall component MDP, almurtide activates both monocytes and macrophages. This results in the secretion of cytokines and induces the recruitment and activation of other immune cells, which may result in indirect tumoricidal or cytostatic effects. |
| Alnuctamab | A bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, alnuctamab binds bivalently to BCMA expressed on tumor cells and monovalently to CD3 expressed on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This activates and redirects CTLs to BCMA-expressing tumor cells, which results in the CTL-media... |
| Alobresib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, alobresib binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs in the bromodomains of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may lead to an inhibition of prol... |
| Alofanib | An inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) type 2 (FGFR2), with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. Upon administration, alofanib targets, allosterically binds to the extracellular domain of FGFR2 and inhibits the activity of FGFR2, which may result in the inhibition of basic FGF (bFGF)/FGFR2-related signal transduction pathways. This inhibits FGF-induced endothelial cell proliferation and migration, and inhibits the proliferation of FGFR2-overexpressing... |
| Alomfilimab | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) kappa monoclonal antibody that recognizes inducible T-cell co-stimulator (ICOS; CD278), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, alomfilimab selectively binds to dimeric ICOS expressed on certain T-cells. This prevents the interaction between ICOS-positive T-cells and plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs), which express the ICOS ligand (ICOSL). Blocking ICOS activation prevents the pDC-induced proliferation and accumula... |
| Alpelisib | An orally bioavailable phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Alpelisib specifically inhibits PI3K in the PI3K/AKT kinase (or protein kinase B) signaling pathway, thereby inhibiting the activation of the PI3K signaling pathway. This may result in inhibition of tumor cell growth and survival in susceptible tumor cell populations. Activation of the PI3K signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis. Dysregulated PI3K signaling may ... |
| Alpha Fetoprotein Adenoviral Vector Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of a recombinant adenoviral vector encoding alpha fetoprotein. After vaccination, expressed alpha fetoprotein may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that express alpha fetoprotein, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (NCI05) |
| Alpha Fetoprotein Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of plasmid DNA encoding alpha fetoprotein. After vaccination, expressed alpha fetoprotein may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that express alpha fetoprotein, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (NCI05) |
| Alpha Galactosylceramide | A potent alpha galactosylceramide modified from marine-sponge that stimulates the immune system to exhibit antitumor activity. |
| Alpha V Beta 1 Inhibitor ATN-161 | A small peptide antagonist of integrin alpha5beta1 with potential antineoplastic activity. ATN-161 selectively binds to and blocks the receptor for integrin alpha5beta1, thereby preventing integrin alpha5beta1 binding. This receptor blockade may result in inhibition of endothelial cell-cell interactions, endothelial cell-matrix interactions, angiogenesis, and tumor progression. Integrin alpha5beta1 is expressed on endothelial cells and plays a crucial role in endothelial cell adhesion and mig... |
| Alpha V Beta 8 Antagonist PF-06940434 | An antagonist of integrin alpha v beta 8, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PF-06940434 selectively binds to and blocks the receptor for integrin alpha v beta 8, thereby preventing integrin alpha v beta 8 binding. This may result in the inhibition of cell adhesion in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and blocks the activation of the cytokine transforming growth factor-beta 1 (TGF-b1), preventing TGF-b1-mediated signal transduction. This abrogates TGF-b1-mediated immu... |
| Alpha-1,3-galactosyltransferase-expressing Allogeneic Renal Cell Carcinoma Vaccine | An allogeneic renal cell cancer (RCC) vaccine composed of cell line-derived RCCs that are genetically engineered to express the murine alpha-1,3-galactosyltransferase (GalT), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Not naturally occurring in humans, GalT catalyzes the expression of foreign alpha-1,3-galactosyl (alpha-gal) carbohydrate epitopes on the cell membranes of the allogeneic RCCs present in the vaccine. This induces a hyperacute rejection reaction involving pre... |
| Alpha-1-Proteinase Inhibitor Human | Human serum-derived alpha-1 proteinase inhibitor (alpha-1-antitrypsin or AAT) with immunomodulating and anti-inflammatory activity. Upon administration, AAT reduces the production of proinflammatory cytokines, such as tumor necrosis factor-alpha, interleukin (IL)-1 beta, IL-32, IL-6, and proteinase 3, and induces the production of anti-inflammatory cytokines, such as IL-10 and the IL-1 receptor antagonist IL-1RN. This agent also downregulates heparan sulfate and reduces the expansion of cytot... |
| Alpha-clash Anti-IL-2 Antibody Fusion Protein LAT010 | An antibody fusion protein and interleukin-2 (IL-2) immunocytokine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the alpha-clash anti-IL-2 antibody fusion protein LAT010, the IL-2 moiety targets and binds to the intermediate-affinity IL-2 receptor beta,gamma (IL-2Rbg), thereby selectivity activating CD8+ T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells against tumor cells. The alpha-clash anti-IL-2 antibody moiety of LAT010 prevents LAT010 from activating the high-affinity IL2Ralpha,be... |
| Alpha-fetoprotein Peptide-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine comprised of autologous dendritic cells pulsed with four alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) peptides, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, AFP peptide-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against AFP-expressing cancer cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. AFP is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cells. |
| Alpha-Gal AGI-134 | A synthetic alpha Gal (aGal) molecule, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral injection of aGal AGI-134, aGal coats the cancer cell membranes and triggers an anti-aGal antibody-mediated immune response leading to an initial complement-dependent and antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). This cytotoxicity causes release from tumor cells and subsequent uptake of released tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) by antigen-presenting cells (APCs). This... |
| Alpha-Gal Glycosphingolipids | A preparation of glycosphingolipids (GSL), containing the disaccharide epitope galactose-alpha-1,3-galactose (alpha-Gal), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral injection, alpha-Gal glycosphingolipids may stimulate the immune system to mount complement-mediated cytotoxicity (CMC) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) responses against alpha-Gal GSL, which may result in tumor cell death; these responses involve natural anti-alpha-Gal immunoglobulins (Igs).... |
| Alpha-Galactosylceramide-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cells | A cancer vaccine comprised of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with the marine sponge glycolipid alpha-galactosylceramide (alpha-GalCer) with potential immunostimulatory and antimetastatic activities. Upon administration, alpha-galactosylceramide-pulsed autologous dendritic cells may result in the activation and proliferation of a subset of endogenous natural killer T (NKT) cells, B cells, and CD4+ and CD8+ T cells, and the production of interferon-gamma and interleukin-12; these casca... |
| Alpha-lactalbumin Breast Cancer Vaccine | A breast cancer vaccine consisting of recombinant human alpha-lactalbumin (aLA), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, aLA breast cancer vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that express the aLA protein, resulting in tumor cell lysis. aLA is expressed in many types of breast cancer, including triple negative breast cancer (TNBC), while normally present in healthy breast tissu... |
| Alpha-lactalbumin-derived Synthetic Peptide-lipid Complex Alpha1H | A synthetic proteolipid complex comprised of the alpha-1 domain of alpha-lactalbumin (lactose synthase B protein) and oleic acid, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravesical instillation, alpha1H selectively accumulates in the nuclei of tumor cells and binds to histones H3, H4, and H2B. By binding to histones, alpha1H disrupts chromatin assembly and interferes with intact chromatin, thereby preventing tumor cell transcription and replication. Additionally, alpha1H inhibits the p... |
| Alpha-lipoic Acid-Palladium/Vitamin/Mineral Supplement | A proprietary water- and lipid-soluble polymer-based nutritional supplement composed of a complex mixture of alpha-lipoic acid bound to palladium (Palladium Lipoic Acid Complex (PdLA)) and other minerals, vitamins and amino acids, including vitamins B1, B2 and B12, formylmethionine, acetyl cysteine, and trace amounts of molybdinum, rhodium, and ruthenium, with potential anti-oxidant and cytoprotective activities. Upon oral administration, the alpha-lipoic acid-palladium/vitamin/mineral supple... |
| Alpha-PD1/IL2 Fusion Protein AWT020 | A bifunctional fusion protein comprised of a monoclonal antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) linked to an engineered, variant form of interleukin-2 (IL-2) and IL2c mutein (No-alpha-IL-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-PD-1-IL-2 fusion protein AWT020, the antibody moiety specifically targets, binds to and blocks PD-1 expressed on tumor-... |
| Alpha-Thioguanine Deoxyriboside | A purine analog with potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Alpha-tocopheryloxyacetic Acid | An orally bioavailable vitamin E derivative with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon administration, alpha-tocopheryloxyacetic acid (alpha-TEA) induces tumor autophagy; the autophagosomes formed, which carry tumor associated antigens (TAAs), allow for increased cross-presentation of TAAs by professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs). This activates a T cell-mediated T helper type 1 (TH1) response, generates a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cancer c... |
| Alpha-type-1 Polarized Dendritic Cells | A mature polarized dendritic cell with potent immunostimulating activity. Treating dendritic cells (DCs) with interferon-alpha (IFN-a) and polyinosinic:polycytidylic acid (p-I:C) in addition to a cytokine cocktail (tumor necrosis factor alpha/Interleukin-1beta/IFN-gamma) produces mature but not exhausted alpha type-1 polarized DCs (alphaDC1) that are capable of: 1) high responsiveness to other lymphoid chemokines, and 2) producing high level of interleukin-12p70 (IL-12p70). Therefore, alphaDC... |
| AlphaVbeta1/8 Inhibitor PLN-101095 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule dual inhibitor of the integrins alpha V beta 1 (aVb1) and 8 (aVb8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, alphaVbeta1/8 inhibitor PLN-101095 targets, binds to and inhibits the integrins aVb1 and aVb8 in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This blocks aVb1/8-mediated signaling and prevents the activation of tumor growth factor-beta (TGF-b). Inhibition of TGF-b promotes T-cell infiltration and the release of... |
| ALPK1 Agonist PTT-936 | An orally bioavailable innate immune agonist and activator of the cytosolic alpha-protein kinase 1 (ALPK1) that is an ADP-heptose derived from bacteria, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ALPK1 agonist PTT-936, being a ADP-heptose, specifically targets and binds to ALPK1, thereby activating the ALPK1-mediated signal transduction pathway. This initiates the phosphorylation of TRAF-interacting protein with forkhead-associated domain (TIFA), ... |
| Alrizomadlin | An orally available inhibitor of human homolog of double minute 2 (HDM2; mouse double minute 2 homolog; MDM2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration,alrizomadlin binds to HDM2, preventing the binding of the HDM2 protein to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this HDM2-p53 interaction, the proteasome-mediated enzymatic degradation of p53 is inhibited and the transcriptional activity of p53 is restored. This may res... |
| Alsevalimab | A fully human, glycoengineered monoclonal antibody targeting B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1) with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint inhibitory activities. Upon intravenous administration, alsevalimab binds to B7-H4 on the surface of tumor cells, thereby preventing B7-H4 binding to T-cells and abrogating the B7-H4-mediated negative regulation of T-cell activation. This increases a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response... |
| Alteminostat | A highly water-soluble, pan histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, alteminostat targets and inhibits HDAC, resulting in an accumulation of highly acetylated histones, the induction of chromatin remodeling, and an altered pattern of gene expression. This leads to the inhibition of tumor oncogene transcription, and the selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes, which results in the inhibition of tumor cell division and the indu... |
| Altiratinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of c-Met/hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2), Tie2 receptor tyrosine kinase (TIE2), and tropomyosin receptor kinase (Trk), with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, altiratinib selectively binds to c-Met, VEGFR2, Tie2 and Trk tyrosine kinases, which may lead to the inhibition of endothelial cell migration, proliferation and survival. This also results in b... |
| Altretamine | A synthetic cytotoxic s-triazine derivative similar in structure to alkylating agent triethylenemelamin with antineoplastic activity.  Although the precise mechanism by which altretamine exerts its cytotoxic effect is unknown, N-demethylation of altretamine may produce reactive intermediates which covalently bind to DNA, resulting in DNA damage. (NCI04) |
| Alunacedase Alfa | A recombinant, soluble glycosylated form of human angiotensin converting enzyme 2 (rhACE2) with antihypertensive and potential antineoplastic activities. Alunacedase Alfa may normalize ACE2 levels, cleaving angiotensin II to create angiotensin-(1-7) and restoring the function of the renin-angiotensin system (RAS). ACE2, a homolog of ACE1, appears to function as a negative regulator of the RAS system by converting angiotensin II to angiotensin-(1-7), a peptide with actions that counteract the ... |
| ALVAC gp100 Vaccine | A vaccine composed of the replication-defective plaque purified recombinant canarypox virus (ALVAC) that encodes the glycoprotein 100 (gp100) gene, with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination with ALVAC gp100 may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for the gp100 melanoma antigen, resulting in decreased tumor growth. |
| ALVAC(2) Melanoma Multi-antigen Vaccine | A therapeutic cancer vaccine, based on a replication-defective recombinant canarypox virus (ALVAC) encoding multiple melanoma antigens, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with ALVAC(2) melanoma multi-antigen therapeutic vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount an immune response against antigen-expressing melanoma cells, resulting in inhibition of tumor growth and/or metastasis. |
| ALVAC(2)-NY-ESO-1 (M)/TRICOM Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a replication-defective recombinant canarypox virus [ALVAC(2)] encoding the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO and the TRIad of COstimulatory Molecules (B7-1, ICAM-1 and LFA-3; also called TRICOM), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ALVAC(2)/NY-ESO (M)/TRICOM vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against NY-ESO-expressing cancer cells, which may result in the inhi... |
| ALVAC-CEA B7.1 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine that uses a viral vector system derived from the canarypox virus engineered to target the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). It causes infected cells to temporarily display CEA and activates the immune system to attack the tumor cells. |
| ALVAC-CEA Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of ALVAC, a highly attenuated poxvirus strain derived from the canarypox virus, encoding for the tumor associated antigen (TAA) carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ALVAC-CEA vaccine expresses CEA and may stimulate a host immune response against tumor cells expressing CEA. This may result in the inhibition of tumor growth and/or metastasis. CEA is overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types. |
| ALVAC-ESO-1 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a replication-defective recombinant canarypox virus (ALVAC) encoding the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ALVAC-ESO-1 vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against NY-ESO-1-expressing cancer cells, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. NY-ESO-1, a tumor associated antigen (TAA), is found in normal t... |
| ALVAC-hB7.1 | A vaccine comprise of a canarypox viral vector that carries the gene for human B7.1 (CD80 antigen) with potential use as an autologous therapeutic cancer vaccine.  Tumor cells harvested from a patient are infected with ALVAC-hB7 1, thereby producing an autologous cell line that exhibits increased expression of HLA class I and class II, CD54 (ICAM), and CD80. Increased expression of these proteins by this autologous cell line may activate an antitumor T-cell response when the modified cells ar... |
| ALVAC-MART-1 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing a replication-defective recombinant canarypox virus (ALVAC), encoding an epitope of MART-1 (melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the MART-1 epitope is expressed by the ALVAC vector in ALVAC-MART-1 vaccine; a host cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against MART-1-expressing tumor cells may follow, resulting in tumor cell lysis and decreased tumor cell proliferation. |
| Alvespimycin | An analogue of the antineoplastic benzoquinone antibiotic geldanamycin. Alvespimycin binds to HSP90, a chaperone protein that aids in the assembly, maturation and folding of proteins. Subsequently, the function of Hsp90 is inhibited, leading to the degradation and depletion of its client proteins such as kinases and transcription factors involved with cell cycle regulation and signal transduction. |
| Alvespimycin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of alvespimycin, an analogue of the antineoplastic benzoquinone antibiotic geldanamycin. Alvespimycin binds to HSP90, a chaperone protein that aids in the assembly, maturation and folding of proteins. Subsequently, the function of Hsp90 is inhibited, leading to the degradation and depletion of its client proteins such as kinases and transcription factors involved with cell cycle regulation and signal transduction. |
| Alvocidib | The free base form of a synthetic N-methylpiperidinyl chlorophenyl flavone compound. As an inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase, alvocidib induces cell cycle arrest by preventing phosphorylation of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) and by down-regulating cyclin D1 and D3 expression, resulting in G1 cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. This agent is also a competitive inhibitor of adenosine triphosphate activity. |
| Alvocidib Hydrochloride | A synthetic N-methylpiperidinyl chlorophenyl flavone compound. As an inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase, alvocidib induces cell cycle arrest by preventing phosphorylation of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) and by down-regulating cyclin D1 and D3 expression, resulting in G1 cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. This agent is also a competitive inhibitor of adenosine triphosphate activity. |
| Alvocidib Prodrug TP-1287 | An orally bioavailable, highly soluble phosphate prodrug of alvocidib, a potent inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase-9 (CDK9), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the phosphate prodrug TP-1287, the prodrug is enzymatically cleaved at the tumor site and the active moiety alvocidib is released. Alvocidib targets and binds to CDK9, thereby reducing the expression of CDK9 target genes such as the anti-apoptotic protein MCL-1, and inducing G1 cell cycle arrest and apopto... |
| Amatuximab | A chimeric IgG1 monoclonal antibody against human mesothelin with potential anti-tumor activity. Amatuximab specifically targets mesothelin, a cell surface glycoprotein involved in cell adhesion and overexpressed on many epithelial-derived cancer cells. Upon binding to the mesothelin antigen, amatuximab triggers an antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)-mediated host immune response against mesothelin-expressing cells, resulting in cell lysis. |
| Ambamustine | A tripeptidic nitrogen mustard compound and bifunctional alkylating agent with antineoplastic activity. |
| Ambazone | An antiseptic agent with potential antibacterial and antileukemic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action remains to be fully elucidated, ambazone appears to interfere with the membrane-bound nucleotide system by increasing the intracellular concentration of cAMP in leukemia cells and macrophages, which potentially contributes to this agent's antineoplastic activity. Furthermore, this agent's affinity for various cellular targets, i.e. membranes, nucleic acids and proteins, may contr... |
| Amblyomin-X | A recombinant form of a toxic protein derived from the salivary glands of the Amblyomma cajennense tick that inhibits Factor Xa and induces apoptosis, with potential antithrombotic and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, amblyomin-X promotes endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress, mitochondrial dysfunction, cytochrome-c release, poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) cleavage, and activation of caspase. Additionally, this agent selectively induces apoptosis in tumor cells. It also affects... |
| Amcasertib | An orally available cancer cell stemness kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Even though the exact target has not been fully elucidated, amcasertib targets and inhibits one or more pathways involved in cancer stem cell survival. As a result, cancer stem cell (CSC) growth as well as heterogeneous cancer cell growth is inhibited. CSCs, self-replicating cells able to differentiate into heterogeneous cancer cells, appear to be responsible for both tumor relapse and metastasis. |
| Amcenestrant | An orally available, nonsteroidal selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, amcenestrant specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that promotes ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Amdizalisib | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the delta isoform of phosphatidylinositide 3-kinase (phosphoinositide 3'-kinase delta; PI3Kd; PI3K-d), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, amdizalisib selectively binds to and inhibits PI3Kd, and prevents the activation of the PI3Kd/AKT signaling pathway, and B-cell activation. This both decreases proliferation and induces cell death in PI3Kd-overexpressing tumor cells. PI3Kd plays a key role in the B-cell receptor (B... |
| Ametantrone | A topoisomerase II inhibitor of the anthrapyrazole family that causes covalent cross-links in DNA of tumor cells. |
| Ametumumab | A human recombinant immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ametumumab targets, binds to and prevents the activation of EGFR. This inhibits EGFR-mediated signaling and proliferation of EGFR-expressing tumor cells. In addition, ametumumab may induce antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC) against EGFR-expressing tum... |
| Amifostine | The trihydrate form of a phosphorylated aminosulfhydryl compound. After dephosphorylation of amifostine by alkaline phosphatase to an active free sulfhydryl (thiol) metabolite, the thiol metabolite binds to and detoxifies cytotoxic platinum-containing metabolites of cisplatin and scavenges free radicals induced by cisplatin and ionizing radiation. The elevated activity of this agent in normal tissues results from both the relative abundance of alkaline phosphatase in normal tissues and the gr... |
| Aminocamptothecin | A water-insoluble camptothecin derivative.  Aminocamptothecin binds to the nuclear enzyme topoisomerase I, thereby inhibiting repair of single-strand DNA breakages.  Because the terminal lactone ring of aminocamptothecin required for the agent's antitumor activity spontaneously opens under physiological conditions to an inactive carboxy form, the drug must be administered over an extended period of time to achieve effective cytotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Aminocamptothecin Colloidal Dispersion | A colloidal dispersion formulation of 9-Aminocamptothecin, a water-insoluble camptothecin derivative. Aminocamptothecin binds to the nuclear enzyme topoisomerase I, thereby inhibiting repair of single-strand DNA breakages. Because the terminal lactone ring of aminocamptothecin required for the agent's antitumor activity spontaneously opens under physiological conditions to an inactive carboxy form, the drug must be administered over an extended period of time to achieve effective cytotoxicity. |
| Aminoflavone Prodrug AFP464 | A synthetic lysyl prodrug of the amino-substituted flavone derivate aminoflavone with antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. AFP464 is rapidly converted to aminoflavone in plasma. Aminoflavone activates the aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AhR) signaling pathway leading to an increase in cytochrome P450 1A1 (CYP1A1) and cytochrome P450 1A2 (CYP1A2) expression and, to a lesser extent, an increase in cytochrome P450 1B1 (CYP1B1) expression. Subsequently, aminoflavone is metabolized to toxic... |
| Aminolevulinic Acid Intravenous Formulation SONALA-001 | An intravenous formulation of aminolevulinic acid (ALA), a metabolic precursor of the photosensitizer protoporphyrin IX (PpIX), with potential antineoplastic activity upon magnetic resonance-guided focused ultrasound (MRgFUS). Upon intravenous administration of SONALA-001, ALA readily crosses the blood brain barrier (BBB) and accumulates intracellularly, where ALA is metabolized to the photosensitizer PpIX by enzymes in the heme biosynthesis pathway. Due to the distinct activity of these enzy... |
| Aminopterin | A synthetic derivative of pterins with antineoplastic and immunosuppressive properties.  As a folate analogue, aminopterin competes for the folate binding site of the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, thereby blocking tetrahydrofolate synthesis, and resulting in depletion of nucleotide precursors and inhibition of DNA, RNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Aminopterin Sodium | The sodium salt of a pterin derivative with antineoplastic and immunosuppressive properties.  As a folate analogue, aminopterin competes for the folate binding site of the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, thereby blocking tetrahydrofolate synthesis, and resulting in depletion of nucleotide precursors and inhibition of DNA, RNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Amivantamab | A human bispecific antibody targeting both epidermal growth factor receptor EGFR and hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; cMet), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, amivantamab simultaneously targets and binds to wild-type or certain mutant forms of both EGFR and cMet expressed on cancer cells, thereby preventing receptor phosphorylation. This prevents the activation of both EGFR- and cMet-mediated signaling pathways. In addition, binding results in receptor degra... |
| Amivantamab and Recombinant Human Hyaluronidase | A co-formulation composed of amivantamab, a human bispecific antibody targeting both epidermal growth factor receptor EGFR and hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; c-Met), and a recombinant form of human hyaluronidase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration of amivantamab and recombinant human hyaluronidase, the hyaluronidase reversibly depolymerizes the polysaccharide hyaluronan in the subcutaneous tissue. This increases the permeability of the subcutane... |
| AML mRNA Positive Lysate Loaded Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells loaded with separate preparations of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) cell lysate and AML-specific messenger RNA (mRNA) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, AML mRNA plus lysate loaded autologous dendritic cell vaccine may elicit a potent cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against AML cells, resulting in tumor cell death. Autologous dendritic cells doubly-loaded with AML cell lysate and AML-... |
| Amolimogene Bepiplasmid | A plasmid DNA-based vaccine consisting of small biodegradable poly(lactide-co-glicolide) polymer microparticles encapsulating plasmid-DNA vector encoding a chimeric protein comprising epitopes derived from the E6 and E7 oncoproteins of the human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intramuscular vaccination, amolimogene bepiplasmid may elicit the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for H... |
| Amonafide L-Malate | The malate salt of amonafide, an imide derivative of naphthalic acid, with potential antineoplastic activity. Amonafide intercalates into DNA and inhibits topoisomerase II, resulting in DNA double-strand breaks (DSB) and inhibition of DNA replication and RNA synthesis. |
| AMP KRAS Vaccine ELI-002 | A peptide-based cancer vaccine composed of the adjuvant Amphiphile (Amph; AMP)-CpG-7909, which is a lipid-conjugated immune-stimulatory oligonucleotide, admixed with Amph modified Kirsten Rat Sarcoma (KRAS) mutated peptides, which contain a mixture of lipid-conjugated peptide-based antigens, with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Upon subcutaneous administration of the AMP KRAS vaccine ELI-002, the lipid moieties bind to tissue albumin and the complex is delivered to and a... |
| Amredobresib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the bromodomain and extra-terminal (BET) family of proteins with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, amredobresib binds to bromodomain-containing proteins 2, 3, and 4 (BRD2, BRD3, and BRD4) as well as bromodomain testis-specific protein (BRDT), thereby preventing the interaction between BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and suppresses the expression of certain oncogenes, including Myc and other... |
| Amrubicin | A synthetic 9-amino-anthracycline with antineoplastic activity. Amrubicin intercalates into DNA and inhibits the activity of topoisomerase II, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication, and RNA and protein synthesis, followed by cell growth inhibition and cell death. This agent has demonstrated a higher level of anti-tumor activity than conventional anthracycline drugs without exhibiting any indication of the cumulative cardiac toxicity common to this class of compounds. |
| Amrubicin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of a third-generation synthetic 9-amino-anthracycline with antineoplastic activity. Amrubicin intercalates into DNA and inhibits the activity of topoisomerase II, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication, and RNA and protein synthesis, followed by cell growth inhibition and cell death. This agent has demonstrated a higher level of anti-tumor activity than conventional anthracycline drugs without exhibiting any indication of the cumulative cardiac toxicity common to th... |
| Amsacrine | An aminoacridine derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Although its mechanism of action is incompletely defined, amsacrine may intercalate into DNA and inhibit topoisomerase II, resulting in DNA double-strand breaks, arrest of the S/G2 phase of the cell cycle, and cell death. This agent's cytotoxicity is maximal during the S phase of the cell cycle when topoisomerase levels are greatest. In addition, amsacrine may induce transcription of tumor promoter p53 protein and block p53 u... |
| Amsacrine Lactate | The lactate form of amsacrine, an aminoacridine analog and topoisomerase II inhibitor, with antineoplastic activity. Although the exact relationship between DNA binding and its activity has yet to be fully elucidated, amsacrine intercalates DNA through its acridine moiety, and its nonintercalative headgroup impedes topoisomerase II activity, augmenting enzyme-mediated DNA cleavage and resulting in DNA double-strand breaks. This ultimately induces programmed cell death. |
| Amsilarotene | A retinobenzoic acid with potential antineoplastic activity. Amsilarotene inhibits retinoblastoma-gene product (RB) phosphorylation and increases the presence of 2 cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitors, resulting in cell cycle arrest.  This agent also causes a cytotoxic decline in cyclin A and thymidylate synthase expression. |
| Amulirafusp Alfa | A bispecific antibody directed against both the B-cell-specific membrane protein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20, and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of amulirafusp alfa, the anti-CD20 moiety selectively targets and binds to CD20 on CD20-positive B-cells, thereby improving the binding of the anti-CD47 moiety to the CD20-positive malignant B-cells. The CD47 binding by amulira... |
| Amustaline | A quinacrine mustard compound with potential antineoplastic activity. Amustaline binds to, intercalates and crosslinks DNA and RNA. This agent is mainly used for ex vivo purposes, specifically for the inactivation of pathogens such as viruses, protozoa and bacteria in red blood cells (RBCs). |
| Amustaline Dihydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of amustaline, a quinacrine mustard compound with potential antineoplastic activity. Amustaline binds to, intercalates and crosslinks DNA and RNA. This agent is mainly used for ex vivo purposes, specifically for the inactivation of pathogens such as viruses, protozoa and bacteria in red blood cells (RBCs). |
| Amuvatinib | An orally bioavailable synthetic carbothioamide with potential antineoplastic activity. Multitargeted receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor MP470 binds to mutant forms of the stem cell factor receptor (c-Kit; SCFR), inhibiting clinically relevant mutants of this receptor tyrosine kinase that may be associated with resistance to therapy. In addition, MP470 inhibits activities of other receptor tyrosine kinases, such as c-Met, Ret oncoprotein, and mutant forms of Flt3 and PDGFR alpha, which are fr... |
| Amuvatinib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of an orally bioavailable synthetic carbothioamide with potential antineoplastic activity. Multitargeted receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor MP470 binds to mutant forms of the stem cell factor receptor (c-Kit; SCFR), inhibiting clinically relevant mutants of this receptor tyrosine kinase that may be associated with resistance to therapy. In addition, MP470 inhibits activities of other receptor tyrosine kinases, such as c-Met, Ret oncoprotein, and mutant forms of Flt3 and... |
| Anakinra | A recombinant human nonglycosylated interleukin-1 (IL-1) receptor antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Anakinra binds to the IL-1 receptor, thereby blocking the binding of the IL-1 to and activation of its receptor. Blockade of IL-1 activity may inhibit the cascade of downstream pro-angiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial cell growth factor, tumor necrosis factor-alpha, and IL-6, resulting in inhibition of tumor angiogenesis. (NCI04) |
| Anastrozole | A nonsteroidal inhibitor of estrogen synthesis that resembles paclitaxel in chemical structure.  As a third-generation aromatase inhibitor, anastrozole selectively binds to and reversibly inhibits aromatase, a cytochrome P-450 enzyme complex found in many tissues including those of the premenopausal ovary, liver, and breast; aromatase catalyzes the aromatization of androstenedione and testosterone into estrone and estradiol, the final step in estrogen biosynthesis.  In estrogen-dependent brea... |
| Anaxirone | A synthetic triepoxide alkylating agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Anaxirone alkylates DNA via actual or derived epoxide groups, resulting in inhibition of DNA synthesis. This agent has been shown to exhibit a broad spectrum of antineoplastic activity against experimental tumors, including those resistant to other alkylating agents. |
| Anbalcabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anbalcabtagene autoleucel targets and binds to CD19-expressing tumor cells. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressing tumor cells and tumor cell lysis. CD19 is a B-cell-specific cell surface antige... |
| Anbenitamab | An engineered Fc-based heterodimeric bispecific monoclonal antibody, derived from trastuzumab and pertuzumab, directed against two distinct epitopes of the extracellular dimerization domain of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anbenitamab simultaneously targets and binds to two separate, non-overlapping epitopes of HER-2, ... |
| Ancitabine | A cytarabine congener prodrug with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ancitabine is slowly hydrolyzed into cytarabine, which is converted to the active triphosphate form and competes with deoxycytidine triphosphate for incorporation into DNA. Because the arabinose sugar sterically hinders the rotation of the molecule within DNA, DNA replication ceases, specifically during the S phase of the cell cycle. This agent also inhibits DNA and RNA polymerases, resulting in a decrease in cel... |
| Ancitabine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of a cytarabine congener prodrug with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ancitabine is slowly hydrolyzed into cytarabine. Subsequently, cytarabine is converted to the triphosphate form within the cell and then competes with cytidine for incorporation into DNA. Because the arabinose sugar sterically hinders the rotation of the molecule within DNA, DNA replication ceases, specifically during the S phase of the cell cycle. Cytarabine agent also inhibits DNA poly... |
| Andecaliximab | A humanized monoclonal antibody against matrix metalloproteinase 9 (MMP-9), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, andecaliximab binds to MMP-9 and inhibits its enzymatic activity. This results in an inhibition of extracellular matrix protein degradation and, potentially, the inhibition of angiogenesis, tumor growth, invasion, and metastasis. MMP-9, a protein belonging to the MMP family, plays a key role in the degradation of collagens and proteoglycans; increased activi... |
| Androgen Antagonist APC-100 | An orally available, vitamin E derivative and androgen receptor (AR) antagonist with potential anti-oxidant, chemopreventative and antineoplastic activity. APC-100 binds to ARs in target tissues thereby inhibiting androgen-induced receptor activation and facilitating the formation of inactive complexes that cannot be translocated to the nucleus. By inhibiting the formation of the complex between androgen activated AR- and the AP1 transcription factor JunD, the expression of androgen-responsiv... |
| Androgen Receptor Antagonist BAY 1161116 | An orally bioavailable antagonist of the androgen receptor (AR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AR antagonist BAY 1161116 specifically binds to AR, inhibits AR activation, and prevents AR-mediated signaling. This inhibits cell growth in AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR is overexpressed in prostate cancers and is involved in proliferation, survival and chemoresistance of tumor cells. |
| Androgen Receptor Antagonist TAS3681 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the androgen receptor (AR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AR inhibitor TAS3681 specifically binds to AR. This prevents AR activation, downregulates AR and prevents AR-mediated signaling. This inhibits cell growth in AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR is overexpressed in prostate cancers and is involved in proliferation, survival and chemoresistance of tumor cells. |
| Androgen Receptor Antagonist TQB3720 | An orally bioavailable antagonist of the androgen receptor (AR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AR antagonist TQB3720 specifically targets and binds to the AR, thereby inhibiting both AR activation and the AR-mediated signaling pathway. This may inhibit cell growth in AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR is overexpressed in prostate cancers and is involved in the proliferation, survival and chemoresistance of tumor cells. |
| Androgen Receptor Antagonist TRC253 | An orally bioavailable androgen receptor (AR) antagonist, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AR antagonist TRC253 specifically binds to both wild-type and certain mutant forms of AR, thereby preventing androgen-induced receptor activation and facilitating the formation of inactive complexes that cannot translocate to the nucleus. This prevents binding to and transcription of AR-responsive genes, inhibits the expression of genes that regulate prostate cancer cell... |
| Androgen Receptor Antisense Oligonucleotide AZD5312 | An antisense oligonucleotide targeting the androgen receptor (AR) mRNA, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, AZD5312 hybridizes with AR mRNA, which blocks translation of the AR protein. This both inhibits AR-induced tumor cell growth and promotes apoptosis in AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR is overexpressed in certain breast and prostate cancers and is involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. |
| Androgen Receptor Antisense Oligonucleotide EZN-4176 | A locked nucleic acid (LNA)-based antisense oligonucleotide targeting the androgen receptor (AR) mRNA, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, EZN-4176 is hybridized and releases the complementary sequences of AR mRNA, thereby blocking translation of the AR protein and inhibiting AR-induced tumor cell growth and promoting tumor cell apoptosis in AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR is overexpressed in certain breast and prostate cancers and is involved in tumor cell prolifer... |
| Androgen Receptor Degrader AC176 | An orally bioavailable androgen receptor (AR) chimeric degrader, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AR degrader AC176 targets and degrades AR, thereby preventing AR-mediated signaling and inhibiting the proliferation of AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR, a hormone-regulated transcription factor, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation in castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC). |
| Androgen Receptor Degrader HP518 | An orally available androgen receptor (AR)-targeted protein degrader, using the proteolysis targeting chimera (PROTAC) technology, with potential antineoplastic activity. HP518 is composed of an AR ligand attached to an E3 ligase recognition moiety. Upon oral administration of AR degrader HP518, the AR-binding moiety specifically targets and binds to AR, particularly AR with AR ligand-binding domain (LBD) mutations. E3 ligase is recruited to the AR by the E3 ligase recognition moiety and the ... |
| Androgen Receptor Degrader RO7656594 | An orally bioavailable androgen receptor (AR) degrader, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AR degrader RO7656594 targets, binds to and degrades AR, thereby preventing AR-mediated signaling and inhibiting the proliferation of AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR, a hormone-regulated transcription factor, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation in castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC). |
| Androgen Receptor Downregulator AZD3514 | An orally available selective androgen receptor (AR) downregulator (SARD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AZD3514 binds to the AR ligand binding domain and inhibits the binding of androgen, thereby preventing androgen-dependent AR signaling. AZD3514 also causes downregulation of AR expression, which further prevents AR-mediated signaling. This results in an inhibition of proliferation in AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR plays a key role in the proliferation... |
| Androgen Receptor Inhibitor ONCT-534 | An orally bioavailable dual-action androgen receptor (AR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AR inhibitor ONCT-534 targets and binds to both the ligand-binding domain (LBD) and the N-terminal domain (NTD) of the AR, and inhibits AR-mediated signaling and induces the degradation of AR and AR splice variant (AR-SV) proteins. This may inhibit cell growth in AR-overexpressing tumor cells, including those with AR amplification, mutations in the AR LBD, and... |
| Androgen Receptor Ligand-binding Domain-encoding Plasmid DNA Vaccine MVI-118 | A cancer vaccine containing pTVG4 plasmid DNA encoding the human androgen receptor (AR) ligand-binding domain (LBD) (pTVG-AR), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration of AR LBD-encoding plasmid DNA vaccine MVI-118, the plasmid DNA vaccine expresses AR LBD and may stimulate the host immune system to generate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against AR LBD-expressing prostate cancer cells. This reduces proliferation of AR-expressing... |
| Androgen Receptor/Glucocorticoid Receptor Antagonist CB-03-10 | An orally bioavailable steroidal cortexolone derivative and antagonist of the androgen receptor (AR) and glucocorticoid receptor (GR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AR/GR antagonist CB-03-10 specifically binds to AR and GR, inhibits AR and GR activation, and prevents AR- and GR-mediated signaling. This leads to an induction of both extrinsic and intrinsic apoptotic pathways and inhibits cell growth in AR- and GR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR and GR are ove... |
| Andrographolide | A labdane diterpenoid that is produced by the Andrographis paniculata plant, which has a broad range of therapeutic applications including anti-inflammatory and anti-platelet aggregation activities and potential antineoplastic properties. Since andrographolide has multiple therapeutic activities there are several proposed mechanisms of action for this agent. The anti-inflammatory effects of this agent appear to be related to the inhibition of nitric oxide (NO) production by macrophages. This ... |
| Androstane Steroid HE3235 | An orally bioavailable adrenal steroid analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Androstane steroid HE3235 appears to bind the androgen receptor (AR), down-regulating anti-apoptotic genes, such as Bcl-2, while increasing the expression of pro-apoptotic genes, such as caspases. In vitro and in vivo studies indicate that this agent inhibits androstenediol-dependent LNCaP cell tumor growth. In addition, HE3235 may potentiate chemotherapeutic agents by down-regulating ABCG2, the gene encod... |
| Anetumab Ravtansine | A fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein mesothelin and conjugated to the maytansinoid DM4 with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of anetumab ravtansine targets and binds to the tumor associated antigen mesothelin; upon internalization, the DM4 moiety binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, resulting in inhibition of cell division and cell growth of mesothelin-expressing tumor cells. ... |
| Ang2/VEGF-Binding Peptides-Antibody Fusion Protein CVX-241 | A fusion protein containing angiopoietin-2 (Ang2) and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) derived peptides covalently attached, via a proprietary diketone linker, to a proprietary humanized catalytic aldolase monoclonal antibody, with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. The Ang2/VEGF peptide moieties of Ang2/VEGF-binding peptides-antibody fusion protein CVX-241 bind to Ang2 and VEGF receptors, which may inhibit tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. The pro... |
| Angelica sinensis Root Extract | An herbal extract derived from the root of the plant Angelica sinensis with possible antiinflammatory, antispasmodic, vasodilatory, estrogenic, and antitumor activities. Angelica sinensis contains volatile oils, including safrole, isosafrole, and n-butylphthalide; coumarin derivatives, including psoralens, bergapten, osthol, imperatorin, and oxypeucedanin; and ferulic acid. The coumarin derivatives in this agent may vasodilate and relax smooth muscle and may exhibit additive anticoagulant eff... |
| Angiogenesis Inhibitor JI-101 | An orally active inhibitor of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), platelet-derived growth factor receptor beta (PDGFRb), and the ephrin B4 receptor B4 (EphB4) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Angiogenesis inhibitor JI-101 binds to and inhibits VEGFR2, PDGFRb and EphB4, which may inhibit tumor angiogenesis and, so, cellular proliferation in tumor cells overexpressing VEGFR2, PDGFRb and EphB4. The receptor tyrosine kinases VEGFR2, PDGFRb and EphB4... |
| Angiopoietin-2-specific Fusion Protein PF-04856884 | A humanized monoclonal antibody fused to two peptides that bind to angiopoietin 2 (Ang2; ANGPT2), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, Ang2-targeting PF-04856884 CovX body specifically binds to Ang2 and prevents the binding of Ang2 to its receptor Tie2 expressed on endothelial cells. This inhibits Tie2-mediated signaling, prevents angiogenesis and inhibits tumor cell proliferation.  Ang2, a proangiogenic cytokine and ligand for the Tie... |
| Anhydrous Enol-oxaloacetate | The anhydrous form of enol-oxaloacetate, a small molecule blood glutamate scavenger, that can be used to lower glutamate plasma levels, and has potential neuroprotective activity. Upon administration, enol-oxaloacetate targets and binds to glutamate in the bloodstream. This lowers glutamate plasma levels and lowers the free glutamate available to be picked up by cells, such as tumor brain cells, thereby preventing glutamate metabolism and glutamate-mediated signaling. This prevents the prolif... |
| Anhydrovinblastine | A semisynthetic derivative of the vinca alkaloid vinblastine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Like vinblastine, anhydrovinblastine targets and binds to tubulin and inhibits microtubule formation, resulting in disruption of mitotic spindle assembly and causing tumor cell cycle arrest in the M phase. |
| Aniline Mustard | An alkylating mustard with antineoplastic activity. Aniline mustard forms covalent linkages with nucleophilic centers, resulting in depurination, base miscoding and strand scission, and crosslinking of DNA strands, all of which contribute to its cytotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Annamycin Liposomal | A liposome-encapsulated form of the semi-synthetic doxorubicin analogue annamycin with antineoplastic activity. Annamycin intercalates into DNA and inhibits topoisomerase II, resulting in the inhibition of DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis. This agent circumvents multidrug-resistance (MDR) transporters, including P-glycoprotein (P-gp). Liposomal annamycin is less toxic and shows improved antitumor activity compared to annamycin. |
| Annonaceous Acetogenins | A family of naturally occurring polyketides that consist of C32 or C34 long chain fatty acids and combined with a propan-2-ol unit at C-2 to form a gamma-lactone, which are isolated from various species of the plant family Annonaceae, with potential antineoplastic and antimicrobial activity. Annonaceous acetogenins bind to the ubiquinone catalytic site(s) within the mitochondrial NADH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase (complex I), and block the electron transport chain in mitochondria. In addition, t... |
| Anpocogin | An 85-amino acid recombinant peptide derived from protein c2 of the hemophagocytic hookworm Ancylostoma caninum (a common canine parasite) with anticoagulant activity. Anpocogin binds to circulating activated factor X (FXa) or zymogen factor X (FX) to form a binary complex which subsequently binds to and inhibits membrane-bound activated factor VII/tissue factor complex (FVIIa/TF). When administered prophylactically, this agent may reduce the incidence of deep venous thrombosis without hemost... |
| Ansamitomicin P-3 | An ansamacrolide and maytansine analogue originally isolated from the Ethiopian shrub Maytenus serrata with antineoplastic activity. Ansamitomicin P-3 binds to tubulin at the maytansine-binding site, thereby inhibiting microtubule assembly, inducing microtubule disassembly, and disrupting mitosis. |
| Anthocyanin-rich Corn Extract | A corn-based, water-soluble extract rich in the polyphenol anthocyanin, with potential antioxidant, anti-inflammatory and chemoprotective activities. Upon administration of the anthocyanin-rich corn extract, the anthocyanins scavenge reactive oxygen species (ROS), which protects healthy cells from radiation-induced oxidative stress and DNA damage. In addition, anthocyanins modulate the expression of various genes and proteins involved in inflammation, tumor cell proliferation, angiogenesis, t... |
| Anthramycin | A pyrrolo(1,4)benzodiazepine antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces refuineus var. thermotolerans.  Anthramycin binds covalently to guanine in the minor groove of DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and RNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Anthrapyrazole | An antineoplastic antibiotic that intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis.  Anthrapyrazoles may also block cell cycle division.  In the presence of electron donors, some anthrapyrazole antibiotics cause single-strand breaks in DNA via photosensitization by visible light.  These agents are less cardiotoxic than doxorubicin. (NCI04) |
| Anti c-KIT Antibody-drug Conjugate LOP628 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a humanized monoclonal antibody against the stem cell factor receptor c-Kit (SCFR) and conjugated, via a non-cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic agent maytansine, with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of anti c-KIT ADC LOP628 targets and binds to the cell surface antigen c-Kit. After antibody-antigen interaction followed by internalization, the maytansine moiety binds to tubulin, inhibits microtubule assembly, and ... |
| Anti-4-1BB Fab/TriCD40L Fusion Protein IMB071703 | A bi-functional fusion protein consisting of a monovalent Fab fragment directed against 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) fused to a CD40 ligand (CD40L; CD154; TRAP; TNFSF5) trimer, triCD40L, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-4-1BB Fab/triCD40L fusion protein IMB071703 selectively targets and binds to both 4-1BB expressed on T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells, and CD40 expressed on ... |
| Anti-4-1BB/5T4 Bispecific Antibody ALG.APV-527 | A human bispecific antibody composed of a single-chain variable fragment (scFv) domain targeting the immune co-stimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) and a scFv domain targeting the tumor associated antigen (TAA) 5T4 (trophoblast glycoprotein; TPBG), that are linked through a mutated and silenced immunoglobulin G (IgG)-Fc domain, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-4-1BB/5T4 bispec... |
| Anti-4-1BB/PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody BH3120 | A heterodimeric immunoglobulin (IgG)-like bispecific antibody, with biased binding affinities, targeting human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-4-1BB/PD-L1 bispecific antibody BH3120 simultaneously targets and binds with its anti-4-1BB arm and with moderate affin... |
| Anti-4-1BB/PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody PM1003 | A VHH-based bispecific antibody targeting human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-4-1BB/PD-L1 bispecific antibody PM1003 simultaneously targets and binds, with its anti-4-1BB VHH arm, to an epitope at the CRD4 region of 4-1BB, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-l... |
| Anti-5T4 Antibody-drug Conjugate ASN004 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody directed against 5T4 and conjugated, via a non-cleavable linker, to a proprietary polymer carrying multiple auristatin analog molecules via a cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of ASN004 selectively binds to cells expressing the 5T4 oncofetal antigen. After internalization and cleavage within the tumor cell cytosol, free auristatin analog molecules binds to tubulin and inhi... |
| Anti-5T4 Antibody-Drug Conjugate PF-06263507 | An antibody-drug conjugate composed of an antibody directed against 5T4 and conjugated, via the stable linker maleimidocaproyl (mc), to the microtubule inhibitor monomethyl auristatin phenylalanine (MMAF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of PF-06263507 selectively binds to cells expressing the 5T4 oncofetal antigen. After internalization and enzymatic cleavage of the immunoconjugate within the tumor cell cytosol, free MMAF binds to tubulin and ... |
| Anti-5T4 Antibody-drug Conjugate SYD1875 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the oncofetal antigen 5T4 and site-specifically conjugated to a duocarmycin-based linker-drug valine-citrulline-seco-DUocarmycin-hydroxyBenzamide-Azaindole (vc-seco-DUBA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of SYD1875 selectively binds to cells expressing the 5T4 oncofetal antigen. After internalization and cleavage within the tum... |
| Anti-5T4 CAR-NK Cells | A preparation of allogeneic natural killer cells (NKs) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) oncofetal trophoblast glycoprotein (5T4; TPBG; Wnt-activated inhibitory factor 1 or WAIF1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, the anti-5T4 CAR-NK cells recognize, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in 5T4-expressing tumor cells. 5T4, a transmembrane glycoprotein, is overexpressed by a variety o... |
| Anti-5T4/D-2102 Antibody-Drug Conjugate ACR246 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the oncofetal antigen 5T4 and site-specifically conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the cell penetrating cytotoxic agent and DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor D-2102, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-5T4/D-2102 ADC ACR246, the anti-5T4 antibody moiety of ACR246 selectively binds to cells expressing 5T4. After internalization and cleavage within the tumor cell cytosol... |
| Anti-5T4/MMAE Antibody-Drug Conjugate XB010 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the oncofetal antigen 5T4 conjugated to the auristatin derivative and microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-5T4/MMAE ADC XB010, the anti-5T4 antibody moiety selectively binds to tumor cells expressing 5T4. Upon binding and internalization, MMAE binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, which results in ... |
| Anti-A33 Monoclonal Antibody KRN330 | A recombinant fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the human A33 antigen, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activity. Anti-A33 monoclonal antibody KRN330 recognizes and binds to the human A33 antigen, which may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against A33-positive colorectal cancers. A33 antigen, a 43 kDa transmembrane glycoprotein of the immunoglobulin superfamily, is highly and homogenously expressed in 95% of colorect... |
| Anti-A5B1 Integrin Monoclonal Antibody PF-04605412 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the human alpha5beta1 integrin with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Anti-alpha5beta1 integrin monoclonal antibody PF-04605412 selectively binds to alpha5beta1 integrin, preventing the binding of integrin ligands. This may result in the inhibition of endothelial cell-cell interactions, endothelial cell-matrix interactions, and integrin-mediated tumor angiogenesis and metastasis in alpha5beta1-expressing tumor cells. Alpha5beta1 int... |
| Anti-ACTR/4-1BB/CD3zeta-Viral Vector-transduced Autologous T-Lymphocytes ACTR087 | Autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically modified and transfected with a viral vector expressing the ACTR gene, a proprietary gene encoding for an antibody-coupled T-cell receptor (ATCR), with potential antineoplastic activity. The ACTR contains the extracellular Fc receptor CD16 domain, normally found on certain immune cells, such as natural killer (NK) cells, coupled to the co-immunostimulatory signaling domain 4-1BB, normally expressed on T-cells, and linked to the intracellular CD3 z... |
| Anti-AG7 Antibody Drug Conjugate AbGn-107 | An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody that targets the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) AG7 and is linked, through a hydrophilic, self-immolative linker, to a proprietary cytotoxic payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of AbGn-107 the antibody moiety targets and binds to the AG7 antigen expressed on a variety of cancer cells. Upon binding and internalization, the linker is cleaved and the payload is released, binds to tubulin, inhibits... |
| Anti-AGS-16 Monoclonal Antibody AGS-16M18 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the activator of g-proteins signaling (AGS) cell surface protein AGS-16 with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-AGS-16 monoclonal antibody AGS-16M18 selectively binds to AGS-16, triggering complement-dependent cell lysis (CDCL) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) in tumor cells expressing AGS-16. While normally expressed at low levels in the proximal tubules of the kidney, AGS-16 has been found to be overexpressed in m... |
| Anti-AGS-5 Antibody-Drug Conjugate ASG-5ME | An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) containing the fully human IgG2k monoclonal antibody targeting an epitope of SLC44A4 (AGS-5) linked, via a valine-citrulline (vc) maleimidocaproyl (mc) linker, to the antimicrotubulin drug monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of ASG-5ME selectively binds to AGS-5. After internalization and proteolytic cleavage, MMAE binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, which results in G2/M phase ar... |
| Anti-AGS-8 Monoclonal Antibody AGS-8M4 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the activator of g-proteins signaling (AGS) cell surface protein AGS-8 with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-AGS-8 monoclonal antibody AGS-8M4 selectively binds to AGS-8, triggering complement-dependent cell lysis and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity in tumor cells expressing AGS-8. While normally expressed at low levels in the heart in response to ischemia, AGS-8 has been found to be expressed in more than 70% of ovarian ne... |
| Anti-ALK-1 Monoclonal Antibody GT90001 | A human immunoglobulin G2 (IgG2) monoclonal antibody against activin receptor-like kinase-1 (ALK-1; ALK1), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ALK-1 monoclonal antibody GT90001 targets and binds to ALK-1, and prevents ALK-1 activation by its ligands bone morphogenetic protein 9 (BMP) 9 and BMP10. This prevents ALK-1-mediated endothelial cell signaling and the activation of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta)/TGF-beta receptor I (ALK-5... |
| Anti-alpha5beta1 Integrin Antibody MINT1526A | An antibody directed against the human alpha5beta1 integrin (a5b1) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Anti-a5b1 antibody MINT1526A selectively binds to a5b1, thereby preventing the binding of integrin ligands. This may result in the inhibition of endothelial cell-cell interactions, endothelial cell-matrix interactions, and integrin-mediated tumor angiogenesis and metastasis in a5b1-expressing tumor cells. a5b1, a cell adhesion and signaling receptor, is often overexp... |
| Anti-ALPP/ALPPL2/MMAE ADC SGN-ALPV | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of h12F3, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the two oncofetal phosphatases alkaline phosphatase, placental type (ALPP; placental alkaline phosphatase; PLAP), and alkaline phosphatase, placental like 2 (ALPPL2; alkaline phosphatase, germ cell) conjugated, via a protease-cleavable peptide linker, to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. U... |
| Anti-ANG2 Monoclonal Antibody MEDI-3617 | A fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody against angiopoietin 2 (ANG2), with potential antiangiogenic activity. Anti-ANG2 monoclonal antibody MEDI-3617 binds to Ang2 and interferes with the interaction between Ang2 and its receptor TEK tyrosine kinase (Tie2), thereby resulting in the disruption of vascular remodeling. This may inhibit angiogenesis and may eventually lead to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. |
| Antiangiogenic Drug Combination TL-118 | A proprietary, oral suspension containing a combination of agents comprised of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent, an alkylating agent, a histamine H2 antagonist and a sulfonamide with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Antiangiogenic drug combination TL-118 is administrated as a specific dosing regimen and may result in a synergistic effect and reduce angiogenesis and inhibit tumor cell proliferation. |
| Anti-angiopoietin Monoclonal Antibody AMG 780 | An immunoglobulin (Ig) G2 monoclonal antibody targeting the proangiogenic cytokines angiopoietin 1 (Ang1) and 2 (Ang2), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-angiopoietin monoclonal antibody AMG 780 binds to Ang1 and Ang2. This prevents the binding of the angiopoietin ligands to their receptor Tie2 (TEK), an endothelial cell-specific receptor tyrosine kinase. This prevents Tie2-mediated signaling and results in an inhibition of Tie2-expressing... |
| Anti-ASCT2 Antibody-drug Conjugate MEDI7247 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a human monoclonal antibody against neutral amino acid transporter B(0) (ASCT2; SLC1A5) that is site-specifically conjugated, via a protease-cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic, DNA minor-groove crosslinking agent pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-ASCT2 ADC MEDI7247, the antibody moiety targets and binds to ASCT2 expressed on cancer cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding, internali... |
| Anti-B7-H3 Antibody DS-5573a | An antibody directed against the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-B7-H3 antibody DS-5573a binds to the cell surface antigen B7-H3, thereby blocking B7-H3-mediated signaling. This abrogates the inhibitory effect on T-cell activation and may activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. B7-H3, a type I tr... |
| Anti-B7-H3 Antibody-drug Conjugate BAT8009 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) linked to the camptothecin analog exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-B7-H3 ADC BAT8009, the anti-B7-H3 antibody moiety targets and binds to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, exatecan is released. Exatecan inhibits DNA topoisomerase I activity, thereby in... |
| Anti-B7-H3 Antibody-drug Conjugate DB-1311 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the topoisomerase-1 inhibitor (TOP1i) P1021, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-B7-H3 ADC DB-1311, the anti-B7-H3 antibody moiety targets and binds to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, P1021 is released, and inhibits DNA topo... |
| Anti-B7-H3 Antibody-drug Conjugate HS-20093 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the T-cell checkpoint ligand B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) covalently linked to a topoisomerase inhibitor (TOPOi), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-B7-H3 ADC HS-20093, the anti-B7-H3 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to B7-H3 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the TOPOi is released, and inhibits DNA topoisom... |
| Anti-B7-H3 Antibody-drug Conjugate MGC026 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of vobramitamab, a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276), site-specifically conjugated, via a cleavable glycan-based linker, to the camptothecin analog exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-B7-H3 ADC MGC026, the anti-B7-H3 antibody moiety targets and binds to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, exatec... |
| Anti-B7-H3 Antibody-drug Conjugate MHB088C | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed topoisomerase-1 inhibitor via a cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-B7-H3 ADC MHB088C, the antibody moiety targets and binds to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, the topoisomerase-1 inhibitor is released and ... |
| Anti-B7-H3 Antibody-drug Conjugate YL201 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) site-specifically conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed topoisomerase-1 inhibitor via a tumor protease-cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-B7-H3 ADC YL201, the antibody moiety targets and binds to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, the topoisomerase-1 inhib... |
| Anti-B7-H3 CAR T Cells TAA06 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-B7-H3 CAR T-cells TAA06 target and bind to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. B7-H3, a type I transmembrane protein and a member of the B7 co-stimulatory protein... |
| Anti-B7-H3 CAR T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-B7-H3 CAR T-cells target and bind to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. B7-H3, a type I tr... |
| Anti-B7-H3/CD28 Bispecific Antibody XmAb808 | A bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) and the co-stimulatory T-cell surface glycoprotein CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-B7-H3/CD28 bispecific antibody XmAb808, this bispecific antibody binds to both B7-H3 on certain tumor cells and CD28 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This activates and redirects CTLs to B7-H3-expressing tumor cel... |
| Anti-B7-H3/Topoisomerase-1 Inhibitor Antibody-drug Conjugate BGB-C354 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed topoisomerase-1 inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-B7-H3/topoisomerase-1 inhibitor ADC BGB-C354, the antibody moiety targets and binds to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the topoisomerase-1 inhibitor is released and inhibits DNA topoisomer... |
| Anti-B7-H4 Antibody Drug Conjugate BG-C9074 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the T-cell checkpoint ligand B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1) linked to an as of yet unknown cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-B7-H4 ADC BG-C9074, the anti-B7-H4 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to B7-H4 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent exerts an as of yet... |
| Anti-B7-H4 Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-B7H4V | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the T-cell checkpoint ligand B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1) linked to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), via a protease-cleavable peptide linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-B7-H4 ADC SGN-B7H4V, the anti-B7-H4 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds ... |
| Anti-B7-H4 Monoclonal Antibody NC762 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody targeting B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-B7-H4 monoclonal antibody NC762 binds to B7-H4 on the surface of tumor cells. This may induce antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) against B7-H4-expressing tumor cells, which leads to the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. In addition, t... |
| Anti-B7-H4/ TOP1i Antibody-drug Conjugate AZD8205 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1) linked to a topoisomerase-1 inhibitor (TOP1i; TOP-Ii), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the anti-B7-H4 monoclonal antibody moiety of ADC AZD8205 targets and binds to B7-H4 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the TOP1i moiety is released, binds to TOP1 and stabilizes cleaved DNA-TO... |
| Anti-B7-H4/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Antibody ABL103 | A T-cell engaging (TCE) bispecific antibody against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1) and the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-B7-H4/anti-4-1BB bispecific antibody ABL103 targets and binds to both B7-H4 expressed on the surface of ... |
| Anti-B7-H4/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Antibody CLN-418 | An Fc-silenced bispecific antibody against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1) and the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-B7-H4/anti-4-1BB bispecific antibody CLN-418 targets and binds to both B7-H4 expressed on the surface of tumor ce... |
| Anti-B7-H4/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody GEN1047 | A bispecific monoclonal antibody against both B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1) and T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-B7-H4/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody GEN1047 targets and binds to both B7-H4 on the surface of tumor cells and CD3 on T-cells. This results in the cross-linking of tumor cells and T-cells, and induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against B7... |
| Anti-B7-H4/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody PF-07260437 | A bispecific monoclonal antibody against both B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1) and T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-B7-H4/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody PF-07260437 targets and binds to both B7-H4 on the surface of tumor cells and CD3 on T-cells. This results in the cross-linking of tumor cells and T-cells, and induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response agains... |
| Anti-B7-H4/TOP1i Antibody-drug Conjugate GSK5733584 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1) linked, via a protease-cleavable linker, to a topoisomerase-1 inhibitor (TOP1i; TOP-Ii), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-B7-H4/ TOP1i ADC GSK5733584, the anti-B7-H4 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to B7-H4 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and ... |
| Anti-B7-H6/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody BI 765049 | An immunoglobulin G (IgG)-like bispecific T-cell engaging antibody directed against both natural cytotoxicity triggering receptor 3 ligand 1 (NCR3LG1; B7-H6) and T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-B7-H6/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody BI 765049 targets and binds to both B7-H6 on tumor cells and CD3 on T-cells. This results in the cross-linking of B7-H6-expressing tumor cells and T-cells, redirects cytotoxic T-lymp... |
| Anti-B7H7 Monoclonal Antibody HBM1020 | A recombinant human monoclonal antibody directed against HERV-H LTR-associating protein 2 (HHLA2; B7 homolog 7; B7H7), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-B7H7 monoclonal antibody HBM1020 binds to B7H7 and blocks the interaction between B7H7 and its receptors. This abrogates the B7H7-mediated inhibition of T-cell and nature killer (NK) cell activation, which may lead to enhanced cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune respo... |
| Anti-BAFFR Monoclonal Antibody ESG206 | A monoclonal antibody that is directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell activating factor receptor (BAFFR; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 13C; TNFRSF13C; BLyS receptor 3; BR3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-BAFFR monoclonal antibody ESG206 binds to and blocks BAFFR. This prevents BAFFR-mediated signaling and may kill BAFFR-expressing tumor cells. BAFFR, a protein belonging to the TNF receptor superfamily, is expressed on ... |
| Anti-BCMA Antibody SEA-BCMA | A humanized, afucosylated monoclonal antibody created using the proprietary, sugar-engineered antibody (SEA) platform and directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17), with potential immunoadjuvant activity. Upon administration, the anti-BCMA antibody SEA-BCMA targets and binds to BCMA expressed on tumor cells.  When administered with antibody-coupled T-cell receptor (ACTR)-expressing T-cells, the ACTR-expressing T-cells bind, with high ... |
| Anti-BCMA Antibody-drug Conjugate AMG 224 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) comprised of an anti-human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA) immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody conjugated via the noncleavable linker 4-(N-maleimidomethyl) cyclohexane-1-carboxylate (MCC), to the cytotoxic maytansine-derivative, DM1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of AMG 224 selectively binds to BCMA expressed on the surface of tumor cells. Upon internalization, the DM1 moiety binds to tubulin, thereb... |
| Anti-BCMA CAR-NK Cells | A preparation of umbilical cord blood (CB)-derived natural killer cells (NKs) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, the anti-BCMA CAR-NK cells recognize, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a receptor for both a prolife... |
| Anti-BCMA SparX Protein Plus BCMA-directed Anti-TAAG ARC T-cells CART-ddBCMA | An immunotherapeutic combination agent composed of antigen receptor complex T cells (ARC-T cells) which contain a proprietary binding domain specific for a universal TAG instead of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) binding domain, and a tumor-targeting antigen protein, soluble protein antigen-receptor X-linker (sparX) protein, containing a TAG moiety fused to two B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) binding domains, with potent... |
| Anti-BCMA/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody REGN5459 | A human bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and another directed against the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-BCMA/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody REGN5459 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and BCMA on BCMA-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirect... |
| Anti-BCMA/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody WVT078 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-BCMA/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody WVT078 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and BCMA on BCMA-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to BCMA-expressing tu... |
| Anti-BCMA/Anti-GPRC5D CAR-T Cells BMS-986453 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes engineered to express chimeric antigen receptor(s) (CAR) targeting the human tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-BCMA/anti-GPRC5D CAR-T cells BMS-986453 specifically and simultaneously target and bind to tumor cells... |
| Anti-BCMA/Anti-GPRC5D CAR-T Cells OriC321 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes engineered to express chimeric antigen receptor(s) (CAR) targeting the human tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D) and fused to as of yet not fully elucidated co-stimulatory domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-BCMA/anti-GPRC5D CAR-T cells Or... |
| Anti-BCMA/CD38/CD3 Trispecific Antibody ISB 2001 | A T-cell engager and trispecific antibody targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) CD38 and human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), andd the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-BCMA/CD38/CD3 trispecific antibody ISB 2001 simultaneously targets and binds to CD38 and BCMA expressed on tumor cells, and CD3 expressed on T-cells. The... |
| Anti-BCMA/GPRC5D/CD3 Trispecific Antibody JNJ-79635322 | A T-cell engager and trispecific antibody targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and human G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D), and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-BCMA/GPRC5D/CD3 trispecific antibody JNJ-79635322 simultaneously targets and binds to BCMA and GPRC5D e... |
| Anti-BCMA/GPRC5D/CD3 Trispecific Antibody MBS314 | A T-cell engager and trispecific antibody targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and human G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D), and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-BCMA/GPRC5D/CD3 trispecific antibody MBS314 simultaneously targets and binds to BCMA and GPRC5D express... |
| Anti-BCMA/GPRC5D/CD3 Trispecific Antibody SIM0500 | A humanized T-cell engager and trispecific antibody targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and human G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D), and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-BCMA/GPRC5D/CD3 trispecific antibody SIM0500 simultaneously targets and binds to BCMA and GPR... |
| Anti-BCMA/PBD ADC MEDI2228 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a fully human monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA, TNFRSF17) that is site-specifically conjugated, via a protease-cleavable linker, to a cytotoxic, DNA minor groove crosslinking agent and pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-BCMA/PBD ADC MEDI2228, the antibody moiety targets the cell surface antigen BCMA expressed on certai... |
| Antibody receptor-Trap Fusion Protein IMM2520 | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc-containing bispecific antibody-receptor fusion protein targeting both the human cell surface antigen CD47 and the immunosuppressive ligand human programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the antibody receptor-Trap fusion protein IMM2520 targets and binds to both CD47 and PD-L1 expressed o... |
| Antibody ROSE12 | An antibody directed against an as of yet undisclosed antigen, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, antibody ROSE12 binds to the undisclosed antigen, which may enhance anti-tumor immune response through an as of yet undisclosed mechanism of action (MoA). |
| Antibody STING Drug Conjugate TAK-500 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an as of yet undisclosed antibody conjugated to TAK-676, an agonist for the stimulator of interferon genes (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immuno-activating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, antibody STING drug conjugate TAK-500 targets and binds to the undisclosed target, thereby allowing TAK-676 to bind to STING. This activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironmen... |
| Antibody-drug Conjugate Anti-TIM-1-vcMMAE CDX-014 | A monoclonal antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) comprised of human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) clone CR014, which targets the extracellular domain of T-cell immunoglobulin mucin-1 (TIM-1; HAVCR1), that is linked, via a valine-citrulline (VC) peptide linker, to the potent cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of ADC anti-TIM-1-vcMMAE CDX-014, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to TIM-1. Upon internalization and proteol... |
| Antibody-drug Conjugate PHN-010 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an as of yet undisclosed monoclonal antibody directed against a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of ADC PHN-010 targets and binds to the TAA expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills the TAA-expressing cancer cells, through an as of yet u... |
| Antibody-drug Conjugate SC-005 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a proprietary monoclonal antibody against a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) linked to a currently undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of SC-005 targets and binds to the TAA expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills the TAA-expressing cancer cells, through an unknown mechanism of action. |
| Antibody-drug Conjugate SC-007 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against an undisclosed tumor-associated antigen (TAA) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of SC-007 targets and binds to the TAA expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills the TAA-expressing cancer cells, through an as of yet unknown mechanism of action. |
| Anti-BTLA Monoclonal Antibody HFB200603 | A monoclonal antibody directed against B- and T-lymphocyte attenuator (BTLA), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-BTLA monoclonal antibody HFB200603 targets and binds to BTLA. This prevents BTLA-mediated inhibition of T-cell activation and induces the production of inflammatory cytokines in the tumor microenvironment (TME), leading to antigen specific T-cell proliferation and activation of a cytotoxic T-lymphoc... |
| Anti-BTN3A Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody ICT01 | A humanized agonistic monoclonal antibody directed against butyrophilin subfamily 3 member A (BTN3A; CD277), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-BTN3A agonistic monoclonal antibody ICT01 targets and binds to BTN3A present on epithelial and tumor cells. BTN3A binding may sensitize tumor cells to gamma 9 delta 2 (Vg9Vd2) T cell killing. The Vg9Vd2 T cells secrete effector cytokines and exert a cytolytic effect on tumor cells. This may abr... |
| Anti-CA19-9 Antibody hu5B1/TCO Immunoconjugate | An immunoconjugate composed of the recombinant human monoclonal antibody hu5B1, which targets the carbohydrate antigen sialyl Lewis A (carbohydrate antigen 19-9; CA19-9), that is conjugated to trans-cyclooctene (TCO), with potential use in pretargeted radioimmunotherapy (PRIT). Upon intravenous administration of anti-CA19-9 antibody hu5B1/TCO immunoconjugate (hu5B1-TCO), the anti-CA19-9 antibody moiety targets and binds to CA19-9-expressing tumor cells and unbound hu5B1-TCO is readily cleared... |
| Anti-CA19-9 Monoclonal Antibody BNT321 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the carbohydrate antigen sialyl Lewis A (carbohydrate antigen 19-9; CA19-9), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CA19-9 monoclonal antibody BNT321 targets and binds to CA19-9, and kills CA19-9-expressing tumor cells through the induction of both complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC). CA19-9 is overexpressed on a number of different tumo... |
| Anti-CA6-DM4 Immunoconjugate SAR566658 | An immunoconjugate consisting of a humanized monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated sialoglycotope CA6 (huDS6) conjugated to the cytotoxic maytansinoid DM4, with potential antineoplastic activity. The anti-CA6 monoclonal antibody moiety of SAR566658 targets and binds to the cell surface antigen CA6. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the immunoconjugate releases DM4, which binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, resulting in inhibitio... |
| Anti-CAIX CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) carbonic anhydrase IX (CAIX; carbonic anhydrase 9; CA9; G250), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CAIX CAR T-cells target and bind to CAIX-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CAIX-expressing tumor cells. CAIX is a member of the carbonic anhydrase family that... |
| Anti-CALRmut/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody JNJ-88549968 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the mutated form of calreticulin (CALRmut; mutCALR) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CALRmut/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody JNJ-88549968 targets and binds to both CALRmut expressed on CALR mutated CD34-positive hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) and CD3 on T-cells. This results in the cross-linking of CALRmut-expressing tumor cells and T-cells, and induces a cyto... |
| Anti-Caprin-1 Monoclonal Antibody TRK-950 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against cell cycle associated protein 1 (cytoplasmic activation- and proliferation-associated protein 1; Caprin-1; CAPRIN1; RNA granule protein 105; RNG105), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-Caprin-1 monoclonal antibody TRK-950 targets and binds to Caprin-1 expressed on tumor cells. This may induce antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) and antibody-dependent cellular phagocytosis (ADCP), thereby killing C... |
| Anti-CCR4 Monoclonal Antibody | Any monoclonal antibody that targets C-C chemokine receptor 4 (CCR4; CCR-4). |
| Anti-CCR7 Antibody-drug Conjugate JBH492 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody targeting CC chemokine receptor 7 (CCR7) and conjugated to the cytotoxic maytansinoid DM4, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CCR7 ADC JBH492, the antibody moiety targets and binds to CCR7 on tumor cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the ADC releases DM4, which binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics. This results in the inhibition of cell division an... |
| Anti-CCR7 Monoclonal Antibody CAP-100 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against C-C-chemokine receptor 7 (CCR7), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CCR7 monoclonal antibody CAP-100 targets and binds to CCR7 on tumor cells, and neutralizes ligand-mediated signaling through both ligands CCL19 and CCL21. This prevents the activity of CCR7 on tumor cells. CAP-100 is expected to prevent the migration of tumor cells to and their survival in lymphoid niches. In... |
| Anti-CCR8 Monoclonal Antibody AMG 355 | A monoclonal antibody directed against C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CCR8 monoclonal antibody AMG 355 targets and binds to CCR8 on CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and prevents chemokine ligand 1 (CCL1)-CCR8-mediated signaling. This may reactivate antitumor immune responses. CCR8 is specifically expressed by tumor-infiltrating Tregs in mult... |
| Anti-CCR8 Monoclonal Antibody BGB-A3055 | A monoclonal antibody directed against C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CCR8 monoclonal antibody BGB-A3055 targets and binds to CCR8 on CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and prevents chemokine ligand 1 (CCL1)-CCR8-mediated signaling. This may reactivate antitumor immune responses. CCR8 is specifically expressed by tumor-infiltrating Tregs in mu... |
| Anti-CCR8 Monoclonal Antibody CM369 | A monoclonal antibody against C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CCR8 monoclonal antibody CM369 targets and binds to CCR8 on CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and depletes CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating Tregs via antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). This may reactivate antitumor immune responses. CCR8 is specifically expressed by t... |
| Anti-CCR8 Monoclonal Antibody GS-1811 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) afucosylated monoclonal antibody against C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CCR8 monoclonal antibody GS-1811 targets and binds to CCR8 on CCR8-positive, immunosuppressive tumor-infiltrating T regulatory (TITR) cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and prevents chemokine ligand 1 (CCL1)-CCR8-mediated signaling. GS-1811 depletes CCR8-positive TITR cells via antibody-d... |
| Anti-CCR8 Monoclonal Antibody HC006 | A monoclonal antibody directed against human C-C motif chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CCR8 monoclonal antibody HC006 targets and binds to CCR8 on CCR8-positive, immunosuppressive tumor-infiltrating T regulatory (TITR) cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This depletes CCR8-positive TITR cells via antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC), which may reverse the suppression of CD8+ effector T... |
| Anti-CCR8 Monoclonal Antibody RO7502175 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) afucosylated monoclonal antibody directed against C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CCR8 monoclonal antibody RO7502175 targets and binds to the N-terminus of CCR8 on CCR8-positive, immunosuppressive tumor-infiltrating T regulatory (TITR) cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This depletes CCR8-positive TITR cells via antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (A... |
| Anti-CCR8 Monoclonal Antibody S-531011 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CCR8 monoclonal antibody S-531011 targets, binds to and blocks the activity of CCR8 on CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and prevents chemokine ligand 1 (CCL1)-CCR8-mediated signaling. S-531011 eliminates CCR8-positive Tregs via the induction of Fc-med... |
| Anti-CCR8 Monoclonal Antibody SRF114 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) afucosylated monoclonal antibody against C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CCR8 monoclonal antibody SRF114 targets and binds to CCR8 on CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and depletes CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating Tregs via antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and antibody dependent cellular phagocy... |
| Anti-CCR8 Monoclonal Antibody ZL-1218 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CCR8 monoclonal antibody ZL-1218 targets and binds to CCR8 on CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and depletes CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating Tregs via antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). This may reactivate antitumor immune responses... |
| Anti-CD117/Amanitin Antibody-drug Conjugate MGTA-117 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a human monoclonal antibody directed against CD117 (tyrosine-protein kinase KIT; c-Kit; mast/stem cell growth factor receptor; SCFR), conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic RNA polymerase II inhibitor amanitin, with potential antineoplastic activity and that can potentially be used as a conditioning agent to selectively deplete hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) prior to allogeneic HSC transplants or other treatments for which HSCs nee... |
| Anti-CD11b Monoclonal Antibody ASD141 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the CD11b (integrin alpha-M; ITGAM; integrin alpha M chain) subunit of MAC-1 (integrin alphaM/beta2; CD11b/CD18; CR3), with potential innate immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD11b monoclonal antibody ASD141 targets, binds to and blocks the CD11b subunit of the Mac-1 receptor, thereby preventing TLT-1 (pro-T) binding to CD11b receptors on immature, innate myeloid cells in the tumor mic... |
| Anti-CD122 Humanized Monoclonal Antibody Mik-Beta-1 | A humanized version of the immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody Mik-Beta-1 (Hu-Mik-Beta-1) directed against CD122, the beta-subunit shared by the interleukin-2 (IL-2) and IL-15 receptor (IL-2/IL-15Rbeta). Upon intravenous infusion, Hu-Mik-Beta-1 binds to CD122 expressed on certain tumor cells. This blocks the binding of the inflammatory cytokines IL-2 and IL-15 to IL-2R and IL-15R, respectively, and prevents IL-2/IL-2R- and IL-15/IL-15R-mediated signaling. This may inhibit the prolifera... |
| Anti-CD123 Monoclonal Antibody CSL360 | A chimeric IgG1 monoclonal antibody against CD123 (Interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain) with potential antineoplastic activity. Derived from mouse monoclonal antibody 7G3, anti-CD123 monoclonal antibody CSL360 binds to and neutralizes CD123 which is upregulated on leukemic stem cells (LSC) in acute myeloid leukemia (AML). This may inhibit IL-3-dependent signalling and proliferation and may prevent the uncontrolled growth and differentiation of mutated LSC. |
| Anti-CD123 Monoclonal Antibody KHK2823 | A fully human monoclonal antibody against CD123 (interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-CD123 monoclonal antibody KHK2823 binds to and neutralizes CD123, which is upregulated on leukemic stem cells (LSC) found in myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or acute myeloid leukemia (AML). This agent may inhibit IL-3-dependent signaling and proliferation and may prevent the uncontrolled growth and differentiation of mutated LSC. |
| Anti-CD123/Anti-CD3 Bispecific DART Molecule MGD024 | An Fc-bearing, bispecific antibody-like protein directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD123 and the human T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD123/anti-CD3 bispecific DART molecule MGD024 simultaneously binds to both CD123-expressing cancer cells and CD3-expressing T-cells, thereby crosslinking CD123-expressing tumor cells and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This results in the activation and prol... |
| Anti-CD123/CD3 Bispecific Antibody JNJ-63709178 | A humanized anti-CD123/anti-CD3 bispecific monoclonal antibody, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Anti-CD123/CD3 bispecific antibody JNJ-63709178 possesses two antigen-recognition and binding sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for CD123, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of certain tumor cells. Upon administration of JNJ-63709178, this bispecific ... |
| Anti-CD123/CD3 BiTE Antibody SAR440234 | A bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody comprised of a humanized Fc-silenced immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) backbone and two single-chain variable fragments (scFvs): one directed against the CD3 antigen expressed on T-lymphocytes and another directed against the alpha-chain of the interleukin-3 receptor (IL-3RA; CD123), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous infusion, anti-CD123/CD3 BiTE antibody SAR440234 binds to both CD3 expressed on T-cells and CD12... |
| Anti-CD123/Kinesin Spindle Protein Inhibitor Antibody-drug Conjugate VIP943 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody against the interleukin-3 (IL3)-receptor alpha chain (CD123; IL-3RA), conjugated, via a legumain-cleavable linker, to a physicochemically-modiffied payload composed of a kinesin spindle protein inhibitor (KSPi), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CD123/KSPi ADC VIP943, the antibody moiety targets the cell surface antigen CD123. Upon antibody/antigen binding, internalization, and transport to ... |
| Anti-CD123/TOP1i Antibody-drug Conjugate AZD9829 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody against the interleukin-3 (IL3)-receptor alpha chain (CD123; IL-3RA) conjugated to a topoisomerase-1 inhibitor (TOP1i), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CD123/TOP1i ADC AZD9829, the antibody moiety targets and binds to the cell surface antigen CD123 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the TOP1i moiety is released, binds to TOP1 and stabilizes cleaved DNA-TOP1 complex... |
| Anti-CD123-Pyrrolobenzodiazepine Dimer Antibody Drug Conjugate SGN-CD123A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of an anti-CD123 humanized monoclonal antibody conjugated, via a stable maleimidocaproyl-valine-alanine dipeptide protease-cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic, DNA minor-groove crosslinking agent pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CD123 ADC SGN-CD123A, the antibody moiety targets the cell surface antigen CD123. Upon antibody/antigen binding, internalization, and lysosome uptake, the ... |
| Anti-CD133-CAR Vector-transduced Allogeneic T Lymphocytes | A preparation of allogeneic peripheral blood T-lymphocytes (PBTL) that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the chimeric CD (cluster of differentiation) 133 antigen receptor, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD133-CAR vector-transduced allogeneic T-lymphocytes specifically recognize and kill CD133-expressing tumor cells. CD133, a tumor associated antigen (TAA), is overexpressed on a va... |
| Anti-CD133-PE38-KDEL Fusion Protein | A fusion protein consisting of an anti-single-chain variable fragment (scFv) peptide sequence targeting the extracellular domain of human CD133 (prominin-1) (anti-CD133scFV) and a deimmunized truncated form of Pseudomonas exotoxin A (38-kDa derivative of PE; PE38) where the five C-terminal amino acid residues have been replaced with the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) retention signal, KDEL, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-CD133-PE38-KDEL fusion protein, the... |
| Anti-CD137 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody ADG106 | A human agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration, anti-CD137 agonistic monoclonal antibody ADG106 binds to and activates CD137 expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells. This enhances CD137-mediated signaling, induces cytokine production and promotes T-cell mediated anti-tumor immune respons... |
| Anti-CD137 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody ADG206 | An Fc-enhanced immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the costimulatory receptor CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) covalently linked to a peptide mask, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD137 agonistic monoclonal antibody ADG206 is selectively activated in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and targets, binds to, and activates CD137 expressed on a variety of leukocyte subset... |
| Anti-CD137 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody AGEN2373 | A conditionally-active, fully human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the costimulatory receptor CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD137 agonistic monoclonal antibody AGEN2373 targets and binds to a non-ligand blocking epitope on CD137, thereby activating CD137 expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymph... |
| Anti-CD137 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody CTX-471 | A fully human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD137 agonistic monoclonal antibody CTX-471 binds to and activates CD137 expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells. This enhances CD137-mediated signaling, induces cytokine production a... |
| Anti-CD137 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody EU101 | A humanized agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the costimulatory receptor CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD137 agonistic monoclonal antibody EU101 targets and binds to CD137 expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells. This enhances CD137-mediated signaling, induces cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (C... |
| Anti-CD137 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody YH004 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the costimulatory receptor CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD137 agonistic monoclonal antibody YH004 targets and binds to CD137, thereby activating CD137 expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells. This enhances CD137-me... |
| Anti-CD137/Anti-FAP Bispecific Antibody BI 765179 | A bispecific antibody targeting both CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) and fibroblast activation protein (FAP), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD137/anti-FAP bispecific antibody BI 765179 targets and binds to both FAP, expressed on cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) in the tumor stroma, and CD137, expressed on the surface of immune cells including activated T-lymphocytes, natural killer (NK) ... |
| Anti-CD137/PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody AP203 | A bispecific antibody targeting both the human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) and CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD137/PD-L1 bispecific antibody AP203 simultaneously targets and binds to CD137, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes, and PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells, thereby crosslink... |
| Anti-CD137/PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody FS222 | A tetravalent immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody targeting both the human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) and CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD137/PD-L1 bispecific antibody FS222 simultaneously targets and binds to CD137, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes, and PD-L1 expres... |
| Anti-CD138 Antibody-IFNalpha Fusion Protein QXL138AM | A masked immunocytokine (MIC) comprised of an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) syndecan-1 (CD138) that is fused to the human cytokine interferon alpha (IFNalpha; IFN-alpha; IFNa) which is attached by a tumor-protease cleavable linker to a peptide mask, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD138 antibody-IFNalpha fusion protein QXL138AM targets and binds to CD138 expressed on tumor cells. In tur... |
| Anti-CD147 Monoclonal Antibody DS-1471 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD147 (Basigin; EMMPRIN; extracellular matrix metalloproteinase inducer; OX47; 5A11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD147 monoclonal antibody DS-1471 targets and binds to CD147, thereby inhibiting the binding of CD147 to its binding molecules and CD147 molecular chaperone functions. This inhibits CD147-mediated stabilization and recycling of various CD147-binding proteins, including C... |
| Anti-CD157 Monoclonal Antibody MEN1112 | A humanized, Fc engineered, de-fucosylated monoclonal immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody directed against the bone marrow stromal cell antigen 1 (BST1/CD157), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous infusion, anti-CD157 monoclonal antibody MEN1112 specifically binds to and induces an antibody dependent cell cytotoxic (ADCC) response against CD157-expressing tumor cells. CD157, also known as ADP-ribosyl cyclase 2, is a glycosyl-phosphatidylinositol (GPI)-anchored transmembrane ... |
| Anti-CD163 Monoclonal Antibody OR2805 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive receptor CD163 (scavenger receptor cysteine-rich type 1 protein M130), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD163 monoclonal antibody OR2805 targets and binds to CD163 expressed on immunosuppressive tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) within the tumor microenvironment (TME), and prevents the binding of CD163 to its ligands. This inhibits CD163-mediate... |
| Anti-CD19 Antibody-drug Conjugate IKS03 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 (cluster of differentiation 19), that is site-specifically conjugated with a tumor-cleavable beta-glucuronide linker to a tumor-cleavable prodrug of pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of anti-CD19 ADC IKS03 targets and binds to CD19 expressed on tumor cells. Upon... |
| Anti-CD19 Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-CD19B | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of an anti-CD19 humanized monoclonal antibody (hBU12ec) with engineered cysteines (EC-mAb) conjugated, via a maleimidocaproyl-valine-alanine dipeptide protease-cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic, DNA minor-groove crosslinking agent pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer (SGD-1882), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CD19 ADC SGN-CD19B, the antibody moiety targets the cell surface antigen CD19, which is found on B-cell-der... |
| Anti-CD19 Antibody-T-cell Receptor-expressing T-cells ET019003 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been engineered by incorporating an as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory molecule into T-cells expressing an anti-CD19 antibody T-cell receptor (AbTCR) structure (ET190L1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19 AbTCR-expressing T-cells ET019003 targets and binds to CD19-expressing tumor cells. This results in cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated elimination of CD19-positive tumor cells. The bind... |
| Anti-CD19 CAR T Cells AT101 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19 CAR T cells AT101 recognize and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specif... |
| Anti-CD19 CAR T-cells XLCART001 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19 CAR T-cells XLCART001 targets and binds to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell spe... |
| Anti-CD19 CAR-IL-18-expressing Autologous T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19), and expressing the pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin 18 (IL-18), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD19 CAR-IL-18-expressing autologous T-lymphocytes target, bind to, and induce selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. IL-18 promotes T-cell persistence an... |
| Anti-CD19 Cord Blood-derived CAR-NK Cells | A preparation of cord blood (CB)-derived natural killer (NK) cells that have been genetically modified and transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD19 CB-derived CAR-NK cells recognize, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 is a B-cell... |
| Anti-CD19 iCAR NK Cells | A preparation of natural killer (NK) cells engineered to express an inhibitory chimeric antigen receptor (iCAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19 iCAR-NK cells recognize, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. The iCAR is designed to spare normal cells from NK cell actions by including an inhibitory receptor that ... |
| Anti-CD19 Monoclonal Antibody DI-B4 | A low-fucosylated, humanized, IgG1 isotype, monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD19 with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody DI-B4 binds to CD19, which may result in a strong antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) directed at CD19-expressing B-cells but with minimal complement dependent cytotoxicity. DI-B4 contains low levels of fucose, which contributes to its enhanced ADCC activity. CD19 is ... |
| Anti-CD19 Monoclonal Antibody MDX-1342 | A fully human anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD-19 with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody MDX-1342 binds to CD19, depleting and eliminating CD19-expressing B-cells. CD19 is widely expressed during B-cell development, from pro-B-cell to early plasma cell stages. |
| Anti-CD19/Anti-CD20/Anti-CD22 CAR-T Cells LCAR-AIO | A preparation of human T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19), CD20 and CD22, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD19/anti-CD20/anti-CD22 CAR-T cells LCAR-AIO target and bind to CD19, CD20 and CD22 expressed on the surface of certain tumor cells. This induce... |
| Anti-CD19/Anti-CD22 Bispecific Immunotoxin DT2219ARL | An immunotoxin consisting of two scFv ligands recognizing human CD19 and CD22 linked to the first 389 amino acids of diphtheria toxin (DT), DT 390, with potential antineoplastic activity. The VH and VL regions of anti-CD22 (sFv) and anti-CD19 are reversed and linked by an aggregration stabilizing linker (ARL) consisting of a 20 amino acid segment of human muscle aldolase (hma) and an Xho1-compatible restriction site; the CDR3 region of the VH of anti-CD22 sFv is mutated to enhance its affinit... |
| Anti-CD19/Anti-CD3/Anti-CD2 Trispecific Antibody PIT565 | A trispecific T-cell engager and antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, the T-cell surface antigen CD3, and the T-cell co-stimulatory receptor CD2, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19/anti-CD3/anti-CD2 trispecific antibody PIT565 targets and binds to CD3 and CD2 on T-cells and CD19 expressed on tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressi... |
| Anti-CD19/Anti-CD3/Anti-CD28 Trispecific Antibody CC312 | A trispecific T-cell engager and antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, the T-cell surface antigen CD3, and the T-cell specific surface glycoprotein and co-stimulatory molecule CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19/anti-CD3/anti-CD28 trispecific antibody CC312 targets and binds to CD3 and CD28 on T-cells and CD19 expressed on tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte ... |
| Anti-CD19/Anti-CD70 4SCAR-expressing Bispecific T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a fourth-generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) CD19 and CD70 (CD27 ligand; tumor necrosis factor superfamily member 7; TNFSF7), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD19/anti-CD70 4SCAR-expressing bispecific T-cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in CD19- and CD70-expressing tumor cells. CD19... |
| Anti-CD19/Anti-CD79b 4SCAR-expressing Bispecific T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a fourth-generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) CD19 and B-cell antigen receptor complex-associated protein beta chain (CD79b; B-cell-specific glycoprotein B29), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD19/anti-CD79b 4SCAR-expressing bispecific T-cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in CD19- and... |
| Anti-CD19/CD20 Bicistronic CAR T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a bicistronic vector encoding two distinct chimeric antigen receptors (CARs), one against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and the other one against the TAA CD20, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD19/CD20 bicistronic CAR T-cells target, bind to and induce selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing CD19 and/or CD20. CD19 and CD20, both transmembrane phosphoglycopr... |
| Anti-CD19/CD20/CD22 CAR T-Cells | A preparation of human T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19), CD20 and CD22, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD19/CD20/CD22 CAR-T cells target and bind to CD19, CD20 and CD22 expressed on the surface of certain tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing these TAAs. The TAAs are overexpre... |
| Anti-CD19/CD22 CAR NK Cells | A preparation of natural killer (NK) cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) and CD22, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD19/CD22 CAR-NK cells target and bind to CD19 and CD22 expressed on the surface of tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing these TAAs. CD19 and CD22, both transmembrane phosph... |
| Anti-CD19/CD28 Bispecific Antibody RO7443904 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and the co-stimulatory T-cell-specific surface glycoprotein CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19/CD28 bispecific antibody RO7443904 targets and binds to both CD28 expressed on T-cells and CD19 expressed on tumor cells, which crosslinks the T-cells to the tumor cells. This may result in a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the CD1... |
| Anti-CD19/CD3 Bispecific Antibody CN201 | A bispecific antibody and a T-cell engager targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19/CD3 bispecific antibody CN201 binds to both the CD3 antigen on T-cells and the CD19 antigen expressed on tumor cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressing tumor cells... |
| Anti-CD19/CD3 Bispecific Antibody GNR-084 | A bispecific antibody and a T-cell engager targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19/CD3 bispecific antibody GNR-084 binds to both the CD3 antigen on T-cells and the CD19 antigen expressed on tumor cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressing tumor cel... |
| Anti-CD19/CD3 BiTE Antibody AMG 562 | A bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD19, and another that is directed against the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19/CD3 BiTE antibody AMG 562 binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and the CD19 antigen expressed on malignant B-cells. This activates and... |
| Anti-CD19/CD3 T-cell Engaging Bispecific Antibody CLN-978 | A half-life extended T-cell engaging bispecific antibody comprised of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, a scFv targeting the T-cell surface antigen CD3, and a single-domain heavy chain variable domain (VHH)-based antibody specific for human serum albumin (HSA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19/CD3 T-cell engaging bispecific antibody CLN-978 targets and binds to both CD19 anti... |
| Anti-CD19/CD3 Tetravalent Antibody AFM11 | An anti-CD19/anti-CD3 bispecific tetravalent antibody with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Anti-CD19/CD3 tetravalent antibody AFM11 possesses two antigen-recognition and binding sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for CD19, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of B-cells. Upon bolus infusion of AFM11, this bispecific antibody binds to CD3-expressing T-ce... |
| Anti-CD19-CAR CMV-specific T-lymphocytes | A preparation of human cytomegalovirus (CMV)-specific T-lymphocytes that have been engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19-CAR CMV-specific T-lymphocytes recognize, bind to, and induce selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen overexpressed in B-cell lineage malignancie... |
| Anti-CD19-CAR FMC63-28Z Retroviral Vector-transduced Allogeneic T-lymphocytes | Allogeneic T-lymphocytes derived from peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of both the light and heavy chain variable regions of anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody FMC63, coupled to the molecule CD28 and the signaling domain of the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR) (FMC63-28Z), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, the anti-CD19-CAR FMC63-28Z retroviral ... |
| Anti-CD19-CAR Retroviral Vector-Transduced Autologous T Cells | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood T-lymphocytes (PBTL) that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment) coupled to the costimulatory signaling domain CD28 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3 complex (CD3 zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19-CAR retroviral vector-transduced autologous T cells direct the T-ly... |
| Anti-CD19-CAR-CD28/CD20-CAR-4-1BB-expressing Autologous T-lymphocytes Hu1928-Hu20BB | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express the CAR construct Hu1928-Hu20BB that consists of two chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) constructs: one encoding a fully-human anti-CD19 CAR with a co-stimulatory domain of CD28, Hu19-CD828, and one encoding a human anti-CD20 CAR with a co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB (CD137), Hu20BB, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon re-infusion, the anti-CD19-CAR-CD28/CD20-CAR-4-1BB-... |
| Anti-CD19-CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-Expressing Allogenic Natural Killer Cells | Allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells transduced with an mRNA expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), coupled to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. NK cells from haploidentical donors are expanded in culture and electroporated with the CAR mRNA. Upon transfusion of the transduced cultured cells, CD19CAR-CD... |
| Anti-CD19-CD20-CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing Autologous T-lymphocytes | Autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) of anti-CD19 in tandem with an anti-CD20 scFv, and coupled to the cytoplasmic portion of the zeta chain of the human T-cell receptor (CD3zeta), and the co-stimulatory molecule 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, anti-CD19-CD20-CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing autol... |
| Anti-CD19-Glucosteroid Receptor Modulator ADC ABBV-31 | An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an afucosylated immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD19 conjugated to a glucocorticoid receptor (GR) modulator (GRM), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19-GRM ADC ABBV-319 targets and binds to CD19. thereby inducing antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). Additionally, by delivering the GRM payload directly to CD19-expr... |
| Anti-CD1d/Vdelta2 Gamma Delta T-cell Engaging Bispecific Antibody LAVA-051 | A humanized bispecific gamma delta T-cell engager (TCE) antibody directed against both CD1d and Vdelta2, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD1d gamma delta T-cell engaging bispecific antibody LAVA-051 binds to both CD1d-expressing tumor cells and Vgamma9Vdelta2 T-cells. This activates and redirects the Vgamma9Vdelta2 T-cells to CD1d-expressing tumor cells, and the Vgamma9Vdelta2 T-cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and exert direct k... |
| Anti-CD20 Antibody-drug Conjugate MRG001 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a chimeric anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody conjugated via a valine citrulline linker to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CD20 ADC MRG001, the monoclonal antibody moiety of MRG001 targets and binds to CD20 on the surfaces of tumor B-cells and is rapidly internalized, thereby delivering MMAE intracellularly. Upon proteo... |
| Anti-CD20 Antibody-drug Conjugate TRS005 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody conjugated via a valine-citrulline linker to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of anti-CD20 ADC TRS005 targets and binds to CD20 on the surfaces of tumor B-cells. Upon internalization and cleavage, MMAE is released. MMAE binds to tubulin and inhibits its polyme... |
| Anti-CD20 B9E9 scFv-Streptavidin Fusion Protein | An Escherichia coli periplasm-expressed tetrameric fusion protein composed of four single-chain variable regions (scFv) of the murine immunoglobulin (Ig) G2a anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody B9E9 fused to the streptavidin (SA) gene of Streptomyces avidinii (scFv-SA), with potential use in pretargeted radioimmunotherapy (PRIT). Upon intravenous administration of the anti-CD20 B9E9 scFv-SA fusion protein, this agent targets and binds to CD20-expressing tumor cells. Subsequently, a biotinylated N-a... |
| Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody B001 | A recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human CD20 with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody B001 specifically binds to CD20 on the surfaces of B-cells. Although the exact mechanisms through which B001 exert its effects have not been elucidated, B001 may induce a B-cell directed cell-mediated immune response against CD20-expressing B-cells and/or prevent CD20-medaited signaling. This induces tumor cell apoptosis... |
| Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody BAT4306F | A recombinant, glycosylation-modified monoclonal antibody directed against the human B-cell-specific cell surface antigen CD20, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration of anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody BAT4306F, the antibody specifically targets and binds to CD20. This induces antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CD20-expressing B-cells, which leads to B-cell apoptosis and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CD20, a non... |
| Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody MIL62 | A glyco-engineered recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human B-cell-specific cell surface antigen CD20, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration of anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody MIL62, the antibody specifically targets and binds to CD20. This induces antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CD20-expressing B-cells, which leads to B-cell apoptosis and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. In addition... |
| Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody PRO131921 | A third-generation, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human CD20 with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody PRO131921 specifically binds to the B cell-specific cell surface antigen CD20. This may result in the induction of a B cell-directed complement dependent cytotoxicity (CDC) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CD20-expressing B cells leading to B cell apoptosis. CD20 is a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein whi... |
| Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody TL011 | A monoclonal antibody directed against human CD20 with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody TL011 specifically binds to the B cell-specific cell surface antigen CD20 antigen (MS4A1; membrane-spanning 4-domains, subfamily A, member 1), thereby potentially triggering an immune response against CD20-positive B cells, leading to B cell apoptosis. CD20 is a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein that is exclusively expressed on B cells during most stages of B cell... |
| Anti-CD20/anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody CM355 | A bispecific antibody and novel T cell engager1 (nTCE) targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20 and the CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-cd20/anti-cd3 bispecific antibody CM355 binds to both T-cells and CD20-expressing B-lineage tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the CD20-expressing tumor B-cells. CD20 is exclusively expr... |
| Anti-CD20/Anti-CD3/Anti-CD8 Trispecific Antibody AZD5492 | A trispecific immunoglobulin G (IgG)-like T-cell engaging (TCE) antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20 and the T-cell surface antigens CD3 and CD8, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD20/anti-CD3/anti-CD8 trispecific antibody AZD5492 targets and binds to CD20 on CD20-expressing tumor B-cell, and the CD3 and CD8 antigens on CD8-positive T-lymphocytes. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphoc... |
| Anti-CD20/CD3 Bispecific Antibody EX103 | A bispecific antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20 and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD20/CD3 bispecific antibody EX103 binds to both CD3 on T-cells and CD20 on CD20-expressing B-lineage tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the CD20-expressing tumor B cells. CD20 is exclusively expressed on B cells during mo... |
| Anti-CD20/CD3 Bispecific Antibody JS203 | A recombinant bispecific antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20 and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD20/CD3 bispecific antibody JS203 binds to both T-cells and CD20-expressing B-lineage tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD20-expressing tumor B-cells. CD20 is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stag... |
| Anti-CD20/CD37 Monoclonal Antibody Combination PSB202 | A combination agent composed of two humanized monoclonal antibodies, PSB102, an Fc-enhanced immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human B-cell-specific cell surface antigen and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20, and PSB107, an IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the TAA CD37, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD20/CD37 monoclonal antibody combination PSB202 specifically targets and binds to CD20 and CD3... |
| Anti-CD200R1 Monoclonal Antibody 23ME-00610 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immune checkpoint cell surface transmembrane glycoprotein CD200 receptor 1 (CD200R1; CD200R; HCRTR2; MOX2R; OX2R; CD200 receptor 1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD200R1 monoclonal antibody 23ME-00610 targets and binds to CD200R1, thereby preventing the interaction of CD200R1 with its ligand CD200, which is highly expressed on certain tumor cell types, and preventing its activi... |
| Anti-CD205 Antibody-drug Conjugate OBT076 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) comprised of an anti-CD205 (lymphocyte antigen 75; Ly75) humanized immunoglobin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody conjugated to DM4, a maytansinoid microtubule disruptor, via a cleavable N-succinimidyl-4-(2-pyridyldithio) butanoate (SPDB) linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD205 ADC OBT076 specifically targets and binds to CD205, a receptor involved in antigen capture and endocytosis, expressed on tumor cells. Fol... |
| Anti-CD20-CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing Autologous T-lymphocyte Cells | A preparation of autologous blood T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD20 scFv (single chain variable fragment); the cytoplasmic portion of the human TCR-[zeta] molecule; and the co-stimulatory molecule 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, anti-CD20-CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing autologous T-lymphocyte cells direct T-cells to CD20-expressing tumor cells.... |
| Anti-CD20-engineered Toxin Body MT-3724 | An engineered toxin body (ETB) composed of the single-chain variable fragment (ScFv) from an antibody targeting CD20 that is linked to a modified form of the ribosome-inactivating alpha subunit of Shiga-like toxin 1 (Shiga-like Toxin-1 A or SLT-1A), with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the ScFv moiety of anti-CD20-engineered toxin body MT-3724 targets and binds to the CD20 antigen expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization, the SLT-1A moiety is released and acts as an N-glyc... |
| Anti-CD22 ADC TRPH-222 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an anti-CD22 humanized monoclonal antibody site-specifically conjugated to, via formylglycine (FG) residues and a protease insensitive 4AP linker, a cytotoxic microtubule-targeting maytansinoid payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of TRPH-222 binds to B-cell-specific CD22 receptors and is rapidly internalized, thereby delivering the payload intracellularly. Upon proteolytic cleavage, t... |
| Anti-CD22 scFv TCRz:41BB-CAR Lentiviral Vector-transduced Autologous T-lymphocytes | Autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a recombinant lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric T-cell receptor consisting of an anti-CD22 single chain variable fragment (scFv) and the co-stimulatory domain 4-1BB (CD137) coupled to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) from a patient with CD22-positive cancer are transduced with this lentiviral vector that encodes the ... |
| Anti-CD22/Anti-CD28 Bispecific Antibody REGN5837 | A hinge-stabilized human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD22 and the co-stimulatory T-cell-specific surface glycoprotein CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD22/anti-CD28 bispecific antibody REGN5837 targets and binds to both CD28 expressed on T-cells and CD22 expressed on tumor cells, which crosslinks the T-cells to the tumor cells. This may result in the activa... |
| Anti-CD226 Agonist Antibody LY3435151 | An agonistic antibody targeting the human cell surface glycoprotein CD226 (DNAX accessory molecule-1; DNAM-1), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD226 agonist antibody LY3435151 targets and binds to CD226 on a variety of immune cell types, including T-cells, natural killer (NK) cells, B-cells and monocytes. This induces CD226-dependent signaling pathways, which may trigger the activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and activate T-... |
| Anti-CD228/4-1BB Bispecific Agent SGN-BB228 | A bispecific agent composed of a human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting the cell surface antigen cluster of differentiation (CD228; melanotransferrin; MFI2; MELTF; p97) fused to a binding protein targeting the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD228/4-1BB bispecific agent SGN-BB228 simultaneously targets and binds to ... |
| Anti-CD228/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-CD228A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized antibody targeting the cell surface antigen cluster of differentiation (CD228; melanotransferrin; MFI2; MELTF) that is conjugated, via a beta-glucuronidase-cleavable linker, to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Following administration, the antibody moiety of anti-CD228/MMAE ADC SGN-CD228A targets and binds to CD228 on the surface of tumor cells. Following ... |
| Anti-CD22-CAR m971-BBz Lentiviral Vector-transduced Autologous T Lymphocytes | Autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a recombinant lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric T-cell receptor (chimeric antigen receptor or CAR) consisting of an anti-CD22 single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from the monoclonal antibody (moAb) 971 (m971), and the co-stimulatory domain 4-1BB (CD137) coupled to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) from a pat... |
| Anti-CD24 Monoclonal Antibody ATG-031 | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the cell surface protein CD24, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD24 monoclonal antibody ATG-031 targets and binds to CD24 expressed on tumor cells, thereby blocking the interaction of CD24 with sialic acid-binding Ig-like lectin 10 (Siglec-10) expressed on innate immune cells including tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This prevents CD24/Siglec-... |
| Anti-CD24/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody IBD0333 | A bispecific monoclonal antibody targeting the cell surface antigen cluster of differentiation 24 (CD24) and the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD24/anti-4-1BB bispecific monoclonal antibody IBD0333 simultaneously targets and binds to CD24 expressed on the surface of tumor cells and 4-1BB expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets incl... |
| Anti-CD25 Monoclonal Antibody BA1106 | A human monoclonal antibody directed against CD25 (interleukin-2 receptor subunit alpha; IL-2R alpha; IL-2Ra), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody BA1106 targets and binds to CD25 expressed on tumor-infiltrating regulatory T (Treg) cells. This may deplete Treg cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME) through antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and prevent immunosuppression, thereby increasing the number of effector T (Teff) c... |
| Anti-CD26 Monoclonal Antibody YS110 | A humanized, immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the extracellular domain of dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (CD26; DPP4; DPP IV), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CD26 monoclonal antibody YS110, this antibody targets and binds to CD26 expressed on tumor cells. This inhibits CD26 activity and causes internalization of CD26-YS110. This leads to cell cycle arrest, lysis and inhibition of growth in CD26-positive tumor cells. YS110 also induces ... |
| Anti-CD27 Monoclonal Antibody GEN1053/BNT313 | A monospecific hexamer-forming antibody, based on the HexaBody technology platform, directed against the cell surface antigen CD27, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD27 monoclonal antibody GEN1053/BNT313 targets and binds to CD27 expressed on a variety of immune cell types, including most T-lymphocytes, and forming a hexamer upon binding. This induces CD27-mediated signaling, and enhances CD27-mediated responses, including the expansio... |
| Anti-CD27L Antibody-Drug Conjugate AMG 172 | An immunoconjugate consisting of a human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against CD27L conjugated, via a non-cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic agent maytansinoid DM1, with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of this immunoconjugate binds to CD27L on tumor cell surfaces. After internalization, the DM1 moiety binds to tubulin, thereby disrupting microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics and inhibiting both cell division and proliferation of cancer cells that exp... |
| Anti-CD3 Immunotoxin A-dmDT390-bisFv(UCHT1) | A bivalent recombinant fusion protein immunotoxin derived from the anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody UCHT1 with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-CD3 immunotoxin A-dmDT390-bisFv(UCHT1) consists of 1-390 amino acid residues of chain A diphtheria toxin (DT) joined via a spacer to the Fv fragment of UCHT1, which is connected to a second UCHT1 Fv fragment via a disulfide bond (hence the "bisFv" designation); the addition of the second Fv fragment overcomes the steric hindrance of immunotoxin b... |
| Anti-CD3 OKT3/Humanized Anti-GD2 3F8 Bispecific Antibody-activated T Lymphocytes | Autologous activated T cells that have been coated with bispecific antibodies (BiAb) comprised of anti-CD3 murine monoclonal antibody OKT3 heteroconjugated to anti-GD2 humanized monoclonal antibody 3F8 (hu3F8), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. In vitro, T cells are exposed to OKT3, which binds to the T cell receptor-CD3 complex on the T cell surface, crosslinks the CD3 receptors and leads to T cell activation. In turn, the hu3F8 monoclonal antibody is heteroconju... |
| Anti-CD3 x Anti-CD20 Bispecific Antibody-Armed Activated T Cells | Autologous activated T cells that have been coated with bispecific antibodies (BiAb), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. In vitro, T cells are activated through exposure to the anti-CD3 murine monoclonal antibody OKT3 and low-dose interleukin 2 (Il-2) for 6-14 days and then armed with anti-CD3 x anti-CD20 bispecific antibody (CD20Bi). Upon administration, anti-CD3 x anti-CD20 bispecific antibody-armed activated T cells (AATC) attach to CD3-expressing T cells and CD... |
| Anti-CD3/Anti-5T4 Bispecific Antibody GEN1044 | A recombinant immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody targeting both the human T-cell surface antigen CD3 and oncofetal antigen 5T4, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD3/anti-5T4 bispecific antibody GEN1044 simultaneously targets and binds to CD3 expressed on T-cells and 5T4 expressed on tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the 5T4-expressing tumor cells. 5T4, a ... |
| Anti-CD3/Anti-BCMA Bispecific Antibody TQB2934 | A T-cell engaging, human, bispecific, immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, anti-CD3/anti-BCMA bispecific antibody TQB2934 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and BCMA found on BCMA-expressing ... |
| Anti-CD3/Anti-CD20 Trifunctional Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody FBTA05 | A trifunctional bispecific monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. FBTA05 contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T cell surface antigen; and one for human CD20, a tumor-associated antigen that is exclusively expressed on B cells during most stages of B cell development and often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. In addition, the modified Fc portion of this antibody binds Fc receptors on antigen presenting cells (APCs) such as macrophages and dendr... |
| Anti-CD3/Anti-Claudin18.2 Bispecific Antibody IBI389 | A bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) and the human T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD3/anti-CLDN18.2 bispecific antibody IBI389 simultaneously binds to both CD3-expressing T-cells and CLDN18.2-expressing cancer cells, thereby crosslinking CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This results in th... |
| Anti-CD3/Anti-EGFR-bispecific Monoclonal Antibody-armed Activated Autologous T-lymphocytes | Autologous activated T-cells that have been coated with bispecific antibodies (BiAb) comprised of an anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody heteroconjugated to an anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) monoclonal antibody, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, anti-CD3 x anti-EGFR bispecific antibody-armed activated T-cells (AATC) attach to and selectively cross-link CD3-expressing T-cells and EGFR-expressing tumor cells. This results in the activatio... |
| Anti-CD3/Anti-GUCY2C Bispecific Antibody PF-07062119 | A bispecific antibody against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and human guanylate cyclase 2C (GUCY2C; GCC; guanylyl cyclase C; heat-stable enterotoxin receptor; hSTAR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD3/anti-GUCY2C bispecific antibody PF-07062119 targets and binds to both CD3 on T-cells and GUCY2C expressed on certain tumor cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against G... |
| Anti-CD3/CD19/CD20 Trispecific Antibody 1A46 | A trispecific immunoglobulin G (IgG)-like T-cell engaging antibody targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) and CD20, and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD3/CD19/CD20 trispecific antibody 1A46 binds to CD19- and/or CD20-expressing tumor B-cell and CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This activates and redirects CTLs to CD19- and/or CD20-expressin... |
| Anti-CD3/CD38 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody AMG 424 | A humanized, bispecific monoclonal antibody (BsAb) targeting CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and CD38, a human cell surface glycoprotein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD3/CD38 bispecific monoclonal antibody AMG 424 binds to both CD3 on T-cells and CD38 expressed on tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD38-expressing tumor cells. CD38, a typ... |
| Anti-CD3/CD38 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody IGM-2644 | An engineered bispecific, pentameric immunoglobulin M (IgM) monoclonal antibody directed against CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and CD38, a human cell surface glycoprotein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential antineoplastic activity. IGM-2644 consists of ten CD38 binding sites and an anti-CD3epsilon single chain variable fragment (scFv) domain fused to a joining chain. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD3/CD38 bispecific monoclonal antibody IGM-2644 targets and binds to bot... |
| Anti-CD3/CD7-Ricin Toxin A Immunotoxin | An immunotoxin (IT) combination composed of two antibody-drug conjugates (ADCs), one containing a monoclonal antibody against CD3 and one against the CD7 antigen on activated T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells, and both conjugated to ricin toxin A (RTA), the A-chain form of the potent plant toxin ricin, that can potentially be used to destroy activated T- and NK cells. Upon administration of the anti-CD3/CD7-RTA immunotoxin, the anti-CD3 antibody moiety targets and binds to activated T-cel... |
| Anti-CD3/MUC1 Antibody-armed PD-1 Inhibitor-induced Cytokine-induced Killer Cells | A preparation of cytokine-induced killer cells (CIKs), which have been exposed, ex vivo, to a specific set of cytokines and a programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1) inhibitor, mixed with a bispecific anti-cluster of differentiation 3 (CD3)/anti-mucin-1 (MUC1) antibody, with potential anti-tumor cytotoxic activity. Upon administration of the anti-CD3/MUC1 antibody-armed PD-1 inhibitor-induced CIKs, the antibody moiety binds to both CD3 on the CIKs and MUC1 on cancer cells. This crosslinks the ... |
| Anti-CD30 Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-35C | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of brentuximab (cAC10), a chimeric immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor CD30 (tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 8; TNFRSF8), conjugated to a camptothecin-derived topoisomerase 1 inhibitor (TOP1i), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD30 ADC SGN-35C targets and binds to CD30 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the TO... |
| Anti-CD30 Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-35T | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of brentuximab (cAC10), a chimeric immunoglobuin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor CD30 (tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 8; TNFRSF8) conjugated, via a protease-cleavable tripeptide linker, comprised of D-leucine-alanine-glutamate (DLAE), to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD30 ADC SGN-35T target... |
| Anti-CD30 Monoclonal Antibody MDX-1401 | A fully human, second-generation, nonfucosylated monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD30 with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Anti-CD30 monoclonal antibody MDX-1401 specifically binds to the CD30 antigen, which may result in a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD30-expressing tumor cells. CD30, a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily, is expressed on activated lymphocytes transiently and is constitutive... |
| Anti-CD30 Monoclonal Antibody XmAb2513 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD30 with potential immunotherapeutic activity. Anti-CD30 monoclonal antibody XmAb2513 specifically binds to the CD30 antigen, which may result in a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD30-expressing tumor cells. CD30, a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily, is expressed on activated lymphocytes transiently and is constitutively expressed in hematologic malignancies including Hodgki... |
| Anti-CD30/CD3 Bispecific Antibody GEN3017 | An Fc-silenced immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD30 (tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 8; TNFRSF8) and T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD30/CD3 bispecific antibody GEN3017 targets and binds to both CD30 on the surface of tumor cells and CD3 on T-cells. This results in the cross-linking of tumor cells and T-cells, and induces a... |
| Anti-CD30/DM1 Antibody-drug Conjugate F0002 | An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor CD30 conjugated, via a nonreducible thioether linker (succinimidyl trans-4-(maleimidylmethyl)cyclohexane-1-carboxylate or SMCC), to the cytotoxic agent maytansinoid mertansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of F0002 targets and binds to CD30-expressing tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake and internaliza... |
| Anti-CD32B Monoclonal Antibody BI-1206 | A fully human monoclonal antibody targeting the Fc gamma receptor IIB (FcgRIIB; CD32B) with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD32B monoclonal antibody BI-1206 selectively binds to CD32B, a receptor expressed on the surface of B-cells. This prevents CD32B-mediated internalization of anti-CD20 monoclonal antibodies, such as rituximab, which abrogates tumor cell resistance caused by CD32B-mediated monoclonal antibody internalization ... |
| Anti-CD33 Antibody-drug Conjugate IMGN779 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of the humanized monoclonal antibody Z4681A conjugated, via a cleavable disulfide linker, to the cytotoxic DNA alkylating agent DGN462, which is an indolino-benzodiazepine dimer containing a mono-imine moiety, with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody portion of anti-CD33 monoclonal antibody-DGN462 conjugate IMGN779 specifically binds to the cell surface antigen CD33 expressed on myeloid leukemia cells; upon internalization, th... |
| Anti-CD33 CAR T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the CD33 antigen, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD33 CAR T-cells specifically recognize and kill CD33-expressing tumor cells. CD33 is expressed on normal non-pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells and is overexpressed on myeloid leukemia cells. |
| Anti-CD33 GSPT1 Degrader BMS-986497 | A targeted protein degrader (TPD) composed of OR000283, an antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 33 (CD33), conjugated, via a cleavable beta-glucuronide linker, to SMol006, a membrane-permeable selective molecular glue degrader (MGD) of the translational termination factor GSPT1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD33 GSPT1 degrader BMS-986497 specifically targets and binds, with its antibody moiety,... |
| Anti-CD33 Monoclonal Antibody BI 836858 | An engineered, fully human, immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 anti-CD33 monoclonal antibody, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD33 monoclonal antibody BI 836858 induces an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CD33-expressing tumor cells, leading to cell death. CD33, a cell surface antigen expressed on normal non-pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells, is overexpressed on myeloid leukemia cells. |
| Anti-CD33 Monoclonal Antibody-DM4 Conjugate AVE9633 | An immunoconjugate consisting of the humanized monoclonal antibody huMy9-6 conjugated to the cytotoxic maytansinoid DM4 with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody portion of anti-CD33 monoclonal antibody-DM4 conjugate AVE9633 specifically binds to the cell surface antigen CD33 expressed on myeloid leukemia cells; upon internalization, the DM4 moiety is released, binds tubulin, and disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, resulting in the inhibition of cell divi... |
| Anti-CD33/CD123/CD70 DARPin CD3 Engager MP0533 | A multi-specific T-cell engaging designed ankyrin repeat proteins (DARPin) composed of a chain of six covalently linked DARPin domains of which three domains target the three tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 33 (CD33), CD123 and CD70, one domain targets CD3 on T-cells and two domains target human serum albumin (HSA) to prolong half-life, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD33/CD123/CD70 DARPin CD3 engager MP0533... |
| Anti-CD33/CD3 Bispecific Antibody | A bispecific antibody directed against both the T-cell surface antigen CD3 and the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD33, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD33/CD3 bispecific antibody binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and CD33 on CD33-expressing tumor cells, thereby crosslinking tumor cells and CTLs. This activates and redirects CTLs to CD33-expressing tumor cells, which results in the CTL-mediated cell death of CD33-exp... |
| Anti-CD33/CD3 Bispecific Antibody GEM 333 | A bispecific antibody possessing two antigen-recognition and binding sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD33, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CD33/CD3 bispecific antibody GEM 333, this bispecific antibody binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and the CD33 antigen found on CD33-expr... |
| Anti-CD33/CD3 Bispecific Antibody JNJ-67571244 | A bispecific antibody possessing two antigen-recognition and binding sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD33, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD33/CD3 bispecific antibody JNJ-67571244 binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and the CD33 antigen expressed on certain tumor ce... |
| Anti-CD352 Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-CD352A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of an engineered cysteine humanized monoclonal antibody (EC-mAb) targeting CD352 (SLAM family member 6; SLAM6) that is conjugated to the cytotoxic, DNA minor-groove crosslinking agent pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CD352 ADC SGN-CD352A, the antibody moiety targets the cell surface antigen CD352. Upon antibody/antigen binding, internalization, and lysosome uptake, the cytotoxic P... |
| Anti-CD37 MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate AGS67E | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of AGS67C, a human anti-CD37 monoclonal antibody covalently linked, via reduced cysteines and a protease cleavable linker, to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of AGS67E binds to CD37 antigens on tumor B-cells and is rapidly internalized, thereby delivering MMAE intracellularly. Upon proteolytic ... |
| Anti-CD37 Monoclonal Antibody BI 836826 | An Fc-engineered, chimeric immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD37, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the anti-CD37 monoclonal antibody BI 836826 both activates the immune system to induce an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CD37-overexpressing tumor cells and induces apoptosis in these tumor cells. BI 836826 is Fc-engineered to improve ADCC activity and enhance affinity for the receptor ... |
| Anti-CD37-CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD37 (cluster of differentiation 37), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD37-CAR T-cells specifically recognize and kill CD37-expressing tumor cells. CD37, a member of the tetraspanin superfamily of cell surface antigens, is expressed in B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHL), in chronic... |
| Anti-CD38 Antibody-drug Conjugate STI-6129 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of STI-5171, a fully human monoclonal antibody targeting human cell surface glycoprotein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD38, site-specifically conjugated, via a non-polyethylene glycol linker, to a monomethyl auristatin F (MMAF)-derived cytotoxic payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CD38 ADC STI-6129, the antibody moiety targets and binds to CD38 on tumor cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internaliza... |
| Anti-CD38 Monoclonal Antibody CID-103 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein ADP-ribosyl cyclase 1 (CD38), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD38 monoclonal antibody CID-103 specifically targets and binds to CD38 expressed on tumor cells. This may trigger antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), cell lysis and depletion of CD38-expressing tumor cells. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is present on various immune cells a... |
| Anti-CD38 Monoclonal Antibody SAR442085 | A preparation of Fc-engineered monoclonal antibody that targets the cell surface glycoprotein CD-38 with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanisms(s) through which this agent exerts its effects have yet to be fully elucidated, upon administration, anti-CD38 monoclonal antibody SAR442085 targets and binds to CD38 on CD38-positive tumor cells. This may trigger, in addition to other possible responses, antitumoral antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and may eve... |
| Anti-CD38 Monoclonal Antibody SCTC21C | A monoclonal antibody that targets the cell surface glycoprotein CD38, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD38 monoclonal antibody SCTC21C targets and binds to CD38 on CD38-positive tumor cells. This may kill, possiby through antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) or other responses, CD38-expressing tumor cells. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is present on various immune cells and hematologic malignancies. |
| Anti-CD38 Monoclonal Antibody SG301 | A human immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody that targets the cell surface glycoprotein CD38, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanisms(s) through which this agent exerts its effects have yet to be fully elucidated, upon administration, anti-CD38 monoclonal antibody SG301 targets and binds to CD38 on CD38-positive tumor cells. This may trigger, in addition to other possible responses, antitumoral antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and ma... |
| Anti-CD38/Anti-CD47 Bispecific Antibody ISB 1442 | A human bispecific antibody directed against the human cell surface glycoproteins CD38 and CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the biparatopic anti-CD38 moiety of anti-CD38/anti-CD47 bispecific antibody ISB 1442 targets and binds to different regions of CD38 on CD38-expressing tumor cells, and enables the binding of the anti-CD47 moiety to CD38/CD47-expressing tumor cells. The CD47 binding by ISB 1442 blocks the int... |
| Anti-CD38/BCMA CAR T-lymphocytes | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a dual-targeted chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) recognizing the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), cluster of differentiation 38 (CD38) and B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the anti-CD38/BCMA CAR T-cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in both ... |
| Anti-CD38/CD28xCD3 Tri-specific Monoclonal Antibody SAR442257 | A tri-specific T-cell engager and monoclonal antibody targeting CD38, a human cell surface glycoprotein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA), CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and CD28, a T-cell specific surface glycoprotein and co-stimulatory molecule, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD38/CD3/CD28 tri-specific monoclonal antibody SAR442257 targets and binds to CD3 and CD28 on T-cells and CD38 expressed on tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may t... |
| Anti-CD38/CD3 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody GBR 1342 | A humanized, bispecific monoclonal antibody (BsAb) against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and the human cell surface glycoprotein CD38, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD38/anti-CD3 bispecific monoclonal antibody GBR 1342 binds to both CD3 on T-cells and CD38 expressed on certain tumor cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and induces a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against ... |
| Anti-CD38/CD3 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody XmAb18968 | A bispecific monoclonal antibody targeting CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and CD38, a human cell surface glycoprotein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD3/CD38 bispecific monoclonal antibody XmAb18968 binds to both CD3 on T-cells and CD38 expressed on tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD38-expressing tumor cells. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprot... |
| Anti-CD38-CAR-TCRz/4-1BB-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 38 (CD38) that is linked to tandem costimulatory domains of the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3 complex (CD3z) and 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD38-CAR-TCRz/4-1BB-expressing T-lymphocyt... |
| Anti-CD39 Antibody/TGF-beta RII Ectodomain Fusion Protein ES014 | A fusion protein composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD39 (cluster of differentiation 39; ectonucleoside triphosphate diphosphohydrolase-1; NTPDase1; ENTPD1) and fused to the transforming growth factor-beta receptor type II (TGF-beta RII) ectodomain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD39/TGF-beta RII ectodomain fusion protein ES014 specifically and simultaneously targets and binds to the CD39 anti... |
| Anti-CD39 Monoclonal Antibody AB598 | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc-silent human monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD39 (cluster of differentiation 39; ectonucleoside triphosphate diphosphohydrolase-1; NTPDase1; ENTPD1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD39 monoclonal antibody AB598 specifically targets and binds to the CD39 antigen, thereby preventing the conversion and degradation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine monophosphate (AM... |
| Anti-CD39 Monoclonal Antibody IPH5201 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD39 (cluster of differentiation 39; ectonucleoside triphosphate diphosphohydrolase-1; NTPDase1; ENTPD1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD39 monoclonal antibody IPH5201 specifically targets and binds to the CD39 antigen, thereby preventing the conversion and degradation of the immune-stimulatory adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine monophosphate (AMP). This leads to... |
| Anti-CD39 Monoclonal Antibody JS019 | A recombinant, fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD39 (cluster of differentiation 39; ectonucleoside triphosphate diphosphohydrolase-1; NTPDase1; ENTPD1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD39 monoclonal antibody JS019 specifically targets and binds to the CD39 antigen, thereby preventing the conversion and degradation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine monophosphate (AMP). This leads to... |
| Anti-CD39 Monoclonal Antibody PUR001 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD39 (cluster of differentiation 39; ectonucleoside triphosphate diphosphohydrolase-1; NTPDase1; ENTPD1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD39 monoclonal antibody PUR001 specifically targets and binds to the CD39 antigen, thereby preventing the conversion and degradation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine monophosphate (AMP). This leads to an increase in the extr... |
| Anti-CD4 CAR T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD4 and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD4 CAR T-cells target and bind to CD4-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD4-expressing tumor cells. CD4 ... |
| Anti-CD40 Agonist Antibody YH003 | A humanized agonistic antibody targeting the immune checkpoint human B-cell surface antigen CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD40 agonist antibody YH003 targets and binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types. This induces CD40-dependent signaling pathways, triggers the proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and activates T-cells. This results in an enhanced cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune... |
| Anti-CD40 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody CDX-1140 | A fully human immunoglobulin G2 (IgG2) agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the B-cell surface antigen CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CDX-1140 targets and binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types. This induces CD40-dependent signaling pathways, triggers the proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and activates T-cells. This results in an enhanced cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response ... |
| Anti-CD40 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody MIL97 | A recombinant, humanized, agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the B-cell surface antigen CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD40 agonist monoclonal antibody MIL97 targets and binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types. This induces CD40-dependent signaling pathways, triggers the proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and activates T-cells. This results in an enhanced cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-med... |
| Anti-CD40 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody LNF1901 | A humanized, agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the B-cell surface antigen CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD40 agonistic monoclonal antibody LNF1901 targets and binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types. This induces CD40-dependent signaling pathways, triggers the proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and activates T-cells. This results in an enhanced cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated imm... |
| Anti-CD40 Monoclonal Antibody Chi Lob 7/4 | An IgG1 chimeric monoclonal antibody agonist of the cell surface receptor CD40 with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD40 monoclonal antibody Chi Lob 7/4 binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types, triggering the cellular proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), activating B cells and T cells, and enhancing the immune response; in addition, this agent binds to the CD40 antigen present on the surfaces ... |
| Anti-CD40/Anti-mesothelin Bispecific Antibody ABBV-428 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the cell-surface receptor CD40 and the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CD40/anti-MSLN bispecific antibody ABBV-428, the anti-MSLN moiety targets and binds to MSLN expressed on tumor cells. The agonistic anti-CD40 moiety targets and binds to various CD40-expressing immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and induces CD40-dependent si... |
| Anti-CD44 Monoclonal Antibody RO5429083 | A recombinant, humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the cancer stem cell (CSC) antigen CD44, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, RO5429083 binds to the constant region of the extracellular domain of CD44, thereby preventing the activation of various CD44-mediated signal transduction pathways. This may lead to a reduction in the proliferation of CD44-expressing tumor stem cells. CD44, a transmembrane glycoprotein and hyaluronic acid receptor, ... |
| Anti-CD44v9 Antibody-drug Conjugate AMT-116 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD44 variant 9 (CD44v9), linked to the topoisomerase I inhibitor (TOP1i) and belotecan derivative KL610023 via a hydrolysable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of anti-CD44v9 ADC AMT-116, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to CD44v9 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and interna... |
| Anti-CD45 BC8 Monoclonal Antibody-Streptavidin Conjugate | An immunoconjugate containing a monoclonal antibody directed against the CD45 antigen BC8, conjugated to streptavidin, a nonglycosylated homotetrameric protein that has four high affinity binding sites for biotin. Anti-CD45 BC8 antibody-streptavidin conjugate binds to CD45, a transmembrane protein tyrosine phosphatase that is expressed on the surface of normal and malignant hematopoietic cells. Upon administration of a biotin-based radioconjugate, the biotin moiety of the radioconjugate binds... |
| Anti-CD45 Monoclonal Antibody AHN-12 | A high affinity IgG1 monoclonal antibody with potential immunotherapeutic activity. Anti-CD45 monoclonal antibody AHN-12 recognizes CD45, a transmembrane protein tyrosine phosphatase that is expressed on the surface of normal and malignant hematopoietic cells. |
| Anti-CD46 Antibody-drug Conjugate FOR46 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the cluster of differentiation 46 (CD46; membrane cofactor protein; MCP) and conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD46 ADC FOR46 specifically targets and binds to a specific conformational epitope on the immune modulatory receptor CD46 expressed on certain tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic pa... |
| Anti-CD47 ADC SGN-CD47M | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against human cell surface antigen CD47 conjugated to an as of yet not fully elucidated toxin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of SGN-CD47M, the anti-CD47 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to CD47 on tumor cell surfaces; upon internalization, the toxin moiety kills tumor cells through a mechanism of action that has not been elucidated. CD47, also called integrin-associated prot... |
| Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody | Any monoclonal antibody that targets the CD47 antigen. |
| Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody AO-176 | A humanized immunoglobulin G2 (IgG2) monoclonal antibody targeting the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD47 monoclonal antibody AO-176 preferentially binds to CD47 on tumor cells because it exhibits enhanced binding at the acidic pH found in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha), an inhibitory protein expressed on macro... |
| Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody CC-90002 | A monoclonal antibody targeting the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD47 monoclonal antibody CC-90002 selectively binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa), a protein expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of phagocytosis. This induces pro-... |
| Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody HMPL-A83 | A humanized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting leukocyte surface antigen CD47, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD47 monoclonal antibody HMPL-A83 targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells, blocking the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa) expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of macrop... |
| Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody IMC-002 | A human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting leukocyte surface antigen CD47, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD47 monoclonal antibody IMC-002 targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells, blocking the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa) expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of macrophage ... |
| Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody MIL95 | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting leukocyte surface antigen CD47, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD47 monoclonal antibody MIL95 targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells, blocking the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa) expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of macrophage activation and phagocyt... |
| Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody SHR-1603 | A monoclonal antibody targeting the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD47 monoclonal antibody SHR-1603 preferentially binds to CD47 on tumor cells. This blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha), an inhibitory protein expressed on macrophages and dendritic cells (DCs), which prevents CD47/SIRPalpha-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPalpha-mediated inhi... |
| Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody STI-6643 | A human monoclonal antibody targeting leukocyte surface antigen CD47, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD47 monoclonal antibody STI-6643 targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells, blocking the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa) expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of macrophage activation and phagocyto... |
| Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody ZL-1201 | A humanized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting leukocyte surface antigen CD47, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD47 monoclonal antibody ZL-1201 targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells, blocking the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa) expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of macroph... |
| Anti-CD47/Anti-HER2 Bispecific Antibody D3L-001 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the human tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2) and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CD47/anti-HER2 bispecific antibody D3L-001, the anti-HER2 moiety selectively targets and binds to HER2 on HER2-expressing tumor cells, thereby improving the binding of the anti-CD47 moiety to the HER2-expre... |
| Anti-CD47/Anti-mesothelin Bispecific Antibody NI-1801 | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific human antibody directed against the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN) and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CD47/anti-MSLN bispecific antibody NI-1801, the anti-MSLN arm selectively targets and binds to MSLN expressed on MSLN-positive cancer cells, thereby improving specific binding of the anti-CD47 arm to the MSLN-ex... |
| Anti-CD47/Anti-PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody PF-07257876 | A bispecific antibody targeting both the human cell surface antigen CD47 and the immunosuppressive ligand human programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD47/anti-PD-L1 bispecific antibody PF-07257876 targets and binds to both CD47 and PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells. The CD47 binding by PF-07257876 blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal r... |
| Anti-CD47/CD20 Bispecific Antibody CC-96673 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) affinity-tuned bispecific antibody directed against both the B-cell-specific membrane protein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20, and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CD47/CD20 bispecific antibody CC-96673, the anti-CD20 moiety selectively targets and binds with high affinity to CD20 on CD20-positive B-cells, and the anti-CD47 moiety ... |
| Anti-CD48/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-CD48A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody targeting the cell surface antigen CD48 that is conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), via a proprietary next-generation PEGylated glucuronide linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Following intravenous administration, the antibody moiety of anti-CD48 ADC SGN-CD48A binds to CD48 on the surface of tumor cells. Following internalization of the ADC, the MMAE binds to tubulin and i... |
| Anti-CD52 Monoclonal Antibody ALLO-647 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein CD52 (CAMPATH-1 antigen; Cambridge pathology 1 antigen), with potential immunodepleting activity. Upon administration, anti-CD52 monoclonal antibody ALLO-647 selectively targets and binds to CD52, thereby triggering a host immune response that results in the lysis of CD52-positive lymphocytes. This leads to immunodepletion and may prevent graft-versus-host disease (GvHD). CD52 is a glycoprotein expressed on the surface of ma... |
| Anti-CD7 CAR T Cells BT-007 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been  genetically engineered and transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD7, the co-immunostimulatory signaling domain 4-1BB (CD137) and the intracellular CD3 zeta domain (CD3z), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD7 CAR T cells BT-007 specifically recognize and bind to CD7-expressing tumor cells, res... |
| Anti-CD7 CAR T Cells SenL-T7 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD7 CAR T cells SenL-T7 specifically recognize and bind to CD7-expressing tumor cells, resulting in specific T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis. CD7 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed by T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells an... |
| Anti-CD7 CAR T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD7 CAR T-cells specifically recognize and bind to CD7-expressing tumor cells, resulting in specific T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis. CD7 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed by T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells and their ... |
| Anti-CD7 CAR-T Cells RD13-02 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD7 CAR-T cells RD13-02 specifically target and kill CD7-expressing tumor cells. CD7 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed by T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells and their precursors. It is expressed in the majority of lymphoblast... |
| Anti-CD70 Antibody-Drug Conjugate MDX-1203 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) containing a fully human monoclonal antibody, directed against the extracellular domain of the human CD70 molecule, conjugated to a prodrug of a CC-1065 (rachelmycin) analogue via a stable peptide-based linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. The anti-CD70 antibody moiety of the anti-CD70 antibody-drug conjugate MDX-1203 selectively binds to the extracellular domain of CD70 on tumor cell surfaces. Upon internalization, the prodrug moiety is released an... |
| Anti-CD70 Antibody-drug Conjugate PRO1160 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 70 (CD70), conjugated via a cleavable, hydrophilic linker to the camptothecin analog exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CD70 ADC PRO1160, the anti-CD70 antibody moiety targets and binds to CD70-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, exatecan is released. Exatecan ... |
| Anti-CD70 Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-CD70A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) containing an engineered cysteine monoclonal antibody (EC-mAb), directed against the extracellular domain of the human CD70 molecule, conjugated to the synthetic, cytotoxic, DNA minor-groove crosslinking agent, pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, via a stable, protease-cleavable, peptide-based linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. The anti-CD70 antibody moiety of the anti-CD70 antibody-drug conjugate SGN-CD70A selectively binds to the extracellular do... |
| Anti-CD70 CAR-expressing T Lymphocytes | A preparation of human T-lymphocytes transduced with a recombinant viral vector encoding a chimeric T-cell receptor (chimeric antigen receptor or CAR) consisting of one or more binding domains that target the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD70 (CD27 ligand; tumor necrosis factor superfamily member 7; TNFSF7) fused to one or more co-stimulatory TCR-signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD70 CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes... |
| Anti-CD70 Monoclonal Antibody IMM40H | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD70, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD70 monoclonal antibody IMM40H selectivity targets and binds to CD70, which blocks CD70-mediated signaling. This may inhibit cellular proliferation and survival of CD70-expressing tumor cells, and may modulate the immune system to inhibit inflammatory signals and increase antigen-specific T-cel... |
| Anti-CD70 Monoclonal Antibody MDX-1411 | A glycoengineered, fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the extracellular domain of the human CD70 molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-CD70 fully human monoclonal antibody MDX-1411 selectivity binds to the extracellular domain of CD70, which may induce an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) response against CD70-expressing tumor cells. CD70, the ligand for the costimulatory receptor CD27 and a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) family, is ... |
| Anti-CD70 Monoclonal Antibody SEA-CD70 | A humanized, nonfucosylated monoclonal antibody directed against the human CD70 antigen, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD70 monoclonal antibody sugar-engineered antibody (SEA)-CD70 selectivity targets and binds to the extracellular domain of CD70, which blocks CD70-mediated signaling. This may inhibit cellular proliferation and survival of CD70-expressing tumor cells, and may modulate the immune system to inhibit inflammatory signals ... |
| Anti-CD71/vcMMAE Probody-drug Conjugate CX-2029 | A probody-drug conjugate (PDC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the transferrin receptor 1 (TFR1;TRP1; CD71), linked to a proprietary masking peptide that covers the active antigen-binding site of the antibody through a protease-cleavable linker, and conjugated, via a valine-citrulline (VC) peptide linker, to the potent cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-CD71/vcMMAE PDC CX-2029, the anti-CD7... |
| Anti-CD73 Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986179 | A monoclonal antibody targeting the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD73 monoclonal antibody BMS-986179 targets and binds to CD73, leading to clustering and internalization of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of extracellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and decreases the amount of free adenosine. This prev... |
| Anti-CD73 Monoclonal Antibody HB0045 | A compound preparation composed of two monoclonal antibodies, HB0038 and HB0039, targeting different epitopes of human ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), in a 1:1 molar ratio, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD73 monoclonal antibody HB0045 targets and binds to two different epitopes of CD73 on tumor cells. HB0038 specifically binds to the catalytic domain composed of... |
| Anti-CD73 Monoclonal Antibody HLX23 | A recombinant, humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD73 monoclonal antibody HLX23 targets and binds to CD73 on tumor cells, thereby inhibiting the activity of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of extracellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and the adenosine-mediated sup... |
| Anti-CD73 Monoclonal Antibody IBI325 | A monoclonal antibody targeting the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD73 monoclonal antibody IBI325 targets and binds to CD73 on tumor cells, thereby inhibiting the activity of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of extracellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and the adenosine-mediated suppression of lymphocyte... |
| Anti-CD73 Monoclonal Antibody JAB-BX102 | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD73 monoclonal antibody JAB-BX102 targets and binds to CD73 on tumor cells, thereby inhibiting the activity of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of extracellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and the adenosine-mediated suppression ... |
| Anti-CD73 Monoclonal Antibody NZV930 | A fully human monoclonal antibody targeting the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD73 monoclonal antibody NZV930 targets and binds to CD73 on tumor cells, leading to internalization of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of extracellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine, thereby preventing adenosine-med... |
| Anti-CD73 Monoclonal Antibody Sym024 | A monoclonal antibody targeting the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD73 monoclonal antibody Sym024 targets and binds to CD73 on tumor cells, thereby inhibiting CD73 activity. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of extracellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine, preventing adenosine-mediated suppression of lymphocyte ac... |
| Anti-CD74 Antibody-drug Conjugate STRO-001 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) comprised of an aglycosylated human anti-CD74 IgG1 antibody (SP7219) that has been genetically modified to incorporate the non-natural amino acid (nnAA) para-azidomethyl-L-phenylalanine (pAMF), which is site-specifically conjugated to a non-cleavable dibenzocyclooctyne (DBCO)-maytansinoid linker-warhead, with potential antineoplastic activity. The antibody moiety of anti-CD74 ADC STRO-001 targets and binds to the CD74 expressed on tumor cells; upon internaliza... |
| Anti-CD79b Antibody-drug Conjugate SHR-A1912 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell antigen receptor complex-associated protein beta chain (CD79b; B-cell-specific glycoprotein B29) conjugated to a topoisomerase-1 inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of anti-CD79b ADC SHR-A1912 targets and binds to CD79b expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the topoisomerase-1 i... |
| Anti-CD79b CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell antigen receptor complex-associated protein beta chain (CD79b; B-cell-specific glycoprotein B29), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD79b CAR T cells target and bind to CD79b-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD79b-expressing tumor cells. CD79b, a ... |
| Anti-CD79b/CD20/CD3 Trispecific Antibody JNJ-80948543 | A fully human effector-silent Fc immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) trispecific antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) B-cell antigen receptor complex-associated protein beta chain (CD79b; B-cell-specific glycoprotein B29) and cluster of differentiation 20 (CD20), and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD79b/CD20/CD3 trispecific antibody JNJ-80948543 targets and binds to CD79b- and/or CD20-expressing... |
| Anti-CD93 Monoclonal Antibody DCBY02 | A monoclonal antibody directed against a specific epitope of the insulin-like growth factor-binding protein 7 (IGFBP7) receptor complement component C1q receptor (C1QR1; CD93), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD93 monoclonal antibody DCBY02 targets and binds to CD93 expressed on tumor-associated endothelial cells. This prevents the interaction of CD93 with its ligand IGFBP7, which improves tumor vascular function, reduces tumor hypoxia and increases tumor per... |
| Anti-CD93 Monoclonal Antibody DCSZ11 | A monoclonal antibody directed against a specific epitope of the insulin-like growth factor-binding protein 7 (IGFBP7) receptor complement component C1q receptor (C1QR1; CD93), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD93 monoclonal antibody DCSZ11 targets and binds to CD93 expressed on tumor-associated endothelial cells. This prevents the interaction of CD93 with its ligand IGFBP7, which improves tumor vascular function, reduces tumor hypoxia and increases tumor per... |
| Anti-CD98 Monoclonal Antibody IGN523 | A humanized, monoclonal antibody targeting the CD98 (gp125) antigen, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, IGN523 binds to CD98 expressed on the tumor cell surface and elicits both natural killer (NK)-cell mediated antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity towards CD98-expressing tumor cells. In addition, IGN523 inhibits essential amino acid uptake by rapidly proliferating tumor cells. CD98, ... |
| Anti-CDH17/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody ARB202 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the T-cell surface antigen CD3 and the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cadherin-17 (CDH17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CDH17/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody ARB202 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and CDH17 on CDH17-expressing tumor cells, thereby crosslinking tumor cells and CTLs. This activates and redirects CTLs to CDH17-expressing tumor cells, which results in the CTL-... |
| Anti-CDH3/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate BC3195 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cadherin-3 (CDH3; placental cadherin; P-cadherin), conjugated to the auristatin derivative and microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE) via a valine-citrulline (VC) peptide linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CDH3/MMAE ADC BC3195, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to CDH3 expressed on tu... |
| Anti-CDH3/MSLN BiTE Antibody AMG 305 | A dual-targeting bispecific antibody and T-cell engager (BiTE) co-targeting both the human tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cadherin-3 (CDH3; placental cadherin; P-cadherin) and mesothelin (MSLN) on tumor cells and CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CDH3/MSLN BiTE antibody AMG 305 binds with specificity to tumor cells co-expressing CDH3 and MSLN antigens and CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This r... |
| Anti-CDH6 Antibody-drug Conjugate HKT288 | An immunoconjugate consisting of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cadherin-6 (CDH6; CDH-6) conjugated to a maytansine-based cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of HKT288 targets and binds to CDH6 located on tumor cell surfaces. After internalization, the maytansine moiety binds to tubulin, which disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics and inhibits both division and proliferation of CD... |
| Anti-CDH6/Exatecan ADC CUSP06 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cadherin-6 (CDH6; CDH-6; K-cadherin) conjugated, via a protease cleavable linker, to the camptothecin analog and cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CDH6/exatecan ADC CUSP06, the anti-CDH6 antibody moiety targets and binds to CDH6-expressing tumor cells. Upon uptake and cleavage of the... |
| Anti-CEA BiTE Monoclonal Antibody AMG211 | A recombinant, proprietary bispecific T-cell engagers (BiTE) antibody directed against human carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Anti-CEA BiTE monoclonal antibody AMG211 possesses two antigen-recognition sites, one for CEA and one for the CD3 complex, a group of T cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T cell receptor (TCR). This bispecific monoclonal antibody brings CEA-expressing tumor cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes (C... |
| Anti-CEA CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CEA CAR T cells specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in CEA-expressing tumor cells. CEA, a member of the CEA family of proteins, plays a key role in cell migration, cell invasion and cell adhesion, and is overexpressed... |
| Anti-CEA IgCD28TCR-Transduced Autologous T Cells | A population of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TIL) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding the chimeric gene IgCD28TCR with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The chimeric IgCD28TCR gene consists of portions of CD28, the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCRzeta), and a single chain antibody domain (sFv) specific for the tumor-associated antigen CEA.  Upon administration, these gene-modified TIL bind to tumor cells expressing CEA, which may result in... |
| Anti-CEA TCR Retroviral Vector-Transduced Autologous Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes | Autologous human peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs), transduced with a retroviral vector encoding both the alpha and beta chains of a T cell receptor (TCR) specific for the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. After transduction, expansion in culture, and reintroduction into the patient, anti-CEA TCR retroviral vector-transduced autologous lymphocytes bind to tumor cells expressing CEA, which may result in cytokine expression, activa... |
| Anti-CEA/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Antibody BGB-B167 | A bispecific antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 5 (CEACAM5; CEA) and the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CEA/anti-4-1BB bispecific antibody BGB-B167 simultaneously targets and binds to CEA expressed on tumor cells and 4-1BB expressed on activated T-lymphocyte... |
| Anti-CEA/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Antibody LM-24C5 | A bispecific antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 5 (CEACAM5; CEA) and the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CEA/anti-4-1BB bispecific antibody LM-24C5 simultaneously targets and binds to CEA expressed on tumor cells and 4-1BB expressed on activated T-lymphocytes... |
| Anti-CEA/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody BA1202 | A bispecific antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 5 (CEACAM5; CEA) and CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CEA/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody BA1202 targets and binds to both CEA expressed on tumor cells and CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This activates and redirects CTLs to CEA-expressing tumor cells, which results in th... |
| Anti-CEA/Anti-CEACAM6 Antibody-drug Conjugate EBC-129 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA; carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 5; CEACAM5) and the immune checkpoint regulator carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 6 (CEACAM6; CEACAM-6; CD66c) and conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint inhibitory ac... |
| Anti-CEA/Anti-DR5 Bispecific Antibody IBI3004 | A bispecific antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 5 (CEACAM5; CEA) and the pro-apoptotic death receptor tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL) receptor 2 (TRAILR2; death receptor 5; DR5), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CEA/anti-DR5 bispecific antibody IBI3004 targets and binds to both CEA and DR5 expressed on tumor cells. Receptor ... |
| Anti-CEA/Anti-DTPA-In (F6-734) Bispecific Antibody | A bispecific monoclonal antibody (BsMAb) consisting of the Fab fragment of an anti-CEA monoclonal antibody (F6) coupled to the Fab fragment of an anti-DTPA-In monoclonal antibody (734) with potential radioimmunotherapeutic activity. In a two-step pretargeted radioimmunotherapeutic approach, this BsMAb, localizing to CEA-expressing tumor cells via the F6 Fab fragment, is introduced into patient first, followed by injection of indium 131-radiolabeled DTPA, which is recognized by the 734 Fab fra... |
| Anti-CEA/Anti-HSG Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody TF2 | A tri-Fab bispecific monoclonal antibody (BiMoAb) divalent for the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and monovalent for histamine-succinyl-glycine (HSG) peptide-hapten. Anti-CEA/anti-HSG bispecific monoclonal antibody TF2 binds to the tumor associated antigen (TAA) CEA on CEA-expressing tumor cells. Subsequently, an HSG peptide-hapten carrying a radionuclide is administered, binding to the anti-HSG binding fragment on the BiMoAb. Depending on the characteristics of the radionuclide used, CEA-exp... |
| Anti-CEACAM1 Monoclonal Antibody CM-24 | A humanized monoclonal immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) antibody targeting the anti-carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)-related cell adhesion molecule 1 (CEACAM1; CD66a), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CEACAM1 monoclonal antibody CM-24, this agent binds to CEACAM1 on cancer cells and certain immune cells. This blocks the binding of CEACAM1-expressing cancer cells to CEACAM1-expressing immune cells and abrogates CEACAM1-mediated immunosuppression.... |
| Anti-CEACAM5 ADC SGN-CEACAM5C | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA; carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 5; CEACAM5; CD66e) and conjugated to a cytotoxic camptothecin-based payload, with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint inhibitory activities. Upon administration of anti-CEACAM5 ADC SGN-CEACAM5C, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to CEA expressed on tumor cells. Upo... |
| Anti-CEACAM6 AFAIKL2 Antibody Fragment/Jack Bean Urease Immunoconjugate L-DOS47 | A lyophilized formulation of DOS47, an immunoconjugate composed of AFAIKL2, a recombinant camelid single-domain antibody which recognizes carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 6 (CEACAM6), and the enzyme urease derived from the plant Canavalia ensiformis (Jack bean), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the AFAIKL2 antibody fragment moiety of L-DOS47 specifically targets and binds to CEACAM6 expressed on certain tumor cells. In turn, the u... |
| Anti-CEA-CAR Autologous T Lymphocytes | Autologous lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen human carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CEA-CAR autologous T-lymphocytes target and bind to tumor cells expressing CEA, which results in the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated cell killing of CEA-expressing tumor cells. CEA is overexpressed in various tumor ... |
| Anti-CFH Monoclonal Antibody GT103 | A recombinant human-derived monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor cell-protective protein complement factor H (CFH), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CFH monoclonal antibody GT103 targets and binds specifically to a conformationally distinct epitope within a specific crucial functional domain of CFH bound on tumor cells. This activates the complement cascade, triggers complement dependent cytotoxicity and leads to the destruction o... |
| Anti-c-fms Monoclonal Antibody AMG 820 | A fully human IgG2 monoclonal antibody against the colony-stimulating factor-1 (CSF-1 or M-CSF) receptor c-fms (or CSFR1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-c-fms monoclonal antibody AMG 820 binds to and blocks c-fms, thereby blocking CSF-1 binding to its receptor and suppressing CSF-1-induced c-fms signaling. This results in the suppression of recruitment and activation of tumor associated macrophages (TAM) within the tumor microenvironment. This eventually le... |
| Anti-c-KIT Monoclonal Antibody CDX 0158 | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody against the stem cell factor receptor c-Kit (SCFR; KIT; CD117), with potential antineoplastic and anti-allergic activities. Upon administration, the anti-c-KIT monoclonal antibody CDX 0158 binds to and inhibits the activation of the cell surface antigen c-Kit. This leads to an inhibition of the activation of c-KIT-mediated signal transduction pathways and inhibits cell proliferation in cancer cells expressing c-Kit. In mast cells, inhibit... |
| Anti-claudin 18.2 Antibody-drug Conjugate CPO102 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) conjugated via a cleavable linker, to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 ADC CPO102 specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization and the release of MMAE, MMAE targets a... |
| Anti-Claudin 18.2 Antibody-drug Conjugate EO-3021 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin 18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CLDN18.2 ADC EO-3021, the anti-CLDN18.2 monoclonal antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization and the ... |
| Anti-Claudin 18.2 Antibody-drug Conjugate JS107 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin 18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 ADC JS107 specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization and the release of MMAE, MMAE targets and binds to tub... |
| Anti-Claudin 18.2 Antibody-drug Conjugate SHR-A1904 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin 18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to a topoisomerase 1 inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CLDN18.2 ADC SHR-A1904, the anti-CLDN18.2 monoclonal antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, internalizatio... |
| Anti-Claudin 18.2 Antibody-drug Conjugate SKB315 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) that is site-specifically conjugated, via a stable linker, to a cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I (Top I) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CLDN18.2 ADC MK-1200, the antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization and the release... |
| Anti-Claudin 18.2 Antibody-drug Conjugate SOT102 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) that is site-specifically conjugated, via a non-cleavable amide/peptide linker, to a derivative of the cytotoxic anthracycline PNU-159682, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CLDN18.2 ADC SOT102, the antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed o... |
| Anti-claudin 18.2 Monoclonal Antibody M108 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 monoclonal antibody M108 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. The binding induces antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and may kill CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and inhibit cell proliferation. CLDN18.2, a tight junctio... |
| Anti-claudin 18.2 Monoclonal Antibody MIL93 | A recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 monoclonal antibody MIL93 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. This may kill CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and inhibit cell proliferation. CLDN18.2, a tight junction protein and stoma... |
| Anti-Claudin18.2 Antibody-drug Conjugate IBI343 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 ADC IBI343 specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization, the cytotoxic agent induces apoptosis in CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells through an as of yet un... |
| Anti-Claudin18.2 CAR T Cells IBI345 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 CAR T cells IBI345 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells. CLDN18.2, a tight junction protein, is expressed on a variety of tumor cells, but its expression in healt... |
| Anti-Claudin18.2 CAR T Cells LCAR-C18S | A preparation of T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-Claudin18.2 CAR T cells LCAR-C18S specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells. CLDN18.2, a tight junction protein, is expressed on a variety of tumor cells, but its expression in... |
| Anti-Claudin18.2 CAR-T Cells IM92 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 CAR-T cells IM92 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells. CLDN18.2, a tight junction protein, is expressed on a variety of tumor cells, but its expression in healthy... |
| Anti-claudin18.2 Monoclonal Antibody AB011 | A recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-claudin18.2 monoclonal antibody AB011 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. This may kill CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and inhibit cell proliferation. CLDN18.2, a tight junction protein and stomach-specific isoform of... |
| Anti-Claudin-18.2 Monoclonal Antibody NBL-015 | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 monoclonal antibody NBL-015 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. This may trigger antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), antibody-dependent cell mediated phagocytosis (ADCP) and antibody-mediated complement dependent... |
| Anti-Claudin-18.2 Monoclonal Antibody SPX-101 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 monoclonal antibody SPX-101 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. This may kill and inhibit proliferation of CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells. SPX-101 may trigger antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). CLDN18.2, a ... |
| Anti-Claudin18.2 Monoclonal Antibody TORL-2-307-MAB | A monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 monoclonal antibody TORL-2-307-MAB specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. This may kill CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and inhibit tumor cell proliferation. CLDN18.2, a tight junction protein and stomach-specific isoform of claudin-1... |
| Anti-Claudin18.2/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Antibody PM1032 | A bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2/anti-4-1BB bispecific antibody PM1032 simultaneously targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells and 4-1BB expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocyte... |
| Anti-Claudin18.2/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody AZD5863 | An affinity-optimized T-cell engaging (TCE) and human bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) and the human T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody AZD5863 simultaneously targets and binds to both CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells, with bivalent high affinity binding, and CD3-expressing T-cells, with ... |
| Anti-Claudin18.2/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody QLS31905 | A bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) and the human T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody QLS31905 simultaneously binds to both CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and CD3-expressing T-cells, thereby crosslinking CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This results in t... |
| Anti-Claudin18.2/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate TORL-2-307-ADC | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2/MMAE ADC TORL-2-307-ADC specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization and the release of MMAE, M... |
| Anti-CLDN18.2 Antibody-drug Conjugate TQB2103 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) conjugated via a cleavable linker, to an undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 ADC TQB2103 specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon endocytosis and the transfer to lysosomes, the payload is released via enzymatic cleava... |
| Anti-CLDN18.2 CAR T Cells LY011 | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CLDN18.2 CAR T-cells LY011 specifically recognize and bind to CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells. This may result in a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated killing of CLDN18.2-ex... |
| Anti-CLDN18.2 CAR-T Cells AZD6422 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 CAR-T cells AZD6422 specifically recognize and bind to CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells. This may result in a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated killing of CLDN18.2-expressing tumo... |
| Anti-CLDN18.2 Heavy Chain Antibody Fc Fusion Protein DR30303 | A fusion protein composed of a recombinant humanized anti-Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) heavy chain antibody (VHH) fused to an engineered immunoglobulin gamma-1 (IgG1) Fc fragment, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 heavy chain antibody Fc fusion protein DR30303 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. The binding induces antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and ... |
| Anti-CLDN18.2 Monoclonal Antibody ZL-1211 | An engineered monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2 monoclonal antibody ZL-1211 specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. The binding induces antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and activates innate and adaptive immunity. This kills and inhibits proliferation of CLDN18.2-exp... |
| Anti-CLDN18.2/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody ASP2138 | A bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) and the human T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody ASP2138 simultaneously binds to both CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and CD3-expressing T-cells, thereby crosslinking CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This results in th... |
| Anti-CLDN18.2/Anti-PD-L1 CAR-T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN18.2/anti-PD-L1 CAR-T cells target and bind to CLDN18.2- and PD-L1-expressing tumor... |
| Anti-CLDN18.2/CD47 Bispecific Antibody AK132 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CLDN18.2/CD47 bispecific antibody AK132, the anti-CLDN18.2 moiety selectively targets and binds to CLDN18.2 on CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells, thereby improving the binding of the anti-CD47 moiety to the CLDN18.2... |
| Anti-CLDN18.2/CD47 Bispecific Antibody SG1906 | A recombinant, immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CLDN18.2/CD47 bispecific antibody SG1906, the anti-CLDN18.2 moiety selectively targets and binds to CLDN18.2 on CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells, thereby improving the binding ... |
| Anti-CLDN4/Anti-CD137 Bispecific Antibody ASP1002 | A bispecific antibody directed against both claudin-4 (CLDN4) and CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN4/anti-CD137 bispecific antibody ASP1002 simultaneously targets and binds to CLDN4 expressed on tumor cells and 4-1BB expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes. The simultaneous binding to CLDN4 and CD137 allows for conditio... |
| Anti-CLDN6 Antibody-drug Conjugate DS-9606a | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 6 (CLDN6; CLDN-6) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CLDN6 ADC DS-9606a, the anti-CLDN6 antibody moiety targets and binds to CLDN6-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills the CLDN6-expressing tumor cells, through an as of yet... |
| Anti-CLDN6 Antibody-drug Conjugate TORL-1-23 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 6 (CLDN6; CLDN-6) linked to the auristatin derivative monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE) via a cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CLDN6 ADC TORL-1-23, the anti-CLDN6 antibody moiety targets and binds to CLDN6-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization, and linker cleavage, MMAE is released. MMAE binds... |
| Anti-CLDN6 CAR T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the cell surface protein claudin 6 (CLDN6), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CLDN6 CAR T-cells specifically target and bind to CLDN6-expressing tumor cells, thereby selectively lysing CLDN6-expressing tumor cells. CLDN-6, a transmembrane tight-junction protein and embryonic antigen, is overexpressed on a variety of tumor cells but is not expressed ... |
| Anti-CLDN6 Monoclonal Antibody ASP1650 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface protein claudin 6 (CLDN6), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CLDN6 monoclonal antibody ASP1650 binds to CLDN-6 and may stimulate the immune system to exert both an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and a complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC) mediated immune response against CLDN-6-expressing tumor cells. This may inhibit tumor cell growth. CLDN-6, a tight-junctio... |
| Anti-CLDN6/9 Antibody-drug Conjugate SC-004 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a proprietary monoclonal antibody directed against claudin-6 (CLDN6; CLDN-6) and claudin-9 (CLDN9; CLDN-9) linked to a cytotoxic pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of anti-CLDN6/9 ADC SC-004 targets and binds to CLDN6/9 expressed on tumor cells, and the PBD moiety is released. Then the imine groups of the PBD moiety bind to the N2 positions of gu... |
| Anti-CLDN6/CD3 Bispecific Antibody CTIM-76 | An Fc-silenced humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 6 (CLDN6; CLDN-6) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CLDN6/CD3 bispecific antibody CTIM-76 targets and binds to both CLDN6 expressed on tumor cells and CD3 expressed on T-cells. This activates and redirects cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) to CLDN6-expressing tumor ce... |
| Anti-CLDN6/CD3 Bispecific Antibody SAIL66 | A bispecific antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 6 (CLDN6; CLDN-6) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CLDN6/CD3 bispecific antibody SAIL66 targets and binds to both CLDN6 expressed on tumor cells and CD3 expressed on T-cells. This activates and redirects cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) to CLDN6-expressing tumor cells, which leads to enhanced CTL-mediated killing... |
| Anti-CLDN6/CD3 Bispecific Antibody XmAb541 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 6 (CLDN6; CLDN-6) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLDN6/CD3 bispecific antibody XmAb541 bivalently binds to CLDN6 expressed on tumor cells and monovalently binds to CD3 expressed on T-cells. This activates and redirects cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) to CLDN6-expressing tumor cells, which leads to enhanced CTL-medi... |
| Anti-CLDN6/CD3 BiTE Antibody AMG 794 | A half-life extended (HLE) human bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody targeting the CD3 antigen expressed on T-lymphocytes and the cell surface protein claudin 6 (CLDN6; CLDN-6), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CLDN6/CD3 BiTE antibody AMG 794 targets and binds to both CD3 expressed on T-cells and CLDN6 expressed on tumor cells. This activates and redirects cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) to CLDN6-expressing tumor cells,... |
| Anti-CLL1/Anti-CD33 CAR-T Cells LCAR-AMDR | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) C-type-lectin-like molecule-1 (CLL-1; CLL1; C-type lectin domain family 12 member A; CLEC12A) and CD33, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CLL1/anti-CD33 CAR-T cells LCAR-AMDR specifically and simultaneously target and bind to CD33- and CLL1-expressing tumor cells. This induce... |
| Anti-CLL-1/Anti-CD38 CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) C-type-lectin-like molecule-1 (CLL-1; CLL1; C-type lectin domain family 12 member A; CLEC12A) and CD38, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CLL-1/anti-CD38 CAR T cells specifically and simultaneously target and bind to CD38- and CLL-1-expressing tumor cells. This induces selective ... |
| Anti-CLL1-PBD ADC DCLL9718S | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of MCLL0517A , an anti-C-type lectin-like molecule-1 (CLL-1; CLL1; C-type lectin domain family 12 member A; CLEC12A) humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody, conjugated, via a cleavable disulfide linker, to two cytotoxic, DNA minor-groove crosslinking agent pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimers, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CLL1-PBD ADC DCLL9718S, the antibody moiety targets the cell surface tumor-a... |
| Anti-c-Met ADC ABBV-400 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) proto-oncogene c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR) linked to an undisclosed topoisomerase inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of anti-c-Met ADC ABBV-400, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to c-Met expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the topoisomerase inhibitor is released, which binds to ... |
| Anti-c-Met Antibody-drug Conjugate BYON3521 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) proto-oncogene c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR) site-specifically conjugated to a linker-duocarmycin payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of anti-c-Met ADC BYON3521, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to c-Met expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, the linker is cleaved inside ... |
| Anti-c-Met Antibody-drug Conjugate HTI-1066 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) the proto-oncogene c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of HTI-1066 targets and binds to c-Met expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills the c-Met-expressing ca... |
| Anti-c-Met Antibody-drug Conjugate TR1801 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a non-agonizing anti-c-Met humanized monoclonal antibody that is linked in a site-specific manner to a pyrrolobenzodiazepine dimer (PBD) toxin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to the c-Met protein, which is overexpressed in certain tumor types. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the imine groups of the PBD moiety bind to the N2 positions of guanines on o... |
| Anti-c-Met Antibody-drug Conjugate YL211 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) proto-oncogene c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR) site-specifically conjugated, via a tumor microenvironment (TME) activable protease-cleavable linker, to a topoisomerase 1 inhibitor (TOP1i), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-c-Met ADC YL211, the anti-c-Met antibody moiety targets and binds to c-Met expressed on tumor c... |
| Anti-c-Met Monoclonal Antibody ARGX-111 | A human monoclonal antibody targeting c-Met, with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-c-Met monoclonal antibody ARGX-111 binds to c-Met, and blocks both ligand-dependent and -independent activation of c-Met-mediated signaling pathways. In addition, this agent enhances antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). This leads to a reduction in cell proliferation of c-Met-expressing cancer cells. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed in certain cancer cell types, is involved in ... |
| Anti-c-Met Monoclonal Antibody HLX55 | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G2 monoclonal antibody directed against the human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR or c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-c-Met monoclonal antibody HLX55 specifically binds to the semaphorin (Sema)/Plexins-Semaphorins-Integrins (PSI) domain of c-Met, which prevents the binding of c-Met to its ligand HGF and the subsequent activation of the HGF/c-Met signaling pathway. In addition, HLX55 promotes c-Met degradation, wh... |
| Anti-C-met Monoclonal Antibody SAIT301 | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the alpha chain of the extracellular domain of human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR or c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-c-Met monoclonal antibody SAIT301 binds to c-Met, thereby preventing both binding of its ligand, HGF, and the subsequent activation of the HGF/c-Met signaling pathway. In addition, SAIT301 induces c-MET internalization and subsequent degradation, which further inhibits c-Met-mediated signaling. This leads... |
| Anti-c-Met/Anti-TROP2/Anti-CD3/Anti-CD28 Tetra-specific Antibody MDX2001 | A tetra-specific antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) proto-oncogene c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR) and trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1), the T-cell surface antigen CD3, and the T-cell specific surface glycoprotein and co-stimulatory molecule CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-c-Met/anti-TROP2/anti-CD3/an... |
| Anti-c-Met/EGFR/VEGF Trispecific Antibody TAVO412 | A trispecific antibody targeting hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; c-Met), epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-c-Met/EGFR/VEGF trispecific antibody TAVO412 simultaneously targets and binds to c-Met, EGFR and VEGF. The binding of TAVO412 to c-Met and EGFR expressed on tumor cells prevents receptor phosphorylation. This prevents the activation of bot... |
| Anti-c-Met/MMAE ADC MYTX-011 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an engineered pH-dependent humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) proto-oncogene c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR) and conjugated, via a valine-citrulline (VC) peptide linker, to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of anti-c-Met/MMAE ADC MYTX-... |
| Anti-c-Met/MMAE ADC RC108 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of an anti-c-Met monoclonal antibody that is conjugated to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-c-Met/MMAE ADC RC108, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to the c-Met protein, which is overexpressed in certain tumor types. After internalization of the agent, the MMAE moiety is released and binds to tubulin and... |
| Anti-CSF1 Monoclonal Antibody PD-0360324 | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G2 monoclonal antibody (mAb) directed against the cytokine colony stimulating factor 1 (CSF1; CSF-1; macrophage colony-stimulating factor; M-CSF), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CSF1 monoclonal antibody PD-0360324 targets, binds to and neutralizes CSF1. This prevents the binding of CSF1 to its receptor CSF1R (CD115; M-CSFR), which is expressed on various immune cells, such as monocytes and macrophages. T... |
| Anti-CSF1R Monoclonal Antibody AMB-05X | A human immunoglobulin G2 (IgG2) monoclonal antibody directed against the tyrosine kinase receptor colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; M-CSFR; c-fms), also known as macrophage colony-stimulating factor receptor (M-CSFR) and CD115 (cluster of differentiation 115), with potential antineoplastic, anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and anti-fibrotic activities. Upon administration, anti-CSF1R monoclonal antibody AMB-05X targets and binds to CSF1R expressed on tumor cells, monocy... |
| Anti-CSF1R Monoclonal Antibody IMC-CS4 | A monoclonal antibody directed against colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R) with potential antineoplastic activity. CSF1R monoclonal antibody IMC-CS4 binds to CSF1R which may trigger antitumoral antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) in tumor cells overexpressing CSF1R. CSF1R, also known as macrophage colony-stimulating factor receptor (M-CSFR) and CD115 (Cluster of Differentiation 115), is a cell-surface receptor for its ligand colony stimulating factor 1 (CSF1); this r... |
| Anti-CTLA4 Antibody Fc Fusion Protein KN044 | A recombinant, humanized fusion protein consisting of a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4) single domain antibody linked to a Fc domain, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA4 antibody Fc fusion protein KN044 targets and binds to CTLA4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against ... |
| Anti-CTLA4 MoAb RNA/GITRL RNA-transfected Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | An autologous dendritic cell (DC) cancer vaccine with potential immunostimulatory activity. Anti-CTLA4 MoAb RNA/GITRL RNA-transfected DC vaccine is prepared by transfecting DCs with RNAs encoding humanized heavy and light chains of the anti-CTLA4 (cytotoxic T-Lymphocyte-Associated Antigen 4) monoclonal antibody and tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 18 (TNFSF18 or GlTRL); expression of anti-CTLA4 blocks the inhibitory effect of CTLA4 on the activation of T-lymphocytes, while e... |
| Anti-CTLA4 MoAb RNA-transfected Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | An autologous dendritic cell (DC) cancer vaccine with potential immunostimulatory activity. Anti-CTLA4 MoAb RNA-transfected autologous DC vaccine is prepared by transfecting DCs with RNAs encoding humanized heavy and light chains of the anti-CTLA4 (cytotoxic T-Lymphocyte-Associated Antigen 4); expression of anti-CTLA4 blocks the inhibitory effect of CTLA4 on the activation of T-lymphocytes. Co-vaccination of this vaccine with melanoma antigen specific vaccine may eliminate the adverse effects... |
| Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody ADU-1604 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody ADU-1604 targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response... |
| Anti-CTLA4 Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986218 | A Fc-modified monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA4 monoclonal antibody BMS-986218 targets and binds to CTLA4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA4, an in... |
| Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody GIGA-564 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4; CTLA4; CD152), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody GIGA-564 targets and binds to CTLA-4, and may induce Fc receptor (FcR) signaling. This may deplete regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME), decrease the proliferation of the remaining ... |
| Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody IBI310 | A recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4;CTLA4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody IBI310 targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells, and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune... |
| Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody KD6001 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4; CTLA4; CD152), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody KD6001 targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells, and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA-4,... |
| Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody REGN4659 | A fully human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody REGN4659 targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune respon... |
| Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody SHR-8068 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4; CTLA4; CD152), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody SHR-8068 targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells, and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA-... |
| Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody XTX101 | A fully humanized, Fc-engineered monoclonal antibody with masked antigen-binding regions directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration and the activation of the antigen-binding regions via cleavage by proteases that are upregulated in the tumor microenvironment (TME), anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody XTX101 targets and binds to CTLA-... |
| Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody YH001 | A recombinant, humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4; CD152), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody YH001 targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated i... |
| Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody-IL-15/IL-15Ra Fusion Protein JK08 | A recombinant fusion protein consisting of a human monoclonal antibody directed against cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4) fused to the immunostimulatory cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15) cross-linked with the sushi domain of IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody-IL-15/IL-15Ra fusion protein JK08, the monoclonal antibody domain targets and binds to... |
| Anti-CTLA-4 Probody BMS-986288 | A probody composed of a modified version of ipilimumab, a recombinant human monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), linked to a proprietary masking peptide that covers the active antigen-binding site of the antibody through a protease-cleavable linker, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CTLA-4 probody BMS-986288, the masking peptide is cleaved... |
| Anti-CTLA-4/Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody Combination BCD-217 | A fixed dose combination of two monoclonal antibodies of which one is directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the other one is directed against the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA-4/anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody combination BCD-217 targets and binds to both PD-1 and CTLA-... |
| Anti-CTLA-4/OX40 Bispecific Antibody ATOR-1015 | A bispecific antibody consisting of a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4) inhibitory protein fused to an OX40 agonistic human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA-4/OX40 bispecific antibody ATOR-1015 simultaneously binds to CTLA-4 and OX40, which may inhibit CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation and induce proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes via OX40 activ... |
| Anti-CXCR4 Monoclonal Antibody PF-06747143 | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody (mAb) against C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4 (CXCR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CXCR4 mAb PF-06747143 binds to CXCR4, thereby preventing the binding of stromal cell-derived factor-1 (SDF-1 or CXCL12) to CXCR4 and inhibiting CXCR4 activation. This results in decreased proliferation and migration of CXCR4-expressing tumor cells. In addition, PF-06747143 promotes cell death through the induction of bo... |
| Anti-DDR1 Monoclonal Antibody PRTH-101 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against discoid domain receptor type 1 (DDR1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-DDR1 monoclonal antibody PRTH-101 specifically targets, binds to and blocks DDR1, a protein expressed on tumor cells that binds collagen to make a minimally permeable physical barrier that blocks immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME) from interacting with and attacking the tumor. By ... |
| Anti-dectin-2 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody BDC-3042 | An agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the immune-activating pattern recognition receptor (PRR) dectin-2 (C-type lectin domain family 6 member A; CLEC6A), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-dectin-2 agonist monoclonal antibody BDC-3042 targets, binds to and activates dectin-2 expressed by tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This may lead to the secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines... |
| Anti-Denatured Collagen Monoclonal Antibody TRC093 | A humanized, affinity-matured IgG1k antibody directed against denatured collagens (I-IV) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Anti-denatured collagen recombinant monoclonal antibody TRC093 binds to multiple epitopes on denatured collagens, inhibiting proteolytic collagen-mediated signaling in the extracellular matrix (ECM) that is important to tumor angiogenesis, tumor growth, and metastasis. The epitopes on denatured collagen bound by this antibody are considered cryp... |
| Anti-DKK1 Monoclonal Antibody BHQ880 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against Wnt antagonist Dickkopf-1 (DKK1) with potential anti-osteolytic activity. Anti-DKK1 monoclonal antibody BHQ880 binds to and inhibits DKK1, enhancing signaling through the Wnt pathway, which may result in osteoblast differentiation and activation within the bone matrix and the reversal of tumor-induced osteolytic disease. DKK1 is a potent Wnt signaling pathway antagonist. |
| Anti-DKK1 Monoclonal Antibody JS015 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against Dickkopf-related protein 1 (Dickkopf-1; DKK1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-DKK1 monoclonal antibody JS015 binds to DKK1 and blocks the interaction between DKK1 and its ligands low-density lipoprotein receptor-related proteins (LRP) 5 and 6. This restores signaling through the Wnt/beta-catenin-dependent (canonical) pathway, and may decrease DKK1-mediated immunosuppressive effects in th... |
| Anti-DLK-1 Antibody-drug Conjugate ADCT-701 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of HuBa-1-3D, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against human delta-like 1 homolog protein (DLK-1; DLK1) and site-specifically conjugated to PL1601, which contains a valine-alanine cleavable linker and SG3199, a cytotoxic pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-DLK-1 ADC ADCT-701, the antibody moiety targets and binds to DLK-1, which is expressed on the surf... |
| Anti-DLK-1/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate TORL-4-500 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human delta-like 1 homolog protein (DLK-1; DLK1) conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-DLK-1/MMAE ADC TORL-4-500, the anti-DLK-1 antibody moiety targets and binds to DLK-1 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization, and linker cleavage, MMAE binds to tubulin and inhibi... |
| Anti-DLL3 ADC ZL-1310 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) delta-like protein 3 (DLL3) and linked to an as of yet unelucidated cytotoxic agent, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-DLL3 ADC ZL-1310 targets and binds to DLL3 found on DLL3-expressing tumor cells. Upon internalization, the cytotoxic agent causes cell death in DLL3-expressing tumor cells through an as of yet unknown me... |
| Anti-DLL3 Antibody-drug Conjugate SC-002 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) delta-like protein 3 (DLL3), site-specifically conjugated to the cytotoxic pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer SC-DR002 via a plasma-stable valine-alanine dipeptide linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of anti-DLL3 ADC SC-002 targets and binds to DLL3 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internaliz... |
| Anti-DLL3 CAR-NK Cells | A preparation of natural killer (NK) cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) delta-like protein 3 (DLL3), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-DLL3 CAR-NK cells recognize, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in DLL3-expressing tumor cells. DLL3, a Notch pathway protein, is overexpressed on a variety of cancer cell types. It plays a key role in embryonic developme... |
| Anti-DLL3/CD3 Bispecific Antibody QLS31904 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) delta-like protein 3 (DLL3) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-DLL3/CD3 bispecific antibody QLS31904 binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and the DLL3 antigen on DLL3-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to DLL3-expressing tumor cells, which results in the CTL-mediated c... |
| Anti-DLL3/DLL3/CD3 Trispecific Antibody ZG006 | A trispecific T-cell engaging (TCE) antibody directed against two different epitopes of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) delta-like protein 3 (DLL3) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-DLL3/DLL3/CD3 trispecific antibody ZG006 binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and the DLL3 antigen on DLL3-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to DLL3-expressing tumor cel... |
| Anti-DLL4 Monoclonal Antibody MEDI0639 | An immunoglobulin G1 lambda monoclonal antibody directed against the Notch ligand delta-like 4 (DLL4) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-DLL4 monoclonal antibody MEDI0639 specifically binds to DLL4 and prevents its interaction with Notch receptors, thereby inhibiting Notch-mediated signaling and gene transcription, which may block tumor angiogenesis and eventually the inhibition of tumor cell growth. Activation of Notch receptors by DLL4 stimulates proteolytic cleavage of the Notch ... |
| Anti-DR5 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody TRA-8 | An agonist mouse monoclonal antibody directed against TRAIL death receptor type 5 (DR5) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-DR5 agonist monoclonal antibody TRA-8 binds DR5, which may induce apoptosis in DR5-expressing tumor cells. DR5 is a tumor cell surface ligand that crosslinks with death receptor type 4 (DR4) when bound by TRAIL [Tumor necrosis (TNF)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand], triggering apoptosis via a death receptor signaling pathway. The apoptotic activity of this ant... |
| Anti-DR5 Agonistic Antibody DS-8273a | An agonistic monoclonal antibody directed against human death receptor type 5 (DR5), also called tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL) receptor 2, with potential pro-apoptotic and antitumor activities. Upon administration, anti-DR5 agonistic antibody DS-8273a mimics the natural receptor ligand TRAIL and binds to DR5. This activates DR5 and leads to the activation of the death receptor signal pathway, which results in the activation of caspase cascades, the indu... |
| Anti-EGFR Antibody-drug Conjugate ABBV-637 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) conjugated to an inhibitor of Bcl-extra large (Bcl-XL), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-EGFR ADC ABBV-637, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to EGFR on tumor cell surfaces. Following receptor internalization, the Bcl-XL inhibitor is released, which targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-XL. This restore... |
| Anti-EGFR Antibody-drug Conjugate CPO301 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; HER1; ErbB1) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-EGFR ADC CPO301, the monoclonal antibody moiety binds to EGFR on tumor cell surfaces. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills the EGFR-expressing cancer cells, through an as of yet unknown mechanism... |
| Anti-EGFR CAR-transduced IL-12-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of human T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding an anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) gene coupled to the signaling domains from CD28, 4-1BB (CD137) and CD3 zeta, and modified to express the cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-EGFR CAR-transduced IL-12-expressing T-lymphocytes target and bind to the EGFR antigen on tumor cell su... |
| Anti-EGFR Gamma Delta T-cell Engaging Bispecific Antibody SGN-EGFRd2 | A bispecific gamma delta T-cell engager (TCE) antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; HER1; ErbB1) and Vdelta2-T cell receptor (TCR) chain of Vgamma9Vdelta2 T-cells, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-EGFR gamma delta T-cell engaging bispecific antibody SGN-EGFRd2 binds to both EGFR-expressing tumor cells and Vgamma9Vdelta2 T-cells. This activates and redirects the Vgamma9Vdelta2 ... |
| Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody CPGJ 602 | A recombinant, human-mouse chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody CPGJ 602 targets and binds to EGFR, which prevents receptor dimerization and activation. This leads to an inhibition of EGFR-dependent downstream pathways and EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation and metastasis. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase, may be overexpressed on the ... |
| Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody EMD 55900 | A murine monoclonal antibody targeting the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) exhibiting anti-tumor activity. EMD 55900 antibody binds to the extracellular domain of EGFR close to the EGF binding domain and does not induce any tyrosine kinase activity on its own. As a result, EMD 55900 binding inhibits receptor activation by natural ligands thereby interrupting activation of downstream signaling cascade, required for tumor cell growth and proliferation. |
| Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody GC1118 | A recombinant, human monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, GC1118 binds to and blocks the ligand binding site of EGFR, which prevents receptor dimerization and activation. This may lead to an inhibition of both EGFR-dependent downstream pathways and EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation and metastasis. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase, may be overexpressed on the surfaces of v... |
| Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody GT-MAB 5.2-GEX | A glycoengineered form of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody GT-MAB 5.2-GEX specifically binds to the extracellular domain of EGFR, thereby potentially inducing an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against EGFR-expressing tumor cells, eventually leading to tumor cell apoptosis and an inhibition of tumor cell growth. EGFR, a member of the epidermal grow... |
| Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody Mixture MM-151 | An oligoclonal therapeutic composed of three fully human monoclonal antibodies targeting epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR or ErbB1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of MM-151, the three antibodies bind to distinct, non-overlapping epitopes of EGFR, thereby preventing the binding of a full range of both high and low affinity EGFR ligands and inhibiting EGFR-ERK-mediated signaling. This eventually inhibits tumor cell proliferation in EGFR-overexpressing tumor c... |
| Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody SCT200 | A recombinant monoclonal antibody against human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody SCT200 targets EGFR, prevents the activation and subsequent dimerization of this receptor and inhibits both EGFR-mediated signal transduction and cellular proliferation of EGFR-expressing tumor cells. In addition, SCT200 may induce antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against EGFR-expressing tumor cel... |
| Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody SYN004 | A glyco-engineered monoclonal antibody directed against the receptor tyrosine kinase epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody SYN004 binds to the extracellular domain of EGFR, which prevents ligand binding and the subsequent activation and dimerization of the receptor. This inhibits the activation of EGFR-mediated signaling pathways and inhibits EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation. EGFR, a member of... |
| Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody ZZ06 | A monoclonal antibody directed against human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody ZZ06 targets, binds and prevents the activation of EGFR. This inhibits EGFR-mediated signaling and proliferation of EGFR-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor family, is overexpressed on various tumor cell types. |
| Anti-EGFR/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Antibody HLX35 | A recombinant human bispecific antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-EGFR/anti-4-1BB bispecific antibody HLX35 simultaneously targets and binds to the extracellular domain of EGFR, which is expressed on a variety of... |
| Anti-EGFR/Anti-B7-H3 CAR-T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-EGFR/anti-B7-H3 CAR-T cells target and bind to EGFR-expressing tumor cells and B7-H3-expressing immune and tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in these cells. E... |
| Anti-EGFR/anti-CD3 Tumor Protease-activated T-cell Engager JANX008 | A protease-activated, double masked tumor activated T-cell engager (TCE) composed of a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) binding domain that targets epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and a T-cell binding domain that targets CD3, that are both conjugated, via a tumor protease-cleavable linker, to a peptide mask that prevents binding of the EGFR-binding domain to EGFR-expressing tumor cells and binding of the CD3-binding domain to T-cells, respectively, and an albumin-binding domain that ext... |
| Anti-EGFR/Anti-c-Met Monoclonal Antibody FPI-2053 | A humanized bispecific monoclonal antibody targeting epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; c-Met), that can potentially be used as a ligand in radiotherapy. Upon administration, anti-EGFR/anti-c-Met monoclonal antibody FPI-2053 simultaneously targets and binds to the extracellular domains of both EGFR and c-Met expressed on cancer cells. EGFR and c-Met, both upregulated or mutated in a variety of tumor cell types, play key roles in tumor cell pro... |
| Anti-EGFR/anti-HER3 Antibody-drug Conjugate BL-B01D1 | A dual-targeted antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; HER1; ErbB1) and the epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3; ErbB3) and conjugated to an as of yet not elucidated cytotoxic payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-EGFR/anti-HER3 ADC BL-B01D1, the monoclonal antibody moieties simultaneously target and bind to EGFR and HER3 expressed on cancer cells. Following rece... |
| Anti-EGFR/CD16A Bispecific Antibody AFM24 | A human, tetravalent, bispecific antibody targeting both the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and the human low affinity IgG Fc region receptor IIIA (FCGR3A; CD16A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-EGFR/CD16A bispecific antibody AFM24 simultaneously targets and binds to the CD16A expressed on natural killer (NK) cells and macrophages, and to EGFR on EGFR-expressing tumor cells, thereby selectively cross-linking EGFR-expressing tu... |
| Anti-EGFR/CD3 Bispecific Antibody SMET12 | A bispecific antibody and T-cell engager (TCE) targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-EGFR/CD3 bispecific antibody SMET12 binds to both CD3 expressed on T-cells and EGFR expressed on tumor cells. This crosslinks cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and EGFR-expressing tumor cells, and activates and redirects CTLs to EG... |
| Anti-EGFR/c-Met Bispecific Antibody CKD-702 | A tetravalent, bispecific antibody composed of a single-chain variable fragment (scFv) targeting epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) fused to the c-terminus of an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody targeting hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-EGFR/c-Met bispecific antibody CKD-702 simultaneously targets and binds to the extracellular domains of wild-type or certain mutant forms of both EGFR and c-Met expressed ... |
| Anti-EGFR/c-MET/c-MET Trispecific Antibody GB263T | A Fc-enhanced trispecific antibody targeting epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and two different epitopes of hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-EGFR/c-Met/c-met trispecific antibody GB263T simultaneously targets and binds to the extracellular domain of both EGFR and two different epitopes on c-Met expressed on tumor cells, thereby preventing receptor phosphorylation and inducing internalization of EGFR and c... |
| Anti-EGFR/DM1 Antibody-drug Conjugate AVID100 | A targeted antibody drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) conjugated to the cytotoxic agent maytansinoid mertansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of AVID100 binds to  EGFR on tumor cell surfaces. Following receptor internalization, the mertansine moiety binds to tubulin and interferes with microtubule assembly/disassembly dynami... |
| Anti-EGFR/HER2/HER3 Monoclonal Antibody Mixture Sym013 | An antibody mixture composed of six humanized, immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibodies directed against three members of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; HER) family: EGFR (HER1; ErbB1), HER2 (ErbB2) and HER3 (ErbB3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-EGFR/HER2/HER3 monoclonal antibody mixture Sym013, the six antibodies bind to non-overlapping epitopes on EGFR, HER2 and HER3, which prevents both ligand binding and receptor activation, ... |
| Anti-EGFR/Topoisomerase I Inhibitor Antibody-drug Conjugate HLX42 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to a topoisomerase I inhibitor (TOP1i), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-EGFR/TOP1i ADC HLX42, the anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to EGFR expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and cleavage in the tumor microenvironme... |
| Anti-EGFRvIII Antibody Drug Conjugate AMG 595 | An immunoconjugate consisting of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the deletion-mutant of epidermal growth factor receptor, EGFRvIII, conjugated via a non-cleavable linker to the cytotoxic agent maytansinoid DM1, with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of this immunoconjugate binds to EGFRvIII on tumor cell surfaces. After internalization, the DM1 moiety binds to tubulin, thereby disrupting microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics and inhibiting cell... |
| Anti-EGFRvIII CAR-transduced Allogeneic T-lymphocytes | Allogeneic human T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding an anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) variant III (EGFRvIII) mutant chimeric T cell receptor (chimeric antigen receptor or CAR) gene coupled to the signaling domains from CD8, CD28, 4-1BB (CD137) and CD3 zeta, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-EGFRvIII CAR-transduced allogeneic T lymphocytes bind to the EGFRvIII antigen on tumor cell surfaces; subse... |
| Anti-EGFRvIII Immunotoxin MR1-1 | A recombinant immunotoxin consisting of single-chain variable domain fragment antibody directed against the tumor-specific antigen EGFRvIII (MR1scFv) fused to domains II and III of the Pseudomonas exotoxin (PE38KDEL), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of anti-EGFRvIII immunotoxin MR1-1 binds to EGFRvIII; upon internalization, the exotoxin portion inhibits protein synthesis, resulting in a reduction in tumor cell proliferation of EGFRvIII- express... |
| Anti-EGFRvIII/CD3 Bispecific Antibody hEGFRvIII:CD3 bi-scFv | A bispecific antibody and T-cell engager composed of two single chain variable fragments (bi-scFvs) directed against both a mutant form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), EGFR variant III (EGFRvIII), and the epsilon subunit of the human T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-EGFRvIII/CD3 bispecific antibody hEGFRvIII:CD3 bi-scFv specifically binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and... |
| Anti-EGFRvIII/CD3 Bispecific Antibody RO7428731 | A bispecific antibody directed against both a mutant form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), EGFR variant III (EGFRvIII), and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-EGFRvIII/CD3 bispecific antibody RO7428731 specifically binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and EGFRvIII on EGFRvIII-expressing tumor cells. This crosslinks T-cells and tumor cells, and activates and redirects CTLs... |
| Anti-EGFRvIII/CD3/PD-L1/4-1BB Tetra-specific Antibody GNC-039 | A tetra-specific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutant EGFR variant III (EGFRvIII), the T-cell surface antigen CD3, the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), and the immune co-stimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administrati... |
| Anti-EGFRvIII-CAR-CD3/EGFR BiTE-transduced Autologous T-lymphocytes CARv3-TEAM-E | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a CARv3-TEAM-E lentiviral vector encoding for an anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) variant III (EGFRvIII) mutant chimeric T cell receptor (chimeric antigen receptor or CAR) and a T cell engaging antibody molecule (TEAM) which comprises a bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) against EGFR and the T-cell signaling domain CD3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration via Ommaya reserv... |
| Anti-EGP-2 Immunotoxin MOC31-PE | An immunotoxin consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against epithelial glycoprotein-2 (EP-2, or epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM)) conjugated to the bacterial toxin Pseudomonas exotoxin A (PE) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-EGP-2 immunotoxin MOC31-PE, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to EP-2. Upon internalization, the Pseudomonas exotoxin A moiety then inactivates elongation factor 2 (EF-2) through ADP ribosylation, resultin... |
| Anti-ENPP3 Antibody-Drug Conjugate AGS-16C3F | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) containing a fully human monoclonal antibody (AGS-16C) directed to the ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase family member 3 (ENPP3), conjugated via a non-cleavable linker to monomethyl auristatin F (MMAF), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule inhibitor, that has potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of ADC AGS-16C3F, the monoclonal antibody moiety of this conjugate selectively binds to ENPP3 then is interna... |
| Anti-ENPP3/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody JNJ-87890387 | A human bispecific antibody directed against both ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase family member 3 (ENPP3; NPP3; B10; PDNP3; CD203c; PD-IBETA) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ENPP3/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody JNJ-87890387 targets and binds to ENPP3 expressed on tumor cells and CD3 expressed on T-cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) resp... |
| Anti-ENPP3/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody XmAb819 | A bispecific antibody directed against both ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase family member 3 (ENPP3, NPP3, B10, PDNP3 CD203c, or PD-IBETA) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ENPP3/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody XmAb819 bivalently binds to ENPP3 expressed on tumor cells and monovalently binds to CD3 expressed on T-cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyt... |
| Anti-ENPP3/MMAF Antibody-Drug Conjugate AGS-16M8F | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) containing a human immunoglobulin (Ig) G2k monoclonal antibody (AGS-16C) directed against the ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase family member 3 (ENPP3, NPP3, B10, PDNP3 CD203c, or PD-IBETA ), conjugated, via the non-cleavable maleimidocaproyl (mc) linker, to monomethyl auristatin F (MMAF), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of anti-ENPP3/MMAF ADC AG... |
| Anti-ENTPD2 Monoclonal Antibody KAZ954 | A monoclonal antibody directed against ectonucleoside triphosphate diphosphohydrolase 2 (ENTPD2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ENTPD2 monoclonal antibody KAZ954 targets and binds to ENTPD2 expressed on a variety of tumor cells and inhibits its hydrolase activity, thereby preventing the conversion of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine diphosphate (ADP). This leads to an increased intra-tumoral ATP:ADP ratio, an increase in intr... |
| Anti-EpCAM Monoclonal Antibody AM-928 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) epithelial cell adhesion molecule (Ep-CAM; EpCAM; CD326), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-EpCAM monoclonal antibody AM-928 targets and binds to EpCAM on EpCAM-expressing tumor cells. This inhibits EpCAM-mediated signaling and the proliferation of EpCAM-expressing tumor cells. EpCAM, a cell surface protein upregulated on many tumor cell types, promotes the proliferation, migrat... |
| Anti-Ep-CAM Monoclonal Antibody ING-1 | An engineered monoclonal antibody (MAb) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epithelial cell adhesion molecule (Ep-CAM; EpCAM; CD326), with potential antitumor activity. Upon administration, anti-Ep-CAM monoclonal antibody ING-1 binds to Ep-CAM, which may result in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against Ep-CAM-expressing tumor cells. Ep-CAM, a cell surface protein upregulated on many tumor cell types, promotes the proliferation, migration and inva... |
| Anti-EpCAM/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Antibody BNT314 | An Fc-inert bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epithelial cell adhesion molecule (Ep-CAM; EpCAM; CD326) and the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-EpCAM/anti-4-1BB bispecific antibody BNT314 simultaneously targets and binds to both EpCAM expressed on tumor cells and 4-1BB expressed on a variety of ... |
| Anti-EpCAM/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody A-337 | A T-cell engager (TCE) and bispecific antibody composed of two fragments targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epithelial cell adhesion molecule (Ep-CAM; EpCAM; CD326) and one targeting the T-cell surface glycoprotein CD3, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-EpCAM/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody A-337 targets and binds to EpCAM on EpCAM-expressing tumor cells and CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This activates and redirects ... |
| Anti-EpCAM/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody BA3182 | A conditionally active biologic (CAB) and bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epithelial cell adhesion molecule (Ep-CAM; EpCAM; CD326) and T-cell surface glycoprotein CD3 epsilon chain (CD3E), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration and specific activation in the tumor microenvironment (TME), anti-EpCAM/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody BA3182 targets and binds to both EpCAM on EpCAM-expressing tumor cells an... |
| Anti-EpCAM/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody M701 | A human-mouse chimeric bispecific antibody directed against both CD3 and epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-EpCAM/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody M701 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and EpCAM on EpCAM-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to EpCAM-expressing tumor cells, which results in the CTL-mediated cell death of EpCAM-expressing tumor cells. EpCAM, a cel... |
| Anti-EpCAM/Anti-CD40 Bispecific Antibody KK2269 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epithelial cell adhesion molecule (Ep-CAM; EpCAM; CD326) and the cell surface receptor CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-EpCAM/anti-CD40 bispecific antibody KK2269, the anti-EpCAM moiety targets and binds to EpCAM expressed on tumor cells, and the agonistic anti-CD40 moiety targets and binds to various CD40-expressing immune cells in the tumor mi... |
| Anti-EphA2 Antibody-directed Liposomal Docetaxel Prodrug MM-310 | A formulation containing nanoparticles composed of liposomes that are conjugated to scFv antibody fragments directed against the ephrin receptor A2 (EphA2; Ephrin A2) and a proprietary prodrug of docetaxel, a poorly water-soluble, second-generation taxane analog, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of the anti-EphA2 antibody-directed liposomal docetaxel prodrug MM-310, the anti-EphA2 moiety selectively targets and binds to cells expressing EphI3:I12A2. Foll... |
| Anti-EphA2 Monoclonal Antibody DS-8895a | A monoclonal antibody directed against the ephrin receptor A2 (EphA2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-EphA2 monoclonal antibody DS-8895a selectively binds to cells expressing the EphA2 receptor. This blocks EphA2 activation and EphA2-mediated signaling. In addition, DS-8895a may activate an immune response against EphA2-expressing tumor cells. The cell-surface receptor EphA2, a member of the ephrin family of receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) that are involved... |
| Anti-EphA2 Monoclonal Antibody-MMAF Immunoconjugate MEDI-547 | An auristatin analogue immunoconjugate directed against Eph receptor A2 (EphA2)-positive cancer cells with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-EphA2 monoclonal antibody-MMAF immunoconjugate MEDI-547 is generated by conjugating the fully human IgG1 anti-EphA2 monoclonal antibody (1C1) to the small-molecule microtubule inhibitor monomethyl auristatin phenylalanine (MMAF) via the stable linker maleimidocaproyl (mc) (1C1-mcMMAF). The monoclonal antibody moiety of this agent selectively binds ... |
| Anti-EphA5/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate MBRC-101 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against the tyrosine kinase receptor ephrin type-A receptor 5 (EPH receptor A5; EphA5) and conjugated, via a protease-cleavable linker, to the auristatin derivative and microtubule disrupting agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-EphA5/MMAE ADC MBRC-101, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to EphA5 expressed on t... |
| Anti-Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2 Antibody Expressing Pluripotent Killer T-Lymphocytes | A specific population of pluripotent killer (PIK) T-cells that have been induced to express high levels of antibodies against human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (ERBB2; HER2), with potential antitumor activity. Although the exact mechanism(s) of action through which PIK-HER2 cells exert their effects has yet to be elucidated, upon infusion, these cells secrete antibodies targeting HER2 expressed on the surface of tumor cells. This may inhibit HER2-dependent signaling, which may lead to ... |
| Anti-ErbB2/Anti-ErbB3 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody MM-111 | A bispecific monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptors ErbB2 (Her2) and ErbB3 (Her3) with potential antineoplastic activity. The anti-ErB2 targeting arm of anti-ErbB2/anti-ErbB3 bispecific monoclonal antibody MM-111 binds to ErbB2 on tumor cells with high affinity while the anti-Erb3 therapeutic arm binds to ErbB3, which may result in the inhibition of cellular proliferation and differentiation in ErbB2-overexpressing tumor cells via inhibition of ErbB3-... |
| Anti-ErbB3 Monoclonal Antibody AV-203 | A humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) directed against the human receptor tyrosine-protein kinase ErbB-3 (HER3) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-ErbB3 MoAb AV-203 binds to and inhibits both ligand neuregulin-1 (NRG-1)-dependent and ligand-independent ErbB3 activation, which may result in inhibition of ErbB3-dependent PI3K/Akt signaling and may lead to inhibition of cellular proliferation and differentiation. ErbB3, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family, i... |
| Anti-ErbB3 Monoclonal Antibody CDX-3379 | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor ErbB3 (HER3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the anti-ErbB3 monoclonal antibody CDX-3379 targets and binds to a unique epitope on ErbB3, thereby preventing ErbB3 phosphorylation and both ligand-dependent and ligand-independent ErbB3 signaling. This inhibits cellular proliferation and survival of ErbB3-expressing tumor cells. ErbB3, a member of the epidermal growth factor recep... |
| Anti-ErbB3 Monoclonal Antibody REGN1400 | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor ErbB3 (Her3) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-ErbB3 monoclonal antibody REGN1400 binds to ErbB3 and prevents neuregulin 1 ligand binding to ErbB3, which may result in an inhibition of ErbB3-dependent phosphatidylinositol-3 kinase (PI3K)/Akt signaling. This eventually leads to the inhibition of cellular proliferation and differentiation. ErbB3, a member of the epidermal grow... |
| Anti-ETBR/MMAE Antibody-Drug Conjugate DEDN6526A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody against anti-endothelin B receptor (ETBR) and covalently linked to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of DEDN6526A binds to ETBR-expressing tumor cells and is internalized, thereby delivering MMAE intracellularly. Proteolytic cleavage relea... |
| Anti-FAP Antibody-drug Conjugate OMTX705 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of OMTX005, a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against fibroblast activation protein (FAP), conjugated to the cytotoxic tubulysin TAM470, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-FAP ADC OMTX705, the anti-FAP monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to FAP expressed on cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) in the tumor stroma. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, the cytotoxic moiety is released, which... |
| Anti-FcRH5 Antibody-drug Conjugate DFRF4539A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Fc receptor-like protein 5 (FcRH5; CD307; FCRL5; IRTA2; BXMAS1) and conjugated to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule inhibitor, via the protease-labile linker maleimidocaproyl-valine-citrulline-p-aminobenzyloxycarbonyl (MC-VC-PABC), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, th... |
| Anti-FGFR2b/Topoisomerase-1 Inhibitor Antibody-drug Conjugate BG-C137 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the fibroblast growth factor receptor 2b (FGFR2b; fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 isoform IIIb; FGFR2 IIIb) conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed topoisomerase-1 inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-FGFR2b/topoisomerase-1 inhibitor ADC BG-C137, the antibody moiety targets and binds to FGFR2b-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the topoisomera... |
| Anti-FGFR3 Antibody-drug Conjugate LY3076226 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human monoclonal antibody against the fibroblast growth factor receptor type 3 (FGFR3) that is conjugated to an undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of anti-FGFR3 ADC LY3076226 binds to FGFR3. Upon internalization, the cytotoxic moiety causes cell death in FGFR3-expressing tumor cells. FGFR3, a receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a... |
| Anti-FGFR4 Monoclonal Antibody U3-1784 | A human monoclonal antibody against human fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, U3-1784 specifically binds to and blocks FGFR4. This prevents the activation of FGFR4, inhibits FGFR4-mediated signaling and leads to an inhibition of cell proliferation in FGFR4-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR4, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed by certain tumor cell types, is involved in tumor cell proliferation, differentiation, angioge... |
| Anti-FL(FITC-E2) CAR T Cells | A preparation of genetically modified T-cells transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector expressing a second generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-fluorescein (anti-FL) fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)-E2 single chain variable fragment (scFv), that is coupled, via an immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) hinge-CH2(L295D)-CH3 spacer, to the costimulatory signaling molecules CD28, CD137 (4-1BB), and CD3 zeta, and linked to a truncated for... |
| Anti-FLT3 Antibody-drug Conjugate AGS62P1 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the extracellular domain of receptor-type tyrosine-protein kinase FLT3 (FLT-3; FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3; CD135; fetal-liver kinase 2; FLK2) and conjugated, via an oxime linker and the site-directed non-natural amino acid linker para-acetyl-phenylalanine (pAcF), to a microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of ADC AGS62P1, the antibody moiety ta... |
| Anti-FLT3 Monoclonal Antibody 4G8-SDIEM | A human, Fc-optimized, immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the FLT3 tyrosine kinase receptor (CD135), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon binding to FLT3, anti-FLT3 monoclonal antibody 4G8-SDIEM blocks FLT3 ligand binding to FLT3 and subsequent phosphorylation of FLT3, which may result in the inhibition of FLT3-mediated signal transduction pathways. In addition, this agent may stimulate an anti-FLT3 antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) agains... |
| Anti-FLT3 Monoclonal Antibody IMC-EB10 | A fully human, IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the FLT3 tyrosine kinase receptor (CD135) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon binding to FLT3, anti-FLT3 monoclonal antibody IMC-EB10 blocks FLT3 ligand binding to FLT3 and subsequent FLT3 phosphorylation, which may result in the inhibition of FLT3-mediated signal transduction pathways. In addition, this agent may stimulate an anti-FLT3 antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against FLT3-expressing tumor cells, wh... |
| Anti-FLT3/CD3 Bispecific Antibody CLN-049 | A T-cell-engaging, humanized, Fc-silenced immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1)-based bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) FLT3 tyrosine kinase receptor (Fms-like tyrosine kinase 3; FLT3; FLT-3; CD135; fetal liver kinase-2; FLK2) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-FLT3/CD3 bispecific antibody CLN-049 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and FLT3 found on... |
| Anti-folate Receptor Alpha Antibody-drug Conjugate AMT-151 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody targeting folate receptor alpha (FRa; FolRa; FOLR1) conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-FRa ADC AMT-151, the antibody moiety targets and binds to FRa expressed on tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake and internalization, the cytotoxic agent inhibits tumor cell proliferation through an as of yet undisclosed mechanism of action (MoA). FRa is a g... |
| Anti-FOLR1 CAR T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for folate receptor alpha (FolRa; FOLR1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-FOLR1 CAR T-cells specifically recognize and bind to FOLR1-expressing tumor cells, resulting in specific T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis. FOLR1 is a glycosylphosphatidylinositol linked cell surface glycoprotein that is widely expressed in certain cancer... |
| Anti-FOLR1 CoStAR-expressing Autologous Tumor-infiltrating Lymphocytes ITIL-306 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) genetically engineered to express a co-stimulatory antigen receptor (CoStAR) specific for folate receptor alpha (FolRa; FOLR1) and linked to the co-stimulatory domains CD28 and CD40, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-FOLR1 CoStAR-expressing autologous TILs ITIL-306 specifically target, bind to and kill the FOLR1-expressing tumor cells. In addition, ITIL-306, by binding ... |
| Anti-FOXP3 Antisense Oligonucleotide AZD8701 | An antisense oligonucleotide (ASO) targeting the Forkhead Box P3 (FOXP3) mRNA, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-FOXP3 ASO AZD8701 blocks the translation of the FOXP3 protein. Reduction of FOXP3 levels may lessen the immunosuppressive functions of regulatory T-cells (Tregs). This may lead to an enhanced immune response and antitumor activity. FOXP3, a transcription factor, plays an important role in the functioning of immunosuppressive Tr... |
| Anti-FRa Antibody-drug Conjugate AZD5335 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human monoclonal antibody targeting folate receptor alpha (FRa; FolRa; FOLR1) conjugated to a camptothecin-based topoisomerase 1 inhibitor AZ14170132, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-FRa ADC AZD5335, the antibody moiety targets and binds to FRa expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, cellular uptake and linker cleavage, AZ14170132 is released. AZ14170132 inhibits DNA topoisomerase I activity, thereby inhibiting... |
| Anti-FRalpha/Exatecan ADC LY4170156 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a Fc-silenced, humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting folate receptor alpha (FRa; FolRa; FOLR1) linked, via a dipeptide cleavable linker and a polysarcosine hydrophobicity masking agent, to the camptothecin analog and topoisomerase 1 inhibitor exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-FRalpha/exatecan ADC LY4170156, the antibody moiety targets and binds to FRa expressed on tumor cells. U... |
| Anti-FRalpha/Exatecan ADC PRO1184 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human monoclonal antibody targeting folate receptor alpha (FRa; FolRa; FOLR1) conjugated, via a cleavable hydrophilic linker, to the camptothecin analog and topoisomerase 1 inhibitor exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-FRalpha/exatecan ADC PRO1184, the antibody moiety targets and binds to FRa expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, cellular uptake and linker cleavage, exatecan is released. Exatecan inhibi... |
| Anti-galectin-9 Monoclonal Antibody LYT-200 | A human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive protein galectin-9, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-galectin-9 monoclonal antibody LYT-200 targets, binds to and blocks galectin-9 on tumor cells which prevents galectin-9-mediated signaling. This may abrogate activation of immunosuppressive signaling pathways in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and may activate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL... |
| Anti-Ganglioside GM2 Monoclonal Antibody BIW-8962 | A humanized anti-ganglioside GM2 (GM2) monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, anti-ganglioside GM2 monoclonal antibody BIW-8962 may activate an antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) against GM2-expressing tumor cells. GM2 is a tumor associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of many cancer cells, such as multiple myeloma (MM) cells and neuroblastoma cells. |
| Anti-GARP Monoclonal Antibody DS-1055a | An afucosylated human monoclonal antibody directed against the transforming growth factor beta (TGFbeta) activator glycoprotein A repetitions predominant (GARP; leucine-rich repeat-containing protein 32; LRRC32), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GARP monoclonal antibody DS-1055a selectively targets and binds to GARP and depletes GARP-positive regulatory T-cells (Tregs). This leads to a reversal of immunosuppression mediated by GARP-posit... |
| Anti-GARP Monoclonal Antibody HLX60 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the transforming growth factor beta (TGFbeta) activator glycoprotein A repetitions predominant (GARP; leucine-rich repeat-containing protein 32; LRRC32), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GARP monoclonal antibody HLX60 selectively targets and binds to GARP. This specifically blocks the GARP-mediated release of the cytokine transforming growth factor-beta 1 (TGF-b1), thereby relieving the immunosuppre... |
| Anti-GARP/PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody BPB-101 | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) humanized bispecific antibody directed against the transforming growth factor beta (TGFbeta) activator glycoprotein A repetitions predominant (GARP; leucine-rich repeat-containing protein 32; LRRC32) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; PDL1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GARP/PD-L1 bispecific antibody... |
| Anti-GCC Antibody-Drug Conjugate TAK-164 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) comprised of a full-length, fully-human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody (mAb) directed against the extracellular domain of guanylyl cyclase C (GCC; GUCY2C), conjugated using the peptide-linked indolino-benzodiazepine DNA alkylator DGN549 (IGN-P1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of TAK-164, the antibody moiety selectively binds to GCC-expressing cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the c... |
| Anti-GD2 Antibody-drug Conjugate M3554 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of the humanized monoclonal antibody dinutuximab (ch14.18) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) disialoganglioside (GD2; GD-2) conjugated, via a cleavable beta-glucuronide linker, to the camptothecin analog and topoisomerase 1 inhibitor exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-GD2 ADC M3554, dinutuximab targets and binds to GD2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleava... |
| Anti-GD2 Monoclonal Antibody hu14.18K322A | A monoclonal antibody directed against human glycosphingolipid GD2 with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon binding to the GD2 antigen, anti-GD2 monoclonal antibody hu14.18K322A triggers a host immune response against GD2-expressing tumor cells, which may result in tumor cell death. GD2, an O-acetylated disialoganglioside with expression in normal tissues restricted primarily to the cerebellum and peripheral nerves, is commonly expressed at high levels on tumors of neuroectodermal origins... |
| Anti-GD2 Monoclonal Antibody MORAb-028 | A human IgM monoclonal antibody directed against disialoganglioside GD2 with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, anti-GD2 monoclonal antibody MORAb-028 may stimulate the immune system to exert a complement-mediated cytotoxic response against GD2-expressing tumor cells. The glycosphingolipid GD2 is a tumor associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of many cancer cells. |
| Anti-GD2/Anti-CD56 4SCAR-expressing Bispecific T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a fourth-generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) disialoganglioside (GD2) and CD56 (neural cell adhesion molecule 1; NCAM-1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-GD2/anti-CD56 4SCAR-expressing bispecific T-cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in GD2- and CD56-expressing tumor cells. GD2 is ove... |
| Anti-GD2/Anti-CD70 4SCAR-expressing Bispecific T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a fourth-generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) disialoganglioside (GD2) and CD70 (CD27 ligand; tumor necrosis factor superfamily member 7; TNFSF7), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-GD2/anti-CD70 4SCAR-expressing bispecific T-cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in GD2- and CD70-expressing... |
| Anti-GD2/PSMA/CD276 4SCAR-expressing T-cells | A preparation of  T-cells that are genetically engineered to express fourth generation chimeric antigen receptors (4SCARs) targeting the three tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), disialoganglioside (GD2), and the immune checkpoint molecule protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276), coupled to the costimulatory signaling domains CD28, CD137, CD27 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (CD3zeta; CD3z), and fused with the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (i... |
| Anti-GD3 Antibody-drug Conjugate PF-06688992 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against the ganglioside GD3, a surface antigen expressed on many malignant melanoma cells, and linked to an as of yet not fully elucidated chemotherapeutic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the ADC PF-06688992, the antibody moiety targets and binds to GD3 expressed on melanoma cells. Upon internalization, the chemotherapeutic agent specifically kills the GD3-positive cells. GD3 represents a ... |
| Anti-GDF-15 Monoclonal Antibody AZD8853 | A monoclonal antibody directed against growth/differentiation factor 15 (GDF-15; macrophage inhibitory cytokine-1; MIC-1; non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug-inducible gene-1; NAG-1; placental transforming growth factor-beta; pTGFB; prostate-derived factor; PDF; placental bone morphogenetic protein; PLAB), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-GDF-15 monoclonal antibody AZD8853 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of GDF-15, thereby preventing ... |
| Antigen-presenting Cells-expressing HPV16 E6/E7 SQZ-PBMC-HPV | A preparation of antigen presenting cells (APCs) specific for human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 E6 and E7 proteins, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Autologous peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) were ex vivo manipulated, using a technique involving membrane disruption to get the HPV16 E6 and E7 proteins into the cells; the resulting APCs present the antigens in a major histocompatibility type I (MHC-I) manner.  Upon administration of the APCs-expressing ... |
| Antigen-presenting Cells-expressing HPV16 E6/E7/CD86/mbIL-2/mbIL-12 SQZ-eAPC-HPV | A preparation of antigen presenting cells (APCs) specific for human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 E6 and E7 proteins, and engineered to express the costimulatory molecule CD86 and the membrane-bound cytokines interleukin-2 (mbIL-2) and interleukin-12 (mbIL-12), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Autologous peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are ex vivo engineered with five mRNA encoding for HPV 16 E6/E7 antigens, CD86, mbIL-2 and mbIL-12; the resulting APCs ... |
| Antigen-targeted Personalized Breast Cancer Vaccine | An individualized, therapeutic cancer vaccine (IVAC) composed of liposomes containing RNA encoding two or three tumor associated antigens (TAAs) that are specifically expressed in the patient's individual cancer selected from a warehouse ("off the shelf") and p53 RNA, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the antigen-targeted personalized breast cancer vaccines are translated by antigen presenting cells (APCs) and the expressed protein is prese... |
| Anti-GITR Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody ASP1951 | A human, high-affinity, tetravalent monospecific agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting glucocorticoid-induced tumor necrosis factor receptor (GITR; tumor necrosis factor superfamily member 18; TNFRSF18; CD357), with potential immune checkpoint modulating activity. Upon administration, anti-GITR agonistic monoclonal antibody ASP1951 binds to and activates GITR, which is expressed on the cell surface of multiple types of T-lymphocytes. This induces both the activation and proliferation of tum... |
| Anti-GITR Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986156 | An anti-human glucocorticoid-induced tumor necrosis factor receptor (GITR; tumor necrosis factor superfamily member 18; TNFRSF18; CD357) agonistic monoclonal antibody, with potential immune checkpoint modulating activity. Anti-GITR antibody BMS-986156 binds to and activates GITR, which is expressed on the cell surface of multiple types of T-cells. This stimulates the immune system, induces both the activation and proliferation of tumor antigen-specific T-effector cells (Teffs), and suppresses... |
| Anti-GITR AgonisticMonoclonal Antibody REGN6569 | An agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting glucocorticoid-induced tumor necrosis factor receptor (GITR; tumor necrosis factor superfamily member 18; TNFRSF18; CD357), with potential immune checkpoint modulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GITR agonistic monoclonal antibody REGN6569 targets, binds to and activates GITR, which is expressed on the cell surface of multiple types of T-lymphocytes and other immune cells. This induces both the activation and proliferatio... |
| Anti-GITR Monoclonal Antibody GWN 323 | An anti-human glucocorticoid-induced tumor necrosis factor receptor (tumor necrosis factor superfamily, member 18; TNFRSF18; GITR; CD357) agonistic monoclonal antibody, with potential immune checkpoint modulating activity. Anti-GITR antibody GWN 323 binds to and activates GITRs found on multiple types of T-cells. This stimulates the immune system, induces both the activation and proliferation of tumor-antigen-specific T effector cells (Teff), and suppresses the function of activated T regulat... |
| Anti-GITR Monoclonal Antibody MK-4166 | An anti-human glucocorticoid-induced tumor necrosis factor receptor (GITR) agonistic monoclonal antibody (MoAb) with potential immunomodulating activity. Anti-GITR monoclonal antibody MK-4166 binds to and activates GITRs found on multiple types of T-cells. This stimulates the immune system and induces both the activation and proliferation of tumor-antigen-specific T effector cells, and suppresses the function of activated T regulatory cells. This leads to tumor cell eradication. Also, this ag... |
| Anti-Globo H Monoclonal Antibody OBI-888 | A monoclonal antibody targeting the hexasaccharide glycosphingolipid antigen Globo H with potential immunostimulating, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion, anti-Globo H monoclonal antibody OBI-888 may induce tumor cell destruction via the activation of antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC), antibody-dependent cellular phagocytosis (ADCP) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC), and may reduce immunosuppression. Globo H is a tumor-associated antigen ... |
| Anti-Globo H/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate OBI 999 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of OBI-888 (OBI 888), a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) globohexaosylceramide (globo H), covalently linked to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-globo H/MMAE ADC OBI 999, the antibody moiety of OBI 999, OBI 888, targets and binds to globo H on tumor cells and is rapidly i... |
| Anti-Glypican 3/CD3 Bispecific Antibody ERY974 | An anti-glypican 3 (GPC3; GPC-3)/anti-CD3 bispecific monoclonal antibody, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Anti-GPC3/CD3 bispecific antibody ERY974 possesses two antigen-recognition and binding sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for GPC3, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of certain tumor cells. Upon administration of ERY974, this bispecific anti... |
| Anti-Glypican 3-scFvGC33-CAR-expressing T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from the anti-glypican-3 (GPC3) monoclonal antibody GC33 (scFvGC33), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GPC3-scFvGC33-CAR autologous T-lymphocytes specifically target and bind to GPC3-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. GPC3, a heparan sulfa... |
| Anti-GnRH Vaccine PEP223 | A peptide vaccine derived from the synthetic peptide pyroEHWSYGLRPG, corresponding to amino acids 22-31 of mouse gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH), with potential immunocastration activity. PEP223 is dimerized and contains a D-lysine (k) substitution at position 6 (pyroEHWSYkLRPG) to increase its immunogenicity. Anti-GnRH vaccine PEP223 may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against GnRH, neutralizing its activity. In turn, testosterone production... |
| Anti-gpA33/CD3 Monoclonal Antibody MGD007 | An anti-glycoprotein A33 (gpA33)/anti-CD3 bispecific humanized monoclonal antibody with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Anti-gpA33/CD3 monoclonal antibody MGD007 possesses two antigen-recognition sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for gpA33, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of certain tumor cells. Upon administration of MGD007, this bispecific antib... |
| Anti-GPC3/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Antibody BGB-B2033 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) glypican-3 (GPC3; GPC-3) and the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GPC3/anti-4-1BB bispecific antibody BGB-B2033 simultaneously targets and binds to GPC3 expressed on tumor cells and 4-1BB expressed on activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells. This ... |
| Anti-GPC3/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody CM350 | A bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) glypican-3 (GPC3; GPC-3) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GPC3/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody CM350 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and GPC3 on GPC3-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to GPC3-expressing tumor cells, leading to CTL-mediated killing of GPC3-expressing tumor cells. GPC3, a h... |
| Anti-GPC3/TCR Nanobody SAR444200 | A T-cell engaging (TCE) and heavy chain variable domain (VHH)-based nanobody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) glypican-3 (GPC3; GPC-3) and a T-cell surface antigen, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-GPC3/TCR nanobody SAR444200 specifically targets and binds to GPC3 expressed on tumor cells and a T-cell surface antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This activates and redirects CTLs to GPC3-expressing tumor cells, leading to CTL-mediated killing ... |
| Anti-GPC3-CAR Autologous T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for glypican-3 (GPC3), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GPC3-CAR autologous T-lymphocytes specifically target and bind to GPC3-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. GPC3, a heparan sulfate proteoglycan and a member of the glypican family, is overexpressed on certain tumor cell types while m... |
| Anti-GPC3-CAR T-lymphocytes TAK-102 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for glypican-3 (GPC3), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GPC3-CAR T-lymphocytes TAK-102 specifically targets and binds to GPC3-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. GPC3, a heparan sulfate proteoglycan and a member of the glypican family, is overexpressed on certain tumor cell types while minimally exp... |
| Anti-GPR20/DXd Antibody-drug Conjugate DS-6157a | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the G protein-coupled receptor 20 (GPR20) conjugated to the cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor and exatecan derivative DXd (MAAA-1181a; MAAA-1181), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-GPR20/DXd ADC DS-6157a, the anti-GPR20 antibody targets and binds to GPR20-expressing tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake, the DXd moiety targets and binds to DNA topoisomerase I, thereby st... |
| Anti-GPRC5D/Anti-CD19 CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes engineered to express chimeric antigen receptor(s) (CARs) targeting the human tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D) and CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GPRC5D/anti-CD19 CAR T cells specifically and simultaneously target and bind to tumor cells expressing GPRC5D and/or CD19. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells that express GPRC5D and... |
| Anti-GPRC5D/anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody LBL-034 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific monoclonal antibody directed against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and human G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D), a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GPRC5D/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody LBL-034 binds to both CD3 on T-cells and GPRC5D expressed on tumor cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and ind... |
| Anti-gremlin-1 Monoclonal Antibody TST003 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against gremlin-1 (gremlin1; GREM1; Drm), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-gremlin-1 monoclonal antibody TST003 specifically targets and binds to gremlin-1, thereby neutralizing gremlin-1 expressed on tumor cells and cancer associated fibroblasts (CAFs). This prevents binding to bone morphogenetic proteins (BMP), specifically to BMP2 and 4, and blocks the gremlin-1-mediated inhibition of BMP sig... |
| Anti-GRP78 Monoclonal Antibody PAT-SM6 | A IgM monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against 78-kDa glucose-regulated protein (GRP78; also called BiP or HSPA5), with potential proapoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of the anti-GRP78 monoclonal antibody PAT-SM6, the MoAb strongly binds to GRP78, thereby preventing the activation of multiple GRP78-mediated pathways and blocking the GRP78-induced suppression of apoptotic pathways. This eventually leads to the induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a reduction i... |
| Anti-GUCY2C CAR-T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting human guanylate cyclase 2C (GUCY2C; GCC; guanylyl cyclase C; heat-stable enterotoxin receptor; hSTAR), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GUCY2C CAR-T cells target and bind to GUCY2C-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in GUCY2C-expressing tumor cells. GUCY2C, a transmembrane receptor expressed ... |
| Anti-HA Epitope Monoclonal Antibody MEDI8852 | A human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 kappa monoclonal antibody (mAb) targeting a unique epitope in the stalk of the influenza A hemagglutinin (HA) protein, with broad influenza A virus neutralization activity. MEDI8852 was derived from an antibody isolated from human memory B-cells from patients previously infected with influenza caused by type A strains that was further optimized to increase neutralization potential. Upon infusion, MEDI8852 targets and binds to a region within the stalk of the HA ... |
| Anti-HB-EGF Monoclonal Antibody KHK2866 | A proprietary fucose-free monoclonal antibody directed against human heparin-binding EGF-like growth factor (HBEGF) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-HB-EGF Monoclonal Antibody KHK2866 binds to HBEGF, thereby blocking its binding to the EGF receptors. This prevents EGF receptor activation and the subsequent induction of cell growth signaling. HBEGF is mitogenic for fibroblasts and smooth muscle and may be involved in macrophage-mediated cellular proliferation. The fucose-free monoc... |
| Anti-HBEGF Monoclonal Antibody U3-1565 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human heparin-binding EGF-like growth factor (HBEGF) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-HBEGF monoclonal antibody U3-1565 binds to HBEGF and blocks the binding of HBEGF to the EGF receptors. This prevents EGF receptor activation and the subsequent induction of cell growth signaling. HBEGF is mitogenic for fibroblasts and smooth muscle and may be involved in macrophage-mediated cellular proliferation. |
| Anti-hCD70-CAR Retroviral Vector-transduced Autologous PBLs | A preparation of autologous human peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding for a T-cell chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) gene specific for the human cluster of differentiation 70 (CD70), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Autologous PBLs from a patient with CD70-positive cancer are transduced with a retroviral vector that encodes the CAR gene specific for CD70. After expansion in culture and reintroduction into the patient, a... |
| Anti-hepcidin Monoclonal Antibody LY2787106 | A humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) targeting the peptide hormone hepcidin, with potential anti-anemic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-hepcidin MoAb LY2787106 binds to hepcidin and prevents it from binding to the iron exporting protein ferroportin, which is expressed on both the basolateral surface of gastrointestinal (GI) enterocytes and the plasma membrane of macrophages. This prevents hepcidin-induced internalization and degradation of ferroportin and increases ferroport... |
| Anti-HER2 ADC BB-1701 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) conjugated, through a cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic agent eribulin, a synthetic, macrocyclic ketone analogue of halichondrin B, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER2 ADC BB-1701, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and bi... |
| Anti-HER2 Antibody Conjugated Natural Killer Cells ACE1702 | An off-the-shelf preparation of natural killer (NK) cells conjugated to a monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER2 antibody conjugated natural killer cells ACE1702, the antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cells, which may lead to cell lysis of HER2-expressing tumor cells by the NK cells. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer ce... |
| Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate BAT8001 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) conjugated via an uncleavable linker to an as of yet undisclosed maytansine derivative, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-HER2 ADC BAT8001, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake, the cytotoxic maytansine deriv... |
| Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate BAT8010 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) linked to the camptothecin analog exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER2 ADC BAT8010, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, exatecan is released. Exatecan inhibits DN... |
| Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate BL-M07D1 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) linked to an undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER2 ADC BL-M07D1, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills HER2-expressing tu... |
| Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate IBI354 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) conjugated to a camptothecin derivative, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-HER2 ADC IBI354, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake, the camptothecin derivative inhibits DNA topoisomerase I activity, thereby inh... |
| Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate JSKN003 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of the bispecific monoclonal antibody anbenitamab, directed against two distinct epitopes of the extracellular dimerization domain of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), site-specifically conjugated via N glycosylation site to a topoisomerase-1 inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER2 ADC JSKN003, the anbenitamab moiety sim... |
| Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate MEDI4276 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a bispecific antibody against the extracellular domain of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ERBB2) comprised of the single-chain variable fragment (scFv) of the anti- HER2 monoclonal antibody trastuzumab, which binds to domain IV of HER2, fused to the heavy chains of the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody 39S, which binds to domain II of HER2, and conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic anti-microtubule agent tubulysin, with p... |
| Anti-HER2 Bispecific Antibody KM257 | A bispecific antibody directed against two distinct domains of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-HER2 bispecific antibody KM257 simultaneously targets and binds to two different domains of HER2. This prevents the activation of HER2 signaling pathways. In addition, by binding to HER2, KM257 induces an antibody-dependen... |
| Anti-HER2 Bispecific Antibody TQB2930 | A bispecific antibody directed against two distinct domains of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-HER2 bispecific antibody TQB2930 simultaneously targets and binds to two different domains of HER2. This prevents the activation of HER2 signaling pathways, resulting in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition of HER2-e... |
| Anti-HER2 Bispecific Antibody-drug Conjugate ZW49 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a bispecific monoclonal antibody (ZW25) directed against two different epitopes of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2, receptor tyrosine-protein kinase erbB-2) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-HER2 bispecific ADC ZW49 targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Following receptor internalization... |
| Anti-HER2 Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A type-1-polarized dendritic cell (DC1)-based cancer vaccine against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; EGFR2, ERBB2), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration of the anti-HER2 DC vaccine, the immune system gets exposed to HER2, which may stimulate a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against HER2-positive tumor cells. This may result in tumor cell death and decreased tumor growth.... |
| Anti-HER2 GSPT1 Degrader ORM-5029 | A targeted protein degrader (TPD) composed of pertuzumab, an antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), conjugated, via a Val-Cit PABc cleavable linker, to SMol006, a membrane-permeable selective molecular glue degrader (MGD) of the translational termination factor GSPT1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-HER2 GSPT1 degrader ORM-5029 specificall... |
| Anti-HER2 Immune Stimulator-antibody Conjugate NJH395 | An immune stimulator-antibody conjugate (ISAC) composed of a monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) conjugated to a not yet disclosed immune stimulator, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon administration of the anti-HER2 immune stimulator-antibody conjugate NJH395, the antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding, the immune-stimulating moiety may, through... |
| Anti-HER2 Molecule AIP-303 | A molecule targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2, EGFR2, ERBB2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the anti-HER2 molecule AIP-303 targets and binds to HER2-expressing cells. This may inhibit HER2-mediated signaling and inhibit growth in HER2-overexpressing tumor cells. HER2, a tyrosine kinase, is overexpressed on the cell surfaces of various tumor cell types. |
| Anti-HER2 Monoclonal Antibody | Any monoclonal antibody that is directed against human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; HER-2; ERBB2). |
| Anti-HER2 Monoclonal Antibody B002 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody B002 targets and binds to HER2 on HER2-expressing tumor cells. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and may lead to antitumor activity. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types. |
| Anti-HER2 Monoclonal Antibody BAT1006 | A glycosylation engineered recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the extracellular dimerization domain (subdomain II) of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody BAT1006 targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cells, thereby blocking HER2-mediated signaling. This may inhibit the proliferation of HER2-expressing tumo... |
| Anti-HER2 Monoclonal Antibody BAY2701438 | A monoclonal antibody targeting the tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody BAY2701438 targets and specifically binds to HER2 on tumor cells, thereby blocking HER2-mediated signaling. This may inhibit proliferation of HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2 is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types and is associated with increased tumor cell proliferation. |
| Anti-HER2 Monoclonal Antibody HLX22 | A humanized immunoglobulin (lg) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody HLX22 targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cell surface. This may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response as well as an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumor cells that overexpress HER2. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is ov... |
| Anti-HER2 Monoclonal Antibody QL1209 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the domain II of the extracellular domain of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody QL1209 targets and binds to HER2 on HER2-expressing tumor cells. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and may lead to an inhibition of proliferation in HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer c... |
| Anti-HER2/4-1BB Bispecific Antibody YH32367 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2) and the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-HER2/4-1BB bispecific antibody YH32367 simultaneously targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells and 4-1BB expressed on ac... |
| Anti-HER2/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody M802 | A humanized bispecific antibody composed of a monovalent unit directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2) and a single chain unit directed against CD3 found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-HER2/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody M802 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and HER2 on HER2-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to HE... |
| Anti-HER2/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody GBR 1302 | An anti-human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)/anti-CD3 bispecific monoclonal antibody with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Anti-HER2/Anti-CD3 bispecific monoclonal antibody GBR 1302 possesses two antigen recognition sites, one for HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor overexpressed by many cancer cell types, and one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that interact with the T-cell receptor (TCR). Upon administration of GBR 1302, this bi... |
| Anti-HER2/Anti-PD-1 Bispecific Antibody SSGJ-705 | A bispecific antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; EGFR2, ERBB2) and the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-HER2/anti-PD-1 bispecific antibody SSGJ-705 simultaneously targets, binds to and inhibits HER2 and PD-1 and their downstream signaling pathways, and bridges PD-1-expressing T-cells to... |
| Anti-HER2/Auristatin Payload Antibody-drug Conjugate XMT-1522 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of HT-19, a monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (ERBB2; HER2), conjugated, via a proprietary biodegradable, hydrophilic polymer backbone and various linkers, to proprietary auristatin-derived payload molecules (about 15 per antibody), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER2/auristatin payload ADC XMT-1522, the antibody moiety targets and binds to a unique epitope in the ext... |
| Anti-HER2/CD3 Tri-specific Antibody BR115 | A tri-specific T-cell engager and monoclonal antibody targeting two separate epitopes of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-HER2/CD3 tri-specific antibody BR115 targets and binds to two separate HER2 epitopes on HER2-expressing tumor cells and CD3 on T-cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigge... |
| Anti-HER2/CD3/CD28 Tri-specific Antibody SAR443216 | A tri-specific T-cell engager and monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and CD28, a T-cell specific surface glycoprotein and co-stimulatory molecule, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-HER2/CD3/CD28 tri-specific antibody SAR443216 targets and binds to CD3 and CD28 on T-cells and HER2 expressed on tumor cells.... |
| Anti-HER2/CD3/XTEN Protease-activated T-cell Engager AMX-818 | A protease-activated prodrug T-cell engager (TCE) composed of two tandem single chain variable fragments (scFvs) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) and CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and conjugated, via a protease-cleavable linker, to two unstructured polypeptides (XTEN), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Double XTEN masking allows for universal masks that sterically hinder target binding of A... |
| Anti-HER2/HER2 Bispecific ADC KM501 | A bispecific antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) that targets two different non-overlapping epitopes of the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), ECD2 and ECD4, that is conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-HER2/HER2 bispecific ADC KM501 selectively and simultaneously targets, binds to and blocks the two distinct HER2 domains on the tumor cell surface, thereby enhancing th... |
| Anti-HER2/HER3 Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A dendritic cell (DC)-based cancer vaccine against the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; EGFR2, ERBB2) and 3 (HER3; ErbB3), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the anti-HER2/HER3 DC vaccine, the immune system gets exposed to HER2 and HER3, which may stimulate a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against HER-2/3-positive tumor cells. This may result in tumor cell death and decreased tumor... |
| Anti-HER2/PBD-MA Antibody-drug Conjugate DHES0815A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (ERBB2; EGFR2; HER2) linked to a DNA minor groove crosslinking agent pyrrolo[2,1- c][1,4]benzodiazepine monoamide (PBD-MA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of ADC DHES0815A, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Following receptor internalization and lysosome-mediated cleavage, the cytotoxic... |
| Anti-HER2/Topoisomerase I Inhibitor ADC GQ1005 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) conjugated, via a cleavable open-ring linker, to a topoisomerase I (TopoI) inhibitor-based payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-HER2/topoisomerase I inhibitor ADC GQ1005, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon cel... |
| Anti-HER2/Topoisomerase I Inhibitor ADC TQB2102 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) conjugated, via an enzyme-cleavable linker, to a topoisomerase I (TopoI) inhibitor payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-HER2/topoisomerase I inhibitor  ADC TQB2102, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon... |
| Anti-HER2-CAR Autologous CMV-Specific Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes | Autologous human cytomegalovirus (CMV)-specific human cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a human anti-Her-2 (epidermal growth factor receptor 2) chimeric T cell receptor (CAR) gene with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Autologous CTLs from a patient with Her-2- and CMV-positive glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) are genetically modified to express CAR gene specific for Her-2 on their cell surfaces. After expansion in culture and re... |
| Anti-Her-2-CAR Retroviral Vector-Transduced Autologous Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes | Autologous human peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding an anti-Her-2 (epidermal growth factor receptor 2) chimeric T cell receptor (chimeric antigen receptor or CAR) gene with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Autologous PBLs from a patient with Her-2-positive cancer are pulsed with a retroviral vector that encodes the CAR gene specific for Her-2. After expansion in culture and reintroduction into the patient, anti-Her-2-CAR ... |
| Anti-HER2-DM1 ADC B003 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a recombinant humanized anti-epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) monoclonal antibody conjugated to the maytansinoid DM1 via a nonreducible thioether linkage (MCC), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of B003, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cell surfaces; upon internalization, the DM1 moiety is released and binds to tubulin, thereby disrupting microtubule assembly/disassemb... |
| Anti-HER2-DM1 Antibody-drug Conjugate GQ1001 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) and conjugated, via a site-specific linker, to the cytotoxic maytansinoid mertansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER2-DM1 ADC GQ1001, the antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cell surfaces. Upon cellular uptake and internalization, DM1 binds to tubulin and interferes with microtubule assembly and... |
| Anti-HER2-vc0101 ADC PF-06804103 | A proprietary antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) site-specifically linked, via a protease cleavable linker, to an analog of dolastatin 10, Auristatin-0101, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-HER2-vc0101 ADC PF-06804103 targets HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and cleavage, Auristatin-0101 binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, resulting in ... |
| Anti-HER3 Antibody-drug Conjugate SHR-A2009 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) human monoclonal antibody directed against human epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3; ErbB3) conjugated via a cleavable peptide linker to a cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER3 ADC SHR-A2009, the anti-HER3 antibody moiety targets and binds to HER3 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, the topoisomerase... |
| Anti-HER3 Antibody-drug Conjugate YL202 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against human epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3; ErbB3) conjugated via a tumor microenvironment (TME) activable protease-cleavable linker to a cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER3 ADC YL202, the anti-HER3 antibody moiety targets and binds to HER3 expressed on tumor cells. Upon proteolytic cleavage in the TME and the release of the topo... |
| Anti-HER3 Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A type-1-polarized dendritic cell (DC1)-based cancer vaccine against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3; ERBB3), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration of the anti-HER3 DC vaccine, the immune system gets exposed to HER3, which may stimulate a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against HER3-positive tumor cells. This may result in tumor cell death and decreased tumor growth. HER3, ... |
| Anti-HER3 Monoclonal Antibody GSK2849330 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3; ERBB3) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-HER3 monoclonal antibody GSK2849330 binds to HER3 and inhibits its activation. This may prevent HER3-mediated signaling and inhibit HER3-dependent tumor cell proliferation and differentiation. HER3, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is frequently overexpressed in tumors and is associated with p... |
| Anti-HER3 Monoclonal Antibody SIBP-03 | A recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3; ERBB3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-HER3 monoclonal antibody SIBP-03 targets and binds to HER3 and inhibits its activation. This may prevent HER3-mediated signaling and inhibit HER3-dependent tumor cell proliferation and differentiation. HER3, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is freque... |
| Anti-HER3/Topoisomerase I Inhibitor Antibody-drug Conjugate DB-1310 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against human epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3; ErbB3) conjugated, via a maleimide tetrapeptide-based cleavable linker, to a cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER3 ADC DB-1310, the anti-HER3 antibody moiety targets and binds to HER3 expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization, the topoisomerase I in... |
| Anti-HER3/Topoisomerase I Inhibitor Antibody-drug Conjugate IBI133 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against human epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3; ErbB3) conjugated to a topoisomerase I (TopoI) inhibitor-based payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER3/TopoI inhibitor ADC IBI133, the anti-HER3 antibody moiety targets and binds to HER3 expressed on tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake, the TopoI inhibitor inhibits DNA topoI activity, thereby inhibiting DNA replication whic... |
| Anti-HGF Monoclonal Antibody TAK-701 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-HGF monoclonal antibody TAK-701 binds to the soluble ligand HGF, preventing HGF binding to and activation of the HGF receptor c-Met and so the activation of the c-Met signaling pathway; this may result in the induction of cell death in c-Met-expressing tumor cells. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in a variety of tumor cell types, plays a... |
| Anti-HHLA2 Monoclonal Antibody NPX887 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against HERV-H LTR-associating protein 2 (HHLA2; HHLA-2; B7 homolog 7; B7-H7), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-HHLA2 monoclonal antibody NPX887 targets and binds to HHLA2, and blocks the interaction between HHLA2 and its receptors. This abrogates the HHLA2-mediated inhibition of T-cell and nature killer (NK) cell activation, which may lead to enhanced cytotoxic T-... |
| Anti-HIF-1alpha LNA Antisense Oligonucleotide EZN-2968 | A synthetic antisense oligodeoxynucleotide (AS ODN) targeting hypoxia-inducible factor-1alpha (HIF-1alpha) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-HIF-1alpha LNA antisense oligonucleotide EZN-2968 hybridizes with HIF-1alpha mRNA and blocks t HIF-1 alpha protein expression, which may result in the inhibition of angiogenesis, the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation, and apoptosis. HIF-1alpha, normally activated in response to hypoxia-induced stress, is a key transcription regulator of a... |
| Anti-HIV-1 Lentiviral Vector-expressing sh5/C46 Cal-1 | A gene transfer construct composed of a self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector (LV) expressing a short hairpin RNA (shRNA) that targets the human C-C chemokine receptor type 5 (CCR5) mRNA (sh5) and expressing the HIV entry inhibitor C46, with potential anti-human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) type 1 (HIV-1) activity. Upon transduction of the anti-HIV-1 LVsh5/C46 Cal-1 in specified blood cell populations, such as peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs), hematopoietic stem/progenitor cells... |
| Anti-HLA-A2/NY-ESO-1 TCR-transduced Autologous T Lymphocytes | Autologous human peripheral blood T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral or retroviral vector encoding a human leukocyte antigen A2 (HLA-A2) restricted anti-cancer-testis antigen 1 (NY-ESO-1) T-cell receptor (TCR) gene, with potential antineoplastic activity. Following leukapheresis, isolation of lymphocytes, expansion ex vivo, transduction, and re-introduction into the patient, the anti-HLA-A2/NY-ESO-1 TCR-transduced autologous T lymphocytes recognize and bind to NY-ESO-1/HLA-A2-positive... |
| Anti-HLA-A2-MAGE-A4/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody RO7444973 | A bispecific T-cell engaging antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted, melanoma-associated antigen A4 (MAGE-A4) and T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-HLA-A2-MAGE-A4/Anti-CD3 bispecific antibody RO7444973 simultaneously binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and HLA-A2 MAGE-A4 on MAGE-A4-expressing tumor cells. This activates and ... |
| Anti-HLA-A2-WT1/Anti-CD3 T-cell Engaging Bispecific Antibody RO7283420 | A T-cell receptor (TCR)-like T-cell engaging bispecific antibody (T-BsAb) targeting both the RMFPNAPYL nonapeptide (RMF peptide), which is derived from the intracellular Wilms tumor 1 (WT1; WT-1) and presented on human leukocyte antigen A2 (HLA-A2), and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-HLA-A2-WT1/anti-CD3 T-cell engaging bispecific antibody RO7283420 simultaneously binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T... |
| Anti-HLA-DR Monoclonal Antibody IMMU-114 | A humanized IgG4 monoclonal antibody that targets the human leukocyte antigen HLA-DR, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-HLA-DR monoclonal antibody IMMU-114 binds to HLA-DR on HLA-DR-expressing tumor cells and, although the exact mechanism has yet to be fully elucidated, appears to induce hyperactivation of ERK- and JNK-dependent mitogen activated protein kinase signaling pathways. This may lead to mitochondrial membrane depolarization and reactive oxygen specie... |
| Anti-HLA-G Antibody TTX-080 | An antibody targeting HLA-G histocompatibility antigen, class I, G (human leukocyte antigen G; HLA-G), with potential immune checkpoint inhibiting, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-HLA-G antibody TTX-080 targets and binds to HLA-G, thereby preventing the binding of HLA-G to its inhibitory receptors on a variety of immune cells, such as natural killer cells (NKs), T- and B-lymphocytes, and dendritic cells (DCs). This may prevent the HLA-G-mediated i... |
| Anti-HLA-G/CD3 Bispecific Antibody JNJ-78306358 | A bispecific antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) HLA-G histocompatibility antigen, class I, G (human leukocyte antigen G; HLA-G) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immune checkpoint inhibiting, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-HLA-G/CD3 bispecific antibody JNJ-78306358 targets and binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and HLA-G found on HLA-G-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirect... |
| Anti-HLA-G/CD3 Bispecific Antibody RO7515629 | A bispecific antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) histocompatibility antigen, class I, G (human leukocyte antigen G; HLA-G) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immune checkpoint inhibiting, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-HLA-G/CD3 bispecific antibody RO7515629 targets and binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and HLA-G found on HLA-G-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to... |
| Anti-HPV16 TCR-engineered T-cells CRTE7A2-01 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that has been genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for an as of yet not identified viral oncoprotein(s) of human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV16), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the anti-HPV16 TCR-engineered T-cells CRTE7A2-01 specifically recognize and bind to the HPV16 oncoprotein(s) expressed on tumor cells. This may lead to cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated elimination of tumor cells exp... |
| Anti-human GITR Monoclonal Antibody AMG 228 | An agonistic anti-human glucocorticoid-induced tumor necrosis factor receptor (tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 18; TNFRSF18; GITR; CD357) humanized monoclonal antibody, with potential immune checkpoint modulating activity. Anti-human GITR monoclonal antibody AMG 228 binds to and activates GITRs found on multiple types of T-cells. This stimulates the immune system, induces both the activation and proliferation of tumor-antigen-specific T effector cells (Teffs), and suppresse... |
| Anti-human GITR Monoclonal Antibody TRX518 | A humanized, Fc disabled anti-human glucocorticoid-induced tumor necrosis factor receptor (GITR) monoclonal antibody (MoAb) with immunomodulating activity. Anti-human GITR MoAb TRX518 blocks the interaction of GITR, found on multiple types of T cells, with its ligand, thereby inducing both the activation of tumor-antigen-specific T effector cells, as well as abrogating the suppression induced by inappropriately activated T regulatory cells. This agent is shown to act synergistically with chem... |
| Anti-ICOS Agonist Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986226 | An agonistic monoclonal antibody that recognizes inducible T-cell co-stimulator (ICOS; CD278), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ICOS agonist monoclonal antibody BMS-986226 targets and binds to ICOS expressed on certain T-cells. This stimulates ICOS-mediated signaling, induces proliferation of ICOS-positive T-cells, enhances cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) survival and augments the CTL-mediated immune response against tumor cells. ICOS, a T-... |
| Anti-ICOS Monoclonal Antibody MEDI-570 | An Fc-optimized humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody (MoAb) directed against the inducible T-cell co-stimulator (ICOS, CD278), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ICOS MoAb MEDI-570 targets and binds to ICOS expressed on tumor infiltrating CD4-positive T-cells. This prevents the interaction between ICOS-positive T-cells and plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs), which express the ICOS ligand (ICOSL). Blocking ICOS ... |
| Anti-IGF-1R Recombinant Monoclonal Antibody BIIB022 | A recombinant, human monoclonal antibody directed against the insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor (IGF-1R) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-IGF-1R recombinant monoclonal antibody BIIB022 binds to membrane-bound IGF-1R, preventing binding of the ligand IGF-1 and the subsequent triggering of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway; inhibition of this survival signaling pathway may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. The activation... |
| Anti-IGFBP2 Plasmid DNA Vaccine AST-201 | A polyepitope plasmid DNA therapeutic cancer vaccine containing the mammalian expression vector pUMVC3 encoding multiple epitopes derived from  tumor-associated antigens (TAAs): human insulin-like growth factor-binding protein 2 (IGFBP2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal vaccination, anti-IGFBP2 plasmid DNA vaccine AST-201 enters cells which process the plasmid, and express the epitopes and present them to antigen-presenting cells (APCs). This a... |
| Anti-IGSF8 Monoclonal Antibody GV20-0251 | A human, Fc-attenuated immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the immune checkpoint immunoglobulin superfamily member 8 (IGSF8; PGRL; PG regulatory-like protein, KCT-4, CD81 partner 3; LIR-D1; KASP; KAI/CD82 associated protein; EWI-2; Glu-Trp-Ile EWI motif-containing protein 2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-IGSF8 monoclonal antibody GV20-0251 targets and binds to IGSF8 expressed on vario... |
| Anti-IL-11 Monoclonal Antibody 9MW3811 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against interleukin-11 (IL-11), with potential anti-fibrotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-IL-11 monoclonal antibody 9MW3811 targets and binds to IL-11. This prevents the binding of IL-11 to interleukin-11 receptor subunit alpha (IL-11RA), and inhibits IL-11-mediated signaling via the gp130/IL-11RA receptor complex. This may decrease fibrosis and inhibit tumor cell proliferation. IL-11, a member of the IL-6 family of cytokine... |
| Anti-ILT2 Monoclonal Antibody AGEN1571 | A human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory immune checkpoint receptor Ig-like transcript 2 (ILT2; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily B member 1; LILRB1; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 1; LIR1; monocyte/macrophage immunoglobulin-like receptor 7; MIR-7; CD85j), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-ILT2 monoclonal antibody AGEN1571 targets and binds to ILT2. This preven... |
| Anti-ILT2 Monoclonal Antibody SAR444881 | A humanized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory immune checkpoint receptor Ig-like transcript 2 (ILT2; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily B member 1; LILRB1; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 1; LIR1; monocyte/macrophage immunoglobulin-like receptor 7; MIR-7; CD85j), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ILT2 monoclonal antibody SAR444881 targets and binds to ILT2. This prevents the ... |
| Anti-ILT2/Anti-ILT4 Bispecific Antibody PF-07826390 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody directed against the inhibitory immune checkpoint receptors immunoglobulin (Ig)-like transcript 2 (ILT2; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily B member 1; LILRB1; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 1; LIR1; monocyte/macrophage immunoglobulin-like receptor 7; MIR-7; CD85j) and ILT4 (LILRB2; LIR2; MIR-10; CD85d), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ILT2/anti-ILT4 bispecif... |
| Anti-ILT2/Anti-ILT4 Monoclonal Antibody NGM707 | A humanized, dual antagonist monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory immune checkpoint receptors immunoglobulin (Ig)-like transcript 2 (ILT2; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily B member 1; LILRB1; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 1; LIR1; monocyte/macrophage immunoglobulin-like receptor 7; MIR-7; CD85j) and ILT4 (LILRB2; LIR2; MIR-10; CD85d), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ILT2/anti-ILT4 monoclonal antib... |
| Anti-ILT4 Monoclonal Antibody MK-4830 | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory immune checkpoint receptor immunoglobulin-like transcript 4 (ILT4; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily B member 2; LILRB2; lymphocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 2; LIR2; monocyte/macrophage immunoglobulin-like receptor 10; MIR-10; CD85d), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ILT4 monoclonal antibody MK-4830 targets and binds to ILT4. This prevents the binding of ILT4 ... |
| Anti-ILT4/Anti-PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody SPX-303 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the inhibitory immune checkpoint receptor immunoglobulin-like transcript 4 (ILT4; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily B member 2; LILRB2; lymphocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 2; LIR2; monocyte/macrophage immunoglobulin-like receptor 10; MIR-10; CD85d) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulatory and anti... |
| Anti-Immunoglobulin-beta CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting immunoglobulin-beta (Igb), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-Igb CAR T cells are directed to, specifically bind to, and induce selective toxicity in Igb antigen-expressing tumor cells. |
| Anti-integrin AlphaV/Beta8 Monoclonal Antibody CRB-601 | A humanized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against integrin alphaV/beta8 (aVb8), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-integrin aVb8 monoclonal antibody CRB-601 targets and binds to integrin aVb8. This prevents the binding of integrin aVb8 to latent human transforming growth factor (TGF)-beta (L-TGFb) and inhibits the activation of L-TGFb complexes, thereby preventing TGFb-mediated signaling. This abrogates TGFb-mediated immunosuppression, en... |
| Anti-integrin Beta-1 Monoclonal Antibody OS2966 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human integrin receptor beta-1 subunit (CD29), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-integrin beta-1 monoclonal antibody OS2966 targets and binds to integrin beta-1 on the surface of tumor cells and macrophages in the tumor microenvironment (TME), thereby preventing integrin beta-1-mediated activation of downstream signaling pathways. This may include the blockade of the binding of integrin beta-1 to the effector... |
| Anti-integrin Beta-6/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-B6A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized antibody targeting integrin beta-6 and conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of anti-integrin beta-6/MMAE ADC SGN-B6A targets and binds to integrin beta-6 on the surface of tumor cells. Following internalization of SGN-B6A and release of MMAE, MMAE targets and binds to tubulin, and inhibits microtubule poly... |
| Anti-Integrin Monoclonal Antibody-DM4 Immunoconjugate IMGN388 | An immunoconjugate consisting of an anti-integrin monoclonal antibody covalently attached to the maytansinoid DM4, a derivative of the cytotoxic agent maytansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Integrin-targeted immunoconjugate IMGN388 binds to tumor cell surface integrins; upon internalization, the DM4 moiety is released from the immunoconjugate, binding to tubulin and disrupting microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, which may result in inhibition of cell division and cel... |
| Anti-interleukin-1 Beta Monoclonal Antibody AK114 | A monoclonal antibody targeting the human proinflammatory cytokine interleukin-1 beta (IL-1b), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-IL-1b monoclonal antibody AK114 targets and binds to IL-1b and prevents the binding of IL-1b to the IL-1 receptor. This inhibits IL-1b-mediated signaling pathways, and suppresses inflammatory responses, tumorigenesis and angiogenesis mediated by IL-1b. IL-1b plays a key role in inflammation, w... |
| Anti-interleukin-1 Beta Monoclonal Antibody FL-101 | A monoclonal antibody targeting the human proinflammatory cytokine interleukin-1 beta (IL-1b), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-IL-1b monoclonal antibody FL-101 targets and binds to IL-1b and prevents the binding of IL-1b to the IL-1 receptor. This inhibits IL-1b-mediated signaling pathways, and suppresses inflammatory responses, tumorigenesis and angiogenesis mediated by IL-1b. IL-1b plays a key role in inflammation, ... |
| Anti-interleukin-13 Receptor Alpha 2 CAR T Cells YYB-103 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptors (CAR) specific for interleukin-13 receptor alpha 2 (IL13Ra2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-IL13Ra2 CAR T cells YYB-103 target and bind to IL13Ra2 expressed on the surface of tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing IL13Ra2. IL13Ra2, a cancer-associated receptor, is overexpressed by a variety of tumor cell typ... |
| Anti-KIR Monoclonal Antibody IPH 2101 | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the human inhibitory killer IgG-like receptor (KIR) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Anti-KIR monoclonal antibody IPH 2101 binds to the KIR receptor expressed on human natural killer (NK) cells, which may prevent KIR-mediated inhibition of NK cells and permit NK cell-mediated anti-tumor cytotoxicity. KIRs are surface glycoproteins that bind to major histocompatibility complex (MHC)/human leukocyte antigen (HLA) class ... |
| Anti-KIR3DL3 Monoclonal Antibody NPX267 | A monoclonal antibody directed against human killer cell immunoglobulin-like receptor 3DL3 (killer cell immunoglobulin like receptor, three Ig domains and long cytoplasmic tail 3; KIR3DL3), an inhibitory receptor for human endogenous retrovirus-H long terminal repeat-associating protein 2 (HHLA2; B7 homolog 7; B7-H7), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-KIR3DL3 monoclonal antibody NPX267 binds to KIR3DL3 expressed on T- and natu... |
| Anti-KLK2 CAR-T Cells JNJ-75229414 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting human kallikrein-2 (hK2; KLK2) expressed on tumor cells, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-KLK2 CAR-T cells JNJ-75229414 target and bind to KLK2-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in KLK2-expressing tumor cells. KLK2 is overexpressed in certain tumors, including prostate adenocarcinoma. |
| Anti-K-RAS G12D mTCR-transduced Autologous Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes | Autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding for an HLA class I histocompatibility antigen A*11:01 (HLA-A1101)-restricted murine T-cell receptor (mTCR) that recognizes the glycine (Gly, G) to aspartic acid (Asp, D) point mutation at position 12 (G12D) variant of K-RAS (KRAS), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. HLA-A1101-positive PBLs are harvested from a K-RAS G12D-expressing cancer patient and transfected with a retro... |
| Anti-K-RAS G12V mTCR-transduced Autologous Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes | Autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with an HLA class I histocompatibility antigen A*11:01 (HLA-A1101)-restricted murine T-cell receptor (mTCR) that recognizes the glycine to valine point mutation at position 12 (G12V) variant of K-RAS, with potential antineoplastic activity. HLA-A1101 positive PBLs are harvested from a K-RAS G12V-expressing cancer patient and transfected with a retroviral vector that encodes anti-K-RAS G12V mTCR. The transduced PBLs are then expanded in... |
| Anti-KSP/Anti-VEGF siRNAs ALN-VSP02 | A lipid nanoparticle formulation containing two small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) for kinesin spindle protein (KSP) and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) with potential antitumor activity. Upon intravenous administration, the siRNAs in KSP/VEGF siRNAs ALN-VSP02ALN bind to both KSP and VEGF messenger RNAs (mRNAs), preventing translation of KSP and VEGF proteins; this may result in growth inhibition of tumor cells that overexpress KSP and VEGF. VEGF and KSP are upregulated in many tumor c... |
| Anti-LAG-3 Monoclonal Antibody HLX26 | A recombinant monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory receptor lymphocyte-activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LAG-3 monoclonal antibody HLX26 targets and binds to LAG-3 expressed by tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks the interaction between LAG-3 and major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC II) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) ... |
| Anti-LAG-3 Monoclonal Antibody Sym022 | A recombinant, human Fc-inert monoclonal antibody targeting lymphocyte-activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, monoclonal antibody Sym022 binds to human LAG-3 and blocks the interaction between LAG-3 and major histocompatibility complex class II (MHCII) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and tumor cells. This prevents the negative regulation of T-cell activity ... |
| Anti-LAG-3 Monoclonal Antibody TQB2223 | A recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory receptor lymphocyte-activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LAG-3 monoclonal antibody TQB2223 targets and binds to LAG-3 expressed by tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks the interaction between LAG-3 and major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC II) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting c... |
| Anti-LAG-3/Anti-PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody IBI323 | A recombinant, bispecific antibody directed against two immune checkpoint proteins, the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LAG-3/anti-PD-L1 bispecific antibody IBI323 simultaneously targets and binds to LAG-3 expressed on T-cells in the tumor mic... |
| Anti-LAG-3/PD-1 Bispecific Antibody INCA32459 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc-silenced bispecific antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PD1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death 1) and lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LAG-3/PD-1 bispecific antibody INCA32459 targets and binds to both PD-1 and LAG-3 expressed on T-cells and inhibits ... |
| Anti-LAG-3/PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody FS118 | A bispecific antibody directed against two immune checkpoint proteins, the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG3; LAG-3) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. FS118 is generated by incorporating an anti-LAG-3 Fc-region with antigen binding (Fcab) into a PD-L1-specific antibody. Upon administration, FS118 simultaneously ... |
| Anti-LAG-3/TIGIT Bispecific Antibody ZGGS15 | A bispecific antibody targeting the co-inhibitory receptor lymphocyte-activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223) and the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LAG-3/TIGIT bispecific antibody ZGGS15 targets, binds to and blocks LAG-3 expressed by tumor i... |
| Anti-LAIR1 Monoclonal Antibody NC525 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody directed against leukocyte-associated immunoglobulin-like receptor 1 (LAIR1; LAIR-1; CD305), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-LAIR1 monoclonal antibody NC525 targets, binds to and inhibits LAIR1-mediated downstream survival signaling. In addition, NC525 induces Fc-mediated antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and antibody-dependent cellular phagocytosis (ADCP). This inhibits survival of... |
| Anti-LAIR1 Monoclonal Antibody NGM438 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the collagen-binding immune inhibitory receptor leukocyte-associated immunoglobulin-like receptor 1 (LAIR1; LAIR-1; CD305), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LAIR1 monoclonal antibody NGM438 targets, binds to and blocks LAIR1, thereby preventing its interaction with tumor-associated and stromal-derived collagens and the formation of the stromal checkpoint LAIR1-collagen complex. This may ... |
| Anti-LAMP1 Antibody-drug Conjugate SAR428926 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody against lysosome-associated membrane protein 1 (LAMP1) conjugated, via the disulfide-containing cleavable linker N-succinimidyl-4-(2-pyridyldithio)butyrate (SPDB), to the cytotoxic maytansinoid DM4, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-LAMP1 ADC SAR428926, the anti-LAMP1 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to the cell surface antigen LAMP1. After antibody-antigen interaction and intern... |
| Anti-latent TGFb1 Monoclonal Antibody RO7496353 | A monoclonal antibody directed against latent human transforming growth factor (TGF)-beta 1 (TGFb1; TGF-b1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-latent TGFb1 monoclonal antibody RO7496353 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activation of latent TGFb1 complexes, thereby preventing TGFb1-mediated signaling. This abrogates TGFb1-mediated immunosuppression, enhances anti-tumor immunity in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and promotes a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-me... |
| Anti-Lewis B/Lewis Y Monoclonal Antibody GNX102 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human tumor-associated carbohydrate antigens (TACAs) Lewis B (LeB) and Lewis Y (LeY), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-LeB/LeY monoclonal antibody GNX102 binds to branched LeB and LeY glycans, which may induce an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) response against LeB- and LeY-expressing tumor cells. LeB and LeY antigens, tetrasaccharides with low to moderate expression in monomeric form in normal a... |
| Anti-LGR5 Monoclonal Antibody BNC101 | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting leucine-rich repeat-containing G-protein coupled receptor 5 (LGR5), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the anti-LGR5 humanized monoclonal antibody BNC101 targets and binds to LGR5, thereby inhibiting LRG5-mediated signal transduction pathways. This prevents proliferation of LRG5-expressing tumor cells. LGR5, a member of the Wnt signaling pathway, is a cancer stem cell (CSC) receptor overexpressed on certain cancer cells; it p... |
| Anti-LILRB Monoclonal Antibody ADA-011 | A monoclonal antibody targeting the leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptors B (LILRB) immune checkpoint receptor family, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LILRB monoclonal antibody ADA-011 targets, binds to and inhibits LILRB family members and their downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function and anti-tumor immune responses. The LILRB receptor family is a family of inhibitory immune check... |
| Anti-LILRB2 Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986406 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory immune checkpoint receptor immunoglobulin-like transcript 4 (LILRB2; ILT4; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily B member 2; lymphocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 2; LIR2; monocyte/macrophage immunoglobulin-like receptor 10; MIR-10; CD85d), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LILRB2 monoclonal antibody BMS-986406 targets and binds to LILRB2. This prevents the binding of LILR... |
| Anti-LILRB2 Monoclonal Antibody IO-108 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory immune checkpoint receptor immunoglobulin-like transcript 4 (LILRB2; ILT4; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily B member 2; lymphocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 2; LIR2; monocyte/macrophage immunoglobulin-like receptor 10; MIR-10; CD85d), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti- LILRB2 monoclonal antibody IO-108 targets and binds to LILRB2. This prevents the binding of LILRB2 ... |
| Anti-LILRB2 Monoclonal Antibody OR502 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory immune checkpoint receptor immunoglobulin-like transcript 4 (LILRB2; ILT4; leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily B member 2; lymphocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 2; LIR2; monocyte/macrophage immunoglobulin-like receptor 10; MIR-10; CD85d), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LILRB2 monoclonal antibody OR502 targets and binds to LILRB2. Thi... |
| Anti-LILRB4 Monoclonal Antibody BND-35 | A humanized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the myeloid-enriched immune inhibitory receptor leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor B member 4 (LILRB4; ILT3; ILT-3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LILRB4 monoclonal antibody BND-35 targets, binds to and blocks LILRB4, thereby preventing the interaction with its ligands, such as fibronectin, in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This prevents the a... |
| Anti-LILRB4 Monoclonal Antibody IO-202 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the immune inhibitory receptor leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor B4 (LILRB4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LILRB4 monoclonal antibody IO-202 targets, binds to and inhibits LILRB4 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells, and inhibit tumor infiltration. LILRB4... |
| Anti-LILRB4 Monoclonal Antibody MK-0482 | A humanized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the myeloid-enriched immune inhibitory receptor leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor B member 4 (LILRB4; ILT3; ILT-3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LILRB4 monoclonal antibody MK-0482 targets, binds to and blocks LILRB4, thereby preventing the interaction with its ligands, such as fibronectin, in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This prevents the ... |
| Anti-LILRB4 Monoclonal Antibody NGM831 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the myeloid-enriched immune inhibitory receptor leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor B member 4 (LILRB4; ILT3; ILT-3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LILRB4 monoclonal antibody NGM831 targets, binds to and blocks LILRB4, thereby preventing the interaction with its ligands, such as fibronectin, in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This prevents the activation of LILRB4-mediated downst... |
| Anti-LILRB4/MMAE ADC SG2918 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily B member 4 (LILRB4; ILT3; ILT-3) conjugated to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-LILRB4/MMAE ADC SG2918, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to LILRB4. After internalization of the agent, the MMAE moiety is released, ... |
| Anti-LIV-1 Antibody-drug Conjugate BRY812 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against solute carrier family 39 zinc transporter member 6 (SLC39A6; LIV-1; ZIP6) that is conjugated, via a linker, to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration and binding to LIV-1-positive tumor cells, BRY812 enters the tumor cell lysosome through endocytosis, and releases MMAE. MMAE binds to and inhibits tubulin polymerization, which ma... |
| Anti-LLT1 Monoclonal Antibody ZM008 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) lectin-like transcript-1 (LLT1; CLEC2D; OCIL), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LLT1 monoclonal antibody ZM008 targets and binds to LLT1 expressed on a variety of tumor cells. This prevents the binding of LLT1 to its receptor C-type lectin-like receptor cluster of differentiation 161 (CD161) primarily expressed on CD161-positive natur... |
| Anti-Ly6E Antibody-Drug Conjugate RG 7841 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) lymphocyte antigen 6 complex locus E (Ly6E) and linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the antibody moiety of RG 7841 targets and binds to Ly6E expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills, through an as of yet unknown mechanism of action, the Ly6E-expre... |
| Anti-MAGE-A4 T-cell Receptor/Anti-CD3 scFv Fusion Protein IMC-C103C | A T-cell re-directing bi-specific biologic composed of a modified form of human T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human melanoma-associated antigen A4 (MAGE-A4) and fused to an anti-CD3 single-chain variable fragment (scFv), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of IMC-C103C, the TCR moiety of this agent targets and binds to MAGE-A4 on tumor cells and the anti-CD3 scFv moiety binds to CD3- expressing T-lymphocytes. This sel... |
| Anti-MART-1 TCR Retroviral Vector-Transduced Autologous TIL | Human tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TIL) isolated from a melanoma patient and were engineered to react with the melanoma antigen MART-1 (Melanoma Antigen Recognized by T cells, also called Melan-A). These TILs are transfected with a retroviral vector encoding anti-MART-1 specific T-cell receptors, grown in culture, and then transferred back to the patient. These genetically modified TIL may recognize and halt the growth of MART-1-expressing melanoma cells. |
| Anti-Melanin Monoclonal Antibody PTI-6D2 | A monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against extracellular melanin with tumor targeting activity. Anti-melanin monoclonal antibody PTI-6D2 binds to extracellular melanin, a melanocyte pigment which is released during tumor cell turnover from dead melanoma tumor cells, while avoiding the binding of melanin in normal, healthy tissue because of melanin's normal intracellular location. Upon labeling with the beta-emitting radioisotope rhenium Re 188 (PTI-188), this MoAb may target multiple melanoma (MM) ... |
| Anti-mesothelin Antibody-drug Conjugate BMS-986148 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin and conjugated, via a valine-citrulline linker, to the cytotoxic agent tubulysin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-mesothelin ADC BMS-986148, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to mesothelin. Upon internalization, the tubulysin moiety inhibits the polymeriz... |
| Anti-mesothelin Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-MesoC2 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN) and conjugated, via a tumor-specific cleavable linker, to a topoisomerase-1 inhibitor (TOP1i), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-MSLN ADC SGN-MesoC2, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to MSLN-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, the TOP1... |
| Anti-mesothelin CAR T-cells UCMYM802 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-MSLN CAR T-cells UCMYM802 specifically target and kill MSLN-expressing tumor cells. MSLN, a cell surface glycoprotein involved in cell adhesion, is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types. |
| Anti-mesothelin CAR Vector-transduced Autologous T-lymphocytes | Genetically modified, autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin single chain variable fragment (scFv), the intracellular CD3 zeta T-cell receptor domain and the 4-1BB (cd137) costimulatory domain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, expansion in culture, and reintroduction into the patient, the anti-mesoth... |
| Anti-mesothelin CAR Vector-transduced T-lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-MSLN CAR vector-transduced T-lymphocytes specifically target and kill MSLN-expressing tumor cells. MSLN, a cell surface glycoprotein involved in cell adhesion, is overexpressed in a variety of cancer ... |
| Anti-mesothelin CAR-CD40L-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN), and CD40 ligand (CD40L; CD154; TRAP; TNFSF5), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-MSLN CAR-CD40L-expressing T-lymphocytes specifically target and kill MSLN-expressing tumor cells. Mesothelin, a cell surface glycoprotein involved in cell adhesion, is overexpre... |
| Anti-mesothelin CIR mRNA-electroporated Autologous T Cells | Autologous chimeric immune receptor (CIR) T cells transfected with anti-mesothelin chimeric T cell receptor mRNA, with potential antineoplastic activity. The anti-mesothelin mRNA encodes a single chain antibody variable fragment (ScFv), the intracellular CD 3 zeta T cell receptor domain and the 4-1BB (cd137) costimulatory domain. Upon intravenous administration, the anti-mesothelin CIR mRNA-electroporated autologous T cells may attach to cancer cells expressing mesothelin. This may stimulate ... |
| Anti-mesothelin iCasp9M28z CAR-transduced Autologous T Lymphocytes | Genetically modified, autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for mesothelin linked to the signaling domains for the co-stimulatory molecules CD28 and CD3 zeta, as well as the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9 or iC9), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-mesothelin iCasp9M28z CAR-transduced autologous T lymphocytes specifically target and kill mesoth... |
| Anti-mesothelin T-cell Engaging Bispecific Antibody JNJ-79032421 | A bispecific T-cell engager (TCE) and bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-mesothelin T-cell engaging bispecific antibody JNJ-79032421 targets and binds to MSLN expressed on tumor cells and to CD3 expressed on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This activates and redirects CTLs to MSLN-expressing tumor cells, which... |
| Anti-mesothelin/MMAE Antibody-Drug Conjugate DMOT4039A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of MMOT0530A, a humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein mesothelin (MSLN), and covalently linked, via a protease-cleavable peptide linker, to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of DMOT4039A binds to MSLN-expressing tumor cells and is inte... |
| Anti-mesothelin-Pseudomonas Exotoxin 24 Cytolytic Fusion Protein LMB-100 | An anti-mesothelin (MSLN) recombinant cytolytic fusion protein (cFP) composed of a humanized Fab fragment of anti-MSLN monoclonal antibody SS1 linked to a truncated and de-immunized 24 kDa fragment of the Pseudomonas exotoxin (PE) (PE24), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of anti-MSLN-PE24 cFP LMB-100, the anti-MSLN moiety targets and binds to MSLN-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization through endocytosis, the toxin moiety ADP-ribosylat... |
| Anti-Met Monoclonal Antibody Mixture Sym015 | A mixture of two humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibodies, Hu9006 and Hu9338, which recognize non-overlapping epitopes in the extracellular domain of the human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (MET; HGFR; c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-MET monoclonal antibody mixture Sym015 targets and binds to the extracellular domain of MET, thereby preventing the binding of its ligand, hepatocyte growth factor (HGF). This may prevent activation of... |
| Anti-MET x MET Antibody Drug Conjugate REGN5093-M114 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of REGN5093, a biparatopic monoclonal antibody that targets two different epitopes of the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) MET (c-MET; hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), and conjugated, via a protease cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic maytansine derivative M24, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-MET x MET ADC REGN5093-M114, the REGN5093 moiety targets and binds to two different, non-overlapping epitopes o... |
| Anti-Met/EGFR Monoclonal Antibody LY3164530 | A monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR or c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-Met/EGFR MoAb LY3164530 targets and prevents the activation of EGFR and c-Met. This leads to a downstream inhibition of EGFR/c-Met-mediated signal transduction pathways, and prevents cellular proliferation in tumor cells overexpressing EGFR and c-Met. EGFR, a member of the epidermal gro... |
| Antimetabolite FF-10502 | An antimetabolite with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, FF-10502 is able to enter the nucleus where it inhibits DNA polymerases, thereby preventing DNA synthesis and halting tumor cell proliferation. |
| Anti-MICA/MICB Monoclonal Antibody CLN-619 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D or KLRK1) ligands MHC class I polypeptide-related sequence A (MICA) and B (MICB), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-MICA/MICB monoclonal antibody CLN-619 targets and binds to the alpha3 domain of MICA and MICB, and prevents the cleavage of MICA and MICB from the cell surface of tumor cells by proteases in the... |
| Anti-MICA/MICB Monoclonal Antibody DM919 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D or KLRK1) ligands MHC class I polypeptide-related sequence A (MICA) and B (MICB), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-MICA/MICB monoclonal antibody DM919 targets and binds to both MICA and MICB, and prevents the cleavage of MICA and MICB from the cell surface of tumor cells by proteases in the tumor microen... |
| Anti-minor Histocompatibility Complex Donor T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of allogeneic, donor-derived T-lymphocytes that are specific for a unique set of minor histocompatibility complex antigens (MiHA) exclusively found on the surface of malignant cells, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. T-lymphocytes are derived from an allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplant (AHCT) donor. Ex vivo, these T-cells are exposed to and primed against a select set of host-specific hematopoietic tissue-restricted MiHAs that are expressed on l... |
| Anti-MSLN CAR-T Cells LCAR-M23 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-MSLN CAR-T cells LCAR-M23 specifically target and kill MSLN-expressing tumor cells. Mesothelin, a cell surface glycoprotein involved in cell adhesion, is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types. |
| Anti-MSLN/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody ZW171 | A bispecific T-cell engager (TCE) and bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-MSLN/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody ZW171 bivalently binds to MSLN expressed on tumor cells and monovalently binds to CD3 expressed on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This activates and redirects CTLs to MSLN-expressing tumor cells, which r... |
| Anti-MUC1 CAR-transduced Autologous T-lymphocytes | Autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) against the human tumor-associated epithelial antigen mucin 1 (MUC1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Autologous PBLs from a patient with MUC1-positive cancer are transduced with a retroviral vector that encodes the CAR gene specific for MUC1. After expansion in culture and reintroduction into the patient... |
| Anti-MUC1 Monoclonal Antibody BTH1704 | A monoclonal antibody against the tumor associated antigen (TAA) mucin-1 (MUC1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-MUC1 monoclonal antibody BTH1704 targets and binds to MUC1 expressed on the surface of tumor cells, which can potentially activate the immune system to induce an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) against MUC1-expressing tumor cells. MUC1, a glycoprotein overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells, plays a key role in tum... |
| Anti-MUC1/EGFR Bispecific Antibody Drug Conjugate M1231 | An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a bispecific antibody directed against the tumor associated antigens (TAAs) mucin-1 (MUC1) and human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), conjugated, via a cleavable valine-citruline-based linker, to the hemiasterlin-related toxic warhead, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the antibody moiety of anti-MUC1/EGFR bispecific ADC M1231 targets and binds to MUC1 and EGFR expressed on certain tumor cells. Upon bi... |
| Anti-MUC16 CAR T-cells 27T51 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human mucin-16 (MUC16, cancer antigen 125; CA125; FLJ14303), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-MUC16 CAR T-cells 27T51 recognize and bind to MUC16-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in MUC16-expressing tumor cells. MUC16, a member of the mucin family of glyco... |
| Anti-MUC16/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody LBL-033 | A bispecific monoclonal antibody containing one arm targeting human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen that is part of the T-cell receptor (TCR) complex, and two arms targeting the membrane-proximal domain of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human mucin 16 (MUC16, cancer antigen 125; CA125; FLJ14303), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-MUC16/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody LBL-033 binds to both T-cells and MUC16-expressing tumor cells, which cross-links the T-cells to... |
| Anti-MUC16/CD28 Bispecific Antibody REGN5668 | A bispecific monoclonal antibody against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human mucin 16 (MUC16, cancer antigen 125; CA125; FLJ14303) and the co-stimulatory T-cell-specific surface glycoprotein CD28, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon administration, anti-MUC16/CD28 bispecific antibody REGN5668 binds to both CD28 on T-cells and MUC16-expressing tumor cells, which cross-links the T-cells to the tumor cells. This may result in a potent cytotoxic T-lympho... |
| Anti-MUC16/MMAE Antibody-Drug Conjugate DMUC4064A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against human mucin 16 (MUC16; cancer antigen 125; CA125; FLJ14303) conjugated to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-MUC16/MMAE ADC DMUC4064A binds to MUC16 located on the tumor cell surface. After internalization of the agent, the MMAE moiety is released and binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymer... |
| Anti-mucin-1/CD16A Bispecific Antibody BGB-B3227 | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) humanized bispecific antibody directed against the tumor associated antigen (TAA) mucin-1 (MUC1) and the human low affinity IgG Fc region receptor IIIA (FCGR3A; CD16A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-MUC1/CD16A bispecific antibody BGB-B3227 targets and binds to CD16A expressed on natural killer (NK) cells and MUC1 expressed on the surface of tumor cells, thereby selectively cross-linking tumor and NK cells. ... |
| Anti-mucin-1/PE Immunoconjugate BM7PE | An immunoconjugate containing BM7, a murine monoclonal antibody directed against the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mucin-1 (MUC1; MUC-1) covalently linked to the bacterial toxin Pseudomonas exotoxin A (PE), with potential antitumor activity. Upon administration of BM7PE, the antibody moiety targets and binds to MUC1. In turn, the PE moiety inhibits protein synthesis via modifying translation elongation factor 2 (EF-2), thereby causing apoptosis and inhibiting tumor cell growth and prol... |
| Anti-mutant Calreticulin Monoclonal Antibody INCA033989 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the mutated form of calreticulin (mutCALR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-mutCALR monoclonal antibody INCA033989 selectively targets and binds to mutCALR expressed on CALR mutated CD34-positive hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) while not binding to normal wild-type (WT) CALR on healthy CD34-positive HSCs. This prevents the formation of a mutCALR complex with the thrombopoietin receptor (TPO-R) in ... |
| Anti-NaPi2b Antibody-drug Conjugate XMT-1592 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of XMT-1535, a humanized monoclonal antibody against human sodium-dependent phosphate transport protein 2B (SLC34A2; NaPi2b), that is site-specifically bioconjugated to the cytotoxic aurastatin derivative auristatin F-HPA (AF-HPA; auristatin F-hydroxypropylamide), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-NaPi2b ADC XMT-1592, the antibody moiety targets and binds to NaPi2b expressed on tumor cells. Following internalization o... |
| Anti-NaPi2b/Exatecan Antibody-drug Conjugate TUB-040 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a Fc-silenced, humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against human sodium-dependent phosphate transport protein 2B (SLC34A2; NaPi2b), conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the camptothecin analog and topoisomerase 1 inhibitor exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-NaPi2b/exatecan ADC TUB-040, the antibody moiety targets and binds to NaPi2b expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, cell... |
| Anti-nectin-4 Antibody-drug Conjugate ADRX-0706 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface adhesion molecule and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) nectin-4 (PVRL4) that is conjugated to the tubulin inhibitor and cytotoxic agent AP052, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-nectin-4 ADC ADRX-0706, the anti-nectin-4 antibody targets and binds to nectin-4 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, AP052 targets and binds to tubulin, and in... |
| Anti-nectin-4 Antibody-drug Conjugate LY4052031 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface adhesion molecule and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) nectin-4 (PVRL4) conjugated, via a cleavable peptide linker, to the camptothecin analog and topoisomerase 1 inhibitor LSN3889710, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-nectin-4 ADC LY4052031, the anti-nectin-4 antibody moiety targets and binds to nectin-4 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, interna... |
| Anti-nectin-4 Antibody-drug Conjugate LY4101174 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fcg-silent monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface adhesion molecule and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) nectin-4 (PVRL4) conjugated, via maleimide-beta-glucuronide poly-sarcosine linkers, to the camptothecin analog and topoisomerase 1 inhibitor exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-nectin-4 ADC LY4101174, the anti-nectin-4 antibody targets and binds to ne... |
| Anti-nectin-4 Antibody-drug Conjugate SHR-A2102 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) nectin-4 (PVRL4) conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to a topoisomerase-1 inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of anti-nectin-4 ADC SHR-A2102 targets and binds to nectin-4 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, topoisomerase-1 inhibitor... |
| Anti-nectin-4/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate CRB-701 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface adhesion molecule and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) nectin-4 (PVRL4), site-specifically conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-nectin-4/MMAE ADC CRB-701, the anti-nectin-4 antibody moiety targets and binds to nectin-4 expressed on tumor cells. Upon ... |
| Antineoplastic Biological Agent | Any agent that has a biological nature, such as agents containing living organisms, derived from living organisms, or comprised of ex vivo synthesized analogs of substances derived from living organisms, and that exerts antineoplastic activity. |
| Antineoplastic Hormonal/Endocrine Agent | Any agent that affects hormone levels and exerts antineoplastic effects. Antineoplastic hormonal/endocrine agents treat either hormone-dependent or hormone-sensitive cancers by modulating hormone levels and manipulating the endocrine system. |
| Antineoplastic Immunomodulating Agent | Any agent that is capable of modulating the immune system in order to exert antineoplastic effects. Antineoplastic immunomodulating agents either activate the immune system, restore certain immune system activators or abrogate immunosuppression. |
| Antineoplastic Radiopharmaceutical Agent | Any radiopharmaceutical agent that targets cancer cells and exerts an antineoplastic effect through radiotoxicity. |
| Antineoplastic Vaccine GV-1301 | Antineoplastic vaccine being developed against liver cancer. (NCI) |
| Antineoplaston A10 | A piperidinedione antineoplaston with potential antineoplastic activity.  Antineoplaston A10 was originally isolated from human urine but is now synthetically derived.  This agent intercalates into DNA, resulting in cell cycle arrest in G1 phase, reduction of mitosis, and decreased protein synthesis.  Antineoplaston A10 may also inhibit ras-oncogene expression and activate tumor suppressor gene p53, leading to cell differentiation and apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| Antineoplaston AS2-1 | A 4:1 mixture of phenylacetate and phenylacetylgluatmine, degradation products of the antineoplaston agent A10.  Antineoplaston AS2-1 inhibits the incorporation of L-glutamine into tumor-cell proteins, leading to cell cycle arrest in the G1 phase and inhibition of mitosis.  This agent may also inhibit RAS oncogene expression and activate tumor suppressor gene p53, resulting in cell differentiation and apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| Anti-netrin-1 Monoclonal Antibody NP137 | A recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the laminin-related protein netrin-1 (NTN1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-NTN1 monoclonal antibody NP137 targets, binds to and neutralizes NTN1, thereby preventing its binding to and activation of NTN1 receptors.  By blocking NTN1, NP137 is able to restore apoptosis in tumor cells. This inhibits tumor growth and metastasis. NTN1, overexpressed by a variety of cancers, pla... |
| Anti-nf-P2X7 Antibody Ointment BIL-010t | An ointment formulation composed of a purified sheep immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibody against the non-functional form of the purinergic P2X7 receptor (nf-P2X7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon topical application of the anti-nf-P2X7 antibody ointment BIL-010t, the antibody binds to nf-P2X7 and inhibits its antiapoptotic activity. This may induce apoptosis and inhibit the growth of nf-P2X7-overexpressing cancer cells. P2X7, an ATP-gated cation-selective channel, plays a role in the... |
| Anti-NKG2A Monoclonal Antibody BRY805 | A humanized monoclonal antibody against the human natural killer (NK) and T-lymphocyte cell checkpoint inhibitor killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily C member 1 (NKG2A; natural killer group 2 A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-NKG2A monoclonal antibody BRY805 targets and binds to NKG2A, thereby preventing the binding of NKG2A to its ligand human leukocyte antigen-E (HLA-E), which is overexpressed on tumor cells. This blocks the HLA-E-mediated inhibitio... |
| Anti-NKG2A Monoclonal Antibody Sym025 | A monoclonal antibody against the human natural killer (NK) and T-lymphocyte cell checkpoint inhibitor killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily C member 1 (NKG2A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-NKG2A monoclonal antibody Sym025 targets and binds to NKG2A, and prevents the binding of NKG2A to its ligand human leukocyte antigen-E (HLA-E), which is overexpressed on tumor cells. This blocks the HLA-E-mediated inhibition of NKG2A-positive infiltrating NK and cy... |
| Anti-NRP1 Antibody ASP1948 | A human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against neuropilin-1 (NRP1; CD304; BDCA-4), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-NRP1 antibody ASP1948 specifically targets and binds to NRP1. This prevents the binding of NRP1 to its ligand and may block the immune inhibitory actions of regulatory T-cells (Tregs) mediated by the interaction of NRP1 with its ligand. This may enhance the immune response against tumor cells. NRP1 is... |
| Anti-Nucleolin Aptamer AS1411 | A 26-base guanine-rich oligodeoxynucleotide aptamer with potential apoptotic induction activity. Upon administration, anti-nucleolin aptamer AS1411 targets and binds to nucleolin, a nucleolar phosphoprotein which is overexpressed on the surface of certain cancer cells. Via binding to cell surface nucleolin, AS1411 is internalized and may prevent nucleolin from binding to and stabilizing mRNA of the anti-apoptotic BCL2, thereby destabilizing BCL2 mRNA, leading to a reduction in BCL2 protein sy... |
| Anti-NY-ESO-1 Immunotherapeutic GSK-2241658A | An immunotherapeutic agent targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA), cancer/testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential antineoplastic activity. |
| Anti-NY-ESO1 TCR-transduced Autologous CD62L+-derived T-Lymphocytes | Human autologous CD62L-positive T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T cell receptor (TCR) specific for the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Following leukapheresis, isolation of lymphocytes, expansion ex vivo, transduction, and reintroduction into the patient, the anti-NY-ESO1 TCR-transduced autologous CD62L+-derived T-Lymphocytes bind to NY-ESO-1-overexpressing tumor cells. This may result in cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediate... |
| Anti-NY-ESO1/LAGE-1A TCR/scFv Anti-CD3 IMCnyeso | A bispecific molecule composed of a soluble, affinity-enhanced T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for human leukocyte antigen A2 (HLA-A2)-restricted cancer-testis antigens (CTAs) NY-ESO-1 and L antigen family member 1 isoform A (LAGE-1A; LAGE-A1; CT6.2a), fused to a single-chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion, anti-NY-ESO1/LAGE-1A TCR/scFv anti-CD3 IMCnyeso specifically targets and ... |
| Anti-OFA Immunotherapeutic BB-MPI-03 | A cancer vaccine composed of 3 different cytotoxic T-cell epitopes derived from the tumor-associated antigen oncofetal antigen (OFA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration, anti-OFA immunotherapeutic vaccine BB-MPI-03 activates the immune system to elicit a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing OFA. OFA, also called immature laminin receptor protein (iLRP), is expressed in fetal tissues and is ov... |
| Anti-OX40 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody BAT6026 | An agonistic recombinant monoclonal antibody that recognizes the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory activity. Upon administration, anti-OX40 agonist monoclonal antibody BAT6026 selectively targets, binds to and activates OX40. This may induce the proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes and inhibit the function of T-regulatory cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This enha... |
| Anti-OX40 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody GEN1055 | An agonistic, hexabody-based monoclonal antibody that recognizes the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-OX40 agonist monoclonal antibody GEN1055 selectively targets and binds to OX40, thereby forming a hexamer and inducing OX40 clustering. This activates OX40 and induces the proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes and inhibits th... |
| Anti-OX40 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody YH-002 | An agonistic recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody that recognizes the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory activity. Upon administration, anti-OX40 agonist monoclonal antibody YH-002 selectively targets, binds to and activates OX40. This may induce the proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes and inhibit the function of T-regulatory cells (Tregs) in the tumor... |
| Anti-OX40 Antibody BMS 986178 | An agonistic monoclonal antibody against the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory activity. Upon administration, anti-OX40 monoclonal antibody BMS 986178 selectively binds to and activates the OX40 receptor, by mimicking the action of the endogenous OX40 ligand (OX40L). OX40 receptor activation induces proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes. In the presence of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), this may promote an immune response against t... |
| Anti-OX40 Hexavalent Agonist Antibody INBRX-106 | An agonistic, recombinant, humanized, hexavalent immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibody targeting the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-OX40 hexavalent agonist antibody INBRX-106 selectively binds to six OX40 receptors per molecule, thereby clustering and activating OX40. This induces the proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes and res... |
| Anti-OX40 Monoclonal Antibody | An agonistic monoclonal antibody against receptor OX40 (CD134), with potential immunostimulatory activity. Mimicking the natural OX4 ligand (OX40L), anti-OX40 monoclonal antibody selectively binds to and activates the OX40 receptor. Receptor activation induces proliferation of memory and effector T lymphocytes. In the presence of tumor associated antigens (TAAs), this may promote an immune response against the TAA-expressing tumor cells. OX40, a cell surface glycoprotein and member of the tum... |
| Anti-OX40 Monoclonal Antibody GSK3174998 | An agonistic humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against the cell surface receptor OX40 (CD134; TNFRSF4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-OX40 monoclonal antibody GSK3174998 selectively binds to and activates OX40. Receptor activation induces proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes and results in a T-cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells, which leads to tumor cell lysis. OX40, a cell... |
| Anti-OX40/CD137 Bispecific Antibody FS120 | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) dual-agonist, tetravalent, bispecific monoclonal antibody targeting the two human tumor necrosis factor receptor (TNFR) co-stimulatory receptors OX40 (CD134; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4) and CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-OX40/CD137 bispecific antibody FS120 simultaneously targets, binds to, and act... |
| Anti-p53 T-Cell Receptor-Transduced Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes | Human autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with an anti-p53 T cell receptor gene with potential antineoplastic activity. PBLs are harvested from a patient and pulsed with a retroviral vector that encodes the T-cell receptor gene specific for a mutated form of p53. The transduced PBLs are then expanded in culture. When reintroduced to the patient, these modified PBLs express the anti-p53 T cell receptor which binds to mutant p53-overexpressing tumor cells; PBL-mediated tum... |
| Anti-PD-1 Antibody AI-025/Anti-CTLA-4 Antibody ONC-392 Combination Formulation AI-061 | A 1:1 fixed dose combination formulation composed of the two monoclonal antibodies AI-025, a monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), and gotistobart, a pH-sensitive immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4; CD152), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic acti... |
| Anti-PD-1 Antibody-IL-15/IL-15Ra Fusion Protein IAP0971 | A heterodimeric and bifunctional fusion protein composed of four chains: two heavy chains targeting the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), one of which is fused to the cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15) while the other one is fused to IL-15 receptor alpha (IL15Ralpha; IL15Ra) sushi domain, which fuses the IL-15/IL-15Ra sushi domain complex, and two anti-PD1 antibody light chains, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunom... |
| Anti-PD-1 Fusion Protein AMP-224 | A recombinant B7-DC Fc-fusion protein composed of the extracellular domain of the PD-1 ligand programmed cell death ligand 2 (PD-L2, B7-DC) and the Fc region of human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Anti-PD-1 fusion protein AMP-224 specifically binds to PD-1 on chronically stimulated T-cells and reduces their proliferation. This may restore immune function and may result in the activation of cytotoxic T-cells and cell-mediated... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody 609A | A recombinant immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) kappa monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody 609A targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses a... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody BAT1306 | A recombinant, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody BAT1306 targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cell... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody BAT1308 | A humanized  immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody BAT1308 targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses again... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody GNR-051 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody GNR-051 targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembran... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody MEDI0680 | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody MEDI0680 binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a tra... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody MW11 | A recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody MW11 targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. P... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody OSE-279 | A human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody OSE-279 targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tu... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody PE0105 | A recombinant monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PD1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody PE0105 binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a trans... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody QL1604 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody QL1604 targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a tra... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody SHR-1901 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody SHR-1901 targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembra... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody Sym021 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1 , PCD-1; PDCD1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody Sym021 binds to and inhibits PD-1 activation and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a tr... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody SYN125 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody SYN125 targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune functions through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembran... |
| Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody TY101 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody TY101 targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a tran... |
| Anti-PD-1 siRNA PH-762 | A self-delivering small-interfering RNA (siRNA) targeting the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, anti-PD-1 siRNA PH-762 binds to and destroys mRNA PD-1, thereby preventing the expression of PD-1. As PD1-mediates the downregulation of T-cell activation and proliferation, PH-762 is able to restore immune function and activa... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Antibody IBI-319 | A bispecific antibody targeting both the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-4-1BB bispecific antibody IBI-319 simultaneously targets and binds to PD-1, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activate... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody ONO-4685 | A bispecific antibody targeting both the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody ONO-4685 binds to both PD-1 expressed on activated T- and B-cells and certain malignant T-cells and CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This may activate and redirect CTLs to PD-1-e... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-CD73 Bispecific Antibody AK131 | A bispecific antibody derived from penpulimab and dresbuxelimab and directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-CD73 bispecific antibody AK131 simultaneously targets and binds to... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-CTLA-4/Anti-VEGF Trispecific Antibody HC010 | A trispecific antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), and the human vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-CTLA-4/anti-VEGF trispecific antibody HC010 simultaneously targets, binds to and blocks PD-1 and CTLA-4... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody CTX-8371 | A bispecific tetravalent antibody targeting both the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and its ligand, human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1; CD274), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-PD-L1 bispecific antibody CTX-8371 simultaneously targets and binds to PD-1, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody IBI318 | A recombinant immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody targeting both the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and its ligand, human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1; CD274), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-PD-L1 bispecific antibody IBI318 simultaneously targets and binds to PD-1, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-TGF-beta Bifunctional Fusion Protein TQB2868 | A bifunctional fusion protein directed against both the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta; TGFb), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-TGF-beta bifunctional fusion protein TQB2868  targets and binds to PD-1 and TGF-beta and prevents the activation of PD-1 and TGF-beta-mediated signaling pathways in the tumor mi... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-TGFbRII Bispecific Antibody INCA33890 | A bispecific antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PD1; PDCD1; CD279) and human transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta) receptor II (TGFbRII), with potential immune checkpoint modulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-TGFbRII bispecific antibody INCA33890 targets and binds to both PD-1 and TGFbRII and prevents the activation of PD-1 and TGF-beta-mediated signaling pathways... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-TIGIT Bispecific Antibody IBI321 | A bispecific antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-PD-1/anti-TIGIT bispecific antibody IBI321 simultaneously targets... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-TIGIT Bispecific Antibody ZG005 | A humanized bispecific antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-TIGIT bispecific antibody ZG005 simultaneously ta... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-TIM-3 Bispecific Antibody AZD7789 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-TIM-3 bispecific antibody AZD7789 simultaneously targets and binds to both TIM-3 a... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-TIM-3 Bispecific Antibody LB1410 | A recombinant humanized bispecific antibody directed against both the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-TIM-3 bispecific antibody LB1410 simultaneously targets and ... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-VEGF Bispecific Antibody JS207 | A recombinant humanized bispecific antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the human vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-VEGF bispecific antibody JS207 simultaneously targets and binds to both PD-1 expressed on T-cells and VEGF expressed on tumor cells. The binding of ... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-VEGF Bispecific Antibody MHB039A | A bispecific antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the human vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-VEGF bispecific antibody MHB039A simultaneously targets and binds to both PD-1 expressed on T-cells and VEGF expressed on tumor cells. The binding of MHB039A to PD-1 prev... |
| Anti-PD-1/Anti-VEGF Bispecific Antibody SCTB14 | A bispecific antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the human vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-VEGF bispecific antibody SCTB14 simultaneously targets and binds to both PD-1 expressed on T-cells and VEGF expressed on tumor cells. The binding of SCTB14 to PD-1 preven... |
| Anti-PD-1/CD47 Fusion Protein HX009 | A bispecific antibody fusion protein directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-PD-1/CD47 fusion protein HX009, the agent simultaneously and selectively targets and binds to PD-1 expressed on T-lymphocytes and CD47 on tumor cells. The CD47 binding by HX009 b... |
| Anti-PD1/IL-15 Fusion Protein SAR445877 | A fusion protein composed of an antibody moiety targeting the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) fused to a mutein of the immunostimulatory cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-PD1/IL-15 fusion protein SAR445877, the PD-1 targeting moiety specifically targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling... |
| Anti-PD-1/IL-2 Bispecific Antibody Fusion Protein IBI363 | A bispecific antibody fusion protein composed of a monoclonal antibody targeting the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and fused to a mutated form of the endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/IL-2 bispecific antibody fusion protein IBI363 targets and binds to PD-1 expressed on PD-1-expressing T-cells, thereby inhibiting PD-1-mediat... |
| Anti-PD-1/IL-2 Fusion Protein TEV-56278 | A recombinant fusion protein composed of an antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) fused to the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-PD-1/IL-2 fusion protein TEV-56278, the antibody moiety targets and binds to PD-1 expressed on PD-1-expressing T-cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). The IL-2 moiety stimulates... |
| Anti-PD-1/IL-2Ra/IL-2 Fusion Protein REGN10597 | An antibody fusion protein composed of an antibody fragment targeting the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and fused to the endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) and masked with an antibody fragment directed against the IL-2 receptor subunit alpha (IL2Ra; CD25) binding-site on IL-2, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/IL-2Ra/IL-2 fusion protein REGN10597 targets and ... |
| Anti-PD-1/LAG-3 Bispecific Antibody AK129 | A humanized, immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PD1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death 1) and lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/LAG-3 bispecific antibody AK129 targets and binds to both PD-1 and LAG-3 expressed on T-cells, thereby blocking the in... |
| Anti-PD-1/LAG-3 Bispecific Antibody EMB-02 | A bispecific antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PD1; PDCD1; CD279; Programmed Death 1) and lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/LAG-3 bispecific antibody EMB-02 targets and binds to both PD-1 and LAG-3 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the PD-1- and LAG-3-mediated downregulation of... |
| Anti-PD-1/TGF-beta RII Bifunctional Fusion Protein JS201 | A bifunctional fusion protein targeting both the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and human transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta; TGFb), with potential immune checkpoint modulating, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/TGF-beta RII bifunctional fusion protein JS201 targets and binds to PD-1 and TGF-beta and prevents the activation of PD-1 and TGF-beta-mediated signaling pathw... |
| Anti-PD-1/TGFbRII Fusion Protein LBL-015 | A tetravalent bispecific fusion protein targeting both the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and human transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta; TGFb), with potential immune checkpoint modulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/TGF-beta receptor II (TGFbRII) fusion protein LBL-015 targets and binds to PD-1 and TGF-beta and prevents the activation of PD-1 and TGF-beta-mediated signaling pathwa... |
| Anti-PD-1-IL-15 Prodrug Fusion Molecule ASKG915 | A fusion protein composed of a recombinant human monoclonal antibody targeting the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) fused to a prodrug for the immunostimulatory cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15), composed of a potency reduced, mutein form of interleukin (IL)-15 complexed with the high-affinity IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra) binding sushi domain, that is masked by a protease-cleavable masking protein, with potential immune checkpo... |
| Anti-PD-L1 Antibody/IL-15 Fusion Protein IGM-7354 | A fusion protein composed of a pentameric immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) fused to interleukin (IL)-15/IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra) complex, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the anti-PD-L1 antibody/IL-15 fusion protein IGM-7354, the anti-PD-L1 antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to PD-L1 expressing canc... |
| Anti-PD-L1 Antibody-drug Conjugate HLX43 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to a cytotoxic payload containing a camptothecin-based topoisomerase I (topo I) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-PD-L1 ADC HLX43, the anti-PD-L1 antibody moiety specifically targets ... |
| Anti-PD-L1 Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-PDL1V | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), conjugated to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE) via a protease-cleavable peptide linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-PD-L1 ADC SGN-PDL1V, the anti-PD-L1 antibody specifically targets and binds to PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells. Following internalizatio... |
| Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody FAZ053 | A monoclonal antibody directed against programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1), with immune checkpoint inhibitory and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1 monoclonal antibody FAZ053 binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed death 1 (PD-1), which may enhance the T-cell-mediated anti-tumor immune response and reverse T-cell inactivation. PD-L1 is overexpressed by many human cancer cell types. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on T-cel... |
| Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody GR1405 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1 monoclonal antibody GR1405 specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-... |
| Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody LP002 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1 monoclonal antibody LP002 specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279). This reverses T-cell inactivation caus... |
| Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody MDX-1105 | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) with immune checkpoint inhibitory and potential antineoplastic activities. Anti-PD-L1 monoclonal antibody MDX-1105 binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed death 1 (PD-1), which may enhance the T-cell-mediated immune response to neoplasms and reverse T-cell inactivation. PD-L1 is overexpressed by many human cancer cell types. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on T-cells sup... |
| Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody RC98 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1 monoclonal antibody RC98 specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/... |
| Anti-PD-L1/4-1BB Bispecific Antibody LBL-024 | A tetravalent bispecific antibody targeting the immunosuppressive ligand programmed death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/4-1BB bispecific antibody LBL-024 simultaneously targets and binds to 4-1BB, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated... |
| Anti-PD-L1/4-1BB Bispecific Antibody QLF31907 | A bispecific antibody targeting the immunosuppressive ligand programmed death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/4-1BB bispecific antibody QLF31907 simultaneously targets and binds to 4-1BB, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocy... |
| Anti-PD-L1/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Antibody ABL503 | A bispecific antibody composed of a Fc-silenced human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) fused with a single chain variable fragment (scFv) targeting 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/anti-4-1BB bispecific antibody ABL503 simultaneously targets and binds to 4-1BB, which is e... |
| Anti-PD-L1/Anti-CD47 Bispecific Antibody BAT7104 | A symmetric immunoglobulin G (IgG)-like bispecific antibody targeting both the human cell surface antigen CD47 and the immunosuppressive ligand human programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/anti-CD47 bispecific antibody BAT7104 targets and binds to both CD47 and PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells. The CD47 binding by BAT7104 blocks the int... |
| Anti-PD-L1/Anti-LAG-3 Bispecific Antibody ABL501 | A bispecific antibody directed against two immune checkpoint proteins composed of an engineered immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3) fused with a single chain variable fragment (scFv) targeting the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti... |
| Anti-PD-L1/Anti-OX40 Bispecific Antibody EMB-09 | A tetravalent, bispecific antibody directed against both the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) and the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; TNFRSF4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/anti-OX40 bispecific antibody EMB-09 binds to PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells, and simultaneously binds to and activates OX40 on activated T-cells. The binding ... |
| Anti-PD-L1/Anti-TGF-beta Bifunctional Fusion Protein TQB2858 | A bifunctional fusion protein directed against both human programmed death ligand 1 (PD-L1) and transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta), with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint modulating activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/anti-TGF-beta bifunctional fusion protein TQB2858 targets, binds to and neutralizes TGF-beta on tumor cells and simultaneously targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of PD-L1 on the tumor cells. This prevents both TGF-beta- and PD-L1-mediated i... |
| Anti-PD-L1/Anti-TIGIT Bispecific Antibody PM1022 | A recombinant humanized bispecific antibody directed against both the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT/anti-PD-L1 bispecific antibody... |
| Anti-PD-L1/Anti-VEGF Bispecific Antibody AP505 | A bispecific antibody composed of an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) and fused to anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) protein, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/anti-VEGF bispecific antibody AP505 targets and simultaneously binds to both PD-L1 and VEGF expressed o... |
| Anti-PD-L1/Anti-VEGF-A Bispecific Antibody BNT327 | A bispecific antibody targeting both the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) and vascular endothelial growth factor A (VEGF-A), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/anti-VEGF-A bispecific antibody BNT327 targets and simultaneously binds to both PD-L1 and VEGF-A expressed on tumor cells. This prevents the binding of PD-L1 to its receptor, p... |
| Anti-PD-L1/CD137 Bispecific Antibody MCLA-145 | A full-length, Fc-silenced immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody targeting both the human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) and CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/CD137 bispecific antibody MCLA-145 simultaneously targets and binds to CD137, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes, ... |
| Anti-PD-L1/CD27 Bispecific Antibody CDX-527 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) and the cell surface antigen CD27, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/CD27 bispecific antibody CDX-527 targets and binds to both PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells and CD27 expressed on a variety of immune cell types, including most T-lymphocytes. This prev... |
| Anti-PD-L1/Claudin18.2 Bispecific Antibody Q-1802 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) and the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/Claudin18.2 bispecific antibody Q-1802 targets and simultaneously binds to both PD-L1 and CLDN18.2 expressed on certain types of ... |
| Anti-PD-L1/IL-15 Fusion Protein KD033 | A fusion protein composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) fused to the immunostimulatory cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the anti-PD-L1/IL-15 fusion protein KD033, the anti-PD-L1 antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to PD-L1 expressing cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). I... |
| Anti-PD-L1/IL-15 Fusion Protein SIM0237 | A fusion protein composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), fused with potency reduced interleukin (IL)-15/IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra) sushi domain complex, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the anti-PD-L1/IL-15 fusion protein SIM0237, the anti-PD-L1 antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to PD-L1 expressing cells... |
| Anti-PD-L1/PD-L2 Bispecific Antibody IMGS-001 | Fc-engineered bispecific monoclonal antibody targeting both immune checkpoint regulatory proteins human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1; CD274) and 2 (PD-L2; CD273), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/PD-L2 bispecific antibody IMGS-001 simultaneously targets and binds to PD-L1 and PD-L2 expressed on tumor cells, immunosuppressive stromal cells and endothelial cells. PD-L1 and PD-L2 binding by IMGS-001 ... |
| Anti-PD-L1/TGF-beta Bispecific Antibody Y101D | A recombinant bispecific antibody targeting both the immunosuppressive ligand human programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) and the human transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta), with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint modulating activities. Upon administration, the anti-PD-L1/TGF-beta bispecific antibody Y101D targets, binds to and neutralizes TGFbeta while simultaneously targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of PD-L1 on tumor cel... |
| Anti-PD-L1/TGFbetaRII Fusion Protein 6MW3511 | A bifunctional fusion protein composed of a humanized anti-programmed death ligand 1 (PD-L1) nanobody fused to a mutant form of the human transforming growth factor beta (TGFbeta) receptor type II (TGFbetaRII), with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint modulating activities. Upon administration of anti-PD-L1/TGFbetaRII fusion protein 6MW3511, the TGFbetaRII moiety targets, binds to and neutralizes TGFbeta while the anti-PD-L1 nanobody moiety simultaneously targets, binds to, and inh... |
| Anti-PD-L1/TGFbetaRII Fusion Protein BJ-005 | A recombinant bifunctional fusion protein composed of a humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 anti-programmed death ligand 1 (PD-L1) monoclonal antibody fused to the extracellular domain (ECD) of the human transforming growth factor beta (TGFbeta) receptor type II (TGFbetaRII), with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint modulating activities. Upon administration of anti-PD-L1/TGFbetaRII fusion protein BJ-005, the TGFbetaRII moiety targets, binds to and neutralizes TGFbeta while the antibo... |
| Anti-PD-L1/TIM-3 Bispecific Antibody LY3415244 | A bispecific antibody directed against the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, LY3415244 simultaneously targets and binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain T-cells, including tumo... |
| Anti-PD-L1/VEGF/TGF-beta Trispecific Antibody DR30206 | A trispecific antibody targeting the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), human vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and human transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/VEGF/TGF-beta trispecific antibody DR30206 targets and simultaneously binds to both PD-L1 and VEGF expressed on tumor cells, and... |
| Anti-PKN3 siRNA Atu027 | A lipoplexed formulation consisting of short-interfering RNAs (siRNAs) directed against protein kinase N3 (PKN3) encapsulated in catiogenic and fusiogenic lipids with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, catiogenic and fusiogenic lipids promote anti-PKN3 siRNA Atu02 uptake by tumor cells; the siRNAs moieties are subsequently released once inside the cell. The siRNAs bind to PKN3 mRNAs, which may result in the inhibition of translation and expression of the PKN3 protein and,... |
| Anti-PLGF Monoclonal Antibody TB-403 | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the placenta growth factor (PGF), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Anti-PGF monoclonal antibody TB-403 binds to both PGF-1 and -2, thereby inhibiting the binding of PGF-1 and -2 to the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor-1 (VEGFR-1) and subsequent VEGFR-1 phosphorylation. This may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. PGF, a member of the VEGF sub... |
| Anti-PLVAP CSR02-Fab-Tissue Factor | A recombinant protein consisting of an antigen-binding fragment (Fab) of CSR02, a monoclonal antibody directed against plasmalemma vesicle associated protein (PLVAP), and linked to human tissue factor (TF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intra-arterial (IA) infusion of CSR02-Fab-TF, the Fab moiety targets and binds to the vascular endothelial cell specific protein PLVAP that is present on the blood vessels of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) but that is not present on the blood ve... |
| Anti-PR1/HLA-A2 Monoclonal Antibody Hu8F4 | A T-cell receptor (TCR)-like monoclonal antibody against PR1, a 9 amino-acid (VLQELNVTV) human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted leukemia-associated antigen (LAA) derived from the myeloid leukemia-associated antigens proteinase 3 (P3) and neutrophil elastase (NE), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PR1/HLA-A2 monoclonal antibody Hu8F4 selectively binds to a combined epitope of the PR1/HLA-A2 complex expressed on acute myeloid leukemia... |
| Anti-PRAME Immunotherapeutic GSK2302032A | An immunotherapeutic agent targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA), preferentially expressed antigen of melanoma (PRAME), with potential antineoplastic activity. |
| Anti-PRAME T-cell Receptor/Anti-CD3 scFv Fusion Protein IMC-F106C | A T-cell re-directing bi-specific biologic composed of a modified form of human T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) preferentially expressed antigen in melanoma (PRAME) and fused to an anti-CD3 single-chain variable fragment (scFv), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of IMC-F106C, the TCR moiety of this agent targets and binds to PRAME on tumor cells and the anti-CD3 scFv moiety binds to CD3- expressing T-lymphocytes. This selectively... |
| Anti-PRL-3 Monoclonal Antibody PRL3-zumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody against  phosphatase of regenerating liver 3 (PRL-3; PTP4A3), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PRL-3 monoclonal antibody PRL3-zumab targets, binds to and blocks PRL-3 expressed on tumor cells. Although the exact mechanism of action through which this antibody kills tumor cells has yet to be fully elucidated, PRL3-zumab binds to PRL-3. This prevents PRL-3-mediated signaling in, inhibits the proliferation of... |
| Anti-Programmed Cell Death Protein 1 Antibody Expressing Pluripotent Killer T-Lymphocytes | A specific population of pluripotent killer (PIK) T-cells that have been induced to express high levels of antibodies against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential antitumor activity. Although the exact mechanism(s) of action through which PIK-PD-1 cells exert their effects has yet to be elucidated, upon infusion, these cells secrete antibodies that target PD-1 expressed on the surface of activated T-cell... |
| Anti-Progranulin Monoclonal Antibody AG01 | A monoclonal antibody targeting human progranulin (PGRN; glycoprotein 88; GP88), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-PGRN monoclonal antibody AG01 targets and binds to PGRN expressed on tumor cells. This neutralizes PGRN and prevents the activation of downstream signaling pathways, which may include extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 (ERK1) and 2 (ERK2), phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K), and focal adhesion kinase (FAK), thereby inhibiting tumor cell pro... |
| Anti-prolactin Receptor Antibody LFA102 | A neutralizing antibody against the prolactin receptor (PRLR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-prolactin receptor antibody LFA102 binds to PRLR and prevents the binding of the peptide hormone prolactin (PRL) to its receptor. This binding induces an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and may eventually prevent tumor cell proliferation in PRLR-positive cancer cells. PRLR/PRL signaling pathway is frequently overexpressed in breast and prostate cancer. |
| Anti-PSCA Monoclonal Antibody AGS-1C4D4 | An IgG1k fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the human prostate stem cell antigen (PSCA) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-PSCA fully human monoclonal antibody MK4721 selectively targets and binds to PSCA, triggering complement-dependent cell lysis and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity in tumor cells expressing PSCA. PSCA is a glycosyl-phosphatidylinositol (GPI)-linked cell surface antigen found in cancers of the bladder, pancreas, and prostate. |
| Anti-PSMA Antibody-drug Conjugate ARX517 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) containing a humanized immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody directed against prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and site-specifically conjugated to two of the microtubule-disrupting toxin amberstatin (AS269), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-PSMA ADC ARX517, the monoclonal antibody moiety selectively binds to PSMA, a protein which is abundantly expressed on the surface of metastatic and hormone-refractor... |
| Anti-PSMA Gamma Delta T-cell Engaging Bispecific Antibody LAVA-1207 | A bispecific gamma delta T-cell engager (TCE) antibody targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and Vdelta2 on Vgamma9Vdelta2 T-cells, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PSMA gamma delta T-cell engaging bispecific antibody LAVA-1207 binds to both PSMA-expressing tumor cells and Vgamma9Vdelta2 T-cells. This activates and redirects the Vgamma9Vdelta2 T-cells to PSMA-expressing tumor c... |
| Anti-PSMA Monoclonal Antibody MLN591-DM1 Immunoconjugate MLN2704 | An immunoconjugate that consists of a humanized monoclonal antibody (MLN591), directed against prostate-specific membrane antigen linked to a maytansinoid (DM1). The monoclonal antibody moiety of MLN2704 binds to tumor cells expressing prostate-specific membrane antigen; MLN274 is then internalized into the tumor cell where the DM1 maytansinoid moiety binds to tubulin and inhibits tubulin polymerization and microtubule assembly, resulting in a disruption of microtubule activity and cell divis... |
| Anti-PSMA Monoclonal Antibody-MMAE Conjugate | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) containing a fully human monoclonal antibody directed against prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), conjugated via a stable, enzyme-cleavable linker to monomethylauristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity.  The monoclonal antibody moiety of this conjugate selectively binds to PSMA, a protein which is abundantly expressed on the surface of metastatic and hormone-refractory prosta... |
| Anti-PSMA/Anti-CD28 Bispecific Antibody JNJ-87189401 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and the co-stimulatory T-cell-specific surface glycoprotein CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PSMA/anti-CD28 bispecific antibody JNJ-87189401 binds to both CD28 expressed on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and PSMA expressed on tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to PSMA-expressing tumor cells, which ma... |
| Anti-PSMA/Anti-CD3 T-cell Engaging Bispecific Antibody TNB-585 | A T-cell engaging bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PSMA/anti-CD3 T-cell engaging bispecific antibody TNB-585 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and PSMA found on PSMA-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to PSMA-expressing tumor cells, wh... |
| Anti-PSMA/Anti-CD70 4SCAR-expressing Bispecific T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a fourth-generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and CD70 (CD27 ligand; tumor necrosis factor superfamily member 7; TNFSF7), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-PSMA/anti-CD70 4SCAR-expressing bispecific T-cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in PSMA- ... |
| Anti-PSMA/CD3 Bispecific Antibody CCW702 | A bispecific antibody that targets both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-PSMA/CD3 bispecific antibody CCW702, this bispecific antibody binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and PSMA found on PSMA-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to PSMA-expressing tumor cells, which resul... |
| Anti-PSMA/CD3 Bispecific Antibody REGN4336 | A bispecific antibody that targets both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-PSMA/CD3 bispecific antibody REGN4336, this bispecific antibody binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and PSMA found on PSMA-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to PSMA-expressing tumor cells, which res... |
| Anti-PSMA/CD3 Monoclonal Antibody MOR209/ES414 | An anti-prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA)/anti-CD3 bispecific humanized monoclonal antibody, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Anti-PSMA/CD3 monoclonal antibody MOR209/ES414 possesses two antigen-recognition sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for PSMA, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of prostate tumor cells. Upon intravenous administrati... |
| Anti-PSMA/CD3 Protease-activated T-cell Engager JANX007 | A protease-activated, masked T-cell engager (TCE) composed of a prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-binding domain and a CD3-binding domain conjugated, via a tumor protease-cleavable linker, to a peptide mask that prevents CD3 engagement on T-cells and an albumin-binding domain that extends circulating half-life, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of anti-PSMA/CD3 protease-activated TCE JANX007, the tumor protease-cleavable lin... |
| Anti-PSMA/PBD ADC MEDI3726 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of an engineered version of anti-human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) monoclonal antibody J591 conjugated, via a valine-alanine dipeptide linker, to tesirine, a cytotoxic, DNA minor groove crosslinking agent and pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-PSMA/PBD ADC MEDI3726, the antibody moiety targets the cell surface antigen PSMA, which is found on prostate cancer cells. Upon... |
| Anti-PSMA/STEAP1 Antibody-drug Conjugate ABBV-969 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and six transmembrane epithelial antigen of the prostate 1 (STEAP1), linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-PSMA/STEAP1 ADC ABBV-969, the antibody moiety targets and binds to PSMA and STEAP1 expressed on tumor cells. Following receptor internalization, the cytot... |
| Anti-PTK7/MMAE ADC PRO1107 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody against human inactive tyrosine-protein kinase 7 (protein tyrosine kinase 7; PTK7) linked to LD343, which is comprised of a protease-cleavable hydrophilic linker conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-PTK7/MMAE ADC PRO1107, the anti-PTK7 antibody moiety targets and binds to PTK7 expressed on tumor cel... |
| Anti-PVR Monoclonal Antibody NTX-1088 | An immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting the poliovirus receptor (PVR; CD155; nectin-like protein 5; NECL-5), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PVR monoclonal antibody NTX-1088 targets and binds to PVR expressed on tumor cells, thereby preventing its interactions with the human cell surface glycoprotein CD226 (DNAX accessory molecule-1; DNAM-1), the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoi... |
| Anti-PVRIG Monoclonal Antibody COM701 | A humanized, hybridoma monoclonal antibody against the poliovirus receptor-related immunoglobulin (PVRIG; PVR Related Immunoglobulin Domain Containing Protein; CD112R), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PVRIG monoclonal antibody COM701 targets and binds to PVRIG expressed on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and natural killer (NK) cells within the tumor microenvironment (TME). This blocks the interaction of PVRIG with its ligand... |
| Anti-PVRIG Monoclonal Antibody GSK4381562 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against poliovirus receptor-related immunoglobulin (PVRIG; PVR Related Immunoglobulin Domain Containing Protein; CD112R), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PVRIG monoclonal antibody GSK4381562 targets and binds to PVRIG expressed on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and natural killer (NK) cells within the tumor microenvironment (TME), thereby blocking the interaction ... |
| Anti-PVRIG Monoclonal Antibody JS009 | A recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody against poliovirus receptor-related immunoglobulin (PVRIG; PVR related immunoglobulin domain containing protein; CD112R), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PVRIG monoclonal antibody JS009 targets and binds to PVRIG expressed on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and natural killer (NK) cells within the tumor microenvironment (TME). This blocks the interaction of ... |
| Anti-PVRIG Monoclonal Antibody NM1F | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against poliovirus receptor-related immunoglobulin (PVRIG; PVR related immunoglobulin domain containing protein; CD112R), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PVRIG monoclonal antibody NM1F targets and binds to PVRIG expressed on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and natural killer (NK) cells within the tumor microenvironment (TME). This blocks the interaction of PVRIG with it... |
| Anti-RANKL Monoclonal Antibody GB-223 | A monoclonal antibody directed against the receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa beta ligand (RANKL) with potential antiosteoclast and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-RANKL monoclonal antibody GB-223 specifically binds to RANKL and blocks the interaction of RANKL with RANK, a receptor located on osteoclast cell surfaces. This results in the inhibition of osteoclast activity, a decrease in bone resorption, and a potential increase in bone mineral density. By blocking ... |
| Anti-RANKL Monoclonal Antibody HS-20090 | An immunoglobulin G2 (IgG2) monoclonal antibody directed against the receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa beta ligand (RANKL), with antiosteoclast activity. Upon administration, anti-RANKL monoclonal antibody HS-20090 specifically binds to RANKL and blocks the interaction of RANKL with RANK, a receptor located on osteoclast cell surfaces. This results in an inhibition of osteoclast activity, a decrease in bone resorption, and a potential increase in bone mineral density. RANKL, a protei... |
| Anti-RNF43 Antibody-drug Conjugate SC-006 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) ring finger protein 43 (RNF43), linked to a DNA crosslinking pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of anti-RNF43 ADC SC-006 targets and binds to RNF43 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic PBD moiety is released and forms highly cytotoxic DN... |
| Anti-ROR1 Antibody-drug Conjugate CS5001 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1) that is site-specifically conjugated with a tumor-cleavable beta-glucuronide linker to a tumor-cleavable prodrug of pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of anti-ROR1 ADC CS5001 targets and binds to ROR1 expressed on... |
| Anti-ROR1/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody EMB-07 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ROR1/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody EMB-07 binds to both ROR1 expressed on tumor cells and CD3 expressed on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This activates and redirects CTLs to ROR1-expressing tumor cells, which results in the CTL-mediated... |
| Anti-ROR1/Anti-CD3/Anti-HSA Trispecific Antibody NM32-2668 | A trispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1), the T-cell surface antigen CD3 and human serum albumin (HSA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ROR1/anti-CD3/anti-HSA trispecific antibody NM32-2668 binds to both ROR1 expressed on tumor cells and CD3 expressed on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This activates and redirects CTLs to ROR1-expressing tumor cell... |
| Anti-ROR1/CD3 T-cell Engager NVG-111 | A bispecific antibody and T-cell engager directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ROR1/CD3 T-cell engager NVG-111 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and ROR1 found on ROR1-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to ROR1-expressing tumor cells, which results in t... |
| Anti-ROR1/PNU-159682 Derivative Antibody-drug Conjugate NBE-002 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1) site-specifically conjugated to a derivative of the highly potent anthracycline PNU-159682, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of NBE-002 targets and binds to ROR1 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the anthracycline-based toxin... |
| Anti-S15 Monoclonal Antibody NC318 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting sialic acid binding Ig-like lectin 15 (Siglec-15; SIGLEC15; S15), a member of the sialic acid-binding immunoglobulin type lectins, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon administration, anti-S15 monoclonal antibody NC318 targets and binds to S15 on the surface of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) and certain tumor cells. Binding to S15 may disrupt TAM-mediated activities such as promotion of tumo... |
| Antisecretory Factor-enriched Egg Yolk Powder Supplement | A dietary supplement composed of dried egg yolk powder that is highly enriched in the protein anti-secretory factor (AF), with anti-inflammatory, anti-diarrheal, immunomodulating and chemo-adjuvant activities. Upon intratumoral administration of the AF-enriched egg yolk powder supplement, AF is able to normalize fluid flow by regulating the ion and fluid balance across the cell membranes, and decreases high interstitial fluid pressure (IFP). As elevated IFP presents a barrier to drug uptake a... |
| Antisense Oligonucleotide GTI-2040 | A 20-mer antisense oligonucleotide complementary to a coding region in the mRNA of the R2 small subunit component of human ribonucleotide reductase.  GTI-2040 decreases mRNA and protein levels of R2 in vitro and may inhibit tumor cell proliferation in human tumors in vivo. (NCI04) |
| Anti-SEZ6 Antibody-drug Conjugate ABBV-011 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against seizure protein 6 homolog (SEZ6) linked to the cytotoxic antitumor antibiotic calicheamicin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-SEZ6 ADC ABBV-011, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to SEZ6 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, calicheamicin is released. Calicheamicin binds to the minor groove of DNA, causing double strand DNA breaks and resu... |
| Anti-SEZ6 Antibody-drug Conjugate ABBV-706 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against seizure protein 6 homolog (SEZ6) linked to an undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of anti-SEZ6 ADC ABBV-706, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to SEZ6 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills SEZ6-expressing tumor cells through an as of yet undisclosed mechanism. SEZ6, ov... |
| Anti-Siglec-10 Monoclonal Antibody ONC-841 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immune checkpoint molecule sialic acid-binding immunoglobulin (Ig)-like lectin 10 (Siglec-10; SIGLEC10), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-Siglec-10 monoclonal antibody ONC-841 targets and binds to Siglec-10 expressed on various immune cells, including tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) and natural killer (NK) cells, in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This prevents Siglec... |
| Anti-SIRP Monoclonal Antibody ELA026 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting certain specific proteins of the human signal-regulatory protein (SIRP) family, with potential immunoregulatory activity. Upon administration, anti-SIRP monoclonal antibody ELA026 targets and binds to SIRP, a cell surface protein expressed on myeloids and T-lymphocytes. This depletes pathological myeloids and T-lymphocytes that are circulating due to excessive immune activation and inflammation. This eradicates pathological immune... |
| Anti-SIRPa Monoclonal Antibody ADU-1805 | A humanized immunoglobulin G2 (IgG2) monoclonal antibody targeting human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa; CD172a), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-SIRPa monoclonal antibody ADU-1805 targets and binds to SIRPa, a cell surface protein expressed on macrophages, thereby blocking the interaction between SIRPa and cluster of differentiation 47 (CD47) expressed on tumor cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-... |
| Anti-SIRPa Monoclonal Antibody BI 765063 | An immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa; CD172a), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-SIRPa monoclonal antibody BI 765063 targets and binds to SIRPa, a cell surface protein expressed on macrophages, thereby blocking the interaction between SIRPa and cluster of differentiation 47 (CD47) expressed on tumor cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated... |
| Anti-SIRPa Monoclonal Antibody BI 770371 | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa; CD172a), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-SIRPa monoclonal antibody BI 770371 targets and binds to SIRPa expressed on myeloid cells, including monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells (DCs), and neutrophils, thereby blocking the interaction between SIRPa and its ligand cluster of differentiation 47 (CD... |
| Anti-SIRPa Monoclonal Antibody DS-1103 | An immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa; CD172a), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-SIRPa monoclonal antibody DS-1103 targets and binds to SIRPa, a cell surface protein expressed on macrophages, thereby blocking the interaction between SIRPa and cluster of differentiation 47 (CD47) expressed on tumor cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated s... |
| Anti-SIRPa Monoclonal Antibody LM-101 | A monoclonal antibody targeting human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa; CD172a), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-SIRPa monoclonal antibody LM-101 targets and binds to SIRPa, a cell surface protein expressed on macrophages, thereby blocking the interaction between SIRPa and cluster of differentiation 47 (CD47) expressed on tumor cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the ... |
| Anti-SIRPalpha Monoclonal Antibody BYON4228 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa; CD172a), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-SIRPalpha monoclonal antibody BYON4228 targets and binds to the two allelic variants of SIRPa v1 and v2 expressed on innate immune cells, including monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells (DCs), and neutrophils, thereby blocking the interaction betwee... |
| Anti-STEAP1 CAR T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) six transmembrane epithelial antigen of the prostate 1 (STEAP1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-STEAP1 CAR T-cells recognize and bind to STEAP1-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in STEAP1-expressing tumor cells. STEAP1 is overexpressed in a variety of can... |
| Anti-STn Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-STNV | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody directed against the tumor-associated carbohydrate antigen Sialyl Thomsen-nouveau (STn) conjugated to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE) via the MC-vc-PAB linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-STn ADC SGN-STNV, the anti-STn antibody targets and binds to STn expressed on tumor cells. Following internalization of SGN-STNV and release of MMAE, MMAE targets and binds to tubulin, and ... |
| Anti-survivin T-cell Receptor/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Therapeutic ABBV-184 | A T-cell redirecting bispecific therapeutic composed of a T-cell receptor (TCR) moiety specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) survivin and a CD3 binding moiety, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-survivin TCR/anti-CD3 bispecific therapeutic ABBV-184, the TCR moiety of this agent targets and binds to survivin on tumor cells and the anti-CD3 moiety binds to CD3-expressing T-lymphocytes. This selectively cross-links tumor cells an... |
| Anti-TAG-72 Monoclonal Antibody scFV CC-49/218 | An immunoglobulin derived from the single-chain antigen-binding domain (sFv) of the monoclonal antibody CC-49 with potential antineoplastic activity.  The parent monoclonal antibody CC-49 binds to the tumor-associated glycoprotein TAG-72 with high affinity, recognizing many tumor cell types that express TAG-72. Because of its single-chain structure, CC-49/218 sFv may exhibit a longer half-life than the parent monoclonal antibody CC-49; 218 represents the linker sequence that helps reduce aggr... |
| Anti-TA-MUC1/DXd Antibody-drug Conjugate DS-3939a | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against tumor-associated mucin-1 (TA-MUC1) conjugated to the cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor and exatecan derivative DXd (MAAA-1181a; MAAA-1181) via an enzymatically cleavable tetrapeptide-based linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-TA-MUC1/DXd ADC DS-3939a, the anti-TA-MUC1 antibody targets and binds to TA-MUC1-expressing tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake and ly... |
| Anti-TCR Vb6/Vb10/IL-2 Antibody Fusion Protein STAR0602 | A bifunctional antibody fusion protein composed of an agonist antibody targeting the variable (V) beta 6 (Vb6) and beta 10 (Vb10) regions of the T cell receptor (TCR) and fused to the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TCR Vb6/Vb10/IL-2 antibody fusion protein STAR0602 selectively targets and binds to the Vb6 and Vb10 regions of the TCR expressed on a subset of alpha/beta T-cells, thereby activating and expa... |
| Anti-TF Antibody-drug Conjugate MRG004A | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) comprised of a monoclonal antibody against human tissue factor (TF) conjugated, via a protease-cleavable BCN-valyl-citrulline linker, with monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antiangiogenic, anticoagulant and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-TF ADC MRG004A, the monoclonal antibody moiety binds to cell surface TF and is internalized. After internalization of the a... |
| Anti-TF Monoclonal Antibody ALT-836 | A recombinant human-mouse chimeric monoclonal antibody against human tissue factor (TF), with potential antiangiogenic, anticoagulant and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon administration, anti-TF monoclonal antibody ALT-836 binds to TF or the TF-Factor VIIa (FVIIa) complex preventing binding and activation of Factor X (FX) and Factor IX (FIX). This may prevent thrombin formation and cancer-associated venous thromboembolism, and may inhibit angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. TF, a tra... |
| Anti-TGF-beta 1/Anti-COX-2 siRNAs STP707 | A polypeptide nanoparticle (PNP)-based therapeutic comprised of two small interfering RNA (siRNA) oligonucleotides directed against transforming growth factor-beta 1 (TGF-beta 1) and cyclo-oxygenase-2 (COX-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-TGF-beta 1/anti-COX-2 siRNAs STP707 binds to both TGF-beta 1 and COX-2 messenger RNAs (mRNAs), preventing the translation and expression of TGF-beta 1 and COX-2 proteins. This inhibits T... |
| Anti-TGF-beta Monoclonal Antibody SAR-439459 | A monoclonal antibody (mAb) directed against human transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta; TGFb), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-TGF-beta monoclonal antibody SAR-439459 specifically targets and binds to TGF-beta, thereby preventing the activation of TGF-beta-mediated signaling pathways. This may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells in which TGF-beta is overactivated. TGF-beta, a pro-inflammatory mediator that is mutated and/or overexpressed in a varie... |
| Anti-TGF-beta RII Monoclonal Antibody IMC-TR1 | A monoclonal antibody directed against transforming growth factor-beta receptor type II (TGF-beta RII) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-TGF-beta RII monoclonal antibody IMC-TR1 specifically targets and binds to TGF-beta R11, thereby preventing the activation of TGF-beta RII-mediated signaling pathways. TGF-beta RII is mutated in a number of cancer cell types and is involved in cancer cell proliferation and tumor progression. |
| Anti-thyroglobulin mTCR-transduced Autologous Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes | Peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a gene encoding for a thyroglobulin (TG)-specific murine T-cell receptor (mTCR), with potential antineoplastic activity. PBLs are harvested from a thyroid cancer patient, and transfected with a retroviral vector that encodes the mTCR gene specific for the human TG antigen. The transduced PBLs are then expanded in culture. When reintroduced to the patient, these anti-TG mTCR-expressing PBLs target and bind to TG-overexpressing tumor cells, wh... |
| Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody ASP8374 | A fully human, immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with Ig and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and immunostimulating activities. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT monoclonal antibody ASP8374 targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), thereby ... |
| Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody BAT6005 | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with Ig and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and immunostimulating activities. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT monoclonal antibody BAT6005 targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing t... |
| Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody BAT6021 | A recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with Ig and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and immunostimulating activities. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT monoclonal antibody BAT6021 targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the i... |
| Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody COM902 | A fully human monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT monoclonal antibody COM902 targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of TIGI... |
| Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody PM1021 | A recombinant immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT monoclonal antibody PM1021 targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventin... |
| Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody SGN-TGT | A nonfucosylated human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT monoclonal antibody SGN-TGT targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes (TILs). This ... |
| Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody TAB006 | A recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G4 kappa (IgG4k) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT monoclonal antibody TAB006 targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), ... |
| Anti-TIGIT/Anti-CD96 Bispecific Antibody BMS-986442 | A Fc-enhanced bispecific antibody directed against both the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT) and the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor CD96 (Tactile; T cell activation increased late expression), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT/anti-CD96 bis... |
| Anti-TIGIT/Anti-PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody HB0036 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT/anti-PD-L1 bispecific antibody HB0036 simultaneously... |
| Anti-TIGIT/Anti-PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody HLX301 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-TIGIT/anti-PD-L1 bispecific antibody HLX301 simultaneo... |
| Anti-TIGIT/Anti-PVRIG Bispecific Antibody PM1009 | A bispecific antibody composed of a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT) with a single chain variable fragment (scFv) targeting poliovirus receptor-related immunoglobulin (PVRIG; PVR Related Immunoglobulin Domain Containing Protein; CD112R) fused to the c-terminus, with potential immun... |
| Anti-TIGIT/Anti-PVRIG Bispecific Antibody SIM0348 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1)-based bispecific antibody directed against both the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT) and poliovirus receptor-related immunoglobulin (PVRIG; PVR Related Immunoglobulin Domain Containing Protein; CD112R), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-TIGIT/ant... |
| Anti-TIM-3 Antibody BMS-986258 | An antibody against the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Following administration, anti-TIM-3 antibody BMS-986258 binds to TIM-3 that is expressed on certain T-cells, including tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cy... |
| Anti-TIM-3 Monoclonal Antibody BC3402 | A monoclonal antibody against the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TIM-3 monoclonal antibody BC3402 targets and binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain T-cells, including tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes... |
| Anti-TIM3 Monoclonal Antibody LY3321367 | A monoclonal antibody against the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-TIM-3 monoclonal antibody LY3321367 binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain T-cells, including tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and ... |
| Anti-TIM3 Monoclonal Antibody SHR-1702 | A monoclonal antibody against the inhibitory T-cell receptor, T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TIM3 monoclonal antibody SHR-1702 targets and binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain T-cells, including tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocyt... |
| Anti-TIM-3 Monoclonal Antibody Sym023 | A recombinant, fully human monoclonal antibody against the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-TIM-3 monoclonal antibody Sym023 binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain T-cells, including tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-speci... |
| Anti-TIM-3 Monoclonal Antibody TQB2618 | A monoclonal antibody against the inhibitory T-cell receptor, T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TIM-3 monoclonal antibody TQB2618 targets and binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain T-cells, including tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocyt... |
| Anti-Tissue Factor Monoclonal Antibody MORAb-066 | A humanized monoclonal antibody against human tissue factor (TF), with potential antiangiogenic, anticoagulant and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon administration, anti-TF monoclonal antibody MORAb-066 binds to TF and prevents Factor VIIa (FVIIa) from binding, thereby interfering with the activation of Factor X (FX) into FXa. This may prevent thrombin formation and cancer-associated venous thromboembolism, and may inhibit angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. TF, a transmembrane protei... |
| Anti-TMEFF2/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody JNJ-70218902 | A T-cell redirecting agent and bispecific antibody targeting both the prostate cancer lineage antigen tomoregulin-2 (transmembrane protein with EGF-like and two follistatin-like domains 2; TMEFF2; TENB2) and the T-cell surface receptor CD3, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TMEFF2/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody JNJ-70218902 targets and binds to both TMEFF2 expressed on tumor cells and CD3 expressed on T-cells. The resulting cross-linkage ac... |
| Anti-TNFR2 Monoclonal Antibody BI-1808 | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against tumor necrosis factor Receptor 2 (TNFR2; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 1B; TNFRSF1B), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-TNFR2 monoclonal antibody BI-1808 targets and binds to TNFR2 on tumor-associated regulatory T cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME), thereby preventing TNFR2-mediated signaling. This depletes intra-tumoral Tregs, induces and expands intra-tumo... |
| Anti-TNFR2 Monoclonal Antibody BI-1910 | An agonistic monoclonal antibody directed against tumor necrosis factor receptor 2 (TNFR2; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 1B; TNFRSF1B), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-TNFR2 monoclonal antibody BI-1910 targets and binds to TNFR2 expressed on the surface of CD4+ T-cells, CD8+ T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME), thereby activating CD4+ T-cells, CD8+ T-cells and NK cells. This may enhance cytotoxic T-cel... |
| Anti-TNFR2 Monoclonal Antibody NBL-020 | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against tumor necrosis factor receptor 2 (TNFR2; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 1B; TNFRSF1B), with potential immune checkpoint inhibiting, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TNFR2 monoclonal antibody NBL-020 targets and binds to TNFR2 expressed on immune suppressive cells, such as tumor-associated regulatory T-cells (Tregs) and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) in the tumor microenviro... |
| Anti-TNFR2 Monoclonal Antibody SIM1811-03 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against tumor necrosis factor receptor 2 (TNFR2; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 1B; TNFRSF1B), with potential immune checkpoint inhibiting, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities Upon administration, anti-TNFR2 monoclonal antibody SIM1811-03 targets and binds to TNFR2 expressed on immune suppressive cells, such as tumor-associated regulatory T-cells (Tregs) and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs)... |
| Anti-TRAILR2/CDH17 Tetravalent Bispecific Antibody BI 905711 | A tetravalent bispecific antibody targeting both the pro-apoptotic death receptor tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL) receptor 2 (TRAILR2; death receptor 5; DR5) and cadherin-17 (CDH17), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-TRAILR2/CDH17 tetravalent bispecific antibody BI 905711, the antibody targets and binds to both TRAILR2 and CDH17, expressed on tumor cells. Receptor clustering and activation of TRAILR2 i... |
| Anti-TREM1 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody PY159 | A humanized agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting triggering receptor expressed on myeloid cells 1 (TREM1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TREM1 agonistic monoclonal antibody PY159 targets, binds to, crosslinks and activates TREM1 located on immunosuppressive tumor-associated myeloid cells within the tumor microenvironment (TME), including monocytic myeloid derived suppressor cells (mMDSCs), tumor associated neutrophils (TANs), and t... |
| Anti-TREM2 Monoclonal Antibody PY314 | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting triggering receptor expressed on myeloid cells 2 (TREM2; TREM-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TREM2 monoclonal antibody PY314 targets and binds to TREM2 located on immunosuppressive tumor-associated myeloid cells within the tumor microenvironment (TME), including tumor associated macrophages (TAMs). This induces antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) and/or antibody dependent c... |
| Anti-TROP2 Antibody-drug Conjugate BAT8003 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) conjugated via an uncleavable linker to an as of yet undisclosed maytansine derivative toxin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-TROP2 ADC BAT8003, the anti-TROP2 antibody targets and binds to TROP2 expressed on tumor cells. Up... |
| Anti-TROP2 Antibody-drug Conjugate BAT8008 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) conjugated via a cleavable linker to the camptothecin analog exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-TROP2 ADC BAT8008, the anti-TROP2 antibody targets and binds to TROP2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, inter... |
| Anti-TROP2 Antibody-drug Conjugate BIO-106 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) linked to an as of yet undisclosed tubulin inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-TROP2 ADC BIO-106, the anti-TROP2 antibody targets and binds to TROP2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the tubulin ... |
| Anti-TROP2 Antibody-drug Conjugate BL-M02D1 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) conjugated, via a cathepsin B-cleavable linker, to the camptothecin derivative and topoisomerase 1 inhibitor Ed-04, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-TROP2 ADC BL-M02D1, the anti-TROP2 antibody targets and binds to TR... |
| Anti-TROP-2 Antibody-drug Conjugate DB-1305 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) covalently linked, via a cleavable linker containing maleimide tetrapeptide, to the topoisomerase-1 inhibitor P1021, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-TROP-2 ADC DB-1305, the anti-TROP-... |
| Anti-TROP-2 Antibody-drug Conjugate HS-20105 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) linked, via a cleavable linker, to a topoisomerase-1 inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-TROP-2 ADC HS-20105, the anti-TROP-2 antibody targets and binds to TROP-2 expressed on tumo... |
| Anti-TROP2 Antibody-drug Conjugate OBI-992 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1), conjugated to a topoisomerase-1 inhibitor (TOP1i; TOP-Ii) via a hydrophilic, enzyme-cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-TROP2 ADC OBI-992, the anti-TROP2 antibody moiety targets and binds to TROP2 exp... |
| Anti-TROP-2 Antibody-drug Conjugate PBI-410 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; tumor-associated calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) site-specifically conjugated to a camptothecin analog via a cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-TROP-2 ADC PBI-410, the anti-TROP-2 antibody targets and binds to TROP-2 expressed on tumor... |
| Anti-TROP-2 Antibody-drug Conjugate PF-06664178 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of PF-06478924 (RN926), a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1), site-specifically conjugated via a valine-citrulline cleavable linker with the auristatin-based cytotoxic agent Aur0101 (PF-06380101), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of ant... |
| Anti-TROP2 Monoclonal Antibody-Tub196 Conjugate JS108 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody against tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) conjugated, via a 2,3-disubstituted long side chain hydrolysis-resistant linker, to the tubulysin B analog Tub196, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-TROP2 monoclonal antibody-Tub196 conjugate JS108, the a... |
| Anti-TROP-2/Antibody-drug Conjugate SHR-A1921 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the exatecan derivative and topoisomerase-1 inhibitor SHR9265, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of anti-TROP-2 ADC ... |
| Anti-TROP2/EGFR Bispecific Antibody-drug Conjugate DM001 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a bispecific antibody directed against the tumor associated antigens (TAAs) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) and human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), conjugated, via a protease-cleavable linker, to the auristatin derivative and microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon admi... |
| Anti-TROP-2/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate LCB84 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of Hu2G10, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody that targets the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1), conjugated via a beta-glucuronidase-cleavable linker to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administra... |
| Anti-TROP-2/Topoisomerase Inhibitor ADC MHB036C | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed topoisomerase inhibitor (TopoI), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-TROP-2/TopoI ADC MHB036C, the anti-TROP-2 antibody targets and binds to TROP-2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon bind... |
| Anti-TROP2-CAR-IL-15-transduced Cord Blood-derived Natural Killer Cells | A preparation of umbilical cord blood (CB)-derived natural killer cells (NKs) that have been engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; tumor-associated calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) and interleukin-15 (IL-15), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TROP2-CAR-IL-15-transduced CB-derived ... |
| Anti-TSPAN8/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody ASP2074 | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) tetraspanin-8 (TSPAN8) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TSPAN8/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody ASP2074 binds to both TSPAN8 expressed on tumor cells and CD3 expressed on T-cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against TSPAN8-expressing tumor cel... |
| Antitumor B Key Active Component-alpha | An orally available concentrated preparation of antitumor B (ATB, Zeng Sheng Ping), a Chinese herbal formula comprised of Sophora tonkinensis, Polygonum bistorta, Prunella vulgaris, Sonchus brachyotus, Dictamnus dasycarpus, and Dioscorea bulbifera, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, antitumor B key active component-alpha (ATB-KAC-alpha) may, through a not yet fully elucidated mechanism, inhibit tumorigenesis and prevent the development of certain cancers. |
| Anti-TWEAK Monoclonal Antibody RG7212 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the apoptotic ligand TNF-like weak inducer of apoptosis (TWEAK) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-TWEAK monoclonal antibody RG7212 binds to TWEAK and prevents the binding of TWEAK to its receptor, FGF-inducible molecule 14 (Fn14), thereby blocking the TWEAK/Fn14 signaling. This may prevent tumor cell proliferation, invasion, migration and angiogenesis. TWEAK has pleiotropic effects, mediating proinflammatory and pro-angiogenic activi... |
| Anti-TYRP1/CD3 T-cell Engager RO7293583 | A bispecific T-cell engager directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) tyrosinase-related protein 1 (TYRP1; TRP1; glycoprotein 75; gp75) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TYRP1/CD3 T-cell engager RO7293583 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and TYRP1 found on TYRP1-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to TYRP1-expressing tumor cells, which results ... |
| Anti-ULBP6 Monoclonal Antibody 23ME-01473 | An Fc effector-enhanced, humanized afucosylated monoclonal antibody directed against the natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D or KLRK1) ligand UL16-binding protein 6 (ULBP6), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-ULBP6 monoclonal antibody 23ME-01473 targets and binds to soluble form of ULBP6, thereby preventing the binding of soluble ULBP6 to NKG2D-expressing immune cells. This enhances the binding of NKG2D-expressing imm... |
| Anti-VEGF Anticalin PRS-050-PEG40 | A pegylated, proprietary lipocalin that targets human vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Pegylated anti-VEGF anticalin PRS-050 specifically targets and binds to VEGF receptor 2 (VEGFR2 or KDR), thereby preventing its activity. This may inhibit angiogenesis and eventually reduce tumor cell growth. |
| Anti-VEGF Monoclonal Antibody hPV19 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-VEGF monoclonal antibody hPV19 targets and binds to VEGFR at a unique binding site and inhibits VEGF binding to its receptors, VEGFR1 and VEGFR2, thereby preventing VEGF/VEGFR-mediated signaling. This prevents the growth and maintenance of tumor blood vessels. This decreases nutrient supply to tumor cells, res... |
| Anti-VEGF/ANG2 Nanobody BI 836880 | A nanobody directed against angiopoietin-2 (Ang2; ANGPT2)- and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)-derived peptides, with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Anti-VEGF/ANG2 nanobody BI 836880 binds to Ang2 and VEGF and inhibits receptor binding; this prevents Ang2- and VEGF-mediated signaling and inhibits both tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. Both VEGF and Ang2 are upregulated in a variety of cancer cell types and play a crucial role in angiogenesis. ... |
| Anti-VEGF/TGF-beta 1 Fusion Protein HB-002T | A recombinant, human immunoglobulin Fc fusion protein targeting both the transforming growth factor (TGF) beta 1 (TGF-beta 1; TGFb1) and the vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-VEGF/TGF-beta 1 fusion protein HB-002T, the fusion protein specifically and selectively targets, binds to and neutralizes both TGF-beta 1 and VEGF. This prevents TGFb1- and VEGF-mediated signaling and abrogates VEGF/VEGFR-i... |
| Anti-VEGF/TGF-beta Bispecific Antibody Fusion Protein ZGGS18 | A bifunctional antibody fusion protein targeting both vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and the pro-inflammatory cytokine human transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta; TGFb), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-VEGF/TGF-beta bispecific antibody fusion protein ZGGS18 targets, binds to and neutralizes both VEGF and TGF-beta. This prevents VEGF- and TGF-beta-mediated signaling and abrogates VEGF/VEGFR-induced angiogenesis and TGF-beta-mediated induction o... |
| Anti-VEGFC Monoclonal Antibody VGX-100 | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the human vascular endothelial growth factor C (VEGFC or Flt4 ligand) with potential antiangiogenic activity. Anti-VEGFC monoclonal antibody VGX-100 specifically binds to and inhibits VEGFC protein, thereby preventing its binding to VEGFR3 (FLT4) or VEGFR2 (KDR or FLK1). This may prevent VEGFC-mediated signaling and may lead to the inhibition of vascular and lymphatic endothelial cell proliferation. The inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and ly... |
| Anti-VEGFR2 Monoclonal Antibody MSB0254 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR-2; VEGFR2) with potential anti-angiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-VEGFR2 monoclonal antibody MSB0254 specifically binds to and inhibits VEGFR2, which may inhibit tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFR2, a tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an essential role in angiogenesis and the proliferation, survival, migration and differentiation o... |
| Anti-VEGFR2-CAR Retroviral Vector-transduced Autologous T-lymphocytes | Autologous human CD8-positive T-lymphocytes transduced with a recombinant retroviral vector encoding a chimeric T cell receptor (chimeric antigen receptor or CAR) consisting of an anti-vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2) scFv (single chain variable fragment), linked to the transmembrane domain of human CD8alpha and coupled to the costimulatory signaling domains of both CD28 and 4-1BB (CD137), and the CD3 zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR), with potential immunosti... |
| Anti-VEGFR3 Monoclonal Antibody IMC-3C5 | A fully-human monoclonal antibody directed against human vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 3 (VEGFR-3; Flt-4) with antiangiogenic activity. Anti-VEGFR-3 monoclonal antibody IMC-3C5 specifically binds to and inhibits VEGFR-3, which may result in inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and a decrease in tumor nutrient supply. VEGFR-3 plays a critical role in the embryonic vascular system development but is restricted postnatally to endothelial cells of lymphatic vessels and found to be expre... |
| Antiviral Agent TGN-S11 | A small molecule agent, with potential antiviral and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, antiviral agent TGN-S11 may exert its activity by as of yet not elucidated mechanisms of action. |
| Anti-VISTA Monoclonal Antibody HMBD-002 | An immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immune checkpoint regulatory protein V-domain Ig suppressor of T-cell activation (VISTA; programmed death 1 homolog; PD1H; PD-1H), with potential negative immune checkpoint regulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-VISTA monoclonal antibody HMBD-002 targets and binds to VISTA on monocytes and T-cells. This inhibits VISTA-mediated signaling, decreases the presence of monocytic myeloid-derive... |
| Anti-VISTA Monoclonal Antibody KVA12123 | An engineered, human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immune checkpoint regulatory protein V-domain Ig suppressor of T-cell activation (VISTA; programmed death 1 homolog; PD1H; PD-1H), with potential negative immune checkpoint regulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-VISTA monoclonal antibody KVA12123 targets and binds to VISTA on myeloid cells and T-cells within the tumor microenvironment (TME). This inhibits VISTA-mediated s... |
| Anti-VISTA Monoclonal Antibody W0180 | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immune checkpoint regulatory protein V-domain Ig suppressor of T-cell activation (VISTA; programmed death 1 homolog; PD1H; PD-1H), with potential negative immune checkpoint regulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-VISTA monoclonal antibody W0180 targets and binds to the extracellular domain of VISTA on myeloid cells and T-cells within the tumor microenvironment (TME). This inhibits ... |
| Anti-Wolbachia Agent AWZ1066S | An orally bioavailable synthetic compond that is active against the bacterium Wolbachia and that can potentially be used to treat diseases caused by namatodes of the family Filariodidea, such as lymphatic filariasis and onchocerciasis. Upon oral administration, the anti-Wolbachia agent AWZ1066S specifically kills Wolbachia through an as of yet not fully identified mechanism of action (MoA). In filarial nematodes-infected humans, adult worms need Wolbachia in order to grow, reproduce, and surv... |
| Antrodia cinnamomea Supplement | A dietary supplement containing extract from the medicinal fungus Antrodia cinnamomea with potential antiangiogenic, hepatoprotective and antioxidant activities. The components in Antrodia cinnamomea supplement are rather complex, however, rich in triterpenoids, polysaccharides, nucleosides (adenosine) nucleic acids, superoxide dismutase, other small molecular weight proteins and steroid like compounds. Neutral sugars in this supplement show inhibitory activity on endothelial tube formation, ... |
| Antroquinonol Capsule | An orally available capsule containing antroquinonol, a farnesylated quinone derivative isolated from the mycelium of Antrodia camphorata, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, antroquinonol binds to and inhibits protein prenylation mediated by the enzymes farnesyltransferase (FTase) and geranylgeranyltransferase 1 (GGTase-1). This prevents both post-translational prenylation and signaling activity of a number of Ras superfamily proteins, such as Ras and Rho. This ... |
| Anvatabart Opadotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of anvatabart, a monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2) site-specifically conjugated at two engineered residues of para-acetyl-phenylalanine (pAcF) via a stable oxime linker to the monomethyl auristatin F (MMAF) analog and potent microtubule inhibitor opadotin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anvatabart opadotin, the antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cells. U... |
| Anzurstobart | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa; CD172a) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anzurstobart targets and binds to SIRPa, a cell surface protein expressed on macrophages, thereby blocking the interaction between SIRPa and cluster of differentiation 47 (CD47) expressed on tumor cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibiti... |
| Apalutamide | A small molecule and androgen receptor (AR) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Apalutamide binds to AR in target tissues thereby preventing androgen-induced receptor activation and facilitating the formation of inactive complexes that cannot be translocated to the nucleus. This prevents binding to and transcription of AR-responsive genes. This ultimately inhibits the expression of genes that regulate prostate cancer cell proliferation and may lead to an inhibition of cell grow... |
| Apatorsen | A second-generation antisense oligonucleotide targeting heat shock protein 27 (Hsp27) with potential antitumor and chemosensitizing activities. Apatorsen suppresses tumor cell expression of Hsp27, which may induce tumor cell apoptosis and enhance tumor cell sensitivity to cytotoxic agents. Hsp27, a chaperone belonging to the small heat shock protein (sHsp) group of proteins, is a cytoprotective protein that supports cell survival under conditions of stress; it has been found to be over-expres... |
| Apaziquone | An indolequinone bioreductive prodrug and analog of mitomycin C with potential antineoplastic and radiosensitization activities. Apaziquone is converted to active metabolites in hypoxic cells by intracellular reductases, which are present in greater amounts in hypoxic tumor cells. The active metabolites alkylate DNA, resulting in apoptotic cell death. This agent displays selectivity activity towards both hypoxic solid tumors, which exhibits higher expression of cytochrome P450 reductase, and ... |
| APC8015F | A cell-based vaccine composed of previously frozen autologous antigen-presenting peripheral blood mononuclear cells (enriched for a dendritic cell fraction) that have been exposed to a recombinant protein consisting of granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) fused to prostatic-acid phosphatase (PAP), a protein expressed by prostate cancer cells.  Upon administration, the vaccine may stimulate an antitumor T-cell response against tumor cells expressing PAP. |
| APE1/Ref-1 Redox Inhibitor APX3330 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of apurinic/apyrimidinic endonuclease 1/reduction-oxidation (redox) effector factor-1 (APE1/Ref-1; APEX1), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the APE1/Ref-1 Inhibitor APX3330 selectively targets and binds to APE1/Ref-1. This inhibits the redox-dependent signaling activity of APE1/Ref-1, by preventing the reduction and activation of numerous APE1/Ref-1-dependent oncogenic transcription factors (TFs), such as nucle... |
| Aphidicoline Glycinate | A tetracyclic diterpene antibiotic isolated from the fungus Cephalosporium aphidicola and other fungal species with potential antineoplastic activity.  Aphidicoline glycinate blocks the cell cycle at early S-phase by specifically inhibiting DNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells, induces apoptosis, and stops the growth of eukaryotic cells and certain viruses by selectively inhibiting DNA polymerase II or viral-induced DNA polymerases. (NCI04) |
| Apilimod Dimesylate Capsule | A capsule containing the dimesylate salt form of apilimod, an inhibitor of the class III PI kinase phosphatidylinositol-3-phosphate 5-kinase (PIKfyve), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon oral administration of apilimod dimesylate capsule, apilimod selectively binds to and inhibits PIKfyve. The inhibition leads to disruption of PIKfyve-mediated signal transduction pathways and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in PIKfyve-overexpressing tumor cells. Also, PI... |
| APIM-containing Peptide ATX-101 | A cell-penetrating peptide comprised of the proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA)-interacting motif AlkB homologue 2 PCNA interacting motif (APIM) and cell penetration and nuclear localization domains, with potential chemo-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, APIM-containing peptide ATX-101 penetrates cells and targets and disrupts the interactions between PCNA and other APIM-containing proteins. This may result in the downregulation of oncogenic signaling pathw... |
| Apitolisib | An orally available agent targeting phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K) and mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) kinase in the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Apitolisib inhibits both PI3K kinase and mTOR kinase, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition of cancer cells overexpressing PI3K/mTOR. Activation of the PI3K/mTOR pathway promotes cell growth, survival, and resistance to chemotherapy and radiotherapy; mTOR, a serine/threonine... |
| Aplitabart | A recombinant agonistic pentameric immunoglobulin M (IgM) monoclonal antibody directed against human death receptor type 5 (DR5), also called tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL) receptor 2 (TRAILR2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, aplitabart, containing ten binding sites specific for DR5, specifically targets and binds to DR5, which mimics the interaction of DR5 with its natural ligand TRAIL. This cross-links ... |
| Apolizumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against 1D10, a polymorphic determinant on the HLA-DR beta chain that is expressed on normal and neoplastic B cells. Apolizumab induces complement-mediated cytotoxicity, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, and apoptosis of 1D10 antigen-positive B cells in vitro.  (NCI04) |
| Apomab | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against human death receptor 5 (DR5; TRAIL-R2; TNFRSF10B) with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Mimicking the natural ligand TRAIL (tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis inducing ligand), apomab binds to DR5, which may directly activate the extrinsic apoptosis pathway and indirectly induce the intrinsic apoptosis pathway in tumor cells. DR5 is a cell surface receptor of the TNF-receptor superfamily and is expressed in a broad ... |
| Apomine | A 1,1-bisphosphonate ester with potential antineoplastic and hypocholesterolemic activities. Apomine binds to hydroxyapatite crystals in the bone matrix where it inhibits enzymatic activity of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, which is required for the formation of mevalonate, the precursor of cholesterol. Consequently, shortage of mevalonate impedes the synthesis of downstream isoprenoids that are essential for protein prenylation. This leads to the loss of activity ... |
| Apoptosis Inducer BZL101 | An orally active aqueous extract derived from the plant Scutellaria barbata with potential antineoplastic activity. Sparing normal cells, apoptosis inducer BZL101 specifically facilitates translocation of the protein apoptosis-inducing factor (AIF) from the mitochondrial membrane into the nucleus in tumor cells, thereby causing tumor cell-specific chromatin condensation and DNA degradation followed by the induction of caspase-independent apoptosis. AIF is both a mitochondrial intermembrane fl... |
| Apoptosis Inducer GCS-100 | A galectin-binding polysaccharide derived from citrus pectin with potential antineoplastic activity. Apoptosis inducer GCS-100 binds to the carbohydrate-binding domain of the lectin galectin-3, which may result in apoptosis mediated through mitochondria/caspase activation cascades; this agent may overcome tumor growth mediated through anti-apoptotic protein Bcl-2, heat-shock protein 27 (Hsp27), and nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB). Galectin-3, a chimeric molecule consisting of both carbohydrate... |
| Apoptosis Inducer MPC-2130 | A broad-acting, apoptosis-inducing, small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, apoptosis inducer MPC-2130 exhibits proapoptotic activities in tumor cells, including membrane phosphatidylserine externalization, release of cytochrome C from mitochondria, caspase activation, cell condensation, and DNA fragmentation. In addition, because this agent is not a substrate for several types of multidrug resistance (MDR) ... |
| Apoptotic Autologous Tumor Cells-pulsed Alpha-type-1 Polarized Dendritic Cells | A cell based cancer vaccine composed of mature polarized dendritic cells (DCs) and pulsed with apoptotic autologous tumor cells that has potential immunostimulating and antineoplatic activities. Dendritic cells (DCs) were treated with interleukin-1beta, tumor necrosis factor alpha, interferon-alpha (IFN-a), IFN-gamma and polyinosinic:polycytidylic acid (p-I:C) to produce mature alpha type-1 polarized DCs (alphaDC1) that are capable of producing high levels of interleukin-12p70 (IL-12p70). The... |
| Apricoxib | An orally bioavailable nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent (NSAID) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Apricoxib binds to and inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), thereby inhibiting the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandins. Apricoxib-mediated inhibition of COX-2 may induce tumor cell apoptosis and inhibit tumor cell proliferation and tumor angiogenesis. COX-related metabolic pathways may represent crucial regulators of cellular proliferation an... |
| Aprinocarsen | A synthetic phosphorothioate oligodeoxynucleotide. As an antisense molecule, aprinocarsen hybridizes to the 3-untranslated region of the human protein kinase C (PKC-alpha) mRNA, thereby inhibiting PKC-alpha expression and growth of PKC-alpha-dependent tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Aprutumab | An antibody against the fibroblast growth factor receptor type 2 (FGFR2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, aprutumab binds to and inhibits FGFR2, which may result in the inhibition of both FGFR2 phosphorylation and FGFR2-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of cell proliferation and the induction of cell death of FGFR2-expressing tumor cells. FGFR2, upregulated in many tumor cell types, is a receptor tyrosine kinase, which is essent... |
| Aprutumab Ixadotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) directed against the fibroblast growth factor receptor type 2 (FGFR2) and conjugated to an as of yet unidentified toxin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, aprutumab ixadotin binds to FGFR2. Upon binding, the toxin selectively induces cell death, through an as of yet undisclosed mechanism of action, in FGFR2-expressing tumor cells. FGFR2, a receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays an essential r... |
| AR Antagonist BMS-641988 | An androgen receptor (AR) antagonist with potential antineoplastic and anti-androgenic activities. BMS-641988 binds to the androgen receptor in target tissues, thereby preventing androgen-induced receptor activation, and facilitates the formation of inactive complexes that cannot be translocated to the nucleus. This may inhibit androgen-dependent gene expression, subsequently leading to an inhibition of cell growth and apoptosis in AR-expressing cells. |
| Arabinoxylan Compound MGN3 | An arabinoxylane polysaccharide composed of the hemicellulose-Beta extract of rice bran, treated with enzymes from Shiitake mushrooms, that exerts antitumor and antiviral activity by increasing the level of natural killer cells activation. (NCI) |
| Aranose | A nitrosourea derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, aranose alkylates and crosslinks DNA during all phases of the cell cycle, resulting in disruption of DNA function, cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. |
| ARC Fusion Protein SL-279252 | An agonist redirected checkpoint (ARC) fusion protein consisting of the extracellular domains of human programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 4 (TNFSF4; OX40 ligand; OX40L; CD252), linked by a central Fc domain (PD1-Fc-OX40L), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, ARC fusion protein SL-279252 simultaneously binds to both tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4 (TNFR... |
| Archexin | A 20-mer antisense oligodeoxynucleotide (ODN) against the proto-oncogene Akt with potential antineoplastic activity. Akt-1 antisense oligonucleotide RX-0201 binds to Akt-1 mRNA, inhibiting translation of the transcript; suppression of Akt-1 expression may result in the inhibition of cellular proliferation and the induction of apoptosis in tumor cells that overexpress Akt-1. Akt-1 is a serine-threonine protein kinase that stimulates proliferation and inhibits apoptosis of tumor cells. |
| Arcitumomab | A murine IgG monoclonal Fab' fragment antibody directed against carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), a protein that is overexpressed by many tumor cell types. For tumors that overexpress CEA, technetium-99m labeled arcitumomab may be used as an adjunct diagnostic imaging tool to obtain prognostic information following resection and to monitor for recurrent disease. (NCI04) |
| Arfolitixorin | The R-isomer of folitixorin, a reduced folate-based biomodulator and active metabolite of folate drugs leucovorin (LV) and levoleucovorin (l-LV) that can be used to increase the efficacy of certain antimetabolites, such as the cytotoxic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), and reduce as well as protect against certain antimetabolite-associated adverse effects, such as those seen with high-dose (HD) methotrexate. Upon administration of arfolitixorin, 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate (MTHF) is a reduced ... |
| ARG1/ARG2 Inhibitor OATD-02 | An orally bioavailable boronic acid derivative and inhibitor of arginase 1 (ARG1) and 2 (ARG2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ARG1/ARG2 inhibitor OATD-02 selectively inhibits ARG1 and ARG2, thereby preventing the breakdown of arginine by arginase and restoring arginine levels. This allows arginine to stimulate the synthesis of nitric oxide (NO) and the secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines, which induces the prolifera... |
| Arginase-1 Long Peptide Vaccine | A peptide cancer vaccine comprised of a long peptide, amino acid 169 through 206 (ISAKDIVYIGLRDVDPGEHYILKTLGIKYFSMTEVDRL), obtained from arginase-1, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, the arginase-1 long peptide vaccine may activate the immune system to induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs)-mediated immune response against arginase-1-expressing cells. Arginase-1 is expressed by some cancer cells and by immune inhibitory cells, such as myeloid-de... |
| Arginase-1 Peptide Vaccine | A vaccine comprised of arginase-1 peptides, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon vaccination, the arginase-1 peptide vaccine may activate the immune system to induce an immune response against arginase-1-expressing cells. Arginase-1 is expressed by some cancer cells and by immune inhibitory cells, such as myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) and tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs); its expression is associated with poor prognosis. |
| Arginine Butyrate | A compound composed of the short chain fatty acid (SCFA) butyrate combined with the amino acid arginine, with potential Epstein-Barr virus thymidine kinase gene (EBV-TK)-inducing activity. Upon administration, arginine butyrate induces the expression of thymidine kinase (TK). This activates a co-administered antiviral, such as ganciclovir, and results in the destruction of EBV-infected cancer cells. In addition, butyrate inhibits histone deacetylase (HDAC), which results in hyperacetylation o... |
| Arlocabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-GPRC5D CAR-T cells BMS-986393 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in GPRC5D-expr... |
| Arnebia Indigo Jade Pearl Topical Cream | A proprietary multiherbal topical cream based on Chinese herbal medicine with potential antineoplastic, antiviral, antibacterial and immunostimulatory activities. Arnebia Indigo Jade Pearl topical cream contains 12 ingredients including 9 herbs infused in sesame oil, with an additional three powdered ingredients and beeswax added to the infused oil to create the salve. The purported mechanism(s) of action is unclear due to the complexity of the herbal mixture. |
| Arsenic Trioxide | A small-molecule arsenic compound with antineoplastic activity.  The mechanism of action of arsenic trioxide is not completely understood. This agent causes damage to or degradation of the promyelocytic leukemia protein/retinoic acid receptor-alpha (PML/RARa) fusion protein; induces apoptosis in acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) cells and in many other tumor cell types; promotes cell differentiation and suppresses cell proliferation in many different tumor cell types; and is pro-angiogenic. ... |
| Arsenic Trioxide Capsule Formulation ORH 2014 | An orally bioavailable capsule formulation of the inorganic toxic compound arsenic trioxide (As2O3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the mechanism of action (MoA) of As2O3 is not well understood, upon oral administration of ORH 2014, As2O3 appears to bind to DNA, prevent DNA synthesis, and cause DNA fragmentation, which leads to an induction of apoptosis in proliferating cells, including tumor cells. In addition, As2O3 causes damage to and induces degradation of the promyeloc... |
| Artemether Sublingual Spray | A sublingual spray containing artemether, a semisynthetic derivative of artemisinin, an endoperoxide extracted from the Chinese herb qinghaosu (Artemisia annua or annual wormwood), with antiparasitic and potential antineoplastic activity. Upon sublingual application of the spray, artemether exerts its antineoplastic activity through as of yet not fully elucidated mechanism(s) of action. This agent binds to heme molecules inside cells, thereby inducing reactive oxygen species (ROS)-mediated da... |
| Artemisia annua Decaffeinated Coffee | A decaffeinated coffee formulation containing Artemisia annua, with potential anti-inflammatory, antioxidant and chemopreventive activities. Artemisia annua contains specific sesquiterpene lactones, flavonoids, coumarins, phenolic acids, tannins, saponins, polyalkenes, phytosterols, fatty acids and proteins. The antioxidant compounds scavenge free radicals and inhibit cell damage due to reactive oxygen species (ROS). This inhibits oxidative stress and may protect against DNA damage. |
| Artemisinin Dimer | A sesquiterpene lactone peroxide and dimerized plant product derived from Artemisia annua L with anti-malarial, anti-proliferative and anti-angiogenic effects. Artemisinin contains an endoperoxide moiety which forms free radicals when it reacts with iron. The resultant carbon-based radical can lead to cellular damage and cell death by reacting with cellular macromolecules such as proteins and membrane lipids. Malaria parasites contain large amounts of heme-iron, a product from the digestion o... |
| Artesunate | A water-soluble, semi-synthetic derivative of the sesquiterpine lactone artemisinin with anti-malarial, anti-schistosomiasis, antiviral, and potential anti-neoplastic activities. Upon hydrolysis of artesunate's active endoperoxide bridge moiety by liberated heme in parasite-infected red blood cells, reactive oxygen species and carbon-centered radicals form, which have been shown to damage and kill parasitic organisms. Additionally, in vitro studies demonstrate that this agent induces DNA brea... |
| Arugula Seed Powder | A dietary supplement containing an extract powder derived from the seeds of the cruciferous vegetable arugula (Eruca sativa), with potential chemopreventive and antioxidant activities. Arugula seed powder contains numerous vitamins and minerals, and is rich in phytonutrients, such as sulforaphane and indole-3-carbinol. Although the exact mechanism of action through which arugula seed powder may exert its anti-tumor effect has yet to be fully elucidated, the effects of this powder on cancer ce... |
| Aryl Hydrocarbon Receptor Inhibitor IK-175 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AhR; class E basic helix-loop-helix protein 76; bHLHe76), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, AhR inhibitor IK-175 specifically targets and binds to AhR, inhibits AhR activation, prevents AhR-mediated signaling, and AhR-dependent tumor cell proliferation. Abrogation of AhR activation prevents the activation of immune-tolerant dendritic cells (DCs), regulatory T-cel... |
| Asaley | An L-leucine derivative of melphalan with antineoplastic activity. Asaley alkylates and crosslinks DNA, resulting in disruption of DNA synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Asaretoclax | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, asaretoclax targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2. This restores apoptotic processes in tumor cells. Bcl-2 is overexpressed in many cancers and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis; its expression is associated with increased drug resistance and tumor cell survival. |
| Asciminib | An orally bioavailable, allosteric Bcr-Abl1 tyrosine kinase inhibitor, with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, asciminib targets and binds to the myristoyl pocket of the Bcr-Abl1 fusion protein at a location that is distinct from the ATP-binding domain, thereby inhibiting the activity of both wild-type Bcr-Abl and certain mutation forms, including the T315I mutation. This binding results in the inhibition of Bcr-Abl1-mediated proliferation and enhanced apoptosis of Philadelphia chr... |
| Asciminib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of asciminib, an orally bioavailable, allosteric Bcr-Abl1 tyrosine kinase inhibitor, with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, asciminib targets and binds to the myristoyl pocket of the Bcr-Abl1 fusion protein at a location that is distinct from the ATP-binding domain, thereby inhibiting the activity of both wild-type Bcr-Abl and certain mutation forms, including the T315I mutation. This binding results in the inhibition of Bcr-Abl1-mediated proliferation ... |
| Ascrinvacumab | A fully human, IgG2 monoclonal antibody directed against activin-like receptor kinase 1 (ALK-1) with potential antineoplastic activity. Ascrinvacumab binds to and neutralizes ALK-1. This may disrupt tumor endothelial cell function and inhibit tumor angiogenesis, eventually leading to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. ALK-1, a member of the transforming growth factor beta (TGF-b) type I receptor family, is overexpressed on endothelial cells in a variety of tumor cell types and increas... |
| Ashwagandha Root Powder Extract | A dietary supplement containing an extract powder derived from the root of the ashwagandha shrub with potential antineoplastic, antioxidant, immunostimulating and anti-angiogenic activities. Ashwagandha root powder extract contains numerous alkaloids, including withanine as the primary alkaloid, and steroidal lactone withanolides. The withanolides in this agent may suppress nuclear factor-kappaB activation and nuclear factor-kappaB-regulated gene expression, potentiating apoptosis and inhibit... |
| ASO-STAT6-loaded PTGFRN-expressing Exosomes CDK-004 | A preparation of engineered cell-derived exosomes loaded with an antisense oligonucleotide (ASO) targeting the transcription factor signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) 6 (STAT6) on its surface and expressing high levels of the exosome surface glycoprotein prostaglandin F2 receptor negative regulator (PTGFRN; CD315), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, ASO-STAT6-loaded PTGFRN-expressing exosomes CDK004 preferential... |
| ASP4132 | A molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ASP4132 affects oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria of metabolically-active tumor cells, which reduces both energy production and tumor cell proliferation. Mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation is hyperactivated in tumor cells and plays a key role in the promotion of tumor cell proliferation. |
| Aspacytarabine | A small molecule pro-drug consisting of cytarabine, an antimetabolite analog of cytidine with a modified arabinose sugar moiety, covalently bonded to asparagine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, aspacytarabine targets cancer cells, which often lack asparagine synthetase and are dependent on an external source of amino acids due to their high metabolic rate. Once the prodrug is inside target cells, the cytarabine component is cleaved and competes with cy... |
| Asparaginase | An enzyme isolated from the bacterium Escherichia coli or the bacterium Erwinia carotovora with antileukemic activity. Asparaginase hydrolyzes L-asparagine to L-aspartic acid and ammonia in leukemic cells, resulting in the depletion of asparagine, inhibition of protein synthesis, cell cycle arrest in the G1 phase, and apoptosis in susceptible leukemic cell populations. Asparagine is critical to protein synthesis in leukemic cells; some leukemic cells cannot synthesize this amino acid de novo ... |
| Asparaginase Erwinia chrysanthemi | A recombinant form of asparaginase derived from the bacterium Erwinia chrysanthemi, genetically engineered to be produced in Pseudomonas fluorescens, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, asparaginase Erwinia chrysanthemi hydrolyzes L-asparagine to L-aspartic acid and ammonia. This depletes cancer cells of asparagine, which blocks protein synthesis and tumor cell proliferation. Asparagine is critical to protein synthesis in cancer cells, which cannot synthesize this ami... |
| Aspirin | An orally administered non-steroidal antiinflammatory agent. Acetylsalicylic acid binds to and acetylates serine residues in cyclooxygenases, resulting in decreased synthesis of prostaglandin, platelet aggregation, and inflammation. This agent exhibits analgesic, antipyretic, and anticoagulant properties. |
| Astatine At 211 Anti-CD38 Monoclonal Antibody OKT10-B10 | A radioimmunoconjugate composed of the anti-CD38 monoclonal antibody (MoAb) OKT10-B10 labeled with the alpha-emitting radionuclide astatine (At) 211 (211At), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of astatine At 211 anti-CD38 MoAb OKT10-B10, the MoAb moiety targets and binds to CD38-expressing tumor cells, thereby delivering a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation directly to the CD38-expressing tumor cells. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein and tumor-associated anti... |
| Astatine At 211 Anti-CD45 Monoclonal Antibody BC8-B10 | A radioimmunoconjugate containing the murine IgG1 anti-CD45 monoclonal antibody (MAb) BC8 where the lysine side groups have been conjugated with decaborate (closo-decaborate; B10) and labeled with astatine (At) 211, with potential immunotherapeutic activity. Astatine At 211 anti-CD45 monoclonal antibody BC8-B10 binds to CD45 antigen, a receptor protein-tyrosine phosphatase expressed on the surface of both normal and malignant hematopoietic cells. After binding and internalization by CD45-expr... |
| Astatine At 211 F(ab')2 MX35 | A radioimmunoconjugate composed of the F(ab')2 fragment of monoclonal antibody MX35 targeting the sodium-dependent phosphate transport protein 2b (NaPi2b; SLC34A2) labeled with the alpha-emitting radionuclide astatine (At) 211 (211At), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of astatine At 211 F(ab')2 MX35, the F(ab')2 MX35 moiety targets and binds to NaPi2b-expressing tumor cells, thereby delivering a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation directly to the NaPi2b-expressing tum... |
| Astuprotimut-R | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant form of human melanoma antigen A3 (MAGE-A3) combined with a proprietary adjuvant with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, astuprotimut-R may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the MAGE-A3 antigen, resulting in tumor cell death. MAGE-A3, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) originally discovered in melanoma cells, is expressed by various tumor types. The proprietar... |
| Asulacrine | An amsacrine analogue with antineoplastic properties. Asulacrine inhibits the enzyme topoisomerase ll, thereby blocking DNA replication and RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Asulacrine Isethionate | The isethionate salt of an amsacrine analogue with antineoplastic properties. Asulacrine inhibits the enzyme topoisomerase ll, thereby blocking DNA replication and RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Asunercept | A human, soluble fusion protein consisting of the extracellular domain of the CD95 receptor fused to the Fc-domain of the human IgG antibody, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, asunercept binds to the CD95 ligand (CD95L) and blocks the binding of CD95L to the CD95 receptor. In tumor cells, blockage of CD95L-mediated signaling pathways may prevent cell migration and invasive cell growth; in healthy cells, blockage of CD95L-mediated signaling pathways may prevent apopt... |
| At 211 Monoclonal Antibody 81C6 | A radioimmunoconjugate of a human-murine chimeric IgG2 monoclonal antibody (MoAb) 81C6 labeled with an alpha-emitting radionuclide Astatine 211 (At-211), with imaging and radioimmunotherapeutic properties. MoAb 81C6 recognizes the extracellular matrix antigen tenascin (hexabrachion), which is up-regulated in gliomas and other cancers. Using MoAb 81C6 as a carrier for At-211 results in the targeted imaging and/or destruction of cells expressing tenascin. |
| Atamestane | A synthetic steroidal substance with antineoplastic activity.  Atamestane binds irreversibly to and inhibits the enzyme aromatase, thereby blocking the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone and the peripheral aromatization of androgenic precursors into estrogens. (NCI04) |
| Atamparib | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 7, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration,atamparib selectively binds to PARP7 and restores interferon (type 1) signaling.  This may lead to the induction of both innate and adaptive immune responses, and the inhibition of tumor growth and proliferation. PARP catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear proteins that signal and rec... |
| Atezolizumab | A humanized, Fc optimized, monoclonal antibody directed against the protein ligand PD-L1 (programmed cell death-1 ligand 1; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Atezolizumab binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1) expressed on activated T-cells, which may enhance the T-cell-mediated immune response to neoplasms and reverse T-cell inactivation. In addition, by binding to PD-L1, atezoli... |
| Atigotatug | A monoclonal antibody directed against the ganglioside fucosyl-GM1, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, atigotatug binds to fucosyl-GM1 on cancer cells and may activate both antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity against the bound tumor cells. This may inhibit the proliferation of GM1-expressing tumor cells. Fucosyl-GM1, a sphingolipid monosialoganglioside and tumor associated antigen (TAA), is over... |
| Atiprimod | An orally bioavailable small molecule belonging to the azaspirane class of cationic amphiphilic agents with anti-inflammatory, antineoplastic, and antiangiogenic properties. Atiprimod inhibits the phosphorylation of signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3), blocking the signalling pathways of interleukin-6 and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and downregulating the anti-apoptotic proteins Bcl-2, Bcl-XL, and Mcl-1, thereby inhibiting cell proliferation, inducing cell... |
| Atiprimod Dihydrochloride | The dihydrochloride salt form of atiprimod, an orally bioavailable small molecule belonging to the azaspirane class of cationic amphiphilic agents with anti-inflammatory, antineoplastic, and anti-angiogenic activities. Atiprimod inhibits the phosphorylation of signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3) and AKT, blocking the signaling pathways of interleukin-6, vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and downregulating the anti-apoptotic proteins Bcl-2, Bcl-XL, and Mcl-1. Thi... |
| Atiprimod Dimaleate | The dimaleate salt form of atiprimod, an orally bioavailable small molecule belonging to the azaspirane class of cationic amphiphilic agents with anti-inflammatory, antineoplastic, and antiangiogenic activities. Atiprimod inhibits the phosphorylation of signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3) and AKT, blocking the signaling pathways of interleukin-6 and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and downregulating the anti-apoptotic proteins Bcl-2, Bcl-XL, and Mcl-1. This re... |
| Atirmociclib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, atirmociclib selectively inhibits CDK4, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and inhibits tumor cell proliferation. CDK4, a serine/threonine kinase, is upregulated in many tumor cell types and plays a key r... |
| ATM Inhibitor M 3541 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia mutated kinase (ATM), with potential chemo-/radio-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, M 3541 targets and binds to ATM, thereby inhibiting the kinase activity of ATM and ATM-mediated signaling. This prevents DNA damage checkpoint activation, disrupts DNA damage repair, induces tumor cell apoptosis, and leads to cell death of ATM-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, M 3541 sensitizes tumor cells to ch... |
| ATM Inhibitor SYH2051 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia mutated (ATM) kinase, with potential chemo-and radio-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ATM inhibitor SYH2051 selectively targets and binds to ATM, thereby inhibiting the kinase activity of ATM and ATM-mediated signaling. This prevents DNA damage checkpoint activation, disrupts DNA damage repair, induces apoptosis in damaged tumor cells, and leads to cell death in ATM-overexpressing tumor cells. SYH205... |
| ATM Kinase Inhibitor AZD0156 | An orally bioavailable ataxia telangiectasia mutated (ATM) kinase inhibitor, with potential chemo-/radio-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, AZD0156 targets and binds to ATM, thereby inhibiting the kinase activity of ATM and ATM-mediated signaling. This prevents DNA damage checkpoint activation, disrupts DNA damage repair, induces tumor cell apoptosis, and leads to cell death of ATM-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, AZD0156 sensitizes tumor cells to che... |
| ATM Kinase Inhibitor AZD1390 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia mutated (ATM) kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AZD1390 targets and binds to ATM, thereby inhibiting the kinase activity of ATM and ATM-mediated signaling. This prevents DNA damage checkpoint activation, disrupts DNA damage repair, induces tumor cell apoptosis, and leads to cell death in ATM-overexpressing tumor cells. AZD1390 hypersensitizes tumors to chemo/radiotherapy. In addition, AZD1390 is ... |
| ATM Kinase Inhibitor WSD-0628 | An orally bioavailable, brain-penetrable inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia mutated (ATM) kinase, with potential chemo-and radio-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ATM kinase inhibitor WSD-0628 selectively targets and binds to ATM, thereby inhibiting the kinase activity of ATM and ATM-mediated signaling. This prevents DNA damage checkpoint activation, disrupts DNA damage repair, induces apoptosis in damaged tumor cells, and leads to cell death in ATM-overexpr... |
| ATM Kinase/DNA-PK Inhibitor XRD-0394 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule, dual inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia mutated kinase (ATM) and DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK), with potential radio-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ATM kinase/DNA-PK inhibitor XRD-0394 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of ATM and DNA-PK. This inhibits ATM-mediated signaling, which may prevent DNA damage checkpoint activation, disrupt DNA damage repair and induce tumor cell apoptosis. By... |
| Atorvastatin Calcium | The calcium salt of atorvastatin, a synthetic lipid-lowering agent. Atorvastatin competitively inhibits hepatic hydroxymethyl-glutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, the enzyme which catalyzes the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate, a key step in cholesterol synthesis. This agent increases the number of LDL receptors on hepatic cell surfaces, enhancing the uptake and catabolism of LDL and reducing LDL production and the number of LDL particles, and lowers plasma cholesterol and lipoprotein ... |
| Atorvastatin Sodium | The sodium salt of atorvastatin, a synthetic lipid-lowering agent. Atorvastatin competitively inhibits hepatic hydroxymethyl-glutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, the enzyme which catalyzes the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate, a key step in cholesterol synthesis. This agent increases the number of LDL receptors on hepatic cell surfaces, enhancing the uptake and catabolism of LDL and reducing LDL production and the number of LDL particles, and lowers plasma cholesterol and lipoprotein l... |
| ATR Inhibitor ART0380 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related (ATR) kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ATR inhibitor ART0380 selectively targets and inhibits ATR activity and blocks the downstream phosphorylation of the serine/threonine protein kinase checkpoint kinase 1 (CHK1). This prevents ATR-mediated signaling, which results in the inhibition of DNA damage checkpoint activation, the disruption of DNA damage repair, and the induction of ... |
| ATR Inhibitor ATG-018 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the DNA damage response (DDR) protein kinase ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related (ATR) kinase, with potential checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ATR inhibitor ATG-018 selectively targets and binds to ATR, and inhibits its activity and ATR-mediated signaling. This blocks the downstream phosphorylation of the serine/threonine protein kinase checkpoint kinase 1 (CHK1). This results in the inhibition of DNA damage ... |
| ATR Inhibitor ATRN-119 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the DNA damage response (DDR) protein kinase ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related (ATR) kinase, with potential checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ATR inhibitor ATRN-119 selectively targets and binds to ATR, and inhibits its activity and ATR-mediated signaling. This blocks the downstream phosphorylation of the serine/threonine protein kinase checkpoint kinase 1 (CHK1). This results in the inhibition of DNA damage... |
| ATR Inhibitor IMP9064 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the DNA damage response (DDR) protein kinase ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related (ATR) kinase, with potential checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ATR inhibitor IMP9064 selectively targets and binds to ATR, and inhibits its activity and ATR-mediated signaling. This blocks the downstream phosphorylation of the serine/threonine protein kinase checkpoint kinase 1 (CHK1). This results in the inhibition of DNA damage ... |
| ATR Inhibitor TQB3015 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the DNA damage response (DDR) protein kinase ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related (ATR) kinase, with potential checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ATR inhibitor TQB3015 selectively targets and binds to ATR, and inhibits its activity and ATR-mediated signaling. This blocks the downstream phosphorylation of the serine/threonine protein kinase checkpoint kinase 1 (CHK1). This results in the inhibition... |
| Atrasentan Hydrochloride | The orally available hydrochloride salt of pyrrolidine-3-carboxylic acid with potential antineoplastic activity.  As a selective antagonist of the endothelin-A (ETA) receptor, atrasentan binds selectively to the ETA receptor, which may result in inhibition of endothelin-induced angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. |
| Attenuated Chimpanzee Adenovirus 5T4 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of a recombinant, attenuated, replication-defective simian adenovirus vector (ChAdOx1) encoding the human 5T4 fetal oncoprotein (ChAdOx1.5T4), with potential immuno-activating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the recombinant attenuated chimpanzee adenovirus 5T4 vaccine, the viral vector expresses 5T4 and stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing 5T4, which results in tumor c... |
| Attenuated Corynebacterium Parvum | A heat-inactivated preparation of Corynebacterium parvum with immunoadjuvant properties. Therapeutic Corynebacterium parvum may stimulate host antitumor immune responses when added to cancer vaccines. (NCI04) |
| Attenuated Listeria monocytogenes ANZ-100 | A live-attenuated strain of the Gram-positive bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, attenuated Listeria monocytogenes ANZ-100 may accumulate in and infect liver cells where it may activate a potent innate immune response and an adaptive immune response involving the by recruitment and activation of T lymphocytes. This agent may potentiate the immune response to vaccines against various liver neopl... |
| Attenuated Live Listeria monocytogenes Encoding KRAS G12D | An off-the-shelf, plasmid DNA-based cancer vaccine composed of a live-attenuated strain of the Gram-positive bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) carrying a plasmid vector encoding multiple, not yet disclosed, tumor associated antigens (TAAs) and sequence peptides associated with commonly occurring hotspot mutations, including the aspartic acid substitution for glycine at position 12 (G12D) in KRAS, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ADXS-503... |
| Attenuated Measles Virus Encoding SCD Transgene TMV-018 | A recombinant, attenuated oncolytic measles virus (MV) encoding the prodrug converting enzyme super cytosine deaminase (SCD), that can potentially be used as an antineoplastic adjuvant and with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intra-tumoral injection, TMV-018 preferentially enters and transfects tumor cells, and expresses SCD, an enzyme that catalyzes the intracellular conversion of the prodrug flucytosine (5-fluorocytosine; 5-FC) into the antineoplastic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU). Af... |
| Atuveciclib | An inhibitor of positive transcription elongation factor b (P-TEFb), which is composed of cyclin-dependent kinase 9 (CDK9) and cyclin-T (CycT), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, atuveciclib binds to and inhibits the activity of P-TEFb, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of its downstream target, the carboxyl terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II (RNA Pol II), and inhibiting the activation of transcriptional elongation by RNA Pol II. This prevents the transc... |
| Audencel | A therapeutic interleukin-12 (IL-12)-expressing dendritic cell (DC)-based vaccine composed of autologous monocyte-derived DCs loaded with autologous tumor cell lysate and exposed to the microbial cell wall component lipopolysaccharide (LPS), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The monocyte-derived immature DCs are loaded with autologous tumor cell lysates and are subsequently exposed to LPS and interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma). Upon administration of audencel, the matur... |
| Aumolertinib | An orally available inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutant form T790M, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, aumolertinib binds to and inhibits EGFR T790M, a secondarily acquired resistance mutation, inhibits the tyrosine kinase activity of EGFR T790M, prevents EGFR T790M-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR T790M-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase that is mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in ... |
| Auranofin | An orally available, lipophilic, organogold compound, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, with anti-inflammatory and potential antineoplastic activities. Auranofin interacts with selenocysteine residue within the redox-active domain of mitochondrial thioredoxin reductase (TrxR), thereby blocking the activity of TrxR. As a result, this agent induces mitochondrial oxidative stress leading to the induction of apoptosis. Furthermore, this agent strongly inhibits the JAK1/STAT3 signal transduction... |
| Aurora A Kinase Inhibitor JAB-2485 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Aurora A, with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Aurora A kinase inhibitor JAB-2485 binds to and inhibits Aurora A kinase, which may result in disruption of the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus, disruption of chromosome segregation, inhibition of cell division and the induction of apoptosis in cells overexpressing Aurora A kinase. Aurora A kinase localiz... |
| Aurora A Kinase Inhibitor LY3295668 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase aurora A, with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, aurora A kinase inhibitor LY3295668 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of aurora A kinase. This may result in disruption of the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus, disruption of chromosome segregation, inhibition of cell division and the induction of apoptosis in cells overexpressing aurora A kinase. Aurora A kinase, o... |
| Aurora A Kinase Inhibitor LY3295668 Erbumine | The tert-butylamine salt form of LY3295668, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase aurora A, with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, aurora A kinase inhibitor LY3295668 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of aurora A kinase. This may result in disruption of the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus, disruption of chromosome segregation, inhibition of cell division and the induction of apoptosis in cells overex... |
| Aurora A Kinase Inhibitor MK5108 | An orally bioavailable, highly selective small molecule inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Aurora A, with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activity. Aurora A kinase inhibitor MK5108 binds to and inhibits Aurora A kinase, which may result in disruption of the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus, disruption of chromosome segregation, and eventually inhibition of cell division, proliferation and an induction of apoptosis in cells overexpressing Aurora A kinase. Aurora... |
| Aurora A Kinase Inhibitor VIC-1911 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase aurora A, with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, aurora A kinase inhibitor VIC-1911 binds to and inhibits aurora A kinase, which may result in disruption of the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus, disruption of chromosome segregation, inhibition of cell division and the induction of apoptosis in cells overexpressing aurora A kinase. Aurora A kinase localizes to th... |
| Aurora A Kinase/Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor ENMD-2076 | An orally bioavailable synthetic small molecule with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Aurora A kinase/tyrosine kinase inhibitor ENMD-2076 selectively binds to and inhibits non-specified tyrosine kinases and Aurora kinases (AKs). The inhibition of AKs may result in the inhibition of cell division and proliferation and may induce apoptosis in tumor cells that overexpress AKs; antiangiogenic activity is related to the inhibition of angiogenic tyrosine kinases. AKs are seri... |
| Aurora B Serine/Threonine Kinase Inhibitor TAK-901 | A small-molecule inhibitor of the serine-threonine kinase Aurora B with potential antineoplastic activity. Aurora B kinase inhibitor TAK-901 binds to and inhibits the activity of Aurora B, which may result in a decrease in the proliferation of tumor cells that overexpress Aurora B. Aurora B is a positive regulator of mitosis that functions in the attachment of the mitotic spindle to the centromere; the segregation of sister chromatids to each daughter cell; and the separation of daughter cell... |
| Aurora B/C Kinase Inhibitor GSK1070916A | An ATP-competitive inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinases Aurora B and C with potential antineoplastic activity. Aurora B/C kinase inhibitor GSK1070916A binds to and inhibits the activity of Aurora B and C, which may result in inhibition of cellular division and a decrease in the proliferation of tumor cells that overexpress the Aurora kinases B and C. Aurora kinases play essential roles in mitotic checkpoint control during mitosis, and are overexpressed by a wide variety of cancer cell ty... |
| Aurora B/VEGFR/FGFR Inhibitor AL8326 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor kinases Aurora B, fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR), and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR), with potential antimitotic, antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Aurora B/VEGFR/FGFR inhibitor AL8326 specifically binds to and inhibits the activity of Aurora B, FGFR and VEGFR. Inhibition of Aurora B causes disruption of the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus, disruption of chromosome s... |
| Aurora Kinase Inhibitor AMG 900 | A small-molecule inhibitor of Aurora kinases A, B and C with potential antineoplastic activity. Aurora kinase inhibitor AMG 900 selectively binds to and inhibits the activities of Aurora kinases A, B and C, which may result in inhibition of cellular division and proliferation in tumor cells that overexpress these kinases. Aurora kinases are serine-threonine kinases that play essential roles in mitotic checkpoint control during mitosis and are overexpressed by a wide variety of cancer cell types. |
| Aurora Kinase Inhibitor BI 811283 | A small molecule inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Aurora kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Aurora kinase inhibitor BI 811283 binds to and inhibits Aurora kinases, resulting in disruption of the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus, disruption of chromosome segregation, and inhibition of cell proliferation. |
| Aurora Kinase Inhibitor MLN8054 | An orally bioavailable, highly selective small molecule inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Aurora A kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Auora kinase inhibitor MLN8054 binds to and inhibits Aurora kinase A, resulting in disruption of the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus, disruption of chromosome segregation, and inhibition of cell proliferation. Aurora A localizes in mitosis to the spindle poles and to spindle microtubules and is thought to regulate spindle as... |
| Aurora Kinase Inhibitor PF-03814735 | An aurora kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. PF-03814735 binds to and inhibits aurora kinases, serine-threonine kinases that play essential roles in mitotic checkpoint control during mitosis. Inhibition of aurora kinases may result in an inhibition of cellular division and proliferation in tumor cells that overexpress aurora kinases. |
| Aurora Kinase Inhibitor SNS-314 | A synthetic small molecule Aurora kinase (AK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Aurora kinase inhibitor SNS-314 selectively binds to and inhibits AKs A and B, which may result in the inhibition of cellular division and proliferation in tumor cells that overexpress AKs. AKs are serine-threonine kinases that play essential roles in mitotic checkpoint control during mitosis. |
| Aurora Kinase Inhibitor TTP607 | A small-molecule pan-Aurora kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Aurora kinase inhibitor TTP607 selectively binds to and inhibits Aurora kinases A, B and C, which may result in the disruption of the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus, disruption of chromosome segregation, and inhibition of cellular division and proliferation in Aurora kinase-overexpressing tumor cells. Aurora kinases A, B and C, are serine/threonine kinases that play essential roles in mitotic check... |
| Aurora Kinase/VEGFR2 Inhibitor CYC116 | An orally bioavailable small molecule multi-kinase inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Aurora kinase/VEGFR 2 inhibitor CYC116 inhibits Aurora kinases A and B and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), resulting in disruption of the cell cycle, rapid cell death, and the inhibition of angiogenesis. Aurora kinases are serine/threonine protein kinases that are only expressed in actively dividing cells and are critical in division or mitosis. VEGFR2 is a receptor tyrosine kina... |
| Autogene Cevumeran | An mRNA-based individualized, therapeutic cancer vaccine targeting an unspecified amount of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) that are specifically expressed in the patient's cancer, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autogene cevumeran is taken up and translated by antigen presenting cells (APCs) and the expressed protein is presented via major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on the surface of the APCs. This leads to an induction of... |
| Autologous 19-28z/IL-18 CAR T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) fused to the extracellular, transmembrane and intracellular signaling domains of the T-cell co-stimulatory receptor CD28 and the cytoplasmic signaling domain of the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (19-28z), and expressing the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin 18 (IL-18), with potential immu... |
| Autologous 4-1BB Selected Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) expressing the co-stimulatory signaling domain 4-1BB (CD137), with potential antineoplastic activity. TILs are isolated from a patient's tumor and those expressing 4-1BB are selected for expansion in vitro. Upon re-infusion into the patient, the 4-1BB-expressing TILs re-infiltrate the tumor to initiate tumor cell lysis. 4-1BB, a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily, enhances TIL survival and antitumor ... |
| Autologous Active IL-7 Receptor Co-expressing GD2-specific CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) GD2, and the constitutively active interleukin 7 (IL-7) receptor (C7R), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, autologous active IL-7 receptor co-expressing GD2-specific CAR T-cells target, bind to, and induce selective toxicity in GD2-expressing tumor cells. C7R triggers IL-7-mediated... |
| Autologous ACTR-CD16-CD28-expressing T-lymphocytes ACTR707 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified, using proprietary Antibody-Coupled T-cell Receptor (ACTR) technology, to express a chimeric protein containing, at least, the extracellular Fc receptor domain of CD16, normally found on certain immune cells, such as natural killer (NK) cells, coupled to the co-stimulatory signaling domain of CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction into the patient with co-administra... |
| Autologous Ad-CD154-Transduced CLL B Cells | An autologous tumor cell vaccine containing chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) B cells transduced with an adenoviral vector carrying chimeric CD154 (ad-CD154) with potential antineoplastic activity. Administration of autologous ad-CD154 transduced CLL B cells may result in increases in the numbers of leukemia-specific CD4+ T cells and high serum-levels of IL-12 and IFN-gamma. Due to ligation of CD154 to CD40 on CLL cells, this agent may induce CLL cells to express the proapoptotic molecule BI... |
| Autologous AFP Specific T Cell Receptor Transduced T Cells C-TCR055 | A preparation of human autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding for a T-cell receptor (TCR) recognizing the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02:01 restricted human alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) 158-166 peptide (FMNKFIYEI), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the AFP specific TCR transduced T cells recognize and bind to AFP antigen-positive cells, which results in lysis and killing o... |
| Autologous ALPG/ALPP-targeted Anti-MSLN CAR-Fas/PTPN2 shRNA-miR-expressing T-lymphocytes AB-1015 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been modified to encode a genetic circuit consisting of a priming receptor that induces the expression of a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN) upon binding to the TAAs alkaline phosphatase (ALP) isozymes ALP germ cell type (ALPG; GCAP) or ALP placental type (ALPP; placental ALP; PLAP), and a dual microRNA-adapted short hairpin RNA (shRNA-miR) targeting Fas (FAS; CD95; APO-1; tumo... |
| Autologous Alpha-PNE Switchable CAR-T Cells CLBR001 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that has been genetically engineered to express a switchable, alpha-peptide neo-epitope (PNE) chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) with a binding domain that can recognize a 14 aa peptide epitope, or PNE, of an antigen-specific adapter molecule, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous alpha-PNE switchable CAR-T (sCAR-T) cells CLBR001 remain inactivated. Upon administration of an antigen-specific adapte... |
| Autologous Alpha-PNE Switchable CAR-T Cells CLBR001 and CD19-specific Adapter Molecule SWI019 | A combination of CLBR001, a preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that has been genetically engineered to express a switchable, alpha-peptide neo-epitope (PNE) chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) with a binding domain that can recognize a 14 aa peptide epitope, or PNE, of an antigen-specific adapter molecule, and SWI019, a preparation of adapter molecules consisting of an antibody fragment (Fab) targeting CD19 linked to a PNE recognizable by CLBR001, with potential immunomodulating and antineop... |
| Autologous AML/Dendritic Cell Fusion Vaccine | A therapeutic cell-based cancer vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) fused with autologous acute myeloid leukemia (AML) cells, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. The autologous AML/DC fusion vaccine is generated in vitro by mixing DCs and irradiated AML cells harvested from individual patients, in the presence of polyethylene glycol (PEG), to produce hybrid DC-leukemia fusion cells. Upon re-administration, the autologous AML/DC fusion vaccine may... |
| Autologous Anti-ALPP CAR Retroviral Vector-transduced T Cells | A preparation of autologous T lymphocytes that have been transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting alkaline phosphatase, placental type (ALPP; placental alkaline phosphatase; PLAP), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion back into the patient, autologous anti-ALPP CAR retroviral vector-transduced T cells target and bind to ALPP-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in ALPP-expressing ... |
| Autologous Anti-B7-H3 CAR Retroviral Vector-transduced T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion back into the patient, autologous anti-B7-H3 CAR retroviral vector-transduced T cells target and bind to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells, there... |
| Autologous Anti-B7-H3 CAR T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion back into the patient, autologous anti-B7-H3 CAR T cells target and bind to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in B7-H3-ex... |
| Autologous Anti-B7-H3 CAR T Cells CAR.B7-H3T | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion back into the patient, autologous anti-B7-H3 CAR T cells CAR.B7-H3T target and bind to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity ... |
| Autologous Anti-B7-H3 CAR-iC9-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) and the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9 or iC9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-B7-H3 CAR-iC9-expressing T-lymphocytes specifically target and bind to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. B7-H3, a ty... |
| Autologous Anti-B7-H3/CD19 CAR T-cells SCRI-CARB7H3(s)x19 | A preparation of autologous CD4+ and CD8+ T-lymphocytes lentivirally transduced to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) and the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-B7-H3/CD19 CAR T-cel... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA CAR T-cells IM21 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector (LV) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and containing, as of yet undisclosed costimulatory signaling domains, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the autologous anti-BCMA CAR T-cells IM21 recognize and induce selective t... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA CAR T-cells MCARH125 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the autologous anti-BCMA CAR T-cells MCARH125 recognize and induce selective toxicity against BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor-specific antigen and a re... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA CAR T-cells PHE885 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the autologous anti-BCMA CAR T-cells PHE885 recognize and induce selective toxicity against BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor-specific antigen and a rece... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA CAR T-cells spCART-269 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17; CD269), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-BCMA CAR T-cells spCART-269 recognize and induce selective toxicity against BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, ... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA CAR T-cells UF-KURE-BCMA | A preparation of autologous CD4+ and CD8+ T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector (LV) encoding for a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-BCMA CAR T-cells UF-KURE-BCMA specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA,... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA CAR-transduced T-cells KITE-585 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from a human monoclonal antibody specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) fused, via an as of yet unknown linker, to the co-stimulatory domain of CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic a... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA CD8+ CAR T-cells Descartes-11 | A preparation of autologous CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-BCMA CD8+ CAR T-cells Descartes-11 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in BCMA-expressing t... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA/CS1 Bispecific CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting both the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17) and human CS1 (CD2 subset 1; SLAM family member 7; SLAMF7; CD319; CRACC), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-BCMA/CS1 bispecific CAR-T cells target and bind to tumor cells expressing BCMA and/or CS1 and induce selective cytotoxicity in... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR Expressing Stem Memory T-cells P-BCMA-101 | A preparation consisting of autologous T-cells that are enriched to be primarily stem memory T-cells (Tscm) and are transfected by electroporation with a proprietary transposon-based DNA plasmid vector (PiggyBac) containing an undisclosed selection gene and encoding both an unidentified human-derived safety switch and a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) based on a proprietary non-immunoglobulin scaffold molecule Centyrin (CARTyrin), which specifically recognizes human B-cell maturation antigen ... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-lymphocytes | A preparation of an approximately equal ratio of autologous CD4- and CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that have been ex vivo transduced with a genetically-engineered self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector (LV) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) fused to the co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing Memory T-lymphocytes bb21217 | A preparation of autologous memory T-lymphocytes transduced, ex vivo, with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing an anti-B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA) single chain variable fragment (scFv) fused to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and a CD3-zeta T-cell activation domain, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration back into the patient, the autologous anti-BCMA-CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing memory... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-cells C-CAR088 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for the epitome cluster E3 in the extracellular domain (ECD) of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) that is fused to the co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the T-cell receptor signaling domain of CD3zeta (C... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-4-1BB-expressing T-cells NXC-201 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a retroviral vector encoding for a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) fused to the co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-BCMA-CAR-4-1BB-expressing T-cells NXC-201 specif... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-lymphocytes FCARH143 | A preparation of ex vivo expanded autologous CD8+ and CD4+ T-cells that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-BCMA-CAR-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-lymphocytes FCARH143 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in BCMA-expressing tumor ... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-mRNA-transfected CD8+ T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified via transient mRNA transfection to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-BCMA-... |
| Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-TCRz/4-1BB-expressing T-lymphocytes CART-BCMA | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been ex vivo transduced with a genetically-engineered lentiviral vector (LV) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing an extracellular human single chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) fused to an intracellular tandem signaling domain comprised of the co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB (C... |
| Autologous Anti-CD123 CAR TCR/4-1BB-expressing T-lymphocytes | Autologous, genetically engineered T-lymphocytes that have been electroporated with a messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-human interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain (IL3RA; CD123) single chain variable fragment (scFv) coupled to the co-stimulatory signaling domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR) CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon transfusion, the mRNA-ele... |
| Autologous Anti-CD123 CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD123 (interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain or IL3RA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD123 CAR-T cells target and bind to CD123 expressed on the surface of tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in CD123-expressing tumor cells. CD123, the alpha subunit of the IL-3 receptor, reg... |
| Autologous Anti-CD147 CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous activated T cells that have been engineered to express chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD147 (Basigin; EMMPRIN; extracellular matrix metalloproteinase inducer; OX47; 5A11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration back into the patient, the anti-CD147 CAR T-cells target and induce selective cytotoxicity in CD147-expressing tumor cells. CD147, a cell-surface glycoprotein of the immunoglobulin G (Ig... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 AbTCR-expressing T-lymphocytes EB103 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding an antibody-T-cell-receptor (AbTCR) composed of a CD19-binding domain derived from an antibody fragment antigen binding (Fab) region and an effector domain derived from human gamma/delta TCR, and a co-stimulatory molecule composed of a CD19-binding domain derived from a single-chain variable fragment (scFv) and a co-stimulatory domain derived from a human co-stimulatory receptor, with potential immunostimul... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR T Cells KITE-197 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR T-cells KITE-197 specifically recognize and kill tumor cells expressing CD19. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage malignancies. |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR T-cells 19(T2)28z1xx | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, and linked to the co-stimulatory intracellular signaling domains of CD28 and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (CD28zeta; CD28z), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19 CAR T-cells 19(T2)28z1xx specifically recognize and bind to CD19-exp... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR T-cells IM19 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR T-cells IM19 target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR TCR-zeta/4-1BB-transduced T-lymphocytes huCART19 | Autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a humanized single chain variable fragment (scFv) of anti-CD19 coupled to the cytoplasmic portion of the zeta chain of the human T-cell receptor (CD3zeta) and the co-stimulatory molecule 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon re-introduction into the patient, the autologous anti-CD19 CAR TCR-zeta/4-1BB-transduced T-... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR Vector-transduced T Cells pCAR-19B | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation (CD) 19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR vector-transduced T-cells pCAR-19B specifically recognize and kill CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen ex... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-cells CNCT19 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) composed of an anti-cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) single chain variable fragment (scFv) linked to the intracellular signaling domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (TCRzeta; CD247; CD3zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19 CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-cells CNCT19 target, bi... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-CD28 T-cells ET019002 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) of anti-CD19, coupled to the costimulatory domain of CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, the autologous anti-CD19 CAR-CD28 T-cells ET019002 target, bind to, and induce selective toxicity in CD19-expressing B-cells. The CD19 antigen is a B-cell-specific ... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) composed of an anti-cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) single chain variable fragment (scFv) linked to the intracellular signaling domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (TCRzeta; CD247; CD3zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the autologous anti-CD19 CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing T-cells, these cells ta... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing T-cells PZ01 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) of anti-CD19, coupled to the costimulatory domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the human T-cell receptor (CD3zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, the autologous anti-CD19 CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing T-cells PZ01 target, bind to, and induce s... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-CD8alpha-CD28-CD3zeta T Cells KYV 101 | A preparation of autologous CD4- and CD8-positive T-cells that are transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding for a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a human single chain variable fragment (scFv) of anti-CD19 and fused to the hinge and transmembrane domains of CD8alpha co-receptor, the cytoplasmic costimulatory domain of human CD28, and the T-cell antigen receptor complex zeta chain (CD3-zeta), with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon transfusion, autologous anti-CD19 CAR... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-expressing T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) that targets the human tumor associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR-expressing T lymphocytes bind to and induce selective toxicity against CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage malignancies. |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes CLIC-1901 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) that targets the human tumor associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes CLIC-1901 bind to and induce selective toxicity against CD19-expressing tumor cells. The CD19 antigen is a B-cell-specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage mal... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes IC19/1563 | preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) that targets the human tumor associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes IC19/1563 bind to and induce selective toxicity against CD19-expressing tumor cells. The CD19 antigen is a B-cell-specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage malig... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UF-KURE19 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) that targets the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UF-KURE19 bind to and induce selective toxicity against CD19-expressing tumor cells. The CD19 antigen is a B-cell-specific cell surface ant... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-IL-18-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19), and expressing the pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin 18 (IL-18), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR-IL-18-expressing T-lymphocytes target, bind to, and induce selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. IL-18 promotes T-cell persistence an... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-T Cells CABA-201 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the B-lymphocyte antigen CD19, coupled to a costimulatory domain of 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunomodulatory activity. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR-T cells CABA-201 target and bind to CD19-expressing B-cells. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressing B-cells. CD19, a B-cell-specific cell surface ant... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-T Cells GC019F | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR-T cells GC019F target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressing tumor cells, the release of cytotoxic molecules and the induction o... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cells SJCAR19 | A proprietary preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and containing, as of yet undisclosed, costimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR T-cells SJCAR19 target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 DASH CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a gamma-retrovirus vector expressing a second-generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 DASH CAR-T cells target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 TAC-T cells TAC01-CD19 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes genetically engineered with a T cell Antigen Coupler (TAC), comprising of a domain that targets the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD 19) and another domain that binds to the endogenous T cell receptor (TCR), anchored in the membrane via the CD4 co-receptor domain, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 TAC-T cells TAC01-CD19 targets and binds to CD19-exp... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 T-cell Receptor Fusion Construct T-cells TC-110 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a single-domain antibody that recognizes human CD19, fused to the CD3-epsilon T-cell receptor (TCR) subunit which, upon expression is incorporated into the endogenous TCR complex, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19 TCR fusion construct (TRuC) T-cells TC-110 specifically target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells. This leads to T-cell activation and ... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19 T-cell Receptor T cells ET190L1 | Autologous human peripheral blood T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentivirus encoding a proprietary expression construct composed of a T-cell receptor (TCR)-like human antibody, which is synthesized by a proprietary phage display platform, targeting peptides derived from the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 that are presented in the context of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules, with potential antineoplastic activity. Following leukapheresis, isolation of lymphocytes, expansi... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19/Anti-CD20-CAR-CD28-4-1BB-CD3zeta-EGFRt+-expressing Tn/mem Cells | A preparation of genetically modified autologous naive/memory T-cells (Tn/mem),  that have been transduced with a self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector to express a bispecific chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) of anti-CD19, derived from the anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody FMC63, in tandem with an anti-CD20 scFv, derived from the anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody Leu16, and fused to the hinge domain of human immunoglobulin (Ig) G4, the transmem... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19/Anti-CD79b CAR-expressing Bispecific T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) CD19 and B-cell antigen receptor complex-associated protein beta chain (CD79b; B-cell-specific glycoprotein B29), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19/anti-CD79b CAR-expressing bispecific T-cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in CD19- and... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19/CD20 Bispecific CAR-T Cells IMPT-314 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) and CD20, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19/CD20 bispecific CAR-T cells IMPT-314 target and bind to CD19- and CD20-expressing tumor B-cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor B-cells expressing these TAAs. Both CD19 and CD20 ... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19/CD20 Bispecific Nanobody-based CAR-T cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) that is nanobody-based and specific for the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) and CD20, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19/CD20 bispecific nanobody-based CAR-T cells target and bind to CD19- and CD20-expressing tumor B-cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor B-cells expressin... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19/CD20 CAR-T Cells KITE-363 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) and CD20, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19/CD20 CAR-T cells KITE-363 target and bind to CD19- and CD20-expressing tumor B-cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor B-cells expressing these TAAs. Both CD19 and CD20 are B-cell-... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19/CD22 CAR T-cells AUTO3 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a bicistronic retroviral vector encoding both an anti-CD19 chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) fused to OX40 co-stimulatory domain and an anti-CD22 CAR linked to the intracellular signaling domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (TCRzeta; CD247; CD3zeta), optimized with a novel pentameric spacer derived from the collagen oligomeric matrix protein (COMP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upo... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19CAR-4-1BB/CD3zeta-HER2tG-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-lymphocytes SCRI-huCAR19v2 | A preparation of autologous CD4- and CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector (LV) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 that is fused to the intracellular cytoplasmic domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3zeta), and linked to a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2tG), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activiti... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing CD4+/CD8+ Central Memory T-lymphocytes JCAR014 | A defined preparation of CD4+ and CD8+ central memory (CM) autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing an anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment (scFv) fused to the signaling domains of CD28, 4-1BB (CD137), the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administ... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing T Lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified CD8+ central memory (Tcm) and CD4+ autologous T-lymphocytes (1:1) transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing an anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from the murine IgG1 monoclonal antibody (mAb) FMC63, fused to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), and a truncated form of the human epiderm... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19CAR-CD28tm/4-1BB/CD3zeta-HER2tG-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-lymphocytes SCRI-huCAR19v1 | A preparation of autologous CD4- and CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a third-generation self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector (LV) expressing a human-derived immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) hinge-optimized chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for CD19 that is fused to a human CD28 transmembrane domain (CD28tm), the intracellular cytoplasmic domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3zet... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-IL-15-PD1-expressing Tri-functional T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a tri-functional chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19), and an extracellular domain consisting of interleukin 15 (IL-15) and programmed cell death 1 (PD1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1), linked to the intracellular signaling domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (TCRzeta; CD247; CD3zeta), with potential antineoplastic ac... |
| Autologous Anti-CD19CAR-HER2t/CD22CAR-EGFRt-expressing T-cells | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes engineered to express dual chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) consisting of both anti-CD19 and anti-CD22 binding domains, fused to an as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory domain, and linked to truncated forms of the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2t) and the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), respectively with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19CAR-HER... |
| Autologous Anti-CD1a CAR T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the T-cell surface glycoprotein CD1a, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD1a CAR T cells bind to and induce selective toxicity in CD1a-expressing tumor cells. CD1a, an antigen-presenting glycoprotein, is exclusively expressed in cortical T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (T-ALL) and otherwis... |
| Autologous Anti-CD1a CAR T Cells OC-1 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the T-cell surface glycoprotein CD1a, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD1a CAR T cells OC-1 bind to and induce selective toxicity in CD1a-expressing tumor cells. CD1a, an antigen-presenting glycoprotein, is exclusively expressed in cortical T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia ... |
| Autologous Anti-CD20 CAR T-cells C-CAR066 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 20 (CD20), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, C-CAR066 specifically recognize and kill CD20-expressing tumor cells. The CD20 antigen, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein, is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in B-cell lineage ... |
| Autologous Anti-CD20 CAR Transduced CD4/CD8 Enriched T-cells MB-CART20.1 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20 (cluster of differentiation 20), and CD4/CD8 enriched, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MB-CART20.1 specifically recognize and kill CD20-expressing tumor cells. The CD20 antigen, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein, is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen exp... |
| Autologous Anti-CD20CAR-CD28-4-1BB-CD3zeta T-lymphocytes MB-106 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 20 (CD20) and coupled to the co-stimulatory signaling domain CD28, the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3 complex (CD3zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD20CAR-C... |
| Autologous Anti-CD22 CAR-4-1BB-TCRz-transduced T-lymphocytes CART22-65s | Autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a recombinant lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD22 human single chain variable fragment (scFv) and linked to the co-stimulatory domain 4-1BB (CD137) coupled to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-CD22 CAR-4-1BB-TCRz -transduced T-lymphocytes CART22-65s express an... |
| Autologous Anti-CD22 CAR-expressing T-cells SCRI-CAR22v2 | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD22, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD22 CAR-expressing T-cells SCRI-CAR22v2 express anti-CD22-CAR on their cell surfaces and bind to the CD22 antigen on tumor cell surfaces leading to lysis of CD22-expressing B-cells. CD22, a B-lineage-restricted, tra... |
| Autologous Anti-CD22 CAR-T Cells CLIC-2201 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD22, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD22 CAR-T cells CLIC-2201 recognize and kill CD22-expressing tumor cells. CD22, a B-lineage-restricted, transmembrane phosphoglycoprotein, is expressed on malignant B-cells. |
| Autologous Anti-CD3/Anti-EGFR Bispecific Antibody Armed Peripheral Blood Mononuclear Cells | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) in which T-lymphocytes are coated with a bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; HER1; ErbB1) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3 and activated ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-CD3/anti-EGFR bispecific antibody armed PBMCs target, bind to and selective... |
| Autologous Anti-CD3/Anti-SLAMF7 Bispecific Antibody-armed Activated T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous activated T-lymphocytes that have been coated with a bispecific antibody comprised of an anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody heteroconjugated to an anti-signaling lymphocytic activation molecule family member 7 (SLAMF7; CD319; CRACC; CS-1) monoclonal antibody, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD3/anti-SLAMF7 bispecific antibody-armed activated T-lymphocytes target and bind to both CD3 expressed on T-cells ... |
| Autologous Anti-CD30 CAR T Cells HSP-CAR30 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the CD30 antigen, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD30 CAR T cells HSP-CAR30 specifically recognize and bind to CD30-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. CD30, a cell surface receptor and a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily, is transiently expre... |
| Autologous Anti-CD33 CAR-mbIL15-Safety Switch T-cells PRGN-3006 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to co-express three transgenes using the Sleeping Beauty (SB) transposon system and include a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD33, a membrane-bound IL-15 (mbIL15) and a safety/kill switch, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction of the autologous anti-CD33 CAR-mbIL15-safety switch T-cells PRGN-3006 into the patient, the T-cells t... |
| Autologous Anti-CD38 A2 CAR2-expressing T-cells | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-cells expressing a chimeric antigen receptor recognizing the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 38 (CD38), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, autologous anti-CD38 A2 CAR2-expressing T-cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in CD38-expressing tumor cells. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is present on various immune cells and hematologi... |
| Autologous Anti-CD4 CAR T-cells LB1901 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD4, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD4 CAR T-cells LB1901 target and bind to CD4-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD4-expressing tumor cells. CD4 antigen is expressed in CD4-positive T-cel... |
| Autologous Anti-CD5 CAR Monocytes MT-101 | A preparation of autologous monocytes genetically modified with mRNA technology to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for CD5, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD5 CAR monocytes MT-101 specifically recognize and bind to CD5-expressing tumor cells, and expose the immune system to the CD5 glycoprotein. This may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD5-expressing tumor cells. CD5 is a T-cell ... |
| Autologous Anti-CD5 CAR T-lymphocytes MB-105 | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-cells expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against cluster of differentiation 5 (CD5), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD5 CAR T-lymphocytes MB-105 target and bind to CD5-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective cytotoxicity in CD5-expressing tumor cells. CD5 is a T-cell surface glycoprotein expressed on the surface of normal T-cells and overexp... |
| Autologous Anti-CD7 CAR T Cells PA3-17 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the autologous anti-CD7 CAR T-cells PA3-17 specifically recognize and bind to CD7-expressing tumor cells, resulting in specific T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis. CD7 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed by T-cells... |
| Autologous Anti-CD7 CAR T-cells SENL101 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the autologous anti-CD7 CAR T-cells SENL101 specifically recognize and bind to CD7-expressing tumor cells, resulting in specific T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis. CD7 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed by T-cell... |
| Autologous Anti-CD7 CAR/28zeta CRISPR-edited T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes (ATL) that have been gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-caspase 9 (Casp9) to remove the CD7 antigen and genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) composed of a single-chain variable fragment (scFv) directed against the CD7 antigen and linked to the co-stimulatory domains of CD28 and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (CD28zeta), with potential immunostimulatin... |
| Autologous Anti-CD79a/anti-CD20 CAR T-cells bbT369 | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-lymphocytes that are transduced with a single lentiviral vector (LVV) to express chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) specific for the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 20 (CD20) and the B-cell antigen receptor complex-associated protein alpha chain (CD79a), and transfected with an mRNA encoding the Casitas B-lineage lymphoma proto-oncogene-b (CBLB)-targeting megaTAL enzyme to edit the CBLB gene, with potential immu... |
| Autologous Anti-CD79b CAR-T Cells JV-213 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell antigen receptor complex-associated protein beta chain (CD79b; B-cell-specific glycoprotein B29), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD79b CAR-T cells JV-213 target and bind to CD79b-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD79b-expr... |
| Autologous Anti-CD7-CAR-CD28zeta T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the CD7 antigen and linked to the co-stimulatory domains of CD28 and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (CD28zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD7-CAR-CD28zeta T-cells specifically recognize and bind to CD7-expressing tumor cells, resulting in specific T-cell-med... |
| Autologous Anti-CDH17 CAR-T Cells CHM-2101 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cadherin-17 (CDH17), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, and expansion in culture, the autologous anti-CDH17 CAR-T cells CHM-2101 are reintroduced into the patient and are directed to tumor cells expressing CDH17, which may result in a selective toxicity against, and lys... |
| Autologous Anti-CEA CAR/HLA-A*02-gated Inhibitory Receptor/B2M shRNA-expressing T-lymphocytes A2B530 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes from a human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02-positive donor that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing an activating chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 5 (CEA or CEACAM5), a leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 1 (LIR-1)-based inhibitory receptor specific for HLA-A*02, and a short hairpin RNA (shRNA) targeting beta-2 microglobulin (B2... |
| Autologous Anti-Claudin18.2 CAR T-cells LB1908 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CLDN18.2 CAR T-cells LB1908 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells. CLDN18.2, a tight junction protein, is expressed on a variety of tumor cells, but i... |
| Autologous Anti-CLDN18.2 TAC T-cells TAC01-CLDN18.2 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a T-cell Antigen Coupler (TAC), comprised of a domain that targets the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) and another domain that binds to the endogenous T-cell receptor (TCR), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CLDN18.2 TAC T-cells TAC01-CLDN18.2 target and bind to CLDN18.2-expressing tumor c... |
| Autologous Anti-CLDN6 CAR-NK Cells | A preparation of autologous natural killer (NK) cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the cell surface protein claudin 6 (CLDN6), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CLDN6 CAR-NK cells target and bind to CLDN6 expressed on the surface of tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing CLDN6. CLDN6, a tight-junction protein and embryonic antigen, is expressed on a va... |
| Autologous Anti-CLL-1-CAR T-lymphocytes BG1805 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) C-type-lectin-like molecule-1 (CLL-1; CLL1; C-type lectin domain family 12 member A; CLEC12A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CLL-1-CAR T-lymphocytes BG1805 specifically target and bind to CLL-1-expressing tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in CLL-1-expressing tumor cells. CLL-1... |
| Autologous Anti-CLL-1-CAR T-lymphocytes KITE-222 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) C-type-lectin-like molecule-1 (CLL-1; CLL1; C-type lectin domain family 12 member A; CLEC12A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CLL-1-CAR T-lymphocytes KITE-222 specifically target and bind to CLL-1-expressing tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells that express the CLL-... |
| Autologous Anti-CS1 Hinge-optimized CAR-4-1BB-EGFRt-expressing Memory-enriched T-cells | A preparation of autologous central memory-enriched T-cells (Tcm) that have been transduced with a self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector expressing a hinge-optimized chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) comprised of a CS1 (CD2 subset 1; SLAM family member 7; SLAMF7; CD319; CRACC)-specific single chain variable fragment (scFV), fused to the costimulatory signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), and a truncated human epidermal growth factor receptor (huEGFRt), with potential antineoplastic activity. U... |
| Autologous Anti-CSPG4 CAR-iC9-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 4 (CSPG4) and the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9 or iC9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CSPG4 CAR-iC9-expressing T-lymphocytes specifically target and bind to CSPG4-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. CSPG4 is overexpressed on a variety of... |
| Autologous Anti-DLL3 CAR-T Cells LB2102 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) delta-like protein 3 (DLL3), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-DLL3 CAR-T cells LB2102 recognize and induce selective toxicity in DLL3-expressing tumor cells. DLL3, a Notch pathway protein, is overexpressed on a variety of cancer cell types. It plays a key r... |
| Autologous Anti-EBV CAR T Cells BRG01 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting an Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) protein, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the autologous anti-EBV CAR T cells BRG01 targets a specific EBV protein expressed on EBV-positive cancer cells and promotes killing of these cancer cells. EBV infection is associated with various cancers and the expression of certain... |
| Autologous Anti-EGFR CAR-transduced CXCR 5-modified T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous, C-X-C chemokine receptor type 5 (CXCR 5)-modified T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-EGFR CAR-transduced CXCR 5-modified T-lymphocytes target and bind to EGFR-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in EGFR-expressing tumor cell... |
| Autologous Anti-EGFR/Anti-IL13Ralpha2 CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to co-express two chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) specific for epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) epitope 806 and interleukin-13 receptor alpha 2 (IL13Ra2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, expansion and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-EGFR/anti-IL13Ra2 CAR T-cells are directed to, bind to, and induce selective toxicity in EGFR deletion mutation varian... |
| Autologous Anti-EGFRvIII 4SCAR-IgT Cells | A preparation of autologous T-cells that are genetically modified to express immunoglobulins (Igs) that target the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1; CD274) and are transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating lentiviral vector expressing a fourth generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) targeting anti-epidermal... |
| Autologous Anti-EGFRvIII synNotch Receptor-induced Anti-EphA2/IL-13Ralpha2 CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a synthetic Notch (synNotch) receptor targeting epidermal growth factor receptor variant III (EGFRvIII) that induces the expression of a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for Ephrin receptor A2 (EphA2) and interleukin-13 receptor alpha 2 (IL13Ra2) upon antigen binding, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, expansion and reintroduction into the patient, autologous ant... |
| Autologous Anti-FcRL5 CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting Fc receptor-like protein 5 (FcRL5; Fc receptor-homolog 5; FcRH5), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, autologous anti-FcRL5 CAR-T cells recognize and kill FcRL5-expressing tumor cells. FcRL5, an immune receptor translocation-associated protein/Fc receptor homolog (IRTA/FcRH) family member and a B-cell lineage marker, is overexpressed in multiple myeloma. |
| Autologous Anti-FLT3 CAR T Cells AMG 553 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes genetically engineered with a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-FLT3 CAR T cells AMG 553 target and bind to tumor cells expressing FLT3, which results in the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated cell killing of FLT3-expressing tumor cells. FLT3, a class III receptor... |
| Autologous Anti-FLT3 CAR T Cells TAA05 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes genetically engineered with a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-FLT3 CAR T cells TAA05 target and bind to tumor cells expressing FLT3, which results in the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated cell killing of FLT3-expressing tumor cells. FLT3, a class III... |
| Autologous Anti-FSHR CER-4-1BB/CD3zeta-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes genetically modified to express a chimeric endocrine receptor (CER) targeting the human follicle stimulating hormone receptor (FSHR) and coupled to the signaling domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and CD3 zeta, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-FSHR CER-4-1BB/CD3zeta-expressing T-lymphocytes target and bind to the FSHR on FSHR-expressing tumor cell surfaces, thereby killing FSHR-expres... |
| Autologous Anti-GD2/Anti-PSMA 4SCAR-expressing Bispecific T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a fourth-generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) targeting the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) disialoganglioside (GD2) and prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-GD2/anti-PSMA 4SCAR-expressing bispecific T-cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in GD2- and PSMA-expressing tumor ... |
| Autologous Anti-GD2-CAR-BBz-iCasp9 Retroviral Vector-transduced T Lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from the monoclonal antibody 14g2a that is specific for the disialoganglioside GD2 and the co-stimulatory domain 4-1BB (CD137) coupled to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), and fused with the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9), with potential immunomodulating and antineo... |
| Autologous Anti-GD2CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-IL-15-expressing Natural Killer T-cells | A preparation of autologous natural killer T-lymphocytes (NKTs) that have been transduced with a retroviral vector to express both an extracellular domain consisting of interleukin 15 (IL-15) and a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor associated antigen (TAA) GD2, linked to the CD28 and CD3zeta (TCRzeta; CD247) costimulatory signaling domains, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, autologous anti-GD2CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-IL-15-expressing N... |
| Autologous Anti-GFRa4 CAR-TCR-zeta-4-1BB-expressing T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-glial-derived neurotrophic factor (GDNF) family receptor alpha 4 (GFRa4) single chain variable fragment (scFv), coupled to the zeta chain of the human T-cell receptor (TCR/CD3zeta) and the co-stimulatory molecule 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon re-introduction into the patient, the au... |
| Autologous Anti-glypican-3 CAR-IL-15-iC9-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for glypican-3 (GPC3) and express interleukin-15 (IL-15) and the suicide gene, inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9 or iC9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GPC3-CAR-IL-15-iC9-expressing T-lymphocytes specifically target and bind to GPC3-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. GPC3, a heparan sulfate proteoglyc... |
| Autologous Anti-gp100:154-162 T-Cell Receptor Gene-Engineered Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes | Human autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a glycoprotein 100 (gp100) epitope-determined T cell receptor (TCR) gene, with potential antineoplastic activity. PBLs are isolated from a melanoma patient and pulsed with a viral vector encoding the TCR specific for amino acid residues 154-162 of gp100 (KTWGQYWQV). After expansion ex vivo, the transduced autologous PBLs, expressing this specific TCR, are reintroduced into the patient and bind to melanoma cells expressing th... |
| Autologous Anti-gp100:154-162 TCR Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of human tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) isolated from a melanoma patient and engineered to encode a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the amino acid 154 through 162 of the melanoma antigen glycoprotein 100 (gp100), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the autologous anti-gp100:154-162 TCR TILs may recognize and halt the growth of gp100-expressing melanoma cells. |
| Autologous Anti-gp100CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-IL-15-PD1-expressing Tri-functional T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a tri-functional chimeric antigen receptor (TriCAR) comprised of an extracellular domain consisting of an antigen binding domain specific to glycoprotein 100 (gp100) peptides 209-217 complexed with human leukocyte antigen A2 (HLA-A2), interleukin 15 (IL-15) and programmed cell death 1 (PD1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1), which are linked by a transmembrane domain to the intracellular sign... |
| Autologous Anti-GPC2-CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for glypican-2 (GPC2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-GPC2-CAR T-cells specifically target and bind to GPC2-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. GPC2, a heparan sulfate proteoglycan and a member of the glypican family, is overexpressed on certain tumor cell types while minimal... |
| Autologous Anti-GPC3 CAR T Cells BOXR1030 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for glypican-3 (GPC3) and glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase 2 (GOT2) transgene, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-GPC3 CAR T cells BOXR1030 specifically targets and binds to GPC3-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. GPC3, a heparan sulfate proteoglycan and a member of the glypica... |
| Autologous Anti-GPC3 CAR T-lymphocytes JWAT204 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for glypican-3 (GPC3), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-GPC3 CAR T-lymphocytes JWAT204 specifically target and bind to GPC3-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. GPC3, a heparan sulfate proteoglycan and a member of the glypican family, is overexpressed on certain tumor cell types... |
| Autologous Anti-GPC3-CAR T-lymphocytes Ori-C101 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for glypican-3 (GPC3) and a signal activation domain element, Ori, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-GPC3-CAR T-lymphocytes Ori-C101 specifically target and bind to GPC3-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. GPC3, a heparan sulfate proteoglycan (HSPG) and a member of the glypican ... |
| Autologous Anti-GPRC5D CAR-T Cells OriCAR-017 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-GPRC5D CAR-T cells OriCAR-017 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in GPRC5D-expr... |
| Autologous Anti-GPRC5D-CAR-4-1BB-expressing T-cells MCARH109 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D) and the co-stimulatory domain 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction ... |
| Autologous Anti-H3.3K27M TCR-expressing T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the histone H3.3 containing the amino acid substitution mutation lysine (Lys) 27-to-methionine (H3.3K27M), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-H3.3K27M TCR-expressing T-cells specifically target and bind to H3.3K27M-expressing tumor cells. This leads to T-cell activation and T-cell mediated lysis of ... |
| Autologous Anti-HER2 CAR Macrophages CT-0508 | A preparation of autologous macrophages transduced with the adenoviral vector Ad5f35 to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-HER2 CAR Macrophages (CAR-M) CT-0508 specifically recognize and bind to HER2-expressing tumor cells, resulting in the phagocytosis of HER2-expressing tumor ce... |
| Autologous Anti-HER2 CAR Monocytes CT-0525 | A preparation of autologous monocytes genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-HER2 CAR monocytes CT-0525 specifically recognize and bind to HER2-expressing tumor cells, and expose the immune system to the HER2 antigen. This may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte... |
| Autologous Anti-HER2 CAR T-cells CCT303-406 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-HER2 CAR T-cells CCT303-406 target and bind to HER2-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2 is overexpressed... |
| Autologous Anti-HER2 CAR-CD28 T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2) and coupled to the costimulatory domain of CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-HER2 CAR-CD28 T cells target and bind to HER2-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in HER2-exp... |
| Autologous Anti-HER2 CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-HER2 CAR-T cells target and bind to HER2-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2 is overexpressed in a varie... |
| Autologous Anti-HER2-CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-CD19t+-expressing Tcm-enriched T-lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified autologous central memory (Tcm) enriched T-cells transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from trastuzumab, with a 4-1BB (CD137) costimulatory domain that is linked to the signaling domain of the T-cell antigen receptor complex zeta chain (CD3-zeta) (BBz), and truncated CD19 (CD19t), with potential imm... |
| Autologous Anti-HLA-A*02/AFP TCRm-expressing T-cells ET140202 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a T-cell receptor mimetic (TCRm) antibody synthesized by a proprietary phage display platform, targeting the immunogenetic human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) complexed with human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02 (HLA-A*02/AFP), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-HLA-A*02/AFP TCRm-expressing T-cells ET... |
| Autologous Anti-HLA-A*0201/AFP CAR T-cells ET1402L1 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from a human monoclonal antibody specific for an immunogenic human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) epitope, AFP158-166, complexed with human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02:01 (HLA-A*0201/AFP), fused to the co-stimulatory domains of CD28 and CD3zeta, with potential immunostimulatin... |
| Autologous Anti-HLA-G CAR-T Cells IVS-3001 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and immune checkpoint protein human leukocyte antigen G (HLA-G), with potential immune checkpoint inhibiting, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-HLA-G CAR-T cells IVS-3001 specifically recognize and kill HLA-G-expressing tumor cells. This reverts HLA-G-mediated immune suppres... |
| Autologous Anti-HPV-16 E6 T-cell Receptor Gene-engineered Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes | Human autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T cell receptor (TCR) that is specifically directed against the viral oncoprotein human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV-16) E6, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-HPV-16 E6 TCR gene-engineered PBLs bind to HPV-16 E6-expressing tumor cells. This may result in a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocy... |
| Autologous Anti-ICAM-1-CAR-CD28-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-cells AIC100 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing the Inserted (I) domain variant of lymphocyte function-associated antigen-1 (LFA-1) which targets intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1 or CD54), and the co-stimulatory signaling domains of CD28, 4-1BB (CD137) and CD3zeta, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-ICAM-1-CAR-CD28-4-1B... |
| Autologous Anti-IL-1RAP CAR T-cells CCTx-001 | A preparation of autologous CD4+ and CD8+ T-lymphocytes that have been transduced to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-interleukin-1 receptor accessory protein (IL-1RAP; IL-1 receptor 3; IL-1R3) single chain variable fragment (scFv) coupled to the hinge domain of human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1), the co-stimulatory signaling domain CD28, the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3 complex (CD3zeta), with potential immu... |
| Autologous Anti-ILT3 CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the immune inhibitory receptor leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor B member 4 (LILRB4; ILT3; ILT-3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-ILT3 CAR-T cells target and bind to ILT3-expressing tumor cells. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against ILT3-expressing ... |
| Autologous Anti-kappa Light Chain CAR-CD28-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes (ATL) that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the kappa light chain of immunoglobulin (Ig) and linked to the costimulatory domain of CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-kappa light chain CAR-CD28-expressing T-lymphocytes target and bind to the kappa light chain of Ig expressed on tumor cells, resulting in T-cell-mediated... |
| Autologous Anti-KK-LC-1 TCR-expressing T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Kita-Kyushu lung cancer antigen-1 (KK-LC-1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-KK-LC-1 TCR-expressing T-cells specifically target and bind to KK-LC-1-expressing tumor cells. This leads to T-cell activation and T-cell mediated lysis of KK-LC-1-expressing tumor cell... |
| Autologous Anti-L1CAM-CAR-EGFRt-expressing T-cells | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the L1 cell adhesion molecule (L1CAM; L1-CAM; CD171) antigen and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon re-infusion into the patient, the autologous anti-L1CAM-CAR-EGFRt-expressing T-cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in L1CAM-expressing tumor cells. L1CAM, a neuronal cel... |
| Autologous Anti-LGR5 CAR-T Cells CNA3103 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes transduced to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the cancer stem cell (CSC) marker leucine-rich repeat-containing G-protein coupled receptor 5 (LGR5), with potential  immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-LGR5 CAR-T cells CNA3103 selectively target, binds to and lyse LGR5-expressing tumor cells.  LGR5, a member of the Wnt signaling pathway, is overexpressed on certain cancer cells; it... |
| Autologous Anti-LILRB4 CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a T-cell-receptor (TCR) complex-based chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for two different epitopes of the immune inhibitory receptor leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor B member 4 (LILRB4; ILT3; ILT-3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-LILRB4 CAR-T cells target and bind to two d... |
| Autologous Anti-MAGE-A1 TCR-engineered T-cells TSC-204-A0201 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are engineered to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for melanoma-associated antigen A1 (MAGE-A1) presented on human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02:01, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-MAGE-A1 TCR-engineered T-cells TSC-204-A0201 specifically recognize and bind to MAGE-A1 expressed on tumor cells. This may lead to cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated elimination of tumor ... |
| Autologous Anti-MAGE-A1 TCR-engineered T-cells TSC-204-C0702 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are engineered to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for melanoma-associated antigen A1 (MAGE-A1) presented on human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-C*07:02, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-MAGE-A1 TCR-engineered T-cells TSC-204-C0702 specifically recognize and bind to MAGE-A1 expressed on tumor cells. This may lead to cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated elimination of tumor ... |
| Autologous Anti-MART-1 F5 T-Cell Receptor Gene-Engineered Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes | Human autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a melanoma antigen MART-1 epitope-determined T cell receptor (TCR) gene, with potential antineoplastic activity. PBLs are isolated from a melanoma patient and pulsed with a viral vector that encodes the TCR specific for an epitope of MART-1 (F5 TCR). After expansion ex vivo, the transduced autologous PBLs, expressing this specific TCR, are reintroduced into the patient, and bind to melanoma cells expressing the MART-1 antige... |
| Autologous Anti-MART-1 F5 TCR Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of human tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) isolated from a melanoma patient and engineered to encode a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for an epitope of MART-1 (F5 TCR), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-MART-1 F5 TCR TILs may recognize and halt the growth of MART-1-expressing melanoma cells. |
| Autologous Anti-mesothelin CAR-CD3zeta-4-1-BB-expressing T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-mesothelin M5 single chain variable fragment (scFv) fused to the costimulatory domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (TCRzeta; CD247; CD3zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, expansion in culture and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-mesothe... |
| Autologous Anti-mesothelin CAR-IL-7-CCL19-expressing T-lymphocytes TAK-103 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN) and simultaneously produce interleukin-7 (IL-7) and C-C motif chemokine 19 (CCL19), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, expansion and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-MSLN CAR-T cells TAK-103 specifically target and kill MSL... |
| Autologous Anti-mesothelin CAR-T Cells UCLM802 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-MSLN CAR-T cells UCLM802 specifically target and kill MSLN-expressing tumor cells. Mesothelin, a cell surface glycoprotein involved in cell adhesion, is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell ty... |
| Autologous Anti-mesothelin KIR-CAR-transduced T-cells SynKIR-110 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a killer cell immunoglobulin-like receptor (KIR)-based chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-mesothelin (MSLN) single chain variable fragment (scFv) fused to the transmembrane and cytoplasmic domains of the stimulatory KIR 2DS2 (KIR2DS2), and the immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM)-containing adaptor protein and costimulatory chain DAP12, with potential immunomodulating a... |
| Autologous Anti-mesothelin M28z1XXPD1DNR CAR-expressing T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN) linked to the signaling domains for the co-stimulatory molecules CD28 and CD3 zeta, as well as a PD-1 dominant negative receptor (DNR), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-MSLN M28z1XXPD1DNR CAR-expressing T-cells specifically target ... |
| Autologous Anti-mesothelin T-cell Receptor Fusion Construct/PD-1:CD28 Switch Receptor-expressing T-cells TC-510 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a single-domain antibody that recognizes human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN), fused to the N-terminus of the CD3-epsilon T-cell receptor (TCR) subunit which, upon expression is incorporated into the endogenous TCR complex, and a PD-1:CD28 switch receptor composed of the extracellular ligand binding domain of the human inhibitory receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1) f... |
| Autologous Anti-mesothelin TCR-expressing T-cells FH-TCR TMSLN | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human mesothelin (TMSLN), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-mesothelin TCR-expressing T-cells FH-TCR TMSLN specifically target and bind to mesothelin-expressing tumor cells. This leads to T-cell activation and T-cell mediated lysis of mesothelin-expressing tumor c... |
| Autologous Anti-MG7-CAR T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous, engineered T-lymphocytes that express both a second-generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human gastric carcinoma-associated antigen MG7, and the co-stimulatory molecule 4-1BB (CD137), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral injection, the autologous anti-MG7-CAR T-lymphocytes target and attach to cancer cells expressing MG7. This induces selective toxicity in and causes lysis of MG7-expressing tumor cells. MG7, a glycosylat... |
| Autologous Anti-MSLN CAR/HLA-A*02-gated Inhibitory Receptor/B2M shRNA-expressing T-lymphocytes A2B694 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing an activating chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN), a leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 1 (LIR-1)-based inhibitory receptor specific for human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02 (HLA-A*02), and a short hairpin RNA (shRNA) targeting beta-2 microglobulin (B2M; beta2M), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Up... |
| Autologous Anti-MUC1*-CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a human CD8 alpha leader sequence, a humanized MNC2-single chain variable fragment (scFv) targeting the extracellular domain of the cleaved form of mucin-1 (MUC-1), known as MUC1*, portions of human CD8 hinge and transmembrane domains, and human 4-1BB and human CD3-zeta costimulatory domains, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon re-introduction into the patient, the autologou... |
| Autologous Anti-Muc1/CD33/CD38/CD56/CD123 Gene-engineered CAR-T Cells | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-cells transduced with lentiviral vectors expressing chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) specific for the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) mucin 1 (Muc1; MUC1), cluster of differentiation 33 (CD33), CD38, CD56 and CD123 (interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain or IL3RA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, autologous anti-Muc1/CD33/CD38/CD56/CD123 gene-engineered CAR-T cells are directed to... |
| Autologous Anti-MUC16 CAR-mbIL15-Safety Switch T-cells PRGN-3005 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to co-express three transgenes using the Sleeping Beauty (SB) transposon system and include a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the unshed portion of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human mucin 16 (MUC16, cancer antigen 125; CA125; FLJ14303), a membrane-bound IL-15 (mbIL15) and a safety/kill switch, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction of the autologous anti-MU... |
| Autologous Anti-NKG2DL/Anti-CLDN18.2 Bispecific CAR-T Cells KD-496 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a tandem chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) natural-killer group 2, member D ligands (NKG2DLs) and Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-NKG2DL/anti-CLDN18.2 bispecific CAR-T cells KD-496 specifically and simultaneously recognize and induce selective ... |
| Autologous Anti-NKG2DLs CAR-T Cells LEU011 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting natural-killer group 2, member D ligands (NKG2DLs), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-NKG2DLs CAR-T cells LEU011 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing NKG2DLs. Ligands for NKG2D, such as MHC class I chain-related protein A (MICA), MICB, and members of the ... |
| Autologous Anti-NY-ESO-1 mTCR Retroviral Vector Transduced PBLs | Human autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding both alpha and beta chains of a murine T-cell receptor (mTCR) specific for the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-NY-ESO-1 mTCR retroviral vector transduced PBLs bind to NY-ESO-1 expressed on tumor cells. This may result in cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-med... |
| Autologous Anti-NY-ESO-1 TCR/CD8alpha-expressing T-cells GSK3901961 | A preparation of human autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 and the CD8alpha co-receptor, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-NY-ESO-1 TCR/CD8alpha-expressing T-cells GSK3901961 recognize and bind to NY-ESO-1-overexpressing tumor cells. This... |
| Autologous Anti-NY-ESO-1 TCR/dnTGF-BRII-expressing T-cells GSK3845097 | A preparation of human autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 and a dominant negative (dn) form of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta; TGFb) receptor (dnTGF-BRII), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-NY-ESO-1 TCR/dnTGF-BRII-expressing T... |
| Autologous Anti-PD-1 Antibody-activated Tumor-infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) activated by an anti-programmed cell death protein 1 (PD1) antibody, with potential immunomodulating activity. The autologous TILs are isolated from an autologous tumor sample and ex-vivo activated in the presence of anti-PD-1 antibody. Upon infusion of the autologous anti-PD1 antibody-activated TILs back into the patient, the cells specifically target and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Anti-PD-L1-armored Anti-CD22 CAR T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD22 and carrying a single-chain variable fragment (scFv) of a monoclonal antibody targeting the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion, the autologous anti-PD-L1-armored ant... |
| Autologous Anti-PRAME TCR/CD8alphabeta-expressing T-cells IMA203CD8 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically modified with a lentiviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) preferentially expressed antigen in melanoma (PRAME) and a CD8alphabeta (CD8ab) co-receptor, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous anti-PRAME TCR/CD8ab-expressing T-cells IMA203CD8 specifically recognize and bind to PRAME expressed on ... |
| Autologous Anti-PSCA-CAR-4-1BB/TCRzeta-CD19t-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been immunomagnetically depleted of CD14+ myeloid cells and CD25+ regulatory T-cells (Tregs), activated with anti-CD3 and anti-CD28 beads, and transduced with a self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector (LV) encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a prostate stem cell antigen (PSCA)-specific, humanized and affinity matured A11 single chain variable fragment (scFv), a human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) Fc spacer lacking the CH2 doma... |
| Autologous Anti-PSMA CAR/CD2/dnTGF-BRII/PD-1:CD28 Switch Receptor-expressing T-cells TmPSMA-02 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) single chain variable fragment (scFv) and the co-stimulatory domain CD2, a dominant negative (dn) form of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta; TGFb) receptor (dnTGF-BRII), and a PD-1:CD28 switch receptor composed of the extracellular ligand binding domain of the h... |
| Autologous Anti-PSMA CAR-T Cells P-PSMA-101 | A preparation of autologous T-cells that are enriched to be primarily stem memory T-cells (Tscm) and are transfected by electroporation with a proprietary transposon-based DNA plasmid vector (PiggyBac), encoding both a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) based on a proprietary non-immunoglobulin scaffold molecule Centyrin (CARTyrin), which specifically recognizes the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), and a human-derived safety switch that can be activated b... |
| Autologous Anti-PSMA Gene-Modified T-Lymphocytes | Autologous prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) gene-modified T lymphocytes with potential antineoplastic activity. Human autologous T-lymphocytes are isolated and transduced ex vivo with a retrovirus encoding a chimeric immune receptor (CIR) consisting of an antibody fragment against PSMA fused with signaling domains of the T cell. Upon reintroduction into the patient, autologous anti-PSMA gene-modified T-cells bind to PSMA-expressing prostate cancer cells, which may result in specific ... |
| Autologous Anti-ROR1 CAR T-cells LYL797 | A preparation of genetically and epigenetically reprogrammed autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, and expansion in culture, the autologous anti-ROR1 CAR T-cells LYL797 are reintroduced into the patient and are directed to tumor cells expressing ROR1, which may res... |
| Autologous Anti-ROR1 CAR-mbIL15-Safety Switch/Intrinsic PD-1 Blockade T-cells PRGN-3007 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express, using a single non-viral multicistronic transposon plasmid, a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1), membrane-bound IL-15 (mbIL15), a kill switch and an intrinsic programmed death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed cell death-1) checkpoint blockade, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, non-viral gene transfer, and expansion i... |
| Autologous Anti-ROR1 CAR-T Cells BMS-986403 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, expansion and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous anti-ROR1 CAR-T cells BMS-986403 are directed to, bind to, and induce selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing ROR1. ROR1, also ... |
| Autologous Anti-ROR1 CAR-T Cells ONCT-808 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1; neurotrophic tyrosine kinase receptor-related 1; NTRKR1), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, and expansion in culture, the autologous anti-ROR1 CAR-T cells ONCT-808 are reintroduced into the patient and are directed to tumor cells expressing ROR1... |
| Autologous Anti-Siglec-6 CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting sialic acid-binding immunoglobulin (Ig)-like lectin 6 (Siglec-6) and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion back into the patient, autologous anti-Siglec-6 CAR-T cells target and bind to Siglec-6-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity... |
| Autologous Anti-SLAMF7 CAR-expressing T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) recognizing human SLAM family member 7 (SLAMF7; CD319 CRACC; CS-1) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the autologous anti-SLAMF7 CAR-expressing T-cells target and induce selective toxicity in SLAMF7-expressing tumor cells. SLAMF7 is a member of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family of transmembrane receptors that... |
| Autologous Anti-TIM-3/Anti-CD123 CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD123 (interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain; IL3RA) and the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-TIM-3/anti-CD123 CAR T-cells target and bind ... |
| Autologous Anti-TM4SF1 CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) transmembrane 4 L six family member 1 (TM4SF1) and containing a safety/kill switch composed of a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (ErbB1t; EGFRt HER1t), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-TM4SF1 CAR-T cells specifically recogn... |
| Autologous AXL-targeted CAR T-cells CCT301-38 | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) AXL, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, and expansion in culture, the CCT301-38 cells are reintroduced into the patient and are activated within the tumor microenvironment (TME) using proprietary Conditionally Active Biologic (CAB) technology. Upon ... |
| Autologous B7-H3/EGFR806/HER2/IL13-zetakine CAR-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-cells SC-CAR4BRAIN | A preparation of autologous CD4+ and CD8+ T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector to express four chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) targeting the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276), epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mAb806 epitope, human epidermal growth factor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), and interleukin-13 receptor alpha 2 (IL13Ra2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous B7-H3/EGFR806/HER2/IL13-zetakine... |
| Autologous BAFF-expressing CAR T Cells LMY-920 | A preparation of autologous cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) -and CD8 positive T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered, using the non-viral transposon system, to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) expressing the B-cell activating factor (BAFF) ligand and targeting BAFF receptor family members, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous BAFF-expressing CAR T cells LMY-920 are directed to, specifically bind to, and induce s... |
| Autologous BAFFR-targeting CAR T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell activating factor receptor (BAFFR; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 13C; TNFRSF13C; BLyS receptor 3; BR3), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous BAFFR-targeting CAR T cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in BAFFR-expressing tumor... |
| Autologous B-cell/Monocyte-presenting HER2/neu Antigen Vaccine BVAC-B | An autologous vaccine composed of the antigen presenting cells (APCs) B-lymphocytes and monocytes presenting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor type 2 (HER2/neu; HER-2; EGFR2; ErbB2). Upon administration of the autologous B-cell- and monocyte-presenting HER2/neu antigen vaccine BVAC-B, the APCs may stimulate the immune system to mount a HER2/neu-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response as well as a natural killer (NK) cell, and antibody-medi... |
| Autologous BCMA/TACI-targeted Trimeric APRIL-based CAR T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to contain a dual-targeted chimeric antigen receptor (CAR), which includes a trimeric form of the natural protein a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL; TNFSF13), that targets the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17) and transmembrane activator and calcium modulator and cyclophilin ligand interactor (TACI; TNFRSF13B), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. ... |
| Autologous BCMA-4-1BBz-targeted CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been ex vivo transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) fused to the co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB (CD137), and the CD3-zeta (CD3z) T-cell signaling domain (4-1BBz), with potential immunostimulating and a... |
| Autologous BCMA-targeted CAR T Cells CC-98633 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous BCMA-targeted CAR T cells CC-98633 specifically recognize and kill BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor specific antigen and a receptor for both a proliferat... |
| Autologous BCMA-targeted CAR T Cells LCAR-B4822M | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood T-lymphocytes (PBTLs) that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous BCMA-targeted CAR T-cells LCAR-B4822M specifically recognize and kill BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor specific antigen and a re... |
| Autologous Bispecific BCMA/CD19-targeted CAR-T Cells GC012F | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express two separate chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) BCMA and CD19 and fused to as of yet not fully elucidated co-stimulatory domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous bispecific BCMA/CD19-targeted CAR-T cells GC012F specifically and simultaneously target and bind to tumor cells expressing BCMA and/or CD19. This induces sel... |
| Autologous Bispecific CD19/CD22-targeted CAR-T Cells GC022 | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes engineered to express chimeric T-cell receptors (chimeric antigen receptors or CARs) targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) CD19 and CD22 and fused to as of yet not fully elucidated co-stimulatory domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous bispecific CD19/CD22-targeted CAR-T cells GC022 bind to CD19 and CD22 on the surface of, and induce selective toxicity against, tumor c... |
| Autologous Bladder Cell Carcinoma RNAs/CD40L RNA Electroporated Autologous Matured Dendritic Cells | A cell-based preparation in which autologous, mature dendritic cells (DCs) are electroporated with in vitro transcribed (IVT) RNAs encoding for a synthetic form of T-cell protein CD40 ligand (CD40L) and IVT RNA encoding for autologous tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) derived from patient-specific bladder cell carcinoma (BCC) cells, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon electroporation into autologous DCs, the RNA is translated and processed. BCC-specific antigen... |
| Autologous Blinatumomab-expanded T-Cells | A preparation of autologous, peripheral blood-derived polyclonal activated T-cells that have been expanded and activated ex-vivo using blinatumomab and recombinant human IL2 (rhIL-2) and depleted of contaminating CD19+ tumor cells, with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, these blinatumomab-expanded T-cells (BET), composed of functional polyclonal CD4+ and CD8+ T-cells and mostly effector and central memory cells, may induce immunological recovery. BET cell expansion lea... |
| Autologous Bone Marrow-derived CD34/CXCR4-positive Stem Cells AMR-001 | A cell-based product containing autologous bone marrow derived CD34 positive and C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4 (CXCR4) positive stem cells with potential antiapoptotic and proangiogenic activities. Upon intracoronary infusion after a myocardial infarction (MI), autologous bone marrow-derived CD34/CXCR4-positive stem cells may preserve cardiac muscle cells and prevent apoptosis; thus improving myocardial perfusion. CD34/CXCR4-positive stem cells are naturally mobilized upon cell injury throu... |
| Autologous CAR T Cells U87 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for an as of yet undisclosed tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous CAR T cells U87 specifically targets and binds to tumor cells that express the undisclosed TAA, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Autologous CAR T-Cells RD14-01 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) that targets an as of yet unidentified tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of autologous CAR T-cells RD14-01, the T-cells target, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in tumor cells expressing the TAA. |
| Autologous CAR-engineered Regulatory T-cells SBT777101 | A preparation of autologous T-regulatory cells (Tregs) that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting citrullinated proteins, with potential immunmodulating activity. Upon administration, the autologous CAR-engineered regulatory T-cells SBT777101 target and bind to citrullinated proteins and may decrease inflammation and promote immunologic homeostasis. Citrullinated proteins are found in inflamed disease-associated tissues in many autoimmune and in... |
| Autologous CAR-T Cells B4T2-001 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for an as of yet undisclosed tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous CAR-T cells B4T2-001 target and bind to the TAA-expressing tumor cells. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the tumor cells, the release of cytotoxic molecules and the induction of... |
| Autologous CCR4-CD30CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-expressing T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes (ATL) that have been transduced with the retroviral vector SFG, a Moloney murine leukemia (Mo-MuLV) virus-based vector, encoding human C-C chemokine receptor 4 (CCR4), linked via an internal ribosome entry site (IRES), to a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) composed of a single chain single-chain variable fragment (scFv) directed against the CD30 antigen (CAR.CD30) and linked, via the spacer human IgG1 immunoglobulin heavy constant region (hinge-CH2CH3 ... |
| Autologous CD123-4SCAR-expressing T-cells 4SCAR123 | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-cells transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating lentiviral vector expressing a  fourth generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) consisting of an anti-CD123 (interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain or IL3RA) single chain variable fragment (scFv) that is coupled to the costimulatory signaling domains CD28, CD137, CD27 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR), and is fused with the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp... |
| Autologous CD123CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing T Lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-cells transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating lentiviral vector expressing a hinge-optimized, chimeric antigen receptor (CAR), containing a CD28 co-stimulatory signaling domain fused to CD3 zeta, the single-chain variable fragment of CD123 (Interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain or IL3RA) antigen, and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic ac... |
| Autologous CD123CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing T Lymphocytes MB-102 | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-cells transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD123 (interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain or IL3RA) and linked to the  CD28 co-stimulatory signaling domain fused to CD3 zeta, and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activit... |
| Autologous CD133-Positive BTSC mRNA-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with CD133-positive autologous brain tumor stem cells (BTSCs) -derived mRNA with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration, autologous CD133-positive BTSC mRNA-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the CD133-positive BTSCs from which the autologous tumor mRNA is derived. CD133, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and... |
| Autologous CD138-specific CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for syndecan-1 (CD138), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous CD138 CAR-expressing T-cells target and induce selective toxicity in syndecan-1-expressing tumor cells. Syndecan-1, a type 1 transmembrane proteoglycan and tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cells and plays a key ro... |
| Autologous CD171-specific CAR-CD28 zeta-4-1-BB-EGFRt-expressing T Lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the L1 cell adhesion molecule (L1-CAM/CD171) antigen, and the co-stimulatory signaling domains CD28, 4-1BB (CD137) and CD3 zeta, and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon re-infusion into the patient, the autologous L1-CAM-specific... |
| Autologous CD19 CAR+ EGFRt + CD4+ and CD8+ T Cells | A preparation of a defined ratio of CD4+ and CD8+ autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing an anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment (scFv), derived from the CD19-specific murine immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody FMC63, fused to the signaling domain of CD28, the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostim... |
| Autologous CD19 CAR-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-cells MB-CART19.1 | A preparation of CD4+ and CD8+ autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with the lentiviral vector pLTG1563 expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the autologous CD19 CAR-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-cells MB-CART19.1 are directed to and induce selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen ... |
| Autologous CD19/CD22 Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cells CT120 | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric T-cell receptor (chimeric antigen receptor or CAR) consisting of one or more binding domains targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) CD19 and CD22 and fused to one or more co-stimulatory TCR-signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous CD19/CD22 CAR T-cells CT120 bind to CD19 and CD22 on the surface of, and induce selective toxicity ... |
| Autologous CD19/PD-1 Bispecific CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) and a programmed cell death protein 1 (PD1)/CD28 chimera, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the autologous CD19/PD-1 bispecific CAR-T cells target and bind to CD19 and the PD-1 ligands, programmed cell death ligand ... |
| Autologous CD19-28z Chimeric Antigen Receptor-expressing T-lymphocytes | Genetically modified autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a replication incompetent retroviral vector expressing a chimeric T cell antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment), fused to the extracellular, transmembrane and intracellular signaling domains of the T cell co-stimulatory receptor CD28 and the cytoplasmic signaling domain of the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (CAR19-28z), with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon int... |
| Autologous CD19CAR-CD28-CD137/CD27/CD3zeta-iCasp9-expressing T-lymphocytes | Autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a fourth generation-lentiviral vector to express the 4SCAR19 gene composed of a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) of anti-CD19 coupled to the co-stimulatory molecules CD28, 4-1BB (CD137), and CD27, and to the cytoplasmic portion of the zeta chain of the human T-cell receptor (CD3zeta), and containing the apoptosis-inducible suicide gene human caspase 9 (iCASP9 or iC9), that is linked to... |
| Autologous CD19CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing Tcm-enriched T Cells | A preparation of genetically modified autologous central memory (Tcm) enriched T-cells transduced with a replication incompetent lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR), containing a CD28 signaling domain fused to both CD3 zeta, which targets the CD19 antigen, and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, autologous CD19CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-EGFRt-ex... |
| Autologous CD19CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing Tn/mem-enriched T-lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified autologous lymphocytes comprised of CD62L-positive naïve and memory T-cells (Tn/mem), that are transduced ex vivo with a self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector expressing a hinge-optimized chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the CD19 antigen and containing CD28 and CD3 zeta signaling domains, and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon isolatio... |
| Autologous CD19-CD8-CD28-CAR-mbIL15-HER1t T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes, that have been electroporated ex vivo with sleeping beauty (SB)-derived DNA plasmids encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) that is linked to the co-stimulatory molecules T-cell surface glycoproteins CD8 and CD28 and co-expressed with a chimeric membrane-bound fusion protein comprised of interleukin-15 (IL-15) fused to IL-15 receptor (mbIL15) and a safety/kill switc... |
| Autologous CD19-CD8-CD28-CD3zeta-CAR-mbIL15-HER1t T Cells | A preparation of autologous, genetically modified T-lymphocytes, that have been electroporated ex vivo with sleeping beauty (SB)-derived DNA plasmids, expressing a second-generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) composed of a mouse single-chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) that is linked to the co-stimulatory molecules T-cell surface glycoproteins CD8 and CD28 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3... |
| Autologous CD19-targeted CAR-T Cells GC007F | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) of anti-CD19 coupled to as of yet not fully elucidated co-stimulatory molecules, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, autologous CD19-targeted CAR-T cells GC007F target and bind to CD19-expressing neoplastic B-cells. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response ag... |
| Autologous CD20-4SCAR-expressing T-cells 4SCAR20 | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-cells transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating lentiviral vector expressing a  fourth generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) consisting of an anti-CD20 single chain variable fragment (scFv) that is coupled to the costimulatory signaling domains CD28, CD137, CD27 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR), and is fused with the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9), with potential immunostimulating and antine... |
| Autologous CD22-4SCAR-expressing T-cells 4SCAR22 | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-cells transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating lentiviral vector expressing a  fourth generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) consisting of an anti-CD22 single chain variable fragment (scFv) that is coupled to the costimulatory signaling domains CD28, CD137, CD27 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR), and is fused with the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9), with potential immunostimulating and antine... |
| Autologous CD30CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-expressing T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes (ATL) that have been transduced with the retroviral vector SFG, a Moloney murine leukemia (Mo-MuLV) virus-based vector, encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) composed of a single chain single-chain variable fragment (scFv) directed against the CD30 antigen (CAR.CD30) and linked, via the spacer human IgG1 immunoglobulin heavy constant region (hinge-CH2CH3 region), to the co-stimulatory domains of CD28 and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3... |
| Autologous CD34+-enriched HSPCs Transduced with VSV-G Encoding IFN-a2 | A preparation of autologous CD34+-enriched hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (HSPCs) that are genetically modified with a vesicular stomatitis virus-G (VSV-G) pseudo-typed lentiviral vector encoding for the human cytokine interferon-alpha 2 (IFN-a2) gene, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The expression of IFN-a2 is tightly controlled by the human angiopoietin receptor Tie2 enhancer/promoter sequence, found in the tumor-infiltrating macrophages Tie2 express... |
| Autologous CD38-4SCAR-expressing T-cells 4SCAR38 | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-cells transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating lentiviral vector expressing a fourth generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) consisting of an anti-CD38 single chain variable fragment (scFv) that is coupled to the costimulatory signaling domains CD28, CD137, CD27 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR), and is fused with the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9), with potential immunostimulating and antineo... |
| Autologous CD4+/CD8+ 4-1BB-CD3zeta-EGFR806-CAR-EGFRt/4-1BB-CD3zeta-CD19-CAR-HER2tG-expressing CARs T Cells | A preparation of CD4+ and CD8+ autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector that co-expresses two different second generation chimeric antigen receptors (CARs), one composed of a short chain variable fragment (scFv) binding domain derived from depatuxizumab, a human anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) monoclonal antibody (MAb806; ABT-806), coupled to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) and the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), and linked to a truncated f... |
| Autologous CD4+/CD8+ EGFR806 Specific 4-1BB-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing CAR T Cells | A preparation of CD4+ and CD8+ autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) composed of a short chain variable fragment (scFv) binding domain derived from depatuxizumab, a human anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) monoclonal antibody (MAb806; ABT-806), coupled to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) and the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137),  and linked to a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor re... |
| Autologous CD40L-expressing B-CLL Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous, B-chronic lymphocytic leukemia (B-CLL) cells harvested from a patient and transduced with an adenoviral vector encoding the gene for the human CD40 ligand (CD40L; TRAP; CD154), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the autologous CD40L-expressing B-CLL vaccine expresses the co-stimulatory molecule CD40L, which binds to its cognate receptor, CD40, on antigen presenting cells (APC). This i... |
| Autologous CD5KO Anti-CD5 CAR 4-1BB-expressing T-lymphocytes and Autologous CD5KO T-lymphocytes | A dual-population preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes in which the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD5 is knocked out (CD5KO) and is genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for CD5 and coupled to the co-stimulatory molecule 4-1BB (CD137), and autologous CD5KO normal untransduced T-lymphocytes, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of autologous CD5KO anti-CD5 CAR 4-1BB-expressing T-lymphocytes and autologous CD... |
| Autologous CD5-specific CAR-28 zeta CAR T-cells | Autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD5 single chain variable fragment (scFv) coupled to the costimulatory signaling domain CD28 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, the autologous CD5-specific CAR-28 zeta CAR T-cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity in CD5-expressing tumor cells. The tumor-associa... |
| Autologous CD8 Positive PBL Sensitized to Drosophila Cell-Presented Melanoma Peptides | A preparation of autologous CD8+ (cytotoxic) human peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) sensitized to Drosophila cell-presented melanoma peptides, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Autologous CD8+ T-lymphocytes, isolated from a melanoma patient, are exposed in vitro to melanoma peptide-pulsed HLA-A2-expressing Drosophila cells, expanded, and reintroduced into the patient; these tumor-reactive T-cells may stimulate a host immune response against tumor cells express... |
| Autologous CD8+ Melanoma Specific T Cells | Autologous CD8 T-lymphocytes against melanoma-associated antigens, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Following leukapheresis and the ex vivo expansion of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, the autologous CD8+ melanoma specific T-cells are re-introduced into the melanoma patient. These cytotoxic T-cells recognize and kill the patient's own melanoma cells. |
| Autologous CD8+ SLC45A2-specific T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous CD8+ T lymphocytes targeting SLC45A2, a melanoma-associated antigen, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Following peripheral blood mononuclear cell (PBMC) collection and ex vivo expansion of SLC45A2-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs), the autologous CD8+ SLC45A2-specific CTLs are re-infused into the patient, where they target and lyse SLC45A2-expressing tumor cells. While SLC45A2 is expressed by approximately 80% of cutaneous melano... |
| Autologous CEA-specific Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes | Autologous cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) specifically reactive to the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Dendritic cells (DCs) isolated from the patient's blood are infected with recombinant adeno-associated virus (AAV) expressing the CEA gene. Exposure of T-lymphocytes to DCs creates CEA-specific CTLs which are expanded. Upon reintroduction of these CTLs into the patient, these cells recognize and kill CEA-expressing ... |
| Autologous Cervical Cancer-specific Engineered Immune Effector Cells | A preparation of autologous immune effector cells genetically modified to target a not yet disclosed cervical cancer-specific tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, expansion in culture, and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous cervical cancer-specific engineered immune effector (CC-EIE) cells bind to and induce selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing the TAA. |
| Autologous CISH-inactivated TILs | A preparation of autologous tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) where the cytokine-inducible SH2-containing protein gene (CISH) has been inactivated using the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeat (CRISPR)/CRISPR associated protein 9 (Cas9) editing system, containing guide RNA (gRNA) coupled to a recombinant form of the DNA endonuclease Cas9, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Using the CRISPR/Cas9 system, the autologous TILs are transfected, e... |
| Autologous CLL1-CAR-CD28-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) C-type-lectin-like molecule-1 (CLL1; C-type lectin domain family 12 member A; CLEC12A) linked to the CD28 co-stimulatory signaling domain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous CLL1-CAR-CD28-expressing T-lymphocytes specifically target and bind to CLL1-expressing tumor cells. This induces selective t... |
| Autologous CLL1-CD33 Compound CAR T Cells | Autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a compound chimeric antigen receptor (cCAR) containing two CARs, one specific for the CD33 antigen and one specific for the C-type-lectin-like molecule-1 (CLL1; C-type lectin domain family 12 member A; CLEC12A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CD33/CLL1-specific CARs lentiviral vector-transduced autologous T-lymphocytes, expressing both the anti-CD33 CAR and the anti... |
| Autologous Clonal Neoantigen T Cells ATL001 | A preparation of personalized tumor-derived T-lymphocytes composed of tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) that are reactive to clonal cancer neoantigens, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The TILs are removed from the suppressive tumor microenvironment (TME) and re-activated. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the clonal neoantigen T (cNeT) cells recognize and bind to tumor cells expressing the targeted neoantigen, resulting in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)... |
| Autologous CLTX-targeted CAR T-lymphocytes CHM 1101 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) comprised of a CD28 co-stimulatory signaling domain fused to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3zeta) and coupled to chlorotoxin (CLTX), a 36-amino acid peptide derived from the venom of the deathstalker scorpion, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of autologous CLTX-targeted CAR T-lymphocytes CHM 1101, the CAR-T cells are re-direct... |
| Autologous c-Met/PD-L1-specific CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR or c-Met) and the immunosuppressive ligand, programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion, the autologous c-Met/PD-L1-specific CAR T-cells bind to and induce selective toxicity in c-Met- and PD-L1-expressing tum... |
| Autologous CMV-pp65-flLAMP mRNA Loaded Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer cell vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with mRNA encoding the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) matrix protein pp65 (65 kDa lower matrix phosphoprotein; UL83) as a fusion protein with the full-length lysosome-associated membrane protein (flLAMP), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, the autologous CMV-pp65-flLAMP mRNA loaded DC vaccine exposes the immune system to the CMV pp65 peptide, which may elicit a cytotoxic T-l... |
| Autologous CMV-pp65-LAMP mRNA Loaded Monocyte Vaccine MT-201-GBM | A cancer cell vaccine consisting of autologous monocytes loaded with mRNA encoding the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) matrix protein pp65 (65 kDa lower matrix phosphoprotein; UL83) as a fusion protein with the lysosome-associated membrane protein (LAMP), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous CMV-pp65-LAMP mRNA loaded monocyte vaccine MT-201-GBM exposes the immune system to the CMV pp65 peptide, which may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyt... |
| Autologous CMV-pp65-shLAMP-1 mRNA Loaded Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer cell vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells pulsed with mRNA encoding the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) matrix protein pp65 (65 kDa lower matrix phosphoprotein; UL83) as a fusion construct with a short peptide chimeric antigen from lysosome-associated membrane protein 1 (shLAMP-1), with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulatory activities. Upon vaccination, the autologous CMV-pp65-shLAMP-1 vaccine exposes the immune system to the CMV pp65 peptide, which may elicit a cyto... |
| Autologous Colon Cancer Cell Vaccine | A personalized, proprietary cancer vaccine composed of sterile, irradiated, non-dividing, live colon cancer cells obtained from an individual after tumor resection, with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration, the autologous colon cancer cell vaccine activates the immune system and elicits a cytotoxic T-lymphocytic (CTL) response against the residual colon cancer cells, which results in tumor cell death. This may prevent cancer recurrence. Ac... |
| Autologous Colorectal Tumor Antigen-pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A dendritic cell (DC)-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous DCs pulsed with tumor cell lysates from a colorectal cancer patient containing tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous colorectal tumor antigen-pulsed DC vaccine exposes the immune system to colorectal tumor cell antigens, which may result in cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune responses against the colorectal cancer cells. This l... |
| Autologous CRISPR-Cas9 Engineered Regnase-1/SOCS1 Dual-edited Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes KSQ-004EX | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to inactivate both the endogenous genes suppressor of cytokine signaling 1 (SOCS1) and Regnase-1, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion of the autologous CRISPR-Cas9 engineered Regnase-1/SOCS1 dual-edited TILs KSQ-004EX back into the patient, the cells specifically recognize, targe... |
| Autologous CRISPR-Cas9 Engineered Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes KSQ-001EX | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to inactivate the endogenous gene suppressor of cytokine signaling 1 (SOCS1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion of the autologous CRISPR-Cas9 engineered TILs KSQ-001EX back into the patient, the cells specifically recognize, target and kill the patient's tumor cells. SOCS1 serv... |
| Autologous CRISPR-edited Anti-CD19 CAR T Cells XYF19 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, and electroporated with clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR) guide RNA to disrupt expression of endogenous hematopoietic progenitor kinase 1 (HPK1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction into the patient, the autologous CRISPR-edited anti-CD19 CAR ... |
| Autologous CRISPR-edited Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes GT316 | A preparation of autologous tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from each patient's resected tumor and edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)/CRISPR associated protein 9 (Cas9) system to eliminate the expression of as of yet not elucidated immunoregulatory targets, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, autologous CRISPR-edited TILs GT316 specifically recognize and kill the... |
| Autologous CT7/MAGE-A3/WT1 mRNA-Electroporated Langerhans-Type Dendritic Cells | An autologous tumor cell vaccine containing CD34+ hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)-derived Langerhans-type dendritic cells (LCs) electroporated with mRNA encoding the full-length cancer-testis antigens, CT7 and melanoma-associated antigen 3 (MAGE-A3), and the self-differentiation tumor antigen, Wilms tumor 1 (WT1) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. The autologous CT7/MAGE-A3/WT1 mRNA-electroporated Langerhans-type dendritic cells are prepared by drawing a blood sa... |
| Autologous CT-RCC-1 HERV-E-TCR-transduced-HLA-A11-restricted CD8+/CD34t+ T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) sequence specific for CT-RCC-1, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and HLA-A11-restricted peptide encoded by human endogenous retrovirus (HERV) type E as well as a truncated CD34 chain (CD34t), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo and re-introduction into the patient, the autologous CT-RCC-1 HERV-E-TCR-transduced-HLA-A11-restricted CD8... |
| Autologous Cultured Acute Myeloid Leukemia-specific Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes | A preparation of cytotoxic, autologous acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)-reactive T lymphocytes (CTL), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The autologous cultured AML-specific CTLs are prepared using a specific AML-CTL culture method. Autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes are taken from an AML patient and the autologous AML blasts are treated with granulocyte macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) and interleukin 4 (IL-4), both of which promote ex vivo diffe... |
| Autologous CXCR2-modified CD70 CAR T-cells | A preparation composed of ex-vivo expanded CXC chemokine receptor 2 (CXCR2) modified patient-derived activated CD70 (CD27 ligand; tumor necrosis factor superfamily member 7; TNFSF7) chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) (8R-70CAR) T-cells, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the autologous CXCR2-modified CD70 CAR T-cells, the anti-CD70-CARs on the T-cell surfaces target and bind to the CD70 antigen on tumor cell surfaces. This induces a cytotoxic T... |
| Autologous Cytokine-induced Killer Cells | A proprietary formulation of autologous cytokine-induced killer (CIK) T-lymphocytes, with immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. These CIK cells are generated by ex vivo incubation of autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes with an undisclosed mixture of compounds to stimulate killer T-cell differentiation; this is followed by expansion of the cells. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the autologous CIK cells are able to target and kill tumor cells. |
| Autologous Cytokine-induced Killer Cells/Vaccinia Virus DD-CDSR CRX100 | A preparation of autologous cytokine-induced killer (CIK) cells that have been generated ex vivo from killer cells treated with cytokines and infected with the oncolytic vaccinia virus DD-CDSR (vvDD-CDSR; double-deleted vaccinia virus plus CD/SMR), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. CIK cells are CD3- and CD56-positive, non-major histocompatibility complex (MHC)-restricted, natural killer (NK)-like T-lymphocytes. Upon infusion of autologous CIK cells/vvDD-CDSR CRX1... |
| Autologous Cytoplasmic Activated PD-1 CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19), carrying cytoplasmic activated programmed cell death 1 (PD1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, autologous cytoplasmic activated PD-1 CAR T-cells target, bind to, and induce selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. The cytoplasmic... |
| Autologous Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes Exposed to Dendritic Cells loaded with 6B11 Anti-idiotype Minibody | A preparation of autologous cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) that are exposed, ex vivo, to autologous dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with the anti-idiotype minibody 6B11, which mimics the epithelial ovarian tumor-associated antigen (TAA), OC166-9, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CTLs exposed to DCs loaded with 6B11 anti-idiotype minibody target and kill autologous ovarian cells expressing the TAA. |
| Autologous Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes Induced with MUC1 Gene-transfected Dendritic Cells | A preparation of autologous cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL), specifically reactive to the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mucin-1 (MUC1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are collected from the patient with MUC1-positive tumors and are exposed ex vivo to dendritic cells (DCs) transfected with a replication-deficient adenovirus encoding MUC1 to generate MUC1-specific CTLs, which are subsequently expanded in vitro. Upon re-infusion of autologous CT... |
| Autologous Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes Induced with MUC1 Peptide-pulsed Dendritic Cells | A preparation of autologous cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL), specifically reactive to the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mucin-1 (MUC1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are collected from the patient with MUC1-positive tumors and are exposed ex vivo to dendritic cells (DCs) that are pulsed with a MUC1 peptide to generate MUC1-specific CTLs, which are subsequently expanded in vitro. Upon re-infusion of autologous CTLs induced with MUC1 peptide-p... |
| Autologous Deep IL-15 Primed T-cells TRQ15-01 | A preparation of genetically modified, multi-antigen-directed autologous T-lymphocytes, that have particles, consisting of multiple chemically crosslinked human cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15)/IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra)/Fc heterodimers, attached to their surface, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. TRQ15-01 is made from monocyte-derived dendritic cells (moDCs) that are pulsed with peptides from multiple tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) to expand cytotoxic T-lym... |
| Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine ACT2001 | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous, immature dendritic cells (DCs), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, immature DCs are isolated and re-administered intra-tumorally. The immature DCs internalize and process the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), migrate to the lymphatic system, and then expose the immune system to the TAAs. This induces a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the cancer cells leading to tumor cel... |
| Autologous Dendritic Cell/Myeloma Fusion Vaccine | A therapeutic cancer vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) fused with patient-derived plasma cell (multiple) myeloma cells with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous DC/multiple myeloma fusions stimulate both helper and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) responses through the presentation of internalized and newly synthesized tumor associated antigens (TAAs). This may promote cellular and humoral antitumor immune responses in pat... |
| Autologous Dendritic Cell-Adenovirus CCL21 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) that have been transduced ex vivo with an adenoviral vector containing the CCL21 gene with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, autologous dendritic cell-adenovirus CCL21 vaccine expresses the chemokine CCL21, which may induce an antitumoral cytotoxic immune response in the tumor microenvironment. CCL21 [chemokine (C-C motif) ligand 21] has been shown to attract antigen prese... |
| Autologous Dendritic Cell-Adenovirus P53 Vaccine | An autologous vaccine composed of dendritic cells (DC) that have been transduced with a p53 tumor suppressor gene-modified virus. When the autologous dendritic cell-adenovirus p53 vaccine is administered, the host cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) are directed against p53-positive tumor cells, which may result in tumor cell death and decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| Autologous Dendritic Cell-Allogeneic Melanoma Tumor Cell Lysate Vaccine | A cell-based vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with lysates from heat-treated allogeneic melanoma tumor cells. Upon administration, this vaccine may stimulate anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-cell and antibody responses to melanoma cells bearing shared melanoma antigens such as MelanA/MART-1, gp100, MAGE3, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Autologous Dendritic Cell-Autologous Tumor mRNA-Human CD40L Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells transfected with autologous tumor mRNA and the human CD40 ligand (CD40L) gene with immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Vaccination with autologous dendritic cell-autologous tumor mRNA-human CD40L vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T cell response against tumor cells from which the autologous tumor mRNA was derived. When expressed by dendritic cells, tumor antigens and the co-stimulatory molecule CD40L, which binds to CD40 receptors... |
| Autologous Dendritic Cells Pulsed with MART-1 (26-35) Peptide | A cell-based vaccine consisting of autologous HLA-A2*0201-restricted dendritic cells (DC), which were derived from patient-harvested adherent peripheral blood monocytes cultured in vitro with granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) and interleukin-4 (IL-4), that were pulsed with a peptide fragment comprised of amino acid residues 26 through 35 of melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells 1 (MART-1 (26-35)), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon in... |
| Autologous Dendritic Cells Transduced with Wild-type p53 Adenovirus Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) transduced with a recombinant replication-defective adenoviral (Ad) vector encoding the full-length wild-type (wt) cancer tumor antigen p53 protein (TP53; p53), with potential immunomodulating activity. Intradermal vaccination with the autologous DCs transduced with wt p53 Ad vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells overexpressing wt and mutant forms of p53,... |
| Autologous Dendritic Cell-Tumor Fusion Vaccine | A therapeutic cancer vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) fused with autologous tumor cells with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Autologous dendritic cell-tumor fusion vaccine is generated in vitro by mixing DCs and irradiated tumor cells harvested from individual patients and treating them with polyethylene glycol (PEG) to produce DC-tumor cell fusion hybrid cells. Upon administration, autologous dendritic cell-tumor fusion vaccine may elicit anti... |
| Autologous Dinitrophenyl-Modified Ovarian Cancer Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous ovarian cancer cell peptide antigens conjugated to the hapten 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Administration of autologous dinitrophenyl-modified ovarian cancer vaccine may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against ovarian cancer cells. DNP conjugation may enhance the immunogenicity of weakly immunogenic antigens. |
| Autologous dnTGF-BRII-armored Anti-GPC3 CAR T-cells AZD5851 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for glypican-3 (GPC3) and the dominant negative (dn) form of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta; TGFb) receptor 2 (dnTGF-BRII; dnTGFbR2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction into the patient, autologous dnTGF-BRII-armored anti-GPC3 CAR T-cells AZD5851 are directed to and induce selective toxicity in GPC3-expre... |
| Autologous dnTGF-BRII-armored Anti-STEAP2 CAR T-cells AZD0754 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the metalloreductase six-transmembrane epithelial antigen of prostate-2 (STEAP2; STAMP1) and the dominant negative (dn) form of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta; TGFb) receptor 2 (dnTGF-BRII; dnTGFbR2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction into the patient, autologous dnTGF-BRII-armored anti-STEAP2 CAR T-... |
| Autologous E6 T Cell Receptor Genetically-modified T Cells | A preparation of human autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) that have been genetically engineered to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) that specifically targets the viral oncoprotein human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV-16) E6, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the HPV E6 TCR genetically-modified T-cells target and bind to HPV-16 E6-expressing tumor cells, which leads to specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated killing of HPV-16 E6-positive tumor cells. H... |
| Autologous EBV-CTL CD19CAR zeta | Autologous Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL) that have been genetically modified to express a T-cell chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the CD19 antigen, with potential immunotherapeutic activity. The CAR consists of a single chain Fv of anti-CD19 IgG1 coupled with an intracellular signaling region of the zeta-chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3 zeta). Autologous EBV-CTL CD19CAR zeta directs the T-lymphocytes to CD19-expressing tumor cells, stimulating a sel... |
| Autologous EBV-Transformed B Lymphoblastoid-Tumor Fusion Cell Vaccine | A cell-based vaccine composed of autologous tumor cells fused with Epstein-Barr virus-transformed B-lymphoblastoid cells. Upon administration, this vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T cell response against tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (NCI05) |
| Autologous EGFR-specific CAR-T-Cells Expressing Anti-PD-1/CTLA-4 Antibodies | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been activated and genetically modified to express immune checkpoint antibodies against the negative immunoregulatory receptors human cell surface receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and human T-cell receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), and are transduced with a gene encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) epidermal growth fact... |
| Autologous EGFRt/19-28z/4-1BBL CAR T-Lymphocytes | Genetically modified autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a replication incompetent retroviral vector expressing both tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily (TNFSF) member 9 (TNFSF9; 4-1BBL) and a chimeric T cell antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment), fused to the extracellular, transmembrane and intracellular signaling domains of the T-cell co-stimulatory receptor CD28, the cytoplasmic signaling domain of the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 c... |
| Autologous Engineered TCR-T Cells KSH01 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for an as of yet undisclosed tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are isolated from a patient, transduced with a TCR specific for the TAA, and expanded ex-vivo. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the autologous engineered TCR-T cells KSH01 target and bind to tumor cells expressing the TAA, which may induce c... |
| Autologous Enhanced NY-ESO-1 TCR Engineered T-cells GSK4427296 | A preparation of human autologous engineered T-lymphocytes that express an affinity-enhanced T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the cancer-testis antigen 1 (NY-ESO-1; New York esophageal antigen-1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous enhanced NY-ESO-1 TCR engineered T-cells GSK4427296 recognize and bind to NY-ESO-1-overexpressing tumor cells. This may result in a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated killing of NY-ESO-1-pos... |
| Autologous Epstein-Barr Virus-Specific Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes | A preparation of lymphocytes harvested from a patient with an Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-positive tumor.  Ex vivo, the lymphocytes are activated against EBV-specific antigens and then returned to the patient, where they mount a specific immune response against EBV-positive tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Autologous Follicular Lymphoma-Derived Idiotype Vaccine | A patient-specific cancer vaccine directed against the soluble protein idiotype of an individual follicular lymphoma with potential antineoplastic activity. A patient-specific follicular lymphoma-derived anti-idiotype vaccine may be composed of a patient-specific, synthetic idiotype-related peptide (such as one corresponding to a hypervariable region of an IgG heavy chain) conjugated to the immunostimulant carrier protein keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH). Upon administration, this vaccine may ... |
| Autologous FRa-4SCAR-expressing T-cells 4SCAR-FRa | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-cells transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating lentiviral vector expressing a fourth generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) consisting of an anti-folate receptor alpha (FRa; folate receptor 1; FOLR1) single chain variable fragment (scFv) that is coupled to the costimulatory signaling domains CD28, CD137, CD27 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (CD3zeta; CD3z), and is fused with the suicide gene inducible caspa... |
| Autologous Gamma Delta T-cell Receptor-expressing T-cells TEG002 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes genetically engineered to express a defined gamma delta T-cell receptor (TCR), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the autologous gamma delta TCR-expressing T-cells TEG002, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma delta T-lymphocyte... |
| Autologous Gamma-retroviral MSGV1 139 scFv EGFRvIII CAR Gene-modified T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with the gamma retroviral vector MSGV1 expressing a chimeric T-cell antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single-chain variable fragment (scFv) from a specific antibody clone (mAb139) that targets a mutant form of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) known as variant III (EGFRvIII; EGFR-vIII), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral administration, the gamma-retroviral MSGV1 139 scFv EGFRvIII CAR gene-modified T-cells ... |
| Autologous GCC-targeting CAR T Cells GCC19CART | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the enterocyte differentiation antigen guanylyl cyclase C (GUCY2C) that are activated with CAR T-cells specific for the CD19 antigen, and coupled to as of yet not fully elucidated signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the autologous GCC-targeting CAR T cells GCC19CART are directed to, spec... |
| Autologous GCC-targeting CAR T-cells LCAR-G08 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered, using a lentiviral vector, to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the enterocyte differentiation antigen guanylyl cyclase C (GUCY2C), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the autologous GCC-targeting CAR T-cells LCAR-G08 are directed to, specifically bind to, activate, proliferate and release cytokines that promote killing of GCC-expressing tum... |
| Autologous Gene-modified Gamma Delta T-cells | A preparation of genetically modified autologous gamma delta T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector to encode a DNA repair enzyme, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous gene-modified gamma delta T-cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma delta T-lymphocytes ... |
| Autologous Gene-modified PD-1-positive T-lymphocytes Sc610 | A preparation of autologous programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279)-positive T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding for an as of yet undisclosed receptor, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous gene-modified PD-1-positive T-lymphocytes Sc610 bind to tumor cells expressing the antigen for the as of yet undisclosed receptor, which may result in specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated tumor cell kill... |
| Autologous Gene-modified PD-1-positive T-lymphocytes ScTIL210 | A preparation of autologous programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279)-positive T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding for an as of yet undisclosed receptor, with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, autologous gene-modified PD-1-positive T-lymphocytes ScTIL210 may recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells through as of yet not elucidated receptor binding. |
| Autologous Glioma Cell Lysate | A cell lysate derived from glioma cells with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration, the autologous glioma cell lysate exposes the immune system to an undefined amount of glioma-type tumor associated antigens (TAA), which may result in the induction of both specific anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) and antibody-dependent responses against the glioma TAA-expressing cells, resulting in glioma cell lysis. |
| Autologous GM-CSF-Secreting Breast Cancer Vaccine | An autologous tumor cell vaccine containing irradiated breast cancer cells transfected with the granulocyte macrophage-colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) gene with potential antineoplastic activity. Autologous breast cancer cells are transduced ex vivo with an adenovirus vector encoding the GM-CSF gene and irradiated and then reintroduced into the patient. Upon repeated subcutaneous administration of the vaccine, autologous GM-CSF-secreting breast cancer cells secrete GM-CSF, which may stimul... |
| Autologous GM-CSF-secreting Lethally Irradiated Colorectal Cancer Cell Vaccine | A lethally irradiated, autologous colorectal cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific colorectal cancer cells genetically modified to secrete the cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, the autologous GM-CSF-secreting lethally irradiated colorectal cancer cell vaccine releases GM-CSF. In turn, GM-CSF may increase the body's immune response against tumor cells by promoting the mat... |
| Autologous GM-CSF-secreting Lethally Irradiated Leukemia Cell Vaccine | An autologous cancer vaccine composed of lethally irradiated leukemia cells that are genetically modified to secrete the immunostimulatory cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal injection, the autologous GM-CSF-secreting lethally irradiated leukemia cell vaccine secretes GM-CSF. In turn, GM-CSF may stimulate the immune system to attack tumor cells by enhancing the activation of dendri... |
| Autologous GM-CSF-secreting Lethally Irradiated Lung Cancer Vaccine | An autologous lung cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific lung cancer cells genetically modified to secrete granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF), an immunostimulatory cytokine. GM-CSF modulates the proliferation and differentiation of a variety of hematopoietic progenitor cells with some specificity towards stimulation of leukocyte production and may reverse treatment-induced neutropenias. This agent also promotes antigen presentation, up-regulates antibody-depende... |
| Autologous GM-CSF-secreting Lethally Irradiated Pancreatic Cancer Vaccine | An irradiated, autologous pancreatic cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific pancreatic cancer cells genetically modified to secrete the cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, GVAX pancreatic cancer vaccine secretes GM-CSF. In turn, GM-CSF may stimulate the body's immune system against tumor cells by enhancing the activation of dendritic cells (DCs) and promoting antigen presen... |
| Autologous GPC3/NY-ESO-1/AFP specific CD8-positive T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that are exposed, ex vivo, to multiple specific hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) antigens, including glypican (GPC)-3, New York esophageal squamous cell carcinoma-1 (NY-ESO-1) and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion of the GPC3/NY-ESO-1/AFP-specific CD8-positive T lymphocytes, the T-cells specifically target and lyse cells expressing the targeted HCC neoantigens. |
| Autologous HBV-specific TCR-expressing T-lymphocytes SCG101 | A preparation of human autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding for a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for HLA-A*02-restricted human hepatitis B virus (HBV) surface antigen (HBsAg) peptide, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the autologous HBV-specific TCR-expressing T-lymphocytes SCG101 recognize and bind to HBV antigen-positive cells, which induces cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated elimination of HBV antigen-positive cells, including ... |
| Autologous HBV-specific TCR-redirected T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of human autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a viral vector encoding for a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for a human hepatitis B virus (HBV) surface antigen (HBsAg), with potential antineoplastic activity. Following administration, the autologous HBV antigen specific TCR-redirected autologous T-lymphocytes recognize and bind to the HBV antigen-positive cells, which induces cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated elimination of HBV antigen-positive cancer cells. HBV antigens ... |
| Autologous Heat-Shock Protein 70 Peptide Vaccine AG-858 | A recombinant cancer vaccine made with tumor-derived heat shock protein 70 (HSP70) peptide complexes.  HSP70 associates with antigenic peptides, transporting them into antigen presenting cells (APC) for processing. Tumor-derived HSP70-peptide complexes used in vaccine preparations have been shown to prime tumor immunity and tumor-specific T cells in animal models. (NCI04) |
| Autologous HER2-CAR-modified Adenovirus-specific Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes | A population of autologous cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) specifically reactive to human adenovirus (Ad) that have been transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a second-generation human epidermal growth factor receptor type 2 (HER2; EGFR2; ErbB2)-specific chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) comprised of an exodomain based on a anti-CD22 single chain variable fragment (scFv) from the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody FRP5 that is linked to the costimulatory domains of CD28 and the zeta chain of... |
| Autologous HER2-specific/EGFRt-expressing CD4/CD8-positive CAR T-cells | A preparation of CD4+ and CD8+ autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a human epidermal growth factor receptor type 2 (HER2; EGFR2; ErbB2)-specific chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) coupled to a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the autologous HER2-specific/EGFRt-expressing CD4/CD8-positive CAR T-cells are directed to and induce se... |
| Autologous HER2-targeted Dual-switch CAR-T Cells BPX-603 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) for the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; HER-2) and a dual-switch composed of chemical inducer of dimerization (CID)-inducible co-activation domain MyD88/CD40 (inducible MC; iMC), in which both the MyD88 and CD40 lack their extracellular domains, and an inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9) safety switch (CaspaCIDe), consisting of the CID-binding domain coupled to the signaling domain of casp... |
| Autologous HLA-A*11:01 KRASG12V-specific TCR-expressing CD8- and CD4-positive T-lymphocytes AFNT-211 | A preparation of autologous HLA class I histocompatibility antigen A*11:01 (HLA-A1101)-positive CD8- and CD4-positive T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a HLA-A*11:01-restricted T-cell receptor (TCR) that recognizes the glycine to valine point mutation at position 12 (G12V) variant of Kirsten rat sarcoma (K-RAS; KRAS), and enhanced with the wildtype CD8alpha/beta (CD8a/b) coreceptor, and a FAS-41BB switch receptor, and subsequently expanded ex vivo, wi... |
| Autologous HNSCC DNA-transfected Semi-allogeneic Fibroblasts MRC-5 Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of lethally irradiated human fetal lung fibroblasts (Medical Research Council 5 or MRC-5) transfected with autologous tumor DNA derived from a head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration, the autologous HNSCC DNA-transfected semi-allogeneic fibroblasts MRC-5 vaccine expresses HNSCC tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), which may activate the immune system to induce a cytotoxic T... |
| Autologous HPV E6/E7-targeting T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are specifically reactive towards the human papillomavirus (HPV) viral oncoproteins E6 and E7, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Following leukapheresis and ex vivo priming and expansion, the autologous HPV E6/E7-targeting T-cells are re-introduced into the patient, where they target and kill tumor cells expressing these HPV tumor-associated antigens (TAAs). HPV E6 and E7 are overexpressed on certain tumor cell types ... |
| Autologous HPV16 E7-specific HLA-A*02:01-restricted TCR Gene Engineered Lymphocytes KITE-439 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02:01-restricted human papillomavirus type 16 isoform E7 protein (HPV16 E7) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo and re-introduction into the patient, the autologous HPV16 E7-specific HLA-A*02:01-restricted T-lymphocytes KITE-439 target and bind HPV16 E7-expressing tumor cells. This ... |
| Autologous HPV-16/18 E6/E7-specific TGF-beta-resistant T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta)-resistant cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL) reactive to human papilloma virus (HPV) types 16 and 18 E6/E7 antigens, with potential antineoplastic activity. Autologous T-lymphocytes from a HPV-positive cancer patient are exposed to and stimulated with dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with the HPV-16/18 proteins E6 and E7. In turn, the HPV-16/18 E6/E7-specific T-lymphocytes are transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a domina... |
| Autologous HPV16/HPV18/Survivin-specific CD8+ T-cells NEXI-003 | A preparation of autologous CD3+ CD4- CD8+ T-cells targeting multiple human papilloma virus (HPV) tumor-associated antigens, including HPV types 16 and 18 antigens and survivin, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Following leukapheresis and ex vivo priming and expansion, the autologous HPV16/HPV18/survivin-specific CD8+ T-cells NEXI-003 are re-introduced into the patient, where they target and kill tumor cells expressing these HPV tumor-associated antigens. |
| Autologous HPV-specific Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes | A population of autologous cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) that are specifically reactive to human papillomavirus (HPV), with potential antiviral and antineoplastic activities activities. Upon infusion of the autologous HPV-specific CTLs, these CTLs induce selective toxicity in HPV-positive cancer cells and other HPV-infected cells. HPV is associated with various cancer cell types. |
| Autologous iC9-deltaNGFR-CD19CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a retroviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment (scFv) fused to a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) hinge and a CD8alpha transmembrane domain, linked to the co-stimulatory molecule 4-1BB (CD137) and the cytoplasmic portion of the zeta chain of the human T-cell receptor (CD3zeta), containing the apoptosis-inducible suicide gene human caspase 9 (iCASP9... |
| Autologous iC9-GD2CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-IL-15-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with the retroviral vector SFG, a Moloney murine leukemia (Mo-MuLV) virus-based vector, expressing both an extracellular domain consisting of interleukin 15 (IL-15) and a GD2-specific chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) derived from the monoclonal antibody 14G2a, linked to the CD28 and CD3zeta (TCRzeta; CD247) costimulatory signaling domains and containing the suicide gene, inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9 or iC9), with potential immu... |
| Autologous iC9-GD2-CAR-expressing VZV-specific T Lymphocytes | Genetically modified, autologous varicella zoster virus (VZV)-specific T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the disialoganglioside GD2, which contains the signaling domains for the co-stimulatory molecules CD28 and CD134 (OX-40), and the suicide gene, inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9 or iC9), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, iC9-GD2-CD28-OX40-expressing T lymphocytes ... |
| Autologous iCASP9-CD19-expressing T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and the inducible suicide gene human caspase 9 (iCASP9 or iC9), that is linked to a drug binding domain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The iCASP9 construct consists of the entire coding sequence for the human FK506-drug binding protein (FKBP12) with an F36V mutation (FKBP12-F36V) ... |
| Autologous iCasp9-deltaNGFR-CD19CAR-expressing T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the CD19 antigen, the suicide gene, inducible human caspase 9 (iCasp9 or iC9), and a truncated low-affinity nerve growth factor receptor (deltaNGFR), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The iCasp9 construct consists of the entire coding sequence for the human FK506-drug binding protein (FKBP12) with an F36V mutation (FKBP12-F... |
| Autologous IL-12/Multi-targeted Primed T-cells RPTR 168 | A preparation of genetically modified, multi-antigen-targeted autologous T-lymphocytes, tethered with the human immunostimulatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. RPTR 168 is prepared from monocyte-derived dendritic cells (moDCs) that are pulsed with five tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) to expand cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) that are subsequently loaded with IL-12. Upon administration, the autologous IL-12/multi-targeted prime... |
| Autologous IL-15/IL-21-armored Anti-glypican-3 CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for glypican-3 (GPC3), interleukin-15 (IL-15) and interleukin-21 (IL-21), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous IL-15/IL-21-armored anti-GPC3 CAR T-cells specifically target and bind to GPC3-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. GPC3, a heparan sulfate proteoglycan and a member of the glyp... |
| Autologous IL-15-expanded HER2-specific CD4+ T-cells | A preparation of autologous, interleukin-15 (IL-15)-expanded, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2)-specific, cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4)-positive T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Autologous HER2-specific CD4+ T-cells are expanded ex vivo with IL-15. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the autologous IL-15-expanded HER2-specific CD4+ T-cells recognize and stimulate a T-cell-mediated immune response against HER2-exp... |
| Autologous IL-21-Modulated CD8+ MART1-Specific T Cells | A preparation of interleukin 21 (IL-21) stimulated, CD8+ T-lymphocytes sensitized to MART-1 (melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells) antigen with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. CD8+ T-lymphocytes are exposed ex vivo to autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with MART-1 antigen peptide and grown in the presence of IL-21. These tumor-reactive T-cells may stimulate a host immune response against tumor cells expressing the MART-1 antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis... |
| Autologous IL-2-expressing B-CLL Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous, B-chronic lymphocytic leukemia (B-CLL) cells harvested from a patient and transduced ex vivo with an adenoviral vector encoding the gene for the human cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon reintroduction into the patient, the autologous IL-2-expressing B-CLL vaccine expresses IL-2, stimulates natural killer (NK) cells, and may enhance the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response again... |
| Autologous IL-7/CCL19-expressing Anti-GM2 CAR T Cells NIB-101 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) ganglioside GM2 (GM2) and producing the immune regulators interleukin-7 (IL-7) and C-C motif chemokine 19 (CCL19) using PRIME (proliferation-inducing and migration-enhancing) technology, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous IL-7/CCL19-expressing anti-GM2 CAR T-cells NIB... |
| Autologous IL-7-expanded HER2-specific CD4+ T-cells | A preparation of autologous, interleukin-7 (IL-7)-expanded, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2)-specific, cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4)-positive T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Autologous HER2-specific CD4+ T-cells are expanded ex vivo with IL-7. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the autologous IL-7-expanded HER2-specific CD4+ T-cells recognize and stimulate a T-cell-mediated immune response against HER2-express... |
| Autologous IL-7-expressing TILs ADP-TILIL7 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) engineered to express the cytokine interleukin-7 (IL-7), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The TILs are isolated from an autologous tumor sample and transduced with a lentiviral vector to express IL-7. Upon infusion of the autologous IL-7-expressing TILs ADP-TILIL7 back into the patient, the TILs specifically recognize, target and kill the patient's tumor cells. IL-7 is a cytokine that promotes the ... |
| Autologous IL-7Ra-expressing Tris-CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and lentivirally transduced to express a dual-target chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) and a truncated form of the cytokine receptor interleukin-7 (IL-7) receptor alpha (IL-7Ra), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous IL-7Ra-expressing Tris-CAR T-cells target and bind to tumor cells expressing the targets, thereby inducing selective toxicity in these tumor cells... |
| Autologous Immunoglobulin Idiotype-KLH Conjugate Vaccine | A cancer vaccine composed of tumor-specific idiotype determinants derived from an individual's tumor cells which are conjugated to keyhole limpet hemocyanin, an immunostimulant carrier protein. When injected into the individual from whom the tumor cells were isolated, this vaccine may stimulate an antitumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocytic immune response. (NCI04) |
| Autologous Interferon-producing Killer Dendritic Cells | A preparation of autologous dendritic cells (DC) with a molecular expression profile similar to both natural killer (NK) cells and DCs, with potential antineoplastic activity. Autologous interferon-producing killer dendritic cells (IKDCs) are characterized by double-negative expression of CD3 and CD19; these cells also express low levels of CD11 and are positive for B220. They are distinguished from plasmacytoid DCs (pDCs) by the absence of lymphocyte antigen 6C (Ly6C, Gr-1) expression. IKDCs... |
| Autologous Interleukin-15-armored Anti-glypican-3 CAR-iC9-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for glypican-3 (GPC3) and express interleukin-15 (IL-15) and the suicide gene, inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9 or iC9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous IL-15-armored anti-GPC3 CAR-iC9-expressing T-lymphocytes specifically target and bind to GPC3-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. GPC3, a heparan... |
| Autologous KRAS G12D Mutant-specific HLA-C*08:02-/KRAS G12D Mutant-specific HLA-A*11:01-/KRAS G12V Mutant-specific HLA-C*01:02-/TP53 R175H Mutant-specific HLA-A*02:01-restricted TCR Genes Engineered T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-C*08:02-restricted oncogenic K-RAS (KRAS) substitution mutation G12D, a TCR specific for the HLA-A*11:01-restricted KRAS G12D, a TCR specific for the HLA-C*01:02-restricted KRAS G12V, and a TCR specific for the HLA-A*02:01-restricted oncogenic TP53 (p53) substitution mutation R175H, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolatio... |
| Autologous KRAS G12D-specific HLA-C*08:02-restricted TCR Gene Engineered T-lymphocytes NT-112 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-C*08:02-restricted oncogenic K-RAS (KRAS) substitution mutation G12D, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo and re-introduction into the patient, the autologous KRAS G12D-specific HLA-C*08:02-restricted TCR gene engineered T-lymphocytes NT-112 target and bind to KRAS G12D-expressing tum... |
| Autologous KRAS Mutant-specific TCRs Gene Engineered PBLs | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) that have been genetically modified to express T-cell receptors (TCRs) specific for K-RAS (KRAS) mutations, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo and re-introduction into the patient, the autologous KRAS mutant-specific TCRs gene engineered PBLs target and bind to KRAS mutants-expressing tumor cells, resulting in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated killi... |
| Autologous LMP1-/LMP2- Specific Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL), specifically reactive to the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) latent membrane proteins (LMP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Autologous dendritic cells and EBV-infected lymphoblastoid cell lines (LCL) from patients with EBV-positive nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) are transduced with an LMP1/LMP2-expressing adenoviral vector, are irradiated, and then are used to stimulate and expand autologous CTL to produce autologous LMP1-/LMP2-specifi... |
| Autologous LMP1/LMP2/EBNA1-specific HLA-A02:01/24:02/11:01-restricted TCR-expressing T-lymphocytes YT-E001 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A02:01/24:02/11:01-restricted Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) latent membrane proteins (LMP) 1 and 2, and EBV nuclear antigen 1 (EBNA1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the autologous LMP1/LMP2/EBNA1-specific, HLA-A02:01/24:02/11:01-restricted TCR-expressing T-lymphocytes YT-E001 recognize and bind to HLA... |
| Autologous Lymphoid Effector Cells Specific Against Tumor Cells | A preparation of cytotoxic, autologous lymphoid effector cells specifically targeted towards tumor cells, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The autologous lymphoid effector cells are prepared by drawing a blood sample containing the required precursors for CD4+ helper T-cells, CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells, and natural killer (NK) cells from a cancer patient. The precursor cells are activated, selected and expanded to generate mature autologous lymphoid effector cells wi... |
| Autologous Lymphoma Cell Lysate-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with lysate from autologous lymphoma cells with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intranodal administration, autologous lymphoma cell lysate-pulsed autologous DC vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against lymphoma cells, which may result in lymphoma cell lysis. |
| Autologous Lymphoma Cell/Allogeneic Dendritic Cell Electrofusion Hybrid Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine consisting of hybrid cells created by electrofusing allogeneic dendritic cells (DCs) and autologous lymphoma cells with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon administration, autologous lymphoma cell/allogeneic dendritic cell electrofusion hybrid vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against specific autologous lymphoma-associated antigens, resulting in lymphoma cell apoptosis. |
| Autologous Lymphoma Cell/Autologous Dendritic Cell Electrofusion Hybrid Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine consisting of hybrid cells created by electrofusing autologous dendritic cells (DCs) and autologous lymphoma cells with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon administration, autologous lymphoma cell/autologous dendritic cell electrofusion hybrid vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against specific autologous lymphoma-associated antigens, resulting in lymphoma cell apoptosis. |
| Autologous Lymphoma Immunoglobulin-derived scFv-chemokine DNA Vaccine | A plasmid DNA vaccine encoding an autologous lymphoma-derived idiotype-targeting immunoglobulin (Ig)-derived single chain variable fragment (scFv) fused to the chemokine macrophage inflammatory protein 3 alpha (MIP3a), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular vaccination, the autologous lymphoma immunoglobulin-derived scFv-chemokine DNA vaccine is taken up by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and stimulates the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymph... |
| Autologous MAGE-A10-specific HLA-A2-restricted TCR c796 Gene-engineered Lymphocytes | Human autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a high-affinity T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted, human melanoma-associated antigen A10 (MAGE-A10), clone 796 (c796), with potential antineoplastic activity. Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are isolated from a patient, transduced with an anti-MAGE-A10(c796)-HLA-A2 restricted TCR, expanded ex vivo, and reintroduced into the HLA-A2-positive patient. Upon reintrodu... |
| Autologous MAGE-A3/A6-specific TCR Gene-engineered Lymphocytes KITE-718 | Human autologous T-lymphocytes genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) that specifically targets human melanoma-associated antigen A3 (MAGE-A3) and MAGE-A6 (MAGEA3/A6; MAGE-A3/A6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are isolated from a patient, transduced with a gene expressing a TCR specific for the MAGE-A3/A6 antigens, expanded ex vivo, and reintroduced into the patient. Then, the autologous MAGE-A3/A6-specific TCR gene enginee... |
| Autologous MAGE-A3-specific HLA-A*01-Restricted T Cell Receptor Gene Engineered Lymphocytes | Human autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*01-restricted, human melanoma-associated antigen A3 (MAGE-A3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are isolated from a patient, transduced with an anti-MAGE-A3-HLA-A*01 restricted TCR, expanded ex vivo, and reintroduced into the HLA-A*01-positive patient. Then, the autologous MAGE-A3-specific, HLA-A*... |
| Autologous MAGE-C2-specific HLA-A2-restricted TCR T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted, melanoma-associated antigen C2 (MAGE-C2; MC2), ALK epitope, with potential antineoplastic activity. Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are isolated from a patient, transduced with an anti-MAGE-C2-HLA-A2 restricted TCR, expanded ex vivo, and reintroduced into the HLA-A2-positive patient. Upon reintroduction, the autologous MAGE-C2-s... |
| Autologous mbIL-12-expressing Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes GT202 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) engineered to express membrane-bound interleukin-12 (mbIL-12), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The TILs are isolated from an autologous tumor sample and engineered to express mbIL-12. Upon infusion of the autologous mbIL-12-expressing TILs GT202 back into the patient, the cells specifically recognize, target and kill the patient's tumor cells. IL-12 expression activates the immune system by promot... |
| Autologous MCPyV-specific HLA-A02-restricted TCR-transduced CD4+ and CD8+ T-cells FH-MCVA2TCR | A preparation of autologous CD4+ and CD62L-expressing CD8+ T-cells transduced with a third generation lentiviral vector (LV) to express the high affinity T-cell receptor (TCR) A2 -MCC1, specific for the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A02-restricted Merkel cell polyomavirus (MCPyV; MCV) viral oncoprotein, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the autologous MCPyV-specific HLA-A02-restricted TCR-transduced CD8+ and CD4+ T-cells FH-MC... |
| Autologous mDC3 Vaccine | An antineoplastic vaccine composed of autologous mature dendritic cells (mDCs) pulsed with mutated peptides, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous mDC3 vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against cancer cells. |
| Autologous mDC3/8-KRAS Vaccine | An antineoplastic vaccine composed of autologous mature dendritic cells (mDCs) pulsed with mutant KRAS peptides specific to a patient's tumor mutation and human leukocyte antigen (HLA) type, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, this vaccine, which is administered as an mDC3 primer, followed by an mDC8 booster, may elicit a cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against cancer cells expressing certain KRAS mutations. K-RAS, a member of the RAS family of... |
| Autologous Melanoma Lysate/KLH-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with lysate from autologous melanoma cells containing tumor associated antigens (TAAs) and conjugated to the immunostimulant Keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous melanoma lysate/KLH-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody respon... |
| Autologous Melanoma Lysate/NY-ESO-1-pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with both a lysate from autologous melanoma cells containing tumor associated antigens (TAAs) and a synthetic peptide derived from the tumor associated antigen human cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous melanoma lysate/NY-ESO-1-pulsed autologous DC vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lym... |
| Autologous Melanoma Lysate-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with lysate from autologous melanoma cells containing tumor associated antigens (TAAs) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous melanoma lysate-pulsed autologous DC vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against melanoma cells, which may result in melanoma cell lysis. |
| Autologous Memory Cytokine-enriched Natural Killer Cells | A population of cryopreserved, autologous CD56-positive memory cytokine-enriched natural killer (NK) cells (m-ceNKs), armed with NK cell-activating surface receptors, with potential immunomodulating and antitumor activities. Autologous NK cells are pre-activated ex vivo with a cytokine cocktail, which induces the differentiation of the NK cells into immune-memory m-ceNKs, which possess a unique phenotype. The pretreated NKs exhibit enhanced cytotoxicity and increased interferon-gamma (IFN-g) ... |
| Autologous Mesenchymal Stem Cells Apceth_101 | Human autologous mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) harvested from the bone marrow of a patient and genetically modified with a self-inactivating retroviral vector expressing the suicide gene herpes simplex virus thymidine kinase (HSV-TK), that can be used to activate synthetic acyclic guanosine analogues when co-administered. Upon intravenous administration of autologous mesenchymal stem cells apceth_101, the cells are actively recruited to the tumor stroma, differentiate into more mature mesench... |
| Autologous Mesothelin-specific CAR-T Cells | Genetically modified, autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a gene encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, expansion in culture, and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous mesothelin-specific CAR-T cells specifically target and kill mesothelin-expressing tumor cells. Mesothelin, a cell surface glycoprotein involved in ce... |
| Autologous Mesothelin-specific CAR-T-Cells Expressing Anti-PD-1/CTLA-4 Antibodies | A preparation of autologous, engineered T-lymphocytes that express both a second-generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human gastric carcinoma-associated antigen MG7, and the co-stimulatory molecule 4-1BB (CD137), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral injection, the autologous anti-MG7-CAR T-lymphocytes target and attach to cancer cells expressing MG7. This induces selective toxicity in and causes lysis of MG7-expressing tumor cells. MG7, a glycosylat... |
| Autologous Mesothelin-specific Human mRNA CAR-transfected PBMCs MCY-M11 | Autologous peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) transfected with anti-mesothelin chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) mRNA, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intraperitoneal (IP) administration, the autologous mesothelin-specific human mRNA CAR-transfected PBMCs MCY-M11 recognize, bind to, phagocytose and directly kill cancer cells expressing mesothelin. In addition, MCY-M11 stimulates the immune system to induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response against the mesothelin-expressing ... |
| Autologous MG7-pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A dendritic cell (DC)-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous DCs pulsed with the human gastric carcinoma-associated antigen MG7, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration at the inguinal lymph nodes, autologous MG7-pulsed DC vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against MG7-expressing tumor cells, which may result in tumor cell lysis. MG7, a glycosylated protein sequence from the tu... |
| Autologous MGMTP140K Lentiviral Vector-transduced HSCs | A preparation of autologous CD34+ hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) transduced with a lentiviral-based proviral vector encoding for MGMTP140K, a mutant version of the human DNA repair protein O6-alkylguanine-DNA methyltransferase (MGMT), with potential protective activity against myelosuppression. MGMTP140K is resistant to the MGMT inhibitor O6-benzylguanine (O6BG; BG). Upon administration of the autologous MGMTP140K lentiviral vector-transduced HSCs back into the patient, the HSCs expressing t... |
| Autologous Monocyte-derived Lysate-pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine PV-001-DC | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous, monocyte-derived dendritic cells (mDCs) pulsed with tumor cell lysate containing tumor associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration,the autologous tumor cell lysate-pulsed mDCs vaccine PV-001-DC may stimulate an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the patient's tumor cell-specific TAAs, which may result in tumor cell lysis. |
| Autologous mRNA-encoding NSCLC Neoantigens Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A dendritic cell (DC)-based cancer vaccine in which the autologous, in vitro activated DCs are loaded with messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding neoantigens from the patient's non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of autologous mRNA-encoding NSCLC neoantigens DC vaccine, the mRNA gets expressed into neoantigens in cells and the neoantgens activate the immune system to induce robust neoantigen-specific T-cell responses ag... |
| Autologous mRNA-modified Anti-cMET CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous, genetically-engineered T-lymphocytes that have been electroporated with an mRNA encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR or cMET) single chain variable fragment (scFv), with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous mRNA-modified anti-cMET CAR-T cells direct T-cells to cMET-expressing tumor cells, which induces selective toxicity against cMET-expressing tumor cells and... |
| Autologous MUC1-activated T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been activated against the tumor associated antigen (TAA) mucin-1 (MUC1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon re-introduction into the patient, autologous MUC1-activated T-cells specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in MUC1-expressing tumor cells. MUC1, a glycoprotein overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells, plays a key role in tumor cell survival and proliferation. |
| Autologous Multi-lineage Potential Cells | A preparation of autologous multi-lineage potential cells (AMPC) which were induced to de-differentiate from somatic leukocytes from peripheral blood, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction into the patient, the AMPC may help replace the abnormal cells in the body to create healthy bone marrow in the treatment of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). |
| Autologous Multiple Antigen-specific T-cells MASE-T | A preparation of autologous T-cells targeting multiple antigens expressed by melanoma cells, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Peripheral blood T-cells from the patient are collected, processed with artificial antigen-presenting scaffolds, and enriched and expanded ex-vivo to generate multiple antigen-specific endogenously-derived T-cells (MASE-T) targeting multiple antigens expressed by melanoma cells. Upon administration, the autologous multiple antigen-specific... |
| Autologous Native ESR1-pulsed DC1 Vaccine Alternating with Autologous Mutated ESR1-pulsed DC1 Vaccine | A dendritic cell (DC)-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous, type-1 polarized dendritic cells (DC1s) pulsed with either native or mutated estrogen receptor alpha (ERa; estrogen receptor 1; ESR1), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Autologous DCs were treated to produce DC1s and pulsed with either native or mutated ESR1. Alternating weekly between autologous native ESR1-pulsed and mutated ESR1-pulsed DC1 vaccine, upon administration, the autologous native and/... |
| Autologous Natural Killer Cell-like CTLs | A preparation of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) that express natural killer (NK)-like features (nCTLs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The nCTLs are derived from autologous lymphocytes that have been in vitro exposed to autologous alpha-type-1 polarized dendritic cells that are pulsed with specific autologous tumor-associated antigens (TAAs); the nCTLs are subsequently expanded in the presence of the cytokine human interleukin-2 (IL-2). The generated nCTLs are ... |
| Autologous Natural Killer Cells SNK01 | A preparation of autologous, ex-vivo expanded and activated natural killer (NK) cells, with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion back into the patient, the autologous NK cells SNK01 may lyse cancer cells. These cells also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines, which further stimulate an anti-tumor immune response. |
| Autologous Nectin-4/FAP-targeted CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) nectin-4 and cell surface protein fibroblast activation protein (FAP), and additionally an inducible expression cassette encoding transgenic interleukin (IL) 7 (IL-7) or 12 (IL-12), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, the autologous nectin-4/FAP-targeted CAR-T cells target and bind to nec... |
| Autologous Neoantigen-specific T-lymphocytes GEN-011 | A preparation of autologous, personalized, immunogenic and tumor neoantigen-specific T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Tumor-specific neoantigen targets of autologous CD4+ and/or CD8+ T-cells are identified and T-cells that target immunogenic and stimulatory neoantigens are expanded ex vivo. Upon administration, the autologous neoantigen-specific T-lymphocytes GEN-011 recognize and bind to tumor cells expressing the targeted neoantigens, resulting ... |
| Autologous Neuroblastoma Lysate/KLH-pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with a cell lysate from an autologous neuroblastoma containing tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) and the immunostimulant keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous neuroblastoma lysate/KLH-pulsed DC vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against neuroblastoma cells, w... |
| Autologous NKG2D CAR T Cells KD-025 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) encoding human natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D or KLRK1) coupled to the co-immunostimulatory signaling domain 4-1BB, normally expressed on T-cells, and linked to the intracellular CD3 zeta domain (CD3z), which is needed for TCR signaling, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion back into the patient, autologou... |
| Autologous NKG2D CAR T-cells CYAD-02 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a retroviral vector to co-express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) encoding human natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D or KLRK1) with a short hairpin RNA (shRNA) targeting MHC class I chain-related protein A (MICA) and MICB, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion back into the patient, autologous NKG2D CAR T-cells CYAD-02 specifically re... |
| Autologous NKG2D CAR-CD3zeta-DAP10-expressing T-Lymphocytes CYAD-01 | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood T-lymphocytes (PBTLs) that have been genetically modified and transduced with a retroviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) encoding full-length human natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D or KLRK1) fused to the CD3zeta cytoplasmic signaling domain and containing the naturally-expressed adaptor molecule DNAX-activating protein of 10 kDa (DAP10), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Up... |
| Autologous NKG2D CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes ASP2802 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) for a modified and inactivated form of the type II transmembrane protein human natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D; KLRK1), that can be used for potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities upon activation in vivo. Upon infusion back into the patient, autologous NKG2D CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes ASP2802 are inert. Upon subsequent administratio... |
| Autologous NSCLC DNA-Transfected Semi-Allogeneic Fibroblasts MRC-5 Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of irradiated human fetal lung fibroblasts (Medical Research Council 5 or MRC-5) transfected with autologous non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)-derived DNA with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous NSCLC DNA-transfected semi-allogeneic fibroblasts MRC-5 vaccine expresses NSCLC tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) in addition to MHC class I-determinants and the co-stimulatory molecule B7.1, which may induce a cytotoxic T-ly... |
| Autologous NSCLC Peptide-specific Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A personalized cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with immunogenic peptides derived from autologous non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) cells, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. During leukapheresis, mature DCs are loaded with autologous NSCLC-derived peptides. Upon re-administration of the NSCLC peptide-specific DC vaccine, the immune system is exposed to NSCLC-associated antigens. This results in the induction of a speci... |
| Autologous NY-ESO-1 TCR-targeted T Lymphocytes | A preparation of human autologous T-lymphocytes that are transduced with a gene encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the anti-NY-ESO-1 TCR-transduced autologous T-cells recognize and bind to NY-ESO-1-overexpressing tumor cells. This may result in a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated killin... |
| Autologous NY-ESO-1-Melanoma-Specific CD8+ T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous CD8+ (cytotoxic) T-lymphocytes sensitized to cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 antigen with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Autologous CD8+ T-lymphocytes, isolated from a melanoma patient, are exposed to an NY-ESO-1 peptide ex vivo, expanded, and reintroduced into the patient; these tumor-reactive T-cells may stimulate a host immune response against tumor cells expressing the NY-ESO-1 antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. NY-ESO-1, an anti... |
| Autologous NY-ESO-1-redirected CRISPR-edited T Cells | A preparation of human autologous T-lymphocytes that are transduced with a lentiviral vector (LV) encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 and gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to eliminate endogenous TCR and programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) expression, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The CRISPR guide RNA (gRNA) specif... |
| Autologous NY-ESO-1-specific CD8-positive T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous CD8+ T-lymphocytes specifically reactive to the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Autologous NY-ESO-1-specific CD8+ T-lymphocytes were generated from T-cells isolated from a particular cancer patient, which were made specifically reactive to the NY-ESO-1 antigen, expanded ex vivo, and reintroduced into the patient. These tumor-reactive T-cells may stimulate a host immune response against tumor cells expr... |
| Autologous OFA-iLRP RNA-Transfected Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous, mature monocyte-derived dendritic cells (DCs) transfected with oncofetal antigen immature laminin receptor protein (OFA-iLRP) RNA, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, DCs in the OFA-iLRP RNA-transfected autologous dendritic cell vaccine express, process, and present OFA-iLRP to the host immune system, which may mount a potent cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against OFA-iLRP-expressing tumor cells. As a highly conserved protei... |
| Autologous Orthogonal IL-2Rbeta-expressing Anti-CD19 CAR T-cells SYNCAR-001 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 fused to the extracellular, transmembrane and intracellular signaling domains of the T-cell co-stimulatory receptor CD28 and the cytoplasmic signaling domain of the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) and expressing a mutated orthogonal (ortho) interleukin (IL)-2beta recepto... |
| Autologous Ovarian Cancer Immunogene-modified T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous immunogene modified T-lymphocytes (IgT) that have been genetically engineered to be specifically reactive to ovarian cancer (OC) cells, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon administration of the autologous OC-IgT cells, the T-cells recognize and induce specific toxicity in the OC cells. |
| Autologous Ovarian Cancer-specific Antigens-pulsed Dendritic Cells Cellgram-DC | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with ovarian cancer-specific antigen(s), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration of the autologous ovarian cancer-specific antigens-pulsed DCs Cellgram-DC near the lymph nodes, the DCs stimulate a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against the ovarian cancer cells expressing the antigens, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Autologous Ovarian Cancer-specific Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) genetically modified to target a not yet disclosed ovarian cancer-specific tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, expansion in culture, and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous ovarian cancer-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (OC-CTLs) bind to and induce selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing the TAA. |
| Autologous Ovarian Tumor Cell Lysate-Pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous, irradiated dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with ovarian tumor cell lysate containing tumor associated antigens (TAAs) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous ovarian tumor cell lysate-pulsed dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against ovarian tumor cells expressing the patients ovarian tumor cell-specific TAAs, which may result in ovar... |
| Autologous Oxidized Ovarian Tumor Cell Lysate Vaccine | An autologous cancer vaccine composed of oxidized ovarian tumor cell lysate, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous oxidized ovarian tumor cell lysate vaccine exposes the immune system to an undefined amount of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), which may result in the induction of both anti-tumor cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and antibody-dependent responses against TAA-expressing cells, leading to tumor cell lysis. Compared to non... |
| Autologous Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma Lysate and mRNA-loaded Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with pancreatic adenocarcinoma lysate and mRNA containing and encoding tumor associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration by perinodal injection using ultrasound guidance, the autologous pancreatic adenocarcinoma lysate and mRNA-loaded DC vaccine may stimulate an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the ... |
| Autologous PBLs Retrovirally-transduced with TCRs Targeting Neoantigens | Autologous human peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding T-cell receptors (TCRs) specific for a patient's individual and unique mutated antigens, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Tumor cells are analyzed to identify and isolate specific mutated tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) that are expressed by the patient's tumor cells; then T-cell receptor coding sequences are engineered to target the patient's TAAs and inserted int... |
| Autologous PBMC-derived Engineered Leukocyte Immunostimulatory Cells-activated Effector Cells | A preparation of cytotoxic, autologous effector cells specifically targeted towards tumor cells and comprised primarily of natural killer (NK) cells, CD56+ NK T-cells (NKTs), CD8+ T-cells and gamma delta T-cells stored in cryogenic media, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The autologous effector cells are prepared by collecting peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) from cancer patients, which are stimulated with the induction reagent engineered leukocyte immu... |
| Autologous PBTL CD19CAR-28 zeta | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood T-lymphocytes (PBTL) that have been genetically modified to express the chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) anti-CD19/CD3 zeta chain fusion protein coupled to the intracellular signal domain of CD28 antigen, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous PBTL CD19CAR-28 zeta may stimulate host cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against CD19-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell... |
| Autologous PD-1 Antibody-expressing Mesothelin-specific CAR-T Cells | Genetically modified, autologous T-lymphocytes that express an antibody that targets the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and are transduced with a gene encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, expansion in culture, and reintroduction into the patient, the auto... |
| Autologous PD-1 Nanobody-expressing Anti-MSLN CAR T-cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a nanobody that targets the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and transduced with a gene encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, expansion in culture, and reintroduc... |
| Autologous PD1-inhibiting Anti-CD19 4-1BB CAR T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) linked to the intracellular signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137) that also encodes a cell-intrinsic programmed cell death 1 (PD1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1) short/small hairpin RNA (shRNA)-expressing cassette, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon ... |
| Autologous PD1-knockout CD19-specific CAR T-cells BRL-201 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are non-virally gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to integrate a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 in the locus of the programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1) gene, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous PD1-knockout CD19-specific CAR T-cells BR... |
| Autologous PD-1-knockout Tumor-infiltrating Lymphocytes IOV-4001 | A preparation of autologous tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) where the programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1) gene has been disrupted using transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The autologous TILs are isolated from an autologous tumor sample, expanded ex-vivo and genetically modified to inactivate PD-1. Upon administration, the autologous PD-1-knockout TILs IOV-4001 induce ... |
| Autologous PD-1-targeted Chimeric Switch Receptor-modified T Lymphocytes | Autologous human T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric switch receptor (CSR) composed of the extracellular ligand binding domain of the human inhibitory receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1) fused to the transmembrane and cytoplasmic co-stimulatory signaling domains of CD28 (PD1CD28; PD-1:CD28 switch receptor), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction of autologous PD-1-targeted CSR-modified T-lymphocytes... |
| Autologous PD-L1/CD80/CD86-targeted CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) composed of a modified from of the human inhibitory receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1), in which the intracellular signal domain of PD-1 is transformed to allow for stimulatory signaling but with an intact extracellular ligand binding domain that specifically binds the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1), and a modified form of the T-c... |
| Autologous Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes Cotransduced with Retroviral Vectors Encoding Inducible IL-12 and Anti-NY-ESO-1 TCR | Human autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with two retroviral vectors, one encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 and a second that encodes an inducible single chain form of interleukin-12 (IL-12) driven by a nuclear factor of activated T-cells (NFAT)-responsive promoter, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Following isolation of lymphocytes, retroviral vector transduction, and expansion of the cells ex... |
| Autologous Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes from Ibrutinib-treated Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia Patients IOV-2001 | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) harvested from chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) patients previously treated with the Brutons' tyrosine kinase (BTK) inhibitor ibrutinib with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, IOV-2001 generates an enhanced cytotoxic T-cell response against autologous leukemic B-cells in patients who have relapsed during treatment with ibrutinib. IOV-2001 is mostly comprised of T-cells of... |
| Autologous Polyclonal Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes LYL845 | A preparation of autologous, epigenetically reprogrammed, polyclonal tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The autologous TILs LYL845 are prepared and expanded ex vivo by co-culturing autologous tumor cells with specific Epi-R cell culture media containing optimized cytokine composition and cell activation which creates TILs enriched with CD8-positive T-cells with diverse tumor-reactive clones and an enhanced proportion of stem-l... |
| Autologous PRAME-targeting TCR-engineered T-cells IMA203 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically modified with a lentiviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) preferentially expressed antigen in melanoma (PRAME), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration back into the patient, the autologous PRAME-targeting TCR-engineered T-cells IMA203 specifically recognize and bind to PRAME expressed on cancer cells, which induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (C... |
| Autologous Prostate Cancer Antigen-expressing Dendritic Cell Vaccine BPX-101 | A genetically-modified autologous dendritic cell-based vaccine expressing a drug-inducible costimulatory CD40 receptor (iCD40) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Autologous dendritic cells (DCs) are genetically modified to express the iCD40 receptor and are pulsed with the tumor antigen prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA). Upon intradermal administration, these DCs accumulate in local draining lymph nodes. Twenty-four hours after vaccination, the dimerizer ag... |
| Autologous Prostate Cancer-specific Antigens-pulsed Dendritic Cells Cellgram-DC-PC | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with prostate cancer (PC)-specific antigen(s), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the autologous PC-specific antigens-pulsed DCs injected subcutaneously near the inguinal lymph nodes, the DCs stimulate a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against the PC cells expressing the antigens, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Autologous Prostate Stem Cell Antigen-specific CAR T Cells BPX-601 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-human prostate stem cell antigen (PSCA) scFv (single chain variable fragment) coupled to the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCRzeta) and a drug-induced co-stimulatory molecule, composed of an inducible, chimeric MyD88/CD40 (inducible MC; iMC) co-stimulatory domain, in which both the MyD88 and CD40 lack their extracellular domains, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon admini... |
| Autologous PSMA-4SCAR-expressing T-cells 4SCAR-PSMA | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-cells transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating lentiviral vector expressing a fourth generation chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) consisting of an anti-prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) single chain variable fragment (scFv) that is coupled to the costimulatory signaling domains CD28, CD137, CD27 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (CD3zeta; CD3z), and is fused with the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9... |
| Autologous PSMA-inducible Anti-CA9 CAR T-cells AB-2100 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been modified to encode a genetic circuit consisting of a priming receptor that induces the expression of a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) carbonic anhydrase IX (CAIX; carbonic anhydrase 9; CA9; G250) upon binding to the TAA prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), and a microRNA-adapted short hairpin RNA (shRNA-miR) module targeting Fas (FAS; CD95; APO-1; tumor necrosis factor receptor supe... |
| Autologous PSMA-specific TGFb-resistant CAR T Cells | Autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) single chain variable fragment (scFv) and expressing a dominant negative (DN) form of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta; TGFb) receptor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, the autologous PSMA-specific TGFb-resistant CAR T cells are directed to and induce selective toxicity... |
| Autologous Rapamycin-resistant Th1/Tc1 Cells RAPA-201 | A preparation of autologous rapamycin-resistant Th1/Tc1 cells, with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, autologous rapamycin-resistant Th1/Tc1 cells RAPA-201 may recognize and kill tumor cells. Ex-vivo induction of rapamycin-resistance may increase the persistence of T-cells after adoptive transfer. |
| Autologous Renal Cell Carcinoma Tumor Lysate-Pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with renal cell carcinoma (RCC) tumor cell lysate containing tumor associated antigens (TAAs) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous renal cell carcinoma tumor lysate-dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against RCC tumor cells expressing RCC TAAs, resulting in RCC tumor cell lysis. |
| Autologous Retroviral Vector MSGV1-transduced Anti-PSCA-8T28Z CAR Gamma Delta T-cells | A preparation of autologous gamma, delta T-lymphocytes transduced with the gamma retroviral vector MSGV1 expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) prostate stem cell antigen (PSCA), and expressing a hinge/transmembrane domain derived from CD8alpha (CD8a) and a single co-stimulatory domain derived from CD28 (8t28z), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous retroviral vector MSGV1-transduce... |
| Autologous ROR2-targeted CAR T-cells CCT301-59 | A preparation of genetically modified autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 2 (ROR2), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. After isolation, transduction, and expansion in culture, CCT301-59 cells are reintroduced into the patient and are activated within the tumor microenvironment (TME) using proprietary Conditionally Active Biologic (CAB) t... |
| Autologous Sarcoma Cell Lysate | A cell lysate derived from sarcoma cells with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration, the autologous sarcoma cell lysate exposes the immune system to an undefined amount of sarcoma-type tumor associated antigens (TAA), which may result in the induction of both specific anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) and antibody-dependent responses against the sarcoma TAA-expressing cells, resulting in sarcoma cell lysis. |
| Autologous Sarcoma Lysate-pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with lysates from sarcoma cells with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous sarcoma lysate-pulsed dendritic cell vaccine exposes the immune system to an undefined amount of sarcoma-type tumor associated antigens (TAA), which may result in the induction of both specific anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) and antibody-dependent responses against the sar... |
| Autologous SIRPa-depleted Activated Macrophages SI-101 | A preparation of autologous macrophages that are ex vivo activated and depleted of signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRP-alpha; SIRPa; CD172a), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction into the patient, autologous SIRPa-depleted activated macrophages SI-101 elicits an anti-tumor immune response via the phagocytosis of tumor cells. In addition, the autologous SIRPa-depleted activated macrophages SI-101 promotes a pro-inflammatory tumor microenvironmen... |
| Autologous TAAs-loaded Autologous Dendritic Cells AV-GBM-1 | A preparation of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with immunogenic tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) derived from cultured autologous glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) tumor cells, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous TAA-loaded DCs AV-GBM-1 expose the immune system to the GBM neoantigens, which results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against the autologous GBM cells leading to GBM cell lysis. |
| Autologous TCR-engineered T-cells IMA201 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically modified with a lentiviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for an as of yet not identified tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration back into the patient, the autologous TCR-engineered T-cells IMA201 specifically recognize and bind to the TAA on cancer cells, which induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against the TAA-positive... |
| Autologous TCR-engineered T-cells IMA202 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically modified with a lentiviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) targeting patient-specific tumor associated antigens (TAAs), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration back into the patient, the autologous TCR-engineered T-cells IMA202 specifically recognize and bind to the TAA on cancer cells, which induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against the TAA-positive cancer cells. |
| Autologous TCRm-expressing T-cells ET140203 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a T-cell receptor mimetic (TCRm) construct targeting as of yet undisclosed tumor associated antigen(s) (TAA), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous TCRm-expressing T-cells ET140203 specifically recognize and selectively bind to the as of yet undisclosed TAA(s). This results in cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated killing of tumor... |
| Autologous Tetravalent Dendritic Cell Vaccine MIDRIX4-LUNG | A therapeutic cancer vaccine composed of autologous, dendritic cells (DCs) that have been loaded with a proprietary selection of four antigens that covers more than ninety percent of all non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) patients, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous tetravalent dendritic cell vaccine MIDRIX4-LUNG may induce and stimulate both T-helper and antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) responses, leading to tumor cell... |
| Autologous TGFbeta-Resistant HER2/EBV-Specific Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes | A preparation of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta)-resistant Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) directed to EBV through their native receptor and HER2 through a retrovirally transduced HER2 chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Autologous EBV-specific CTLs are produced by exposing autologous CTLs to "stimulator" autologous EBV-transformed lymphoblastoid cell lines (EBV-LCLs). Subsequently, autologous EBV-specific CTLs ... |
| Autologous T-lymphocytes-expressing NY-ESO-1-C259-specific Enhanced T-cell Receptors | Human autologous lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the cancer/testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the autologous T-lymphocytes expressing NY-ESO-1-C259-specific enhanced T-cell receptors bind to NY-ESO-1-overexpressing tumor cells. This may result in the specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) killing of NY-ESO-1-positive ... |
| Autologous Tn-MUC1-specific CAR T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Tn glycoform of mucin-1 (Tn-MUC1; TnMUC1), with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon re-introduction into the patient, the autologous Tn-MUC1-specific CAR T-lymphocytes specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in TnMUC1-expressing tumor cells. TnMUC1 is overexpressed in certain tumor ty... |
| Autologous Total Tumor mRNA and CMV-pp65-flLAMP mRNA Loaded Liposome Vaccine | An mRNA-based, personalized cancer vaccine consisting of total tumor RNA (TTRNA) derived and amplified from autologous tumor cells and mRNA encoding the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) matrix protein pp65 (65 kDa lower matrix phosphoprotein; UL83) as a fusion protein with the full-length lysosome-associated membrane protein (flLAMP), formulated in DOTAP lipid particles, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the autologous total tumor mRNA and CMV-p... |
| Autologous Total Tumor mRNA Loaded Liposome Vaccine | An mRNA-based, personalized cancer vaccine consisting of total tumor RNA (TTRNA) derived from autologous tumor cells, formulated in DOTAP lipid nanoparticles, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the autologous total tumor mRNA loaded liposome vaccine, the mRNA is taken up, translated and presented by antigen presenting cells (APCs). The expressed epitopes are then presented via major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on the surface o... |
| Autologous TP53 R175H Mutant-specific HLA-A*02:01-restricted TCR Gene Engineered T-lymphocytes NT-175 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02:01-restricted TP53 (p53) R175H mutant, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo and re-introduction into the patient, the autologous TP53 R175H mutant-specific HLA-A*02:01-restricted TCR gene engineered T-lymphocytes NT-175 target and bind to tumor cells expressing the TP53 R175H muta... |
| Autologous TROP2-CAR-transduced PD-1-positive T Cells T60c | A preparation of autologous programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279)-positive T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentivirus expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; tumor-associated calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous TROP2-CAR-transduced PD-1-posi... |
| Autologous Tumor Cell Proteoliposome Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia Vaccine | An autologous chronic lymphocytic leukemia cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific membrane proteins directly extracted from patient autologous tumor cells and incorporated into liposomes along with Interleukin 2 (IL-2) to produce membrane-patched proteoliposomes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. After subcutaneous injection of the autologous tumor cell proteoliposomes chronic lymphocytic leukemia vaccine, liposomes deliver the encapsulated tumor antigens ... |
| Autologous Tumor Cell Vaccine | A therapeutic agent produced by isolating tumor cells from an individual and processing these tumor cells into a vaccine formulation in vitro; the vaccine is then administered to the individual from whom the tumor cells were isolated. Typically combined with an adjuvant immunostimulant, an autologous cell vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocytic immune response to cell surface-expressed tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), resulting in tumor cell death. (NCI04) |
| Autologous Tumor Cells/Bacillus Calmette-Guerin/Formalin-based Vaccine | A therapeutic personalized breast cancer vaccine composed of autologous tumor cells and bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) in a liquid vehicle containing formalin, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon vaccination, the autologous tumor cells/BCG/formalin-based vaccine, which contains an individual's unique set of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the breast cancer cells, resulti... |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes BST02 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from the patient's resected tumor and expanded ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous TILs BST02 specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes C-TIL051 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from each patient's resected tumor and expanded ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous TILs C-TIL051 specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes C-TIL052A | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from each patient's resected tumor and expanded ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous TILs C-TIL052A specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes GT101 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from each patient's resected tumor and expanded ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous TILs GT101 specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes GT201 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from each patient's resected tumor and expanded ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous TILs GT201 specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes HV-101 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from each patient's resected tumor and expanded ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, autologous TILs HV-101 specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes ITIL-168 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from each patient's digested and cryopreserved tumor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous TILs ITIL-168 specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes LM103 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from each patient's resected tumor and expanded ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous TILs LM103 specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes LN-145 | A proprietary preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), with potential immunomodulating activity. The autologous TILs are isolated from an autologous tumor sample and expanded ex vivo in the presence of interleukin-2 (IL-2). Upon infusion of the autologous TILs LN-145 back into the patient, the cells specifically recognize, target and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes LN-145-S1 | A proprietary preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The autologous TILs are isolated from an autologous tumor sample and expanded ex vivo in the presence of interleukin-2 (IL-2). Upon infusion of the autologous TILs LN-145-S1 back into the patient, the cells specifically recognize, target and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes MDA-TIL | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) with potential antineoplastic activity. TILs are isolated from a patient's tumor tissue, then cultured and expanded in vitro in the presence of interleukin-2 (IL-2) and an agonistic anti-4-1BB (CD137) antibody. Upon infusion of the autologous expanded TILs back into the patient, the cells specifically recognize, target, and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes TBio-4101 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from each patient's resected tumor and expanded ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous TILs TBio-4101 specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor Membrane Vesicles Vaccine | An autologous personalized tumor vaccine composed of tumor membrane vesicles (TMV) derived from the patient's own tumor cells, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the autologous TMV vaccine, the antigenic proteins in the vaccine are presented to the immune system and activate antigen-presenting cells (APCs). This may stimulate the immune system to mount cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) and helper T-lymphocyte responses against the patient's tumor... |
| Autologous Tumor Vaccine Plus Polysaccharide-derived Delta Inulin Adjuvant | An autologous cancer vaccine composed of tumor cell lysate extracted from a patient's tumor and formulated with a delta inulin polysaccharide adjuvant, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the autologous tumor vaccine plus polysaccharide-derived delta inulin adjuvant, the autologous tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) may stimulate the immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the patient's tumor cells, which... |
| Autologous Tumor-associated Peptide Antigen-pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A dendritic cell (DC)-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous DCs pulsed with specific tumor-associated peptide antigens (TAPA), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous TAPA-pulsed DC vaccine exposes the immune system to the specific TAPAs, which may result in cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune responses against the TAPA-expressing cancer cells. This leads to cancer cell lysis. This vaccine is specific towards peptides deri... |
| Autologous Tumor-draining Lymph Node-derived Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous lymphocytes that are isolated from each patient's tumor-draining lymph nodes and expanded ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous tumor-draining LNLs specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor-infiltrating Lymphocytes GC101 | A preparation of autologous tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from each patient's resected tumor and expanded ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous TILs GC101 specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor-infiltrating Lymphocytes HS-IT101 | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from each patient's resected tumor and expanded ex vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration back into the patient, the autologous TILs HS-IT101 specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor-infiltrating Lymphocytes-Central Memory T-cells | A preparation of autologous ex-vivo expanded central memory T (Tcm) cell-like tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from the patient's tumor tissue and peripheral blood, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon isolation and ex-vivo treatment, the therapeutic ex-vivo-treated autologous TIL-Tcm cells, upon reintroduction into the patient, can activate an antitumor immune respone and eradicate tumor cells. |
| Autologous Tumor-specific Antigen-loaded Dendritic Cells | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with tumor-specific antigen(s) (TSAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the autologous TSA-loaded DCs, the DCs stimulate a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against the tumor cells expressing the TSA(s), resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Autologous UCD19 CAR T Cells | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, the autologous UCD19 CAR T-cells recognize and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby selectively lysing CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19, a B-cell-specific cell surface antigen is overexpressed in... |
| Autologous Universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UniCAR02-T | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that has been genetically engineered to express a fully humanized, universal, second generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) with a CD28/CD3zeta co-stimulatory domain, and a binding domain that can recognize a peptide motive of an antigen-specific targeting module (TM), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UniCAR02-T remain inactivated. Upon administrat... |
| Autologous UV-oHSV2-activated Peripheral Blood Mononuclear Cells | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) activated ex vivo by ultraviolet-inactivated oncolytic herpes simplex virus type 2 (UV-oHSV2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction of the autologous UV-oHSV2-activated PBMCs into the patient, the activated immune cells kill tumor cells. Ex vivo UV-oHSV2 treatment induces natural killer (NK) cell proliferation and the secretion of interferon-gamma (IFNg). This leads to immune-m... |
| Autologous Vaccine-enhanced Ex Vivo Activated Cancer Neoantigens-specific T-cells TVI-Brain-1 | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes collected from the patient after the administration of a personalized cancer vaccine composed of an attenuated form of patient-specific cancer cells and an immunological adjuvant, via leukapheresis, and activated ex vivo, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Cancer neoantigens-specific T-cells are collected after the administration of the personalized cancer vaccine and expanded ex vivo. Upon administration, the autologous v... |
| Autologous WT1-directed CRISPR/Cas9-engineered TCR-T Cells NTLA-5001 | A preparation of human autologous T-lymphocytes gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to disrupt expression of endogenous T-cell receptor (TCR) and modified to express a TCR specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Wilms tumor 1 (WT1) epitope, WT1 37-45, and human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02:01, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and rei... |
| Autologous WT1-TCRc4 Gene-transduced CD8-positive Tcm/Tn Lymphocytes | Autologous, human CD8 T-lymphocytes, comprised of both central memory T-cells (Tcm) and naïve T-cells (Tn), that are transduced, ex vivo, with a self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector encoding a high-affinity T-cell receptor (TCRc4) specific for the human tumor antigen Wilms tumor 1 (WT1) epitope 126-134 (RMFPNAPYL), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation of peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs), transduction, expansion ex vivo, priming of the Tn subset, but not the Tcm subse... |
| Avadomide | A novel, small molecule cereblon-modulating agent with potential antineoplastic, antiangiogenic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon oral administration, avadomide binds to and modulates cereblon to promote recruitment of the hematopoietic transcription factors Aiolos and Ikaros to the Cullin-4 RING E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. This binding results in the ubiquitination and rapid proteasomal degradation of Aiolos and Ikaros and the derepression of interferon (IFN)-stimulated genes, including... |
| Avadomide Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of avadomide, a novel, small molecule, cereblon-modulating agent with potential antineoplastic, antiangiogenic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon oral administration, avadomide binds to and modulates cereblon to promote recruitment of the hematopoietic transcription factors Aiolos and Ikaros to the Cullin-4 RING E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. This binding results in the ubiquitination and rapid proteasomal degradation of Aiolos and Ikaros and the derepression of i... |
| Avapritinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of specific mutated forms of platelet-derived growth factor receptor alpha (PDGFR alpha; PDGFRa) and mast/stem cell factor receptor c-Kit (SCFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, avapritinib specifically binds to and inhibits specific mutant forms of PDGFRa and c-Kit, including the PDGFRa D842V mutant and various KIT exon 17 mutants. This results in the inhibition of PDGFRa- and c-Kit-mediated signal transduction pathways and t... |
| Avdoralimab | A human monoclonal antibody targeting the C5a receptor (C5aR), with potential immunomodulating activity.  Upon administration, avdoralimab specifically targets, binds to and blocks C5aR expressed on subsets of myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) and neutrophils. This prevents the binding of its ligand C5a to C5aR and prevents the C5aR-mediated activation and accumulation of these cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and abrogates the secretion of inflammatory and angiogenic factors... |
| Avelumab | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human immunosuppressive ligand programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) protein, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, avelumab binds to PD-L1 and prevents the interaction of PD-L1 with its receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1). This inhibits the activation of PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation o... |
| Aviscumine | A recombinant protein that inactivates the ribosome with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Aviscumine binds to the cell surface sialyltransferase CD75 and is internalized; intracellularly, aviscumine cleaves an adenine-specific N-glycosidic bond on the 28S ribosomal subunit, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis. This agent has also been shown to activate natural killer (NK) cells, induce cytokine receptor expression, and stimulate the release of cytokines. CD75 is ... |
| Avotaciclib | An orally bioavailable, cyclin dependent kinase 1 (CDK1) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, avotaciclib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK1. This may inhibit cancer stem cell (CSC) division, cause cell cycle arrest, and induce apoptosis. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation. CDK1, an ATP-dependent serine/threonine kinase, plays a key role in regulating cell division, cell cycle progression and proliferation. It is frequently overexpres... |
| AWZ-1066S Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of AWZ-1066S, an orally bioavailable synthetic compond that is active against the bacterium Wolbachia and that can potentially be used to treat diseases caused by namatodes of the family Filariodidea, such as lymphatic filariasis and onchocerciasis. Upon oral administration, the anti-Wolbachia agent AWZ1066S specifically kills Wolbachia through an as of yet not fully identified mechanism of action (MoA). In filarial nematodes-infected humans, adult worms need Wolba... |
| Axalimogene Filolisbac | A cancer vaccine containing a live-attenuated strain of the bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) encoding human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 E7 fused to a non-hemolytic listeriolysin O protein with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination with axalimogene filolisbac, Listeria expresses the HPV 16 E7 antigen and activates the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cancer cells expressing HPV 16 E7. This may result in tumor cel... |
| Axatilimab | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 monoclonal antibody directed against colony-stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF-1R), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, axatilimab binds to the ligand binding domain of CSF-1R, preventing binding and consequent activation by its natural ligands, IL-34 and colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF-1). Inhibition of CSF-1R activation may disrupt the activity of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs), which promote initiation and metast... |
| Axicabtagene Ciloleucel | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood T-lymphocytes (PBTL) that have been transduced with a gammaretoviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment (scFv) coupled to the costimulatory signaling domain CD28 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3 complex (CD3 zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous infusion and re-introduction of axicabtagene ciloleucel into t... |
| Axitinib | An orally bioavailable tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Axitinib inhibits the proangiogenic cytokines vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGF), thereby exerting an anti-angiogenic effect. |
| AXL Inhibitor AB801 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase AXL (UFO), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, AXL inhibitor AB801 targets, reversibly binds to, and prevents the activation of AXL. This blocks AXL-mediated signal transduction pathways, and inhibits both AXL-mediated tumor cell growth, proliferation and migration and AXL-mediated immunosuppression. AXL, a member of the Tyro3, AXL and Mer (TAM) family of receptor tyrosine ki... |
| AXL Inhibitor DS-1205c | An orally available and selective inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase AXL (UFO), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, DS-1205c targets, binds to and prevents the activation of AXL. This blocks AXL-mediated signal transduction pathways and inhibits tumor cell proliferation and migration. AXL, a member of the Tyro3, AXL and Mer (TAM) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is overexpressed by many tumor cell types. It plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation, surv... |
| AXL Inhibitor FC084CSA | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase AXL (UFO), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, AXL inhibitor FC084CSA specifically targets, binds to, and prevents the activation of AXL. This blocks AXL-mediated signal transduction pathways, and inhibits both AXL-mediated tumor cell growth, proliferation and migration and AXL-mediated immunosuppression. AXL, a member of the Tyro3, AXL and Mer (TAM) family of receptor tyrosi... |
| AXL Inhibitor NTQ2494 | An orally bioavailable and selective inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase AXL (UFO), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AXL inhibitor NTQ2494 targets, binds to and prevents the activation of AXL. This blocks AXL-mediated signal transduction pathways, and inhibits AXL-mediated tumor cell growth, proliferation and migration, and AXL-mediated immunosuppression and immune evasion. AXL, a member of the Tyro3, AXL and Mer (TAM) family of receptor tyrosine kinases... |
| AXL Inhibitor SLC-391 | An orally bioavailable and selective inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase AXL (UFO), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, SLC-391 targets, binds to and prevents the activation of AXL. This blocks AXL-mediated signal transduction pathways, and inhibits both AXL-mediated tumor cell growth, proliferation and migration and AXL-mediated immunosuppression. AXL, a member of the Tyro3, AXL and Mer (TAM) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is ... |
| AXL Receptor Tyrosine Kinase/cMET Inhibitor BPI-9016M | An orally available inhibitor of the AXL receptor tyrosine kinase (AXL; UFO) and the receptor tyrosine kinase c-Met/hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR) with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, AXL receptor tyrosine kinase/cMET inhibitor BPI-9016M, binds to both AXL and cMet, thereby disrupting both AXL- and c-Met-mediated signaling pathways. Altogether, this agent inhibits growth in AXL and cMet-overexpressing tumor cells. AXL, a member of the TAM (TYRO3, AXL and MER) family of... |
| AXL/FLT3 Inhibitor TT-00973 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases AXL (UFO) and FMS-like tyrosine kinase-3 (FLT3; CD135; fetal liver kinase-2; Flk2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AXL/FLT3 inhibitor TT-00973 binds to and inhibits AXL and FLT3, including the FLT3-ITD-F691L gatekeeper mutation. Inhibition of these kinases leads to the disruption of downstream signaling pathways and the inhibition of cell growth of tumors in which these kinases are overexpress... |
| AXL/FLT3/NTRK Inhibitor HH30134 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of multiple kinases, including the receptor tyrosine kinases AXL (UFO) and FMS-like tyrosine kinase-3 (FLT3; CD135; fetal liver kinase-2; Flk2), and the neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinases (NTRKs), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AXL/FLT3/NTRK inhibitor HH30134 binds to and inhibits wild-type, point mutants and fusion proteins of AXL, FLT3 and NTRK. Inhibition of these kinases leads to the disruption of downstream signaling... |
| AXL/FLT3/VEGFR2 Inhibitor KC1036 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of three receptor tyrosine kinases: AXL (UFO), FMS-like tyrosine kinase-3 (Flt3; CD135; fetal liver kinase-2; Flk2), and the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2), with potential anti-angiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, KC1036 targets, binds to and prevents the activation of AXL, FLT3 and VEGFR2. This blocks AXL, FLT3 and VEGFR2-mediated signal transduction pathways, and inhibits both AXL-, FLT3- and VEGF... |
| Axl/Mer Inhibitor INCB081776 | An orally available and selective inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) Axl (UFO) and Mer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, INCB081776 targets and binds to both Axl and Mer, and prevents their activity. This blocks Axl- and Mer-mediated signal transduction pathways, and inhibits proliferation and migration of Axl- and Mer-overexpressing tumor cells. Axl and Mer, both members of the TAM (Tyro3, Axl and Mer) family of RTKs, are overexpressed by many tumor... |
| Axl/Mer Inhibitor PF-07265807 | An inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) Axl (UFO) and Mer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Axl/Mer inhibitor PF-07265807 specifically targets and binds to both Axl and Mer, and prevents their activity. This blocks Axl- and Mer-mediated signal transduction pathways, and inhibits proliferation and migration of Axl- and Mer-overexpressing tumor cells. Axl and Mer, both members of the TAM (Tyro3, Axl and Mer) family of RTKs, are overexpressed by many tumo... |
| Axl/Mer/CSF1R Inhibitor Q702 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) Axl (UFO), Mer, and colony stimulating factor-1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; CD115; M-CSFR), with potential immunomodulatory, chemo-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Axl/Mer/CSF1R inhibitor Q702 targets, binds to and blocks the activity of Axl, Mer and CSF1R, thereby blocking Axl-, Mer- and CSF1R-mediated signaling pathways. This inhibits proliferation of Axl- and Mer-expressing tumor cells... |
| Azacitidine | A pyrimidine nucleoside analogue of cytidine with antineoplastic activity. Azacitidine is incorporated into DNA, where it reversibly inhibits DNA methyltransferase, thereby blocking DNA methylation.  Hypomethylation of DNA by azacitidine may activate tumor suppressor genes silenced by hypermethylation, resulting in an antitumor effect. This agent is also incorporated into RNA, thereby disrupting normal RNA function and impairing tRNA cytosine-5-methyltransferase activity. (NCI04) |
| Azapicyl | A hydrazine compound that has been investigated for antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Azaribine | The triacetate salt of azauridine, a synthetic triazine nucleoside derivative possessing antineoplastic and anti-psoriatic activity. After metabolism to 6-azauridine-5-prime monophosphate, 6-Azauridine inhibits de novo pyrimidine biosynthesis and its 5-prime triphosphate metabolite gets incorporated into RNA, thereby preventing RNA synthesis. |
| Azaserine | A naturally occurring serine derivative diazo compound with antineoplastic properties, Azaserine functions as a purine antagonist and glutamine analogue (glutamine amidotransferase inhibitor) that competitively inhibits pathways in which glutamine is metabolized. An antibiotic and antitumor agent, Azaserine is used in clinical studies as a potential antineoplastic agent. (NCI04) |
| Azenosertib | An inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase Wee1 (Wee1-like protein kinase; Wee1A kinase; WEE1hu) with potential antineoplastic sensitizing activity. Although the exact mechanism of action by which this agent inhibits Wee1 has yet to be disclosed, upon administration of ZN-c3, this agent targets and inhibits Wee1. Inhibition of Wee1 promotes both premature mitosis and a prolonged mitotic arrest leading to cell death in susceptible tumor cells, such as p53-deficient or mutated human cancers that lack ... |
| Azercabtagene Zapreleucel | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf, T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified using a proprietary synthetic nuclease-based system to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 (cluster of differentiation 19) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, azercabtagene zapreleucel specifically recognize and kill CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antig... |
| Azerutamig | An engineered molecule based on tri-specific natural killer (NK) cell engager therapies (TriNKET) that is directed against human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, azerutamig targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cells and simultaneously binds to NK cells, thereby bringing HER2-expressing tumor cells and NK cells together, which stimulates the NK cells and results in the selective NK cell-m... |
| Azimexon | Azimexon (2-cyanaziridinyl-2-carbamoyl-aziridinyl-1-propane) is a derivative of 2-cyanaziridine. Immunostimulant which shows therapeutic effects in tumor models and experimental infections in vitro, enhancing T lymphocyte transformation and phagocytosis. The mode of action of azimexon is unknown. It has been suggested that azimexon may alkylate DNA. In cancer patients it increases leukocytosis, blood active T rosettes, T4/T8 ratio, and is used as an adjuvant to chemotherapy in the treatment o... |
| Azintuxizumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody targeting CS1 (SLAMF7/CD319) that is conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), via a cathepsin-cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of azintuxizumab vedotin binds to CS1-expressing tumor cells and is internalized, thereby delivering MMAE intracellularly. Upon cleavage, MMAE binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, result... |
| Aziridinylbenzoquinone RH1 | A water-soluble, synthetic aziridinylbenzoquinone with potential antineoplastic activity. Bioactivation of aziridinylbenzoquinone RH1 occurs through the two-electron reduction of the quinone to the hydroquinone by the two-electron quinone reductase DT-diaphorase (DTD). The resultant hydroquinone selectively alkylates and cross-links DNA at the 5'-GNC-3' sequence, inihibiting DNA replication, inducing apoptosis, and inhibiting tumor cell proliferation. DTD is over-expressed in many tumors rela... |
| Azotomycin | An antineoplastic-antibiotic diazo analog of L-glutamine isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces ambofaciens.  Azotomycin inhibits glutamine-dependent enzymes involved in purine and pyrimidine biosynthesis, resulting in inhibition of DNA synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Azurin:50-77 Cell Penetrating Peptide p28 | A water-soluble, amphipathic, 28 amino acid (amino acids 50-77), 2.9 kD fragment peptide (p28) derived from the protein azurin with potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. Although the mechanism has yet to be fully elucidated, the preferential cellular uptake of azurin-derived cell-penetrating peptide p28 by tumor cells and endothelial cells is likely via caveolae-mediated endocytosis; the C-terminal 18 amino acid residues (50-67) appear to be responsible for this preferential... |
| B16alphaGal Melanoma Vaccine | A whole cell melanoma cancer vaccine with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. B16alphaGal melanoma vaccine contains three types of human melanoma cell lines that are genetically engineered to express the alpha(1,3)-galactosyl (alphaGal) epitope on cell surfaces. The agent stimulates a hyperacute rejection of whole melanoma cancer cells expressing alphaGal epitopes, initiated by opsonization by anti-alphaGal antibodies and followed by antibody-dependent cell-mediated cyt... |
| B7 Transfected Melanoma Cell Vaccine | An allogenic whole tumor cell vaccine with potential antineoplastic activity.  B7 transfected melanoma cell vaccine consists of melanoma cells that have been induced to express the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) B7.  Vaccination with these altered cells may elicit an anti-tumor immune response via CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL). (NCI04) |
| B7H3/CD3-targeting T-cell Engaging Molecule TAK-280 | A T-cell engaging bispecific antibody and Conditional Bispecific Redirected Activation (COBRA) protein targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, B7H3/CD3-targeting T-cell engaging molecule TAK-280 is cleaved by proteases in the tumor microenvironment (TME). Upon cleavage, TAK-280 is activated and... |
| B7-H4-targeting Agent | Any agent that targets the T-cell checkpoint ligand B7-H4 (B7H4; V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1). |
| Babaodan Capsule | An orally available mixed powder of traditional Chinese medicine containing eight constituents including natural calculus bovis, snake gall, antelope horn, pearl, musk, radix notoginseng, and other as of yet not disclosed ingredients, with potential antifibrotic, immunomodulatory, and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, babaodan may ameliorate substance-induced liver injury and fibrosis, and inhibit lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced hepatic stellate cell (HSC) activation and p... |
| Bacillus Calmette-Guerin Substrain Danish 1331 Live Antigen | An antigen preparation derived from Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) Danish 1331 strain, used as a component of BCG vaccine. |
| Bacterial Type III Secretion-based Agent T3P-Y058-739 | A therapeutic based on a genetically-modified, live attenuated strain of the bacterium Yersinia enterocolitica that is able to deliver a combination of as of yet undisclosed type I interferons (IFN) and toll-like receptor (TLR) protein payloads, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, bacterial type III secretion (T3S)-based agent T3P-Y058-739 may selectively target tumor cells, colonize and deliver the protein payloads into tumor cells. This may ac... |
| Bactobolin | A 3-dichloromethylactinobolin antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from various Pseudomonas bacterial species.  BN-183 induces apoptosis via a caspase-dependent pathway.  This agent also has immunomodulatory properties. (NCI04) |
| Baculovirus CEA Protein Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of recombinant carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) produced by a baculovirus expression system with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with baculovirus CEA protein vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against CEA positive cells, resulting in decreased tumor growth.  CEA is overexpressed in several cancer cell types, including gastrointestinal, breast, and non-small cell lung cancers. (NCI04) |
| Bafetinib | An orally active 2-phenylaminopyrimidine derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. INNO-406 specifically binds to and inhibits the Bcr/Abl fusion protein tyrosine kinase, an abnormal enzyme produced by Philadelphia chromosomal translocation associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). Furthermore, this agent also inhibits the Src-family member Lyn tyrosine kinase, upregulated in imatinib-resistant CML cells and in a variety of solid cancer cell types. The inhibitory effect of INNO... |
| Bafisontamab | A human, Fabs-in-tandem immunoglobulin (FIT-Ig)-based, tetravalent, bispecific antibody targeting both the epidermal growth factor receptor EGFR and the hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR;; cMet; c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, bafisontamab simultaneously targets and binds to wild-type or certain mutant forms of both EGFR and c-Met expressed on cancer cells, thereby preventing receptor phosphorylation. This prevents the activation of both EGFR- and c-... |
| Balixafortide | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of CXC chemokine receptor 4 (CXCR4) with receptor binding and hematopoietic stem cell-mobilization activities. Balixafortide binds to the chemokine receptor CXCR4, thereby preventing the binding of stromal derived factor-1 (SDF-1 or CXCL12) to the CXCR4 receptor and subsequent receptor activation. This may induce the mobilization of hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells from the bone marrow into blood. CXCR4, a chemokine receptor belonging to the G protein-c... |
| Baloramotide | A genetically engineered synthetic protein, Recombinant NY-ESO-1 Protein (Cancer-Testis Tumor Antigen Family) elicits strong humoral and cellular immune responses to NY-ESO-1-expressing cancers and is used to produce specific vaccines to increase the immune response against tumors. NY-ESO-1 epitopes presented by human HLA are recognized by CD4(+) T lymphocytes in patients with NY-ESO-1-expressing melanoma. (NCI04) |
| Balstilimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1, PCD-1; PDCD1) protein, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, balstilimab binds to PD-1, and thereby blocks its binding to the PD-1 ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1), and prevents the activation of its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of cytoto... |
| Baltaleucel-T | A preparation of autologous Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs), which have specific reactivity to the EBV antigens, latent membrane proteins (LMP) 1 (LMP1) and 2 (LMP2), EBV nuclear antigen (EBNA) and BamHI-A rightward frame-1 (BARF1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, baltaleucel-T targets and binds to EBV-expressing cancer cells specifically expressing the targeted antigens. This may kill LMP1/LMP2/EBNA/BARF1-ex... |
| Banoxantrone | A bioreductive, alkylaminoanthraquinone prodrug with antineoplastic activity. Under hypoxic conditions, often seen in solid tumors, banoxantrone (AQ4N) is converted and activated by cytochrome P450 enzymes, which are upregulated in certain tumors, to the cytotoxic DNA-binding agent AQ4. Banoxantrone intercalates into and crosslinks DNA, and inhibits topoisomerase II. This results in an inhibition of DNA replication and repair in tumor cells. Combined with conventional therapeutic agents, both... |
| Bapotulimab | A mouse/human cross-reactive immunoglobulin G2 (IgG2) monoclonal antibody against the immune checkpoint immunoglobulin-like domain containing receptor 2 (ILDR2; Chromosome 1 Open Reading Frame 32; C1orf32), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, bapotulimab targets, binds to and inhibits ILDR2, thereby blocking the immunosuppressive activity of ILDR2. This prevents ILDR2-mediated inhibition of T-cell activities and induces a cytotoxic T... |
| Barasertib | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule, dihydrogen phosphate prodrug of the pyrazoloquinazoline Aurora kinase inhibitor AZD1152-hydroxyquinazoline pyrazol anilide (AZD1152-HQPA) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration and rapid conversion from the prodrug form in plasma, AZD1152-HQPA specifically binds to and inhibits Aurora kinase B, which results in the disruption of spindle checkpoint functions and chromosome alignment and, so, the disruption of chromosome segregation a... |
| Bardoxolone | A synthetic triterpenoid compound with potential antineoplastic and anti-inflammatory activities. Bardoxolone blocks the synthesis of inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS) and inducible cyclooxygenase (COX-2), two enzymes involved in inflammation and carcinogenesis. This agent also inhibits the interleukin-1 (IL-1)-induced expression of the pro-inflammatory proteins matrix metalloproteinase-1 (MMP-1) and matrix metalloproteinase-13 (MMP-13) and the expression of Bcl-3; Bcl-3 is an IL-1-respo... |
| Bardoxolone Methyl | The methyl ester form of bardoxolone, a synthetic triterpenoid compound with potential antineoplastic and anti-inflammatory activities. Bardoxolone blocks the synthesis of inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS) and inducible cyclooxygenase (COX-2), two enzymes involved in inflammation and carcinogenesis. This agent also inhibits the interleukin-1 (IL-1)-induced expression of the pro-inflammatory proteins matrix metalloproteinase-1 (MMP-1) and matrix metalloproteinase-13 (MMP-13) and the expre... |
| Barecetamab | A fully human antibody directed against the receptor tyrosine-protein kinase erbB-3 (ErbB3; HER3) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, barecetamab targets and binds to domain 3 and weakly interacts with domain 1 of ErbB3. This prevents heregulin (HRG) binding and blocks dimerization of ErbB3, thereby inactivating ErbB3 downstream signaling. ISU104 may also elicit the internalization of ErbB3 from the plasma membrane and downregulate ErbB3 expression. This i... |
| Baricitinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus kinases 1 and 2 (JAK1/2), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, baricitinib binds to JAK1/2, which inhibits JAK1/2 activation and leads to the inhibition of the JAK-signal transducers and activators of transcription (STAT) signaling pathway. This decreases the production of inflammatory cytokines and may prevent an inflammatory response. In addition, baricitinib may induce apoptosis and ... |
| Base Edited Natural Killer Cells NK510 | A preparation of natural killer (NK) cells derived from human peripheral blood and base-edited for as of yet not elucidated modifications, with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, base edited NK cells NK510 recognize and lyse cancer cells. The NK cells also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines, which further stimulate an anti-tumor immune response. |
| Basiliximab-IR700 RM-1995 | An antibody-dye conjugate composed of basiliximab, a chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against the alpha subunit of interleukin-2 receptor (IL-2R alpha, CD25 or Tac antigen), and conjugated to the light-activatable phthalocyanine dye IR700 (IRDye 700DX), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of basiliximab-IR700 RM-1995, the basiliximab moiety targets and binds to IL-2R alpha expressed on the surface of activated regulatory T-lymphocytes (Tregs) in the tu... |
| Basroparib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) enzyme tankyrase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, basroparib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of tankyrase. This may block the tankyrase-mediated poly(ADP-ribosyl)ation of multiple target proteins including various tumor suppressors. This may include the blockage of the poly(ADP-ribosyl)ation and destabilization of AXIN, a negative regulator of beta-catenin, and prevents Wnt/... |
| Batabulin | A synthetic pentafluorophenylsulfonamide with potential antineoplastic activity. Batabulin covalently binds to beta tubulin, resulting in a disruption of microtubule polymerization, collapse of the cytoskeleton, cell cycle arrest, and tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Batabulin Sodium | The sodium salt form of batabulin, a synthetic pentafluorophenylsulfonamide with potential antineoplastic activity. Batabulin covalently binds to and selectively modifies the beta 1, beta 2, beta 3, and beta 4 isotypes of beta tubulin at a conserved cysteine residue, resulting in disruption of microtubule polymerization, collapse of the cytoskeleton, an increase in chromosomal ploidy, cell cycle arrest, and tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Batimastat | A synthetic hydroxamate with potential antineoplastic activity.  Batimastat binds covalently to the zinc ion in the active site of matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs), thereby inhibiting the action of MMPs, inducing extracellular matrix degradation, and inhibiting angiogenesis, tumor growth and invasion, and metastasis. (NCI04) |
| Batiraxcept | A soluble fusion protein comprised of the extracellular domain of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) AXL (UFO) fused to a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc domain, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, batiraxcept selectively binds to growth arrest-specific protein 6 (GAS6), the endogenous ligand for AXL. This may inhibit GAS6/AXL-mediated signaling, which plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion and metastasis, as well as immune evasion and resi... |
| Batoprotafib | An inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration,batoprotafib binds to and inhibits SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regulates cell survival, differentiation and proliferation through activatio... |
| Bavdegalutamide | An orally available selective androgen receptor (AR)-targeted protein degrader, using the proteolysis targeting chimera (PROTAC) technology, with potential antineoplastic activity. Bavdegalutamide is composed of an AR ligand attached to an E3 ligase recognition moiety. Upon oral administration, bavdegalutamide targets and binds to the AR ligand binding domain. E3 ligase is recruited to the AR by the E3 ligase recognition moiety and the AR target protein is tagged by ubiquitin. This causes ubi... |
| Bavituximab | A chimeric, IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against anionic phospholipids with potential antineoplastic activity. Bavituximab binds to anionic phospholipids in a beta 2-glycoprotein I-dependent manner, inhibiting tumor growth by stimulating antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) to tumor vessels. |
| Bazedoxifene | An indole derivative and third-generation selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, bazedoxifene specifically binds to estrogen receptors in responsive tissues, including liver, bone, breast, and endometrium. The resulting ligand-receptor complex is translocated to the nucleus where, depending on the tissue type, it either promotes or suppresses the transcription of estrogen-regulated genes. Bazedoxifene acts as an estrogen antag... |
| Bazlitoran | An oligonucleotide targeted to the mRNA of MYD88 L265P, a mutant form of the linker protein MYD88, with potential antitumor activity. Bazlitoran binds to and inhibits the translation of mutated MYD88 L265P mRNA. This prevents overactivation of signaling pathways mediated by toll-like receptors (TLRs) 7, 8, and 9, nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) activity, Janus-associated kinases-signal transducer and activator of transcription (JAK-STAT) signaling and the production of various cytokines. Toget... |
| BC-819 Plasmid/Polyethylenimine Complex | A plasmid DNA encoding for the A fragment of Diphtheria Toxin (DTA) under the control of the H19 gene promoter (BC-819 or DTA-H19) and mixed with the transfectant polyethylenimine (PEI), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the PEI moiety enhances the entry of the agent into rapidly dividing cells. Upon cell entry, activation of the H19 gene promoter-containing plasmids and DTA expression are limited to tumor cells, as high levels of H19 expression are only found in tu... |
| BCG Solution | A solution containing an attenuated, live culture preparation of the Bacillus Calmette Guerin (BCG) strain of Mycobacterium bovis with potential immunostimulating activity. Although the precise mechanism of action is unknown, upon intravesical administration, attenuated, live BCG bacteria in the solution come into direct contact with the bladder wall, inciting an antitumor granulomatous inflammatory reaction. |
| BCG Tokyo-172 Strain Solution | A solution containing an attenuated, live culture preparation of the bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) strain of Mycobacterium bovis obtained from the Pasteur Institute in 1924, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Although the precise mechanism of action is unknown, upon intravesical instillation through a catheter, the attenuated, live BCG bacteria in the BCG Tokyo-172 strain solution come into direct contact with the bladder wall and elicits a local, multifaceted im... |
| BCG Vaccine | A vaccine containing bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), an attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis, with non-specific immunoadjuvant and immunotherapeutic activities. Although the mechanism of its anti-tumor activity is unclear, immunization with BCG vaccine likely activates a Th1 cytokine response that includes the induction of interferon. Vaccination with BCG vaccine may be immunoprotective against infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. |
| Bcl-2 Inhibitor ABBV-453 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Bcl-2 inhibitor ABBV-453 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2. This restores caspase-mediated apoptosis in tumor cells. Bcl-2 is overexpressed in many cancers and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis. Its expression is associated with increased drug resistance and tumor cell su... |
| Bcl-2 Inhibitor ABBV-623 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Bcl-2 inhibitor ABBV-623 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2. This restores caspase-mediated apoptosis in tumor cells. Bcl-2 is overexpressed in many cancers and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis. Its expression is associated with increased drug resistance and tumor cell su... |
| Bcl-2 Inhibitor BCL201 | A selective inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, Bcl-2 inhibitor BCL201 binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2. This restores apoptotic processes in tumor cells. Bcl-2 protein is overexpressed in many cancers and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis; its expression is associated with increased drug resistance and tumor cell survival. |
| Bcl-2 Inhibitor LOXO-338 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Bcl-2 inhibitor LOXO-338 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2. This restores apoptotic processes in tumor cells. Bcl-2 is overexpressed in many cancers and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis; its expression is associated with increased drug resistance and tumor cell survival. |
| Bcl-2 Inhibitor TGRX-814 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Bcl-2 inhibitor TGRX-814 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2. This restores apoptotic processes in tumor cells. Bcl-2 is overexpressed in many cancers and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis; its expression is associated with increased drug resistance and tumor cell survival. |
| Bcl-2 Inhibitor TQB3909 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Bcl-2 inhibitor TQB3909 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2. This restores caspase-mediated apoptosis in tumor cells. Bcl-2 is overexpressed in many cancers and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis. Its expression is associated with increased drug resistance and tumor cell sur... |
| BCL2 Inhibitor VOB560 | An inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, Bcl-2 inhibitor VOB560 binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2, thereby restoring apoptotic processes in tumor cells. Bcl-2 protein is overexpressed in many cancer types and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis; its expression is associated with increased drug resistance and tumor cell survival. |
| Bcl-2/Bcl-XL Inhibitor LP-118 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic proteins B-cell lymphoma-2 (Bcl-2) and Bcl-extra large (Bcl-XL), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Bcl-2/Bcl-XL inhibitor LP-118 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2 and Bcl-XL. This restores apoptotic processes in tumor cells. Bcl-2 and Bcl-XL, Bcl-2 family proteins overexpressed in many cancers, play important roles in the negative regulation of apoptosis. T... |
| BCL6 Degrader ARV-393 | An orally bioavailable, targeted degrader composed of an E3 ubiquitin ligase-binding moiety that is conjugated, via a linker, to a B-cell lymphoma 6 protein (BCL6; BCL-6)-binding moiety using the proteolysis targeting chimera (PROTAC) technology, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of BCL6 degrader ARV-393, the BCL6-binding moiety specifically targets and binds to BCL6 on tumor cells while the E3 ubiquitin ligase-binding moiety targets and binds to E3 ubiquitin li... |
| BCL6 Degrader BMS-986458 | An orally bioavailable ligand directed degrader (LDD) composed of an E3 ubiquitin ligase-binding moiety that is conjugated, via a linker, to a B-cell lymphoma 6 protein (BCL6; BCL-6)-binding moiety, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BCL6 degrader BMS-986458 specifically and simultaneously targets and binds to BCL6 on tumor cells and to E3 ubiquitin ligase, thereby creating a ternary complex. This induces E3 ligase ubiquitination and proteasome-mediated degradat... |
| Bcl-XL Proteolysis Targeting Chimera DT2216 | An anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma-extra large (Bcl-XL) targeted protein degrader, using the proteolysis targeting chimera (PROTAC) technology, with potential pro-apoptotic, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. DT2216 is composed of a Bcl-XL ligand attached to a Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) E3 ligase ligand. Upon administration of DT2216, the Bcl-XL binding moiety specifically targets and binds to Bcl-XL which is expressed on tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the t... |
| Bcl-Xs Adenovirus Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of replication-defective recombinant adenovirus that encodes for Bcl-Xs with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination with Bcl-Xs adenovirus vaccine induces apoptosis in Bcl-2 and Bcl-XL positive cancer cells, resulting in decreased tumor growth while leaving normal cells unaffected.  Bcl-Xs block the function of the protooncogenes Bcl-2 and Bcl-XL which are overexpressed in a variety of solid tumors and promote cancer cell survival by inhibiting apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| BCMA CART Cells Secreting Mutant PD-1Fc Fusion Protein | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17) and secrete a fusion protein composed of programmed death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed cell death-1) and a human immunoglobulin Fc region, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the BCMA CART cells secreting mutant PD-1Fc fusion protein, these T... |
| BCMA-CD19 Compound CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a compound chimeric antigen receptor (cCAR) containing two distinct units of CARs, one specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and one specific for the TAA CD19, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the BCMA-CD19 cCAR T cells specifically and simultaneously target an... |
| BCMA-specific Universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes LCAR-BCX | A preparation of universal T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, BCMA-specific universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes LCAR-BCX are directed to cells expressing BCMA and induce selective toxicity in BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a receptor for both a prolifera... |
| BCMA-targeted LCAR-BCDR Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, BCMA-targeted LCAR-BCDR cells specifically recognize and kill BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor specific antigen and a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL)... |
| BCMA-TGF-beta Insensitive Armored CAR T Cells | A preparation of human T-lymphocytes genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and armored to be insensitive to the immunosuppressive cytokine transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, BCMA-TGF-beta insensitive armored CAR T cells specific... |
| BCR Signaling Pathway Inhibitor DZD8586 | An inhibitor of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, BCR signaling pathway inhibitor DZD8586 blocks signaling through the BCR signaling pathway. This prevents the proliferation of malignant B-cells in which the BCR signaling pathway is overactivated. DZD8586 is able to cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) and thus potentially useful in the treatment of central nervous system (CNS) metastases. |
| Bcr-Abl (b2a2)-Derived Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine consisting of the bcr-abl b2a2 fusion oncoprotein, frequently expressed in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with the bcr-abl (b2a2)-derived peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that express the bcr-abl b2a2 fusion protein. Fusion genes in CML typically result from the fusion of either BCR exon b2 or BCR exon b3 to ABL exon a2, a 'b3a2' o... |
| Bcr-Abl (b3a2)-Derived Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine consisting of the bcr-abl b3a2 fusion oncoprotein, frequently expressed in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with the bcr-abl (b3a2)-derived peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that express the bcr-abl b3a2 fusion protein. Fusion genes in CML typically result from the fusion of either BCR exon b2 or BCR exon b3 to ABL exon a2, a 'b3a2' o... |
| BCR-ABL Inhibitor ELVN-001 | An orally bioavailable, selective, active-form inhibitor of tyrosine kinase BCR-ABL fusion oncoprotein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BCR-ABL inhibitor ELVN-001 specifically targets and binds to the ATP-binding site in the kinase domain of activated BCR-ABL1, thereby inhibiting the activity of both wild-type BCR-ABL and certain mutation forms, including the T315I mutation. This binding results in the inhibition of BCR-ABL-mediated proliferation and enhanced... |
| BCR-ABL Inhibitor HS-10382 | An orally bioavailable, allosteric tyrosine kinase inhibitor of the BCR-ABL fusion oncoprotein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BCR-ABL inhibitor HS-10382 targets and binds to the ABL myristoyl pocket, locking BCR-ABL into an inactive conformation, thereby inhibiting the activity of BCR-ABL and decreasing the proliferation of tumor cells. BCR-ABL fusion protein is an aberrantly activated tyrosine kinase produced by certain leukemia cells. |
| BCR-ABL Inhibitor TGRX-678 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase BCR-ABL fusion oncoprotein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BCR-ABL inhibitor TGRX-678 specifically targets and binds to the myristate site at the C-terminal of the kinase domain, which results in the cross-linking of SH3 and SH2 domains to the kinase domain, and locks the kinase in its inactive state. This inhibits the activity of BCR-ABL, including the T315I gatekeeper residue mutation. The binding res... |
| BCR-ABL p210-b3a2 Breakpoint-derived Pentapeptide Vaccine | A multipeptide vaccine consisting of five peptides derived from the bcr-abl p210-b3a2 breakpoint fusion protein with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with bcr-abl p210-b3a2 breakpoint-derived multipeptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that express the bcr-abl p210-b3a2 breakpoint fusion protein. In chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), fusion genes typically result from the fusion of either bcr exo... |
| BCR-ABL Peptide Vaccine | A multivalent antineoplastic vaccine comprised of the bcr-abl oncogene breakpoint fusion peptide that elicits a bcr-abl specific T-cell immune response.  (NCI04) |
| BD2-selective BET Inhibitor NUV-868 | An orally bioavailable BD2-selective inhibitor of the bromodomain and extra-terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BD2-selective BET inhibitor NUV-868 primarily targets and binds to the BD2 domain of the BRD4 BET protein, thereby preventing the interaction between BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and suppresses the expression of certain oncogenes, resulting in the inhibition of tumor cell gro... |
| Beauvericin | A cyclic hexadepsipeptide antibiotic and mycotoxin isolated from the fungus Beauveria bassiana and various Fusarium fungal species.  As a potassium-specific ionophore, beauvericin A increases intracellular calcium concentrations and triggers DNA fragmentation and apoptosis through a calcium dependent caspase 3-sensitive pathway.  This agent has been studied as a potential antineoplastic agent. (NCI04) |
| BEBT-908 Free Base | An inhibitor of both phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) and histone deacetylase (HDAC) enzymes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PI3K/HDAC inhibitor BEBT-908 binds to and inhibits the activity and mediated signaling of both PI3K and HDAC. In addition, BEBT-908 may also inhibit other signaling pathways. This may prevent growth of PI3K and/or HDAC-expressing tumor cells. |
| Becatecarin | A synthetic diethylaminoethyl analogue of the indolocarbazole glycoside antineoplastic antibiotic rebeccamycin.  Becatecarin intercalates into DNA and stabilizes the DNA-topoisomerase I complex, thereby interfering with the topoisomerase I-catalyzed DNA breakage-reunion reaction and initiating DNA cleavage and apoptosis.  (NCI04) |
| Becotatug | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, becotatug targets, binds to and prevents the activation of EGFR. This inhibits EGFR-mediated signaling and proliferation of EGFR-expressing tumor cells. In addition, JMT101 may induce antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against EGFR-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a member of the epidermal growth factor... |
| Becotatug Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of becotatug, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) conjugated to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of becotatug vedotin, the monoclonal antibody moiety binds to EGFR on tumor cell surfaces. Following receptor internalization, the MMAE moiety is rel... |
| Befotertinib | An orally available inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutant form T790M, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, befotertinib specifically binds to and inhibits EGFR T790M, a secondarily acquired resistance mutation, which prevents EGFR-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR T790M-expressing tumor cells. Compared to some other EGFR inhibitors, befotertinib may have therapeutic benefits in tumors with T790M-mediated drug resistance. EGFR,... |
| Belagenpumatucel-L | A transforming growth factor beta2 (TGF-beta2) antisense gene-modified allogeneic tumor cell vaccine with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Belagenpumatucel-L is prepared by transfecting allogeneic non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) cells with a plasmid containing a TGF-beta2 antisense transgene, expanding the cells, and then irradiating and freezing them. Upon administration, this agent may elicit a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against host NSCLC cells, resu... |
| Belantamab Mafodotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of belantamab, an afucosylated, humanized monoclonal antibody, directed against the B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA), conjugated to mafodotin, an auristatin analogue and microtubule inhibitor monomethyl auristatin phenylalanine (MMAF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of belantamab mafodotin, the anti-BCMA antibody moiety selectively binds to BCMA on tumor cell surfaces. Upon internalization, the MMAF moiety binds to tubul... |
| Belapectin | A carbohydrate-based galectin inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Belapectin binds to the carbohydrate-binding domain of galectins, especially galectin-3, and may result in an induction of apoptosis mediated through activation of both mitochondria and caspases. This may reduce tumor growth in galectin-overexpressing tumor cells. Galectins, often overexpressed on tumor cells, play a key role in cancer cell proliferation, apoptosis, tumor angiogenesis and evasion of immune respon... |
| Belimumab | A fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against B-Lymphocyte stimulator protein (BlyS or TNFSF13B) with potential immunomodulating activity. Belimumab specifically recognizes and inhibits the biological activity of BlyS, thereby preventing the binding of BlyS to B-lymphocytes. This inhibits the maturation of B-lymphocytes and may induce apoptosis in B-lymphocytes. In addition, it may decrease B-lymphocyte proliferation and/or survival. BlyS, a member of TNF family supporting B-lymphoc... |
| Belinostat | A novel hydroxamic acid-type histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Belinostat targets HDAC enzymes, thereby inhibiting tumor cell proliferation, inducing apoptosis, promoting cellular differentiation, and inhibiting angiogenesis. This agent may sensitize drug-resistant tumor cells to other antineoplastic agents, possibly through a mechanism involving the down-regulation of thymidylate synthase. |
| Belotecan Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of the semi-synthetic camptothecin analogue belotecan with potential antitumor activity. Belotecan binds to and inhibits the activity of topoisomerase I, stabilizing the cleavable complex of topoisomerase I-DNA, which inhibits the religation of single-stranded DNA breaks generated by topoisomerase I; lethal double-stranded DNA breaks occur when the topoisomerase I-DNA complex is encountered by the DNA replication machinery, DNA replication is disrupted, and the tumor ce... |
| Belrestotug | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and anti-tumor activities. Upon administration, belrestotug targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, including tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of ... |
| Belvarafenib | An orally available inhibitor of members of the Raf family of serine/threonine protein kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, belvarafenib binds to and inhibits the B-Raf mutant V600E and C-Raf. This inhibits B-Raf V600E- and C-Raf-mediated signal transduction pathways, thereby inhibiting tumor cell growth of susceptible tumor cells. In addition, belvarafenib may also inhibit mutated Ras proteins. Raf protein kinases play a key role in the Raf/mitogen-activated ... |
| Belzupacap Sarotalocan | A formulation composed of nanoparticles derived from the human papillomavirus (HPV-NPs) and conjugated to the infrared (IR)-activated fluorescent dye IR700 (IR-700), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravitreal injection of belzupacap sarotalocan, the HPV-NPs target and bind to heparan-sulfated proteoglycans (HSPG) expressed by ocular melanoma cells. Upon irradiation with near-IR (NIR) light, the photosensitizer IR700 becomes activated, generates reactive oxygen species (ROS) and... |
| Belzutifan | An orally active, small molecule inhibitor of hypoxia inducible factor (HIF)-2alpha (HIF-2a), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, belzutifan binds to and blocks the function of HIF-2alpha, thereby preventing HIF-2alpha heterodimerization and its subsequent binding to DNA. This results in decreased transcription and expression of HIF-2alpha downstream target genes, many of which regulate hypoxic signaling. This inhibits cell growth and survival of HIF-2alpha-expre... |
| Bemarituzumab | A glycoengineered, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the fibroblast growth factor receptor type 2b (FGFR2b), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, bemarituzumab specifically binds to and inhibits FGFR2b on tumor cell surfaces, which prevents FGFR2 from binding to its ligands, FGFR2b activation and the activation of FGFR2b-mediated signal transduction pathways. The binding of FPA144 to FGFR2b protein also induces antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity... |
| Bemcentinib | An orally available and selective inhibitor of the AXL receptor tyrosine kinase (UFO), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, bemcentinib targets and binds to the intracellular catalytic kinase domain of AXL and prevents its activity. This blocks AXL-mediated signal transduction pathways and inhibits the epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT), which, in turn, inhibits tumor cell proliferation and migration. In addition, bemcentinib enhances chemo-sensitivity. AXL, a mem... |
| Bempegaldesleukin | A recombinant form of the endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) conjugated to six releasable polyethylene glycol (PEG) chains, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration of bempegaldesleukin, the IL-2 moiety binds to the IL-2 receptor beta subunit (IL2Rb; IL2Rbeta; CD122). The binding of IL-2 to IL2Rb activates IL2Rb-mediated signaling, which activates cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and natural killer (NK) cells, and induces expression of certain cytotoxic cytokines, su... |
| Benaxibine | A cyclophosphamide synergizer with antineoplastic, antidiabetic, antihypertensive and immunopotentiating activity. Benaxibine is active against integrin alph-4 precursor. |
| Bendamustine | A bifunctional mechlorethamine derivative with alkylating and antimetabolite activities. Although the exact mechanism of action of bendamustine is unknown, this agent appears to alkylate and crosslink macromolecules, resulting in DNA, RNA and protein synthesis inhibition, and eventually the induction of apoptosis. |
| Bendamustine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of bendamustine, a bifunctional mechlorethamine derivative with alkylator and antimetabolite activities. Bendamustine possesses three active moieties: an alkylating group; a benzimidazole ring, which may act as a purine analogue; and a butyric acid side chain. Although its exact mechanism of action is unknown this agent appears to act primarily as an alkylator. Bendamustine metabolites alkylate and crosslink macromolecules, resulting in DNA, RNA and protein synthesis in... |
| Bendamustine-containing Nanoparticle-based Formulation RXDX-107 | A nanoparticle-based formulation containing the alkyl ester of bendamustine, a bifunctional mechlorethamine derivative, encapsulated in human serum albumin (HSA), with potential alkylating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the alkyl ester bendamustine-containing nanoparticle formulation RXDX-107, the nanoparticle formulation permits high concentrations of the alkyl ester of bendamustine be localized at the tumor site. The modified bendamustine alkylates and crosslinks macr... |
| Benmelstobart | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, benmelstobart specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, preventing the binding and subsequent activation of its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1). This reverses T-cell inactivation cause... |
| Benzaldehyde Dimethane Sulfonate | A dimethane sulfonate derivative and alkylating agent with a structure similar to other alkylating agents such as chlorambucil, busulfan and melphalan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, benzaldehyde dimethane sulfonate alkylates DNA, which results in DNA double strand breaks, inhibition of DNA replication, cell cycle arrest and cell death. In addition, this agent is metabolized by the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase (A... |
| Benzoylphenylurea | A low molecular weight agent with antineoplastic activity. Benzoylphenylurea binds to the colchicine binding site on tubulin, thereby blocking tubulin polymerization and disrupting mitotic function.  This agent also inhibits DNA polymerase, and has been shown to arrest leukemia cells in the G1-S transition phase of the cell cycle. (NCI04) |
| Berberine Chloride | The orally bioavailable, hydrochloride salt form of berberine, a quaternary ammonium salt of an isoquinoline alkaloid and active component of various Chinese herbs, with potential antineoplastic, radiosensitizing, anti-inflammatory, anti-lipidemic and antidiabetic activities. Although the mechanisms of action through which berberine exerts its effects are not yet fully elucidated, upon administration this agent appears to suppress the activation of various proteins and/or modulate the express... |
| Bermekimab | A human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against interleukin-1 alpha (IL-1a) and derived from human B-lymphocytes that were obtained from a natural human immune response against IL-1a, with potential antineoplastic, anti-inflammatory, anti-cachectic and anti-angiogenic activities. Upon administration, bermekimab targets, binds to and neutralizes IL-1a thereby preventing IL-1a activity. This prevents IL-1a-mediated inflammation, tumorigenesis and angiogenesis. In addition, b... |
| Beroterkib Anhydrous | The anhydrous form of beroterkib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases (ERK) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, beroterkib specifically binds to and inhibits both ERK 1 and 2, thereby preventing the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ERK-dependent tumor cell proliferation and survival. The MAPK/ERK pathway is often upregul... |
| Bersanlimab | A fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1 or CD54), with potential antineoplastic activity. Bersanlimab selectively binds to the adhesion protein ICAM-1, which may result in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), hyper-cross-linking-induced apoptosis, and a decrease in cellular proliferation of ICAM-1-expressing tumor cells. ICAM-1, normally expressed on leukocytes and endothelial cells, may be overexpressed in a variety of can... |
| Berubicin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of the anthracycline derivative berubicin with potential antineoplastic activity. Berubicin intercalates into DNA and interrupts topoisomerase II activity, resulting in the inhibition of DNA replication and repair, and RNA and protein synthesis. Unlike other anthracycline derivatives, this agent crosses the blood-brain barrier (BBB). |
| Berzosertib | An inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia and rad3-related (ATR) kinase, a DNA damage response kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, berzosertib selectively binds to and inhibits ATR kinase activity and prevents ATR-mediated signaling in the ATR-checkpoint kinase 1 (Chk1) signaling pathway. This prevents DNA damage checkpoint activation, disrupts DNA damage repair, and induces tumor cell apoptosis. ATR, a serine/threonine protein kinase upregulated in a variety of c... |
| BET Bromodomain Inhibitor ZEN-3694 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the bromodomain and extra-terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the BET inhibitor ZEN-3694 binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs in the bromodomains of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may lead to an i... |
| BET Inhibitor ABBV-744 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the BET inhibitor ABBV-744 preferentially binds to the second bromodomain (BD2) of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may lead to an inhibition of prol... |
| BET Inhibitor BAY1238097 | An inhibitor of the Bromodomain (BRD) and Extra-Terminal domain (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the BET inhibitor BAY1238097 binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs on the BRD of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between BET proteins and histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and prevents the expression of certain growth-promoting genes. This leads to an inhibition of tumor cell growth. BET proteins (BRD2, B... |
| BET Inhibitor FT-1101 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the BET inhibitor FT-1101 binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs in the bromodomain sites of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may lead to the i... |
| BET Inhibitor GSK2820151 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the BET inhibitor GSK2820151 binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs in the bromodomains of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may lead to an... |
| BET Inhibitor INCB054329 | An inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of bromodomain-containing proteins with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the BET inhibitor INCB054329 binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs on the bromodomain of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may lead to an inh... |
| BET Inhibitor INCB057643 | An inhibitor of the Bromodomain (BRD) and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of BRD-containing proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the BET inhibitor INCB057643 binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs found in the BRD of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated lysines on histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes, such as c... |
| BET Inhibitor JAB-8263 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the bromodomain and extra-terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic and anti-fibrotic activities. Upon oral administration, BET inhibitor JAB-8263 targets and binds to bromodomain-containing proteins 2, 3, and 4 (BRD2, BRD3, and BRD4) as well as bromodomain testis-specific protein (BRDT), thereby preventing the interaction between BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and suppresses the expression of... |
| BET Inhibitor RO6870810 | A small molecule inhibitor of the BET (Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal) family of bromodomain-containing proteins with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the BET inhibitor RO6870810 binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs found in the bromodomain of BET proteins, which prevents the interaction between BET proteins and acetylated histones. This interaction disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting g... |
| BET Inhibitor TQB3617 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the bromodomain and extra-terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BET inhibitor TQB3617 targets and binds to the acetyl-lysine binding site in the bromodomains (BRDs), thereby preventing the interaction between BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and suppresses the expression of certain oncogenes, resulting in the inhibition of tumor cell growth. BET proteins, ... |
| BET/CBP/p300 Inhibitor EP31670 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the bromodomains (BRDs) of the bromodomain and extra-terminal (BET) family of proteins and the histone acetyltransferase (HAT) paralogs CREB binding protein (CBP) and p300 (E1A-associated protein p300; p300 HAT), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BET/CBP/p300 inhibitor EP31670 targets and binds to the BET proteins bromodomain-containing proteins 2, 3, and 4 (BRD2, BRD3, and BRD4) and bromodomain testis-specific protein (BRDT)... |
| Beta Alethine | A disulfide agent that stimulates T and B-cell functions and exhibits anti-tumor and immunostimulant activity. (NCI) |
| Beta Tubulin Polymerization Inhibitor CCI-001 | A colchicine derivative and beta tubulin polymerization inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, beta tubulin polymerization inhibitor CCI-001 targets, binds to and inhibits beta-III tubulin (TUBB3), and prevents tubulin polymerization and destabilizes microtubules, ultimately leading to cell cycle arrest, blockage of cell division and an induction of cell death in cancer cells. TUBB3, overexpressed in many cancers, is associated with poor outcomes and a reduced... |
| Beta-Carotene | A naturally-occurring retinol (vitamin A) precursor obtained from certain fruits and vegetables with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities.  As an anti-oxidant, beta carotene inhibits free-radical damage to DNA.  This agent also induces cell differentiation and apoptosis of some tumor cell types, particularly in early stages of tumorigenesis, and enhances immune system activity by stimulating the release of natural killer cells, lymphocytes, and monocytes. (NCI04) |
| Beta-elemene | One of the isomers of elemene, a lipid soluble sesquiterpene and the active component isolated from the Chinese medicinal herb Rhizoma zedoariae with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities. Although the exact mechanism of action through which beta-elemene exerts its effect has yet to be fully elucidated, this agent appears to induce apoptosis through different mechanisms of action and induces cell cycle arrest at different stages based on the tumor cell type involved. Beta-el... |
| Beta-Glucan | A polysaccharide isolated from the cell walls of bacteria, plants, and fungi with immunostimulant and antineoplastic activities. In a solubilized form, beta-glucan binds to a lectin site within complement receptor 3 (CR3) on leukocytes, priming the receptor to trigger cytotoxic degranulation of leukocytes when leukocyte CR3 binds to complement 3 (iC3b)-coated tumors. Thus, the attachment of beta-glucan to CR3 of circulating leukocytes simulates leukocytes to kill iC3b-coated tumor cells in th... |
| Beta-Glucan MM-10-001 | A powder formulation containing a triple helix beta-glucan, isolated from the cell walls of the shiitake mushroom (Lentinula edodes), with potential immunostimulating activity. The beta-glucan in beta-glucan MM-10-001 binds to a lectin site within the complement receptor 3 (CR3 or iC3b receptor) on leukocytes, priming the receptor to trigger cytotoxic degranulation of leukocytes when leukocyte CR3 binds to iC3b-opsonized tumor cells. iC3b is the proteolyticly inactive product of the complemen... |
| Betaglucin Gel | A soluble gel containing the beta-glucan betaglucin, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon topical administration of the betaglucin gel, betaglucin is able to increase the number of macrophages and natural killer (NK) cells. NK cells and macrophages may kill a variety of tumor cells, and virally infected cells. This may treat human papillomavirus (HPV)-related anogenital warts. |
| Beta-lapachone Prodrug ARQ 761 | A synthetic, soluble prodrug of beta-lapachone, a poorly soluble, ortho-naphthoquinone with potential antineoplastic and radiosensitizing activity. ARQ 761 is converted to beta-lapachone (b-lap) in vivo. When b-lap is activated by NAD(P)H:quinone oxidoreductase-1 (NQO1) this agent creates a futile oxidoreduction, generating highly reactive oxygen species (ROS) that results in DNA damage. The activation of b-lap also causes hyperactivation of poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase-1 (PARP-1), an enzyme ... |
| Beta-Thioguanine Deoxyriboside | A thiopurine nucleoside derivative with antineoplastic activity. After conversion to the triphosphate, beta-thioguanine deoxyriboside is incorporated into DNA, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication.  This agent is cytotoxic against leukemia cell lines and has demonstrated some activity against leukemia cells in vivo.  Beta-thioguanine deoxyriboside demonstrates antineoplastic activity against 6-thioguanine-resistant tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| BET-bromodomain Inhibitor ODM-207 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the BET inhibitor ODM-207 binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs in the bromodomains of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression of oncogenic drivers that are important for cell proliferation and survival. Prev... |
| Betifisolimab | A second-generation, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Betifisolimab contains a unique, not as of yet elucidated, pH-dependent antigen binding property allowing the antibody to only bind to PD-L1 within the acidic tumor microenvironment (TME), while it is not able to bind to PD-L1 in normal, health... |
| Betulinic Acid | A pentacyclic lupane-type triterpene derivative of betulin (isolated from the bark of Betula alba, the common white birch) with antiinflammatory, anti-HIV and antineoplastic activities. Betulinic acid induces apoptosis through induction of changes in mitochondrial membrane potential, production of reactive oxygen species, and opening of mitochondrial permeability transition pores, resulting in the release of mitochondrial apogenic factors, activation of caspases, and DNA fragmentation. Althou... |
| Bevacizumab | A recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), a pro-angiogenic cytokine.  Bevacizumab binds to VEGF and inhibits VEGF receptor binding, thereby preventing the growth and maintenance of tumor blood vessels. |
| Bevacizumab-IRDye 800CW | An immunoconjugate and a fluorescent tracer consisting of the recombinant humanized anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) monoclonal antibody bevacizumab conjugated to the N-hydroxysuccinamide (NHS) ester form of the near-infrared (NIR) fluorescent dye IRDye 800CW, that may be used for VEGF-specific tumor imaging. Upon administration, the bevacizumab moiety of bevacizumab-IRDye 800CW binds to VEGF and the fluorescent signal can be visualized using NIR fluorescence imaging (700-1,000 ... |
| Bexarotene | A synthetic retinoic acid agent with potential antineoplastic, chemopreventive, teratogenic and embryotoxic properties.  Bexarotene selectively binds to and activates retinoid X receptors (RXRs), thereby inducing changes in gene expression that lead to cell differentiation, decreased cell proliferation, apoptosis of some cancer cell types, and tumor regression. (NCI04) |
| Bexirestrant | An orally bioavailable selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, bexirestrant specifically targets and binds to both wild-type and mutant forms of the estrogen receptor (ER; ERalpha), including the somatic mutations Y537S and D538G. This induces a conformational change that results in ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. Som... |
| Bexmarilimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against common lymphatic endothelial and vascular endothelial receptor-1 (CLEVER-1; stabilin-1; FEEL-1), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, bexmarilimab targets and binds to CLEVER-1 that is expressed on tumor endothelial cells. This prevents the recruitment, infiltration and attachment of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) at the tumor site. By preventing the binding of TAMs to tumor cells, the infiltration of a... |
| Bezuclastinib | An orally bioavailable protein tyrosine kinase inhibitor of mutated forms of the tumor-associated antigen mast/stem cell factor receptor c-Kit (SCFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, bezuclastinib binds to and inhibits specific c-Kit mutants. This may result in an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in cancer cell types that overexpress these c-Kit mutations. c-Kit, a transmembrane protein and receptor tyrosine kinase, is overexpressed in solid tumors and ... |
| BF-200 Gel Formulation | A topical nanoemulsion-based gel formulation containing 5-aminolevulinic acid (ALA), a metabolic precursor of the photosensitizer protoporphyrin IX, with a potential application for enhanced photodynamic therapy (PDT) for various precancerous and malignant skin lesions. After topical administration of a thick layer of the ALA-based BF-200 gel formulation to the affected area, ALA penetrates the skin and is intracellularly converted to protoporphyrin IX (PpIX). Exposure of PpIX to the proper e... |
| BGT226 Maleate | The maleate form of BGT226, a phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, BGT226 specifically inhibits PI3K in the PI3K/AKT kinase (or protein kinase B) signaling pathway, which may trigger the translocation of cytosolic Bax to the mitochondrial outer membrane, increasing mitochondrial membrane permeability; apoptotic cell death may ensue. Bax is a member of the proapoptotic Bcl2 family of proteins. |
| BH3 Mimetic ABT-737 | An orally bioavailable, selective small molecule B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2) Homology 3 (BH3) mimetic, with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. ABT-737 binds to the hydrophobic groove of multiple members of the anti-apoptotic Bcl-2 protein family, including Bcl-2, Bcl-xl and Bcl-w. This inhibits the activity of these pro-survival proteins and restores apoptotic processes in tumor cells, via activation of Bak/Bax-mediated apoptosis. The pro-survival Bcl-2 proteins are overexpr... |
| Bicalutamide | A synthetic, nonsteroidal antiandrogen.  Bicalutamide competitively binds to cytosolic androgen receptors in target tissues, thereby inhibiting the receptor binding of androgens. This agent does not bind to most mutated forms of androgen receptors. (NCI04) |
| Bifunctional Expression Vector Plasmid DNA-bi-shRNA EWS/FLI1 Type 1 Lipoplex | A proprietary plasmid DNA expression vector encoding bi-functional short hairpin RNAs (bi-shRNAs) targeting the identical type 1 translocation junction region of the human fusion oncogene Ewing sarcoma (EWS)/Ets family transcription factor Friend leukemia virus integration 1 (FLI1) and are encapsulated in liposomal delivery vehicle (lipoplex; LPX), with potential antineoplastic activity. pbi-shRNA EWS/FLI1 type 1 contains 2 stem-loop structures encoded by a plasmid vector: one cleavage-depend... |
| Bifunctional TGF-beta Antagonist/IL-15 Protein Complex HCW9218 | A heterodimeric, bifunctional fusion protein composed of the ectodomains of the transforming growth factor (TGF) beta (TGF-beta; TGFb) receptor II (TGFbRII;TGFBR2) fused to a human immunostimulatory cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15)/ IL-15 receptor alpha complex, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the bifunctional TGF-beta antagonist/IL-15 protein complex HCW9218, the TGFbRII moiety specifically and selectively targets, binds to and neutralize... |
| Bimiralisib | An orally bioavailable pan inhibitor of phosphoinositide-3-kinases (PI3K) and inhibitor of the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Bimiralisib inhibits the PI3K kinase isoforms alpha, beta, gamma and delta and, to a lesser extent, mTOR kinase, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition in cells overexpressing PI3K/mTOR. Activation of the PI3K/mTOR pathway promotes cell growth, survival, and resistance to both chemotherapy and radio... |
| Binetrakin | A recombinant agent chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous cytokine interleukin-4 (IL-4). Produced primarily by activated T-cells, IL-4 binds to and activates its cell-surface receptor, stimulating the proliferation and differentiation of activated B-cells and enhancing their ability to present antigens to T-cells. As a potential immunotherapeutic agent, binetrakin also augments the effects of other cytokines on dendritic cells (DC), cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL), and tumor-infi... |
| Binimetinib | An orally available inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase 1 and 2 (MEK1/2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Binimetinib, noncompetitive with ATP, binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK1/2. Inhibition of MEK1/2 prevents the activation of MEK1/2 dependent effector proteins and transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling. This may eventually lead to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and an inhibition in produ... |
| Bintrafusp Alfa | A bifunctional fusion protein composed of an anti-programmed death ligand 1 (PD-L1) human monoclonal antibody, bound to the soluble extracellular domain of human transforming growth factor beta (TGFbeta) receptor type II (TGFbetaRII), with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint modulating activities. Upon administration, bintrafusp alfa binds to and neutralizes activated TGFbeta and binds to PD-L1. This prevents TGFbeta- and PD-L1-mediated signaling, and increases natural killer (NK) ... |
| Birabresib | A synthetic, small molecule inhibitor of the BET (Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal) family of bromodomain-containing proteins 2, 3 and 4 with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, birabresib binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs on the bromodomain of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histone peptides. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promotin... |
| Birinapant | A synthetic small molecule that is both a peptidomimetic of second mitochondrial-derived activator of caspases (SMAC) and inhibitor of IAP (Inhibitor of Apoptosis Protein) family proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. As a SMAC mimetic and IAP antagonist, birinapant selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of IAPs, such as X chromosome-linked IAP (XIAP) and cellular IAPs 1 (cIAP1) and 2 (cIAP2), with a greater effect on cIAP1 than cIAP2. Since IAPs shield cancer cells from th... |
| Biropepimut-S | A proprietary, peptide cancer vaccine comprised of multiple peptides derived from human melanoma antigen A3 (MAGE-A3; MAGEA3), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, biropepimut-S may stimulate the immune system to mount specific responses from B-cells, and CD4-positive and CD8-positive cells against tumor cells expressing MAGE-A3, resulting in tumor cell lysis. MAGE-A3, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is overexpressed by a variety of cancer cel... |
| Bisantrene | An anthracenyl bishydrazone with antineoplastic activity. Bisantrene intercalates with and disrupts the configuration of DNA, resulting in DNA single-strand breaks, DNA-protein crosslinking, and inhibition of DNA replication.  This agent is similar to doxorubicin in activity, but unlike doxorubicin, does not exhibit cardiotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Bisantrene Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of an anthracenyl bishydrazone with antineoplastic activity. Bisantrene intercalates with and disrupts the helical structure of DNA, resulting in DNA single-strand breaks, DNA-protein crosslinking, and inhibition of DNA replication. This agent is similar to doxorubicin in activity, but unlike doxorubicin, does not exhibit cardiotoxicity. |
| Bisnafide | A bis-naphthalimide compound with anticancer activity. Bisnafide selectively intercalates guanine-cytosine (GC) rich regions of DNA, thereby interfering with DNA replication machinery and activity of topoisomerase II. As a result, this agent causes potent cytotoxicity. |
| Bisnafide Dimesylate | The dimesylate salt form of bisnafide, a bis-naphthalimide compound with anticancer activity. Bisnafide selectively intercalates guanine-cytosine (GC) rich regions of DNA, thereby interfering with DNA replication machinery and activity of topoisomerase II. As a result, this agent causes potent cytotoxicity. |
| Bispecific Antibody 2B1 | A monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity.  Specific for both the immunoglobulin G (IgG) receptor CD16 and c-erbB-2, bispecific antibody 2B1 may enhance cellular immune responses against c-erbB-2-positive cells, resulting in increased tumor cell lysis. (NCI04) |
| Bispecific Antibody AGEN1223 | A bispecific antibody that simultaneously binds to two different and as of yet undisclosed antigens co-expressed specifically on tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, AGEN1223 targets and binds to the two antigens co-expressed specifically on tumor-infiltrating Tregs. This leads to the selective depletion of immunosuppressive Tregs in the tumor microenvironment (TME), while sparing peripheral Tregs an... |
| Bispecific Antibody MDX447 | An antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Specific for both the high-affinity immunoglobulin G (IgG) receptor CD64 and epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), bispecific antibody MDX447 may enhance cellular immune responses against EGFR positive cells, resulting in increased tumor cell lysis. (NCI04) |
| Bispecific Antibody MDX-H210 | A humanized bivalent antibody directed against both cytotoxic effector cells expressing Fc gamma receptor type I (Fc gammaRI, or CD64) and HER2/neu-overexpressing tumor cells with potential antineoplastic activity. Bispecific antibody MDX-H210 was constructed by chemically linking Fab' fragments of the anti-HER2/neu-specific monoclonal antibody 520C9 and the Fab' fragments of the anti-Fc gammaRI-specific monoclonal antibody H22. This agent selectively binds to both HER2/neu-expressing tumor c... |
| Bispecific Antibody QLF3108 | A bispecific antibody that simultaneously binds to two different and as of yet undisclosed antigens, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, bispecific antibody QLF3108 targets and binds to the two antigens expressed on T-cells and tumor cells respectively. This may activate T-cells to kill tumor cells expressing the specific tumor-associated antigen (TAA). |
| Bispecific CD80-lgG4Fc-IL-2v Fusion Protein GI-102 | A bi-specific Fc fusion protein composed of the N-terminal ectodomain of human CD80 (B7.1) fused to a human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) Fc fragment and linked to an interleukin (IL)-2 variant (IL-2v) as a C-terminal moiety, with potential immunostimulatory, immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of bispecific CD80-IgG4Fc-IL-2v fusion protein GI-102, the CD80 moiety targets and binds to cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4) expressed ... |
| Bisthianostat | An orally bioavailable pan-inhibitor of human histone deacetylase (HDAC), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, bisthianostat selectively binds to and inhibits HDACs, which inhibits deacetylation of histone proteins and leads to the accumulation of highly acetylated histones. This may result in an induction of chromatin remodeling, the inhibition of tumor oncogene transcription, and the selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes. This prevents cell division, indu... |
| Bivalent BRD4 Inhibitor AZD5153 | An orally bioavailable bivalent inhibitor of  bromodomain-containing protein 4 (BRD4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the BRD4 inhibitor AZD5153 selectively binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs in two bromodomains in the BRD4 protein, thereby preventing the binding of BRD4 to acetylated lysines on histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and dysregulates expression of target genes, which leads to the downregulation of the expression of certa... |
| Bivalent HPV16/18 Therapeutic Cervical Cancer Vaccine | A bivalent human papillomavirus (HPV) therapeutic vaccine containing recombinant inactivated adenylate cyclase (CyaA) from Bordetella pertussis carrying a sequence encoding the E7 antigen of both HPV16 and 18, with potential immunostimulatory and antiviral properties. Upon administration of bivalent HPV16/18 therapeutic cervical cancer vaccine, the expressed proteins may activate cell-mediated immunity and induce both cytotoxic CD8+ T cells and CD4+ helper T cells against the target antigens ... |
| Bizalimogene Ralaplasmid | A DNA vaccine consisting of plasmids encoding the E6 and E7 genes of human papilloma virus (HPV) subtypes 16 and 18, respectively, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Administered via intramuscular electroporation, bizalimogene ralaplasmid expresses E6 and E7 proteins, which may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cervical cancer cells expressing E6 and E7 proteins, resulting in tumor cell lysis. HPV type 16 and HPV type 18 are the most common HP... |
| Bizaxofusp | A fusion protein consisting of the cytokine interleukin-4 (IL-4) linked to a truncated form of Pseudomonas exotoxin with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon specific, high-affinity binding to IL-4 receptors located on the tumor cell surface., bizaxofusp is internalized; the exotoxin moiety then binds to translation elongation factor 2 (EF-2), which may result in ADP ribosylation, deactivation of EF-2, inhibition of protein synthesis, and tumor cell apoptosis. The Pseudomonas exotoxin moie... |
| Bizelesin | A synthetic cyclopropylpyrroloindole antineoplastic antibiotic.  Bizelesin binds to the minor groove of DNA and induces interstrand cross-linking of DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and RNA synthesis.  Bizelesin also enhances p53 and p21 induction and triggers G2/M cell-cycle arrest, resulting in cell senescence without apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| BL22 Immunotoxin | A recombinant immunotoxin consisting of the Fv portion of the anti-CD22 antibody RFB4 fused to a fragment of Pseudomonas exotoxin-A with potential antineoplastic activity.  BL22 immunotoxin binds to CD22, an antigen expressed in B-cell malignancies, thereby delivering its toxin directly to tumor cells.  The toxin moiety induces caspase-mediated apoptosis of tumor cells via a mechanism involving mitochondrial damage; it also blocks translational elongation via binding to elongation factor-2 in... |
| Black Cohosh | A triterpene-containing herb isolated from the roots and rhizomes of the plant Cimicifuga racemosa (also known as Actaea racemosa). While the mechanism of action of black cohosh is not completely understood, it appears to act as a selective estrogen receptor modulator.  In vitro, this preparation has been shown to induce cell cycle arrest and caspase-dependent apoptosis of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells. (NCI04) |
| Black Raspberry Nectar | A concentrated fruit juice containing black raspberries, with potential antioxidant, pro-apoptotic, anti-angiogenic and chemopreventive activities. In addition to vitamins, minerals and phytosterols, black raspberries are rich in phenolic acids, such as gallic acid, ellagic acid, anthocyanidins, and flavonoids. Upon oral administration, the phytochemicals in the black raspberry nectar inhibit the activation of several signal transduction pathways involved in carcinogenesis and the expression ... |
| Bleomycin | A mixture of glycopeptide antineoplastic antibiotics isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces verticillus. Bleomycin forms complexes with iron that reduce molecular oxygen to superoxide and hydroxyl radicals which cause single- and double-stranded breaks in DNA; these reactive oxygen species also induce lipid peroxidation, carbohydrate oxidation, and alterations in prostaglandin synthesis and degradation. |
| Bleomycin A2 | The primary bleomycin species in bleomycin sulfate, a mixture of the sulfate salts of several basic glycopeptide antineoplastic antibiotics isolated from Streptomyces verticillus.  Bleomycin A2 forms complexes with iron that reduce molecular oxygen to superoxide and hydroxyl radicals which cause single- and double-stranded breaks in DNA; these reactive oxygen species also induce lipid peroxidation, carbohydrate oxidation, and alterations in prostaglandin synthesis and degradation. (NCI04) |
| Bleomycin B2 | One of the primary bleomycin species in bleomycin sulfate, a mixture of the sulfate salts of glycopeptide bleomycin A2 and B2 isolated from Streptomyces verticillus with potential antineoplastic activity. Bleomycin B2 forms complexes with iron that reduce molecular oxygen to superoxide and hydroxyl radicals which cause single- and double-stranded breaks in DNA; these reactive oxygen species also induce lipid peroxidation, carbohydrate oxidation, and alterations in prostaglandin synthesis and ... |
| Bleomycin Sulfate | A mixture of the sulfate salts of basic glycopeptide antineoplastic antibiotics isolated from Streptomyces verticillus. Bleomycin sulfate forms complexes with iron that reduce molecular oxygen to superoxide and hydroxyl radicals which cause single- and double-stranded breaks in DNA; these reactive oxygen species also induce lipid peroxidation, carbohydrate oxidation, and alterations in prostaglandin synthesis and degradation. |
| Bleximenib | An orally bioavailable protein-protein interaction (PPI) inhibitor of the menin-mixed lineage leukemia (MLL; mixed-lineage leukemia 1; MLL1; myeloid/lymphoid leukemia; histone-lysine N-methyltransferase 2A; KMT2A) proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, bleximenib inhibits the interaction between the two proteins menin and MLL and the formation of the menin-MLL complex. This reduces the expression of downstream target genes and results in an inhibition of t... |
| Blinatumomab | A recombinant, single-chain, anti-CD19/anti-CD3 bispecific monoclonal antibody with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Blinatumomab possesses two antigen-recognition sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T cell receptor (TCR), and one for CD19, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of B cells. This bispecific monoclonal antibody brings CD19-expressing tumor B-cells and cytotoxic T lymphocyt... |
| Blueberry Powder Supplement | An orally available, dietary supplement consisting of lyophilized blueberry powder, with antioxidant and potential chemopreventive and chemosensitizing activity. In addition to vitamins and minerals, blueberries are rich in phytonutrients, such as proanthocyanidins, anthocyanins (e.g. malvidin, delphinidin, pelargonidin, cyanidin, petunidin, and peonidin), hydroxycinnamic acids, hydroxybenzoic acids, pterostilbene, resveratrol, and flavonols (e.g. kaempferol, quercetin and myricetin). Althoug... |
| BMS-184476 | A 7-methylthiomethyl ether derivative of paclitaxel with antineoplastic activity.  BMS-184476 binds to and stabilizes the resulting microtubules, thereby inhibiting microtubule disassembly which results in cell- cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and apoptosis. (NCI) |
| BMS-188797 | An analog of paclitaxel with antineoplastic activity.  BMS-188797 binds to and stabilizes the resulting microtubules, thereby inhibiting microtubule disassembly which results in cell- cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and apoptosis. (NCI) |
| BMS-214662 | A nonsedating benzodiazepine derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Farnesyltransferase inhibitor BMS-214662 inhibits the enzyme farnesyltransferase and the post-translational farnesylation of number of proteins involved in signal transduction, which may result in the inhibition of Ras function and apoptosis in susceptible tumor cells. This agent may reverse the malignant phenotype of H-Ras-transformed cells and has been shown to be active against tumor cells with and without Ras ... |
| BMS-275183 | An orally available, C-4 methyl carbonate analog of paclitaxel with potential antineoplastic activity. Like paclitaxel, BMS-275183 binds to tubulin and stabilizes microtubules, thereby inhibiting microtubule disassembly which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and an induction of apoptosis. |
| Boanmycin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of boanmycin (aka bleomycin A6), a component of the antibiotic bleomycin produced by Streptomyces species, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, boanmycin forms complexes with iron that reduce molecular oxygen to superoxide and hydroxyl radicals. This causes single- and double-stranded DNA breaks which eventually leads to cell death. Compared to bleomycin, boanmycin appears to have a more favorable toxicity profile. |
| Bocodepsin Besylate | The besylate form of bocodepsin, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of the histone deacetylase (HDAC) subtypes 1 and 4, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration,bocodepsin targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of HDAC1/4. This results in an accumulation of highly acetylated chromatin histones, the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. This consequently results in a selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes, tumor suppressor... |
| Boditrectinib | An orally bioavailable, selective pan-tropomyosin-related-kinase (tyrosine receptor kinase; TRK) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, boditrectinib specifically targets and binds to TRK, TRK mutations and fusion proteins containing sequences from neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1 (NTRK1; TrkA), 2 (NTRK2; TrkB), and 3 (NTRK3; TrkC). This inhibits neurotrophin-TRK interaction and TRK activation, thereby preventing the activation of down... |
| Bomedemstat | An orally available, irreversible inhibitor of lysine-specific demethylase 1 (LSD1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, bomedemstat binds to and inhibits LSD1, a demethylase that suppresses the expression of target genes by converting the di- and mono-methylated forms of lysine at position 4 of histone H3 (H3K4) to mono- and unmethylated H3K4. LSD1 inhibition enhances H3K4 methylation and increases the expression of tumor suppressor genes. In addition, LSD1 demethyla... |
| Borofalan (10B) | A boronated phenylalanine and boron (boron-10) carrier that may be used in boron neutron capture therapy (BNCT), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, borofalan (10B) is absorbed mostly by tumor cells. When exposed to neutron irradiation, borofalan (10B) absorbs neutrons and self-destructs releasing short-range alpha radiation and 'recoil' lithium in tumor cells, resulting in alpha radiation-induced tumor cell death. This highly selective, localized radiotargeting of tu... |
| Boronophenylalanine-Fructose Complex | A boronated phenylalanine complexed with fructose to increase its solubility. When exposed to neutron irradiation, boronophenylalanine absorbs neutrons and self-destructs releasing short-range alpha radiation and 'recoil' lithium in tumor cells, resulting in alpha radiation-induced tumor cell death. This highly selective, localized radiotargeting of tumor cells, known as boron neutron capture therapy (BNCT), spares adjacent normal tissues. |
| Bortezomib | A dipeptide boronic acid analogue with antineoplastic activity. Bortezomib reversibly inhibits the 26S proteasome, a large protease complex that degrades ubiquinated proteins. By blocking the targeted proteolysis normally performed by the proteasome, bortezomib disrupts various cell signaling pathways, leading to cell cycle arrest, apoptosis, and inhibition of angiogenesis. Specifically, the agent inhibits nuclear factor (NF)-kappaB, a protein that is constitutively activated in some cancers,... |
| Boserolimab | A humanized agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the cell surface antigen CD27, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, boserolimab targets and binds to CD27 on a variety of immune cell types, including most T-lymphocytes. This induces CD27-dependent signaling pathways and enhances T-cell-mediated responses, including the expansion of antigen-activated T-cells and the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. CD2... |
| Bosmolisib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of phosphoinositide 3-kinase delta (PI3-kinase subunit delta; PI3K-delta; PI3Kdelta) and DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, bosmolisib inhibits the activity of both PI3K-delta and DNA-PK. This prevents PI3K-mediated signaling pathways and may lead to the inhibition of cancer cell growth in PI3K-overexpressing tumor cells. Specifically, since PI3K regulates c-myc expres... |
| Bosutinib | A synthetic quinolone derivative and dual kinase inhibitor that targets both Abl and Src kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Unlike imatinib, bosutinib inhibits the autophosphorylation of both Abl and Src kinases, resulting in inhibition of cell growth and apoptosis. Because of the dual mechanism of action, this agent may have activity in resistant CML disease, other myeloid malignancies and solid tumors. Abl kinase is upregulated in the presence of the abnormal Bcr-abl fusion pro... |
| Bosutinib Monohydrate | The monohydrate form of bosutinib, a synthetic quinolone derivative and dual kinase inhibitor that targets both Abl and Src kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Unlike imatinib, bosutinib inhibits the autophosphorylation of both Abl and Src kinases, resulting in inhibition of cell growth and apoptosis. Because of the dual mechanism of action, this agent may have activity in resistant CML disease, other myeloid malignancies and solid tumors. Abl kinase is upregulated in the presence... |
| Botanical Agent BEL-X-HG | An orally available botanically-based agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the components in BEL-X-HG may exert cytotoxic effects against cancer cells. |
| Botanical Agent LEAC-102 | A botanical-based formulation derived from the Taiwanese mushroom Antrodia cinnamomea, with potential antineoplastic activity, Upon administration, the components in LEAC-102 may exert cytotoxic effects against cancer cells. |
| Botensilimab | An Fc-engineered recombinant human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4), with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody  botensilimab binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cance... |
| Bovine Cartilage | Cartilage extracted from various parts of a cow and is proposed to stimulate the immune system and inhibit tumor cell growth.  It was used in the 1950s and 60s to enhance wound healing. (NCI) |
| BP-Cx1-Platinum Complex BP-C1 | A combination agent composed of the benzo-poly-carbonic-acid polymer BP-Cx1 chelated to platinum with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intramuscular injection, the polymer moiety of BP-Cx1-Platinum Complex BP-C1 (BP-C1) alters the permeability of the cell membranes, which allows for increased penetration of platinum into tumor cells. In turn, platinum binds to nucleophilic groups such as GC-rich sites in DNA and induces intrastrand and interstrand DNA cross-links, as well as DNA-protei... |
| BR96-Doxorubicin Immunoconjugate | An antibody-drug conjugate composed of the chimeric monoclonal antibody BR96 chemically linked to the cytotoxic drug doxorubicin.  The antibody moiety of BMS-182248-1 binds to Lewis Y, a cell surface antigen expressed on many solid tumor types.  Thus, the doxorubicin conjugate is targeted specifically to Lewis Y-expressing tumor cells, where it intercalates with DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair, RNA synthesis and protein synthesis. (NCI) |
| Brachyury-expressing Modified Vaccinia Ankara-TRICOM Vaccine | A cancer vaccine composed of a replication-deficient, attenuated derivative of the vaccinia virus strain Ankara expressing both a CD8+ T-cell epitope from the brachyury protein and a triad of T-cell co-stimulatory molecules (MVA Brachyury-TRICOM), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration of the brachyury-expressing modified vaccinia Ankara (MVA)-TRICOM vaccine, the expressed brachyury protein induces specific CD8+ and CD4+ T-cell response... |
| Brachyury-expressing Yeast Vaccine GI-6301 | A cancer vaccine composed of a heat-killed, recombinant form of the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae that is genetically modified to express the transcription factor brachyury protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, the brachyury-expressing yeast vaccine GI-6301 is recognized by dendritic cells, processed, and presented by Class I and II MHC molecules on the dendritic cell surface. This elicits a targeted CD4+ and CD8+ T-lymphocyte-mediated immune resp... |
| BRAF Inhibitor ARQ 736 | An orally bioavailable, highly soluble phosphate prodrug of B-raf (BRAF) protein kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. BRAF inhibitor ARQ 736 is converted into its active form ARQ 680 in the presence of phosphatases. In turn, ARQ 680 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of oncogenic B-raf, which may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells expressing mutated B-raf gene. B-raf belongs to the raf/mil family of serine/threonine protein kinases and plays a role in regulating th... |
| BRAF Inhibitor LUT014 | A topically bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of serine/threonine-protein kinase B-raf (BRAF) protein with potential chemoprotective activity. Upon topical administration, BRAF inhibitor LUT014 targets and binds BRAF and, through the paradoxical effect of BRAF inhibition, induces mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) signaling, which leads to the proliferation and migration of healthy human keratinocytes. This decreases dermal toxicities associated with epidermal growth factor (EGFR) in... |
| BRAF V600E Degrader CFT1946 | An orally bioavailable heterobifunctional protein degrader of the v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF) mutant V600E, with potential antineoplastic activity. CFT1946 is comprised of a cereblon (CRBN)-binding moiety and a BRAF V600E-binding moiety. Upon oral administration, BRAF V600E degrader CFT1946 targets and binds to BRAF V600E with its BRAF V600E-binding moiety. Upon BRAF V600E binding, the CRBN-binding moiety binds to CRBN, a component of the CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligas... |
| BRAF V600E Inhibitor HLX208 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF) mutant V600E, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BRAF V600E inhibitor HLX208 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of BRAF V600E kinase, which may result in the inhibition of an over-activated MAPK signaling pathway downstream in BRAF(V600E) kinase-expressing tumor cells and a reduction in tumor cell proliferation. BRAF belongs to the raf/mil fa... |
| BRAF(V600E) Kinase Inhibitor ABM-1310 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of mutant (V600E) v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BRAF(V600E) kinase inhibitor ABM-1310 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of BRAF(V600E) kinase, which may result in the inhibition of an over-activated MAPK signaling pathway downstream in BRAF(V600E) kinase-expressing tumor cells and a reduction in tumor cell proliferation. BRAF belongs to the ra... |
| BRAF(V600E) Kinase Inhibitor RO5212054 | An orally available small-molecule inhibitor of mutant (V600E) v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF) with potential antineoplastic activity. BRAF(V600E) kinase inhibitor RO5212054 selectively binds to the ATP-binding site of BRAF(V600E) kinase and inhibits its activity, which may result in an inhibition of an over-activated MAPK signaling pathway downstream in BRAF(V600E) kinase-expressing tumor cells and a reduction in tumor cell proliferation. The valine to glutamic acid sub... |
| B-Raf/VEGFR-2 Inhibitor RAF265 | An orally bioavailable small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. CHIR-265 binds and inhibits Raf kinases, which may result in a reduction of tumor cell growth and proliferation, and tumor cell death. In addition, this agent inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR-2), thereby disrupting tumor angiogenesis. Raf kinases are critical enzymes in the Ras/Raf/MEK/ERK signaling pathway and are frequently upregulated in neoplasms. |
| BRAF585-614 (V600E) Peptide | A mutated neoantigen peptide consisting of amino acids 585 through 614 of the v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF; B-raf) and containing the specific mutation V600E, and to which a histidine has been added to the N-terminus, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the BRAF585-614 (V600E) peptide may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells expressing the mutate... |
| BRAFV600/PI3K Inhibitor ASN003 | A selective inhibitor of mutated forms of B-RAF kinase at amino acid position 600 (BRAFV600), including BRAFV600E, the alpha, delta and, to a lesser extent, beta isoforms of phosphatidylinositide 3-kinase (PI3K), including mutated forms of PI3KCA, which encodes the p110-alpha catalytic subunit of the class I PI3K, and the phosphatase and tensin homologs (PTEN) with loss-of-function mutation, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of ASN003, this agent selectively targets,... |
| Brain Tumor Initiating Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine comprised of brain tumor initiating cells (BTICs), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activity. BITCs are from the glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) cell line GBM-6 and contain glioma stem-like cell-associated antigens. Upon administration, the BITC vaccine may stimulate a specific anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against brain tumor cancer cells and brain tumor stem like cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. BITC have unique antigeni... |
| Branched-chain Amino Acid Supplement | A nutritional supplement containing essential branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs), including leucine, isoleucine and valine, with potential anti-cachectic, antiangiogenic, hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) inhibiting and hepatoprotective activities. Upon oral administration, BCAAs inhibit the expression of both hypoxia-inducible factor 1-alpha subunit (HIF-1a) and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), which prevents VEGF-mediated angiogenesis in HCC cells. In addition, BCAAs inhibit prolifer... |
| BRD4 Inhibitor PLX2853 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the bromodomain-containing protein 4 (BRD4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the BRD4 inhibitor PLX2853 binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs in the bromodomains of the BRD4 protein, thereby preventing the binding of BRD4 to acetylated lysines on histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and dyregulates gene expression. This may lead to the downregulation of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes, w... |
| BRD4 Inhibitor PLX51107 | An inhibitor of the bromodomain-containing protein 4 (BRD4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the BRD4 inhibitor PLX51107 binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs in the bromodomains of the BRD4 protein, thereby preventing the binding of BRD4 to acetylated lysines on histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may lead to an induction of apoptosis and an inhibition of prol... |
| BRD4 Protein Degrader RNK05047 | A small molecule, chaperone-mediated protein degrader of bromodomain-containing protein 4 (BRD4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of BRD4 protein degrader RNK05047, a BRD4-binding moiety targets and binds to BRD4, and a chaperone-binding moiety targets and binds to the chaperone protein heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90). This results in the Hsp90-mediated proteasomal degradation of BRD4 by the ubiquitin-proteasome system, and dysregulates gene expression. T... |
| BRD9 Degrader FHD-609 | A protein degrader of bromodomain-containing protein 9 (BRD9; sarcoma antigen NY-SAR-29; rhabdomyosarcoma antigen MU-RMS-40.8), with potential antineoplastic activity. FHD-609 is comprised of an E3 ligase-binding moiety and a BRD9-binding moiety. Upon administration, BRD9 degrader FHD-609 targets and binds to BRD9 with its BRD9-binding moiety. Upon BRD9 binding, the E3 ligase-binding moiety binds to a receptor on the E3 ligase complex which directs proteins for destruction, resulting in the d... |
| Breflate | A water soluble analogue of the antineoplastic agent brefeldin A (BFA). (NCI04) |
| Brentuximab | A genetically-engineered, chimeric mouse-human, anti-CD30 monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Brentuximab specifically binds to the receptor CD-30, a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor super-family, which may be overexpressed on the surfaces of Hodgkin lymphoma cells and anaplastic-large cell lymphoma cells. After binding to CD30, this agent interferes with the G1 phase of the cell cycle, thereby inducing growth arrest and apoptosis in susceptible tumor cell ... |
| Brentuximab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) directed against the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor CD30 with potential antineoplastic activity. Brentuximab vedotin is generated by conjugating the chimeric anti-CD30 monoclonal antibody SGN-30 to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE) via a valine-citrulline peptide linker. Upon administration and internalization by CD30-positive tumor cells, brentuximab vedotin undergoes enzymatic cleavage, releasing MMAE into the cytosol; MMAE binds to tu... |
| Brequinar | A synthetic quinolinecarboxylic acid analogue with antineoplastic properties.  Brequinar inhibits the enzyme dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, thereby blocking de novo pyrimidine biosynthesis.  This agent may also enhance the in vivo antitumor effect of antineoplastic agents such as 5-FU. (NCI04) |
| Brequinar Sodium | The sodium salt form of Brequinar.  Brequinar inhibits the enzyme dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, thereby blocking de novo pyrimidine biosynthesis.  This agent may also enhance the in vivo antitumor effect of antineoplastic agents such as 5-FU. (NCI04) |
| Brexucabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood T-lymphocytes (PBTL) that have been transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment (scFv) coupled to the costimulatory signaling domain CD28 and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3 complex (CD3 zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous infusion and re-introduction of abrexucabtagene autoleucel into th... |
| Briciclib Sodium | A benzyl styryl sulfone analog, and a disodium phosphate ester prodrug of ON 013100, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon hydrolysis, briciclib is converted to ON 013100, which blocks cyclin D mRNA translation and decreases protein expression of cyclin D. This may induce cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in cancer cells overexpressing cyclin D and eventually decrease tumor cell proliferation. This agent may exhibit synergistic antitumor activity in combination with other chemotherapeuti... |
| Brigatinib | An orally available inhibitor of receptor tyrosine kinases anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Brigatinib binds to and inhibits ALK kinase and ALK fusion proteins as well as EGFR and mutant forms. This leads to the inhibition of ALK kinase and EGFR kinase, disrupts their signaling pathways and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in susceptible tumor cells. In addition, AP26113 appears to overcome mutation-b... |
| Brigimadlin | An orally available inhibitor of murine double minute 2 (MDM2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, brigimadlin binds to MDM2 protein and prevents its binding to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing MDM2-p53 interaction, the transcriptional activity of p53 is restored. This leads to p53-mediated induction of tumor cell apoptosis. Compared to currently available MDM2 inhibitors, the pharmacokinetic properties of ... |
| Brilanestrant | An orally available, nonsteroidal selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, brilanestrant binds to the estrogen receptor and induces a conformational change that results in the degradation of the receptor. This may inhibit the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Brimarafenib | An orally available inhibitor of both monomer and dimer forms of activating mutations of the serine/threonine-protein kinase BRAF (B-raf) protein, including V600 BRAF mutations, non-V600 BRAF mutations, and RAF fusions, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, brimarafenib targets and binds to both monomeric and dimeric forms of activating BRAF mutations and fusions. This may result in the inhibition of BRAF-mediated signaling and inhibit proliferation in tumor cells expre... |
| Briquilimab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against CD117 (tyrosine-protein kinase KIT; c-Kit; mast/stem cell growth factor receptor; SCFR), that can potentially be used to deplete hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs). Upon administration, briquilimab targets and binds to CD117. This prevents the binding of stem cell factor (SCF) to its receptor CD117 on HSCs.  As CD117 binding to SCF is critical for survival and maintenance of blood forming stem cells, blocking this interaction causes the HSCs that ... |
| Brivanib | A pyrrolotriazine-based compound and an inhibitor of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor-2 (VEGFR-2) with potential antineoplastic activity. BMS-540215 specifically targets and binds strongly to human VEGFR-2, a tyrosine kinase receptor and pro-angiogenic growth factor expressed almost exclusively on vascular endothelial cells. Blockade of VEGFR-2 by this agent may lead to an inhibition of VEGF-stimulated endothelial cell migration and proliferation, thereby inhibiting tumor angiogene... |
| Brivanib Alaninate | The alaninate salt of a vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Brivanib strongly binds to and inhibits VEGFR2, a tyrosine kinase receptor expressed almost exclusively on vascular endothelial cells; inhibition of VEGFR2 may result in inhibition of tumor angiogenesis, inhibition of tumor cell growth, and tumor regression. |
| Brivestobart | A monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory receptor lymphocyte-activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, brivestobart targets and binds to LAG-3 expressed by tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks the interaction between LAG-3 and major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC II) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and tumor cells. This prevents the n... |
| Brivudine | A uridine derivative and nucleoside analog with pro-apoptotic and chemosensitizing properties. In vitro, bromovinyl-deoxyuridine (BVDU) has been shown to downregulate the multifunctional DNA repair enzyme APEX nuclease 1, resulting in the inhibition of DNA repair and the induction of apoptosis. In addition, this agent may inhibit the expression of STAT3 (signal transducer and activator of transcription 3), which may result in the downregulation of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). BV... |
| Brivudine Phosphoramidate | A small molecule phosphoramidate derivative of (E)-5-(2-bromovinyl)-2'-deoxyuridine (BVdU) with potential antineoplastic activity. Selectively active against tumor cells expressing high levels of thymidylate synthase (TS), brivudine is converted intracellularly by TS to bromovinyldeoxyuridine monophosphate (BVdUMP) which competes with the natural substrate, deoxyuridine monophosphate, for binding to TS. Unlike TS inhibitors, this agent is a reversible substrate for TS catalysis. Thus, TS reta... |
| Broad-Spectrum Human Papillomavirus Vaccine V505 | A non-infectious recombinant cancer vaccine prepared from the human papillomavirus (HPV) with potential immunoprophylactic activity. Vaccination with broad-spectrum human papillomavirus vaccine V505 may stimulate the host immune system to mount humoral and cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) responses against HPV-infected cells. HPV infection, the cause of genital warts, is a risk factor for the development of cancers of the cervix, vagina, vulva, anus, and penis. |
| Broccoli Sprout/Broccoli Seed Extract Supplement | A tablet-based nutritional supplement composed of a mixture of sprout and seed extracts of the cruciferous vegetable broccoli, with potential chemopreventive and antioxidant activities. Broccoli sprout/broccoli seed extract contains a high amount of both the glycosinolate glucoraphanin and the enzyme myrosinase, which catalyzes the production of glucoraphanin to sulforaphane. Upon administration of the broccoli sprout/broccoli seed extract, sulforaphane activates the transcription factor NF-E... |
| Bromacrylide | A propenamide-based agent with antineoplastic activity. Bromacrylide has been shown to decrease tumor growth in animal models, but is accompanied with severe toxicity, including severe bone marrow suppression and weight loss. |
| Bromebric Acid | A derivative of bromoacrylic acid with cytostatic and antineoplastic activity. Bromebric acid appears to inhibit purine synthesis, oxidative phosphorylation and DNA synthesis. This agent inhibits tumor cell growth and causes cell cycle arrest. This agent may also have some use in the phrophylaxis of migraine. |
| Bromelains/Boswellia Serrata Supplement | A nutritional supplement composed of bromelains, enzymes found in pineapple juice and in the pineapple stem, and an extract from the boswellia serrata tree, that can potentially be used to reduce edema, paresthesia and pain. Upon oral administration of bromelains/boswellia serrata supplement, the bromelains may reduce inflammation, pain and swelling. The boswellia serrata extract containing active boswellic acids, appears to have anti-inflammatory effects, may suppress pain and reduce edema, ... |
| Bromocriptine Mesylate | The mesylate salt of bromocriptine, a semisynthetic ergot alkaloid with dopaminergic, antidyskinetic, and antiprolactinemic activities. Bromocriptine selectively binds to and activates postsynaptic dopamine D2 receptors in the corpus striatum of the central nervous system (CNS). Activation of these D2 receptors activate inhibitory G-proteins, which inhibit adenylyl cyclase, preventing signal transduction mediated via cAMP and resulting in the inhibition of neurotransmission and an antidyskine... |
| Brontictuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the Notch-1 receptor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, brontictuzumab binds to Notch-1 on the cell surface, thereby inhibiting Notch-mediated signaling and tumor cell proliferation. Notch 1, a type 1 transmembrane protein belonging to the Notch family, functions as a receptor for membrane bound ligands and has various roles during development; dysregulated Notch signaling is associated with increased cell growth and c... |
| Brostacillin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of brostacillin, a synthetic, alpha-bromoacrylic, second-generation minor groove binder (MGB), related to distamycin A, with potential antineoplastic activity. Brostallicin binds to DNA minor groove DNA, after having formed a highly reactive glutathione (GSH)-brostallicin complex in the presence of the enzyme glutathione S-transferase (GST), which is overexpressed in cancer cells; DNA replication and cell division are inhibited, resulting in tumor cell death. Compa... |
| Brostallicin | A synthetic, alpha-bromoacrylic, second-generation minor groove binder (MGB), related to distamycin A, with potential antineoplastic activity. Brostallicin binds to DNA minor groove DNA, after having formed a highly reactive glutathione (GSH)-brostallicin complex in the presence of the enzyme glutathione S-transferase (GST), which is overexpressed in cancer cells; DNA replication and cell division are inhibited, resulting in tumor cell death. Compared to typical MGBs, this agent appears to bi... |
| Broxuridine | A halogenated thymidine analogue with potential antineoplastic and radiosensitizing activities. Bromodeoxyuridine competes with thymidine for incorporation into DNA, resulting in DNA mutation and the inhibition of cell proliferation. As a radiosensitizer, this agent is associated with the inhibition of repair of radiation-induced DNA double-strand breaks. |
| Bruceanol A | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from the plant Brucea antidysenterica with potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Bruceanol B | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from the plant Brucea antidysenterica with potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Bruceanol C | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from the plant Brucea antidysenterica with potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Bruceanol D | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated form the plant Brucea antidysenterica with potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Bruceanol E | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from the plant Brucea antidysenterica with potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Bruceanol F | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from the plant Brucea antidysenterica with potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Bruceanol G | A natural quassinoid agent extracted from Brucea antidysenterica with potential antineoplastic activity that is cytotoxic to certain cancer cell lines. (NCI04) |
| Bruceanol H | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from the plant Brucea antidysenterica with potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Bruceantin | A triterpene quassinoid antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the plant Brucea antidysenterica.  Bruceantin inhibits the peptidyl transferase elongation reaction, resulting in decreased protein and DNA synthesis.  Bruceantin also has antiamoebic and antimalarial activity. (NCI04) |
| Bryostatin 1 | A macrocyclic lactone isolated from the bryozoan Bugula neritina with antineoplastic activity.  Bryostatin 1 binds to and inhibits the cell-signaling enzyme protein kinase C, resulting in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation, the promotion of tumor cell differentiation, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. This agent may act synergistically with other chemotherapeutic agents. (NCI04) |
| BTK Degrader ABBV-101 | An orally bioavailable, targeted degrader of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase) comprised of an E3 ubiquitin ligase binding moiety conjugated, via a linker, to a BTK-binding moiety, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of BTK degrader ABBV-101, the BTK-targeting moiety targets and binds to BTK, and the E3 ligase-binding moiety targets and binds to E3 ubiquitin ligase. This catalyzes ubiquitination and proteasome-mediated degra... |
| BTK Degrader AC0676 | An orally bioavailable chimeric degrader of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) comprised of an E3 ubiquitin ligase ligand conjugated to a BTK-binding ligand, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BTK degrader AC0676 specifically targets and binds to, with its BTK-targeting moiety, wild-type (WT) and various mutant forms, including, but not limited to, C481S and L528W. Upon binding, the E3 ubiquitin ligase ligand moiety binds to E3 ubiquitin ligase. This catalyzes ubiqu... |
| BTK Degrader BGB-16673 | An orally bioavailable, targeted degrader of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase) by using the proteolysis targeting chimera (PROTAC) technology, with potential antineoplastic activity. BGB-16673 is comprised of an E3 ubiquitin ligase binding moiety conjugated, via a linker, to a BTK-binding moiety. Upon oral administration, BTK degrader BGB-16673 targets and binds to BTK with its BTK-targeting moiety, thereby inhibiting its activity. Upon binding, the E3 ... |
| BTK Degrader HSK29116 | An orally bioavailable chimeric targeting molecule (CTM) and targeted degrader of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase) by using the proteolysis targeting chimera (PROTAC) technology, with potential antineoplastic activity. HSK29116 is comprised of an E3 ubiquitin ligase binding moiety conjugated, via a linker, to a BTK-binding moiety. Upon oral administration, BTK degrader HSK29116 targets and binds to BTK with its BTK-targeting moiety, thereby inhibiting ... |
| BTK Degrader NX-5948 | An orally bioavailable chimeric targeting molecule (CTM) and targeted degrader of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. NX-5948 is comprised of a cereblon (CRBN)-binding moiety conjugated, via a linker, to a BTK-binding moiety. Upon oral administration, BTK degrader NX-5948 targets and binds to BTK with its BTK-targeting moiety. Upon binding, the CRBN-binding moiety recruits CRBN, a component of the CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. This catalyzes ubiqui... |
| BTK Inhibitor ABBV-992 | An orally bioavailable and irreversible covalent inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BTK inhibitor ABBV-992 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress B... |
| BTK Inhibitor CT-1530 | An inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CT-1530 binds to and inhibits the activity of BTK. This prevents both the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the Src-related BTK/Tec family of cytoplas... |
| BTK Inhibitor DTRMWXHS-12 | An orally available inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, DTRMWXHS-12 inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the... |
| BTK Inhibitor GB5121 | An orally bioavailable, central nervous system (CNS)-penetrating, irreversible covalent inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BTK inhibitor GB5121 selectively targets, irriversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an in... |
| BTK Inhibitor HMPL-760 | A third-generation, reversible inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, BTK inhibitor HMPL-760 non-covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of both wild-type and the C481S mutated form of BTK, a resistance mutation in the BTK active site in which cysteine is substituted for serine at residue 481. This prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway an... |
| BTK Inhibitor HZ-A-018 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, BTK inhibitor HZ-A-018 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of malignant B cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the src-re... |
| BTK Inhibitor JNJ-64264681 | An orally bioavailable and irreversible covalent inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, BTK inhibitor JNJ-64264681 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of malignant B cells that overexpress BT... |
| BTK Inhibitor TL-895 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BTK inhibitor TL-895 targets and covalently binds to BTK, thereby preventing its activity. This leads to an inhibition of B cell receptor (BCR) signaling and inhibits cell proliferation of B-cell malignancies. BTK, a cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase and member of the Tec family of kinases, plays an important role in B lymphocyte development, activation, s... |
| BTK Inhibitor TQB3702 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BTK inhibitor TQB3702 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of BTK. This prevents both the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a memb... |
| BTK Inhibitor TT-01488 | An orally bioavailable reversible inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BTK inhibitor TT-01488 non-covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of BTK, including the C481S mutated form, a resistance mutation in the BTK active site in which cysteine is substituted for serine at residue 481. This prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway and B... |
| Budigalimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1, PCD-1; PDCD1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody ABBV-181 targets and binds to PD-1, thereby blocking its binding to the PD-1 ligand, programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1), and preventing the activation of PD-1/PD-L1 downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune fu... |
| Budotitane | A titanium metal complex, coordinated with asymmetric beta-diketonate ligands, with antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action remains to be elucidated, budotitane potentially binds either to macromolecules via coordinative covalent bonds, or via intercalation between nucleic acids strands by the aromatic ring of the beta-diketonate. In addition, this agent appears to cause cardiac arrhythmias and is toxic to the liver and kidneys at higher doses. The development of budot... |
| Bufalin | An active ingredient and one of the glycosides in the traditional Chinese medicine ChanSu; it is also a bufadienolide toxin originally isolated from the venom of the Chinese toad Bufo gargarizans, with potential cardiotonic and antineoplastic activity. Although the mechanism of action of bufalin is still under investigation, this agent is a specific Na+/K+-ATPase inhibitor and can induce apoptosis in cancer cell lines through the activation of the transcription factor AP-1 via a mitogen activ... |
| Bulumtatug Fuvedotin | An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) composed of bulumtatug, a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface adhesion molecule and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) nectin-4 (PVRL4), site-specifically conjugated, via a linker, to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of bulumtatug fuvedotin, the anti-nectin-4 antibody targets and binds to nectin-4 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, MM... |
| Buparlisib | An orally bioavailable specific oral inhibitor of the pan-class I phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) family of lipid kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Buparlisib specifically inhibits class I PI3K in the PI3K/AKT kinase (or protein kinase B) signaling pathway in an ATP-competitive manner, thereby inhibiting the production of the secondary messenger phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate and activation of the PI3K signaling pathway. This may result in inhibition of tumor cell... |
| Burixafor | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of CXC chemokine receptor 4 (CXCR4) with receptor binding and hematopoietic stem cell-mobilization activities. Burixafor binds to the chemokine receptor CXCR4, thereby preventing the binding of stromal derived factor-1 (SDF-1 or CXCL12) to the CXCR4 receptor and subsequent receptor activation; this may induce the mobilization of hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells from the bone marrow into blood. CXCR4, a chemokine receptor belonging to the G protein-coupl... |
| Burixafor Hydrobromide | The hydrobromide salt form of burixafor, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of CXC chemokine receptor 4 (CXCR4) with hematopoietic stem cell (HSC)-mobilization and chemosensitizing activities. Upon administration, burixafor binds to the chemokine receptor CXCR4, thereby preventing the binding of stromal cell-derived factor-1 (SDF-1 or CXCL12) to the CXCR4 receptor and subsequent receptor activation. This may induce the mobilization of hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells from the bone marrow... |
| Burosumab | An orally bioavailable recombinant human immunoglobulin G1 monoclonal antibody directed against human fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF23), that can be used to increase serum phosphate levels. Upon subcutaneous administration, burosumab binds to and inhibits FGF23, thereby interfering with FGF23 signaling. This increases tubular phosphate reabsorption, decreases excretion of phosphate, and increases serum phosphate levels, resulting in enhanced bone mineralization. FGF23, a member of the fibro... |
| Buserelin | A synthetic analog of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).  Buserelin binds to and activates pituitary gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) receptors.  Prolonged administration of buserelin results in sustained inhibition of gonadotropin production, suppression of testicular and ovarian steroidogenesis, and reduced levels of circulating gonadotropin and gonadal steroids. Buserelin is more potent that GnRH. (NCI04) |
| Bushen Culuan Decoction | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) decoction containing a mixture of ten Chinese herbs including Tusizi, Yinyanghuo, Xianmao, Xuduan, Gouqizi, Nvzhenzi, Zelan, Shengpuhuang, Xiangfu and Chuanshanlong, with potential to induce ovulation. Upon oral administration, Bushen Culuan decoction may, through a not yet fully elucidated mechanism, depress follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels, elevate anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH) levels, and increase the number of antral follicle counts (AFCs), the... |
| Bushen-Jianpi Decoction | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) that is used for Yin deficiency of the liver, kidney and spleen, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Bushen-Jianpi decoction (BSJPD; BJD) consists of various herbs, including, but not limited to, Radix Codonopsis (Dang Shen), Fructus Lycii (the fruit of Chinese wolfberry), Rhizoma Atractylodis Macrocephalae (Baishu; Bai Zhu), Fructus Ligustri Lucidi, Cuscuta chinensis (Chinese dodder) seed, and Psoralea corylifolia Linn. As a TCM... |
| Busulfan | A synthetic derivative of dimethane-sulfonate with antineoplastic and cytotoxic properties.  Although its mechanism of action is not fully understood, busulfan appears to act through the alkylation of DNA.  Following systemic absorption of busulfan, carbonium ions are formed, resulting in DNA alkylation and DNA breaks and inhibition of DNA replication and RNA transcription. (NCI04) |
| Buthionine Sulfoximine | A synthetic amino acid. Buthionine sulfoximine irreversibly inhibits gamma-glutamylcysteine synthase, thereby depleting cells of glutathione, a metabolite that plays a critical role in protecting cells against oxidative stress, and resulting in free radical-induced apoptosis. Elevated glutathione levels are associated with tumor cell resistance to alkylating agents and platinum compounds. By depleting cells of glutathione, this agent may enhance the in vitro and in vivo cytotoxicities of vari... |
| BXQ-350 Nanovesicle Formulation | A stable, nanovesicle formulation composed of a synthetic form of the human glycoprotein saposin C (SapC) linked to the phospholipid dioleoylphosphatidylserine (DOPS), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the BXQ-350 nanovesicle formulation selectively targets and preferentially accumulates in tumor vessels and cells, due to the leaky nature of tumor vasculature and the presence of phosphatidylserine (PS) lipids in tumor cell membranes. Upon binding to the ... |
| Cabazitaxel | A semi-synthetic derivative of the natural taxoid 10-deacetylbaccatin III with potential antineoplastic activity. Cabazitaxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin, resulting in the inhibition of microtubule depolymerization and cell division, cell cycle arrest in the G2/M phase, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Unlike other taxane compounds, this agent is a poor substrate for the membrane-associated, multidrug resistance (MDR), P-glycoprotein (P-gp) efflux pump and may be useful for... |
| Cabiralizumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tyrosine kinase receptor colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R), also known as macrophage colony-stimulating factor receptor (M-CSFR) and CD115 (cluster of differentiation 115), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CSF1R monoclonal antibody FPA008 binds to CSF1R expressed on monocytes, macrophages, and osteoclasts and inhibits the binding of the CSF1R ligands colony-stimulating factor-1 (CSF-1) and... |
| Cabozantinib | An orally bioavailable, small molecule receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Cabozantinib strongly binds to and inhibits several RTKs, which are often overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, including hepatocyte growth factor receptor (MET), RET (rearranged during transfection), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor types 1 (VEGFR-1), 2 (VEGFR-2), and 3 (VEGFR-3), mast/stem cell growth factor (KIT), FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT-3), ... |
| Cabozantinib S-malate | The s-malate salt form of cabozantinib, an orally bioavailable, small molecule receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Cabozantinib strongly binds to and inhibits several RTKs, which are often overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, including hepatocyte growth factor receptor (MET), RET (rearranged during transfection), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor types 1 (VEGFR-1), 2 (VEGFR-2), and 3 (VEGFR-3), mast/stem cell growth factor (KI... |
| Cactinomycin | A chromopeptide antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces chrysomallus.  Cactinomycin binds to DNA by intercalating between guanine and cytosine, forming stable antibiotic-DNA complexes that inhibit RNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Cadonilimab | A bispecific antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, cadonilimab targets and binds to both PD-1 and CTLA4 expressed on tumor-infiltrating T lymphocytes (TILs), and inhibits the PD-1- and CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation an... |
| Cafelkibart | A monoclonal antibody against C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, cafelkibart targets, binds to and blocks the activity of CCR8 on CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and prevents chemokine ligand 1 (CCL1)-CCR8-mediated signaling. This may reactivate antitumor immune responses. CCR8 is specifically expressed by tumor-infiltrating Tregs in multiple types ... |
| Caffeic Acid Phenethyl Ester | The phenethyl alcohol ester of caffeic acid and a bioactive component of honeybee hive propolis, with antineoplastic, cytoprotective and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, caffeic acid phenethyl ester (CAPE) inhibits the activation of nuclear transcription factor NF-kappa B and may suppress p70S6K and Akt-driven signaling pathways. In addition, CAPE inhibits PDGF-induced proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells through the activation of p38 mitogen-activated protein kinase... |
| CAIX Inhibitor DTP348 | An orally bioavailable, nitroimidazole-based sulfamide, carbonic anhydrase IX (CAIX) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CAIX inhibitor DTP348 inhibits tumor-associated CAIX, a hypoxia-inducible transmembrane glycoprotein that catalyzes the reversible reaction and rapid interconversion of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid, protons, and bicarbonate ions. This prevents the acidification of the tumor's extracellular microenvironment and decreases the in... |
| CAIX Inhibitor SLC-0111 | A sulfonamide carbonic anhydrase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CAIX inhibitor SLC-0111 inhibits tumor-associated carbonic anhydrase IX (CAIX), an hypoxia-inducible transmembrane glycoprotein that catalyzes the reversible reaction and rapid interconversion of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid, protons, and bicarbonate ions. This prevents both the acidification of the tumor's extracellular microenvironment and cytoplasmic alkalization. This incre... |
| Calaspargase Pegol | An intravenous formulation containing E.coli-derived L-asparaginase II conjugated with succinimidyl carbonate monomethoxypolyethylene glycol (SC-PEG), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of calaspargase pegol, L-asparaginase hydrolyzes L-asparagine to L-aspartic acid and ammonia, thereby depleting cells of asparagine; asparagine depletion blocks protein synthesis and tumor cell proliferation, especially in the G1 phase of the cell cycle and ultimately induces tumor cel... |
| Calcitriol | A synthetic physiologically-active analog of vitamin D, specifically the vitamin D3 form.  Calcitriol regulates calcium in vivo by promoting absorption in the intestine, reabsorption in the kidneys, and, along with parathyroid hormone, regulation of bone growth.  A calcitriol receptor-binding protein appears to exist in the mucosa of human intestine. Calcitriol also induces cell cycle arrest at G0/G1 phase of the cell cycle, cell differentiation, and apoptosis, resulting in inhibition of prol... |
| Calcium Release-activated Channels Inhibitor RP4010 | A calcium (Ca2+) release-activated channel (CRAC) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, RP4010 binds to and inhibits CRACs, thereby preventing the transport of extracellular Ca2+ into the cell and inhibiting the subsequent activation of Ca2+-mediated signaling and transcription of target genes. CRACs, specialized plasma membrane Ca2+ ion channels composed of the plasma membrane based Orai channels and the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stromal interaction molecul... |
| Calcium Saccharate | The calcium salt form of glucaric acid, a natural substance found in many fruits and vegetables, with potential anti-cancer property. One of the key processes in which the human body eliminates toxic chemicals as well as hormones (such as estrogen) is by attaching glucuronic acid to them in the liver and then excreting the complex in the bile. When beta-glucuronidase breaks the bond, it prolongs the stay of the hormone or toxic chemical in the body. Elevated beta-glucuronidase activity has be... |
| Calculus bovis/Moschus/Olibanum/Myrrha Capsule | An orally available traditional Chinese medicine (TCM)-based capsule formulation containing Calculus bovis, the dried gallstones of cattle, Moschus, also referred to as deer musk, the resin Olibanum and the resin Myrrha, with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities. Although the exact mechanisms of action through which the active ingredients in the Calculus bovis/Moschus/Olibanum/Myrrha capsule elicit their effects have yet to be fully elucidated, they may, upon intake, exert ... |
| Caldonirimab | A bispecific antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, caldonirimab targets and binds to both PD-1 and CTLA4 expressed on tumor-infiltrating T lymphocytes (TILs), and inhibits the PD-1- and CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation a... |
| Calicheamicin Gamma 1I | An oligosaccharide enediyne antitumor antibiotic isolated from Micromonospora echinospora ssp. Calichensis.  Calicheamicin Gamma 1I binds to the minor groove of DNA, resulting in site-specific double-strand breaks and apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| Calotatug Ginistinag | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of HT-19, a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), linked to a payload composed of an agonist for the stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immuno-activating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of calotatug ginistinag, the anti-HER2 antibody moiety targets and binds to H... |
| CALR Exon 9 Mutant Peptide Vaccine/Montanide ISA-51 | A peptide vaccine consisting of a calreticulin (CALR) mutant peptide, CALRLong36, and montanide ISA 51 with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon vaccination, the CALR exon 9 mutant peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated response against tumor cells harboring mutations in exon 9 of the calreticulin gene. CALR, an endoplasmic reticulum chaperone protein that normally facilitates protein folding, immune response, and hematopoiesis... |
| Cambritaxestat | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of autotaxin (ATX; ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase family member 2; ENPP2), with potential antifibrotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, cambritaxestat targets and binds to both the substrate pocket and the lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) carrier channel of ATX, thereby inhibiting the activity of ATX. This both directly inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells and reduces fibrosis in the tumor microenvironme... |
| Camibirstat | An orally bioavailable, allosteric, small molecule inhibitor of transcription activator BRG1 (SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily A member 4; SMARCA4) and BRM (SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily A member 2; SMARCA2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, camibirstat targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of BRG1 and/or BRM, the primary ATPase components and mutually... |
| Camidanlumab Tesirine | An immunoconjugate consisting of a human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the alpha subunit of the interleukin-2 receptor (IL-2R alpha or CD25) and conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to a synthetic, cross-linking agent pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer that targets DNA minor grooves, with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody portion of the anti-CD25 antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) ADCT-301 specifically binds to the cell surface antigen CD25. Thi... |
| Camizestrant | An orally available selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, camizestrant binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in the degradation of the receptor. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Camonsertib | An orally available inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related (ATR) kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, camonsertib selectively targets and inhibits ATR activity and blocks the downstream phosphorylation of the serine/threonine protein kinase checkpoint kinase 1 (CHK1). This prevents ATR-mediated signaling, which results in the inhibition of DNA damage checkpoint activation, the disruption of DNA damage repair, and the induction of tumor cell ap... |
| Camoteskimab | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against the pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-18 (IL-18), with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, camoteskimab selectively targets and binds to IL-18, thereby inhibiting IL-18-mediated signaling and inflammation mediated by this pathway. In addition, this may inhibit IL-18-mediated immunosuppression in the multiple myeloma microenvironment. IL-18 is a member of the interleukin-1 (IL-1) cytoki... |
| Camptothecin | An alkaloid isolated from the Chinese tree Camptotheca acuminata, with antineoplastic activity.  During the S phase of the cell cycle, camptothecin selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes, thereby inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-strand DNA breaks and producing potentially lethal double-strand DNA breaks when encountered by the DNA replication machinery. (NCI) |
| Camptothecin Analogue TLC388 | A synthetic analogue of camptothecin with potential antineoplastic and radio-sensitizing activities. Camptothecin analogue TLC388 selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes during S-phase, thereby inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-strand DNA breaks and producing potentially lethal double-strand DNA breaks when encountered by the DNA replication machinery. Topoisomerase I relaxes negative super-coiled DNA during replication and transcription. This agen... |
| Camptothecin Sodium | The sodium salt of camptothecin, an alkaloid isolated from the Chinese tree Camptotheca acuminata, with antineoplastic activity.  During the S phase of the cell cycle, camptothecin selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes, thereby inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-strand DNA breaks and producing potentially lethal double-strand DNA breaks when encountered by the DNA replication machinery. The sodium salt of camptothecin is more water-soluble than th... |
| Camptothecin-20(S)-O-Propionate Hydrate | The hydrated, crystalline propionate ester (attached in position C-20) prodrug of camptothecin, an alkaloid isolated from the Chinese tree Camptotheca acuminata, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon entry into cells, camptothecin-20(S)-O-propionate is hydrolyzed by esterases into the active form camptothecin. Camptothecin selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes, thereby inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-strand DNA breaks and producing poten... |
| Camrelizumab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed death-1 (PD-1, PCD-1,) with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody SHR-1210 binds to and blocks the binding of PD-1, expressed on activated T-lymphocytes, B-cells and natural killer (NK) cells, to its ligands programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1), overexpressed on certain cancer cells, and programmed cell death lig... |
| Camsirubicin | A synthetic non-cardiotoxic analogue of the anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin with potential antineoplastic activity. Camsirubicin intercalates DNA and impedes the activity of topoisomerase II, inducing single and double-stranded breaks in DNA; inhibiting DNA replication and/or repair, transcription, and protein synthesis; and activating tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Canarypox-hIL-12 Melanoma Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of a replication-defective recombinant canarypox virus (ALVAC) that encodes the gene for human interleukin-12 (hIL-12).  Produced mainly by B-cells, IL-12 is an endogenous cytokine that activates natural killer (NK) cells, promotes cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) responses, induces the release of interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma), and may exhibit antitumor and anti-angiogenic effects.  Vaccination with canarypox-hIL-12 melanoma vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to moun... |
| Cancell | Cancell (Entelev or Cantron), is a liquid that has been produced in various forms, principally by two manufacturers, since the late 1930s.  The exact composition of Cancell/Entelev is unknown, but the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has listed the components as inositol, nitric acid, sodium sulfite, potassium hydroxide, sulfuric acid, and catechol.  NCI studies determined that the mixture lacked substantial antitumor activity. (from CancerNet) |
| Cancer Cell Metabolism Modulator OMT-111 | A cancer cell metabolism modulator, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, OMT-111 inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH), resulting in the activation of the citric acid cycle in mitochondria, which leads to the degradation of hypoxia-inducible factor 1-alpha (HIF1A). This may result in decreased expression of HIF1A downstream target genes important to tumor growth and survival, a reduction in tumor cell proliferation, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. OMT... |
| Cancer Peptide Vaccine S-588410 | A cancer peptide vaccine containing five human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*2402-restricted epitope peptides derived from as of yet not disclosed oncoantigens, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the cancer peptide vaccine S-588410, the peptides may stimulate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cancer cells expressing the antigens. This decreases proliferation of susceptible tumor cells. |
| Canerpaturev | A non-engineered, naturally oncolytic, replication-competent spontaneous herpes simplex virus (HSV) type I mutant variant. Upon intratumoral injection, canerpaturev transfects, replicates in, and lyses rapidly dividing cells such as tumor cells. In addition, this agent may increase host immune responses that may kill non-infected tumor cells. |
| Canertinib Dihydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of an orally bio-available quinazoline with potential antineoplastic and radiosensitizing activities. Canertinib binds to the intracellular domains of epidermal growth factor receptor tyrosine kinases (ErbB family), irreversibly inhibiting their signal transduction functions and resulting in tumor cell apoptosis and suppression of tumor cell proliferation. This agent also acts as a radiosensitizing agent and displays synergistic activity with other chemotherapeutic agents. |
| Canfosfamide | A modified glutathione analogue and nitrogen mustard prodrug, with potential antineoplastic activity. Canfosfamide is selectively activated by glutathione S-transferase P1-1 into an alkylating metabolite that forms covalent linkages with nucleophilic centers in tumor cell DNA, which may induce a cellular stress response and cytotoxicity, and decrease tumor cell proliferation. Glutathione S-transferase P1-1 is an enzyme that is overexpressed in many human malignancies. |
| Canfosfamide Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of a modified glutathione analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Canfosfamide is selectively activated by glutathione S-transferase P1-1 into an alkylating metabolite that forms covalent linkages with nucleophilic centers in tumor cell DNA, which may induce a cellular stress response and cytotoxicity, and decrease tumor proliferation. S-transferase P1-1 is an enzyme that is overexpressed in many human malignancies. |
| Cannabidiol | A phytocannabinoid derived from Cannabis species, which is devoid of psychoactive activity, with analgesic, anti-inflammatory, antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities. Upon administration, cannabidiol (CBD) exerts its anti-proliferative, anti-angiogenic and pro-apoptotic activity through various mechanisms, which likely do not involve signaling by cannabinoid receptor 1 (CB1), CB2, or vanilloid receptor 1. CBD stimulates endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress and inhibits AKT/mTOR signaling,... |
| Cantrixil | A cyclodextrin-encapsulated, third generation super-benzopyran (SBP) compound with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intraperitoneal (IP) administration, cantrixil enhances the activation and expression of c-Jun, downregulates phosphorylated extracellular signal-regulated kinase (p-ERK) and induces activation of caspase-3, -7 and -9, thereby inducing tumor cell apoptosis. c-Jun, an activator protein-1 (AP-1) transcription factor component, is involved in a wide range of cellular process... |
| Cantuzumab Ravtansine | An immunotoxin of a humanized monoclonal antibody C242 (MoAb HuC242) conjugated to a derivative of the cytotoxic agent maytansine, DM4, with potential antitumor activity. Cantuzumab ravtansine is generated from MoAb C242, which is raised against a cell surface superantigen, CA242, found in a variety of human tumor cells. Upon binding and entry, the immunoconjugate releases the maytansinoid agent DM4, which binds to tubulin, thereby affecting microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics. As a res... |
| Capecitabine | A fluoropyrimidine carbamate belonging to the class of antineoplastic agents called antimetabolites.  As a prodrug, capecitabine is selectively activated by tumor cells to its cytotoxic moiety, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU); subsequently, 5-FU is metabolized to two active metabolites, 5-fluoro-2-deoxyuridine monophosphate (FdUMP) and 5-fluorouridine triphosphate (FUTP) by both tumor cells and normal cells.  FdUMP inhibits DNA synthesis and cell division by reducing normal thymidine production, while ... |
| Capecitabine Rapidly Disintegrating Tablet | A rapidly disintegrating film-coated tablet composed of the fluoropyrimidine carbamate antimetabolite capecitabine with antineoplastic activity. As a prodrug, capecitabine is converted to 5'-deoxy-5-fluorocytidine (5'-DFCR) by hepatic carboxylesterase and then to 5'-deoxy-5-fluorouridine (5'-DFUR) by cytidine deaminase and is eventually activated by thymidine phosphorylase to its cytotoxic moiety, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU); subsequently, 5-FU is metabolized to two active metabolites, 5-fluoro-2-d... |
| Capivasertib | A novel pyrrolopyrimidine derivative, and an orally available inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase AKT (protein kinase B) with potential antineoplastic activity. Capivasertib binds to and inhibits all AKT isoforms. Inhibition of AKT prevents the phosphorylation of AKT substrates that mediate cellular processes, such as cell division, apoptosis, and glucose and fatty acid metabolism. A wide range of solid and hematological malignancies show dysregulated PI3K/AKT/mTOR signaling due ... |
| Capmatinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the proto-oncogene c-Met (also known as hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR)) with potential antineoplastic activity. Capmatinib selectively binds to c-Met, thereby inhibiting c-Met phosphorylation and disrupting c-Met signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types... |
| Capsase-9-PP2A Interaction Inhibitor PEP-010 | A cell penetrating and interfering peptide composed of a cell-penetrating part that delivers the peptide into the cellular cytosol and an interfering part that inhibits the interaction between the proteins intracellular caspase-9 and protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the cell-penetrating part of capsase-9-PP2A interaction inhibitor PEP-010 delivers the peptide into the cellular cytosol and the interfering part of PEP-010 disru... |
| Captopril | A sulfhydryl-containing analog of proline with antihypertensive activity and potential antineoplastic activity. Captopril competitively inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE), thereby decreasing levels of angiotensin II, increasing plasma renin activity, and decreasing aldosterone secretion.  This agent may also inhibit tumor angiogenesis by inhibiting endothelial cell matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) and endothelial cell migration. Captopril may also exhibit antineoplastic activity ind... |
| CAR NK Cells SZ003 | A preparation of natural killer cells (NKs) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for an as of yet undisclosed tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CAR NK cells SZ003 recognize and induce selective cytotoxicity in tumor cells expressing the TAA. |
| CAR T-Cells AMG 119 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) that targets an as of yet unidentified tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the CAR T-cells AMG 119, the T-cells target, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in tumor cells expressing the TAA. |
| Caracemide | An agent derived from acetohydroxamic acid with potential antineoplastic activity.  Caracemide inhibits ribonuclease reductase, resulting in decreased DNA synthesis and tumor growth; it also inhibits acetylcholinesterase.  In vivo, caracemide contributes to the formation of the neurotoxin methyl isocyanate; this effect, along with the agent's acetylcholinesterase activity, may be responsible for the severe central nervous system toxicity observed in clinical trials. (NCI04) |
| Carbendazim | A broad-spectrum benzimidazole antifungal with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Although the exact mechanism of action is unclear, carbendazim appears to binds to an unspecified site on tubulin and suppresses microtubule assembly dynamic. This results in cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and an induction of apoptosis. |
| Carbetimer | Carbetimer (carboxyimamidate) is a low molecular weight derivatized copolymer of ethylene and maleic anhydride.  It has demonstrated antitumor activity against several animal models.  It has calcium chelation activity but seems to inhibit growth of sensitive cells by disrupting nucleoside uptake and metabolism. |
| Carbogen | An inhalant consisting of hyperoxic gas (95%-98% oxygen and 2%-5% carbon dioxide) with radiosensitizing properties.  Inhaled carbogen reduces diffusion-limited tumor hypoxia, increasing tumor radiosensitivity due to the increased availability of molecular oxygen for cytotoxic radiation-induced oxygen free radical production. (NCI04) |
| Carbon C 11 YJH08 | A radioconjugate composed of YJH08, a synthetic glucocorticoid receptor (GR) agonist, labeled with the positron-emitting isotope carbon C 11, with potential use in imaging via positron emission tomography (PET).  Upon intravenous administration of carbon C 11 YJH08, the YJH08 moiety targets and binds to GR on tumor cells. Upon PET imaging, this radioligand may allow for the assessment of GR-expressing tumor cells. This also allows assessment of YJH08's pharmacokinetic profile and affinity of ... |
| Carbon C 14 Eribulin Acetate | A radioconjugate containing the acetate salt of eribulin, labeled with the beta particle-emitting radioisotope carbon C 14, with radioisotopic and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, eribulin binds to the vinca domain of tubulin and inhibits the polymerization of tubulin and the assembly of microtubules, resulting in inhibition of mitotic spindle assembly, induction of cell cycle arrest at G2/M phase, and, potentially, tumor regression. The radioisotope moiety of this ag... |
| Carbon C 14 Fluzoparib | An orally bioavailable radioconjugate composed of fluzoparib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) types 1 and 2, radiolabeled with the radioisotope carbon C 14, with potential use for evaluating the pharmacokinetic profile of fluzoparib. Upon administration of carbon C 14 fluzoparib, fluzoparib targets, binds to and inhibits PARP, which results in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and survival. Labeling of fluzoparib with the radioactive tracer car... |
| Carbon C 14 Ombrabulin | A synthetic water-soluble analogue of combretastatin A4, derived from the South African willow bush (Combretum caffrum), labeled with carbon C 14 with potential antineoplastic activity. The ombrabulin moiety of carbon C 14 ombrabulin binds to the colchicine binding site of endothelial cell tubulin, thereby inhibiting tubulin polymerization and inducing mitotic arrest and apoptosis in endothelial cells. As apoptotic endothelial cells detach from their substrata, tumor blood vessels collapse; t... |
| Carbon C 14-pamiparib | An orally bioavailable radioconjugate composed of pamiparib, a nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibitor, radiolabeled with the radioisotope carbon C 14, with potential use for evaluating the pharmacokinetic profile of pamiparib. Pamiparib targets, binds to and inhibits PARP, which results in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and survival. Labeling of pamiparib with the radioactive tracer carbon C 14 allows for the evaluation of pamiparib's pharmacokinetic profile, ... |
| Carbon C11 Temozolomide | A radioconjugate composed of temozolomide, a imidazotetrazine analog of dacarbazine, labeled with the radioisotope carbon C11, with potential positron emission tomography (PET) imaging activity. As a cytotoxic alkylating agent, temozolomide is hydrolyzed at physiologic pH to the pharmacologically active compound, 5-(3-methyl-(triazen-1-yl)-imidazole)-4-carboxamide (MTIC). MTIC is further hydrolyzed to 5-aminoimidazole-4-carboxamide (AIC) and a methyldiazonium cation. The cation is able to met... |
| Carbon C-14 Dacomitinib | A radioconjugate consisting of an orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (erbB or HER) family of tyrosine kinases radiolabeled with carbon-14 with potential antineoplastic and beta-emitting radioisotope activity. PF-00299804 specifically and irreversibly binds to and inhibits human Her-1, Her-2, and Her-4, resulting in the proliferation inhibition and apoptosis of tumor cells that overexpress these receptors. The HER receptor family of tyrosine ki... |
| Carbon-11 Acetate | The acetate salt of the radioisotope carbon-11. Although the mechanism is unclear, carbon-11 acetate preferentially accumulates in tumor tissue, serving as a tracer for imaging tumors with positron emission tomography (PET). (NCI04) |
| Carboplatin | A second-generation platinum compound with a broad spectrum of antineoplastic properties.  Carboplatin contains a platinum atom complexed with two ammonia groups and a cyclobutane-dicarboxyl residue.  This agent is activated intracellularly to form reactive platinum complexes that bind to nucleophilic groups such as GC-rich sites in DNA, thereby inducing intrastrand and interstrand DNA cross-links, as well as DNA-protein cross-links.  These carboplatin-induced DNA and protein effects result i... |
| Carboquone | An aziridinylbenzoquinone-based alkylating agent with potential antineoplastic activity. The alkylating group in carboquone becomes activated upon reduction of quinone to the hydroquinone form. This eventually results in the alkylation and crosslinking of DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication followed by an induction of apoptosis. In addition, reactive oxygen species may form during redox cycling which may contribute to this agent's cytotoxic activity. |
| Carboxyamidotriazole | An orally-active agent with potential antineoplastic activity.  Carboxyamidotriazole binds to and inhibits non-voltage-operated Ca2+ channels, blocking both Ca2+ influx into cells and Ca2+ release from intracellular stores and resulting in the disruption of calcium channel-mediated signal transduction and inhibition of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) signaling, endothelial proliferation, and angiogenesis.  This agent may also inhibit tumor cell growth, invasion and metastasis. (NCI04) |
| Carboxyamidotriazole Orotate | The orotate salt form of carboxyamidotriazole (CAI), an orally bioavailable small molecule with potential antiangiogenic and antiproliferative activities. Carboxyamidotriazole binds to and inhibits non-voltage-operated calcium channels, blocking both Ca2+ influx into cells and Ca2+ release from intracellular stores, resulting in the disruption of calcium channel-mediated signal transduction. CAI inhibits PI3 activity and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) signaling. This may inhibit en... |
| Carboxyphenyl Retinamide | A synthetic phenylretinamide analogue of retinol (vitamin A) with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities.  Carboxyphenyl retinamide induces cell differentiation and inhibits tumor cell growth and carcinogenesis.  This agent may also induce cell cycle arrest in the G1 phase in some cancer cell types. (NCI04) |
| Carboxyphthalato-1,2-diaminocyclohexaneplatinum | A second-generation platinum analog with potential antineoplastic activity.  Carboxyphthalato-1,2-diaminocyclohexaneplatinum alkylates DNA at the N-7 position of guanine, thereby producing DNA interstrand crosslinks and DNA strand breaks, and inhibiting DNA replication. (NCI04) |
| Carcinoembryonic Antigen Peptide 1 | A nine amino acid peptide fragment of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), a protein that is overexpressed in several cancer cell types, including gastrointestinal, breast, and non-small cell lung. Autologous vaccination with activated autologous dendritic cells (DC) or peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) which have been exposed to CEA peptide 1 in vitro may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing CEA, thereby inhibitin... |
| Carcinoembryonic Antigen Peptide 1-6D | A 9-residue human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-restricted fragment of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). Vaccination with carcinoembryonic antigen peptide 1-6D, which has the amino acid sequence YLSGANLNL, may elicit a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against tumors expressing CEA. |
| Carcinoembryonic Antigen Peptide 1-6D Virus-Like Replicon Particles Vaccine | A cancer vaccine, consisting of alphavirus vector-derived virus-like replicon particles expressing the 9-amino-acid carcinoembryonic antigen peptide (CAP) 1-6D, with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with this agent may elicit a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against CEA-expressing tumor cells. |
| Carcinoembryonic Antigen RNA-pulsed DC Cancer Vaccine | A vaccine comprised of autologous dendritic cells pulsed with mRNA-encoded Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA) targeting tumor cells expressing CEA. (NCI) |
| Carcinoembryonic Antigen-Expressing Measles Virus | An attenuated oncolytic Edmonston (Ed) strain of measles virus (MV) encoding the soluble extracellular N-terminal domain of human carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) (MV-CEA) with potential antineoplastic activity. The cellular receptor of MV is human CD46 antigen, a type 1 integral membrane glycoprotein found on nearly all human tissues and overexpressed on many cancer cell types. Mediated through CD46, both haemagglutinin and fusion glycoproteins of MV are required for the attachment to and fusi... |
| CARD11-BCL10-MALT1 Complex Inhibitor XL114 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the caspase recruitment domain-containing protein 11 (CARD11; CARMA1)-B-cell lymphoma/leukemia 10 (BCL10)-mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma translocation protein 1 (MALT1) complex, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CARD11-BCL10-MALT1 complex inhibitor XL114 inhibits the CARD11-BCL10-MALT1 complex and the CARD11-BCL10-MALT1 signaling pathway. This prevents the proliferation of susceptible cancer cells. The CARD11-BCL1... |
| Carfilzomib | An epoxomicin derivate with potential antineoplastic activity. Carfilzomib irreversibly binds to and inhibits the chymotrypsin-like activity of the 20S catalytic core subunit of the proteasome, a protease complex responsible for degrading a large variety of cellular proteins. Inhibition of proteasome-mediated proteolysis results in an accumulation of polyubiquinated proteins, which may lead to cell cycle arrest, induction of apoptosis, and inhibition of tumor growth. |
| Caricotamide/Tretazicar | A combination therapy consisting of the prodrug tretazicar and the enzyme co-substrate caricotamide with potential antineoplastic activity. In the presence of separately and simultaneously administered caricotamide, tretazicar is converted to the short-lived cytotoxic DNA cross-linking agent dinitrobenzamide by NAD(P)H quinine oxidoreductase 2 (NQO2), resulting in the inhibition of DNA replication and the induction of apoptosis. NQO2 has been found to be elevated in certain cancers such as he... |
| Carlumab | A human IgG1 kappa monoclonal antibody directed against human CC chemokine ligand 2 (CCL2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Carlumab binds to and inhibits CLL2, which may result in inhibition of angiogenesis and, so, tumor cell proliferation. Endothelium-derived CLL2 (monocyte chemoattractant protein; MCP1) is a member of the beta-chemokine family, can stimulate monocyte/macrophage migration and smooth muscle cell (SMC) proliferation, and plays a role in angiogenesis and tumor cell mig... |
| Carmofur | An antimetabolite (pyrimidine analogue) antineoplastic derivative of 5-fluorouracil. (NCI) |
| Carmustine | An antineoplastic nitrosourea. Carmustine alkylates and cross-links DNA during all phases of the cell cycle, resulting in disruption of DNA function, cell cycle arrest, and apoptosis.  This agent also carbamoylates proteins, including DNA repair enzymes, resulting in an enhanced cytotoxic effect.  Carmustine is highly lipophilic and crosses the blood-brain barrier readily. (NCI04) |
| Carmustine Implant | A synthetic, biodegradable wafer containing the agent carmustine with antineoplastic activity. Used to deliver drug directly into a brain tumor site and typically implanted post-surgically, the wafer is made of a biodegradable poly-anhydride copolymer and contains the nitrosourea carmustine.  As an antineoplastic nitrosourea, carmustine alkylates and cross-links DNA during all phases of the cell cycle, resulting in disruption of DNA function, cell cycle arrest, and apoptosis.  Carmustine also... |
| Carmustine in Ethanol | A formulation containing carmustine dissolved in ethanol for intra-tumoral administration that allows carmustine to enter both aqueous and lipid compartments of the target tissue. As an antineoplastic nitrosourea, carmustine alkylates and cross-links DNA during all phases of the cell cycle, resulting in disruption of DNA function, cell cycle arrest, and apoptosis. Carmustine also carbamoylates proteins, including DNA repair enzymes, resulting in an enhanced cytotoxic effect. Carmustine is hig... |
| Carmustine Sustained-Release Implant Wafer | A sustained release (SR) implant wafer containing the lipophilic nitrosourea carmustine (BCNU) with antineoplastic activity. Upon intracranial administration of the implant wafer and subsequent release of BCNU from the wafer, this agent alkylates and cross-links DNA during all phases of the cell cycle, resulting in the disruption of DNA function, cell cycle arrest, and apoptosis. This wafer contains the biodegradable copolymer PLGA (poly(lactide-co-glycolide) as the major drug delivery vehicl... |
| CAR-NK Cells SZ011 | A preparation of natural killer cells (NKs) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for an as of yet undisclosed tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CAR-NK cells SZ011 recognize and induce selective cytotoxicity in tumor cells expressing the TAA. |
| Carotuximab | A human/murine chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against endoglin (CD105) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Carotuximab binds to endoglin, which may result in inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and decreased tumor cell proliferation. The glycoprotein endoglin is a transforming growth factor beta-1 (TGF beta-1) accessory receptor that is highly expressed on tumor vessel endothelial cells and appears to be essential for angiogenesis. |
| Carrageenan-containing Gel | A water-based, vaginal moisturizing gel containing a mixture of lambda- and kappa- carrageenans, sulfated polysaccharides derived from red seaweed (Chondrus crispus), with potential microbicidal activity against various viruses, including human papillomavirus (HPV), human immunodeficiencyvirus (HIV) and human herpes simplex virus (HSV). Upon vaginal insertion via an applicator, carrageenan specifically binds to the viral capsids, which prevents the binding of virions to heparan sulfate proteo... |
| Carubicin | An anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Actinomadura carminata. Carubicin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Carubicin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic carubicin.  Carubicin intercalates into DNA and inhibits topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and ultimately, interfering with RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Carzelesin | A cyclopropylpyrroloindole prodrug analogue and DNA minor groove binding agent, with antineoplastic activity.  After hydrolysis, the cyclopropyl group of carzelesin alkylates N3-adenine in a sequence-selective fashion. This results in tumor growth inhibition. |
| Carzinophilin | An ethylenimine antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces sahachiroi.  Carzinophilin forms interstrand DNA cross-links, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Casdatifan | An orally bioavailable allosteric inhibitor of hypoxia inducible factor (HIF)-2alpha, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, casdatifan targets and allosterically binds to a hydrophobic pocket on HIF-2alpha leading to a confirmational change that prevents HIF-2alpha heterodimerization with HIF-1beta and binding to the hypoxia response element (HRE) binding site on DNA. This results in decreased transcription and expression of HIF-2alpha downstream target genes, many... |
| Catequentinib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of catequentinib, a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. Upon administration, catequentinib targets multiple RTKs, including vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2) and type 3 (VEGFR3). This agent may both inhibit angiogenesis and halt tumor cell growth. |
| Cationic Liposome-Encapsulated Paclitaxel | A cationic liposome preparation of paclitaxel with antineoplastic activity. Paclitaxel, the active ingredient in cationic liposome-encapsulated paclitaxel, binds to tubulin and inhibits the disassembly of microtubules, resulting in the inhibition of mitosis and cellular proliferation, and apoptosis. Cationic liposome encapsulation of paclitaxel allows the delivery of high doses of paclitaxel to target tissues while minimizing systemic toxicity. Tumor endothelial cells may preferentially bind ... |
| Cationic Peptide Cream Cypep-1 | A topical cream containing Cypep-1, a cationic lytic peptide of 27 amino acids, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon topical administration, Cypep-1 selectively targets tumor cells with negatively charged cell membranes and ruptures the cell membranes. This leads to tumor cell lysis and the release of neoantigens into the tumor microenvironment (TME) and circulation. This elicits a specific and potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing these neoantige... |
| Catumaxomab | A trifunctional bispecific monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Catumaxomab has two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T cell surface antigen; and one for human epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM), a cell surface antigen expressed by a variety of epithelial tumor cells. In addition, the modified Fc portion of this antibody binds Fc receptors on antigen presenting cells (APCs) such as macrophages and dendritic cells (DCs). Catumaxomab brings T cells, E... |
| Caxmotabart Entudotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of trastuzumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), site-specifically conjugated, via a tumor-selective beta-glucuronide linker, to the auristatin analog and potent microtubule inhibitor monomethyl auristatin F (MMAF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of caxmotabart entudotin, the trastuzumab moiety targets and binds to HER2 exp... |
| CBL-B Inhibitor HST-1011 | An orally bioavailable, allosteric, small-molecule inhibitor of Casitas B-lineage lymphoma proto-oncogene-b (CBL-B), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CBL-B inhibitor HST-1011 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CBL-B, which may result in immune activation, the infiltration of natural killer (NK) cells and activated CD8+ T-cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and the inhibition of tumor growth. CBL-B, an E3 ubiquitin liga... |
| CBL-B Inhibitor NX-1607 | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule inhibitor of Casitas B-lineage lymphoma proto-oncogene-b (CBL-B), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CBL-B inhibitor NX-1607 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CBL-B, which may result in immune activation, the infiltration of natural killer (NK) cells and activated CD8+ T-cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and the inhibition of tumor growth. CBL-B, an E3 ubiquitin ligase expressed ... |
| CBL-B Inhibitor-treated Autologous Tumor-infiltrating Lymphocytes DeTIL-0255 | A preparation of autologous tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from a patient's tumor that have been treated ex vivo during cell expansion with NX-0255, an inhibitor of Casitas B-lineage lymphoma proto-oncogene-b (CBL-B), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CBL-B inhibitor-treated autologous TILs DeTIL-0255 specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. NX-0255 enhances TIL expansion and the tumor-killing ability of th... |
| CBP/beta-catenin Modulator E7386 | An orally bioavailable, specific inhibitor of the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CBP/beta-catenin modulator E7386 inhibits beta-catenin and prevents the interaction of beta-catenin with its transcriptional coactivator, CREB (cAMP response element-binding) binding protein (CBP). This prevents binding of beta-catenin/CBP to WRE (Wnt-responsive element), and inhibits the activation of transcription of a wide range o... |
| CBP/p300 Bromodomain Inhibitor AUR-107 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the bromodomain of the histone acetyltransferase (HAT) paralogs, CREB binding protein (CBP; CREBBP) and p300 (E1A-associated protein p300; p300 HAT), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CBP/p300 bromodomain inhibitor AUR-107 targets and binds to the bromodomains of CBP and p300. This disrupts the acetylation of histones and other proteins and decreases regulatory T-cells (Tregs) generation, inhibits its s... |
| CBP/p300 Bromodomain Inhibitor OPN-6602 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the bromodomain of the histone acetyltransferase (HAT) paralogs, CREB binding protein (CBP) and p300 (E1A-associated protein p300; EP300; p300 HAT), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CBP/p300 bromodomain inhibitor OPN-6602 targets and binds to the bromodomains of p300 and CBP. This disrupts the acetylation of histones and other proteins, prevents the co-activation of key transcription factors that contribute to... |
| CCL21-expressing H1944 Cell Vaccine | A cancer cell vaccine comprised of the allogeneic human lung adenocarcinoma cell line H1944 that has been transduced ex vivo with adenoviral vector encoding human cytokine chemokine C-C motif ligand 21 (CCL21), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CCL21-expressing H1944 cell vaccine expresses the chemokine CCL21, which may induce an antitumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte immune response in the tumor microenvironment. CCL21 has been shown to attract a... |
| CCR2 Antagonist CCX872-B | An orally available human C-C chemokine receptor type 2 (CCR2) antagonist, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CCR2 antagonist CCX872-B specifically binds to CCR2 and prevents the binding its cognate endothelium-derived chemokine ligand CCL2 (monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 or MCP1). This may result in the inhibition of both CCR2 activation and CCR2-mediated signal transduction, which may inhibit inflammatory processes, angiogenesis, tum... |
| CCR2 Antagonist PF-04136309 | An orally available human chemokine receptor 2 (CCR2) antagonist with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CCR2 antagonist PF-04136309 specifically binds to CCR2 and prevents binding of the endothelium-derived chemokine ligand CLL2 (monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 or MCP1) to its receptor CCR2, which may result in inhibition of CCR2 activation and signal transduction. This may inhibit inflammatory processes as well as angiogenesis, tumor cell ... |
| CCR2/CCR5 Antagonist BMS-813160 | An antagonist of both human C-C chemokine receptor types 2 (CCR2; CD192) and 5 (CCR5; CD195), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CCR2/CCR5 antagonist BMS-813160 specifically binds and prevents the activation of both CCR2 and CCR5. This inhibits the activation of CCR2/CCR5-mediated signal transduction pathways and may inhibit inflammatory processes, angiogenesis, tumor cell migration, tumor cell proliferation and invasion. The G-protein coupled ... |
| CCR8 Inhibitor IPG7236 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CCR8 inhibitor IPG7236 targets, binds to and blocks the activity of CCR8 on CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and prevents chemokine ligand 1 (CCL1)-CCR8-mediated signaling. This may reactivate antitumor immune responses. CCR8 is specifically expressed by tumor-infiltrating Tr... |
| CD105/Yb-1/SOX2/CDH3/MDM2-polyepitope Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A plasmid DNA vaccine containing the mammalian expression vector pUMVC3 (pNGVL3) encoding epitopes of CD105 (Endoglin), Y-box binding protein 1 (Yb-1), SRY-box 2 (SOX2), cadherin 3 (CDH3), and murine double minute 2 (MDM2) proteins, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration of pUMVC3-CD105/Yb-1/SOX2/CDH3/MDM2-epitopes plasmid DNA vaccine, the plasmid transfects cells and the peptides are expressed. This generates a specific memory Th1 (T-he... |
| CD11b Agonist GB1275 | An orally bioavailable small molecule agonist of CD11b (integrin alpha-M; ITGAM; integrin alpha M chain), with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, CD11b agonist GB1275 targets and binds to CD11b, thereby activating CD11b. This leads to CD11b-mediated signaling and promotes pro-inflammatory macrophage polarization while suppressing immunosuppressive macrophage polarization. This reduces influx of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MD... |
| CD122-selective IL-2/Anti-CD25 Antibody-like Fusion Protein ANV419 | A formulation consisting of lipid nanoparticles (LNPs) encapsulating nucleoside-modified messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding the endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration, ribocytokine IL-2 BNT153 is taken up by cells and the expressed IL-2 targets and binds to the IL-2 receptor beta subunit (IL2Rb; IL2Rbeta; CD122). The binding of IL-2 to IL2Rb activates IL2Rb-mediated signaling, which activates cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and natur... |
| CD123-CD33 Compound CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a compound chimeric antigen receptor (cCAR) containing two distinct units of CARs, one specific for the CD123 (interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain or IL3RA) antigen and one specific for the CD33 antigen, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CD123-CD33 cCAR T cells specifically and simultaneously target and bind to tumor cells expressing CD123 and/or CD33. This induce... |
| CD123-specific Targeting Module TM123 | A preparation of soluble adapter molecules consisting of an antigen-binding moiety targeting CD123 linked to a peptide motif recognizable by UniCAR02-T, that may be used to activate UniCAR02-T.  Upon administration of CD123-specific targeting module (TM) TM123, and upon co-administration of UniCAR02-T, the antigen-binding moiety of TM123 targets and binds to cancer cells expressing CD123, and the binding domain of UniCAR02-T binds to the nuclear antigen motif of TM123. This activates UniCAR02... |
| CD133 Antigen Peptide-pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine comprised of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted peptides derived from the CD133 antigen, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intradermal administration, the CD133 antigen peptide-pulsed autologous DC vaccine may stimulate an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD133-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. CD133, a cancer stem cell marker, is expressed on hematopoiet... |
| CD137/Nectin-4 Bispecific-targeting Agent BT7480 | A synthetic tumor targeted immune cell agonist composed of two bicyclic peptides targeting CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) linked to a bicyclic peptide targeting the cell adhesion molecule nectin-4 (PVRL4); with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD137/nectin-4 bispecific-targeting agent BT7480 simultaneously targets and binds to CD137, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activa... |
| CD137/PSMA/HSA Trispecific-targeting Agent CB 307 | A trispecific T-cell enabler targeting the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA; FOLH1), the co-stimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) and human serum albumin (HSA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD137/PSMA/HSA trispecific-targeting agent CB307 simultaneously targets and binds to 4-1BB, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets in... |
| CD137L/Epstein-Barr Virus-Targeting Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of in vitro generated, highly potent, CD137 ligand (CD137L)-dendritic cells (CD137L-DCs), pulsed with Epstein-Bar Virus (EBV) antigen peptides, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulatory activities. Upon administration, CD137L-DCs induce potent CD8+ T-cell responses against EBV+ target cells. DCs stimulated with CD137L enhance cytotoxic T-lymphocyte proliferation and activation to a greater extent compared to non-CD137L-stimulated DCs. |
| CD138CAR-CD137/TCRzeta-expressing T Lymphocytes | T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for syndecan-1 (CD138) (CART-138 T cells) coupled to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCRzeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, CD138CAR- CD137/TCRzeta -expressing T lymphocytes directs the T-lymphocytes to syndecan-1-expressing tumor cells and induces selective toxicity in those tumor cells. T... |
| CD16/IL15/CD33 Trispecific Killer Cell Engager OXS-3550 | A trispecific killer engager (TriKE) molecule containing an anti-cluster of differentiation 16 (CD16; FcgammaRIII) single-chain variable fragment (scFv) to engage natural killer (NK) cells, an anti-CD33 scFv to engage myeloid cells and a human modified interleukin-15 (IL-15) linker, that links the two scFv, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities against CD33-expressing tumor cells. Upon administration of the CD16/IL15/CD33 TriKE OXS-3550, the simultaneous binding to CD1... |
| CD16-based ROR1-targeted NK Cell Engager PBA-0405 | An engineered natural killer (NK) cell engager comprised of an anti-receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1) antibody, with an increased binding affinity to CD16 Fc receptor, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD16-based ROR1-targeted NK cell engager PBA-0405 targets and binds to ROR1 expressed on tumor cells and simultaneously binds to the activating CD16 Fc receptor expressed on NK cells, thereby bringing ROR1-expressing tumor ... |
| CD19CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing Tcm-enriched T-lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified central memory (Tcm) enriched T-cells transduced with a replication incompetent lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR), containing a CD28 signaling domain fused to both CD3 zeta, which targets the CD19 antigen, and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, CD19CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing Tcm-enriched ... |
| CD19CAR-CD28-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing Tn/mem-enriched T-lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified lymphocytes comprised of CD62L-positive naïve and memory T-cells (Tn/mem), that are transduced ex vivo with a self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector expressing a hinge-optimized chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the CD19 antigen and containing CD28 and CD3 zeta signaling domains, and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon isolation of periph... |
| CD19CAR-CD28zeta-4-1BB-expressing Allogeneic T Lymphocytes | Allogeneic T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment) coupled to the costimulatory signaling domain CD28, the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, CD19CAR-CD28 zeta-4-1BB-expressing allogeneic T lymphocytes directs the T-lymphocytes to and induces sele... |
| CD19CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-CD28-expressing Autologous T-Lymphocytes | Autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment) coupled to three co-stimulatory signaling domains derived from CD28, 4-1BB (CD137), and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, the CD19CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-CD28-expressing autologous T-lymphocytes direct the T-lymphocyt... |
| CD19CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing Allogeneic T-lymphocyte Cells | Allogeneic T-lymphocytes transduced with a modified lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), coupled to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, CD19CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing allogeneic T-lymphocyte cells direct the T-lymphocytes to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby indu... |
| CD19CAR-CD3zeta-expressing Autologous T lymphocytes | Autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a modified lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, CD19CAR-CD3zeta-expressing autologous T-lymphocytes are directed to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing a selective toxicity only in these tumor cells. The CD19 antigen is ... |
| CD19-CD34tagged Metabolically Programmed CAR T-cells | A preparation of a subset of T-lymphocytes, that are metabolically enhanced based on selection and purification on CD34 expression and primed to contain T-helper subset 1 and 17 (Th1/17 hybrid cells), that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD19-CD34tagged metabolically programmed CAR T-cells target and bind to CD19-ex... |
| CD19-expressing Oncolytic Virus CF33 | A genetically modified oncolytic virus (OV) composed of CF33, a replication competent orthopoxviral chimera that is engineered to express the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. CD19-expressing OV CF33 is used in combination with certain anti-CD19 agents, such as anti-CD19 chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cells or anti-CD19 bispecific antibodies. Upon intratumoral (IT) or intravenous (IV) administration of CD19-expre... |
| CD19R(EQ)-CD28-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified T-cells transduced expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and containing the CD28 signaling domain fused to CD3 zeta, and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, CD19R(EQ)-CD28-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing T-lymphocytes are directed to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby induc... |
| CD19-specific Adapter Molecule SWI019 | A preparation of adapter molecules consisting of an antibody fragment (Fab) targeting CD19 linked to a 14 aa peptide epitope, or peptide neo-epitope (PNE), recognizable by CLBR001, that may be used to activate CLBR001. Upon administration of CD19-specific adapter molecule SWI019, and upon co-administration of CLBR001, the Fab moiety of SWI019 targets and binds to tumor cells expressing CD19, and the PNE of SWI019 binds to the binding domain of CLBR001, thereby activating CLBR001. This induces... |
| CD19-targeted CAR T Cells BZ019 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a non-viral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and containing, as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD19-targeted CAR T cells BZ019 recognize and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD19-expressing t... |
| CD19-targeted CAR T2 Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD19-targeted CAR T2 cells target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage malignancies. |
| CD19x22 Bicistronic CAR T-cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have that have been transduced with a bicistronic vector encoding two distinct chimeric antigen receptors (CARs), one against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and the other one against the TAA CD22, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CD19x22 bicistronic CAR T-cells target, bind to and induce selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing CD19 and CD22. CD19 and CD22, both transmembrane phosphoglycopr... |
| CD20/CD47 Bispecific Fusion Protein CPO107 | A bispecific fusion protein composed of the anti-CD20 antibody ofatumumab fused to the CD47 binding fragment signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha), and directed against both the B-cell-specific membrane protein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20, and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CD47/CD20 bispecific fusion protein CPO107, the anti-CD20 moiety selectively target... |
| CD200 Activation Receptor Ligand hP1A8 | A humanized peptide ligand of the CD200 activation receptors (CD200ARs), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD200 activation receptor ligand (CD200AR-L) human P1A8 (hP1A8) targets and binds to CD200ARs complexes on antigen-presenting cells (APCs). This promotes immature dendritic cell (DC) differentiation and cytokine production, and induces a T-cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells. In addition, hP1A8 downregulates the expression ... |
| CD20-CD19 Compound CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a compound chimeric antigen receptor (cCAR) containing two distinct units of CARs, one specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 20 (CD20) and one specific for the TAA CD19, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CD20-CD19 cCAR T cells specifically and simultaneously target and bind to tumor cells expressing CD20 and/or CD19. This indu... |
| CD28CAR/CD137CAR-expressing T-Lymphocytes | Third generation, chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) cells composed of T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a CAR consisting of an a single chain variable fragment specific for a particular antigen, coupled to the two co-stimulatory signaling domains Cluster of Differentiation 28 (CD28) and Cluster of Differentiation 137 (CD137; 4-1BB), and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Up... |
| CD3/CD28 Costimulated Autologous T-Cells | A population of T cells that have been sensitized to vaccine tumor antigen(s) in vivo; collected from the patient; co-stimulated with antibodies to the T-cell cell surface proteins CD3 and CD28 and expanded ex vivo; and then infused into the same patient. CD3, part of the T cell receptor complex, and CD28, a T-cell surface-associated co-stimulatory molecule, are both required for full T-cell activation. Adoptive transfer of CD3/CD28 costimulated vaccine-primed autologous T-cells may induce th... |
| CD30 CAR-expressing Autologous T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the CD30 antigen, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CD30 CAR-expressing autologous T-lymphocytes specifically recognize and bind to CD30-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. CD30, a cell surface receptor and a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily, is transiently... |
| CD33CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing Autologous T-Lymphocytes | Autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD33 scFv (single chain variable fragment) coupled to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCRzeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, CD33-specific CAR retroviral vector-transduced autologous T lymphocytes target CD33-expressing tumor cells and induce selective toxicity in CD3... |
| CD33-specific CAR Lentiviral Vector-transduced Allogeneic T-lymphocytes | A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the CD33 antigen, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD33-specific CAR lentiviral vector-transduced allogeneic T-lymphocytes target and induce selective toxicity in CD33-expressing tumor cells. CD33 is expressed on normal non-pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells and on myeloid leukemia cells. |
| CD33-specific CAR Lentiviral Vector-transduced Autologous T-lymphocytes | Autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the CD33 antigen, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, CD33-specific CAR lentiviral vector-transduced autologous T-lymphocytes target and induce selective toxicity in CD33-expressing tumor cells. CD33 is expressed on normal non-pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells and on myeloid leukemia cells. |
| CD371-specific/YSNVz/IL-18 CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) C-type lectin domain family 12 member A (CLEC12A, CCL1, CD371), and expressing the pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin 18 (IL-18), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, CD371-specific/YSNVz/IL-18 CAR T cells target, bind to, and induce selective toxicity in CD371-expressing tumor cells. IL-18 promotes T-cell persistence and... |
| CD3-activating CD19 Bi-specific Antibody A-319 | A recombinant T-cell activating bispecific antibody directed against the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD19 and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD3-activating CD19 bi-specific antibody A-319 targets and binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and the CD19 antigen expressed on malignant B-cells. This activates and redirects CTLs, bringing CD19-expressing tumor cells and CTLs ... |
| CD40L-augmented Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) derived from a patient's tumor that have been stimulated ex vivo with CD40 ligand (CD40L, tumor necrosis factor superfamily member 5, TNFSF5, CD154, TNF-related activation protein, TRAP, gp39) during cell expansion, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CD40L-augmented autologous TILs specifically recognize and kill the patient's tumor cells. Stimulation with a CD40L may enhance... |
| CD44 Targeted Agent SPL-108 | A proprietary agent that targets the cancer stem cell (CSC) antigen CD44, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the mechanism of action has not been elucidated, following subcutaneous administration, CD44 targeted agent SPL-108 binds to CD44 and prevents the activation of various CD44-mediated signal transduction pathways, which may lead to reduced proliferation of CD44-expressing tumor stem cells. CD44, a transmembrane glycoprotein and hyaluronic acid receptor, is expressed in hea... |
| CD44v6-specific CAR T-cells | A preparation of genetically modified T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a fourth-generation specific chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) specific for CD44 variant domain 6 (CD44v6), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD44v6-specific CAR T-cells specifically recognize and kill CD44v6-expressing tumor cells. CD44, a transmembrane glycoprotein and hyaluronic acid receptor, is expressed in healthy tissue and overexpressed in ... |
| CD47 Antagonist AUR103 Calcium | The calcium salt form of AUR103, an orally bioavailable, small molecule antagonist of the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential phagocytosis-inducing, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CD47 antagonist AUR103 calcium binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and prevents the interaction of CD47 with its ligand SIRPa, a protein expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibiti... |
| CD47/SIRPa Blocking Agent TQB2928 | An agent blocking the interaction between the leukocyte surface antigen CD47 and the signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha; SIRPa), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD47/SIRPa blocking agent TQB2928 blocks the interaction between CD47, which is expressed on tumor cells, and SIRPa, which is expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of macrophage ... |
| CD4-specific Telomerase Peptide Vaccine UCPVax | A therapeutic peptide vaccine containing the human telomerase reverse transcriptase catalytic subunit (hTERT)-derived universal cancer peptides 2 (UCP2) and 4 (UCP4), and combined with the immunoadjuvant Montanide ISA 51 VG, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with the CD4-specific telomerase peptide vaccine UCPVax activates the immune system to mount a T-helper 1 (TH1) CD4-positive T-lymphocyte immune response against and ultimately killing telomerase-... |
| CD73 Inhibitor ATG-037 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the ectoenzyme CD73 (cluster of differentiation 73; 5'-ecto-nucleotidase; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CD73 inhibitor ATG-037 targets and binds to CD73, leading to clustering of and internalization of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and decreases the amount of free adenosine in the tumor microenvironment (TME).... |
| CD73 Inhibitor LY3475070 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the ectoenzyme CD73 (cluster of differentiation 73; 5'-ecto-nucleotidase; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CD73 inhibitor LY3475070 targets and binds to CD73, leading to clustering of and internalization of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and decreases the amount of free adenosine in the tumor microenvironment (TME... |
| CD73 Inhibitor ORIC-533 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the ectoenzyme CD73 (cluster of differentiation 73; 5'-ecto-nucleotidase; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CD73 inhibitor ORIC-533 targets and binds to CD73, leading to clustering of and internalization of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and decreases the amount of free adenosine in the tumor microenvironment (TME)... |
| CD8 Enriched Young Autologous Tumor-infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous young tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), that are isolated from the patient's tumor tissue that are CD8 enriched and expanded ex vivo, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration of the CD8 enriched young autologous TILs, the TILs re-infiltrate the tumor, recognize the tumor cells and initiate tumor cell lysis. This inhibits tumor cell growth. |
| CD8+ and CD4+ Donor Memory T-cells-expressing HA1-Specific TCR | A preparation of CD4+ and CD8+ central memory (CM) T-lymphocytes isolated from the peripheral blood of a transplant donor and transduced with a lentiviral vector (LV) (pRRLSIN) expressing a minor H antigen (HA-1(H); HA1(H)) T-cell receptor (TCR) containing the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9 or iC9)-HA1 TCR2-RQR-CD8 transgene (pRRLSIN iC9-HA1 TCR2-RQR-CD8; HA-1 TCR LV), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration and after allogenei... |
| CD8+NKG2D+ AKT Cell | A preparation of human CD8-positive tumor-specific T-lymphocytes engineered to express the natural killer cell activating receptor group 2D (NKG2D) and the serine/threonine kinase AKT, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of CD8+NKG2D+ AKT cells, these cells target and kill tumor cells. AKT-mediated signaling enhances the activation, differentiation, proliferation and cytokine production of tumor specific T-cells, which enhances their anti-tumor e... |
| CD80 Breast Cancer Vaccine | A vaccine comprised of CD80-transfected allogenic breast cancer cells to induce T-cell response. |
| CD80-Fc Fusion Protein FPT155 | A recombinant fusion protein composed of the extracellular domain (ECD) of human CD80 (B7.1) fused to a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc fragment, with potential immunostimulatory, immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of CD80-Fc fusion protein FPT155, the CD80 moiety targets and binds to CD28, which in the presence of antigenic T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling, leads to the co-stimulation of T-cell responses including the activation of naïve and memo... |
| CD80-Fc Fusion Protein KM602 | A recombinant fusion protein composed of the extracellular domain (ECD) of human CD80 (B7.1) fused to a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc fragment, with potential immunostimulatory, immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of CD80-Fc fusion protein KM602, the CD80 moiety targets and binds to CD28, which in the presence of antigenic T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling, leads to the co-stimulation of T-cell responses including the activation of naive and memor... |
| CD8-depleted Non-engrafting HLA-mismatched Unrelated Donor Lymphocytes | A preparation of allogeneic lymphocytes from an HLA-mismatched donor that have been selectively depleted of CD8+ T-cells, with potential T-cell reconstitution purposes. Upon infusion, the donor-derived CD8+-depleted lymphocytes may increase the levels of CD4+ T-cells (Teffs) and promote T-cell reconstitution. The infusion of donor lymphocytes depleted of CD8 T-cells may reduce the risk of inducing graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) compared to the infusion of non-CD8-depleted T-cells. |
| CDC7 Inhibitor SGR-2921 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of cell division cycle 7-related protein kinase (CDC7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDC7 inhibitor SGR-2921 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDC7, which may result in an impaired response to replication stress, DNA damage, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. CDC7, a serine-threonine kinase overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types, plays a key role in DNA replication and DNA damage ... |
| CDC7 Inhibitor TQB3824 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cell division cycle 7 (CDC7) kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDC7 inhibitor TQB3824 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDC7, which may result in the inhibition of DNA replication and mitosis, the induction of tumor cell apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in CDC7-overexpressing tumor cells. CDC7, a serine-threonine kinase overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types, plays a key r... |
| CDC7 Kinase Inhibitor BMS-863233 | An orally bioavailable cell division cycle 7 homolog (CDC7) kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. CDC7 kinase inhibitor BMS-863233 binds to and inhibits the activity of CDC7, which may result in the inhibition of DNA replication and mitosis, the induction of tumor cell apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in CDC7-overexpressing tumor cells. CDC7, a serine-threonine kinase overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types, plays an essential role in the ini... |
| CDC7 Kinase Inhibitor LY3143921 Hydrate | The hydrated form of an orally bioavailable inhibitor of cell division cycle 7 (CDC7) kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of CDC7 kinase inhibitor LY3143921 hydrate, LY3143921 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDC7, which may result in the inhibition of DNA replication and mitosis, the induction of tumor cell apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in CDC7-overexpressing tumor cells. The serine-threonine kinase CDC7 plays a key ro... |
| CDC7 Kinase Inhibitor NMS-1116354 | An orally bioavailable cell division cycle 7 homolog (CDC7) kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. CDC7 kinase inhibitor NMS-1116354 binds to and inhibits the activity of CDC7, which may result in the inhibition of DNA replication and mitosis, the induction of tumor cell apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in CDC7-overexpressing tumor cells. The serine-threonine kinase CDC7 initiates DNA replication by phosphorylating MCM2 (minichromosome maintenance co... |
| CDK Inhibitor AT7519 | An orally bioavailable small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. AT7519M selectively binds to and inhibits cyclin dependent kinases (CDKs), which may result in cell cycle arrest, induction of apoptosis, and inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CDKs are serine/threonine kinases involved in regulation of the cell cycle and may be overexpressed in some types of cancer cells. |
| CDK Inhibitor R547 | An orally bioavailable diaminopyrimidine compound and a cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. CDKs are ATP-dependent serine/threonine kinases that are important regulators of cell cycle progression and are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells. R547 selectively binds to and inhibits CDKs, especially CDK1/cyclin B, CDK2/cyclin E, and CDK4/cyclin D1. The inhibition of CDKs results in cell cycle arrest, inhibition of tumor cell proliferation, and i... |
| CDK Inhibitor SNS-032 | A small aminothiazole molecule and cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. SNS-032 binds to and prevents the phosphorylation of cyclin-dependent kinases, especially CDK2, 7, and 9 that regulate cell cycle progression. Inhibition of CDKs leads to cell cycle arrest and induces apoptosis. As a result, this agent causes cytotoxicity and prevents further tumor cell growth. |
| CDK1/2/4 Inhibitor AG-024322 | A cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. AG-024322 selectively inhibits cyclin-dependent kinases (particularly CDK1,2 and 4), enzymes that regulate cell cycle progression. Inhibition of CDK may result in cell cycle arrest, induction of apoptosis, and inhibition of DNA replication and tumor cell proliferation. |
| CDK2 Inhibitor AVZO-021 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK2 inhibitor AVZO-021 selectively targets, reversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of the CDK2/CyclinE1 (CCNE1; CCNE-1) complex. This inhibits retinoblastoma (Rb) phosphorylation and blocks G1/S transition, which leads to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of proliferation in CDK2 and/or CCNE1-overexpressing tumor cells.... |
| CDK2 Inhibitor AZD8421 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK2 inhibitor AZD8421 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK2. This may lead to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CDKs are serine/threonine kinases that are important regulators of cell cycle progression and cellular proliferation and are frequently overexpres... |
| CDK2 Inhibitor BG-68501 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK2 inhibitor BG-68501 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK2. This may lead to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CDKs are serine/threonine kinases that are important regulators of cell cycle progression and cellular proliferation and are frequently overexpressed in tumor c... |
| CDK2 Inhibitor INX-315 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK2 inhibitor INX-315 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK2. This may lead to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CDKs are serine/threonine kinases that are important regulators of cell cycle progression and cellular proliferation and are frequently overexpres... |
| CDK2 Inhibitor NKT3447 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK2 inhibitor NKT3447 selectively targets, reversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK2. This blocks G1/S cell cycle transition, which leads to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CDK2, a serine/threonine kinase that plays an important role in the regulation of cell cycle progression and cel... |
| CDK2/4/6 Inhibitor PF-07224826 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 2 (CDK2), 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK2/4/6 inhibitor PF-07224826 selectively targets and inhibits CDK2, CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase and prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition. This leads to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor ... |
| CDK2/4/6 Inhibitor RGT-419B | An orally bioavailable third-generation inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 2 (CDK2), 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK2/4/6 inhibitor RGT-419B selectively targets and inhibits CDK2, CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase and prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition. This leads to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor c... |
| CDK2/4/6 Inhibitor SYH2043 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 2 (CDK2), 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK2/4/6 inhibitor SYH2043 selectively targets and inhibits CDK2, CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase and prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition. This leads to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell... |
| CDK2/4/6/FLT3 Inhibitor FN-1501 | A small molecule multi-kinase inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) subtypes 2 (CDK2), 4 (CDK4), and 6 (CDK6) and FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3, FLK2, STK1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, CDK2/4/6/FLT3 inhibitor FN-1501 binds to and inhibits CDK2, CDK4, and CDK6, as well as FLT3. This may induce apoptosis and inhibit tumor cell proliferation in cancer cells that overexpress these kinases. CDKs are serine/threonine kinases that assist in ce... |
| CDK4 Inhibitor BGB-43395 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4 inhibitor BGB-43395 selectively inhibits CDK4, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and inhibits tumor cell proliferation. CDK4, a serine/threonine kinase, is upregulated in many tumor cell types ... |
| CDK4 Inhibitor P1446A-05 | A protein kinase inhibitor specific for the cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4) with potential antineoplastic activity. CDK4 inhibitor P1446A-05 specifically inhibits CDK4-mediated G1-S phase transition, arresting cell cycling and inhibiting cancer cell growth. The serine/threonine kinase CDK4 is found in a complex with D-type G1 cyclins and is the first kinase to become activated upon mitogenic stimulation, releasing cells from a quiescent stage into the G1/S growth cycling stage; CDK-cyclin co... |
| CDK4/6 Degrader BTX-9341 | An orally bioavailable bifunctional degrader of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 degrader BTX-9341 targets and binds to CDK4 and CDK6, as well as cereblon (CRBN), a component of the CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase complex that directs proteins for destruction. This leads to ubiquitination and induces proteasome-mediated degradation of CDK4 and CDK6, thereby inhibiting the phosphorylation of retino... |
| CDK4/6 Inhibitor BPI-1178 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor BPI-1178 selectively targets and inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are ... |
| CDK4/6 Inhibitor BPI-16350 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor BPI-16350 selectively inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threonine kinases t... |
| CDK4/6 Inhibitor CS3002 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor CS3002 selectively targets and inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are se... |
| CDK4/6 Inhibitor GLR2007 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor GLR2007 selectively targets and inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/thre... |
| CDK4/6 Inhibitor HS-10342 | An orally bioavailable, small molecular, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor HS-10342 selectively inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and ... |
| CDK4/6 Inhibitor PRT3645 | An orally bioavailable, brain-penetrant, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor PRT3645 selectively targets and inhibits the activity of CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor ce... |
| CDK4/6 Inhibitor SPH4336 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor SPH4336 selectively targets and inhibits the activity of CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. ... |
| CDK4/6 Inhibitor TQB3303 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor TQB3303 selectively targets and inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are s... |
| CDK4/6 Inhibitor TQB3616 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor TQB3616 selectively inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threo... |
| CDK4/6 Inhibitor UCT-03-008 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor UCT-03-008 selectively targets and inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase and prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition. This leads to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CDKs are serin... |
| CDK4/6 Inhibitor XZP-3287 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor XZP-3287 selectively targets and inhibits the activity of CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation.... |
| CDK7 Inhibitor LY3405105 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (CDK7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LY3405105 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK7, thereby inhibiting CDK7-mediated signaling. Specifically, inhibition of CDK7 prevents phosphorylation of the carboxy-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA Polymerase II, thereby preventing transcription of important cancer-promoting genes. In addition, it prevents phosphorylation of ... |
| CDK7 Inhibitor LY3405105 Besylate | The besylate salt form of LY3405105, an orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (CDK7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LY3405105 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK7, thereby inhibiting CDK7-mediated signaling. Specifically, inhibition of CDK7 prevents phosphorylation of the carboxy-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA Polymerase II, thereby preventing transcription of important cancer-promoting genes. In addi... |
| CDK7 Inhibitor Q901 | A selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (CDK7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CDK7 inhibitor Q901 selectively targets, covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK7, thereby inhibiting CDK7-mediated signaling. The inhibition of CDK7 prevents phosphorylation of the carboxy-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II, thereby preventing transcription of important cancer-promoting genes. It prevents phosphorylation of the cell cycle kinases CDK1, ... |
| CDK7 Inhibitor SY-5609 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (CDK7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SY-5609 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK7, thereby inhibiting CDK7-mediated signaling. Specifically, inhibition of CDK7 prevents phosphorylation of the carboxy-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA Polymerase II, thereby preventing transcription of important cancer-promoting genes. In addition, it prevents phosphorylation of th... |
| CDK7 Inhibitor TY-2699a | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (CDK7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK7 inhibitor TY-2699a selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK7, thereby inhibiting CDK7-mediated signaling. The inhibition of CDK7 prevents phosphorylation of the carboxy-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II, thereby preventing transcription of important cancer-promoting genes. The inhibition of CDK7 also prevents the phosphoryl... |
| CDK8/19 Inhibitor RVU120 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinases 8 and 19 (CDK8/19), with potential antineoplastic and chemoprotective activities. Upon oral administration, CDK8/19 inhibitor RVU120 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK8/19, which prevents activation of CDK8/19-mediated oncogenic signaling pathways, blocks selective transcription of various tumor-promoting genes, and inhibits proliferation of CDK8/19-overexpressing tumor cells. CDK8/19, serine/threonine kinases involv... |
| CDK9 Inhibitor GFH009 | A selective inhibitor of the serine/threonine cyclin-dependent kinase 9 (CDK9), the catalytic subunit of the RNA polymerase II (RNA Pol II) elongation factor positive transcription elongation factor b (PTEF-b; PTEFb), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the CDK9 inhibitor GFH009 targets, binds to and blocks the phosphorylation and kinase activity of CDK9, thereby preventing PTEFb-mediated activation of RNA Pol II, leading to the inhibition of gene transcription of var... |
| CDK9 Inhibitor PRT2527 | A selective inhibitor of the serine/threonine cyclin-dependent kinase 9 (CDK9), the catalytic subunit of the RNA polymerase II (RNA Pol II) elongation factor positive transcription elongation factor b (PTEF-b; PTEFb), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CDK9 inhibitor PRT2527 targets, binds to and blocks the phosphorylation and kinase activity of CDK9, thereby preventing PTEFb-mediated activation of RNA Pol II, leading to the inhibition of gene transcription of variou... |
| CEA/Tetanus Toxoid T Helper Epitope Fusion Protein-Expressing DNA Plasmid Vaccine | A plasmid vaccine encoding wild type human carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) fused to a tetanus toxoid T helper epitope, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon vaccination and subsequent intradermal electroporation, CEA/tetanus toxoid T helper epitope fusion protein-expressing DNA plasmid vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CEA-expressing tumor cells. CEA, a tumor associated antigen, is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell t... |
| CEA-MUC-1-TRICOM Vaccine CV301 | A cancer prime/boost vaccine-based immunotherapeutic consisting of a prime, which is comprised of a proprietary version of the recombinant vaccinia viral vector, modified vaccinia Ankara-Bavarian Nordic (MVA-BN) and a recombinant fowlpox viral vector, used for the boosts, encoding both the two tumor-associated antigens (TAA), carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and mucin-1 (MUC-1), and TRICOM, which is comprised of three immune-enhancing co-stimulatory molecules, B7-1, ICAM-1 and LFA-3, with poten... |
| CEA-targeting Agent RG6123 | An agent targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CEA-targeting agent RG6123 targets and binds to human CEA that is specifically expressed on certain tumor cells. This may, through an as of yet not elucidated mechanism of action, kill CEA-expressing tumor cells. CEA is overexpressed in many cancer cell types. |
| CEBPA-targeting saRNA MTL-CEBPA Liposome | A lipid-based nanoparticle formulation composed of liposomes encapsulating a small oligonucleotide encoding a small activating RNA (saRNA) targeting the CCAAT enhancer binding protein alpha (CEBPA; C/EBP-a) gene, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action through which saRNAs exert their effect(s) is still largely being investigated, it appears that, upon administration, the CEBPA-targeting saRNA MTL-CEBPA liposome targets and binds to a specific DNA regula... |
| Cedazuridine | An orally available synthetic nucleoside analog derived from tetrahydrouridine (THU) and cytidine deaminase inhibitor (CDAi), that can potentially be used to prevent the breakdown of cytidines. Upon oral administration, cedazuridine binds to and inhibits CDA, an enzyme primarily found in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and liver that catalyzes the deamination of cytidine and cytidine analogs. Given in combination with a cytidine, such as the antineoplastic hypomethylating agent decitabine, it... |
| Cedazuridine/Azacitidine Combination Agent ASTX030 | An orally available fixed-dose combination agent containing cedazuridine, a cytidine deaminase (CDA) inhibitor, and the cytidine antimetabolite azacitidine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of the cedazuridine/azacitidine combination agent ASTX030, cedazuridine binds to and inhibits CDA, an enzyme primarily found in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and liver that catalyzes the deamination of cytidine and cytidine analogs. This prevents the breakdown of azacitidi... |
| Cedefingol | A derivative of sphingosine, with potential antineoplastic activity. As a sphingosine derivative, cedefingol appears to inhibit protein kinase C (PKC), a kinase that plays an important role in tumorigenesis. |
| Cediranib | An orally bioavailable indole ether quinazoline derivative and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, cediranib binds to and inhibits the three VEGFR subtypes 1 (VEGFR-1), 2 (VEGFR-2) and 3 (VEGFR-3), thereby blocking VEGF-signaling, angiogenesis, and tumor cell growth. Expression of VEGFRs may be upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types. |
| Cediranib Maleate | The maleate salt of an indole ether quinazoline derivative with antineoplastic activities. Competing with adenosine triphosphate, cediranib binds to and inhibits all three vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR-1,-2,-3) tyrosine kinases, thereby blocking VEGF-signaling, angiogenesis, and tumor cell growth. |
| Celecoxib | A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with a diaryl-substituted pyrazole structure. Celecoxib selectively inhibits cyclo-oxygenase-2 activity (COX-2); COX-2 inhibition may result in apoptosis and a reduction in tumor angiogenesis and metastasis. |
| Cell Cycle Checkpoint/DNA Repair Antagonist IC83 | A proprietary agent with potential antineoplastic activity. IC83 appears to target cell cycle checkpoint/DNA repair enzymes, which are involved in the recognition and repair of damaged DNA and are overexpressed in many types of cancer cells. Inhibition of cell cycle checkpoint/DNA repair enzymes may enhance the cytotoxicity of DNA damaging agents and dissipate tumor cell resistance to chemotherapy and radiation therapy. |
| Cell Membrane-anchored/CSV-targeted IL-12-expressing T-lymphocytes | A preparation of T-lymphocytes engineered to express cell membrane-anchored and cell-surface vimentin (CSV)-targeted interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the cell membrane-anchored/CSV-targeted IL-12-expressing T-lymphocytes are directed to and induce selective toxicity in CSV-expressing tumor cells. The cell membrane-anchored IL-12 cytokine promotes the secretion of interferon-gamma (IFNg), activates natural killer cells... |
| Cemacabtagene Ansegedleucel | A preparation of allogeneic, frozen, 'off-the-shelf', universal transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered, gene-edited T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Using TALEN technology, the T-cell receptor (TCR) alpha chain and CD52 genes are deleted from the CAR19 T-cells. Upon administration, cemacabtagene ansegedleucel specifically targe... |
| Cemadotin | A synthetic dolastatin 15 analogue with potential antineoplastic activity.  Cemadotin suppresses spindle microtubule dynamics by binding to tubulin, thereby blocking mitosis. |
| Cemadotin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of cemadotin, a synthetic dolastatin 15 analogue with potential antineoplastic activity.  Cemadotin suppresses spindle microtubule dynamics by binding to tubulin, thereby blocking mitosis. (NCI04) |
| Cemiplimab | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1, PCD-1) protein, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, cemiplimab binds to PD-1, inhibits its binding to the PD-1 ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1), and prevents the activation of its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of cytotoxic T-cells. P... |
| Cemsidomide | An orally bioavailable modulator of the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex containing cereblon (CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, cemsidomide specifically binds to cereblon (CRBN), thereby affecting the ubiquitin E3 ligase activity, and targeting certain substrate proteins for ubiquitination. This induces proteasome-mediated degradation of certain transcription factors, including Ikaros (IKZF1) and Aiolos (IKZF3),... |
| Cenersen | A phosphorothioate oligonucleotide harboring nucleotide sequences complementary to tumor suppressor p53 mRNA. Cenersen hybridizes with p53 mRNA molecules, and induces Rnase H dependent hydrolysis of p53 transcripts in the double stranded section of the hybrids, thereby resulting in loss of p53 production. Loss of p53 activity leads to sensitization of cancer cells to other therapeutics. |
| Cenisertib | A water-soluble, synthetic small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Cenisertib selectively binds to and inhibits aurora kinases (AKs), a family of serine-threonine kinases which are important regulators of cell division and proliferation, and which are overexpressed in certain types of cancer. Inhibition of aurora kinases inhibits cell division and proliferation and induces apoptosis in tumor cells overexpressing AKs. |
| CENP-E Inhibitor GSK-923295A | A small-molecule inhibitor of the mitotic kinesin centromere-associated protein E (CENP-E), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, GSK-923295A binds to and inhibits CENP-E, thereby preventing cell division, inducing cell cycle arrest, and ultimately leading to an inhibition of cell proliferation. CENP-E, a kinetochore-associated mitotic kinesin, plays an essential role in chromosome movement during mitosis and regulates cell-cycle transition from metaphase to anaphase. |
| Centella Asiatica/Melon Extract/Vitamins Supplement | A nutritional supplement composed of Centella asiatica extract, melon extract rich in the antioxidant enzyme superoxide dismutase (SOD), vitamin D3 and the B vitamins B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin) and B6 (pyridoxine), that can potentially be used to reduce edema, paresthesia and pain. Upon oral administration of the centella asiatica/melon extract/vitamins supplement, the Centella asiatica may reduce inflammation, pain and swelling. In addition, Centella asiatica promotes the normal function... |
| Centipeda minima Decoction | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) formulation containing multiple flavones and their glycosides, phenolic and polyphenolic acids, and sesquiterpene lactones, with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of Centipeda minima decoction, the active ingredients may modulate the cell cycle, induce apoptosis and inhibit tumor cell proliferation. It may also modulate the immune system by reducing the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines ... |
| Ceralasertib | An orally available morpholino-pyrimidine-based inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia and rad3 related (ATR) kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Ceralasertib selectively inhibits ATR activity by blocking the downstream phosphorylation of the serine/threonine protein kinase CHK1. This prevents ATR-mediated signaling, and results in the inhibition of DNA damage checkpoint activation, disruption of DNA damage repair, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. I... |
| Ceramide Nanoliposome | A lipid-based nanoparticle formulation composed of the apoptosis-inducing sphingolipid ceramide encapsulated within nanoliposomes, with potential apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ceramide nanoliposomes accumulate in the tumor environment, due to the unique properties of the tumor vasculature, and easily enter tumor cells. This delivers ceramide inside the tumor cells, where ceramide induces apoptosis. Although the process is not completely understood, ceramide-dep... |
| Cerdulatinib | An orally bioavailable dual inhibitor of spleen tyrosine kinase (Syk) and Janus-associated kinases (JAK), with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, cerdulatinib specifically binds to and inhibits the activity of Syk, JAK1, and JAK3 with preferential inhibition of JAK1 and JAK3-dependent cytokine-mediated signaling and functional responses. This negatively affects the downstream JAK-STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) pathway, a... |
| Cereblon Modulator BTX-1188 | An orally bioavailable small molecule modulator of cereblon (CRBN), part of the cullin 4-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase complex (CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase; CUL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CRBN modulator BTX-1188 specifically targets and binds to CRBN, thereby affecting the ubiquitin E3 ligase activity. This leads to ubiquitination and induces proteasome-mediated degradation of the hematopoietic transcriptio... |
| Cereblon Modulator SP-3164 | An orally bioavailable avadomide derivative, which contains the stable, active (S)-enantiomer form of avadomide, and modulator of cereblon (CRBN), which is part of the cullin 4-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase complex (CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase; CUL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CRBN modulator specifically targets and binds to CRBN, thereby affecting the ubiquitin E3 ligase activity. This leads to ubiquitinatio... |
| Cereblon Modulator TQB3820 | An orally bioavailable modulator of cereblon (CRBN), part of the cullin 4-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase complex (CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase; CUL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CRBN modulator TQB3820 specifically binds to CRBN, thereby affecting the ubiquitin E3 ligase activity. This leads to ubiquitination and induces proteasome-mediated degradation of the hematopoietic transcription factors Ikaros (IKZF1) and... |
| Cergutuzumab Amunaleukin | A recombinant fusion protein comprised of cergutuzumab, a genetically engineered human immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody directed against carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA, CEACAM5, CD66e), linked to amunaleukin, an engineered, mutated variant form of interleukin-2 (IL-2v), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of cergutuzumab amunaleukin, the cergutuzumab moiety recognizes and binds to CEA, thereby specifically targeting IL-2v to CE... |
| Ceritinib | An orally available inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase activity of anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ceritinib binds to and inhibits wild-type ALK kinase, ALK fusion proteins and ALK point mutation variants. Inhibition of ALK leads to both the disruption of ALK-mediated signaling and the inhibition of cell growth in ALK-overexpressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin receptor superfamily and plays an important role in nervous sys... |
| Certociclib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, certociclib selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK2. This may lead to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CDK2, a serine/threonine kinase that plays an important role in the regulation of cell cycle progression and cellular proliferation, is overexpressed in certain tumor cells. |
| Cesalin | An antineoplastic protein isolated from the seeds of the plant Caesalpinia gilliesii with antineoplastic activity.  Cesalin intercalates into and crosslinks DNA and inhibits the incorporation of the nucleotides uridine and thymidine into DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Cesnicabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of adult human differentiated autologous T-lymphocytes that have been ex vivo expanded and transduced with a genetically-engineered lentiviral vector (LV) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) fused to the co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the CD3-zeta (CD3z) T-cell signaling domain, with potential immunostimulatin... |
| cEt KRAS Antisense Oligonucleotide AZD4785 | A proprietary formulation composed of a high affinity antisense oligonucleotide (ASO) that contains 2'-4' constrained ethyl residues (cEt) and targets KRAS (K-RAS) transcripts, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, cEt KRAS antisense oligonucleotide AZD4785 targets and binds, with high affinity, to a unique genetic sequence within KRAS messenger RNA (mRNA), thereby inhibiting translation of KRAS protein, including forms containing activating mutations. Inhib... |
| Cetrelimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 protein (PD-1, PCDC-1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, cetrelimab binds to PD-1, and inhibits the interaction with its ligands, programmed cell death 1 ligand 1 (PD-L1, PD-1L1) and PD-1 ligand 2 (PD-L2, PD-1L2). The inhibition of ligand binding prevents PD-1-mediated signaling and results in both T-cell activati... |
| Cetuximab | A recombinant, chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor (EGFR) with antineoplastic activity. Cetuximab binds to the extracellular domain of the EGFR, thereby preventing the activation and subsequent dimerization of the receptor; the decrease in receptor activation and dimerization may result in an inhibition in signal transduction and anti-proliferative effects. This agent may inhibit EGFR-dependent primary tumor growth and metastasis. EGFR is overexpressed on... |
| Cetuximab Sarotalocan Sodium | The sodium salt form of cetuximab sarotalocan, which consists of a chemical conjugate composed of the dye IR700 linked to cetuximab, a monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon injection of cetuximab sarotalocan sodium, the cetuximab moiety targets and binds to EGFR-expressing tumor cells, resulting in the internalization of the conjugate. Upon localized application of near-infrared (NIR) light, the IR700 dye... |
| Cetuximab-loaded Ethylcellulose Polymeric Nanoparticles Decorated with Octreotide | A preparation of ethylcellulose polymeric nanoparticles loaded with cetuximab, a recombinant, chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor (EGFR), and decorated with the somatostatin analog, octreotide, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the octreotide moiety directs the nanoparticles, which remain inert until a pH of 6.8 is reached, to somatostatin receptors (SSTRs), which are present on the cell membranes of many neuroendocrine tum... |
| Cevipabulin | A synthetic, water soluble tubulin-binding agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Cevipabulin appears to bind at the vinca-binding site on tubulin, but seems to act more similar to taxane-site binding agents in that it enhances tubulin polymerization and does not induce tubulin depolymerization. The disruption in microtubule dynamics may eventually inhibit cell division and reduce cellular growth. |
| Cevipabulin Fumarate | The fumarate salt of cevipabulin, a synthetic, water soluble tubulin-binding agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Cevipabulin appears to bind at the vinca-binding site on tubulin, but seems to act more similar to taxane-site binding agents in that it enhances tubulin polymerization and does not induce tubulin depolymerization. The disruption in microtubule dynamics may eventually inhibit cell division and reduce cellular growth., a small, water soluble, synthetic tubulin-binding agen... |
| Cevipabulin Succinate | The succinate salt form of cevipabulin, a synthetic, water soluble tubulin-binding agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Cevipabulin binds at the vinca-binding site on tubulin, but seems to act more similar to taxane-site binding agents in that it enhances tubulin polymerization and does not induce tubulin depolymerization. This stabilizes tubulin and prevents microtubule disassembly. The disruption in microtubule dynamics may eventually inhibit cell division and reduce cellular growth. |
| Cevostamab | A proprietary recombinant bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Fc receptor-like protein 5 (FCRH5; CD307; FCRL5; IRTA2; BXMAS1) and one that is directed against the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of cevostamab, the bispecific antibody binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes ... |
| cFMS Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor ARRY-382 | A small molecule and orally available inhibitor of colony-stimulating factor-1 receptor (CSF1R; cFMS) with potential antineoplastic activity. cFMS tyrosine kinase inhibitor ARRY-382 binds to and inhibits the activity of cFMS. By preventing colony-stimulating factor-1 (CSF-1)-cFMS signaling, this agent may inhibit tumor cell proliferation in cFMS-overexpressing tumor cells. cFMS, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed in certain tumor cell types and plays an essential role in macrophage ... |
| ChAdOx1-PSA/PAP/STEAP1/5T4 Prostate Cancer Vaccine ChAdOx1-PCAQ | A cancer vaccine consisting of recombinant non-replicating chimpanzee adenovirus Oxford 1 (ChAdOx1) viral vector encoding genes for the prostate cancer-associated antigens prostate-specific antigen (PSA), prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP), six-transmembrane epithelial antigen of the prostate 1 (STEAP1), and 5T4 oncofetal antigen, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ChAdOx1-PSA/PAP/STEAP1/5T4 prostate cancer vaccine ChAdOx1-PCAQ expresses PSA, PA... |
| Chaparrin | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from Simaba cedron and other plant species with potential antineoplastic activity.  Chaparrin is a mixture of compounds that includes flavonoids, antioxidants, and nordihydroguaiaretic acid (NDGA).  NDGA is an antioxidant and lipoxygenase inhibitor that promotes cell differentiation, induces G1 phase cell-cycle arrest, and causes apoptosis in certain cancer cell lines. (NCI04) |
| Chaparrinone | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from Ailanthus integrifolia sp. calycina and other plant species with potential antineoplastic activity.  Chaparrinone inhibits protein synthesis, has antimalarial properties, and is cytotoxic to some tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Checkpoint Kinase Inhibitor AZD7762 | A synthetic small molecule inhibitor of checkpoint kinases (Chks) with potential chemosensitizing activity. AZD7762 binds to and inhibits Chks, which may prevent cell cycle arrest and subsequent nucleotide excision repair in DNA-damaged tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell apoptosis. This agent may enhance the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging agents. Chks are protein kinases that regulate either G1/S or G2/M transitions in the cell cycle. In the presence of DNA damage or incomplete DNA replicatio... |
| Checkpoint Kinase Inhibitor XL844 | A synthetic small-molecule inhibitor of checkpoint kinases 1 and 2 (Chk1 and Chk2) with potential antineoplastic activity. XL844 binds to and inhibits Chks 1 and 2, resulting in inhibition of cell cycle arrest, progressive DNA damage, inhibition of DNA repair, and, ultimately, tumor cell apoptosis. This agent also inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 1 (VEGFR1) and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 3 (VEGFR3), important mediators of tumor angiogenesis and lymphogenes... |
| Chimeric Costimulatory Converting Receptor-modified NK-92 Cells | A preparation of genetically-modified natural killer (NK) cells derived from the allogeneic NK-92 cell line that are transduced with an as of yet unspecified chimeric costimulatory converting receptor (CCCR) for cancer retargeting purposes, with potential cytolytic, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion of the CCCR-modified NK-92 cells, the redirected NK cells recognize and bind to tumor cells. This leads to the secretion and release of perforins, granzymes, cytokines ... |
| Chimeric Humanized Anti-CD47 Antibody | A humanized, high-chimeric antibody targeting the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, chimeric humanized anti-CD47 antibody selectively binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa), a protein expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of phagocytosis. This... |
| ChiNing Decoction | A decoction of Liang Ge San, a traditional Chinese herbal medicine, with potential anti-inflammatory and anti-stomatitis activities. Although the complete mechanism of action through which the ChiNing decoction works has yet to be fully elucidated, upon oral administration, the active ingredients may inhibit the inflammatory response, possibly by reducing the levels of pro-inflammatory cytokines, such as interleukin 6 (IL-6) and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNFa), in the saliva. This may prot... |
| Chk1 Inhibitor GDC-0425 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of checkpoint kinase 1 (chk1), with potential antineoplastic and chemosensitization activities. Upon oral administration, chk1 inhibitor GDC-0425 selectively binds to chk1, thereby preventing activity of chk1 and abrogating the repair of damaged DNA. This may lead to an accumulation of damaged DNA, inhibition of cell cycle arrest, and induction of apoptosis. GDC-0425 may potentiate the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging agents and reverse tumor cell resistance to ch... |
| Chk1 Inhibitor GDC-0575 | A small molecule inhibitor of cell cycle checkpoint kinase 1 (Chk1), with potential chemosensitization activity. Chk1 inhibitor GDC-0575 specifically binds to and inhibits Chk1; this may result in tumor cells bypassing Chk1-dependent cell cycle arrest in the S and G2/M phases, which permits the cells to undergo DNA repair prior to entry into mitosis. Therefore, Chk1 inhibition may sensitize tumor cells to the DNA-damaging effects of certain chemotherapeutic agents. Chk1 is an ATP-dependent se... |
| Chk1 Inhibitor LY2880070 | An orally bioavailable, selective, adenosine triphosphate (ATP)-competitive inhibitor of checkpoint kinase 1 (chk1), with potential antineoplastic and chemosensitization activities. Upon oral administration, chk1 inhibitor LY2880070 selectively binds to chk1, thereby preventing chk1 activity and abrogating the repair of damaged DNA. This may lead to an accumulation of damaged DNA, inhibition of cell cycle arrest, and induction of apoptosis. LY2880070 may potentiate the cytotoxicity of DNA-dam... |
| CHK1 Inhibitor MK-8776 | An agent targeting cell cycle checkpoint kinase 1 (Chk1) with potential radiosensitization and chemosensitization activities. Chk1 inhibitor MK-8776 specifically binds to and inhibits Chk1, which may result in tumor cells bypassing Chk1-dependent cell cycle arrest in the S and G2/M phases to undergo DNA repair prior to entry into mitosis; tumor cells may thus be sensitized to the DNA-damaging effects of ionizing radiation and alkylating chemotherapeutic agents. Chk1 is an ATP-dependent serine... |
| Chk1 Inhibitor PEP07 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of checkpoint kinase 1 (Chk1), with potential antineoplastic and chemosensitization activities. Upon oral administration, Chk1 inhibitor PEP07 selectively binds to Chk1, thereby preventing Chk1 activity and abrogating the repair of damaged DNA. This may lead to an accumulation of damaged DNA, inhibition of cell cycle arrest, and induction of apoptosis. PEP07 may potentiate the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging agents and reverse tumor cell resistance to chemotherap... |
| CHK1 Inhibitor PF-477736 | A proprietary compound targeting cell cycle checkpoint kinase 1 (chk1) with potential chemopotentiation activity. Chk1 inhibitor PF-477736 inhibits chk1, an ATP-dependent serine-threonine kinase that is a key component in the DNA replication-monitoring S/G2 checkpoint system. By overriding the last checkpoint defense against DNA damaging agent-induced lethal damage, chk1 inhibitor PF-477736 may potentiate the antitumor efficacy of various chemotherapeutic agents against tumor cells with intri... |
| Chk1 Inhibitor SRA737 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of checkpoint kinase 1 (chk1), with potential antineoplastic and chemosensitization activities. Upon oral administration, chk1 inhibitor SRA737 selectively binds to chk1, thereby preventing chk1 activity and abrogating the repair of damaged DNA. This may lead to an accumulation of damaged DNA, inhibition of cell cycle arrest, and induction of apoptosis. SRA737 may potentiate the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging agents and reverse tumor cell resistance to chemother... |
| Chk2 Inhibitor PHI-101 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of checkpoint kinase 2 (chk2), with potential antineoplastic and chemopotentiating activities. Upon oral administration, Chk2 inhibitor PHI-101 binds to and inhibits the activity of chk2, which may prevent the repair of DNA damage caused by DNA-damaging agents. This may result in tumor cell apoptosis and potentiate the antitumor efficacies of various chemotherapeutic agents. Chk2, an ATP-dependent serine-threonine kinase, is a key component in the DNA replicat... |
| Chlorambucil | An orally-active antineoplastic aromatic nitrogen mustard. Chlorambucil alkylates and cross-links DNA during all phases of the cell cycle, resulting in disruption of DNA function, cell cycle arrest, and apoptosis.  (NCI04) |
| Chlorodihydropyrimidine | A pyrimidine derivative with antitumor activity. Chlorodihydropyrimidine competitively and reversibly inhibits dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase, a rate-limiting enzyme in the catabolism of fluoropyrimidines thereby blocking the degradation of the fluoropyrimidines. |
| Chloroquine | A 4-aminoquinoline with antimalarial, anti-inflammatory, and potential chemosensitization and radiosensitization activities. Although the mechanism is not well understood, chloroquine is shown to inhibit the parasitic enzyme heme polymerase that converts the toxic heme into non-toxic hemazoin, thereby resulting in the accumulation of toxic heme within the parasite. This agent may also interfere with the biosynthesis of nucleic acids. Chloroquine's potential chemosensitizing and radiosensitizi... |
| Chloroquinoxaline Sulfonamide | A chlorinated heterocyclic sulfanilamide with potential antineoplastic activity and potential immunosuppressive activity.  Chloroquinoxaline sulfonamide poisons topoisomerase II alpha and topoisomerase II beta, thereby causing double-stranded breaks in DNA, accumulation of unrepaired DNA, and apoptosis.  This agent also exhibits lymphotoxicity by inhibiting lymphocyte activation in a cell cycle-specific manner. (NCI04) |
| Chlorotoxin | A neurotoxin with potential anticancer property. Chlorotoxin (CTX) is a 36-amino acid peptide found in the venom of the deathstalker scorpion, and a chloride channel blocker. This toxin binds preferentially to glioma cells via the transmembrane endopeptidase matrix metalloproteinase-2 (MMP-2), and thereby prevents the spread of tumor cells. MMP-2 is specifically up-regulated in gliomas and related cancers, but is not normally expressed in brain. |
| Chlorotoxin (EQ)-CD28-CD3zeta-CD19t-expressing CAR T-lymphocytes | A preparation of genetically modified T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) comprised of a CD28 co-stimulatory signaling domain fused to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3zeta), a truncated form of CD19 (CD19t), an immunoglobulin (Ig) G4-Fc (EQ) spacer, and a peptide derived from chlorotoxin (CLTX), with potential imaging and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, chlorotoxin (EQ)-CD28-CD3zeta-CD19t-expressing CAR T-lym... |
| Chlorozotocin | A glucose-linked chloroethylnitrosourea with potential antineoplastic activity.  Chlorozotocin alkylates DNA and proteins, induces the formation of interstrand DNA and DNA-protein crosslinks, and causes DNA strand breakage, thereby damaging DNA and resulting in cell death.  This agent has been shown to exhibit antitumor and immunomodulatory effects in cell lines and animal models.  Chlorozotocin is a mutagen and is less myelotoxic than other nitrosoureas. (NCI04) |
| Choline Kinase Alpha Inhibitor TCD-717 | A small-molecule inhibitor of choline kinase alpha (CHKA), with potential antineoplastic activity. TCD-717 targets and binds to CHKA, an enzyme that plays a key role in the synthesis of phosphatidylcholine, the major phospholipid in eukaryotic cell membranes. Blockade of this enzyme induces cells to activate a different route for phospholipid production which causes a toxic effect and eventually leads to cell destruction. CHKA, overexpressed in human cancer cells while only minimally expresse... |
| CHP-HER-2 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine, containing nanoparticles of cholesteryl hydrophobized pullulan (CHP) complexed with the tumor-associated antigen HER-2/neu (ErbB-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Her-2/neu, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of tyrosine kinases, is overexpressed in various tumors, including breast, ovarian, and gastric cancers. Vaccination with CHP-HER-2 peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a humoral as well as a cytotoxic T-ce... |
| CHP-NY-ESO-1 Peptide Vaccine IMF-001 | A peptide cancer vaccine containing nanoparticles of cholesteryl hydrophobized pullulan (CHP) complexed with the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 protein, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, CHP-NY-ESO-1 peptide vaccine IMF-001 may stimulate the host immune system to mount a humoral and cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells expressing NY-ESO-1 antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. The self-aggregating CHP, composed of a pullulan backbo... |
| Chromomycin A3 | A glycosidic antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces griseus.  Chromomycin A3 reversibly binds to guanine-cytosine (G-C) base pairs in the minor groove of DNA, thereby inhibiting RNA synthesis.  This agent is used as a fluorescent chromosome dye. (NCI04) |
| Chrysanthemum morifolium/Ganoderma lucidum/Glycyrrhiza glabra/Isatis indigotica/Panax pseudoginseng/Rabdosia rubescens/Scutellaria baicalensis/Serona repens Supplement | An herbal mixture with potential antineoplastic effects. PC-SPES, an herbal supplement containing extracts from 8 herbs including Chrysanthemum morifolium, Ganoderma lucidum (a root fungus), Glycyrrhiza glabra (Spanish liquorice), Isatis indigotica, Panax pseudoginseng, Rabdosia rubescens, Scutellaria baicalensis, and Serona repens (saw palmetto), with potential antineoplastic and antiproliferative effects, specifically in prostate cancer cells. Its exact pharmacology is not fully understood ... |
| Cibisatamab | An anti-carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)/anti-CD3 bispecific monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Cibisatamab contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and one for human CEA, a tumor-associated antigen that is specifically expressed on certain tumor cells. Upon intravenous administration, cibisatamab binds to both T-cells and CEA-expressing tumor cells, which cross-links the T-cells with the tumor cells. This may result in a pote... |
| Cidan Herbal Capsule | A capsule-based formulation containing artificial bezoar, Strychni pulveratum (strychnos powder), camphol alcohol (borneol or borneo camphor) and extracts from Zedoary rhizome (Rhizoma curcumae), Pseudobulbus cremastrae seu pleiones (dried pseudobulb of Cremastra appendiculata), Yatantzu (seed of Brucca javanica), beehive, Bombyx mori (Bombyx batryticatus or silkworm), Danshen (dried root of Salvia miltiorrhiza or red sage root), Radix astragali, and Angelica, with potential antineoplastic ac... |
| Ciforadenant | A small molecule immune checkpoint inhibitor of the adenosine A2A receptor (ADORA2A) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ciforadenant binds to adenosine A2A receptors expressed on the surface of immune cells, including T-lymphocytes, natural killer (NK) cells, macrophages and dendritic cells (DCs). This prevents tumor-released adenosine from interacting with the A2A receptors on these key immune surveillance cells, thereby abrogating adenosine-induced immunosuppr... |
| Cifurtilimab | A proprietary, non-fucosylated monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD40 with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, cifurtilimab binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types, triggering both cellular proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), which activates B-cells and T-cells, and enhances the immune response against tumor cells. In addition, this agent binds to the CD40 antigen present ... |
| Cilengitide | A cyclic Arg-Gly-Asp peptide with potential antineoplastic activity.  Cilengitide binds to and inhibits the activities of the alpha(v)beta(3) and alpha(v)beta(5) integrins, thereby inhibiting endothelial cell-cell interactions, endothelial cell-matrix interactions, and angiogenesis. (NCI04) |
| Ciletatug Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of ciletatug, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin 18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ciletatug vedotin specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization and the release ... |
| Ciltacabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are transduced, ex vivo, with LCAR-B38M, a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing two bispecific anti-B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA) variable fragments of llama heavy-chain murine antibodies fused to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The antigen-binding region of the CAR is a non-scFv structure targeting two distinct regions of BCMA. Upon int... |
| Cimetidine | A histamine H(2)-receptor antagonist.  Enhancing anti-tumor cell-mediated responses, cimetidine blocks histamine's ability to stimulate suppressor T lymphocyte activity and to inhibit natural killer (NK) cell activity and interleukin-2 production.  Cimetidine also may inhibit tumor growth by suppressing histamine's growth-factor activity and blocking histamine-induced stimulation of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), a pro-angiogenic growth factor. (NCI04) |
| Cinacalcet Hydrochloride | The orally bioavailable hydrochloride salt of the calcimimetic cinacalcet. Cinacalcet increases the sensitivity of calcium-sensing receptors on chief cells in the parathyroid gland to extracellular calcium, thereby reducing parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion. A reduction in PTH levels inhibits osteoclast activity, which may result in a decrease in cortical bone turnover and bone fibrosis, and normalization of serum calcium and phosphorus levels. In addition, by reducing PTH levels, cinacalce... |
| Cinobufagin | A bufadienolide compound extracted from the dried venom secreted by the parotid glands of toads and one of the glycosides in the traditional Chinese medicine ChanSu, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the mechanism of action of cinobufagin is still under investigation, it has been found to suppress cancer cell proliferation and cause apoptosis in cancer cells via a sequence of apoptotic modulators that include mitochondrial Bax and cytosolic chromosome c, and caspases 3, 8, and ... |
| Cinobufotalin | A bufadienolide isolated from toad venom and utilized in traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) for its cardiotonic, diuretic and hemostatic effects, with potential cytotoxic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration and although the exact mechanism of action(s) (MoAs) through which this agent exerts its effects have yet to be fully discovered, cinobufotalin causes DNA fragmentation, decreases mitochondrial membrane potential (MMP), increases intracellular calcium (Ca2+) ion concentratio... |
| Cinrebafusp Alfa | A bivalent, bispecific fusion protein comprised of an anti-human epidermal growth factor receptor (HER2) monoclonal antibody linked to a CD137-targeting anticalin with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of cinrebafusp alfa, CD137 clustering is promoted by bridging CD137-positive T-cells with HER2-positive tumor cells, leading to the recruitment of tumor antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This may result in potent CTL-mediated lysis of ... |
| Cintirorgon | An orally bioavailable agonist of retinoic acid-related orphan receptor gamma (RORg), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of cintirorgon, this agent selectively binds to the nuclear receptor transcription factor RORg, forming a receptor complex that translocates to the nucleus, and binds to ROR response elements (ROREs), enhancing the function, proliferation and survival of type 17 T-cells, including Th17 (helper T-cells) and Tc17 (cytotoxic... |
| Cintredekin Besudotox | A recombinant chimeric protein with potent antitumor activity. Cintredekin besudotox is composed of interleukin-13 (IL13), a pleiotropic immunoregulatory cytokine, linked to a mutated form of pseudomonas exotoxin A; this agent targets and kills tumor cells that express the IL13 receptor (IL13R).The IL13 moiety attaches to the IL13R on the tumor cell membrane, facilitating the entry of the exotoxin. The exotoxin moiety induces caspase-mediated apoptosis of tumor cells via a mechanism involving... |
| Cisplatin | An alkylating-like inorganic platinum agent (cis-diamminedichloroplatinum) with antineoplastic activity. Cisplatin forms highly reactive, charged, platinum complexes which bind to nucleophilic groups such as GC-rich sites in DNA inducing intrastrand and interstrand DNA cross-links, as well as DNA-protein cross-links. These cross-links result in apoptosis and cell growth inhibition. |
| Cisplatin Liposomal | A synthetic formulation in which the antineoplastic agent cisplatin is encapsulated in lipids.  Cisplatin liposomal consists of small aggregates of cisplatin covered by a single lipid bilayer. Encasement in liposomes improves cisplatin's tumor bioavailability and toxicity profile. Liposomal encapsulation does not affect the pharmacological properties of cisplatin directly.  Cisplatin forms highly reactive, charged, platinum complexes which bind to nucleophilic groups such as GC-rich sites in ... |
| Cisplatin Micelle Formulation HA132 | A micelle formulation containing the inorganic platinum agent cisplatin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, cisplatin forms highly reactive, charged, platinum complexes which bind to nucleophilic groups such as GC-rich sites in DNA inducing intrastrand and interstrand DNA cross-links, as well as DNA-protein cross-links. These cross-links result in apoptosis and growth inhibition of tumor cells. |
| Cisplatin/Vinblastine/Cell Penetration Enhancer Formulation INT230-6 | A formulation composed of three agents in a fixed ratio: two chemotherapeutic agents, the platinum compound cisplatin and the vinca alkaloid vinblastine, and a proprietary amphiphilic excipient that acts as a penetration enhancer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intra-tumoral (IT) injection of INT230-6, the dispersion/cell penetration enhancer excipient of INT230-6 facilitates dispersion of the two drugs throughout the tumor tissue and enables increased cellular uptake of these a... |
| Cisplatin-E Therapeutic Implant | An injectable gel comprised of a collagen matrix containing the inorganic platinum (Pt) agent cisplatin and the sympathomimetic agent epinephrine with potential antineoplastic activity. After intratumoral injection, cisplatin forms highly reactive, positively charged, platinum complexes, which covalently bind to nucleophilic groups in DNA, preferably at the N7 position of guanine bases. This induces both intra- and inter-strand DNA cross-links. In addition, cisplatin forms DNA-Pt-protein cros... |
| cis-Urocanic Acid | A derivative of the amino acid histidine, formed in the mammalian skin from trans-urocanic acid upon ultraviolet radiation, and protodynamic agent, with potential anti-inflammatory and antiproliferative activity. Upon intravesical instillation of cis-urocanic acid (cis-UCA), this agent is protonated at the imidazolyl moiety in the mildly acidic extracellular tumor environment and penetrates into the cancer cell. Once inside the cell and due to the slightly alkaline pH inside the tumor cell, c... |
| Citarinostat | An orally available histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, citarinostat inhibits the activity of HDACs; this results in an accumulation of highly acetylated chromatin histones, the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. This leads to the inhibition of tumor oncogene transcription, and the selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes, which inhibit tumor cell division and induce tumor ce... |
| Citatuzumab Bogatox | A fusion protein immunotoxin consisting of a humanized, single-chain monoclonal antibody Fab fragment specific for the epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM) conjugated with a modified bouganin cytotoxin with potential antineoplastic activity. Citatuzumab bogatox binds to EpCAM, delivering modified bouganin cytotoxin directly to EpCam-positive tumor cells, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell protein synthesis and tumor cell death. EpCAM, a cell surface protein, is expressed by... |
| Cixutumumab | A fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human insulin-like growth factor-1 receptor (IGF-1R) with potential antineoplastic activity. Cixutumumab selectively binds to membrane-bound IGF-1R, thereby preventing the binding of the natural ligand IGF-1 and the subsequent activation of PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. Downregulation of the PI3K/AKT survival pathway may result in the induction of cancer cell apoptosis and may decrease cancer cellular proliferation. IGF-1R, a receptor ... |
| Cizutamig | A tetravalent, bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, cizutamig binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and BCMA on BCMA-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to BCMA-expressing tumor cells, leading to C... |
| CK1 Alpha Degrader CC-91633 | An orally bioavailable degrader of casein kinase 1 alpha (CK1alpha; CK1a), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CK1a degrader CC-91633 binds to and degrades CK1a, thereby inhibits the activity of CK1a. This prevents the enhanced binding of murine double minute X (MDMX) to p53, reduces the formation of CK1a and MDM2 complex, and prevents the interaction of MDM2 with p53. This prevents the inhibition of p53 and increases p53 activity. This induces p53-mediated cell ... |
| CK1 Alpha Degrader GLB-001 | An orally bioavailable molecular glue degrader of casein kinase 1 alpha (CK1alpha; CK1a), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CK1a degrader GLB-001 targets and binds to CK1a, and to E3 ubiquitin ligase, thereby creating a ternary complex. This induces E3 ligase ubiquitination and proteasome-mediated degradation of CK1a, and inhibits the activity of CK1a. This prevents the enhanced binding of murine double minute X (MDMX) to p53, reduces the formation of CK1a and ... |
| CK1alpha/CDK7/CDK9 Inhibitor BTX-A51 | The ditosylated salt of A51, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of casein kinase 1alpha (CK1alpha) and cyclin-dependent kinases 7 and 9 (CDK7 and CDK9), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, BTX-A51 binds to and inhibits the activity of CK1alpha, CDK7, and CDK9. Blocking the phosphorylation and kinase activity of CK1alpha prevents the enhanced binding of murine double minute X (MDMX) to p53, the formation of CK1alpha and MDM2 complex, and the resulting inhibition of p53. ... |
| CK2-targeting Synthetic Peptide CIGB-300 | A synthetic peptide targeting the substrates of casein kinase 2 (CK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration and nucleolar localization, CK2-targeting synthetic peptide CIGB-300 binds to phosphoacceptor sites on the CK2 substrates, in particular the oncoprotein nucleophosmin (B23 or NPM1). This blocks the activation of B23 and induces apoptosis, thereby inhibiting tumor cell growth in susceptible tumor cells. CK2, a protein kinase often overexpressed in a variety of canc... |
| CL 246738 | An immunomodulator, 3,6-bis(2-piperidinoethoxy) acridine trihydrochloride, used in a phase I study for possible immunostimulatory effects in colorectal cancer. (NCI) |
| Cladribine | A purine nucleoside antimetabolite analogue. Cladribine triphosphate, a phosphorylated metabolite of cladribine, incorporates into DNA, resulting in single-strand breaks in DNA, depletion of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP), and apoptosis.  Because this agent is resistant to adenosine deaminase, an enzyme that inactivates some antineoplastic agents, it is selectively toxic to lymphocytes and monocytes which exhibit little deoxynucleotide deaminase activ... |
| Clanfenur | A substituted benzoylphenylurea and an analogue of the pesticide diflubenzuron with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, clanfenur binds to the colchicine-binding site on beta-tubulin and inhibits the polymerization of microtubules, thereby preventing tumor cell replication. |
| Clarithromycin | A semisynthetic 14-membered ring macrolide antibiotic.  Clarithromycin binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits RNA-dependent protein synthesis in susceptible organisms.  Clarithromycin has been shown to eradicate gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue) lymphomas, presumably due to the eradication of tumorigenic Helicobacter pylori infection. This agent also acts as a biological response modulator, possibly inhibiting angiogenesis and tumor growth through alterations in growth... |
| Claturafenib | An orally bioavailable class 1 and 2 inhibitor of the serine/threonine-protein kinase B-raf (BRAF) protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, claturafenib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of class 1 and 2 BRAF alterations. This inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells which express these BRAF alterations. BRAF, a member of the raf family of serine/threonine protein kinases, plays a role in the regulation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)... |
| CLEC12A-targeting CCR/Anti-ADGRE2 CAR T Cells ADCLEC.syn1 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the human myeloid-restricted adhesion G protein-coupled receptor E2 (ADGRE2; EGF-like module receptor 2; EMR2; CD312), and a chimeric costimulatory receptor (CCR) targeting C-type lectin domain family 12 member A (CLEC12A, C-type-lectin-like molecule-1; CLL-1; CLL1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CLEC12A-targeting CC... |
| Clesitamig | A trispecific T-cell engager antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) delta-like protein 3 (DLL3), the T-cell costimulatory receptor CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, clesitamig targets and binds to DLL3 expressed on tumor cells, CD3 expressed on T-cells, and CD137 expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets inc... |
| Clifutinib | An orally bioavailable, selective, small molecule inhibitor of FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, clifutinib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of FLT3. This inhibits the proliferation of FLT3-expressing cancer cells. FLT3, a class III receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK), is overexpressed or mutated in most B-lineage neoplasms and in acute myeloid leukemias. |
| Clifutinib Besylate | The besylate salt form of clifutinib, an orally bioavailable, selective, small molecule inhibitor of FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, clifutinib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of FLT3. This inhibits the proliferation of FLT3-expressing cancer cells. FLT3, a class III receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK), is overexpressed or mutated in most B-lineage neoplasms and in acute myeloid leukemias. |
| Clioquinol | An orally bioavailable, lipophilic, copper-binding, halogenated 8-hydroxyquinoline with antifungal, antiparasitic and potential antitumor activities. Clioquinol forms a stable chelate with copper (copper (II) ions), which inhibits the chymotrypsin-like activity of the proteasome; consequently, ubiquitinated proteins may accumulate in tumor cells, followed by tumor cell apoptosis and the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis. In addition, the clioquinol-copper complex appears to decrease the expres... |
| Clivatuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the pancreatic cancer antigen MUC1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Clivatuzumab binds to tumor cells expressing the MUC1 antigen and prevents MUC1-mediated signaling. MUC1, a mucin antigen, is overexpressed in pancreatic cancer but not in normal, healthy pancreatic cells. |
| CLK Inhibitor BH-30236 | An orally bioavailable macrocyclic ATP-competitive inhibitor of CDC2-like kinase (CLK) family kinases, including CLK1, CLK2 and CLK4, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CLK inhibitor BH-30236 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CLK1/2/4, thereby inhibiting the phosphorylation of serine/arginine-rich (SR) domain-containing splicing factors (SFs). This modulates RNA splicing, prevents the expression of certain tumor-associated genes, and inhibits tumor ... |
| CLK Inhibitor CTX-712 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of CLK family kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CLK inhibitor CTX-712 binds to and inhibits the activity of CLK family kinases, thereby inhibiting the phosphorylation of serine/arginine-rich (SR) domain-containing splicing factors (SFs). This modulates RNA splicing, prevents the expression of certain tumor-associated genes, and inhibits tumor cell proliferation. In many cancer cells, core spliceosome proteins, including... |
| Clofarabine | A second generation purine nucleoside analog with antineoplastic activity. Clofarabine is phosphorylated intracellularly to the cytotoxic active 5'-triphosphate metabolite, which inhibits the enzymatic activities of ribonucleotide reductase and DNA polymerase, resulting in inhibition of DNA repair and synthesis of DNA and RNA. This nucleoside analog also disrupts mitochondrial function and membrane integrity, resulting in the release of pre-apoptotic factors, including cytochrome C and apopto... |
| Clomesone | The 2-chloroethyl ester of (methylsulfonyl) methanesulfonic acid with potential antineoplastic effects.  Acting as a chloroethylating agent, clomesone induces the formation of DNA interstrand crosslinks in some cell lines, and exhibits antitumor activity in some animal models.  Alkylating agents exert cytotoxic and, in some cases, chemotherapeutic effects by transferring alkyl groups to DNA, thereby damaging DNA and interfering with DNA synthesis and cell division. (NCI04) |
| Clomiphene | A triphenylethylene nonsteroidal ovulatory stimulant evaluated for antineoplastic activity against breast cancer.  Clomiphene has both estrogenic and anti-estrogenic activities that compete with estrogen for binding at estrogen receptor sites in target tissues.  This agent causes the release of the pituitary gonadotropins follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), leading to ovulation. (NCI04) |
| Clomiphene Citrate | The citrate salt form of clomiphene, a triphenylethylene nonsteroidal ovulatory stimulant evaluated for antineoplastic activity against breast cancer. Clomiphene has both estrogenic and anti-estrogenic activities that compete with estrogen for binding at estrogen receptor sites in target tissues.  This agent causes the release of the pituitary gonadotropins follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), leading to ovulation. (NCI04) |
| Clostridium Novyi-NT Spores | Spores of the bacterial strain Clostridium novyi-NT, the attenuated obligate anaerobic C. novyi, with potential immunostimulating, bacteriolytic, and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, Clostridium novyi-NT spores germinate exclusively in hypoxic tissue, such as avascular regions of tumors. Germination results in lysis and destruction of surrounding viable tumor cells. Due to their anaerobic nature, C. novyi-NT spores do not proliferate in oxygenated tumor regions. How... |
| cMet CAR-mRNA Electroporated Autologous T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been electroporated with an mRNA encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR or cMet) scFv (single chain variable fragment) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) coupled to the co-stimulatory molecule 4-1BB (CD137), with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, cMet CAR-mRNA electroporated autologous T lymphocytes direct T-cells to... |
| c-Met Inhibitor ABN401 | An orally bioavailable, highly selective inhibitor of the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ABN401 targets and binds to the c-Met protein, prevents c-Met phosphorylation and disrupts c-Met-dependent signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. c-Met protein is overexpressed or mutated in many ... |
| c-Met Inhibitor AMG 208 | A selective small-molecule inhibitor of the proto-oncogene c-Met with potential antineoplastic activity. c-Met inhibitor AMG 208 inhibits the ligand-dependent and ligand-independent activation of c-Met, inhibiting its tyrosine kinase activity, which may result in cell growth inhibition in tumors that overexpress c-Met. C-Met encodes the hepatocyte growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase, plays an important role in epithelial cell proliferation and has been shown to be overexpressed in a variet... |
| c-Met Inhibitor AMG 337 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the proto-oncogene c-Met with potential antineoplastic activity. c-Met inhibitor AMG 337 selectively binds to c-Met, thereby disrupting c-Met signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. c-Met protein, the product of the proto-oncogene c-Met, is a receptor tyrosine kinase also known as hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR); this protein is overex... |
| c-Met Inhibitor ANS014004 | An orally bioavailable, next-generation, type II inhibitor of the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, c-Met inhibitor ANS014004 selectively targets and specifically binds to the inactive state of c-Met (DFG-out) in the ATP pocket and inhibits the activity of the c-Met protein, including various c-Met oncogenic alterations such as MET exon 14 skipping mutation (METdeltaex14) and acquired mutations in cod... |
| c-Met Inhibitor DO-2 | An orally bioavailable, brain-penetrant inhibitor of the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, c-Met inhibitor DO-2 targets and binds to the c-Met protein, prevents c-Met phosphorylation and disrupts c-Met-dependent signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. c-Met protein is overexpressed or mut... |
| c-Met Inhibitor GST-HG161 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, c-Met inhibitor GST-HG161 targets and binds to c-Met protein, thereby disrupting c-Met-dependent signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein. c-Met protein is overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types and plays key roles in tumor cell proliferation, surv... |
| c-Met Inhibitor HS-10241 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HS-10241 targets and binds to the c-Met protein, prevents c-Met phosphorylation and disrupts c-Met-dependent signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. c-Met protein is overexpressed or mutated in many t... |
| c-Met Inhibitor JNJ-38877605 | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. c-Met inhibitor JNJ-38877605 selectively inhibits c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) involved in cancer cell survival and invasiveness, and tumor angiogenesis. c-Met is also known as hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR). |
| c-Met Inhibitor MK2461 | A selective small-molecule inhibitor of the proto-oncogene c-Met with potential antineoplastic activity. c-Met inhibitor MK2461 preferentially inhibits activated c-Met in an ATP-competitive manner, thereby inhibiting its tyrosine kinase activity, which may inhibit c-Met signaling and result in cell growth inhibition in tumors that overexpress c-Met. c-Met, encoding the hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR) tyrosine kinase, plays an important role in tumor cell proliferation and has been sh... |
| c-Met Inhibitor MK8033 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of c-Met, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, c-Met inhibitor MK8033 binds to and inhibits the autophosphorylation of the c-Met protein, which disrupts c-Met signal transduction pathways and may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. In addition, MK8033 inhibits Ron (receptor originated from nantes, MST1R). c-Met protein, which is encoded by the proto-oncogene MET, is a rec... |
| c-Met Inhibitor SPH3348 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, c-Met inhibitor SPH3348 targets and binds to c-Met protein, thereby disrupting c-Met-dependent signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein. c-Met protein is overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types and plays key roles in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasio... |
| c-Met/FLT3/TRK/CDK8/19 Inhibitor TSN084 | An orally bioavailable type II protein kinase inhibitor of multiple kinases, including c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), FMS-like tyrosine kinase-3 (FLT3; CD135; fetal liver kinase-2; Flk2), tropomyosin-related-kinase (tyrosine receptor kinase; TRK), and cyclin-dependent kinases 8 and 19 (CDK8/19), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, c-Met/FLT3/TRK/CDK8/19 inhibitor TSN084 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of variou... |
| c-Met-targeting Tri-specific Natural Killer Cell Engager ABBV-303 | An engineered immune modulating agent based on tri-specific natural killer (NK) cell engager therapy (TriNKET) that is targeting c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, c-Met-targeting tri-specific NK cell engager ABBV-303 targets and binds to c-Met on tumor cells and simultaneously binds to NK cells via the receptors CD16 and NKG2D (natural killer group 2D; killer cell lectin-like receptor K1; KLRK1... |
| CMV pp65 mRNA Vaccine | A lipid particle (LP)-based cancer vaccine containing messenger RNA (RNA) encoding the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) matrix protein pp65 (65 kDa lower matrix phosphoprotein; UL83), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of CMV pp65 mRNA vaccine, the mRNA is taken up, translated and presented by antigen presenting cells (APCs). This may result in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CMV pp65-expressing tumor cells leading to tumor cell lysi... |
| CMV pp65 Peptide-loaded Alpha-type-1 Polarized Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A dendritic cell (DC)-based cancer vaccine composed of mature polarized DCs (alpha-type-1 polarized DCs) loaded with the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) phosphoprotein pp65 (UL83), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CMV pp65 peptide-loaded alpha-type-1 polarized DC vaccine exposes the immune system to the CMV pp65 peptide, which may result in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CMV pp65-expressing tumor cells leading to tumor cell ... |
| CMV pp65 Peptide-pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) phosphoprotein pp65, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CMV pp65 peptide-pulsed autologous DC vaccine exposes the immune system to the CMV pp65 peptide, which may result in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CMV pp65-expressing tumor cells leading to cell lysis. The CMV pp65 protein, also called the 65 kDa lower... |
| CMVpp65-A*0201 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide-based cancer vaccine containing a mutated form of the HLA-A*0201-restricted cytomegaloviral epitope CMVpp65(495-503) with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, CMVpp65-A*0201 peptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against CMV-positive cells, resulting in cell lysis. HLA-A*0201 is an MHC class I molecule that presents antigenic peptides to CD8+ T cells; epitope design restricted to epitopes that bind mos... |
| C-myb Antisense Oligonucleotide G4460 | A 24-base phosphorothiolate antisense oligodeoxynucleotide (ODN) for the proto-oncogene c-myb with potential antineoplastic activity. C-myb antisense oligonucleotide G4460 binds to codon sequences 2 to 9 of c-myb mRNA, inhibiting translation of the transcript. Suppression of c-myb expression with this agent may result in the restoration of normal differentiation pathways, increased antiproliferative effects, and the induction of apoptosis in early progenitor hematopoietic cells and in tumor c... |
| c-Myb mRNA Degrader REM-422 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule mRNA degrader of the proto-oncogene c-Myb, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, c-Myb mRNA degrader REM-422 promotes the inclusion of poison exon into the c-Myb pre-mRNA transcript, resulting in the degradation of c-Myb mRNA and the reduction of both c-Myb mRNA and c-Myb protein levels. This may decrease proliferation in tumor cells with c-Myb dysregulation or overexpression. c-Myb, an oncogenic transcription factor that play... |
| c-Myb mRNA Degrader RGT-61159 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule mRNA modulator of the proto-oncogene c-Myb, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, c-Myb mRNA degrader RGT-61159 targets c-Myb RNA and selectively induces the inclusion of the cryptic "poison" exon into the c-Myb RNA transcript, resulting in the elimination of c-Myb mRNA transcript. This inhibits the production of the c-Myb protein. Suppression of c-Myb expression results in the restoration of normal differentiation pathways,... |
| CNDO-109-activated Allogeneic Natural Killer Cells | A preparation of non-interleukin-2 primed, tumor activated allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells with potential immunostimulating activity. The allogeneic NK cells obtained from a first or second degree relative of the patient are co-incubated with a lysate from the CTV-1 cell line, a minimally differentiated myeloid line derived from an acute myelogenous leukemia patient. Infusion of CNDO-109-activated allogeneic NK cells may be able to lyse and destroy NK-resistant tumor cells and a broad sp... |
| CNGRC Peptide-TNF Alpha Conjugate | A cytokine-peptide conjugate composed of the cytokine tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) chemically linked to the peptide CNGRC. The peptide moiety CNGRC, a ligand for the membrane-bound metalloprotease CD13, binds to endothelial cells of the angiogenic vasculature that express CD13 (also known as aminopeptidase N); subsequently, the TNF-alpha moiety induces apoptosis in endothelial cells expressing CD13, thereby inhibiting tumor-associated angiogenesis. (NCI05) |
| Cobimetinib | An orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase 1 (MAP2K1 or MEK1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Cobimetinib specifically binds to and inhibits the catalytic activity of MEK1, resulting in inhibition of extracellular signal-related kinase 2 (ERK2) phosphorylation and activation and decreased tumor cell proliferation. Preclinical studies have demonstrated that this agent is effective in inhibiting the growth of tumor cells bearing a B-RAF m... |
| Cobolimab | A monoclonal antibody against the inhibitory T-cell receptor, T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, cobolimab binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain T-cells, including tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated... |
| Cobomarsen | A locked nucleic acid (LNA)-based oligonucleotide inhibitor of microRNA (miRNA) 155 (miR-155), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, cobomarsen targets, binds to and inhibits miR-155. This silences miR-155 and prevents the translation of certain tumor promoting genes, which leads to the induction of cancer cell apoptosis and the inhibition of tumor cell growth. miR-155, an oncogenic single-stranded, non-coding RNA that is critical to the regulation of gene expression, i... |
| Codrituzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface oncofetal protein glypican-3 (GPC3) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-GPC3 monoclonal antibody GC33 binds to GPC3 and triggers a host immune response against GPC3-expressing tumor cells, which may result in tumor cell death. GPC3, a heparin sulfate proteoglycan, is frequently upregulated in hepatocellular carcinoma and mesoderm-derived organs such as the liver, lungs, and kidney. |
| Coenzyme Q10 | A naturally occurring benzoquinone important in electron transport in mitochondrial membranes. Coenzyme Q10 functions as an endogenous antioxidant; deficiencies of this enzyme have been observed in patients with many different types of cancer and limited studies have suggested that coenzyme Q10 may induce tumor regression in patients with breast cancer. This agent may have immunostimulatory effects. (NCI04) |
| Cofetuzumab Pelidotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody against human inactive tyrosine-protein kinase 7 (PTK7) linked, via a cleavable valine-citrulline linker, to an analog of the auristatin microtubule inhibitor dolastatin 10, auristatin-0101, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, cofetuzumab pelidotin targets and binds to PTK7 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and cleavage, auristatin-0101 binds to tubulin and inhibits its ... |
| Colchicine-Site Binding Agent ABT-751 | An orally bioavailable antimitotic sulfonamide. ABT- 751 binds to the colchicine-binding site on beta-tubulin and inhibits the polymerization of microtubules, thereby preventing tumor cell replication. This agent also disrupts tumor neovascularization, reducing tumor blood flow and so inducing a cytotoxic effect. (NCI04) |
| Cold Contaminant-free Iobenguane I-131 | An I 131 radioiodinated synthetic analogue of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, manufactured with a proprietary process, with radioisotopic and potential antineoplastic activities. Cold contaminant-free iobenguane I 131 (MIBG) localizes to adrenergic tissue and may be used to image or eradicate tumor cells that accumulate and metabolize norepinephrine. This agent is manufactured using a technology that avoids the production of unwanted "cold contaminants" (i.e., carrier molecules), which... |
| Colloidal Gold-Bound Tumor Necrosis Factor | A nanoparticle delivery system for recombinant human tumor necrosis factor (TNF) consisting of recombinant TNF bound to pegylated colloidal gold nanoparticles with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, colloidal gold-bound recombinant human TNF travels through the bloodstream, avoiding immune detection and uptake by the reticuloendothelial system because of nanoparticle pegylation. Due to their size, the colloidal gold nanoparticles exit the circulatory system on... |
| Colorectal Cancer Peptide Vaccine PolyPEPI1018 | A peptide cancer vaccine consisting of a combination of six synthetic polypeptides directed against cancer testis antigens (CTAs) frequently expressed in colorectal cancers, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulatory activities. Colorectal cancer peptide vaccine PolyPEPI1018 potentially elicits a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response against colorectal tumors expressing the CTAs associated with the vaccine, which may result in a reduction in tumor cell proliferation. |
| Colorectal Tumor-Associated Peptides Vaccine IMA910 | A synthetic tumor-associated peptide (TUMAP)-based cancer vaccine directed against colorectal cancer with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Synthetic colorectal tumor-associated peptides vaccine IMA910 contains 13 different synthetic TUMAPs, each of which represents a tumor associated antigen (TAA) specific for colorectal cancer. Upon administration, this agent may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against colorectal tumors expressing these TAAs, which ma... |
| Coltuximab Ravtansine | An immunoconjugate consisting of an anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody conjugated to the maytansinoid DM4, a derivative of the cytotoxic agent maytansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Coltuximab ravtansine targets the cell surface antigen CD19, found on a number of B-cell-derived cancers. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the immunoconjugate releases DM4, which binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, resulting in inhibition of cell... |
| Combretastatin | A stilbenoid phenol, originally isolated from the bark of the African bush willow tree Combretum caffrum, with vascular disrupting and antineoplastic activities. Combretastatin targets and binds to the colchicine-binding site of tubulin, thereby impairs the polymerization of tubulin dimers and prevents the formation of microtubules in the endothelial cells of tumor. As a result, this may eventually lead to a destruction of the tumor vasculature, disruption of tumor blood flow and tumor cell n... |
| Combretastatin A-1 | A stilbenoid originally isolated from the plant Combretum caffrum, with vascular-disrupting and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, combretastatin A1 (CA1) promotes rapid microtubule depolymerization; endothelial cell mitotic arrest and apoptosis; destruction of the tumor vasculature; disruption of tumor blood flow; and tumor cell necrosis. In addition, orthoquinone intermediates, metabolized from combretastatin A1 by oxidative enzymes found to be elevated in some tumor types, may... |
| Combretastatin A1 Diphosphate | The diphosphate prodrug of the stilbenoid combretastatin A1, originally isolated from the plant Combretum caffrum, with vascular-disrupting and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, combretastatin A1 diphosphate (CA1P) is dephosphorylated to the active metabolite combretastatin A1 (CA1), which promotes rapid microtubule depolymerization; endothelial cell mitotic arrest and apoptosis, destruction of the tumor vasculature, disruption of tumor blood flow and tumor cell necrosis may ens... |
| Commensal Bacterial Strain Formulation BMC128 | An oral formulation composed of four unique and live commensal bacterial strains that are natural inhabitants of the human intestinal tract, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the commensal bacterial strain formulation BMC128, the bacterial strains may promote intra-tumoral lymphocytic infiltration and increase the population of natural killer (NK) cells, and cytotoxic CD4+ and CD8+ T-cells. This may enhance anti-tumor immune response and ma... |
| Commensal Bacterial Strain Formulation VE800 | An orally bioavailable formulation composed of eleven alive, distinct nonpathogenic, nontoxigenic, human commensal bacterial strains, isolated from healthy human donor feces, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the commensal bacterial strain formulation VE800, the bacterial strains induce an interferon-gamma (IFN-g)-producing CD8-positive T-cell-mediated immune response in the intestines. This may activate an IFN-g-expressing CD8+ T-cell -med... |
| Compound Kushen Injection | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) formulation composed of compound Kushen injection (CKI) containing aqueous extracts from the roots of Kushen (Radix Sophorae Flavescentis) and Baituling (Rhizoma smilacis Glabrae), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. CKI contains numerous chemicals including alkaloids, such as matrine and oxymatrine, flavonoids, alkylxanthones, quinones, triterpene glycosides, fatty acids, and essential oils. Although the exact mechanism(s) of ac... |
| Conatumumab | A fully human monoclonal agonist antibody directed against the extracellular domain of human TRAIL (tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis-inducing ligand) receptor 2 (TR-2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Conatumumab mimics the activity of native TRAIL, binding to and activating TR-2, thereby activating caspase cascades and inducing tumor cell apoptosis. TR-2 is expressed by a variety of solid tumors and cancers of hematopoietic origin. |
| Conbercept | A recombinant, soluble, vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) protein composed of the second immunoglobulin (Ig) domain of VEGFR-1, the third and fourth Ig domains of VEGFR-2, and the constant region (Fc) of human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) with potential anti-angiogenic activities. Upon intravitreal injection, conbercept, functioning as a soluble decoy receptor, binds with high affinity to all VEGF-A isoforms, VEGF-B, as well as placenta growth factor (PlGF)-1 and PlGF-2. This pr... |
| Concentrated Lingzhi Mushroom Extract | A nutritional supplement and traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) composed of a highly concentrated extract of the fruiting body of the red reishi mushroom Ganoderma lucidum  (G. lucidum; lingzhi), with potential immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, the concentrated lingzhi mushroom extract may support the body's immune function and may support the immune system to eliminate tumor cells. The lingzhi mushroom extract contains high amounts of G. lucidum polysaccharides and G. lucidum... |
| Conditionally Replicative Adenovirus 5/3-delta24 | A replication competent, oncolytic adenovirus serotype 5 (Ad5) with its knob domain of fiber protein substituted by that of the serotype 3 (Ad5/3-delta24), with potential oncolytic activity. Upon administration, oncolytic adenovirus Ad5/3-delta24 binds to specific Ad3 receptors that are highly expressed on certain tumor cells. This results in the replication of oncolytic adenovirus Ad5/3-delta24 in tumor cells and induces tumor cell lysis which may potentially result in the activation of a sy... |
| Conditionally-activated Anti-EpCAM Antibody-drug Conjugate CX-2051 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epithelial cell adhesion molecule (Ep-CAM; EpCAM; CD326), linked to a proprietary masking peptide through a protease-cleavable linker, and conjugated to a derivative of camptothecin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of conditionally-activated anti-EpCAM ADC CX-2051, the linkage system is stable in the circulation and, upon extravasation into t... |
| Contusugene Ladenovec | A replication-defective adenoviral-CMV vector that encodes a wild-type p53 gene. Contusugene ladenovec induces tumor cells that have been transfected with the vector to produce wild-type p53, a tumor suppressor gene that is deleted or mutated in a significant number of cancers. In transfected tumor cells, the wild-type p-53 gene product exerts an antitumor effect by blocking cell cycle progression at the G1/S regulation point, activating DNA repair proteins in the presence of DNA damage, and ... |
| Copanlisib | A phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Copanlisib inhibits the activation of the PI3K signaling pathway, which may result in inhibition of tumor cell growth and survival in susceptible tumor cell populations. Activation of the PI3K signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis and dysregulated PI3K signaling may contribute to tumor resistance to a variety of antineoplastic agents. |
| Copper Cu 64-ATSM | A radioconjugate consisting of a lipophilic copper(II)bis(thiosemicarbazone) labeled with the positron- and beta-emitting isotope (64)Cu with hypoxia-selective and antineoplastic activities. With a high membrane permeability and redox potential, copper Cu 64-ATSM is preferentially taken up by hypoxic cells compared to normoxic cells; the extent of retention in tissue is inversely related to the state of tissue oxygenation allowing the quantitation of tissue hypoxia by positron emission tomogr... |
| Copper Cu 67 SAR-bisPSMA | A radioconjugate composed of two human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-binding motifs linked to a sarcophagine (SAR)-based chelator and radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope copper Cu 67, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of copper Cu 67 SAR-bisPSMA, the PSMA-binding motifs target and bind to PSMA-expressing tumor cells, thereby delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. PSMA, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) an... |
| Copper Cu 67 SAR-bombesin | A radioconjugate composed of bombesin (BBN), a tetra-decapeptide that binds with high affinity to the gastrin-releasing peptide receptor (GRPR), linked by the sarcophagine chelator (SAR) and radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope copper Cu 67, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of copper Cu 67 SAR-BBN, the BBN moiety targets and binds to GRPR, thereby delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to GRPR-expressing tumor cells. GRPR, also called bombesin rec... |
| Copper Cu 67 Ucasareotide Dasaroxetan | A radioconjugate consisting of the tyrosine-containing somatostatin analog Tyr3-octreotate (TATE) conjugated with the bifunctional chelator 5-(8-methyl-3,6,10,13,16,19-hexaaza-bicyclo[6.6.6]icosan-1-ylamino)-5-oxopentanoic acid (MeCOSar) and radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope copper Cu 67, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, copper Cu 67 ucasareotide dasaroxetan binds to somatostatin receptors (SSTRs), with high affinity to type 2 SSTR, present on the ce... |
| Copper Gluconate | The orally bioavailable copper salt of D-gluconic acid. In addition to its roles as an enzyme cofactor for cytochrome C oxidase and superoxide dismutase, copper forms complexes with the thiocarbamate disulfiram (DSF) forming DSF-copper complexes, which enhances the DSF-mediated inhibition of the 26S proteasome; proteasome inhibition may result in inhibition of cellular protein degradation, cessation of cell cycle progression, inhibition of cellular proliferation, and the induction of apoptosi... |
| Cord Blood Derived CAR T-Cells | A preparation of umbilical cord blood (CB)-derived T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) that targets an as of yet unidentified tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the cord blood derived CAR T-cells, the T-cells target, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in tumor cells expressing the TAA. |
| Cord Blood-derived Expanded Allogeneic Natural Killer Cells | A preparation of human umbilical cord blood (UCB)-derived and ex vivo-expanded allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells, with immunomodulating and cytotoxic activities. Upon infusion of the cord blood-derived expanded allogeneic NK cells, these cells recognize and bind to tumor cells, and secrete perforins, granzymes, and cytokines, which cause cancer cell lysis. |
| Cordycepin | A purine nucleoside antimetabolite and antibiotic isolated from the fungus Cordyceps militaris with potential antineoplastic, antioxidant, and anti-inflammatory activities. Cordycepin is an inhibitor of polyadenylation, activates AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) and reduces mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) signaling, which may result in both the induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. mTOR, a serine/threonine kinase belonging to the phosphatidylino... |
| Cordycepin Triphosphate | The triphosphate salt of cordycepin, a purine nucleoside antimetabolite and antibiotic isolated from the fungus Cordyceps militaris with potential antineoplastic, antioxidant, and anti-inflammatory activities. Cordycepin is an inhibitor of polyadenylation, activates AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), and reduces mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) signaling, which may result in both the induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. mTOR, a serine/threonine k... |
| CoREST Inhibitor TNG260 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the histone deacetylase 1 (HDAC1)-containing co-repressor of repressor element-1 silencing transcription (CoREST) complex, with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon oral administration, CoREST inhibitor TNG260 binds to CoREST complex and inhibits the catalytic activity of HDAC1, which results in an accumulation of highly acetylated chromatin histones, the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. This m... |
| Coriolus Versicolor Extract | An extract derived from the mushroom Coriolus versicolor, containing polysaccharide K (PSK) and polysaccharide-peptide (PSP), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Coriolus versicolor extract has been shown to stimulate the production of lymphocytes and cytokines, such as interferons and interleukins, and may exhibit antioxidant activities. However, the precise mechanism of action(s) of this agent is unknown. |
| Corticorelin Acetate | The acetate salt form of coticorelin, a synthetic peptide of neurohormone corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), with potential antitumor and antiangiogenesis activities. Upon administration, corticorelin stimulates adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secretion from the anterior pituitary gland. In turn, ACTH stimulates cortisol production from the adrenal cortex and is regulated by a negative feedback mechanism. Corticorelin appears to inhibit swelling around brain tumors through reduction in ... |
| Cortisone Acetate | The acetate salt form of cortisone, a synthetic or semisynthetic analog of the naturally occurring cortisone hormone produced by the adrenal glands with anti-inflammatory and immunomodulating properties. Cortisone acetate diffuses through the cell membrane and binds to nuclear glucocorticoid receptors. The receptor-ligand complex binds to promotor regions of certain genes and initiates RNA transcription. This results in an induction of synthesis of certain anti-inflammatory proteins while inh... |
| Cosibelimab | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1), human monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, cosibelimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1). This reverses T-cell inactivation cau... |
| Cositecan | A synthetic silicon-containing agent related to camptothecin with antineoplastic properties.  Cositecan stabilizes the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA, resulting in DNA breaks and consequently triggering apoptosis.  Because it is lipophilic, cositecan exhibits enhanced tissue penetration and bio-availability compared to water-soluble camptothecins. |
| Cotsiranib | A polypeptide nanoparticle (PNP)-based small interfering RNA (siRNA) therapeutic directed against transforming growth factor-beta 1 (TGF-beta 1) and cyclo-oxygenase-2 (COX-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intralesional administration, cotsiranib binds to both TGF-beta 1 and COX-2 messenger RNAs (mRNAs), preventing the translation and expression of TGF-beta 1 and COX-2 proteins. This inhibits TGF-beta 1-mediated signaling and abrogates TGF-beta 1-mediated immunosuppression, whi... |
| COX-2 Inhibitor ECP-1014 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the enzyme cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), with potential analgesic, anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, COX-2 inhibitor ECP-1014 inhibits COX-2, thereby inhibiting the conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandins, including prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). This may reduce pain and inflammation. The COX-2/PGE 2 pathway may also play an important role in tumor proliferation, angiogenesis, metastasis and immune suppression in the ... |
| CpG Oligodeoxynucleotide GNKG168 | A synthetic, 21-mer, unmethylated CpG motif-based oligodeoxynucleotide (ODN), with immunostimulatory activity. CpG oligodeoxynucleotide GNKG168 binds to and activates Toll-like receptor 9 (TLR9) and is taken up into cells by endocytosis; once internalized, it may activate numerous signaling transduction pathways resulting in the release of multiple cytokines, such as immunoglobulins (Igs), interferons (IFNs), interleukins (ILs) and tumor necrosis factor (TNF). Through activation of TLR9, this... |
| CpG-STAT3 siRNA CAS3/SS3 | A Toll-like receptor 9 (TLR9) agonist/STAT3 siRNA conjugate composed of a CpG oligodeoxynucleotide (ODN) and a short interfering RNA (siRNAs) directed against signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of CpG-STAT3 siRNA CAS3/SS3, the CpG ODN moiety binds to and activates TLR9, and the conjugate is internalized by various antigen-presenting cells (APCs), including dendritic cells (DCs), macrop... |
| cPLA2 Inhibiting Silicone-based Gel AVX001 | A topical preparation composed of a silicone gel containing a docosahexaenoic acid derivative and cytosolic group IVA phospholipase A2 alpha (cytosolic phospholipase A2 group IVA; cPLA2a; GIVA cPLA2; Group IVA cPLA2) inhibitor, with potential anti-inflammatory activity. Upon topical application to the affected site(s), the cPLA2 inhibiting silicone-based gel AVX001 binds to and inhibits the activity of cPLA2alpha. This may inhibit cPLA2alpha-mediated inflammation. cPLA2alpha catalyzes the rel... |
| c-raf Antisense Oligonucleotide ISIS 5132 | A synthetic, 20-base antisense oligodeoxynucleotide that hybridizes to c-raf kinase messenger RNA.  ISIS 5132 has been shown to specifically suppress Raf-1 expression both in vitro and in vivo.  Raf-1 serine/threonine kinase functions as a critical effector of Ras-mediated signal transduction; constitutive activation of this pathway directly contributes to malignant transformation. (NCI04) |
| Crelosidenib | An orally available inhibitor of mutant form of the isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1; IDH-1; IDH1 [NADP+] soluble), including the substitution mutation at arginine (R) in position 132, IDH1(R132), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, crelosidenib specifically and covalently binds to and modifies a single cysteine (Cys269) in the allosteric binding pocket of mutant forms of IDH1, thereby inactivating IDH1. This inhibits the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hy... |
| Crenigacestat | An orally available inhibitor of the integral membrane protein gamma-secretase (GS), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, crenigacestat binds to the GS protease complex, thereby blocking the proteolytic cleavage and release of the Notch intracellular domain (NICD), which would normally follow ligand binding to the extracellular domain of the Notch receptor. This prevents both the subsequent translocation of NICD to the nucleus to form a transcription factor complex and... |
| Crenolanib | An orally bioavailable benzimidazole targeting the platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) subtypes alpha and beta and FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (Flt3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, crenolanib binds to and inhibits both wild-type and mutated forms of PDGFR and Flt3, which may result in the inhibition of PDGFR- and Flt3-related signal transduction pathways. This results in inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation in PDGFR an... |
| Crenolanib Besylate | The besylate salt form of crenolanib, an orally bioavailable benzimidazole targeting the platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) subtypes alpha and beta and FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (Flt3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, crenolanib binds to and inhibits both wild-type and mutated forms of PDGFR and Flt3, which may result in the inhibition of PDGFR- and Flt3-related signal transduction pathways. This results in inhibition of tumor angiogenesis an... |
| Cretostimogene Grenadenorepvec | A recombinant oncolytic adenovirus encoding the immunohematopoietic cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, cretostimogene grenadenorepvec selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, which may result in tumor cells lysis. Synergistically, GM-CSF expressed by the oncolytic adenovirus may promote a cytotoxic T cell response against tumor cells harboring the oncolytic adenovirus, resulting in an immune... |
| CRISPR-Cas9 Engineered TGFbRII-deleted Anti-EGFR CAR T-cells | A preparation of human T-lymphocytes genetically engineered to express an anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) gene and gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to disrupt expression of transforming growth factor-beta receptor II (TGFbRII), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CRISPR-Cas9 engineered TGFbRII-deleted anti-EGFR CAR T-cel... |
| CRISPR-Cas9-mediated PD-1 and TCR Gene-deleted Anti-mesothelin CAR T-cells | A preparation of human T-lymphocytes transduced with a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin and gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to eliminate endogenous TCR and programmed death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed cell death-1) expression, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The CRISPR guide RNA (gRNA) specifically targets and binds to co... |
| Crizotinib | An orally available aminopyridine-based inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and the c-Met/hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR) with antineoplastic activity. Crizotinib, in an ATP-competitive manner, binds to and inhibits ALK kinase and ALK fusion proteins. In addition, crizotinib inhibits c-Met kinase, and disrupts the c-Met signaling pathway. Altogether, this agent inhibits tumor cell growth. ALK belongs to the insulin receptor superfamily and plays... |
| CRL4-CRBN Modulator KPG-818 | An orally bioavailable modulator of the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex containing cereblon (CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CRL4-CRBN modulator KPG-818 specifically targets and binds to cereblon (CRBN) of the E3 ubiquitin ligase (CRL4-CRBN) complex, thereby affecting the ubiquitin E3 ligase activity, and targeting certain substrate proteins for ubiquitination. This induces proteasome-mediated degradation of ... |
| Crolibulin | A small molecule tubulin polymerization inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Microtubulin inhibitor EPC2407 binds to the colchicine-binding site on beta-tubulin and inhibits the polymerization of tubulin into microtubules, which may result in cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. As a vascular disruption agent (VDA), this agent also disrupts tumor neovascularization, which may result in a reduction in tumor blood flow and t... |
| Cryptophycin | The cryptophycins are a family of 16-membered macrolide antimitotic agents isolated from the cyanobacteria Nostoc sp. The mechanism of anticancer activity of the cryptophycins has been associated with their destabilization of microtubules and induction of bcl-2 phosphorylation leading to apoptosis. Cryptophycins demonstrated activity against the wide spectrum of solid tumors including those that overexpress the multidrug resistance efflux pump P-glycoprotein. (NCI) |
| Cryptophycin 52 | A member of the cryptophycin family of antitumor agents that binds to microtubules, inducing growth arrest and apoptosis in solid tumors. (NCI) |
| CSF1R Inhibitor HMPL-653 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; CD115; M-CSFR), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CSF1R inhibitor HMPL-653 targets and binds to CSF1R, thereby blocking CSF1R activation and CSF1R-mediated signaling. This inhibits the activities of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs), and prevents immune suppression in the tumor microenvironment (TME). Thi... |
| CSF1R Inhibitor PLX73086 | An inhibitor of colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CSF1R inhibitor PLX73086 targets and binds to CSF1R, thereby blocking CSF1R activation and CSF1R-mediated signaling. This inhibits the activity of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) in the tumor tissue and prevents TAM-related tumor cell growth. CSF1R, also known as macrophage colony-stimulating factor receptor (M-CSFR) and CD115 (cluster of differentiation 115),... |
| CSF-1R/DDR1/VEGFR2 Inhibitor C019199 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; CD115; M-CSFR), discoid domain receptor type 1 (DDR1) and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CSF-1R/DDR1/VEGFR2 inhibitor C019199 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CSF-1R. This inhibits CSF1R activation and CSF1R-mediated signaling, thereby inhibiting the activities of tumor-associated macrophages (TAM... |
| CT2584 | A lipid metabolism and phosphatidic acid modulator, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CT-2584 inhibits phospholipid signaling which may inhibit tumor cell proliferation. |
| CT2584 Mesylate | The mesylate form of CT-2584, a lipid metabolism and phosphatidic acid modulator, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CT-2584 inhibits phospholipid signaling which may inhibit tumor cell proliferation. |
| CTPS1 Inhibitor STP938 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of cytidine triphosphate synthase 1 (CTPS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CTPS1 inhibitor STP938 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CTPS1, thereby decreasing the production of cytidine triphosphate (CTP), an essential building block of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA). This may disrupt DNA and RNA synthesis and trigger apoptosis. CTPS1, an enzyme that catalyzes the rate-limi... |
| Cudarolimab | An agonistic fully human anti-OX40 (tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4; CD134; OX40L receptor) with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, cudarolimab selectively binds to and activates OX40. Receptor activation induces proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes and results in a T-cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells, which leads to tumor cell lysis. OX40, a cell surface glycoprotein and member ... |
| Cultured Lentinula edodes Mycelia Extract | An orally bioavailable capsule-based formulation of a standardized extract of cultured Lentinula edodes (Shiitake mushroom) mycelia (ECLM), which is high in the polysaccharides beta- and alpha-glucans, with potential antioxidant, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, the cultured Lentinula edodes mycelia extract activates the immune system, by binding to toll-like receptors (TLRs), specifically TLR-4, and induces the activation of dendritic cells (DCs), nat... |
| Curcumin | A phytopolylphenol pigment isolated from the plant Curcuma longa, commonly known as turmeric, with a variety of pharmacologic properties.  Curcumin blocks the formation of reactive-oxygen species, possesses anti-inflammatory properties as a result of inhibition of cyclooxygenases (COX) and other enzymes involved in inflammation; and disrupts cell signal transduction by various mechanisms including inhibition of protein kinase C.  These effects may play a role in the agent's observed antineopl... |
| Curcumin/Doxorubicin-encapsulating Nanoparticle IMX-110 | A water-soluble, nano-sized formulation composed of nanoparticles encapsulating the poorly water-soluble curcumin, a signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (Stat3), nuclear factor Kappa B (NF-kB) and poly-tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI), and the antineoplastic anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the curcumin/doxorubicin-encapsulating nanoparticle IMX-110, the curcumin moiety targets and inhibits the activation of STA... |
| Cusatuzumab | A defucosylated, humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the extracellular domain of the human CD70 molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, cusatuzumab selectively binds to, and neutralizes the activity of CD70, which may also induce an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) response against CD70-expressing tumor cells. CD70, the ligand for the costimulatory receptor CD27 and a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) family, is found on a n... |
| Custirsen Sodium | The eicosasodium salt of a mixed-backbone antisense oligodeoxynucleotide with chemosensitizing properties. Custirsen inhibits testosterone-repressed prostate message-2 (TRPM-2). Administration of custirsen abrogates the anti-apoptotic effect of TRPM-2, thereby sensitizing cells to chemotherapy and resulting in tumor cell death. TRPM-2 is an anti-apoptotic clusterin that is overexpressed by prostate cancer cells and is associated with chemoresistance. |
| C-VISA BikDD:Liposome | A formulation composed of DOTAP:cholesterol liposome nanoparticles complexed with the plasmid C-VISA BiKDD, with potential antineoplastic activity. C-VISA BikDD: liposome consists of a pancreatic-cancer-specific expression vector VISA (VP16-GAL4-WPRE integrated systemic amplifier) and a pancreatic-cancer-specific promoter CCKAR (cholecystokinin type A receptor) (CCKAR-VISA or C-VISA) which drives expression of the gene BikDD, a mutant form of the potent proapoptotic gene Bik (Bcl-2 interactin... |
| Cx43 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody ALMB-0168 | A humanized agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting connexin43 (Cx43; gap junction alpha-1 protein) hemichannels, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Cx43 agonistic monoclonal antibody ALMB-0168 binds to the extracellular domain of Cx43 and activates the Cx43 hemichannels expressed on osteocytes, but not those in gap junctions. This causes the Cx43 hemichannels to open and release several factors including adenosine triphosphate (ATP) into the extracellular environmen... |
| CXC Chemokine Receptor 2 Antagonist AZD5069 | An orally bioavailable, selective and reversible antagonist of CXC chemokine receptor 2 (CXCR2), with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CXC chemokine receptor 2 antagonist AZD5069 directly binds to CXCR2 and inhibits its activation. This inhibits CXCR2-mediated signaling and may inhibit tumor cell proliferation in CXCR2-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, AZD5069 reduces both neutrophil recruitment and migration from the systemic circulation ... |
| CXCR1/2 Inhibitor RP72 | A small molecular weight protein and an inhibitor of CXC chemokine receptor types 1 (CXCR1) and 2 (CXCR2), with potential immunomodulating, anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CXCR1/2 inhibitor RP72 targets and binds to CXCR1 and CXCR2 and prevents CXCR1 and CXCR2 activation by its ligand interleukin 8 (IL-8 or CXCL8). This blocks CXCL8-mediated signal transduction and may cause cancer stem cell (CSC) apoptosis. This may also reduce both recruitment and migra... |
| CXCR1/2 Inhibitor SX-682 | An orally bioavailable, selective and reversible antagonist of C-X-C motif chemokine receptors 1 (CXCR1) and 2 (CXCR2), with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration CXCR1/2 inhibitor SX-682 selectively and allosterically binds to CXCR 1 and 2 and inhibits their activation by tumor-secreted chemokines. This inhibits CXCR1/2-mediated signaling, reduces both recruitment and migration of immunosuppressive myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) and neutroph... |
| CXCR2 Antagonist QBM076 | An orally available small molecule antagonist of the G protein-coupled receptor, C-X-C motif chemokine receptor 2 (CXCR2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, QBM076 binds to and inhibits the activation of CXCR2, resulting in reduced neutrophil recruitment, myeloid-derived suppressor cell (MDSC) accumulation, and may potentially slow tumorigenesis and metastatic processes. CXCR2 is upregulated in a variety of cancer types, predominately in neutr... |
| CXCR2-transduced Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) that are transduced, ex vivo, with a retroviral vector encoding a gene for CXC chemokine receptor 2 (CXCR2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the CXCR2-transduced autologous TILs, the CXCR2-expressing T-cells selectively migrate toward tumor cells expressing CXCR2 ligands, which leads to tumor cell killing. CXCR2 expression allows for optimal TIL migration towards tumor cells and enhances the TILs ... |
| CXCR3/IL-12/TGFb1 Inhibitor Engineered Oncolytic Vaccinia Virus VET3-TGI | An oncolytic vaccinia virus (VV) genetically engineered to express C-X-C chemokine receptor type 3 (CXCR3), the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), and an inhibitor of transforming growth factor (TGF)-beta 1 (TGFb1; TGF-b1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of CXCR3/IL-12/TGFb1 inhibitor engineered oncolytic VV VET3-TGI, the virus preferentially targets, infects and replicates in tumor cells, particularly tumor cells expres... |
| CXCR4 Antagonist USL311 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4 (CXCR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, USL311 binds to CXCR4, thereby preventing the binding of stromal-cell derived factor-1 (SDF-1 or CXCL12) to CXCR4 and inhibiting CXCR4 activation, which may result in decreased proliferation and migration of CXCR4-expressing tumor cells. CXCR4, a chemokine receptor belonging to the G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) family, plays an important role in chemota... |
| CXCR4 Inhibitor Q-122 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of CXCR4 with potential antineoplastic and antiviral activities. CXCR4 inhibitor MSX-122 binds to the chemokine receptor CXCR4, preventing the binding of stromal derived factor-1 (SDF-1) to the CXCR4 receptor and receptor activation, which may result in decreased tumor cell proliferation and migration. CXCR4, a chemokine receptor belonging to the GPCR (G protein-coupled receptor) gene family, plays an important role in chemotaxis and angiogenesis and is upregu... |
| CXCR4 Peptide Antagonist LY2510924 | An inhibitor of CXC chemokine receptor 4 (CXCR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, CXCR4 inhibitor LY2510924 binds to the chemokine receptor CXCR4, thereby preventing CXCR4 binding to its ligand, stromal derived factor-1 (SDF-1), and subsequent receptor activation. This may result in decreased tumor cell proliferation and migration. CXCR4, a chemokine receptor belonging to the G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) gene family, plays an important role in ch... |
| CXCR4/E-selectin Antagonist GMI-1359 | An antagonist of both the C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4 (CXCR4) and E-selectin (CD62E), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CXCR4/E-selectin antagonist GMI-1359 binds to both CXCR4 and E-selectin expressed on endothelial cells. The binding to CXCR4 prevents the binding of stromal-cell derived factor-1 (SDF-1; CXCL12) to CXCR4 and inhibits CXCR4 activation, which may result in decreased proliferation and migration of CXCR4-expressing tumor cells. The binding to E-sel... |
| CXCR4-modified Anti-BCMA CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17) with modification of the C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4 (CXCR4), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CXCR4-modified anti-BCMA CAR T cells target and bind to tumor cells expressing BCMA and induce selective cytotoxicity in those tumor cells. T... |
| Cyclin B1 Peptide-pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine comprised of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with cyclin B1 peptide, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, cyclin B1 peptide-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and anti-cyclin B1 antibody responses against cyclin B1-expressing cancer cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Cyclin B1, a key regulator of the cell cycle and cell division, is overexpressed... |
| Cyclin-dependent Kinase 8/19 Inhibitor BCD 115 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin dependent kinases 8 and 19 (CDK8/19), with potential antineoplastic and chemoprotective activities. Upon oral administration, CDK8/19 inhibitor BCD 115 binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK8/19, which prevents activation of CDK8/19-mediated oncogenic signaling pathways, blocks selective transcription of certain tumor promoting genes, and inhibits proliferation of CDK8/19-overexpressing tumor cells. CDKs are serine/threonine kinases involved in th... |
| Cyclodisone | A cyclic sulfonate ester with potential antineoplastic activity.  As an alkylating agent, clyclodisone induces the formation of DNA interstrand crosslinks, DNA strand breaks, and alkali-labile lesions in the DNA of some tumor cell lines.  Alkylating agents exert cytotoxic and chemotherapeutic effects by transferring alkyl groups to DNA, thereby damaging DNA and interfering with DNA synthesis and cell division. (NCI04) |
| Cycloleucine | A non-metabolizable synthetic amino acid, formed through the cyclization of the amino acid leucine, with immunosuppressive, antineoplastic, and cytostatic activities. Cycloleucine competitively inhibits the enzyme methionine adenosyltransferase, resulting in the inhibition of S-adenosylmethionine (SAM) synthesis from methionine and ATP, and subsequent nucleic acid methylation and polyamine production; RNA, and perhaps to a lesser extent, DNA biosyntheses and cell cycle progression are finally... |
| Cyclopentenyl Cytosine | A pro-drug carbocyclic analogue of cytidine with antineoplastic and antiviral activities. Cyclopentenyl cytosine (CPEC) is converted to the active metabolite cyclopentenyl cytosine 5'-triphosphate (CPEC-TP); CPEC-TP competitively inhibits cytidine triphosphate (CTP) synthase, thereby depleting intracellular cytidine pools and inhibiting DNA and RNA synthesis. This agent may also induce differentiation of some tumor cell types. The antiviral activity of this agent is broad-spectrum. |
| Cyclophosphamide | A synthetic alkylating agent chemically related to the nitrogen mustards with antineoplastic and immunosuppressive activities. In the liver, cyclophosphamide is converted to the active metabolites aldophosphamide and phosphoramide mustard, which bind to DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and initiating cell death. |
| Cyclophosphamide Anhydrous | The anhydrous form of cyclophosphamide, a synthetic nitrogen mustard alkylating agent, with antineoplastic and immunosuppressive activities. In the liver, cyclophosphamide is converted to active metabolites including phosphoramide mustard, which binds to and crosslinks DNA and RNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and protein synthesis. This agent, at low doses, is also a potent immunosuppressant primarily by depleting T-regulatory cells. |
| CYL-02 Plasmid DNA | A gene transfer preparation of a plasmid DNA encoding mouse somatostatin receptor subtype 2 (sst2) and a fusion protein of human deoxycytidine kinase (DCK) and uridine monophosphate kinase (UMK), complexed to a synthetic polycationic carrier, polyethylenimine, with antineoplastic adjuvant application. Upon administration, CYL-02 plasmid DNA expresses DCK::UMK fusion protein that converts gemcitabine into its toxic phosphorylated metabolite. Expression of sst2 protein by this agent could induc... |
| CYP11A1 Inhibitor INV-9956 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the enzyme cytochrome 450 side-chain cleavage (scc) (CYP11A1; P450 11A1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CYP11A1 inhibitor INV-9956 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CYP11A1. This prevents the synthesis of all steroid hormones and their precursors. This may inhibit the proliferation of hormone-positive tumor cells. CYP11A1, a mitochondrial enzyme, catalyzes the conversion of cholesterol to pregneno... |
| CYP11A1 Inhibitor ODM-209 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the enzyme cytochrome 450 side-chain cleavage (scc)(CYP11A1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CYP11A1 inhibitor ODM-209 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CYP11A1. This prevents the synthesis of all steroid hormones and their precursors. This may inhibit the proliferation of hormone-positive tumor cells. CYP11A1, a mitochondrial enzyme, catalyzes the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone (Preg), which is the... |
| CYP17 Lyase Inhibitor ASN001 | An orally available non-steroidal, lyase-selective inhibitor of the steroid 17-alpha-hydroxylase/C17,20 lyase (CYP17A1 or CYP17), with potential anti-androgenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CYP17 lyase inhibitor ASN001 selectively binds to and inhibits the lyase activity of CYP17A1 in both the testes and adrenal glands, resulting in a significant reduction in androgen production to castrate-range levels. This may both decrease androgen-dependent growth signaling an... |
| CYP17/Androgen Receptor Inhibitor ODM 204 | An orally available inhibitor of both the steroid 17-alpha-hydroxylase/C17,20 lyase (CYP17A1 or CYP17) and androgen receptor (AR), with potential anti-androgen and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CYP17/AR inhibitor ODM 204 selectively inhibits the enzymatic activity of CYP17A1 in both the testes and adrenal glands, thereby inhibiting androgen production. This may both decrease androgen-dependent growth signaling and inhibit the proliferation of androgen-dependent tumor ce... |
| CYP17/CYP11B2 Inhibitor LAE001 | An orally bioavailable, non-steroidal, potent, reversible, dual inhibitor of cytochrome P450 17 (CYP17 or CYP17A1) and CYP11B2, with potential antiandrogen and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, LAE001 inhibits the enzymatic activity of CYP17A1 in both the testes and adrenal glands, thereby inhibiting androgen production. This may decrease androgen-dependent growth signaling and may inhibit cell proliferation of androgen-dependent tumor cells. LAE001 also inhibits the enzyma... |
| Cyproterone | A synthetic steroidal anti-androgen with antineoplastic activity. Cyproterone, in its acetate form, binds the androgen receptor (AR), thereby preventing androgen-induced receptor activation and inhibiting the growth of testosterone-sensitive tumor cells.  This agent also exerts progesterogenic activity, resulting in a reduction in testicular androgen secretion and total androgen blockade. (NCI04) |
| Cyproterone Acetate | The acetate salt of a synthetic steroidal antiandrogen with weak progestational and antineoplastic activities. Cyproterone binds the androgen receptor (AR), thereby preventing androgen-induced receptor activation in target tissues and inhibiting the growth of testosterone-sensitive tumor cells. This agent also exerts progestational agonist properties at the level of the pituitary that reduce luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in reductions in testicular androgen secretion and serum testoster... |
| Cytarabine | An antimetabolite analogue of cytidine with a modified sugar moiety (arabinose instead of ribose). Cytarabine is converted to the triphosphate form within the cell and then competes with cytidine for incorporation into DNA.  Because the arabinose sugar sterically hinders the rotation of the molecule within DNA, DNA replication ceases, specifically during the S phase of the cell cycle.  This agent also inhibits DNA polymerase, resulting in a decrease in DNA replication and repair. (NCI04) |
| Cytarabine Monophosphate Prodrug MB07133 | A prodrug of the monophosphate (MP) form of the antimetabolite cytarabine (araCMP), an analogue of cytidine with a modified sugar moiety (arabinose instead of ribose), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the cytarabine MP prodrug MB07133, the targeting moiety of this agent specifically delivers the cytarabine moiety to the liver. In turn, araCMP is selectively converted to araC triphosphate (araCTP) by a liver kinase, where it binds to and competes with cytidine for... |
| Cytochlor | A radio-sensitizing pyrimidine nucleoside with potential antineoplastic activity.  Cytochlor is metabolized first to a phosphate derivative, CldCMP, by the enzyme deoxycytidine kinase and then to the active uracyl derivative, CldUMP, by the enzyme dCMP deaminase; deoxycytidine kinase and dCMP deaminase have been found in abnormally high concentrations in most cancers. CldUMP, the active metabolite, incorporates into DNA and, upon exposure to radiation, induces the formation of uracil radicals... |
| Cytokine-based Biologic Agent IRX-2 | A cell-free mixture comprised of a variety of naturally-derived cytokines obtained from normal, unrelated donor lymphocytes with potential immunostimulatory activity. The cytokines in IRX-2, including interleukin (IL)-1, -2, -6, -8, -10, -12, tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and colony stimulating factors (CSFs), play vital roles in regulating cellular immunity and may synergistically stimulate a cellular immune response against tumor cells. |
| Cytokine-Induced Killer Cells | A preparation of cytokine-induced killer (CIK) cells, with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. CIK cells are generated from peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) by sequential ex vivo incubation with a monoclonal antibody against CD3 (anti-CD3), interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and interleukin-2 (IL-2), followed by expansion. CIK cells are heterogeneous cells comprising CD3+CD56- T cells, CD3-CD56+ natural killer (NK) cells, and CD3+CD56+ natural killer T (NKT) cells. Upon admin... |
| Cytokine-treated Veto Cells | A preparation of activated veto cells, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. White blood cells (WBCs), taken from either the patient or a healthy third-party donor, are processed and ex-vivo treated with an as of yet not disclosed mix of cytokines to activate specific cytotoxic veto cells. Upon administration, the veto cells specifically target and bind to tumor or foreign cells, thereby inducing apoptosis. Veto cells are able to selectively activate the immune syste... |
| Cytotoxic Agent-LAT1 Substrate QBS10072S | A blood-brain-barrier (BBB) penetrative agent composed of a cytotoxic chemotherapeutic domain, tertiary N-bis(2-chloroethyl)amine, linked to the structural features of a selective large amino acid transporter 1 (LAT1) substrate, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of QBS10072S, the LAT1 substrate binds to LAT1 expressed on the BBB and in LAT1-expressing cancer cells, such as glioblastoma multiforme (GBM). After entering the brain and binding to LAT1-expressing tumor ce... |
| D1/3-Mage-3-His Fusion Protein | A recombinant, chimeric protein derived from a melanoma antigenic epitope (MAGE-3) and recognized by specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes.  MAGE-3, a human peptide epitope present in the cytosol of melanoma cells, may be expressed as the fusion protein D1/3-Mage-3; this fusion protein may boost antitumoral immune responses when used in a vaccine formulation. (NCI04) |
| DAB389 Epidermal Growth Factor | A recombinant fusion protein composed of the diphtheria toxin with the receptor-binding domain replaced by human epidermal growth factor (EGF).  When administered, EGF binds to the endothelial cell growth factor receptor, EGFR, which is upregulated in many solid tumors.  After binding to the EGF receptor, the agent is internalized by the cell, where the diphtheria toxin moiety exerts its cytotoxic effect, inhibiting protein synthesis through ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2. (NCI04) |
| Dabrafenib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of B-raf (BRAF) protein with potential antineoplastic activity. Dabrafenib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of B-raf, which may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells which contain a mutated BRAF gene. B-raf belongs to the raf/mil family of serine/threonine protein kinases and plays a role in regulating the MAP kinase/ERKs signaling pathway, which may be constitutively activated due to BRAF gene mutations. |
| Dabrafenib Mesylate | The mesylate salt form of dabrafenib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of B-raf (BRAF) protein with potential antineoplastic activity. Dabrafenib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of B-raf, which may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells which contain a mutated BRAF gene. B-raf belongs to the raf/mil family of serine/threonine protein kinases and plays a role in regulating the MAP kinase/ERKs signaling pathway, which may be constitutively activated due to BRAF gene mutations. |
| Dacarbazine | A triazene derivative with antineoplastic activity. Dacarbazine alkylates and cross-links DNA during all phases of the cell cycle, resulting in disruption of DNA function, cell cycle arrest, and apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| Dacetuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the CD40 receptor with potential antineoplastic activity. Dacetuzumab specifically binds to and inhibits the CD40 receptor, thereby inducing apoptosis and inhibiting cellular proliferation via antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) in cells that overexpress this receptor. The CD40 receptor, a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor super-family, is highly expressed on most B lineage hematologic malignancies including multipl... |
| DACH Polymer Platinate AP5346 | A low molecular weight polymer-conjugated platinum complex with potential antineoplastic activity. This polymer drug delivery system consists of cytotoxic diaminocyclohexane (DACH)-platinum (Pt) coupled to a water-soluble biocompatible hydroxypropylmethacrylamide (HPMA) copolymer via a pH sensitive linker. Due to decreased pH at the tumor site, the linker is cleaved and the chelated active moiety DACH-Pt is released in tumor cells. DACH-Pt alkylates macromolecules and causes both inter- and i... |
| DACH-Platin Micelle NC-4016 | Polymeric micellar nanoparticles containing diaminocyclohexane platinum (DACH-platin or DACH-Pt) with potential antineoplastic activity. DACH-platin micelle NC-4016 is prepared through the formation of a polymer-metal complex between DACH-platin and the polyethylene glycol-poly (glutamic acid) block copolymer, PEG-P(Glu). DACH-platin, an active metabolite of the platinum-based antineoplastic agent oxaliplatin, is highly hydrophobic and toxic when administered systemically. The use of polymeri... |
| Daclizumab | A recombinant monoclonal antibody interleukin-2 receptor antagonist.  Daclizumab binds specifically to the alpha subunit of the human interleukin-2 (IL-2) receptor expressed on the surface of activated lymphocytes in vivo, thereby inhibiting IL-2 binding and IL-2-mediated lymphocyte activation, a critical cellular immune response pathway. |
| Dacomitinib | A highly selective, orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of the HER family of tyrosine kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Dacomitinib specifically and irreversibly binds to and inhibits human Her-1, Her-2, and Her-4, resulting in the proliferation inhibition and apoptosis of tumor cells that overexpress these receptors. |
| Dactinomycin | A chromopeptide antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces parvulus.  Dactinomycin intercalates between adjacent guanine-cytosine base pairs, blocking the transcription of DNA by RNA polymerase; it also causes single-strand DNA breaks, possibly via a free-radical intermediate or an interaction with topoisomerase II. (NCI04) |
| Dactolisib | An orally bioavailable imidazoquinoline targeting the phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K) and the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Dactolisib inhibits PI3K kinase and mTOR kinase in the PI3K/AKT/mTOR kinase signaling pathway, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition in PI3K/mTOR-overexpressing tumor cells. Activation of the PI3K/mTOR pathway promotes cell growth, survival, and resistance to chemotherapy and radiotherapy; mTOR... |
| Dactolisib Tosylate | The tosylate salt form of dactolisib, an orally bioavailable imidazoquinoline targeting the phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K) and the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, dactolisib inhibits PI3K kinase and mTOR kinase in the PI3K/AKT/mTOR kinase signaling pathway, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition in PI3K/mTOR-overexpressing tumor cells. Activation of the PI3K/mTOR pathway promotes cell growth, surv... |
| Dalantercept | A soluble fusion protein containing the extracellular domain of activin receptor-like kinase-1 (ALK1) fused to a human Fc domain (ALK1-Fc fusion protein), with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dalantercept binds to various ALK1 ligands, preventing activation of tumor cell ALK1 receptors and so inhibiting the ALK1 signaling pathway; growth factor-induced angiogenesis is thus inhibited, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation an... |
| Dalmitamig | A bispecific antibody directed against both human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and the co-stimulatory T-cell-specific surface glycoprotein CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dalmitamig binds to both CD28 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and EGFR found on EGFR-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to EGFR-expressing tumor cells, which may result in the CTL-mediated cell death of EGFR-expressing tumor cells.... |
| Dalnicastobart | A humanized, agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the B-cell surface antigen CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dalnicastobart targets and binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types. This induces CD40-dependent signaling pathways, triggers the proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and activates T-cells. This results in an enhanced cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells.... |
| Dalotuzumab | A recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor (IGF1R) with potential antineoplastic activity. Dalotuzumab binds to membrane-bound IGF1R, preventing binding of the ligand IGF1 and the subsequent triggering of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway; inhibition of this survival signaling pathway may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. The activation of IGF1R, a tyrosine kinase and a membe... |
| Dalpiciclib | A cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, dalpiciclib selectively inhibits cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6). This inhibits retinoblastoma (Rb) protein phosphorylation early in the G1 phase, which prevents CDK-mediated G1-S phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threonine kinases that are upregulated in many tumor cell... |
| Dalpiciclib Isethionate | The isethionate salt form of dalpiciclib, an orally bioavailable cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, dalpiciclib selectively inhibits cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6). This inhibits retinoblastoma (Rb) protein phosphorylation early in the G1 phase, which prevents CDK-mediated G1-S phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6... |
| Dalutrafusp Alfa | A bifunctional fusion protein composed of a humanized aglycosylated immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1k) antibody directed against the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), fused to the extracellular domain of human transforming growth factor beta (TGFbeta) receptor type II (TGFbetaRII), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dalutrafusp alfa targets and binds to both CD73 expressed on ... |
| Danburstotug | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, danburstotug specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signaling a... |
| Daniquidone | A water-insoluble heterocyclic amide with potential antineoplastic activity. Daniquidone inhibits topoisomerases I and II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair, and RNA and protein synthesis. The acetylated form of daniquidone is highly toxic and is capable of inducing unscheduled DNA synthesis; rapid acetylators are more likely to experience toxicity with this agent. |
| Danusertib | A small-molecule 3-aminopyrazole derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Danusertib binds to and inhibits the Aurora kinases, which may result in cell growth arrest and apoptosis in tumor cells in which Aurora kinases are overexpressed. This agent may preferentially bind to and inhibit Aurora B kinase. Aurora kinases, a family of serine-threonine kinases, are important regulators of cellular proliferation and division. |
| Danvatirsen | An antisense oligonucleotide targeting signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3) with potential antitumor activity. Danvatirsen binds to STAT3 mRNA, thereby inhibiting translation of the transcript. Suppression of STAT3 expression induces tumor cell apoptosis and decreases tumor cell growth. STAT3, a protein overexpressed in a variety of human cancers, plays a critical role in tumor cell growth and survival. |
| Danvilostomig | A bispecific antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, danvilostomig targets and binds to both PD-1 and CTLA4 expressed on tumor-infiltrating T lymphocytes (TILs), and inhibits the PD-1- and CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation ... |
| Dapolsertib | An orally available inhibitor of PIM family serine/threonine protein kinases and mutant forms of FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; STK1) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, dapolsertib binds to and inhibits the kinase activities of PIM-1, -2 and -3, and mutant forms of FLT3, which may result in the interruption of the G1/S phase cell cycle transition, an inhibition of cell proliferation, and an induction of apoptosis in tumor cells that overexpress PIMs or exp... |
| Dapolsertib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of dapolsertib, an orally available inhibitor of PIM family serine/threonine protein kinases and mutant forms of FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; STK1) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, dapolsertib binds to and inhibits the kinase activities of PIM-1, -2 and -3, and mutant forms of FLT3, which may result in the interruption of the G1/S phase cell cycle transition, an inhibition of cell proliferation, and an induction of apoptosis... |
| Daporinad | A small molecule with potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. Daporinad binds to and inhibits nicotinamide phosphoribosyltransferase (NMPRTase), inhibiting the biosynthesis of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) from niacinamide (vitamin B3), which may deplete energy reserves in metabolically active tumor cells and induce tumor cell apoptosis. In addition, this agent may inhibit tumor cell production of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), resulting in the inhibitio... |
| Daratumumab | A human immunoglobulin G1-kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein CD38, with immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, daratumumab targets and binds to CD38 expressed on tumor cells. This triggers direct cell killing, antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), antibody-dependent cell mediated phagocytosis (ADCP) and antibody-mediated complement dependent cytotoxicity (CDC) in CD38-expressing tumor cells. In addition, bi... |
| Daratumumab and Recombinant Human Hyaluronidase | A co-formulation composed of daratumumab, a human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 kappa monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein cluster of differentiation 38 (CD-38; CD38), and a recombinant form of human hyaluronidase (rHuPH20), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration of daratumumab and hyaluronidase-fihj, daratumumab targets and binds to CD38 on certain CD38-expressing tumors, such as multiple myeloma (MM) and plasma cell leukemia. This bin... |
| Dargistotug | An inhibitor of T-cell immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), a co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dargistotug targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of TIGIT with its ligands CD112 (nectin-2; poliovirus recep... |
| Darinaparsin | A small-molecule organic arsenical with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action is unclear, darinaparsin, a highly toxic metabolic intermediate of inorganic arsenicals (iAs) that occurs in vivo, appears to generate volatile cytotoxic arsenic compounds when glutathione (GSH) concentrations are low. The arsenic compounds generated from darinaparsin disrupt mitochondrial bioenergetics, producing reactive oxygen species (ROS) and inducing ROS-mediated tumor cell ... |
| Darleukin | An immunoconjugate consisting of the recombinant form of the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) fused to a human single-chain Fv (scFv) antibody fragment directed against the extra-domain B (ED-B) of fibronectin (L19), with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. The L19 moiety of L19-IL2 monoclonal antibody-cytokine fusion protein binds to the ED-B domain of fibronectin on tumor cells in the tumor neovasculature. In turn, the IL-2 moiety may locally activate natural killer (NK... |
| Darolutamide | A formulation containing an androgen receptor (AR) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Darolutamide binds to ARs in target tissues; subsequently, inhibiting androgen-induced receptor activation and facilitating the formation of inactive complexes that cannot translocate to the nucleus. This prevents binding to and transcription of AR-responsive genes that regulate prostate cancer cell proliferation. This ultimately leads to an inhibition of growth in AR-expressing prostate canc... |
| Daromun | A combination of darleukin (L19-IL2), an immunocytokine consisting of the recombinant form of interleukin-2 (IL-2), fused to a human single-chain variable fragment (scFv) directed against the extra-domain B (ED-B) of fibronectin (L19), and fibromun (L19-TNFalpha), an immunocytokine consisting of human tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNFalpha) fused to a human scFv antibody fragment directed against the ED-B of L19, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon administrati... |
| Darovasertib | An orally available protein kinase C (PKC) inhibitor with potential immunosuppressive and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, darovasertib inds to and inhibits PKC, which prevents the activation of PKC-mediated signaling pathways. This may lead to the induction of cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in susceptible tumor cells. PKC, a serine/threonine protein kinase overexpressed in certain types of cancer cells, is involved in tumor cell differentiation, proliferation, invasion a... |
| Dasatinib | An orally bioavailable synthetic small molecule-inhibitor of SRC-family protein-tyrosine kinases.  Dasatinib binds to and inhibits the growth-promoting activities of these kinases. Apparently because of its less stringent binding affinity for the BCR-ABL kinase, dasatinib has been shown to overcome the resistance to imatinib of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) cells harboring BCR-ABL kinase domain point mutations. SRC-family protein-tyrosine kinases interact with a variety of cell-surface recep... |
| Dasminapant | A small molecule, second mitochondria-derived activator of caspases (SMAC)-mimetic targeting inhibitor of apoptosis proteins (IAPs) with potential apoptosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dasminapant selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of IAPs including X chromosome-linked IAP (XIAP) and cellular IAPs 1 (c-IAP1) and 2 (c-IAP2). This may restore and promote the induction of apoptosis through apoptotic signaling pathways and enhance proteasomal degradati... |
| Datopotamab Deruxtecan | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody against tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2) conjugated, via an enzymatically cleavable tetrapeptide-based  linker, to the cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor and exatecan (DX-8951) derivative DXd (MAAA-1181a; MAAA-1181), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the datopotamab deruxtecan, the anti-TROP2 antib... |
| Daunorubicin | An anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic with therapeutic effects similar to those of doxorubicin.  Daunorubicin exhibits cytotoxic activity through topoisomerase-mediated interaction with DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Daunorubicin Citrate | A semi-synthetic anthracycline glycoside antibiotic obtained from Streptomyces with antineoplastic activity. Daunorubicin citrate intercalates DNA, which leads to inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis, and consequently blocks cell division and results in apoptosis. This anti-tumor antibiotic is most active in the S phase of cell division. Daunorubicin is indicated in the treatment of a wide variety of cancers including acute non-lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin lymphomas, Ewing's sarcoma, Wilm... |
| Daunorubicin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of an anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic with therapeutic effects similar to those of doxorubicin.  Daunorubicin exhibits cytotoxic activity through topoisomerase-mediated interaction with DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Davamotecan Pegadexamer | A formulation of camptothecin, an alkaloid isolated from the Chinese tree Camptotheca acuminata, conjugated with to a hydrophilic, cyclodextrin-based linear polymer with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of davamotecan pegadexamer, camptothecin is slowly released from the formulation at the tumor site and taken up by tumor cells. During the S phase of the cell cycle, camptothecin selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes, thereby inhibiting... |
| Davoceticept | A fusion protein composed of the N-terminal Ig variable-like (IgV) domain of CD80 fused to a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc fragment, with potential immunostimulatory, immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, davoceticept targets and binds to programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) expressed on tumor cells, which blocks its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of diff... |
| Davutamig | A bispecific monoclonal antibody that targets two different epitopes of the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) MET (c-MET; hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, davutamig targets and binds to two different, non-overlapping epitopes on MET expressed on thd tumor cell surface, thereby forming unique davutamig-MET complexes. The binding of davutamig to the MET epitopes and the unique complex formation causes MET internalization a... |
| Dazostinag | An agonist of the stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, dazostinag targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cross-presentation of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) by dendritic cells... |
| Dazostinag Disodium | The disodium salt form of dazostinag, an agonist of the stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, dazostinag targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cross-presentation of tumor-associa... |
| DC-OVA Vaccine | An autologous, multivalent dendritic cell vaccine targeting ovarian cancer with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. DC-OVA vaccine is produced in vitro by pulsing autologous dendritic cells with killed autologous primary ovarian tumors as a source of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs); the pulsed DCs are then matured using various cytokines. Upon administration, DC-OVA vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against ovarian cancer TAA-expressing ovar... |
| DCR Ligand-Bearing Liposome-Encapsulated Melanoma Antigens Vaccine | A cancer cell-based vaccine containing liposome encapsulated melanoma antigens and an immunomodulatory factor, attached, via a metal chelator, to a dendritic cell receptor (DCR) ligand-containing a metal-affinity tag, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of DCR ligand-bearing liposome-encapsulated melanoma antigens vaccine, the DCR ligand moiety of this vaccine targets receptors on dendritic cells (DCs), thereby presenting the antigens t... |
| DDR1-2/VEGFR2-3/PDGFRalpha-beta Inhibitor ICP-033 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of multiple receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, DDR1-2/VEGFR2-3/PDGFRalpha-beta inhibitor ICP-033 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of numerous RTKs including discoid domain receptor type 1 (DDR1) and 2 (DDR2), vascular endothelial growth factor receptors type 2 (VEGFR2) and 3 (VEGFR3) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor alpha (PDGFRa) and beta (PDGFRb). By inhibiting... |
| DDX5 Degrader FL118 | An orally bioavailable small molecule derivative of camptothecin, a component found in the bark and stem of a tree native to China, and a degrader of the oncoprotein DEAD box polypeptide 5 (DDX5; RNA helicase p68), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, DDX5 degrader FL118 targets, binds to, dephosphorylates, and degrades DDX5 via the proteasome degradation pathway. This inhibits the expression of DDX5. As DDX5 is a key regulator for controlling the expression of mu... |
| Decitabine | A cytidine antimetabolite analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Decitabine incorporates into DNA and inhibits DNA methyltransferase, resulting in hypomethylation of DNA and intra-S-phase arrest of DNA replication. (NCI04) |
| Decitabine and Cedazuridine | An orally available fixed-dose combination agent containing cedazuridine, a cytidine deaminase (CDA) inhibitor, and the cytidine antimetabolite decitabine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of tdecitabine and cedazuridine, cedazuridine binds to and inhibits CDA, an enzyme primarily found in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and liver that catalyzes the deamination of cytidine and cytidine analogs. This prevents the breakdown of decitabine, increases its bioavailab... |
| Defactinib | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule focal adhesion kinase (FAK) inhibitor with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Defactinib inhibits FAK, which may prevent the integrin-mediated activation of several downstream signal transduction pathways, including those involving RAS/MEK/ERK and PI3K/Akt, thus inhibiting tumor cell migration, proliferation, survival, and tumor angiogenesis. The tyrosine kinase FAK, a signal transducer for integrins, is normally activated by binding... |
| Defactinib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of defactinib, an orally bioavailable, small-molecule focal adhesion kinase (FAK) inhibitor with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Defactinib inhibits FAK, which may prevent the integrin-mediated activation of several downstream signal transduction pathways, including those involving RAS/MEK/ERK and PI3K/Akt, thus inhibiting tumor cell migration, proliferation, survival, and tumor angiogenesis. The tyrosine kinase FAK, a signal transducer for ... |
| Deferoxamine | An iron-chelating agent that binds free iron in a stable complex, preventing it from engaging in chemical reactions. Deferoxamine chelates iron from intra-lysosomal ferritin and siderin forming ferrioxamine, a water-soluble chelate excreted by the kidneys and in the feces via the bile.  This agent does not readily bind iron from transferrin, hemoglobin, myoglobin or cytochrome. (NCI04) |
| Deferoxamine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of deferoxamine, an iron chelating agent.  Deferoxamine chelates iron from intra-lysosomal ferritin and hemosiderin forming ferrioxamine, a water-soluble chelate excreted by the kidneys and in the feces via the bile.  This agent does not readily bind iron from transferrin, hemoglobin, myoglobin or cytochrome. (NCI) |
| Deferoxamine Mesylate | The mesylate salt of an iron-chelating agent that binds free iron in a stable complex, preventing it from engaging in chemical reactions. Deferoxamine chelates iron from intra-lysosomal ferritin and ferrioxamine, a water-soluble complex excreted by the kidneys and in the feces via the bile. This agent does not readily chelate iron bound to transferrin, hemoglobin, myoglobin or cytochrome. |
| Defosbarasertib | A small-molecule inhibitor of the serine-threonine kinase Aurora B, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, defosbarasertib specifically binds to and inhibits Aurora kinase B, which disrupts spindle checkpoint functions and chromosome alignment, and results in the disruption of chromosome segregation and cytokinesis. This inhibits cell division and cell proliferation and induces apoptosis in Aurora kinase B-overexpressing tumor cells. Aurora kinase B, a serine/threonine p... |
| Degarelix | A long-acting, synthetic peptide with gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) antagonistic properties. Degarelix targets and blocks GnRH receptors located on the surfaces of gonadotroph cells in the anterior pituitary, thereby reducing secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) by pituitary gonadotroph cells and so decreasing testosterone production by interstitial (Leydig) cells in the testes. |
| Degarelix Acetate | The acetate form of a long-acting, synthetic peptide with gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) antagonistic properties. Degarelix targets and blocks GnRH receptors located on the surfaces of gonadotroph cells in the anterior pituitary, thereby reducing secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) by pituitary gonadotroph cells and so decreasing testosterone production by interstitial (Leydig) cells in the testes. |
| Deglycosylated Ricin A Chain-Conjugated Anti-CD19/Anti-CD22 Immunotoxins | A combination preparation of 1:1 mixture of two immunotoxins, HD37-dgA and RFB4-dgA, with potential antineoplastic activity. Both anti-CD19 IgG monoclonal antibody HD37 and anti-CD22 IgG monoclonal antibody RFB4 are attached to a single deglycosylated ricin A chain (dgA) via N-succinimidyl-oxycarbonyl-alpha-methyl-alpha-(2-pyridyldithio) toluene (SMPT) linker. CD19 and CD22 molecules are cell suface antigens present on the majority of B acute lymphoblastic leukemia cells. This combination age... |
| Delanzomib | An orally bioavailable synthetic P2 threonine boronic acid inhibitor of the chymotrypsin-like activity of the proteasome, with potential antineoplastic activity. Delanzomib represses the proteasomal degradation of a variety of proteins, including inhibitory kappaBalpha (IkappaBalpha), resulting in the cytoplasmic sequestration of the transcription factor NF-kappaB; inhibition of NF-kappaB nuclear translocation and transcriptional up-regulation of a variety of cell growth-promoting factors; an... |
| Delolimogene Mupadenorepvec | A double-armed oncolytic adenovirus composed of a recombinant genetically modified E1/E3-deleted, adenoviral serotype 5 (Ad5) vector, with the L5 segment of the Ad5 fiber replaced by the shaft and knob from the Ad35 serotype (Ad5/35), which expresses a trimerized (TMZ) form of the membrane-bound immunostimulator CD40 ligand (CD40L; TNFSF5) and the ligand for the signaling domain 4-1BB (4-1BBL; CD137L; TNFSF9), under the control of a CMV promoter, with potential immunostimulating and antineopl... |
| Demcizumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the N-terminal epitope of Notch ligand DLL4 (delta-like 4) with potential antineoplastic activity. Demcizumab binds to the membrane-binding portion of DLL4 and prevents its interaction with Notch-1 and Notch-4 receptors, thereby inhibiting Notch-mediated signaling and gene transcription, which may impede tumor angiogenesis. Activation of Notch receptors by DLL4 stimulates proteolytic cleavage of the Notch intracellular domain (NICD); after clea... |
| Demecolcine | A colchicine analog with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Demecolcine acid binds to the colchicine-binding site of tubulin, inhibiting its polymerization into microtubules, causing cell cycle arrest at metaphase and preventing cell division. |
| Demplatin Pegraglumer | A nanoparticle-based prodrug formulation consisting of polymeric micelles incorporating the inorganic platinum agent cisplatin with potential antineoplastic activity. In demplatin pegraglumer, cisplatin forms a polymer-metal complex with hydrophilic polyethylene glycol poly(glutamic acid) block copolymers by attaching to the micelle inner core consisting of the hydrophobic polyamino acids. Upon cell entry and release from the polymer-metal complex, cisplatin forms highly reactive, charged pla... |
| Dendrimer-conjugated Bcl-2/Bcl-XL Inhibitor AZD0466 | A drug-dendrimer conjugate composed of a B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2)/Bcl-XL inhibitor AZD4320 that is chemically conjugated to a proprietary 5-generation pegylated poly-lysine dendrimer via a hydrolytically labile linker, with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of AZD0466, AZD4320 is released through hydrolytic cleavage of the linker. AZD4320 is a Bcl2-homology domain 3 (BH3) mimetic that specifically binds to and inhibits the activity of the anti-apoptot... |
| Dendritic Cell Tumor Cell Lysate Vaccine | A vaccine composed of dendritic cells pulsed with tumor cells lysates that stimulate a potent and specific cell mediated anti-tumor immune response. (NCI) |
| Dendritic Cell Tumor Peptide Vaccine | A vaccine composed of dendritic cells pulsed with peptide epitopes that stimulate cytotoxic T lymphocyte anti-tumor activity. (NCI) |
| Dendritic Cell-Autologous Lung Tumor Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of lymphocytes harvested from a patient with lung cancer and induced to become antigen-presenting cells (APCs) known as dendritic cells.  The dendritic cells are transduced with the gene encoding an antigen specific to the patient's cancer and then returned to the patient.  In the host, the altered cells stimulate the immune system to mount a primary T cell response against lung tumor cells expressing the target antigen.  Dendritic cell-autologous lung tumor vaccin... |
| Dendritic Cell-CEA Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of dendritic cells harvested from a patient with cancer and pulsed or transduced with a peptide fragment of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), a tumor-associated antigen expressed by a wide range of cancers.  When the altered dendritic cells are returned to the patient, they may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte immune response against tumor cells expressing CEA. |
| Dendritic Cell-gp100-MART-1 Antigen Vaccine | An autologous dendritic cells vaccine with antineoplastic property. Dendritic cells harvested from cancer patients are pulsed with human gp100 melanoma antigen and MART-1 (melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells) antigen; both antigens are up-regulated in melanomas. Vaccination with this vaccine may elicit the host immune response against MART-1 or gp100 expressing cells. |
| Dendritic Cell-Idiotype-Keyhole Limpet Hemocyanin Vaccine | A cell-based vaccine composed of allogeneic dendritic cells (DC), pulsed with patient-specific non-Hodgkin's lymphoma idiotype (Id) determinants conjugated to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential antitumor activity. Upon administration, this vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against Id-expressing lymphoma cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Dendritic Cell-MART-1 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of dendritic cells harvested from a patient with cancer and pulsed or transduced with a peptide fragment of MART-1 (melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells), an antigen expressed by melanoma cells.  When the altered dendritic cells are returned to the patient, they stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte immune response against tumor cells expressing MART-1. (NCI04) |
| Dendritic Cell-Precision Multiple Antigen T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of dendritic cell-precision multiple antigen T-cells (DC-PMAT) that have been induced to specifically target multiple undisclosed tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential antitumor activity. Although the exact mechanism(s) of action through which DC-PMAT cells exert their effects has yet to be elucidated, upon infusion, these cells may stimulate the host immune system to mount a highly-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumors expressing common TAAs, ... |
| Dendritic Cell-targeting Lentiviral Vector ID-LV305 | An engineered lentiviral vector targeting dendritic cells (DCs) and containing nucleic acids encoding for the human tumor-associated cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration, the DC-targeting lentiviral vector ID-LV305 targets and binds to dermal DCs via the DC-specific intercellular adhesion molecule-3-grabbing non-integrin (DC-SIGN) receptor. Upon internalization of the vector, the NY-ESO-1 protein is exp... |
| Denenicokin | A recombinant peptide similar to or identical to endogenous human cytokine interleukin-21 (IL-21) with potential antineoplastic activity. Denenicokin binds to and activates IL-21 receptors, expressed on T-cells, B-cells, dendritic cells (DC), and natural killer (NK) cells, modulating the proliferation and/or differentiation of T and B cells, promoting T cell survival, and increasing the cytolytic activity of cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) and NK cells. |
| Denfivontinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of both wild type and mutant forms of FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, denfivontinib binds to and inhibits the activity of FLT3, including FLT3-ITD (internal tandem duplications), FLT3-D835Y as well as other mutants. This inhibits uncontrolled FLT3 signaling and results in the inhibition of proliferation in tumor cells overexpressing FLT3. FLT3, a class III receptor tyrosine kina... |
| Denfivontinib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of denfivontinib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of both wild type and mutant forms of FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, denfivontinib binds to and inhibits the activity of FLT3, including FLT3-ITD (internal tandem duplications), FLT3-D835Y as well as other mutants. This inhibits uncontrolled FLT3 signaling and results in the inhibition of proliferation in tumor cells overexpressing ... |
| Dengue Virus Adjuvant PV-001-DV | 45AZ5, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration of dengue virus adjuvant PV-001-DV, the virus may activate both the innate and adaptive immune system. |
| Denibulin | A small molecular vascular disrupting agent (VDA), with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Denibulin selectively targets and reversibly binds to the colchicine-binding site on tubulin and inhibits microtubule assembly. This results in the disruption of the cytoskeleton of tumor endothelial cells, ultimately leading to cell cycle arrest, blockage of cell division and apoptosis. This causes inadequate blood flow to the tumor and eventually leads to a decrease in tumor cell pro... |
| Denibulin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of denibulin, a small molecular vascular disrupting agent, with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Denibulin selectively targets and reversibly binds to the colchicine-binding site on tubulin and inhibits microtubule assembly. This results in the disruption of the cytoskeleton of tumor endothelial cells, ultimately leading to cell cycle arrest, blockage of cell division and apoptosis. This causes inadequate blood flow to the tumor and eventually leads ... |
| Denifanstat | An orally bioavailable fatty acid synthase (FASN) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, denifanstat binds to and blocks FASN, which prevents the synthesis of palmitate needed for tumor cell growth and survival. This leads to a reduction in cell signaling, an induction of tumor cell apoptosis and the inhibition of cell proliferation in susceptible tumor cells. FASN, an enzyme responsible for the de novo synthesis of palmitic acid, is overexpressed in tumor cel... |
| Denileukin Diftitox | A cytotoxic recombinant fusion protein consisting of the human cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) fused to diphtheria toxin fragments A and B, containing both the catalytic and translocation domains, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the IL-2 moiety of denileukin difitox targets and binds to IL-2 receptors. After internalization by IL-2 receptor-expressing cells via endocytosis, denileukin difitox is proteolytically cleaved. This releases the catalytic domain of the toxi... |
| Denintuzumab Mafodotin | An immunoconjugate consisting of an anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody conjugated to the auristatin derivative monomethyl auristatin F (MMAF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of denintuzumab mafodotin, the antibody moiety targets the cell surface antigen CD19, found on a number of B-cell-derived cancers. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the immunoconjugate releases MMAF, which binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization. Inhibition of tubulin poly... |
| Denosumab | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa beta ligand (RANKL) with antiosteoclast activity. Denosumab specifically binds to RANKL and blocks the interaction of RANKL with RANK, a receptor located on osteoclast cell surfaces, resulting in inhibition of osteoclast activity, a decrease in bone resorption, and a potential increase in bone mineral density. RANKL, a protein expressed by osteoblastic cells, plays an important role in osteoclast... |
| Deoxycytidine Kinase Inhibitor TRE-515 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of deoxycytidine kinase (dCK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, dCK inhibitor TRE-515 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of dCK, an enzyme that catalyzes the rate-limiting reaction in the deoxyribonucleoside salvage pathway in cancer cells. By inhibiting dCK, TRE-515 halts nucleotide synthesis and prevents the metabolism of DNA precursors in tumor cells. This inhibits DNA replication in and proliferation of cancer cell... |
| Depatuxizumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with antineoplastic activity. Depatuxizumab targets the EGFR deletion variant, de2-7 EGFR as well as wild-type EGFR expressed in cells overexpressing the receptor, thereby preventing the activation and subsequent dimerization of the receptor; the decrease in receptor activation and dimerization result in an inhibition in signal transduction and anti-proliferative effects. This MoAb targets cells expre... |
| Depatuxizumab Mafodotin | An epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous infusion, depatuxizumab mafodotin inhibits the activity of EGFR, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed in certain tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. |
| DEPDC1/MPHOSH1 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing HLA-A*2402-restricted epitopes derived from DEP domain containing 1 (DEPDC1) and M phase phosphoprotein 1 (MPHOSPH1) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, DEPDC1/MPHOSH1 peptide vaccine may elicit a specific cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing DEPDC1 and MPHOSPH1, tumor antigens that are overexpressed in bladder cancer cells. |
| Derazantinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Derazantinib binds to and potently inhibits the activity of FGFR subtypes 1, 2 and 3. This may result in the inhibition of FGFR-mediated signal transduction pathways, tumor cell proliferation, tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell death in FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase, is upregulated in many tumor cell types and plays a key role in tumor cel... |
| Deslorelin | A synthetic nonapeptide analogue of the natural gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) with potential antineoplastic activity. Deslorelin binds to and activates pituitary gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) receptors. Continuous, prolonged administration of goserelin in males results in pituitary GnRH receptor desensitization and inhibition of pituitary secretion of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), leading to a significant decline in testosterone production; ... |
| Deslorelin Acetate | A synthetic nonapeptide analogue of the natural gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) with potential antineoplastic activity. Deslorelin binds to and activates pituitary gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) receptors. Continuous, prolonged administration of goserelin in males results in pituitary GnRH receptor desensitization and inhibition of pituitary secretion of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), leading to a significant decline in testosterone production; ... |
| Detalimogene Voraplasmid | A nanoparticle-based formulation composed of a non-viral plasmid DNA vector encoding the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) and a retinoic acid-inducible gene I protein (RIG-I; DDX58) activating moiety encapsulated in dually derivatized chitosan (DDX) nanoparticles, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravesical administration of detalimogene voraplasmid, the DDX nanoparticles deliver the IL-12 and RIG-I activating DNA plasmid to the blad... |
| Detorubicin | A semi-synthetic derivative of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic daunorubicin. Detorubicin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis. This agent also produces toxic free-radical intermediates and interacts with cell membrane lipids causing lipid peroxidation. Detorubicin is less toxic than daunorubicin. |
| Deulorlatinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and c-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, deulorlatinib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of ALK and ROS1, which leads to the disruption of ALK- and ROS1-mediated signaling and the inhibition of cell growth in ALK- and ROS1-expressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin receptor superfamily and plays an important role in nervous ... |
| Deutenzalutamide | A deuterated form of enzalutamide, an orally bioavailable, organic, non-steroidal small molecule targeting the androgen receptor (AR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, deutenzalutamide competitively binds to and inhibits the activity of ARs expressed on prostate cancer cells, which impairs nuclear translocation and DNA binding, resulting in apoptosis of prostate cancer cells. This results in a reduction in prostate cancer cell growth. AR overexpression in prostate c... |
| Devimistat | A racemic mixture of the enantiomers of a synthetic alpha-lipoic lipoic acid analogue with potential chemopreventive and antineoplastic activities. Although the exact mechanism of action is unknown, devimistat has been shown to inhibit metabolic and regulatory processes required for cell growth in solid tumors. Both enantiomers in the racemic mixture exhibit antineoplastic activity. |
| Dexamethasone | A synthetic adrenal corticosteroid with potent anti-inflammatory properties. In addition to binding to specific nuclear steroid receptors, dexamethasone also interferes with NF-kB activation and apoptotic pathways. This agent lacks the salt-retaining properties of other related adrenal hormones. (NCI04) |
| Dexanabinol | A synthetic, terpene-based cannabinoid derivative devoid of cannabinoid receptors 1 and 2 agonist activity and with potential neuroprotective, antiinflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Functioning as an N-Methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, dexanabinol protects neuronal cells against NMDA and glutamate neurotoxicity. This agent also scavenges peroxy radicals and protects neurons from the damages of reactive oxygen species. Furthermore, dexanabinol inhibits the activity of nuc... |
| Dexrazoxane | A bisdioxopiperazine with iron-chelating, chemoprotective, cardioprotective, and antineoplastic activities. After hydrolysis to an active form that is similar to ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), dexrazoxane chelates iron, limiting the formation of free radical-generating anthracycline-iron complexes, which may minimize anthracycline-iron complex-mediated oxidative damage to cardiac and soft tissues. This agent also inhibits the catalytic activity of topoisomerase II, which may result i... |
| Dexrazoxane Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of a bisdioxopiperazine with iron-chelating, chemoprotective, cardioprotective, and antineoplastic activities. After hydrolysis to an active form that is similar to ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), dexrazoxane chelates iron, limiting the formation of free radical-generating anthracycline-iron complexes, which may minimize anthracycline-iron complex-mediated oxidative damage to cardiac and soft tissues.  This agent also inhibits the catalytic activity of topoisome... |
| Dextran 1 Subfraction-based Cryoprotective Agent | A low molecular weight carbohydrate that can be used as a cryoprotective agent (CPA) to preserve various types of cells ex vivo. |
| Dezaguanine | A purine nucleoside analogue with antineoplastic and antiviral activities.  By replacing guanine, dezaguanine incorporates into DNA and inhibits de novo purine synthesis, thereby inducing cell death. (NCI) |
| Dezaguanine Mesylate | The mesylate salt form of dezaguanine, a purine nucleoside analogue with antineoplastic and antiviral activities.  By competing with guanine, dezaguanine gets incorporated into DNA and inhibits DNA synthesis, thereby inducing cell death. |
| Dezapelisib | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of the delta isoform of the 110 kDa catalytic subunit of class I phosphoinositide-3 kinases (PI3K) with potential antineoplastic activity. Dezapelisib specifically inhibits PI3Kdelta, which prevents both the production of the second messenger phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3) and the activation of the PI3K/AKT kinase signaling pathway. This decreases proliferation and induces cell death in PI3K-overexpressing tumor cells. Unlike other ... |
| DGK Alpha/Zeta Inhibitor BMS-986408 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of both the alpha-isoenzyme of diacylglycerol kinase (DGK-alpha; DGKa) and the zeta-isoenzyme DGK-zeta (DGKz), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, DGK alpha/zeta inhibitor BMS-986408 targets, binds to and blocks both DGKa and DGKz expressed on T-cells, thereby preventing the conversion of diacylglycerol (DAG) to phosphatidic acid (PA). This induces DAG-mediated T-cell receptor (TCR)-mediated T-ce... |
| DGKalpha Inhibitor BAY 2862789 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the alpha-isoenzyme of diacylglycerol kinase (DGK alpha; DGKa), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, DGKa inhibitor BAY 2862789 targets, binds to and blocks DGKa expressed on T-cells, thereby preventing the conversion of diacylglycerol (DAG) to phosphatidic acid (PA). This induces DAG-mediated T-cell receptor (TCR)-mediated T-cell signaling, induces T-cell proliferation, restores T-cell functio... |
| DGK-alpha Inhibitor GS-9911 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the alpha-isoenzyme of diacylglycerol kinase (DGK-alpha; DGKa), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, DGKa inhibitor GS-9911 targets, binds to and blocks DGKa expressed on T-cells, thereby preventing the conversion of diacylglycerol (DAG) to phosphatidic acid (PA). This induces DAG-mediated T-cell receptor (TCR)-mediated T-cell signaling, induces T-cell proliferation, restores T-cell function, e... |
| DHA-Paclitaxel | A prodrug comprised of the naturally occurring omega-3 fatty acid docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) covalently conjugated to the anti-microtubule agent paclitaxel.  Because tumor cells take up DHA, DHA-paclitaxel is delivered directly to tumor tissue, where the paclitaxel moiety binds to tubulin and inhibits the disassembly of microtubules, thereby resulting in the inhibition of cell division. Paclitaxel also induces apoptosis by binding to and blocking the function of the apoptosis inhibitor protei... |
| DHEA Mustard | A steroidal alkylating agent with potential antineoplastic activity.  Alkylating agents exert cytotoxic and, in some cases, chemotherapeutic effects by transferring alkyl groups to DNA, thereby damaging DNA and interfering with DNA replication and cell division. (NCI04) |
| dHER2 Vaccine+AS15 Adjuvant | A cancer vaccine consisting of a truncated recombinant HER2/neu peptide (dHER2) combined with the immunoadjuvant AS15 with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dHER2+AS15 vaccine may stimulate the host immune response to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that overexpress the HER2/neu protein, resulting in tumor cell lysis. The tumor-associated antigen (TAA) HER2/neu is often overexpressed by a variety of tumor cell typ... |
| DHODH Inhibitor JNJ-74856665 | An orally available inhibitor of dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (DHODH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, DHODH inhibitor JNJ-74856665 specifically targets and binds to DHODH's ubiquinone binding site, thereby preventing the activation of DHODH. This prevents the fourth enzymatic step in de novo pyrimidine synthesis. This prevents uridine monophosphate (UMP) formation, DNA synthesis, cell division and cellular proliferation, causes reactive oxygen species (ROS) ... |
| DHODH Inhibitor RP7214 | An orally available inhibitor of dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (DHODH), with potential antineoplastic, anti-inflammatory and antiviral activities. Upon oral administration, DHODH inhibitor RP7214 specifically targets, binds to and prevents the activation of DHODH, thereby preventing the fourth enzymatic step in de novo pyrimidine synthesis. This prevents uridine monophosphate (UMP) formation, DNA synthesis, cell division and cellular proliferation, promotes cell differentiation, causes cell cy... |
| Diacylglycerol Kinase Zeta Inhibitor ASP1570 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of diacylglycerol kinase zeta (DGKzeta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, DGKzeta inhibitor ASP1570 inhibits the activity of DGKzeta. This prevents the phosphorylation of diacylglycerol (DAG) to phosphatidic acid (PA), and modulates the DAGzeta-regulated cellular signaling pathways. This may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells in which DGKzeta is overactivated. DGKzeta is overexpressed in certain cancer cells and plays an ... |
| Diacylglycerol Kinase Zeta Inhibitor BAY2965501 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of diacylglycerol kinase zeta (DGKzeta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, DGKzeta inhibitor BAY2965501 inhibits the activity of DGKzeta. This prevents the phosphorylation of diacylglycerol (DAG) to phosphatidic acid (PA), and modulates the DAGzeta-regulated cellular signaling pathways. This may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells in which DGKzeta is overactivated. DGKzeta is overexpressed in certain cancer cells and plays ... |
| Diacylglycerol Kinase Zeta Inhibitor BGB-30813 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of diacylglycerol kinase zeta (DGKzeta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, DGKzeta inhibitor BGB-30813 inhibits the activity of DGKzeta. This prevents the phosphorylation of diacylglycerol (DAG) to phosphatidic acid (PA), and modulates the DGKzeta-regulated cellular signaling pathways. This may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells in which DGKzeta is overactivated. DGKzeta is overexpressed in certain cancer cells and plays a... |
| Dianhydrogalactitol | A bifunctional hexitol derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Dianhydrogalactitol alkylates and cross-links DNA via an epoxide group during all phases of the cell cycle, resulting in disruption of DNA function and cell cycle arrest. (NCI04) |
| Diarylsulfonylurea Compound ILX-295501 | ILX-295501 is a novel sulfonylurea compound that has demonstrated in-vivo antitumor activity against a broad spectrum of solid tumors. |
| Diazepinomicin | A potent inhibitor of the RAS/RAF/MAPK signaling pathway with potential antineoplastic activity. Diazepinomicin binds to and inhibits Ras kinase, thereby preventing the phosphorylation and activation of proteins downstream of the Ras signal transduction pathway, including serine/threonine kinase RAF (BRAF) and extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 and 2 (ERK1 and ERK-2), that play a crucial role in regulating cell growth and survival. Diazepinomicin also selectively binds to the peripheral... |
| Diaziquone | A water-soluble, synthetic aziridinylbenzoquinone with potential antineoplastic activity. Bioactivation of aziridinylbenzoquinone RH1 occurs through the two-electron reduction of the quinone to the hydroquinone by the two-electron quinone reductase DT-diaphorase (DTD). The resultant hydroquinone selectively alkylates and cross-links DNA at the 5'-GNC-3' sequence, inihibiting DNA replication, inducing apoptosis, and inhibiting tumor cell proliferation. DTD is over-expressed in many tumors rela... |
| Diazooxonorleucine | An L-glutamine diazo analogue amino acid antibiotic isolated from a species of the bacterial genus Streptomyces with potential antineoplastic activity. Diazooxonorleucine inhibits several glutamine-dependent biosynthetic pathways involved in the syntheses of D-glucosamine phosphate, purines and pyrimidines. This agent inhibits phosphate-activated glutaminase, a key enzyme for the synthesis of releasable glutamine, depleting cells of this essential amino acid and reducing their capacity to pro... |
| Dibotatug | A human non-fucosylated immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor and natural killer cell antigen CD94 (killer cell lectin-like receptor D1; KLRD1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dibotatug targets and binds to CD94 expressed on CD94-expressing tumor cells and induces fracticide via antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). This depletes CD94-expressing tumor cells and may reduce tumor ce... |
| Dibrospidium Chloride | A dispirotripiperazine derivative and alkylating agent with potential antineoplastic and anti-inflammatory activities. Dibrospidium chloride has been examined for the treatment of bone cancer. |
| Dichloroallyl Lawsone | A triazine derivative with antineoplastic activity.  Dichloroallyl lawsone inhibits mitochondrial dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (DHOD), an enzyme that catalyzes the only redox step in de novo pyrimidine biosynthesis, and nucleotide (RNA and DNA) biosynthesis. (NCI04) |
| Dicycloplatin | A third-generation, supramolecular platinum-based compound composed of carboplatin linked, by a strong hydrogen bond, to 1,1-cyclobutane dicarboxylate (CBDCA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, dicycloplatin appears to have a mechanism of action similar to that of other platinum-based compounds, which involves both DNA binding and the formation of DNA crosslinks. This mechanism results in the induction of apoptosis a... |
| Dienogest | An orally-active, semisynthetic, fourth generation, nonethinylated progestogen with antiproliferative, antiandrogenic, anti-inflammatory and antiangiogenic activities that is used in hormone therapy and as a female contraceptive. Upon oral administration, dienogest binds intracellular progesterone receptors which then translocate to the nucleus where the drug-receptor complex interacts with progesterone response elements, thus altering the expression of target genes. Dienogest reduces the pro... |
| Diethylnorspermine | A synthetic bis-ethyl analogue of spermine with potential antineoplastic activity. N(1),N(11)-bis(ethyl)norspermine (DENSPM), a N-terminally alkylated tetraamine and polyamine mimetics, disrupts polyamine pool homeostasis by modulating the activities of the biosynthetic enzymes, ornithine decarboxylase (ODC), and S-adenosylmethionine decarboxylase (AdoMetDC). This agent also reduces polyamine concentrations through the induction of the catabolic enzyme spermidine/spermine N1-acetyltransferase... |
| Digitoxin | A lipid soluble cardiac glycoside that inhibits the plasma membrane sodium potassium ATPase, leading to increased intracellular sodium and calcium levels and decreased intracellular potassium levels.  In studies increased intracellular calcium precedes cell death and decreased intracellular potassium increase caspase activation and DNA fragmentation, causing apoptosis and inhibition of cancer cell growth. (NCI) |
| Digoxin | A cardiac glycoside. Digoxin inhibits the sodium potassium adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) pump, thereby increasing intracellular calcium and enhancing cardiac contractility.  This agent also acts directly on the atrioventricular node to suppress conduction, thereby slowing conduction velocity.  Apparently due to its effects on intracellular calcium concentrations, digoxin induces apoptosis of tumor cells via a pathway involving mitochondrial cytochrome c and caspases 8 and 3. (NCI04) |
| Dihydro-5-Azacytidine | A synthetic nucleoside analogue of deoxycytidine. Dihydro-5-azacytidine inhibits DNA methyltransferase, thereby interfering with abnormal DNA methylation patterns that are associated with genetic instability in some tumor cells. Inhibition of this enzyme may restore expression of tumor-suppressor genes and result in antitumor activity. (NCI04) |
| Dihydrolenperone | A butyrophenone that has been investigated for antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Diindolylmethane | A phytonutrient and plant indole found in cruciferous vegetables including broccoli, Brussels sprouts, cabbage, cauliflower and kale, with potential anti-androgenic and antineoplastic activities. As a dimer of indole-3-carbinol, diindolylmethane (DIM) promotes beneficial estrogen metabolism in both sexes by reducing the levels of 16-hydroxy estrogen metabolites and increasing the formation of 2-hydroxy estrogen metabolites, resulting in increased antioxidant activity. Although this agent indu... |
| DI-Leu16-IL2 Immunocytokine | A recombinant fusion protein consisting of de-immunized and humanized anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody Leu16 fused to human cytokine interleukin-2 (IL2) with potential antineoplastic activity. The antibody moiety of DI-Leu16-IL2 immunocytokine binds to tumor cells expressing the CD20 antigen, which may result in an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) towards CD20-expressing tumor cells; the localized IL2 moiety of this fusion protein may stimulate natural killer (NK) and T-lymph... |
| Dilpacimab | A bispecific, tetravalent immunoglobulin (Ig) G-like molecule containing the target-binding variable domains of two monoclonal antibodies, one targeting the Notch ligand delta-like 4 (DLL4) and the other one targeting the human tyrosine kinase vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), combined via linkers, with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dilpacimab targets and binds to both DLL4 and VEGF. This prevents the activation of DLL-4/Notch- and VEGF... |
| Dimerizing Agent Regulated Immunoreceptor Complex-expressing CD33-specific Autologous CAR T Cells SC-DARIC33 | A preparation of equal amounts of autologous CD4-positive and CD8-positive T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD33 and genetically modified to express a Dimerizing Agent Regulated Immunoreceptor Complex (DARIC), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion of the DARIC-expressing CD33-specific autologous CAR T-cells SC-DARIC33 and followed by intermitt... |
| Dimethylmyleran | An aliphatic analogue of busulfan with potential antineoplastic activity.  As an alkylating agent, dimethylbusulfan induces neutropenia and has been shown to exhibit antitumor effects in some animal models.  Alkylating agents exert cytotoxic and chemotherapeutic effects by transferring alkyl groups to DNA, thereby damaging DNA and interfering with DNA synthesis and cell division. (NCI04) |
| Dinaciclib | A pyrazolo[1,5-a]pyrimidine with potential antineoplastic activity. Dinaciclib selectively inhibits cyclin dependent kinases CDK1, CDK2, CDK5, and CDK9; inhibition of CDK1 and CDK2 may result in cell cycle repression and tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Dinitrophenyl-Modified Autologous Renal Cell Carcinoma Tumor cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous renal cell carcinoma (RCC) tumor cells modified with the hapten 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Administration of DNP-modified autologous renal cell carcinoma tumor cell vaccine may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against renal cell carcinoma tumor cells. DNP conjugation may enhance the immunogenicity of weakly immunogenic antigens. |
| Dinutuximab | A chimeric mouse/human monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Dinutuximab binds to the ganglioside GD2 and induces antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity against GD2-expressing tumor cells.  GD2 is overexpressed in malignant melanoma, neuroblastoma, osteosarcoma, and small cell carcinoma of the lung. |
| Dioscorea nipponica Makino Extract DNE3 | An extract of the plant Dioscorea nipponica Makino and inhibitor of both the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B) and members of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) family of lipid kinases, with potential antineoplastic and anti-metastatic activities. Dioscorea nipponica Makino extracted with ethyl acetate (DNE3) binds to and inhibits PI3K and Akt. This inhibits PI3K/Akt-mediated signaling and prevents both growth and survival of PI3K/Akt-overexpressing tumor cells. In ... |
| Disitamab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of trastuzumab, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of trastuzumab vedotin, the trastuzumab moiety targets and binds to HER2 on the surface of tumor cells. Following inte... |
| Disufenton Sodium | A disulfonyl derivative of phenyl-tert-butyl nitrone (PBN), with potential anti-glioma activity. Although the exact mechanism(s) of action of OKN007 are still largely unknown, this agent appears to inhibit cancer cell proliferation and migration. This agent appears to inhibit the activity of sulfatase 2 (SULF2), a highly specific endoglucosamine-6-sulfatase that is overexpressed in the extracellular matrix of cancer cells and catalyzes the removal of sulfate from the 6-O-sulfate esters of hep... |
| Ditiocarb | A sulfhydryl-containing carbamate that is the primary in vivo metabolite of disulfiram. Diethyldithiocarbamate chelates zinc, thereby inhibiting metalloproteinases, thereby preventing the degradation of the extracellular matrix and inhibiting an initial step in cancer metastasis and angiogenesis. A known inhibitor of superoxide dismutase, this agent can either potentiate or protect against cell oxidative damage caused by ionizing radiation, depending on the time of administration. (NCI04) |
| Divarasib | An orally available inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, divarasib selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C mutant-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction leading to tumor cell growth, proliferation, invasion, and metast... |
| DLK1/EPHA2/HBB/NRP1/RGS5/TEM1 Peptide-pulsed Alpha-type-1 Polarized Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell based cancer vaccine composed of mature polarized dendritic cells (alphaDC1) pulsed with six human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-presented tumor blood vessel antigen (TBVA)-derived peptides, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Dendritic cells (DCs) were treated with a "type-1 polarizing cytokine cocktail", including interleukin-1beta, tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), interferon-alpha (IFN-a), IFN-gamma and polyinosinic:polycytidylic acid (pI:C) to produce... |
| DM4-Conjugated Anti-Cripto Monoclonal Antibody BIIB015 | A humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface-associated protein Cripto and conjugated to the maytansinoid DM4 with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of DM4-conjugated anti-Cripto monoclonal antibody BIIB015 binds to the tumor associated antigen (TAA) Cripto; upon internalization, the DM4 moiety binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, resulting in inhibition of cell division and cell growth of Cripto-exp... |
| D-methionine Formulation MRX-1024 | A proprietary oral formulation of D-methionine with antioxidant and antimucositis activities. D-methionine formulation MRX-1024 may selectively protect the oral mucosa from the toxic effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy without compromising antitumor activity. D-methionine may be converted into the L- isomer in vivo, particularly in instances of L-methionine deprivation; both isomers have antioxidant activity which may be due, in part, to their sulfur moieties and chelating propertie... |
| DNA Interference Oligonucleotide PNT2258 | A liposomal formulation of the 24-mer oligonucleotide PNT100, with potential antineoplastic activity. PNT2258 targets and complements to untranscribed DNA sequence upstream of BCL2 promoters, thereby interfering with DNA replication and transcription of the BCL2 gene. This may promote and restore the apoptotic pathway in BCL2-overexpressing tumor cells. BCL2, an anti-apoptotic protein, is overexpressed in a wide variety of tumors. |
| DNA Minor Groove Binding Agent SG2000 | A sequence-selective pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer with potential antineoplastic activity. Following intravenous administration, DNA minor groove binding agent SG2000 preferentially and covalently binds to purine-GATC-pyrimidine sequences, with the imine/carbinolamine moieties of SG2000 binding to the N2 positions of guanines on opposite strands of DNA. This induces interstrand cross-links and inhibits both DNA replication and gene transcription, which lead to the inhibition of cell growt... |
| DNA Plasmid Encoding Human IL-12 phIL12 | A preparation of non-viral DNA plasmids encoding the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), constructed with a p21 promoter and devoid of an antibiotic resistance gene, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of DNA plasmid encoding human IL-12 (hIL-12) phIL12 via intratumoral injection and electroporation, or gene electrotransfer (GET), the plasmid is introduced into human cells resulting in the expression and highly-localized secr... |
| DNA Plasmid Vaccine ITI-1001 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) plasmid DNA cancer vaccine containing two DNA plasmids, one encoding for the two human cytomegalovirus (CMV) antigens immediate-early 1 (IE-1) and the matrix protein pp65 (65 kDa lower matrix phosphoprotein; UL83) fused to the lysosome-associated membrane protein 1 (LAMP-1), and one plasmid encoding for the CMV glycoprotein B (gB) antigen which is also fused to LAMP-1, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities, Upon intramuscular (IM) administration ... |
| DNA Plasmid-encoding Interleukin-12 INO-9012/PSA/PSMA DNA Plasmids INO-5150 Formulation INO-5151 | A DNA-based combined formulation composed of INO-5150, DNA plasmids encoding the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), and INO-9012, a plasmid DNA vaccine encoding the immune activator and pro-inflammatory cytokine human interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular delivery of INO-5151 and electroporation of the PSA/PSMA DNA plasmid INO-5150, PSA and PSMA are ... |
| DNA Plasmid-encoding Interleukin-12/HPV DNA Plasmids Therapeutic Vaccine MEDI0457 | A DNA-based combination immunotherapeutic, MEDI0457, composed of VGX-3100, a preparation of DNA plasmids encoding the E6 and E7 genes of human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes 16 and 18, combined with INO-9012, a DNA plasmid encoding the immune activator and pro-inflammatory cytokine human interleukin-12 (IL-12) with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular delivery by electroporation of VGX-3100, the HPV E6 and E7 proteins are translated in cells and elicit a... |
| DNA Polymerase Theta Inhibitor ART6043 | An orally bioavailable selective and reversible inhibitor of DNA polymerase (pol) theta, with potential chemosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, pol theta inhibitor ART6043 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of pol theta. This prevents pol theta-mediated repair of double-stranded DNA breaks via the microhomology-mediated end joining (MMEJ) process. This causes apoptosis and inhibits proliferation in cancer cells. ART6043 may have a synerg... |
| DNA Polymerase Theta Inhibitor GSK4524101 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of DNA polymerase (pol) theta, with potential chemosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, pol theta inhibitor GSK4524101 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of pol theta. This prevents pol theta-mediated repair of double-stranded DNA breaks via the microhomology-mediated end joining (MMEJ) process. This causes apoptosis and inhibits proliferation in cancer cells. GSK4524101may have a synergistic effect if admi... |
| DNA Polymerase Theta Inhibitor MOMA-313 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of DNA polymerase (pol) theta helicase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, DNA polymerase theta inhibitor MOMA-313 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the pol theta helicase domain and thereby inhibits the activity of pol theta. This prevents pol theta-mediated repair of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) via the theta-mediated end joining (TMEJ) process. This causes apoptosis and inhibits proliferation in homologous recombi... |
| DNA Polymerase Theta Inhibitor RP-3467 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of DNA polymerase (pol) theta, with potential chemosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, pol theta inhibitor RP-3467 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of pol theta. This prevents pol theta-mediated repair of double-stranded DNA breaks via the microhomology-mediated end joining (MMEJ) process. This causes apoptosis and inhibits proliferation in cancer cells. RP-3467 may have a synergistic effect if administe... |
| DNA Repair Inhibiting Oligonucleotide | A preparation of cell-permeant, short double-stranded DNA fragment that mimics double-strand breaks and linked to a cholesterol molecule, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of DNA repair inhibiting oligonucleotide, the cholesterol moiety enables tumoral and nuclear uptake of the DNA, and mimics DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) inside the tumor cells. This triggers false DNA break signals, binding to and activating DNA repair proteins including both poly (ADP-ribose) po... |
| DNA Vector pPRA-PSM Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a DNA plasmid encoding epitopes of the human preferential antigen of melanoma (PRAME) and the prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon direct administration of this vaccine into lymph nodes, peptides expressed by DNA plasmid vector pPRA-PSM may activate the immune system, resulting in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against PRAME- and PSMA-expressing cells. PRAME and PSMA are tumor associated antigens upre... |
| DNA-dependent Protein Kinase Inhibitor VX-984 | An ATP-competitive inhibitor of the catalytic subunit of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK), with potential sensitizing and enhancing activities for both chemo- and radiotherapies. Upon administration, DNA-PK inhibitor VX-984 binds to and inhibits the catalytic subunit of DNA-PK, thereby interfering with the non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) process and preventing repair of DNA double strand breaks (DSBs) caused by ionizing radiation or chemotherapeutic treatment. This increases chemo- and... |
| DNAJB1-PRKACA Fusion Kinase Peptide Vaccine | A cancer peptide vaccine composed of a fusion peptide derived from the fusion protein DnaJ homolog subfamily B member 1-cAMP-dependent protein kinase catalytic subunit alpha fusion protein A (DNAJB1-PRKACA) that is encoded by the DNAJB1/PRKACA fusion gene, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the DNAJB1-PRKACA fusion kinase peptide vaccine may induce CD8 T cell- and CD4 T cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells expressing the DNAJB1-PRK... |
| DNA-PK inhibitor AZD7648 | An orally bioavailable ATP-competitive inhibitor of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK), with potential chemo/radiosensitizing and antineoplastic activites. Upon oral administration, DNA-PK inhibitor AZD7648 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of DNA-PK, thereby interfering with the non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) process and preventing repair of DNA double strand breaks (DSBs) caused by ionizing radiation or chemotherapeutic treatment. This increases chemo- and radiot... |
| DNA-PK/TOR Kinase Inhibitor CC-115 | A dual inhibitor of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK) and mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), with potential antineoplastic activity. CC-115 binds to and inhibits the activity of DNA-PK and both raptor-mTOR (TOR complex 1 or TORC1) and rictor-mTOR (TOR complex 2 or TORC2), which may lead to a reduction in cellular proliferation of cancer cells expressing DNA-PK and TOR. DNA-PK, a serine/threonine kinase and a member of the PI3K-related kinase subfamily of protein kinases, is activated u... |
| DNMT1 Inhibitor NTX-301 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of human DNA methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, DNMT1 inhibitor NTX-301 targets ad binds to DNMT1, thereby inhibiting the activity of DNMT1. This may prevent DNA methylation, induce DNA hypomethylation, and activate tumor suppressor genes silenced by hypermethylation. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation. DNMT1, a member of the DNA methyltransferase (DNMT) family, plays an important role in maint... |
| DNMT1 Mixed-Backbone Antisense Oligonucleotide MG 98 | A second-generation, mixed-backbone, phosphorothioate antisense oligonucleotide (ODN) with potential antitumor activity. MG 98 is a highly specific inhibitor of translation of the mRNA for human DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1), hybridizing to the 3' un-translated region of DNMT1 mRNA. The silencing of DNMT1 translation by MG 98 may result in the prevention or reversal of abnormal methylation of tumor suppressor genes and ultimately in tumor growth inhibition or tumor regression. |
| DNR-expressing Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma-specific Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous, dominant-negative receptor (DNR)-expressing nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC)-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs), with potential antineoplastic activity. The DNR-expressing NPC-specific CTLs specifically target Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) nuclear antigen 1 (EBNA1), latent membrane proteins (LMP) and BamHIA rightward frame 1 (BARF1), and are transduced with a retroviral vector expressing DNR, a dominant-negative form of the transforming growth factor beta (TGFb) rec... |
| Docetaxel | A semi-synthetic, second-generation taxane derived from a compound found in the European yew tree, Taxus baccata.  Docetaxel displays potent and broad antineoplastic properties; it binds to and stabilizes tubulin, thereby inhibiting microtubule disassembly which results in cell- cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell death.  This agent also inhibits pro-angiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and displays immunomodulatory and pro-inflammatory properties by induci... |
| Docetaxel Anhydrous | The anhydrous form of docetaxel, a semisynthetic side-chain analogue of paclitaxel with antineoplastic property. Docetaxel binds specifically to the beta-tubulin subunit of microtubules and thereby antagonizes the disassembly of the microtubule proteins. This results in the persistence of aberrant microtubule structures and results in cell-cycle arrest and subsequent cell death. |
| Docetaxel Depot Formulation NZ-DTX | A depot formulation containing the taxane docetaxel, a semisynthetic analogue of paclitaxel, with antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral administration, docetaxel depot formulation NZ-DTX forms a solid depot allowing the controlled release of docetaxel. Docetaxel binds specifically to the beta-tubulin subunit of the microtubule, stabilizing tubulin and inhibiting microtubule disassembly, which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell death. This agent also inhibits pro-angi... |
| Docetaxel Emulsion ANX-514 | An injectable emulsion formulation containing the taxane docetaxel, a semisynthetic analogue of paclitaxel, with antineoplastic activity. Docetaxel binds specifically to the beta-tubulin subunit of the microtubule, stabilizing tubulin and inhibiting microtubule disassembly, which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell death. This agent also inhibits pro-angiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and induces various mediators of the inflammatory respo... |
| Docetaxel Formulation BH009 | An injectable polysorbate 80-free formulation containing the taxane docetaxel, a semisynthetic analogue of paclitaxel, with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the docetaxel formulation BH009, docetaxel binds specifically to the beta-tubulin subunit of the microtubule, stabilizing tubulin and inhibiting microtubule disassembly, which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell death. This agent also inhibits pro-angiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial growth fa... |
| Docetaxel Formulation CKD-810 | An injectable formulation containing the taxane docetaxel, a semisynthetic analogue of paclitaxel, with antineoplastic activity. Docetaxel binds specifically to the beta-tubulin subunit of the microtubule, stabilizing tubulin and inhibiting microtubule disassembly, which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell death. This agent also inhibits pro-angiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and induces various mediators of the inflammatory response. |
| Docetaxel Lipid Microspheres | A lipid microsphere (LM)-based formulation containing the poorly water soluble taxane docetaxel, a semi-synthetic analogue of paclitaxel, with antineoplastic activity. Docetaxel binds specifically to the beta-tubulin subunit of the microtubule, stabilizing tubulin and inhibiting microtubule disassembly, which causes cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and leads to cell death. This agent also inhibits pro-angiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and induces various ... |
| Docetaxel Nanoparticle CPC634 | A polymeric nanoparticle (PNP) formulation containing the poorly water-soluble taxane docetaxel, a semi-synthetic analogue of paclitaxel, with antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of the docetaxel nanoparticle CPC634, the nanoparticles are able to accumulate at the tumor site due to the unique characteristics of the tumor's vasculature, while avoiding normal, healthy tissue. In turn, docetaxel is released locally at the target tumor site, binds specifically to the beta-tub... |
| Docetaxel Polymeric Micelles | A nanoparticle-based formulation consisting of polymeric micelles (PMs), made with poly(N-vinylpyrrolidone)-block-poly(D,L-lactide) (PVP-b-PDLLA) block polymers, encapsulating the taxane docetaxel, a semi-synthetic analogue of paclitaxel, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of the docetaxel PMs, the nanoparticles are able to accumulate at the tumor site due to the unique characteristics of the tumor's vasculature, while avoiding normal, healthy tissue. In t... |
| Docetaxel/Ritonavir | An orally bioavailable combination agent containing docetaxel, a second generation taxane, and ritonavir, a cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4 inhibitor, with potential enhanced antineoplastic activity. Docetaxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin, thereby inhibiting microtubule disassembly which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell death.  Docetaxel is metabolized by CYP3A4  enzymes which is inhibited by the presence of ritonavir. This increases the plasma concentration of docetaxel a... |
| Docetaxel-loaded Nanopharmaceutical CRLX301 | A nanoparticle-based formulation containing the poorly water-soluble, second-generation taxane analog docetaxel, with antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of the docetaxel-loaded nanopharmaceutical CRLX301, the nanoparticles are able to accumulate at the tumor site due to the unique characteristics of the tumor's vasculature, while avoiding normal, healthy tissue. In turn, CRLX301 is taken up by the tumor cell via macropinocytosis. Subsequently, docetaxel is slowly release... |
| Docetaxel-PNP | A polymeric nanoparticle (PNP) formulation containing the taxane docetaxel, a semi-synthetic analogue of paclitaxel, with antineoplastic activity. Docetaxel binds specifically to the beta-tubulin subunit of the microtubule, stabilizing tubulin and inhibiting microtubule disassembly, which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase, preventing cell proliferation. This agent also inhibits pro-angiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and induces various mediators ... |
| Dociparstat sodium | A heparin derivative in which the 2-O and 3-O sulfate groups of heparin are removed and that lacks anticoagulant activity, with potential anti-inflammatory, immodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dociparstat sodium binds to both chemokine stromal cell-derived factor 1 (SDF-1 or CXCL12) and CXC chemokine receptor 4 (CXCR4). This prevents the interaction of CXCL12 with CXCR4, blocks CXCR4 activation, and may result in decreased proliferation and migration in CXCR4-over... |
| Docirbrutinib | An orally bioavailable, non-covalent inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, docirbrutinib non-covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of both wild-type and the C481S mutated form of BTK, a drug resistance mutation in the BTK active site in which cysteine is substituted for serine at residue 481. This prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pat... |
| Dodekin | A human antibody-cytokine fusion protein composed of the recombinant form of the endogenous immunostimulatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) fused, in tandem diabody format, to the N-terminus of the human monoclonal antibody L19 specific for the extra-domain B of fibronectin (ED-B), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, the antibody moiety of dodekin targets and binds to fibronectin-expressing cells in the tumor vasculature, thereby delivering ... |
| Dolastatin 10 | A pentapeptide originally isolated from the marine mollusk Dolabella auricularia with potential antineoplastic activity.  Binding to tubulin, Dolastatin 10 inhibits microtubule assembly, resulting in the formation of tubulin aggregates and inhibition of mitosis.  This agent also induces tumor cell apoptosis through a mechanism involving bcl-2, an oncoprotein that is overexpressed in some cancers. (NCI04) |
| Dolastatin 15 | A depsipeptide originally isolated from the marine mollusk Dolabella auricularia with potential antineoplastic activity.  Less potent than the structurally-related compound dolastatin 10, dolastatin 15 binds weakly to tubulin and blocks microtubule assembly, thereby inhibiting mitosis.  Dolastatin 15 also induces tumor cell apoptosis through a mechanism involving bcl-2, an oncoprotein that is overexpressed in some cancers. (NCI04) |
| Domatinostat | An orally bioavailable benzamide and inhibitor of human class I histone deacetylases (HDACs) isoenzymes 1, 2 and 3, with potential antineoplastic activity. Domatinostat selectively binds to and inhibits class I HDACs leading to an accumulation of highly acetylated histones. This may result in an induction of chromatin remodeling, the selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes, and the tumor suppressor protein-mediated inhibition of tumor cell division and eventually the induction of tu... |
| Domvanalimab | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, domvanalimab targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of TIGI... |
| Donafenib | An orally available multikinase inhibitor that targets Raf kinase and various receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, donafenib binds to and blocks the activity of Raf kinase, and inhibits Raf-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits cell proliferation in Raf-expressing tumor cells. In addition, this agent may inhibit unidentified RTKs, and thus may further block tumor cell proliferation in susceptible tumor cells. Raf, a... |
| Donitabart | A monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) disialoganglioside (GD2; GD-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, donitabart may induce cytotoxicity in GD2-expressing tumor cells by antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC). GD2 is overexpressed on the surface of neuroblastoma (NB) cells and by other neuroectoderm-derived neoplasms, while it is minimally expressed on normal cells. |
| Donor Lymphocytes | A population of lymphocytes from the blood of a donor and administered to a patient who has already received a stem cell transplant from the same donor (Allogeneic Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation). The donor lymphocytes may be able to boost the patient's immune system and kill remaining cancer cells. |
| Donor TCR Alpha/Beta/CD19-depleted Mononuclear Cell-enriched Activated Natural Killer Cells | A preparation of donor-derived, haploidentical, cytokine-activated natural killer (NK) cells enriched with mononuclear cells from haploidentical donor that have been depleted of T-cell receptor (TCR) alpha and beta (TCRa/b+) as well as CD19-positive (CD19+) cells, that may potentially be used for immune reconstitution purposes. Upon administration, the donor TCR alpha/beta/CD19-depleted mononuclear cell-enriched activated NK cells may enhance immune reconstitution. The depletion of alpha/beta... |
| Donor-derived Haploidentical IL-21-Expanded Natural Killer Cells | A population of ex-vivo human interleukin-21 (IL-21) expanded donor-derived human leukocyte antigen (HLA) haploidentical natural killer (haploNK) cells, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration in patients undergoing HLA-haploidentical hematopoietic cell transplantation, the donor-derived haploidentical IL-21-expanded NK cells target, lyse and destroy tumor cells. IL-21 promotes sustained ex vivo proliferation of human NK cells and enhances its cytoto... |
| Donor-derived WT1/PRAME/NY-ESO-1/Survivin-specific T-lymphocytes | Allogeneic T-lymphocytes specifically reactive to the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human Wilms tumor protein-1 (WT1), Preferentially Expressed Antigen in Melanoma (PRAME), the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, and survivin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Donor derived T-cells are mixed, ex vivo, with protein fragments derived from the TAAs WT1, PRAME, NY-ESO-1, and survivin. Upon intravenous administration, the donor-derived WT1/PRAME/NY-ESO-1/Survivin-specific T-lymphocytes recogn... |
| Dordaviprone | A water soluble, orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B) and extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, dordaviprone binds to and inhibits the activity of Akt and ERK, which may result in inhibition of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K)/Akt signal transduction pathway as well as the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated pathway. This may lead to the induction... |
| Dostarlimab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; programmed death-1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dostarlimab binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the Ig superfamily expressed on T-cells, functions as an immune... |
| Double Recombinant Vaccinia Virus VV-GMCSF-Lact | A double recombinant oncolytic vaccinia virus (VV; VACV) genetically engineered to express the human immunostimulatory cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The double-recombinant VV-GMCSF-Lact contains deletions of viral thymidine kinase (TK) and growth factor (GF) gene fragments in the regions of which the genes of GM-CSF and the oncotoxic protein lactaptin are inserted, respectively. Up... |
| Dovitinib | A benzimidazole-quinolinone compound and receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Dovitinib binds to and inhibits the phosphorylation of type III-V RTKs, such as vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) that promote tumor cell proliferation and survival in certain cancer cells. In addition, this agent also inhibits other members of the RTK superfamily, including fibroblast growth factor rece... |
| Dovitinib Lactate | The orally bioavailable lactate salt of a benzimidazole-quinolinone compound with potential antineoplastic activity. Dovitinib strongly binds to fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) and inhibits its phosphorylation, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell death. In addition, this agent may inhibit other members of the RTK superfamily, including the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor; fibroblast growth factor receptor 1; pl... |
| Doxazosin | A quinazoline with antihypertensive and antineoplastic properties. Doxazosin is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist that selectively inhibits alpha-1 adrenergic receptors. Blockages of the alpha-1 adrenergic action on the vascular smooth muscles lead to a decrease in vascular resistance and antihypertensive activity. This agent also shows high affinity to alpha-1c adrenoceptor, the predominant functional type in the prostate, which may partially attribute to its effect in treatment of benign prost... |
| Doxercalciferol | A synthetic analog of vitamin D with potential antineoplastic activity. In the liver, doxercalciferol is converted to its biologically active vitamin D metabolites, which control the intestinal absorption of dietary calcium, the tubular reabsorption of calcium by the kidney and, in conjunction with parathyroid hormone (PTH), the mobilization of calcium from the skeleton. Through interaction with specific receptor proteins in target tissues, these vitamin D metabolites act directly on osteobla... |
| Doxifluridine | A fluoropyrimidine derivative and oral prodrug of the antineoplastic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) with antitumor activity. Doxifluridine, designed to circumvent the rapid degradation of 5-FU by dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase in the gut wall, is converted into 5-FU in the presence of pyrimidine nucleoside phosphorylase. 5-FU interferes with DNA synthesis and subsequent cell division by reducing normal thymidine production and interferes with RNA transcription by competing with uridine triphosp... |
| Doxorubicin | An anthracycline antibiotic with antineoplastic activity. Doxorubicin, isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces peucetius var. caesius, is the hydroxylated congener of daunorubicin. Doxorubicin intercalates between base pairs in the DNA helix, thereby preventing DNA replication and ultimately inhibiting protein synthesis. Additionally, doxorubicin inhibits topoisomerase II which results in an increased and stabilized cleavable enzyme-DNA linked complex during DNA replication and subsequently ... |
| Doxorubicin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of doxorubicin, an anthracycline antibiotic with antineoplastic activity. Doxorubicin, isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces peucetius var. caesius, is the hydroxylated congener of daunorubicin. Doxorubicin intercalates between base pairs in the DNA helix, thereby preventing DNA replication and ultimately inhibiting protein synthesis. Additionally, doxorubicin inhibits topoisomerase II which results in an increased and stabilized cleavable enzyme-DNA linked complex d... |
| Doxorubicin Prodrug L-377,202 | A prodrug in which a peptide is covalently conjugated with the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin.  This complex is hydrolyzed by the enzyme prostate-specific antigen (PSA), resulting in the formation of doxorubicin and leucine-doxorubicin.  Selective targeting of these drugs to prostate tumor cells occurs because the hydrolyzing PSA enzyme is localized to the prostate gland.  Doxorubicin and leucine-doxorubicin intercalate into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereb... |
| Doxorubicin Prodrug/Prodrug-activating Biomaterial SQ3370 | A formulation consisting of SQL70, a prodrug-activating biomaterial, and SQP33, a prodrug of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of SQ3370, which consists of the injection of SQL70 at the tumor site followed by the intravenous administration of SQ3370, the prodrug SQP33 binds to, through an as of yet not identifiable mechanism, to SQL70 at the tumor site. After binding, doxorubicin is released over a period of da... |
| Doxorubicin-Eluting Beads | A drug-device combination product consisting of small polymeric beads impregnated with the anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin with potential antineoplastic activity. The beads consist of polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) microspheres modified with sulfonic acid groups and loaded with doxorubicin. During transarterial chemoembolization (TACE), doxorubicin-eluting beads embolize to the tumor vasculature and release cytotoxic doxorubicin, which may result in both ischemic necrosis of tumor tissue due to... |
| Doxorubicin-HPMA Conjugate | A copolymer conjugate of the antineoplastic anthracycline doxorubicin and the water-soluble polymer N-(2-hydroxypropyl) methacrylamide (HPMA). Doxorubicin, an intercalator and a topoisomerase II inhibitor, prevents DNA replication and ultimately inhibits protein synthesis. This agent also generates oxygen free radicals, resulting in cytotoxic lipid peroxidation of cell membrane lipid. HPMA conjugation enhances the permeability and retention of this agent within the tumor vasculature. Poorly c... |
| Doxorubicin-loaded EGFR-targeting Nanocells | A nanocell formulation targeting the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) using bispecific antibodies (bsAb) against EGFR and containing the antineoplastic anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of doxorubicin-loaded EGFR-targeting nanocells, the nanocells are stable in the bloodstream and the anti-EGFR bsAb moiety targets and binds to EGFR-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, the nanocell allows for specific delivery of doxorubic... |
| Doxorubicin-Magnetic Targeted Carrier Complex | A formulation of the anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin in which doxorubicin is bound to microscopic beads of activated carbon and iron as a magnetic-targeted carrier (MTC). Doxorubicin, an intercalator and a topoisomerase II inhibitor, prevents DNA replication and ultimately inhibits protein synthesis. This agent also generates oxygen free radicals, resulting in cytotoxic lipid peroxidation of cell membrane lipids. Guided by the placement of a magnet on the body surface overlying a tumor s... |
| DPPG2-based Thermosensitive Liposomes Encapsulating Doxorubicin DPPG2-TSL-DOX | A temperature-sensitive liposomal formulation composed of phosphatidylglycerol-based thermosensitive liposomes (DPPG2-TSL) encapsulating the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the DPPG2-based thermosensitive liposomes encapsulating doxorubicin DPPG2-TSL-DOX circulate in the bloodstream, extravasate and are activated locally by applying regional hyperthermia (RHT), which increases the tumor temperature t... |
| DPT/BCG/Measles/Serratia/Pneumococcus Vaccine | A proprietary lipid emulsion containing five vaccines: diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus (DPT), Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG), measles, Serratia marcescens and pneumococcal, with potential immunostimulating activity. Subcutaneous administration of the DPT/BCG/measles/Serratia/pneumococcus vaccine activates the immune system and may both abrogate tumor-induced immune tolerance and induce an antitumor immune response, which may eradicate the tumor. |
| DPT/Typhoid/Staphylococcus aureus/Paratyphoid A/Paratyphoid B Vaccine | A proprietary lipid emulsion containing five vaccines: diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus (DPT), typhoid, Staphylococcus aureus, paratyphoid A and paratyphoid B, with potential immunostimulating activity. Subcutaneous administration of the DPT/typhoid/Staphylococcus aureus/paratyphoid A/paratyphoid B vaccine activates the immune system and may both abrogate tumor-induced immune tolerance and induce an antitumor immune response, which may eradicate the tumor. |
| DPX-E7 HPV Vaccine | A therapeutic vaccine composed of a synthetic peptide consisting of amino acids 11 through 19 of the viral oncoprotein human papillomavirus (HPV) subtype 16 E7 (HPV16-E7 11-19), with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Immunization with the DPX-E7 HPV vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the HPV16-E7 protein. HPV type 16 plays a key role in the carcinogenesis of certain cancers. |
| DR5-targeting Tetrameric Nanobody Agonist TAS266 | An agonistic tetravalent nanobody, in which the four single, high affinity heavy chain variable domain (VHH) antibodies are separated by a peptide linker, targeting death receptor type 5 (DR5), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, DR5-targeting tetrameric nanobody agonist TAS266, with its four DR5-specific single-chain antibodies, specifically binds to and activates DR5 receptors. This results in the activation of caspase cascades and induction of apoptosis in DR5-expr... |
| DRD2 Antagonist/ClpP Agonist ONC206 | An orally bioavailable, selective bitopic dopamine receptor D2 (DRD2) antagonist and mitochondrial caseinolytic protease P (ClpP) agonist, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, DRD2 antagonist/ClpP agonist ONC206 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of DRD2. This may inactivate Akt (protein kinase B) and extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK), which may result in inhibition of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K)/Akt signal transduction pathway as well a... |
| Dresbuxelimab | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immunomodulating, anti-viral and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration,dresbuxelimab targets and binds to CD73 on tumor cells, thereby inhibiting the activity of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of extracellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and the adenosine-mediated suppression of lymphocyte a... |
| Dried Synsepalum dulcificum Supplement | A dietary supplement composed of dried Synsepalum dulcificum, or dried miracle berry, with potential taste modifying and antioxidant activities. Dried Synsepalum dulcificum supplement contains the glycoprotein miraculin and polyphenols. Upon oral supplement, miraculin acts as an agonist at the human sweet taste receptor hT1R2-hT1R3 at acidic pH, thereby converting sour stimuli to sweetness and resulting in taste-modifying activity. The polyphenols may reduce oxidative stress and may help to s... |
| Dromostanolone Propionate | The propionate salt form of dromostanolone, a synthetic anabolic steroid related to dihydrotestosterone that has antiestrogenic effects.  Dromostanolone inhibits the growth of estrogen receptor-presenting breast cancers; its virilizing effects limit its clinical usefulness. (NCI) |
| Drug-drug Conjugate NUV-1511 | A drug-drug conjugate (DDC) composed of an as of yet undisclosed tumor-targeting agent conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed chemotherapeutic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, DDC NUV-1511 targets and binds to the as of yet undisclosed receptor expressed in certain tumor types. The chemotherapeutic agent kills the cancer cells, through an as of yet unknown mechanism of action. DDCs may be able to increase efficacy while reducing systemic toxicity. |
| DTA-H19 Plasmid | A plasmid DNA encoding the A chain of the diphtheria toxin (DT-A) driven by the transcriptional regulatory sequences of human H19, with potential antineoplastic activity. Because the expression of DT-A is under the control of H19 promotor elements, DT-A is selectively expressed in tumor cells capable of turning on H-19. DT-A catalyzes ADP-ribosylation of translation elongation factor 2 (EF-2), resulting in the inhibition of protein synthesis and apoptosis. In addition, DT-A protein released f... |
| DTRMWXHS-12/Everolimus/Pomalidomide Combination Agent DTRM-555 | An orally bioavailable combination of DTRMWXHS-12, a Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) inhibitor, everolimus, a mammalian Target of Rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitor, and pomalidomide, an immunomodulatory drug (IMiD), that may be used for the treatment of B-cell malignancies. Upon oral administration of DTRM-555, the DTRMWXHS-12 component inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated... |
| Dual IGF-1R/InsR Inhibitor BMS-754807 | An oral small molecule inhibitor of insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor (IGF-1R) and insulin receptor (InsR) tyrosine kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Dual IGF-IR/InsR inhibitor BMS-754807 binds reversibly to and inhibits the activities of IGF-1R and InsR, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. IGF-1R and InsR tyrosine kinases, overexpressed in a variety of human cancers, play significant roles in mitogenesis,... |
| Dual-activating Polyvalent STING Agonist ONM-501 | A nanoparticle-based formulation consisting of the stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173)-activating, pH-sensitive, polymeric micelles PC7A, loaded with the endogenous STING agonist cGAMP, with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration of dual-activating polyvalent STING agonist ONM-501, both the polymer PC7A and the encapsulated cGAMP target and bind to STING, thereby activating the STING pathway in ... |
| Dual-target CAR T Cells C-4-29 | A preparation of human T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a dual-target CAR, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the dual-target CAR T cells C-4-29 recognize and kill tumor cells expressing the two as of yet undisclosed targets. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against these tumor cells, thereby causing tumor cell lysis. |
| Dual-target CAR-T Cells BGT007 | A preparation of human T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for two as of yet undisclosed tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the dual-target CAR-T cells BGT007 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing the two TAAs. |
| Dubermatinib | An orally available and selective inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase AXL (UFO), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, dubermatinib targets and binds to AXL and prevents its activity. This blocks AXL-mediated signal transduction pathways and inhibits the epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT), which, in turn, inhibits tumor cell proliferation and migration. In addition, TP-0903 enhances chemo-sensitivity to certain other chemotherapeutic agents. AXL, a member of ... |
| Duborimycin | An anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic with therapeutic effects similar to those of doxorubicin.  Duborimycin exhibits cytotoxic activity through topoisomerase-mediated interaction with DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Dulanermin | A recombinant human soluble protein corresponding to amino acids 114-281 of the Apo2 ligand/tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (RhApo2L/TRAIL) with potential antineoplastic activity. Dulanermin binds to and activates TRAIL receptors 1 and 2 (TRAIL-R1/R2), which may activate caspases and induce p53-independent apoptosis in TRAIL-R1/R2-expressing tumor cells. The pro-apoptotic cell surface receptors TRAIL-R1 and -R2, also known as DR4 (death receptor 4) and DR5 (death recep... |
| Duligotuzumab | An immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against both human epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3 or ERBB3) and human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Duligotuzumab binds to both EGFR and HER3 and inhibits their activation. This may prevent EGFR/HER3-mediated signaling and inhibit EGFR/HER3-dependent tumor cell proliferation. In addition, MEHD7945A induces antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against EGR/HER3-exp... |
| Dupilumab | A recombinant human monoclonal immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) antibody directed against the alpha chain of the interleukin-4 receptor (IL-4R alpha) with potential immunomodulatory activities. Upon injection, dupilumab selectively binds to the IL-4R alpha chain. This disrupts IL-4/IL-13 signaling and prevents the activation of downstream pathways that mediate type 2 inflammation and may potentially inhibit tumor cell proliferation, survival, and metastasis. IL-4 and IL-13 receptors are present on th... |
| Durvalumab | A monoclonal antibody directed against B7H1 (B7 homolog 1; programmed cell death ligand 1) with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon intravenous administration, durvalumab binds to the cell surface antigen B7H1, thereby blocking B7H1 signaling. This may activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against B7H1-expressing tumor cells. B7H1, a member of the B7 protein superfamily and a negative regulator of cytokine synthesis, is overexpressed on certain tum... |
| Dusigitumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against insulin-like growth factors 1 and 2 (IGF-1/2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Dusigitumab inhibits IGF1- and IGF2-stimulated activation of membrane-bound IGF receptors and the subsequent triggering of proliferation and survival signaling pathways. This may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. IGF1/2 ligands stimulate cell proliferation, enable oncogenic transformation, and suppr... |
| Dutasteride | A synthetic 4-azasteroid compound. Dutasteride competitively and specifically binds to isoenzymes 1 and 2 of 5 alpha-reductase, forming stable enzyme complexes and inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to 5 alpha-dihydrotestosterone (DHT); the reduction in DHT activity may mitigate or prevent enlargement of the prostate gland. The type 2 5 alpha-reductase isoenzyme is primarily active in the reproductive tissues, while the type 1 isoenzyme is also active in skin and the liver. |
| dUTPase/DPD Inhibitor TAS-114 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of both deoxyuridine triphosphatase (dUTPase) and dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD), with potential antineoplastic adjuvant activity. Upon oral administration in combination with a prodrug of the pyrimidine antagonist 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), TAS-114 inhibits (DPD), the liver enzyme responsible for rapid catabolism of 5-FU into inactive metabolites. This prevents first-pass metabolism of 5-FU, allowing oral administration of the 5-FU prodrug and increasing t... |
| Duvelisib | An orally bioavailable, highly selective and potent small molecule inhibitor of the delta and gamma isoforms of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, duvelisib prevents the activation of the PI3K delta/gamma-mediated signaling pathways which may lead to a reduction in cellular proliferation in PI3K delta/gamma-expressing tumor cells. Unlike other isoforms of PI3K, the delta and gamma isoforms are overexpressed prim... |
| Duvortuxizumab | An anti-CD19/anti-CD3 bispecific, humanized antibody-like protein, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Duvortuxizumab possesses two antigen-recognition and binding sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for CD19, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of B-cells. Upon administration, duvortuxizumab binds to CD3-expressing T-cells and CD19-expressing cancer c... |
| Dynemicin | An antitumor antibiotic of the enediyne class. It has demonstrated high DNA cleavage activity in the presence of NADPH, antimicrobial and tumor growth-inhibiting properties. Dynemicin recognizes and cleaves conformationally flexible regions of DNA. It attacks bases at 3'-side of purine residues such as 5'-AG, 5'-AT, and 5'-GC sequences. (NCI) |
| Dynemicin A | An enediyne antineoplastic antibiotic hybrid containing an anthraquinone moiety isolated from the bacterium Micromonospora chersina.  The anthraquinone moiety intercalates into DNA and the benzene diradical intermediate of the enediyne core binds to the minor groove of DNA, resulting in double-strand breaks in DNA, inhibition of DNA replication and apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| E1A Lipid Complex | E1A gene combined with lipids that serve as a means to deliver the E1A gene into the cancer cells. The combination of lipids and the E1A gene is called the E1A Lipid Complex. |
| E2F1 Pathway Activator ARQ 171 | A second-generation E2F1 pathway activator with potential antineoplastic activity. ARQ 171 induces the expression of E2F transcription factor 1, thereby activating the E2F1-mediated checkpoint process. E2F1, down-regulated in cancer cells, regulates expression of genes involved in the cell cycle progression from G1 into S phase. The G1/S checkpoint process selectively induces cell cycle arrest in cancer cells with irreparable DNA damages and triggers subsequent apoptosis, while allowing cell ... |
| EBNA-1 inhibitor VK-2019 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen 1 (EBNA-1) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, EBNA-1 inhibitor VK-2019 binds to EBNA-1 and inhibits EBNA-1 DNA binding activity. This disrupts the replication, maintenance and segregation of the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) genome, which may lead to tumor cell death in EBV-associated malignancies. EBNA1, a sequence-specific DNA binding protein, plays an important role in EBV episomal genome mai... |
| EBP Inhibitor DSP-0390 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of emopamil-binding protein (EBP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EBP inhibitor DSP-0390 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EBP. This inhibits EBP-mediated de novo cholesterol synthesis. As cholesterol is essential for tumor cell proliferation and survival, this inhibits tumor cell proliferation. The inhibition of EBP also results in the accumulation of its substrates zymostenol and zymosterol, and autophagy in tu... |
| Ebvaciclib | An orally bioavailable, cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ebvaciclib selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDKs. Inhibition of these kinases leads to cell cycle arrest, an induction of apoptosis, and inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CDKs are ATP-dependent serine/threonine kinases that are important regulators of cell cycle progression and proliferation and are frequently overexpressed in tumor cells. |
| Echinomycin | A polypeptide quinoxaline antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces echinatus.  Echinomycin intercalates into DNA at two locations simultaneously in a sequence-specific fashion, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and RNA synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Eciskafusp Alfa | A recombinant fusion protein comprised of an antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) linked to an engineered, variant form of interleukin-2 (IL-2v), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of eciskafusp alfa, the antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to PD-1 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and inhibits the PD-1-mediated downregu... |
| Eclutatug | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin-1 (CLDN1; CLDN-1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, eclutatug targets and binds to a specific extracellular loop epitope that is exposed in non-junctional (NJ) CLDN1 expressed on certain tumor cells. This prevents CLDN1-mediated signaling, which disrupts the stiff extracellular matrix (ECM) in tumors and, by disturbing the physical barrier, enhances t... |
| Ecromeximab | A low-fucose, human-mouse chimeric IgG1 monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity targeting at the ganglioside GD3, a surface antigen expressed on many malignant melanoma cells. Monoclonal antibody KW-2871 binds to GD3-positive cells, thereby initiating antibody-dependent cytotoxicity against GD3-positive cells. This agent is prepared by fusing murine immunoglobulin (Ig) light and heavy variable regions derived from the murine IgG3 antibody KM-641 to a human constant (Fc) reg... |
| ECT204 Transgene-transduced Autologous T Cells ECT204 | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing the ECT204 transgene that encodes an antibody-based antigen-binding domain targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) glypican-3 (GPC3) and an effector-binding domain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Following leukapheresis, isolation of lymphocytes, expansion ex vivo, transduction, and re-introduction into the patient, the ECT204 transgene-transduced autologous T ce... |
| Edatrexate | A polyglutamatable folate antagonist analogue of methotrexate with antineoplastic activity. Edatrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, thereby increasing cellular levels of polyglutamates, inhibiting thymidylate synthase and glycinamide ribonucleotide formyl transferase, impairing synthesis of purine nucleotides and amino acids, and resulting in tumor cell death. Edatrexate may overcome tumor resistance to methotrexate, which loses its activity after it is polyglutamated. (NCI04) |
| Edelfosine | A synthetic analog of lysophosphatidylcholine, an ether lipid, possessing anti-leishmanial and antineoplastic activity.  The mechanism of action for edelfosine has not been fully elucidated.  Targeting cellular membranes, edelfosine modulates membrane permeability, membrane lipid composition, and phospholipid metabolism.  Edelfosine also inhibits the phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K)-AKT/PKB survival pathway, possibly activating the pro-apoptotic stress-activated protein kinase (SAPK/JNK) ... |
| Edicotinib | A small molecule and orally available inhibitor of colony-stimulating factor-1 receptor (CSF1R; FMS) with potential antineoplastic activity. Edicotinib blocks the receptor-ligand interaction between FMS and its ligand CSF1, thereby preventing autophosphorylation of FMS. As a result, unphosphorylated FMS can not activate FMS-mediated signaling pathways, thus potentially inhibiting cell proliferation in FMS-overexpressed tumor cells. FMS, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed in certain ... |
| Edodekin alfa | A recombinant form of the endogenous heterodimeric cytokine interleukin-12 with potential antineoplastic activity.  Edodekin alfa binds to and activates its cell-surface receptor, stimulating the production of interferon-gamma (IFN) which, in turn, induces IFN-gamma-inducible protein-10 (IP-10) and so inhibits tumor angiogenesis. (NCI04) |
| Edotecarin | A synthetic indolocarbazole with antineoplastic activity. Edotecarin inhibits the enzyme topoisomerase I through stabilization of the DNA-enzyme complex and enhanced single-strand DNA cleavage, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication and decreased tumor cell proliferation. (NCI04) |
| Edralbrutinib | An orally available irreversible inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, edralbrutinib covalently binds to and irreversibly inhibits BTK activity, thereby preventing the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways. This may inhibit the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the ... |
| Edrecolomab | A murine monoclonal IgG2a antibody to tumor-associated epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM, or 17-1A) antigen. Edrecolomab attaches to EpCAM, a human cell surface glycoprotein that is found on normal epithelial cells and some tumor cells, such as those of colon and breast carcinomas. Upon binding, this agent recruits the body's immune effector cells, which may exhibit antitumor cytotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| EED Inhibitor APG-5918 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule, allosteric inhibitor of the polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2) component embryonic ectoderm development (EED) protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EED inhibitor APG-5918 targets and binds to EED. This inhibits the binding of EED with trimethylated histone H3 on lysine 27 (H3K27me3), prevents the interaction of EED with the histone methyltransferase (HMT) and the catalytic subunit of the PRC2 enhancer zeste homolog... |
| EED Inhibitor BR1733 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2) component embryonic ectoderm development (EED) protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EED inhibitor BR1733 targets and binds to EED. This inhibits the binding of EED with trimethylated histone H3 on lysine 27 (H3K27me3), prevents the interaction of EED with the histone methyltransferase (HMT) and the catalytic subunit of the PRC2 enhancer zeste homolog 2 (EZH2), and prevents H3K27 ... |
| EED Inhibitor MAK683 | An inhibitor of embryonic ectoderm development protein (EED) and allosteric inhibitor of polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, MAK683 selectively binds to the domain of EED that interacts with trimethylated lysine 27 on histone 3 (H3K27me3), which leads to a conformational change in the EED H3K27me3-binding pocket and prevents the interaction of EED with the histone methyltransferase enhancer zeste homolog 2 (EZH2). Disruption of th... |
| Efaprinermin Alfa | A Fc-engineered human fusion protein composed of two trimers of tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 18 (TNFSF18; GlTRL) linked to an immunoglobulin Fc domain (GITRL-Fc), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, efaprinermin alfa targets, binds to and activates its co-stimulatory surface receptor (glucocorticoid-induced tumor necrosis factor receptor (GITR; TNFRSF18) expressed on T-lymphocytes and certain tumor cell types. This activat... |
| Efatutazone | An orally bioavailable thiazolidinedione and an agonist of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma) with potential antineoplastic activity. Efatutazone binds to and activates PPAR-gamma thus inducing cell differentiation and apoptosis, leading to a reduction in cellular proliferation. PPAR-gamma is a nuclear hormone receptor and a ligand-activated transcription factor that controls the expression of genes involved in macromolecule metabolism and cell differentiation, spec... |
| Efatutazone Dihydrochloride | The dihydrochloride salt of efatutazone, an orally bioavailable agonist of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma) with potential antineoplastic activity. Efatutazone binds to and activates PPAR-gamma, a nuclear hormone receptor and a ligand-activated transcription factor controling gene expression involved in macromolecule metabolism and cell differentiation, specifically adipocyte differentiation. Mediated through activation of PPAR-gamma, this agent is capable of indu... |
| Efdelikofusp Alfa | A bi-specific Fc fusion protein composed of the N-terminal extracellular domain (ECD) of human CD80 (B7.1) fused to a human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) Fc fragment and linked to an interleukin (IL)-2 variant (IL-2v) as a C-terminal moiety, with potential immunostimulatory, immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of efdelikofusp alfa, the CD80 moiety targets and binds to CTL-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4) expressed on T-cells. This prevents the bindin... |
| Efgitasialase Alfa | A fusion protein composed of two engineered human sialidase molecules fused to an Fc antibody domain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, efgitasialase alfa targets and binds to sialoglycans overexpressed on the cell surface of certain tumor cells and immune cells, such as exhausted T-cells. This degrades the immunosuppressive sialoglycans and allows for the re-activation of the immune system, thereby inducing an anti-tumor immune response. Sial... |
| Efgivanermin Alfa | A homogenous hexameric agonist fusion protein composed of the extracellular domain (ECD) of the T-cell costimulatory receptor human glucocorticoid-induced tumor necrosis factor receptor (tumor necrosis factor superfamily, member 18; TNFRSF18; GITR) ligand (GITRL) and an immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 Fc domain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, efgivanermin alfa binds to and activates GITR found on multiple types of T-cells, thereby inducing both the ... |
| Efizonerimod | An agonistic monoclonal antibody against receptor OX40 (CD134), with potential immunostimulatory activity. Upon administration, efizonerimod selectively binds to and activates the OX40 receptor, by mimicking the action of endogenous OX40 ligand (OX40L). OX40 receptor activation induces proliferation of memory and effector T lymphocytes. In the presence of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), this may promote an immune response against the TAA-expressing tumor cells. OX40, a cell surface glycopro... |
| Eflornithine | A difluoromethylated ornithine compound with antineoplastic activity.  Eflornithine irreversibly inhibits ornithine decarboxylase, an enzyme required for polyamine biosynthesis, thereby inhibiting the formation and proliferation of tumor cells. Polyamines are involved in nucleosome oligomerization and DNA conformation, creating a chromatin environment that stimulates neoplastic transformation of cells. This agent has been shown to induce apoptosis in leiomyoma cells. (NCI04) |
| Eflornithine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride form of eflornithine, a difluoromethylated ornithine compound with antineoplastic activity.  Eflornithine irreversibly inhibits ornithine decarboxylase, an enzyme required for polyamine biosynthesis, thereby inhibiting the formation and proliferation of tumor cells. Polyamines are involved in nucleosome oligomerization and DNA conformation, creating a chromatin environment that stimulates neoplastic transformation of cells. (NCI04) |
| Efprezimod Alfa | A recombinant fusion protein composed of the extracellular domain of the mature human glycoprotein CD24 linked to a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc domain, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, efprezimod alfa binds to injured cell components, also called DAMPs (Danger-Associated Molecular Patterns), thereby preventing the interaction of DAMPs with toll-like receptors (TLRs) and inhibiting both nuclear factor-kappa... |
| Eftilagimod Alpha | A T-cell immunostimulatory factor, derived from the soluble form of the lymphocyte-activation gene 3 (LAG-3) protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, alone or in combination with tumor antigens, eftilagimod alpha binds with high affinity to MHC class II molecules expressed by dendritic cells (DC), potentially resulting in DC maturation, DC migration to lymph nodes, enhanced DC cross-presentation of antigens to T cells, and antitumor cytotoxic T cell responses. |
| Eftozanermin Alfa | A fusion protein composed of a tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL) receptor agonist consisting of six receptor binding domains (RBDs) of TRAIL fused to the Fc-domain of a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody, with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of eftozanermin alfa, this fusion protein binds to TRAIL-receptors, pro-apoptotic death receptors (DRs) TRAIL-R1 (death receptor 4; DR4) and TRAIL-R2 (death receptor 5; DR... |
| Eg5 Kinesin-Related Motor Protein Inhibitor 4SC-205 | A small-molecule inhibitor of the human kinesin-related motor protein Eg5 with potential antineoplastic activity. Eg5 kinesin-related motor protein inhibitor 4SC-205 selectively inhibits the activity of Eg5, which may result in mitotic disruption, apoptosis and cell death. The ATP-dependent Eg5 kinesin-related motor protein (also known as KIF11 or kinesin spindle protein-5) is a plus-end directed kinesin motor protein essential for the regulation of spindle dynamics, including assembly and ma... |
| Eg5 Kinesin-Related Motor Protein Inhibitor ARQ 621 | A small-molecule inhibitor of the kinesin-related motor protein Eg5 with potential antineoplastic activity. Eg5 kinesin-related motor protein inhibitor ARQ 621 selectively inhibits the activity of Eg5, which may result in mitotic disruption, apoptosis and cell death. The ATP-dependent Eg5 kinesin-related motor protein (also known as KIF11 or kinesin spindle protein-5) is a plus-end directed kinesin motor protein involved in the regulation of spindle dynamics, including assembly and maintenanc... |
| Eganelisib | An orally bioavailable, highly selective small molecule inhibitor of the gamma isoform of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K-gamma) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, eganelisib prevents the activation of the PI3K-gamma-mediated signaling pathways, which may lead to a reduction in cellular proliferation in PI3K-gamma-expressing tumor cells. In addition, this agent is able to modulate anti-tumor immune responses and inhibit tumor-mediated immunosup... |
| EGb761 | A standardized ginkgo biloba extract with antioxidant and neuroprotective activities.  EGb761 has been shown to inhibit the proliferation of certain tumor cells in vitro. (NCI04) |
| EGF Vaccine EGF-PTI | A cancer vaccine containing epidermal growth factor (EGF), with immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the EGF vaccine EGF-PTI, EGF induces an immune response against EGFR, which results in the formation of anti-EGF-specific neutralizing antibodies. This causes binding of the anti-EGF antibodies to endogenous EGF, reduces levels of circulating EGF and prevents the binding of EGF to its receptor EGFR. This prevents EGF/EGFR pathway activation and may result in a... |
| EGFR Antagonist Hemay022 | An orally available, irreversible inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Hemay022 covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. |
| EGFR Antisense DNA | A synthetic sequence of DNA constructed in the antisense orientation to a sequence of DNA in epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), a member of the erbB gene family. EGFR antisense DNA suppresses the expression of EGFR by tumor cells, thereby inhibiting tumor cell proliferation and decreasing tumor growth. This agent also appears to reduce the invasiveness of certain breast cancer cells. Members of the erbB gene family are overexpressed in many cancers and play roles in carcinogenesis and t... |
| EGFR Antisense DNA BB-401 | A recombinant, plasmid DNA expression vector encoding a 39 nucleotide (nt) short hairpin RNA (shRNA) specific for the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral administration, the EGFR antisense DNA BB-401 is taken up by tumor cells and shRNA is transcribed. The shRNA is converted into small interfering RNA (siRNA) via the RNA interference (RNAi) pathway. The siRNA targets and binds to EGFR RNA expressed by tumor cells. This blocks EGFR... |
| EGFR CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing Autologous T-Lymphocytes | Autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding an anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) chimeric T cell receptor (chimeric antigen receptor or CAR) gene coupled to the signaling domains from both CD3 zeta and CD137 (4-1BB), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the chimeric EGFR antigen receptor-modified autologous T lymphocytes bind to the EGFR antigen on tumor cell surfaces; subsequently, EGFR-expressing tumo... |
| EGFR Exon 20 Inhibitor | Any agent that inhibits the activity of the tyrosine kinase epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) exon 20. |
| EGFR Inhibitor ERAS-801 | An orally bioavailable, central nervous system (CNS) penetrating inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; ErbB1; HER1) amplifications driven by both oncogenic EGFR variants and wildtype EGFR, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR inhibitor ERAS-801 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling. This may induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a rec... |
| EGFR Inhibitor NRC-2694 | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR inhibitor NRC-2694 binds to and inhibits EGFR, which prevents EGFR-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. |
| EGFR Inhibitor NRC-2694 Dihydrochloride | The dihydrochloride salt form of NRC-2694, an orally bioavailable, small-molecule inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR inhibitor NRC-2694 binds to and inhibits EGFR, which prevents EGFR-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. |
| EGFR Inhibitor NRC-2694 Hydrochloride | The monohydrochloride salt form of NRC-2694, an orally bioavailable, small-molecule inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR inhibitor NRC-2694 binds to and inhibits EGFR, which prevents EGFR-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. |
| EGFR Inhibitor PD-168393 | A quinazolone compound with anti-tumor activity. PD-168393 is a cell-permeable, irreversible, and selective inhibitor of ligand-dependent epidermal growth factor (EGF) receptor (EGFR). This agent binds to the catalytic domain of EGFR with a 1:1 stoichiometry and inactivates the EGFR tyrosine kinase activity through alkylation of a cystine residue (Cys-773) within the ATP-binding pocket, thereby inhibiting proliferation of EGFR-expressing tumor cells. |
| EGFR Inhibitor TY-9591 | An orally available inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), including activating mutations, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the EGFR inhibitor TY-9591 binds to and inhibits EGFR activating mutations, including the resistance mutation T790M, which prevents EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR mutant-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell prolif... |
| EGFR Inhibitor WJ13404 | An orally bioavailable, fourth-generation epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR inhibitor WJ13404 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of EGFR, including wild-type EGFR and multiple EGFR resistance mutations, such as triple mutations Del19/T790M/C797S and L858R/T790M/C797S. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling, which induces cell death and inhibits tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR... |
| EGFR Inhibitor XZP-5809 | An orally bioavailable third-generation inhibitor of certain epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) activating mutations, including the resistance mutation T790M, and the L858R and del 19 mutations, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR inhibitor XZP-5809 specifically and irreversibly binds to and inhibits selective EGFR mutations, which prevents EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR mutant-expressing tumor cells. This agent shows hig... |
| EGFR Inhibitor XZP-5809 Tartrate | The tartrate salt form of XZP-5809, an orally bioavailable third-generation inhibitor of certain epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) activating mutations, including the resistance mutation T790M, and the L858R and del 19 mutations, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR inhibitor XZP-5809 specifically and irreversibly binds to and inhibits selective EGFR mutations, which prevents EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR mutant-expressi... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor BBT-176 | A fourth-generation, orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor BBT-176 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of EGFR with C797S triple mutations including Del19/T790M/C797S and L858R/T790M/C797S, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a rec... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor BLU-701 | An orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, fourth-generation epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor BLU-701 targets, reversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of the activating/ sensitizing mutations EGFR exon 19 deletion (ex19del) and L858R, and the C797S resistance EGFR mutations, including the resistance double mutants ex19del/C797S and L858R/C797S. This prevents EGFR mutant-med... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor BPI-361175 | An orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, fourth-generation epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor BPI-361175 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR with C797S and other related mutations, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor FWD1509 MsOH | The methanesulfonic acid salt form of FWD1509, an orally bioavailable, irreversible, small molecule, mutant-selective inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor FWD1509 MsOH targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of EGFR with exon20 insertion mutations, as well as L858R, exon19del and T790M mutations, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor H002 | A fourth-generation, orally bioavailable, mutant-selective epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor H002 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of EGFR, including multiple EGFR resistance mutations, such as single mutations, including Del19 and L858R, double mutations, including Del19/C797S, L858R/C797S, Del19/T790M and L858R/T790M, and triple mutations, including Del19/T790M/C797... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor HS-10375 | An orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, fourth-generation epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor HS-10375 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR with C797S mutations, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, p... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor NX-019 | An orally bioavailable, central nervous system (CNS)-penetrating, mutant-selective epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor NX-019 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of EGFR mutations, including exon 19 deletions, L858R, T790M, exon 20 insertions, and certain other mutations, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling, which induces cell death and inhibits tumor growth in EGFR... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor PLB1004 | An orally bioavailable, mono-anilino-pyrimidine, mutant-selective epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor PLB1004 targets, binds to and irreversibly inhibits the activity of various EGFR mutations, including exon 20 insertion (Ex20ins) activating mutations, the gatekeeper mutation T790M, ExDel19, and L858R. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling, induces cell death and inhibits tumor gr... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor QLH11811 | An orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, fourth-generation epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor QLH11811 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR with selective mutations, including ex19del, L858R, T790M and C797S, thereby preventing EGFR mutant-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR mutant-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor TQB3804 | A fourth-generation, orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor TQB3804 binds to and inhibits the activity of mutant forms of EGFR, including the C797S EGFR mutant, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many t... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor TRX-221 | An orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, fourth-generation epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor TRX-221 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR with selective mutations, including Del19/T790M/C797S, L858R/T790M/C797S, Del19/C797S, L858R/C797S, Del19/T790M, L858R/T790M, Del19, and L858R, thereby preventing EGFR mutant-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death a... |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor WZ4002 | An inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutant form T790M, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor WZ4002 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits EGFR T790M, which prevents EGFR T790M mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR T790M mutant-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. |
| EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor YK-029A | An orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, third-generation epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor YK-029A targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR with exon 20 insertion (Ex20ins) activating mutations, the gatekeeper mutation T790M and some other rare mutations, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-over... |
| EGFR Mutant-specific Inhibitor CK-101 | An orally available third-generation and selective inhibitor of certain epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) activating mutations, including the resistance mutation T790M, and the L858R and del 19 mutations, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the EGFR mutant-specific inhibitor CK-101 specifically and covalently binds to and inhibits selective EGFR mutations, with particularly high selectivity against the T790M mutation, which prevents EGFR mutant-mediated signalin... |
| EGFR Mutant-specific Inhibitor ZN-e4 | An orally available selective inhibitor of certain epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) activating mutations, including the resistance mutation T790M, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the EGFR mutant-specific inhibitor ZN-e4 specifically binds to and inhibits selective EGFR mutations, which prevents EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR mutant-expressing tumor cells. Compared to other EGFR inhibitors, ZN-e4 may offer therapeutic benefits... |
| EGFR T790M Antagonist BPI-15086 | An orally available inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutant form T790M, with potential antineoplastic activity. EGFR T790M antagonist BPI-15086 specifically binds to and inhibits EGFR T790M, a secondarily acquired resistance mutation, which prevents EGFR-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR T790M-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase that is mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascula... |
| EGFR Tri-specific Natural Killer Cell Engager DF9001 | A tri-specific natural killer (NK) cell engager targeting epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, EGFR tri-specific NK cell engager DF9001 targets and binds to EGFR on tumor cells and simultaneously binds to NK cells, thereby bringing EGFR-expressing tumor cells and NK cells together. This stimulates the NK cells and results in the selective NK cell-mediated killing of EGFR-expressing tumor cells. In additio... |
| EGFR/CD3-targeting T-cell Engaging Molecule TAK-186 | A T-cell engaging bispecific antibody and Conditional Bispecific Redirected Activation (COBRA) protein targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; HER1; ErbB1) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, and containing a protease cleavable linker and a human serum albumin (HSA) binding part, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, EGFR/CD3-targeting T-cell engaging moleculeTAK-186 is cleaved by proteases in the... |
| EGFR/EGFRvIII Inhibitor CM93 | An orally bioavailable, blood-brain-barrier (BBB) penetrable, third-generation, covalent inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and various EGFR mutations, including the EGFR variant III (EGFRvIII) mutant form, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR/EGFRvIII inhibitor CM93 specifically targets, irreversibly binds to and inhibits EGFR and specific EGFR mutations, which prevents EGFR/EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR/EGF... |
| EGFR/EGFRvIII Inhibitor WSD0922-FU | A blood-brain-barrier (BBB) penetrable selective inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and various EGFR mutations, including but not limited to the EGFR variant III (EGFRvIII) mutant form, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of EGFR/EGFRvIII inhibitor WSD0922-FU, this agent is able to penetrate the BBB and specifically targets, binds to and inhibits EGFR and specific EGFR mutations, which prevents EGFR/EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell dea... |
| EGFR/HER1/HER2 Inhibitor PKI166 | A pyrrolo-pyrimidine epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) protein kinase inhibitor with anti-tumor activity. PKI-166 reversibly inhibits HER1 and HER2 tyrosine kinases, belong to the epidermal growth factor receptor family, thereby inhibiting tumor growth and metastasis. |
| EGFR/HER2 Inhibitor ABT-101 | An orally bioavailable dual kinase inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; ErbB1) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; EGFR2; ErbB2), including EGFR L858R, EGFR T790M and HER2 exon 20 insertion (Ex20ins) mutations, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR/HER2 inhibitor ABT-101 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR or HER2 insertions or mutations. This prevents EGFR/HER2-mediated signaling, which may induce cell death and... |
| EGFR/HER2 Inhibitor AV-412 | A second-generation, orally bioavailable dual kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. EGFR/HER2 inhibitor AV-412 binds to and inhibits the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), which may result in the inhibition of tumor growth and angiogenesis, and tumor regression in EGFR/HER2-expressing tumors. This agent may be active against EGFR/HER2-expressing tumor cells that are resistant to first-generation kinase inhibitors... |
| EGFR/HER2 Inhibitor ORIC-114 | An orally bioavailable, central nervous system (CNS) penetrating, mutant-selective covalent inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; ErbB1) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; EGFR2; ErbB2) alterations, including exon 20 insertion (Ex20ins) mutations, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR/HER2 inhibitor ORIC-114 selectively targets, irreversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR or HER2 insertions or mutations. This prevent... |
| EGFR/HER2 Inhibitor TAS2940 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR/HER2 inhibitor TAS2940 targets, binds to and inhibits EGFR and HER2, which may result in the inhibition of tumor growth and angiogenesis, and tumor regression in EGFR/HER2-expressing tumors. EGFR and HER2 are receptor tyrosine kinases that play major roles in tumor cell proliferat... |
| EGFR/HER2 Kinase Inhibitor TAK-285 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule and dual kinase inhibitor of human epidermal growth factor receptors 1 (EGFR/ErbB1) and 2 (HER2/ErbB2), with potential antineoplastic activity. EGFR/HER2 kinase inhibitor TAK-285 binds to and inhibits EGFR and HER2, which may result in the inhibition of tumor growth and angiogenesis, and tumor regression in EGFR/HER2-expressing tumors. This agent may be active against EGFR/HER2-expressing tumor cells that are resistant to trastuzumab. EGFR and HER2, rece... |
| EGFR/HER2 Mutant-selective Inhibitor BAY2927088 | An orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, dual kinase inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR/HER2 mutant-selective inhibitor BAY2927088 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of EGFR and HER2 with exon20 insertion mutations, as well as EGFR with C797X mutations, thereby preventing EGFR- and HER2-mediated signaling. This may result in the inhibition of... |
| EGFR/HER2 Mutant-selective Inhibitor HS-10376 | An orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, dual kinase inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR/HER2 mutant-selective inhibitor HS-10376 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of EGFR and HER2 with exon20 insertion mutations, thereby preventing EGFR- and HER2-mediated signaling. This may result in the inhibition of tumor growth and angiogenesis, and tumo... |
| EGFR/HER2 Mutant-selective Inhibitor STX-721 | An orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, small molecule inhibitor of human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR/HER2 mutant-selective inhibitor STX-721 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of EGFR and HER2 with exon20 insertion mutations, thereby preventing EGFR- and HER2-mediated signaling. This may result in the inhibition of tumor growth and angiogenesis, and tu... |
| EGFR/VEGFR/RET Inhibitor HA121-28 | An orally available inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET) and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of HA121-28, this agent targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR, RET and VEGFR. This prevents EGFR-, RET- and VEGFR-mediated signaling, and may lead to the induction of apoptosis and... |
| EGFRBi-Armed Autologous T Cells | Autologous activated T cells, loaded with a bispecific antibody produced by heteroconjugation of anti-CD3 and anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) monoclonal antibodies, with potential antineoplastic activity. Binding of EGFRBi-armed autologous activated T cells to EGFR-positive tumor cells may result in increased T cell-mediated cytotoxicity towards tumor cells expressing EGFR.  Arming activated T cells with this bispecific antibody may significantly increase T cell secretion of anti... |
| EGFRt/19-28z/IL-12 CAR T-lymphocytes | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment) fused to the extracellular, transmembrane and intracellular signaling domains of the T-cell co-stimulatory receptor CD28 and the cytoplasmic signaling domain of the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (19-28z), a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), and the human pro-inflammato... |
| EGFR-targeted IL-2/IL-10 Dual Cytokine Fusion Protein DK210 (EGFR) | A dual cytokine fusion protein comprised of high-affinity interleukin-10 (IL-10), fused to a single chain variable fragment (scFv) scaffolding system that is linked to wild-type interleukin-2 (IL-2) in the hinge region of the scFv, in which six complementarity determining regions (CDRs) of the scFv are replaced by CDRs from an anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) monoclonal antibody, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, EGFR-... |
| EGFRvIII-specific CAR-transduced Autologous T Lymphocytes | Autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding an anti-epidermal growth factor receptor variant III (EGFRvIII) mutant chimeric T-cell receptor (chimeric antigen receptor or CAR) gene, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the EGFRvIII-specific CAR-transduced autologous T-lymphocytes bind to the EGFRvIII antigen on tumor cell surfaces; subsequently, EGFRvIII-expressing tumor cells may be lysed. EGFRvIII, an in-frame de... |
| Eicosapentaenoic Acid | An essential, polyunsaturated, 20-carbon omega-3 fatty acid with anti-inflammatory and potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities. Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) may activate caspase 3, resulting in apoptosis in susceptible tumor cell populations. In addition, this agent may inhibit cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), resulting in inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis and prostaglandin-mediated inflammatory processes. |
| Eicosapentaenoic Acid Monoacylglyceride | An eicosapentaenoic acid derivative with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, eicosapentaenoic acid monoacylglyceride (MAG-EPA) may inhibit epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) and serine/threonine protein kinase AKT (protein kinase B)-mediated signaling pathways and reduce vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and hypoxia-inducible factor 1-alpha (HIF1-alpha) expression levels in tumor cells. This may promo... |
| Eicosapentaenoic Acid-enriched Nutritional Supplement | A nutritional supplement enriched with eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA), which is an essential, polyunsaturated, 20-carbon omega-3 fatty acid found in fish oil, with potential anti-inflammatory and anti-cachectic activities. Upon oral intake of the EPA-enriched nutritional supplement, EPA is incorporated in cell membrane phospholipids and replaces arachidonic acid. This affects the production of pro-inflammatory mediators, such as tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a), interleukin-1 (IL-1) and IL-6,... |
| eIF4E Antisense Oligonucleotide ISIS 183750 | A second-generation antisense oligonucleotide targeting the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4E (eIF4E) with potential antitumor activity. Antisense oligonucleotide ISIS EIF4ERx suppresses the expression of eIF4E in fast dividing tumor cells. Blocking the expression of eIF4E results in inhibition of the synthesis of tumor angiogenic factors, thereby leading to the inhibition of cellular proliferation and apoptosis in tumor cells. eIF4E is overexpressed in a variety of cancers, is invo... |
| Elacestrant | An orally available, selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD), with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, elacestrant acts as a SERD, which binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in the proteosomal degradation of the receptor. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits proliferation of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Elacestrant Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of elacestrant, an orally available, selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD), with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, elacestrant acts as a SERD, which binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in the proteosomal degradation of the receptor. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits proliferation of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Elacytarabine | The lipophilic 5'-elaidic acid ester of the deoxycytidine analog cytosine arabinoside (cytarabine; Ara-C) with potential antineoplastic activity. As a prodrug, elacytarabine is converted intracellularly into cytarabine triphosphate by deoxycytidine kinase and subsequently competes with cytidine for incorporation into DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis. Compared to cytarabine, elacytarabine shows increased cellular uptake and retention, resulting in increased activation by deoxycytidine kin... |
| Elagolix | An orally bioavailable, second-generation, non-peptide based, small molecule compound and selective gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH; LHRH) receptor antagonist, with potential hormone production inhibitory activity. Upon oral administration, elagolix competes with GnRH for receptor binding and inhibits GnRH receptor signaling in the anterior pituitary gland. This inhibits the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). In males, the inhibition of LH secre... |
| Elenestinib | An orally bioavailable protein tyrosine kinase inhibitor of the mutated form of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mast/stem cell factor receptor c-Kit (SCFR), D816V, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, elenestinib binds to and inhibits the specific c-Kit mutant D816V. This may result in an inhibition of cell proliferation in mast cells that overexpress this c-Kit mutation. D816V, a mutation in which the amino acid asparagine aspartic acid at position 816 in the ... |
| Elesclomol | A small-molecule bis(thio-hydrazide amide) with oxidative stress induction, pro-apoptotic, and potential antineoplastic activities. Elesclomol induces oxidative stress, creating high levels of reactive oxygen species (ROS), such as hydrogen peroxide, in both cancer cells and normal cells. Because tumor cells have elevated levels of ROS compared to normal cells, the increase in oxidative stress beyond baseline levels elevates ROS beyond sustainable levels, exhausting tumor cell antioxidant cap... |
| Elesclomol Sodium | The water soluble sodium salt of a small-molecule bis(thio-hydrazide amide) with oxidative stress induction, pro-apoptotic, and potential antineoplastic activities. Elesclomol induces oxidative stress, creating high levels of reactive oxygen species (ROS), such as hydrogen peroxide, in both cancer cells and normal cells. Because tumor cells have elevated levels of ROS compared to normal cells, the increase in oxidative stress beyond baseline levels elevates ROS beyond sustainable levels, exha... |
| Elgemtumab | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor HER3 (ErbB3) with potential antineoplastic activity. Elgemtumab binds to and locks HER3 in the inactive conformation and does not interfere with its interaction with neuregulin (NRG). The inactivated form of HER3 blocks the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway, thereby inhibiting cellular proliferation in HER2 or NRG expressing tumor cells. HER3, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of rece... |
| Elimusertib | An orally available ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3-related (ATR)-specific kinase inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, elimusertib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of ATR, which prevents ATR-mediated signaling. This inhibits DNA damage checkpoint activation, disrupts DNA damage repair and induces apoptosis in ATR-overexpressing tumor cells. ATR, a serine/threonine protein kinase upregulated in a variety of cancer cell types, plays a key rol... |
| Elinafide | A symmetrical dimeric bis-naphthalimide compound and a topoisomerase II inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Elinafide contains two neutral chromophores joined by a cationic linker and is capable of bis-intercalation at the TpG and CpA steps of the DNA hexanucleotide. Intercalation inhibits topoisomerase II activity and causing DNA stand breakage, thereby leads to inhibition of DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis. |
| Elisidepsin | A synthetic cyclic depsipeptide of the kahalalides family with potential antineoplastic activity. PM02734 is a derivative of a natural marine compound extracted from the sacoglossan sea slug, Elysia rufescens. Although the exact mechanism of action has yet to be elucidated, elisidepsin exhibits anti-proliferative activity in a wide variety of cancer types, such as breast, colon, pancreas, lung, and prostate. |
| Ellagic Acid/Annona muricata Supplement | A nutritional supplement containing the phytochemical polyphenol, ellagic acid, and an extract of Annona muricata, with potential chemopreventive activity. Although the exact mechanism of action for ellagic acid has yet to be fully elucidated, this agent acts as an anti-oxidant and reduces oxidative stress. This agent also appears to protect the body against certain carcinogens, either through preventing DNA binding or by increasing the rate of their metabolism and deactivation. Certain extra... |
| Elliptinium | A derivative of the alkaloid ellipticine isolated from species of the plant family Apocynaceae, including Bleekeria vitensis, a plant with anti-cancer properties.  As a topoisomerase II inhibitor and intercalating agent, elliptinium stabilizes the cleavable complex of topoisomerase II and induces DNA breakages, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Elliptinium Acetate | Acetate salt of elliptinium, a derivative of the alkaloid ellipticine isolated from species of the plant family Apocynaceae, including Bleekeria vitensis, a plant with anti-cancer properties.  As a topoisomerase II inhibitor and intercalating agent, elliptinium stabilizes the cleavable complex of topoisomerase II and induces DNA breakages, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Elmustine | A (2-chloroethy1)nitrosourea derivative related to carmustine, with antineoplastic activity. |
| Elotuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human CS1 (CD2 subset 1, CRACC, SLAMF7) antigen with potential antineoplastic activity. Elotuzumab binds to the CS1 antigen, which may trigger antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) in cells expressing CS1. CS1 is a cell surface glycoprotein belonging to the CD2 subset of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) and is highly expressed by multiple myeloma cells, but minimally expressed by normal cells. |
| Elpamotide | A peptide vaccine containing an HLA-A*2402-restricted epitope of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) 2 with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, VEGFR2-169 peptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against VEGFR2-expressing tumor cells. VEGFR2, a receptor tyrosine kinase, is overexpressed by a variety of tumor types; overexpression is associated with tumor cell proliferation and tumor angiogenesis. HLA-A*24... |
| Elraglusib | A maleimide-based, small molecule inhibitor of glycogen synthase kinase-3 (GSK-3; serine/threonine-protein kinase GSK3) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, elraglusib binds to and competitively inhibits GSK-3, which may lead to downregulation of nuclear factor kappa B (NF-kappaB) and decreased expression of NF-kappaB target genes including cyclin D1, B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), anti-apoptotic protein XIAP, and B-cell lymphoma extra-large (Bcl-XL). This may ... |
| Elranatamab | A bispecific monoclonal antibody against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17), a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) expressed on plasma cells, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, elranatamab binds to both CD3 on T-cells and BCMA expressed on malignant plasma cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and induces a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against BCMA-expressing plasma cells... |
| Elsamitrucin | An heterocyclic antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Actinomycete strain J907-21.  Elsamitrucin intercalates into DNA at guanine-cytosine (G-C)-rich sequences and inhibits topoisomerase I and II, resulting in single-strand breaks and inhibition of DNA replication. (NCI04) |
| Eltanexor | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of exportin-1 (XPO1; chromosome region maintenance 1 protein homolog; CRM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, eltanexor binds to the XPO1 cargo binding site, which prevents the XPO1-mediated nuclear export of cargo proteins such as tumor suppressor proteins (TSPs), including p53, p73, BRCA1/2, pRB, FOXO, and other growth regulatory proteins and leads to their selective accumulation in the nuclei of tumor cells. As a selective inhibi... |
| Eltivutabart | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD39 (cluster of differentiation 39; ectonucleoside triphosphate diphosphohydrolase-1; NTPDase1; ENTPD1) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, eltivutabart specifically binds to the CD39 antigen, which may inhibit both the conversion of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine monophosphate (AMP) and the subsequent generation of immunosuppressive extracellular adenosine ... |
| Eltrapuldencel-T | A therapeutic melanoma vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with antigens from lethally irradiated autologous tumor cells derived from a patient-specific, continuously proliferating and melanoma-initiating cell line and suspended in a solution containing the cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, eltrapuldencel-T may stimulate the immune syste... |
| Eluvixtamab | A proprietary recombinant bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD33 fused to one that is directed against the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of eluvixtamab, this bispecific antibody binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and the CD33 antigen found on CD33-expressing... |
| Elzovantinib | An orally bioavailable, multi-targeted kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, elzovantinib binds to and inhibits three tyrosine kinases that are often overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, including MET (c-Met; hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR) , Src, and colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; C-FMS; CD115; macrophage colony-stimulating factor receptor; M-CSFR) thereby disrupting their respective signaling pathways. M... |
| Emactuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tyrosine kinase receptor colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; CD115), also known as macrophage colony-stimulating factor receptor (M-CSFR), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, emactuzumab binds to CSF1R expressed on macrophages and inhibits the binding of colony-stimulating factor-1 (CSF-1) to CSF1R. This prevents CSF1R activation and CSF1R-mediated signaling in these cells, wh... |
| Emepepimut-S | A liposome-encapsulated peptide vaccine consisting of a synthetic peptide derived from the mucin 1 (MUC-1) antigen with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon vaccination, MUC-1 peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against MUC-1-expressing tumor cells, resulting in growth inhibition. MUC-1 antigen is a high-molecular-weight transmembrane glycoprotein that is overexpressed on the cell surfaces of many epithelial tumor cells as w... |
| Emerfetamab | A bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD33 fused to one that is directed against the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, emerfetamab binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and the CD33 antigen found on CD33-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to C... |
| Emfizatamab | An anti-CD19/anti-CD3/anti-PD-L1/anti-4-1BB tetra-specific antibody, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, emfizatamab targets and binds to the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 overexpressed on the surface of B-cells, the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) expressed on tumor cells, the T-cell surface antigen CD3 and the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis fac... |
| Emibetuzumab | A humanized IgG4 monoclonal antibody directed against human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR or c-MET) with potential antineoplastic activity. Emibetuzumab binds to c-MET, thereby preventing the binding of HGF to its receptor c-Met and subsequent activation of the HGF/c-Met signaling pathway. This may result in cell death in c-Met-expressing tumor cells. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cancer cell growth, survival... |
| Emidurdar | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/arginine-rich splicing factor protein kinase 1 (SRPK1) and the ATP-binding cassette sub-family G member 2 (ABCG2), with potential chemosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, emidurdar targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SRPK1 and ABCG2. Inhibition of the cellular efflux pump ABCG2 by emidurdar prevents the efflux of co-administered chemotherapeutic agents from cancer cells. This may abrogate cancer cell dr... |
| Emiltatug Ledadotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of emiltatug, a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the T-cell checkpoint ligand B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1), site-specifically conjugated to six cytotoxic auristatin derivative auristatin F-HPA (AF-HPA; auristatin F-hydroxypropylamide) payloads per antibody, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of emiltatug ledadotin, the anti-B7-H4 monoclonal a... |
| Emilumenib | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of menin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, emilumenib targets and binds to the nuclear protein menin, thereby preventing the interaction between the two proteins menin and menin-mixed lineage leukemia (MLL; myeloid/lymphoid leukemia; KMT2A) and the formation of the menin-MLL complex. This reduces the expression of downstream target genes and results in an inhibition of the proliferation of MLL-rearranged leukemic... |
| Emilumenib Succinate | The succinate form of emilumenib, an orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of menin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, emilumenib targets and binds to the nuclear protein menin, thereby preventing the interaction between the two proteins menin and menin-mixed lineage leukemia (MLL; myeloid/lymphoid leukemia; KMT2A) and the formation of the menin-MLL complex. This reduces the expression of downstream target genes and results in an inhibition of the prolif... |
| Emirodatamab | A bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) FLT3 tyrosine kinase receptor (Fms-like tyrosine kinase 3; FLT3; FLT-3; CD135; fetal liver kinase-2; FLK2), fused to one that is directed against the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, emirodatamab binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and F... |
| Emitefur | An orally available antimetabolite composed of the 1-ethoxymethyl derivative of 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) and the dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPYD) inhibitor 3-cyano-2,6-dihydroxypyridine (CNDP) in a 1:1 molar ratio, with antineoplastic activity.  Upon administration, the prodrug emitefur is converted into 5-FU, while CNDP prevents the degradation of 5-FU by inhibiting DPYD and thereby prolonging the half-life of 5-FU. This increases 5-FU's concentration and thus its antitumor activity throu... |
| Emofolin Sodium | The sodium salt of a synthetic antimetabolite analogue of folate with antineoplastic activity.  Emfolin sodium competes for the folate binding site of the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, resulting in inhibition of tetrahydrofolate synthesis, depletion of nucleotide pools, and inhibition of DNA, RNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Empesertib | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of the serine/threonine monopolar spindle 1 (Mps1) kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, empesertib binds to and inhibits the activity of Mps1. This causes inactivation of the spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC), accelerated mitosis, chromosomal misalignment, chromosomal missegregation, mitotic checkpoint complex destabilization, and increased aneuploidy. This leads to the induction of cell death in cancer cells overexpr... |
| Emunkitug | A humanized agonistic monoclonal antibody directed against tumor necrosis factor receptor 2 (TNFR2; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 1B; TNFRSF1B), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, emunkitug targets and binds to TNFR2 expressed on the surface of CD4+ T-cells, CD8+ T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells in the tumor micro-environment (TME), thereby activating CD4+ T-cells, CD8+ T-cells and NK cells. This may enhance T-cell- and NK cell- mediated immu... |
| Emvododstat | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) synthesis with potential antiangiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Emvododstat targets post-transcriptionally by selectively binding the 5'- and 3'-untranslated regions (UTR) of VEGF messenger RNA (mRNA), thereby preventing translation of VEGF. This inhibits VEGF protein production and decreases its levels in the tumor and bloodstream. In turn, this may result in the inhibition of migration, pr... |
| Emzadirib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the DNA damage repair protein RAD51, with potential antineoplastic and sensitizing activities. Upon oral administration, emzadirib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of RAD51. This prevents RAD51-mediated DNA damage repair in susceptible tumor cells and induces tumor cell apoptosis. RAD51, the central protein involved in homologous repair (HR) of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs), is overexpressed in many tumor cell types. |
| Enadenotucirev | A complex, replication-selective, chimeric adenovirus type 11p (Ad11p)/Ad3 oncolytic virus vaccine, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Enadenotucirev has the Ad11p backbone with a large deletion in the E3-region and a small E4-domain (E4orf4) deleted, in addition to a partial E2B substitution by the Ad3 E2B genes. Upon intravenous administration of enadenotucirev, the adenovirus selectively reaches the tumor cells due to the leaky tumor vasculature and replicates i... |
| Enadenotucirev-expressing Anti-CD40 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody NG-350A | An oncolytic adenoviral vector, enadenotucirev (EnAd), that expresses a full-length agonistic anti-CD40 monoclonal antibody, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration of NG-350A, enadenotucirev specifically infects and replicates in tumor cells and not in normal, noncancerous tissue, and selectively expresses the agonistic anti-CD40 antibody. The locally expressed anti-CD40 antibody targets and binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cells, i... |
| Enadenotucirev-expressing FAP/CD3 Bispecific FAP-TAc NG-641 | An oncolytic adenoviral vector, a transgene-modified variant of enadenotucirev (EnAd), that expresses a bi-specific T-cell activator molecule FAP-TAc together with immune enhancer molecules C-X-C motif chemokine 9 (CXCL9), C-X-C motif chemokine 10 (CXCL10) and interferon alpha (IFNalpha), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of NG-641, EnAd specifically infects and replicates in tumor cells and not in normal, noncancerous tissue, and selectively e... |
| Enapotamab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC), consisting of a human monoclonal antibody directed against AXL receptor tyrosine kinase (AXL; UFO) and conjugated, through a protease-cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of enapotamab vedotin binds to AXL, which is expressed on the surfaces of a variety of cancer cell types. Upon endocytosis and enzymatic cleavage, MMAE is released ... |
| Enasidenib | An orally available inhibitor of specific mutant forms of the mitochondrial enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase type 2 (IDH2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, enasidenib specifically inhibits various mutant forms of IDH2, including the IDH2 variants R140Q, R172S, and R172K, which inhibits the formation of 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG). This may lead to both an induction of cellular differentiation and an inhibition of cellular proliferation in IDH2-expressing tumor cells. ... |
| Enavatuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor necrosis factor-like weak inducer of apoptosis receptor (TWEAKR) with potential antineoplastic, immunomodulating and antiangiogenic activities. Enavatuzumab binds to TWEAKR and inhibits TWEAK ligand binding and activation of NF-kappaB-mediated cytokine release, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis. TWEAKR is a cell-surface receptor with homology to tumor necrosis factor receptors. Upon binding with its ligand, TWEAKR has been show... |
| Enbezotinib | An orally bioavailable selective dual inhibitor of fusions and mutations involving the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (ret) and the src family tyrosine kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, enbezotinib specifically targets and binds to ret mutants and ret-containing fusion products. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of tumor cells that exhibit increased ret activity. By inhibiting src kinase-mediated signa... |
| Encapsulated Rapamycin | An orally bioavailable nanoparticle-based formulation composed of sub-micron particles of the macrolide antibiotic rapamycin incorporated into a pH-sensitive poly(methyl methacrylate) polymer, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of the encapsulated rapamycin, the nanoparticle specifically delivers rapamycin at the tumor site. Rapamycin binds to the immunophilin FK Binding Protein-12 (FKBP-12) to generate a complex that binds to and inhibits ... |
| Encelimab | A humanized, immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG3; LAG-3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration,encelimab binds to LAG3 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks its binding with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules expressed on tumor cells. This activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytot... |
| Enclomiphene | The trans-isomer of clomiphene citrate (CC).  Enclomiphene has a higher rate of clearance and is less active than the cis-isomer, cis-clomiphene.  Clomiphene citrate has been evaluated for antineoplastic activity against breast cancer. (NCI04) |
| Enclomiphene Citrate | The orally bioavailable citrate salt of enclomiphene, the trans-isomer of the nonsteroidal triphenylethylene compound clomiphene, with tissue-selective estrogenic and antiestrogenic activities. As a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), enclomiphene binds to hypothalamic estrogen receptors, blocking the negative feedback of endogenous estrogens and stimulating the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus; released GnRH subsequently stimulates the release ... |
| Encorafenib | An orally available Raf kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Encorafenib specifically inhibits Raf kinase, a serine/threonine enzyme in the RAF/mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK)/extracellular signal-related kinase (ERK) signaling pathway. By inhibiting the activation of the RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway, the administration of LGX818 may result in a decrease in proliferation of tumor cells. The Raf mutation BRAF V600E is frequently upregulated in a variety of hu... |
| Endothelin Receptor Type A Antagonist YM598 | An orally active synthetic substituted phenylethenesulfonamide. As a selective endothelin A receptor antagonist, YM598 inhibits endothelin-mediated mechanisms involved in tumor cell growth and progression, angiogenesis, and metastasis. (NCI04) |
| Endoxifen Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt and the z (cis-) stereoisomer of endoxifen with potential antineoplastic activity. Endoxifen, the active metabolite of tamoxifen, competitively inhibits the binding of estradiol to estrogen receptors, thereby preventing the receptor from binding to the estrogen-response element on DNA and thus reducing DNA synthesis. Unlike tamoxifen, however, which relies on CYP2D6 activity for its conversion to the active metabolite endoxifen, the direct administration of endoxifen by... |
| Enfortumab Vedotin | An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) containing a human monoclonal antibody AGS-22 targeting the cell adhesion molecule nectin-4 and conjugated to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), via a proprietary enzyme-cleavable linker (AGS-22CE), with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of enfortumab vedotin selectively binds to nectin-4. After internalization and proteolytic cleavage, MMAE binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, which results in G2/M... |
| Engineered IL-12 Prodrug WTX-330 | An engineered, prodrug form of the human cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), composed of wild-type IL-12 linked to a high affinity blockade element via a tumor protease-sensitive linker, and a half-life extension domain, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of engineered IL-12 prodrug WTX-330, IL-12 is bound to the blockade element and pharmacologically inactive. Upon proteolytic cleavage in the tumor microenvironment (TME), active IL-12 is released.... |
| Engineered IL-12 Variant/Aluminum Hydroxide Complex ANK-101 | An anchored drug complex-based formulation consisting of an engineered variant of the cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) linked to an inert scaffolding composed of aluminum hydroxide, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration of engineered IL-12 variant/aluminum hydroxide complex ANK-101, IL-12 activates the immune system by promoting the secretion of interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and activating CD8+ T-cells, CD4+ T-cells and natural killer cells ... |
| Engineered IL-2 Prodrug WTX-124 | An engineered, prodrug form of the human endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), composed of IL-2 linked to an inactivation domain via a tumor protease-sensitive linker, and a half-life extension domain, with potential immunoregulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of engineered IL-2 prodrug WTX-124, IL-2 is bound to the inactivation domain and pharmacologically inactive. Upon proteolytic cleavage in the tumor microenvironment (TME), active IL-2 is released. IL-2 binds ... |
| Engineered Interferon Alpha-2b Prodrug JZP898 | An engineered, prodrug form of the human cytokine interferon alpha-2b (IFN-alpha-2b), composed of IFN-alpha-2b linked to a high affinity blockade element via a tumor protease-sensitive linker, and a half-life extension domain, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of engineered IFN-alpha-2b prodrug JZP898, IFN-alpha-2b is bound to the blockade element and pharmacologically inactive. Upon proteolytic cleavage in the tumor microenvironment (TME), act... |
| Engineered Interferon ORB-011 | An attenuated, cis-targeted interferon (IFN), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, engineered IFN ORB-011 specifically targets, binds to and activates type 1 conventional dendritic cell (cDC1). As these are specific immune cells that specialize in presenting tumor antigens to, and activating, tumor cytotoxic CD8 T cells, ORB-011 may be able to stimulate a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated anti-tumor immune response. ORB-011 is engi... |
| Engineered Red Blood Cells Co-expressing 4-1BBL and IL-15TP RTX-240 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS) red blood cells (RBCs) engineered to express both the co-stimulatory molecule tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily (TNFSF) member 9 (TNFSF9; 4-1BBL) and a fusion protein composed of the trans-presented cytokine interleukin (IL)-15/IL-15-receptor alpha (IL-15Ra) (IL-15TP) with potential modulating and antineoplastic activities. CD34+ hematopoietic precursor cells (HPC) are collected by apheresis from a healthy O negative donor, purified, and... |
| Engineered Red Blood Cells Expressing 4-1BBL/IL-12 RTX-224 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation of allogeneic red blood cells (RBCs) genetically engineered with a lentiviral vector to express on the cell surface the co-stimulatory molecule tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily (TNFSF) member 9 (TNFSF9; 4-1BBL) and the immunostimulatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the engineered RBCs expressing 4-1BBL/IL-12 RTX-224, 4-1BBL and IL-12 expressed on these cells bin... |
| Engineered Red Blood Cells Expressing HPV16 E7/4-1BBL/IL-12 RTX-321 | A preparation of allogeneic red blood cells (RBCs) engineered to act as artificial antigen presenting cells (aAPCs) and express on the cell surface the human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 E7 protein on the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) I, the co-stimulatory molecule tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily (TNFSF) member 9 (TNFSF9; 4-1BBL) and the immunostimulatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of th... |
| Engineered Toxin Body Targeting CD38 MT-0169 | An engineered toxin body (ETB) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) from an antibody targeting the cell surface glycoprotein ADP-ribosyl cyclase 1 (CD38) that is fused to a cytotoxic payload composed of the enzymatically active, de-immunized, ribosome-inactivating cytotoxic payload Shiga-like toxin-A subunit (SLTA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of ETB targeting CD38 MT-0169, the anti-CD38 scFv moiety specifically targets and binds to CD38-expressin... |
| Engineered Toxin Body Targeting CTLA-4 MT-8421 | An engineered toxin body (ETB) composed of biparatopic heavy chain variable domains (VHHs) targeting the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4; CTLA4; CD152), fused to the enzymatically active, de-immunized, ribosome-inactivating cytotoxic payload Shiga-like toxin-A subunit (SLTA), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of ETB targeting CTLA-4 MT-8421, the antibody fragments specifically targ... |
| Engineered Toxin Body Targeting HER2 MT-5111 | An engineered toxin body (ETB) composed of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) from an antibody targeting the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; HER-2), fused to the enzymatically active de-immunized, ribosome-inactivating cytotoxic payload Shiga-like toxin-A subunit (SLTA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the scFv moiety of MT-5111 specifically targets and binds to a distinct epitope on HER2-expressing cells. Upon internalization, the SLTA moiety... |
| Engineered Toxin Body Targeting PD-L1 MT-6402 | An engineered toxin body (ETB) composed of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) targeting the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), fused to the enzymatically active de-immunized, ribosome-inactivating cytotoxic payload Shiga-like toxin-A subunit (SLTA) and a class I antigen derived from the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) phosphoprotein pp65, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ... |
| Eniluracil/5-FU Combination Tablet | A combination tablet of ethynyluracil and fluorouracil. Fluorouracil is an antimetabolite fluoropyrimidine analog of the nucleoside pyrimidine with antineoplastic activity. Ethynyluracil is an orally-active fluoropyrimidine analog that inhibits dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase, the rate-limiting enzyme that catabolizes and inactivates 5-fluorouracil in the liver. This may lead to an increase in the bioavailability and, effectiveness of fluorouracil. |
| Enitociclib | An inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 9 (CDK9), the catalytic subunit of the RNA polymerase II (RNA Pol II) elongation factor positive transcription elongation factor b (PTEF- b; PTEFb), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, enitociclib binds to and blocks the phosphorylation and kinase activity of CDK9, thereby preventing PTEFb-mediated activation of RNA Pol II and leading to the inhibition of gene transcription of various anti-apoptotic proteins. This may cause cell... |
| Enlonstobart | A recombinant human monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, enlonstobart targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane prote... |
| Enloplatin | A platinum-based alkylating agent with antineoplastic activity. Although its pharmacokinetic properties are similar to that of carboplatin, enloplatin appears to be non-cross resistant with other platinum-based agents, such as cisplatin and carboplatin. |
| Enoblituzumab | An Fc-domain optimized, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against cancer stem cells (CSCs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. After binding of enoblituzumab to an as of yet not elucidated target expressed on CSCs and differentiated tumor cells, this agent may induce an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CSCs. CSCs are tumor initiating cells that are able to self-renew and are responsible for tumor cell growth and resistance. |
| Enobosarm | A non-steroidal agent with anabolic activity. Selective androgen receptor modulator (SARM) GTx-024 is designed to work like testosterone, thus promoting and/or maintaining libido, fertility, prostate growth, and muscle growth and strength. Mimicking testosterone's action, this agent may increase lean body mass, thereby ameliorating muscle wasting in the hypermetabolic state of cancer cachexia. |
| Enoticumab | A human monoclonal antibody directed against Delta-like ligand-4 (DLL4) with potential antineoplastic activity. Enoticumab specifically binds to human DLL4, preventing its binding to Notch receptors and inhibiting Notch signaling, which may result in defective tumor vascularization and, so, the inhibition of tumor cell growth. DLL4 is the only Notch ligand selectively expressed on endothelial cells; DLL4/Notch signaling is required for the development of functional tumor blood vessels. |
| ENPP1 Inhibitor RBS2418 | A selective small molecule inhibitor of ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase 1 (ENPP1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ENPP1 inhibitor RBS2418 targets and binds to ENPP1, thereby inhibiting the activity of ENPP1. This inhibits ENPP1-mediated 2'-3'-cyclic guanosine monophosphate-adenosine monophosphate (cGAMP) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) hydrolysis and stabilizes extracellular endogenous cGAMP and ATP. This leads to the extr... |
| ENPP1 Inhibitor SR-8541A | An orally bioavailable selective small molecule inhibitor of ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase 1 (ENPP1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ENPP1 inhibitor SR-8541A selectivelly targets and binds to ENPP1, thereby inhibiting the activity of ENPP1. This inhibits ENPP1-mediated 2'-3'-cyclic guanosine monophosphate-adenosine monophosphate (cGAMP) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) hydrolysis and stabilizes extracellular endogeno... |
| Enpromate | A synthetic acetylenic carbamate, an alkylating agent, with antineoplastic activity. |
| Enristomig | A recombinant, humanized, bispecific antibody targeting both the human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, enristomig simultaneously targets and binds to 4-1BB, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes, and PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells. Through 4-1BB binding, en... |
| Ensartinib | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ensartinib binds to and inhibits ALK kinase, ALK fusion proteins and ALK point mutation variants. Inhibition of ALK leads to the disruption of ALK-mediated signaling and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in ALK-expressing tumor cells. In addition, ensartinib inhibits various other kinases, including the receptor ty... |
| Ensartinib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of ensartinib, an orally available small molecule inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ensartinib binds to and inhibits ALK kinase, ALK fusion proteins and ALK point mutation variants. Inhibition of ALK leads to the disruption of ALK-mediated signaling and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in ALK-expressing tumor cells. In addition, ensartinib inhibits vario... |
| Ensituximab | A chimeric monoclonal antibody against human colorectal and pancreatic carcinoma-associated antigens (CPAAs) with potential immunomodulating and anti-tumor activities. Anti-CPAA monoclonal antibody NPC-1C binds to CPAAs, which may activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response and an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) response against CPAA-expressing tumor cells. CPAAs, cell surface proteins, are upregulated on colon and pancreatic tumor cells. NPC-1C... |
| Enteric-Coated TRPM8 Agonist D-3263 Hydrochloride | An enteric-coated orally bioavailable formulation of the hydrochloride salt of a small-molecule agonist for transient receptor potential melastatin member 8 (TRPM8 or Trp-p8) with potential antineoplastic activity. The active ingredient in enteric-coated TRPM8 agonist D-3263 hydrochloride binds to and activates TRPM8, which may result in an increase in calcium and sodium entry; the disruption of calcium and sodium homeostasis; and the induction of cell death in TRPM8-expressing tumor cells. T... |
| Enterococcus gallinarum Strain MRx0518 | A live strain of the flagellin-producing Gram-positive bacterium Enterococcus (E.) gallinarum that is isolated from a healthy human gut, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, MRx0518 modulates the intestinal microbiota and targets both intestinal epithelial cells (IECs), and various immune cells, such as macrophages and dendritic cells (DCs)  and is able to induce the production of both pro- and anti-inflammatory mediators, such as interleuki... |
| Entinostat | A synthetic benzamide derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Entinostat binds to and inhibits histone deacetylase, an enzyme that regulates chromatin structure and gene transcription. This agent appears to exert dose-dependent effects in human leukemia cells including cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1A (p21/CIP1/WAF1)-dependent growth arrest and differentiation at low drug concentrations; a marked induction of reactive oxygen species (ROS); mitochondrial damage; caspase activati... |
| Entolimod | A polypeptide derived from the Salmonella filament protein flagellin with potential radioprotective and anticancer activities. As a toll-like receptor 5 (TLR5) agonist, entolimod binds to and activates TLR5 thereby stimulating tumor necrosis factor production and activating nuclear factor kappa B (NF-kB). This induces NF-kB-mediated signaling pathways and inhibits the induction of apoptosis. This may prevent apoptosis in normal, healthy cells during radiotherapy of cancerous cells and may all... |
| Entospletinib | An orally available inhibitor of spleen tyrosine kinase (Syk), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of entospletinib, this agent may inhibit the activity of Syk, which inhibits B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling and leads to an inhibition of tumor cell activation, migration, adhesion and proliferation. Syk, a non-receptor cytoplasmic, BCR-associated tyrosine kinase, is expressed in hematopoietic tissues and is often overexpressed in hematopoeitic malignancies. |
| Entrectinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the tyrosine kinases tropomyosin receptor kinases (Trk) A, B and C, C-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1) and anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, entrectinib binds to and inhibits TrkA, TrkB, TrkC, ROS1 and ALK. Inhibition of these kinases may result in a disruption of TrkA-, TrkB-, TrkC-, ROS1-, and ALK-mediated signaling. This leads to an induction of apoptosis and an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in t... |
| Envafolimab | An injectable formulation of a monoclonal antibody directed against programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with immune checkpoint inhibitory and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, envafolimab binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed death 1 (PD-1), which may enhance the T-cell-mediated immune response to neoplasms and reverse T-cell inactivation. PD-L1 is overexpressed by man... |
| Enzalutamide | An orally bioavailable, organic, non-steroidal small molecule targeting the androgen receptor (AR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Through a mechanism that is reported to be different from other approved AR antagonists, enzalutamide inhibits the activity of prostate cancer cell ARs, which may result in a reduction in prostate cancer cell proliferation and, correspondingly, a reduction in the serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) level. AR over-expression in prostate cancer represents ... |
| Enzastaurin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of enzastaurin, a synthetic macrocyclic bisindolemaleimide with potential antineoplastic activity.  Binding to the ATP-binding site, enzastaurin selectively inhibits protein kinase C beta, an enzyme involved in the induction of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)-stimulated neo-angiogenesis. This agent may decrease tumor blood supply and so tumor burden. |
| Enzomenib | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of menin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, enzomenib targets and binds to the nuclear protein menin, thereby preventing the interaction between the two proteins menin and menin-mixed lineage leukemia (MLL; myeloid/lymphoid leukemia; KMT2A) and the formation of the menin-MLL complex. This reduces the expression of downstream target genes and results in an inhibition of the proliferation of MLL-rearranged leukemic... |
| EP2/EP4 Antagonist TPST-1495 | An orally bioavailable, dual antagonist of the human prostaglandin E2 receptor subtypes 2 (EP2) and 4 (EP4), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, the EP2/EP4 antagonist TPST-1495 selectively targets and binds to EP2 and EP4, inhibiting the binding of the immunosuppressive prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) to EP2 and EP4. This prevents the activation of EP2 and EP4, and inhibits PGE2-EP2/EP4-mediated signaling. This inhibits PGE2-driven immune suppress... |
| EP4 Antagonist DT-9081 | An orally bioavailable small molecule antagonist of the prostaglandin E2 receptor EP4 subtype (PTGER4; EP4), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, EP4 antagonist DT-9081 selectively targets and binds to EP4, inhibiting the binding of the immunosuppressive prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) to EP4. This prevents the activation of EP4 and inhibits PGE2-EP4-mediated signaling. This inhibits PGE2-driven immune suppression by preventing the PGE2-mediated inh... |
| EP4 Antagonist INV-1120 | A small molecule and antagonist of the prostaglandin E2 receptor subtype 4 (PTGER4; EP4), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the EP4 antagonist INV-1120 selectively targets and binds to EP4, inhibiting the binding of the immunosuppressive prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) to EP4. This prevents the activation of EP4 and inhibits PGE2-EP4-mediated signaling, thereby inhibiting proliferation of tumor cells in which the PGE2-EP4 signaling pathway is over-act... |
| EP4 Antagonist ONO-4578 | An orally bioavailable antagonist of the prostaglandin E2 receptor subtype 4 (PTGER4; EP4), with potential analgesic, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the EP4 antagonist ONO-4578 selectively targets and binds to EP4, inhibiting the binding of the immunosuppressive prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) to EP4. This prevents the activation of EP4 and inhibits PGE2-EP4-mediated signaling, thereby inhibiting proliferation of tumor cells in which the PGE2-EP4 signaling pathwa... |
| EP4 Receptor Antagonist YY001 | An orally bioavailable small molecule antagonist of the prostaglandin E2 receptor EP4 subtype (PTGER4; EP4), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, EP4 receptor antagonist YY001 selectively targets and binds to EP4, inhibiting the binding of the immunosuppressive prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) to EP4. This prevents the activation of EP4 and inhibits PGE2-EP4-mediated signaling. This inhibits PGE2-driven immune suppression by preventing the PGE2-media... |
| Epacadostat | An orally available hydroxyamidine and inhibitor of indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase (IDO1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Epacadostat targets and binds to IDO1, an enzyme responsible for the oxidation of tryptophan into kynurenine. By inhibiting IDO1 and decreasing kynurenine in tumor cells, INCB024360 increases and restores the proliferation and activation of various immune cells, including dendritic cells (DCs), NK cells, and T-lymphocytes, as well as interferon... |
| Epacmarstobart | An antibody targeting human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa; CD172a), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, epacmarstobart targets and binds to SIRPa, a cell surface protein expressed on macrophages, thereby blocking the interaction between SIRPa and cluster of differentiation 47 (CD47) expressed on tumor cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of... |
| EpCAM-specific CAR-expressing Autologous T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the antigen epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the EpCAM-specific CAR-expressing autologous T-lymphocytes specifically recognize and bind to EpCAM-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. EpCAM, a cell surface protein, is expressed by a variety of tumor ... |
| Epcoritamab | A bispecific monoclonal antibody, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Epcoritamab contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and one for human CD20, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) that is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development and is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. Upon administration, epcoritamab binds to both T-cells and CD20-expressing B-lineage tumor cells. The resulting c... |
| EphA2-targeting Bicycle Toxin Conjugate BT5528 | A bicyclic peptide targeting Ephrin receptor A2 (EphA2) and conjugated, through an inert sarcosine spacer chain and a valine-citrulline cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent inhibitor of microtubule polymerization, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the EphA2-targeting bicycle toxin conjugate BT5528, this agent targets and binds to EphA2-expressing tumor cells. After internalization and enzyma... |
| EphA2-targeting DOPC-encapsulated siRNA | A liposomal formulation consisting of short-interfering RNAs (siRNAs) directed against ephrin type-A receptor 2 (EphA2) and encapsulated into 1,2-dioleoyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphatidylcholine (DOPC) neutral liposomes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon internalization, EphA2-targeting DOPC-encapsulated siRNA can hybridize to EphA2 DNA and mRNA, thereby interfering with both the transcription and translation of EphA2, and thus inhibiting tumor cell growth. The cell-surface receptor EphA2... |
| Epipodophyllotoxin Analog GL331 | An epipodophyllotoxin analogue possessing antineoplastic properties.  GL331 binds to and inhibits topoisomerase II, resulting in the accumulation of single- or double-strand DNA breaks, the inhibition of DNA replication and transcription, and apoptotic cell death. (NCI) |
| Epipropidine | An epoxide and alkylating agent with antineoplastic activity. Epipropidone is not used clinically due to its unstable nature. |
| Epirubicin | A 4'-epi-isomer of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin.  Epirubicin intercalates into DNA and inhibits topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and ultimately, interfering with RNA and protein synthesis.  This agent also produces toxic free-radical intermediates and interacts with cell membrane lipids causing lipid peroxidation. |
| Epirubicin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of the 4'-epi-isomer of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin. Epirubicin intercalates into DNA and inhibits topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and ultimately, interfering with RNA and protein synthesis. This agent also produces toxic free-radical intermediates and interacts with cell membrane lipids causing lipid peroxidation. |
| Epitinib Succinate | The succinate salt form of epitinib, an orally available epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, epitinib inhibits the activity of EGFR, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may lead to induction of cell death and inhibition of tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR is a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) that is overexpressed in certain tumor types and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation a... |
| Epitiostanol | An androgenic anabolic steroid having potent anti-estrogenic effect, which inhibits the progression of estrogen-stimulated cancers such as breast cancer. (NCI) |
| Epothilone KOS-1584 | A second-generation epothilone with potential antineoplastic activity. Epothilone KOS-1584 binds to tubulin and induces microtubule polymerization and stabilizes microtubules against depolymerization, which may result in the inhibition of cell division, the induction of G2/M arrest, and apoptosis. Compared to first-generation epothilones, this agent exhibits greater safety and efficacy with an enhanced pharmaceutical profile, including enhanced water solubility and tumor penetration, and redu... |
| Epratuzumab | A recombinant, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against CD22, a cell surface glycoprotein present on mature B-cells and on many types of malignant B-cells.  After binding to CD22, epratuzumab's predominant antitumor activity appears to be mediated through antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). |
| Epratuzumab-cys-tesirine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a cysteine-engineered version of epratuzumab (hLL2), a humanized anti-CD22 monoclonal antibody derived from the murine immunoglobulin (Ig) G2a monoclonal antibody LL2 (EPB-2), site-specifically conjugated to the cross-linking cytotoxic agent tesirine (SG3249), a cathepsin B-cleavable valine-alanine pyrrolobenzodiazepine dimer (PBD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of epratuzumab-cys-tesirine, the epratuzumab moiety targe... |
| Eprenetapopt | A methylated derivative and structural analog of PRIMA-1 (p53 re-activation and induction of massive apoptosis), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, eprenetapopt covalently modifies the core domain of mutated forms of cellular tumor antigen p53 (p53) through the alkylation of thiol groups. These modifications restore both the wild-type conformation and function to mutant p53, which reconstitutes endogenous p53 activity, leading to cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in tu... |
| EPS8 Peptide-specific Dendritic Cells | A preparation of dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with peptides derived from epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) pathway substrate 8 (EPS8), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the EPS8 peptide-specific DCs, the immune system is exposed to the EPS8 antigens. This results in the induction of a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against EPS8-expressing tumor cells and tumor cell lysis. EPS8, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is over... |
| Epstein-Barr Virus gp350-ferritin Nanoparticle Vaccine with Saponin-based Adjuvant | A ferritin-based, nanoparticle vaccine consisting of the Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) envelop glycoprotein gp350 and a saponin-based adjuvant, with potential immunizing activity against EBV. Upon intramuscular administration of EBV gp350-ferritin nanoparticle vaccine with saponin-based adjuvant, the EBV gp350 may activate both humoral and cellular immune responses which may result in protection against EBV infection. EBV, a ubiquitous human herpes virus, is associated with infectious mononucleosi... |
| Equecabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) with a fully human single chain variable fragment (scFv) targeting the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, equecabtagene autoleucel specifically recognize and induce selective... |
| ER Alpha-targeting Chimeric Protein Degrader AC682 | An orally bioavailable, selective estrogen receptor (ER) alpha-targeted chimeric protein degrader, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ER alpha-targeting chimeric protein degrader AC682 targets ER alpha wild-type and mutants and induces the degradation of ER alpha proteins. This decreases ER alpha protein levels, decreases the expression of ER alpha-target genes and halts ER-mediated signaling. This results in an inhibition of proliferation in ER alpha-overexpres... |
| ERa36 Modulator Icaritin | A metabolite of icariin, a principal flavonoid glycoside in Herba Epimedii (a traditional Chinese medicine herb used in treating osteoporosis) with potential antineoplastic activity. ERa36 modulator icaritin selectively binds to a novel variant of estrogen receptor alpha, a36, and mediates a membrane-initiated "nongenomic" signaling pathway, which is linked to activate signaling pathways like the MAPK/ERK and the PI3K/Akt pathways. This agent induces cell cycle arrest at G1, or G2/M arrest ... |
| Eragidomide | A modulator of cereblon (CRBN), which is part of the cullin 4-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase complex (CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase; CUL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase), with potential immunomodulating and pro-apoptotic activities. Upon administration, eragidomide specifically binds to CRBN, thereby affecting the activity of the ubiquitin E3 ligase complex. This leads to the ubiquitination of certain substrate proteins and induces the proteasome-mediated degradation of certain transcription factors, inc... |
| Eramkafusp Alfa | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human B-cell-specific cell surface antigen CD20 and fused to the recombinant cytokine, interferon-alpha (IFN-a), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration of eramkafusp alfa, the antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to CD20. In turn, the IFN-a moiety binds to the IFN receptor, and activates IFN-mediated signal transduction, which induces the transcription and translation of genes whose prot... |
| Erastin Analogue PRLX 93936 | A structural analogue of erastin with potential antineoplastic activity. Erastin analogue PRLX 93936 appears to inhibit mitochondrial outer membrane protein VDACs (voltage-dependent anion channels) 2 and 3, resulting in an oxidative, non-apoptotic cell death. Erastin analogue PRLX 93936 exhibits greater lethality in cell lines harboring mutations in the GTPase protein oncogenes HRAS and KRAS or the serine-threonine protein kinase oncogene BRAF than in non-tumorigenic cell lines. VDACs 2 and 3... |
| Erbulozole | A water soluble congener of tubulozole and a tubulin binding agent with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Erbulozole targets and binds to tubulin, thereby preventing the polymerization of tubulin. This may lead to an inhibition of cell division and induction of apoptosis. |
| Erdafitinib | An orally bioavailable, pan fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, erdafitinib binds to and inhibits FGFR, which may result in the inhibition of FGFR-related signal transduction pathways and thus the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and tumor cell death in FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, upregulated in many tumor cell types, is a receptor tyrosine kinase essential to tumor cell proliferation, differenti... |
| Erdafitinib-releasing Intravesical System TAR-210 | A controlled-release intravesical system consisting of a pretzel-shaped tube releasing erdafitinib, a pan fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon placement of the erdafitinib-releasing intravesical system TAR-210 into the bladder, erdafitinib is gradually and continuously released from the system over an extended period of time before being removed from the bladder. Upon release, erdafitinib targets, binds to and inhibits FGFR, which ma... |
| Erfonrilimab | A bispecific monoclonal antibody directed against both the immunosuppressive ligand, programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, erfonrilimab targets and binds to both PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells and CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells. This prevents the binding of PD-L1 to its receptor, programmed cell... |
| Eribulin | An analogue of halichondrin B, a substance derived from a marine sponge (Lissodendoryx sp.) with antineoplastic activity. Eribulin binds to the vinca domain of tubulin and inhibits the polymerization of tubulin and the assembly of microtubules, resulting in inhibition of mitotic spindle assembly, induction of cell cycle arrest at G2/M phase, and, potentially, tumor regression. |
| Eribulin Mesylate | The mesylate salt of a synthetic analogue of halichondrin B, a substance derived from a marine sponge (Lissodendoryx sp.) with antineoplastic activity. Eribulin binds to the vinca domain of tubulin and inhibits the polymerization of tubulin and the assembly of microtubules, resulting in inhibition of mitotic spindle assembly, induction of cell cycle arrest at G2/M phase, and, potentially, tumor regression. |
| ERK Inhibitor | Any agent that targets and inhibits the activity of extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK). |
| ERK Inhibitor CC-90003 | An orally available inhibitor of extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CC-90003 inhibits ERK activity, and prevents the activation of ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ERK-dependent tumor cell proliferation and survival. The mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK pathway is often upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation, ... |
| ERK Inhibitor MK-8353 | An orally available inhibitor of extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MK-8353 inhibits both ERK phosphorylation and activation of ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways; thereby, preventing ERK-dependent tumor cell proliferation and survival. The mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK pathway is often upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types and plays a role in tumor cell proliferation, differentiation and s... |
| ERK1/2 Inhibitor D3S-002 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 (ERK1) and 2 (ERK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ERK1/2 inhibitor D3S-002 specifically binds to and inhibits the serine/threonine-protein kinase activities of both ERK1 and ERK2, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of ERK1/2 substrates and the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ... |
| ERK1/2 Inhibitor ERAS-007 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 (ERK1) and 2 (ERK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ERAS-007 specifically binds to and inhibits the serine/threonine-protein kinase activities of both ERK1 and ERK2, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of ERK1/2 substrates and the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ERK-dependent pr... |
| ERK1/2 Inhibitor GH55 | An orally bioavailable and selective inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 (ERK1) and 2 (ERK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ERK1/2 inhibitor GH55 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the serine/threonine-protein kinase activities of both ERK1 and ERK2, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of ERK1/2 substrates and the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results i... |
| ERK1/2 Inhibitor HH2710 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 (ERK1) and 2 (ERK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ERK1/2 inhibitor HH2710 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the serine/threonine-protein kinases ERK1 and ERK2, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of ERK1/2 substrates and the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibiti... |
| ERK1/2 Inhibitor IPN01194 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 (ERK1) and 2 (ERK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ERK1/2 inhibitor IPN01194 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the serine/threonine-protein kinase activities of both ERK1 and ERK2, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of ERK1/2 substrates and the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhi... |
| ERK1/2 Inhibitor JSI-1187 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 (ERK1) and 2 (ERK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ERK1/2 inhibitor JSI-1187 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the serine/threonine-protein kinases ERK1 and ERK2, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of ERK1/2 substrates and the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibi... |
| ERK1/2 Inhibitor KO-947 | An inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases (ERK) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, KO-947 specifically binds to and inhibits both ERK 1 and 2, thereby preventing the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ERK-dependent tumor cell proliferation and survival. The MAPK/ERK pathway is often upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types and play... |
| ERK1/2 Inhibitor UCT-01-097 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 (ERK1) and 2 (ERK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ERK1/2 inhibitor UCT-01-097 specifically binds to and inhibits the serine/threonine-protein kinase activities of both ERK1 and ERK2, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of ERK1/2 substrates and the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition ... |
| Erlotinib | A quinazoline derivative with antineoplastic properties.  Competing with adenosine triphosphate, erlotinib reversibly binds to the intracellular catalytic domain of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase, thereby reversibly inhibiting EGFR phosphorylation and blocking the signal transduction events and tumorigenic effects associated with EGFR activation. |
| Erlotinib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of a quinazoline derivative with antineoplastic properties.  Competing with adenosine triphosphate, erlotinib reversibly binds to the intracellular catalytic domain of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase, thereby reversibly inhibiting EGFR phosphorylation and blocking the signal transduction events and tumorigenic effects associated with EGFR activation. |
| Ertumaxomab | A murine monoclonal antibody with two antigen-recognition sites: one for CD3, an antigen expressed on mature T cells, and one for HER-2-neu, a tumor-associated antigen that promotes tumor growth.  Ertumaxomab attaches to CD3-expressing T cells and HER-2-neu-expressing tumor cells, selectively cross-linking tumor and immunologic cells which results in the recruitment of cytotoxic T cells to the T cell/tumor cell aggregate. |
| Eryaspase | A suspension of erythrocytes encapsulating L-asparaginase with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of eryaspase, L-asparagine is hydrolyzed to L-aspartic acid and ammonia in plasma, thereby depleting tumor cells of asparagine. Due to low asparagine synthetase activity in tumor cells, de novo synthesis of asparagine is suppressed within tumor cells. Shortage of asparagine prevents synthesis of important proteins necessary for tumor cell growth. Encapsulation of asparaginase ... |
| Erzotabart | A hexamerization-enhanced human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody that targets the cell surface glycoprotein CD-38 and carries the E430G mutation, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, erzotabart targets and binds to CD38 on CD38-positive tumor cells, thereby forming antibody hexamers through increased intermolecular Fc-Fc interactions upon antigen binding. This may trigger direct cell killing, antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (... |
| Esorubicin | A synthetic derivative of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin with potential antineoplastic activity. Esorubicin intercalates into DNA and inhibits topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and ultimately, interfering with RNA and protein synthesis. This agent exhibits less cardiotoxicity than the parent antibiotic doxorubicin, but may cause more severe myelosupression compared to other compounds within the anthracycline class. |
| Esorubicin Hydrochloride | A hydrochloride salt of esorubicin, a derivative of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Esorubicin intercalates into DNA and inhibits topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and ultimately, interfering with RNA and protein synthesis. This agent exhibits less cardiotoxicity than the parent antibiotic doxorubicin, but may cause more severe myelosupression compared to other compounds within the anthracycline class. |
| Esperamicin A1 | An enediyne antineoplastic antibiotic hybrid containing an anthranilate moiety.  Esperamicin A1 is isolated from the bacterium Actinomadura verrucosospora.  The anthranilate component of esperamicin A1 intercalates DNA and the benzene diradical intermediate of the enediyne core binds to the minor groove of DNA, resulting in single- and double-stranded breaks in DNA and apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| ESR1 Peptides/GM-CSF/Montanide ISA Vaccine | A vaccine comprised of estrogen receptor alpha (ERa; estrogen receptor 1; ESR1) mutant peptides, combined with the immunoadjuvants granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) and montanide ISA, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, the ESR1 mutant peptides in the ESR1 peptides/GM-CSF/montanide ISA vaccine may activate the immune system to induce an immune response against tumor cells expressing these ESR1 mutations. Cons... |
| Essiac | An herbal formula containing burdock root (Arctium lappa), Turkey rhubarb root (Rheum palmatum), sheep sorrel (Rumex acetosella), and slippery elm bark (Ulmus fulva) with potential immunostimulating, anti-inflammatory and anti-tumor activities. The extract's chemical profile, their respective concentrations and the mechanism of action of Essiac are largely unknown due to the proprietary nature of the formula and product inconsistency. Several chemical classes in Essiac are consistently repres... |
| Estradiol Valerate | The parenterally-administered synthetic valerate ester of estradiol, a steroid sex hormone vital to the maintenance of fertility and secondary sexual characteristics in females.  As the primary, most potent estrogen hormone produced by the ovaries, estradiol binds to and activates specific nuclear receptors.  This agent exhibits mild anabolic and metabolic properties, and increases blood coagulability. (NCI04) |
| Estramustine | A synthetic molecule combining estradiol and nornitrogen mustard through a carbamate link. Estramustine and its major metabolite estramustine bind to microtubule-associated proteins (MAPs) and tubulin, thereby inhibiting microtubule dynamics and leading to anaphase arrest in a dose-dependent fashion. This agent also exhibits anti-androgenic effects. (NCI04) |
| Estramustine Phosphate Sodium | The orally available disodium salt, monohydrate, of estramustine phosphate, a synthetic molecule that combines estradiol and nornitrogen mustard through a carbamate link. Estramustine and its major metabolite estramustine bind to microtubule-associated proteins (MAPs) and tubulin, thereby inhibiting microtubule dynamics and leading to anaphase arrest in a dose-dependent fashion. This agent also exhibits anti-androgenic effects. |
| Estrogen Receptor Agonist GTx-758 | An orally available, nonsteroidal selective estrogen receptor (ER) alpha agonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of GTx-758, this agent suppresses the secretion of the gonadotropins follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) by the pituitary gland through feedback inhibition. In males, the inhibition of LH secretion prevents the synthesis of androgens, including testosterone, by the testes. This may result in suppressed total serum testosterone... |
| Estrogen Receptor Degrader AC699 | An orally bioavailable estrogen receptor (ER)-targeted chimeric protein degrader composed of ligands of ER and cereblon (CRBN) E3 ubiquitin ligase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of ER degrader AC699, the ER-targeting moiety targets and binds to ER, and the CRBN-binding moiety recruits CRBN, a component of the CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. This catalyzes ubiquitination and proteasome-mediated degradation of ER, prevents ER-mediated signaling, and inh... |
| Etakafusp Alfa | A recombinant fusion protein comprised of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody targeting the T-cell surface glycoprotein CD8 beta chain (CD8b) linked to an affinity-attenuated interleukin-2 (IL-2) mutein, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of etakafusp alfa, the antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to CD8+ T-cells, thereby allowing for the IL-2 mutein moiety to specifically bind to IL-2R and activate IL-2R-mediated signaling ... |
| Etalocib | A second-generation selective leukotriene B4 receptor (LTB4R) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact underlying mechanism through which LY293111 exerts its effects has not been fully elucidated, this agent selectively binds to and blocks LTB4Rs, thereby inhibiting the downstream signalling pathway. LY29311 has been shown to induce apoptosis and inhibits cellular proliferation in LTB4R expressing cells, such as pancreatic cancer cells. |
| Etanercept | A recombinant soluble dimeric fusion protein consisting of the extracellular ligand-binding region of recombinant human tumor necrosis factor (rhTNF) receptor attached to the constant (Fc) region of human immunoglobulin G (FcIgG). The receptor moiety of etanercept binds to circulating TNF (2 molecules of TNF per receptor) and inhibits its attachment to endogenous TNF cell surface receptors, thereby rendering TNF inactive and inhibiting TNF-mediated mechanisms of inflammation. (NCI04) |
| Etanidazole | A 2-nitroimidazole with radiosensitizing properties. Etanidazole depletes glutathione and inhibits glutathione transferase, thereby enhancing the cytotoxicity of ionizing radiation. This agent may also be useful as an imaging agent for identifying hypoxic, drug-resistant regions of primary tumors or metastases.  (NCI04) |
| Etaracizumab | A humanized monoclonal IgG1 antibody directed against the vitronectin receptor alpha v beta 3 integrin. Etaracizumab blocks the binding of ligands, such as vitronectin, to alpha v beta 3 integrin, resulting in inhibition of angiogenesis and metastasis. Alpha v beta 3 integrin is a cell adhesion and signaling receptor that is expressed on the surface of tumor vessel endothelial cells, some tumor cells, and a number of other cell types. |
| Etarotene | An ethylsulfonyl derivative of arotinoic acid with differentiation inducing and potential antineoplastic activities. Like other retinoic acid agents, etarotene binds to and activates retinoic acid receptors (RARs), thereby inducing changes in the expression of certain genes leading to cell differentiation and decreased cell proliferation in susceptible cells. |
| Etentamig | A T-cell engaging, human, bispecific, immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody (T-BsAb) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, etentamig binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and BCMA found on BCMA-expressing tumor cells. This activates ... |
| Etevritamab | A proprietary recombinant bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one that is directed against a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) deletion-mutant form, EGFR variant III (EGFRvIII), and one that is directed against the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of etevritamab, the bispecific antibody binds to both the ... |
| Ethaselen | An orally bioavailable organoselenium inhibitor of thioredoxin reductase 1 (TrxR1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ethaselen specifically binds to the selenocysteine-cysteine redox pair in the C-terminal active site of TrxR1 and inhibits its activity, which may result in growth inhibition and the induction of apoptosis in TrxR1 overexpressing tumor cells. TrxR1, upregulated in many cancer cell types, plays a key role in various redox-dependent cellular pathw... |
| Ethinyl Estradiol | A semisynthetic estrogen. Ethinyl estradiol binds to the estrogen receptor complex and enters the nucleus, activating DNA transcription of genes involved in estrogenic cellular responses. This agent also inhibits 5-alpha reductase in epididymal tissue, which lowers testosterone levels and may delay progression of prostatic cancer. In addition to its antineoplastic effects, ethinyl estradiol protects against osteoporosis. In animal models, short-term therapy with this agent has been shown to p... |
| Ethylchlorformate | A substance used to treat tumor cells for synthesis of a tumor-specific immunotherapeutic agent, ethyl chloroformate polymerized tumor protein, for use in Immunotherapy. |
| Ethylchlorformate Vaccine | A tumor vaccine comprised of ethylchlorformate polymerized tumor protein, obtained by treating tumor cells with ethylchloroformate to produce a tumor-specific immunotherapeutic agent. (NCI) |
| Ethyleneimine | A monofunctional alkylating agent with potential antineoplastic activity.  Reacting with DNA mainly at guanine and adenine residues, ethylenimine alkylates DNA, thereby producing DNA interstrand crosslinks and DNA breaks, and interfering with DNA replication and cell division. (NCI04) |
| Ethylnitrosourea | A nitrosourea with potential antineoplastic activity.  Used experimentally as a mutagen and carcinogen, ethylnitrosourea alkylates DNA and proteins, thereby damaging DNA and inducing point mutations. (NCI04) |
| Etidronate-Cytarabine Conjugate MBC-11 | A synthetic conjugate composed of the bisphosphonate etidronate linked to the cytostatic agent and antimetabolite cytarabine, with potential antineoplastic and antiresorptive activities. Upon intravenous administration of the etidronate-cytarabine conjugate MBC-11, the etidronate moiety targets bone and the two moieties are released upon hydrolysis. Etidronate binds to hydroxyapatite crystals in bone tissues and prevents its resorption. This prevents bone destruction and induces bone cell min... |
| Etigilimab | A monoclonal antibody targeting the human co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, etigilimab binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, including T-cells, and prevents the interaction of TIGIT with its ligands CD112 (nectin-2; poliovirus receptor related-2; PVRL2) and CD155 (po... |
| Etirinotecan Pegol | An extended-release (ER) formulation composed of irinotecan, which is a semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin and a topoisomerase I-inhibitor prodrug, that is conjugated, via a proprietary biodegradable ester-based linker, to polyethylene glycol (PEG), with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of etirinotecan pegol (EP), the agent penetrates into the leaky tumor vasculature and accumulates in the tumor. The linker slowly hydrolyzes and releases irinotecan, which leads to sustained ... |
| Etoglucid | An epoxide compound with potential antineoplastic alkylating activity. Etoglucid is able to crosslink DNA via its epoxide group, resulting in disruption of DNA function and cell cycle arrest. |
| Etoposide | A semisynthetic derivative of podophyllotoxin, a substance extracted from the mandrake root Podophyllum peltatum.  Possessing potent antineoplastic properties, etoposide binds to and inhibits topoisomerase II and its function in ligating cleaved DNA molecules, resulting in the accumulation of single- or double-strand DNA breaks, the inhibition of DNA replication and transcription, and apoptotic cell death.  Etoposide acts primarily in the G2 and S phases of the cell cycle. (NCI04) |
| Etoposide Phosphate | A phosphate salt of a semisynthetic derivative of podophyllotoxin. Etoposide binds to the enzyme topoisomerase II, inducing double-strand DNA breaks, inhibiting DNA repair, and resulting in decreased DNA synthesis and tumor cell proliferation. Cells in the S and G2 phases of the cell cycle are most sensitive to this agent. (NCI04) |
| Etoposide Toniribate | A prodrug of etoposide, a semisynthetic derivative of podophyllotoxin extracted from the mandrake root Podophyllum peltatum, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of etoposide toniribate, etoposide is released after enzymatic cleavage of CAP7.1 by specific carboxylesterases (CE) 1 and 2, which are upregulated in certain tumor cell types. Etoposide acts primarily in the G2 and S phases of the cell cycle. This drug binds to and inhibits topoisomerase II, an enz... |
| Etoprine | A lipophilic, diaminopyrimidine folate antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Etoprine inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, resulting in decreased cellular folate metabolism. This may eventually result in a reduction of cellular growth and the induction of apoptosis. In addition, this agent inhibits histamine-N-methyltransferase, resulting in decreased histamine catabolism. Lipid-soluble etoprine is capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier. |
| Etoricoxib | A synthetic, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with antipyretic, analgesic, and potential antineoplastic properties. Etoricoxib specifically binds to and inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), resulting in inhibition of the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandins. Inhibition of COX-2 may induce apoptosis and inhibit tumor cell proliferation and angiogenesis. |
| Etrumadenant | An orally bioavailable antagonist of both the immunomodulatory checkpoint molecules adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A) and A2B receptor (A2BR; ADORA2B), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, etrumadenant competes with tumor-released adenosine for binding to A2AR and A2BR expressed on numerous intra-tumoral immune cells, such as dendritic cells (DCs), natural killer (NK) cells, macrophages and T-lymphocytes. The binding of AB928 to A2AR and A2B... |
| Ets-family Transcription Factor Inhibitor TK216 | A proprietary biologic that inhibits the transcriptional-promoting activity of E26 transformation-specific (Ets, E-twenty-six) family transcription factors, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism(s) of action through which this agent exerts its effect has yet to be fully elucidated, upon administration, Ets-family transcription factor inhibitor TK216 inhibits transcriptional activation mediated by Ets family proteins, including the oncogenic Ewing sarcoma breakpo... |
| Eurestobart | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD39 (cluster of differentiation 39; ectonucleoside triphosphate diphosphohydrolase-1; NTPDase1; ENTPD1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, eurestobart specifically targets and binds to the CD39 antigen, thereby preventing the conversion and degradation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine monophosphate (AMP). This leads to an increase i... |
| Evalstotug | A conditionally active biologic (CAB) and monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration and specific activation in the tumor microenvironment (TME) due to the unique microphysical conditions that are present in the TME, evalstotug targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells within the TME and inhibits the CT... |
| Everolimus | A derivative of the natural macrocyclic lactone sirolimus with immunosuppressant and anti-angiogenic properties. In cells, everolimus binds to the immunophilin FK Binding Protein-12 (FKBP-12) to generate an immunosuppressive complex that binds to and inhibits the activation of the mammalian Target of Rapamycin (mTOR), a key regulatory kinase. Inhibition of mTOR activation results in the inhibition of T lymphocyte activation and proliferation associated with antigen and cytokine (IL-2, IL-4, a... |
| Everolimus Tablets for Oral Suspension | Tablets for oral suspension containing everolimus, a derivative of the natural macrocyclic lactone sirolimus, with immunosuppressive and antineoplastic activities. After suspension of the everolimus tablets in water and oral administration, this agent inhibits the activation of the serine/threonine kinase mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) by binding to mTOR's cytosolic receptor immunophilin FK Binding Protein-12 (FKBP-12). Inhibition of the mTOR complex may result in the inhibition of the ... |
| Evexomostat | A synthetic copolymer-drug conjugate of a fumagillin-derived methionine aminopeptidase 2 (MetAP2) inhibitor conjugated to the bio-compatible polymer poly(N-(hydroxypropyl)methacrylamide) (HPMA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of SDX-7320, the active moiety SDX7539 is released inside the tumor cells. SDX7539 binds to and inhibits MetAP2, which prevents MetAP2-mediated signal transduction pathways and results in tumor cell death. MetAP2, a member of the dimetallohyd... |
| Evofosfamide | A hypoxia-activated prodrug of the cytotoxin bromo-isophosphoramide mustard (Br-IPM) conjugated with 2-nitroimidazole, with potential antineoplastic activity. When exposed to hypoxic conditions, such as those found in hypoxic tumors, the 2-nitroimidazole moiety of evofosfamide is reduced. This releases the DNA-alkylating Br-IPM moiety, which introduces intra- and inter-strand DNA crosslinks in nearby cells; the crosslinks inhibit both DNA replication and cell division, and may lead to apoptos... |
| Evorpacept | A variant of signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa) that antagonizes the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential phagocytosis-inducing, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, evorpacept binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and prevents the interaction of CD47 with its ligand SIRPa, a protein expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of phagocytosis. This induces pro-phag... |
| Evunzekibart | A humanized agonistic immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting the costimulatory receptor CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, evunzekibart targets and binds to CD137 expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells, and CD137 is activated upon crosslinking to Fc-gamma receptors (FcgRs) on macropha... |
| Ex Vivo-activated Autologous Lymph Node Lymphocytes | Autologous human lymph node T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activity. Upon collection of immune cells from the tumor-draining lymph node, the human lymph node lymphocytes are activated with anti-CD3/anti-CD28 microbeads, cultured with recombinant, human interleukin-2 (IL-2), expanded and isolated ex vivo. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the ex vivo-activated autologous lymph node lymphocytes recognize and lyse the tumor cells. |
| Ex Vivo-expanded Allogeneic Gamma 9 Delta 2 T-cells | A preparation of a subset of ex vivo-expanded, allogeneic T-lymphocytes that express gamma 9 delta 2 T-cell receptors (TCRs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the ex vivo-expanded allogeneic gamma 9 delta 2 T-cells, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma delta T-lympho... |
| Ex Vivo-expanded Autologous T Cells IMA101 | A preparation of autologous cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, specifically recognizing certain tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential antineoplastic activity. The endogenous T-cells are isolated, expanded ex vivo, and reintroduced back into the patient. Upon administration, the ex vivo-expanded autologous T-cells IMA101 target and kill tumor cells. The T-cells are analyzed beforehand for their ability to specifically recognize certain TAAs, based on a proprietary antigen warehouse. |
| Ex Vivo-Expanded HER2-Specific T Cells | T cells specific for the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) with potential immunopotentiating activity. T cells directed against HER2, overexpressed on many tumor cells, are collected from HER2-expressing tumor tissue, expanded ex vivo and, then re-introduced in the patient. Re-introduction of ex vivo-expanded HER2-specific T cells may enhance the cytotoxic T cell response against tumor cells overexpressing HER2, resulting in inhibition of tumor growth. |
| Exarafenib | An orally available inhibitor of class I, II, and III B-Raf (BRAF) protein kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, exarafenib binds to and inhibits Class I, Class II, or Class III B-Raf mutations. This prevents B-Raf-mediated signal transduction pathways, which may lead to an inhibition of tumor growth in B-Raf mutant cells. B-Raf protein kinases play a key role in the RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway, which is often deregulated and mutated in human cancers, and pla... |
| Exatecan Mesylate | A semisynthetic, water-soluble derivative of camptothecin with antineoplastic activity. Exatecan mesylate inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA and inhibiting religation of DNA breaks, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and triggering apoptotic cell death. This agent does not require enzymatic activation and exhibits greater potency than camptothecin and other camptothecin analogues. (NCI04) |
| Exatecan Mesylate Anhydrous | The anhydrous, mesylate salt form of exatecan, a semisynthetic, water-soluble derivative of camptothecin, with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, exatecan mesylate inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA and inhibiting re-ligation of DNA breaks, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and triggering apoptotic cell death. |
| Exemestane | An irreversible steroidal aromatase inhibitor, with antiestrogen and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, exemestane binds irreversibly to and inhibits the enzyme aromatase, thereby blocking the peripheral aromatization of androgens, including androstenedione and testosterone, to estrogens. This lowers estrogen levels in the blood circulation. |
| Exicorilant | An orally available, selective glucocorticoid receptor (GR) antagonist, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, exicorilant competitively and selectively binds to GRs, inhibiting the activation of GR-mediated proliferative and anti-apoptotic gene expression pathways. The GR, a member of the nuclear receptor superfamily of ligand-dependent transcription factors, is overexpressed in certain tumor types and may be associated with tumor cell proliferation and treatment r... |
| Exisulind | An inactive metabolite of the nonsteroidal, anti-inflammatory agent sulindac.  After oral administration, sulindac undergoes extensive biotransformation including irreversible oxidation to sulindac sulfone.  Approximately, one half of an administered dose of sulindac is eliminated through the urine, mostly as the conjugated sulfone metabolite. (NCI04) |
| Exlinkibart | A humanized agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the costimulatory receptor CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, exlinkibart targets and binds to CD137, thereby activating CD137 expressed on avariety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells. This enhances CD137-mediated signaling, induces cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) prolif... |
| Expanded/Activated Gamma Delta T-cells | A preparation of gamma delta T-lymphocytes derived from donor T-cells that have been expanded and activated ex-vivo and further depleted of alpha and beta T-cell receptors (TCRs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, these expanded/activated gamma delta (EAGD) T-cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response agains... |
| Extended Release Flucytosine | An extended release (ER) oral tablet that contains flucytosine (5-FC), a fluorinated cytosine analog, with antifungal activity and potential anti-cancer activity. Following oral administration of ER 5-FC, the 5-FC is deaminated to its active metabolite 5-fluorouracil (5-FU). 5-FU replaces uracil during RNA synthesis, which consequently inhibits downstream protein synthesis. In addition, 5-FU is metabolized further to 5-fluorodeoxyuridylic acid monophosphate, which inhibits thymidylate synthet... |
| Extended Release Metformin Hydrochloride | An extended-release (ER) tablet composed of the hydrochloride salt form of the biguanide metformin, with antihyperglycemic and potential prostate-cancer protective and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, metformin targets and inhibits complex I (NADPH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase) of the mitochondrial respiratory chain and increases the cellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine triphosphate (ATP) ratio leading to activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK). This ... |
| Extended-Release MetAP2 Inhibitor APL-1501 | An extended-release (ER) formulation of APL-1501, an orally available inhibitor of methionine aminopeptidase II type (MetAP2), with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ER MetAP2 inhibitor APL-1501 is released from the formulation over an extended period of time and targets, binds to and reversibly inhibits MetAP2, thereby preventing MetAP2-mediated signal transduction pathways. This may suppress endothelial cell growth and inhibit tumor angiogenesis, r... |
| Extended-release Onapristone | An extended-release (ER) formulation of onapristone, an orally bioavailable progesterone receptor (PR) antagonist, with antineoplastic activity. Onapristone binds to the PR and inhibits both PR activation and the associated expression of PR-responsive genes. This may inhibit PR-mediated proliferative effects in cancer cells overexpressing PR. PR is expressed on certain cancer cell types and plays a key role in proliferation and survival. |
| Ezabenlimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1), with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ezabenlimab selectively binds to and blocks the activation of PD-1, an immunoglobulin (Ig) superfamily transmembrane protein, by its ligands programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1), which is overexpressed on certain cancer cells, and programmed cell death ligand 2 (PD... |
| EZH1/2 Inhibitor HH2853 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the histone lysine methyltransferases enhancer of zeste homolog 1 (EZH1) and 2 (EZH2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EZH1/2 inhibitor HH2853 inhibits the activity of both wild-type and mutated forms of EZH1 and EZH2. Inhibition of EZH1/2 specifically prevents the methylation of lysine 27 on histone H3 (H3K27). This decrease in histone methylation alters gene expression patterns associated with cancer pathways, enhances tr... |
| EZH2 Inhibitor | Any agent that inhibits the histone lysine methyltransferase EZH2. |
| Ezobresib | An inhibitor of the Bromodomain (BRD) and Extra-Terminal domain (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ezobresib binds to the acetyl-lysine binding site in the BRD of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and prevents the expression of certain growth-promoting genes, resulting in an inhibition of tumor cell growth. BET proteins (BRD2, BRD3, BRD4 and BRDT)... |
| Ezurpimtrostat | An orally bioavailable, quinolone-derived, small molecule inhibitor of palmitoyl-protein thioesterase 1 (PPT1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ezurpimtrostat targets and inhibits the activity of PPT1 and induces lysosomal disruption, which results in the inhibition of autophagy and the induction of apoptosis via caspase activation. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation and tumor growth. PPT1, a lysosomal thioesterase that plays an important role in lysos... |
| F16-IL2 Fusion Protein | An immunocytokine of the human monoclonal antibody fragment F16 (scFv) against the extra-domain A1 of tenascin-C fused, via a short 5-amino acid linker, to a recombinant form of the human cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The monoclonal antibody portion of the F16-IL2 fusion protein binds to tumor cells expressing the tumor associated antigen (TAA) tenascin-C. In turn, the IL-2 moiety of the fusion protein stimulates natural killer (... |
| FACT Complex-targeting Curaxin CBL0137 | An orally available curaxin-based agent targeting the Facilitates Chromatin Transcription (FACT) complex, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CBL0137 binds to FACT and sequesters the FACT complex on chromatin, which inhibits its activity. This prevents transcription of certain genes involved in cancer-associated signaling pathways; it specifically inhibits the transcription of both NF-kappa B and heat shock transcription factor 1 (HSF1) and simultaneously activates p5... |
| Factor VIIa Inhibitor PCI-27483 | A reversible small-molecule inhibitor of activated factor VII (factor VIIa) with potential antineoplastic and antithrombotic activities.  FVII, a serine protease, becomes activated (FVIIa) upon binding with TF forming the FVIIa/TF complex, which induces intracellular signaling pathways by activating protease activated receptor 2 (PAR-2). Upon subcutaneous administration, factor VIIa inhibitor PCI-27483 selectively inhibits factor FVIIa in the VIIa/TF complex, which may prevent PAR-2 activatio... |
| Factor VII-targeting Immunoconjugate Protein ICON-1 | A human immunoconjugate (ICON) fusion protein composed of a modified version of human factor VII (FVII) which targets tissue factor (TF) that is fused to the Fc domain of the human immunoglobulin G1, with potential anti-thrombotic and antineoplastic activities. Acting in a similar manner as plasma FVII, the natural ligand of TF, ICON-1 targets and binds to TF expressed on neovascular endothelia, thereby preventing TF-mediated signaling pathways, and leading to the initiation of an immune resp... |
| Fadraciclib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin dependent kinases 2, 5 and 9 (CDK2/5/9), with potential antineoplastic and chemoprotective activities. Upon oral administration, fadraciclib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK2, 5 and 9, which leads to inhibition of CDK2, 5 and 9-dependent cellular pathways, downregulation of genes involved in the pro-survival pathway, prevention of the activation of DNA double-strand break repair pathways, and induction of both cell cycle arrest a... |
| Fadrozole Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of the nonsteroidal aromatase inhibitor fadrozole with potential antineoplastic activity. Fadrozole specifically inhibits aromatase, blocking the aromatization of androstenedione and testosterone into estrone and estradiol, respectively, the final step in estrogen biosynthesis; the reduction in estrogen levels may inhibit growth in estrogen-dependent cancers. Aromatase, a member of the cytochrome P-450 superfamily, is found in many tissues; overexpression has been linke... |
| FAK Inhibitor GSK2256098 | A focal adhesion kinase-1 (FAK) inhibitor with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. FAK inhibitor GSK2256098 inhibits FAK, which may prevent the integrin-mediated activation of several downstream signal transduction pathways, including ERK, JNK/MAPK and PI3K/Akt, thereby inhibiting tumor cell migration, proliferation and survival, and tumor angiogenesis. The tyrosine kinase FAK is normally activated by binding to integrins in the extracellular matrix (ECM) but may be upregu... |
| FAK Inhibitor PF-00562271 | An orally bioavailable small molecule and ATP-competitive focal adhesion kinase (FAK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. FAK inhibitor PF-00562271 inhibits the tyrosine kinase FAK, and to a lesser extent, proline-rich tyrosine kinase (PYK2), which may inhibit tumor cell migration, proliferation, and survival. As FAK is a signal transducer for integrins, inhibition of FAK by this agent may prevent integrin-mediated activation of several downstream signals in... |
| FAK Inhibitor VS-4718 | An orally bioavailable focal adhesion kinase (FAK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, VS-4718 inhibits FAK, blocks fibronectin-stimulated FAK autophosphorylation of Tyr397, and may prevent the integrin-mediated activation of several downstream signal transduction pathways, including ERK, JNK/MAPK and PI3K/Akt. This results in the reduction of the number of cancer stem cells (CSCs) and inhibits tumor cell migration, proliferation and survival. The cytoplasmi... |
| FAK/ALK/ROS1 Inhibitor APG-2449 | An orally available kinase inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), focal adhesion kinase (FAK) and the receptor tyrosine kinase C-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ALK/FAK/ROS1 inhibitor APG-2449 selectively binds to and inhibits ALK, FAK and ROS1 kinases. The inhibition leads to disruption of ALK-, FAK- and ROS1-mediated signal transduction pathways and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in ALK-, FAK- an... |
| Falbikitug | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against leukemia inhibitory factor (LIF), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, falbikitug binds to LIF and inhibits LIF signaling by blocking the recruitment of glycoprotein 130 (gp130) to the LIF-LIF receptor (LIFR)-gp130 signaling complex. This inhibits signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3) signaling and inhibits tumor cell growth. In addition, the inhibit... |
| Falimarev | A cancer vaccine comprised of a recombinant fowlpox viral vector encoding the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), MUC-1, a transmembrane glycoprotein secreted by glandular epithelial tissues, and TRICOM, comprised of three co-stimulatory molecule transgenes (B7-1, ICAM-1 and LFA-3). This agent may enhance CEA and MUC-1 presentation to antigen-presenting cells (APC) and may activate a cytotoxic T-cell response against CEA- and MUC-1-expressing tumor cells. |
| Falnidamol | A pyrimido-pyrimidine with antitumor activity. BIBX 1382 inhibits the intracellular tyrosine kinase domain of the Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR) thus specifically reversing the aberrant enzymatic activity from overexpressed and constitutively activated EGFR, and subsequently inhibiting cell proliferation and inducing cell differentiation. |
| Famitinib | An orally bioavailable receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Famitinib binds to and inhibits several RTKs, dysregulated in a variety of tumors, including stem cell factor receptor (c-Kit; SCFR), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) 2 and 3, platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) and FMS-like tyrosine kinases Flt1 and Flt3. Inhibition of these RTKs may result in an inhibition of tumor growth and angiogenesis, and eventually tum... |
| Fanregratinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) types 1, 2, and 3 (FGFR1/2/3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, fanregratinib binds to and inhibits FGFR1/2/3, which may result in the inhibition of FGFR1/2/3-related signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation in FGFR1/2/3-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cellular prol... |
| FAP/4-1BB-targeting DARPin MP0310 | A designed ankyrin repeat proteins (DARPin)-based agent targeting the tumor-associated protein fibroblast  activation protein (FAP) and the T-cell co-stimulatory immune receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the FAP/4-1BB-targeting DARPin MP0310 targets and binds to both FAP, localized on tumor stromal cells, and 4-1BB, expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets ... |
| FAP/4-1BB-targeting Fusion Protein RO7122290 | A bispecific antibody-like fusion protein consisting of a trimeric ligand for the T-cell co-stimulatory immune receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) and an antigen-binding fragment (Fab) moiety targeting the tumor-associated protein fibroblast activation protein (FAP), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the FAP/4-1BB-targeting fusion protein RO7122290 targets and binds to both FAP, localized on tum... |
| FAP/CD40-targeting Agent SHR-7367 | An agent targeting both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) fibroblast activation protein (FAP) and CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, FAP/CD40-targeting agent SHR-7367 targets and binds to both FAP, localized predominantly on cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) in the tumor stroma, and CD40, a cell surface stimulatory receptor expressed on various immune cells including B-lymphocytes, monocytes and dendritic cells (DCs). The simultaneou... |
| FAP/CD40-targeting DARPin MP0317 | A tri-specific, designed ankyrin repeat proteins (DARPin)-based agent targeting the tumor-associated protein fibroblast activation protein (FAP), CD40 receptor and human serum albumin (HSA), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, FAP/CD40-targeting DARPin MP0317 targets and binds to both FAP, localized predominantly on cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) in the tumor stroma, and CD40, a cell surface stimulatory receptor expressed on various immun... |
| FAPa-targeted CD40 Agonist RO7300490 | A CD40 agonist that targets the inducible tumor stromal antigen fibroblast activation protein-alpha (FAP-alpha; FAPa), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, FAPa-targeted CD40 agonist RO7300490 targets and binds to cell surface glycoprotein FAP which is broadly expressed on cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME) of a variety of tumors. RO7300490 also binds to and activates CD40, a cell surface stimulatory recepto... |
| FAP-specific CD8-positive T Cells | A preparation of CD8-positive T cells specific for human fibroblast activating protein (FAP) with potential immunopotentiating activity. T cells have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor specific for FAP. Upon infusion, the FAP-specific CD8-positive T cells bind to FAP-expressing tumor cells and exhibit a selective toxicity to tumor cells. This may result in both tumor cell lysis and inhibition of tumor cell growth. FAP, a cell surface glycoprotein, is overexpresse... |
| Farletuzumab | A humanized, immunoglobulin G1 monoclonal antibody with potential antitumor activity. Farletuzumab specifically targets at glycoprotein 3 (GP-3), a cell surface antigen that is overexpressed on many epithelial-derived cancer cells. Upon binding to the GP-3 antigen, farletuzumab triggers a host immune response against GP-3 expressing cells resulting in cell lysis. |
| Farletuzumab Ecteribulin | An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) composed of farletuzumab, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the folate receptor alpha (FRA; FolRa; FOLR1), and conjugated, via a cathepsin B-cleavable linker, to the microtubule-targeting agent (MTA) eribulin, a derivative of the macrocyclic polyether natural product halichondrin B, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of farletuzumab ecteribulin, the farletuzumab moiety targets and binds to FRA ex... |
| Farnesyl Transferase Inhibitor KO-2806 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of farnesyl transferase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, farnesyl transferase inhibitor (FTI) KO-2806 targets, binds to and inhibits the enzyme farnesyl transferase. By inhibiting the farnesylation of proteins, this agent prevents the activation of Ras oncogenes, inhibits Ras-dependent signaling and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells in which Ras is overexpressed and/or mutated. Ras plays an important role in cell signa... |
| Farnesyltransferase/Geranylgeranyltransferase Inhibitor L-778,123 | A benzonitrile derivative capable of inhibiting some prenyltransferases. L-778,123 is a dual inhibitor of farnesyl:protein and geranylgeranyl:protein transferases; both enzymes catalyze prenylation of oncoprotein KRAS, a prerequisite step in activation of KRAS in signal transduction pathway of apoptosis. Although this agent was developed in part as an anti-KRAS agent, L-778,123 failed in a Phase I trial to inhibit KRAS, which is associated with many types of solid tumors. |
| Fas Receptor Agonist APO010 | A recombinant, soluble, hexameric fusion protein consisting of three human Fas ligand (FasL) extracellular domains fused to the dimer-forming collagen domain of human adiponectin with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Assembled into a soluble hexameric structure mimicking the ligand clustering of endogenous active FasL, Fas receptor agonist APO010 activates the Fas receptor, resulting in caspase-dependent apoptosis in susceptible tumor cell populations. FasL is a transmem... |
| Fascin Inhibitor NP-G2-044 | An orally available inhibitor of the protein fascin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, NP-G2-044 targets and binds to fascin, thereby preventing the interaction of fascin with actin filaments, thereby preventing actin bundling and filopodia formation. By preventing actin cytoskeletal reorganization, the dynamic changes in cell shape that are necessary for tumor cell migration and invasion to occur are impaired, and tumor cell migration and metastasis are inhibi... |
| Favezelimab | A humanized, immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody (MAb) directed against the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene-3 protein (LAG3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, favezelimab binds to LAG3 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks its binding with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules expressed on tumor cells. This activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cyt... |
| Favezelimab/Pembrolizumab Formulation | A coformulation containing favezelimab, a humanized, immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody (MAb) directed against the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene-3 protein (LAG3), and pembrolizumab, a humanized monoclonal IgG4 antibody directed against human cell surface receptor PD-1 (programmed death-1 or programmed cell death-1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the favezelimab/pembrolizumab formulation, favezelimab... |
| Fazarabine | An orally-active pyrimidine analogue of an aza-substituted cytidine in which the ribose moiety is replaced by an arabinose sugar. Similar in action to cytarabine, fazarabine is phosphorylated by deoxycytidine kinase to a triphosphate form which competes with thymidine for incorporation into DNA; its incorporation into DNA inhibits DNA synthesis, resulting in tumor cell death and tumor necrosis. The presence of deoxycytidine kinase in a tumor is a determinant of tumor sensitivity to this drug.... |
| Fc Fusion IL-7 Mimetic MDK-703 | A fusion protein composed of MDK-1472, a structurally unrelated engineered mimetic peptide of endogenous human cytokine interleukin-7 (hIL-7), fused to an immunoglobulin G2 (IgG2) Fc-domain, with hematopoietic and immunopotentiating activities. Upon administration, Fc fusion IL-7 mimetic MDK-703 mimics endogenous cytokine IL-7 and binds to the IL-7 receptor (IL7R) on immune cells. The binding of IL-7 to IL7R activates IL7/IL7R-mediated signaling, which leads to the expansion of various subset... |
| Fc-engineered Anti-CD40 Agonist Antibody 2141-V11 | A Fc-engineered agonistic antibody targeting the human B-cell surface antigen CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, 2141-V11 targets and binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types. This induces CD40-dependent signaling pathways, triggers the proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and activates T-cells. This results in an enhanced cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor c... |
| Fc-IL-15 Prodrug Fusion Molecule ASKG315 | An engineered, prodrug form of the human endogenous cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15), composed of a mutated form of IL-15 fused to a Fc fragment and linked to a masking moiety via a tumor protease-cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of Fc-IL-15 prodrug fusion molecule ASKG315, IL-15 is bound to the masking moiety and pharmacologically inactive. Upon proteolytic cleavage in the tumor microenvironment (TME), active IL-15 is released. IL-15 stimulates the... |
| Fc-VEGFR1 Fusion Protein PB101 | A glycosylated decoy receptor fusion protein that is composed of the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor-1 (VEGFR1; VEGFR-1) backbone and fused to fragments of Fc region, with potential anti-angiogenic, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, Fc-VEGFR1 fusion protein PB101 targets, binds to and neutralizes placental growth factor (PlGF; PGF) and VEGF-A and VEGF-B, thereby inhibiting the binding of PlGF and VEGF-A and -B to VEGFR-1 and prevents subsequent V... |
| Febuxostat | An orally available, non-purine inhibitor of xanthine oxidase with uric acid lowering activity. Upon oral administration, febuxostat selectively and noncompetitively inhibits the activity of xanthine oxidase, an enzyme that converts oxypurines, including hypoxanthine and xanthine, into uric acid. By inhibiting xanthine oxidase, uric acid production is reduced and serum uric acid levels are lowered. Febuxostat may provide protection against acute renal failure caused by the excessive release o... |
| Fedratinib | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule, ATP-competitive inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2) and FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, fedratinib competes with wild-type JAK2 as well as mutated forms for ATP binding, which may result in inhibition of JAK2 activation, inhibition of the JAK-STAT signaling pathway, inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and induction of tumor cell apoptosis. JAK2 is the mo... |
| Fedratinib Hydrochloride | The monohydrate dihydrochloride salt form of fedratinib, an orally bioavailable, small-molecule, ATP-competitive inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2) and FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, fedratinib competes with wild-type JAK2 as well as mutated forms for ATP binding, which may result in inhibition of JAK2 activation, inhibition of the JAK-STAT signaling pathway, inhibition of tumor cell proliferat... |
| Feladilimab | An agonistic antibody for the inducible T-cell co-stimulator (ICOS; CD278), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, feladilimab targets and binds to ICOS expressed on tumor infiltrating CD4-positive T-cells. This stimulates ICOS-positive T-cell proliferation, enhances cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) survival and increases CTL-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. ICOS, a T-cell specific, CD28-superfamily costimulatory molecule and ... |
| Felezonexor | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear export protein exportin-1 (XPO1; chromosome region maintenance 1 protein homolog; CRM1), with potential antineoplastic and pro-apoptotic activities. Upon administration, felezonexor reversibly binds to the cargo binding site of XPO1, and prevents the XPO1-mediated nuclear export of cargo proteins, including tumor suppressor proteins (TSPs), such as p53, FOXO, p21, and p27, and leads to their selective accumulation in the nuclei of tumor cells. A... |
| Felzartamab | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein CD-38 with potential antineoplastic activity. Felzartamab specifically binds to CD38 on CD38-positive tumor cells. This may trigger antitumoral antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and may eventually lead to cell lysis in CD38-expressing tumor cells. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is present on various immune cells and hematologic malignancies, and its expression has been correlated with p... |
| Fencabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered with a T cell Antigen Coupler (TAC), comprising of a domain that targets the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) and another domain that binds to the endogenous T cell receptor (TCR), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, fencabtagene autoleucel targets and binds to HER2-expressing tumor cells and activates TCR-mediated signaling p... |
| Fenebrutinib | An orally available inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, fenebrutinib inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways, which leads to the inhibition of the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the Src-related BTK/Tec family of cytoplasmi... |
| Fenretinide | An orally-active synthetic phenylretinamide analogue of retinol (vitamin A) with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities.  Fenretinide binds to and activates retinoic acid receptors (RARs), thereby inducing cell differentiation and apoptosis in some tumor cell types.  This agent also inhibits tumor growth by modulating angiogenesis-associated growth factors and their receptors and exhibits retinoid receptor-independent apoptotic properties. (NCI04) |
| Fenretinide Lipid Matrix | An orally bioavailable powder formulation of a synthetic phenylretinamide analogue of retinol with potential chemopreventive and antineoplastic activities. Fenretinide binds to and activates retinoic acid receptors (RARs), thereby inducing cell differentiation and apoptosis in some tumor cell types, including those of the colon, breast, prostate, and neuroblastoma. Independent of RAR activation, this agent also modulates gene expression that leads to ceramide-induced, caspase-independent prog... |
| Fenretinide Phospholipid Suspension ST-001 | An intravenous formulation composed of a phospholipid suspension of nanoparticles containing the synthetic retinoid derivative fenretinide, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, fenretinide binds to and activates retinoic acid receptors (RARs), thereby inducing cell differentiation and apoptosis in susceptible tumor cell types. Fenretinide also binds to and inhibits the activity of mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), which may result in both the induction ... |
| Fermented Soybean Protein Beverage | A fermented soybean-derived phytochemical beverage with potential antineoplastic activity. Fermented soybean protein beverage is reported to exhibit immunostimulatory, anti-viral, pro-apoptotic, anti-angiogenic, anti-proliferative, and anti-inflammatory activities and to enhance the cytotoxic effects of natural killer (NK) cells. The fermentation process is reported to hydrolyze many soybean proteins into amino acids and nitrogen-rich compounds and to protect and enhance the activities of iso... |
| Fermented Wheat Germ Extract | An extract of fermented wheat germ containing a concentrated, standardized amount of methoxy-substituted benzoquinones with immunomodulatory and potential antineoplastic activities. Fermented wheat germ extract (FWGE) inhibits the activities of several enzymes involved in de novo nucleic acid synthesis and in supplying the dNTP pool required for DNA replication. This agent also induces caspase-3- mediated inactivation of poly(ADP)ribose polymerase (PARP), a key enzyme in DNA repair that is ov... |
| Fexagratinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. fexagratinib binds to and inhibits FGFR, which may result in the inhibition of FGFR-related signal transduction pathways, and, so, the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and tumor cell death. FGFR, up-regulated in many tumor cell types, is a receptor tyrosine kinase essential to tumor cellular proliferation, differentiation and survival. |
| FGF Receptor Antagonist HGS1036 | A soluble fusion protein consisting of the extracellular domain of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 1 (FGFR1) fused to the Fc portion of human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. FGFR1 receptor antagonist FP-1039 prevents FGFR ligands, such as FGF1, FGF2, FGF4, from binding to their cognate receptors, thereby inhibiting the activation of the related FGFR tyrosine kinases. Inhibition of FGFR1 by this agent may retard tumor cell prolifer... |
| FGFR Inhibitor ASP5878 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR inhibitor ASP5878 binds to and inhibits FGFR, which results in the inhibition of FGFR-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation in FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cellular proliferation and survival. |
| FGFR Inhibitor CPL304110 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR inhibitor CPL304110 binds to and inhibits FGFR, which results in the inhibition of FGFR-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation in FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cellular proliferation and survival. |
| FGFR Inhibitor ET0111 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR inhibitor ET0111 binds to and inhibits FGFR, which results in the inhibition of FGFR-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation in FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cellular proliferation and survival. |
| FGFR/VEGFR/PDGFR/FLT3/SRC Inhibitor XL999 | A small molecule inhibitor of numerous tyrosine kinases (TKs) including fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR), platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR), FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3), and SRC, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, XL999 binds to and inhibits the activity of these TKs, thereby preventing both the activation of downstream signaling pathways and the proliferation of tumor cells overexpre... |
| FGFR1/2/3 Inhibitor TYRA-200 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) types 1, 2, and 3 (FGFR1/2/3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR1/2/3 inhibitor TYRA-200 targets, binds to and inhibits FGFR1/2/3, and is specifically active against certain FGFR2 fusions, molecular brake and gatekeeper resistance mutations. This may result in the inhibition of FGFR1/2/3-related signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation in FGFR1... |
| FGFR2 Inhibitor 3HP-2827 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR2 inhibitor 3HP-2827 targets, binds to and inhibits FGFR2, which results in the inhibition of FGFR2-mediated signal transduction pathways. This may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells that harbor FGFR2 alterations, including amplifications, mutations and fusions. FGFR2, a receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated and mutated in m... |
| FGFR3 Inhibitor LOXO-435 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR3 inhibitor LOXO-435 specifically targets and binds to FGFR3, including FGFR3 gatekeeper resistance mutations. This blocks FGFR3-mediated signaling and leads to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in FGFR3-overexpressing cells. FGFR3, a receptor tyrosine kinase, is involved in angiogenesis and in the proliferation, differ... |
| FGFR3 Inhibitor TYRA-300 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR3 inhibitor TYRA-300 specifically targets and binds to certain FGFR3 activating gene alterations, and specifically the gatekeeper mutants V555L/M. This blocks FGFR3-mediated signaling and leads to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in FGFR3-overexpressing cells. FGFR3, a receptor tyrosine kinase, is involved in angiogene... |
| FGFR4 Antagonist INCB062079 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR4 antagonist INCB062079 specifically and irreversibly binds to the cysteine residue at position 552 (Cys 552) that is within the active site of FGFR4. This blocks FGFR4 autophosphorylation and activation of receptor tyrosine kinase activity that would normally occur after binding to its ligand fibroblast growth factor 19 (FGF19... |
| FGFR4 Inhibitor BLU 9931 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR4 antagonist BLU 9931 specifically and irreversibly binds to the cysteine residue at position 552 (Cys 552) that is within the active site of FGFR4. This blocks FGFR4 autophosphorylation and activation of receptor tyrosine kinase activity that would normally occur after binding to its ligand, fibroblast growth factor 19 (FGF19)... |
| FGFR4 Inhibitor H3B-6527 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, H3B-6527 specifically binds to and blocks FGFR4. This prevents the activation of FGFR4, inhibits FGFR4-mediated signaling and leads to an inhibition of cell proliferation in FGFR4-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR4, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed by certain tumor cell types, is involved in tumor cell proliferation, differentiation, angiog... |
| FGFR4 Inhibitor ICP-105 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ICP-105 specifically targets, binds to and blocks the binding of the ligand FGF19 to FGFR4. This prevents the activation of FGFR4, inhibits FGFR4-mediated signaling and leads to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in FGFR4-overexpressing cells. FGFR4, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed on a variety of cancer cell types, is involve... |
| FGFR4 Inhibitor SY-4798 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR4 inhibitor SY-4798 specifically targets and binds to FGFR4. This blocks FGFR4 autophosphorylation and activation of receptor tyrosine kinase activity that would normally occur after binding to its ligand, fibroblast growth factor 19 (FGF19). This inhibits FGFR4-mediated signaling and leads to the inhibition of tumor cell proli... |
| FGFR4 Inhibitor SYHX2005 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR4 inhibitor SYHX2005 specifically targets and binds to FGFR4. This blocks FGFR4 autophosphorylation and activation of receptor tyrosine kinase activity that would normally occur after binding to its ligand, fibroblast growth factor 19 (FGF19). This inhibits FGFR4-mediated signaling and leads to the inhibition of tumor cell prol... |
| Fianlimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene-3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, fianlimab binds to LAG-3 expressed by tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks LAG-3 binding to tumor cells expressing major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules. This may activate antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhance cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-med... |
| Fibroblast Activation Protein Alpha-activated Doxorubicin Prodrug AVA6000 | A prodrug of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin composed of doxorubicin covalently bonded to the dipeptide N-(pyridine-4-carbonyl)-D-Ala-L-Pro, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, fibroblast activation protein alpha (FAP)-activated doxorubicin prodrug AVA6000 is hydrolyzed by FAP, which is overexpressed on cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME). Doxorubicin is released in the TME, and intercalates into DNA and int... |
| Ficerafusp Alfa | A bifunctional monoclonal antibody targeting both the receptor tyrosine kinase epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and the pro-inflammatory cytokine human transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta; TGFb), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of ficerafusp alfa, the anti-EGFR moiety targets, binds to and prevents activation of EGFR-mediated signaling. This leads to an inhibition of EGFR-dependent downstream pathways and EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation and met... |
| Ficlatuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) with potential antineoplastic activity. Ficlatuzumab binds to the soluble ligand HGF, preventing the binding of HGF to its receptor c-Met and activation of the HGF/c-Met signaling pathway, which may result in cell death in c-Met-expressing tumor cells. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cancer cell growth, survival, angiogenesis, invasion,... |
| Ficonalkib | An orally bioavailable, third-generation inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ficonalkib binds to and inhibits ALK wild-type tyrosine kinase and numerous ALK mutations, including acquired resistance mutations. Inhibition of ALK leads to the disruption of ALK-mediated signaling and the inhibition of cell growth in ALK-expressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin receptor superfa... |
| Ficus septica Leaf-based Supplement FADA | A supplement composed of the active fraction of Ficus septica (Awar-Awar) leaf, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of Ficus septica leaf-based supplement FADA, the phytochemicals may kill tumor cells, although the exact mechanism of its cytotoxic action has yet to be fully elucidated. |
| Fidasimtamab | A recombinant human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) and the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, fidasimtamab simultaneously targets, binds to and inhibits HER2 and PD-1 and their downstream signaling pathways, and bridges PD-1-expressing T-cells to HER2-e... |
| Figitumumab | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the insulin-like growth factor type I receptor (IGF1R) with potential antineoplastic activity. Figitumumab selectively binds to IGF1R, preventing insulin-like growth factor type 1 (IGF1) from binding to the receptor and subsequent receptor autophosphorylation. Inhibition of IGF1R autophosphorylation may result in a reduction in receptor expression on tumor cells that express IGF1R, a reduction in the anti-apoptotic effect of IGF, and inhibition of ... |
| Filanesib | A synthetic, small molecule targeting the kinesin spindle protein (KSP) with potential antineoplastic activity. Filanesib specifically inhibits KSP (kinesin-5 or Eg5), resulting in activation of the spindle assembly checkpoint, induction of cell cycle arrest during the mitotic phase, and consequently cell death in tumor cells that are actively dividing. Because KSP is not involved in postmitotic processes, such as neuronal transport, this agent does not cause the peripheral neuropathy that is... |
| Filgotinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase Janus kinase 1 (JAK1), with potential anti-inflammatory and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, filgotinib specifically targets, binds to, and inhibits the phosphorylation of JAK1, which interferes with JAK/STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription)-dependent signaling. As JAK1 mediates signaling of many pro-inflammatory cytokines, JAK1 inhibition prevents cytokine signaling and activity in many inflammato... |
| Fimaporfin A | The A isomer of fimaporfin, a synthetic light-activated compound, with potential photosensitizing activity. Upon administration, fimaporfin A incorporates into the cell's endosome and lysosome membranes. Subsequently, cytotoxic agents are administered and accumulate in endosomal and lysosomal compartments; upon local activation by light, fimaporfin A produces reactive oxygen species (ROS), such as singlet oxygen, damaging endo/lysosomal membranes and accumulated cytotoxic agents are released ... |
| Fimepinostat | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of both phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) class I and pan histone deacetylase (HDAC) enzymes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, fimepinostat inhibits the activity of both PI3K class I isoforms and HDAC, thereby preventing the activation of the PI3K-AKT-mTOR signal transduction pathway that is often overactivated in many cancer cell types. This may prevent growth of PI3K and/or HDAC-expressing tumor cells. CUDC-907 shows an increa... |
| Finotonlimab | A recombinant, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, finotonlimab targets, binds to, and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune functions through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembran... |
| Firastotug | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, firastotug targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells, thereby killing cancer ce... |
| Firicabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a recombinant lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric T-cell receptor (chimeric antigen receptor or CAR) consisting of an anti-CD22 single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from the monoclonal antibody (moAb) 971 (m971), and the co-stimulatory domain 4-1BB (CD137) coupled to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, firicabtagene autol... |
| Firmonertinib | An orally available selective inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutant form T790M, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, firmonertinib specifically binds to and inhibits the tyrosine kinase activity of EGFR T790M, a secondarily acquired resistance mutation. This prevents EGFR T790M-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR T790M-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase that is mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key ... |
| Firtecan Pegol | A polyethylene glycol (PEG) conjugate of 7-ethyl-10-hydroxycamptothecin with potential antineoplastic activity. After hydrolysis in vivo, 7-ethyl-10-hydroxycamptothecin (SN38), an active metabolite of irinotecan, is released from firtecan pegol; 7-ethyl-10-hydroxycamptothecin selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes, resulting in single-stranded and double-stranded DNA breaks, the inhibition of DNA replication, and the induction of apoptosis. This agent is designed to del... |
| Fisetin | An orally bioavailable naturally occurring polyphenol found in many fruits and vegetables, with potential antioxidant, neuroprotective, anti-inflammatory, antineoplastic, senolytic, and longevity promoting activities. Upon administration, fisetin, as an antioxidant, scavenges free radicals, protect cells from oxidative stress, and is able to upregulate glutathione. It inhibits pro-inflammatory mediators, such as tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), interleukin-6 (IL-6), and nuclear factor kap... |
| Fish Oil/Glycerol/Egg Lecithin-based Emulsion | An injectable, nutritional lipid emulsion composed of 10% fish oil and high amounts of the fish oil-derived polyunsaturated omega-3 fatty acids eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA). Additionally, the fish oil/glycerol/egg lecithin-based emulsion contains, myristic acid, palmitic acid, palmitoleic acid, stearic acid, oleic acid, linoleic acid, linolenic acid, octadecatetraenoic acid, eicosaenoic acid, arachidonic acid, docosaenoic acid, and docosapentaenoic acid. This age... |
| Fisogatinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, fisogatinib specifically binds to and blocks the binding of the ligand FGF19 to FGFR4. This prevents the activation of FGFR4, inhibits FGFR4-mediated signaling and leads to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in FGFR4-overexpressing cells. FGFR4 is a receptor tyrosine kinase and is involved in tumor cell proliferation, differentiation, ... |
| Flanvotumab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the melanosomal membrane protein gp75 (or Tyrosinase-Related Protein 1 (TRP1)) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Anti-gp75 monoclonal antibody IMC-20D7S targets and binds to gp75. This may lead to the induction of cytotoxic T cell immune and antibody-mediated immune responses against melanoma cells expressing gp75. gp75, a pigmentation-associated antigen, is expressed in melanosomes of human melanocytes and melanomas. |
| Flaxseed | Seed isolated from one of several species of the plant genus Linum. Flaxseed-derived foods, lignans, and essential fatty acids such as alpha-linolenic acid, possess anti-inflammatory, lipid-lowering, antioxidant, and antineoplastic properties. |
| Flexible Heteroarotinoid Sulfur Heteroarotinoid A2 | An orally bioavailable, synthetic flexible heteroarotinoid (Flex-Het), with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Flex-Het sulfur heteroarotinoid A2 (SHetA2) binds to the three related heat shock protein A (HSPA) chaperone proteins HSPA5 (78-kDa glucose-regulated protein; Grp78; BiP), HSPA8 (Hsc70) and HSPA9 (mortalin), and disrupts their binding to client proteins. This may induce G1 cell cycle arrest and apoptosis, and inhibit tumor cell growth, migration and invasion. Grp78, h... |
| Flonoltinib Maleate | The maleate salt form of flonoltinib, an orally bioavailable dual inhibitor of both Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2) and of FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, flonoltinib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of both JAK2 and FLT3. This prevents the activation of the JAK/signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) signaling pathway and the activation... |
| Flotetuzumab | An anti-CD123/anti-CD3 bispecific humanized monoclonal antibody with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Flotetuzumab possesses two antigen-recognition and binding sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for CD123, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of certain tumor cells. Upon administration of flotetuzumab, this bispecific antibody simultaneously binds to bo... |
| Flotufolastat F-18 Gallium | A radiohybrid prostate specific membrane antigen (rhPSMA) ligand, rhPSMA-7.3, labeled, via the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent 1,4,7,10-tetraazacyclododecane-1-(glutamic acid)-4,7,10-triacetic acid (DOTAGA; DOTA-GA) in complex with nonradioactive gallium, with the radioisotope fluorine F 18, which is covalently bound to silicon, with potential imaging activity using positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT) or positron emission tomography/magnetic resonance imaging (... |
| Floxuridine | A fluorinated pyrimidine monophosphate analogue of 5-fluoro-2'-deoxyuridine-5'-phosphate (FUDR-MP) with antineoplastic activity. As an antimetabolite, floxuridine inhibits thymidylate synthase, resulting in disruption of DNA synthesis and cytotoxicity. This agent is also metabolized to fluorouracil and other metabolites that can be incorporated into RNA and inhibit the utilization of preformed uracil in RNA synthesis. (NCI04) |
| FLT3 Inhibitor BMF-500 | An orally bioavailable, covalent and selective inhibitor of FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FLT3 inhibitor BMF-500 selectively targets and irreversibly binds to a reactive cysteine in the active site of FLT3. This inhibits the activity of FLT3 and prevents FLT3-mediated downstream signaling. This inhibits the proliferation of FLT3-expressing cancer cells. FLT3, a class III receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK), i... |
| FLT3 Inhibitor FF-10101 Succinate | The succinate salt form of FF-10101, a FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of FLT3 inhibitor FF-10101 succinate (FF-10101-01), FF-10101 irreversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of FLT3. This inhibits the proliferation of FLT3-expressing cancer cells. FLT3, a class III receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK), is overexpressed or mutated in most B lineage neoplasms and in acute myeloid leukemias. |
| FLT3 Inhibitor XY0206 | A selective inhibitor of FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, FLT3 inhibitor XY0206 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of FLT3. This inhibits the proliferation of FLT3-expressing cancer cells. FLT3, a class III receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK), is overexpressed or mutated in most B-lineage neoplasms and in acute myeloid leukemias. |
| Flt3 Ligand/Anti-CTLA-4 Antibody/IL-12 Engineered Oncolytic Vaccinia Virus RIVAL-01 | An oncolytic vaccinia virus (VV; VACV) genetically engineered to express an Fms-like tyrosine kinase 3 (Flt3) ligand, an antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4) and the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the Flt3 ligand/anti-CTLA-4 antibody/IL-12 engineered oncolytic VV RIVAL-01, the virus preferentially targets, ... |
| FLT3 Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor TTT-3002 | An orally bioavailable indolocarbazole derivative and inhibitor of constitutively active mutant forms of FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) with potential antineoplastic activity. Following administration, FLT3 tyrosine kinase inhibitor TTT-3002 binds to and inhibits ligand-dependent dimerization and autophosphorylation of mutant forms of FLT3 with constitutively activating mutations, including FLT3 internal tandem duplication (FLT3/ITD) and the activating point mutation D835Y. Prevention of a... |
| FLT3/ABL/Aurora Kinase Inhibitor KW-2449 | An orally available inhibitor of FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3, STK1, or FLK2), the tyrosine kinase ABL, and aurora kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, FLT3/ABL/Aurora kinase inhibitor KW-2449 specifically binds to and inhibits both wild-type and mutated forms of FLT3, ABL and aurora kinases, which both interferes with the activation of signal transduction pathways mediated by these kinases and reduces the proliferation of susceptible cancer cells. FLT3... |
| FLT3/CDK4/6 Inhibitor FLX925 | An orally available inhibitor of FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3, STK1, or FLK2) and the cyclin-dependent kinases 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, FLT3/CDK4/6 inhibitor FLX925 specifically binds to and inhibits FLT3, which interferes with the activation of FLT3-mediated signal transduction pathways and reduces cell proliferation in cancer cells that overexpress FLT3. In addition FLX925 inhibits CDK4 and 6 and prevents the phosphorylation ... |
| FLT3/KIT Kinase Inhibitor AKN-028 | An orally bioavailable protein tyrosine kinase inhibitor for FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; STK1) and stem cell factor receptor (SCFR; KIT), with potential antineoplastic activity. FLT3/KIT kinase inhibitor AKN-028 binds to and inhibits both the wild-type and mutated forms of FLT3 and SCFR. This may result in an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in cancer cell types that overexpress these receptor tyrosine kinases. |
| FLT3/KIT/CSF1R Inhibitor NMS-03592088 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), the mast/stem cell factor receptor c-Kit (SCFR; KIT) and colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; C-FMS; CD115; M-CSFR), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities Upon administration, FLT3/KIT/CSF1R inhibitor NMS-03592088 binds to and inhibits the activity of FLT3, KIT and CSF1R. This prevents FLT3, KIT and CSF1R-mediated signaling and results... |
| FLT3/KIT/VEGFR2/PDGFRB Inhibitor ETN101 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), mast/stem cell factor receptor c-Kit (SCFR; KIT), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor beta (PDGFRB), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, FLT3/KIT/VEGFR2/PDGFRB inhibitor ETN101 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of FLT3, c-Kit, VEGFR2 and PD... |
| Flt3/MerTK Inhibitor MRX-2843 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of two receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs), FMS-like tyrosine kinase-3 (Flt3; CD135; fetal liver kinase-2; Flk2) and tyrosine-protein kinase Mer (MerTK; proto-oncogene c-Mer; Mer), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, MRX-2843 targets and binds to both Flt3 and MerTK. This prevents ligand-dependent phosphorylation and activation of Flt3 and MerTK, which inhibits the activation of their downstream signaling pathways. This induces apoptosis ... |
| Flu Matrix Peptide p58-66 | A short chain synthetic antigenic peptide (GILGFVFTL) derived from the influenza virus A matrix protein and presented by HLA-A2 major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules. Flu matrix peptide p58-66 stimulates the lytic functions of cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs), which may result in the eradication of virus-infected or malignant tumor cells. |
| Fludarabine | A fluorinated nucleotide antimetabolite analog of the antiviral agent vidarabine (ara-A) with antineoplastic activity. Administered parenterally as a phosphate salt, fludarabine phosphate is rapidly dephosphorylated to 2-fluoro-ara-A and then phosphorylated intracellularly by deoxycytidine kinase to the active triphosphate, 2-fluoro-ara-ATP. This metabolite may inhibit DNA polymerase alpha, ribonucleotide reductase and DNA primase, thereby interrupting DNA synthesis and inhibiting tumor cell ... |
| Fludarabine Phosphate | The phosphate salt of a fluorinated nucleotide antimetabolite analog of the antiviral agent vidarabine (ara-A) with antineoplastic activity. Fludarabine phosphate is rapidly dephosphorylated to 2-fluoro-ara-A and then phosphorylated intracellularly by deoxycytidine kinase to the active triphosphate, 2-fluoro-ara-ATP. This metabolite may inhibit DNA polymerase alpha, ribonucleotide reductase and DNA primase, thereby interrupting DNA synthesis and inhibiting tumor cell growth. |
| Flumatinib Mesylate | The orally bioavailable, mesylate salt form of the tyrosine kinase inhibitor flumatinib, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, flumatinib inhibits the wild-type forms of Bcr-Abl, platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) and mast/stem cell growth factor receptor (SCFR; c-Kit) and forms of these proteins with certain point mutations. This results in the inhibition of both Bcr-Abl-, PDGFR- and c-Kit-mediated signal transduction pathways, and the proliferation of tum... |
| Flumbatinib | An orally bioavailable tyrosine kinase inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, flumbatinib inhibits the wild-type forms of Bcr-Abl, platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) and mast/stem cell growth factor receptor (SCFR; c-Kit) and forms of these proteins with certain point mutations. This results in the inhibition of both Bcr-Abl-, PDGFR- and c-Kit-mediated signal transduction pathways, and the proliferation of tumor cells in which these kinases are ov... |
| Fluorine F 18 Fluoropivalate | A radioconjugate composed of fluoropivalate, a non-natural short-chain fatty acid (SCFA), labeled with the positron-emitting radioisotope fluorine F 18, with potential use as an imaging agent for tracing SCFA metabolism upon positron emitting tomography (PET)/computed tomography (CT). Upon administration, fluorine F 18 FPIA is rapidly taken up by tumor cells.  This may allow for the visualization of tumor cells upon PET/CT. SCFA is used as an energy source for cell growth and proliferation; t... |
| Fluorine F 18 PSMA-1007 | A radioconjugate containing the human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting ligand, PSMA-1007, labeled with the radioisotope fluorine F 18, with potential imaging activity using positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT). Upon administration of fluorine F 18 PSMA-1007, the PSMA-1007 moiety targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. This allows for visualization of PSMA-expressing cells upon imaging. PSMA, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and type II transme... |
| Fluorodopan | An alkylating agent with potential antineoplastic activity.  Fluorodopan alkylates DNA at the N7 position of guanine.  Alkylating agents exert cytotoxic and, in some cases, chemotherapeutic effects by transferring alkyl groups to DNA, thereby damaging DNA and interfering with DNA replication and cell division. (NCI04) |
| Fluoropyrimidine | Any fluoropyrimidine-based agent with potential antineoplastic activity. As an antimetabolite, a fluoropyrimidine interferes with pyrimidine utilization and incorporation into DNA and RNA. |
| Fluorouracil | An antimetabolite fluoropyrimidine analog of the nucleoside pyrimidine with antineoplastic activity. Fluorouracil and its metabolites possess a number of different mechanisms of action. In vivo, fluoruracil is converted to the active metabolite 5-fluoroxyuridine monophosphate (F-UMP); replacing uracil, F-UMP incorporates into RNA and inhibits RNA processing, thereby inhibiting cell growth. Another active metabolite, 5-5-fluoro-2'-deoxyuridine-5'-O-monophosphate (F-dUMP), inhibits thymidylate ... |
| Fluorouracil Implant | An implant containing a sustained release particle of fluorouracil, an antimetabolite fluoropyrimidine analog of the nucleoside pyrimidine, with antineoplastic activity. Upon implantation and subsequent release, fluorouracil is converted into the active metabolite 5-fluoroxyuridine monophosphate that competes with the pyrimidine uracil during RNA synthesis while another active metabolite, 5-5-fluoro-2'-deoxyuridine-5'-O-monophosphate, inhibits thymidylate synthase and thus DNA synthesis. |
| Fluorouracil-E Therapeutic Implant | An injectable collagen matrix gel containing the antimetabolite fluorouracil and the sympathicomimetic agent epinephrine with potential antineoplastic activity. After intratumoral injection, fluorouracil is converted into the active metabolite 5-fluoroxyuridine monophosphate that competes with uracil during RNA synthesis while another active metabolite, 5-5-fluoro-2'-deoxyuridine-5'-O-monophosphate, inhibits thymidylate synthase and, so, DNA synthesis. Epinephrine, a potent vasoconstrictor, i... |
| Fluoxymesterone | A halogenated derivative of 17-alpha-methyltestosterone.  Similar to testosterone, fluoxymesterone binds to and activates specific nuclear receptors, resulting in an increase in protein anabolism, a decrease in amino acid catabolism, and retention of nitrogen, potassium, and phosphorus.  This agent also may competitively inhibit prolactin receptors and estrogen receptors, thereby inhibiting the growth of hormone-dependent tumor lines. Fluoxymesterone is approximately five times more potent th... |
| Flutamide | A toluidine derivative and a nonsteroidal antiandrogen that is structurally related to bicalutamide and nilutamide. Flutamide and its more potent active metabolite 2-hydroxyflutamide competitively block dihydrotestosterone binding at androgen receptors, forming inactive complexes which cannot translocate into the cell nucleus. Formation of inactive receptors inhibits androgen-dependent DNA and protein synthesis, resulting in tumor cell growth arrest or transient tumor regression. (NCI04) |
| Fluvastatin | A synthetic lipid-lowering agent with antilipidemic and potential antineoplastic properties. Fluvastatin competitively inhibits hepatic 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, which catalyzes the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate, a key step in cholesterol synthesis. This agent lowers plasma cholesterol and lipoprotein levels, and modulates immune responses through the suppression of MHC II (major histocompatibility complex II) on interferon gamma-stimulated antigen-prese... |
| Fluvastatin Sodium | The sodium salt of a synthetic lipid-lowering agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Fluvastatin competitively inhibits hepatic 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate, a key step in cholesterol synthesis. This agent lowers plasma cholesterol and lipoprotein levels, and modulates immune responses through the suppression of MHC II (major histocompatibility complex II) on interferon gamma-stimulated, ant... |
| Fms/Trk Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor PLX7486 Tosylate | The tosylate salt form of PLX7486, a selective inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases colony-stimulating factor-1 receptor (CSF1R; fms) and neurotrophic tyrosine kinase receptor types 1, 2 and 3 (TrkA, TrkB, and TrkC, respectively) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PLX7486 binds to and inhibits the activity of these tyrosine kinases. This inhibits Fms and Trk-mediated signaling transduction pathways that are upregulated in certain cancer cell types. This may eve... |
| Folate Binding Protein E39 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of human leukocyte antigen (HLA) A2 restricted folate binding protein (FBP) epitope E39 (amino acids 191 to 199), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activity. Upon intradermal injection, FBP E39 peptide vaccine may induce a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against FBP-expressing tumor cell types. FBP is a membrane-bound, tumor-associated antigen highly overexpressed in various tumor cell types, such as in breast, ovarian and endometria... |
| Folate Binding Protein J65 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted folate binding protein (FBP) epitope J65 (9 amino acids; EIWTFSTKV), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal injection, FBP J65 peptide vaccine may induce a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against J65 FBP-expressing tumor cell types. FBP is a membrane-bound, tumor-associated antigen overexpressed in various tumor types, including breast, ovarian and endometrial can... |
| Folate Receptor Targeted Epothilone BMS753493 | A folate receptor-targeting antimitotic agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Folate receptor-targeted epothilone BMS753493 contains an epothilone moiety linked to a single folate molecule. Mediated through the folate moiety, this agent delivers the antimitotic epothilone component into cells expressing folic acid receptors, frequently upregulated in many types of tumor cells. After ligand-receptor internalization, the epothilone moiety induces microtubule polymerization and stabilize... |
| Folate Receptor-Targeted Tubulysin Conjugate EC1456 | An injectable targeted small molecule drug conjugate (SMDC) consisting of folate (vitamin B9) covalently linked to the potent mitotic poison and cytotoxic agent, tubulysin B hydrazide (Tub-B-H) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the folate moiety of folate receptor-targeted tubulysin conjugate EC1456 preferentially binds to tumor cells expressing folate receptors (FR). After binding to FR, the agent is internalized by tumor cells and the Tub-B-H moiety inhibits the p... |
| Folate Receptor-Targeted Vinca Alkaloid EC0489 | A folate receptor-targeting cytotoxic drug conjugate consisting of a folate vitamin analogue linked to a vinca alkaloid microtubule destabilizing agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Mediated through its folate moiety, folate receptor-targeted vinca alkaloid EC0489 delivers the cytotoxic vinca alkaloid moiety directly to cells expressing folic acid receptors, frequently upregulated in many types of tumor cells. After ligand-receptor internalization, the vinca alkaloid moiety binds to... |
| Folate Receptor-Targeted Vinca Alkaloid/Mitomycin C EC0225 | A folate receptor-targeting cytotoxic agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Folate receptor-targeted vinca alkaloid/mitomycin C EC0225 contains two potent cytotoxic agents, a vinca alkaloid and mitomycin C, linked to a single folate molecule. Mediated through the folate moiety, this agent delivers the cytotoxic agents directly into cells expressing folic acid receptors, frequently upregulated in many types of tumor cells. After ligand-receptor internalization, the vinca alkaloid moiet... |
| Folate-FITC | A conjugate consisting of fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC) conjugated with folate with potential antineoplastic activity. Folate-FITC binds to folate receptors, which are overexpressed on the surfaces of many cancer cells including kidney and ovarian cancer cells. Once bound to the cancer cell through the folate moiety of the conjugate, circulating anti-fluorescein antibodies may recognize and bind to the FITC moiety, resulting in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity. |
| Folitixorin | A folate-based biomodulator with potential antineoplastic activity. 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate (MTHF) stabilizes the covalent binding of the fluorouracil metabolite 5-5-fluoro-2'-deoxyuridine-5'-O-monophosphate (FdUMP) to its target enzyme, thymidylate synthase, which results in inhibition of thymidylate synthase, depletion of thymidine triphosphate (TTP), a necessary constituent of DNA, and tumor cell death. Unlike leucovorin, MTHF, as the active form of folate, does not require metaboli... |
| Foretinib | An orally bioavailable small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Foretinib binds to and selectively inhibits hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) receptor c-MET and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis, tumor cell proliferation and metastasis. The proto-oncogene c-MET has been found to be over-expressed in a variety of cancers. VEGFR2 is found on endothelial and hematopoietic cells and mediates the development ... |
| Forimtamig | A T-cell engaging bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, forimtamig binds to both GPRC5D expressed on tumor cells and CD3 on T-cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells and induces a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against GPRC5D-expressing tumor cells. GPRC5D ... |
| Foritinib Succinate | The succinate salt form of foritinib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and C-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, foritinib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of ALK and ROS1, which leads to the disruption of ALK- and ROS1-mediated signaling and the inhibition of cell growth in ALK- and ROS1-expressing tumor cells. In addition, foritinib is able to cross the blood bra... |
| Formestane | A synthetic steroidal substance with antineoplastic activity.  Formestane binds irreversibly to and inhibits the enzyme aromatase, thereby blocking the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone and the peripheral aromatization of androgenic precursors into estrogens. (NCI04) |
| Forodesine | A transition-state analog inhibitor of purine nucleoside phosphorylase (PNP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, forodesine preferentially binds to and inhibits PNP, resulting in the accumulation of deoxyguanosine triphosphate and the subsequent inhibition of the enzyme ribonucleoside diphosphate reductase and DNA synthesis. This agent selectively causes apoptosis in stimulated or malignant T-lymphocytes. |
| Forodesine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of the synthetic high-affinity transition-state analogue forodesine. Forodesine binds preferentially to and inhibits purine nucleotide phosphorylase (PNP), resulting in the accumulation of deoxyguanosine triphosphate and the subsequent inhibition of the enzyme ribonucleoside diphosphate reductase and DNA synthesis. This agent selectively causes apoptosis in stimulated or malignant T-lymphocytes. A transition state analogue is a substrate designed to mimic the properties... |
| Fosbretabulin | A water-soluble prodrug derived from the African bush willow (Combretum caffrum) with antineoplastic activity. Fosbretabulin is dephosphorylated to its active metabolite, combretastatin A4, which binds to tubulin and inhibits microtubule polymerization, resulting in mitotic arrest and apoptosis in endothelial cells. As apoptotic endothelial cells detach from their substrata, tumor blood vessels collapse; the acute disruption of tumor blood flow may result in tumor necrosis. |
| Fosbretabulin Disodium | The disodium salt of a water-soluble phosphate derivative of a natural stilbenoid phenol derived from the African bush willow (Combretum caffrum) with potential vascular disrupting and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the prodrug fosbretabulin is dephosphorylated to its active metabolite, the microtubule-depolymerizing agent combretastatin A4, which binds to tubulin dimers and prevents microtubule polymerization, resulting in mitotic arrest and apoptosis in endothelial cells. I... |
| Fosbretabulin Tromethamine | The tromethamine salt form of prodrug fosbretabulin, a water-soluble phosphate derivative of a stilbenoid phenol derived from the African bush willow (Combretum caffrum) with antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, fosbretabulin is dephosphorylated to its active metabolite, combretastatin A4, which targets and binds to tubulin dimers and prevents microtubule polymerization, thereby resulting in mitotic arrest and apoptosis in endothelial cells. As apoptotic endothelial cells detach fr... |
| Foscenvivint | A potent, specific inhibitor of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway in cancer stem cells with potential antineoplastic activity. Foscenvivint specifically inhibits the recruiting of beta-catenin with its coactivator CBP (the binding protein of the cAMP response element-binding protein CREB); together with other transcription factors beta-catenin/CBP binds to WRE (Wnt-responsive element) and activates transcription of a wide range of target genes of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling. Blocking the int... |
| Fosciclopirox | A phosphoryloxymethyl (POM) ester-based prodrug of ciclopirox (CPX), a synthetic, broad-spectrum antifungal agent with antibacterial, anti-inflammatory and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of fosciclopirox, the POM moiety is cleaved off by phosphatases and the active metabolite CPX is released. Although its exact anticancer mechanism is not yet fully elucidated, CPX has been shown to inhibit tumor cell proliferation, induce apoptosis, and reduce tumor cell ... |
| Fosdesdenosine Sipalabenamide | A phosphoramidate derivative of the monophosphate form of cordycepin (3'-deoxyadenosine; 3'-dA), an adenosine derivative first isolated from Cordyceps sinensis, with potential antineoplastic, antioxidant, and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon administration and cellular uptake of fosdesdenosine sipalabenamide by passive diffusion, cordycepin monophosphate (3'-dAMP) is converted into its active anti-cancer metabolite 3'-deoxyadenosine triphosphate (3'-dATP). 3'-dATP functions as a ribonucleos... |
| Fosgemcitabine Palabenamide | A pyrimidine analogue and a proprietary prodrug based on an aryloxy phosphoramidate derivative of gemcitabine with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration and cellular uptake, fosgemcitabine palabenamide is converted into the active metabolites difluorodeoxycytidine di- and triphosphate (dFdCDP, dFdCTP). dFdCDP inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, thereby decreasing the deoxynucleotide pool available for DNA replication; dFdCTP is incorporated into DNA, resulting in p... |
| Fosifloxuridine Nafalbenamide | A phosphoramidate-based prodrug of the monophosphate (MP) form of 5-fluoro-2'-deoxyuridine (FUdR; FUDR), the active metabolite of fluorouracil (5-FU), an antimetabolite fluoropyrimidine analog of the pyrimidine nucleoside, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the nucleotide analog prodrug fosifloxuridine nafalbenamide, fosifloxuridine nafalbenamide is readily taken up by tumor cells. In the tumor cell, the phosphoramidate moiety is removed and fosifloxuridine nafalbe... |
| Foslinanib | An orally bioavailable agent with potential antineoplastic and anti-vasculogenic mimicry activities. Upon oral administration, foslinanib targets and inhibits the formation of vasculogenic mimicry (VM; vascular mimicry). By destroying the VM channels and network, cancer cells are devoid of perfusion leading to an induction of cancer cell apoptosis and inhibition of cancer cell proliferation. VM is associated with tumor metastasis. |
| Foslinanib Disodium | The disodium salt form of foslinanib, an orally bioavailable agent with potential antineoplastic and anti-vasculogenic mimicry activities. Upon oral administration, foslinanib targets and inhibits the formation of vasculogenic mimicry (VM; vascular mimicry). By destroying the VM channels and network, cancer cells are devoid of perfusion leading to an induction of cancer cell apoptosis and inhibition of cancer cell proliferation. VM is associated with tumor metastasis. |
| Fosquidone | A water-soluble pentacyclic pyrolloquinone analogue of mitoquidone with potential antineoplastic activity. Currently, the mechanism of action of fosquidone is unknown. In vitro studies indicate that this agent does not bind to DNA or inhibit topoisomerases. |
| Fostriecin | An anti-tumor antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces pulveraceus. Fostriecin inhibits topoisomerase II catalytic activity, resulting in impaired DNA and RNA synthesis in various malignant cell types.  This agent also inhibits serine/threonine protein phosphatase type 2A in some tumor cell types, thereby interfering with cellular proliferation and differentiation. (NCI04) |
| Fostroxacitabine Bralpamide | A liver-targeting nucleotide phosphoramidate prodrug of troxacitabine monophosphate (TRX-MP), a dioxolane derivative and L-configuration deoxycytidine analogue, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, fostroxacitabine bralpamide is rapidly and specifically hydrolyzed in hepatocytes by liver carboxylesterase 1 (carboxylesterase 1, CE-1), generating high levels of the chain-terminating nucleotide, troxacitabine triphosphate (TRX-TP) in the liver. TRX-TP is then incorpo... |
| Fostroxacitabine Bralpamide Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of fostroxacitabine bralpamide, a liver-targeting nucleotide phosphoramidate prodrug of troxacitabine monophosphate (TRX-MP), a dioxolane derivative and L-configuration deoxycytidine analogue, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, fostroxacitabine bralpamide is rapidly and specifically hydrolyzed in hepatocytes by liver carboxylesterase 1 (carboxylesterase 1, CE-1), generating high levels of the chain-terminating nucleotide, troxacitabin... |
| Fotemustine | A chloroethylating nitrosourea with antineoplastic activity. Fotemustine alkylates guanine by forming chloroethyl adducts at the 6 position of guanine, resulting in N1-guanine and N3-cytosine cross linkages, inhibition of DNA synthesis, cell cycle arrest, and finally apoptosis. This agent is lipophilic and crosses the blood-brain barrier. |
| Fotretamine | A pentaethyleneimine derivative with antineoplastic alkylating activity. Fotretamine causes chromosomal breaks in lymphocytes which contributes to its immunosuppressive activity. |
| Fovinaciclib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, fovinaciclib selectively inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1/S transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threonine kinases that are upregulated ... |
| Fowlpox Virus Vaccine Vector | A recombinant fowlpox virus-based vaccine vector designed to express various tumor-associated peptide antigens. Strong CD8 cytotoxic T cell responses may be induced after prolonged immunization with fowlpox virus vaccines and have been associated with tumor regression. Fowlpox virus is an attractive vector because its genome is easy to manipulate and it does not multiply in human tissues. (NCI05) |
| Fowlpox-NY-ESO-1 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant fowlpox virus vector encoding an immunogenic peptide derived from the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, an antigen found in normal testis and various tumors, including bladder, breast, hepatocellular, melanoma, and prostate cancers. Vaccination with NY-ESO-1 peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a humoral and cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing NY-ESO-1 antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (... |
| FPV Vaccine CV301 | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant fowlpox viral (FPV) vector encoding both the two human tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and mucin-1 (MUC-1), and TRICOM, which is comprised of the three human immune-enhancing co-stimulatory molecules B7-1, ICAM-1 and LFA-3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration following the administration of a proprietary modified vaccinia Ankara developed by Bavarian Nordic... |
| FPV-Brachyury-TRICOM Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant fowlpox viral (FPV) vector encoding the human transcription factor and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) brachyury, and a triad of T-cell co-stimulatory molecules (TRICOM), which is comprised of the three human immune-enhancing co-stimulatory molecules B7-1, ICAM-1 and LFA-3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration occurring after the administration of a proprietary modified vaccinia Ankara deve... |
| FR Alpha/TRPV6 Bispecific Ligand Drug Conjugate CBP-1008 | A bispecific ligand drug conjugate targeting both human folate receptor alpha (FR alpha; FOLR1) and transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily V member 6 (TRPV6; CaT1; CATL) and conjugated to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of FR alpha/TRPV6 bispecific ligand drug conjugate CBP-1008, the bispecific ligand moiety targets and binds to FR alpha and/or TRPV6, wh... |
| FRa/TRPV6 Bispecific Ligand-drug Conjugate CBP-1019 | A bispecific ligand-drug conjugate composed of dual ligands that target human folate receptor alpha (FRa; FolRa; FOLR1) and transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily V member 6 (TRPV6; CaT1; CATL), conjugated to the camptothecin analog and topoisomerase 1 inhibitor exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of FRa/TRPV6 bispecific ligand-drug conjugate CBP-1019, the dual ligands target and bind to FRa and/or TRPV6 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding a... |
| Fractalkine Receptor Antagonist KAND567 | An orally bioavailable non-competitive and selective antagonist of the fractalkine (C-X3-C motif chemokine 1; chemokine ligand 1; CX3CL1; small-inducible cytokine D1) receptor (CX3C chemokine receptor 1; CX3CR1; chemokine, CX3C motif, receptor 1), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, fractalkine receptor antagonist KAND567 specifically and allosterically binds to and blocks CX3CR1, thereby preventing the binding of fractal... |
| French Maritime Pine Bark Extract | A nutritional supplement containing an extract obtained from the French maritime pine bark Pinus pinaster, with potential immunomodulating and antioxidant activities. The French maritime pine bark extract contains high amounts of the phytochemicals proanthocyanidins. Proanthocyanidins are able to scavenge free radicals, and therefore may inhibit cellular damage. This extract may also ameliorate the symptoms of lymphedema and improve blood flow. It might also stimulate the immune system and ha... |
| Frenlosirsen | An antisense oligonucleotide (ASO) targeting the interferon regulatory factor 4 (IRF4) mRNA, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, frenlosirsen hybridizes with IRF4 mRNA, which blocks translation of the IRF4 protein. Reduction of IRF4 levels prevents the expression of IRF4-controlled tumor promoter genes, and may enhance tumor cell apoptosis and prevent T-cell exhaustion. IRF4, a transcription factor expressed in lymphocytes and essent... |
| Fresolimumab | A pan-specific, recombinant, fully human monoclonal antibody directed against human transforming growth factor (TGF) -beta 1, 2 and 3 with potential antineoplastic activity. Fresolimumab binds to and inhibits the activity of all isoforms of TGF-beta, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell growth, angiogenesis, and migration. TGF-beta, a cytokine often over-expressed in various malignancies, may play an important role in promoting the growth, progression, and migration of tumor cells. |
| Fruit and Vegetable Extract | Extracts from plants, such as fruits and vegetables, that contain fiber, vitamins, minerals, and other natural substances with antioxidant, lipid-lowering, and antiproliferative properties. Used in chemoprevention therapy, these extracts may prevent the development or recurrence of cancer. (NCI04) |
| Fruquintinib | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, fruquintinib inhibits VEGF-induced phosphorylation of VEGFRs 1, 2, and 3 which may result in the inhibition of migration, proliferation and survival of endothelial cells, microvessel formation, the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation, and tumor cell death. Expression of VEGFRs may be upregulated in a ... |
| Fulvestrant | A synthetic estrogen receptor antagonist.  Unlike tamoxifen (which has partial agonist effects) and the aromatase inhibitors (which reduce the estrogen available to tumor cells), fulvestrant binds competitively to estrogen receptors in breast cancer cells, resulting in estrogen receptor deformation and decreased estrogen binding. In vitro studies indicate that fulvestrant reversibly inhibits the growth of tamoxifen-resistant, estrogen-sensitive, human breast cancer cell lines. (NCI04) |
| Fumagillin-Derived Polymer Conjugate XMT-1107 | A polymeric prodrug consisting of the fumagillol-derived small molecule XMT-1191 tethered to the hydrophilic, biodegradable70 kDa polymer poly[1-hydroxymethylethylene hydroxymethylformal] (PHF) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, fumagillin-derived polymer conjugate XMT-1107 releases XMT-1191, which may inhibit angiogenesis through the irreversible inhibition of the methionine aminopeptidase 2 (METAP2); although the exact mechanism of action has y... |
| Fursultiamine | A nutritional supplement and vitamin B1 derivative, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, fursultiamine inhibits the expressions of octamer-binding transcription factor 4 (OCT-4), SRY (sex determining region Y)-box 2 (SOX-2), and Nanog homeobox (NANOG) in cancer stem cells (CSCs). This may inhibit the proliferation of CSCs thereby preventing tumor cell growth. In addition, fursultiamine inhibits the expression of ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transporters subfamily B ... |
| Futibatinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Futibatinib selectively and irreversibly binds to and inhibits FGFR, which may result in the inhibition of both the FGFR-mediated signal transduction pathway and tumor cell proliferation, and increased cell death in FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR is a receptor tyrosine kinase essential to tumor cell proliferation, differentiation and survival and its expression is up... |
| Futuximab | A recombinant, chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; ErbB1; HER1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, futuximab targets and binds to an epitope located in the extracellular domain (ECD) of EGFR, which causes internalization and degradation of EGFR, including the mutated EGFR variant III (EGFRvIII). This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling, thereby inhibiting EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation. EGFR, a receptor tyr... |
| Futuximab/Modotuximab Mixture | A mixture of two recombinant IgG1 antibodies directed against different epitopes in the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) extracellular domain III, with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody mixture Sym004 binds to the extracellular domain of EGFR, thereby preventing ligand binding. This may prevent activation and subsequent dimerization of the receptor; the decrease in receptor activation may result in an inhibition of downstream ERK and JNK signaling pathway... |
| Fuzheng Yiliu Decoction | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) formulation composed of many different herbs, including Raw land, Zhimu, raw jaundice, fairy spleen, Bayu Tian, Quanqi, Atractylodes, Poria, Licorice, Cork, American ginseng, Tortoiseshell, and Hedyotis diffusa, with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of fuzheng yiliu decoction, the active ingredients may inhibit several tumor signaling pathways, may induce apoptosis in tumor cells and inhibit t... |
| Fuzuloparib | An orally available inhibitor of poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) types 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, fuzuloparib inhibits PARP 1 and 2 activity, which inhibits PARP-mediated repair of damaged DNA via the base excision repair (BER) pathway, enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks, promotes genomic instability, and leads to an induction of apoptosis. The PARP family of proteins catalyze post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear protei... |
| G Protein-coupled Estrogen Receptor Agonist LNS8801 | An orally bioavailable selective agonist of the G protein-coupled estrogen receptor (G protein-coupled estrogen receptor 1; GPER; GPER1; GPR30), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, LNS8801 targets, binds to and activates GPER. This activates GPER-mediated signaling and suppresses the expression of various tumor-associated genes, such as c-Myc and programmed cell death-ligand 1 (PD-L1). This leads to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation... |
| G250 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing of a synthetic form of the renal cell carcinoma (RCC)-associated antigen G250 with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with G250 peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for the G250 antigen, resulting in decreased tumor growth. Found in the majority of renal cell carcinomas, G250 is a cell surface tumor-associated antigen (TAA) that contains an HLA-A2.1-restricted ... |
| Gadopiclenol | A gadolinium-based paramagnetic contrast agent, with potential imaging enhancing activity upon magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Upon administration of gadopiclenol and placement in a magnetic field, this agent produces a large magnetic moment and creates a large local magnetic field, which can enhance the relaxation rate of nearby protons. This change in proton relaxation dynamics, increases the MRI signal intensity of tissues in which this agent has accumulated; therefore, contrast and visu... |
| Gag:267-274 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine containing the amino acids 267 through 274 of the human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) gag core protein (gag:267-274), with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon vaccination, the immune system may exert a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the xenoantigen gag:267-274 and produces pro-inflammatory cytokines. The concomitant administration of a cancer peptide vaccine may benefit from an already activated immune system and may augment an immune res... |
| Galamustine | A galactose mustard compound, an alkylating agent, with antineoplastic activity. |
| Galarubicin | An anthracycline derivative with antineoplastic activity developed to circumvent doxorubicin resistance. |
| Galectin-1 Inhibitor OTX008 | A calixarene-based compound and galectin-1 (Gal-1) inhibitor with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, galectin-1 inhibitor OTX008 binds Gal-1 which leads to Gal-1 oxidation and proteasomal degradation, through an as of yet not fully elucidated mechanism, and eventually downregulation of Gal-1. This decreases tumor cell growth and inhibits angiogenesis. Gal-1, a multifunctional carbohydrate-binding protein, is often overexpressed on tumor ... |
| Galeterone | An orally bioavailable small-molecule androgen receptor modulator and CYP17 lyase inhibitor with potential antiandrogen activity. Galeterone exhibits three distinct mechanisms of action: 1) as an androgen receptor antagonist, 2) as a CYP17 lyase inhibitor and 3) by decreasing overall androgen receptor levels in prostate cancer tumors, all of which may result in a decrease in androgen-dependent growth signaling. Localized to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), the cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP17 (P45... |
| Galinpepimut-S | A peptide cancer vaccine comprised of four peptide chains derived from the Wilms' tumor gene 1 (WT1) protein, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, galinpepimut-S, which is comprised of one WT1-derived peptide (WT-A1) that may stimulate CD8-positive T-cell responses; two WT1 peptides (WT1-427 long, WT1-331 long) that may stimulate CD4-positive T-cell responses; and one modified peptide (WT1-122A1 long) that may stimulate both CD4-positive and CD8-... |
| Galiximab | A chimeric IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against CD80, the natural ligand for the T-cell antigen CD28 which mediates T-cell and B-cell adhesion. Galiximab binds to CD80 expressed on the cell surfaces of follicular lymphomas, resulting in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC). CD80 is expressed on activated B-cells and gamma-interferon-stimulated monocytes and is often expressed at low levels on the surfaces of follicular lymphoma cells and other lymphoid malignancies. |
| Gallium Ga 68/Copper Cu 64-labeled FAPI-XT117 | A radioconjugate composed of FAPI-XT117, a fibroblast activation protein  inhibitor (FAPi), labeled with the radionuclides gallium Ga 68 and copper Cu 64, with potential use as a tracer for FAP-expressing cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) during positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT). Upon administration of gallium Ga 68/copper Cu 64-labeled FAPI-XT117, the FAPI-XT117 moiety targets and binds to FAP-expressing CAFs. Upon binding, FAP-expressing cells can be detected duri... |
| Gallium Ga 68-labeled alphaVbeta6 Binding Peptide RAD 301 | A radiotracer composed of RAD301, which comprises an integrin alphaVbeta6 (aVb6) binding peptide (BP) and is radiolabeled with the radionuclide gallium Ga 68, with potential integrin aVb6 imaging activity using positron emission tomography (PET). Upon administration of gallium Ga 68-labeled alphaVbeta6 binding peptide RAD301, the aVb6-binding peptide moiety selectively targets and binds to integrin aVb6-positive cancer cells. During PET, aVb6-expressing tumor cells can be visualized and the d... |
| Gallium Ga 68-PSMA-617 | A radioconjugate composed of PSMA-617, a human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting ligand, conjugated to the radioisotope gallium Ga 68, with potential use as a tracer for PSMA-expressing tumors during positron emission tomography (PET)/computed tomography (CT). Upon intravenous administration of 68Ga-PSMA-617, the PSMA-617 moiety targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, PSMA-expressing tumor cells can be detected during PET/CT imaging. PSMA, a tumor-ass... |
| Gallium-based Bone Resorption Inhibitor AP-002 | An orally bioavailable gallium (Ga)-based small molecule agent with potential anti-bone resorption and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, AP-002 selectively inhibits osteoclast differentiation and bone resorption, and may promote the growth of osteoblasts thereby improving the skeletal sequelae of bony metastases which include pain, spinal cord compression, fractures and hypercalcemia of malignancy. Additionally, AP-002 may, through an as of yet undescribed mechanism of acti... |
| Galocitabine | An orally available 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) prodrug with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, galocitabine is converted into 5'-deoxy-5-fluorocytidine, 5'-deoxy-fluorouridine, and 5-FU. 5-FU is further metabolized into other cytotoxic metabolites that interfere with RNA and DNA synthesis via inhibition of thymidylate synthase. As a result, this agent eventually inhibits tumor cell growth. |
| Galunisertib | An orally available, small molecule antagonist of the tyrosine kinase transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-b) receptor type 1 (TGFBR1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, galunisertib specifically targets and binds to the kinase domain of TGFBR1, thereby preventing the activation of TGF-b-mediated signaling pathways. This may inhibit the proliferation of TGF-b-overexpressing tumor cells. Dysregulation of the TGF-b signaling pathway is seen in a number of cancers and ... |
| Gamboge Resin Extract TSB-9-W1 | An orally bioavailable extract from the yellow to brown gum-resin of the gamboge tree (genus Garcinia) belonging to the Clusiaceae (or Guttiferae) family, with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Gamboge resin extract TSB-9-W1 contains various active ingredients, including gambogic acid, formoxanthone A, betulin, betulinic acid, morellic acid, isomorellic acid, isogambogic acid, isomorellinol and desoxymorellin. Upon oral administration, the various active components of... |
| Gamitrinib | A resorcinolic-based mitochondrial-targeted heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) family inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, gamitrinib targets and inhibits the activity of Hsp90 heat shock proteins, such as TNF receptor-associated protein-1 (TRAP1). This induces the accumulation of the mitochondrial kinase PINK1 and the cytosolic E3 ubiquitin (Ub) ligase Parkin, ubiquitylates substrate proteins, and induces PINK1/Parkin-dependent mitophagy. Gamitrinib induces acut... |
| Gamma-delta Tocotrienol | An orally available nutritional supplement containing the gamma and delta forms of the vitamin E family member tocotrienol, with hypocholesterolemic, antithrombotic, antioxidant, and potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, gamma-delta tocotrienol accumulates in cancer cells and may exert their anti-cancer activity in part through 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase downregulation and/or degradation, cell cycle arrest, and induction of caspase-mediate... |
| Gamma-Secretase Inhibitor RO4929097 | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule gamma secretase (GS) inhibitor with potential antitumor activity. Gamma secretase inhibitor RO4929097 binds to GS and blocks activation of Notch receptors, which may inhibit tumor cell proliferation. The integral membrane protein GS is a multi-subunit protease complex that cleaves single-pass transmembrane proteins, such as Notch receptors, at residues within their transmembrane domains. Overexpression of the Notch signaling pathway has been correlated w... |
| Gandotinib | An orally bioavailable imidazopyridazine and inhibitor of Janus kinase 2 mutant V617F (JAK2V617F), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, gandotinib selectively and competitively inhibits the activation of JAK2V617F, which may result in the inhibition of the JAK-STAT signaling pathway and the induction of apoptosis in JAK2V617F-expressing tumor cells. JAK2V617F has a substitution of phenylalanine for valine at amino acid position 617 and plays a key role in tumor ce... |
| Ganetespib | A synthetic small-molecule inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) with potential antineoplastic activity. Ganetespib binds to and inhibits Hsp90, resulting in the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic client proteins, the inhibition of cell proliferation and the elevation of heat shock protein 72 (Hsp72); it may inhibit the activity of multiple kinases, such as c-Kit, EGFR, and Bcr-Abl, which as client proteins depend on functional HsP90 for maintenance. Hsp90, a 90 kDa molecular chaperone... |
| Ganglioside GD2 | A cell surface antigen expressed on all tumors of neuroectodermal origin, including melanoma, neuroblastomas, sarcoma, astrocytomas, and small cell lung cancer. GD2, an O-acetylated disialoganglioside, belongs to the group of glycosphingolipids that are widely expressed in many tissues and organs in vertebrates and have been suggested to be involved in the regulation of development and differentiation as recognition molecules or signal modulators. Due to its high level of expression in neurob... |
| Ganglioside GM2 | A glycosphingolipid antigen expressed by a variety of human cancer cells. GM2 containing vaccines have been shown to elicit antibodies production in melanoma patients without deleterious effects associated with an immune response to GM2. Mutations in at least 1 of 3 recessive genes: HEXA, HEXB, and GM2A cause defects in GM2 catabolism, leading to lysosomal lipid storage disorders that manifest primarily as neurodegenerative diseases, including Tay-Sachs and Sandhoff Disease. |
| Ganitumab | A recombinant, fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor (IGF-1R) with potential antineoplastic activity. Ganitumab binds to membrane-bound IGF-1R, preventing binding of the ligand IGF-1 and the subsequent triggering of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway; inhibition of this survival signaling pathway may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. IGF-1R is a tyrosine kinase and a member of the in... |
| Ganoderma lucidum Spores Powder Capsule | An orally available powder-based nutritional supplement containing the spores of the mushroom Ganoderma lucidum (Ganoderma l.), a traditional Chinese medicine, with potential protective, sedative, anti-oxidant, immunomodulating, and antineoplastic activities. The spores contain various bioactive components including polysaccharides, triterpenoids, peptidoglycans, amino acids, fatty acids, vitamins, and minerals. Upon oral administration of the Ganoderma lucidum spores powder capsule, the acti... |
| Garivulimab | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1)-variant monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, garivulimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1). This reverses T-cell inactivation ... |
| Garlic | A bulbous herb isolated from the plant Allium sativum with potential antineoplastic activity. Garlic contains a number of different organosulfur compounds, some of which have displayed antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Garlic Extract | The alcoholic extract of the bulb or whole garlic plant Allium sativum (Liliaceae) with potential antineoplastic activity. The garlic plant has long been considered a beneficial plant for health and has been used as an antihelmintic, a rubefacient, an anti-infective, and an antihypertensive. Fresh or aged, garlic extracts contain compounds such as diallyl and allyl propyl disulfides with potent antioxidant, cholesterol-lowering properties; regular ingestion may be preventative for atheroscler... |
| Garsorasib | An orally available inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, garsorasib selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C mutant-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction leading to tumor cell growth, proliferation, invasion, and metas... |
| Gartisertib | An orally available inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related (ATR) kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration,gartisertib selectively inhibits ATR activity and blocks the downstream phosphorylation of the serine/threonine protein kinase CHK1. This prevents ATR-mediated signaling, which results in the inhibition of DNA damage checkpoint activation, the disruption of DNA damage repair, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. ATR, a serine/threonine pr... |
| Gastrin Immunotoxin | An immunotoxin containing an epitope of human gastrin conjugated to diphtheria toxin, with antineoplastic activity. The gastrin epitope in this vaccine is chemically identical or similar to the endogenous gastrin-17 (G-17), a 17-amino acid peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid by the stomach. Diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis via modifying translation elongation factor 2 (EF-2). Vaccination with this immunotoxin may elicit production of antibodies against gastrin... |
| Gataparsen Sodium | A second-generation antisense oligonucleotide against survivin mRNA with potential antitumor activity. Gataparsen hybridizes to survivin mRNA, thereby blocking translation of survivin protein, a member of the inhibitor of apoptosis (IAP) family. Survivin, expressed during embryonal development, is upregulated in a variety of human cancers while absent in most normal adult cells; its expression in tumors is associated with a more aggressive phenotype, shorter survival times, and a decreased re... |
| Gatipotuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody recognizing the tumor-specific epitope of mucin-1 (TA-MUC1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Gatipotuzumab targets and binds to the TA-MUC1 epitopes expressed on the cell surface of tumor cells, thereby potentially activating the immune system to induce an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) against the TA-MUC1-expressing tumor cells. TA-MUC1 is designated to MUC1 epitopes with O-glycosylated carbohydrate-induced conformational structures th... |
| Gavocabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a single-domain antibody that recognizes human mesothelin, fused to the N-terminus of the CD3-epsilon T-cell receptor (TCR) subunit which, upon expression is incorporated into the endogenous TCR complex, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, gavocabtagene autoleucel specifically target and bind to mesothelin-expressing tumor cells. This leads to T-cell activation and T-cell mediat... |
| GBM Antigens and Alloantigens Immunotherapeutic Vaccine | An orally bioavailable, immunotherapeutic vaccine composed of hydrolyzed and formulated glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) antigens and alloantigens derived from a pool of patients' cancer cells in the blood and samples of tumor tissues, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of the GBM antigens and alloantigens immunotherapeutic vaccine, the GBM antigens and alloantigens may stimulate the host immune system via antigen-presenting cells (APCs) linin... |
| GCN2 Inhibitor APL-4098 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase general control nonderepressible 2 (GCN2; eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2-alpha kinase 4; GCN2 EIF2alpha kinase; eIF-2-alpha kinase GCN2), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, GCN2 inhibitor APL-4098 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of GCN2. This prevents GCN2-mediated signaling and may induce apoptosis in tumor cells that rely on GCN2 ... |
| GD2 Lactone/GD3 Lactone-KLH Conjugate Bivalent Vaccine | A cancer vaccine, containing epitopes of the gangliosides GD2 and GD3 conjugated with the immunostimulant keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with GD2 lactone/GD3 lactone-KLH conjugate bivalent vaccine may elicit antibodies against tumor cells expressing either epitope, resulting in complement-mediated cytotoxicity (CMC) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC). Located primarily in the nervous system, gangliosides, such as GD2 ... |
| GD2-CAR-expressing Autologous T-lymphocytes | Genetically modified, autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a 14g2a.zeta chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the disialoganglioside GD2, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the activated T-lymphocytes target the GD2 antigen on tumor cells and selectively kill those cells. The tumor-associated antigen GD2 is overexpressed on the surface of almost all tumors of neuroectodermal origin. |
| GD2-KLH Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing an epitope of glycosphingolipid GD2 conjugated with the immunostimulant keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential antineoplastic activity.  The disialoganglioside GD2 is a tumor-associated antigen expressed on the surface of several cancers, including neuroblastoma medulloblastomas, astrocytomas, melanomas, small-cell lung cancer, osteosarcomas, and other soft tissue sarcomas. Vaccination with GD2-KLH vaccine may elicit antibody production against cells expre... |
| Gebasaxturev | A preparation of naturally occurring, oncolytic enterovirus, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, gebasaxturev targets and binds to intracellular adhesion molecule 1 (ICAM-1) and decay acceleration factor (DAF), both cell surface molecules that are overexpressed on certain malignant cells. After entering the cells, gebasaxturev replicates in these cancer cells, thereby causing cancer cell lysis. This results in a reduction of tumor cell growth. |
| Gedatolisib | An agent targeting the phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K) and mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) in the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, gedatolisib inhibits both PI3K and mTOR kinases, which may result in apoptosis and growth inhibition of cancer cells overexpressing PI3K/mTOR. Activation of the PI3K/mTOR pathway promotes cell growth, survival, and resistance to chemotherapy and radiotherapy; mTOR, a serine/threonine ki... |
| Gefitinib | An anilinoquinazoline with antineoplastic activity. Gefitinib inhibits the catalytic activity of numerous tyrosine kinases including the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), which may result in inhibition of tyrosine kinase-dependent tumor growth. Specifically, this agent competes with the binding of ATP to the tyrosine kinase domain of EGFR, thereby inhibiting receptor autophosphorylation and resulting in inhibition of signal transduction. Gefitinib may also induce cell cycle arrest and ... |
| Geldanamycin | A benzoquinone antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces hygroscopicus.  Geldanamycin binds to and inhibits the cytosolic chaperone functions of heat shock protein 90 (HSP90).  HSP90 maintains the stability and functional shape of many oncogenic signaling proteins; the inhibition of HSP90 promotes the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins that may be over-expressed or overactive in tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Gelonin | A class I ribosome-inactivating protein (RIP) and toxin derived from the seeds of the plant Gelonium multiflorum. Gelonin (rGel) exerts N-glycosidase activity on the 28S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) unit of eukaryotic ribosomes by cleaving out adenine at the 4324 site, which depurinates rRNA, inactivates ribosomes, inhibits protein synthesis, and results in cell death. Used as the toxin moiety of certain immunotoxins and linked to antibodies specific for a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), gelonin can ... |
| Gemcitabine | A broad-spectrum antimetabolite and deoxycytidine analogue with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, gemcitabine is converted into the active metabolites difluorodeoxycytidine diphosphate (dFdCDP) and difluorodeoxycytidine triphosphate (dFdCTP) by deoxycytidine kinase. dFdCTP competes with deoxycytidine triphosphate (dCTP) and is incorporated into DNA.  This locks DNA polymerase thereby resulting in "masked termination" during DNA replication. On the other hand, dFdCDP inhibits rib... |
| Gemcitabine Elaidate | A lipophilic, unsaturated fatty acid ester derivative of gemcitabine (dFdC), an antimetabolite deoxynucleoside analogue, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon hydrolysis intracellularly by esterases, the prodrug gemcitabine is converted into the active metabolites difluorodeoxycytidine di- and tri-phosphate (dFdCDP and dFdCTP) by deoxycytidine kinase. dFdCDP inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, thereby decreasing the deoxynucleotide pool available for DNA synthesis; dFdCTP is incorporate... |
| Gemcitabine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of an analogue of the antimetabolite nucleoside deoxycytidine with antineoplastic activity. Gemcitabine is converted intracellularly to the active metabolites difluorodeoxycytidine di- and triphosphate (dFdCDP, dFdCTP). dFdCDP inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, thereby decreasing the deoxynucleotide pool available for DNA synthesis; dFdCTP is incorporated into DNA, resulting in DNA strand termination and apoptosis. |
| Gemcitabine Hydrochloride Emulsion | An orally available nanoparticle-based formulation containing the hydrochloride salt form of gemcitabine, a broad-spectrum antimetabolite and deoxycytidine analogue, with antineoplastic activity. The formulation consists of an oil-in-water emulsion in which gemicitabine is solubilized in the excipient matrix containing a mixture of oil and (co)surfactants. Upon oral administration, gemcitabine is converted into the active metabolites difluorodeoxycytidine diphosphate (dFdCDP) and difluorodeox... |
| Gemcitabine Liposome FF-10832 | A liposomal formulation in which gemcitabine, a broad-spectrum antimetabolite and deoxycytidine analogue, is encapsulated in liposomes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of gemcitabine liposome FF-10832, gemcitabine is converted into the active metabolites difluorodeoxycytidine diphosphate (dFdCDP) and difluorodeoxycytidine triphosphate (dFdCTP) by deoxycytidine kinase. dFdCTP competes with deoxycytidine triphosphate (dCTP) and is incorporated into DNA, resulting in ... |
| Gemcitabine Prodrug LY2334737 | An orally available valproic acid prodrug of gemcitabine, a broad-spectrum antimetabolite and deoxycytidine analogue with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, gemcitabine prodrug LY2334737 is hydrolyzed by carboxylesterase 2 (CES2) and releases gemcitabine systemically over a period of time consistent with formation rate-limited kinetics. In turn, gemcitabine is converted into the active metabolites difluorodeoxycytidine diphosphate and triphosphate (dFdCDP and dFdCTP) by deoxycytidi... |
| Gemcitabine-Releasing Intravesical System | A controlled-release intravesical system consisting of a small flexible tube-like device with a solid core composed of gemcitabine, a broad-spectrum antimetabolite and deoxycytidine analogue, with antineoplastic activity. Upon placement of the gemcitabine-releasing intravesical system (GemRIS) into the bladder, gemcitabine is gradually and continuously released from the system over an extended period of time before being removed from the bladder. Upon release, gemcitabine is converted into th... |
| Gemogenovatucel-T | Autologous tumor cells transfected with a plasmid expressing recombinant human granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor (rhGM-CSF) and bifunctional short hairpin RNA (bi-shRNA) against furin, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal vaccination of gemogenovatucel-T, the expressed GM-CSF protein, a potent stimulator of the immune system, recruits immune effectors to the site of injection and promotes antigen presentation. The furin bifunctional s... |
| Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin | A recombinant, humanized anti-CD33 monoclonal antibody attached to the cytotoxic antitumor antibiotic calicheamicin.  In this conjugate, the antibody binds to and is internalized by tumor cells expressing CD33 antigen (a sialic acid-dependent glycoprotein commonly found on the surface of leukemic blasts), thereby delivering the attached calicheamicin to CD33-expressing tumor cells. Calicheamicin binds to the minor groove of DNA, causing double strand DNA breaks and resulting in inhibition of ... |
| Gene-edited Autologous Neoantigen-targeted NeoTCR-P1 T-cells | A preparation of autologous CD4- and CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that have been engineered with site-specific nucleases to suppress the expression of most endogenous forms of the T-cell receptor (TCR) and promote expression of a single, native TCR targeting a neoepitope that is presented on the surface of a patient's tumor cells, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the gene-edited autologous neoantigen-targeted NeoTCR-P1 T-cells... |
| Genetically Engineered NY-ESO-1-specific T Lymphocytes | A preparation of human T-lymphocytes recognizing the tumor-associated antigen (TAA), cancer/testis antigen 1 (NY-ESO-1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Genetically engineered NY-ESO-1-specific T-lymphocytes target tumor cells expressing the NY-ESO-1 antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. NY-ESO-1, an antigen found in normal testis, is overexpressed on the surface of various tumor cell types. |
| Genetically Modified Interleukin-12 Transgene-encoding Bifidobacterium longum | A live, genetically modified probiotic bacteria Bifidobacterium longum (B. longum) engineered to deliver genetic material encoding the human pro-inflammatory transgene interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunoactivating activity. Upon administration of genetically modified IL-12 transgene-encoding B. longum, the bacteria selectively colonize hypoxic tumor tissues and deliver plasmid DNA encoding the IL-12 transgene within the tumor microenvironment (TME). IL-12 is translated in cells and ... |
| Genetically-modified Anti-HER2-CAR-CD28zeta-expressing Allogeneic NK-92/5.28.z Cells | A preparation of genetically-modified natural killer (NK) cells derived from the allogeneic NK-92 cell line that are transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a codon-optimized chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) of the anti-human epidermal growth factor 2 (HER2; ErbB2) monoclonal antibody FRP5, and fused, via hinge and transmembrane regions, to the intracellular domain of the costimulatory molecule CD28, and the intracellular signaling d... |
| Genetically-modified MAGE-A3-expressing MG1 Maraba Virus Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of the attenuated, genetically-modified, oncolytic form of the Maraba virus, MG1, which has been engineered to express a gene encoding the cancer testis antigen melanoma antigen family A3 (MAGE-A3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of genetically-modified MAGE-A3-expressing MG1 Maraba virus vaccine, the attenuated Maraba virus selectively and rapidly replicates in cancer cells; however, it is unable to replicate in normal, healthy cells. This in... |
| Genistein | A soy-derived isoflavone and phytoestrogen with antineoplastic activity. Genistein binds to and inhibits protein-tyrosine kinase, thereby disrupting signal transduction and inducing cell differentiation.  This agent also inhibits topoisomerase-II, leading to DNA fragmentation and apoptosis, and induces G2/M cell cycle arrest.  Genistein exhibits antioxidant, antiangiogenic, and immunosuppressive activities. (NCI04) |
| Genistein Sodium Dihydrate | The sodium salt dihydrate form of crystalline genistein, a soy-derived isoflavone and phytoestrogen, with potential antineoplastic, chemosensitizing, and antioxidant activities. Upon administration, genistein sodium dihydrate binds to and modulates the activities of the nuclear estrogen receptors ERalpha (ESR1) and ERbeta (ESR2), and activates the G-coupled estrogen receptor 1 (GPER1). In addition, this agent increases the expression of phosphatase and tensin homolog (PTEN), which deactivates... |
| Gentuximab | A recombinant, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR-2), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous injection, gentuximab specifically binds to VEGFR-2, preventing the binding of its ligand, vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). Inhibition of VEGFR-2 signaling may potentially inhibit tumor angiogenesis and decrease nutrient supply to tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell death. VEGFR-2 is... |
| Geranylgeranyltransferase I Inhibitor | A substance that inhibits protein geranylgeranyltransferase type 1 (GGTase-I), with potential antineoplastic activity. GGTase-I is involved in the posttranslational modification of a number of oncogenic GTPases, including K-Ras, N-Ras, RhoA, RhoC, Cdc42, RalA, RalB and Rac1. Inhibition of the prenylation of these oncogenic proteins inhibits both their oncogenic activity and membrane localization. This may result in cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. Protein geranylgeranylation, catayzed by GGTa... |
| GI-4000 Vaccine | A vaccine containing a heat-killed recombinant Saccharomyces cerevisiae yeast transfected with mutated forms of Ras, an oncogene frequently found in solid tumors, with potential immunostimulant and antitumor activity. Upon administration, GI-4000 vaccine elicits an immune response by stimulating a specific cytotoxic T-cell response against the mutated forms of Ras. This may lead to a destruction of cancer cells expressing a Ras mutation. |
| Giloralimab | An agonistic monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell surface antigen CD40, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, giloralimab binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types. This induces CD40-dependent signaling pathways, triggers the proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), and activates T-cells. This results in an enhanced cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. CD40, a cell surface receptor and member... |
| Gilteritinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; STK1; FLK2), AXL (UFO; JTK11), anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK; CD246), and leukocyte receptor tyrosine kinase (LTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, gilteritinib binds to and inhibits both the wild-type and mutated forms of FLT3, AXL, ALK and LTK. This may result in an inhibition of FLT3-, AXL-, ALK-, and LTK-mediated signal transduction pathways and reduced... |
| Gilteritinib Fumarate | The fumarate salt form of gilteritinib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; STK1; FLK2), AXL (UFO; JTK11), anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK; CD246), and leukocyte receptor tyrosine kinase (LTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, gilteritinib binds to and inhibits both the wild-type and mutated forms of FLT3, AXL, ALK and LTK. This may result in an inhibition of FLT3-, AXL-, ALK-, and LTK-mediated ... |
| Gimatecan | An orally bioavailable, semi-synthetic lipophilic analogue of camptothecin, a quinoline alkaloid extracted from the Asian tree Camptotheca acuminate, with potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. Gimatecan binds to and inhibits the activity of topoisomerase I, stabilizing the cleavable complex of topoisomerase I-DNA, which inhibits the religation of single-stranded DNA breaks generated by topoisomerase I; lethal double-stranded DNA breaks occur when the topoisomerase I-DNA comp... |
| Gimeracil | A pyridine derivative with antitumor activity. Gimeracil enhances the antitumor activity of fluoropyrimidines by competitively and reversibly inhibiting the enzyme dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase causing decreased degradation of the fluoropyrimidines. |
| Gimistotug | An agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, gimistotug selectively binds to OX40, thereby activating OX40. This induces the proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes and results in a T-cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells, which leads to tumor cell lysis. OX40, a cell surface glycoprote... |
| Ginger Extract | An extract of the rhizome of the perennial plant Zingiber officinale with potential antineoplastic activity. Ginger extract contains a number of different phenolic compounds, some of which have displayed antineoplastic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant activities. This agent also exhibits antiemetic properties. |
| Ginisortamab | A monoclonal antibody directed against gremlin-1 (GREM1; Drm), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ginisortamab specifically targets and binds to gremlin-1, thereby neutralizing Gremlin-1. This may block the gremlin-1-mediated inhibition of bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) signaling pathways, and may lead to the inhibition of tumor cell growth and proliferation. Gremlin-1, a BMP antagonist that is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, is involved in cancer ... |
| Ginseng Compound | A compound containing the traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) ginseng, a herb belonging to the Araliaceae family, with potential antioxidant, chemopreventive, anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the ginseng compound, the active ingredients, mainly ginsenosides, inhibit various signal transduction pathways that play key roles in carcinogenesis and inflammation. This leads to the induction of apoptosis in and inhibits proliferation of tumor cells. In addition,... |
| Ginseng/Lingzhi Mushroom/Cordyceps sinensis/Rose Oral Liquid | An orally available supplement containing ginseng, lingzhi mushroom, Cordyceps sinensis, and rose with potential immunostimulating activities. Upon oral administration, ginseng/lingzhi mushroom/Cordyceps sinensis/rose oral liquid may, through a not yet elucidated mechanism, enhance immune responses and relieve fatigue. |
| Ginsenoside Rg3 Capsule | A capsule containing the steroidal saponin ginsenoside Rg3 isolated from the root of Panax ginseng, with potential cancer preventive and anti-angiogenic activities. Upon oral administration, ginsenoside Rg3 appears to inhibit endothelial cell proliferation, migration and tubular formation, and promotes cancer cell apoptosis. This agent also modulates the activities of certain growth factors, such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and matrix m... |
| Giredestrant | An orally available selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, giredestrant specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that promotes ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Girentuximab | A chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against G250, a cell surface antigen found in the majority of renal cell carcinomas. Following binding, monoclonal antibody G250 (mAb G250) may be internalized by G250 antigen-expressing renal carcinoma cells; mAb G250 may be useful as a carrier for radioisotopes and other antineoplastic therapeutic agents. (NCI05) |
| Girodazole | A compound isolated from the marine sponge Pseudaxinyssa cantharella exhibiting anti-tumor activity.  Studies indicate girodazole acts during the elongation/termination steps of protein synthesis, resulting in protein synthesis inhibition. (NCI) |
| GITRL RNA-transfected Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | An autologous dendritic cell (DC) cancer vaccine with potential immunostimulatory activity. GITRL RNA-transfected autologous DC vaccine is prepared by transfecting DCs with RNAs encoding tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 18 (TNFSF18 or GlTRL); expression of GlTRL results in modulating T lymphocyte survival in peripheral tissues. Co-vaccination of this vaccine with melanoma antigen specific vaccine may eliminate the adverse effects associated with systemic administration of im... |
| Givastomig | A bispecific antibody composed of a human, Fc-silenced immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) fused with a single chain variable fragment (scFv) targeting 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, givastomig simultaneously targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells... |
| Givinostat | An orally bioavailable hydroxymate inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC) with potential anti-inflammatory, anti-angiogenic, and antineoplastic activities. Givinostat inhibits class I and class II HDACs, resulting in an accumulation of highly acetylated histones, followed by the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. At low, nonapoptotic concentrations, this agent inhibits the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines such as tumor necrosis factor- (TNF-)... |
| Glasdegib | An orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of the Hedgehog (Hh) signaling pathway with potential antineoplastic activity. Glasdegib appears to inhibit Hh pathway signaling. The Hh signaling pathway plays an important role in cellular growth, differentiation and repair. Constitutive activation of Hh pathway signaling has been observed in various types of malignancies. |
| Glasdegib Maleate | The maleate salt form of glasdegib, an orally bioavailable small-molecule, smoothened (SMO) receptor inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, glasdegib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SMO. This inhibits the activity of the Hedgehog (Hh) signaling pathway and inhibits the growth of tumor cells in which this pathway is aberrantly activated. SMO, a transmembrane protein, is involved in Hh signal transduction. The Hh signaling pathway plays an im... |
| Glaucarubolone | A polycyclic lactone quassinoid phytochemical isolated from the seeds of Hannoa undulata and other plant species with potential antineoplastic activity.  This agent also has antiviral and antitumor properties. (NCI04) |
| Glecirasib | An orally available inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, glecirasib selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the KRAS G12C mutant, thereby inhibiting KRAS G12C mutant-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction leading to tumor c... |
| Glembatumumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate, consisting of the fully human monoclonal antibody CR011 directed against glycoprotein NMB (GPNMB) and conjugated via a cathepsin B-sensitive valine-citrulline (vc) linkage to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody CR011 moiety binds to glycoprotein nmb (GPNMB), expressed on the surfaces of a variety of cancer cell types; upon endocytosis, the synthetic dolastin analogu... |
| Glesatinib | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule, multitargeted tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Glesatinib binds to and inhibits the phosphorylation of several receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs), including the c-Met receptor (hepatocyte growth factor receptor); the Tek/Tie-2 receptor; vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) types 1, 2, and 3; and the macrophage-stimulating 1 receptor (MST1R or RON). Inhibition of these RTKs and their downstream signaling path... |
| Glioblastoma Cancer Vaccine ERC1671 | A cancer vaccine composed of a combination of autologous glioblastoma (GBM) tumor cells, allogeneic GBM tumor cells, generated from three different GBM donor cancer patients, and the lysates of all of these cells, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intradermal administration of GBM cancer vaccine ERC1671, the mixture of the autologous and allogeneic cells and lysates stimulates the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against GBM-associated antigens, which ... |
| Glioblastoma Multiforme Multipeptide Vaccine IMA950 | A cancer vaccine comprised of 11 peptides associated with glioblastoma multiforme (GBM), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with glioblastoma multiforme multi-antigen vaccine IMA950 stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response as well as a T-helper (Th) immune response against tumor cells expressing these peptides, potentially resulting in decreased tumor growth of GBM. Peptides in IMA950 consist of the following: b... |
| Glioma Lysate Vaccine GBM6-AD | An allogeneic cell lysate-based vaccine derived from the glioma stem cell line GBM6-AD, which was isolated from the brain tumor of a patient diagnosed with glioblastoma multiforme (GBM), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, the glioma lysate vaccine GBM6-AD exposes the immune system to an undefined amount of glioma-associated antigens (GAAs), and stimulates the immune system to mount a specific anti-tumoral, cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (... |
| Glioma-Associated Antigen Peptide-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of autologous dendritic cells pulsed with synthetic glioma-associated antigen (GAA) peptides with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, this vaccine may stimulate anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against GAA peptide-expressing glioma cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Glioma-associated Peptide-loaded Dendritic Cell Vaccine SL-701 | A cell-based cancer vaccine comprised of dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with various, synthetic glioma-associated antigen (GAA) peptides, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, the glioma-associated peptide-loaded DC vaccine SL-701 exposes the immune system to various GAA peptides. This may stimulate both anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against the GAA-expressing glioma cells, which may result in tumor cell lysis. |
| Globo H-DT Vaccine OBI-833 | A carbohydrate-based vaccine comprised of the Globo H hexasaccharide 1 (Globo H) antigen conjugated to DT-CRM197, a non-toxic, mutated form of diphtheria toxin (DT), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of Globo H-DT vaccine OBI-833, the carbohydrate antigen Globo H may stimulate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against Globo H-expressing tumor cells, thereby decreasing tumor cell proliferation. The hexasaccharide Globo H is a tumor-associ... |
| Globo H-GM2-Lewis-y-MUC1-32-mer-TF(c)-Tn(c)-KLH Conjugate Vaccine | A multivalent vaccine comprised of the epitope antigens of Globo H hexasaccharide 1 (Globo H), GM2 ganglioside, Lewis-Y, MUC1-32-mer, TF(c), and Tn(c) conjugated with keyhole limpet hemocyanin, with potential antineoplastic activity. The antigens included in this vaccine are associated various cancer cells. Vaccination with this multivalent vaccine may induce production of IgG and IgM antibodies as well as an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumors expressing these... |
| Globo-H-GM2-Lewis-y-MUC1-32(aa)-sTn(c)-TF(c)-Tn(c)-KLH Conjugate Vaccine | A heptavalent vaccine consisting of the tumor-associated carbohydrate antigens globohexaosylceramide (globo-H), GM2, Lewis-y, MUC1-32(aa), sTn(c), TF(c), and Tn(c) conjugated with keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), an immunomodulator.  This vaccine may induce the production of IgG and IgM antibodies and an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumors expressing these antigens. (NCI04) |
| Glucarpidase | A zinc-dependent enzyme isolated from a strain of the bacterium Pseudomonas. Because glucarpidase rapidly hydrolyzes methotrexate into inactive metabolites, it may be useful as a rescue agent for methotrexate-induced nephrotoxicity. In antibody-directed enzyme prodrug therapy (ADEPT), this agent is conjugated with an antibody that binds to a specific tumor cell type, allowing for glucarpidase-catalyzed activation of a co-administered prodrug at the site of the tumor. |
| Glucocorticoid Receptor Antagonist ORIC-101 | A mifepristone-based steroidal glucocorticoid receptor (GR) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ORIC-101 selectively binds to GRs, thereby inhibiting the activation of GR-mediated proliferative and anti-apoptotic gene expression pathways. The GR, a member of the nuclear receptor superfamily of ligand-dependent transcription factors, is overexpressed in certain tumor types and may be associated with tumor cell proliferation and treatment resistance. Inh... |
| Glufosfamide | A compound consisting of the mustard agent ifosforamide conjugated to glucose, with potential alkylating activity. Glufosfamide is cleaved by glucosidases in tumor cells and forms ifosforamide. In turn, ifosforamide alkylates and forms DNA crosslinks, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and subsequent cell growth. The glucose moiety may enhance this agent's uptake by tumor cells. |
| Glutaminase-1 Inhibitor IACS-6274 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the metabolic enzyme glutaminase-1 (GLS1), with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon oral administration, IACS-6274 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits human GLS1, an enzyme that is essential for the conversion of the amino acid glutamine into glutamate. Blocking glutamine metabolism inhibits proliferation in rapidly growing tumor cells and leads to an induction of cell death. Unlike normal healthy cells, glutamine-dependen... |
| Glutathione Pegylated Liposomal Doxorubicin Hydrochloride Formulation 2B3-101 | A glutathione (GSH) pegylated, liposome-encapsulated preparation of the hydrochloride salt form of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin, with potential anetineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the glutathione pegylated liposomal formulation 2B3-101 specifically delivers doxorubicin into the brain. Doxorubicin intercalates between DNA base pairs and interferes with topoisomerase II activity, which inhibits both DNA replication and RNA synthesis, resulting in cancer cel... |
| Glyco-engineered Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody CHO H01 | A glyco-engineered monoclonal antibody directed against the human B-cell-specific cell surface antigen CD20, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration of glyco-engineered anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody CHO H01, the antibody specifically targets and binds to CD20. This induces antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CD20-expressing B-cells, which leads to B-cell apoptosis and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. In addition, C... |
| Glycooptimized Trastuzumab-GEX | A glycoengineered form of a monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor-2 (HER2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Glycooptimized trastuzumab-GEX specifically binds to the extracellular domain of HER2, thereby inducing an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against HER2-expressing tumor cells. This eventually results in apoptosis and growth inhibition of tumor cells. HER2, a member of the receptor tyrosine kinase EGFR superfamily, is... |
| GM.CD40L Cell Vaccine | A cell-based vaccine composed of irradiated tumor cells transduced with granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) and CD40-ligand (CD40L) genes. Upon administration, this vaccine may stimulate an anti-tumoral dendritic cell-mediated host immune response. (NCI05) |
| GM2/GD2/GD3 Lactone-KLH Conjugate Trivalent Vaccine | A trivalent cancer vaccine containing the ganglioside lactones GM2, GD2 and GD3 conjugated with the immunostimulant keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with GM2 lactone/GD2 lactone/GD3 lactone-KLH conjugate trivalent vaccine may elicit antibodies against tumor cells expressing any of these epitopes, resulting in an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumor cells expressing these gangliosides. GM2, GD2 and GD3 are tumor ... |
| GM2-KLH Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of GM2 ganglioside, a melanoma-specific antigen, conjugated with the immunostimulant keyhole limpet hemocyanin. Vaccination with GM2-KLH vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against GM2 ganglioside-expressing melanoma cells, resulting in tumor growth inhibition. (NCI04) |
| GM2-KLH Vaccine/QS21 | A cancer vaccine based on the immunogenic ganglioside GM2, The GM2-KLH Vaccine/QS21 vaccine consists of GM2 conjugated with KLH keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), a potent immunostimulant, and is admixed with the adjuvant QS21, a saponin fraction extracted from the bark of the South American tree Quillaja saponaria Molina. GM2 is a cell surface carbohydrate antigen expressed by most melanoma cells and various other tumor cell types. (NCI04) |
| GM-CSF DNA | DNA that encodes granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF).  GM-CSF enhances the host immune response to poorly immunogenic tumors, possibly by activating T-cell and macrophage anti-tumor responses, and, so, decreasing tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| GM-CSF-encoding Oncolytic Adenovirus CGTG-102 | A recombinant, oncolytic serotype 5/3 capsid-modified adenovirus encoding the immunostimulatory cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the oncolytic adenovirus selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, which may result in tumor cell lysis. Synergistically, GM-CSF (sargramostim) expressed by the oncolytic adenovirus enhances antigen presentation, promotes natural killer (NK) cell-mediated killing ... |
| GM-CSF-secreting MVX-2-loaded Capsules/Autologous Irradiated Tumor Cell Vaccine MVX-ONCO-2 | A cancer vaccine composed of autologous irradiated tumor cells and two implantable capsules loaded with MVX-2 cells, which contain allogeneic genetically modified cells that continuously release granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of GM-CSF-secreting MVX-2-loaded capsules/autologous irradiated tumor cell vaccine MVX-ONCO-2, the MVX-2-loaded capsules and the autologous irradiated cells is... |
| GM-K562 Cell Vaccine | A cell-based vaccine comprised of K562 cells transfected with the granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF) gene with potential immunopotentiating properties. Vaccination with GM-K562 cells may stimulate the host immune system to produce an antitumoral T-lymphocyte response, thereby inhibiting tumor growth. K562 cells are derived from the human erythroleukemia cell line K562. GM-CSF (also known as sagramostim) expressed by vaccine cells binds to specific cell surface receptors... |
| GNAQ/GNA11 Antagonist DYP688 | An antagonist of guanine nucleotide-binding protein G(q) subunit alpha (GNAQ)/ guanine nucleotide-binding protein subunit alpha-11 (GNA11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, GNAQ/GNA11 antagonist DYP688 inhibits the activity of GNAQ/GNA11 and prevents GNAQ/GNA11-mediated signaling. This may prevent proliferation in tumors overexpressing and/or harboring mutations of GNAQ/GNA11. GNAQ and GNA11 are involved in carcinogenesis and are mutated in certain melanomas. |
| GnRH Antagonist SHR7280 | An orally bioavailable gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor antagonist, with potential hormone production inhibitory activity. Upon oral administration, GnRH antagonist SHR7280 competes with GnRH for receptor binding and inhibits GnRH receptor signaling in the anterior pituitary gland, thereby inhibiting the secretion and release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). In males, the inhibition of LH secretion prevents the release of testosterone. Since te... |
| GnRH Antagonist VERU-100 | A long-acting depot formulation of a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor antagonist decapeptide, with potential hormone production inhibitory activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, GnRH antagonist VERU-100 competes with GnRH for receptor binding and inhibits GnRH receptor signaling in the anterior pituitary gland, thereby inhibiting the secretion and release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). In males, the inhibition of LH secretion prevents th... |
| Gocatamig | A recombinant antibody derivative composed of tri-specific T-cell activating construct (TriTAC) containing three humanized antibody derived binding domains: a N-terminal single chain Fv (scFv) that binds to the epsilon domain of CD3 antigen (CD3e) of the T cell receptor (TCR), a middle single domain antibody (sdAb) that binds to human serum albumin (HSA) to extend the half-life, and a C-terminal sdAb that binds to human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) delta-like protein 3 (DLL3; delta like can... |
| Golcadomide | A modulator of the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex containing cereblon (CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, golcadomide specifically binds to cereblon (CRBN), thereby affecting the ubiquitin E3 ligase activity, and targeting certain substrate proteins for ubiquitination. This induces proteasome-mediated degradation of certain transcription factors, some of which are transcriptional repressors in T-cells. This leads to... |
| Gold Sodium Thiomalate | The sodium salt of gold thiomalic acid, an organogold compound with antirheumatic and potential antineoplastic activities. Gold sodium thiomalate (GST) appears to inhibit the activity of atypical protein kinase C iota (PKCiota) by forming a cysteinyl-aurothiomalate adduct with the cysteine residue Cys-69 within the PB1 binding domain of PKCiota. This prevents the binding of Par6 (Partitioning defective protein 6) to PKCiota, thereby inhibiting PKCiota-mediated oncogenic signaling, which may r... |
| Golidocitinib | An orally available inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 1 (JAK1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, golidocitinib inhibits JAK-dependent signaling and may lead to an inhibition of cellular proliferation in JAK1-overexpressing tumor cells. The JAK-STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) signaling pathway is a major mediator of cytokine activity and is often dysregulated in a variety of tumor cell types. Additionally, JAK1 may be a primary driver... |
| Golnerminogene Pradenovec | A recombinant agent consisting of a genetically-modified adenovirus 5 vector encoding the protein cytokine tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha. TNF exhibits potent anti-tumor cytolytic properties; the adenovirus 5 vector efficiently infects tumor cells, delivering tumor-specific TNF. |
| Golotimod | An orally bioavailable synthetic peptide containing the amino acids D-glutamine and L-tryptophan connected by a gamma-glutamyl linkage with potential immunostimulating, antimicrobial and antineoplastic activities. Although the exact mechanism of action is unknown, golotimod appears to inhibit the expression of STAT-3, reversing immunosuppression and stimulating an anti-tumor immune response. This agent may stimulate the production of T-lymphocytes, in particular the helper T (Th1) cells, acti... |
| Golvatinib | An orally bioavailable dual kinase inhibitor of c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor) and VEGFR-2 (vascular endothelial growth factor receptor-2) tyrosine kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. c-Met/VEGFR kinase inhibitor E7050 binds to and inhibits the activities of both c-Met and VEGFR-2, which may inhibit tumor cell growth and survival of tumor cells that overexpress these receptor tyrosine kinases. c-Met and VEGFR-2 are upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types and play i... |
| Gonadotropin-releasing Hormone Analog | A synthetic analogue of the endogenous hormone gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, GnRH analogue mimics endogenous GnRH and strongly binds to and activates pituitary GnRH receptors, which stimulates the synthesis and secretion of the gonadotropic hormones, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). Continuous, prolonged activation by the GnRH analogue results in pituitary GnRH receptor desensitization and re... |
| Gorilla-derived Adenovirus-expressing HPV-16/18 E6/E7 Vaccine | An off-the-shelf (OTS) cancer vaccine comprised of a genetically engineered, replication-deficient gorilla-derived adenovirus encoding human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18 E6/E7 antigens, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of gorilla-derived adenovirus expressing HPV-16/18 E6/E7 vaccine PRGN-2009, the adenovirus infects and expresses the HPV-16/18 E6/E7 proteins. The expressed proteins stimulate the host immune system to produce antigen-s... |
| Gorilla-derived Adenovirus-expressing HPV-6/11 Vaccine PRGN-2012 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) cancer vaccine comprised of a genetically engineered, replication-deficient gorilla-derived adenovirus encoding human papillomavirus (HPV) types 6 and 11, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of gorilla-derived adenovirus-expressing HPV-6/11 vaccine PRGN-2012, the adenovirus infects and expresses the HPV-6/11 proteins. The expressed proteins stimulate the host immune system to produce antigen-specific neutralizing antibodie... |
| Goserelin | A synthetic decapeptide analog of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) with antineoplastic activity. Goserelin binds to and activates pituitary gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) receptors. Prolonged administration of goserelin inhibits the secretion of pituitary gonadotropin, thereby decreasing levels of testosterone (in males) and estradiol (in females).  Administration of this agent in a depot formulation may result in the regression of sex hormone-sensitive tumors and a reducti... |
| Goserelin Acetate | The acetate salt of a synthetic decapeptide analog of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH).  Continuous, prolonged administration of goserelin in males results in inhibition of pituitary gonadotropin secretion, leading to a significant decline in testosterone production; in females, prolonged administration results in a decrease in estradiol production. (NCI04) |
| Goserelin Acetate Extended-release Microspheres LY01005 | A long-acting, extended-release microsphere formulation of the acetate form of goserelin, a synthetic decapeptide analog of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, goserelin binds to and activates pituitary gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptors. Prolonged administration of goserelin inhibits the secretion of pituitary gonadotropin, thereby decreasing levels of testosterone (in males) and estradiol (in females).  Admi... |
| Goserelin Acetate Extended-release Microspheres LY01022 | A long-acting, extended-release (ER) microsphere formulation of the acetate form of goserelin, a synthetic decapeptide analog of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of goserelin acetate ER microspheres LY01022, goserelin is released over an extended period of time and binds to and activates pituitary gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptors. Prolonged administration of goserelin inhibits the secretion of pituitary go... |
| Gossypol | An orally-active polyphenolic aldehyde with potential antineoplastic activity. Derived primarily from unrefined cottonseed oil, gossypol induces cell cycle arrest at the G0/G1 phase, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and inducing apoptosis. This agent also inhibits cell-signaling enzymes, resulting in inhibition of cell growth, and may act as a male contraceptive. |
| Gossypol Acetic Acid | The naturally occurring acetic acid form of gossypol, and an orally available polyphenolic aldehyde derived mostly from cottonseed with potential antineoplastic activity.  The biologic activities of gossypol acetic acid are similar to those of gossypol and include suppression of DNA replication, inhibition of tumor cell proliferation, and male contraceptive effects. (NCI04) |
| Gotistobart | A humanized, pH-sensitive immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4; CD152), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, gotistobart targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against ca... |
| gp100 Adenovirus Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of a replication-defective recombinant adenovirus that encodes the melanoma antigen glycoprotein 100 (gp100) with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with gp100 adenovirus vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for the gp100 antigen, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| gp100 Antigen | A melanoma-associated antigen.  When administered in a vaccine formulation, gp100 antigen may stimulate a cytotoxic T cell HLA-A2.1-restricted immune response against tumors that express this antigen, which may result in a reduction in tumor size. (NCI04) |
| gp100 Human Melanoma Peptide Vaccine with Incomplete Freund's Adjuvant | A vaccine consisting of synthetic glycoprotein 100 (gp100) melanoma antigen and incomplete Freund's adjuvant (IFA), an emulsifying agent and immune system stimulant, with antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination with gp100 human melanoma peptide vaccine with IFA may stimulate the host immune system to direct cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) against gp100 positive melanoma cells, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| gp100:154-162 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide consisting of amino acid residues 154 through 162 of the melanoma-melanocyte antigen gp100. Vaccination with gp100:154-162 peptide may enhance tumor-specific T-cell immunity. gp100 antigen is a self-antigen expressed by melanocytes, pigmented retinal cells, and most melanoma lesions and is recognized via class I and II HLA-restricted mechanisms. |
| gp100:209-217(210M) Peptide Vaccine | A synthetic peptide cancer vaccine consisting of amino acid residues 209 through 217 of the glycoprotein 100 (gp100) melanoma antigen, with a methionine substitution at position 210 designed to improve immunogenicity. Vaccination with gp100:209-217(210M) peptide may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing gp100. |
| gp100:280-288 Peptide Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of the amino acids 280 through 288 of the melanoma antigen glycoprotein 100 (gp100) with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination with gp100:280-288 peptide may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for the gp100 antigen, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| gp100:280-288(288V) Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine consisting of the amino acids 280 through 288 of the melanoma antigen glycoprotein 100 (gp100) with potential antineoplastic activity.  gp100:280-288(288V) peptide has a valine substitution at amino acid position 288 to improve immunogenicity. Vaccination with gp100:280-288(288V) peptide may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for the gp100 antigen, resulting in decreased tumor growth. |
| gp100-Fowlpox Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of a recombinant fowlpox virus vector encoding the melanoma antigen glycoprotein 100 (gp 100) with potential antineoplastic activity.  The expression of gp100 may generate a cellular immune response to melanoma cells; this effect is enhanced by the co-administration of interleukin 2 (IL-2). (NCI04) |
| GP2 Peptide/GM-CSF Vaccine | A vaccine containing a HER2/Neu-derived epitope (amino acids 654-662) (GP2), and combined with granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential antineoplastic and immunoadjuvant activity. Upon vaccination, GP2 may activate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against HER2/Neu expressing cancer cells. GM-CSF may potentiate a tumor-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cancer cells expressing the HER2/Neu antigen. HE... |
| gp209-2M Antigen | A modified peptide antigen derived from gp209, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. gp209-2M antigen (IMDQVPFSV) has a methionine substitution of threonine at position 2 of gp209 peptide (ITDQVPFSV), which is the immunogenic epitope of human melanoma tumor glycoprotein gp100. Vaccination with this peptide may evoke a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expression of the gp100 antigen. |
| GPC3-targeted Plasmid DNA Vaccine NWRD06 | A plasmid DNA therapeutic cancer vaccine encoding glypican-3 (GPC3), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of GPC3-targeted plasmid DNA vaccine NWRD06 and following electroporation, the plasmids enter the cells, and the cells express GPC3 and elicit a GPC3-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against tumor cells expressing GPC3. GPC3, a heparan sulfate proteoglycan and a member of the glypican family, is overexpressed... |
| GPR35 Inhibitor CT3001 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of G-protein coupled receptor 35 (GPR35) and formulated with polyethylene glycol 400 (PEG400), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, GPR35 inhibitor CT3001 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of GPR35. As GPR35 promotes the activity of the transcription coactivators yes-associated protein 1 (YAP) and transcriptional coactivator with PDZ-binding motif (TAZ), the inhibition of GPR35 decreases YAP/TAZ activity and prevents the ... |
| GPRC5D/BCMA/CD3-targeting T-cell Engager IBI3003 | A T-cell engager (TCE) targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D), and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, GPRC5D/BCMA/CD3-targeting TCE IBI3003 binds to CD3 expressed on T-cells, and BCMA and GPRC5D expressed on tumor cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells an... |
| G-Quadruplex Stabilizer BMVC | A carbazole derivative (3,6-bis[2-(1-methylpyridinium)vinyl]carbazole diiodide) that selectively targets to the G-quadruplex DNA structure, used as a fluorescent probe for cancer cytological diagnosis and with potential antitumor activity. G-quadruplex stabilizer BMVC, preferentially uptaken by cancer cells, binds to and stabilize the telomeric G-quadruplex structure at the end of DNA; when visualized with fluorescent imaging device, BMVC emits bright fluorescent light and can be used to diff... |
| G-Quadruplex-selective Transcription Inhibitor QN-302 | A naphthalene diimide (ND) derivative and selective G-quadruplex (G4) transcription inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, QN-302 targets and binds to highly stable G-quadruplex DNA sequences that are prevalent within the promoter regions of cancer-related genes, thereby further stabilizing these complexes. This stabilization prevents unwinding and inhibits transcription factor binding, which leads to an inhibition of target gene transcription and expression a... |
| Grapiprant | An orally bioavailable antagonist of the prostaglandin E receptor subtype 4 (EP4), with potential analgesic, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of grapiprant, this agent selectively binds to and inhibits the binding of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prevents the activation of the EP4 receptor. This inhibits PGE2-EP4 receptor-mediated signaling and prevents proliferation in tumor cells in which the PGE2-EP4 signaling pathway is over-activated. In addition, EP4 rec... |
| Green Tea | Tea derived from the dried leaves of the plant Camellia sinensis with potential antioxidant, chemopreventive, and lipid-lowering activities. Green tea contains polyphenols that are believed to be responsible for its chemopreventive effect. The polyphenol fraction contains mainly Epigallocatechin-3-gallate (EGCG) and other catechins, such as epicatechin (EC), gallocatechin gallate (GCG), epigallocatechin (EGC), and epicatechin gallate (ECG). Green tea polyphenols act as antioxidants and free r... |
| Green Tea Extract | A defined, decaffeinated green tea polyphenol mixture isolated from Camellia sinensis, a plant native to Asia, with antiviral and antioxidant activities and potential chemopreventive activity. Green tea extract contains antioxidant compounds, including flavonoids, vitamins and polyphenols such as epigallocatechin-3-gallate (EGCG), which may have antineoplastic properties. Consumption of green tea extract may confer chemopreventive protection against various cancers including those of the pros... |
| Green Tea Extract-based Antioxidant Supplement | A dietary supplement containing a green tea extract including the catechin epigallocatechin gallate and other vitamins and antioxidants, with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities. The polyphenols in green tea act as antioxidants and scavenge free radicals which may inhibit cellular oxidation and prevent free radical damage to cells. In addition, polyphenols may affect enzymes involved in cellular reproduction and tumor angiogenesis by modulating angiogenic factors. Other in... |
| Green Tea/Licorice Extract-based Antioxidant Solution | A nutritional supplement containing a variety of antioxidants, vitamins, minerals and amino acids, including glycyrrhizic acid, epigallocatechin gallate (EGCG), zinc, vitamins B5, B6 and B12, vitamin C (ascorbic acid), folic acid, malic acid, glucosamine, arginine, and glycine, with potential immunomodulating, anti-inflammatory, protective, and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, the antioxidants in the solution modulate certain enzymes involved in inflammation and oxidative ... |
| Gresonitamab | A half-life extended (HLE), bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) and the human T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, gresonitamab simultaneously binds to both CD3-expressing T-cells and CLDN18.2-expressing cancer cells, thereby crosslinking CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This re... |
| Gridegalutamide | An orally bioavailable androgen receptor (AR) degrader, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, gridegalutamide causes degradation of AR, prevents AR-mediated signaling and inhibits the proliferation of AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation in castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC). |
| Gruticibart | A humanized anti-factor XI (FXI) antibody, with potential anti-thrombotic activity. Upon administration, gruticibart targets and binds to the apple 2 domain of FXI, thereby preventing the binding of FXI to factor XIIa (FXIIa). This blocks factor XIIa-mediated FXI activation without inhibiting FXI activation by thrombin or the procoagulant function of FXIa. The abrogation of FXI activation prolongs the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and reduces platelet and fibrin accumulation. ... |
| GSK-3 Inhibitor LY2090314 | An inhibitor of glycogen synthase kinase-3 (GSK-3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, LY2090314 binds to and inhibits GSK-3 in an ATP-competitive manner. This prevents GSK-3-mediated phosphorylation of beta-catenin, which inhibits the subsequent ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of beta-catenin. This leads to the activation of the Wnt/beta-catenin pathway and the induction of apoptosis in susceptible tumor cells. GSK-3, a serine/threonine kinase, plays a ke... |
| GSPT1 MGD MRT-2359 | An orally bioavailable selective molecular glue degrader (MGD) of the translational termination factor GSPT1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MRT-2359 targets and binds to GSPT1, thereby promoting complex formation between the E3 ubiquitin ligase component cereblon (CRBN) and GSPT1, and inducing GSPT1 degradation in a CRBN- and degron-dependent manner. This downregulates L-MYC and N-MYC, thereby disrupting MYC-driven protein translation and reducing MYC-oncog... |
| Guadecitabine | A dinucleotide antimetabolite composed of a decitabine linked via phosphodiester bond to a deoxyguanosine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Following metabolic activation via cleavage of the phosphodiester bond and incorporation of the decitabine moiety into DNA, guadecitabine inhibits DNA methyltransferase, thereby causing non-specific, genome-wide hypomethylation, and induction of cell cycle arrest at S-phase. This agent is resistant to cytidine deaminase, which may result in gradual... |
| Guanabenz Acetate | The orally bioavailable, acetate salt form of guanabenz, a centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonist, with anti-hypertensive and potential antineoplastic, cytoprotective and bone resorption inhibitory activities. Upon oral administration, guanabenz suppresses endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress by inhibiting the stress-induced dephosphorylation of eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 alpha (eIF2a), thereby enhancing the phosphorylation level of eIF2a. This causes elF2a-mediated... |
| Guarana Supplement | An herbal supplement containing an extract from guarana (Paullinia cupana), a climbing plant of the Sapindaceae family which is native to the Amazon basin, with stimulant, antioxidant and potential chemoprotective activities. Guarana supplement contains various phytochemicals, including caffeine, theobromine, theophylline, tannins, saponins, catechins, epicatechins, proanthocyanidols and other compounds in minor concentrations. Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant and may reduce che... |
| Gumarontinib | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, gumarontinib targets and binds to the c-Met protein, thereby disrupting c-Met-dependent signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. c-Met protein is overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types and ... |
| Gunagratinib | A small molecule pan inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs), with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration,gunagratinib inhibits the activities of FGFRs, which may result in the inhibition of both tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation, and the induction of tumor cell death. FGFRs, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases upregulated in various tumor cell types, may be involved in tumor cell differentiation and proliferation... |
| Guretolimod | A synthetic, small molecule, toll-like receptor (TLR) 7 agonist, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, guretolimod activates TLR7, resulting in type I interferon secretion and activation of  cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated anti-tumor immune responses. TLR7 is a member of the TLR family, which plays a fundamental role in pathogen recognition and activation of innate immunity. |
| Guselkumab | An orally available, human, immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) kappa, monoclonal antibody directed against the p19 protein subunit of interleukin-23 (IL-23), with immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, guselkumab binds to the p19 subunit of IL-23, thereby blocking the binding of IL-23 to the IL-23 receptor. This inhibits IL-23-mediated signaling and the differentiation of CD4-positive T-cells into Th1 and Th17 cells. This prevents Th1- and Th17-mediated immune responses and inhibits the produc... |
| Gusperimus Trihydrochloride | A derivative of the antitumor antibiotic spergualin with immunosuppressant activity.  Gusperimus inhibits the interleukin-2-stimulated maturation of T cells to the S and G2/M phases and the polarization of the T cells into IFN-gamma-secreting Th1 effector T cells, resulting in the inhibition of growth of activated naive CD4 T cells; this agent may suppress growth of certain T-cell leukemia cell lines. (NCI04) |
| Gutolactone | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from the plant Simaba guianensis with potential antineoplastic and antimalarial activities. (NCI04) |
| H1299 Tumor Cell Lysate Vaccine | A cell lysate derived from a lung cancer cell line, H1299, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration, the H1299 tumor cell lysate exposes the immune system to an undefined amount of tumor associated antigens (TAA), particularly cancer testis antigens (CTAs), which may result in the induction of both anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL) and antibody-dependent responses against TAA-expressing cells, leading to tumor cell lysis. CTAs,... |
| H3.3K27M-specific Peptide Vaccine | A vaccine composed of a peptide derived from histone H3.3 containing the amino acid substitution mutation lysine (Lys) 27-to-methionine (H3.3K27M), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the H3.3K27M-specific peptide vaccine, the immune system may exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against H3.3K27M-expressing tumor cells. The H3.3K27M mutation alters the methylation and acetylation profile of the histone H3 variant H3.3... |
| H3K27M Long Peptide Vaccine | A vaccine composed of a twenty seven (27) amino acid long peptide derived from histone H3 containing the amino acid substitution mutation from lysine (Lys) to methionine (Met) at position 27 (H3K27M), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration of the H3K27M long peptide vaccine, the immune system may exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against H3K27M-expressing tumor cells. H3K27M is a tumor-associated antigen (TAA... |
| HAAH Lambda phage Vaccine SNS-301 | A nanoparticle-based cancer vaccine composed of a neutralized bacteriophage Lambda construct that is genetically engineered to contain peptide fragments of human aspartyl/asparaginyl beta-hydroxylase (HAAH; ASPH) on its surface and are fused to the C-terminus of the head protein of phage lambda gpD, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. HAAH lambda phage vaccine SNS-301 also contains DNA fragments representing the phage CpG motif that activate the MHC class II pathwa... |
| Hafnium Oxide-containing Nanoparticles NBTXR3 | A suspension of nanoparticles containing inert inorganic hafnium oxide (HfO2) crystals with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon injection of NBTXR3 in the tumor, the hafnium oxide-containing nanoparticles accumulate into the tumor cells. Subsequent application of radiation beams to the tumor tissue causes HfO2 particles to emit huge amounts of electrons. This results in the formation of free radicals within the tumor cells, which in turn causes targeted destruction of the cancer cells. Co... |
| Halichondrin Analogue E7130 | A halichondrin analogue derived from a marine sponge with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous infusion, halichondrin analogue E7130 may bind to the vinca domain of tubulin and inhibit the polymerization of tubulin and the assembly of microtubules, thereby inhibiting mitotic spindle assembly and inducing cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase. |
| Halofuginone | An orally-active quinazolinone alkaloid with potential antineoplastic activity. Halofuginone interferes with the signaling pathway of transforming growth factor beta (TGF beta) and inhibits expression of matrix metalloproteinase 2, thereby inhibiting collagen type I synthesis and inducing extracellular matrix degradation, resulting in inhibition of angiogenesis, tumor growth, or metastasis. |
| Halofuginone Hydrobromide | The hydrobromide salt of halofuginone, a semisynthetic quinazolinone alkaloid anticoccidial derived from the plant Dichroa febrifuga, with antifibrotic and potential antineoplastic activities. Halofuginone specifically inhibits collagen type I gene expression and matrix metalloproteinase 2 (MMP-2) gene expression, which may result in the suppression of angiogenesis, tumor stromal cell development, and tumor cell growth. These effects appear to be due to halofuginone-mediated inhibition of the... |
| Haploidentical Natural Killer Cells K-NK002 | A population of ex-vivo expanded and activated haploidentical donor-derived natural killer (NK) cells, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration prior to and following haploidentical hematopoietic cell transplantation, the haploidentical NK cells K-NK002 may induce an anti-tumor immune response and may exert cytotoxicity against tumor cells. |
| HBV mRNA Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of a mRNA delivery vector encapsulating messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding an unspecified antigen of hepatitis B virus (HBV), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the HBV mRNA vaccine, the mRNA delivery vector releases HBV mRNA into the cells. The mRNA is then translated by the cellular protein translation machinery to produce the HBV antigen. This results in the induction of antigen-specific CD8+ and CD4+ T-cell responses again... |
| HCV DNA Vaccine INO-8000 | A multi-antigen DNA vaccine consisting of plasmids encoding the hepatitis C virus (HCV) nonstructural proteins 3 (NS3), 4A (NS4A), 4B (NS4B) and 5A (NS5A), with potential immunomodulating and cancer preventive activities. Administered via intramuscular injection followed by electroporation, cells transfected with the HCV DNA vaccine INO-8000 express the encoded HCV proteins, which may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against HCV-infected liver cells expressing the NS3, NS4A, NS4... |
| HDAC Class I/IIb Inhibitor HG146 | An orally available inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC) classes I and IIb with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, HDAC I/IIb inhibitor HG146 selectively inhibits the catalytic activity of class I and IIb HDACs, which results in an accumulation of highly acetylated chromatin histones, the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. This leads to the inhibition of tumor oncogene transcription, and the selective transcription of tu... |
| HDAC Inhibitor MPT0E028 | An orally bioavailable N-hydroxyacrylamide-derived inhibitor of both human pan-histone deacetylase (HDAC) enzymes and the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, HDAC inhibitor MPT0E028 selectively binds to and inhibits HDACs, which inhibits deacetylation of histone proteins and leads to the accumulation of highly acetylated histones. This may result in both an induction of chromatin remodeling, and the selective tra... |
| HDAC Inhibitor OBP-801 | An inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC) enzymes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, OBP-801 inhibits the activity of HDACs; this results in an accumulation of highly acetylated chromatin histones, the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. This leads to selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes, tumor suppressor protein-mediated inhibition of tumor cell division and induction of tumor cell apoptosis. This may inhibit p... |
| HDAC Inhibitor REC-2282 | An orally available phenylbutyrate-derived histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, REC-2282 inhibits the catalytic activity of HDAC, which results in an accumulation of highly acetylated chromatin histones, the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. This leads to the inhibition of tumor oncogene transcription, and the selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes, which inhibits tumor cel... |
| HDAC/EGFR/HER2 Inhibitor CUDC-101 | A multi-targeted, small-molecule inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC), epidermal growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase (EGFR/ErbB1), and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 tyrosine kinase (HER2/neu or ErbB2) with potential antineoplastic activity. HDAC/EGFR/HER2 inhibitor CUDC-101 inhibits the activity of these three enzymes but the exact mechanism of action is presently unknown. This agent may help overcome resistance to inhibition of EGFR and Her2 through a simultaneous, synergist... |
| HDAC6 Inhibitor KA2507 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC) type 6 (HDAC6; HDAC-6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, KA2507 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of HDAC6. This results in an accumulation of highly acetylated chromatin histones, the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. Specifically, inhibition of HDAC6 prevents STAT3 activity, which leads to a reduction in programmed death-1 (PD-1) expression. Eventua... |
| HDAC8 Inhibitor NBM-BMX | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC) type 8 (HDAC8; HDAC-8), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, NBM-BMX targets and inhibits the activity of HDAC8. This results in an accumulation of highly acetylated chromatin histones, chromatin remodeling, and selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes, ultimately promoting cell-cycle arrest and induction of tumor cell apoptosis. HDAC8, a class 1 histone deacetylase, plays a key role in transcripti... |
| HDM2 Inhibitor MK-8242 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of human homolog of double minute 2 (HDM2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HDM2 inhibitor MK-8242 inhibits the binding of the HDM2 protein to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this HDM2-p53 interaction, the degradation of p53 is inhibited, which may result in the restoration of p53 signaling. This induces p53-mediated tumor cell apoptosis. HDM2 is a member of the RING fin... |
| Heat Shock Factor 1 Pathway Inhibitor NXP800 | An orally bioavailable fluorobisamide and heat shock factor 1 (HSF1) pathway inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HSF1 pathway inhibitor NXP800 targets and inhibits the activity of the HSF1-regulated pathway, thereby preventing HSF1-mediated transcription. This inhibits proliferation, migration, survival, and metastasis in susceptible tumor cells, especially in AT-rich interaction domain 1A (ARID1A)-mutated cancer cells. HSF1, a stress-inducible transcr... |
| Heat-treated bacterium Mycobacterium obuense IMM-101 | A suspension of heat-killed Mycobacterium (M.) obuense, a non-pathogenic and naturally-occurring bacterium, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration of heat-killed M. obuense IMM-101, the bacteria are able to activate the innate and adaptive immune system. Specifically, IMM-101 activates immature dendritic cells (DCs), which leads to the induction of a type-1 immune response (cDC1). This may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated i... |
| Hec1/Nek2 Inhibitor T-1101 Tosylate | The tosylate salt form of T-1101, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of highly expressed in cancer 1 (Hec1) and NIMA-related kinase 2 (Nek2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, T-1101 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the interaction of Hec1 with Nek2. This prevents Hec1/Nek2-mediated signal transduction pathways, inhibits mitosis, induces apoptosis and tumor cell proliferation. Hec1, overexpressed in some cancers, is located at the centromere during cel... |
| Hedgehog Inhibitor NLM-001 | A Hedgehog (Hh) pathway inhibitor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, Hh inhibitor NLM-001 targets the Hh pathway and disrupts the tumor microenvironment (TME) by decreasing cancer-associated fibroblasts and promoting immune cell infiltration into the TME. This may increase tumor penetration of chemotherapeutics and may enhance the activity of immunomodulating agents, such as immune checkpoint inhibitors. Hh signaling overactivation may increas... |
| Hemiasterlin Analog E7974 | An analog of the sponge-derived anti-microtubule tripeptide hemiasterlin with antimitotic and potential antineoplastic activities. Hemiasterlin analog E7974 binds to the Vinca domain on tubulin, resulting in inhibition of tubulin polymerization and microtubule assembly; depolymerization of existing microtubules; inhibition of mitosis; and inhibition of cellular proliferation. This agent may have more affinity for the beta-3 tubulin isotype. |
| Henatinib Maleate | The maleate salt form of henatinib, an orally bioavalable, multitargeted tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antitumor and antiangiogenic activities. Henatinib inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2), a tyrosine kinase receptor upregulated in many tumor cells that plays a key role in angiogenesis. This may result in an inhibition of angiogenesis and eventually tumor cell proliferation. Henatinib, structurally similar to sunitinib, also inhibits, though to a l... |
| Hepatitis B Virus Antisense Oligonucleotide AHB-137 | An unconjugated antisense oligonucleotide (ASO) targeting human hepatitis B virus (HBV), with potential antiviral activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, HBV ASO AHB-137 targets and binds to HBV messenger RNA (mRNA), thereby inhibiting the translation of HBV viral proteins. This may inhibit HBV replication. |
| HER2 ECD+TM Virus-like Replicon Particles Vaccine AVX901 | A cancer vaccine based on virus-like replicon particles (VRP) packaged with an alphaviral vector encoding the extracellular domain (ECD) and transmembrane (TM) regions of the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2, NEU or HER2), with potential antineoplastic activity. After immunization with HER2 ECD+TM virus-like replicon particles vaccine AVX901, the VRPs infect cells and express HER2 ECD+TM protein that may activate the immune system to elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) respon... |
| HER2 Inhibitor CP-724,714 | An orally bioavailable quinazoline with potential antineoplastic activity.  CP-724,714 selectively binds to the intracellular domain of HER2, reversibly inhibiting its tyrosine kinase activity and resulting in suppression of tumor cell growth.  HER2, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family, is overexpressed in many adenocarcinomas, particularly breast cancers. (NCI04) |
| HER2 Inhibitor DZD1516 | An orally bioavailable, blood brain barrier (BBB) penetrable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HER2 inhibitor DZD1516 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of HER2. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed on a variety of tumor cell types, plays an im... |
| HER2 Inhibitor ELVN-002 | An orally bioavailable, irreversible inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HER2 inhibitor ELVN-002 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of HER2 and various HER2 mutants, including Exon 20 insertion mutations (E20IMs), while not inhibiting wild-type (WT) EGFR. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and may lead to cell death in HER2-expressing tumor cell... |
| HER2 Inhibitor IAM1363 | An orally bioavailable, immediate release (IR) capsule formulation containing a selective and irreversible inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HER2 inhibitor IAM1363 selectively targets, irreversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of wild-type (WT) and various HER2 mutants. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and may lead to cell death in HER2-expressing... |
| HER2 Inhibitor SPH5030 | An orally bioavailable, irreversible inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HER2 inhibitor SPH5030 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of wild-type and various HER2 mutants. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and may lead to cell death in HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed on a variety of tumor cell types, pl... |
| HER2 Inhibitor TAS0728 | An orally available covalent inhibitor of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ERBB2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HER2 inhibitor TAS0728 specifically and irreversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of HER2. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in HER2- and HER3 (ErbB3)-expressing tumor cells. HER2, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated or overexpressed in many tumor cell types, play key roles in tumor cell proliferati... |
| HER2 Inhibitor ZN-A-1041 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HER2 inhibitor ZN-A-1041 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of HER2. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and may lead to cell death in HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed on a variety of tumor cell types, plays an important role in tumor cell prolif... |
| HER2 Mutant-selective Inhibitor NVL-330 | An orally bioavailable mutant-selective inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HER2 mutant-selective inhibitor NVL-330 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of HER2 oncogenic alterations, including HER2 exon20 insertion mutations (exon20ins), HER2 activating point mutations, and amplified wild-type HER2. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and may lead to cell death i... |
| HER-2/neu Intracellular Domain Protein | The cytoplasmic domain or intracellular domain (ICD) of the HER2/neu protein that exhibits tyrosine kinase activity. Based on sensitization theory, co-administration of trastuzumab (anti-HER-2/neu monoclonal antibody) and HER-2/neu intracellular domain protein may result in the potentiation of a HER2/neu-specific cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells overexpressing the HER2/neu protein. HER-2/neu protein, a glycoprotein cell surface receptor that is composed of an extracel... |
| HER-2/neu Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of peptides derived from the extracellular domain of the tumor-associated antigen Her-2/neu with potential antineoplastic activity. HER-2/neu peptide vaccine may induce antibodies with anti-tumor activity and may also elicit a specific CD8 T-cell response against specific tumor cell types. (NCI04) |
| HER2/neu Peptide Vaccine GLSI-100 | A cancer peptide vaccine comprised of the epitope GP2, a nine amino acid peptide (amino acids 654-662) derived from the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) HER2/neu (ErbB-2) and the immune-adjuvant granulocyte macrophage-colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration of the HER2/neu peptide vaccine GLSI-100, GP2 may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells expressing the HE... |
| HER-2/PD-L1-targeting CAR-T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-HER2/anti-PD-L1 CAR T-cells target and bind to HER2- and PD-L1-expressin... |
| HER2Bi-Armed Activated T Cells | Activated T cells (ATC) that have been coated with bispecific antibodies (BiAb), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. In vitro, T cells are activated through exposure to the anti-CD3 murine monoclonal antibody OKT3 and interleukin 2 for 14 days and then armed with anti-CD3 x anti-Her2 bispecific antibody (Her2Bi). Upon administration, HER2Bi-armed activated T cells attach to CD3-expressing T cells and HER2/neu-expressing tumor cells, selectively cross-linking T cells... |
| HER-2-positive B-cell Peptide Antigen P467-DT-CRM197/Montanide Vaccine IMU-131 | A cancer vaccine consisting of a fusion peptide, composed of three peptides derived from the extracellular domain (ECD) of the HER2 peptide antigen found on B-cells (P4, P6 and P7; P467), conjugated to the carrier protein DT-CRM197, a non-toxic, mutated form of diphtheria toxin (DT), and combined with the immunoadjuvant montanide ISA 51, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IMU-131 vaccine induces the production of polyclonal antibodies against ... |
| HER2-pulsed Autologous Type-1 Polarized Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A dendritic cell (DC)-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous, type-1 polarized dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted HER-2-derived peptides, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Autologous DCs were treated with GM-CSF, interleukin-4, interferon-gamma and bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS), a toll-like receptor type 4 agonist, to produce highly polarized DCs (alphaDC1) that are capable of producing high levels of interleuki... |
| HER2-targeted DARPin MP0274 | A proprietary, designed ankyrin repeat proteins (DARPin)-based agent targeting the tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Compared to antibodies, DARPins are small in size, have favorable pharmacokinetics and allow for both high affinity binding and efficacy. Upon administration, the HER2-targeted DARPin MP0274 binds to two distinct non-overlapping epitopes on HER2, thereby inhibiting the activity of HER2 and promotin... |
| HER2-targeted Hypoxia-stimulated CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a hypoxia-stimulated chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, HER2-targeted hypoxia-stimulated CAR T cells target and bind to HER2-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2 is over... |
| HER2-targeted Liposomal Doxorubicin Hydrochloride HF158K1 | An antibody liposomal formulation containing the hydrochloride (HCl) salt form of the antineoplastic anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin encapsulated within liposomes which contains TL01, a human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)-directed trastuzumab Fab fragment conjugated lipid, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of HER2-targeted liposomal doxorubicin HCl HF158K1, the immunoliposome targets and binds to HER2-expressing tumor cells, thereby allowing for spec... |
| HER2-targeted Liposomal Doxorubicin Hydrochloride MM-302 | An antibody-targeted lipidic nano-carrier containing the antineoplastic anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin encapsulated within liposomes, and conjugated to a monoclonal antibody against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), with potential antitumor activity. Upon administration of HER2-targeted liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride MM-302, the immunoliposome allows for specific delivery of doxorubicin to tumors overexpressing the HER2 receptor. Once inside the HER2-expressing t... |
| HER2-targeting Antibody Fc Fragment FS102 | A proprietary, antibody fragment composed of a constant (Fc) region that is engineered to bind to the tumor-associated antigen human epidermal growth factor receptor-2 (HER2), with potential antineoplastic activity. HER2-targeted antibody Fc fragment FS102 specifically binds to its HER2 epitope, and causes downregulation of HER2-mediated signaling. This leads to tumor cell apoptosis. HER2, a member of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) superfamily, is o... |
| Herba Scutellaria Barbata | A Chinese herb isolated from the plant Scutellaria barbata D. Don (Lamiaceae) with potential antineoplastic activity. Containing the antioxidant flavone scutellarin, herba Scutellaria barbata has been shown to induce apoptosis of ovarian and breast tumor cells in vitro. |
| Herbimycin | A benzoquinone antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces hygroscopicus.  Herbimycin binds to and inhibits the cytosolic chaperone functions of heat shock protein 90 (HSP90).  HSP90 maintains the stability and functional shape of many oncogenic signaling proteins; the inhibition of HSP90 promotes the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins that may be over-expressed or overactive in tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Heterodimeric Interleukin-15 | A fusion protein complex composed of heterodimeric IL-15 (hetIL-15), which consists of a synthetic form of the endogenous cytokine interleukin-15 chain (IL-15) complexed to the soluble IL-15 binding protein IL-15 receptor alpha chain (IL-15Ra) (IL15:sIL-15Ra), with potential immunomodulatory, anti-infective and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, hetIL-15 binds to the IL-2/IL-15 receptor beta-common gamma chain (IL-2Rbeta-gamma) receptor on natural killer (NK) and T-lymphocytes, w... |
| Hexamethylene Bisacetamide | A hybrid polar-planar compound with potential antineoplastic activity that induces terminal differentiation, inhibits cell growth, and causes apoptosis in several tumor cell lines.  Its precise mechanism of action is unknown. (NCI04) |
| Hexaminolevulinate | The hexyl ester of 5-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) with photodynamic properties. As a precursor of photoactive porphorins, hexyl 5-aminolevulinate induces the endogenous production of the photosensitizer protoporphyrin IX (PPIX) which accumulates selectively in tumor tissue. When exposed to specific wavelengths of light, PPIX is activated and, depending on the wavelength and/or intensity of light, either fluoresces, thereby allowing tumor imaging, or induces tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Hexylresorcinol | A substituted phenol with bactericidal, antihelminthic and potential antineoplastic activities. Hexylresorcinol is used as an antiseptic in mouthwashes and skin wound cleansers. Hexylresorcinol may also inhibit oxidative DNA damage by enhancing the activity of antioxidant enzymes, including glutathione peroxidase and glutathione reductase, which facilitate scavenging reactive oxygen molecules by glutathione (GSH). |
| HIF-1alpha Inhibitor PX-478 | An orally active small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Although its mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, HIF1-alpha inhibitor PX-478 appears to inhibit hypoxia-inducible factor 1-alpha (HIF1A) expression, which may result in decreased expression of HIF1A downstream target genes important to tumor growth and survival, a reduction in tumor cell proliferation, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. The inhibitory effect of this agent is independent of the tumo... |
| HIF2alpha Inhibitor DFF332 | An inhibitor of hypoxia inducible factor (HIF)-2alpha, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, HIF-2alpha inhibitor DFF332 targets and binds to HIF-2alpha, thereby preventing HIF-2alpha heterodimerization and its subsequent binding to DNA. This results in decreased transcription and expression of HIF-2alpha downstream target genes, many of which regulate tumor cell growth and survival. Blocking HIF-2alpha reduces the proliferation of HIF-2alpha-expressing tumor cells. HIF... |
| HIF-2alpha Inhibitor HS-10516 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of hypoxia inducible factor (HIF)-2alpha, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HIF-2alpha inhibitor HS-10516 targets and binds to HIF-2alpha, thereby preventing HIF-2alpha heterodimerization and its subsequent binding to DNA. This results in decreased transcription and expression of HIF-2alpha downstream target genes, many of which regulate tumor cell growth and survival. Blocking HIF-2alpha reduces the proliferation of HIF-2alpha-... |
| HIF2-alpha Inhibitor NKT2152 | An orally available inhibitor of hypoxia inducible factor (HIF)-2alpha, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HIF-2alpha inhibitor NKT2152 targets and binds to HIF-2alpha, thereby preventing HIF-2alpha heterodimerization and its subsequent binding to DNA. This results in decreased transcription and expression of HIF-2alpha downstream target genes, many of which regulate tumor cell growth and survival. Blocking HIF-2alpha reduces the proliferation of HIF-2alpha-expr... |
| HIF-2alpha Inhibitor PT2385 | An orally active, small molecule inhibitor of hypoxia inducible factor (HIF)-2alpha, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HIF-2alpha inhibitor PT2385 allosterically binds to HIF-2alpha, thereby preventing HIF-2alpha heterodimerization and its subsequent binding to DNA. This results in decreased transcription and expression of HIF-2alpha downstream target genes, many of which regulate tumor cell growth and survival. Blocking HIF-2alpha reduces the proliferation of ... |
| High-Selenium Brassica juncea | A formulation of the mustard plant Brassica juncea grown in a medium that has been enriched with the trace element selenium with potential chemopreventive and chemopotentiating activities. Brassica juncea hyperaccumulates trace elements in soil. Selenium amino acid species found in selenized Brassica juncea include methylselenomethionine (MeSeMet) and methylselenocysteine (MeSeCys); both may be incorporated into selenoproteins in vivo. Selenium functions as a cofactor for antioxidant enzymes ... |
| Histone-Lysine N-Methyltransferase EZH2 Inhibitor GSK2816126 | A small molecule selective and S-adenosyl methionine (SAM) competitive inhibitor of histone-lysine N-methyltransferase EZH2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, histone-lysine N-methyltransferase EZH2 inhibitor GSK2816126 inhibits the activity of EZH2 and specifically prevents the methylation of histone H3 lysine 27 (H3K27). This decrease in histone methylation alters gene expression patterns associated with cancer pathways and results in decreased tumor cell prolifer... |
| Histrelin Acetate | The acetate salt form of histrelin, a long-acting, synthetic nonapeptide analog of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) with potential anti-tumor activity. Upon administration, histrelin binds to and activates GnRH receptors; prolonged administration results in pituitary GnRH receptor desensitization and inhibition of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) secretion, leading to a significant decline in testosterone production in males and may inhibit androgen recepto... |
| HLA-A*0201 Restricted TERT(572Y)/TERT(572) Peptides Vaccine Vx-001 | A peptide-based cancer vaccine consisting of two human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*0201 restricted 9-mer epitopes derived from the human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT), TERT 572Y (YLFFYRKSV; TYR-Vx001) and TERT 572 (RLFFYRKSV; ARG-Vx001), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Subcutaneous injection of TERT(572Y) peptide followed by subcutaneous administration of the TERT(572) peptide may elicit a specific and possibly optimal cytotoxic T cell (CTL) response a... |
| HLA-A*0201-restricted TRP2-gp100-EphA2-HER2 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing four HLA-A*0201-restricted peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Vaccine peptide epitopes are derived from the tumor associated antigens (TAAs) tyrosinase-related protein 2 (TRP2), glycoprotein 100 (gp100), Ephrin receptor A2 (EphA2) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). Upon administration, HLA-A*0201-restricted TRp2-gp100-EphA2-HER2 multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response agai... |
| HLA-A*0201-Restricted URLC10-VEGFR1-VEGFR2 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing three HLA-A*0201-restricted peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory, antiangiogenic, and antitumor activities. Vaccine peptide epitopes are derived from the tumor associated antigen (TAA) URLC (up-regulated in lung cancer 10) and vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR) 1 and 2. Upon administration, HLA-A*0201-restricted URLC10-VEGFR1-VEGFR2 multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against URLC10-expressing tu... |
| HLA-A*0201-Restricted VEGFR1 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing an HLA-A*0201-restricted vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 1 (VEGFR1) peptide (sequence: TLFWLLLTL) with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Upon administration, HLA-A*0201-restricted VEGFR1-derived peptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing VEGFR1, resulting in tumor cell lysis and decreased tumor growth. HLA-A*0201 is an MHC class I molecule that presents antigenic peptides to C... |
| HLA-A*0201-Restricted VEGFR1-VEGFR2 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing two HLA-A*0201-restricted peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Peptide epitopes in this vaccine are derived from: vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR) 1 and 2. Upon administration, HLA-A*0201-restricted VEGFR1-VEGFR2 multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing VEGFR 1 and 2 peptides, resulting in tumor cell lysis and decreased tumor growth. HLA-A*020... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted CDCA1-A24-56 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing the HLA-A*2402-restricted peptide epitope derived from cell division associated gene 1 (CDCA1), with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Upon administration, HLA-A*2402-restricted CDCA1-A24-56 peptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against CDCA1-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis and decreased tumor cell proliferation. HLA-A*2402 is an MHC class I molecule that presents antigenic peptides to CD8+ T... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted CDCA1-KIF20A Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing two HLA-A*2402-restricted peptide epitopes derived from cancer-testis antigens with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. The peptide epitopes are derived from cell division associated 1 (CDCA1) and kinesin-like family member 20A (KIF20A). Upon administration, HLA-A*2402-restricted CDCA1-KIF20A multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against CDCA1- and KIF20A-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis an... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted CDCA1-URLC10-KIF20A-DEPDC1-MPHOSPH1 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing five HLA-A*2402-restricted peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Peptide epitopes in this vaccine are derived from CDCA1 (cell division cycle-associated protein 1), URLC10 (up-regulated lung cancer 10), KIF20A (kinesin-like family member 20A), DEPDC1 (DEP domain containing 1), and MPHOSPH1 (M phase phosphoprotein 1). Upon administration, this peptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against CDCA1-,U... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted KOC1-TTK-CO16-DEPDC1-MPHOSPH1 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing five HLA-A*2402-restricted peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Peptide epitopes in this vaccine are derived from IGF II mRNA binding protein 3 (KOC1); TTK protein kinase (TTK); URLC10 (up-regulated lung cancer 10); DEP domain containing 1 (DEPDC1); and M phase phosphoprotein 1 (MPHOSPH1). Upon administration, HLA-A*2404-restricted KOC1-TTK-CO16-DEPDC1-MPHOSPH1 multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) ... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted Multipeptide Vaccine S-488410 | A cancer vaccine composed of HLA-*2402-restricted epitopic peptides derived from three cancer/testis (CT) antigens, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, HLA-A*2402-restricted multipeptide vaccine S-488410 may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing these CT antigens. CT antigens, normally expressed only in germ cells of the testis, are overexpressed in a wide variety of human cancers. |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted URLC10 Peptides Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing HLA-A*2402-restricted epitope peptides URLC10 (up-regulated lung cancer 10) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, HLA-A*2402-restricted URLC10 peptides vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against URLC10-expressing tumor cells. URLC10, a tumor associated antigen, is often overexpressed in lung, esophageal and gastric cancers. HLA-A*2402 is an MHC class I molecule that presents antigenic peptide... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted URLC10-CDCA1-KIF20A Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing three HLA-A*2402-restricted peptide epitopes derived from cancer-testis antigens with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. The peptide epitopes are derived from up-regulated lung cancer 10 (URLC10); cell division cycle associated 1 (CDCA1); and kinesin-like family member 20A (KIF20A). Upon administration, HLA-A*2402-restricted URLC10-CDCA1-KIF20A multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against URL10-, CDCA1-, and ... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted URLC10-CDCA1-VEGFR1-VEGFR2 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing four HLA-A*2402-restricted peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. The peptide epitopes are derived from URLC10 (up-regulated lung cancer 10); CDCA1 (cell division associated 1); and vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) 1 and 2. Upon administration, HLA-A*2402-restricted URLC10-CDCA1-VEGFR1-VEGFR2 multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against URL10-, CDCA1-, VEGFR1- and VEGFR2... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted URLC10-KOC1-VEGFR1-VEGFR2 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing four HLA-A*2402-restricted peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Peptide epitopes in this vaccine are derived from URLC10 (up-regulated lung cancer 10 or CO16); KOC1 (IGF II mRNA Binding Protein 3); and vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) 1 and 2. Upon administration, this multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against URL10-, KOC1-, VEGFR1- and VEGFR2-expressing tumor cells... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted URLC10-TTK-KOC1 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing three HLA-A*2402-restricted peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Peptide epitopes in this vaccine are derived from URLC10 (up-regulated lung cancer 10); TTK (TTK protein kinase); and KOC1 (IGF II mRNA Binding Protein 3). Upon administration, URLC10-TTK-KOC1 multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing URLC10, TTK and KOC1 peptides, resulting in tumor cell lysis and d... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted URLC10-TTK-VEGFR1-VEGFR2 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vacine containing four HLA-A*2402-restricted peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Peptide epitopes in this vaccine are derived from: URLC10 (up-regulated lung cancer 10), TTK (TTK protein kinase), and VEGFRs (vascular endothelial growth factor receptors) 1 and 2. Upon administration, URLC10-TTK-KOC1-VEGFR1-VEGFR2 multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing URLC10, TTK, VEGFR 1 and 2 p... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted VEGFR1 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing the HLA-A*2402-restricted vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 1 (VEGFR1) peptide epitope with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Upon administration, HLA-A*2402-restricted VEGFR1 peptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing VEGFR 1 peptide, resulting in tumor cell lysis and decreased tumor growth. HLA-A*2402 is an MHC class I molecule that presents antigenic peptides to CD8+ T cells;... |
| HLA-A*2402-Restricted VEGFR1/2 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing two HLA-A*2402-restricted peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Peptide epitopes in this vaccine are derived from vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) 1 and 2. Upon administration, this peptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against VEGFR1- and VEGFR2-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis and decreased tumor growth. HLA-A*2402 is an MHC class I molecule that presen... |
| HLA-A*2404-Restricted RNF43-TOMM34-VEGFR1-VEGFR2 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing four HLA-A*2402-restricted peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Peptide epitopes in this vaccine are derived from ring finger protein 43 (RNF43); translocase of outer mitochondrial membrane 34 (TOMM34); and vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR) 1 and 2. Upon administration, HLA-A*2404-restricted RNF43-TOMM34-VEGFR1-VEGFR2 multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor ce... |
| HLA-A1, A2, B35-Restricted Survivin Peptides/Montanide ISA-51 Vaccine | A peptide vaccine comprised of synthetic HLA-A1, -A2 and -B35 restricted survivin epitopes combined with the adjuvant Montanide ISA-51 with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, HLA-A1, A2, B35-restricted survivin peptides/Montanide ISA-51 vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T cell response against tumor cells that overexpress survivin, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Montanide ISA-51, also known as incomplete Freund's adjuvant or IFA, is a stabilized water-in-oil emulsion adju... |
| HLA-A1-Binding MAGE-1/MAGE-3 Multipeptide-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A1-binding melanoma-associated antigen peptides MAGE-1 and MAGE-3 with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. Upon vaccination, HLA-A1-binding MAGE-1/MAGE-3 multipeptide-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against MAGE1- and MAGE-3-expressing can... |
| HLA-A2, A3-Restricted FGF-5 Peptides/Montanide ISA-51 Vaccine | A peptide vaccine comprised of synthetic HLA-A2- and HLA-A3-binding peptides, derived from amino acid sequences of fibroblast growth factor-5 (FGF-5), combined with the adjuvant Montanide ISA-51 with potential antineoplastic activity. HLA-A2, A3-restricted FGF-5 peptides contain motifs recognized by the MHC class I molecules HLA-A2 and HLA-A3 and may stimulate a cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells that overexpress FGF-5. Montanide ISA-51, a stabilized water-in-oil emulsion adjuvant ... |
| HLA-A2-Binding TYR/MART-1/gp100 Multipeptide-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted melanoma-associated antigen peptides tyrosinase (TYR), MART-1(melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells) and melanoma antigen glycoprotein 100 (gp100), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. Upon vaccination, HLA-A2-binding TYR/MART-1/gp100 multipeptide-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount an anti-... |
| HLA-A2-restricted IL-13Ra2/EphA2/Survivin/Tetanus Toxoid T-helper Epitopes-Montanide 51 Vaccine | A peptide vaccine comprised of synthetic human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted peptides derived from the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) interleukin-13 receptor alpha-2 (IL-13Ra2), the tyrosine kinase receptor Ephrin receptor A2 (EphA2), and the apoptosis inhibitor protein survivin, combined with the adjuvant tetanus toxoid (TT)-derived helper T-cell peptide, and emulsified in the immunoadjuvant Montanide ISA-51, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Specifica... |
| HLA-A2-restricted Melanoma-specific Peptides Vaccine GRN-1201 | A cancer peptide vaccine composed of four human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2 (HLA-A*02)-restricted peptides derived from four specific and separate tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) expressed by melanoma cells, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the HLA-A2-restricted melanoma-specific peptides vaccine, the melanoma specific antigens in the vaccine activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the HLA-A2-positive melanoma cells. |
| HLA-A2-Restricted Synthetic Glioma Antigen Peptides Vaccine | A synthetic peptide cancer vaccine consisting of HLA-A2-restricted peptides derived from glioma-associated antigens (GAA) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, HLA-A2-restricted synthetic glioma antigen peptides vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the corresponding GAAs, resulting in glioma tumor cell lysis. HLA-A2 is an MHC class I molecule that presents ant... |
| HLA-B44-Restricted MAGE-3 Peptide | A peptide comprised of the synthetic human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B44-binding peptides derived from amino acid sequences of MAGE-3 with potential antitumor activity. Vaccination with HLA-B44-restricted MAGE-3 peptide may elicit a cytotoxic T lymphocyte immune response against tumor cells expressing MAGE-3. MAGE-3 is an antigen found on many tumor cell types, including melanoma and lung, prostate, colon, thyroid, and breast cancers. |
| HLA-B44-Restricted Tyrosinase Peptide | A synthetic peptide consisting of synthetic human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B44-binding peptides derived from amino acid sequences of the melanoma-associated enzyme tyrosinase with potential antitumor activity. Vaccination with HLA-B44-restricted tyrosinase peptide may stimulate cytotoxic T lymphocyte response against tyrosinase-expressing tumor cells, resulting in decreased tumor growth and cell lysis. |
| HLA-DP0401/0402-Restricted MAGE-A3-Reactive T Cell Receptor-transduced Autologous T Cells | Human autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-DP0401/0402-restricted, melanoma antigen A3 (MAGE-A3), with potential antineoplastic activity. CD4-positive cells are isolated from a patient, transduced with an anti-MAGE-A3-DP0401/0402 restricted TCR, expanded ex vivo, and reintroduced into the HLA-DP0401/0402 positive patient. Then, the HLA-DP0401/0402-restricted, MAGE-A3-reactive TCR-transduced... |
| HM2/MMAE Antibody-Drug Conjugate ALT-P7 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of the trastuzumab biobetter HM2 conjugated, in a site-specific manner, to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of ALT-P7, the antibody moiety targets and binds to human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) on tumor cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the MMAE moiety is released, binds to tubulin and inhib... |
| HMGB1 Inhibitor SB17170 | An orally bioavailable prodrug of SB1703, a small molecule inhibitor of high mobility group protein B1 (HMGB1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, SB17170 is converted to its active metabolite SB1703. SB1703 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of HMGB1. This inhibits HMGB1-mediated activation of immune-suppressive myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME), thereby halting MDSC-mediated immunosupp... |
| Hodgkin's Antigens-GM-CSF-Expressing Cell Vaccine | An allogeneic vaccine consisting of Hodgkin lymphoma cells transfected with the granulocyte macrophage-colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) gene with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon vaccination, Hodgkin antigens-GM-CSF-expressing cell vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against Hodgkin lymphoma-associated antigens, which may result in the lysis of tumor cells expressing these antigens. In addition, transfected Hodgkin lymphoma cells secrete GM-CSF, which... |
| Holmium Ho 166 Poly(L-Lactic Acid) Microspheres | Holmium Ho166 containing poly l-lactic acid (PLA) microspheres with potential antineoplastic actvity. Upon intra-arterial hepatic administration of holmium 166 microspheres, this agent is able to emit both beta particles direct killing cells and gamma photons for nuclear imaging. In addition, since holmium 166 is paramagnetic, this agent can be used for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). |
| Hpk1 Inhibitor BB3008 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine enzyme hematopoietic progenitor kinase 1 (Hpk1; Hpk-1; mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase kinase 1; MAP4K1; MEKKK1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Hpk1 inhibitor BB3008 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Hpk1. This inhibits Hpk1-mediated signaling pathways and prevents Hpk1-mediated immunosuppression by preventing the inhibition of T cell receptors (TCR)... |
| Hpk1 Inhibitor BGB-15025 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine enzyme hematopoietic progenitor kinase-1 (Hpk1; Hpk-1; mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase kinase 1; MAP4K1; MEKKK1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Hpk1 inhibitor BGB-15025 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Hpk1. This inhibits Hpk1-mediated signaling pathways and prevents Hpk1-mediated immunosuppression by preventing the inhibition of T cell receptors (T... |
| Hpk1 Inhibitor BGB-26808 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine enzyme hematopoietic progenitor kinase 1 (Hpk1; Hpk-1; mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase kinase 1; MAP4K1; MEKKK1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Hpk1 inhibitor BGB-26808 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Hpk1. This inhibits Hpk1-mediated signaling pathways and prevents Hpk1-mediated immunosuppression by preventing the inhibition of T cell receptors (T... |
| Hpk1 Inhibitor CFI-402411 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine enzyme hematopoietic progenitor kinase-1 (Hpk1; Hpk-1; mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase kinase 1; MAP4K1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Hpk1 inhibitor CFI-402411 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Hpk1. This inhibits Hpk1-mediated signaling pathways and inhibits the proliferation of Hpk1-expressing tumor cells. In addition, CFI-402411 prevents Hpk1-me... |
| Hpk1 Inhibitor FB849 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine enzyme hematopoietic progenitor kinase 1 (Hpk1; Hpk-1; mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase kinase 1; MAP4K1; MEKKK1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Hpk1 inhibitor FB849 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Hpk1. This inhibits Hpk1-mediated signaling pathways and prevents Hpk1-mediated immunosuppression by preventing the inhibition of T cell receptors (TCR) ... |
| Hpk1 Inhibitor GRC 54276 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the serine/threonine enzyme hematopoietic progenitor kinase 1 (Hpk1; Hpk-1; mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase kinase 1; MAP4K1; MEKKK1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Hpk1 inhibitor GRC 54276 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Hpk1. This inhibits Hpk1-mediated signaling pathways and prevents Hpk1-mediated immunosuppression by preventing the inhibition of T ce... |
| Hpk1 Inhibitor NDI-101150 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine enzyme hematopoietic progenitor kinase 1 (Hpk1; Hpk-1; mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase kinase 1; MAP4K1; MEKKK1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Hpk1 inhibitor NDI-101150 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Hpk1. This inhibits Hpk1-mediated signaling pathways and prevents Hpk1-mediated immunosuppression by preventing the inhibition of T cell receptors (... |
| Hpk1 Inhibitor PF-07265028 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine enzyme hematopoietic progenitor kinase 1 (Hpk1; Hpk-1; mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase kinase 1; MAP4K1; MEKKK1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Hpk1 inhibitor PF-07265028 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Hpk1. This inhibits Hpk1-mediated signaling pathways and prevents Hpk1-mediated immunosuppression by preventing the inhibition of T cell receptors ... |
| Hpk1 Inhibitor PRJ1-3024 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine enzyme hematopoietic progenitor kinase-1 (Hpk1; Hpk-1; mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase kinase 1; MAP4K1; MEKKK1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Hpk1 inhibitor PRJ1-3024 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Hpk1. This inhibits Hpk1-mediated signaling pathways and prevents Hpk1-mediated immunosuppression by preventing the inhibition of T cell receptors (T... |
| HPPH | A lipophilic, second-generation, chlorin-based photosensitizer. Upon intravenous administration, HPPH selectively accumulates in the cytoplasm of cancer or pre-cancerous cells. When laser light is applied, a photodynamic reaction between HPPH and oxygen occurs, resulting in the production of cytotoxic free radicals and singlet oxygen and free radical-mediated cell death. Compared to the first-generation photosensitizer porfimer sodium, HPPH shows improved pharmacokinetic properties and causes... |
| HPV 16 E6/E7-encoding Arenavirus Vaccine HB-202 | A cancer vaccine consisting of replication-attenuated arenavirus encoding the inactivated fusion protein of the viral oncoproteins E6 and E7 derived from the human papillomavirus (HPV) serotype 16, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, HPV 16 E6/E7-encoding arenavirus vaccine HB-202 induces expression of the E6/E7 proteins and stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing HPV16 E6... |
| HPV 16 E7 Antigen-expressing Lactobacillis casei Vaccine BLS-ILB-E710c | An orally available Lactobacillis casei (L. casei)-based vaccine expressing the human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 isoform E7 protein linked to the poly-gamma-glutamate synthetase complex gene pgsA, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon oral administration, the expressed HPV 16 E7 may stimulate the immune system to mount a mucosal cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against HPV 16 E7-expressing tumor cells. The poly-glutamic acid synthetase PgsA from Bacillus subtilis acts as an a... |
| HPV 16 E7:12-20 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide based vaccine consisting of amino acids 12 through 20 of the E7 gene of the Human Papilloma Virus type 16.  HPV-16 E7 12-20 peptide vaccine may elicit a specific CD8 T-cell response to the E7 oncogene protein, thereby inhibiting the abrogation of p53 and pRb function and thus prevent tumorigenesis. (NCI04) |
| HPV 16 E7:86-93 Peptide Vaccine | A synthetic peptide vaccine consisting of amino acids 86 through 93 (TLGIVCPI) of the viral oncoprotein human papillomavirus (HPV) 16 E7. Vaccination with HPV-16 E7:86-93 peptide, which binds to HLA-A* 0201 molecule, may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for HPV-16 E7. |
| HPV 16/18 E6/E7 DNA Vaccine pBI-11 | A therapeutic codon-optimized DNA vaccine encoding for the E6 and E7 proteins of human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes 16 and 18, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the HPV 16/18 E6/E7 DNA vaccine pBI-11 expresses the HPV 16/18 E6/E7 fusion protein which may elicit a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cancer cells expressing the HPV 16/18 E6 and E7 oncoproteins, resulting in tumor cell lysis. HPV type 16 and 18 are the most c... |
| HPV 16/18 E6/E7/HSP70 Plasmid DNA Prime Vaccine pBI-11/HPV 16/18 E6/E7 Vaccinia Boost Vaccine TA-HPV PVX7 | A therapeutic prime/boost cancer vaccine consisting of PVX7, which is a combination of two vaccines: the pBI-11 prime vaccine, a therapeutic codon-optimized plasmid DNA vaccine encoding for the E6 and E7 oncoproteins of the human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes 16 (HPV16) and 18 (HPV18) fused with heat shock protein 70 (HSP70), and the HPV tumor antigen (TA-HPV) boost vaccine, a recombinant vaccinia viral vector-based vaccine encoding epitopes of the E6 and E7 oncoproteins from HPV16 and HPV18,... |
| HPV 16/18 E6/E7-encoding Lentiviral Vector-based Vaccine Lenti-HPV-07 | A cancer vaccine consisting of a non-integrative lentiviral vector encoding the detoxified forms of the human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes 16 and 18 viral oncoproteins E6 and E7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, HPV 16/18 E6/E7-encoding lentiviral vector-based vaccine Lenti-HPV-07 may elicit a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cancer cells expressing the HPV 16/18 E6 and E7 oncoproteins, resulting in tumor cell lysis. H... |
| HPV E6/E7 DNA Vaccine GX-188E | A therapeutic DNA vaccine encoding the E6/E7 fusion protein of human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes 16 and 18, plus the immune-enhancer, Fms-like tyrosine kinase-3 ligand (FLT3L), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. DNA vaccine GX-188E is administered using a proprietary delivery system that electroporates the vaccine into cervical cells. Expression of the E6/E7 fusion product may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cervical cancer cells expressin... |
| HPV E6/E7-encoding Arenavirus Vaccine HB-201 | A cancer vaccine consisting of a replication-attenuated arenavirus lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV) encoding the inactivated fusion protein of the viral oncoproteins E6 and E7 derived from the human papillomavirus (HPV) serotype 16, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, HPV E6/E7-encoding arenavirus vaccine HB-201 induces expression of the E6/E7 proteins and stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) respons... |
| HPV Types 16/18 E6/E7-Adenoviral Transduced Autologous Lymphocytes/alpha-Galactosylceramide Vaccine BVAC-C | An immunotherapeutic vaccine composed of the immunoadjuvant alpha-galactosylceramide (a-GC) and autologous antigen presenting cells (APCs), specifically B-lymphocytes and monocytes transfected with an adenoviral vector that expresses the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) E6 and E7 derived from human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18 (HPV-16/18 E6/E7), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of BVAC-C, the APCs stimulate the immune system to mount ... |
| HPV-16 E6 Peptides Vaccine/Candida albicans Extract | A human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 vaccine containing four E6 peptides in combination with an extract of Candida albicans, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of HPV-16 E6 peptides vaccine/Candida albicans extract, the four HPV-16 E6 peptides and the Candida albicans may activate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cells expressing the E6 oncoprotein, resulting in tumor cell lysis. The HPV 16 transforming ... |
| HPV16 E6/7 mRNA Vaccine BNT113 | A RNA-lipoplex (RNA-LIP)-based cancer vaccine containing messenger RNA (RNA) encoding for the human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV-16) oncoproteins E6 and E7, encapsulated in liposomes, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of the HPV16 E6/7 mRNA vaccine BNT113, the liposomes protect the RNA from degradation in the bloodstream, travel to the spleen and are taken up by antigen-presenting cells (APCs), especially dendritic cells (DCs). The R... |
| HPV-16 E7 TCR Expressing T-cells | A preparation of allogeneic, genetically engineered T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector MSGV1 that encodes a T-cell receptor (TCR) targeting a specific epitope of the human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 oncoprotein E7 (HPV-16 E7 TCR), with potential antineoplastic activity. The TCR especially recognizes and binds with high affinity to the HPV 16 E7 11-19 epitope. Upon administration, HPV-16 E7 expressing T-cells target and bind to tumor cells expressing the HPV-16 E7 antigen lead... |
| HPV16 E7-specific HLA-A*02:01-restricted IgG1-Fc Fusion Protein CUE-101 | A fusion protein composed of a human leukocyte antigen (HLA) complex, HLA-A*0201, with a peptide epitope derived from the human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV16) E7 protein (amino acid residues 11-20), a reduced affinity human interleukin-2 (IL-2) variant, and an effector attenuated human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc domain, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulatory activities. Upon administration, CUE-101 targets and selectively binds to E7-specific CD8-positive T-cells present in pati... |
| HPV16 L2/E6/E7 Fusion Protein Vaccine TA-CIN | A recombinant human papillomavirus (HPV), genetically engineered fusion protein vaccine in which the three HPV16 viral proteins L2, E6 and E7 are fused together in a single tandem fusion protein (TA-CIN; HPV16 L2\E6\E7), with potential immunoprotective and antineoplastic properties. Upon administration, HPV16 L2\E6\E7 fusion protein vaccine TA-CIN may stimulate the immune system to generate HPV16 E6\E7-specific CD4+ and CD8+ T-cell responses as well as the induction of L2-specific antibodies.... |
| HPV16 RG1 VLP Vaccine | A monovalent chimeric human papillomavirus (HPV) virus-like particles (VLPs)-based vaccine containing the epitope RG1, which is comprised of amino acids 17-36 of the minor capsid protein (L2) of HPV type 16 (HPV16), which is incorporated, in a repetitive and close manner, into the DE surface loop of the HPV16 major capsid protein (L1) VLP backbone (HPV16 L1-VLP), that can potentially be used for active immunization against various types of HPV. Upon administration, the HPV16 RG1 VLP vaccine a... |
| HPV6/11-targeted DNA Plasmid Vaccine INO-3107 | A DNA vaccine consisting of plasmids encoding E6 and E7 genes of human papilloma virus subtype 6 (HPV-6) and 11 (HPV-11), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration via intramuscular electroporation, the HPV-6/11-targeted DNA plasmid vaccine INO-3107 expresses the HPV-6/11 E6 and E7 proteins, which may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that are expressing HPV6 and/or HPV11 E6 and E7 proteins, resulting in tumor cell lys... |
| HPV-6-targeting Immunotherapeutic Vaccine INO-3106 | A DNA vaccine consisting of plasmids encoding the E6 and E7 genes of human papilloma virus subtype 6 (HPV-6), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Administered via intramuscular electroporation, HPV-6-targeting immunotherapeutic vaccine INO-3106 expresses the HPV-6 E6 and E7 proteins, which may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that are expressing those proteins, resulting in tumor cell lysis. HPV-6 infections are associated with aer... |
| H-ras Antisense Oligodeoxynucleotide ISIS 2503 | A synthetic oligodeoxynucleotide.  Functioning as an anti-sense agent, it hybridizes to the translation initiation region of the human mRNA for the oncogene H-Ras.  ISIS 2503 selectively inhibits the expression of H-Ras, and may inhibit the growth of some Ras-dependent tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| HSD-1 Inhibitor SPI-62 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the enzyme 11beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 1 (11b-HSD1; 11bHSD1; HSD11B1; HSD1; HSD-1), with potential protective activity for disorders of corticosteroid excess. Upon oral administration, HSD-1 inhibitor SPI-62 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of HSD-1. This prevents the conversion of cortisone to the active hormone cortisol and thereby preventing the activation of the glucocorticoid receptors (GRs). By blocking cortisol pr... |
| Hsp70-peptide TKD/IL-2-activated Autologous Natural Killer Cells | A preparation of autologous natural killer (NK) cells that are stimulated ex vivo by a 14-mer heat shock protein 70 (Hsp70) TKD peptide and interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential tumor-selective cytolytic activity. Upon re-infusion into the patient, the treated NK cells recognize and bind to Hsp70-expressing tumor cells, which induces NK-mediated tumor cell lysis. Hsp70, a membrane-bound, stress-inducible protein, is overexpressed on almost all tumor cells; however, it is absent or minimally pr... |
| Hsp90 Antagonist KW-2478 | An agent that targets the human heat-shock protein 90 (Hsp90) with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the mechanism of action remains to be fully elucidated, Hsp90 antagonist KW-2478 appears to inhibit Hsp90, resulting in impaired signal transduction, inhibition of cell proliferation, and the induction of apoptosis in tumor cells. HSP90 is a molecular chaperone that plays a key role in the conformational maturation of oncogenic signaling proteins, such as HER2/ERBB2, AKT, RAF1, BCR-A... |
| HSP90 Inhibitor | Any agent that inhibits heat shock protein (Hsp) 90. |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor AB-010 | An orally bioavailable nanoparticle albumin-bound inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) with potential antineoplastic activity. Hsp90 inhibitor AB-010 selectively binds to Hsp90, inhibiting its chaperone function and promoting the degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. This agent may inhibit the growth of a wide variety of cancer cell types; the incorporation of albumin into its formulation may facilitate its endothelial transcytosi... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor BIIB021 | An orally active inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (HSP90) with potential antineoplastic activity. HSP90, a chaperon protein upregulated in a variety of tumor cells, regulates the folding and degradation of many oncogenic signaling proteins. HSP90 inhibitor BIIB021 specifically blocks active HSP90, thereby inhibiting its chaperon function and promoting the degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. As a result, CNF2024 has the potential to ... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor BIIB028 | A small-molecule inhibitor of heat shock protein (Hsp) 90 with potential antineoplastic activity. Hsp90 inhibitor BIIB028 blocks the binding of oncogenic client proteins to Hsp90, which may result in the proteasomal degradation of these proteins and so the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Hsp90 is a molecular chaperone that plays a key role in the conformational maturation of oncogenic signaling proteins, such as Her2/Erbb2, Akt, Raf1, Bcr-Abl, and mutated p53, in addition to other mol... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor Debio 0932 | An orally active and small molecule inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) with potential antineoplastic activity. Hsp90 inhibitor Debio 0932 specifically blocks Hsp90, thereby inhibiting its chaperone function and promoting the degradation of its client proteins, many of which are oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. This may lead to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Hsp90, a chaperone protein upregulated in a variety of tumor cells, re... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor DS-2248 | An orally active and small molecule inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Hsp90 inhibitor DS-2248 specifically blocks Hsp90, which inhibits its chaperone function and promotes the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. This may lead to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Hsp90, a chaperone complex protein upregulated in a variety of tumor cell type... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor HSP990 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of human heat-shock protein 90 (Hsp90) with potential antineoplastic activity. Hsp90 inhibitor Hsp990 binds to and inhibits the activity of Hsp90, which may result in the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic client proteins, including HER2/ERBB2, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Hsp90, upregulated in a variety of tumor cells, is a molecular chaperone that plays a key role in the conformational maturation, stability and function of oncogenic sign... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor LAM-003 | An L-alanine ester prodrug of LAM-003A, an orally bioavailable, synthetic, second-generation small-molecule inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LAM-003 is converted to LAM-003A. LAM-003A selectively targets and binds to Hsp90, thereby inhibiting its chaperone function and promoting the degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. This may inhibit the growth and survival ... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor LAM-003A | An orally bioavailable, synthetic, second-generation small-molecule inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) with potential antineoplastic activity. Hsp90 inhibitor LAM-003A selectively binds to Hsp90, thereby inhibiting its chaperone function and promoting the degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival; this agent may inhibit the growth and survival of a wide variety of cancer cell types. Hsp90, a chaperone protein upregulated in a variety... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor MPT0B640 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Hsp90 inhibitor MPT0B640 specifically blocks Hsp90, which inhibits its chaperone function and promotes the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. This may lead to the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Hsp90, a chaperone complex protein upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types, regulate... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor NVP-BEP800 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Hsp90 inhibitor NVP-BEP800 specifically binds to the NH(2)-terminal ATP-binding pocket of Hsp90 and specifically blocks Hsp90, which inhibits its chaperone function and promotes the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival, including ErbB2, B-Raf(V600E), Raf-1, and Akt. This prevents oncogenic path... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor SNX-5422 Mesylate | The orally bioavailable mesylate salt of a synthetic prodrug targeting the human heat-shock protein 90 (Hsp90) with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the mechanism of action remains to be fully elucidated, Hsp90 inhibitor SNX-5422 is rapidly converted to SNX-2112, which accumulates more readily in tumors relative to normal tissues. SNX-2112 inhibits Hsp90, which may result in the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic client proteins, including HER2/ERBB2, and the inhibition of tumor ... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor SNX-5542 Mesylate | The orally bioavailable mesylate salt of a synthetic prodrug targeting the human heat-shock protein 90 (Hsp90) with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the mechanism of action remains to be fully elucidated, Hsp90 inhibitor SNX-5542 is rapidly converted to SNX-2112, which accumulates in tumors relative to normal tissues. SNX-2112 inhibits Hsp90, which may result in the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic client proteins, including HER2/ERBB2, and the inhibition of tumor cell prolifer... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor TQB3474 | An inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Hsp90 inhibitor TQB3474 specifically blocks Hsp90, which inhibits its chaperone function and promotes the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. This may lead to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Hsp90, a chaperone complex protein upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types, regulates the folding and degradati... |
| Hsp90 Inhibitor XL888 | An orally bioavailable, ATP-competitive, small-molecule inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) with potential antineoplastic activity. Hsp90 inhibitor XL888 specifically binds to Hsp90, inhibiting its chaperone function and promoting the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival; inhibition of tumor cell proliferation may result. Hsp90, a chaperone complex protein upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types, regulates the fo... |
| HSP90 Peptide Vaccine AST-021p | A cancer vaccine containing a peptide antigen derived from a specific protein heat shock protein 90 (HSP90) generated by tumor cells, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, the HSP90 peptide vaccine may activate the immune system to induce an immune response against HSP90-expressing tumor cells. Hsp90, a chaperone complex protein upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types, regulates the folding and degradation of many oncogenic signaling proteins. |
| Hsp90-targeted Photosensitizer HS-201 | A conjugate consisting of a heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) inhibitor connected via a linker to verteporfin, a photosensitizing agent, with potential imaging, photodynamic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the Hsp90 inhibitor moiety of HS-201 selectively binds to the Hsp90 ATP binding domain in tumor cells and HS-201 accumulates in tumor cells. The verteporfin moiety of HS-201 allows for visualization and photodynamic therapy of the tumors. Hsp90, a chaperone protein upregulat... |
| HSV- thymidine Kinase-m2/hGM-CSF Genes-encoding GEN2 | A gene therapy agent composed of a vector expressing a mutated form of the herpes simplex virus thymidine kinase (HSV-tk) gene and the human cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) gene, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the HSV-thymidine kinase-m2/hGM-CSF genes-encoding GEN2 selectively infects tumor cells and expresses HSV-tk-m2 and GM-CSF. Subsequent administration of a synthetic acyclic guanosine analog, such as... |
| HSV-TK-Transduced Donor Lymphocytes | A preparation of donor lymphocytes transduced with the suicide gene herpes simplex virus thymidine kinase (HSV-TK) with potential immunomodulating activity. Administration of HSV-TK-transduced lymphocytes after T cell-depleted allogeneic stem cell transplantation allows an early controllable immune reconstitution, which takes advantage of the antitumor effect of donor lymphocytes and helps to mitigate the risk of post-transplant opportunistic infection. To control graft-versus-host disease (G... |
| hTERT I540/R572Y/D988Y Multipeptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine consisting of multiple epitopes derived from the human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT), the catalytic subunit of human telomerase, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. hTERT I540/R572Y/D988Y multipeptide vaccine contains strongly antigenic peptide epitopes I540 (9-mer), R572Y (9-mer) and D988Y (10-mer). Vaccination with this agent may elicit a cytotoxic T cell (CTL) response against telomerase-expressing tumor cells. Directly linked to tum... |
| hTERT mRNA/Survivin Peptide-double-loaded Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing autologous dendritic cells (DCs) that are pulsed with mRNA encoding human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT) and survivin peptide, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, hTERT mRNA/survivin peptide-double-loaded autologous dendritic cell vaccine may elicit an immune response against cancer cells expressing hTERT and survivin by activating cytotoxic T-cells (CTLs), natural killer cells (NKs), and B-lymphocytes. The... |
| hTERT Multipeptide/Montanide ISA-51 VG/Imiquimod Vaccine GX 301 | A therapeutic cancer vaccine consisting of four epitopes derived from the human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT), the catalytic subunit of human telomerase, including hTERT (540-548) acetate, hTERT (611-626) acetate, hTERT (672-686) acetate and hTERT (766-780) acetate, emulsified individually in the adjuvant montanide ISA-51 VG and administered with the immune response modifier (IRM) imiquimod, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Each hTERT peptide emulsion... |
| hTERT Vaccine V934/V935 | A cancer vaccine directed against human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT), the catalytic subunit of human telomerase, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, hTERT vaccine V934/V935 may elicit a cytotoxic T cell (CTL) response against telomerase-expressing tumor cells, which may result in tumor cell death. Telomerase is involved in the restoration and maintenance of telomere length and so the functional lifespan of cells. Abnormally reactiva... |
| hTERT/Survivin/CMV Multipeptide Vaccine | A vaccine containing multiple peptides derived from the human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT), survivin and cytomegalovirus (CMV), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, hTERT/survivin/CMV multipeptide vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T cell (CTL) response against tumor cells espressing hTERT, survivin and CMV. hTERT, the catalytic subunit of telomerase, and the inhibitor of apoptosis (IAP) family member survivin, both often upregulated in ... |
| hTERT/Survivin/Melanoma Tumor Cell-Derived mRNA-Transfected Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing dendritic cells (DCs) that are transfected with messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT) and survivin in addition to patient-specific melanoma-derived mRNA with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, hTERT/survivin/melanoma tumor cell-derived mRNA-transfected dendritic cell vaccine may elicit a highly specific cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against melanoma cells expressing hTERT, survivi... |
| hTERT-encoding DNA Vaccine INVAC-1 | A DNA vaccine consisting of a plasmid encoding a modified, inactive form of the human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT), the catalytic subunit of human telomerase which synthesizes telomeric DNA at the chromosome ends, fused to ubiquitin, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal vaccination of the hTERT encoding DNA vaccine INVAC-1 in combination with electroporation, hTERT protein is expressed and activates the immune system to mount a cytotoxic... |
| HuaChanSu | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) containing a water soluble Bufo toad skin extract that includes the cardiac glycosides bufalin, cinobufagin and resibufogenin with potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. Although the exact mechanism of action of this TCM has yet to be fully elucidated, huachansu, which may be administered in an injectable form, may induce cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by suppressing the expression of anti-apoptotic proteins, such as Bcl-2, while inducing... |
| Huaier Extract Granule | An orally bioavailable traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) composed of a granule containing an aqueous extract of Trametes robiniophila murr (Huaier), a mushroom found on hardwood tree trunks, with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. Although the exact mechanism of action through which Huaier exerts its effects is largely unknown, upon administration, this agent induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis, and inhibits proliferation and migration of susceptible cancer cells th... |
| Huang Lian | A Chinese herb of a desiccated root from the plant Coptis chinensis. Although the mechanism of action remains to be fully elucidated, Huang Lian has antibacterial, antifungal, and antiprotozoal activities. In addition, this herb exhibits antioxidant property that influences positively on lipid metabolism, cause dilation of blood vessels, and may slow the growth of tumor cells. This herb contains rich amount of phytogens, such as berberine, palmatine, jatrorrhizine, columbamine, geniposide, an... |
| huBC1-huIL12 Fusion Protein AS1409 | An immunoconjugate consisting of the anti-tumor cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) fused to the tumor-targeting antibody BC1 with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. The antibody moiety of huBC1-huIL12 fusion protein AS1409 binds to the human fibronectin splice variant ED-B, delivering IL-12 directly to the tumor vasculature; tumor vasculature-targeted IL-12 initiates localized immune cascade responses and exhibits cytotoxic and anti-angiogenic activity while minimizing th... |
| HuCC49deltaCH2-PA-DOTA | An immunoconjugate comprised of a humanized monoclonal antibody with antitumor activity. The monoclonal antibody CC49 is developed from the murine monoclonal antibody B72.3 and is humanized by grafting the hypervariable regions onto the variable light (VL) and variable heavy (VH) frameworks of the monoclonal antibodies LEN and 21/28' CL. In addition the CH2 domain in the constant region is deleted to increase plasma clearance. The resultant antibody binds to the pancarcinoma tumor-associated ... |
| Human Anti-CD30 CAR-expressing Autologous T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from a human anti-CD30 monoclonal antibody, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the human anti-CD30 CAR-expressing autologous T-lymphocytes specifically recognize and bind to CD30-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. CD30, a cell surface recepto... |
| Human gp100 Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of a plasmid DNA encoding the human melanoma-associated antigen gp100.  Upon administration, expressed gp100 antigen may stimulate a cytotoxic T cell HLA-A2.1-restricted immune response against tumor cells that express this antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (NCI05) |
| Human MHC Non-Restricted Cytotoxic T-Cell Line TALL-104 | An allogeneic human cytotoxic T-lymphocyte cell line (TALL-104) with potential antineoplastic activity. TALL-104 is an IL-2-dependent human leukemic T cell line, expressing CD8 and T-cell receptor CD3, but not CD16. Because these cells are endowed with MHC-non-restricted killer activity, TALL-104 has destructive potential against a broad range of tumors, while sparing normal cells. Upon administration, TALL-104 targets and interacts with tumor cells and activates apoptotic and necrotic pathwa... |
| Human MOAB LICO 28a32 | A human monoclonal immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody with potential antineoplastic activity.  Human MOAB LICO 28a32 binds to the colon tumor-associated antigen 28A32 (CTAA 28A32) found on the cell surface and in the cytoplasm of colon carcinoma cells. (NCI04) |
| Human Monoclonal Antibody 216 | A naturally-occurring human IgM monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Human monoclonal antibody 216, derived from the gene VH4-34, binds to the glycosylated epitope CDIM on the surface of both malignant and normal B cells. Upon binding to B cells, this antibody may crosslink two or more CDIM molecules, resulting in the formation of cell membrane pores, the disruption of cell membrane integrity, and B cell lysis; this mechanism of antibody-mediated cell death is direct an... |
| Human Monoclonal Antibody B11-hCG Beta Fusion Protein CDX-1307 | A human monoclonal antibody (B11) directed against the mannose receptor and linked to the beta-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG beta) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The monoclonal antibody moiety of human monoclonal antibody B11-hCG beta fusion protein CDX-1307 binds to mannose receptors on antigen presenting cells (APCs), including human dendritic cells (DCs) and macrophages. Upon internalization and processing, APCs present the processed hCG beta... |
| Human Papillomavirus 16 E7 Peptide | A peptide vaccine consisting of amino acids 12 through 20 of the viral oncoprotein human papillomavirus (HPV) 16 E7. Vaccination with HPV-16 E7 peptide may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for HPV-16 E7, resulting in decreased tumor growth. HPV-16 infection is tumorigenic and highly associated with cervical cancer. (NCI04) |
| Human Papillomavirus 16 E7 Peptide/Padre 965.10 | A synthetic agent derived from human papillomavirus (HPV) E7 nuclear protein which is used to produce vaccines against HPV infection and HPV-related neoplasms.  HPV E7 oncogenic protein binds the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor protein, pRB, as well as a number of other cellular proteins, and serves as a transcriptional activator.  This protein is important in the induction and maintenance of cellular transformation and is co-expressed in the majority of HPV-containing carcinomas.  PADRE(R) i... |
| Human Papillomavirus Tumor Antigen Vaccine | A vaccinia viral based vaccine, encoding epitopes of E6 and E7 proteins from human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18, with immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. HPV types 16 and 18 account for approximately 70% of cervical cancers. Vaccination with this HPV-TA (tumor antigen) vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for E6 and E7 from either type 16 or 18 HPV, resulting in decreased tumor growth. |
| Human Prostate-Specific Membrane Antigen Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of a plasmid DNA encoding the human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA). Upon administration, expressed PSMA may stimulate a cytotoxic T cell response against tumor cells that express this antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (NCI05) |
| Human-derived Enterococcus Strain MNC-168 | An enteric-coated capsule formulation composed of a live Enterococcus strain derived from the human gut microbiome, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the human-derived Enterococcus strain MNC-168, the bacteria may activate the immune system through various mechanisms, including, but not limited to, the recruitment of tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs)  and cytotoxic CD4+ and CD8+ T-cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This may enha... |
| hVEGF26-104/RFASE Peptide Vaccine | A therapeutic cancer vaccine containing a truncated, synthetic peptide mimic of the human angiogenic activator vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), consisting of 79 amino acids (amino acids 26-104 of VEGF), and emulsified in the immunoadjuvant RFASE, with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Upon intramuscular vaccination, the hVEGF26-104 moiety of hVEGF26-104/RFASE acts as an antigen and induces an immune response against VEGF, which results in anti-VEGF antibody bindi... |
| Hycanthone | A thioxanthene derivative of lucanthone with anti-schistosomal activity and potential antineoplastic activity. Hycanthone interferes with parasite nerve function, resulting in parasite paralysis and death.  This agent also intercalates into DNA and inhibits RNA synthesis in vitro. (NCI04) |
| Hydralazine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of hydralazine, a phthalazine derivative with antihypertensive and potential antineoplastic activities. Hydralazine alters intracellular calcium release and interferes with smooth muscle cell calcium influx, resulting in arterial vasodilatation. This agent also inhibits the phosphorylation of myosin protein and chelation of trace metals required for smooth muscle contraction, resulting in an increase in heart rate, stroke volume and cardiac output. In addition to its ca... |
| Hydrogel-based Resiquimod STM-416 | An injectable biodegradable hydrogel-based, intra-tumoral extended-release (ER) formulation containing the imidazoquinolinamine resiquimod, a Toll-like receptor (TLR) 7 and 8 agonist, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intra-tumoral administration at the site and time of surgery involving transurethral resection of bladder tumor, the hydrogel-based resiquimod STM-416 locally releases resiquimod for an extended period and binds to TLR7 and 8, which are found m... |
| Hydrogen Rich Water | A nutritional supplement composed of molecular hydrogen-rich water (HRW), with potential preventative, antioxidant, anti-inflammatory and radiation protective activities. The molecular hydrogen gas is dissolved in the water. Upon oral administration of HRW, hydrogen is able to efficiently penetrate cytoplasmic membranes and targets intracellular organelles, and, being an antioxidant, scavenges reactive oxygen species (ROS), such as hydroxyl radical and peroxynitrite. This may decrease oxidati... |
| Hydroxychloroquine | A 4-aminoquinoline with immunosuppressive, antiautophagy, and antimalarial activities. Although the precise mechanism of action is unknown, hydroxychloroquine may suppress immune function by interfering with the processing and presentation of antigens and the production of cytokines. As a lysosomotropic agent, hydroxychloroquine raises intralysosomal pH, impairing autophagic protein degradation; hydroxychloroquine-mediated accumulation of ineffective autophagosomes may result in cell death in... |
| Hydroxyprogesterone Caproate | A synthetic progestational agent similar to the endogenous progesterone used in hormone therapy or as a female contraceptive. Mimicking the action of progesterone, hydroxyprogesterone caporate binds to and activates nuclear progesterone receptors in the reproductive system and causes the ligand-receptor complex to be translocated to the nucleus where it binds to and promotes expression of target genes. Due to the negative feedback mechanism seen with progesterone, this agent also blocks lutei... |
| Hydroxytyrosol | A phenolic phytochemical naturally occurring in extra virgin olive oil, with potential antioxidant, anti-inflammatory and cancer preventive activities. Although the mechanisms of action through which hydroxytyrosol exerts its effects have yet to be fully determined, this agent affects the expression of various components of the inflammatory response, possibly through the modulation of the nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) pathway. The effects include the modulation of pro-inflammatory cytokines,... |
| Hydroxyurea | A monohydroxyl-substituted urea (hydroxycarbamate) antimetabolite. Hydroxyurea selectively inhibits ribonucleoside diphosphate reductase, an enzyme required to convert ribonucleoside diphosphates into deoxyribonucleoside diphosphates, thereby preventing cells from leaving the G1/S phase of the cell cycle.  This agent also exhibits radiosensitizing activity by maintaining cells in the radiation-sensitive G1 phase and interfering with DNA repair. (NCI04) |
| Hypericin | An anthraquinone derivative that is naturally found in the yellow flower of Hypericum perforatum (St. John's wort) with antidepressant, potential antiviral, antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Hypericin appears to inhibit the neuronal uptake of serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine, gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA) and L-glutamate, which may contribute to its antidepressant effect. Hypericin may also prevent the replication of encapsulated viruses probably due to inhibition of the a... |
| Hypoxia-activated Prodrug TH-4000 | A proprietary, hypoxia-activated prodrug with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the hypoxia-activated prodrug TH-4000 is activated in the hypoxic cells within tumors into an irreversible pan-HER inhibitor via a mechanism of action not yet fully elucidated. As a result, this agent inhibits cellular proliferation and differentiation of tumor cells overexpressing HER kinases, which belong to the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of receptor tyrosine kinases. He... |
| I 131 Antiferritin Immunoglobulin | A radioimmunoconjugate of a rabbit antihuman ferritin IgG labeled with iodine 131 (I-131). Using anti-ferritin IgG as a carrier for I-131 may result in the targeted imaging and/or destruction of cells expressing ferritin. Observed in 35% to 100% of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma, high serum ferritin levels may be due to ferritin production by the tumor cells, or related to the associated iron overload and/or cirrhosis. |
| I 131 Monoclonal Antibody A33 | A radioimmunoconjugate of a humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) A33 labelled with Iodine 131 (I-131). MoAb A33 recognizes A33 antigen, a 43 KDa transmembrane glycoprotein of the immunoglobulin superfamily, highly and homogenously expressed in 95% of colorectal cancers, with only restricted expression in normal colonic mucosa. Using MoAb A33 as a carrier for I-131 results in the targeted imaging and/or destruction of cells expressed A33 antigen. |
| I 131 Monoclonal Antibody CC49 | A radioimmunoconjugate of the humanized monoclonal antibody CC49 labeled with iodine I 131. Iodine I 131 monoclonal antibody CC49 delivers beta and gamma radiation-emitting I 131 radionuclide specifically to tumor cells that express tumor-associated glycoprotein (TAG)-72, allowing localization of TAG-72-expressing tumor cells with radioimaging devices in diagnostic applications or resulting in specific TAG-72-expressing tumor cell radiocytotoxicity in therapeutic applications. Monoclonal anti... |
| I 131 Monoclonal Antibody F19 | A radioimmunoconjugate of a murine monoclonal antibody (MoAb) F19 labelled with Iodine 131 (I-131). MoAb F19 was raised against fibroblast activation protein (FAP), which is highly expressed by tumor stromal cells. Using MoAb F19 as a carrier for I-131 results in the targeted imaging and/or destruction of cells overexpressed FAP. |
| I 131 Monoclonal Antibody Lym-1 | A radioimmunoconjugate of a murine monoclonal antibody, MoAb Lym-1, labeled with iodine 131 (I-131). MoAb Lym-1 recognizes an epitope of the histocompatibility antigen HLA-DR, which is over-expressed on most B-cell lymphomas. I-131 MoAb Lym-1 delivers beta and gamma radiation emitting I-131 nuclide directly to tumor cells that express HLA-DR, thereby allowing imaging and/or treatment of cancers. |
| Iadademstat | An orally available inhibitor of lysine specific histone demethylase 1 (KDM1A; LSD1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, iadademstat binds to and inhibits LSD1, a demethylase that suppresses the expression of target genes by converting the di- and mono-methylated forms of lysine at position 4 of histone H3 (H3K4) to mono- and unmethylated H3K4, respectively. LSD1 inhibition enhances H3K4 methylation and increases the expression of tumor suppressor genes. This may lea... |
| Ianalumab | A fully human combinatorial antibody library (HuCAL)-derived monoclonal antibody targeting the B-cell-activating factor receptor (BAFF-R), with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ianalumab targets and binds to BAFF-R, which inhibits both BAFF/BAFF-R interaction and BAFF-R-mediated signaling. This may decrease cell growth in tumor cells expressing BAFF-R. BAFF-R, also known as tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 13C, is overexpressed i... |
| IAP Antagonist TQB3728 | An orally bioavailable, second mitochondria-derived activator of caspases (SMAC)-mimetic and an antagonist of inhibitor of apoptosis proteins (IAPs), with potential apoptosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, IAP antagonist TQB3728 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of IAPs including X chromosome-linked IAP (XIAP) and cellular IAPs 1 (c-IAP1) and 2 (c-IAP2). This may restore and promote the induction of apoptosis through apoptotic signaling... |
| IAP Inhibitor HGS1029 | The hydrochloride salt of a small-molecule inhibitor of IAP (Inhibitor of Apoptosis Protein) family proteins with potential antineoplastic activity. IAP inhibitor HGS1029 selectively inhibits the biological activity of IAP proteins, which may restore apoptotic signaling pathways; this agent may work synergistically with cytotoxic drugs to overcome tumor cell resistance to apoptosis. IAPs are overexpressed by many cancer cell types, suppressing apoptosis by binding and inhibiting active caspas... |
| iAPA-based Dendritic Cells/Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes | A cell-based product composed of dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) and devoid of the inhibitory effect of antigen presentation attenuators (iAPA) combined with cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) (iAPA-DC/CTL), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  DCs are transduced with a viral vector containing small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) against APAs, which prevents the expression of APA genes and inhibits attenuation of antigen presentation. Upon... |
| Ibandronate Sodium | The sodium salt form of ibandronic acid, a synthetic nitrogen-containing bisphosphonate. Ibandronic acid inhibits farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase, resulting in a reduction in geranylgeranyl GTPase signaling proteins and apoptosis of osteoclasts. This agent increases bone mineral density, decreases bone remodeling, inhibits osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, and reduces metastases-related and corticosteroid-related bone pain. |
| Ibcasertib | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of select serine-threonine kinases, including aurora kinase B (aurora B), vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs), stem cell factor receptor (c-KIT), and platelet-derived growth factor receptors (PDGFRs), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ibcasertib binds to and inhibits the activity of aurora B, VEGFRs, c-kit and PDGFRs, which may result in a decrease in the proliferation of tumor cells that overexpre... |
| Ibentatug | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human plectin (plectin-1; plectin 1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ibentatug specifically binds to plectin expressed on the cell surface of cancer cells, thereby activating the immune system to induce an anti-tumor T-cell response against plectin-expressing cancer cells and inducing apoptosis in these cancer cells. Plectin, a pro-tumorigenic protein, is normally found inside the cytoplasm of healthy cells but is ... |
| Iberdomide | A modulator of the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex containing cereblon (CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase), with immunomodulating and pro-apoptotic activities. Upon administration, iberdomide specifically binds to the cereblon (CRBN) part of the ligase complex, thereby affecting the ubiquitin E3 ligase activity, and targeting certain substrate proteins for ubiquitination. This induces the proteasome-mediated degradation of certain transcription factors, including Ikaros (IKZF1) and Aiolos (IKZF3) whi... |
| Iboctadekin | A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous cytokine interleukin-18 (IL-18). Produced primarily by macrophages, IL-18 induces the production of interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma), and enhances the activity of natural killer (NK) and cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL).  As a potential immunotherapeutic agent, iboctadekin displays antitumor effects in vitro and in animal models. (NCI04) |
| Ibrilatazar | An orally bioavailable, lipid analogue and inhibitor of raptor-mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) (mTOR complex 1; mTORC1), rictor-mTOR (mTOR complex 2; mTORC2) and dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ibrilatazar binds to and inhibits both mTORC1 and mTORC2, which may result in apoptosis and a decrease in proliferation in mTORC1/2-expressing tumor cells. mTOR is a serine/threonine kinase that is upregulated in some tumors; it play... |
| Ibritumomab Tiuxetan | An immunoconjugate of the monoclonal antibody ibritumomab conjugated with the linker-chelator tiuxetan, a high affinity, conformationally restricted chelation site for radioisotopes. When bound to indium In 111 or yttrium Y 90, ibritumomab tiuxetan, targeting the CD20 antigen on B cell surfaces, specifically delivers a potentially cytotoxic dose of radiation to B lymphocytes. Ibritumomab is a murine IgG1 kappa monoclonal antibody directed against the CD20 antigen, which is found on the surfac... |
| Ibrutinib | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ibrutinib binds to and irreversibly inhibits BTK activity, thereby preventing both B-cell activation and B-cell-mediated signaling. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of malignant B cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the src-related BTK/Tec family of cytoplasmic tyrosine kinases, is required for B cell receptor signaling, plays a... |
| iC9-GD2-CD28-OX40-expressing T Lymphocytes | Modified T-lymphocytes expressing a 3rd generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the disialoganglioside GD2, which contains the CD3zeta chain, the signaling domains of the co-stimulatory molecules CD28 and CD134 (OX-40) and the suicide gene inducible caspase 9 (iCasp9), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, iC9-GD2-CD28-OX40-expressing T lymphocytes target the GD2 antigen on tumor cells, thereby providing selective toxicity towards ... |
| Icotinib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of icotinib, an orally available quinazoline-based inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Icotinib selectively inhibits the wild-type and several mutated forms of EGFR tyrosine kinase. This may lead to an inhibition of EGFR-mediated signal transduction and may inhibit cancer cell proliferation. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase, has been upregulated in a variety of cancer cell types. |
| Icovamenib | An orally bioavailable, irriversible inhibitor of menin, an essential co-factor of oncogenic menin-mixed lineage leukemia (MLL; myeloid/lymphoid leukemia; KMT2A) fusion proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, icovamenib specifically targets and binds to menin, thereby preventing the interaction between the two proteins menin and MLL and the formation of the menin-MLL complex. This reduces the expression of downstream target genes, such as MYC and Bcl2, and ... |
| Icrucumab | A fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against human vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 1 (VEGFR-1/FLT-1) with potential antiangiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Icrucumab specifically binds to and inhibits the activity of VEGFR-1, which may prevent the activation of downstream signaling pathways and so inhibit tumor angiogenesis; the subsequent reduction in tumor nutrient supply may inhibit tumor cell proliferation. Tumor cell overexpression of VEGFR-1 may be associa... |
| ICT-121 Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with purified peptides derived from the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD133, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, monocytes are differentiated into DCs and are mixed with the CD133 peptides. Upon intradermal re-administration of the ICT-121 DC vaccine, the DCs present the CD133 peptides to the immune system, which stimulates the immune system to induce a specific cyt... |
| Idarubicin | A semisynthetic 4-demethoxy analogue of the antineoplastic anthracycline antibiotic daunorubicin. Idarubicin intercalates into DNA and interferes with the activity of topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication, RNA transcription and protein synthesis. Due to its high lipophilicity, idarubicin penetrates cell membranes more efficiently than other anthracycline antibiotic compounds. |
| Idarubicin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic idarubicin.  Idarubicin intercalates into DNA and inhibits topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and ultimately, interfering with RNA and protein synthesis.  Due to its high lipophilicity, idarubicin penetrates cell membranes more efficiently than other anthracycline antibiotic compounds |
| Idarubicin-Eluting Beads | A sustained-release drug delivery embolization system containing small polymeric beads impregnated with the anthracycline antibiotic idarubicin with potential antineoplastic activity. The beads consist of polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) microspheres modified with sulfonic acid groups and loaded with idarubicin. During transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) in the hepatic artery, idarubicin-eluting beads embolize to the tumor vasculature, occlude tumor blood vessels and induce ischemic necrosis of tum... |
| Idasanutlin | An orally available, small molecule, antagonist of MDM2 (mouse double minute 2; Mdm2 p53 binding protein homolog), with potential antineoplastic activity. Idasanutlin binds to MDM2 blocking the interaction between the MDM2 protein and the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing the MDM2-p53 interaction, p53 is not enzymatically degraded and the transcriptional activity of p53 is restored. This may lead to p53-mediated induction of tumor cell apopto... |
| Idecabtagene Vicleucel | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood T-lymphocytes (PBTLs) that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, idecabtagene vicleucel specifically recognizes and kills BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor-specific antigen and a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BA... |
| Idelalisib | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the delta isoform of the 110 kDa catalytic subunit of class I phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities.  Idelalisib inhibits the production of the second messenger phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3), preventing the activation of the PI3K signaling pathway and inhibiting tumor cell proliferation, motility, and survival. Unlike other isoforms of PI3K, PI3K-delta is expressed pr... |
| Idetrexed | An alpha-folate receptor (aFR)-mediated inhibitor of thymidylate synthase (TS), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous infusion, idetrexed selectively targets and binds to aFR-expressing tumor cells. Upon uptake by aFR, this agent binds to and inhibits TS. This reduces thymine nucleotide synthesis, inhibits both DNA synthesis and cell division, and leads to tumor cell apoptosis. TS catalyzes the conversion of deoxyuridine monophosphate (dUMP) to deoxythymidine monophosphate ... |
| IDH1 Inhibitor KY100001 | An orally available inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1; IDH-1; IDH1 [NADP+] soluble) mutant forms, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, IDH1 inhibitor KY100001 specifically binds to and inhibits certain mutant forms of IDH1, thereby inhibiting the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG) from alpha-ketoglutarate (a-KG). This prevents 2HG-mediated signaling and leads to both an induction of cellular differentiation and an inhibition of ce... |
| IDH1 Inhibitor TQB3454 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1; IDH-1; IDH1 [NADP+] soluble) mutant forms, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, IDH1 inhibitor TQB3454 specifically binds to and inhibits certain mutant forms of IDH1, thereby inhibiting the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG) from alpha-ketoglutarate (a-KG). This prevents 2HG-mediated signaling and leads to both an induction of cellular differentiation ... |
| IDH1(R132) Inhibitor IDH305 | An inhibitor of the citric acid cycle enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase [NADP] cytoplasmic (isocitrate dehydrogenase 1; IDH1) with mutations at residue R132 (IDH1(R132)), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, IDH305 specifically inhibits IDH1(R132) mutant forms in the cytoplasm, which inhibits the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG). This may lead to both an induction of cellular differentiation and an inhibition of cellular proliferation in IDH1(R132... |
| IDH1R132H Mutation-targeting IDH1 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine consisting of a 20-mer peptide derived from isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1) containing the point mutation R132H (IDH1R132H), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous vaccination with the IDH1R132H mutation-targeting IDH1 peptide vaccine, the vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that express the IDH1R132H protein. R132H is a point mutation, which contains an amino acid substituti... |
| IDH1R132H-Specific Peptide Vaccine PEPIDH1M | A peptide vaccine consisting of a peptide derived from isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 (IDH1) containing the point mutation R132H (IDH1R132H), with potential antineoplastic activity. Intradermal vaccination with the IDH1R132H-specific peptide vaccine PEPIDH1M may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that express the IDH1R132H protein. The IDH1 point mutation of amino acid residue 132 is highly expressed in gliomas and is associated w... |
| IDH2 Mutant Inhibitor SH1573 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitochondrial enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase type 2 (IDH2; IDH-2) R140Q mutant, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, IDH2 mutant inhibitor SH1573 specifically inhibits mutant IDH2 (mIDH2) R140Q protein, thereby inhibiting the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG) from alpha-ketoglutarate (a-KG). This prevents 2HG-mediated signaling and leads to both an induction of cellular differentiation and an inhibition o... |
| IDH2 Mutant Inhibitor TQB3455 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mutated mitochondrial enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase type 2 (IDH2; IDH-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, IDH2 mutant inhibitor TQB3455 specifically inhibits mutated IDH2, thereby inhibiting the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG) from alpha-ketoglutarate (a-KG). This prevents 2HG-mediated signaling and leads to both an induction of cellular differentiation and an inhibition of cellular proliferation ... |
| Idiotype-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine APC8020 | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with tumor-derived clonal immunoglobulin (Ig) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, idiotype-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine APC8020, containing idiotype (Id) protein structures that can be recognized by antibodies and by CD41 T lymphocytes and CD81 T lymphocytes, may stimulate antitumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against Id-express... |
| IDO/TDO Inhibitor HTI-1090 | An orally available inhibitor of indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1; IDO-1) and the kynurenine-producing hepatic enzyme tryptophan 2,3-dioxygenase (TDO), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IDO1/TDO inhibitor HTI-1090 specifically targets and binds to both IDO1, a cytosolic enzyme responsible for the oxidation of the amino acid tryptophan into the immunosuppressive metabolite kynurenine, and TDO, a hepatic enzyme catalyzing the first step of tr... |
| IDO/TDO Inhibitor LY-01013 | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule inhibitor of indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1; IDO-1) and the kynurenine-producing hepatic enzyme tryptophan 2,3-dioxygenase (TDO), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IDO1/TDO inhibitor LY-01013 specifically targets and binds to both IDO1, a cytosolic enzyme responsible for the oxidation of the amino acid tryptophan into the immunosuppressive metabolite kynurenine, and TDO, a hepatic enzyme catalyzing t... |
| IDO1 Inhibitor KHK2455 | An orally available inhibitor of indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IDO1 inhibitor KHK2455 targets and binds to IDO1, an enzyme responsible for the oxidation of tryptophan into kynurenine. By inhibiting IDO1 and decreasing kynurenine in tumor cells, KHK2455 increases and restores the proliferation and activation of various immune cells, including dendritic cells (DCs), natural killer (NK) cells, and T-lymph... |
| IDO-1 Inhibitor LY3381916 | An orally available inhibitor of indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1; IDO-1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IDO1 inhibitor LY3381916 specifically targets and binds to IDO1, a cytosolic enzyme responsible for the oxidation of the amino acid tryptophan into the immunosuppressive metabolite kynurenine. By inhibiting IDO1 and decreasing kynurenine in tumor cells, LY3381916 restores and promotes the proliferation and activation of various immun... |
| IDO1 Inhibitor MK-7162 | An orally available inhibitor of indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IDO1 inhibitor MK-7162 specifically targets and binds to IDO1, a cytosolic enzyme responsible for the oxidation of the amino acid tryptophan into the immunosuppressive metabolite kynurenine. By inhibiting IDO1 and decreasing kynurenine in tumor cells, MK-7162 restores and promotes the proliferation and activation of various immune cells, in... |
| IDO1 Inhibitor PF-06840003 | An orally available hydroxyamidine and inhibitor of indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IDO1 inhibitor PF-06840003 targets and binds to IDO1, an enzyme responsible for the oxidation of tryptophan into kynurenine. By inhibiting IDO1 and decreasing kynurenine in tumor cells, PF-06840003 increases and restores the proliferation and activation of various immune cells, including dendritic cells (DCs), natural kil... |
| IDO1 Inhibitor RiMO-401 | An inhibitor of indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1; IDO-1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intra-tumoral administration, IDO1 inhibitor RiMO-401 specifically targets and binds to IDO1, a cytosolic enzyme responsible for the oxidation of the amino acid tryptophan into the immunosuppressive metabolite kynurenine. By inhibiting IDO1 and decreasing kynurenine in tumor cells, RiMO-401 restores and promotes the proliferation and activation of various immune cel... |
| IDO1/TDO2 Inhibitor DN1406131 | An inhibitor of both the enzymes indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1; IDO-1) and tryptophan 2,3-dioxygenase 2 (TDO2; TDO-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IDO1/TDO2 inhibitor DN1406131 targets, binds to and inhibits both IDO1 and TDO2, which catalyze the first and rate-limiting step in the production of the immunosuppressive transcription factor aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AhR) ligand kynurenine (KYN). This inhibits the IDO1/TDO2-KYN-AhR pa... |
| IDO1/TDO2 Inhibitor M4112 | An inhibitor of both the enzymes indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1; IDO-1) and tryptophan 2,3-dioxygenase 2 (TDO2; TDO-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IDO1/TDO2 inhibitor M4112 targets, binds to and inhibits both IDO1 and TDO2, which catalyze the first and rate-limiting step in the production of the immunosuppressive transcription factor aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AhR) ligand kynurenine (Kyn). This inhibits the IDO1/TDO2-Kyn-AhR pathwa... |
| Idronoxil | A synthetic flavonoid derivative. Idronoxil activates the mitochondrial caspase system, inhibits X-linked inhibitor of apoptosis (XIAP), and disrupts FLICE inhibitory protein (FLIP) expression, resulting in tumor cell apoptosis. This agent also inhibits DNA topoisomerase II by stabilizing the cleavable complex, thereby preventing DNA replication and resulting in tumor cell death. |
| Idronoxil Suppository NOX66 | A proprietary, suppository-based formulation composed of idronoxil, a synthetic flavonoid derivative, surrounded by a proprietary lipid that protects idronoxil from phase 2 degradation, with potential chemo- and radio-sensitizing activities. Upon administration, idronoxil blocks the activity of ecto-NOX disulfide-thiol exchanger 2 (ENOX2; tNOX), a tumor-specific external NADH oxidase that maintains the transmembrane electron potential across the plasma membrane and is overexpressed in certain... |
| Idroxioleic Acid | An orally bioavailable, synthetic analog of the fatty acid oleic acid, with potential antitumor activity. Upon administration,idroxioleic acid activates sphingomyelin synthase (SMS), thereby increasing the concentration of sphingomyelin (SM) and diacylglycerol (DAG) in the tumor cell membrane and decreasing membrane levels of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) and phosphatidylcholine (PC). This restores the normal, healthy levels and ratios of membrane lipids. By restoring normal membrane lipid st... |
| Ieramilimab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene-3 (LAG-3), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, Ieramilimab binds to LAG-3 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks its binding with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules expressed on tumor cells. This activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis, which lea... |
| Ifabotuzumab | A non-fucosylated monoclonal antibody directed against the ephrin receptor A3 (EphA3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ifabotuzumab selectively binds to tumor cells expressing EphA3. This blocks both EphA3 activation and EphA3-mediated signaling, and induces apoptosis in EphA3-expressing tumor cells. In addition, ifabotuzumab can stimulate antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against EphA3-expressing tumor cells. This agent also prevents tumor cell... |
| Ifebemtinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the non-receptor, cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase protein tyrosine kinase 2 (focal adhesion kinase 1; FAK1; FAK: PTK2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ifebemtinib targets and inhibits, in an adenosine triphosphate (ATP)-competitive manner, PTK2. This prevents PTK2-mediated downstream signaling and inhibits migration, proliferation, invasion, and survival in PTK2-overexpressing tumor cells. The cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase PTK2, ... |
| Ifetroban | An orally bioavailable thromboxane (TxA2) and prostaglandin H2 (PGH2) (TP) receptor antagonist, with anti-thrombotic, anti-hypertensive, anti-asthmatic and potential anti-metastatic activities. Upon administration, ifetroban targets and binds to TxA2 and PGH2 receptors, thereby preventing the activity of both TxA2 and PGH2 and disrupting their downstream signaling pathways. This prevents platelet activation, aggregation and thrombosis. It also prevents vascular constriction and causes vasodil... |
| Ifinatamab Deruxtecan | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody against the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) conjugated, via an enzymatically cleavable tetrapeptide-based linker, to the cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor and exatecan (DX-8951) derivative DXd (MAAA-1181a; MAAA-1181), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-B7-H3/DXd ADC DS-7300a, the anti-B7-H3 antibody targets and binds to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. Up... |
| Ifosfamide | A synthetic analogue of the nitrogen mustard cyclophosphamide with antineoplastic activity. Ifosfamide alkylates and forms DNA crosslinks, thereby preventing DNA strand separation and DNA replication.  This agent is a prodrug that must be activated through hydroxylation by hepatic microsomal enzymes. (NCI04) |
| IGF-1R Antisense Oligodeoxynucleotide-treated Autologous Glioma Cells IGV-001 | A preparation of irradiated autologous glioma cells treated ex vivo with IMV-001, an antisense oligodeoxynucleotide of insulin-like growth factor receptor 1 (IGF-1R/AS ODN), and encapsulated within bio-diffusion chambers, with potential antineoplastic activity. The IGF-1R/AS ODN IMV-001-treated autologous glioma cells IGV-001 are encapsulated within implantable and removable bio-diffusion chambers with additional IMV-001, irradiated, and implanted into the patient. The IGF-1R/AS ODN binds to ... |
| IGF-1R Inhibitor PL225B | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor (IGF-1R) with potential antineoplastic activity. IGF-1R inhibitor PL225B selectively binds to and inhibits the activities of IGF-1R, which may result in both the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis in IGF-1R-overexpressing tumor cells. IGF-1R, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed in a variety of human cancers, plays a significant role in the stimulation of cellular pr... |
| IGF-1R/IR Inhibitor KW-2450 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor (IGF-1R) and insulin receptor (IR) tyrosine kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. IGF-1R/IR inhibitor KW-2450 selectively binds to and inhibits the activities of IGF-1R and IR, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. IGF-R1 and IR tyrosine kinases, overexpressed in a variety of human cancers, play significant roles in the stimulation of cellular... |
| IGF-methotrexate Conjugate | A conjugate containing the antimetabolite and antifolate agent methotrexate conjugated to insulin-like growth factor (IGF), with potential antineoplastic activity. After intravenous administration, the IGF moiety of the IGF-methotrexate conjugate binds to and is internalized by IGF receptors (IGFR) on the surface of tumor cells. Following cell entry, the methotrexate then binds to and inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which catalyzes the conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofol... |
| IKKb-matured RNA-loaded Autologous Dendritic Cells DCIKKb | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous, monocyte-derived dendritic cells (DCs) that are matured with tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), interleukin-1 (IL-1) beta, IL-6, prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and IkB kinase b (IKKb), and loaded by electroporation with autologous total tumor RNA (TTRNA), RNA coding for tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) that may include gp100, tyrosinase, PRAME, MAGE-A3 and/or IDO, and RNA coding for driver mutations that may include GNAQ/GNA11Q209, R183, SF3B1R625, CY... |
| IKZF1/IKZF3 Protein Degrader GLB-002 | An orally bioavailable protein degrader of the transcription factors Ikaros (Ikaros family zinc finger protein 1; IKZF1) and Aiolos (Ikaros family zinc finger protein 3; IKZF3), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, IKZF1/IKZF3 protein degrader GLB-002 modulates the E3 (ubiquitin) ligase and targets IKZF1 and IKZF3 for ubiquitination, and induces proteasome-mediated degradation of IKZF1 and IKZF3. This reduces the levels of these transcriptio... |
| IKZF2 Protein Degrader DKY709 | A low molecular weight (MW) degrader of the protein IKZF2 (Helios), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IKZF2 protein degrader DKY709 modulates the E3 (ubiquitin) ligase and allows for the interaction between the E3 ubiquitin ligase substrate receptor and its target protein IKZF2, thereby targeting IKZF2 for ubiquitination. This induces proteasome-mediated degradation of IKZF2, which is a transcriptional repressor in T-cells, and modulates the a... |
| IL-10 Immunomodulator MK-1966 | An agent that downregulates the activity of the anti-inflammatory cytokine human interleukin-10 (IL-10), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IL-10 immunomodulator MK-1966 blocks the activity of IL-10 and may abrogate the IL-10-induced immunosuppressive tumor microenvironment. This activates cell-mediated immunity against cancer cells, increases cytokine production, including interferon-gamma (IFN-g), decreases T regulatory cell (Treg) activity, ... |
| IL-10-armed Anti-CD19 CAR-T Cells Meta10-19 | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, and armed with the anti-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-10 (IL-10), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IL-10-armed anti-CD19 CAR-T cells Meta10-19 recognize and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is ... |
| IL-12-expressing Exosome CDK-003 | Exosome engineered to display the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) in a fully active form on the surface via the exosome surface glycoprotein prostaglandin F2 receptor negative regulator (PTGFRN; CD315), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intralesional administration of IL-12-expressing exosome CDK-003, IL-12 expressed by the exosome may activate the immune system in the tumor microenvironment (TME) by promoting the activation of natural... |
| IL-12-expressing HSV-1 NSC 733972 | A genetically engineered, replication selective, infected cell protein (ICP) 34.5 gene-deleted, oncolytic human simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) expressing the human immunostimulating cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral administration of HSV-1 expressing IL-12 NSC 733972, the IL-12-expressing HSV-1 preferentially infects and replicates in tumor cells of neuronal origin causing viral-mediated tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles, in ... |
| IL-12-expressing Mesenchymal Stem Cell Vaccine GX-051 | Human mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a modified form of the cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, IL-12-expressing MSC vaccine GX-051 secretes IL-12. IL-12 activates the immune system by both promoting the secretion of interferon-gamma, which activates natural killer cells (NKs), and inducing cytotoxic T-cell responses, which may result in both decreased cell... |
| IL-12-Fc Fusion Protein KGX101 | An engineered fusion protein composed of the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) fused to a Fc domain and masked with protein domains, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of IL-12-Fc fusion protein KGX101, IL-12 is bound to the proteins and pharmacologically inactive. IL-12 does not become active until cleaved by tumor-specific matrix metalloproteinases in the tumor microenvironment (TME). Upon proteolytic cleavage, unbound and... |
| IL-12-Fc Fusion Protein XmAb662 | An engineered potency-reduced fusion protein composed of the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) fused to a Fc domain, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of IL-12-Fc fusion protein XmAb662, IL-12 activates the immune system by promoting the secretion of interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and activating CD8+ T-cells, CD4+ T-cells and natural killer cells (NKs). The activation and expansion of these immune cells mediate cytolytic immune r... |
| IL-12sc, IL-15sushi, IFNa and GM-CSF mRNA-based Immunotherapeutic Agent SAR441000 | An immunotherapeutic agent utilizing mRNA to encode the cytokines interleukin-12sc (IL-12sc), interleukin-15sushi (IL-15sushi), interferon alpha (IFNa) and granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration of IL-12sc, IL-15sushi, IFNa and GM-CSF mRNA-based immunotherapeutic agent SAR441000, mRNA is picked up by nearby cells, translated and released into the local tumor microenvironment (TM... |
| IL13Ralpha2-specific Hinge-optimized 41BB-co-stimulatory CAR Truncated CD19-expressing Autologous T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of ex vivo expanded, genetically modified autologous central memory-enriched T-cells (Tcm) transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector expressing a hinge-optimized, chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for interleukin-13 receptor alpha 2 (IL13Ra2), and containing the cluster of differentiation 137 (CD137; 4-1BB) co-stimulatory signaling domain fused to the signaling domain of the T cell antigen receptor complex zeta chain (CD3-zeta), ... |
| IL13Ralpha2-specific Hinge-optimized 4-1BB-co-stimulatory CAR/Truncated CD19-expressing Autologous TN/MEM Cells | A preparation of ex vivo expanded, genetically modified autologous naïve and memory T-cells (TN/MEM) transduced with a replication incompetent, self-inactivating (SIN) lentiviral vector expressing a hinge-optimized, chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for interleukin-13 receptor alpha 2 (IL13Ra2), and containing the cluster of differentiation 137 (CD137; 4-1BB) co-stimulatory signaling domain fused to the signaling domain of the T-cell antigen receptor complex zeta chain (CD3-zeta), and ... |
| IL-15 Superagonist SOT201 | A cis-acting immunocytokine and antibody cytokine fusion protein composed of a humanized, Fc-silenced monoclonal antibody against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) fused to a covalent receptor-linker interleukin-15 (RLI-15) complex containing a human attenuated IL-15 mutein linked to the high-affinity binding sushi domain site of the IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ralpha; IL-15Ra), with potential immunomodulatory and antin... |
| IL-15(N72D)/IL-15Ralpha-sFc Fusion Protein Complex FL115 | A long-acting form of the cytokine interleukin (IL)-15 and a fusion protein complex composed of a mutated form of IL-15, with an asparagine to aspartic acid substitution at amino acid 72 (N72D) (IL-15N72D), complexed with a soluble IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15 Ralpha; IL-15Ra) Fc domain (IL-15Ra-sFc) (IL-15N72D/IL-15Ra-sFc), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, IL-15(N72D)/IL-15Ra-sFc fusion protein complex FL115  targets and binds to the IL-2/IL-15 receptor beta-common... |
| IL-15/IL-15 Receptor alpha Heterodimer NIZ985 | A soluble, recombinant human heterodimer composed of the cytokine interleukin (IL)-15 and the IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, the IL-15/IL-15Ra heterodimer (hetIL-15) NIZ985 targets and binds to interleukin-2 (IL-2)/IL-15 receptor beta/gamma. This activates and increases the levels of natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8+ T-cells. The memory T-cells enhance the secretion of the cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g), whi... |
| IL-2 Fusion Protein PTX-912 | A fusion protein consisting of the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) fused to an as of yet not fully elucidated protein, with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IL-2 fusion protein PTX-912 targets and binds to IL-2 receptors, and activates IL-2 receptor-mediated signaling in immune cells. This activates cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and natural killer (NK) cells, and induces expression of certain cytotoxic cytokines, such as interferon-gamma (IFNg) a... |
| IL-2 Recombinant Fusion Protein ALT-801 | A recombinant protein consisting of the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) fused to a humanized soluble T-cell receptor (TCR) directed against a tumor suppressor p53-derived antigen with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. The TCR moiety of IL-2 recombinant fusion protein ALT-801 binds to tumor cells displaying p53 epitope/MHC complexes; subsequently, the tumor cell-localized IL-2 moiety may stimulate natural killer (NK) cell and T cell cytotoxic immune responses against p5... |
| IL-2 Superkine-Recombinant Human Albumin Fusion Protein MDNA11 | A long-acting formulation consisting of an engineered and mutated form of the endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2; IL2) fused with human recombinant albumin, with minimal to no binding affinity for IL-2 receptor subunit alpha (IL-2Ralpha; CD25) and with high binding affinity for the beta receptor subunit (IL-2Rbeta; IL2Rb; CD122), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IL-2 superkine-recombinant human albumin fusion protein MDNA11 primarily ta... |
| IL-2/9/15 Gamma Chain Receptor Inhibitor BNZ-1 | A pegylated peptide antagonist that binds to the common gamma chain (gc; IL2RG; CD132) of the signaling receptor for the pro-inflammatory cytokines interleukin (IL)-2, IL-9, and IL-15, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IL-2/9/15 gc receptor inhibitor BNZ-1 specifically targets and binds to the IL binding site on the gc receptor and blocks IL-2, IL-9 and IL-15 binding, thereby inhibiting IL-2-, IL-9-, and IL-15-mediated signaling and downstream... |
| IL-2/Anti-IL-2 Antibody Conjugate SLC-3010 | A noncovalent conjugate consisting of the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2; IL2) and TCB2, a humanized antibody directed against the IL-2 receptor subunit alpha (IL2Ra; CD25) binding site on IL-2, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of IL-2/anti-IL-2 antibody conjugate SLC-3010, the IL-2 moiety binds to the IL-2 receptor beta (CD122) and gamma (CD132) subunit (IL2Rb/g) expressed on CD8+ T effector cells and natural killer (NK) cells, thereby activati... |
| IL-2/IL-12-based Fusion Protein CLN-617 | A single-chain fusion protein composed of the human cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), the collagen-binding domain leukocyte-associated immunoglobulin-like receptor 2 (LAIR2), linked, through glycine/serine linkers, to human serum albumin (HSA) and human IL-12, with potential immunoregulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral (IT) administration of CLN-617, both the IL-2 and IL-12 moieties bind to their respective receptors expressed on CD8+ T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells in... |
| IL-2/Lptn Gene-Modified Allogeneic Neuroblastoma Tumor Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of allogeneic neuroblastoma tumor cells have been genetically modified to secrete the human cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) and the human chemokine lymphotactin (Lptn) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IL-2 and Lptn are secreted by the IL-2/Lptn gene-modified allogeneic neuroblastoma tumor cell vaccine, potentially enhancing the cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response elicited by vaccine neuroblastoma tumor-associated ... |
| Ilantimod | An orally available formulation containing a small molecule antagonist of the aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AhR; class E basic helix-loop-helix protein 76; bHLHe76) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ilantimod specifically binds to AhR, inhibits AhR activation, and prevents AhR-mediated signaling. Abrogation of AhR activation prevents the activation of immune-tolerant dendritic cells (DCs) and regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvi... |
| Ilginatinib | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2) and Src-family kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Ilginatinib competes with ATP for binding to JAK2 as well as the mutated form JAK2V617F, thereby inhibiting the activation of JAK2 and downstream molecules in the JAK2/STAT3 (signal transducer and activator of transcription 3) signaling pathway that plays an important role in normal development, particularly hematopoiesis. In addition, ilginatini... |
| Ilixadencel | An off-the-shelf immune primer consisting of allogeneic monocyte-derived dendritic cells (MoDCs) that have been stimulated with a combination of activating factors to produce pro-inflammatory factors including tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), interleukin-1 beta (IL-1 beta), interleukin-12, p70 (IL-12 p70), C-C motif chemokine 4 (CCL4; macrophage inflammatory protein 1-beta; MIP-1-beta), C-C motif chemokine 5 (CCL5; RANTES), and C-X-C motif chemokine 10 (CXCL10), with potential immunos... |
| Iloprost | A prostacyclin analogue with potential chemopreventive activity. Iloprost binds to the prostacyclin receptor in various target cells, thereby causing vasodilation, inhibition of platelet aggregation, and decreased tumor cell adhesion to endothelium among other effects. Prostacyclin is a naturally occurring eicosanoid with anti-inflammatory, antineoplastic, and anti-metastatic properties. (NCI05) |
| Ilorasertib | An orally bioavailable, adenosine triphospate mimetic, and inhibitor of Aurora kinases, vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFRs), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ilorasertib selectively binds to and inhibits Aurora kinases A, B and C, which may disrupt both the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus and chromosome segregation, and inhibit both cellular division and proliferation in Aurora kinase-... |
| Imalumab | A human, recombinant monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against macrophage migration inhibitory factor (MIF), with potential immunomodulating, anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, imalumab binds to MIF, blocking its activity and preventing the MIF-mediated secretion of certain cytokines, including interleukin-1 beta and tumor necrosis factor-alpha. This may lead to an inhibition of cancer cell proliferation in MIF-overexpressing tumor cells. MIF, a pro-inf... |
| Imaradenant | An orally bioavailable antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, imaradenant selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This blocks tumor-released adenosine from interacting with A2AR and prevents the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation of T-lymphocytes, and stimulates a T-cell-mediated immune response aga... |
| Imatinib | An antineoplastic agent that inhibits the Bcr-Abl fusion protein tyrosine kinase, an abnormal enzyme produced by chronic myeloid leukemia cells that contain the Philadelphia chromosome.  Imatinib also inhibits the receptor tyrosine kinases for platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) and stem cell factor (SCF)/c-kit; the SCF/c-kit receptor tyrosine kinase is activated in gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST).  This agent inhibits proliferation and induces apoptosis in cells that overexpress thes... |
| Imatinib Mesylate | The mesylate salt of imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Imatinib binds to an intracellular pocket located within tyrosine kinases (TK), thereby inhibiting ATP binding and preventing phosphorylation and the subsequent activation of growth receptors and their downstream signal transduction pathways. This agent inhibits TK encoded by the bcr-abl oncogene as well as receptor TKs encoded by the c-kit and platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) oncogenes. In... |
| Imetelstat | A synthetic lipid-conjugated, 13-mer oligonucleotide N3'-P5'-thio-phosphoramidate with potential antineoplastic activity. Complementary to the template region of telomerase (hTR) RNA, imetelstat acts as a competitive enzyme inhibitor that binds and blocks the active site of the enzyme (a telomerase template antagonist), a mechanism of action which differs from that for the antisense oligonucleotide-mediated inhibition of telomerase activity through telomerase mRNA binding. Inhibition of telom... |
| Imetelstat Sodium | The sodium salt of imetelstat, a synthetic lipid-conjugated, 13-mer oligonucleotide N3' P5'-thio-phosphoramidate with potential antineoplastic activity. Complementary to the template region of telomerase RNA (hTR), imetelstat acts as a competitive enzyme inhibitor that binds and blocks the active site of the enzyme (a "telomerase template antagonist"), a mechanism of action which differs from that for the antisense oligonucleotide-mediated inhibition of telomerase activity through telomeras... |
| Imexon | A 2-cyanoaziridine derivative with antitumor activity in multiple myeloma.  Although its mechanism of action is not clearly known, imexon may induce apoptosis via a pathway involving cleaved caspase-3, caspase-9, and/or caspase-8.  Other cytotoxic mechanisms of action of this agent may involve thiol depletion, generation of reactive oxygen species (ROS), and decreases in the mitochondrial membrane potential. (NCI04) |
| Imgatuzumab | A glycoengineered monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Imgatuzumab binds to the extracellular domain of EGFR, preventing the activation and subsequent dimerization of the receptor; the decrease in receptor activation and dimerization may result in an inhibition of downstream ERK and JNK signaling pathways and so inhibition of EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation and metastasis.  EGFR, a member of the epider... |
| Imidazole Mustard | A synthetic derivative of imidazole with potent antineoplastic properties.  Imidazole mustard alkylates DNA, preferentially at guanine residues, resulting in DNA interstrand crosslinks and inhibition of DNA replication and RNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Imidazole-Pyrazole | A synthetic agent, also known as IMPY, with antineoplastic properties.  IMPY inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, an enzyme that converts ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides during DNA synthesis; this agent specifically binds the smaller, nonheme-iron subunit of the enzyme. (NCI04) |
| Imifoplatin | A platinum (Pt)-based agent belonging to the phosphaplatin family comprised of Pt complexed to a pyrophosphate ligand, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanisms through which imifoplatin exerts its effect have yet to be fully elucidated, this agent, upon intravenous administration, binds to certain transmembrane proteins and activates several genes involved in tumor suppression and apoptosis. This leads to the activation of various signal transduction pathways, ind... |
| Imipramine Blue | A triphenylmethane-based dye and an inhibitor of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP+) oxidase 4 (NOX4), with potential anti-invasive and anti-oxidative activities. Upon administration, imipramine blue (IB) inhibits the activity of NOX4 and prevents NOX4-mediated cell signaling. This prevents the formation of NOX4-mediated reactive oxygen species (ROS), abrogates the ROS-induced inhibition of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) activation, and induces both G2/M cell cycle arrest ... |
| Imiquimod | A synthetic agent with immune response modifying activity. As an immune response modifier (IRM), imiquimod stimulates cytokine production, especially interferon production, and exhibits antitumor activity, particularly against cutaneous cancers. Imiquimod's proapoptotic activity appears to be related to Bcl-2 overexpression in susceptible tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Imlunestrant | An orally available selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, imlunestrant specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Immediate-release Onapristone | An immediate-release (IR) formulation of onapristone, an orally bioavailable progesterone receptor (PR) antagonist, with antineoplastic activity. Onapristone binds to the PR and inhibits both PR activation and the associated expression of PR-responsive genes. This may inhibit PR-mediated proliferative effects in cancer cells overexpressing PR. PR is expressed on certain cancer cell types and plays a key role in proliferation and survival. |
| Immediate-release Tablet Afuresertib | An immediate-release (IR) tablet formulation containing afuresertib, an inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of the IR formulation, afuresertib binds to and inhibits the activity of Akt, which may result in the inhibition of PI3K/Akt signaling pathway, decreased tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis in Akt-expressing tumor cells. Activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling... |
| Immunocytokine NHS-IL2-LT | A fusion protein consisting of a mouse-human chimeric antibody directed against DNA released by necrotic tumor cells fused to two molecules of a genetically modified human interleukin-2 (IL-2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of immunocytokine NHS-IL2-LT binds to DNA released by necrotic tumor cells located primarily at the core of necrotic solid tumors, delivering the IL-2 moiety. In turn, the IL-2 moiety of this agent activates the immune syst... |
| Immunocytokine PDS01ADC | A recombinant fusion protein consisting of the heavy-chains of the human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody NHS76, raised against DNA released by necrotic tumor cells, and fused to two molecules of a genetically modified human interleukin-12 (IL-12) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of immunocytokine PDS01ADC binds to DNA released from necrotic tumor cells located primarily at the core of necrotic solid tumors, t... |
| Immunogenic Cell Death Inducer CAN2109 | A long-acting, bi-functional immunogenic cell death (ICD) inducer, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral (IT) administration, ICD inducer CAN2109 may directly kill tumor cells through as of yet undisclosed mechanism of action (MoA). This releases tumor neoantigens, which may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoantigens, resulting in tumor cell lysis. CAN2109 retains ... |
| Immunomodulator OHR/AVR118 | A broad-spectrum peptide nucleic acid formulation comprised of breakdown products of casein, peptone, RNA and serum albumin, with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulatory, anti-anorectic and anti-cachexia activities. AVR118 mainly contains two peptides, peptide A and peptide B, in approximately a 1:1 ratio: peptide A (31 a. a.) is derived from bovine casein; peptide B (21 a. a.) is covalently linked via phosphodiester bond to a diadenosine unit. In addition, AVR118 contains nucleosides, ... |
| Immunomodulatory Agent CC-11006 | A proprietary, orally available, small molecule and thalidomide analog, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. CC-11006 appears to have a similar mechanism to thalidomide and may modulate the expression of proinflammatory and regulatory cytokines. |
| Immunomodulatory Imide Drug | A class of immunomodulatory drugs containing an imide group. |
| Immunomodulatory Oligonucleotide HYB2055 | A second generation synthetic oligonucleotide with immunomodulatory and potential antineoplastic activities. HYB2055 consists of unmethylated CpG dinucleotide motifs that are present abundantly in bacterial and parasitic DNA, and a novel DNA structure, called an immunomer that contributes to metabolic stability of the agent. Upon infections, CpG-containing DNA released from pathogenic organisms triggers host immune responses, which are mediated by the action of intracellular toll-like recepto... |
| Immunotherapeutic Combination Product CMB305 | An immunotherapeutic combination product composed of LV305, an engineered lentiviral vector that both targets dendritic cells (DCs) and contains nucleic acids encoding the human tumor-associated cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 (CTAG1), and G305, a cancer vaccine comprised of an NY-ESO-1 recombinant protein and glucopyranosyl lipid adjuvant (GLA)-stable emulsion (GLA-SE), with potential synergistic immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration of LV305, the DC... |
| Immunotherapeutic Gel SRG-514 | An injectable biodegradable hydrogel, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intraoperative injection into the site of surgical tumor resection, the immunotherapeutic gel SRG-514 releases an as of yet unidentified immunotherapeutic agent locally and may, through an as of yet unidentified mechanism of action, stimulate the cancer-suppressed immune system to eliminate any remaining cancer cells locally and systemically which may prevent cancer recurrence and metast... |
| Immunotherapy Regimen MKC-1106-MT | A regimen containing three components: a plasmid encoding portions of the two melanoma-associated antigens Melan A (also called MART-1) and tyrosinase and two synthetic analogs of Melan-A and tyrosinase antigen epitopes with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. First, the plasmid is injected directly into lymph nodes in order to sensitize or prime antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and central memory T cells in lymph nodes to plasmid-expressed Melan A and tyrosinase.  After seve... |
| Immunotoxin CMD-193 | A humanized immunotoxin directed against the Lewis Y antigen conjugated with calicheamicin, a hydrophobic enediyne antibiotic, with potential antineoplastic activity. CMD193 binds to the Lewis Y antigen, a tetrasaccharide expressed on the cell surfaces of many tumor cell types. Upon binding, CMD-193 is internalized, thereby delivering the attached calicheamicin to Lewis Y antigen-expressing tumor cells. Calicheamicin binds non-covalently to the minor groove of DNA and prompts conformational c... |
| Immunotoxin D2C7-(scdsFv)-PE38KDEL | A recombinant immunotoxin fusion protein consisting of single-chain variable-region antibody fragments (scFvs), which contain disulfide stabilized heavy- (Vh) and light- (Vl) chain variable regions of the monoclonal antibody D2C7 (D2C7-scdsFv), targeting both the wild-type form (EGFRwt) and the in-frame deletion mutant form (EGFRvIII) of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), and fused, via a 15-amino acid peptide linker to domains II and III of the Pseudomonas exotoxin A (PE38KDEL) (D2C7-(... |
| Imneskibart | A human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the CD25 subunit-interacting domain of the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2; IL2), with potential immunomodulatory activity. Upon administration, imneskibart targets, binds to and blocks the CD25 subunit-interacting domain of IL-2, thereby blocking the binding of IL-2 to the CD25 subunit (IL-2 receptor subunit alpha; IL-2Ralpha) of the human trimeric IL-2 receptor (IL-2R) expressed on the surface of regulatory T-lymphocytes (Treg... |
| Imsapepimut | A second-generation peptide vaccine derived from the immunomodulatory enzyme indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase (IDO) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with imsapepimut may activate the immune system to induce an immune response against IDO-expressing tumor cells. This may restore the proliferation and activation of various immune cells including cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs), natural killer cells (NKs), and dendritic cells (DCs), and may eradicate IDO-expre... |
| IMT-1012 Immunotherapeutic Vaccine | A multi-peptide cancer vaccine with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. IMT-1012 immunotherapeutic vaccine contains twelve different synthetic peptides or tumor associated antigens (TAAs), including cyclin I (CCNI), cyclin-dependent kinase CDC2, EDDRI and TACE/ADAM17, each of which is involved in a different pathway associated with tumor growth, survival, and metastasis. Each antigen in the vaccine elicits a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against ... |
| Imvotamab | An engineered immunoglobulin M (IgM) bispecific antibody, with potential antineoplastic activity. Imvotamab contains ten high affinity binding domains for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20, and one binding domain for CD3, a T-cell surface antigen. Upon administration, imvotamab binds to both T-cells and CD20-expressing B-lineage tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the CD20-expressing tumor B-cells. Additionally, imv... |
| Imzokitug | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) nonfucosylated (NF) monoclonal antibody against C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, imzokitug targets, binds to and blocks the activity of CCR8 on CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and prevents chemokine ligand 1 (CCL1)-CCR8-mediated signaling. Imzokitug eliminates CCR8-positive Tregs via the induction of Fc-mediated an... |
| Inactivated Oncolytic Virus Particle GEN0101 | An inactivated, non-replicating particle of hemagglutinating virus of Japan (HVJ), an oncolytic virus of the paramyxovirus family, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intracutaneous administration, GEN0101 targets and binds to the cytosolic nucleic acid receptor retinoic acid-inducible gene I (RIG-I). This induces RIG-I-mediated signaling and a potent innate immune response against tumor cells, leading to the activation of natural killer (NK) cells and cytotox... |
| Inalimarev | A cancer vaccine comprised of a recombinant vaccinia viral vector encoding the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), MUC-1 (mucin-1), a transmembrane glycoprotein secreted by glandular tissues, and TRICOM, comprised of the three co-stimulatory molecule transgenes B7-1, ICAM-1 and LFA-3. Upon administration, inalimarev may enhance CEA and MUC-1 presentation to antigen presenting cells (APC) and may activate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against CEA- and MUC-1-expressing tumor cells. |
| Inavolisib | An orally available inhibitor of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, inavolisib binds to and inhibits various members of the PI3K family, including activating mutations in the catalytic alpha isoform PIK3CA. PI3K inhibition prevents the activation of the PI3K-mediated signaling pathway and results in the inhibition of growth and survival of PI3K-overexpressing tumor cells. Dysregulation of the PI3K signaling pathway is frequently ... |
| Incomplete Freund's Adjuvant | A water-in-oil emulsion that stimulates the T-cell immune response to antigens and may be used in various types of cancer vaccines. (NCI04) |
| Incyclinide | A chemically-modified tetracycline with potential antineoplastic activity. Incyclinide inhibits matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs), thereby inducing extracellular matrix degradation, and inhibiting angiogenesis, tumor growth and invasion, and metastasis. This agent also causes mitochondrial depolarization in tumor cells and induces both cellular apoptosis and tissue necrosis. |
| Indatuximab Ravtansine | An immunoconjugate consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against syndecan-1 (CD138) covalently attached to the maytansinoid DM4, a derivative of the cytotoxic agent maytansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, indatuximab ravtansine binds to syndecan-1-expressing tumor cells; upon internalization the DM4 moiety is released, binding to tubulin and disrupting microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, which may result in the inhibition of cell division a... |
| Indibulin | A synthetic small molecule with antimitotic and potential antineoplastic activities. Indibulin binds to a site on tubulin that is different from taxane- or Vinca alkaloid-binding sites, destabilizing tubulin polymerization and inducing tumor cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. This agent has been shown to be active against multidrug-resistant (MDR) and taxane- resistant tumor cell lines. |
| Indicine-N-Oxide | A natural pyrrolizidine alkaloid with antineoplastic properties.  Indicine-N-oxide alkylates and crosslinks DNA. (NCI04) |
| Indisulam | A novel sulfonamide compound with potential antineoplastic activity. Indisulam inhibits cyclin-dependent kinases (CDK), which regulate cell cycle progression and are usually over-expressed in cancerous cells. Inhibition of CDK results in G1/S phase arrest of the cell cycle, and may lead to induction of apoptosis and inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. In addition, indisulam also inhibits carbonic anhydrases (CA), especially isoforms IX and XII that are involved in aqueous humor production... |
| Individualized MVA-based Vaccine TG4050 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) individualized vaccine comprised of a modified Vaccinia virus Ankara (MVA) viral vector encoding tumor-specific neoantigens (TSNAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Following administration of the individualized MVA-based vaccine TG4050, the neoantigens are expressed and presented to the immune system, which induces the activation of a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against tumor cells expressing the patient-specifi... |
| Indole-3-Carbinol | A naturally occurring, orally available cleavage product of the glucosinolate glucobrassicanin, a natural compound present in a wide variety of plant food substances including members of the family Cruciferae with antioxidant and potential chemopreventive properties. Indole-3-carbinol scavenges free radicals and induces various hepatic cytochrome P450 monooxygenases. Specifically, this agent induces the hepatic monooxygenase cytochrome P4501A1 (CYP1A1), resulting in increased 2-hydroxylation ... |
| Indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine against the immunomodulatory enzyme indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase (IDO), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase peptide vaccine may activate the immune system to induce an immune response against IDO-expressing cells. This may increase and restore the proliferation and activation of various immune cells, including dendritic cells (DCs), natural killer (NK) cells, and T-lymphocytes, and may eradicate IDO-expre... |
| Indomethacin | A synthetic nonsteroidal indole derivative with anti-inflammatory activity and chemopreventive properties. As a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), indomethacin inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase, thereby preventing cyclooxygenase-mediated DNA adduct formation by heterocyclic aromatic amines. This agent also may inhibit the expression of multidrug-resistant protein type 1, resulting in increased efficacies of some antineoplastic agents in treating multi-drug resistant tumors. In addi... |
| Indoximod | A methylated tryptophan with immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Indoximod inhibits the enzyme indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase (IDO), which degrades the essential amino acid tryptophan, and may increase or maintain tryptophan levels important to T cell function. Tryptophan depletion is associated with immunosuppression involving T cell arrest and anergy. |
| Indoximod Prodrug NLG802 | An orally bioavailable prodrug of indoximod, a methylated tryptophan, with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, the indoximod prodrug NLG802 is converted to indoximod. Indoximod targets, binds to and inhibits the enzyme indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase (IDO; IDO1), which converts the essential amino acid tryptophan into the immunosuppressive metabolite kynurenine. By increasing tryptophan levels and decreasing kynurenine levels, indoximod restores a... |
| Indusatumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) containing a monoclonal antibody directed against guanylyl cyclase C (GCC or GUCY2C) conjugated to monomethylauristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of indusatumab vedotin selectively binds to GCC, a transmembrane receptor normally found on intestinal cells and dopamine neurons in the brain, but is also overexpressed on the surface of gastrointestin... |
| Inebilizumab | A humanized immunoglobulin IgG1 kappa monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD-19 with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Inebilizumab binds to CD19, which may result in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response and antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) to CD19-expressing B-cells. The Fc portion of inebilizumab does not contain a fucose sugar moiety, which may contribute to its enhanced ADCC activity. CD19 is a membrane antig... |
| Inecalcitol | An analog of calcitriol and a vitamin D3 receptor (VDR) agonist, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, inecalcitol targets and binds to VDR. This activates VDR and VDR-mediated signal transduction pathways. This modulates the VDR-mediated expression of certain genes, including the expression of anti-cancer genes, enhances cellular differentiation, induces tumor cell apoptosis and inhibits tumor cell growth. VDR plays a central role in calcium homeostasis and in the grow... |
| Inetetamab | An Fc-engineered monoclonal antibody targeting the tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, inetetamab targets and specifically binds to HER2 on tumor cells, thereby blocking HER2-mediated signaling. This may inhibit proliferation of HER2-expressing tumor cells. In addition, the Fab region of inetetamab may induce antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tu... |
| Inezetamab | A bispecific antibody directed against both the cell-surface receptor CD40 and the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of inezetamab, the anti-MSLN moiety targets and binds to MSLN expressed on tumor cells. The agonistic anti-CD40 moiety targets and binds to various CD40-expressing immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and induces CD40-dependent signaling pathways, which triggers the p... |
| Infigratinib | An orally bioavailable pan inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Infigratinib selectively binds to and inhibits the activities of FGFRs, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation, and the induction of tumor cell death. FGFRs are a family of receptor tyrosine kinases which may be upregulated in various tumor cell types and may be involved in tumor cell differentiatio... |
| Infigratinib Mesylate | The mesylate salt of infigratinib, an orally bioavailable pan-inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, infigratinib selectively binds to and inhibits the activities of FGFRs, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation, and the induction of tumor cell death. FGFRs are a family of receptor tyrosine kinases which may be upregulated in various tumor cel... |
| Infigratinib Phosphate | The phosphate salt form of infigratinib, an orally bioavailable pan-inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, infigratinib selectively binds to and inhibits the activities of FGFRs, which may result in the inhibition of angiogenesis and cell proliferation, and the induction of cell death in tumors with activating FGFR amplifications, mutations, or fusions. FGFRs are a family of receptor tyros... |
| Infliximab | A recombinant chimeric, mouse-human monoclonal antibody directed against tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha), a protein involved in inflammation, cell survival, and apoptosis. Infliximab may be pro- apoptotic or anti-apoptotic, depending on cell type. (NCI04) |
| Ingenol Mebutate | A selective small-molecule activator of protein kinase C (PKC) isolated from the plant Euphorbia peplus with potential antineoplastic activity. Ingenol mebutate activates various protein kinase C (PKC) isoforms, thereby inducing apoptosis in some tumor cells, including myeloid leukemia cells, melanoma cells, and basal cell carcinoma cells. The PKC family consists of signaling isoenzymes that regulate many cell processes including proliferation, differentiation, and apoptosis. |
| Ingenol Mebutate Gel | A topical, aqueous gel formulation containing the mebutate salt form of ingenol, a selective small-molecule activator of protein kinase C (PKC) that is isolated from the sap of Euphorbia species, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon topical application of the ingenol mebutate gel, ingenol activates various PKC isoforms, which induces apoptosis in certain tumor cells, including myeloid leukemia cells, melanoma cells, and basal cell carcinoma cells. The PKC family consists of signaling ... |
| Ingitamig | A tri-specific natural killer (NK) cell engager targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ingitamig targets and binds to BCMA on tumor cells and simultaneously binds to NK cells via the receptors CD16 and NKG2D (natural killer group 2D; killer cell lectin-like receptor K1; KLRK1), thereby bringing BCMA-express... |
| Iniparib | A small molecule iodobenzamide with potential cytotoxic and antineoplastic activities. Although the mechanism of action is unknown, iniparib appears to be cytotoxic in cells with DNA alterations or DNA damage, like that found in tumor cells with mutations in the ataxia telangiectasia mutated (ATM) gene. ATM encodes a serine/threonine protein kinase and mutations of the gene are associated with ataxia telangiectasia and contribute to certain cancers such as T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia,... |
| Inixaciclib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 2 (CDK2), 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, inixaciclib selectively targets and inhibits CDK2, CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase and prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition. This leads to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CDKs are serin... |
| iNKT Cell Agonist ABX196 | A synthetic glycolipid agonist for natural killer T-cells (NKTs) expressing an invariant (alpha, beta) T-cell receptor (iNKTs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion of the iNKT cell agonist ABX196, this agent targets and binds to iNKTs, thereby activating iNKTs. In turn, iNKTs recognize CD1d-restricted lipid ligands, which are expressed on certain tumor cells, and secrete large amounts of various cytokines. This may activate the immune system against tu... |
| Inlexisertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine-protein kinase ULK 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, inlexisertib targets and binds to ULK1/2. This inhibits cancer autophagy, which mutant RAS cancer cells use for their survival, and results in tumor cell death. ULK1/2 mediates the autophagocytotic process and is often upregulated in cancers, especially in mutant RAS cancers. Autophagy plays a key role in a tumor cell proliferation and survival... |
| Innate Immunostimulator rBBX-01 | A recombinant 19 kDa protein derived from the Apicomplexa protozoan Eimeria with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon administration, innate immunostimulator rBBX-01 activates dendritic cells (DCs), stimulates the Toll-like receptor 11 (TLR-11)-mediated release of interleukin-12 (Il-12) from DCs, and induces a T-helper 1 (Th1) type immune response, which may induce an immune response against tumor cells. Infection with Eimeria, a coccidian commonly infecting the intestin... |
| INO-1001 | A isoindolinone derivative and potent inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) with chemosensitization and radiosensitization properties. INO-1001 inhibits PARP, which may result in inhibition of tumor cell DNA repair mechanisms and, so, tumor cell resistance to chemotherapy and radiation therapy. PARP enzymes are activated by DNA breaks and have been implicated in the repair of DNA single-strand breaks (SSB). |
| Inobrodib | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the highly conserved bromodomains of the histone acetyltransferase (HAT) paralogs, p300 (E1A-associated protein p300; p300 HAT) and CREB binding protein (CBP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, inobrodib selectively and reversibly binds to the bromodomains of p300 and CBP. This disrupts the acetylation of histones and other proteins and prevents the co-activation of key transcription factors that contribute to... |
| Inodiftagene Vixteplasmid | A recombinant DNA plasmid carrying the gene for diphtheria toxin-A (dT-A) chain under the regulation of the H19 promoter, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravesical administration, dT-A chain expression is triggered by the presence of H19 transcription factors that are upregulated in tumor cells. The dT-A chain binds to nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and inactivates the ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2 (EF2), resulting in the inhibition of protein synthesis and ... |
| iNOS Dimerization Inhibitor FK-330 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, iNOS Dimerization Inhibitor FK-330 inhibits iNOS dimerization, which results in decreased nitric oxide (NO) production. iNOS expression is upregulated in certain cancers and may invoke a chronic inflammatory state in tumor cells that promotes metastatic growth. |
| Inosine 5'-monophosphate Dehydrogenase Inhibitor FF-10501-01 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of inosine 5'- monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, IMPDH inhibitor FF-10501-01 competitively inhibits the enzyme IMPDH, thereby preventing the conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthosine monophosphate. This inhibits the synthesis of guanine nucleotides, deprives cancer cells of guanosine triphosphate (GTP), disrupts DNA and RNA synthesis, and decreases tumor cell proliferation. Tumor cells are... |
| Inosine Monophosphate Dehydrogenase Inhibitor AVN944 | An orally available, synthetic small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. AVN944 inhibits inosine monosphosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH), an enzyme involved in the de novo synthesis of guanosine triphosphate (GTP), a purine molecule required for DNA and RNA synthesis.  Inhibition of IMPDH deprives cancer cells of GTP, resulting in disruption of DNA and RNA synthesis, inhibition of cell proliferation, and the induction of apoptosis. AVN944 appears to have a selective effect on cancer... |
| Inositol | A natural sugar found in cell membrane phospholipids, plasma lipoproteins, and (as the phosphate form) in the nucleus with potential chemopreventive properties. As one of a number of intracellular phosphate compounds, inositol is involved in cell signaling and may stimulate tumor cell differentiation. (NCI04) |
| Inotuzumab Ozogamicin | A CD22-targeted cytotoxic immunoconjugate composed of a humanized IgG4 anti-CD22 antibody covalently linked to N-acetyl-gamma-calicheamicin dimethyl hydrazide (CalichDMH) with potential antineoplastic activity. Inotuzumab ozogamicin is rapidly internalized upon binding of the antibody moiety to B cell-specific CD22 receptors, delivering the conjugated CalichDMH intracellularly; the CalichDMH moiety binds to the minor groove of DNA in a sequence-specific manner, resulting in double-strand DNA ... |
| Inproquone | A benzoquinone-based antineoplastic agent. Inproquone was never marketed. |
| Integrin Alpha V Beta 3-targeting Protein ACT50 | An integrin alpha V beta 3-targeting protein, with potential pro-apoptotic, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, integrin alpha V beta 3-targeting protein ACT50 targets the cell surface receptor integrin alpha V beta 3, at a site other than the ligand-binding site, expressed on angiogenic endothelial cells (aECs) and cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and recruits and activates caspase 8. This leads to the apoptosis of alph... |
| Integrin alpha-2 Inhibitor E7820 | A small molecule and aromatic sulfonamide derivative with potential antiangiogenic and antitumor activities. E7820 inhibits angiogenesis by suppressing integrin alpha 2, a cell adhesion molecule expressed on endothelial cells. Inhibition of integrin alpha 2 leads to an inhibition of cell-cell interactions, endothelial cell-matrix interactions, vascular endothelial cell proliferation and angiogenesis. |
| Integrin AlphaVbeta3-targeted Small Molecule-drug Conjugate VIP236 | A small molecule-drug conjugate (SMDC) composed of an integrin alphaVbeta3 binder conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to a camptothecin-based topoisomerase I inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of integrin alphaVbeta3-targeted SMDC VIP236, the integrin alphaVbeta3 binder targets and binds to integrin alphaVbeta3 expressed on tumor cells and tumor vessel endothelial cells. Upon binding and linker cleavage by neutrophil elastase in the tumor microenvironment (... |
| Integrin Receptor Antagonist GLPG0187 | A small molecule integrin receptor antagonist (IRA) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, GLPG0187 binds to and blocks the activity of 5 RGD-integrin receptor subtypes, including alphavbeta1, alphavbeta3, alphavbeta5, alphavbeta6 and alpha5beta1. This may result in the inhibition of endothelial cell-cell interactions and endothelial cell-matrix interactions, and the prevention of angiogenesis and metastasis in tumor cells expressing these integrin receptors. Integrin re... |
| Interferon Alfa-2c | A recombinant form of interferon alpha (IFNa), with immunostimulatory, antiviral and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, interferon alpha-2c (IFNa-2c) targets and binds to specific cell-surface receptors, resulting in the transcription and translation of genes whose protein products mediate antiviral, antiproliferative, anticancer, and immune-modulating effects. This IFN variant has arginine at position 23 and position 34. |
| Interferon Alfacon-1 | An analogue of consensus interferon which contains an additional methionyl amino acid residue.  Consensus interferon (also known as interferon alfacon-1, rCon-IFN, and CIFN) is a genetically engineered synthetic interferon created from the most common amino acid sequences from the naturally occurring alpha interferons.  Alpha interferons bind to specific cell-surface receptors, resulting in the transcription and translation of genes whose protein products have antiviral, antiproliferative, an... |
| Interferon Alfa-N1 | A highly purified alpha interferon produced by a human lymphoid cell line.  Interferon alpha-n1 consists of multiple alpha interferon subtypes, at least two of which are glycosylated.  In contrast, recombinant alpha interferons are individual non-glycosylated proteins produced from individual alpha interferon genes.  Alpha interferons bind to specific cell-surface receptors, resulting in the transcription and translation of genes whose proteins have antiviral, antiproliferative, anticancer, a... |
| Interferon Alfa-N3 | A formulated therapeutic analog of the endogenous alpha interferon containing multiple interferon species with antiviral and antitumor properties.  Interferons bind to specific cell-surface receptors, leading to the transcription and translation of genes with an interferon-specific response element, thereby inducing: antiviral effects (the most important being inhibition of viral protein synthesis); antiproliferative effects (including inhibition of cellular growth and alteration of cellular ... |
| Interferon Beta-1A | A recombinant form of the endogenous cytokine human interferon (IFN) beta-1a, with antiproliferative, antiviral and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, interferon beta-1a targets and binds to specific type I IFN receptors, which eventually results in the transcription and translation of genes containing an interferon-specific response element and leads to the production of various anti-viral proteins and modulates the production of various immune-modulating proteins. This reduce... |
| Interferon Beta-secreting Mesenchymal Stem Cells | Human autologous mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) harvested from the bone marrow of healthy individuals and transduced with a retroviral vector encoding the human cytokine interferon beta (IFNb), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of IFNb-secreting MSCs, the cells are attracted and specifically migrate to tumor sites and become part of the tumor microenvironment. Since the MSCs express IFNb, these cells selectively deliver high levels of IFNb to th... |
| Interferon Gamma-1b | A recombinant form of the endogenous cytokine human interferon (IFN) gamma-1b, with immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, IFN gamma-1b targets, binds to, and activates the cell-surface IFN-gamma receptor, stimulating antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), activating natural killer (NK) cells, and enhancing the oxidative metabolism of macrophages. IFN-gamma plays important roles in the innate and adaptive immune responses. |
| Interferon-gamma-expressing Adenovirus Vaccine ASN-002 | A replication-defective adenoviral serotype 5 vector encoding a recombinant form of the human cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g), with potential antineoplastic and immunoregulatory activities. Upon intratumoral administration, the sustained expression of IFN-g by IFN-g-expressing adenovirus vaccine ASN-002 promotes a T-helper type 1 (Th1) immune response and inhibits the Th2-mediated cytokine production observed in many cutaneous lymphomas. IFN-g also mediates interleukin-12 (IL-12) production... |
| Interleukin-12 Gene | The DNA sequence that encodes the protein cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12). When introduced as the complementary DNA (cDNA) form into tumor cells by, for example, a genetically engineered adenovirus vector, the transfected IL-12 cDNA expresses IL-12 which activates antitumoral natural killer (NK) cells and CD8+ T-cells and stimulates the secretion of interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma), potentially inhibiting tumor cell metastasis. This gene therapy may also result in IL-12-mediated inhibition of vas... |
| Interleukin-12-Fc Fusion Protein DF6002 | A fusion protein composed of human interleukin-12 (IL-12) fused to a Fc fragment, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of IL-12-Fc fusion protein DF6002, the IL-12 moiety binds to the IL-12 receptor. This may activate the immune system by promoting the secretion of interferon-gamma, activating natural killer cells (NKs), and inducing cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) responses, which may result in both decreased tumor cell proliferation and enhanced im... |
| Interleukin-15 Agonist Fusion Protein SHR1501 | A human Fc fusion protein composed of the cytokine interleukin (IL)-15 cross-linked with the high-affinity binding sushi domain of IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, SHR-1501 activates and increases the levels of natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8+ T-cells without stimulating regulatory T-cells (Tregs). The memory T-cells enhance the secretion of the cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g), which further potentiates the immune response... |
| Interleukin-15 Fusion Protein BJ-001 | A human fusion protein composed of the cytokine interleukin (IL)-15 linked with an integrins-targeting moiety, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, the integrins-targeting moiety of BJ-001 targets tumor cells that overexpress integrins such as alpha v beta 3 (avb3), alpha v beta 5 (avb5) and alpha v beta 6 (avb6) and the IL-15 moiety binds to the IL-2/IL-15 receptor beta-common gamma chain (IL-2Rbetagamma) receptor on natural killer (NK) cells and CD8+ T-l... |
| Interleukin-15/Interleukin-15 Receptor Alpha Complex-Fc Fusion Protein XmAb24306 | An interleukin (IL)-15/IL-15-receptor alpha (IL-15Ra) complex fused to a bispecific Fc domain, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, XmAb24306 stimulates the proliferation of natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8+ T-cells. The memory T-cells enhance the secretion of the cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g), which further potentiates the immune response against tumor cells. This may increase tumor cell killing and decrease tumor cell proliferation. IL-15 regulates CD8+ T... |
| Interleukin-2 Gene | The DNA sequence that encodes the protein cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2). When introduced as the complementary DNA (cDNA) form into tumor cells by, for example, a genetically engineered adenovirus vector, the transfected IL-2 cDNA expresses IL-2 which may activate antitumoral natural killer cells and elicit an antitumoral cytotoxic T-cell response, resulting in an inhibition of tumor progression. (NCI04) |
| Interleukin-2 Liposome | A formulation in which liposomes are loaded with the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2). By activating cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, such as lymphokine-activated killer cells, and increasing levels of the cytotoxic cytokines interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) and transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta), IL-2 may exhibit antitumoral activity.  Liposomal formulations of IL-2 may promote entry of the cytokine into target tumor cells and may be used as an immunoadjuvant in cancer vaccine therapy. (NCI04) |
| Interleukin-2/Interleukin-15 Receptor Agonist NL-201 | An interleukin-2 (IL-2) and interleukin-15 (IL-15) receptor agonist with high binding affinity for the common heterodimeric receptor IL-2Rbeta-gamma, which is composed of the IL-2 receptor subunit beta (IL-2Rbeta; CD122) and IL-2 receptor subunit gamma (IL-2Rgamma; common gamma; CD132), and no binding affinity for the IL-2 receptor subunit alpha (IL-2Ralpha; CD25), with potential immunoregulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IL-2/IL-15 receptor agonist NL-201 targets an... |
| Intetumumab | A pan alpha-v human monoclonal antibody that recognizes alpha-v beta-1, alpha-v beta-3, alpha-v beta-5, and alpha-v beta-6 integrins with antiangiogenic and antitumor activities. Intetumumab competitively binds to and blocks both alpha-v beta-3 and alpha-v beta-5 integrins, resulting in inhibition of integrin-mediated tumor angiogenesis and tumor growth. Integrins facilitate the adhesion of stimulated endothelial cells to the extracellular matrix (ECM); trigger the secretion of ECM-rearrangin... |
| Intiquinatine | An antineoplastic agent. |
| Intismeran Autogene | An mRNA-based individualized, therapeutic personalized cancer vaccine (PCV) targeting twenty tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) that are specifically expressed by the patient's cancer cells, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. The cells from the patient's tumor are analyzed, and genetic sequencing is used to identify twenty neoantigen epitopes that may elicit the strongest immune response in the patient. The sequences encoding the twenty patient-specific epitopes are... |
| Intoplicine | A benzopyridoindole derivative with antineoplastic property. Intoplicine inhibits activities of both topoisomerase I and II via intercalating DNA helix, thereby hindering the movements of enzymes along DNA molecules during DNA transcription and replication, respectively. Furthermore, this agent stabilizes DNA-enzyme complexes during unwinding processes by both topoisomerases, leading to double- and single-stranded DNA breaks. Consequently, these effects bring about cell growth inhibition and ... |
| Intrathecal Deferoxamine | An intrathecal (IT) formulation of deferoxamine (DFO), an iron-chelating agent that can be used to deplete free iron and lower iron levels, and with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon IT administration via Ommaya reservoir, DFO chelates free iron within the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by forming the iron complex ferrioxamine. This lowers the amount of iron available for cancer cell growth and survival. Cancer cells show increased iron uptake as iron is needed for rapid tumor cell prolifera... |
| Inulin | A naturally occurring, indigestible and non-absorbable oligosaccharide produced by certain plants with prebiotic and potential anticancer activity. Inulin stimulates the growth of beneficial bacteria in the colon, including Bifidobacteria and Lactobacilli, thereby modulating the composition of microflora. This creates an environment that protects against pathogens, toxins and carcinogens, which can cause inflammation and cancer. In addition, fermentation of inulin leads to an increase in shor... |
| Inupadenant | An orally bioavailable immune checkpoint inhibitor and antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, inupadenant selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents tumor-released adenosine from interacting with the A2A receptors, thereby blocking the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation of T-lymphocytes, ... |
| Iobenguane I-131 | An I 131 radioiodinated synthetic analogue of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine. Iobenguane localizes to adrenergic tissue and, in radioiodinated forms, may be used to image or eradicate tumor cells that take up and metabolize norepinephrine. |
| Iodine I 124 Monoclonal Antibody A33 | A radioimmunoconjugate of a humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) A33 labelled with Iodine 124 (I-124). MoAb A33 recognizes A33 antigen, a 43 KDa transmembrane glycoprotein of the immunoglobulin superfamily, highly and homogenously expressed in 95% of colorectal cancer metastases, with only restricted expression in normal colonic mucosa. I-124 MoAb A33 delivers beta particle emitting I-124 nuclide directly to metastatic colorectal tissues, thereby this agent could be used in kinetics studies o... |
| Iodine I 124 Monoclonal Antibody M5A | A radioimmunoconjugate comprised of M5A, a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 5 (CEA or CEACAM5), labeled with iodine I 124 (I-124) with potential radiolocalization applications. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of iodine I 124 monoclonal antibody M5A specifically binds to cells expressing CEA. Upon binding, the radioisotope moiety can be detected using positron-emission tomography (PET), thereby allowing the imaging ... |
| Iodine I 125-Anti-EGFR-425 Monoclonal Antibody | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of a murine IgG2a monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) labeled with iodine I 125 with potential antineoplastic activity. Iodine I 125 anti-EGFR-425 monoclonal antibody binds specifically to the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR). Upon binding to EGFR-expressing tumor cells, this agent is internalized, selectively delivering a potentially cytotoxic dose of gamma radiation. EGFR is a receptor tyrosine kinas... |
| Iodine I 131 Anti-Fibronectin Antibody Fragment L19-SIP | An iodine 131 radioimmunoconjugate of a small immunoprotein (SIP), derived from the variable region fragment of human monoclonal antibody L19, that is directed against the extra-domain B (ED-B) of fibronectin, with potential radioimmunotherapeutic activity. The SIP moiety of iodine I 131 anti-fibronectin antibody fragment L19-SIP binds to the ED-B domain of fibronectin on tumor cells in the tumor neovasculature. Upon internalization, the I 131 radionuclide may selectively detect or deliver cy... |
| Iodine I 131 Apamistamab | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of BC8, a murine IgG1 anti-CD45 monoclonal antibody labeled with iodine 131 (I-131), with radioimmunotherapeutic properties. Using monoclonal antibody BC8 as a carrier for I-131 results in the targeted destruction of cells expressing CD45. CD45 is tyrosine phosphatase expressed on virtually all leukocytes, including myeloid and lymphoid precursors in bone marrow and mature lymphocytes in lymph nodes; it is also expressed on most myeloid and lymphoid leukemic ... |
| Iodine I 131 Derlotuximab Biotin | An iodine 131 labeled radioimmunoconjugate of monoclonal antibody (MOAB) TNT-1/B with radioimaging and antineoplastic properties. MOAB TNT-1/B was developed for radioimmunotherapy of solid tumors, designated as Tumor Necrosis Treatment (TNT). TNT exploits the presence of degenerating and necrotic cells within tumors by utilizing MOAbs directed against universal, intracellular nucleosomal determinants consisting of histone H1 and DNA. This MOAB was conjugated with biotin (B) molecules, which i... |
| Iodine I 131 Ethiodized Oil | A cytotoxic radioconjugate consisting of lipiodol, an iodinated ethyl ester derived from poppy seed oil, labeled with iodine 131 (I-131).  I-131 Lipiodol accumulates in hepatocellular carcinoma and hepatoblastoma tumor cells, resulting in targeted cytotoxicity to tumor cells while sparing surrounding normal cells and tissues. (NCI04) |
| Iodine I 131 Iopofosine | A radioconjugate composed of iopofosine, a phospholipid ether analog, labeled with the radioactive isotope iodine I 131, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, iodine I 131 iopofosine selectively accumulates in and retains within tumor cells for a prolonged period of time due to the decreased activity of a phospholipase D (PLD) in tumor cells compared to normal cells, thereby delivering cytotoxic radiation specifically to tumor cells.  PLD is an enzyme found in the cell ... |
| Iodine I 131 IPA | A radioconjugate consisting of the tumor-specific amino acid derivative 4-iodo-L-phenylalanine labeled with iodine I 131, a beta emitting radionuclide, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, iodine I 131 IPA actively crosses the blood-brain barrier and accumulates specifically in gliomas, via the amino acid transport system l-amino acid transporter 1 (LAT1) over-expressed in malignant glioma cells. where it delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. Cells that are expo... |
| Iodine I 131 MIP-1095 | A radioconjugate composed of MIP-1095, a urea-based ligand for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) radiolabeled with iodine I 131 (I131), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of iodine I 131 MIP-1095, the MIP-1095 moiety selectively targets and binds to the extracellular domain of PSMA, thereby delivering cytotoxic iodine I 131 specifically to PSMA-expressing cancer cells. PSMA is a transmembrane glycoprotein that is highly expre... |
| Iodine I 131 Monoclonal Antibody 81C6 | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of 81C6, a murine IgG2 anti-tenascin monoclonal antibody labeled with iodine 131 (I-131), with radioimaging and radioimmunotherapeutic activities. Using monoclonal antibody 81C6 as a carrier for I-131 results in the targeted imaging and/or destruction of cells expressing tenascin. Tenascin is an extracellular matrix protein which is overexpressed in gliomas and other cancers. |
| Iodine I 131 Monoclonal Antibody CC49-deltaCH2 | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of the humanized CH2 domain-deleted monoclonal antibody CC49 and iodine I 131 with antineoplastic activity. Monoclonal antibody CC49-deltaCH2 targets the tumor-associated glycoprotein 72 (TAG-72) that is expressed by a wide range of human neoplasms including colorectal, gastric, pancreatic, ovarian, endometrial, breast, non-small cell lung, and prostate cancers. Iodine I 131 monoclonal antibody CC49-deltaCH2 binds to tumor cells expressing TAG-72, selectively... |
| Iodine I 131 Monoclonal Antibody F16SIP | A fully human monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against human A1 domain of tenascin-C, in small immunoprotein (SIP) format conjugated with iodine 131 with potential antineoplastic activity. Iodine I 131 MoAb F16SIP binds to tenascin-C on the vascular tissues and delivers cytotoxic radiation to the tumors, thereby minimizing systemic radiotoxicity. Tenascin-C is a glycoprotein of the extracellular matrix, and the large isoform of this matrix protein is expressed and restricted around vascular structu... |
| Iodine I 131 Monoclonal Antibody G-250 | A radioimmunoconjugate comprised of the chimeric monoclonal antibody G-250 conjugated with iodine I 131 with potential antineoplastic activity. The antibody moiety of iodine I 131 chimeric monoclonal antibody G-250 binds to G-250, a renal-cell carcinoma-associated antigen, delivering cytotoxic iodine I 131 specifically to renal carcinoma cells that express G-250. |
| Iodine I 131 Monoclonal Antibody muJ591 | A radioimmunoconjugate of a mouse monoclonal antibody (MoAb) J591 labeled with Iodine 131 (I-131). MoAb muJ591 recognizes the extracellular domain of the prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and reacts with tumor vascular endothelium. Using MoAb muJ591 as a carrier for I-131 results in the targeted imaging and/or destruction of cells overexpressed PSM. |
| Iodine I 131 Omburtamab | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of the iodine 131-radiolabeled murine IgG1 monoclonal antibody 8H9 directed against the surface immunomodulatory glycoprotein 4Ig-B7-H3 with potential radioimaging and radioimmunotherapeutic uses. Iodine I 131 monoclonal antibody 8H9 binds to 4Ig-B7-H3 (human B7-H3 with 4 Ig-like domains) and may be used to radioimage and/or destroy tumor cells that express tenascin. 4Ig-B7-H3 inhibits T-cell activation and the production of effector cytokines such as interfe... |
| Iodine I 131 Rituximab | A radioimmunoconjugate comprised of rituximab, a recombinant chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against the CD20 antigen, and labeled with iodine I 131 with potential antineoplastic activity. The antibody moiety of iodine I 131 rituximab binds to the CD20 antigen thereby delivering cytotoxic iodine I 131 specifically to cancer cells expressing CD20. The CD20 antigen, a hydrophobic transmembrane protein, is expressed on normal pre-B and mature B lymphocytes. |
| Iodine I 131 SGMIB-Anti-HER2 CAM-H2 | A radioconjugate composed of a camelid single domain antibody (sdAb) CAM-H2 (VHH1; sdAb 2Rs 15d) directed against human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2, EGFR2, ERBB2) that is covalently linked via N-succinimidyl 4-guanidinomethyl-3-iodobenzoate (SGMIB) to the radionuclide iodine I 131, with radioimaging and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of iodine I 131 SGMIB-anti-HER2 CAM-H2, the anti-HER2 antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2-expressing cells. This facilitates b... |
| Iodine I 131 Tenatumomab | A radioimmunoconjugate of tenatumomab, a murine monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) tenascin-C (TNC), labeled with iodine I 131, with potential antineoplastic activity. The antibody moiety of iodine I 131 tenatumomab binds to TNC, thereby delivering a cytotoxic dose of iodine I 131 specifically to tumors expressing TNC. TNC, an extracellular matrix protein, is upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types; it plays a key role in invasion, tumor cell proliferation a... |
| Iodine I 131 TM-601 | An iodine 131 (I 131) radioconjugate of the synthetic chlorotoxin (CTX) TM-601 with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. CTX is a 36 amino acid neurotoxin found in the venom of the giant yellow scorpion Leiurus quinquestriatus that preferentially binds malignant cells of neuroectodermal origin. The recombinant version of this peptide, TM-601, is expressed in and purified from E. coli and then covalently linked to I 131 to produce 131I-TM-601. 131I-TM-601 binds to tumor cell... |
| Iodine I 131 Tositumomab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the CD20 protein expressed on the surface of B-lymphocytes and radiolabeled with the radioisotope iodine I 131 with potential antineoplastic activity. Iodine I 131 tositumomab binds to and selectively delivers cyctotoxic radiation to CD20-expressing B-lymphocytes, thereby minimizing systemic radiotoxicity. |
| Iodine I-131 | A radioactive isotope of iodine with an atomic mass of 131, a half life of eight days, and potential antineoplastic activity. Selectively accumulating in the thyroid gland, iodine I 131 emits beta and gamma particles, thereby killing thyroid cells and decreasing thyroid hormone production. |
| Ioflubenzamide I-131 | An iodine 131-radiolabeled small-molecule benzamide compound with potential antineoplastic activity. The benzamide moiety of 131-I-MIP-1145 binds to melanin, selectively delivering a cyotoxic dose of gamma and beta radiation to melanin-expressing tumor cells. Melanin pigments, polymer derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine, are over-expressed in approximately 40% of melanomas. |
| Ionomycin | A polyether antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces conglobatus sp. nov. Trejo with antineoplastic activity.  Ionomycin is a calcium ionophore that increases intracellular Ca++ levels, possibly relating to endonuclease activation of lymphocytes and decreased ratio of Bcl-2 to Bax and ultimately apoptosis.  In addition, this agent is used to investigate the role of intracellular calcium in cellular processes. (NCI) |
| Ipafricept | A proprietary fusion protein comprised of the cysteine-rich domain of frizzled family receptor 8 (Fzd8) fused to the human immunoglobulin Fc domain with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, ipafricept competes with the membrane-bound Fzd8 receptor for its ligand, Wnt proteins, thereby antagonizing Wnt signaling. This may result in the inhibition of Wnt-driven tumor growth. Fzd8, a member of the Frizzled family of G protein-coupled receptors, is one of the compon... |
| Iparomlimab/Tuvonralimab | A mixture of the two engineered monoclonal antibodies iparomlimab, which is an immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and tuvonralimab, which is an IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of iparomlimab/... |
| Ipatasertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B) with potential antineoplastic activity. Ipatasertib binds to and inhibits the activity of Akt in a non-ATP-competitive manner, which may result in the inhibition of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway and tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. Activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis and dysregulated PI3K/Akt signaling may contr... |
| Ipilimumab | A recombinant human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4), with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Ipilimumab binds to CTLA4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA4, an inhibitory receptor and member of the immunoglobulin su... |
| Ipomeanol | A natural toxic furan isolated from a fungus-infected sweet potato (Ipomoea batatas) with potential antineoplastic activity.  Ipomeanol is activated by mixed function oxidases in vivo to its epoxide form, an alkylating agent that covalently binds cell macromolecules. This agent causes cell death by a p53-independent mechanism. (NCI04) |
| Iproplatin | A synthetic second-generation platinum-containing compound related to cisplatin. Iproplatin binds to and forms DNA crosslinks and platinum-DNA adducts, resulting in DNA replication failure and cell death.  Although less prone to glutathione inactivation compared to cisplatin, resistance to this agent has been observed in vitro due to repair of platination damage by tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| iPSC-derived Allogeneic Anti-CD19 1XX-CAR T-cells FT819 | A preparation of off-the-shelf (OTS) T-lymphocytes, generated from an induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) line, that have been genetically modified to express a CD19 1XX chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) that targets the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, linked to the co-stimulatory intracellular signaling domains of CD28 and the zeta chain of the TCR (T-cell receptor)/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (CD28zeta; CD28z), and inserted into the T-cell receptor alpha constant (TRAC) locus and edited for ... |
| iPSC-derived Allogeneic Anti-HER2 CAR T-cells FT825 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation of induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC)-derived, multiplexed-engineered alpha-beta T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR), using a specific H2CasMab-2 binder and Trac-mediated 1XX CAR, with a specific binding domain targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor type 2 (HER2; EGFR2; ErbB2), with potential antineoplastic activity. FT825 contains seven synthetic controls in order to manipulate cellular f... |
| iPSC-derived Anti-BCMA CAR/CD16/IL-15RF-expressing CD38-eliminated NK Cells FT576 | An allogeneic, off-the-shelf, natural killer (NK) cell product derived from a clonal master induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) line, and engineered and multiplex-edited to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), a high-affinity, non-cleavable CD16 (hnCD16) Fc receptor and a recombinant fusion of IL-15 and IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15RF), and to e... |
| iPSC-derived Anti-CD19 CAR/CD16/IL-15RF/ADR-expressing CD38-eliminated NK Cells FT522 | An allogeneic, off-the-shelf, natural killer (NK) cell product derived from a clonal master induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) line, and engineered and multiplex-edited to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, a high-affinity, non-cleavable CD16 (hnCD16) Fc receptor, a recombinant fusion of IL-15 and IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15RF), an alloimmune defense receptor (ADR) that targets the immune co-stimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumo... |
| iPSC-derived CD16/IL-15RF-expressing Anti-CD19 CAR-NK Cells FT596 | An allogeneic, off-the-shelf, chimeric antigen receptor (CAR)-natural killer (NK) cell product derived from a clonal master induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) line, and engineered to express a NK cell-specific anti-CD19 CAR, a high-affinity, non-cleavable CD16 (hnCD16) Fc receptor, and a recombinant fusion of IL-15 and IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15RF), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, iPSC-derived CD16/IL-15RF-expressing Anti-CD19 CAR-NK Cel... |
| iPSC-derived CD16/IL-15RF-expressing CD38-eliminated NK Cells FT538 | An allogeneic, off-the-shelf, natural killer (NK) cell product derived from a clonal master induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) line, and engineered and CRISPR-edited to express a high-affinity, non-cleavable CD16 (hnCD16) Fc receptor and a recombinant fusion of IL-15 and IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15RF), and to eliminate CD38 expression, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, iPSC-derived CD16/IL-15RF-expressing CD38-eliminated NK cells FT538 bind... |
| iPSC-derived CD16-expressing Natural Killer Cells FT516 | An allogeneic, off-the-shelf, natural killer (NK) cell product derived from a clonal master induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) line, and engineered to express a high-affinity, non-cleavable CD16 (hnCD16) Fc receptor, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulatory activities. Upon administration, iPSC-derived CD16-expressing NK cells FT516 bind to the Fc portion of tumor cell-bound monoclonal antibodies and activate NK cell activation, cytokine secretion and antibody-dependent cellular ... |
| iPSC-derived Natural Killer Cells FT500 | A preparation of off-the-shelf, natural killer (NK) cells derived from a clonal master induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) line, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulatory activities. Upon administration, iPSC-derived natural killer cells FT500 bind to stress-induced ligands on tumor cells, leading to tumor cell lysis and release of tumor neoantigens. Additionally, iPSC-NK cells secrete inflammatory cytokines and chemokines including interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma), tumor necrosis fact... |
| Iratumumab | A fully human monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity.  MDX-060 is a fully humanized antibody that targets CD30, a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily found on activated lymphocytes.  CD30 is over-expressed in various lymphoproliferative disorders, Hodgkin disease and other lymphomas, and other cancers. (NCI04) |
| IRE1 RNase Inhibitor ORIN1001 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine-protein kinase/endoribonuclease inositol-requiring enzyme 1 (inositol-requiring enzyme 1 alpha; IRE1), with potential immunoactivating, chemosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, IRE1 RNase inhibitor ORIN1001 targets and binds to the RNase domain of IRE1, thereby inhibiting the activity of IRE1. This prevents activation of the IRE1/X-Box Binding Protein 1 (XBP1) pathway, inhibits unfolded protein response ... |
| Iridium Ir 192 | A radioactive isotope of iridium. Iridium-192 emits gamma rays and has a half-life of 74 days. A high dose rate of this radioisotope can be used in brachytherapy to treat tumors by selectively delivering a cytotoxic dose of radiation to the tumor site. |
| Irinotecan | A semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin, a cytotoxic, quinoline-based alkaloid extracted from the Asian tree Camptotheca acuminata.  Irinotecan, a prodrug, is converted to a biologically active metabolite 7-ethyl-10-hydroxy-camptothecin (SN-38) by a carboxylesterase-converting enzyme.  One thousand-fold more potent than its parent compound irinotecan, SN-38 inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA, resulting in DNA breaks that i... |
| Irinotecan Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of a semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin, a cytotoxic, quinoline-based alkaloid extracted from the Asian tree Camptotheca acuminata.  Irinotecan, a prodrug, is converted to a biologically active metabolite 7-ethyl-10-hydroxy-camptothecin (SN-38) by a carboxylesterase-converting enzyme.  One thousand-fold more potent than its parent compound irinotecan, SN-38 inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA, resu... |
| Irinotecan Hydrochloride and Floxuridine Liposome LY01616 | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) humanized bispecific antibody directed against the transforming growth factor beta (TGFbeta) activator glycoprotein A repetitions predominant (GARP; leucine-rich repeat-containing protein 32; LRRC32) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; PDL1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GARP/PD-L1 bispecific antibody... |
| Irinotecan Liposome HR070803 | A liposomal formulation of the semisynthetic camptothecin analogue irinotecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of irinotecan liposome HR070803, irinotecan selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes during the S phase of the cell cycle, inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-strand DNA breaks and producing lethal double-strand DNA breaks when complexes are encountered by the DNA replication machinery. Liposome encapsulation of th... |
| Irinotecan Sucrosofate | A liposomal dispersion formulated with the semisynthetic camptothecin analogue irinotecan, provided as the hydrochloride trihydrate form, which is encapsulated and entrapped within liposomes in a gelated or precipitated state as the irinotecan sucrose octasulfate (sucrosulfate) salt form, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the liposomes containing irinotecan sucrosulfate, irinotecan, a prodrug, is converted to a biologically active metabolite 7-ethyl-10-hydroxy-cam... |
| Irinotecan/P-glycoprotein Inhibitor HM30181AK Combination Tablet | An orally bioavailable combination tablet containing the semisynthetic camptothecin derivative irinotecan and the multidrug resistance (MDR) efflux pump P-glycoprotein (P-gp) inhibitor HM30181AK, with potential antineoplastic activity. HM30181A binds to P-gp and prevents the P-gp-mediated efflux of irinotecan from tumor cells, which may result in greater intracellular concentrations of irinotecan and enhanced cytotoxicity. Retained intracellularly, the prodrug irinotecan is converted, by a ca... |
| Irinotecan-Eluting Beads | Microporous hydrospheres of polyvinylalcohol (PVA) impregnated with irinotecan with potential antineoplastic activity. In transarterial chemoembolization (TACE), irinotecan-eluting beads are administered into blood vessels that feed the tumor, occluding tumor blood vessels and inducing ischemic tumor necrosis while simultaneously delivering high-dose chemotherapy locally. Irinotecan, a semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin, inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the cleavable com... |
| Irofulven | A semisynthetic sesquiterpene derivative of illudin S, a natural toxin isolated from the fungus Omphalotus illudens.  Irofulven alkylates DNA and protein macromolecules, forms adducts, and arrests cells in the S-phase of the cell cycle.  This agent requires NADPH-dependent metabolism by alkenal/one oxidoreductase for activity. Irofulven is more active in vitro against tumor cells of epithelial origin and is more resistant to deactivation by p53 loss and MDR1 than other alkylating agents. (NCI04) |
| Iroplact | A recombinant form of the endogenous chemokine platelet factor 4 with potential antiangiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. As a heparin-binding tetramer, iroplact inhibits growth factor-stimulated endothelial cell proliferation, migration, and angiogenesis; it has been shown that this agent inhibits fibroblast growth factor 2 (FGF2) angiogenic activity downstream from the FGF2 receptor. Its activity is antagonized by heparin. Recombinant platelet factor 4 may also directly inhibit the pr... |
| Irosustat | Steroid sulfatase inhibitor BN 83495 selectively binds to and inhibits steroid sulfatase (STS), which may inhibit the production of locally active estrogens and so inhibit estrogen-dependent cell growth in tumor cells, such as those of the breast, ovary, and endometrium. STS is a cytoplasmic enzyme responsible for the conversion of circulating inactive estrone sulfate and estradiol sulfate to biologically active unconjugated estrone and estradiol, respectively. |
| Irpagratinib | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, irpagratinib is specifically and irreversibly binds to the cysteine residue at position 552 (Cys 552) that is within the active site of FGFR4. This blocks FGFR4 autophosphorylation and activation of receptor tyrosine kinase activity that would normally occur after binding to its ligand, fibroblast growth factor 19 (FGF19), which bo... |
| Irradiated Allogeneic Human Lung Cancer Cells Expressing OX40L-Ig Vaccine HS-130 | An allogeneic irradiated human lung cancer cell vaccine expressing a fusion protein composed of the OX40 ligand (OX40L) linked to an immunoglobulin (Ig) (OX40L-Ig), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration of irradiated allogeneic human lung cancer cells expressing OX40L-Ig vaccine HS-130, the irradiated lung cancer cells continuously express OX40L-Ig. OX40L may then target, bind to and activate its cognate receptor, tumor necrosis factor ... |
| IRS1/IRS2/STAT3 Inhibitor NT219 | An inhibitor of signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3) and insulin receptor substrate 1 (IRS1) and 2 (IRS2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the IRS1/IRS2/STAT3 inhibitor NT219 specifically targets and binds to IRS1/2 and STAT3. Inhibiting IRS1/2 prevents IRS1/2-mediated signaling pathways and other tumor survival pathways. Inhibiting STAT3 prevents nuclear translocation of STAT3 and the STAT3-mediated regulation of oncogenes expression. This c... |
| Iruplinalkib | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, iruplinalkib binds to and inhibits ALK tyrosine kinase, ALK fusion proteins, ALK point mutation variants ALK L1196M, ALK C1156Y, and EGFR L858R/T790M. Inhibition of ALK leads to the disruption of ALK-mediated signaling and the inhibition of cell growth in ALK-expressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin re... |
| Isatuximab | A humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein CD-38 with potential antineoplastic activity. Isatuximab specifically binds to CD38 on CD38-positive tumor cells. This may trigger antitumoral antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC) and apoptosis eventually leading to cell lysis in CD38-expressing tumor cells. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is present on various immune cells and hematologic maligna... |
| Isobrucein B | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from the tropical plant Cedronia granatensis with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities. (NCI04) |
| Isocoumarin NM-3 | An orally bioavailable antiangiogenic isocoumarin with potential antineoplastic activity.  NM-3 inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), a pro-angiogenic growth factor, thereby inhibiting endothelial cell proliferation.  This agent also induces apoptosis by a mechanism involving reactive oxygen species. (NCI04) |
| Iso-fludelone | A third-generation epothilone B analogue with potential anti-mitotic and antineoplastic activites. Iso-fludelone binds to tubulin and induces microtubule polymerization and stabilizes microtubules against depolymerization, which may result in the inhibition of cell division, the induction of G2/M arrest, and apoptosis. Compared to other generations of epothilones, iso-fludelone exhibits increased stability, water solubility, potency, duration of action, tumor penetration as well as reduced to... |
| Isotretinoin | A naturally-occurring retinoic acid with potential antineoplastic activity. Isotretinoin binds to and activates nuclear retinoic acid receptors (RARs); activated RARs serve as transcription factors that promote cell differentiation and apoptosis. This agent also exhibits immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory responses and inhibits ornithine decarboxylase, thereby decreasing polyamine synthesis and keratinization. |
| Ispectamab Debotansine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of ispectamab, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1)-kappa monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily, member 17; TNFRSF17) site-specifically conjugated, with a non-cleavable linker, to a maytansinoid payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of ispectamab debotansine, the ispectamab moiety targets and binds to the cell sur... |
| Ispinesib | A synthetic small molecule, derived from quinazolinone, with antineoplastic properties. Ispinesib selectively inhibits the mitotic motor protein, kinesin spindle protein (KSP), resulting in inhibition of mitotic spindle assembly, induction of cell cycle arrest during the mitotic phase, and cell death in tumor cells that are actively dividing. Because KSP is not involved in nonmitotic processes, such as neuronal transport, ispinesib may be less likely to cause the peripheral neuropathy often a... |
| Ispinesib Mesylate | The mesylate salt form of ispinesib, a synthetic small molecule, derived from quinazolinone, and kinesin spindle protein (KSP) inhibitor, with antineoplastic activity. Ispinesib selectively inhibits KSP and prevents its binding to microtubules, resulting in inhibition of mitotic spindle assembly, induction of cell cycle arrest during the M-phase, and cell death in tumor cells that are actively dividing. |
| ISS 1018 CpG Oligodeoxynucleotide | A short, synthetic, unmethylated CpG motif-based oligodeoxynucleotide (CpG ODN) with immunostimulatory activity. As an immunostimulatory sequence (ISS) that signals through Toll-like receptor 9 (TLR9), ISS 1018 CpG ODN induces the production of immunoglobulin by B cells and interferon (IFN) -alpha, IFN-beta, interleukin (IL) -12, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) -alpha by plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDC). pDC, through cell-cell contact, and IFN-alpha and -beta, in turn, induce natural killer... |
| Istiratumab | A bispecific monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor ErbB3 (Her3) and the human insulin-like growth factor-1 receptor (IGF-1R), with potential antineoplastic activity. The anti-IGF-1R targeting arm of Istiratumab binds to IGF-1R on tumor cells thereby preventing the binding of the natural ligands IGF-1, 2 and heregulin (HRG) to IGF-1R; the anti-ErbB3 therapeutic arm prevents the binding of neuregulin (NRG) to ErbB3. This prevents the activation of the P... |
| Istisociclib | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of the serine/threonine cyclin-dependent kinase 9 (CDK9), the catalytic subunit of the RNA polymerase II (RNA Pol II) elongation factor positive transcription elongation factor b (PTEF-b; PTEFb), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, istisociclib targets, binds to and blocks the phosphorylation and kinase activity of CDK9, thereby preventing PTEFb-mediated activation of RNA Pol II, leading to the inhibition of gene transc... |
| Itacitinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 1 (JAK1) with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, itacitinib selectively inhibits JAK-1, thereby inhibiting the phosphorylation of signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) proteins and the production of proinflammatory factors induced by other cytokines, including interleukin-23 (IL-23) and interleukin-6 (IL-6). The JAK-STAT pathway plays a key role in the signaling of ma... |
| Itacitinib Adipate | The adipate salt form of itacitinib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 1 (JAK1) with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, itacitinib selectively inhibits JAK-1, thereby inhibiting the phosphorylation of signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) proteins and the production of proinflammatory factors induced by other cytokines, including interleukin-23 (IL-23) and interleukin-6 (IL-6). The JAK-STAT pathway pl... |
| Itacnosertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of activin A receptor type 1 (activin receptor-like kinase 2; ALK2; ALK-2; ACRV1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration,itacnosertib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of ALK-2. This prevents ALK-2-mediated signaling and inhibits cell growth in ALK-2-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, in cancer and inflammatory conditions, ALK-2 is upregulated in response to increased signaling of pro-inflammatory cytokines, especiall... |
| Itraconazole Dispersion In Polymer Matrix | A proprietary oral formulation composed of the poorly soluble, synthetic triazole agent, itraconazole, dispersed in a polymer matrix, with antifungal and potential anti-angiogenic activities. Upon oral administration, itraconazole inhibits the enzyme cytochrome P450 lanosterol 14 alpha-demethylase, resulting in a decrease in fungal ergosterol synthesis. Although the exact mechanism through which itraconazole inhibits angiogenesis has yet to be fully elucidated, this agent appears to inhibit t... |
| IVAC Mutanome Vaccine | An individualized, poly-neo-epitopic encoding, ribonucleic acid (RNA)-based cancer vaccine that targets a variety of patient-specific, immunogenic mutant epitopes, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intranodal administration, the RNA in the individualized mutanome vaccine is translated by antigen presenting cells (APCs) and the expressed protein is presented via major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on the surface of the APCs. This leads to an indu... |
| Ivaltinostat | A histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Ivaltinosta tinhibits the catalytic activity of HDAC, resulting in an accumulation of highly acetylated chromatin histones, followed by the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. In particular, this agent enhances the histone acetylation of the tumor suppressor gene p53. This results in an accumulation of p53, p53-dependent transactivation and apoptosis in tumor cells. HDAC, an... |
| Ivarmacitinib | An orally available inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 1 (JAK1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ivarmacitinib binds to and inhibits JAK1, thereby preventing JAK-dependent signaling. This may lead to an inhibition of cellular proliferation in JAK1-overexpressing tumor cells. The JAK-STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) signaling pathway is a major mediator of cytokine activity and is often dysregulated in a variety of tumor cell types. Ad... |
| Ivarmacitinib Sulfate | The sulfate salt form of ivarmacitinib, an orally available inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 1 (JAK1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ivarmacitinib binds to and inhibits JAK1, thereby preventing JAK-dependent signaling. This may lead to an inhibition of cellular proliferation in JAK1-overexpressing tumor cells. The JAK-STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) signaling pathway is a major mediator of cytokine activity and is often dysregula... |
| Ivicentamab | An Fc-engineered, humanized, bispecific hexamer formation-enhanced immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody that targets two separate epitopes on the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD37, with the E430G hexamerization-enhancing mutation, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ivicentamab specifically targets and binds to two non-overlapping CD37 epitopes, thereby inducing an assembly of antibody hexamers through intermolecular Fc-Fc interactions a... |
| Ivonescimab | A bispecific antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the human vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ivonescimab simultaneously targets and binds to both PD-1 expressed on certain T-cells and VEGF expressed on tumor cells. The binding of ivonescimab to PD-1 prevents the activation of P... |
| Ivosidenib | An orally available inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, AG-120 specifically inhibits a mutated form of IDH1 in the cytoplasm, which inhibits the formation of the oncometabolite, 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG). This may lead to both an induction of cellular differentiation and an inhibition of cellular proliferation in IDH1-expressing tumor cells. IDH1, an enzyme in the citric acid cycle, is mutated in a variety of cancers... |
| Ivospemin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of ivospemin, an analogue of naturally occurring polyamine (PA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration,  ivospemin displaces endogenous PAs from PA-binding sites on the cell surface, which prevents internalization of PA. This inhibits PA-dependent cell cycle processes and results in cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. PA uptake is upregulated in various tumor types and increas... |
| Ivuxolimab | An agonistic antibody that recognizes the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory activity. Upon administration, ivuxolimab selectively binds to and activates OX40; which induces proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes. In the presence of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), this may promote a T-cell-mediated immune response against TAA-expressing tumor cells. OX40, a cell surface glycoprotein and member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor sup... |
| Ixabepilone | An orally bioavailable semisynthetic analogue of epothilone B with antineoplastic activity. Ixabepilone binds to tubulin and promotes tubulin polymerization and microtubule stabilization, thereby arresting cells in the G2-M phase of the cell cycle and inducing tumor cell apoptosis. This agent demonstrates antineoplastic activity against taxane-resistant cell lines. |
| Ixazomib | An active metabolite of MLN9708, a second generation, boron containing peptide proteasome inhibitor (PI) with potential antineoplastic activity. Ixazomib binds to and inhibits the 20S catalytic core of the proteasome, thereby blocking the targeted proteolysis normally performed by the proteasome, which results in an accumulation of unwanted or misfolded proteins; disruption of various cell signaling pathways may follow, resulting in the induction of apoptosis. Compared to first generation PIs... |
| Ixazomib Citrate | The citrate salt form of ixazomib, an orally bioavailable second generation proteasome inhibitor (PI) with potential antineoplastic activity. Ixazomib inhibits the activity of the proteasome, blocking the targeted proteolysis normally performed by the proteasome, which results in an accumulation of unwanted or misfolded proteins; disruption of various cell signaling pathways may follow, resulting in the induction of apoptosis. Compared to first generation PIs, second generation PIs may have a... |
| Izalontamab | An immunoglobulin G (IgG) bispecific antibody targeting both the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; HER1; ErbB1) and the epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3; ErbB3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, izalontamab simultaneously targets and binds to EGFR and HER3 expressed on cancer cells, thereby preventing receptor phosphorylation. This prevents the activation of both EGFR- and HER3-mediated signaling pathways and results in the inhibition of tumor cell pr... |
| Izastobart | A differentiated human monoclonal antibody targeting the complement component fragment 5a receptor (C5aR1, CD88), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, izastobart specifically targets and binds to the N-terminus of C5aR1 expressed on subsets of tumor-promoting cells, such as myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs), neutrophils and M2 macrophages. This prevents the binding of its ligand complement factor 5a (C5a) to C5aR1 and prevents the C5aR1-m... |
| Izeltabart Tapatansine | An immunoconjugate consisting of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) disintegrin and metalloproteinase domain-containing protein 9 (ADAM9) that is site-specifically conjugated, via a stable tri-peptide cleavable linker, to DM21, a cytotoxic maytansinoid microtubule-disrupting payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of izeltabart tapatansine, the anti-ADAM9 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to ADAM9 on tumo... |
| Izorlisib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, izorlisib selectively binds to and inhibits PIK3CA and its mutated forms in the PI3K/Akt (protein kinase B)/mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) pathway. This results in both apoptosis and growth inhibition in PIK3CA-expressing tumor cells. By specifically targeting PIK3CA, izorlisib may be more eff... |
| Izuralimab | A humanized, Fc-engineered bispecific monoclonal antibody directed against both the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor, programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PCD-1; CD279), and inducible T-cell co-stimulator (ICOS; CD278), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, izuralimab targets and binds to both PD-1 and ICOS expressed on certain T-cells, including tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This prevents the activation of PD-1 by it... |
| JAK Inhibitor | Any agent that targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of one or more of the Janus kinase family of enzymes. |
| JAK Inhibitor INCB047986 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus-associated kinases (JAK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, INCB047986 specifically binds to and inhibits the phosphorylation of JAK, which affects JAK-dependent signaling and may lead to an inhibition of cellular proliferation in JAK-overexpressing tumor cells. The JAK-STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) pathway plays a key role in the signaling of many cytokines and growth factors and is involved i... |
| JAK1 Inhibitor INCB052793 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 1 (JAK1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, INCB052793 specifically binds to and inhibits the phosphorylation of JAK1, which interferes with JAK-dependent signaling and may lead to an inhibition of cellular proliferation in JAK1-overexpressing tumor cells. The JAK-STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) signaling pathway is a major mediator of cytokine activity and is often dysregulated... |
| JAK2 Inhibitor AZD1480 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2) with potential antineoplastic activity. JAK2 inhibitor AZD1480 inhibits JAK2 activation, leading to the inhibition of the JAK/STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) signaling including activation of STAT3. This may lead to induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in cellular proliferation. JAK2, often upregulated or mutated in a variety of cancer cells, mediates STAT3 activation and plays a key role ... |
| JAK2 Inhibitor BMS-911543 | An orally available small molecule targeting a subset of Janus-associated kinase (JAK) with potential antineoplastic activity. JAK2 inhibitor BMS-911543 selectively inhibits JAK2, thereby preventing the JAK/STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) signaling cascade, including activation of STAT3. This may lead to an induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in cellular proliferation. JAK2, often upregulated or mutated in a variety of cancer cells, mediates STAT3 activati... |
| JAK2 Inhibitor BS HH 002.SA | A derivative of the cytotoxic plant alkaloid homoharringtonine (HHT) and an inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, JAK2 inhibitor BS HH 002.SA inhibits JAK2 activity, thereby preventing the activation of the JAK/signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) signaling pathway and the activation of STAT3 and STAT5. This may lead to an induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. JAK2,... |
| JAK2 Inhibitor TQ05105 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, JAK2 inhibitor TQ05105 inhibits JAK2 activity, thereby preventing the activation of the JAK/STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) signaling pathway and the activation of STAT3. This may lead to an induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. JAK2, often upregulated or mutated in a variety of cancer cells, med... |
| JAK2 Inhibitor XL019 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2) with potential antineoplastic activity. XL019 inhibits the activation of JAK2 as well as the mutated form JAK2V617F, which may result in the inhibition of the JAK-STAT signaling pathway and may induce apoptosis. The JAK2 mutated form JAK2V617F has a valine-to-phenylalanine modification at position 617 and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and survival. |
| JAK2V617F Inhibitor INCB160058 | An orally bioavailable specific pseudokinase (JH2)-binding inhibitor of the Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2) mutation JAK2V617F, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, JAK2V617F inhibitor INCB160058 selectively targets and binds to the pseudokinase (JH2) domain of JAK2V617F at the canonical ATP-binding site and inhibits the activation of JAK2V617F and JAK2V617F-mediated signaling. This may result in the inhibition of the JAK-STAT signaling pathway and may induce apo... |
| Jianpi Huatan Decoction | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) decoction that may be used for the treatment of advanced colorectal cancer. |
| Jin Fu Kang | A traditional Chinese herbal medicine derived from the plant Astragalus membranaceus with potential immunopotentiation activity. Jin Fu Kang may stimulate anti-tumor macrophage and natural killer cell activity and may enhance immune recognition of tumor cells by inhibiting the production of T-helper cell type 2 (Th2) cytokines such as interleukin-4 (IL-4) and interleukin-10 (IL-10). |
| JNK Inhibitor CC-401 | A second generation ATP-competitive anthrapyrazolone c-Jun N terminal kinase (JNK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Based on the chemistry of SP600125, another anthrapyrazolone inhibitor of JNK, CC-401 competitively binds the ATP binding site of JNK, resulting in inhibition of the phosphorylation of the N-terminal activation domain of transcription factor c-Jun; decreased transcription activity of c-Jun; and a variety of cellular effects including decreased cellular prolifera... |
| JNK1 Inhibitor BMS-986360 | An orally bioavailable, second-generation inhibitor of c-Jun N-terminal kinase 1 (JNK-1; JNK1; mitogen-activated protein kinase 8; MAPK8), with potential antineoplastic, anti-inflammatory and anti-fibrotic activities. Upon oral administration, JNK1 inhibitor BMS-986360 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of JNK1. Inhibition of JNK1-mediated mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)-signaling pathways induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis, decreases migration and invasion, ... |
| Kallikrein Inhibitor MDPK67b | A recombinant protein-based inhibitor of numerous types of kallikrein-related peptidases (KLKs), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, KLK inhibitor MDPK67b targets and inhibits various KLKs, including KLK2, KLK4, KLK5 and KLK14. This inhibits KLK-mediated signaling and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells in which these KLKs are overexpressed. Deregulation of KLKs is associated with some types of cancers. |
| Kanglaite | An injectable microemulsion of a purified oil extracted from the seeds of the traditional Chinese medicinal herb Coix lacryma-jobi (Job's tears), with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action is unknown, kanglaite exhibits an antineoplastic effect, potentially via interfering with the cell cycle and halting tumor cells in the G2/M phase, which may eventually inhibit mitosis and proliferation of cancer cells. |
| Kanitinib | A tyrosine kinase inhibitor targeting the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR; MET) and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, kanitinib targets and binds to c-Met and VEGFR2, thereby disrupting c-Met- and VEGFR2-dependent signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met and/or VEGFR2 protein. c-Met and VEGFR2 are both over... |
| KDM4 Inhibitor TACH101 | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule, pan inhibitor of histone lysine (K) demethylase 4 (KDM4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KDM4 inhibitor TACH101 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the catalytic activity of all members of the KDM4 family of proteins. This may prevent KDM4-mediated signaling, epigenetic dysregulation and inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells. The KDM4 family of histone demethylases is frequently upregulated in a variety of c... |
| Ketoconazole | A synthetic derivative of phenylpiperazine with broad antifungal properties and potential antineoplastic activity.  Ketoconazole inhibits sterol 14-a-dimethylase, a microsomal cytochrome P450-dependent enzyme, thereby disrupting synthesis of ergosterol, an important component of the fungal cell wall. (NCI04) |
| Ketotrexate | A folic acid antagonist and mammalian dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Ketotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that reduces dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid which is essential for the synthesis of purine nucleotides and thymidylate. By depleting tetrahydrofolic acid availability, DNA synthesis is halted. |
| Keynatinib | A third-generation, orally available inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutant form T790M, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, keynatinib binds to and inhibits EGFR T790M, a secondarily acquired resistance mutation, inhibits the tyrosine kinase activity of EGFR T790M, prevents EGFR T790M-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR T790M-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase that is mutated in many tumor cell types, plays... |
| KIF18A Inhibitor GH2616 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the human kinesin-like protein KIF18A, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KIF18A inhibitor GH2616 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of KIF18A. This may result in multipolar cell division and inhibit tumor cell proliferation. KIF18A, a mitotic kinesin-8 motor protein, plays an important role in the regulation of chromosome positioning during cell division and is overexpressed in certain cancers. Certain cancer cell... |
| KIF18A Inhibitor VLS-1488 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the human kinesin-like protein KIF18A, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KIF18A inhibitor VLS-1488 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of KIF18A. This may result in multipolar cell division and inhibit tumor cell proliferation. KIF18A, a mitotic kinesin-8 motor protein, plays an important role in the regulation of chromosome positioning during cell division and is overexpressed in certain cancers. Certain cancer ce... |
| Kinase Inhibitor TQB3912 | An orally bioavailable small molecule protein kinase inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, kinase inhibitor TQB3912 may target, bind to and inhibit the activity of a protein kinase that plays an important role in tumor cell survival, proliferation, migration, and differentiation. |
| KIT-mutant Inhibitor DCC-3009 | An orally bioavailable switch-control inhibitor of multiple mutated forms of mast/stem cell factor receptor KIT (c-Kit; SCFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KIT-mutant inhibitor DCC-3009 targets and binds to the switch pocket of c-Kit, thereby inhibiting the activity of specific c-Kit mutants, including primary KIT mutations in exons 9 and 11 and secondary drug-resistant mutations across exons 13, 14, 17, and 18. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation in... |
| KIT-mutant Inhibitor IDRX-42 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of multiple mutated forms of mast/stem cell factor receptor KIT (c-Kit; SCFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KIT-mutant inhibitor IDRX-42 targets, binds to and inhibits specific c-Kit mutants. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation in cancer cell types that overexpress these c-Kit mutations. c-Kit, a transmembrane protein and receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) overexpressed in various solid tumors and hematolog... |
| KLH/NY-ESO-1/MART-1 Peptide-pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed dendritic cells (DC) that were matured in the presence of a synthetic complex comprised of polyinosinic-polycytidylic acid, poly-L-lysine double-stranded RNA, and carboxymethylcellulose (poly-ICLC), and then pulsed with peptides derived from the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cancer/testis antigen NY-ESO-1 and melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells (MART-1/Melan-A), which are linked to the immunostimulant and carrier protein keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KL... |
| KLH-Lymphoma Ig Vaccine | A chimeric lymphoma vaccine generated by combining the recipient's Ig idiotype (Id) protein with keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), an immune stimulant, with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination with KLH-Lymphoma Ig Vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against lymphoma cells, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor BBO-8520 | An orally bioavailable, covalent inhibitor of both the active, guanosine triphosphate (GTP)-bound form and the inactive, guanosine diphosphate (GDP)-bound form of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor BBO-8520 targets and binds to the switch II pocket in both the GTP-bound (ON) and GDP-bound (OFF) state conformations of KRAS G12C. This modifies and inhibits both the GTP-bound (active) and GDP-bound ... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor BEBT-607 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor BEBT-607 selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C-mediated signaling. This may halt proliferation and metastasis in KRAS G12C mutated tumor cells. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitu... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor BI 1823911 | An orally available inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor BI 1823911 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the KRAS G12C mutant, thereby inhibiting KRAS G12C mutant-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transductio... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor BPI-421286 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor BPI-421286 selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C-mediated signaling. This may halt proliferation and metastasis in susceptible tumor cells. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor D3S-001 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor D3S-001 selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C-mediated signaling. This may halt proliferation and metastasis in susceptible tumor cells. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive si... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor FMC-376 | An orally bioavailable, covalent inhibitor of both the active, guanosine triphosphate (GTP)-bound form and the inactive, guanosine diphosphate (GDP)-bound form of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor FMC-376 targets and covalently binds to cysteine 12 within the switch II pocket in both the GTP-bound (ON) and GDP-bound (OFF) state conformations of KRAS G12C. This modifies and inhibits both the GTP-... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor GEC255 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor GEC255 selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C-mediated signaling. This may halt proliferation and metastasis in susceptible tumor cells. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce c... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor GH35 | An orally bioavailable irreversible inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor GH35 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the KRAS G12C mutant, thereby inhibiting KRAS G12C mutant-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal t... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor HBI-2438 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor HBI-2438 selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C-mediated signaling. This may halt proliferation and metastasis in susceptible tumor cells. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive s... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor HS-10370 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor HS-10370 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the KRAS G12C mutant, thereby inhibiting KRAS G12C mutant-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive si... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor HYP-2090PTSA | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor HYP-2090PTSA selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C-mediated signaling. This may halt proliferation and metastasis in KRAS G12C mutated tumor cells. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce cons... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor IBI351 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor IBI351 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the KRAS G12C mutant, thereby inhibiting KRAS G12C mutant-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor JNJ-74699157 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the oncogenic Kirsten rat sarcoma virus homolog KRAS glycine-to-cysteine substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration JNJ-74699157 targets and binds to cytosine 12 within the switch II pocket of GDP-bound KRAS G12C, thereby inhibiting mutant KRAS-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations ... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor LY3499446 | An orally available inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LY3499446 targets and covalently binds to cytosine 12 within the switch II pocket of GDP-bound KRAS G12C, thereby inhibiting mutant KRAS-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction leading t... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor MK-1084 | An orally available inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor MK-1084 selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C-mediated signaling. This may halt proliferation and metastasis in susceptible tumor cells. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signa... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor RMC-6291 | An orally bioavailable, covalent inhibitor of the active, guanosine triphosphate (GTP)-bound form of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12C, KRAS G12C(ON), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor RMC-6291 forms a tri-complex with the intracellular chaperone protein and immunophilin cyclophilin A (CypA) and KRAS G12C(ON). This tri-complex inhibits KRAS G12C(ON)-mediated signaling, which may inhibit tumor cell proliferation. KRAS, a member of... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor YL-15293 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor YL-15293 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the KRAS G12C mutant, thereby inhibiting KRAS G12C mutant-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transducti... |
| KRAS G12C Inhibitor ZG19018 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor ZG19018 selectively targets and irreversibly binds to the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C-mediated signaling. This may halt proliferation and metastasis in KRAS G12C mutated tumor cells. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of... |
| KRAS G12D Degrader ASP3082 | A targeted protein degrader (TPD) of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12D, using the proteolysis targeting chimera (PROTAC) technology, with potential antineoplastic activity. ASP3082 is comprised of an E3 ubiquitin ligase-binding moiety conjugated, via a linker, to a KRAS G12D-binding moiety. Upon administration, KRAS G12D degrader ASP3082 specifically targets and binds, with its KRAS G12D-targeting moiety, to KRAS G12D mutated protein and, with its E3 ligase-binding moiety, to the ... |
| KRAS G12D Degrader ASP4396 | A targeted protein degrader (TPD) of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12D, with potential antineoplastic activity. ASP4396 is comprised of an E3 ubiquitin ligase-binding moiety conjugated, via a linker, to a KRAS G12D-binding moiety. Upon administration, the KRAS G12D-targeting moiety of KRAS G12D degrader ASP4396 specifically targets and binds to KRAS G12D mutated protein and the E3 ligase-binding moiety targets and binds to the E3 ubiquitin ligase, thereby forming a ternary complex... |
| KRAS G12D Inhibitor AZD0022 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12D, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12D inhibitor AZD0022 specifically targets and binds to KRAS G12D. This prevents KRAS G12D-mediated signaling and activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of tumor cells that overexpress KRAS G12D. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division... |
| KRAS G12D Inhibitor HRS-4642 | An inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12D, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, KRAS G12D inhibitor HRS-4642 specifically targets and binds to KRAS G12D. This prevents KRAS G12D-mediated signaling and activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of tumor cells that overexpress KRAS G12D. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mu... |
| KRAS G12D Inhibitor INCB161734 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12D, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12D inhibitor INCB161734 specifically targets and binds to KRAS G12D. This prevents KRAS G12D-mediated signaling and activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of tumor cells that overexpress KRAS G12D. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, divis... |
| KRAS G12D Inhibitor LY3962673 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12D, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12D inhibitor LY3962673 specifically targets and noncovalently binds to KRAS G12D. This prevents KRAS G12D-mediated signaling and activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of tumor cells that overexpress KRAS G12D. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell sig... |
| KRAS G12D Inhibitor MRTX1133 | An orally bioavailable reversible inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12D, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12D inhibitor MRTX1133 specifically targets and noncovalently binds to KRAS G12D. This prevents KRAS G12D-mediated signaling and activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of tumor cells that overexpress KRAS G12D. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role i... |
| KRAS G12D Inhibitor QTX3046 | An orally bioavailable allosteric inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12D, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12D inhibitor QTX3046 specifically targets and noncovalently binds to KRAS G12D. This prevents KRAS G12D-mediated signaling and activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of tumor cells that overexpress KRAS G12D. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in... |
| KRAS G12D Inhibitor RMC-9805 | An orally bioavailable covalent tri-complex inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12D, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12D inhibitor RMC-9805 specifically targets and non-covalently binds to cyclophilin A to form a non-covalent binary complex, which subsequently covalently and irreversibly binds to the active GTP-bound form of KRAS G12D (KRASG12D(ON)). This prevents KRAS G12D-mediated signaling and activation of downstream survival path... |
| KRAS G12D Inhibitor TSN1611 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12D, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12D inhibitor TSN1611 specifically targets and binds to KRAS G12D. This prevents KRAS G12D-mediated signaling and activation of downstream survival pathways and leads to an inhibition of the growth of tumor cells that overexpress KRAS G12D. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division a... |
| KRAS Inhibitor BI 3706674 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor that targets the oncogenic KRAS wild-type (WT) and various KRAS mutant forms, such as KRAS G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS inhibitor BI 3706674 selectively binds to KRAS, thereby inhibiting KRAS-dependent signaling and inhibits growth and survival of KRAS-overexpressing and mutated tumor cells. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and diff... |
| KRAS Mutant Inhibitor QTX3034 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of various KRAS mutations, including the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation G12D, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS mutant inhibitor QTX3034 targets, allosterically binds to and inhibits various forms of KRAS mutations, thereby inhibiting KRAS-dependent signaling. This inhibits the proliferation of and induces apoptosis in tumor cells in which KRAS is mutated. KRAS plays an important role in cell signaling, division and d... |
| KRN5500 | A semisynthetic derivative of the nucleoside-like antineoplastic antibiotic spicamycin, originally isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces alanosinicus.  KRN 5500 inhibits protein synthesis by interfering with endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus functions.  This agent also induces cell differentiation and caspase-dependent apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| KSA-KLH Conjugate Vaccine | A peptide vaccine containing an epitope of human tumor-associated KSA antigen (Ep-CAM) conjugated with keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential antineoplastic activity. KSA antigen, a type-I transmembrane glycoprotein and a cellular adhesion molecule with a molecular mass of 40 kDa, is overexpressed on the majority of epithelial tumor cells. KSA antigen is conjugated with KLH, an immunostimulant and a hapten carrier, to enhance immune recognition. Vaccination with KSA-KLH may result in... |
| KSP Inhibitor AZD4877 | A synthetic kinesin spindle protein (KSP) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. AZD4877 selectively inhibits microtubule motor protein KSP (also called kinesin-5 or Eg5), which is essential for the formation of bipolar spindles and the proper segregation of sister chromatids during mitosis. Inhibition of KSP results in an inhibition of mitotic spindle assembly, activation of the spindle assembly checkpoint, induction of cell cycle arrest during the mitotic phase, thereby causing c... |
| KSP Inhibitor SB-743921 | A synthetic small molecule with potential antineoplastic properties. SB-743921 selectively inhibits kinesin spindle protein (KSP), an important protein involved in the early stages of mitosis that is expressed in proliferating cells. Inhibition of KSP results in inhibition of mitotic spindle assembly and interrupts cell division, thereby causing cell cycle arrest and induction of apoptosis. |
| Kunecatechins Ointment | A topical ointment containing a green tea polyphenol mixture (kunecatechins) with potential antiviral, antibacterial, antioxidant, and chemopreventive activities. Kunecatechins is a partially purified fraction of the aqueous extract of green tea leaves from Camellia sinensis and contains catechins and other green tea components. Catechins, polyphenolic antioxidant plant metabolites or flavonoids, comprise most of the drug substance in kunecatechins with epigallocatechin gallate (EGCG) present... |
| Labetuzumab Govitecan | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) containing labetuzumab, a mildly reduced, anti-CEACAM5 humanized monoclonal antibody, conjugated to the potent topoisomerase I inhibitor SN-38, with antineoplastic activity.  The monoclonal antibody moiety of labetuzumab govitecan selectively binds to carcinoembryonic cell adhesion molecule 5 (CEACAM5), which is abundantly expressed on the surface of a majority of solid tumors. Upon internalization and proteolytic cleavage, SN-38, the active metabolite of irin... |
| Labyrinthin Peptide Vaccine LabVax 3(22)-23 | A synthetic peptide vaccine composed of four synthetic peptide epitopes of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) labyrinthin, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination with labyrinthin peptide vaccine LabVax 3(22)-23, the labyrinthin peptides may stimulate the immune system to mount B-cell and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) responses against labryrinthin-expressing tumor cells. Labyrinthin is expressed on the surface of essentially all adenocarcinomas, but is ... |
| Lactobacillus vaginalis-containing Vaginal Capsule | A vaginal capsule formulation containing the lactic acid-producing bacterium Lactobacillus vaginalis (L. vaginalis), with vaginal healing, soothing, protective and immunomodulating activities. Upon intravaginal application of the L. vaginalis-containing vaginal capsule, L. vaginalis provides the naturally occurring vaginal bacterium to a dysregulated vaginal microbiome, and thereby restores the vaginal Lactobacillus flora to an optimal vaginal lactobacillus-dominated microbiota. L. vaginalis ... |
| Lacutamab | A humanized monoclonal antibody against the immune receptor human killer cell immunoglobulin-like receptor, three domains, long cytoplasmic tail, 2 (KIR3DL2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, lacutamab binds to KIR3DL2 expressed on certain tumor cells. This recruits natural killer (NK) cells and leads to lysis of KIR3DL2-expressing tumor cells. In addition, IPH4102 induces antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), thereby further elimi... |
| Lacutoclax | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, lacutoclax targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2. This restores apoptotic processes in tumor cells. Bcl-2 is overexpressed in many cancers and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis; its expression is associated with increased drug resistance and tumor cell survival. |
| Ladarixin | An orally bioavailable, small molecule, dual inhibitor of C-X-C motif chemokine receptors 1 (CXCR1) and 2 (CXCR2), with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ladarixin selectively targets and allosterically binds to CXCR 1 and 2, thereby preventing CXCR1 and CXCR2 activation by their ligand and pro-inflammatory chemokine interleukin 8 (IL-8 or CXCL8). This inhibits CXCR1/2-mediated signaling, which inhibits inflammatory processes, reduces both th... |
| Ladarixin Sodium | The sodium salt form of ladarixin, an orally bioavailable, small molecule, dual inhibitor of C-X-C motif chemokine receptors 1 (CXCR1) and 2 (CXCR2), with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, ladarixin selectively targets and allosterically binds to CXCR 1 and 2, thereby preventing CXCR1 and CXCR2 activation by their ligand and pro-inflammatory chemokine interleukin 8 (IL-8 or CXCL8). This inhibits CXCR1/2-mediated signaling, which inhibits infl... |
| Ladiratuzumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the anti-solute carrier family 39 zinc transporter member 6 (SLC39A6; LIV-1; ZIP6) protein that is conjugated, via a protease-cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration and internalization by LIV-1-positive tumor cells, ladiratuzumab vedotin undergoes enzymatic cleavage to release MMAE into the cytosol. In turn,... |
| Ladirubicin | A 4-demethoxydaunorubicin (idarubicin) analog with an aziridinyl group in position C-3' and a methylsulphonyl on position C-4', with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, ladirubicin alkylates guanine residues at the N7 position in the DNA major groove, resulting in DNA base pair mismatching, DNA interstrand crosslinking, the inhibition of DNA repair and synthesis, cell-cycle arrest, and apoptosis. |
| Laetrile | Originally, the name laetrile was the contraction of laevo-mandelonitrile glucoside, a cyanogenic glycoside found naturally in some plants.  Over the years the meaning of laetrile has changed.  There are now preparations called Laetrile where amygdalin is the major constituent.  Laetrile and amygdalin are often used interchangeably, but are different agents.  Cyanide and benzaldehyde are metabolites of both laetrile and amygdalin.  Both metabolites may possess antineoplastic properties.  Laet... |
| LAIR-2 Fusion Protein NC410 | A fusion protein of leukocyte-associated immunoglobulin (Ig)-like receptor (LAIR)-2, a high-affinity collagen receptor, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, LAIR-2 fusion protein NC410 binds to the ligand collagen of LAIR-1 (CD305), thereby blocking the binding of LAIR-1 to its ligand collagen and inhibiting LAIR-1-mediated immune suppression. This may result in enhanced T-cell and dendritic cell (DC) activities, and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) ... |
| Lancastotug | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, lancastotug targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and natural killer (NK) cells, thereby ... |
| Landogrozumab | A monoclonal antibody against myostatin (MSTN) with potential anti-cachexia activity. Upon administration,  landogrozumab binds to and neutralizes the MSTN protein, thereby blocking the MSTN signalling pathway. This may help decrease muscle protein breakdown and muscle weakness and may attenuate cancer cachexia. MSTN, a member of the transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta) superfamily, is a negative regulator of muscle growth and development. |
| Lanerkitug | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) afucosylated monoclonal antibody against C-C-chemokine receptor 8 (CCR8), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, lanerkitug targets, binds to and blocks the activity of CCR8 on CCR8-positive tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and prevents chemokine ligand 1 (CCL1)-CCR8-mediated signaling. Lanerkitug eliminates CCR8-positive Tregs via the induction of Fc-mediated antibod... |
| Laniquidar | A stereoisomer of verapamil and third-generation P-glycoprotein inhibitor. Laniquidar inhibits the drug efflux pump P-glycoprotein, resulting in higher concentrations of antineoplastic agents in tumor cells that are multi-drug resistant due to the overexpression of P-glycoprotein. (NCI04) |
| Lanreotide Acetate | The acetate salt of a synthetic cyclic octapeptide analogue of somatostatin. Lanreotide binds to somatostatin receptors (SSTR), specifically SSTR-2 and also to SSTR-5 with a lesser affinity. However, compare with octreotide, this agent is less potent in inhibiting the release of growth hormone from the pituitary gland. Furthermore, lanreotide has an acute effect on decreasing circulating total and free insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-I).  This agent is usually given as a prolonged-release m... |
| Lapachone | A poorly soluble, ortho-naphthoquinone with potential antineoplastic and radiosensitizing activity. Beta-lapachone (b-lap) is bioactivated by NAD(P)H:quinone oxidoreductase-1 (NQO1), creating a futile oxidoreduction that generates high levels of superoxide. In turn, the highly reactive oxygen species (ROS) interact with DNA, thereby causing single-strand DNA breaks and calcium release from endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stores. Eventually, the extensive DNA damage causes hyperactivation of poly(A... |
| Lapatinib | A synthetic, orally-active quinazoline with potential antineoplastic properties. Lapatinib reversibly blocks phosphorylation of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), ErbB2, and the Erk-1 and-2 and AKT kinases; it also inhibits cyclin D protein levels in human tumor cell lines and xenografts. EGFR and ErbB2 have been implicated in the growth of various tumor types. |
| Lapatinib Ditosylate | The ditosylate salt of lapatinib, a synthetic, orally-active quinazoline with potential antineoplastic activity. Lapatinib reversibly blocks phosphorylation of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), ErbB2, and the Erk-1 and-2 and AKT kinases; it also inhibits cyclin D protein levels in human tumor cell lines and xenografts. EGFR and ErbB2 have been implicated in the growth of various tumor types. |
| Laprituximab Emtansine | A targeted antibody payload (TAP)-based immunoconjugate consisting of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) conjugated, via a nonreducible thioether linker (succinimidyl trans-4-(maleimidylmethyl)cyclohexane-1-carboxylate or SMCC), to the cytotoxic agent maytansinoid mertansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of laprituximab emtansine binds to and inhibits EGFR on ... |
| Lapuleucel-T | A cell-based vaccine targets tumors expressing the HER2/neu marker.  HER-2/neu is a growth factor receptor, and its overexpression has been associated with a number of cancers including breast, ovarian, colon and lung cancers.  APC8024 comprise of autologous antigen-presenting peripheral blood mononuclear cells (APCs) that have been exposed to HER2/neu protein and can be administered to the patient.  These cells may stimulate an antitumor T-cell response to cancer cells expressing HER2/neu. (... |
| Laromustine | A sulfonyl hydrazine prodrug with antineoplastic activity. Laromustine releases the DNA chloroethylating agent 90CE after entering the blood stream; 90CE chloroethylates alkylates the O6 position of guanine, resulting in DNA crosslinking, strand breaks, chromosomal aberrations, and disruption of DNA synthesis. Intracellular metabolism of this agent also releases methyl isocyanate which inhibits O6-alkyl-guanine transferase, an enzyme involved with DNA repair. |
| Larotaxel | A semi-synthetic derivative of the taxane 10-deacetylbaccatin III with potential antineoplastic activities. Larotaxel binds to tubulin, promoting microtubule assembly and stabilization and preventing microtubule depolymerization, thereby inhibiting cell proliferation. As it represents poor substrate for P-glycoprotein-related drug resistance mechanisms, this agent may be useful for treating multi-drug resistant tumors. Larotaxel penetrates the blood brain barrier. |
| Larotinib Mesylate | The mesylate salt form of larotinib, a reversible pan-ErbB inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, larotinib binds to and inhibits ErbB tyrosine receptor kinases, which may result in the inhibition of cellular proliferation and angiogenesis in tumors expressing ErbB. The ErbB protein family, also called the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family, plays major roles in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. |
| Larotrectinib | An orally available, tropomyosin receptor kinase (Trk) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, larotrectinib binds to Trk, thereby preventing neurotrophin-Trk interaction and Trk activation, which results in both the induction of cellular apoptosis and the inhibition of cell growth in tumors that overexpress Trk. Trk, a receptor tyrosine kinase activated by neurotrophins, is mutated in a variety of cancer cell types and plays an important role in tumor cell gro... |
| Larotrectinib Sulfate | The sulfate salt form of larotrectinib, an orally available, tropomyosin receptor kinase (Trk) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, larotrectinib binds to Trk, thereby preventing neurotrophin-Trk interaction and Trk activation, which results in both the induction of cellular apoptosis and the inhibition of cell growth in tumors that overexpress Trk. Trk, a receptor tyrosine kinase activated by neurotrophins, is mutated in a variety of cancer cell types and p... |
| Lartesertib | An orally bioavailable ATP-competitive inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia mutated kinase (ATM), with potential chemo-/radio-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, lartesertib targets and binds to ATM, thereby inhibiting the kinase activity of ATM and ATM-mediated signaling. This prevents DNA damage checkpoint activation, disrupts DNA damage repair, induces tumor cell apoptosis, and leads to cell death of ATM-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, by preventing ... |
| Latikafusp | An antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) fused to a mutein of the cytokine interleukin-21 (IL-21), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of latikafusp, the antibody moiety specifically targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and ... |
| Lavendustin A | A compound isolated from strains of Streptomyces griseolavendus that may exert antitumor activity by inhibition of protein tyrosine kinase and tubulin polymerization. (NCI) |
| Lazertinib | An orally available third-generation, selective inhibitor of certain forms of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with activating mutations, including the resistance mutation T790M, exon 19 deletions (Del19), and the L858R mutation, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lazertinib specifically and irreversibly binds to and inhibits selective EGFR mutants, which prevents EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR mutant-expressing tumor cells.... |
| Lazertinib Mesylate Monohydrate | The hydrated mesylate salt form of lazertinib, an orally available third-generation, selective inhibitor of certain forms of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with activating mutations, including the resistance mutation T790M, exon 19 deletions (Del19), and the L858R mutation, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, lazertinib specifically and irreversibly binds to and inhibits selective EGFR mutants, specifically EGFR exon 19 deletions and exon 21 L858R su... |
| Lead Pb 212 Pentixather | A radioconjugate composed of pentixather, a chemokine receptor C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4 (CXCR4)-targeting ligand, conjugated to the alpha-emitting radioisotope lead Pb 212, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lead Pb 212 pentixather targets and binds to CXCR4-expressing cancer cells. This allows for the specific delivery of a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to CXCR4-expressing cancer cells. CXCR4, a marker of poorly differentiated cells, is overexpressed on v... |
| Lead Pb 212 TCMC-trastuzumab | A radioimmunoconjugate containing the recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody trastuzumab conjugated with the bifunctional chelating agent TCMC ((1,4,7,10-Tetra-(2-Carbamoyl Methyl)-Cyclododecane), and radiolabeled with the alpha-emitting isotope lead Pb 212, with potential anti-tumor activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of lead Pb 212 TCMC-trastuzumab binds with high affinity to the extracellular domain of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2); after internalization... |
| Lead Pb 212 VMT-a-NET | A radioconjugate consisting of the human somatostatin receptor subtype 2 (SSTR2)-targeting peptide and Tyr3-octreotide (TOC) analog, VMT-alpha-NET (VMT-a-NET), the N-terminus of which is conjugated via a polyethylene glycol (PEG) linker, PEG2, to a lead (Pb)-specific chelator (PSC) and bound to the alpha-emitting radioisotope lead Pb 212, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of lead Pb 212 VMT-a-NET, the peptide moiety specifically targets and binds to SSTR2, which is p... |
| Lead Pb 212-DOTAM-GRPR1 | A radioconjugate consisting of a gastrin-releasing peptide receptor (GRPR)-targeting antagonist conjugated, through a bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent DOTAM (1,4,7,10-tetraazacyclododecane-1,4,7,10-tetraacetic amide; TCMC), to the alpha-emitting radioisotope lead Pb 212, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lead Pb 212-DOTAM-GRPR1 targets and binds to GRPR-expressing tumor cells. This allows for the specific delivery of a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to G... |
| Lead Pb 212-VMT01 | A radioconjugate composed of the melanocyte-stimulating hormone receptor (MSHR; melanocortin-1 receptor; MC1R; melanin-activating peptide receptor; melanotropin receptor)-targeting peptide, VMT01, conjugated to the alpha-emitting radioisotope lead Pb 212, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lead Pb 212-VMT01 targets and binds to MC1R-expressing tumor cells. This allows for the specific delivery of a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to MC1R-expressing tumor cells. MC1... |
| Lebrikizumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody against interleukin 13 (IL-13) with immunosuppressive and anti-asthmatic activities. Lebrikizumab binds to IL-13 and inhibits IL-13-mediated pathways. IL-13, a cytokine mainly secreted by type 2 helper T cells, plays a key role in the induction of allergic inflammation. |
| Lefitolimod | A synthetic oligonucleotide based on a proprietary double stem-loop immunomodulator design with potential immunostimulating activity. Lefitolimod binds to and activates intracellular Toll-like receptor 9 (TLR9) in monocytes/macrophages, plasmacytoidal and myeloid dendritic cells (DCs), and natural killer (NK) cells, initiating immune signaling pathways and inducing T-helper 1 cell (Th1) production leading to the production of memory T cells and a Th1-mediated immune response. By activating th... |
| Leflunomide | A derivative of isoxazole used for its immunosuppressive and anti-inflammatory properties.  As a prodrug, leflunomide is converted to an active metabolite, A77 1726, which blocks dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, a key enzyme of de novo pyrimidine synthesis, thereby preventing the expansion of activated T lymphocytes.  This agent also inhibits various protein tyrosine kinases, such as protein kinase C (PKC), thereby inhibiting cell proliferation. (NCI04) |
| Lemzoparlimab | A human monoclonal antibody targeting the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, lemzoparlimab preferentially binds to a unique epitope of CD47 on tumor cells. This blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha), an inhibitory protein expressed on macrophages and dendritic cells (DCs), which prevents CD47/SIRPalpha-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPalpha-mediated inh... |
| Lenalidomide | A thalidomide analog with potential antineoplastic activity.  Lenalidomide inhibits TNF-alpha production, stimulates T cells, reduces serum levels of the cytokines vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and inhibits angiogenesis.  This agent also promotes G1 cell cycle arrest and apoptosis of malignant cells. |
| Lenalidomide Analog KPG-121 | A lenalidomide analog with potential anti-angiogenic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon oral administration, lenalidomide analog KPG-121 may inhibit tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) production, stimulate T-lymphocytes, reduce serum levels of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF; FGF2), and inhibit angiogenesis. Additionally, KPG-121 may promote G1 cell cycle arrest and induce apoptosis in malignant cells. |
| Lenalidomide Prolonged-release Formulation NEX-20A | A prolonged-release formulation composed of a suspension of the thalidomide analog lenalidomide coated with slow-dissolving nontoxic inorganic oxides, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration via subcutaneous injection, the coating dissolves and lenalidomide is released. Lenalidomide inhibits tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) production, stimulates T-lymphocytes, reduces serum levels of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF... |
| Lentivirus Vector rHIV7-shI-TAR-CCR5RZ-transduced Hematopoietic Progenitor Cells | Autologous, CD34-positive hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) transduced with rHIV7-shI-TAR-CCR5RZ, a lentiviral vector encoding three anti-human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) RNA genes, with potential antineoplastic activity. The 3 RNA products produced by the lentilvirus are: a short hairpin RNA (shRNA) targeted to an exon of the HIV-1 genes tat/rev, designated as shI; a decoy for the HIV TAT reactive element, designated as TAR; a ribozyme targeting the host cells CCR5 chemokine receptor, ... |
| Lenumlostat | An orally available, small-molecule, irreversible inhibitor of lysyl oxidase homolog 2 (lysyl oxidase-like protein 2; LOXL2) with potential antifibrotic activity. Upon oral administration, the aminomethyl pyridine moiety of lenumlostat interacts with the active site of LOXL2 to form a pseudo-irreversible inhibitory complex, thereby inhibiting the catalytic activity of LOXL2. LOXL2, a secreted glycoprotein, catalyzes the post-translational oxidative deamination of lysine residues on target pro... |
| Lenvatinib | A synthetic, orally available inhibitor of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2, also known as KDR/FLK-1) tyrosine kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Lenvatinib blocks VEGFR2 activation by VEGF, resulting in inhibition of the VEGF receptor signal transduction pathway, decreased vascular endothelial cell migration and proliferation, and vascular endothelial cell apoptosis. |
| Lenvatinib Mesylate | A synthetic, orally available inhibitor of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2, also known as KDR/FLK-1) tyrosine kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. E7080 blocks VEGFR2 activation by VEGF, resulting in inhibition of the VEGF receptor signal transduction pathway, decreased vascular endothelial cell migration and proliferation, and vascular endothelial cell apoptosis. |
| Lenzilumab | A recombinant monoclonal antibody against the cytokine granulocyte macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, lenzilumab binds to and neutralizes GM-CSF. This prevents GM-CSF binding to the GM-CSF receptor, which is a heterodimeric protein expressed on myeloid progenitor cells, and prevents GM-CSF-mediated signaling. This may induce apoptosis in and inhibit proliferation of cancer cells that overproduce GM-CSF. GM-CSF plays a ... |
| Lerapolturev | A recombinant, live attenuated, nonpathogenic oncolytic virus containing the oral poliovirus Sabin type 1 in which the internal ribosomal entry site (IRES) is replaced with the IRES from human rhinovirus type 2 (HRV2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of lerapolturev, the poliovirus is selectively taken up by and replicates in tumor cells expressing CD155 (poliovirus receptor, PVR or NECL5) eventually causing tumor cell lysis. Following the lysis of infected cells, ... |
| Lerociclib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lerociclib selectively inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threonine kinases that are upregula... |
| Lestaurtinib | An orally bioavailable indolocarbazole derivative with antineoplastic properties. Lestaurtinib inhibits autophosphorylation of FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3), resulting in inhibition of FLT3 activity and induction of apoptosis in tumor cells that overexpress FLT3. (NCI05) |
| Letaplimab | A human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting leukocyte surface antigen CD47 with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, letaplimab selectively binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa), a protein expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of phagocytosis. This induces... |
| Letetresgene Autoleucel | Human autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the cancer-testis antigens (CTAs) NY-ESO-1 and L antigen family member 1 (LAGE-1; Cancer/Testis Antigen 2; CTAG2; CT2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Following leukapheresis, isolation of lymphocytes, expansion ex vivo, transduction, and reintroduction into the patient, letetresgene autoleucel specifically target and bind to NY-ESO-1/LAGE-1-overexpressing tumor cells. Thi... |
| Letolizumab | A dimeric fusion protein composed of the C-terminus of the domain antibody (dAb) BMS2h-572-633 targeting the CD40 ligand (CD40L or CD154) linked to a modified Fc fragment of immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1), with potential immunomodulatory activity. Upon intravenous administration, the peptide moiety of letolizumab specifically targets and binds to CD40L expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents the binding of CD40L to its cognate receptor CD40 expressed on B-lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic c... |
| Letrozole | A nonsteroidal inhibitor of estrogen synthesis with antineoplastic activity. As a third-generation aromatase inhibitor, letrozole selectively and reversibly inhibits aromatase, which may result in growth inhibition of estrogen-dependent breast cancer cells. Aromatase, a cytochrome P-450 enzyme localized to the endoplasmic reticulum of the cell and found in many tissues including those of the premenopausal ovary, liver, and breast, catalyzes the aromatization of androstenedione and testosteron... |
| Leucovorin Calcium | An active metabolite of folic acid (also called folinic acid and citrovorum factor), which does not require metabolism by dihydrofolate reductase, the molecular target of folate antagonist-type chemotherapeutic drugs.  Leucovorin calcium counteracts the toxic effects of these medications, 'rescuing' the patient while permitting the antitumor activity of the folate antagonist. This agent also potentiates the effects of fluorouracil and its derivatives by stabilizing the binding of the drug's m... |
| Leukemic Apoptotic Corpse-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cells | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with corpses of apoptotic leukemic cells, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, autologous dendritic cells pulsed with leukemic apoptotic corpse may activate the immune system to mount an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against leukemic cells expressing leukemia-associated antigens, which may result in leukemic cell lysis and inhibition of tumor cell g... |
| Leuprolide | A synthetic nonapeptide analogue of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Leuprolide binds to and activates gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptors. Continuous, prolonged administration of leuprolide in males results in pituitary GnRH receptor desensitization and inhibition of pituitary secretion of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), leading to a significant decline in testosterone production; in females, prolonged administration results in a decrease in estrad... |
| Leuprolide Acetate | The acetate salt of a synthetic nonapeptide analogue of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Leuprolide binds to and activates gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptors. Continuous, prolonged administration of leuprolide in males results in pituitary GnRH receptor desensitization and inhibition of pituitary secretion of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), leading to a significant decline in testosterone production; in females, prolonged administration results in ... |
| Leuprolide Acetate for Injectable Suspension TOL2506 | A subcutaneous injectable suspension formulation containing the acetate salt form of leuprolide, a synthetic nonapeptide analogue of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration of the leuprolide acetate for injectable suspension TOL2506, leuprolide binds to and activates the gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptor (GnRHR). The continuous stimulation of GnRHR by leuprolide results in both the desensitization of pituitary GnRHR... |
| Leuprolide Acetate Sustained-release Microspheres PT105 | A sustained-release (SR) injectable microsphere formulation composed of the acetate salt of leuprolide, a synthetic, long-acting nonapeptide analog of the endogenous hormone gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, leuprolide binds to and activates the gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptor (GnRHR). The continuous stimulation of GnRHR by leuprolide results in both the desensitization of pituitary GnRHR and the inhibition of pituitary... |
| Leuprolide Mesylate | The mesylate salt form of leuprolide, a synthetic nonapeptide analogue of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, leuprolide binds to and activates the gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptor (GnRHR). The continuous stimulation of GnRHR by leuprolide results in both the desensitization of pituitary GnRHR and the inhibition of pituitary secretion of the gonadotropins follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). In ... |
| Leuprolide Mesylate Injectable Suspension | A depot suspension for injection composed of the mesylate salt of leuprolide, a synthetic, long-acting nonapeptide analog of the endogenous hormone gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous injection of the depot suspension, leuprolide binds to and activates the gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptor (GnRHR). The continuous stimulation of GnRHR by leuprolide results in both the desensitization of pituitary GnRHR and the inhibition of pit... |
| Leurubicin | An N-L-leucyl prodrug of the anthracycline doxorubicin, with antineoplastic activity. Leurubicin is converted to its active form doxorubicin in or on tumor cells by hydrolytic enzymes. |
| Lexatumumab | A fully human monoclonal agonistic antibody directed against tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand receptor-2 (TRAIL-R2) with potential antitumor activity. Mimicking the natural ligand TRAIL, lexatumumab binds to and activates TRAIL-R2, which may trigger apoptosis in and inhibit the growth of TRAIL-R2-expressing tumor cells. TRAIL-R2, also known as death receptor 5 (DR5), is a member of the TNF receptor family and is expressed on many malignant cell types. |
| Lexibulin | An orally bioavailable small-molecule with tubulin-inhibiting, vascular-disrupting, and potential antineoplastic activities. Lexibulin inhibits tubulin polymerization in tumor blood vessel endothelial cells and tumor cells, blocking the formation of the mitotic spindle and leading to cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase; this may result in disruption of the tumor vasculature and tumor blood flow, and tumor cell death. |
| L-Gossypol | The levo-enantiomer of an orally bioavailable polyphenolic aldehyde, derived primarily from unrefined cottonseed oil, with potential antineoplastic activity. Mimicking the inhibitory BH3 (Bcl-2 homology 3) domain of endogenous antagonists of Bcl-2, L-gossypol binds to and inhibits various anti-apoptotic Bcl-2 proteins, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. This agent has greater affinity for Bcl-2 proteins than racemic gossypol. |
| Liarozole | An orally-active benzimidazole derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. As a retinoic acid metabolism blocking agent, liarozole inhibits cytochrome P450-dependent all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA)-4-hydroxylase, resulting in an increase in endogenous ATRA production, inhibition of cell proliferation, and induction of cell differentiation. This agent also inhibits aromatase, the enzyme that catalyzes the final, rate-limiting step in estrogen biosynthesis. |
| Liarozole Fumarate | The orally active fumarate salt of the benzimidazole derivative liarozole with potential antineoplastic activity. As a retinoic acid metabolism blocking agent (RAMBA), liarozole inhibits cytochrome P450-dependent all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA)-4-hydroxylase, resulting in an increase in endogenous ATRA production, inhibition of cell proliferation, and induction of cell differentiation. This agent also inhibits aromatase, the enzyme that catalyzes the final, rate-limiting step in estrogen biosy... |
| Liarozole Hydrochloride | The fumarate salt of an orally-active benzimidazole derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. As a retinoic acid metabolism blocking agent (RAMBA), liarozole inhibits cytochrome P450-dependent all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA)-4-hydroxylase, resulting in an increase in endogenous ATRA production, inhibition of cell proliferation, and induction of cell differentiation. This agent also inhibits aromatase, the enzyme that catalyzes the final, rate-limiting step in estrogen biosynthesis. |
| Licartin | An immunoradioconjugate containing metuximab, an antibody fragment targeting the hepatocellular cancer (HCC)-associated antigen HAb18G/CD147, that is conjugated to the radioisotope iodine I 131, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the metuximab moiety of licartin targets and binds to HAb18G/CD147 on HCC cells; upon internalization, the radioisotope I 131 delivers a cytotoxic dose of gamma radiation, thereby causing selective destruction of HAb18G/CD147-expressing cell... |
| Licorice | An herbal extract derived from the root of the plant Glycyrrhiza glabra with potential anti-inflammatory, antioxidant, and antineoplastic activities. Licorice root extract contains glycoside glycyrrhizinic acid and numerous flavonoids. Glycyrrhizinic acid in licorice root extract is hydrolyzed to glycyrrhetic acid (GA); GA inhibits 11 beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, resulting in inhibition of the conversion of cortisol to the inactive steroid cortisone and elevated cortisol levels. In addi... |
| Lifastuzumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the sodium-dependent phosphate transport protein 2B (NaPi2b), and covalently linked to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of DNIB0600A binds to NaPi2b-expressing tumor cells and is internalized, thereby delivering MMAE intracellularly. Proteolytic cleavage... |
| Lifileucel | A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), with potential antineoplastic activity. TILs are isolated from a patient's tumor tissue, cultured in vitro with high-dose interleukin-2 (lL-2), further selected based on antigen specificity and tumor reactivity, and the selected TILs are subsequently expanded. Upon re-introduction of lifileucel into the patient, the TILs re-infiltrate the tumor, specifically recognize the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), and initiate tumor ce... |
| Lifirafenib | An inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase B-raf (BRAF) and epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Lifirafenib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of BRAF and certain BRAF mutant forms, and EGFR. This prevents BRAF- and EGFR-mediated signaling and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells that either contain a mutated BRAF gene or express over-activated EGFR. In addition, BGB-283 inhibits mutant forms of the Ras proteins K-RAS and ... |
| Ligand Directed Degrader BMS-986460 | A ligand directed degrader (LDD) composed of an E3 ubiquitin ligase-binding moiety that is conjugated, via a linker, to an as of yet undisclosed moiety that targets a prostate specific tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, LDD BMS-986460 specifically and simultaneously targets and binds to the TAA on prostate tumor cells and to E3 ubiquitin ligase, thereby creating a ternary complex. This induces E3 ligase ubiquitination and proteasome-me... |
| Ligufalimab | A humanized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting leukocyte surface antigen CD47, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ligufalimab targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells, blocking the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa) expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of macrophage activation and phagocy... |
| Lilotomab | A murine immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the CD37 antigen with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lilotomab both activates the immune system to induce an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CD37-overexpressing tumor cells and induces apoptosis in these tumor cells. CD37 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed at high-levels on B-cells and to a lesser extent on T-cells and myeloid cells, and is frequently overexpress... |
| Limantrafin | An orally bioavailable protein-protein interaction (PPI) inhibitor that targets the assembly of the NOTCH transcription complex, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, limantrafin targets and inhibits the NOTCH transcriptional activation complex in the cell nucleus. This inhibits the expression of NOTCH target genes and prevents NOTCH signaling, which may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells mediated by an overly-active Notch pathway. Overactivation of the Notch... |
| Limonene, (+)- | An oral dietary supplement containing a natural cyclic monoterpene, and a major component of the oil extracted from citrus peels, with potential chemopreventive and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, D-limonene activates aldehyde dehydrogenase 3A1 (ALDH3A1), thereby decreasing aldehyde level. This may protect salivary stem/progenitor cells (SSPCs) from toxic aldehydes and prevent or improve radiation-induced xerostomia. Limonene and its metabolites perillic acid, dihydroperi... |
| Limonene, (+/-)- | A racemic mixture of limonene, a natural cyclic monoterpene and major component of the oil extracted from citrus rind with chemo-preventive and antitumor activities. The metabolites of DL-limonene, perillic acid, dihydroperillic acid, uroterpenol and limonene 1,2-diol are suggested to inhibit tumor growth through inhibition of p21-dependent signaling, induce apoptosis via the induction of the transforming growth factor beta-signaling pathway, inhibit post-translational modification of signal ... |
| Linavonkibart | A monoclonal antibody directed against latent human transforming growth factor (TGF)-beta 1 (TGFb1; TGF-b1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, linavonkibart specifically targets, binds to, and inhibits the activation of latent TGFb1 complexes, thereby preventing TGFb1-mediated signaling. This abrogates TGFb1-mediated immunosuppression, enhances anti-tumor immunity in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and promotes a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune respons... |
| Linifanib | An orally bioavailable receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Linifanib inhibits members of the vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) receptor families; it exhibits much less activity against unrelated RTKs, soluble tyrosine kinases, or serine/threonine kinases. This agent does not have a general antiproliferative effect due to its high dose requirement. However, linifanib may exhibit potent antiproliferat... |
| Linoleyl Carbonate-Paclitaxel | A formulation of the 6-omega fatty acid derivative 2'-linoleyl carbonate (LOC) conjugated to paclitaxel, a taxane compound extracted from the Pacific yew tree Taxus brevifolia, with potential antineoplastic activity. Paclitaxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin, thereby interfering with the dynamics of microtubule assembly/disassembly and resulting in the inhibition of cell division. LOC enhances the uptake of paclitaxel by tumor cells, thereby concentrating this agent in tumor cells compared t... |
| Linperlisib | An orally available selective inhibitor of the delta form of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3-kinase subunit delta; PI3K-delta; PI3Kdelta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration linperlisib selectively binds to and inhibits PI3K-delta and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This decreases proliferation of and induces cell death in PI3K-delta over-expressing tumor cells. PI3K-delta also plays a key role in the B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling ... |
| Linrodostat | An orally available inhibitor of indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, linrodostat specifically targets and binds to IDO1, a cytosolic enzyme responsible for the oxidation of the amino acid tryptophan into the immunosuppressive metabolite kynurenine. By inhibiting IDO1 and decreasing kynurenine in tumor cells, BMS-986205 restores and promotes the proliferation and activation of various immune cells, including ... |
| Linsitinib | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor (IGF-1R) with potential antineoplastic activity. Linsitinib selectively inhibits IGF-1R, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. Overexpressed in a variety of human cancers, IGF-1R stimulates cell proliferation, enables oncogenic transformation, and suppresses apoptosis. |
| Lintuzumab | A humanized recombinant monoclonal antibody directed against CD33, a cell surface antigen found on myeloid leukemia blasts and early hematopoietic progenitor cells. Lintuzumab stimulates antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumor cells expressing CD33, resulting in a decrease in tumor burden. The humanized version of this monoclonal antibody exhibits less immunogenicity and improved binding affinity compared to its murine counterpart. |
| Linvoseltamab | A human bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFvs): one directed again the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and another directed against the CD3 antigen expressed on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, linvoseltamab binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and BCMA ... |
| Liothyronine I-131 | A radioconjugate of synthetic active thyroid hormone, liothyronine (T3), labeled with Iodine 131. Liothyronine involves many important metabolic functions and is essential to the proper development and differentiation of all cells. I131 liothyronine may be used in radiotherapy in thyroid cancers. |
| Lipid Encapsulated Anti-PLK1 siRNA TKM-PLK1 | short interfering RNAs (siRNAs) directed against polo-like kinase 1 (PLK1, STPK13), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of lipid-encapsulated anti-PLK1 siRNA TKM-PLK1, siRNA binds to PLK1 mRNA, which results in the inhibition of both the translation and expression of the PLK1 protein. Blockage of PLK1 expression prevents proper tumor cell mitosis, causes cell cycle arrest and tumor cell apoptosis. This inhibits the proliferation of PLK1-overexpressing tumor cells. PLK1... |
| Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulated mRNA Encoding Human Single-chain IL-12 ABO2011 | A formulation consisting of lipid nanoparticle (LNP)-encapsulated messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding human single-chain interleukin-12 (scIL-12), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral injection, the LNP moiety binds to the plasma membrane of nearby cells and releases the scIL-12 mRNA into the cells. The mRNA is then translated by the cellular protein translation machinery to produce scIL-12, which is secreted into the local tumor microenvironment (TME). I... |
| Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulated mRNAs Encoding Human IL-12A/IL-12B MEDI-1191 | A formulation consisting of lipid nanoparticle encapsulated messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding human interleukin-12 subunit beta (IL-12B; IL-12 subunit p40) and interleukin-12 subunit alpha (IL-12A; IL-12 subunit p35) with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Although the exact mechanism of action has not been completely characterized, upon intratumoral injection, the lipid nanoparticle moiety presumably binds to the plasma membrane of nearby cells and releases the IL-12A and ... |
| Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulated MYC-targeting mRNA-based Agent OTX-2002 | A lipid nanoparticle (LNP)-based formulation consisting of a biscistronic mRNA that encodes two independent epigenomic controllers targeting the proto-oncogene MYC (c-Myc), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of LNP encapsulated MYC-targeting mRNA-based agent OTX-2002, the lipid formulation promotes the uptake by tumor cells. The biscistronic mRNA is then translated by the cellular protein translation machinery to produce two independent epigenomic controllers consisti... |
| Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulated OX40L mRNA-2416 | A proprietary formulation consisting of a lipid nanoparticle encapsulating a synthetic messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding the human co-stimulatory protein tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 4 (TNFSF4; OX40 Ligand; OX40L), with potential immunomodulatory and antitumor activities. Although the mechanism of action has not been completely characterized, following intratumoral injection of lipid nanoparticle encapsulated OX40L mRNA-2416, the lipid nanoparticle moiety presumably binds to th... |
| Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulated Self-replicating RNA Encoding Human IL-12 JCXH-211 | A formulation consisting of lipid nanoparticle (LNP) encapsulating self-replicating RNA (srRNA) encoding human interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral injection of LNP encapsulated srRNA encoding human IL-12 JCXH-211, the LNPs bind to the plasma membrane of nearby tumor cells and release srRNA encoding IL-12 into the tumor cells. The srRNA amplifies within the tumor cells, and is translated by the cellular protein translation ma... |
| Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulated Self-replicating RNA Encoding Human IL-12 STX-001 | A formulation consisting of lipid nanoparticle (LNP) encapsulating self-replicating RNA (srRNA) encoding human interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral injection of LNP encapsulated srRNA encoding human IL-12 STX-001, the LNPs bind to the plasma membrane of nearby tumor cells and release srRNA encoding IL-12 into the tumor cells. The srRNA amplifies within the tumor cells, and is translated by the cellular protein translation mac... |
| Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulating Beta-catenin siRNA ALN-BCAT | A formulation consisting of lipid nanoparticle (LNP)-encapsulated small interfering ribonucleic acid (siRNA) targeting beta-catenin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of LNP encapsulating beta-catenin siRNA ALN-BCAT, the LNP formulation delivers the siRNA particles to the tumor cells where the beta-catenin siRNA targets and binds to beta-catenin mRNA. This results in the inhibition of the translation and expression of beta-catenin. This disrupts beta-catenin-dependen... |
| Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulating Glutathione S-transferase P siRNA NBF-006 | A biodegradable, lyophilized lipid nanoparticle (LNP) encapsulating small interfering ribonucleic acid (siRNA) directed against glutathione S-transferase P (GSTP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of LNP encapsulating GSTP siRNA NBF-006, the LNP formulation delivers the siRNA particles to the tumor cells where the GSTP siRNA targets and binds to GSTP mRNA. This results in the inhibition of the translation and expression of GSTP and may inhibit proliferation of KRAS-... |
| Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulating mRNAs Encoding Human OX40L/IL-23/IL-36gamma mRNA-2752 | A lipid nanoparticle encapsulating mRNAs encoding for the human co-stimulatory protein tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 4 (TNFSF4; OX40 Ligand; OX40L), the pro-inflammatory cytokines interleukin-23 (IL-23) and interleukin-36gamma (IL-36gamma), with potential immunomodulatory and anti-tumor activities. Upon intratumoral (IT) injection of the lipid nanoparticle encapsulated mRNAs encoding human OX40L/IL-23/IL-36gamma mRNA-2752, the lipid nanoparticle binds to the plasma membrane ... |
| Lipid Nanoparticle-encapsulated EBV mRNA Vaccine mRNA-1189 | A vaccine consisting of a lipid nanoparticle (LNP) encapsulating four messenger RNAs (mRNAs) encoding the Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) envelope glycoproteins gp42, gp220, gH and gL, with potential immunizing activity against EBV. Upon intramuscular administration of LNP-encapsulated EBV mRNA vaccine mRNA-1189, the LNP binds to the plasma membrane of cells and releases the mRNAs into the cells. The mRNAs are then translated by ribosomes to produce the EBV envelope glycoproteins. This may activate ... |
| Liposomal Bcl-2 Antisense Oligonucleotide BP1002 | A liposomal-based nanoparticle composed of an uncharged P-ethoxy antisense oligodeoxynucleotide (ODN) targeting Bcl-2 mRNA and incorporated in liposomes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of liposomal Bcl-2 antisense oligonucleotide BP1002, this agent targets and hybridizes with Bcl-2 mRNA and inhibits the expression of Bcl-2 protein. This may induce tumor cell apoptosis of Bcl2-overexpressing tumor cells and may decrease tumor cell proliferation. Bcl2, a protein inv... |
| Liposomal Chk1 Inhibitor SMP-3124 SMP-3124LP | A liposomal formulation containing an inhibitor of checkpoint kinase 1 (chk1), with potential antineoplastic and chemosensitization activities. Upon administration of liposomal chk1 inhibitor SMP-3124 SMP-3124LP, SMP-3124 selectively targets and binds to chk1, thereby preventing activity of chk1 and abrogating the repair of damaged DNA. This may lead to an accumulation of damaged DNA, inhibition of cell cycle arrest, and induction of apoptosis. Chk1, an ATP-dependent serine/threonine kinase, ... |
| Liposomal CMTR2 Inhibitor AT-1965 | A liposomal formulation containing an inhibitor of cap-specific mRNA (nucleoside-2-O-)-methyltransferase 2 (cap-methytransferase 2; CMTR2; MTR2; FTSJD1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, liposomal CMTR2 inhibitor AT1965 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of CMTR2. This causes the innate immune sensors to recognize the mRNA as non-self and results in an anti-viral immune response leading to the activation of B-cells and resulting in ... |
| Liposomal c-raf Antisense Oligonucleotide | The liposomal formulation of a c-raf-1 antisense oligonucleotide, with potential antineoplastic activity. Liposomal c-raf antisense oligonucleotide targets the translation initiation site of human c-raf-1 mRNA, thereby blocking the expression and production of Raf-1 protein and thus inhibit tumor cell growth and development. Raf-1 plays a key role in the RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway, which regulates mammalian cell proliferation and growth. The liposomal formulation increases the solubility o... |
| Liposomal Curcumin | A liposomal formulation containing curcumin, a poorly water-soluble polylphenol pigment isolated from the plant Curcuma longa, with potential antineoplastic, chemopreventive, antioxidant, anti-angiogenic and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon intravenous administration of liposomal curcumin, this agent blocks the formation of reactive-oxygen species, neutralizes free radicals, and exhibits anti-inflammatory properties as a result of inhibition of cyclooxygenases (COX) and other enzymes involv... |
| Liposomal Cytarabine | A liposomal intrathecal formulation of the antimetabolite cytarabine. As an S-phase-specific antimetabolite, cytarabine is phosphorylated by deoxycytidine kinase to a triphosphate form which competes with thymidine for incorporation into DNA; the incorporation of cytarabine triphosphate into DNA appears to inhibit DNA polymerase and so DNA synthesis, resulting in cell death. (NCI04) |
| Liposomal Daunorubicin Citrate | A liposome-encapsulated form of the citrate salt of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic daunorubicin. Daunorubicin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis. Liposomal delivery of doxorubicin citrate improves drug penetration into tumors and decreases drug clearance, thereby increasing the duration of therapeutic drug effects. |
| Liposomal Docetaxel | A formulation of the poorly soluble, semi-synthetic, second-generation taxane docetaxel encapsulated within liposomes, with antineoplastic activity.  Upon intravenous administration, docetaxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin, thereby inhibiting microtubule disassembly which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell death.  This liposomal formulation solubilizes docetaxel without the use of toxic solvents such as Tween 80, permitting the administration of larger doses of docetaxe... |
| Liposomal Eribulin Mesylate | A liposome-encapsulated formulation of the mesylate salt form of eribulin, a synthetic, macrocyclic ketone analogue of halichondrin B, a substance derived from the marine sponge genus Halichondria, with potential antineoplastic activity. Eribulin binds to the vinca domain of tubulin and inhibits both the polymerization of tubulin and the assembly of microtubules. This results in the inhibition of mitotic spindle assembly, the induction of cell cycle arrest at G2/M phase, as well as tumor cell... |
| Liposomal HPV-16 E6/E7 Multipeptide Vaccine PDS0101 | A liposomal nanoparticle-based therapeutic vaccine composed of the cationic lipid R-DOTAP (R-enantiomer of 1,2-dioleoyl-3-trimethylammonium-propane chloride) encapsulating six human papillomavirus 16 (HPV-16) E6 and E7 peptides, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon subcutaneous administration of the liposomal HPV-16 E6 and E7 multipeptide vaccine, the nanoparticles are taken up by antigen presenting cells (APCs), specifically dendritic cells (DCs), which may stimulate the immune sy... |
| Liposomal iNKT Agonist PORT-2 | A liposomal formulation of IMM60, a synthetically derived small molecule agonist of natural killer T-cells (NKTs) expressing an invariant (alpha, beta) T-cell receptor (iNKTs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of liposomal iNKT agonist PORT-2, IMM60 targets and binds to the T-cell receptor on iNKTs, thereby activating iNKTs. In turn, iNKTs recognize CD1d-restricted lipid ligands, which are expressed on certain tumor cells, and secr... |
| Liposomal Mitoxantrone Hydrochloride | A formulation composed of the hydrochloride salt form of the anthracenedione antibiotic mitoxantrone encapsulated within liposomes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, mitoxantrone intercalates into and forms crosslinks with DNA, thereby disrupting DNA and RNA replication. This agent also binds to topoisomerase II, which both results in DNA strand breaks and prevents DNA synthesis. This leads to the induction of apoptosis in the rapidly dividing cancer cel... |
| Liposomal MUC1/PET-lipid A Vaccine ONT-10 | A cancer vaccine comprised of a 43 amino acid epitope from glycoprotein MUC1 (mucin 1) and the synthetic Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR-4) agonist PET lipid A encapsulated in cholesterol/dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC)/dimyristoylphosphatidylglycerol (DMPG) liposomes, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. The MUC1 epitope is composed of two 20 amino glycosylated VNTR (various number tandem repeats) from human MUC1A and including 6 glycosylated sites modified by Tn (... |
| Liposomal NDDP | A synthetic liposomal formulation of bis-neodecanoate diaminocyclohexane platinum (NDDP), a third-generation platinum complex analogue of cisplatin, with potential antineoplastic activity. After displacement of the 2 long-chain aliphatic leaving groups (neodecanoic acid), platinum diaminocyclohexane (DACH) complexes become highly reactive and alkylate macromolecules, forming both inter- and intra-stranded DNA cross-linkings and inhibiting DNA synthesis, which results in tumor cell cytotoxicit... |
| Liposomal SN-38 | The liposomal formulation of SN-38 (7-ethyl-10-hydroxy-camptothecin), a biologically active metabolite of the prodrug irinotecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. SN-38 binds to and inhibits topoisomerase I by stabilizing the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA, resulting in DNA breaks, inhibition of DNA replication, and apoptosis. SN-38 has been reported to exhibit up to 1,000-fold more cytotoxic activity against various cancer cells in vitro than irinotecan. The liposom... |
| Liposomal Topotecan FF-10850 | A liposome encapsulated formulation of the semisynthetic camptothecin analogue topotecan with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, liposomal topotecan FF-10850 preferentially releases topotecan, a cytotoxic, quinoline-based alkaloid extracted from the Asian tree Camptotheca acuminate, into the tumor environment. Topotecan inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes during S phase of the cell cycle, thereby inhibiting religatio... |
| Liposomal Vinorelbine | A formulation of the semisynthetic vinca alkaloid, vinorelbine, encapsulated within liposomes, with antineoplastic activity. Vinorelbine binds to tubulin and prevents formation of the mitotic spindle, resulting in cell cycle arrest in metaphase. Like other vinca alkaloids, vinorelbine may also interfere with the metabolism of nucleic acids, lipids, amino acids, cAMP, and glutathione, as well as other biological processes including calmodulin-dependent Ca2+-transport, ATPase activity, or cellu... |
| Liposomal-based Cream Base | A smooth, thick cream that is used as a base for topical and transdermal delivery of pharmaceuticals. The proprietary formula utilizes a multi-emulsion liposomic system that is insoluble in water and alcohol. |
| Liposome-encapsulated Daunorubicin-Cytarabine | A liposomal formulation containing a fixed combination of the antineoplastic agents cytarabine and daunorubicin in a 5:1 molar ratio. Liposome-encapsulated daunorubicin-cytarabine has been designed to provide optimal delivery of a specific ratio of cytarabine to daunorubicin, one that has been shown to be synergistic in vitro. The antimetabolite cytarabine competes with cytidine for incorporation into DNA, inhibiting DNA synthesis. This agent also inhibits DNA polymerase, resulting in a decre... |
| Liposome-Encapsulated Doxorubicin Citrate | A formulation of the citrate salt of the antineoplastic anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin, encapsulated within liposomes, with antitumor activity. Doxorubicin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and RNA synthesis. This agent also interacts with cell membrane lipids causing lipid peroxidation. Liposomal delivery of doxorubicin improves drug penetration into tumors and decreases drug clearance, thereby increasing the duration of thera... |
| Liposome-encapsulated miR-34 Mimic MRX34 | A liposomal formulation containing a nucleotide that mimics the human tumor suppressor microRNA (miRNA) miR-34, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, liposome-encapsulated MRX34 mimics miR-34 by inhibiting the expression of a variety of oncogenes including MYC, MET, BCL2, and beta-catenin. This induces cell cycle arrest, senescence and apoptosis in susceptible tumor cells. miR-34 is downregulated in most solid and hematologic malignancies and regulates the expression of... |
| Liposome-encapsulated OSI-7904 | A liposome-encapsulated formulation of the benzoquinazoline folate analog OSI-7904 with antineoplastic activity. As a thymidylate synthase inhibitor, OSI-7904 noncompetitively binds to thymidylate synthase, resulting in inhibition of thymine nucleotide synthesis and DNA replication. Liposome encapsulation improves the efficacy and increases the half-life of OSI-7904. (NCI04) |
| Liposome-encapsulated RB94 Plasmid DNA Gene Therapy Agent SGT-94 | A systemic gene therapy anti-cancer agent composed of cationic liposomes, which encapsulates plasmid DNA encoding for the tumor suppressor gene RB94 and is complexed with anti-transferrin receptor single chain antibody fragment (TfRscFv), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon systemic administration of liposome-encapsulated RB94 plasmid DNA gene therapy agent SGT-94, the TfRscFv portion of this agent selectively targets the tumor cells expressing transferrin receptors. TfRscFv binding ... |
| Liposome-encapsulated TAAs mRNA Vaccine W_ova1 | A vaccine consisting of messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding three tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) specific for ovarian cancer that are encapsulated in liposomes, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the liposome-encapsulated TAAs mRNA vaccine W_ova1, the liposomes bind to the plasma membrane of cells and release the mRNA into the cells. The mRNA is then translated by ribosomes to produce the TAAs. The TAAs are presented to the immune system which ma... |
| Lipustobart | A recombinant, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, lipustobart binds to PD-1 and inhibits the binding of PD-1 to the PD-1 ligands, programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) and PD-1 ligand 2 (PD-L2). This prevents the activation of PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways, leading to t... |
| Lirafugratinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, lirafugratinib binds to and inhibits FGFR2, which results in the inhibition of FGFR2-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits the proliferation of FGFR2-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR2, a receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cellular proliferation, migration and survival. |
| Lirafugratinib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of lirafugratinib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, lirafugratinib binds to and inhibits FGFR2, which results in the inhibition of FGFR2-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits the proliferation of FGFR2-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR2, a receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cellular proli... |
| Lirametostat | An orally available selective inhibitor of the histone lysine methyltransferase EZH2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, lirametostat selectively inhibits the activity of both wild-type and mutated forms of EZH2. Inhibition of EZH2 specifically prevents the methylation of histone H3 on lysine 27 (H3K27). This decrease in histone methylation alters gene expression patterns associated with cancer pathways and results in decreased proliferation of EZH2-expressing c... |
| Lirentelimab | A humanized, nonfucosylated immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory receptor sialic acid-binding immunoglobulin-like lectin 8 (Siglec-8) expressed on human mast cells and eosinophils, with potential anti-inflammatory activity. Upon administration, lirentelimab targets and binds to Siglec-8 expressed on the surface of mast cells and eosinophils. This may inhibit mast cell activation and deplete eosinophils through antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxici... |
| Lirilumab | A fully human monoclonal antibody against killer-cell immunoglobulin-like receptors (KIR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lirilumab binds to KIR, thereby preventing the binding of KIR ligands to KIR on natural killer (NK) cells. By blocking these inhibitory receptors, NK cells become activated and attack cancer cells leading to tumor cell death. KIR, a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily, is expressed on the surface of NK cells. |
| Lisaftoclax | An orally bioavailable and selective inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, lisaftoclax targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2. This restores apoptotic processes in tumor cells. Bcl-2 is overexpressed in many cancers and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis; its expression is associated with increased drug resistance and tumor cell survival. |
| Lisavanbulin | An orally available, highly water-soluble lysine prodrug of the synthetic small molecule BAL27862 with potential antitumor activity. Upon administration of lisavanbulin and conversion into the active form BAL27862, this agent binds to tubulin at a site distinct from the vinca-alkaloid-binding site, and prevents tubulin polymerization and destabilizes microtubules, ultimately leading to cell cycle arrest, blockage of cell division and an induction of cell death in cancer cells. |
| Lisocabtagene Maraleucel | A preparation of a defined ratio of CD4+ and CD8+ autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing an anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment (scFv) fused to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), and a truncated form of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, lisocabt... |
| Listeria monocytogenes-LLO-Prostate Cancer Neoantigens Vaccine ADXS-504 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) cancer vaccine containing a live-attenuated strain of the Gram-positive bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) encoding a fusion protein composed of specific prostate cancer (PC) neoantigens fused to a fragment of the immunostimulant listeriolysin O (LLO) protein, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the Lm-LLO-PC neoantigens vaccine ADXS-504, the expressed LLO-PC neoantigens is processed by antigen presenting cells (APCs... |
| Listeria monocytogenes-LLO-PSA Vaccine ADXS31-142 | A cancer vaccine containing a live-attenuated strain of the Gram-positive bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) encoding a fusion protein composed of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human prostate-specific antigen (PSA) fused to a fragment of the immunostimulant listeriolysin O (LLO) protein, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the Lm-LLO-PSA vaccine ADXS31-142, the expressed LLO-PSA is processed by antigen presenting cells (APCs), present... |
| Litronesib | An inhibitor of the kinesin-related motor protein Eg5 with potential antineoplastic activity. Litronesib selectively inhibits the activity of Eg5, which may result in mitotic disruption, apoptosis and consequently cell death in tumor cells that are actively dividing. The ATP-dependent Eg5 kinesin-related motor protein (also known as KIF11 or kinesin spindle protein-5) is a plus-end directed kinesin motor protein that plays an essential role during mitosis, particularly in the regulation of sp... |
| Live Attenuated Measles Virus Vaccine | A live, attenuated measles vaccine with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, live attenuated measles virus vaccine may activate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against measles-positive tumor cells. Measles virus has been shown to be present in some non-small cell lung cancers. |
| Live Freeze-Dried Lactic Acid Bacteria Probiotic | A probiotic containing live, cultivated, freeze-dried lactic acid bacteria with gastrointestinal (GI) protective, anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and potential antitumor properties. Oral administration of probiotic bacteria help maintain adequate colonization of the GI tract and modulate the composition of the normal microflora. Upon colonization of the GI tract, the probiotic bacteria form a protective barrier, interfere with the attachment of pathogenic bacteria and other harmful substa... |
| Live-Attenuated Listeria Encoding Human Mesothelin Vaccine CRS-207 | A recombinant Listeria-based cancer vaccine containing a live-attenuated strain of the facultative intracellular bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) expressing human mesothelin with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of this vaccine, Listeria invade professional phagocytes within the immune system and express mesothelin, which may activate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against mesothelin-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell ly... |
| Live-attenuated Listeria monocytogenes-encoding EGFRvIII-NY-ESO-1 Vaccine ADU-623 | A live-attenuated, double-deleted strain of the Gram-positive bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) encoding a mutant form of the tumor associated antigens, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRvIII) and the cancer/testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, live-attenuated Listeria monocytogenes encoding EGFRvIII-NY-ESO-1 vaccine targets dendritic cells and expresses EGFRvIII and NY-ESO-1. This promotes both a pot... |
| Liver Cancer Neoantigens-sensitized Autoimmune Cells IPM001 | A preparation of autoimmune cells that have been sensitized to liver cancer neoantigens, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities, Upon administration of the liver cancer neoantigens-sensitized autoimmune cells IPM001, these cells may eradicate the liver cancer cells. |
| Livmoniplimab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the transforming growth factor beta (TGFbeta) activator, glycoprotein A repetitions predominant (GARP; leucine-rich repeat-containing protein 32; LRRC32), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, livmoniplimab selectively targets and binds to GARP which interferes with the production and release of active TGFbeta by regulatory T-cells (Tregs).  Selective inhibition of the release of TGFbeta from Tregs ... |
| Lixumistat | An orally bioavailable biguanide compound and mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation (OxPhos) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lixumistat inhibits oxidative phosphorylation, decreases mitochondrial function, prevents tumor cell metabolism and deprives tumor cells of energy, thereby preventing tumor cell proliferation. Mitochondrial OxPhos is overactivated in cancer cells and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation. Drug resistant tumor cells are ve... |
| Lixumistat Acetate | The acetate salt form of lixumistat, an orally bioavailable biguanide compound and mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation (OxPhos) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lixumistat inhibits oxidative phosphorylation, decreases mitochondrial function, prevents tumor cell metabolism and deprives tumor cells of energy, thereby preventing tumor cell proliferation. Mitochondrial OxPhos is overactivated in cancer cells and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferati... |
| L-lysine/L-arginine-containing Amino Acid | An intravenous (IV) amino acid (AA) solution containing the cationic amino acids L-lysine and L-arginine, with radioprotective activity. Upon IV administration of the AA solution, L-lysine and L-arginine are specifically taken up by the kidneys. This protects the kidneys from toxicity by certain co-administered radio-labeled peptides as they compete with radio-labeled peptides for renal uptake. This reduces uptake of the radio-labeled peptides by the kidneys and decreases their renal retentio... |
| LMB-1 Immunotoxin | A chimeric protein consisting of the Fv portion of a monoclonal antibody attached to a fragment of Pseudomonas exotoxin A without its cell-binding region.  LMB-1 immunotoxin targets B3, a Lewis Y-related carbohydrate epitope found on some solid tumors.  The antibody attaches to the tumor cell and the exotoxin stops protein synthesis by inactivating elongation factor 2. (NCI04) |
| LMB-2 Immunotoxin | A fusion protein consisting of the Fv portion of a monoclonal antibody attached to a 38-kDa fragment of the Pseudomonas exotoxin A (with amino acids 365-380 deleted).  LMB-2 immunotoxin targets the interleukin 2 receptor (also known as IL-2R or CD25) which is expressed on activated normal T and B cells and macrophages and on the cells of various hematologic malignancies.  The antibody attaches to the IL-2R on the cell membrane, facilitating the entry of the exotoxin. The exotoxin moiety induc... |
| LMB-7 Immunotoxin | A single chain chimeric protein consisting of a monoclonal antibody fragment attached to a portion of the Pseudomonas exotoxin A. LMB-7 immunotoxin attaches to B3, a Lewis Y-related carbohydrate epitope on some solid tumor cells.  The antibody attaches to the cell and the exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating elongation factor 2. (NCI04) |
| LMB-9 Immunotoxin | A recombinant disulfide stabilized anti-Lewis Y IgG immunotoxin containing a 38 KD toxic element derived from the Pseudomonas aeruginosa exotoxin A and a monoclonal antibody fragment, designed to target adenocarcinomas expressing Lewis Y. LMB-9 immunotoxin attaches to tumor cells, facilitating he entry of the exotoxin. The exotoxin moiety induces caspase-mediated apoptosis of tumor cells via a mechanism involving mitochondrial damage; it also catalyzes the transfer of ADP ribose from nicotina... |
| LmddA-LLO-chHER2 Fusion Protein-secreting Live-attenuated Listeria Cancer Vaccine OST31-164 | A cancer vaccine containing a live, highly attenuated strain of the Gram-positive bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (LmddA) encoding a fusion protein composed of a chimeric peptide comprised of three highly immunogenic epitopes of the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) HER2/neu (chHER2) fused to a non-hemolytic fragment of the immunostimulant listeriolysin O (LLO) protein, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the LmddA-LLO-chHER2 vaccine OST3... |
| L-methylfolate | A nutritional supplement containing the biologically active form of the B9 vitamin folate, 5-methyltetrahydrofolate (L-methylfolate), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, L-methylfolate is able to provide methyl groups allowing an increase in the level of DNA methylation in the promoter regions of certain tumor-promoting genes, thereby reversing the DNA hypomethylation of these genes and inactivating them. This may result in a decrease of both tumor cell proliferation ... |
| LMP1/BARF1/EBNA1-specific Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes | A preparation of allogeneic cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL) made specifically reactive to three Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) proteins, latent membrane protein (LMP) 1, BamH1-A rightward frame-1 (BARF1) and EBV nuclear antigen 1 (EBNA1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Administration of LMP1/BARF1/ EBNA1-specific CTLs to patients with LMP1/BARF1/EBNA1-positive tumors may result in a specific CTL response against the tumor cells expressing these antigens, which can result in both cell lysis a... |
| LMP-2:340-349 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine containing amino acids residues from 340 through 349 of the latent membrane protein-2 (LMP-2) of the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. LMP-2, an EBV transmembrane protein, is expressed in various malignancies including nasopharyngeal cancer and EBV-positive Hodgkin disease. Vaccination with the LMP-2:340-349 peptide may boost the immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against LMP-2 produc... |
| LMP-2:419-427 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine containing amino acids residues from 419 through 427 of the latent membrane protein-2 (LMP-2) of the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. LMP-2, an EBV transmembrane protein, is expressed in various malignancies including nasopharyngeal cancer and EBV-positive Hodgkin disease. Vaccination with the LMP-2:49-427 peptide may boost the immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response against LMP-2 producing cel... |
| LMP2A-Specific Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL), specifically reactive to Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) latent membrane protein-2A (LMP2A), with potential antineoplastic activity. T-lymphocytes are exposed ex vivo to dendritic cells (DCs) transfected with a replication-deficient adenovirus encoding EBV LMP2A. Subsequently, LMP2A-specific CTLs are exposed to EBV infected cells transfected with adenovirus encoding LMP2A, thereby further stimulating CTLs. Administered to patients with EBV-positive tum... |
| LMP2-specific IL-12 Secreting T Cell Receptor-transduced T-lymphocytes | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to encode a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) latent membrane protein (LMP) 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the LMP2-specific IL-12 secreting TCR-transduced T-lymphocytes (TCR-T) recognize and bind to EBV LMP2, which may promote cell death and inhibit the growth of tumor cells expressing LMP2. In addition, IL-12 expression activates the immune system by promoting the se... |
| LMP2-specific T Cell Receptor-transduced Autologous T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A02:01/24:02/11:01-restricted Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) latent membrane proteins (LMP) 1 and 2, and EBV nuclear antigen 1 (EBNA1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the autologous LMP1/LMP2/EBNA1-specific, HLA-A02:01/24:02/11:01-restricted TCR-expressing T-lymphocytes YT-E001 recognize and bind to HLA... |
| LMP7 Inhibitor M3258 | An orally bioavailable, potent, selective, reversible inhibitor of the large multifunctional peptidase 7 (LMP7, Beta5i, PSMB8), a chymotrypsin-like, proteolytic subunit of the immunoproteasome, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LMP7 inhibitor M3258 targets and inhibits the proteolytic activity of the LMP7 subunit of immunoproteasome, thereby blocking its deubiquitylating activity. This blocks the ubiquitin proteasome degradation pathway, prevents the degradatio... |
| Lm-tLLO-neoantigens Vaccine ADXS-NEO | A proprietary, personalized plasmid DNA-based cancer vaccine composed of a live-attenuated strain of the Gram-positive bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) carrying a proprietary plasmid vector encoding multiple, patient-specific, immunogenic neoepitopes fused to a truncated form of the immunostimulant listeriolysin O (tLLO), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the Lm-tLLO-neoantigens vaccine ADXS-NEO, the ADXS-NEO is taken up by antigen pre... |
| Lobaplatin | A third-generation, water-soluble platinum compound with potential antineoplastic activity. Lobaplatin forms highly reactive, charged, platinum complexes that bind to nucleophilic groups such as GC- and AG-rich sites in DNA, inducing intrastrand DNA cross-links. These cross-links will ultimately result in induction of apoptosis and cell growth inhibition. Compared to first and second generation platinum compounds, lobaplatin appears to be more stable, less toxic, have a better therapeutic ind... |
| Locally-acting Temozolomide Formulation SI-053 | A powder for gel formulation containing the cytotoxic alkylating agent temozolomide (TMZ), an imidazotetrazine derivative of the alkylating agent dacarbazine, immobilized on the polymeric carrier dextran phosphate, with potential antineoplastic activity. The TMZ formulation SI-053 forms a viscous gel upon reconstitution in water. Upon local intraoperative administration of the gel into the cavity that is formed after resection of the brain tumor, SI-053 allows for local and prolonged action o... |
| Locnartecan | A miniature drug conjugate composed of the irinotecan metabolite 7-ethyl-10-hydroxy-camptothecin (SN-38) conjugated, through a cleavable linker, to a ligand of chaperone protein heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of locnartecan, the HSP90 ligand moiety targets HSP90, which allows the conjugate to penetrate, accumulate and be retained in the tumor cell. Once the linker is cleaved, the SN-38 moiety is released in a sustained manner. SN-38 ... |
| Lodapolimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) with immune checkpoint inhibitory and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, lodapolimab binds to PD-L1 and prevents the interaction of PD-L1 with its receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1). This inhibits the activation of PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways, which may enhance the T-cell-mediated immune response to neoplasms and reverse T-cell inactivation. PD-L1 is overexpressed... |
| Lometrexol | A folate analog antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity. As the 6R diastereomer of 5,10-dideazatetrahydrofolate, lometrexol inhibits glycinamide ribonucleotide formyltransferase (GARFT), the enzyme that catalyzes the first step in the de novo purine biosynthetic pathway, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis, arresting cells in the S phase of the cell cycle, and inhibiting tumor cell proliferation.  The agent has been shown to be active against tumors that are resistant to the folate antagonis... |
| Lometrexol Sodium | The sodium salt form of lometrexol, a folate analogue antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity. As the stereoisomer of 5,10-dideazatetrahydrofolate, lometrexol selectively inhibits glycinamide ribonucleotide formyltransferase (GARFT), the enzyme that catalyzes the first step in the de novo purine biosynthetic pathway, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis and leading to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation.  The agent has been shown to be active against tumors that are resistant to the fol... |
| Lomustine | A nitrosourea with antineoplastic activity. Lomustine alkylates and crosslinks DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA and RNA synthesis.  This agent also carbamoylates DNA and proteins, resulting in inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis and disruption of RNA processing.  Lomustine is lipophilic and crosses the blood-brain barrier. (NCI04) |
| Lomvastomig | A bispecific antibody directed against both the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, lomvastomig simultaneously targets and binds to both TIM-3 and PD-1 expressed on certain T-cells.... |
| Lonafarnib | A synthetic tricyclic derivative of carboxamide with antineoplastic properties.  Lonarfanib binds to and inhibits farnesyl transferase, an enzyme involved in the post-translational modification and activation of Ras proteins.  Ras proteins participate in numerous signalling pathways (proliferation, cytoskeletal organization), and play an important role in oncogenesis.  Mutated ras proteins have been found in a wide range of human cancers. (NCI04) |
| Loncastuximab Tesirine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of an anti-CD19 humanized monoclonal antibody conjugated, via a cleavable linker comprised of valine-alanine and maleimide, to a cytotoxic, cross-linking agent pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, which targets DNA minor grooves, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody portion of loncastuximab tesirine targets the cell surface antigen CD19 on various cancer cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internali... |
| Long PD-L1 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide cancer vaccine composed of a long peptide, containing amino acids 19 through 27 (FMTYWHLLNAFTVTVPKDL), obtained from the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and immune checkpoint molecule programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination with long PD-L1 peptide vaccine, the peptide may activate the immune system to induce an immune response against PD-L1-expressing cells. This may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CT... |
| Long Peptide Vaccine 7 | A peptide vaccine consisting of a combination of seven synthetic long peptides (SLPs), which are each about 30 amino acids in size, and derived from cancer-testis antigens (CTA) and melanocytic differentiation proteins (MDP), with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon administration, long peptide vaccine 7 may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-cell lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing these peptides. CTA and MDP are overexpressed ... |
| Long-acting Recombinant Erwinia asparaginase JZP-341 | A long-acting and recombinant form of asparaginase (Erwinia asparaginase; crisantaspase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of long-acting recombinant Erwinia asparaginase JZP-341, the recombinant asparaginase hydrolyzes L-asparagine to L-aspartic acid and ammonia. This depletes cancer cells of asparagine, which blocks protein synthesis and tumor cell proliferation. Asparagine is critical to protein synthesis in cancer cells, which cannot synthesize this amino acid d... |
| Long-acting Release Pasireotide | A long-acting release (LAR) formulation containing pasireotide, a synthetic long-acting cyclohexapeptide, with somatostatin-like activity. Upon intramuscular administration of the LAR formulation of pasireotide, this somatostatin analog strongly binds to and activates somatostatin receptor (SSTR) subtypes 1, 2, 3, and 5. This leads to an inhibition in the secretion of human growth hormone (hGH) and results in decreased production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1), which may inhibit IGF-1-... |
| Lontucirev | An E1B-55kDa-deleted adenovirus that is able to selectively replicate in and lyse TP53-deficient human tumor cells. After tumor cell lysis, released viruses infect neighboring tumor cells, tripping a chain of lontucirev-mediated tumor cell cytotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Lorigerlimab | A hinge stabilized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) tetravalent bispecific antibody-like protein directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, lorigerlimab specifically binds to both PD-1 and CTLA4 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and inhibits t... |
| Lorlatinib | An orally available, ATP-competitive inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases, anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and C-ros oncogene 1 (Ros1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lorlatinib binds to and inhibits both ALK and ROS1 kinases. The kinase inhibition leads to disruption of ALK- and ROS1-mediated signaling and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in ALK- and ROS1-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, PF-06463922 is able to cross the blood brain barrier. A... |
| Lorukafusp alfa | A recombinant fusion protein comprised of hu14.18, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against the surface disialoganglioside GD2, fused to two human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin (IL)-2 molecules, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon intravenous administration, the antibody moiety of lorukafusp alfa specifically targets and binds to GD2 expressed on certain tumor cells. This may stimulate the activation of immune e... |
| Lorvotuzumab Mertansine | An immunoconjugate of a humanized murine monoclonal antibody (huN-901) and DMI, a semi-synthetic derivative of the plant-derived ansa macrolide maytansine. The antibody moiety of BB-10901 selectively attaches to CD56 antigen, a neural cell adhesion molecule (NCAM)) expressed on the surface of cells of small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and other neuroendocrine (NE) tumors. Thus, the DMI conjugate is targeted specifically to CD56-expressing tumor cells, where it inhibits tubulin polymerization and ... |
| Losatuxizumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), conjugated, via a protease-cleavable peptide linker, to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity.  Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of losatuxizumab vedotin selectively targets and binds to EGFR. Upon internalization and proteolytic... |
| Losoxantrone | An anthrapyrazole-based antineoplastic antibiotic. Losoxantrone intercalates into DNA, induces single- and double-stranded DNA breaks and inhibits topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair as well as RNA and protein synthesis. Losoxantrone is less cardiotoxic than doxorubicin. |
| Losoxantrone Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of losoxantrone, an anthrapyrazole-based antineoplastic antibiotic. Losoxantrone intercalates into DNA, induces single- and double-stranded DNA breaks and inhibits topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair as well as RNA and protein synthesis. Losoxantrone is less cardiotoxic than doxorubicin. |
| Lovastatin | A lactone metabolite isolated from the fungus Aspergillus terreus with cholesterol-lowering and potential antineoplastic activities. Lovastatin is hydrolyzed to the active beta-hydroxyacid form, which competitively inhibits 3-hydroxyl-3-methylgutarylcoenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, an enzyme involved in cholesterol biosynthesis. In addition, this agent may induce tumor cell apoptosis and inhibit tumor cell invasiveness, possibly by inhibiting protein farnesylation and protein geranylgeranylati... |
| LRP5 Antagonist BI 905681 | An antagonist of the lipoprotein receptor-related protein (LRP) 5, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, LRP5 antagonist BI 905681 targets and binds to LRP5, thereby blocking the binding of Wnt ligands to LRP5. This prevents the formation of the serpentine receptor Frizzled (FZD)-Wnt-LRP5 trimeric complex and prevents the inactivation of the beta-catenin degradation complex, which leads to beta-catenin degradation. This inhibits the Wnt/beta-caten... |
| LRP5/6 Antagonist BI 905677 | A humanized biparatopic nanobody composed of two blocking domains for the Wnt ligand co-receptors lipoprotein receptor-related proteins (LRP) 5 and 6, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, BI 905677 targets and binds to LRP5 and LRP6, thereby blocking the binding of Wnt ligands to LRP5/6. This prevents the activation of the Frizzled (FZD)-Wnt-LRP5/6 trimeric complex and prevents the inactivation of the beta-catenin degradation complex, which leads... |
| LSD1 Inhibitor GSK2879552 | An orally available, irreversible, inhibitor of lysine specific demethylase 1 (LSD1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, GSK2879552 binds to and inhibits LSD1, a demethylase that suppresses the expression of target genes by converting the dimethylated form of lysine at position 4 of histone H3 (H3K4) to mono- and unmethylated H3K4. LSD1 inhibition enhances H3K4 methylation and increases the expression of tumor-suppressor genes. This may lead to an inhibition of cell ... |
| LSD1 Inhibitor SYHA1807 | An orally available inhibitor of lysine-specific demethylase 1 (LSD1; KDM1A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LSD1 inhibitor SYHA1807 targets, binds to and inhibits LSD1, a demethylase that suppresses the expression of target genes by converting the di- and mono-methylated forms of lysine at position 4 of histone 3 (H3K4) to mono- and unmethylated H3K4, respectively. LSD1 inhibition enhances H3K4 methylation and increases the expression of tumor suppressor ge... |
| LSD1 Inhibitor TAS1440 | An orally available inhibitor of lysine-specific demethylase 1 (LSD1; KDM1A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LSD1 inhibitor TAS1440 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits LSD1, a demethylase that suppresses the expression of target genes by converting the di- and mono-methylated forms of lysine at position 4 of histone 3 (H3K4) to mono- and unmethylated H3K4, respectively. LSD1 inhibition enhances H3K4 methylation and increases the expression of tumor s... |
| LSD1/HDAC6 Inhibitor JBI-802 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of two proteins that are part of the corepressor to the silencer repressor element 1 (RE1) silencing transcription factor (REST) complex (CoREST complex): histone deacetylase (HDAC) type 6 (HDAC6; HDAC-6) and lysine-specific demethylase 1 (LSD1; KDM1A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LSD1/HDAC6 inhibitor JBI-802 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of HDAC6, and prevents the HDAC6-mediated aggresomal degradation of ubi... |
| Lucanthone | An orally available thioxanthone-based DNA intercalator and inhibitor of the DNA repair enzyme apurinic-apyrimidinic endonuclease 1 (APEX1 or APE1), with anti-schistosomal and potential antineoplastic activity. Lucanthone intercalates DNA and interferes with the activity of topoisomerases I and II during replication and transcription, thereby inhibiting the synthesis of macromolecules. In addition, this agent specifically inhibits the endonuclease activity of APE1, without affecting its redox... |
| Lucatumumab | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell surface antigen CD40 with potential antineoplastic activity. Lucatumumab binds to and inhibits CD40, thereby inhibiting CD40 ligand-induced cell proliferation and triggering cell lysis via antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) in cells overexpressing CD40. CD40, an integral membrane protein found on the surface of B lymphocytes, is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily and is highly expressed in a num... |
| Lucicebtide | A peptide antagonist of the transcription factor CCAAT/enhancer-binding protein beta (C/EBP beta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lucicebtide targets and inhibits the activity of C/EBP beta. This prevents the expression of C/EBP beta target genes and proteins, including the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), cyclins and inhibitor of differentiation (ID) family of proteins, which are involved in cell proliferation, differentiation, and cell cycle re... |
| Lucitanib | A novel dual inhibitor targeting human vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) and fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs) with antiangiogenic activity. Lucitanib inhibits VEGFR-1, -2, -3 and FGFR-1, -2 kinases in the nM range, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation, and the induction of tumor cell death. Both VEGFRs and FGFRs belong to the family of receptor tyrosine kinases that may be upregulated in various tumor cell types. |
| Lucorafusp Alfa | A bifunctional fusion protein composed of a humanized Fc-mutant anti-T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif domains (TIGIT) antibody fused to transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta) receptor type II (TGFbetaRII), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of lucorafusp alfa, the TGFbetaRII moiety targets, binds to and neutralizes TGF-beta while the anti-TIGIT antibody moiety simultaneo... |
| Luminespib | A derivative of 4,5-diarylisoxazole and a third-generation heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Luminespib has been shown to bind with high affinity to and inhibit Hsp90, resulting in the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic client proteins; the inhibition of cell proliferation; and the elevation of heat shock protein 72 (Hsp72) in a wide range of human tumor cell lines. Hsp90, a 90 kDa molecular chaperone, plays a key role in the conformational matu... |
| Luminespib Mesylate | The mesylate salt of luminespib, a derivative of 4,5-diarylisoxazole and a third-generation heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, luminespib binds with high affinity to and inhibits Hsp90, resulting in the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic client proteins; the inhibition of cell proliferation; and the elevation of heat shock protein 72 (Hsp72) in a wide range of human tumor cell lines. Hsp90, a 90 kDa molecular chaperone, plays... |
| Lumistobart | An antibody targeting human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa; CD172a), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, lumistobart targets and binds to SIRPa, a cell surface protein expressed on macrophages, thereby blocking the interaction between SIRPa and cluster of differentiation 47 (CD47) expressed on tumor cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of ph... |
| Lumretuzumab | An immunoconjugate containing a glycoengineered, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor HER3 (ErbB3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration,  lumretuzumab binds to the extracellular domain of HER3 and inhibits HER3 dimerization; thereby, preventing EGFR-dependent signaling. In addition, RO5479599 stimulates the immune system to exert antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). This may decrease proliferation of HER3... |
| Lumrotatug | A monoclonal antibody directed against the human cell surface glycoprotein ADP-ribosyl cyclase 1 (CD38), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lumrotatug specifically targets and binds to CD38 expressed on tumor cells. This may trigger antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC), antibody-dependent cellular phagocytosis (ADCP) and apoptosis, resulting in cell lysis and depletion of CD38-expressing tumor cells. In addition, lu... |
| Lunbotinib | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, lunbotinib selectively binds to various RET fusions and mutations, including solvent front resistance mutations, and inhibits the activity of RET. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of tumors that exhibit increased RET activity due to these fusions and mutations. RET overexpression, activatin... |
| Lung Tumor Associated Antigen | A tumor associated antigen derived from the cell surface antigen of lung cancer cells. Lung tumor associated antigen could be used as a diagnostic marker or as a form of immunotherapy targeted against lung cancer cells. |
| Lung-targeted Immunomodulator QBKPN | A proprietary, lung-targeted, site specific immunomodulator (SSI), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Although the exact type and composition of the lung-targeted immunomodulator QBKPN has yet to be fully disclosed, upon subcutaneous administration, this agent is able to activate a local innate immune response in the lung tissue. This results in an increased number of M1 macrophages, which induces a shift from M2 to M1 macrophage dominance in the tumor microenviro... |
| Lunresertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the human membrane-associated tyrosine- and threonine-specific cdc2-inhibitory kinase (PKMYT1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, lunresertib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of PKMYT1. This results in the inhibition of CDK1 phosphorylation, which may promote both premature mitosis and a prolonged mitotic arrest, and lead to the accumulation of unrepaired DNA damage and apoptosis in susceptible tumor cells, such as... |
| Lupartumab Amadotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody against a structural homolog of the urokinase-type plasminogen activator receptor (uPAR) and tumor-associated antigen, C4.4a, and conjugated with a cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, lupartumab amadotin targets and binds to C4.4a-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding and cell entry, the cytotoxic agent kills the tumor cell. C4.4a, a glycolipid-anchored membrane protein and a member o... |
| Lurbinectedin | A synthetic tetrahydropyrrolo [4, 3, 2-de]quinolin-8(1H)-one alkaloid analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Lurbinectedin covalently binds to residues lying in the minor groove of DNA, which may result in delayed progression through S phase, cell cycle arrest in the G2/M phase and cell death. |
| Lurtotecan | A semisynthetic analogue of camptothecin with antineoplastic activity. Lurtotecan selectively stabilizes the topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complex and forms an enzyme-drug-DNA ternary complex. As a consequence of the formation of this complex, both the initial cleavage reaction and religation steps are inhibited and subsequent collision of the replication fork with the cleaved strand of DNA results in inhibition of DNA replication, double strand DNA breakage and triggering of apoptosis. Indepe... |
| Lurtotecan Liposome | A liposome-encapsulated formulation of lurtotecan with antineoplastic activity. Lurtotecan, a semisynthetic analogue of camptothecin, selectively stabilizes the topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complex and forms an enzyme-drug-DNA ternary complex during S phase of the cell cycle, thereby inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-stranded DNA breaks. This ultimately results in an inhibition of DNA replication, inducing double-stranded DNA breakages, obstruction of RNA and protein sy... |
| Lutadenovec Autogene | A personalized cancer vaccine comprised of a chimpanzee adenovirus vector (ChAdV) encoding twenty tumor-specific neoantigens (TSNAs) that have been identified through genetic sequencing of a patient's tumor cells, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of lutadenovec autogene, the adenovirus infects cells and expresses the TSNAs. This stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cell... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 AB-3PRGD2 | A radiopharmaceutical agent comprised of a pegylated cyclic arginine-glycine-aspartic acid (RGD) dimer (PRGD2) labeled with lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity against alphaVbeta3 integrin-expressing tumor cells. Upon administration of lutetium Lu 177 AB-3PRGD2, the RGD moiety binds to alphaVbeta3 integrin on alphaVbeta3 integrin-expressing tumor cells. The tumor cells can be eradicated upon direct cytotoxicity through beta radiation. AlphaVbeta3 integrin, a member of the ... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 Anti-CA19-9 Monoclonal Antibody 5B1 | A radioimmunoconjugate comprised of a human monoclonal antibody (huMAb-5B1) against the carbohydrate antigen sialyl Lewis A (carbohydrate antigen 19-9; CA19-9) that is conjugated to the chelator 2-(p-isothiocyanatobenzyl)-cyclohexyl-diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (CHX-A''-DTPA) and labeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (Lu 177), with radioisotopic activity and potential use as an antineoplastic radiotherapeutic and an imaging agent in both planar imaging and single-p... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 Anti-PD-L1 Nanobody RAD204 | A radioimmunoconjugate composed of a nanobody directed against programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) and labeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential imaging activity of PD-L1 tumor antigen expression during single-photon emission computerized tomography/computerized tomography (SPECT/CT) and with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of lutetium Lu 177 anti-PD-L1 nanobody RAD204, the RAD204 moiety targe... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 DOTA-biotin | A radioconjugate of biotin conjugated with the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA) and labeled with the beta-emitting isotope lutetium Lu 177 (Lu-177) that can be used for radioimmunotherapeutic purposes.  Lutetium Lu 177 DOTA-biotin could be used in pre-targeting radioimmunotherapy, which pretreats the lesion with oxidized avidin that binds to protein amino groups on cells. As avidin binds to biotin, the radioisotope can be selectively del... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 DOTA-N3-CTT1403 | A radioconjucate consisting of CTT1403, a phosphoramidate-based irreversible inhibitor of human prostate-specific membrane antigen with an albumin binding moiety, connected via click chemistry to lutetium Lu 177-dodecanetetraacetic acid-azide (177Lu-DOTA-N3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lutetium Lu 177-DOTA-N3-CTT1403 targets and binds to PSMA expressed on tumor cells via its CTT1403 moiety, and upon internalization, delivers cytotoxic beta radiation directly ... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 Dotatate | A radioconjugate consisting of the tyrosine-containing somatostatin analog Tyr3-octreotate (TATE) conjugated with the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA) and radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential imaging and antineoplastic activities. Lutetium Lu 177 dotatate binds to somatostatin receptors (SSTRs), with high affinity to type 2 SSTR, present on the cell membranes of many types of neuroendocrine tum... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 DOTA-Tetulomab | A radioimmunoconjugate, which consists of a monoclonal antibody against the cell-surface antigen CD37 covalently linked, via the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA), to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity. The antibody moiety of lutetium Lu 177 DOTA-tetulomab binds to CD37 on tumor B-cells. Upon internalization, the radioisotope moiety delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to CD37-exp... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 EB-PSMA-617 | A radioconjugate composed of PSMA-617, a human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting ligand, conjugated to the Evans blue (EB) moiety and linked via the macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA) to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity against PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon intravenous administration of lutetium Lu 177 EB-PSMA-617, EB-PSMA-617 targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor c... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 FF58 | A radioconjugate composed of FF58, a non-arginine-glycine-aspartic acid (Arg-Gly-Asp/RGD) small molecule targeting the transmembrane receptors integrin alpha V beta 3 (avb3) and 5 (avb5), linked to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity against integrin avb3/5-expressing tumor cells. Upon administration, lutetium Lu 177 FF58 targets and binds to integrin avb3/5-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, integrin avb3/5-expressing tumor cells ... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 Lilotomab-satetraxetan | A radioconjugate consisting of lilotomab, a murine immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody directed against the CD37 antigen, conjugated via the chelating agent 2-(4-isothiocyanatobenzyl)-1,4,7,10-tetraazacyclododecane-tetraacetic acid (p-SCN-Bn-DOTA) with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of lutetium Lu 177 lilotomab-satetraxetan, the lilotomab moiety binds to CD37 expressed on certain tumor cells. Upon binding, lutetium Lu 177 lilotomab-satetraxetan delivers a cytotoxic dos... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 LNC1004 | A radioconjugate consisting of an Evans blue (EB) modified fibroblast activation protein inhibitor (FAPi), conjugated with the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecane tetraacetic acid (DOTA) and radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of lutetium Lu 177 LNC1004, the FAPi moiety targets and binds to FAP-expressing cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs). Upon binding and internalization,... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 Ludotadipep | A radioconjugate composed of ludotadipep, a prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting agent, linked to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity against PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon administration, lutetium Lu 177 ludotadipep targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, PSMA-expressing tumor cells are destroyed by 177Lu through the specific delivery of beta particle radiation. PSMA, a tumor-associated antig... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 Monoclonal Antibody CC49 | A radioimmunoconjugate of the humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) CC49 labeled with lutetium 131 (Lu-177). MoAb CC49 binds to the pancarcinoma tumor-associated glycoprotein (TAG)-72 with high affinity. Lu-177 MoAb CC49 delivers gamma radiation emitting Lu-177 nuclide directly to tumor cells that express TAG-72, and so may be used in radioimmunotherapeutic treatment of cancers. |
| Lutetium Lu 177 NNS309 | A radioconjugate composed of NNS309, which targets an as of yet unelucidated target on tumor cells, that is conjugated to the radionuclide and beta-emitter lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity against the target expressing-tumor cells. Upon administration of lutetium Lu 177 NNS309, the NNS309 moiety targets and binds to tumor cells expressing the target. The tumor cells can be eradicated upon direct cytotoxicity through beta radiation. |
| Lutetium Lu 177 PP-F11N | A radioconjugate composed of PP-F11N, a gastrin analog, conjugated to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity and potential use as an imaging agent for scintigraphy. Following intravenous administration, the PP-F11N moiety binds to the cholecystokinin-2 (CCK-2) receptor. Subsequently, the CCK-2 receptor-expressing tumor cells can be visualized scintigraphically. In addition, the radioisotope moiety delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to C... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 PSMA-EB-01 | A radioconjugate composed of PSMA-EB-01, a human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting ligand conjugated to the Evans blue (EB) moiety, and linked to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity against PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon intravenous administration of lutetium Lu 177 PSMA-EB-01, PSMA-EB-01 targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, PSMA-expressing tumor cells are destroyed by 177Lu through the ... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 Rosopatamab Tetraxetan | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of rosopatamab, a humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against the external domain of the prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) that is linked, via the chelating agent, dodecanetetraacetic acid (DOTA), to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity and imaging activity during single-photon emission computerized tomography/computerized tomography (SPECT/CT). Upon administration, lutetium Lu 177 rosopatamab tetraxe... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 Satoreotide Tetraxetan | A radioconjugate consisting of the somatostatin antagonistic peptide satoreotide tetraxetan (JR11) that is linked, via the chelating agent dodecanetetraacetic acid (DOTA), to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity and imaging activity during positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT). Upon administration, lutetium Lu 177-DOTA-JR11 binds to somatostatin receptors (SSTRs), with high affinity for SSTR2, present on the cell membranes ... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 Tezuvotide Tetraxetan | A radioconjugate composed of PSMA-10.1, a prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting ligand and radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity against PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon intravenous administration, lutetium Lu 177 tezuvotide tetraxetan targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, PSMA-expressing tumor cells are destroyed by 177Lu through the specific delivery of beta particle radiation... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 Vipivotide Tetraxetan | A radioconjugate composed of PSMA-617, a human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting ligand, conjugated to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity against PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon intravenous administration of lutetium Lu 177  vipivotide tetraxetan, vipivotide tetraxetan targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, PSMA-expressing tumor cells are destroyed by 177Lu through the specific delivery of... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 XT117 | A radioconjugate composed of XT117, a fibroblast activation protein inhibitor (FAPi), conjugated to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity against FAP-expressing cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs). Upon administration, lutetium Lu 177 XT117 targets and binds to FAP-expressing CAFs. Upon binding, FAP-expressing CAFs are destroyed by 177Lu through the specific delivery of beta particle radiation. FAP, a cell surface protein, is overexpre... |
| Lutetium Lu 177 Zalsenertant Tetraxetan | A radioconjugate consisting of the neurotensin receptor type 1 (NTR1) antagonist, IPN01087 (3BP-227), that is linked, via the chelating agent, dodecanetetraacetic acid (DOTA), to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity and imaging activity during positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT). Upon administration, lutetium Lu 177 zalsenertant tetraxetan binds to NTR1 expressed on certain tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, t... |
| Lutetium Lu 177-DOTA-ABM-5G | A radioconjugate composed of 5G, an integrin alphaVbeta6 (aVb6)-targeting peptide, conjugated, via the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent 1,4,7,10-tetra-azacyclododecane-1,4,7,10-tetra-acetic acid (DOTA) to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, and an albumin-binding moiety (ABM), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of lutetium Lu 177-DOTA-ABM-5G, the 5G moiety selectively targets and binds to integrin aVb6-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, aVb6-ex... |
| Lutetium Lu 177-DOTA-EB-TATE | A radioconjugate consisting of Evans blue (EB) modified, tyrosine-containing somatostatin analog, Tyr3-octreotate (TATE), conjugated with the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecane tetraacetic acid (DOTA), and radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, lutetium Lu 177-DOTA-EB-TATE binds to somatostatin receptors (SSTRs), specifically with high affinity to type 2 SSTRs (SST... |
| Lutetium Lu 177-DTPA-omburtamab | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of omburtamab, a murine immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody directed against the surface immunomodulatory glycoprotein human B7-homolog 3 (B7-H3, CD276), conjugated, via the chelating agent diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (DTPA), to the radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intracerebroventricular administration of lutetium Lu 177-DTPA-omburtamab, the omburtamab moiety binds to B7-H3 expressed on certain tumor cells. Upon... |
| Lutetium Lu 177-EB-LM3 | A radioconjugate composed of LM3, a human somatostatin receptor (SSTR) antagonist, conjugated to the albumin-binding dye Evans blue (EB) and linked to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity against SSTR-expressing tumor cells. Upon administration, lutetium Lu 177-EB-LM3 targets and binds to SSTRs that are present on the cell membranes of many types of neuroendocrine tumors (NETs). Upon binding, SSTR-expressing tumor cells are destroyed b... |
| Lutetium Lu 177-Edotreotide | A radioconjugate consisting of the somatostatin analogue edotreotide labeled with lutetium Lu 177 with potential antineoplastic activities. Lutetium Lu 177-edotreotide binds to somatostatin receptors (SSTRs), with high affinity to type 2 SSTR, present on the cell membranes of many types of neuroendocrine tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, this radioconjugate specifically delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to SSTR-positive cells. Edotreotide is produced by substituting tyr... |
| Lutetium Lu 177-EVS459 | A radioconjugate composed of EVS459, a folate receptor alpha (FRa; FolRa; FOLR1)-targeting moiety, radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of lutetium Lu 177-EVS459, the FOLR1-targeting moiety targets and binds to FOLR1 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, FOLR1-expressing tumor cells are destroyed by 177Lu through the specific delivery of beta particle radiation. FOLR1 is a glycosylphosphatidylin... |
| Lutetium Lu 177-FAP-2286 | A radioconjugate composed of FAP-2286, a fibroblast activation protein (FAP)-targeted peptide, attached to the chelating agent 1,4,7,10-tetraazacyclododecane-N,N',N",N'"-tetraacetic acid (DOTA), and radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of lutetium Lu 177-FAP-2286, the FAP-2286 moiety targets and binds to FAP-expressing cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) and FAP-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding and... |
| Lutetium Lu 177-NeoB | A radioconjugate consisting of the gastrin-releasing peptide receptor (GRPR) antagonist, NeoB, linked via the chelating agent, dodecanetetraacetic acid (DOTA), to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lutetium Lu 177 NeoB targets and binds to GRPRs present on certain tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, this radioconjugate specifically delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to GRPR-expressing cells. GRPR, al... |
| Lutetium Lu 177-PNT6555 | A radioconjugate composed of PNT6555, a fibroblast activation protein (FAP)-targeting moiety linked to the macrocyclic chelator 1,4,7,10-tetraazacyclododecane-1,4,7,10-tetraacetic acid (DOTA), radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of lutetium Lu 177-PNT6555, the FAP-targeting moiety targets and binds to FAP-expressing cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) and FAP-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding... |
| Lutetium Lu 177-PSMA-I&T | A radioconjugate composed of PSMA-I&T, a human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting ligand linked, via the bifunctional, macrocyclic chelating agent 1,4,7,10-tetraazacyclododecane-1-(glutamic acid)-4,7,10-triacetic acid (DOTAGA; DOTA-GA), to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity against PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon administration of lutetium Lu 177-PSMA-I&T, PSMA-I&T targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. ... |
| Lutetium Lu-177 Capromab | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of capromab linked to lutetium Lu 177 via the bifunctional macrocyclic chelator methoxy-tetraazacyclododecane-tetraacetic acid (MeO-DOTA) with potential antineoplastic activity. Lutetium Lu 177-capromab binds to human prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) expressed on tumor cell surfaces via its capromab moiety and, upon internalization, delivers cytotoxic beta radiation directly to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. PSMA is a cell surface glycoprotein abundant... |
| Lutetium Lu-177 Girentuximab | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of the chimeric monoclonal antibody cG250 linked to the low energy beta-emitting radioisotope Lutetium 177, via the bifunctional macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA), with potential antineoplastic activity. The antibody moiety of lutetium Lu-177-DOTA-chimeric monoclonal antibody cG250 binds to renal cell carcinoma (RCC) cells expressing the RCC-associated antigen G250; a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation is selectively del... |
| Lutetium Lu-177 PNT2002 | A radioconjugate composed of PNT2002, a human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting ligand, conjugated to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of lutetium Lu-177 PNT2002, the PNT2002 moiety targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, PSMA-expressing tumor cells are destroyed by 177Lu through the specific delivery of beta particle radiation. PSMA, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) an... |
| Lutetium Lu-177 PSMA-R2 | A radioconjugate composed of PSMA-R2, a human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-targeting ligand, conjugated to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177 (177Lu), with potential antineoplastic activity against PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon intravenous administration of 177Lu-PSMA-R2, the PSMA-R2 moiety targets and binds to PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding, PSMA-expressing tumor cells are destroyed by 177Lu through the specific delivery of beta particle radiation. PSM... |
| Lutetium Lu-177 Rituximab | A radioconjugate composed of rituximab, a recombinant chimeric murine/human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody directed against the CD20 antigen, conjugated to the beta-emitting radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the rituximab moiety targets and binds to CD20 expressed on tumor cells and delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to CD20-expressing cells. CD20 is expressed on the surface of pre-B and mature B-lymphocytes and is overexpre... |
| Luveltamab Tazevibulin | An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) composed of SP8166 (H01), an anti-folate receptor alpha (FolRa; FOLR1) human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody, conjugated to a proprietary cleavable drug linker, SC239, containing a tubulin-targeting 3-aminophenyl hemiasterlin warhead, SC209, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the SP8166 antibody moiety targets and binds to FolRa expressed on certain tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization, and enzymatic cleavage, the ... |
| Luvixasertib | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of the dual specificity protein kinase TTK (monopolar spindle 1 kinase, Mps1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, luvixasertib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of Mps1. This inactivates the spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC) and accelerates mitosis, which results in chromosomal misalignment and missegregation, and mitotic checkpoint complex destabilization. This induces cell death in Mps1-overexpressing cancer ... |
| Luvometinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K, MAPK/ERK kinase, or MEK) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, luvometinib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK1 and MEK2, preventing the activation of MEK1/2-dependent effector proteins and transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK1/2 are dual-specificity threonine/tyrosi... |
| Luxdegalutamide | An orally bioavailable androgen receptor (AR)-targeted protein degrader, composed of an AR ligand attached to an E3 ligase recognition moiety and utilizing the proteolysis targeting chimera (PROTAC) technology, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, luxdegalutamide targets and binds to the AR ligand binding domain on the AR. E3 ligase is then recruited to the AR by the E3 ligase recognition moiety of luxdegalutamide and the AR is tagged by ubiquitin. This causes ubi... |
| Luxeptinib | An orally bioavailable reversible, pan-inhibitor of both FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2) and Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, luxeptinib targets, non-covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of both FLT3, including both wild-type (WT) FLT3 and FLT3-ITD (internal tandem duplications), tyrosine kinase domain (FLT3-TKD), and gatekeeper (FLT3-F691L) mutant forms, a... |
| LV.IL-2/B7.1-Transduced AML Blast Vaccine RFUSIN2-AML1 | A whole-cell cancer vaccine, containing human acute myeloid leukemic (AML) blasts that have been genetically engineered to express a B7.1/IIL-2 fusion protein encoded by a self-inactivating lentiviral vector (LV), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, LV.IL-2/B7.1-transduced AML blast vaccine RFUSIN2-AML1 may stimulate a host cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against AML cells.  The single fusion protein encoded by the LV is postsynthetically ... |
| LY6K/VEGFR1/VEGFR2 Multipeptide Vaccine | A multipeptide vaccine consisting of peptides derived from lymphocyte antigen 6 complex locus K (LY6K) and type I and II vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, LY6K/VEGFR1/VEGFR2 multipeptide vaccine may elicit an antitumor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against LY6K-expressing tumor cells and/or VEGFR-expressing vascular endothelial cells involved in tumor angiogenesis. LY6K is a tumor-associated antige... |
| Lymphodepleted Autologous CD4-directed CAR T Cells | A preparation of autologous peripheral blood T-lymphocytes (PBTLs) that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the T-cell surface antigen CD4, administered with lymphodepletion, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, lymphodepleted autologous CD4-directed CAR T cells specifically recognize and kill CD4-expressing tumor cells. CD4, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is overexpressed in various lympho... |
| Lymphoma TAA-specific Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes | A population of autologous cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) with potential immunomodulating and antitumor activities. White blood cells are grown ex-vivo and are exposed to dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with lymphoma tumor associated antigens (TAAs); the TAA-specific CTLs are further expanded ex-vivo before being introduced into the patient. Upon infusion with TAA-specific CTLs, these CTLs may help activate tumor-specific CTL responses in the patient, thereby specifically killing TAA-expressing ... |
| Lyophilized Black Raspberry Lozenge | A lozenge containing lyophilized black raspberry with potential antioxidant, pro-apoptotic, anti-angiogenic and chemopreventive activities. In addition to vitamins, minerals and phytosterols, black raspberries are rich in phenolic acids, such as gallic acid, ellagic acid, proanthocyanidins, and flavonoids. The anthocyanins appear to contribute significantly to this agent's effects. Anthocyanins inhibit both the activation of several signal transduction pathways, including the mitogen-activate... |
| Lyophilized Black Raspberry Saliva Substitute | A saliva substitute (or artificial saliva) containing lyophilized black raspberry with potential antioxidant, pro-apoptotic and chemopreventive activities. In addition to vitamins, minerals and phytosterols, black raspberries are rich in flavonols of which the anthocyanins appear to contribute significantly to this agent's chemopreventive effects. Anthocyanins inhibit the activation of several signal transduction pathways, including the mitogen-activated protein kinase-mediated pathways, and ... |
| Lyophilized Human Recombinant Interferon-beta 1a FP-1201 | A lyophilized form of recombinant human interferon (IFN) beta-1a (rhIFNb-1a), with potential protective activity. Upon dissolution of lyophilized rhIFNb-1a FP-1201 and intravenous administration, IFNb-1a upregulates the expression of and increases the levels of 5'-nucleotidase (CD73). This induces adenosine monophosphate (AMP) degradation and the production of adenosine. Adenosine acts to enhance endothelial barrier function via adenosine receptor activation and may prevent or reduce the incr... |
| Lyophilized Inactivated Group A Streptococcus TARA-002 | A lyophilized formulation containing cultures of the low-virulent Su strain of group A Streptococcus pyogenes, treated and killed with penicillin G, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravesical administration, lyophilized inactivated group A Streptococcus TARA-002 may, as an immunostimulant, activate both the innate and adaptive immune system. This enhances neutrophils, monocytes and lymphocyte tumor infiltration and increases the production of key immune ... |
| Lysine-specific Demethylase 1 Inhibitor INCB059872 | An orally available inhibitor of lysine-specific demethylase 1 (LSD1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, INCB059872 binds to and inhibits LSD1, a demethylase that suppresses the expression of target genes by converting the di- and mono-methylated forms of lysine at position 4 of histone H3 (H3K4) to mono- and unmethylated H3K4, respectively, through amine oxidation. LSD1 inhibition enhances H3K4 methylation and increases the expression of tumor-suppressor genes. In ... |
| Lyso-Thermosensitive Liposome Doxorubicin | A temperature-sensitive liposomal formulation of the anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, circulating thermosensitive liposomes are activated locally by increasing the tumor temperature to 40-41 degrees Celsius using an external heat source. The elevated temperature causes compositional changes in the liposomes, creating openings that allow for the release of encapsulated doxorubicin. Compared to non-thermosensitive lipo... |
| Maackia amurensis Seed Lectin | A preparation of lectin extracted from the seeds of Maackia amurensis, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Maackia amurensis seed lectin (MASL) may target and bind to podoplanin (PDPN), thereby blocking the activation of PDPN by endogenous ligands. This may inhibit tumor cell growth, migration and metastasis that result from PDPN activation. PDPN, a transmembrane receptor glycoprotein that is overexpressed in some cancer types, promotes tumor cell migration, invasion,... |
| Macimorelin | An orally available synthetic mimetic of the growth hormone (GH) secretagogue ghrelin with potential anti-cachexia activity. Upon oral administration, macimorelin mimics endogenous ghrelin by stimulating appetite and binds to the growth hormone secretagogue receptor GHSR in the central nervous system, thereby mimicking the GH-releasing effects of ghrelin from the pituitary gland. Stimulation of GH secretion increases insulin-like growth factor-I (IGF-I) levels which may further stimulate prot... |
| Macitentan | An orally available dual endothelin receptor (ETR) antagonist with potential antihypertensive and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, macitentan and its metabolites block the binding of endothelin isoform 1 (ET-1) to type-A and type-B ETR on both the tumor cells and the endothelial cells in the tumor vasculature. This prevents ET-1 mediated signaling transduction which may decrease tumor cell proliferation, progression, and angiogenesis in tumor tissue. ET-1, a potent vasoconstricto... |
| Macrocycle-bridged STING Agonist E7766 | An agonist of macrocycle-bridged stimulator of interferon genes (STING) protein, with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, macrocycle-bridged STING agonist (MBSA) E7766 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway, which promotes IKK-related kinase TANK-binding kinase 1 (TBK1) signaling and activates nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) and interferon regulatory factor 3 (IRF3) in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). T... |
| Maekmoondong-tang | A traditional East Asian herbal medicine composed of six herbs, including Ophiopogonis tuber, Pinelliae tuber, Glycyrrhizae radix, Zizyphi fructus, Ginseng radix, and Oryzae semen, with potential anti-tussive activity. Maekmoondong-tang is traditionally prescribed for respiratory symptoms to direct the qi downwards and compensate for lung-yin deficiency or dry lung by tonifying yin and moistening the lung. Although the exact mechanisms through which Maekmoondong-tang exerts its effects have y... |
| Mafosfamide | A synthetic oxazaphosphorine derivative with antineoplastic properties.  Mafosfamide alkylates DNA, forming DNA cross-links and inhibiting DNA synthesis.  Although closely related to cyclophosphamide, mafosfamide, unlike cyclophosphamide, does not require hepatic activation to generate its active metabolite 4-hydroxy-cyclophosphamide; accordingly, mafosfamide is potentially useful in the intrathecal treatment of neoplastic meningitis. (NCI04) |
| MAGE-1 Vaccinia Contaminated with BVDV | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant vaccinia virus encoding the tumor-associated gene MAGE-1 that is contaminated with bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV).  The MAGE-1 gene is a member of the melanoma antigen-encoding gene family which is expressed in various malignant tumors such as hepatocellular carcinoma and germ cell tumors in addition to melanoma.  Vaccination with vaccinia virus expressing human MAGE-1 may generate antitumoral T-cell responses.  BVDV is an RNA pestivirus that m... |
| MAGE-10.A2 | A synthetic nonapeptide derived from a melanoma-associated antigen. Vaccination with MAGE-10.A2 may stimulate a host cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells that express the melanoma-associated antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (NCI04) |
| MAGE-12 Peptide Vaccine | A synthetic vaccine comprised of a peptide consisting of peptide fragments of melanoma-associated antigen 12 (MAGE-12). MAGE-12 has been identified as an epitope recognized by tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TIL). Vaccination with MAGE-12 peptide stimulates the host immune system to mount a TIL response against tumor cells expressing MAGE-12, potentially resulting in decreased tumor growth. |
| MAGE-3.A1 Peptide Vaccine | A synthetic peptide cancer vaccine consisting of human leukocyte antigen HLA-A1-restricted peptide derived from human melanoma antigen 3 (MAGE-3) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MAGE-3.A1 peptide vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing MAGE-3, resulting in tumor cell lysis. MAGE-3, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is overexpressed by a variety of cancer cell types. |
| MAGE-A1, Her-2/neu, FBP Peptides Cancer Vaccine | A synthetic cancer vaccine comprised of multiple peptides derived from MAGE-1A, Her-2/neu, and folate binding protein (FBP), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic properties. MAGE-A1, Her-2/neu, and FBP proteins are simultaneously over-expressed in various cancer cell types, such as epithelial ovarian cancer. The MAGE-A1, Her-2/neu, FBP peptides cancer vaccine includes the peptides MAGE-A1:161-169, FBP:191-199, Her-2/neu:369-377, MAGE-A1:96-104, and Her-2/neu:754-762. Vaccinatio... |
| MAGE-A1/MAGE-A3/NY-ESO-1 Peptides Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of synthetic peptides derived from human melanoma antigen A1 (MAGE-A1), human melanoma antigen A3 (MAGE-A3) and cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MAGE-A1/MAGE-A3/NY-ESO-1 peptides vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing MAGE-A1, MAGE-A3 and NY-ESO-1, resulting in tumor cell lysis. The MAGE-A1, MAGE-A3, and NY-ESO... |
| MAGE-A1-specific T Cell Receptor-transduced Autologous T-cells | A preparation of autologous CD4- and CD8-positive T-lymphocytes genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) that specifically targets the human melanoma-associated antigen A1 (MAGE-A1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the MAGE-A1-specific TCR-transduced autologous T-cells bind to tumor cells expressing MAGE-A1, which may halt the growth of and kill MAGE-A1-expressing cancer cells. MAGE-A1... |
| MAGE-A3 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide cancer vaccine comprised of a peptide derived from the human melanoma antigen A3 (MAGE-A3), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MAGE-A3 peptide vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing MAGE-A3, resulting in tumor cell lysis. MAGE-A3, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is overexpressed by a variety of cancer cell types. |
| MAGE-A3 Reactive T Cell Receptor-transduced Autologous T Cells | Human autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human melanoma antigen A3 (MAGE-A3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the MAGE-A3 reactive TCR-transduced autologous T cells bind to tumor cells expressing MAGE-A3, which may halt the growth of MAGE-A3-expressing cancer cells; the TCR is specific for MAGE-A3:168-176. |
| MAGE-A3/12-specific TCR Gene-transduced Autologous PBLs | Human autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) that recognizes the human melanoma antigens A3 and A12 (MAGE-A3/12), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the MAGE-A3/12-specific TCR gene-transduced autologous PBLs bind to and lyse tumor cells expressing MAGE-A3/12, which may halt the growth of MAGE-A3/12-expressing cancer cells. MAG... |
| MAGE-A3/HPV 16 Peptide Vaccine | A multi-epitope Trojan antigen (TA) construct vaccine consisting of human melanoma antigen A3 (MAGE-A3) and human papillomavirus (HPV) 16 peptide epitopes linked by the furin-sensitive linker peptide RVKR (arginine-serine-lysine-arginine) with immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. The TA construct enters the cytoplasm of antigen-presenting cells (APC) and is processed by the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and the trans-Golgi network (TGN), where the endopeptidase furin releases the epitopes... |
| MAGE-A3-expressing Adenovirus Type 5 Vaccine | An oncolytic adenoviral vaccine composed of a replication-defective, E1- and E3-deleted adenovirus serotype 5 (Ad5) with a transgene encoding the human melanoma antigen A3 (MAGE-A3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, MAGE-A3-expressing adenovirus type 5 vaccine selectively replicates in cancer cells and expresses MAGE-A3. This induces an immune response against tumor cells expressing the MAGE-A3 antigen, which leads to tumor cell death. The tumor-associated antigen ... |
| MAGE-A3-specific Immunotherapeutic GSK 2132231A | An immunotherapeutic agent composed of a fusion protein containing the human melanoma-associated antigen MAGE-A3 fused to a lipidated protein D derived from Haemophilus influenzae and combined with the immunoadjuvant AS15, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular (IM) administration, GSK 2132231A may stimulate a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against MAGE-A3-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell death. MAGE-A3, a tumor-associ... |
| MAGE-A4-specific T-cell Engager CDR404 | A bispecific T-cell engaging antibody directed against the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human melanoma-associated antigen A4 (MAGE-A4) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of the MAGE-A4-specific T-cell engager (TCE) CDR404, the anti-MAGE-A4 moiety targets and binds to MAGE-A4 presented on HLA-A2 on tumor cells and the anti-CD3 moiety binds to CD3- expre... |
| MAGE-A4-specific TCR Gene-transduced Autologous T Lymphocytes TBI-1201 | Autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human melanoma antigen A4 (MAGE-A4), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, MAGE-A4-specific TCR gene-transduced T-lymphocytes TBI-1201 binds to tumor cells expressing MAGE-A4. This may result in both an inhibition of growth and increased cell death for MAGE-A4-express... |
| Magnesium Valproate | The magnesium salt of valproic acid (2-propylpentanoic acid) with antiepileptic and potential antineoplastic activities. Magnesium valproate dissociates in the gastrointestinal tract and is absorbed into the circulation as magnesium ions and valproic acid ions; valproic acid may inhibit histone deacetylases, inducing tumor cell differentiation, apoptosis, and growth arrest. In addition, valproic acid exerts an antiepileptic effect, likely by inhibiting enzymes that catabolize the inhibitory n... |
| Magrolimab | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, magrolimab selectively binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with its ligand signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa), a protein expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling, allows the activation of macrophages, through the induction of pro-phagocytic signaling media... |
| MAG-Tn3/AS15 Vaccine | A vaccine containing synthetic multiple antigenic glycopeptide (MAG) composed of tri Tn glycotope (MAG-Tn3), which is comprised of a dendrimeric, nonimmunogenic lysine core linked to a tetravalent peptidic CD4+ T-cell epitope backbone and each attached to three Tn antigens (tri-Tn cluster), combined with the immunoadjuvant AS15, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the MAG-Tn3/AS15 vaccine, MAG-Tn3 induces the production of tumor-specific anti-Tn glycosidic antibodie... |
| Maitake Mushroom Extract | An extract of the edible mushroom Maitake, Grifola frondosa, rich in glucan polysaccharides, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon oral ingestion, Maitake mushroom extract may promote dendritic cell (DC) maturation, increase interferon gamma (IFN-gamma) and tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) production, and may enhance natural killer (NK) cell activity, thereby amplifying both innate and T cell-mediated immune responses against cancer cells. In addition, this extract may stimul... |
| Malignant Glioma Tumor Lysate-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with lysates from malignant glioma cells with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, malignant glioma tumor lysate-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine exposes the immune system to undefined malignant glioma tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), which may result in anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against glioma cells and glioma cell lysis. |
| MALT1 Inhibitor ABBV-525 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma translocation protein 1 (MALT1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, MALT1 inhibitor ABBV-525 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of MALT1. This inhibits MALT1-dependent CARD11-BCL10-MALT1 (CBM) signaling, thereby inhibiting the immunosuppressive function of regulatory T-cells (Tregs) and upregulating the production of interferon-gamma (IFN-g) by Tregs i... |
| MALT1 Inhibitor MPT-0118 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma translocation protein 1 (MALT1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MALT1 inhibitor MPT-0118 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of MALT1. This inhibits MALT1-dependent CARD11-BCL10-MALT1 (CBM) signaling, thereby inhibiting the immunosuppressive function of regulatory T-cells (Tregs) and upregulating the production of interferon-gamma (IFN-g) by Tregs in the tumor microenviro... |
| MALT1 Inhibitor ONO-7018 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma translocation protein 1 (MALT1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MALT1 inhibitor ONO-7018 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of MALT1. This inhibits MALT1-dependent CARD11-BCL10-MALT1 (CBM) signaling, thereby inhibiting the immunosuppressive function of regulatory T-cells (Tregs) and upregulating the production of interferon-gamma (IFN-g) by Tregs in the tumor microenviro... |
| MALT1 Inhibitor SGR-1505 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma translocation protein 1 (MALT1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, MALT1 inhibitor SGR-1505 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of MALT1. This inhibits MALT1-dependent CARD11-BCL10-MALT1 (CBM) signaling, thereby inhibiting the immunosuppressive function of regulatory T-cells (Tregs) and upregulating the production of interferon-gamma (IFN-g) by Tregs i... |
| Mammaglobin-A DNA Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing a plasmid encoding the mammaglobin-A gene with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, mammaglobin-A DNA vaccine may induce both humoral and cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) immune responses against tumor cells that express mammaglobin-A, which may result in decreased tumor growth. The 10 kiloDalton (kD) glycoprotein mammglobin-A is expressed in over 80% of human breast cancers. |
| Manelimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, manelimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed death 1 (PD-1). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signaling and enhances the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated... |
| Mannosulfan | An alkyl sulfonate with potential antineoplastic activity. Mannosulfan alkylates DNA, thereby producing DNA intra- or interstrand crosslinks, and ultimately results in inhibiting DNA replication and cell growth. |
| Mannosylerythritol Lipid | A yeast glycolipid biosurfactant with potential antineoplastic activity.  Mannosylerythritol lipid activates protein kinase signal cascades, resulting in cell differentiation, condensation of chromatin, DNA fragmentation, G1 phase cell-cycle arrest, and apoptosis of tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Manufactured Autologous Anti-BCMA CAR-T Cells | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the manufactured autologous anti-BCMA CAR-T cells specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a receptor ... |
| Mapatumumab | A fully human agonistic monoclonal antibody to tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis-inducing ligand receptor-1 (TRAIL-R1) with apoptosis promoting and potential antitumor activities. TRAIL-R1 is a cell surface receptor expressed on many malignant cell types. Mapatumumab selectively binds to and activates the TRAIL cell receptor, thereby inducing apoptosis and reducing tumor growth. |
| Maplirpacept | A soluble recombinant antibody-like fusion protein composed of the N-terminal CD47 binding domain of human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa; CD172a) linked to an Fc domain derived from human immunoglobulin G subtype 4 (IgG4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, maplirpacept selectively targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with endogenous SIRPa, a cell surfa... |
| Maraba Oncolytic Virus Expressing Mutant HPV E6/E7 | A cancer vaccine comprised of a recombinant, attenuated form of the oncolytic rhabdovirus Maraba (MG1) encoding inactive, mutant forms of the human papillomavirus (HPV) transforming proteins E6 and E7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of MG1-E6E7, MG1 preferentially infects tumor cells and induces the expression of the E6 and E7 proteins. The MG1 virus exerts its oncolytic activity, thereby directly lysing tumor cells. Following the lysis of ... |
| Marcellomycin | An antineoplastic oligosaccharide anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Actinosporangium bohemicum.  Marcellomycin intercalates into DNA and induces DNA crosslinks, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis.  This agent also induces differentiation in HL-60 promyelocytic leukemia cells by interfering with glycoprotein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| MARCKS Protein Inhibitor BIO-11006 | An aerosolized 10-amino acid peptide that inhibits the myristoylated alanine rich protein kinase C substrate (MARCKS) protein, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon inhalation, the MARCKS protein inhibitor BIO-11006 targets, binds to and inhibits the phosphorylation of MARCKS (P-MARCKS). This prevents MARCKS-mediated signaling, thereby preventing the release of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) from the cell membrane upon MARCKS binding. This prevents ... |
| Margetuximab | A Fc-domain optimized IgG monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. After binding to HER2 on the tumor cell surface, margetuximab may induce an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumor cells overexpressing HER2. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types. Compared to other anti-HER2 monoclonal antibodies, the Fc domain of MGA... |
| Marimastat | An orally-active synthetic hydroxamate with potential antineoplastic activity.  Marimastat covalently binds to the zinc(II) ion in the active site of matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs), thereby inhibiting the action of MMPs, inducing extracellular matrix degradation, and inhibiting angiogenesis, tumor growth and invasion, and metastasis.  This agent may also inhibit tumor necrosis factor-alpha converting enzyme (TACE), an enzyme involved in tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) production tha... |
| Marizomib | A naturally-occurring salinosporamide, isolated from the marine actinomycete Salinospora tropica, with potential antineoplastic activity. Marizomib irreversibly binds to and inhibits the 20S catalytic core subunit of the proteasome by covalently modifying its active site threonine residues; inhibition of ubiquitin-proteasome mediated proteolysis results in an accumulation of poly-ubiquitinated proteins, which may result in the disruption of cellular processes, cell cycle arrest, the induction... |
| MART-1 Adenovirus Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of recombinant adenovirus vector encoding MART-1 (melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells 1), an immunogenic protein of unknown function that is expressed by certain types of melanoma.  Vaccination with MART-1 adenovirus vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to direct cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) against MART-1 positive melanoma cells, resulting in an antitumor effect. (NCI04) |
| MART-1 Antigen | A tumor-associated melanocytic differentiation antigen. Vaccination with MART-1 antigen may stimulate a host cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells expressing the melanocytic differentiation antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (NCI04) |
| MART-1 Reactive CD8+ T-lymphocytes | Human CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that are engineered to recognize melanoma tumor associated antigen MART-1 (Melanoma Antigen Recognized by T cells, also called Melan-A) in a human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-restricted manner, with potential antineoplastic activity. Human peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) are isolated from a melanoma patient, exposed to the MART-1:27-35(27L) peptide and MART-1 specific T-lymphocytes are isolated and expanded. Upon infusion, these lymphocytes recognize and ex... |
| MART-1/gp100/Tyrosinase/MAGE-A3 Peptides-loaded Irradiated Allogeneic Plasmacytoid Dendritic Cells | Irradiated allogeneic, HLA-A*0201 positive, plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs) loaded with 4 melanoma peptides derived from the tumor associated antigens (TAAs) MelA/MART-1, gp100/pmel17, tyrosinase, and MAGE-A3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, the irradiated allogeneic pDCs may trigger functional multi-specific T cells from peripheral blood mononuclear cells and tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes, and activate the immune system t... |
| MART-1:26-35(27L) Peptide Vaccine | A peptide-based cancer vaccine consisting of amino acid residues 26 through 35 of MART-1 (melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells-1) with a leucine substitution at amino acid position 27 to improve immunogenicity. Upon administration, MART-1:26-35(27L) peptide vaccine may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against MART-1-expressing tumor cells, resulting in decreased tumor growth. The tumor-associated antigen (TAA) MART-1 may be overexpressed on melanoma cancer cells. |
| MART-1:27-35 Peptide Vaccine | A natural or synthetic peptide cancer vaccine consisting of amino acid residues 27 through 35 of the melanoma-associated antigen MART-1 with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with MART-1:27-35 peptide may induce cytotoxic host immune responses against melanoma cells that express this peptide. |
| Masitinib Mesylate | The orally bioavailable mesylate salt of masatinib, a multi-targeted protein tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Masitinib selectively binds to and inhibits both the wild-type and mutated forms of the stem cell factor receptor (c-Kit; SCFR); platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR); fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3); and, to a lesser extent, focal adhesion kinase (FAK). As a consequence, tumor cell proliferation may be inhibited in cancer cell ty... |
| Masofaniten | An orally bioavailable, second-generation inhibitor of the N-terminal domain (NTD) of androgen receptor (AR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, masofaniten specifically binds to the NTD of AR, thereby inhibiting both AR activation and the AR-mediated signaling pathway. This may inhibit cell growth in AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR is overexpressed in prostate cancers and is involved in the proliferation, survival and chemoresistance of tumor cells. Masofanit... |
| Masoprocol | A naturally occurring antioxidant dicatechol originally derived from the creosote bush Larrea divaricatta with antipromoter, anti-inflammatory, and antineoplastic activities. Masoprocol directly inhibits activation of two receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs), the insulin-like growth factor receptor (IGF-1R) and the c-erbB2/HER2/neu receptor, resulting in decreased proliferation of susceptible tumor cell populations. This agent may induce apoptosis in susceptible tumor cell populations as a result... |
| MAT2A Inhibitor AG-270 | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of methionine adenosyltransferase II alpha (MAT2A) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, AG-270 inhibits the activity of MAT2A, a metabolic enzyme responsible for the production of S-Adenosyl-L-methionine (SAM), a primary donor of methyl groups in cellular transmethylation reactions that regulate gene expression, cell growth, and differentiation. MAT2A activity is selectively essential in cancer cells deficient in methylthioa... |
| MAT2A Inhibitor IDE397 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of methionine adenosyltransferase II alpha (MAT2A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MAT2A inhibitor IDE397 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of MAT2A, a metabolic enzyme responsible for the production of S-adenosyl-L-methionine (SAM), a primary donor of methyl groups in cellular transmethylation reactions that regulate gene expression, cell growth, and differentiation. Inhibition of MAT2A may inhibit proliferation in... |
| MAT2A Inhibitor S-095035 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of methionine adenosyltransferase II alpha (MAT2A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MAT2A inhibitor S-095035 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of MAT2A, a metabolic enzyme responsible for the production of S-adenosyl-L-methionine (SAM), a primary donor of methyl groups in cellular transmethylation reactions that regulate gene expression, cell growth, and differentiation. Inhibition of MAT2A may inhibit proliferation ... |
| Matrix Metalloproteinase Inhibitor MMI270 | An orally-active synthetic hydroxamic acid derivative with potential antineoplastic activity.  MMI270 inhibits a broad spectrum of matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) (specifically MMP-1, 2, 3, 9, and 13), thereby inducing extracellular matrix degradation, and inhibiting angiogenesis, tumor growth and invasion, and metastasis.  This agent may also downregulate lymphangiogenesis, resulting in decreased lymphatic system-related metastasis. (NCI04) |
| Matuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody with antineoplastic activity. Matuzumab binds the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with high affinity, competitively blocking natural ligand binding and inhibiting receptor-mediated downstream signalling, resulting in impaired tumor cell proliferation. |
| Mavelertinib | An orally available inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutant form T790M, with potential antineoplastic activity. Mavelertinib specifically binds to and inhibits EGFR T790M, a secondary acquired resistance mutation, which prevents EGFR-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR/T790M-expressing tumor cells. Compared to some other EGFR inhibitors, PF-06747775 may have therapeutic benefits in tumors with T790M-mediated drug resistance. This agent shows minimal acti... |
| Maveropepimut-S | A lipid depot-based therapeutic cancer vaccine composed of survivin epitopes, a universal T Helper peptide and a polynucleotide adjuvant encapsulated in liposomes and then formulated in the hydrophobic carrier Montanide ISA51 VG, with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. Upon injection of Maveropepimut-S, a depot is created at the injection site from which the antigens and adjuvant are released. This vaccine may elicit a long lasting cellular response against survivin-e... |
| Mavorixafor | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4 (CXCR4), with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint inhibitory activities. Upon administration, mavorixafor selectively binds to CXCR4 and prevents the binding of CXCR4 to its ligand, stromal cell-derived factor 1 (SDF-1 or CXCL12). This inhibits receptor activation and results in decreased proliferation and migration of CXCR4-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, inhibition of CXCR4 prevents the recruitment of re... |
| Mavrostobart | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, mavrostobart targets and directly binds to an epitope that is in or near the CD73 catalytic domain, thereby non-competitively and fully inhibiting both soluble shed CD73 and membrane-bound CD73 activity. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of ex... |
| Maytansine | An ansamycin antibiotic originally isolated from the Ethiopian shrub Maytenus serrata. Maytansine binds to tubulin at the rhizoxin binding site, thereby inhibiting microtubule assembly, inducing microtubule disassembly, and disrupting mitosis.  Maytansine exhibits cytotoxicity against many tumor cell lines and may inhibit tumor growth in vivo. (NCI04) |
| MCL-1 Inhibitor ABBV-467 | An inhibitor of induced myeloid leukemia cell differentiation protein (myeloid cell leukemia-1; Mcl-1; Bcl2-L-3), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MCL-1 inhibitor ABBV-467 targets and binds to Mcl-1, thereby preventing the binding of Mcl-1 to and inactivation of certain pro-apoptotic proteins. This promotes apoptosis of cells overexpressing Mcl-1. Mcl-1, an anti-apoptotic protein belonging to the B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2) family of proteins, is ... |
| Mcl-1 Inhibitor AZD5991 | An inhibitor of induced myeloid leukemia cell differentiation protein (myeloid cell leukemia-1; Mcl-1; Bcl2-L-3), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, AZD5991 binds to Mcl-1, thereby preventing the binding of Mcl-1 to and inactivation of certain pro-apoptotic proteins, and promoting apoptosis of cells overexpressing Mcl-1. Mcl-1, an anti-apoptotic protein belonging to the Bcl-2 family of proteins, is upregulated in cancer cells and promotes tumor ce... |
| MCL1 Inhibitor GS-9716 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein myeloid cell leukemia 1 (MCL1; induced myeloid leukemia cell differentiation protein; myeloid cell leukemia-1; Mcl-1; Bcl2-L-3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MCL1 inhibitor GS-9716 targets and binds to MCL1. This prevents the binding of MCL1 to and inactivation of certain pro-apoptotic proteins. This promotes apoptosis of cells overexpressing MCL1. MCL1, an anti-apoptotic protein belonging to t... |
| Mcl-1 Inhibitor MIK665 | An inhibitor of induced myeloid leukemia cell differentiation protein (Mcl-1; Bcl2-L-3), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MIK665 binds to and inhibits the activity of Mcl-1, which promotes apoptosis of cells overexpressing Mcl-1. Mcl-1, an anti-apoptotic protein belonging to the Bcl-2 family of proteins, is upregulated in cancer cells and promotes tumor cell survival. |
| MCPyV TAg-specific Polyclonal Autologous CD8-positive T Cells | A preparation of polyclonal autologous CD8 positive T-lymphocytes specific for the Merkel cell polyomavirus (MCPyV) T antigen (TAg) with potential antineoplastic activity. Peripheral blood lymphocytes from a Merkel cell carcinoma (MCC) patient were obtained and antigen-specific CD8+ T cells targeting a specific MCPyV TAg epitope were derived and expanded ex vivo. Upon infusion of the MCPyV TAg-specific polyclonal autologous CD8-positive T cell vaccine, the T cells recognize the MCPyV antigen ... |
| MCPyV-LT-encoding Plasmid DNA Vaccine ITI-3000 | A cancer vaccine consisting of plasmid DNA encoding LTS220A, a truncated form of the large T antigen (LT) of Merkel cell polyomavirus (MCPyV; MCV) viral oncoprotein with a detoxifying serine to alanine mutation at position 220, and fused to the lysosome-associated membrane protein 1 (LAMP1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration, the MCPyV-LT-encoding plasmid DNA vaccine ITI-3000 expresses MCPyV-LT, which may elicit cytotoxic T-lymph... |
| MDM2 Antagonist ASTX295 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the human homolog of murine double minute 2 (MDM2; HDM2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MDM2 antagonist ASTX295 targets and binds to MDM2 protein and prevents its binding to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. This prevents p53 proteasomal degradation and restores the transcriptional activity of p53. This leads to p53-mediated induction of apoptosis in cancers with a wil... |
| MDM2 Antagonist RO5045337 | An MDM2 (human homolog of double minutes-2; HDM2) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. RO5045337 binds to MDM2, thereby preventing the binding of the MDM2 protein to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this MDM2-p53 interaction, the proteasome-mediated enzymatic degradation of p53 is inhibited and the transcriptional activity of p53 is restored, which may result in the restoration of p53 signaling and thus the p53-mediated ind... |
| MDM2 Antagonist RO6839921 | An MDM2 (human homolog of murine double minute-2; HDM2) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, RO6839921 binds to MDM2 and prevents the binding of the MDM2 protein to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing MDM2-p53 interaction, the proteasome-mediated enzymatic degradation of p53 is inhibited and the transcriptional activity of p53 is restored. This may result in the restoration of p53 signaling, fo... |
| MDM2 Degrader KT-253 | A small molecule protein and selective degrader of the oncoprotein murine double minute 2 (MDM2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MDM2 degrader KT-253 binds to MDM2 and the E3 (ubiquitin) ligase and targets MDM2 for ubiquitination. This induces proteasome-mediated degradation of MDM2 and prevents its binding to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this MDM2-p53 interaction, the transcriptio... |
| MDM2 Inhibitor AMGMDS3 | An inhibitor of MDM2 (murine double minute 2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, MDM2 inhibitor AMGMDS3 binds to the MDM2 protein and prevents its binding to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this MDM2-p53 interaction, the transcriptional activity of p53 is restored. This leads to p53-mediated induction of tumor cell apoptosis. MDM2, a zinc finger protein and a negative regulator of the p53 pathway, is overexpre... |
| MDM2 Inhibitor SA53-OS | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of murine double minute 2 (MDM2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MDM2 inhibitor A53-OS targets and binds to the MDM2 protein and prevents its binding to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this MDM2-p53 interaction, the transcriptional activity of p53 is restored. This leads to p53-mediated induction of tumor cell apoptosis. MDM2, a zinc finger protein and a negative regula... |
| MDR Modulator CBT-1 | A naturally-occurring, orally bioavailable bisbenzylisoquinoline plant alkaloid with potential chemosensitization activity. MDR modulator CBT-1 binds to and inhibits the MDR efflux pump P-glycoprotein (P-gp), which may inhibit the efflux of various chemotherapeutic agents from tumor cells and reverse P-gp-mediated tumor cell MDR. P-gp is a transmembrane ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transporter and is overexpressed by some multidrug resistant tumors. |
| MDS Neoantigen-specific Autologous T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are exposed, ex vivo, to multiple, patient-specific myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) stem cell neoantigens, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion of the MDS neoantigen-specific autologous T-lymphocytes, the immunized T-cells specifically target and lyse cells expressing the MDS neoantigens. |
| Mecbotamab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a conditionally active biologic (CAB) antibody against AXL receptor tyrosine kinase (AXL; UFO) conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of mecbotamab vedotin, the anti-AXL antibody becomes activated through an as of yet not fully elucidated process only under the unique microphysical conditions that are present in the tumor microenvironment (TME) as a result of the glycolyti... |
| Mechlorethamine | A synthetic agent related to sulphur mustard with antineoplastic and immunosuppressive properties. Nitrogen mustard (a member of a family of chemotherapy agents including cyclophosphamide and chlorambucil) is an irritant and carcinogenic agent metabolized to a highly reactive ethylene immonium derivative; the ethylene immonium derivative alkylates DNA and inhibits DNA replication. This agent also exhibits lympholytic properties. (NCI04) |
| Mechlorethamine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of mechlorethamine, a nitrogen mustard and an analogue of sulfur mustard, with antineoplastic and immunosuppressive activities. Mechlorethamine is metabolized to an unstable, highly reactive ethyleniminium intermediate that alkylates DNA, particularly the 7 nitrogen of guanine residues, resulting in DNA base pair mismatching, DNA interstrand crosslinking, the inhibition of DNA repair and synthesis, cell-cycle arrest, and apoptosis. This agent also exhibits lympholytic p... |
| Mechlorethamine Hydrochloride Gel | A gel formulation composed of the hydrochloride salt form of mechlorethamine, which is a nitrogen mustard alkylating agent and an analog of sulfur mustard, with antineoplastic and immunosuppressive activities. Upon topical application, mechlorethamine is metabolized to an unstable, highly reactive ethyleniminium intermediate that binds to and alkylates DNA, with a high affinity to the N7 nitrogen of guanine residues. This results in DNA base pair mismatching, DNA interstrand crosslinking, the... |
| Medorubicin | A demethoxy derivative of doxorubicin with antineoplastic activity. |
| Medroxyprogesterone | A synthetic derivative of progesterone administered as an acetate salt (medroxyprogesterone acetate) with antiestrogenic activity. As a do all progestins, medroxyprogesterone binds to and activates nuclear receptors which subsequently bind to and activate target genes for transcription. As an antiestrogen, this agent may inhibit the growth-stimulating effects of estrogen on estrogen-sensitive tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Medroxyprogesterone Acetate | A synthetic, acetate derivative of the sex hormone progesterone.  Medroxyprogesterone 17-acetate (NCI04) |
| Megestrol Acetate | The acetate salt form of megestrol, a synthetic derivative of the naturally occurring female sex hormone progesterone with potential anti-estrogenic and antineoplastic activity. Mimicking the action of progesterone, megestrol acetate binds to and activates nuclear progesterone receptors in the reproductive system, and causes the ligand-receptor complex to be translocated to the nucleus where it binds to and promotes expression of target genes. This leads to an alteration in protein synthesis,... |
| MEK 1/2 Inhibitor AS703988/MSC2015103B | An orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K, MAPK/ERK kinase, or MEK) 1 and 2 with potential antineoplastic activity. MEK1/2 inhibitor AS703988/MSC2015103B selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK1/2, preventing the activation of MEK1/2-dependent effector proteins and transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK1/2 are dual-specificity thre... |
| MEK Inhibitor AZD8330 | An orally active, selective MEK inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. MEK inhibitor AZD8330 specifically inhibits mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase 1 (MEK or MAP/ERK kinase1), resulting in inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK is a key component of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway that regulates cell growth; constitutive activation of this pathway has been implicated in many cancers. |
| MEK inhibitor BI 3011441 | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule, allosteric inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K; MAPKK; MEK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MEK inhibitor BI 3011441 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the catalytic activity of MEK, thereby inhibiting the activation of MEK-dependent effector proteins including extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells in which the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK signalin... |
| MEK Inhibitor CI-1040 | An agent that inhibits both mitogen-activated protein kinase kinases 1 and 2 (MEK1 and MEK2), substrates of Raf and phosphorylates extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 and 2 (ERK1 and ERK2), preventing phosphorylation and activation of the Mitogen-Activated Protein Kinase (MAPK) pathways, involved with signal transduction pathways and tumor proliferation. |
| MEK inhibitor CS3006 | An orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K; MAPKK; MEK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MEK inhibitor CS3006 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the catalytic activity of MEK, thereby inhibiting the activation of MEK-dependent effector proteins including extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells in which the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway is over... |
| MEK Inhibitor GDC-0623 | An orally active, selective MEK inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. MEK inhibitor GDC-0623 specifically inhibits mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK or MAP/ERK kinase), resulting in inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK is a key component of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway that regulates cell growth; constitutive activation of this pathway has been implicated in many cancers. |
| MEK Inhibitor IMM-1-104 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K; MAPK/ERK kinase; MEK) 1 and MEK2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MEK inhibitor IMM-1-104 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK1/2. This prevents the activation of MEK1/2-dependent effector proteins and transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK1/2 (MAP2K1/K2) are dual-spe... |
| MEK Inhibitor IMM-6-415 | An orally bioavailable small molecule and deep cyclic inhibitor (DCI) of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K; MAPKK; MEK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, IMM-6-415 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK, thereby inhibiting the activation of MEK-dependent effector proteins and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells in which RAS and/or RAF are mutated. The threonine/tyrosine protein kinase MEK plays a key role in the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK s... |
| MEK Inhibitor PF-07799544 | An orally bioavailable, brain penetrating inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K; MAPKK; MEK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MEK inhibitor PF-07799544 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the catalytic activity of MEK, thereby inhibiting the activation of MEK-dependent effector proteins, including extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK), and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells in which the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK signaling path... |
| MEK Inhibitor REC-4881 | An orally bioavailable, non-ATP-competitive, allosteric, small-molecule inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K; MAPK/ERK kinase; MEK) 1 and MEK2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MEK inhibitor REC-4881 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK1/2. This prevents the activation of MEK1/2-dependent effector proteins and transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cel... |
| MEK Inhibitor RO4987655 | An orally active small molecule, targeting mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase 1 (MAP2K1 or MEK1), with potential antineoplastic activity. MEK inhibitor RO4987655 binds to and inhibits MEK, which may result in the inhibition of MEK-dependent cell signaling and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. MEK, a dual specificity threonine/tyrosine kinase, is a key component of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway that regulates cell growth; constitutive activation of this pathway has been ... |
| MEK Inhibitor SHR 7390 | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K; MAPK/ERK kinase; MEK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, MEK inhibitor SHR 7390 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK. This prevents the activation of MEK-dependent effector proteins, which results in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK, a dual-specificity threonine/tyrosine kinase family that plays a k... |
| MEK Inhibitor WX-554 | An orally available small molecule mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K, MAPK/ERK kinase, or MEK) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. MEK inhibitor WX-554 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK, thereby preventing the activation of MEK-dependent effector proteins including some transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK, a dual-specificity threonine/tyrosine kinase... |
| MEK/Aurora Kinase Inhibitor BI 847325 | An orally available dual inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK) and Aurora kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MEK/Aurora kinase inhibitor BI 847325 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK, which both prevents the activation of MEK-dependent effector proteins and inhibits growth factor-mediated cell signaling. BI 847325 also binds to and inhibits the activity of the Aurora kinases A, B and C which may disrupt the assembl... |
| MEK/RAF Molecular Glue IK-595 | An orally bioavailable mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K, MAPK/ERK kinase, or MEK)/RAF molecular glue and dual kinase inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MEK/RAF molecular glue IK-595 targets and glues B-RAF and C-RAF protein kinases with MEK, forming stable and inactive MEK-RAF complexes. This prevents RAF-dependent phosphorylation and activation of MEK, inhibits the activity of MEK, thereby preventing the activation of MEK-dependent effe... |
| MEK1/2 Inhibitor ABM-168 | An orally bioavailable, brain-penetrant, allosteric inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K, MAPK/ERK kinase, or MEK) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MEK1/2 inhibitor ABM-168 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK1 and MEK2, preventing the activation of MEK1/2-dependent effector proteins and transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferatio... |
| MEK1/2 Inhibitor PAS-004 | An orally bioavailable macrocyclic inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K, MAPK/ERK kinase, or MEK) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MEK1/2 inhibitor PAS-004 selectively and allosterically binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK1 and MEK2, preventing the activation of MEK1/2-dependent effector proteins and transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferat... |
| MEK-1/MEKK-1 Inhibitor E6201 | A synthetic, fungal metabolite analogue inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase 1 (MEK-1) and mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase 1 (MEKK-1) with potential antipsoriatic and antineoplastic activities. MEK-1/MEKK-1 inhibitor E6201 specifically binds to and inhibits the activities of MEK-1 and MEKK-1, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. MEK-1 and MEKK-1 are key components in the RAS/RAF/MEK/MAPK signaling pathway, which regulates cell prolifer... |
| Melan-A VLP Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of the melanocyte differentiation antigen Melan A (also called MART-1) encapsulated in noninfectious virus-like particles (VLP) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, Melan-A VLP vaccine may activate the immune system to exert a specific cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against cancer cells expressing the Melan A antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Melan A is an antigen that is upregulated in most melanomas. VLP stimu... |
| Melan-A/MAGE-3.DP4 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a peptide derived from the melanocyte differentiation antigen Melan-A (or MART-1) and the human leukocyte antigen HLA-DP4-restricted human melanoma antigen 3 (MAGE-3.DP4), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, Melan-A/MAGE-3.DP4 peptide vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing Melan-A and MAGE-3, resulting in tumor cell lysis. The tumor associa... |
| Melanoma Helper Peptide Vaccine | A multivalent vaccine consisting of peptides derived from melanoma-associated antigens and an adjuvant peptide derived from tetanus toxoid. Vaccination with this agent may stimulate a host cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells expressing melanoma-associated antigens, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (NCI04) |
| Melanoma Monoclonal Antibody hIgG2A | One of a number human monoclonal antibodies of the immunoglobulin subclass IgG2a directed against melanoma antigens with potential antineoplastic activity.  A melanoma monoclonal antibody, subclass IgG2A, may have potential use as a diagnostic agent and, therapeutically, may induce macrophage-mediated cytotoxicity against antibody-bound melanoma cells. (NCI04) |
| Melanoma TRP2 CTL Epitope Vaccine SCIB1 | A proprietary DNA-based cancer vaccine that encodes a melanoma antigen tyrosinase-related protein 2 (TRP2) cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) epitope and a modified monoclonal antibody, a chimera of human IgG1/murine IgG2a with T cell mimotopes expressed within the complementarity-determining regions (CDR) of the antibodies, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular injection and electroporation, melanoma TRP2 CTL epitope vaccine SCIB1 expresses the modified... |
| MELITAC 12.1 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide cancer vaccine consisting of an emulsion of a mixture of 12 class I MHC-restricted melanoma peptides and a class II MHC-restricted tetanus toxoid helper peptide, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the MELITAC 12.1 peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells expressing the melanoma peptide antigens, resulting in tumor cell lysis. The melanoma peptides contained in the v... |
| MELK Inhibitor OTS167 | An orally available inhibitor of maternal embryonic leucine zipper kinase (MELK) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, OTS167 binds to MELK, which prevents both MELK phosphorylation and activation; thus inhibiting the phosphorylation of downstream MELK substrates. This may lead to an inhibition of both cell proliferation and survival in MELK-expressing tumor cells. MELK, a serine/threonine kinase, is involved in cancer cell survival, invasiveness and cancer-stem cell fo... |
| Melphalan | A phenylalanine derivative of nitrogen mustard with antineoplastic activity. Melphalan alkylates DNA at the N7 position of guanine and induces DNA inter-strand cross-linkages, resulting in the inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis and cytotoxicity against both dividing and non-dividing tumor cells. |
| Melphalan Flufenamide | A peptide-drug conjugate composed of a peptide conjugated, via an aminopeptidase-targeting linkage, to the alkylating agent melphalan, with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. Upon administration, the highly lipophilic melphalan flufenamide penetrates cell membranes and enters cells. In aminopeptidase-positive tumor cells, melphalan flufenamide is hydrolyzed by peptidases to release the hydrophilic alkylating agent melphalan. This results in the specific release and accum... |
| Melphalan Flufenamide Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of melphalan flufenamide, a peptide-drug conjugate composed of a peptide conjugated, via an aminopeptidase-targeting linkage, to the alkylating agent melphalan, with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. Upon administration, the highly lipophilic melphalan flufenamide penetrates cell membranes and enters cells. In aminopeptidase-positive tumor cells, melphalan flufenamide is hydrolyzed by peptidases to release the hydrophilic alkylating agent mel... |
| Melphalan Hydrochloride | A bifunctional alkylating agent and phenylalanine derivative of nitrogen mustard. Melphalan hydrochloride is converted into highly reactive ethylenimmonium intermediates that induce covalent guanine N7-N7 intra- and inter-crosslinks and alkylation of adenine N3 of DNA. This agent also alkylates RNA and protein structures. As a result RNA transcription and protein synthesis are inhibited, ultimately leading to cell growth arrest and/or death. |
| Melphalan Hydrochloride/Sulfobutyl Ether Beta-Cyclodextrin Complex | A propylene glycol-free intravenous formulation containing the hydrochloride salt of the nitrogen mustard phenylalanine derivative melphalan complexed with polyanionic sulfobutyl ether beta-cyclodextrin (SBE-CD) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, melphalan is converted into highly reactive ethylenimmonium intermediates that induce covalent guanine N7-N7 intra- and inter-crosslinks and alkylation of adenine N3 of DNA; RNA and proteins may also be alkylated. Subsequent... |
| Membrane-bound IL-15-expressing Tumor-infiltrating Lymphocytes OBX-115 | A preparation of tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) that have been genetically engineered to express membrane-bound IL-15 (mbIL15), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction of the mbIL15-expressing TILs OBX-115, the TILs target and kill tumor cells. IL-15 is a pro-survival cytokine that is required for the maintenance of long-lived CD8+ memory T-cells. Sustained IL-15 signaling enhances TIL persistence and potency compared to un-engineered TILs. OBX... |
| Membrane-bound Interleukin-21-Expanded Haploidentical Natural Killer Cells | A preparation of human cytokine interleukin-21 (IL-21) primed, tumor-activated allogeneic human leukocyte antigen (HLA) haploidentical natural killer (NK) cells, with potential cytolytic and immunoregulatory activities. Allogeneic leukemia cells are genetically modified to express membrane-bound interleukin-21 (mbIL-21) on their cell surfaces. When human peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) from an HLA-haploidentical donor are subsequently exposed to these cells, the donor PBMC differen... |
| Menatetrenone | A menaquinone compound and form of vitamin K2 with potential antineoplastic activity. Menatetrenone may act by modulating the signalling of certain tyrosine kinases, thereby affecting several transcription factors including c-myc and c-fos. This agent inhibits tumor cell growth by inducing apoptosis and cell cycle arrest. |
| Menogaril | A semisynthetic derivative of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic nogalamycin.  Menogaril intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis.  This agent is less cardiotoxic than doxorubicin. (NCI04) |
| Merbarone | A nonsedating derivative of thiobarbituric acid and a novel catalytic topoisomerase II inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Merbarone interferes with DNA replication via binding directly to topoisomerase II at a domain that maybe shared by other topoisomerase II cleavage-enhancing agents, ex., etoposide. Its mechanism of action appears to be a novel one, since merbarone does not intercalate DNA nor stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II cleavable complexes. |
| Mercaptopurine | A thiopurine-derivative antimetabolite with antineoplastic and immunosuppressive activities.  Produced through the metabolism of mercaptopurine by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT), mercaptopurine metabolites 6-thioguanosine-5'-phosphate (6-thioGMP) and 6-thioinosine monophosphate (T-IMP) inhibit nucleotide interconversions and de novo purine synthesis, thereby blocking the formation of purine nucleotides and inhibiting DNA synthesis.  This agent is also incorporated into... |
| Mercaptopurine Anhydrous | The anhydrous form of mercaptopurine, a thiopurine-derivative antimetabolite with antineoplastic and immunosuppressive activities.  Produced through the metabolism of mercaptopurine by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT), mercaptopurine metabolites 6-thioguanosine-5'-phosphate (6-thioGMP) and 6-thioinosine monophosphate (T-IMP) inhibit nucleotide interconversions and de novo purine synthesis, thereby blocking the formation of purine nucleotides and inhibiting DNA synthesis.... |
| Mercaptopurine Oral Suspension | An oral suspension containing the thiopurine-derivative antimetabolite 6-mercaptopurine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mercaptopurine is metabolized by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRTase) to its active metabolite 6-thioinosine monophosphate (TIMP); TIMP inhibits nucleotide interconversions and de novo purine ribonucleotide synthesis, which both blocks the formation of purine nucleotides and inhibits DNA synthesis. This agent is also in... |
| Merestinib | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the proto-oncogene c-Met (also known as hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR)) with potential antineoplastic activity. Merestinib selectively binds to c-Met, thereby inhibiting c-Met phosphorylation and disrupting c-Met signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. This agent has potent anti-tumor efficacy in mono and combination ther... |
| Mesenchymal Stromal Cells-derived Exosomes with KRAS G12D siRNA | Exosomes derived from mesenchymal stromal cells (MSCs) that have been engineered to carry short interfering RNA (siRNA) specific to the KRAS G12D mutation subtype. Upon administration, the KRAS G12D siRNA-loaded exosomes deliver siRNA to tumor cells expressing the mutant form of KRAS, potentially silencing its activity. The KRAS G12D mutation is thought to drive tumorigenesis and progression in some cancers. |
| Mesmulogene Ancovacivec | A bivalent cancer vaccine comprised of a modified vaccinia virus Ankara (MVA) strain encoding human mucin 1 (MUC1) and interleukin-2 (IL-2) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Originally developed for the eradication of smallpox, MVA is a highly attenuated and replication-defective strain incapable of virion assembly and exerts potent immunostimulatory activity against antigens. Vaccination with mesmulogene ancovacivec may stimulate the host immune system to mount ... |
| Mesothelin/CD3e Tri-specific T-cell Activating Construct HPN536 | recombinant antibody derivative composed of a tri-specific T-cell activating construct (TriTAC) directed against the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin (MSLN) and the epsilon domain of CD3 antigen (CD3e) found on T-lymphocytes which are both linked to either side of an anti-albumin single domain antibody, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the MSLN/CD3e TriTAC HPN536, the anti-MSLN single antibody domain targets and binds MSLN o... |
| Mesothelin-specific Chimeric Antigen Receptor-engineered Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes | A preparation of peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T cell chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for mesothelin with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. After transduction, expansion in culture, and reintroduction into the patient, the mesothelin-specific chimeric antigen receptor-engineered PBLs bind to tumor cells expressing mesothelin. This may stimulate the secretion of cytokines and result in cell lysis of mesothel... |
| Mesothelioma Tumor Lysate-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with mesothelioma tumor lysate with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, mesothelioma tumor lysate-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against mesothelioma tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| MET Kinase Inhibitor OMO-1 | An inhibitor of the proto-oncogene and receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) hepatocyte growth factor receptor (c-Met; HGFR; MET) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, OMO-1 selectively binds to c-Met, thereby inhibiting c-Met phosphorylation and disrupting c-Met signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in ... |
| MET Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor BMS-777607 | An inhibitor of MET tyrosine kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. MET tyrosine kinase inhibitor BMS-777607 binds to c-Met protein, or hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR), preventing binding of hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) and disrupting the MET signaling pathway; this agent may induce cell death in tumor cells expressing c-Met. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays an important role in tumor cell proliferation, survival, in... |
| MET Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor EMD 1204831 | An inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor) with potential antineoplastic activity. MET inhibitor EMD 1204831 selectively binds to Met tyrosine kinase, thereby disrupting MET mediated signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing this kinase. MET is overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, and plays key roles in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion, and metastasis, and tumor angiogenesis. |
| MET Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor PF-04217903 | An orally bioavailabe, small-molecule tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. MET tyrosine kinase inhibitor PF-04217903 selectively binds to and inhibits c-Met, disrupting the c-Met signaling pathway, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell growth, migration and invasion of tumor cells, and the induction of death in tumor cells expressing c-Met. The receptor tyrosine kinase c-Met, also known as hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) receptor, is overexpressed or mut... |
| MET Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor SAR125844 | An inhibitor of the proto-oncogene c-Met (also known as hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR)) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, c-Met inhibitor SAR125844 binds to c-Met, thereby disrupting c-Met-mediated signal transduction pathways. This may result in cell growth inhibition in tumors that overexpress c-Met. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in a variety of cancers, plays an important role in tumor cell proliferation, surviva... |
| MET Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor SGX523 | An orally bioavailable small molecule, c-Met inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. MET receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor SGX523 specifically binds to c-Met protein, or hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR), preventing binding of hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) and disrupting the MET signaling pathway; this agent may induce cell death in tumor cells expressing c-Met. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays an important role in t... |
| Metabolic Anti-cancer Agent ASCA101 | An agent targeting cancer metabolic processes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, metabolic anti-cancer agent ASCA101 may disrupt one or more specific metabolic processes in cancer cells, which may lead to an increase in reactive oxygen species (ROS) and adenosine-5'-triphosphate (ATP) depletion. This causes apoptosis and prevents proliferation of susceptible cancers cells only while sparing normal, healthy cells. |
| Metamelfalan | The meta form of the levo isomer melphalan, an alkylating nitrogen mustard with potential antineoplastic activity. Metamelfalan causes crosslinking of DNA, thereby preventing DNA replication and eventually cellular proliferation. |
| MetAP2 Inhibitor APL-1202 | An orally available inhibitor of methionine aminopeptidase II type (MetAP2) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, APL-1202 binds to and reversibly inhibits MetAP2, thereby preventing MetAP2-mediated signal transduction pathways. This may suppress endothelial cell growth and inhibit tumor angiogenesis, resulting in tumor cell death. MetAP2, a member of the dimetallohydrolase family, is upregulated in certain tumor cell types and plays a key role in a... |
| Metarrestin | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of perinucleolar compartment (PNC), with potential antineoplastic activities. Although the exact mechanisms(s) through which this agent exerts its effects have yet to be fully elucidated, upon oral administration, metarrestin disrupts the structure of PNC and inhibits RNA polymerase (Pol) I transcription. This leads to the reduction in the prevalence of PNC in cancer cells and decrease in tumor growth and spread. PNC is a subnuclear structure and a... |
| Metatinib Tromethamine | An orally bioavailable tyrosine kinase inhibitor of the BCR-ABL fusion oncoprotein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor BL001 may inhibit the BCL-ABL protein, which may lead to decreased proliferation and enhanced apoptosis in tumor cells. BCR-ABL oncoprotein is generated by a reciprocal translocation between chromosome 9 and 22 specifically t(9;22)(q34;q11). The resulting fusion gene produces proteins with constitutively active ... |
| Metformin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of the biguanide metformin with antihyperglycemic and potential antineoplastic activities. Metformin inhibits complex I (NADPH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase) of the mitochondrial respiratory chain, thereby increasing the cellular AMP to ATP ratio and leading to activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) and regulating AMPK-mediated transcription of target genes. This eventually prevents hepatic gluconeogenesis, enhances insulin sensitivity and fatty acid oxidation an... |
| Methanol Extraction Residue of BCG | A cell wall fraction of bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) obtained by menthol extraction with immunomodulating properties and potential use in cancer immunotherapy. (NCI04) |
| Methazolamide | A sulfonamide derivate and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Methazolamide inhibits tumor-associated carbonic anhydrase IX (CAIX), which may result in increased cell death in hypoxic tumors. As a hypoxia-inducible transmembrane glycoprotein, CAIX catalyzes the rapid interconversion of carbon dioxide and water into carbonic acid, protons, and bicarbonate ions, helping to maintain acidification of the tumor microenvironment and enhance resistance to cytotoxic ... |
| Methionine Aminopeptidase 2 Inhibitor M8891 | A proprietary orally available inhibitor of methionine aminopeptidase 2 (MetAP2), which cleaves the amino-terminal methionine residue from nascent proteins, with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MetAP2 inhibitor M8891 inhibits MetAP2 aminopeptidase activity and impairs protein synthesis, which may lead to a decrease in endothelial cell proliferation. Decreased proliferation of endothelial cells results in reductions of both angiogenesis and the grow... |
| Methionine Aminopeptidase 2 Inhibitor PPI-2458 | A synthetic derivative of fumagillin with antineoplastic and cytotoxic properties.  PPI-2458 irreversibly inhibits the enzyme methionine aminopeptidase type 2 (MetAP2), thereby preventing abnormal cell growth and angiogenesis. PPI-2458 is reported to have a better toxicity profile compared to other agents of its class. (NCI04) |
| Methotrexate | An antimetabolite and antifolate agent with antineoplastic and immunosuppressant activities. Methotrexate binds to and inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, resulting in inhibition of purine nucleotide and thymidylate synthesis and, subsequently, inhibition of DNA and RNA syntheses. Methotrexate also exhibits potent immunosuppressant activity although the mechanism(s) of actions is unclear. |
| Methotrexate Sodium | The sodium salt of methotrexate, an antimetabolite with antineoplastic and immunomodulating properties.  Methotrexate binds to and inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, resulting in inhibition of purine nucleotide and thymidylate synthesis and, subsequently, inhibition of DNA and RNA syntheses.  Methotrexate also exhibits potent immunosuppressant properties. (NCI04) |
| Methotrexate-E Therapeutic Implant | An injectable collagen matrix gel containing the antimetabolite methotrexate and the sympathicomimetic agent epinephrine with potential antineoplastic activity. After intratumoral injection, methotrexate binds to and inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, resulting in inhibition of purine nucleotide and thymidylate synthesis and, subsequently, inhibition of DNA and RNA syntheses. Epinephrine, a potent vasoconstrictor, is added to the gel to enhance penetration of methotrexate into the t... |
| Methotrexate-Encapsulating Autologous Tumor-Derived Microparticles | A suspension of autologous tumor-derived microparticles (ATMP), that are harvested from a patient with malignant pleural effusion, encapsulating the antimetabolic drug methotrexate (MTX), with potential anticancer activity. Although the exact mechanism(s) of action through which this agent exerts its effect has yet to be fully elucidated, upon administration of MTX-ATMP, the MTX moiety is released and internalized by tumor cells. It then binds to and inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductas... |
| Methoxsalen | A naturally occurring substance isolated from the seeds of the plant Ammi majus with photoactivating properties.  As a member of the family of compounds known as psoralens or furocoumarins, methoxsalen's exact mechanism of action is unknown; upon photoactivation, methoxsalen has been observed to bind covalently to and crosslink DNA. (NCI04) |
| Methoxyamine | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor with potential adjuvant activity. Methoxyamine covalently binds to apurinic/apyrimidinic (AP) DNA damage sites and inhibits base excision repair (BER), which may result in an increase in DNA strand breaks and apoptosis. This agent may potentiate the anti-tumor activity of alkylating agents. |
| Methoxyamine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of methoxyamine, an alkoxyamine with potential chemotherapeutic adjuvant activity. Methoxyamine covalently binds to apurinic/apyrimidinic DNA damage sites and thereby inhibits base excision repair (BER) process, which may prevent repair of DNA strand breaks and result in an induction of apoptosis. This agent may potentiate the anti-tumor activity of alkylating agents. |
| Methyl Bacteriopurpurinimide | A brain-penetrant bacteriochlorin analog and photosensitizer, with potential imaging and antineoplastic activities upon fluorescence imaging and fluorescence-guided photodynamic therapy (PDT) respectively. Upon administration, methyl bacteriopurpurinimide crosses the blood brain barrier (BBB) and is taken up by tumor cells. Upon clinical near-infrared (NIR) imaging, the tumor cells can be detected which allows for visualization of the tumor. Upon NIR PDT, the tumor cells are killed. |
| Methyl-5-Aminolevulinate Hydrochloride Cream | A topical cream formulation containing the hydrochloride salt of methyl-5-aminolevulinate, a lipophilic methyl ester of 5-aminolevulinic acid, with photosensitizer prodrug activity. Upon topical administration, methyl-5-aminolevulinate in the cream is selectively absorbed by tumor cells where it is converted to the photosensitizer protoporphyrin IX (PpIX). Upon photoirradiation, PpIX is activated and transfers energy to oxygen, generating singlet oxygen and superoxide and hydroxyl radicals, w... |
| Methylcantharidimide | An orally bioavailable derivative of the terpenoid cantharidin, which is a natural toxin extracted from blister beetles, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action through which methylcantharidimide exerts its effect has yet to be fully elucidated, this agent, upon oral administration, may exert a direct tumor cell killing effect in susceptible tumor cells. |
| Methylmercaptopurine Riboside | A purine derivative with antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic properties.  6-methylmercaptopurine riboside (6-MMPR) inhibits amidophosphoribosyltransferase, the first committed step in de novo purine synthesis, and inhibits fibroblast growth factor-2 (FGF2)-induced cell proliferation. (NCI04) |
| Methylprednisolone | A synthetic corticosteroid with anti-inflammatory and immunomodulating properties.  Methylprednisolone binds to and activates specific nuclear receptors, resulting in altered gene expression and inhibition of proinflammatory cytokine production.  This agent also decreases the number of circulating lymphocytes, induces cell differentiation, and stimulates apoptosis in sensitive tumor cell populations. |
| Methylselenocysteine | A naturally occurring organoselenium compound found in many plants, including garlic, onions, and broccoli, with potential antioxidant and chemopreventive activities. Se-Methyl-seleno-L-cysteine (MSC) is an amino acid analogue of cysteine in which a methylselenium moiety replaces the sulphur atom of cysteine. This agent acts as an antioxidant when incorporated into glutathione peroxidase and has been shown to exhibit potent chemopreventive activity in animal models. |
| Metoprine | A diaminopyrimidine folate antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity.  Metoprine inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, resulting in decreased cellular folate metabolism and cell growth; it also inhibits histamine-N-methyltransferase, resulting in decreased histamine catabolism. Lipid-soluble metoprine is capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier. (NCI04) |
| METTL-3 Inhibitor STC-15 | An orally bioavailable methyltransferase-like protein 3 (METTL-3) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, METTL-3 inhibitor STC-15 targets, binds to and blocks the activity of METTL-3, thereby depleting N-6-methyladenosine (m6A) depositions by METTL3 from certain mRNA transcripts. This leads to the formation of double-stranded RNA, the activation of RNA sensors and the upregulation of expression of genes associated with innate immunity, such as interferon ... |
| Mevociclib | A selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (CDK7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, SY-1365 binds to and inhibits CDK7, thereby inhibiting CDK7-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits cell growth of CDK7-overexpressing tumor cells. CDK7, a serine/threonine kinase, plays a key role in cell proliferation; CDK7 is overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types. |
| Mevrometostat | An orally available selective inhibitor of the histone lysine methyltransferase (HMT) enhancer of zeste homolog 2 (EZH2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mevrometostat selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EZH2. Inhibition of EZH2 specifically prevents the methylation of histone H3 on lysine 27 (H3K27). This decrease in histone methylation alters gene expression patterns associated with cancer pathways and results in decreased proliferati... |
| Mezagitamab | A human, non-agonistic immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein ADP-ribosyl cyclase 1 (CD38) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Mezagitamab specifically binds to CD38 that is expressed on human plasmablasts, plasma cells, NK cells and activated T- and B-cells. This may trigger antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), cell lysis and depletion of CD38-expressing cells. Additionally, TAK-079 does not induce CD... |
| Mezigdomide | A modulator of the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex containing cereblon (CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, mezigdomide specifically binds to cereblon (CRBN), thereby affecting the ubiquitin E3 ligase activity, and targeting certain substrate proteins for ubiquitination. This induces proteasome-mediated degradation of certain transcription factors, some of which are transcriptional repressors in T-cells. This leads to... |
| Micellar Nanoparticle-encapsulated Epirubicin | A nanoparticle-based prodrug formulation consisting of polymeric micelles encapsulating the anthracycline epirubicin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Epirubicin is covalently bound to polyethylene glycol (PEG) polyaspartate block copolymers through an acid-labile hydrazone bond and, upon suspension in an aqueous solution, a micellar structure with an outer hydrophilic PEG shell surrounding the hydrophobic epirubicin is formed. Upon administration of the micellar nanoparticle-encapsula... |
| Micro Needle Array-Doxorubicin | A formulation composed of dissolvable small, adhesive-like patches composed of a biocompatible material which is coated with the anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon cutaneous administration of the microneedle-array-doxorubicin, the microneedles degrade once inserted into the skin and doxorubicin is released from the dissolvable microneedle array delivery device directly into the tumor microenvironment (TME). Doxorubicin is ... |
| Microbiome GEN-001 | A microbiome therapeutic composed of a single-strain bacterium, isolated from the gut of healthy donors, with potential anti-tumor and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, the metabolites of GEN-001 may activate dendritic cells and macrophages in the gut and increase the expression of the cytokines interleukin-7 (IL-7) and interleukin-15 (IL-15), which stimulates the proliferation of natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8+ T-cells. The memory T-cells enhance the secretion ... |
| Microbiome-derived Peptide Vaccine EO2040 | An off-the-shelf (OTS), microbiome therapeutic cancer peptide vaccine composed of two onco-mimics, which are immunogenic microbiomal-derived peptides that are highly homologous to specific tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) and are obtained and selected from the human gut microbiome, combined with the helper peptide and CD4-positive T-cell epitope universal cancer peptide 2 (UCP2), and emulsified with the immunoadjuvant Montanide, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. U... |
| Microbiome-derived Peptide Vaccine EO2401 | A donor-derived, off-the-shelf, microbiome therapeutic cancer peptide vaccine composed of three bacterial onco-mimics, immunogenic microbiome-derived peptides that are highly homologous to tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), that are obtained and selected from the human gut microbiome and are specific for brain tumors, including glioblastoma, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The three microbiome-derived bacterial antigens in EO2401 mimic three TAAs that are highly ... |
| Microbiome-derived Peptide Vaccine EO2463 | A microbiome therapeutic cancer peptide vaccine composed of onco-mimics, immunogenic microbiome-derived peptides that are highly homologous to specific tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), that are obtained and selected from the human gut microbiome, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The microbiome-derived bacterial antigens in EO2463 mimic TAAs that are highly expressed by malignant B-cells. Upon administration of microbiome-derived peptide vaccine EO2463, the pepti... |
| Microbiome-derived Peptide Vaccine EO4010 | A microbiome therapeutic cancer peptide vaccine composed of onco-mimics, immunogenic microbiome-derived peptides that are highly homologous to specific tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), that are obtained and selected from the human gut microbiome, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The five microbiome-derived bacterial antigens in EO4010 mimic five TAAs that are highly expressed by colorectal cancer cells. Upon administration of microbiome-derived peptide vaccine E... |
| Microparticle-encapsulated CYP1B1-encoding DNA Vaccine ZYC300 | A formulation of a plasmid DNA encoding an inactivated form of the carcinogen activator cytochrome P450 1B1 (CYP1B1) encapsulated in biodegradable poly-DL-lactide-coglycolide microparticles with potential antineoplastic activity. CYP1B1, an extrahepatic monooxygenase of the cytochrome P450 family, is overexpressed in many cancers with only restricted expression in normal tissues. Vaccination with ZYC300 may stimulate the immune system to elicit a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against ... |
| MicroRNA-10b Antagomir-Iron Oxide/Dextran-based Nanoparticle TTX-MC138 | A nanoparticle-based formulation containing an antagomir and oligonucleotide targeting microRNA-10b (miR-10b) encapsulated within a nanoparticle consisting of an iron oxide core that is coated with dextran, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of microRNA-10b antagomir-iron oxide/dextran-based nanoparticle TTX-MC138, the anti-miR-10b moiety targets and binds to miR-10b inside tumor cells. This inhibits miR-10b and kills miR-10b-overexpressing tumor cells. This may inhib... |
| Microtubule Destabilizer PM534 | A marine-derived tubulin destablizer, with antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. Upon administration, microtubule destabilizer PM534 targets and binds to beta-tubulin at the colchicine site and thereby destabilizes the microtubular network in the tumor cell, which inhibits the polymerization of microtubules and leads to cell cycle arrest, blockage of cell division and an induction of cell death in cancer cells. In addition, PM534 is a potent inhibitor of angiogenesis, which prevents t... |
| Microtubule Inhibitor SCB01A | An aroylindole derivative and tubulin polymerization inhibitor, with potential tubulin-inhibiting, vascular-disrupting and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tubulin polymerization inhibitor SCB01A binds at the colchicine binding site of tubulin and prevents its polymerization in tumor blood vessel endothelial cells and in tumor cells. This blocks the formation of the mitotic spindle and leads to both cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and tumor cell apoptosis. Also, this agent'... |
| Micvotabart Pelidotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of micvotabart, a fully human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody against extra domain B (EDB) splice variant of fibronectin (EDB-FN; EDB+ FN), conjugated via the cleavable linker mc-Val-Cit-PABC, to the cytotoxic auristatin derivative Aur0101, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of micvotabart pelidotin, the antibody moiety targets and binds to EDB in the tumor stroma. Upon binding, the cell-permeable auristatin derivative paylo... |
| Midostaurin | A synthetic indolocarbazole multikinase inhibitor with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Midostaurin inhibits protein kinase C alpha (PKCalpha), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), c-kit, platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) and FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) tyrosine kinases, which may result in disruption of the cell cycle, inhibition of proliferation, apoptosis, and inhibition of angiogenesis in susceptible tumors. |
| MIF Inhibitor IPG1094 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the pro-inflammatory cytokine macrophage migration inhibitory factor (MIF), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, MIF inhibitor IPG1094 targets, binds to and inhibits the tautomerase activity of MIF. This attenuates the differentiation and infiltration of the immunosuppressive monocytic myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME), which results in an enhan... |
| Mifamurtide | A liposomal formulation containing a muramyl dipeptide (MDP) analogue with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Muramyl tripeptide phosphatidylethanolamine (MTP-PE), a derivative of the mycobacterial cell wall component MDP, activates both monocytes and macrophages. Activated macrophages secrete cytokines and induce the recruitment and activation of other immune cells, which may result in indirect tumoricidal effects. Liposomal encapsulation of MTP-PE prolongs its half-li... |
| Mifepristone | A derivative of the synthetic progestin norethindrone with antiprogesterone activity. Mifepristone competitively binds to the progesterone receptor, resulting in inhibition of the effects of endogenous or exogenous progesterone. This agent also exhibits antiglucocorticoid and weak antiandrogenic activities. |
| MiHA-loaded PD-L1/L2-silenced Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A dendritic cell (DC)-based vaccine composed of program death ligands 1 and 2 (PDL1/L2)-silenced DCs and loaded with the recipient's minor histocompatibility antigens (MiHA), with potential use for graft-versus-tumor (GVT) induction following allogeneic stem cell transplantation (allo-SCT). Donor DCs are electroporated ex vivo with MiHA mRNA and small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) designed to silence the expression of PD L1/L2. After allo-SCT and upon intravenous administration of the MiHA-loaded... |
| Milademetan Tosylate | The tosylate form of milademetan, an orally available MDM2 (murine double minute 2) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, milademetan binds to, and prevents the binding of MDM2 protein to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this MDM2-p53 interaction, the proteasome-mediated enzymatic degradation of p53 is inhibited and the transcriptional activity of p53 is restored. This results in the restoration of ... |
| Milataxel | An orally bioavailable taxane with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, milataxel and its major active metabolite M-10 bind to and stabilize tubulin, resulting in the inhibition of microtubule depolymerization and cell division, cell cycle arrest in the G2/M phase, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Unlike other taxane compounds, milataxel appears to be a poor substrate for the multidrug resistance (MDR) membrane-associated P-glycoprotein (P-gp) efflux pum... |
| Milatuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human CD74 with potential antineoplastic activity. Milatuzumab specifically binds to CD74 on CD74-positive cells. Although the exact mechanism through which this agent induces apoptosis is unknown, it may involve antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) or complement-mediated cytotoxicity (CMC). Alternatively, as CD74 is the cellular receptor for the cytokine migration-inhibitory factor (MIF), the cytotoxicity of this agent may be relate... |
| Milatuzumab-Doxorubicin Antibody-Drug Conjugate IMMU-110 | An immunoconjugate consisting of milatuzumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody against CD74, conjugated to the anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin with potential antineoplastic activity. The milatuzumab moiety of this ADC selectively binds to CD74 on tumor cell surfaces; upon internalization, the doxorubicin moiety is released, where it intercalates between base pairs in the DNA helix and inhibits topoisomerase II, thereby preventing DNA replication and increasing double-strand breakage. As a... |
| Milciclib Maleate | The maleate salt form of milciclib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) and tropomyosin receptor kinase A (TRKA), with potential antineoplastic activity. CDK2/TRKA inhibitor PHA-848125 AC potently inhibits cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2) and exhibits activity against other CDKs including CDK1 and CDK4, in addition to TRKA. Inhibition of these kinases may result in cell cycle arrest and apoptosis of tumor cells that express these kinases. CDKs are serine/threon... |
| Milk Thistle | A substance derived from any of several Old World coarse prickly-leaved shrubs and subshrubs including the plant Silybum marianum.  Milk thistle's active chemical component is silymarin, which is a combination of flavonoids such as silibinin, dehydrosilibinin, silychristin and silydianin.  These compounds are antioxidants and may alter the membrane structure of the liver cell, thereby blocking the absorption of toxins; they may also stimulate the production of new liver cells. In addition, mi... |
| Miltefosine | An orally- and topically-active alkyl-phosphocholine compound with potential antineoplastic activity.  Miltefosine targets cellular membranes, modulating cell membrane permeability, membrane lipid composition, phospholipid metabolism, and mitogenic signal transduction, resulting in cell differentiation and inhibition of cell growth.  This agent also inhibits the anti-apoptotic mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathway and modulates the balance between the MAPK and pro-apoptotic stress-a... |
| Mimotope-P10s-PADRE Peptide Vaccine | A peptide-based vaccine containing a carbohydrate mimetic peptide (CMP) P10s fused to the pan HLA DR-binding epitope (PADRE) peptide, with immunomoadjuvant activity and potential antineoplastic activity. Upon injection of the mimotope-P10s-PADRE peptide vaccine, the P10s peptide, which mimics gangliosides and other tumor-associated carbohydrate antigens (TACA), both stimulates a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response towards cells expressing TACAs and induces the production of antibodies that ... |
| Minretumomab | A second-generation murine monoclonal antibody based on the antibody B72.3 that is directed against tumor-associated glycoprotein 72 (TAG72).  TAG72 is expressed by gastric, breast, pancreatic, colorectal, and ovarian carcinoma cells. (NCI04) |
| Mipasetamab Uzoptirine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC), consisting of mipasetamab, a humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against AXL receptor tyrosine kinase (AXL; UFO) that is site-specifically conjugated to uzoptitine (PL1601), which contains a valine-alanine cleavable linker and SG3199, a cytotoxic pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of mipasetamab uzoptirine, mipasetamab binds to AXL, which is expressed on the surfaces of a va... |
| Mipicoledine | A cholesterol carbonate derivative of 4-demethylpenclomedine (DM-PEN) with potential antineoplastic alkylating activity. Upon intravenous administration of mipicoledine, the carbonium moiety binds to and alkylates DNA at the N7 guanine position, thereby causing DNA crosslinks. This prevents DNA replication, inhibits cellular proliferation and triggers apoptosis. In addition, due to its lipophilic cholesteryl moiety this agent is able to cross the blood brain barrier (BBB) and therefore can be... |
| Mipletamig | An immunoglobulin Fc-modified bispecific monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD123 and the human T-cell surface antigen CD3 bispecific monoclonal antibody, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, mipletamig simultaneously binds to both CD3-expressing T-cells and CD123-expressing cancer cells, thereby crosslinking CD123-expressing tumor cells and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This results in the activation and proliferat... |
| Mipsagargin | A soluble, thapsigargin prodrug containing the cytotoxic analog of thapsigargin, 8-O-(12Aminododecanoyl)-8-O debutanoylthapsigargin (12-ADT) linked, via a carboxyl group, to the targeting peptide containing aspartic acid with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, mipsagargin targets prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA), a type II membrane carboxypeptidase, which is overexpressed in prostate cancer cells and in the neovasculature of most solid tumors but not ... |
| Miptenalimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG3; LAG-3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration,miptenalimab binds to LAG3 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks its binding with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules expressed on tumor cells. This activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell l... |
| miR-221 LNA Inhibitor LNA-i-miR-221 | A phosphorothioate (PS) modified backbone 13-mer locked nucleic acid (LNA)-based antisense oligonucleotide (ASO) and inhibitor of the oncogenic microRNA (miRNA) miR-221, with potential chemo-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, miR-221 LNA inhibitor LNA-i-miR-221 hybridizes with endogenous miR-221 and inhibits miR-221-mediated functions involving tumor cell proliferation, angiogenesis and metastasis, and the modulation of drug influx-efflux transporters as it regula... |
| Mirabegron | An orally bioavailable agonist of the human beta-3 adrenergic receptor (ADRB3), with muscle relaxing, neuroprotective and potential antineoplastic activities.  Upon oral administration, mirabegron binds to and activates ADRB3, which leads to smooth muscle relaxation. Mirabegron also restores sympathetic stimulation in mesenchymal stem cell (MSC) niches, inhibits JAK2-mutated hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) expansion and blocks the progression of myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPNs). Lack of symp... |
| Miransertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase AKT (protein kinase B) with potential antineoplastic activity. Miransertib binds to and inhibits the activity of AKT in a non-ATP competitive manner, which may result in the inhibition of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This may lead to the reduction in tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. The AKT signaling pathway is often deregulated in cancer and is associated with tumor cell proliferatio... |
| Mirdametinib | An orally bioavailable, synthetic organic molecule targeting mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAPK/ERK kinase or MEK) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, mirdametinib selectively binds to and inhibits MEK, which may result in the inhibition of the phosphorylation and activation of MAPK/ERK and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. The dual specific threonine/tyrosine kinase MEK is a key component of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway that is frequentl... |
| miRNA 193a-3p Mimic INT-1B3 | A synthetic microRNA (miRNA) mimic of the endogenous tumor suppressor miR-193a-3p formulated in lipid nanoparticles (LNPs), with potential antineoplastic and immune-activating activities. Upon administration, miRNA-193a-3p mimic INT-1B3 targets tumor cells, binds to its target sequence in mRNA transcripts, which leads to translational repression or mRNA degradation. This inhibits protein expression encoded by that particular mRNA sequence. INT-1B3 is able to downregulate many oncogenic signal... |
| Mirvetuximab Soravtansine | An immunoconjugate consisting of the humanized monoclonal antibody M9346A against folate receptor 1 (FOLR1) conjugated, via the disulfide-containing cleavable linker sulfo-SPDB, to the cytotoxic maytansinoid DM4, with potential antineoplastic activity. The anti-FOLR1 monoclonal antibody moiety of mirvetuximab soravtansine targets and binds to the cell surface antigen FOLR1. After antibody-antigen interaction and internalization, the immunoconjugate releases DM4, which binds to tubulin and dis... |
| Mirzotamab Clezutoclax | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) conjugated, via a solubilizing linker, to a B-cell lymphoma extra long (Bcl-XL) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of mirzotamab clezutoclax, the anti-B7-H3 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to B7-H3 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and linker cleavage, the Bcl-XL inhibitor targets, binds to ... |
| Misetionamide | An oxathiazine-based structural analogue of taurultam (TRLT), which is the main derivative of the anti-infective agent taurolidine (TRD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration,misetionamide selectively induces reactive oxygen species (ROS)-mediated apoptosis in and inhibits proliferation of susceptible tumor cells. |
| Misitatug Blivedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody directed against the human cell surface glycoprotein mesothelin and conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of misitatug blivedotin, the antibody moiety targets and binds to the tumor associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin on the surface of tumor cells. Upon internalization and the release of MMAE, MMAE targ... |
| Misonidazole | A nitroimidazole with radiosensitizing and antineoplastic properties. Exhibiting high electron affinity, misonidazole induces the formation of free radicals and depletes radioprotective thiols, thereby sensitizing hypoxic cells to the cytotoxic effects of ionizing radiation. This single-strand breaks in DNA induced by this agent result in the inhibition of DNA synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Mistletoe Extract | An extract of the whole plant Viscum album (mistletoe) with potential biological response modifier (BRM) activity. Mistletoe extract may both stimulate the antitumoral functions of the immune system and have a direct toxic effect on tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Mitazalimab | A human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD40 with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, mitazalimab binds to CD40 on antigen-presenting dendritic cells, which leads to the activation and proliferation of effector and memory T-cells, and enhances the immune response against tumor cells. In addition, this agent binds to the CD40 antigen present on the surfaces of tumor cells, which induc... |
| Mitindomide | A bisdioxopiperazines analog with antineoplastic activity.  Mitinomide inhibits topoisomerase II and slowly promotes DNA-interstrand cross-linking, thereby inhibiting DNA repair, RNA and protein synthesis.  This agent acts without increasing topoisomerase II-DNA covalent cleavable complex formation, as do most topoisomerase inhibitors. (NCI04) |
| Mitobronitol | A brominated analog of mannitol with potential antineoplastic activity. Mitobronitol most likely acts through alkylation via derived epoxide groups. |
| Mitochondrial Oxidative Phosphorylation Inhibitor ATR-101 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ATR-101 inhibits the activity of F1F0-ATP synthase, elevates the mitochondrial membrane potential and depletes ATP in adrenocortical cells. The mitochondrial dysfunction caused by the release of reactive oxygen and triggered cytochrome c release leads to caspase-mediated cell death. ATR-101 may be useful in treating certain types of adrenocortical carcinoma. |
| Mitoclomine | An aromatic nitrogen mustard derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Mitoclomine alkylates DNA and appears to concentrate primarily in the spleen and thymus where it causes lymphocyte depletion. |
| Mitoflaxone | A synthetic flavonoid with vascular targeting properties. Flavone acetic acid exhibits an antiproliferative effect on endothelial cells as a result of a superoxide-dependent mechanism, which induces changes in permeability of the vasculature of the tumor. This agent may stimulate tumor necrosis and promote shunting of blood flow to viable regions of the tumor, increasing their oxygenation and rendering them more susceptible to the antitumor effects of hyperthermia and ionizing radiation.  (NC... |
| Mitoguazone | A guanylhydrazone with potential antineoplastic activity. Mitoguazone competitively inhibits S-adenosyl-L-methionine decarboxylase (SAMD), an enzyme involved in the synthesis of polyamines, resulting in decreased proliferation of tumor cells, antimitochondrial effects, and p53-independent apoptosis. Polyamines, specifically spermine and spermidine, are essential for thymidine kinase production, DNA synthesis, and cell proliferation. (NCI04) |
| Mitoguazone Dihydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of a guanylhydrazone with potential antineoplastic activity. Mitoguazone competitively inhibits S-adenosyl-L-methionine decarboxylase (SAMD), an enzyme involved in the synthesis of polyamines, resulting in decreased proliferation of tumor cells, antimitochondrial effects, and p53-independent apoptosis. Polyamines, specifically spermine and spermidine, are essential for thymidine kinase production, DNA synthesis, and cell proliferation. |
| Mitolactol | A synthetic derivative of hexitol with antineoplastic and radiosensitizing properties.  Mitolactol alkylates DNA via actual or derived epoxide groups, resulting in inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Mitomycin | A methylazirinopyrroloindoledione antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces caespitosus and other Streptomyces bacterial species.  Bioreduced mitomycin C generates oxygen radicals, alkylates DNA, and produces interstrand DNA cross-links, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis.  Preferentially toxic to hypoxic cells, mitomycin C also inhibits RNA and protein synthesis at high concentrations. (NCI04) |
| Mitomycin A | A methylazirinopyrroloindoledione antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces caespitosus.  Bioreduced mitomycin A generates oxygen radicals, alkylates DNA, and produces interstrand DNA cross-links, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis.  Mitomycin A is more toxic than mitomycin C due to increased and nonselective DNA cross-linking in both aerobic and hypoxic cells. (NCI04) |
| Mitomycin B | A methylazirinopyrroloindoledione antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces caespitosus.  Bioreduced mitomycin B generates oxygen radicals, alkylates DNA, and produces interstrand DNA cross-links, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Mitomycin C Analog KW-2149 | A semisynthetic water-soluble disulfide derivative of the antineoplastic antibiotic mitomycin C.  Activated by serum and glutathione, KW-2149 causes interstrand DNA cross-links and DNA-protein cross-links, resulting in single-strand DNA breaks and inhibition of DNA synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Mitotane | A synthetic derivative of the insecticide dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane (DDT) with anti-adrenocorticoid properties.  Following its metabolism in the adrenal cortex to a reactive acyl chloride intermediate, mitotane covalently binds to adrenal proteins, specifically inhibiting adrenal cortical hormone production. (NCI04) |
| Mitotenamine | A nucleotoxic with potential antineoplastic activity. The mechanism of action through which mitotenamine exerts its effect has yet to be fully elucidated. |
| Mitoxantrone | An anthracenedione antibiotic with antineoplastic activity. Mitoxantrone intercalates into and crosslinks DNA, thereby disrupting DNA and RNA replication.  This agent also binds to topoisomerase II, resulting in DNA strand breaks and inhibition of DNA repair.  Mitoxantrone is less cardiotoxic compared to doxorubicin. |
| Mitoxantrone Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of an anthracenedione antibiotic with antineoplastic activity. Mitoxantrone intercalates into and crosslinks DNA, thereby disrupting DNA and RNA replication.  This agent also binds to topoisomerase II, resulting in DNA strand breaks and inhibition of DNA repair.  Mitoxantrone is less cardiotoxic compared to doxorubicin. |
| Mitozolomide | A prodrug of imidazotetrazine alkylating agent with antineoplastic property. Mitozolomide undergoes ring opening upon the nucleophilic attack at C-4 by an activated molecule of water within the major groove of DNA. The resulting bioactive mono-alkyltriazene species are capable of alkylating nucleophilic residues in the immediate vicinity such as N-7 and/or O-6 sites of guanine, thereby causes intra- or inter-stranded DNA cross-links and trigger apoptosis. |
| Mivavotinib | An inhibitor of spleen tyrosine kinase (syk), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating, and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, mivavotinib may inhibit the activity of syk, which abrogates downstream B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling and leads to an inhibition of B-cell activation, chemotaxis, adhesion and proliferation. Syk, a BCR-associated non-receptor tyrosine kinase that mediates diverse cellular responses, including proliferation, differentiation, and phagocytosis, i... |
| Mivavotinib Citrate | An inhibitor of spleen tyrosine kinase (syk), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating, and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, mivavotinib may inhibit the activity of syk, which abrogates downstream B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling and leads to an inhibition of B-cell activation, chemotaxis, adhesion and proliferation. Syk, a BCR-associated non-receptor tyrosine kinase that mediates diverse cellular responses, including proliferation, differentiation, and phagocytosis, i... |
| Mivebresib | An inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, mivebresib binds to the acetyl-lysine binding site of  BRD-containing protein(s), thereby preventing the interaction between those proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling, prevents the expression of certain growth-promoting genes, and leads to an inhibition of cell growth in susceptible tumors. |
| Mivobulin | A synthetic, colchicine analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Mivobulin targets and binds to colchicine-binding site on tubulin, thereby inhibiting microtubule polymerization, the assembly of the mitotic spindle and mitosis. This eventually results in cell cycle arrest, apoptosis and a reduction in cellular proliferation. |
| Mivobulin Isethionate | The isethionate salt of mivobulin, a synthetic colchicine analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Mivobulin isethionate binds to tubulin, thereby inhibiting microtubule polymerization and mitosis. |
| Mixed Bacteria Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing a mixture of killed bacteria with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Mixed bacteria vaccine (MBV or Coley's toxins) consists of a pyrogenic bacterial lysate derived from Serratia marcescens and Streptococcus pyogenes; the active components in the lysate may be lipopolysaccharide (LPS), a component of the Gram-negative bacterial cell wall of Serratia, and streptokinase, an enzyme produced by Streptococcus pyogenes. LPS has been shown to stimu... |
| MK0731 | A synthetic small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. MK0731 selectively inhibits kinesin spindle protein (KSP), which may result in the inhibition of mitotic spindle assembly, induction of cell cycle arrest during the mitotic phase, and apoptosis in tumor cells that overexpress KSP. |
| MK2 Inhibitor ATI-2231 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase-activated protein kinase 2 (MAPKAPK2; MK2), with potential antineoplastic and chemosensitization activities. Upon oral administration, MK2 inhibitor ATI-2231 targets and binds to the p38MAPK-MK2 complex, thereby inhibiting the p38MAPK phosphorylation and activation of MK2. This inhibits p38MAPK/MK2-mediated signaling pathway, and abrogates the repair of damaged DNA. This may lead to an accumulation of damaged DNA, inhi... |
| MKC-1 | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule, bisindolylmaleimide cell cycle inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. MKC-1 and its metabolites inhibit tubulin polymerization, blocking the formation of the mitotic spindle, which may result in cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and apoptosis. In addition, this agent has been shown to inhibit the activities of the oncogenic kinase Akt, the mTOR pathway, and importin-beta, a protein essential to the transport of other proteins from the cytos... |
| MKNK1 Inhibitor BAY 1143269 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase interacting serine/threonine-protein kinase 1 (MKNK1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MKNK1 inhibitor BAY 1143269 binds to MKNK1, thereby preventing its activation and the downstream MKNK1-mediated phosphorylation and activation of eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4E (eIF4E). As eIF4E enhances the synthesis of oncogenic proteins, preventing eIF4E activity inhibits the synthesis of t... |
| MMP Inhibitor S-3304 | An orally-agent agent with potential antineoplastic activity.  S-3304 inhibits matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs), thereby inducing extracellular matrix degradation, and inhibiting angiogenesis, tumor growth and invasion, and metastasis. (NCI04) |
| Mobinitinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of both the serine/threonine protein kinase Aurora kinase and FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; STK1; CD135; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mobinitinib specifically binds to and inhibits Aurora kinase and FLT3, which interferes with the activation of Aurora kinase- and FLT3-mediated signal transduction pathways. This may result in the disruption of the assembly of the mitotic spindle apparatus, the disruption of chr... |
| Mobocertinib | An orally available inhibitor of human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) exon 20 insertion mutations, with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mobocertinib, and its active metabolites, specifically and irreversibly binds to and inhibits exon 20 insertion mutations of EGFR. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in tumor cells expressing exon 20 insertion mutations. In addition, mobocertinib may inhibit the activity of other EGFR family members, such... |
| Mobocertinib Succinate | The succinate salt form of mobocertinib, an orally available inhibitor of human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) exon 20 insertion mutations, with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mobocertinib, and its active metabolites, specifically and irreversibly binds to and inhibits exon 20 insertion mutations of EGFR. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in tumor cells expressing exon 20 insertion mutations. In addition, mobocertinib may inhibit the ac... |
| Mocetinostat | A rationally designed, orally available, Class 1-selective, small molecule, 2-aminobenzamide HDAC inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Mocetinostat binds to and inhibits Class 1 isoforms of HDAC, specifically HDAC 1, 2 and 3, which may result in epigenetic changes in tumor cells and so tumor cell death; although the exact mechanism has yet to be defined, tumor cell death may occur through the induction of apoptosis, differentiation, cell cycle arrest, inhibition of DNA repair, up... |
| Mocravimod Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of mocravimod, a sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P) receptor agonist, with potential immunosuppressive activity. Upon administration of mocravimod, this agent binds to S1P receptors on lymphocytes, which prevents binding of serum S1P to S1P receptors and leads to S1P receptor internalization. This reduces the number of circulating blood leukocytes and accelerates lymphocyte homing into peripheral lymph nodes, thereby preventing their infiltration into peripheral inflamm... |
| Modakafusp Alfa | A proprietary preparation composed of an immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) directed against the cell surface glycoprotein CD-38 (CD38) that is fused to an attenuated form of human interferon alpha (IFN alpha; IFNa), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, modakafusp alfa specifically targets and binds to CD38 on CD38-positive tumor cells. In turn, the IFNa moiety binds to cell-surface IFN receptors, and activates IFN-mediated signal transduction pathways, wh... |
| Modified Banxia Xiexin Decoction | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) formulation, Banxia Xiexin decoction, composed of seven traditional Chinese herbs including Rhizoma Pinelliae (Ban Xia), Radix Scutellariae (Huang Qin), Rhizome Coptidis (Huang Lian), Rhizoma Zingibers (Gan Jiang), Radix Glycyrrhizae (Gan Cao), Fructus Ziziphi Jujubae (Da Zao), and Radix Ginseng (Ren Shen), modified by various Chinese herbal additions, with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of ... |
| Modified Citrus Pectin Supplement | A dietary supplement containing the modified citrus pectin (MCP) derived from the soluble fiber of citrus fruit peels and a galectin-3 inhibitor with potential antioxidant, hypocholesterolemic, immunostimulatory, metal chelating, and anti-metastatic activities. MCP is a low molecular weight version of pectin composed of short, slightly-branched carbohydrate chains and is modified for enhanced absorbability. The bioactive fragments, most likely the galactan-containing portion, of pectin binds ... |
| Modified Influenza Virus Expressing HPV16 E6/E7 FluBHPVE6E7 | A cancer vaccine comprised of a modified influenza viral vector that lacks the C-terminal part of the non-structural gene NS1 (delNS) encoding the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV16) E6 and E7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, modified influenza virus expressing HPV16 E6/E7 FluBHPVE6E7 stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing HPV16 E6 a... |
| Modified Interleukin-2 DF6215 | A modified and recombinant form of the human endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, modified IL-2 DF6215 targets and binds to IL-2 receptor (IL-2R) expressed on CD8+ T effector cells and activates IL-2R-mediated signaling. This enhances cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs)-mediated cytotoxic immune responses against tumor cells. |
| Modified Interleukin-2 LTC004 | A modified form of the recombinant form of human endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunoregulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon injection of modified IL-2 LTC004, IL-2 binds to the IL-2 receptor beta (CD122) and gamma (CD132) subunits (IL2Rb/g) that are expressed on CD8+ T effector cells and natural killer (NK) cells, thereby activating IL2R-mediated signaling within these immune cells. The activation of T- and NK cells mediates cytolytic immune responses agains... |
| Modified Vaccinia Ankara (Bavarian Nordic)-HER2 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a proprietary, recombinant modified vaccinia Ankara (MVA) viral vector encoding an epitope of human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, modified vaccinia Ankara (Bavarian Nordic)-HER2 vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount humoral and cytotoxic T lymphocyte responses against HER2-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. HER2, also known as ErbB-2, is a tyrosine kinase... |
| Modified Vaccinia Ankara-vectored HPV16/18 Vaccine JNJ-65195208 | A booster cancer vaccine comprised of a modified, replication-defective, vaccinia virus Ankara (MVA) Bavarian Nordic (MVA-BN) strain encoding the oncogenic human papillomavirus types 16 (HPV16) and 18 (HPV18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of MVA-vectored HPV16/18 vaccine JNJ-65195208, and after the administration of the prime vaccine(s) adenovirus serotype 26 (Ad26)-expressing HPV16 vaccine JNJ-63682918 and/or Ad26-expressin... |
| Modified Vaccinia Virus Ankara Expressing Flt3L/OX40L MQ710 | A recombinant, non-replicative, modified vaccinia virus Ankara (MVA) engineered with the deletion of the vaccinia E5R gene and the expression of two membrane-anchored transgenes, fms-like tyrosine kinase 3 ligand (Flt3L) and OX40 ligand (OX40L), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, MVA expressing Flt3L/OX40L MQ710 is transduced into tumor cells and Flt3L and OX40L are expressed. The recombinant MVA, with the deletion of the E5R gene... |
| Modified Vaccinia Virus Ankara Vaccine Expressing p53 | A cancer vaccine comprised of a recombinant modified vaccinia Ankara (MVA) viral vector encoding the wild-type form of the tumor protein p53 (wt p53), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous vaccination with MVA vaccine expressing p53, the expressed p53 may stimulate the host immune system to mount a p53-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing p53, resulting in tumor cell lysis. The MVA viral vector, derived from ... |
| Modified Vitamin D Binding Protein Macrophage Activator EF-022 | A modified version of vitamin D binding protein (VDBP; Gc protein) macrophage activator, with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. Upon administration, modified VDBP-macrophage activator EF-022, acting in a similar manner as VDBP-macrophage activating factor (GcMAF), is able to activate tumoricidal macrophages, thereby enhancing the killing and eradication of cancer cells. In addition, EF-022 may inhibit tumor cell proliferation, migration and angiogenesis. VDBP is a glyco... |
| Modotuximab | A recombinant immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, modotuximab targets and binds to an epitope located in the extracellular domain (ECD) of EGFR, which causes internalization and degradation of EGFR, including the mutated EGFR variant III (EGFRvIII). This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling, thereby inhibiting EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation. EGFR, a receptor... |
| MOF Compound RiMO-301 | A nanoparticle-based metal-organic framework (MOF) compound composed of proprietary X-ray-absorbing metals, with potential radiosensitizing properties. Upon intratumoral administration and subsequent irradiation of the tumor site, RiMO-301 absorbs the X-ray photons and produces reactive oxygen species (ROS), such as hydroxyl radicals and singlet oxygen, which induces ROS-mediated DNA damage in the irradiated cancer cells leading to tumor cell lysis. In addition, RiMO-301 may also contain an a... |
| Mofarotene | An arotinoic acid derivative with a morpholine structure in the polar end group with differentiation inducing and antineoplastic activity. Like other retinoic acid agents, mofarotene binds to and activates retinoic acid receptors (RARs), thereby altering the expression of certain genes leading to cell differentiation and decreased cell proliferation in susceptible cells. In addition, this agent is able to inhibit melanoma cell motility. |
| Mogamulizumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against C-C chemokine receptor 4 (CCR4) with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Mogamulizumab selectively binds to and blocks the activity of CCR4, which may inhibit CCR4-mediated signal transduction pathways and, so, chemokine-mediated cellular migration and proliferation of T cells, and chemokine-mediated angiogenesis. In addition, this agent may induce antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CCR4-positive... |
| Molibresib | A small molecule inhibitor of the BET (Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal) family of bromodomain-containing proteins with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, molibresib binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs on the bromodomain of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histone peptides. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may lead to an... |
| Molibresib Besylate | The besylate salt of molibresib, a small molecule inhibitor of the BET (Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal) family of bromodomain-containing proteins with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, molibresib binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs on the bromodomain of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histone peptides. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain grow... |
| Momelotinib | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of wild-type (WT) Janus kinases 1 and 2 (JAK1/2), the JAK2 mutant form JAK2V617F, and activin A receptor type 1 (ACVR1; activin receptor like kinase 2; ALK2), with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, momelotinib competes with JAK1/2 for ATP binding, which results in inhibition of JAK1/2 activation, inhibition of the JAK-STAT signaling pathway, and leads to the induction of apoptosis and a reduction of tumor cell proliferation in J... |
| Momelotinib Dihydrochloride Monohydrate | The monohydrate dihydrochloride salt form of momelotinib, an orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of wild-type (WT) Janus kinases 1 and 2 (JAK1/2), the JAK2 mutant form JAK2V617F, and activin A receptor type 1 (ACVR1; activin receptor like kinase 2; ALK2), with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, momelotinib competes with JAK1/2 for ATP binding, which results in inhibition of JAK1/2 activation, inhibition of the JAK-STAT signaling pathway, and leads to the induction of ... |
| Monalizumab | A humanized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody against the human natural killer (NK) and T-lymphocyte cell checkpoint inhibitor killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily C member 1 (NKG2A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, monalizumab binds to NKG2A and prevents the binding of NKG2A to its ligand human leukocyte antigen-E (HLA-E), which is overexpressed on tumor cells. This blocks the HLA-E-mediated inhibition of NKG2A-positive infiltrating NK and cytoto... |
| Monocarboxylate Transporter 1 Inhibitor AZD3965 | An orally available inhibitor of monocarboxylate transporter 1 (MCT1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MCT1 inhibitor AZD3965 binds to MCT1 and prevents the transport of lactate into and out of the cell. This leads to an accumulation of lactate, intracellular acidification, and eventually cancer cell death. MCT1, a protein overexpressed on tumor cells, is responsible for the transport of monocarboxylates across the cell membrane and plays a key role in cell m... |
| Monoclonal Antibody 105AD7 Anti-idiotype Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a humanized monoclonal antibody that mimics a tumor-associated antigen 791Tgp72 (also known as CD55). Vaccination with this agent may stimulate a host cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells expressing CD55, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody 11D10 | A murine monoclonal anti-idiotype antibody (anti-Id). Anti-Id 11D10 mimics a specific epitope of the high molecular weight human milk fat globule (HMFG) glycoprotein primarily expressed by human breast and some other tumor cells at high density. This specific HMFG epitope is identified by mAb BrE1, which was used as the immunizing antibody, or Ab1 to generate the anti-Id (Ab2) 11D10. Anti-ID 11D10 reacts specifically with breast tumor cells and with minimal reactivity with normal tissues. Vac... |
| Monoclonal Antibody 11D10 Anti-Idiotype Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of a monoclonal antibody (MoAb) directed against an idiotype that mimics a human milk fat globule (HMFG) membrane epitope.  Vaccination with monoclonal antibody 11D10 anti-idiotype vaccine induces anti-anti-idiotype antibodies (Ab3) that may react with breast cancer cell lines expressing the HMFG membrane epitope. |
| Monoclonal Antibody 14G2A | A murine monoclonal antibody directed against the ganglioside GD2 with potential antineoplastic activity. Monoclonal antibody 14G2A binds to the ganglioside GD2 and induces antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity against GD2-expressing tumor cells.  GD2 is overexpressed in malignant melanoma, neuroblastoma, osteosarcoma, and small cell carcinoma of the lung. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody 1F5 | A murine monoclonal antibody directed against CD20, a cross-membrane ion channel phosphoprotein expressed by B cells, with potential antineoplastic activity.  MOAB 1F5 binds to CD20, thereby directly inhibiting B-cell proliferation and differentiation. When cross-linked by secondary anti-mouse antibodies or Fc receptor-bearing cells, MOAB 1F5 may induce activation of B-cell protein tyrosine kinases, increases in B-cell intracellular calcium ion concentrations, and B-cell caspase activation, r... |
| Monoclonal Antibody 3622W94 | A humanized murine monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against the 17-1A antigen, with potential adjuvant therapeutic properties in colorectal cancer. 17-1A antigen (EpCAM), a human epithelial cell adhesion molecule, expresses in a variety of carcinoma tissues, such as those of colon and breast carcinomas. Immunization with MoAb 3622W94 may elicit immune responses, which could result in eradicating tumor cells expressing 17-1A antigen. |
| Monoclonal Antibody 3F8 | A murine monoclonal antibody directed against the cell-surface, tumor-associated antigen ganglioside GD2. Vaccination with monoclonal antibody 3F8 may stimulate a host cytotoxic immune response against tumors that express ganglioside GD2. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody 3H1 Anti-Idiotype Vaccine | A recombinant monoclonal antibody in which the heavy and light chain variable domains mimic a specific epitope of the tumor-associated protein carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).  This agent is used as a cancer vaccine against tumors that express CEA. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody 4B5 Anti-Idiotype Vaccine | A humanized anti-idiotypic (anti-Id) monoclonal antibody (MoAb) that mimics the disialoganglioside GD2 with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, monoclonal antibody 4B5 anti-idiotype vaccine may elicit both cellular and humoral immune responses against GD2- expressing tumor cells. GD2 is a glycosphingolipid (ceramide and oligosaccharide) that may be highly expressed by melanomas and other neuroectodermal tumors, while only minimally expressed by nor... |
| Monoclonal Antibody 7C11 | A murine IgM monoclonal antibody against Fas antigen with antineoplastic property. Fas antigen is a member of tumor necrosis factor family that mediates antibody-triggered apoptosis. Upon binds to Fas, monoclonal antibody 7C11 (MoAb 7C11) induces apoptosis in Fas-expressing cells. |
| Monoclonal Antibody A1G4 Anti-Idiotype Vaccine | An anti-idiotypic (anti-Id) rat monoclonal antibody (MoAb) that mimics the disialoganglioside GD2, a cancer-associated antigen present on melanoma, small cell lung cancer, sarcoma, neuroblastoma, and other malignancies. GD2 is a highly expressed glycosphingolipid by melanoma and other neuroectodermal tumors with only minimal expression on normal tissues. Vaccination with anti-Id A1G4 MoAb may elicit cellular and humoral immune responses against GD2 expression tumor cells. |
| Monoclonal Antibody A27.15 | A murine IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human transferrin (Tf) receptor. Monoclonal antibody A27.15 binds to the Tf receptor, blocking the binding of transferrin to the receptor and resulting in decreased tumor cell growth. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody A33 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human A33 antigen. Monoclonal antibody A33 recognizes the human A33 antigen, a 43 KDa transmembrane glycoprotein of the immunoglobulin superfamily, which is highly and homogenously expressed in 95% of colorectal cancer metastases with only restricted expression in normal colonic mucosa. |
| Monoclonal Antibody AbGn-7 | A chimeric monoclonal antibody against a Lewis-A-like glycotope (AbGn-7 antigen) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Monoclonal antibody AbGn-7 targets and binds to the carbohydrate AbGn-7 antigen on the cell surface of tumor cells and may induce complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC), thereby killing AbGn-7-epitope positive tumor cells. AbGn-7 antigen is expressed on a variety of tumor cell types, including ... |
| Monoclonal Antibody CAL | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rP). As a poly-hormone with diverse biological roles, PTH-rP is expressed by normal tissues, acting in local tissue environments in a variety of ways; it is commonly overexpressed by breast, prostate, and other cancers, acting systemically by promoting bone resorption, inhibiting calcium excretion from the kidney, inducing hypercalcemia, and possibly playing a role in the formation of bony metastases. By... |
| Monoclonal Antibody CC49-delta CH2 | A humanized CH2 domain-deleted second-generation monoclonal antibody based on the antibody B72.3 that is directed against tumor-associated glycoprotein 72 (TAG72).  TAG72 is expressed by gastric, breast, pancreatic, colorectal, and ovarian carcinoma cells. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody CEP-37250/KHK2804 | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting glycolipids, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, monoclonal antibody CEP-37250/KHK2804 targets and binds to a specific tumor antigen, thereby stimulating the immune system to exert an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) against the tumor associated antigen (TAA)-expressing cancer cells. This agent has shown to be active in both wild-type and mutant K-RAS-expressing colorectal cancer cells. |
| Monoclonal Antibody D6.12 | A murine IgG2a monoclonal antibody directed against a 48 kDa antigen expressed on the cell surface of normal and malignant gastrointestinal epithelium. MoAb D6.12 has been shown to induce antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC). This MoAb, either alone or in combination with other immunotherapeutic agents, may have possible diagnostic or therapeutic applications in gastrointestinal cancers. |
| Monoclonal Antibody E2.3 | A murine IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human transferrin (Tf) receptor. Monoclonal antibody E2.3 binds to the Tf receptor, blocking the binding of transferrin to the receptor and resulting in decreased tumor cell growth. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody F19 | A murine monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against human fibroblast activation protein (FAP). FAP is a 95 kDa cell surface glycoprotein and an inducible tumor stromal antigen of epithelial cancers and of a subset of soft tissue sarcomas. FAP shows a very limited distribution pattern in normal tissues, thereby MoAb F19 has possible diagnostic and therapeutic applications in epithelial cancers. |
| Monoclonal Antibody GD2 Anti-Idiotype Vaccine | A class of vaccines that consist of anti-idiotype monoclonal antibodies against the tumor-associated antigen disialoganglioside GD2 with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination with a monoclonal antibody GD2 anti-idiotype vaccine produces an immunoglobulin response against GD2 with subsequent destruction of GD2 positive tumor cells via antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC).  GD2 is overexpressed in melanoma, neuroblastoma, soft tissue sarcoma, and small cell carcinoma of the... |
| Monoclonal Antibody GIM-122 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1K) dual-functioning monoclonal antibody, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, monoclonal antibody GIM-122 targets and binds to as of yet unidentified molecules on target cells and may modulate the immune system and reduce tumor cell proliferation. |
| Monoclonal Antibody HeFi-1 | A murine monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Monoclonal antibody HeFi-1 binds to CD30, a cell surface antigen found on mitogen-activated B-cells and T-cells, and Reed-Sternberg cells.  Monoclonal antibody HeFi-1 has been shown to arrest tumor growth and prevent metastasis in animal models. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody Hu3S193 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the Lewis Y antigen, a tumor-associated epithelial antigen, with potential antineoplastic activity. Following binding, monoclonal antibody Hu3S193 triggers an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity in cells expressing Lewis Y antigen. (NCI05) |
| Monoclonal Antibody HuAFP31 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against alpha fetoprotein with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, monoclonal antibody HuAFP31 (mAb HuAFP31) binds to and stimulates a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that express alpha fetoprotein. |
| Monoclonal Antibody HuPAM4 | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the pancreatic cancer antigen MUC1 with potential antineoplastic activity. Monoclonal antibody HuPAM4 (mAb HuPAM4) binds to cells expressing MUC1 antigen; mAb HuPAM4 may be useful as a carrier for radioisotopes and other antineoplastic therapeutic agents. (NCI05) |
| Monoclonal Antibody IMMU-14 | An anti-carcinoembryonic antigen (anti-CEA) murine monoclonal immunoglobulin G (IgG) with potential antineoplastic activity.  CEA is overexpressed in several cancer cell types, including gastrointestinal, breast, and non-small cell lung cancers.  MOAB IMMU-14 can be conjugated with a radioactive element for use in radioimmunotherapy (RIT), a regimen that uses a tumor-specific monoclonal antibody to deliver targeted radiation to cancer cells. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody L6 | A murine IgG2a monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Monoclonal antibody L6 binds to the L6 antigen, a cell surface glycoprotein overexpressed in many carcinomas, and induces antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity against L6-expressing tumor cells.  This agent may be conjugated with various toxins in order to target their cytotoxic activity to tumor cells expressing the L6 antigen. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody Lym-1 | A murine IgG2a monoclonal antibody directed against the HLA-Dr10 protein, a cell surface marker present on over eighty percent of lymphoma cells.  When conjugated with a radioactive isotope, Lym-1 monoclonal antibody selectively transports the cytotoxic radioisotope to HLA-Dr10-expressing tumor cells, thereby sparing healthy B-cells and normal tissues.  This agent also mediates antibody-dependent cytotoxicity thereby promoting Raji B-lymphoid cell lysis by human neutrophils. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody m170 | A panadenocarcinoma murine monoclonal antibody (MoAb) with potential antineoplastic activity. MoAb m170 recognizes MUC-1 antigen present on the surface of many adenocarcinomas. It may be conjugated with a radioactive element and used in radioimmunotherapy (RIT), a procedure that uses a tumor-specific monoclonal antibody to target radiation to cancer cells. |
| Monoclonal Antibody Me1-14 F(ab')2 | The F(ab)2 fragment of Me1-14, a murine IgG2a monoclonal antibody directed against proteoglycan chondroitin sulfate-associated protein expressed by gliomas and melanomas.  By binding to proteoglycan chondroitin sulfate-associated protein, monoclonal antibody Me1-14 F(ab')2 conjugated to a radioisotope may localize gliomas and melanomas when used as a tracer in radioimaging applications; in radioimmunotherapeutic applications, this agent conjugated to a radioisotope may be used to deliver targ... |
| Monoclonal Antibody muJ591 | A murine IgG monoclonal antibody against the external domain of the prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), overexpressed in the malignant prostate and its metastases. Although PSMA is not a biomarker of disease progression, over-expression indicates an aggressive phenotype of the prostate cancer. Radiolabelled MoAb muJ591 may be used in prostate cancer diagnosis and therapy. |
| Monoclonal Antibody MX35 F(ab')2 | The F(ab)2 fragment of monoclonal antibody (MoAb) MX35 that recognizes a 95 kD glycoprotein with homogeneous distribution on 80% of ovarian tumor specimens. When radiolabeled, this MoAb has potential use in the radioimaging or may induce a cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells that express this glycoprotein. Containing only the antigen-binding fragment of the Ig molecule, MoAb MX35 F(ab')2 offers the advantages of smaller size and lower cross-reactivity compared to complete antibodies. |
| Monoclonal Antibody NEO-201 | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody derived from an immunogenic preparation of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) from pooled allogeneic colon cancer tissue extracts, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon intravenous administration, monoclonal antibody NEO-201 targets and binds to malignant tissues with tumor-specific mutations in the membrane-anchored proteins, carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecules 5 and 6 (CEACAM5 and CEACA... |
| Monoclonal Antibody R24 | An IgG murine monoclonal antibody directed against the ganglioside GD3 glycolipid, located in the cell membranes of some tumor cells.  Monoclonal antibody R24 binds to GD3-positive cells, thereby initiating antibody-dependent cytotoxicity against GD3-positive cells. (NCI04) |
| Monoclonal Antibody RAV12 | A chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against a primate-restricted N-linked carbohydrate epitope (glycotope) expressed on various human carcinomas with potential antineoplastic activity. Following binding, monoclonal antibody RAV12 disrupts sodium channels of tumor cells expressing this glycotope, resulting in cell and organelle swelling, loss of membrane integrity, and cell death. (NCI05) |
| Monoclonal Antibody SGN-14 | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the CD40 antigen with potential antineoplastic activity. CD-40, an integral membrane protein found on the surface of B lymphocytes and member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor super-family, is highly overexpressed on the cell surface of a number of B-cell malignancies. Monoclonal antibody SGN-14 specifically binds to and inhibits CD-40, thereby inhibiting cell proliferation and inducing cell lysis via antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC... |
| Monoclonal Microbial EDP1503 | An orally available preparation derived from a single clone of Bifidobacterium spp. with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, monoclonal microbial EDP1503 colonizes the gut and may, through a not yet fully elucidated mechanism, promote the activation of dendritic cells (DCs), and enhance the induction and infiltration of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME). Bifidobacterium is a genus of anaerobic, Gram-positive bact... |
| Monomethyl Auristatin E | A dolastatin-10 peptide derivative with potent antimitotic activity and potential antineoplastic activity as part of an antibody-drug conjugate (ADC). Monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE) binds to tubulin, blocks tubulin polymerization, and inhibits microtubule formation, which results in both disruption of mitotic spindle assembly and arrest of tumor cells in the M phase of the cell cycle. To minimize toxicity and maximize efficacy, MMAE is conjugated, via a cleavable peptide linker, to a monoclon... |
| Montanide ISA 720 | A proprietary adjuvant, applicable for water-in-oil (W/O; 30/70 v/v) vaccine emulsion, with potential immunoadjuvant activity. Montanide ISA 720 is made of natural metabolizable non-mineral oil and a highly refined emulsifier from the mannide mono-oleate family; it is rapidly metabolized and eliminated, and may be used in various vaccines, including cancer vaccines. Upon administration, Montanide ISA 720 forms a depot at the injection site and is therefore capable of slowly releasing the anti... |
| Montanide ISA-51 VG/KLH/NY-ESO-1/MART-1 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of two immunogenic peptides derived from the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 and the melanoma differentiation antigen Melan-A (MART-1; Melanoma Antigen Recognized by T-cells 1), which are conjugated with the immunostimulant keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH) and emulsified in the immunoadjuvant Montanide ISA-51 VG, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous vaccination, the Montanide ISA-51 VG/KLH/NY-ESO-1/MART-1 peptide vaccine st... |
| Morinda Citrifolia Fruit Extract | An extract prepared from the fruit of Morinda citrifolia, a plant that yields various herbal preparations. Morinda citrifolia fruit juice has antioxidant properties and may prevent tumorigenesis via inhibition of DNA-carcinogen adduct formation. |
| Morpholinodoxorubicin | A semisynthetic derivative of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin.  As an antineoplastic agent, morpholinodoxorubicin is more potent than doxorubicin.  Similar to doxorubicin, morpholinodoxorubicin intercalates into DNA and causes single- and double-strand breaks in DNA via inhibition of topoisomerase I and II.  Unlike doxorubicin, this agent is metabolized in vivo to a DNA-alkylating derivative that forms DNA interstrand cross-links, thereby potentiating its doxorubicin-l... |
| Mosedipimod | A synthetic version of a monoacetyldiacylglyceride naturally occurring in various seed oils, bovine udder and milk fat, antlers of sika deer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action through which EC-18 exerts its pharmacological effect has yet to be fully identified, upon administration, mosedipimod stimulates calcium influx into T-lymphocytes and increases the production of various cytokines, including interleukin (IL) -2, IL-4, IL-12, interferon-gamma ... |
| Mosunetuzumab | A bispecific, humanized monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Mosunetuzumab contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and one for human CD20, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) that is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development and is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. Upon administration, mosunetuzumab binds to both T-cells and CD20-expressing tumor B-cells; this cross-links T-cells to tumo... |
| Motacabtagene Lurevgedleucel | A preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to disrupt expression of endogenous TCR and major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules and modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimula... |
| Motesanib | An orally bioavailable receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. AMG 706 selectively targets and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGFR), platelet-derived growth factor (PDGFR), Kit, and Ret receptors, thereby inhibiting angiogenesis and cellular proliferation. |
| Motesanib Diphosphate | The orally bioavailable diphosphate salt of a multiple-receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Motesanib selectively targets and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGFR), platelet-derived growth factor (PDGFR), kit, and Ret receptors, thereby inhibiting angiogenesis and cellular proliferation. |
| Motexafin Gadolinium | A synthetic metallotexaphyrin with radiosensitizing and chemosensitizing properties. Motexafin gadolinium accumulates in tumor cells preferentially due to their increased rates of metabolism, generating reactive oxygen species (ROS) intracellularly and lowering the tumor cell apoptotic threshold to ionizing radiation and chemotherapy. (NCI04) |
| Motexafin Lutetium | A pentadentate aromatic metallotexaphyrin with photosensitizing properties. Motexafin lutetium preferentially accumulates in tumor cells due to their increased rates of metabolism and absorbs light, forming an extended high energy conformational state that produces high quantum yields of singlet oxygen, resulting in local cytotoxic effects. (NCI04) |
| Motixafortide | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of CXC Chemokine Receptor 4 (CXCR4) with potential antineoplastic activity. CXCR4 antagonist BL-8040 selectively binds to the chemokine receptor CXCR4, preventing the binding of stromal derived factor 1 (SDF-1 or CXCL12) to the CXCR4 receptor and subsequent receptor activation, which may result in decreased tumor cell proliferation and migration. In addition, inhibition of CXCR4 may induce mobilization of hematopoietic cells from the bone marrow into blood. Th... |
| Motolimod | A small-molecule Toll-like receptor 8 (TLR8) agonist with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Motolimod binds to TLR8, present in cutaneous dendritic cells, monocytes/macrophages, and mast cells, which may result in the activation of the central transcription factor nuclear factor-B, the secretion of proinflammatory cytokines and other mediators, and a Th1-weighted antitumoral cellular immune response. Primarily localized to endosomal membranes intracellularly, TLR8, li... |
| Mouse gp100 Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of a plasmid DNA encoding the murine melanoma-associated antigen gp100. Upon administration, expressed gp100 antigen may stimulate a cytotoxic T cell HLA-A2.1-restricted immune response against tumor cells that express the gp100 antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (NCI05) |
| Mouse Prostate-Specific Membrane Antigen Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of a plasmid DNA encoding the murine prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA). Upon administration, expressed PSMA may stimulate a cytotoxic T cell response against tumor cells that express PSMA, resulting in tumor cell lysis. (NCI05) |
| Mouse Renal Adenocarcinoma Cell-Encapsulated Agarose-Agarose Macrobeads | An agarose matrix containing mouse renal adenocarcinoma (RENCA) cells, with potential antineoplastic activity. The agarose-agarose macrobeads consist of two spherical agarose layers; the mouse RENCA cells are contained within the inner agarose layer. Upon placement into the abdominal cavity, the restricted mouse renal adenocarcinoma cells in the agarose macrobeads produce and release certain growth-retarding factors that inhibit the proliferation of the RENCA cells; Upon diffusion of these gr... |
| MOv19 CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing Allogeneic T-lymphocytes | A preparation of allogeneic CD4-positive and CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) comprised of an anti-folate receptor alpha (FR-alpha; ovarian tumor-associated antigen MOv18) single chain variable fragment (scFv) (MOv19) and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), coupled to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon... |
| MOv-gamma Chimeric Receptor Gene | A recombinant engineered chimeric gene derived from the murine gene encoding the variable region of monoclonal antibody MOv18 against folate-binding protein, which is often overexpressed in human ovarian cancer cells, and the gene encoding the Fc receptor for the gamma subunit of human IgG and IgE. Peripheral blood lymphocytes expressing the MOv-gamma gene may be used in the immunotherapeutic treatment of ovarian cancer. (NCI04) |
| Moxetumomab Pasudotox | A recombinant immunotoxin consisting of the Fv portion of the anti-CD22 antibody covalently fused to a 38 KDa fragment of Pseudomonas exotoxin-A (PE38) with potential antineoplastic activity. The Fv portion of anti-CD22 immunotoxin CAT-8015 binds to CD22, a cell surface receptor expressed on a variety of malignant B-cells, thereby delivering the toxin moiety PE38 directly to tumor cells. Once internalized, PE38 induces caspase-mediated apoptosis via a mechanism involving mitochondrial damage ... |
| Mps1 Inhibitor BAY 1217389 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinase monopolar spindle 1 (Mps1, TTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the Mps1 inhibitor BAY 1217389 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of Mps1. This inactivates the spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC), accelerates mitosis, causes chromosomal misalignment and missegregation, and mitotic checkpoint complex destabilization. This induces cell death in Mps1-overexpressing cancer cells. Mps... |
| Mps1 Inhibitor BOS172722 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of the serine/threonine-protein kinase monopolar spindle 1 (Mps1; TTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the Mps1 inhibitor BOS172722 binds to and inhibits the activity of Mps1, a core component of the spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC). Inhibition of Mps1 activity compromises spindle assembly checkpoint, increases chromosome missegregation errors and decreases cancer cell viability. Mps1, a dual-specificity protein kinase... |
| MPS1 Kinase Inhibitor NMS-01940153E | A selective inhibitor of the serine/threonine-protein kinase monopolar spindle 1 (Mps1; TTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, MPS1 kinase inhibitor NMS-01940153E targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Mps1, a core component of the spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC). Inhibition of Mps1 activity compromises the functioning of SAC, increases chromosome missegregation errors and decreases cancer cell viability. This inhibits tumor cell proliferation. Mps1, a du... |
| mRNA-based Personalized Cancer Vaccine NCI-4650 | An mRNA-based therapeutic personalized cancer vaccine (PCV) targeting up to fifteen tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) that are specifically expressed by a patient's cancer cells, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. The cells from the patient's tumor are analyzed and subjected to RNA sequencing to identify mutant and immunogenic epitopes. The neoantigen epitopes are screened to select those that induce a strong immune response in tumor- infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs... |
| mRNA-based TriMix Melanoma Vaccine ECI-006 | A melanoma vaccine consisting of mRNAs encoding five different melanoma tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) and a TriMix platform comprised of three mRNAs encoding for constitutively activated toll-like receptor 4 (caTLR4), CD40 ligand (CD40L), and CD70, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intranodal injection, mRNA based TriMix vaccine ECI-006 may stimulate the immune system to mount both humoral and cellular responses against tumor cells expressing the five TAAs... |
| mRNA-derived IDO/PD-L1-targeted Vaccine mRNA-4359 | A mRNA-based cancer vaccine that targets the immunomodulatory enzyme indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase (IDO; IDO1) and the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and immune checkpoint molecule programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration, the mRNA-derived IDO/PD-L1-targeted vaccine mRNA-4359 is taken up and translated by antigen presenting cells (APCs). Following translation, the epitopes are presented via major ... |
| mRNA-derived KRAS-targeted Vaccine V941 | A lipid nanoparticle (LNP)-formulated mRNA-based cancer vaccine that targets four of the most commonly occurring KRAS mutations (G12D, G12V, G13D, and G12C), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, the mRNA-derived KRAS-targeted vaccine V941 (mRNA-5671) is taken up and translated by antigen presenting cells (APCs). Following translation, the epitopes are presented via major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on the surface of the APCs. This le... |
| mRNA-derived Lung Cancer Vaccine BI 1361849 | A non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) vaccine containing six modified mRNAs, which encode six different NSCLC associated antigens, with potential antitumor and immunomodulatory activities. Upon intradermal administration, mRNA-derived lung cancer vaccine BI 1361849 may stimulate the immune system to mount both humoral and cellular responses against NSCLC cells. The six tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) encoded by these mRNAs are frequently expressed by NSCLC cells and are minimally expressed or... |
| mRNA-Derived Prostate Cancer Vaccine CV9103 | A prostate cancer vaccine containing mRNAs encoding prostate specific antigen (PSA), prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA), prostate stem cell antigen (PSCA) and six-transmembrane epithelial antigen of the prostate (STEAP), with potential antitumor activity. Upon administration, mRNA-derived prostate cancer vaccine CV9103 may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte response (CTL) against PSA-, PSMA-, PSCA- and STEAP-expressing prostate tumor cells. The mRNA used in t... |
| mRNA-derived Prostate Cancer Vaccine CV9104 | A prostate cancer vaccine containing six messenger RNAs (mRNAs) encoding for antigens upregulated in prostate cancer, including mRNAs for prostate specific antigen (PSA), prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA), prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP), and mucin 1 (MUC1), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon intradermal administration of mRNA-derived prostate cancer vaccine CV9104, this agent enters cells, the mRNAs are translated into the respective prostate specifi... |
| mRNA-encoded Anti-CD3/Anti-CLDN6 Bispecific Antibody BNT142 | A lipid nanoparticle (LNP) encapsulating nucleoside-modified messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding for bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 6 (CLDN6; CLDN-6) and the human T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, mRNA-encoded anti-CD3/anti-CLDN6 bispecific antibody BNT142 binds to the plasma membrane of cells and releases the mRNA into the cells. The mRNA is translated and the anti-CD3/a... |
| mRNA-encoded Anti-Claudin18.2 Monoclonal Antibody BNT141 | A lipid nanoparticle (LNP) encapsulating a messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding for a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, mRNA-encoded anti-claudin18.2 monoclonal antibody BNT141 binds to the plasma membrane of cells and releases the mRNA into the cells. The mRNA is then translated by ribosomes to produce the anti-CLDN18.2 monoclon... |
| MTF-1 Inhibitor APTO-253 HCl | The hydrochloride salt of a small molecule inhibitor of human metal-regulatory transcription factor 1 (MTF-1) with potential antitumor activity. MTF-1 inhibitor APTO-253 inhibits MTF-1 activity and thereby induces the expression of MTF-1 dependent tumor suppressor factor Kruppel like factor 4 (KLF4). This subsequently leads to the downregulation of cyclin D1, blocking cell cycle progression and proliferation. This agent also causes decreased expression of genes involved in tumor hypoxia and a... |
| mTOR Inhibitor GDC-0349 | An orally bioavailable, ATP-competitive, tetrahydroquinazoline (THQ)-based inhibitor of the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, GDC-0349 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of mTOR, which may result in both the induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. mTOR, a serine/threonine kinase belonging to the phosphatidylinositol-3 (PI3K) kinase-related kinase (PIKK) family, plays an important ... |
| mTOR Kinase Inhibitor AZD8055 | An inhibitor of the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) with potential antineoplastic activity. mTOR kinase inhibitor AZD8055 inhibits the serine/threonine kinase activity of mTOR, resulting in decreased expression of mRNAs necessary for cell cycle progression, which may induce cell cycle arrest and tumor cell apoptosis. mTOR phosphorylates transcription factors, such as S6K1 and 4E-BP1, which stimulate protein synthesis and regulate cell growth, proliferation, motility, and survival. |
| mTOR Kinase Inhibitor CERC-006 | An orally bioavailable mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) kinase inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mTOR kinase inhibitor CERC-006 binds to and inhibits both the raptor-mTOR (TOR complex 1 or TORC1) and the rictor-mTOR (TOR complex 2 or TORC2) complexes of mTOR, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. mTOR is a serine/threonine kinase that is upregulated in some tumors and plays an important role downstre... |
| mTOR1/2 Kinase Inhibitor ME-344 | An active metabolite of NV-128, a novel flavonoid small molecule inhibitor of the mammalian Target of Rapamycin (mTOR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, mTOR1/2 Kinase inhibitor ME-344 downregulates the PIK3/AKT/mTOR pathway and results in chromatin condensation in the absence of caspase activation. Consequently, this agent induces caspase-independent cell death in tumor cells with a de-regulated PIK3/AKT/mTOR pathway or chemotherapeutic resistant cells. |
| mTORC 1/2 Inhibitor LXI-15029 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of raptor-mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) complex 1 (mTOR complex 1; mTORC1) and rictor-mTOR complex 2 (mTOR complex 2; mTORC2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mTORC1/2 inhibitor LXI-15029 binds to the kinase domain of mTOR and inhibits both mTORC1 and mTORC2, in an ATP-competitive manner. This inhibits mTOR-mediated signaling and leads to both an induction of apoptosis and a decrease in the proliferation of mTORC1/2-exp... |
| mTORC1 Kinase Inhibitor RMC-5552 | A bi-steric inhibitor of the raptor-mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) complex 1 (mTOR complex 1; mTORC1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, mTORC1 kinase inhibitor RMC-5552 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the serine/threonine kinase activity of mTORC1, resulting in decreased expression of mRNAs necessary for cell cycle progression, which may induce cell cycle arrest and tumor cell apoptosis. mTORC1 phosphorylates transcription factors, such as ribosoma... |
| mTORC1/2 Kinase Inhibitor BI 860585 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of raptor-mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) complex 1 (mTOR complex 1; mTORC1) and rictor-mTOR complex 2 (mTOR complex 2; mTORC2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mTORC1/2 kinase inhibitor BI 860585 binds to the kinase domain of mTOR and inhibits both mTORC1 and mTORC2, in an ATP-competitive manner. This inhibits mTOR-mediated signaling and leads to both an induction of apoptosis and a decrease in the proliferation of mTORC... |
| mtRTK Inhibitor WM-S1-030 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mutant receptor tyrosine kinase (mtRTK; pTyr-mtRTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mtRTK inhibitor WM-S1-030 targets and binds to mtRTK, thereby inhibiting mtRTK-mediated signaling pathways. This inhibits proliferation of tumor cells expressing mtRTK. |
| MUC-1 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of a synthetic peptide derived from the mucin 1 (MUC1) antigen with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, MUC1 peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for the MUC1 antigen, resulting in decreased tumor growth. Overexpressed on many tumor cells, MUC1 antigen, a mammary-type apomucin, is a high-molecular-weight transmembrane glycoprotein. |
| MUC1 Peptide-Poly-ICLC Vaccine | A vaccine preparation containing mucus 1 (MUC1) peptide and the adjuvant poly-ICLC with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MUC1 peptide-poly-ICLC adjuvant vaccine may induce the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T cell response against MUC1-expressing tumor cells. MUC1, a tumor associated antigen normally present on the lining of the human colon, may be overexpressed and/or mutated in a variety of cancer cell types. The adjuvant poly-ICLC, a ... |
| MUC-1/WT1 Peptide-primed Autologous Dendritic Cells | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous monocyte-derived dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with the human tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) mucin-1 (MUC1) and Wilms tumor protein 1 (WT1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, the MUC-1/WT1 peptide-primed autologous DCs expose the immune system to MUC1 and WT1 peptides and may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against MUC1 and WT1-expressing cancer ... |
| MUC1-KLH Conjugate Vaccine | A peptide vaccine, containing human tumor-associated epithelial mucin (MUC1) conjugated with keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with MUC1-KLH conjugate vaccine may stimulate humoral and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) responses against tumor cells expressing the MUC1 antigen. In this vaccine, MUC1 antigen is conjugated with KLH, an immunostimulant and a hapten carrier, to enhance immune recognition. MUC1 antigen, a membrane-bound glycoprotein exp... |
| MUC1-KLH Vaccine/QS21 | A peptide vaccine containing the human tumor-associated antigen epithelial mucin (MUC1 antigen) conjugated with keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH) and combined with the nonspecific immunoadjuvant QS21, with potential antineoplastic activity.  MUC1 antigen is linked with KLH, an immunostimulant and a hapten carrier, in order to enhance immune recognition; the co-administration of saponin-derived QS21 potentially amplifies the total immune response to the MUC1 antigen.  Administration of MUC1-KLH ... |
| MUC1-targeted Peptide GO-203-2C | An optimized small peptide drug candidate targeting epithelial mucin (MUC1) with antineoplastic activity. MUC1-targeted peptide GO-203-2C interacts with oncoprotein MUC1 C-terminal subunit on the cell surface, thereby impeding cell-cell interactions, signaling, and metastasis. MUC1 antigen, a membrane bound glycoprotein expressed by most glandular and ductal epithelial cells, is over-expressed in many diverse human carcinomas including those of the breast, prostate, lung, colon, pancreas, and... |
| MUC-2-KLH Vaccine | A peptide vaccine containing human mucin 2 (MUC2) protein conjugated with keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential antineoplastic activity. MUC2, a secretory or gel forming glycoprotein expressed predominantly in goblet cells of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts, is overexpressed as an aberrant or deglycosylated form in various tumors such as gastric carcinomas and some hormone-refractory prostate cancers. MUC2 protein is conjugated with KLH, an immunostimulant and a hapten c... |
| Mucoadhesive Paclitaxel Formulation | An orally available, mucoadhesive lipid preparation consisting of paclitaxel, a compound extracted from the Pacific yew tree Taxus brevifolia, in a formulation that is comprised of a mixture of monoolein, tricarprylin, and Tween 80, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, DHP107 forms droplets and micelles in the intestine; these adhere to mucoepithelial cells in the gastrointestinal tract and are absorbed through lipid-based uptake mechanisms. Upon absorption, pacli... |
| Mulnitorsen | A proprietary antisense oligonucleotide targeting a novel non-coding mitochondrial RNA (ncmtRNA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, mulnitorsen binds to ncmtRNA, which is overexpressed in rapidly proliferating cells, such as cancer cells, and not expressed in resting cells. This may decrease the expression of the ncmtRNA, which may inhibit cell proliferation and eventually induce apoptosis in susceptible cancer cells. The proprietary mitochondrial RNA (mtRNA) belong... |
| Multi-AGC Kinase Inhibitor AT13148 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of AGC group kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. AT13148 inhibits, in an ATP-competitive manner, the enzymatic activity of two AGC kinases, protein kinase B (PKB or AKT) and p70S6K which play key roles in the PI3K/PKB/mTOR signaling pathway. Blockade of this pathway leads to an inhibition of cell growth and the induction of apoptosis in susceptible tumor cells. PI3K/PKB/mTOR pathway is dysregulated in greater than 50% of tumors, and i... |
| Multi-epitope Anti-folate Receptor Peptide Vaccine TPIV 200 | A peptide vaccine containing five immunogenic peptide epitopes of the human folate receptor 1 (FOLR1; FR-alpha), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration, multi-epitope anti-folate receptor peptide vaccine TPIV 200 may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against FR-alpha-overexpressing tumor cells. FR-alpha is a high-affinity folate-binding protein and a member of the folate receptor family; this receptor is overexpressed in var... |
| Multi-epitope Folate Receptor Alpha Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine containing five immunogenic peptide epitopes of the human folate receptor alpha (FR alpha or FOLR1), including FR30, FR56, FR76, FR113, and FR238, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the multi-epitope FR alpha peptide vaccine may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against FR alpha-overexpressing tumor cells. FR alpha is a high-affinity folate-binding protein and a member of the folate receptor family; this receptor is... |
| Multi-epitope Folate Receptor Alpha-loaded Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based vaccine composed of autologous-monocyte-derived dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with five immunogenic peptide epitopes, derived from the tumor-associated antigen human folate receptor alpha (FR alpha or FOLR1), including FR30, FR56, FR76, FR113, and FR238, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activity. Ex vivo treatment of the DCs with a p38 inhibitor decreases p38-mediated signaling and enhances ERK activation. This may allow, upon intradermal administration of the mu... |
| Multi-epitope HER2 Peptide Vaccine H2NVAC | A peptide vaccine containing four immunogenic epitopes derived from the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; HER-2; ErbB2; Neu), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration, multi-epitope HER2 peptide vaccine H2NVAC may induce a helper T-cell mediated immune response against HER2-overexpressing tumor cells. This may result in long-term immunopotentiation against HER2-expressing tumor cells by increasi... |
| Multi-epitope HER2 Peptide Vaccine TPIV100 | A cancer peptide vaccine comprised of four peptides derived from the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) HER-2/neu (ErbB-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the multi-epitope HER2 peptide vaccine TPIV100, the four peptides may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells expressing the HER-2/neu antigen, which may result in the inhibition of proliferation in Her-2/neu-expressing tumor cells. Her-2/neu, a me... |
| Multi-epitope Melanoma Peptide Vaccine | A peptide cancer vaccine consisting of a combination of peptides derived form several melanoma epitopes. Vaccination with multi-epitope melanoma peptide vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the corresponding antigens, resulting in tumor cell lysis.  This vaccine may stimulate a broader CTL response compared to single-antigen vaccines. (NCI04) |
| Multi-epitope TARP-pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine comprised of autologous dendritic cells pulsed with multiple antigenic peptides derived from T-cell receptor gamma-chain alternate reading frame protein (TARP), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration, multi-epitope (ME) TARP-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate anti-tumor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody responses against TARP-expressing cancer cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. ... |
| Multifunctional/Multitargeted Anticancer Agent OMN54 | An orally available, multivalent herbal formulation containing a novel mixture of whole extracts from three commonly used Chinese medicinal herbs Ganoderma lucidum (lingzhi mushroom), Salvia miltiorrhiza (Chinese sage, or danshen) and Scutellaria barbata (ban zhi lian), with potential immunomodulating, antiangiogenic, anti-inflammatory, antiproliferative and antiviral activities. Although the exact mechanism of action remains to be fully elucidated due to the complexity of the multiple phytoc... |
| Multi-glioblastoma-peptide-targeting Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine ICT-107 | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with six synthetic glioblastoma (GBM) peptides: absent in melanoma 2 (AIM-2), melanoma-associated antigen 1 (MAGE-1), tyrosinase-related protein 2 (TRP-2), glycoprotein 100 (gp100), epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER-2), interleukin-13 receptor subunit alpha-2 (IL-13Ra2), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Mononuclear cells obtained via leukapheresis are differentiated into DCs, a... |
| Multi-kinase Inhbitor AIV001 | A prolonged-release multi-kinase inhibitor, with potential anti-angiogenic, anti-fibrotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal or intratumoral administration, AIV001 targets and binds to several kinases, including vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR), and inhibits multiple pathways involved in neovascularization, fibrosis, abnormal cell proliferation and inflammation. This may reduce dermal neovascularization and fibroplasia during wound healing and scarring, reduce ... |
| Multikinase Inhibitor 4SC-203 | A multikinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Multikinase inhibitor 4SC-203 selectively inhibits FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3/STK1), FLT3 mutated forms, and vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs). This may result in the inhibition of angiogenesis and cell proliferation in tumor cells in which these kinases are upregulated. FLT3 (FLK2), a class III tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed or mutated in most B lineage and acute myeloid leukemias (AML). ... |
| Multikinase Inhibitor AEE788 | An orally bioavailable multiple-receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor. AEE788 inhibits phosphorylation of the tyrosine kinases of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGF2), resulting in receptor inhibition, the inhibition of cellular proliferation, and induction of tumor cell and tumor-associated endothelial cell apoptosis. (NCI05) |
| Multikinase Inhibitor AT9283 | A small synthetic molecule and aurora kinase (AK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. AT9283 selectively binds to and inhibits AKs A and B, which are serine-threonine kinases that play essential roles in mitotic checkpoint control during mitosis. Inhibition of these kinases results in an inhibition of cellular division and proliferation in tumor cells that overexpress AKs. |
| Multi-kinase Inhibitor LNK01002 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of three as of yet undisclosed kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, multi-kinase inhibitor LNK01002 inhibits the activity of the three as of yet undisclosed kinases. This may result in antitumor activity in tumor cells in which these kinases are upregulated or dysregulated. |
| Multikinase Inhibitor SAR103168 | A multikinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous infusion, multikinase inhibitor SAR103168 may, through the inhibition of multiple kinases, inhibit the phosphorylation and activation of signal transducer and activator of transcription 5 (STAT5). STAT5, a protein often upregulated in cancer cells, plays a key role in signal transduction pathways and the suppression of apoptosis. |
| Multi-kinase Inhibitor ST-1898 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of multiple receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, multi-kinase inhibitor ST-1898 inhibits the activity of multiple RTKs, which may include vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR-2; VEGFR2), hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; c-Met), AXL (UFO), platelet-derived growth factor receptor alpha (PDGFRa), rearranged during transfection (RET) and mast/stem cell factor rece... |
| Multi-kinase Inhibitor T-1301 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of multiple as of yet undisclosed kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, multi-kinase inhibitor T-1301 inhibits the activity of multiple as of yet undisclosed kinases. This may result in antitumor activity in tumor cells in which these kinases are upregulated or dysregulated. |
| Multi-mode Kinase Inhibitor EOC317 | An orally available, small molecule, multi-mode kinase inhibitor (MMKI), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, MMKI EOC317 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of a variety of kinases, such as phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K), and the receptor tyrosine kinases, fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR), angiopoietin-1 receptor (TIE 2), and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor-2 (VEGFR-2). This inhibition may result in an induction of apoptosis of s... |
| Multi-neo-epitope Vaccine OSE 2101 | A proprietary cancer DNA vaccine that contains multiple natural and modified epitopes derived from the four tumor associated antigens, CEA, HER2/neu, p53, and MAGE 2/3. EP-2101 also includes CAP1-6D, a heteroclitic CEA analog, and PADRE, a proprietary universal T-cell epitope that serves to enhance the immunogenicity of the epitopes.  This agent has been shown to elicit cytotoxic T-lymphocyte responses against tumor cells expressing these multiple epitopes. (NCI04) |
| Multi-peptide CMV-Modified Vaccinia Ankara Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of an inactivated, Modified Vaccinia Ankara (MVA) viral vector encoding three herpes virus cytomegalovirus (CMV) tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), including UL83 (pp65), UL123 (IE1) and UL122 (IE2), with potential immunostimulating activity. The viral peptides expressed after administration of the multi-peptide CMV-MVA vaccine, may stimulate the immune system to mount both cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) and helper T-cell responses against CMV-infected cells. This results in... |
| Multipeptide Vaccine S-588210 | A cancer vaccine composed of a combination of the injectable formulations S-488210, which contains the three HLA-A*02:01-restricted peptides up-regulated lung cancer 10 (lymphocyte antigen 6K; LY6K; URLC10), cell division cycle-associated protein 1 (kinetochore protein Nuf2; NUF2; CDCA1) and insulin-like growth factor 2 mRNA-binding protein 3 (IGF2BP3; KOC1) and S-488211, which contains the two HLA-A*02:01-restricted peptides DEP domain-containing protein 1A (DEPDC1) and M-phase phosphoprotei... |
| Multiple TAA-loaded Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A dendritic cell (DC) vaccine in which autologous DCs are loaded with multiple tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon re-infusion into the patient, the antigen-pulsed DCs stimulate the immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the TAA-expressing tumor cells. |
| Multi-subtype Natural Human Leukocyte Interferon Alpha | A preparation containing a mixture of multiple naturally occurring, active subtypes 1, 2, 8, 10, 14 and 21 of interferon alpha (IFN-alpha) with immunomodulating, anti-viral and anti-cancer activities. Multi-subtype natural human leukocyte IFN-alpha is purified from the leukocyte fraction of human blood challenged with Sendai virus. Upon administration, IFN-alpha subtypes bind to cell surface IFN-alpha receptors (IFNARs), resulting in an upregulation of interferon stimulated genes and related ... |
| Multitargeted Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor JNJ-26483327 | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule, multitargeted reversible tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Multitargeted tyrosine kinase inhibitor JNJ-26483327 binds to and inhibits several members of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family, including EGFR, HER2 and HER4; Src family kinases (Lyn, Yes, Fyn, Lck and Src); and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 3 (VEGFR3). By inhibiting several different signaling molecules that play crucial roles... |
| Mupadolimab | A type II humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, mupadolimab targets and binds to CD73 on tumor cells, leading to internalization of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of extracellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine, thereby preventing adenosi... |
| Muparfostat | A mixture of highly sulfated, monophosphorylated mannose oligosaccharides, derived from the extracellular phosphomannan of the yeast Pichia (Hansenula) holstii, with potential antiangiogenic activity. Muparfostat inhibits the endo-beta-D-glucuronidase heparanase, which may interfere with the heparanase-mediated degradation of heparan-sulfate proteoglycans in extracellular matrices, an important step in the metastatic process. This agent may also bind with high affinity to the heparan sulfate-... |
| Mureletecan | A water-soluble prodrug, consisting of camptothecin covalently linked to polymeric backbone methacryloylglycynamide, with potential antineoplastic activity. After entering tumor cells, the active moiety camptothecin is slowly released from mureletecan via hydrolysis of the ester linkage. Camptothecin, an alkaloid isolated from the Chinese tree Camptotheca acuminata, binds to and stabilizes the topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complex. This inhibits the religation of topoisomerase I-mediated singl... |
| Murine TYRP2 Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A plasmid DNA vaccine encoding the mouse tumor associated antigen tyrosinase-related protein-2 (TYRP2) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, murine TYRP2 plasmid DNA vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing TYRP2; this vaccine may also induce an immune response against tyrosinase-related protein-1 (TYRP1). TYRP2 and TYRP1, melanosomal membrane glycoproteins upregu... |
| Murizatoclax | An inhibitor of induced myeloid leukemia cell differentiation protein (myeloid cell leukemia-1; Mcl-1; Bcl2-L-3), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MCL-1 inhibitor AMG 397 targets and binds to Mcl-1, thereby preventing the binding of Mcl-1 to and inactivation of certain pro-apoptotic proteins. This promotes apoptosis of cells overexpressing Mcl-1. Mcl-1, an anti-apoptotic protein belonging to the B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2) family of proteins, is u... |
| Muscadine Grape Extract | An extract derived from the Muscadine grape (Vitis rotundifolia), with potential anti-inflammatory, antioxidant, anti-lipidemic and chemopreventive activities. The muscadine grape extract (MGE) contains numerous phytochemicals including hydrolyzable tannins and flavonoids, such as resveratrol, anthocyanin 3,5-diglucosides, quercetin, ellagic acid, myricetin, and kaempferol glycosides. Upon administration, the active components in the MGE scavenge free radicals, protect against oxidation of lo... |
| Muscadine Grape Skin Extract | A nutritional supplement containing an extract of the skin of Muscadine grape (Vitis rotundifolia), with anti-inflammatory, antioxidant and potential chemopreventive activities. The skin extract of the muscadine grape contains numerous phytochemicals including hydrolyzable tannins and flavonoids, such as anthocyanin 3,5-diglucosides, quercetin, myricetin, and kaempferol glycosides. Upon administration, muscadine grape skin extract (MSKE) appears to inhibit PI3K/Akt and MAPK signaling, eventua... |
| Mutant p53 Activator COTI-2 | An orally available third generation thiosemicarbazone and activator of mutant forms of the p53 protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mutant p53 activator COTI-2 targets and binds to the misfolded mutant forms of the p53 protein, which induces a conformational change that normalizes p53 and restores its activity. This induces apoptosis in tumor cells in which the p53 protein is mutated. In addition, COTI-2 inhibits the activation of Akt2 and prevents the a... |
| Mutant p53 Peptide Pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells which have been pulsed with a mutant p53 peptide. Vaccination with mutant p53 peptide pulsed dendritic cells may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing mutant p53, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Many tumor cells overexpress mutant p53 proteins, resulting in the loss of apoptosis regulation and abnormal cell proliferation. (NCI04) |
| Mutant-selective EGFR Inhibitor BDTX-1535 | An orally bioavailable, brain penetrating, mutant-selective, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mutant-selective EGFR inhibitor BDTX-1535 selectively targets, irreversibly binds to, and inhibits the activity of various EGFR alterations and mutations, including certain intrinsic and acquired resistance mutations. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling in susceptible tumor cells. This may both induce cell death and... |
| Mutant-selective EGFR Inhibitor JIN-A02 | An orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, fourth-generation epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mutant-selective EGFR inhibitor JIN-A02 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of certain EGFR mutations, specifically double and triple mutations containing C797S mutations, including the double mutations Ex19Del/C797S and L858R/C797S, and the Ex19Del/T790M/C797S triple mutation. This prevents EGFR-mediated sign... |
| Mutant-selective EGFR Inhibitor PF-06459988 | An orally available, small molecule, third-generation, irreversible inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutant (EGFRm) forms with potential antineoplastic activity. EGFR inhibitor PF-06459988 specifically binds to and inhibits mutant forms of EGFR, including the secondary acquired resistance mutation T790M, which prevents EGFR-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFRm-expressing tumor cells. Compared to some other EGFR inhibitors, PF-06459988 may have therapeutic be... |
| Mutant-selective EGFR Inhibitor TAS3351 | A fourth-generation, orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mutant-selective EGFR inhibitor TAS3351 targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of various EGFR common mutant forms, such as the exon 19 deletion (ex19del) or the L858R point mutation, with or without the resistance mutations T790M and/or C797S, while sparing wild type EGFR activity. This prevents EGFR-mediated si... |
| Mutant-selective PI3K-alpha H1047R Inhibitor LOXO-783 | An orally bioavailable, brain penetrative, selective irriversible inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (phosphoinositide 3-kinase alpha; PIK3CA; PI3K p110alpha) mutant H1047R, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mutant-selective PI3K-alpha H1047R inhibitor LOXO-783 selectively targets and allosterically binds to the PIK3CA mutated form PI3Ka H1047R, thereby preventing the activity of the H1047R mut... |
| Mutant-selective PI3K-alpha H1047R Inhibitor OKI-219 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (phosphoinositide 3-kinase alpha; PIK3CA; PI3K p110alpha) mutant H1047R, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mutant-selective PI3K-alpha H1047R inhibitor OKI-219 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the PIK3CA mutant PI3Ka H1047R. This prevents PIK3CA H1047R-mediated activation of the PI3K/Akt (protein kinase B)/mamma... |
| Mutant-selective PI3K-alpha H1047X Inhibitor STX-478 | An orally bioavailable, brain penetrative, selective inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (phosphoinositide 3-kinase alpha; PIK3CA; PI3K p110alpha) mutant H1047X, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mutant-selective PI3K-alpha H1047X inhibitor STX-478 selectively targets and allosterically binds to the PIK3CA mutated form PIK3CA H1047X, thereby preventing the activity of the H1047X mutant. This pre... |
| Mutant-selective PI3K-alpha Inhibitor BPI-21668 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA; PI3K p110alpha) mutant(s), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PI3K-alpha inhibitor BPI-21668 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of PIK3CA mutant(s), in the PI3K/Akt (protein kinase B)/mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) pathway. This results in both apoptosis and growth inhibition in PIK3CA m... |
| Muzastotug | A human monoclonal antibody with a masked antibody binding site directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration and the activation of the antibody binding site in the tumor microenvironment (TME), muzastotug targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activatio... |
| MVA Tumor-specific Neoantigen Boosting Vaccine MVA-209-FSP | An off-the-shelf neoantigen boosting vaccine comprised of a modified Vaccinia virus Ankara (MVA) encoding tumor-specific neoantigens (TSNAs) derived from the same as of yet undisclosed frameshift peptides (FSPs) targeted by the priming vaccine, great ape adenoviral tumor-specific neoantigen priming vaccine GAd-209-FSP, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Following intramuscular administration of the priming vaccine GAd-209-FSP, the booster MVA tumor-specific neoant... |
| MVA-BN Smallpox Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of modified vaccinia Ankara-Bavarian Nordic (MVA-BN), a live, attenuated, non-replicating, proprietary version of the MVA virus, used for the prevention of smallpox and monkeypox, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral administration, MVA-BN smallpox vaccine may induce both cellular and humoral immune responses, which may lead to tumor cell lysis. |
| MVA-BN-Brachyury-TRICOM Vaccine | A cancer priming vaccine consisting of a proprietary version of the recombinant vaccinia viral vector, modified vaccinia Ankara-Bavarian Nordic (MVA-BN), encoding the human transcription factor and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) brachyury, and a triad of T-cell co-stimulatory molecules (TRICOM), which is comprised of the three human immune-enhancing co-stimulatory molecules B7-1, ICAM-1 and LFA-3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration... |
| MVA-EBNA1/LMP2 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant modified vaccinia Ankara (MVA) viral vector encoding the gene for the CD4 epitope-rich C-terminal domain of the Epstein Barr Virus (EBV) antigen EBNA1 and fused to the full-length of the EBV-associated antigen latent membrane protein 2 (LMP2), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MVA EBNA1/LMP2 vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T-cell immune response against cancer cells expressing EBNA1 and LMP2. Multi-... |
| MVA-FCU1 TG4023 | A cancer vaccine comprised of a recombinant modified vaccinia Ankara (MVA) viral vector encoding the suicide gene FCU1 with potential antineoplastic activity. FCU1 is a bifunctional yeast cytosine deaminase (CD) / uracil phosphoribosyltransferase (UPRT) fusion gene. Upon intratumoral administration, MVA-FCU1TG4023 enters tumor cells where FCU1 is expressed. Subsequently, the noncytotoxic prodrug 5-fluorocytosine (5-FC) is administered systemically and is deaminated by CD in FCU1- transduced t... |
| MVA-PSA/PAP Prostate Cancer Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant modified vaccinia Ankara (MVA) viral vector encoding genes for prostate specific antigen (PSA) and prostate acid phosphatase (PAP) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MVA-PSA-PAP prostate cancer vaccine expresses PSA and PAP peptides, which may elicit humoral and cellular immune responses against prostate cancer cells expressing PSA and PAP. Multi-antigen vaccine therapy may be more efficacious than ... |
| MVA-PSA/PAP/STEAP1/5T4 Prostate Cancer Vaccine MVA-PCAQ | A cancer vaccine consisting of recombinant replication-deficient modified vaccinia Ankara (MVA) viral vector encoding genes for the prostate cancer-associated antigens prostate-specific antigen (PSA), prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP), six-transmembrane epithelial antigen of the prostate 1 (STEAP1), and 5T4 oncofetal antigen, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MVA-PSA/PAP/STEAP1/5T4 prostate cancer vaccine MVA-PCAQ expresses PSA, PAP, STEAP1 an... |
| MVF-HER-2(597-626)/MVF-HER-2 (266-296) Peptide Vaccine | A combination peptide vaccine of 2 chimeric peptides of the promiscuous T cell epitope derived from measles virus fusion protein (MVF; amino acid residues 288-302) co-synthesized with B-cell epitopes derived from the HER-2/neu a.a. 597-626 and HER-2/neu a.a. 266-296, with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with MVF-HER-2(597-626)/MVF-HER-2(266-296) peptide vaccine may be capable of inducing an active specific immune response, mounting a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response and an... |
| MVF-HER-2(628-647)-CRL 1005 Vaccine | A chimeric peptide immunogen of human epidermal growth factor-2 (HER-2) with antineoplastic property. HER-2 protein is a receptor tyrosine kinase and a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) that is overexpressed in a variety of cancers. MVF-HER-2(628-647)-CRL 1005 vaccine, coated with poloxamer CRL-1005 to form microparticles, consists of a mutated HER-2 B-cell epitope, HER-2(628-647), and a promiscuous T cell epitope (amino acid sequence 288-302) of the measles virus fusion protein (MVF). Vaccinati... |
| MVX-1-loaded Macrocapsule/autologous Tumor Cell Vaccine MVX-ONCO-1 | A two-component, anti-cancer vaccine containing irradiated tumor cells from a patient, and a capsule implanted with a genetically modified allogeneic cell line that continuously releases granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immune-protective and -boosting activities. Upon subcutaneous injection of MVX-1-loaded macrocapsule/autologous tumor cell vaccine MVX-ONCO-1, the GM-CSF-secreting allogeneic cell capsules and the autologous irradiated cells isolated fr... |
| Myc Inhibitor OMO-103 | A peptide inhibitor of the proto-oncogene Myc, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Myc inhibitor OMO-103 enters cells, reaches the nucleus and inhibits Myc. This may inhibit tumor cell growth and proliferation. Myc, a proto-oncogene dysregulated in a variety of cancers, plays a role in the regulation of transcription and cell proliferation. |
| Myc Inhibitor WBC100 | An inhibitor of the proto-oncogene Myc (c-Myc), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Myc inhibitor WBC100 targets and and inhibits Myc. This may inhibit proliferation in susceptible tumor cells. Myc, a proto-oncogene dysregulated in a variety of cancers, plays a role in the regulation of transcription and cell proliferation. |
| Mycobacterial Cell Wall-DNA Complex | A proprietary preparation of mycobacterial DNA oligonucleotides embedded in mycobacterial cell wall fragments derived from cultures of Mycobacterium phlei, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. DNA oligonucleotides in the mycobacterial cell wall-DNA complex (MCC) are capable of inducing apoptosis by increasing BAX protein levels, releasing cytochrome C from mitochondria, and activating caspase-3 and -7. This leads to the cleavage of poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase and th... |
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis Arabinomannan Z-100 | An extract from Mycobacterium tuberculosis (M. tuberculosis) containing the polysaccharide arabinomannan, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration of M. tuberculosis arabinomannan Z-100, this agent may activate the immune system by increasing the expression of various cytokines, such as interferon-gamma (IFNg) and interleukin-12. This inhibits the activity of suppressor T-cells, increases T helper 1 cell (Th1) activity and may restore the balance between Th1/Th2 cells. A... |
| Mycobacterium w | An attenuated strain of Mycobacterium w, a non-pathogenic, rapidly growing, atypical mycobacterium, with non-specific immunopotentiating properties. In addition to sharing a number of common B and T cell determinants with Mycobacterium leprae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium w (Mw) also shares an immunogenic determinant with prostate specific antigen (PSA). In vitro and in vivo studies have shown that heat-killed Mw can induce significant T-cell responses. This agent may induce h... |
| Mycophenolic Acid | An antineoplastic antibiotic derived from various Penicillium fungal species.  Mycophenolic acid is an active metabolite of the prodrug mycophenolate mofetil.  Mycophenolic acid inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH), preventing the formation of guanosine monophosphate and synthesis of lymphocyte DNA that results in inhibition of lymphocyte proliferation, antibody production, cellular adhesion, and migration of T and B lymphocytes.  Mycophenolic acid also has antibacterial, anti... |
| MYC-targeting siRNA DCR-MYC | A lipid nanoparticle-based formulation consisting of small-interfering RNAs (siRNAs) directed against the oncogene c-Myc encapsulated in lipids with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of MYC-targeting siRNA DCR-MYC, the lipid formulation promotes the uptake by tumor cells where the siRNAs moieties are subsequently released. The siRNAs bind to c-Myc mRNAs, which may result in the inhibition of translation and expression of the c-Myc protein and leads to growth i... |
| Myeloid Cell Leukemia 1 Inhibitor PRT1419 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein myeloid cell leukemia 1 (MCL1; induced myeloid leukemia cell differentiation protein; myeloid cell leukemia-1; Mcl-1; Bcl2-L-3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the MCL1 inhibitor PRT1419 targets and binds to MCL1. This prevents the binding of MCL1 to and inactivation of certain pro-apoptotic proteins. This promotes apoptosis of cells overexpressing MCL1. MCL1, an anti-apoptotic protein belonging ... |
| Myeloma Ig Id-KLH Conjugate Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of myeloma-specific immunoglobulin conjugated to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), an immune stimulant, with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination with myeloma Ig Id-KLH conjugate vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against myeloma cells, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| N-(5-tert-butyl-3-isoxazolyl)-N-(4-(4-pyridinyl)oxyphenyl) Urea | An orally available isoxazole urea with potential anti-tumor activity.  In preclinical trials, N-(5-tert-butyl-3-isoxazolyl)-N-(4-(4-pyridinyl)oxyphenyl)urea inhibited raf kinase, an enzyme capable of reversing the phenotype of ras-transformed cells and blocking tumor growth. (NCI) |
| N,N-Dibenzyl Daunomycin | The N-alkylated analogue of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic daunomycin.  N,N-Dibenzyl Daunomycin interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and promoting DNA fragmentation.  This agent is less cardiotoxic than daunomycin. (NCI04) |
| NA17.A2 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide cancer vaccine comprised of human leukocyte antigen HLA-A2-restricted peptide derived from a metastatic melanoma cell line of patient NA17, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. NA17.A2 peptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumors that express this antigen, which may result in a reduction in tumor size. This NA17 specific antigen, encoded by an intron sequence of N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase V (GnT-V) gene, is express... |
| NA-17/MAGE-3.A2/NY-ESO-1 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide cancer vaccine consisting of peptides derived from the melanoma antigen NA-17, the human leukocyte antigen HLA-A2-restricted human melanoma antigen 3 (MAGE-3.A2) and the cancer-testis antigen (NY-ESO-1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the NA-17/MAGE-3.A2/NY-ESO-1 peptide vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing NA-17, MAGE-3.A2 and NY-ESO-1, resulting in tum... |
| NA17-A Antigen | A specific melanoma antigen protein derived from a patient (NA17) with cutaneous melanoma metastases. When administered in a vaccine formulation, NA17-A antigen may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumors that express this antigen, which may result in a reduction in tumor size. The NA17-A antigen is part of the enzyme N-acetyl glucosaminyltransferase V (GnT-V). Approximately half of melanomas have been found to express significant levels of this atypical protein, whic... |
| Nab-paclitaxel | A Cremophor EL-free, albumin-stabilized nanoparticle formulation of the natural taxane paclitaxel with antineoplastic activity. Paclitaxel binds to and stabilizes microtubules, preventing their depolymerization and so inhibiting cellular motility, mitosis, and replication. This formulation solubilizes paclitaxel without the use of the solvent Cremophor, thereby permitting the administration of larger doses of paclitaxel while avoiding the toxic effects associated with Cremophor. |
| Nab-paclitaxel/Danburstotug Complex AP160 | A formulation composed of nanoparticle albumin-bound (nab) paclitaxel, which is an albumin-stabilized nanoparticle containing the natural taxane paclitaxel, complexed with danburstotug, a human monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of nab-paclitaxel/danburstotug complex AP160, the danburstotug moiety specifically binds to PD-L... |
| Nab-paclitaxel/Rituximab-coated Nanoparticle AR160 | A formulation composed of nanoparticle albumin-bound (nab) paclitaxel, which is an albumin-stabilized nanoparticle containing the natural taxane paclitaxel, non-covalently coated with rituximab, a recombinant chimeric murine/human antibody directed against the CD20 antigen found on B-lymphocytes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of nab-paclitaxel/rituximab nanoparticle AR160, the rituximab moiety specifically binds to CD20 and targets this formulation to CD20-positi... |
| Nadofaragene Firadenovec | A replication-deficient recombinant adenovirus encoding human interferon alpha-2b with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravesical administration, nadofaragene firadenovec infects nearby tumor cells and expresses INF alpha-2b intracellularly which activates the transcription and translation of genes whose products mediate antiviral, antiproliferative, antitumor, and immune-modulating effects. |
| Nadravaleucel | A preparation of allogeneic, nicotinamide (NAM)-expanded natural killer (NK) cells, with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nadravaleucel may lyse cancer cells. These cells also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines, which further stimulate an anti-tumor immune response. Ex-vivo treatment with the vitamin B3 derivative NAM increases the in-vivo homing, retention and proliferation potential of the NK cells. |
| Nagrestipen | A recombinant form of a human macrophage inflammatory protein-1 alpha (MIP1-alpha) with a substitution of aspartate to alanine at position 26, with potential immunomodulating and radiotherapy potentiating activity. Intravenous administration of nagrestipen after local tumor irradiation enhances the anti-tumor effect of ionizing radiation at the irradiated site as well as the antitumor effect at non-irradiated tumor sites (known as the abscopal effect). The abscopal effect appears to be attrib... |
| Namirotene | A synthetic analogue of retinoic acid with differentiation inducing and potential antineoplastic activities. Like other retinoic acid agents, namirotene binds to and activates retinoic acid receptors (RARs), thereby altering the expression of certain genes leading to cell differentiation and decreased cell proliferation in susceptible cells. |
| Namodenoson | An orally bioavailable, synthetic, highly selective adenosine A3 receptor (A3AR) agonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Namodenoson selectively binds to and activates the cell surface-expressed A3AR, deregulating Wnt and NF-kB signal transduction pathways downstream, which may result in apoptosis of A3AR-expressing tumor cells. A3AR, a G protein-coupled receptor, is highly expressed on the cell surfaces of various solid tumor cell types, including hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) cells... |
| NAMPT Inhibitor OT-82 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)-synthesizing enzyme nicotinamide phosphoribosyltransferase (NAMPT; NAMPRTase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, NAMPT inhibitor OT-82 binds to and inhibits the activity of NAMPT. This depletes cellular NAD and inhibits NAD-dependent enzymes, both of which are needed for rapid cell proliferation; this results in cell death in NAMPT-overexpressing cancer cells. NAMPT,... |
| NAMPT Inhibitor STF-118804 | A small molecule inhibitor of the nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)-synthesizing enzyme nicotinamide phosphoribosyltransferase (NAMPT; NAMPRTase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, NAMPT inhibitor STF-118804 binds to and inhibits the activity of NAMPT. This depletes cellular NAD and inhibits NAD-dependent enzymes, both of which are needed for rapid cell proliferation, which may result in cell death in NAMPT-overexpressing tumor cells. NAMPT, an enzyme that is ... |
| Nanafrocin | A quinone antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces rosa var. notoensis with activity against gram-positive bacteria, mycoplasmas and fungi. Within an organism, nanaomycin A is first reduced by flavin or NADH dehydrogenase then rapidly autooxidized leading to the production of singlet molecular oxygen (O2-). The increase in intracellular O2- results in inhibition of DNA, RNA and cell-wall peptidoglycan synthesis. Further, nanaomycin A may have antineoplastic properties resulting from a reduction ... |
| Nanatinostat | An orally bioavailable, second-generation hydroxamic acid-based inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC), with potential antineoplastic activity. Nanatinostat targets and inhibits HDAC, resulting in an accumulation of highly acetylated histones, the induction of chromatin remodeling, and the selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes; these events result in the inhibition of tumor cell division and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. This agent may upregulate HSP70 and downregulate a... |
| Nanocell-encapsulated miR-16-based microRNA Mimic | A nanoparticle-based formulation composed of a microRNA 16 (miR-16) mimic, a double-stranded, 23 base pair, synthetic RNA molecule, encapsulated in nonliving bacterial minicells and coated with anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) antibodies, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration and subsequent transfection, nanocell-encapsulated miR-16-based microRNA mimic targets EGFR-expressing tumor cells and facilitates the restoration of expression of the miR-16... |
| Nanocurcumin | An orally bioavailable nanoparticle-based formulation containing curcumin, a poorly water-soluble phytopolylphenol pigment isolated from the plant Curcuma longa, commonly known as turmeric, with a variety of pharmacologic properties, including antineoplastic, chemopreventive, antioxidant, anti-angiogenic, neuroprotective and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon oral administration, nanocurcumin blocks the formation of reactive-oxygen species (ROS), neutralizes free radicals, and prevents oxidat... |
| Nanoparticle Albumin-Bound Docetaxel | A nanoparticle albumin-bound formulation of the taxane docetaxel with antineoplastic activity. Docetaxel is a semi-synthetic, second-generation taxane derived from a compound found in the European yew tree Taxus baccata. Docetaxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin, thereby inhibiting microtubule disassembly which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell death. This agent also inhibits pro-angiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and displays immunomodu... |
| Nanoparticle Albumin-bound Thiocolchicine Dimer nab-5404 | A nanoparticle albumin-bound formulation of a thiocolchicine dimer, an inhibitor of both microtubule and topoisomerase I (TOP1), with antineoplastic and vascular disrupting activities. Upon administration of nanoparticle albumin-bound thiocolchicine dimer nab-5404, this agent binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, which blocks mitotic spindle formation and leads to cell cycle arrest and tumor endothelial cell apoptosis. This disrupts the tumor vasculature and leads to tumor necrosi... |
| Nanoparticle Formulation CPI-300 | A nanoparticle-based formulation composed of a nanoscale coordination polymer (NCP) complex containing two as of yet undisclosed anti-tumor agents, with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, nanoparticle formulation CPI-300 delivers the anti-tumor agents to tumor cells, which may lead, through as of yet undisclosed mechanism of actions (MoAs), to specific tumor cell killing and inhibition of proliferation of tumor cells. |
| Nanoparticle Paclitaxel Ointment SOR007 | A topical ointment composed of the water-insoluble taxane paclitaxel that has been processed to form uncoated nanoparticles, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon topical administration of nanoparticle paclitaxel ointment SOR007 to the affected area, and following epithelial and dermal penetration, paclitaxel binds to tubulin and inhibits the disassembly of microtubules, which leads to the inhibition of cell division, thereby halting the proliferation of rapidly-dividing tumor cells. T... |
| Nanoparticle-based Paclitaxel Suspension | A nanoparticle-based suspension containing the water-insoluble taxane paclitaxel, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intraperitoneal administration, paclitaxel binds to tubulin and inhibits the disassembly of microtubules, which leads to the inhibition of cell division. The nanoparticle-based formulation is devoid of toxic solvents, such as cremophor; therefore, this agent has fewer side effects than the standard, solvent-based paclitaxel formulation. |
| Nanoparticle-encapsulated Doxorubicin Hydrochloride | A formulation of nanoparticles encapsulating the hydrochloride salt form of the anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin, with potential antitumor activity. Upon intravenous administration, doxorubicin intercalates DNA, interferes with the activity of topoisomerase II, and causes DNA adducts and other DNA damage, resulting in tumor cell growth inhibition and apoptosis. This agent also interacts with cell membrane lipids causing lipid peroxidation. Delivery of doxorubicin in nanoparticles may impr... |
| Nanoparticles Encapsulating TLR7 Agonist 1v270 MBS8 | A micelle nanoparticle formulation composed of the Toll-Like receptor 7 (TLR7) agonist phospholipid conjugate 1v270 encapsulated within 1,2-Dioleoyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoethanolamine (DOPE)-polyethylene glycol (PEG)-2000, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon intravenous administration of the nanoparticles encapsulating TLR7 agonist 1v270 MBS8, the TLR7 agonist targets, binds to and activates TLR7, thereby stimulating dendritic cells (DCs) and neutrophils, and enhancing natural kille... |
| Nanoplexed Poly I:C BO-112 | A synthetic double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) polyinosinic:polycytidylic acid (poly I:C) nanoplexed with the cationic carrier polyethylenimine (PEI), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, nanoplexed poly I:C BO-112, which mimics viral RNAs, may stimulate the release of cytotoxic cytokines and induces interferon-gamma production. This may increase the tumoricidal activities of various immunohematopoietic cells. The PEI carrier enhances the ... |
| Nanoscale Coordination Polymer Nanoparticles CPI-100 | A preparation of self-assembled core-shell nanoscale coordination polymer (NCP) nanoparticles containing an as of yet undisclosed payload with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, NCP nanoparticle formulation CPI-100 delivers its payload to tumor cells, which may lead to enhanced immune-mediated killing and regression of tumor cells. |
| Nanosomal Docetaxel Lipid Suspension | A lipid-based nanosomal formulation of the poorly soluble, semi-synthetic, second-generation taxane docetaxel, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous injection, docetaxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin, which inhibits microtubule disassembly and results in both cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell death. This liposomal formulation solubilizes docetaxel without the use of toxic solvents, such as polysorbate 80. This permits the administration of larger doses of docet... |
| Nanrilkefusp Alfa | A human fusion protein consisting of the cytokine interleukin (IL)-15 and the high-affinity binding sushi+ domain of IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra), with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nanrilkefusp alfa activates and increases the levels of natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8+ T-cells. The memory T-cells enhance the secretion of the cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g), which further potentiates the immune response against tumor cells. This may increase tumor cell... |
| Napabucasin | An orally available cancer cell stemness inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Even though the exact target has yet to be fully elucidated, napabucasin appears to target and inhibit multiple pathways involved in cancer cell stemness. This may ultimately inhibit cancer stemness cell (CSC) growth as well as heterogeneous cancer cell growth. CSCs, self-replicating cells that are able to differentiate into heterogeneous cancer cells, appear to be responsible for the malignant growth, ... |
| Naphthalimide Analogue UNBS5162 | An amonafide (naphthalimide) derivative and pan-antagonist of chemokine ligand (CXCL) expression, with potential anti-angiogenic activity. Although UNBS5162 is a derivative of amonafide, this agent appears to have a different profile to that of amonafide and its exact mechanism of action remains to be fully elucidated. This agent seems to decrease the expression of various proangiogenic CXCL chemokines in vitro and may have synergistic effects with radiotherapy or chemotherapy. CXCLs are smal... |
| Naporafenib | An orally available inhibitor of all members of the serine/threonine protein kinase Raf family, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, naporafenib binds to Raf proteins and inhibits Raf-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation of Raf-overexpressing tumor cells. Raf protein kinases are critical enzymes in the Ras/Raf/MEK/ERK signaling pathway and are upregulated in a variety of cancer cell types. They play key roles in tumor cell proliferation an... |
| Naptumomab Estafenatox | A recombinant fusion protein consisting of the antigen-binding fragment of a monoclonal antibody directed towards the tumor-associated oncofetal trophoblast glycoprotein antigen 5T4 attached to a mutated form of superantigen staphylococcal enterotoxin E (SEA/E-120), with immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The Fab moiety of naptumomab estafenatox binds to 5T4, an antigen expressed by various tumor cells. In turn, the superantigen binds to both major histocompatibility complex clas... |
| Naquotinib | An orally available, irreversible, third-generation, mutant-selective, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ASP8273 covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of mutant forms of EGFR, including the T790M EGFR mutant, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell ... |
| Naratuximab Emtansine | An immunoconjugate that consists of a humanized IgG1 antibody K7153A against the cell-surface antigen CD37 and covalently linked via the uncleavable, maleimide-derived thioether-based linker SMCC to the maytansinoid DM1, with potential pro-apoptotic and cytotoxic activities. Upon administration of naratuximab emtansine, the antibody moiety of IMGN529 binds to CD37 on tumor B-cells and induces an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC), ... |
| Narazaciclib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of NUAK family SNF1-like kinase 1 (AMPK-related protein kinase 5; ARK5), and the cyclin-dependent kinases 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration,narazaciclib specifically binds to and inhibits ARK5, which interferes with the activation of ARK5-mediated signal transduction pathways and reduces cell proliferation in cancer cells that overexpress ARK5. In addition, ON 123300 inhibits CDK4 and 6 and prevents the pho... |
| Narlumosbart | A recombinant, human, immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa beta ligand (RANKL), with potential antiosteoclast and bone-sparing activities. Upon administration, narlumosbart specifically binds to RANKL and blocks the interaction of RANKL with RANK, a receptor located on osteoclast cell surfaces. This may inhibit osteoclast activity, decrease bone resorption, increase bone mineral density, and may protect bones from tumor m... |
| Narnatumab | A fully human monoclonal antibody against RON (recepteur d'origine nantais; macrophage stimulating 1 receptor), with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-RON monoclonal antibody IMC-RON8 binds to RON, thereby preventing binding of its ligand hepatocyte growth factor-like protein (HGFL or macrophage-stimulating protein (MSP)). This may prevent RON receptor-mediated signaling and may prevent cellular proliferation in tumor cells overexpressing RON. RON, a receptor tyrosine kinase, is overexp... |
| Nasaruplase Gamma | A proenzyme and recombinant form of single-chain human urokinase plasminogen activator (scuPA), with potential intrapleural fibrinolytic and draining-promoting activities in certain lung conditions such as complicated parapneumonic pleural effusion (CPE) and empyema. After intrapleural administration, nasaruplase gamma  is converted into uPA. uPA breaks down the fibrinous adhesions and promotes the draining of pleural fluid around the lungs in non-draining loculated pleural effusions (LPE). T... |
| Nastorazepide Calcium | A selective, orally available, 1,5-benzodiazepine-derivative gastrin/cholecystokinin 2 (CCK-2) receptor antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Z-360 binds to the gastrin/CCK-2 receptor, thereby preventing receptor activation by gastrin, a peptide hormone frequently associated with the proliferation of gastrointestinal and pancreatic tumor cells. |
| Natalizumab | A humanized recombinant IgG4 monoclonal antibody directed against the alpha4 subunit of the integrins alpha4beta1and alpha4beta7 with immunomodulating, anti-inflammatory, and potential antineoplastic activities.  Natalizumab binds to the alpha4-subunit of alpha4beta1 and alpha4beta7 integrins expressed on the surface of all leukocytes except neutrophils, inhibiting the alpha4-mediated adhesion of leukocytes to counter-receptor(s) such as vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM-1); natalizumab... |
| Natural IFN-alpha OPC-18 | A proprietary preparation of natural human interferon alpha (IFN alpha) with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Natural human interferon alpha OPC-18 binds to cell-surface IFN alpha receptors (IFNARs), resulting in the transcription and translation of genes whose products mediate antiviral, antiproliferative, and immune-modulating effects. IFN alpha is a type I interferon produced by peripheral blood leukocytes or lymphoblastoid cells when exposed to live or inactivated... |
| Natural Killer Cells ZRx101 | A population of activated, immortalized, interleukin-2 (IL-2)-dependent, cytotoxic natural killer (NK) cells with potential antitumor activity. Natural killer cells ZRx101 are derived from NK-92 cells, having been modified to target tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) upregulated in certain types of cancer. The NK-92 cell line was originally isolated from a patient with large granular lymphocytic (LGL) leukemia/lymphoma. |
| Navarixin | An orally available small molecule antagonist of the C-X-C motif chemokine receptor 1 (CXCR1; interleukin-8 receptor alpha; IL8RA) and 2 (CXCR2; interleukin-8 receptor beta; IL8RB), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, navarixin binds to and inhibits the activation of CXCR 1 and 2. This inhibits CXCR1/2-mediated signaling, reduces both recruitment and migration of immunosuppressive myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) and neutrophils in the t... |
| Navicixizumab | A bispecific monoclonal antibody directed against both the Notch ligand delta-like 4 (DLL4) and the human tyrosine kinase vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. The anti-DLL4 moiety of navicixizumab specifically binds to DLL4, prevents its interaction with Notch receptors, and inhibits Notch-mediated signaling and gene transcription, which may both block tumor angiogenesis and inhibit tumor cell growth. The anti-VEGF moiety bin... |
| Navitoclax | An orally active, synthetic small molecule and an antagonist of a subset of the B-cell leukemia 2 (Bcl-2) family of proteins with potential antineoplastic activity. Navitoclax selectively binds to apoptosis suppressor proteins Bcl-2, Bcl-XL, and Bcl-w, which are frequently overexpressed in a wide variety of cancers, including those of the lymph, breast, lung, prostate, and colon, and are linked to tumor drug resistance. Inhibition of these apoptosis suppressors prevents their binding to the a... |
| Navoximod | An orally available inhibitor of indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, navoximod targets and binds to IDO1, a cytosolic enzyme responsible for the oxidation of the essential amino acid tryptophan into kynurenine. By inhibiting IDO1 and decreasing kynurenine in tumor cells, this agent increases tryptophan levels, restores the proliferation and activation of various immune cells, including dendritic cells (DCs),... |
| Navtemadlin | An orally available inhibitor of MDM2 (murine double minute 2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration,navtemadlin binds to the MDM2 protein and prevents its binding to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this MDM2-p53 interaction, the transcriptional activity of p53 is restored. This leads to p53-mediated induction of tumor cell apoptosis. MDM2, a zinc finger protein and a negative regulator of the p53 pathway, is... |
| Navy Bean Powder | The powder form of the cooked navy bean with potential antioxidant and chemopreventive activities. Navy beans are rich in fiber, minerals, vitamins, and phytochemicals such as flavonoids and phytosterols. They appear to prevent carcinogenesis by inducing tumor cell apoptosis. Intake of navy bean powder may have a beneficial effect on intestinal microflora. |
| Naxtarubicin | A lipophilic, anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic.Naxtarubicin intercalates into DNA and inhibits topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair as well as inhibiting RNA and protein synthesis.  This agent appears to not be a substrate for the p-glycoprotein associated multidrug-resistance (MDR) transporter; therefore, overcoming the resistance pattern seen with other anthracycline compounds. |
| Nazartinib | An orally available, irreversible, third-generation, mutant-selective epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, nazartinib covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of mutant forms of EGFR, including the T790M EGFR mutant, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cel... |
| N-dihydrogalactochitosan | A carbohyrate polymer in which galactose molecules are attached to the amino groups of the glucosamine polymer chitosan, with potential imunostimulating activity. After a tumor ablation and upon intratumoral injection directly into the location of the ablated tumor, N-dihydrogalactochitosan may trigger a tumor-specific systemic immune response when exposed to tumor-associated neoantigens that are liberated by tumor ablation. This may kill tumor cells. |
| Nebratamig | An anti-ROR1/anti-CD3/anti-PD-L1/anti-4-1BB tetra-specific antibody, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nebratamig targets and binds to the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1), the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) expressed on tumor cells, the T-cell surface antigen CD3 and the costimulatory receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor nec... |
| Necitumumab | A fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Necitumumab binds to and blocks the ligand binding site of EGFR, thereby preventing the activation and subsequent dimerization of the receptor. This may lead to an inhibition of EGFR-dependent downstream pathways and so inhibition of EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation and metastasis.  EGFR, a member of the epidermal growth factor family of extracellu... |
| Nectin-4-directed TLR8 Agonist SBT6290 | An immunotherapeutic composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface adhesion molecule and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) nectin-4 (PVRL4) conjugated to a Toll-like receptor 8 (TLR8; CD288) agonist, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the nectin-4-directed TLR8 agonist SBT6290, the anti-nectin-4 monoclonal antibody targets and binds to nectin-4 expressed on tumor cells, thereby localizing the TLR8 agonist directly to the t... |
| Necuparanib | A low molecular weight heparin derivative and heparan sulfate proteoglycan (HSPG) mimetic with no or minimal anticoagulant activity and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, necuparanib mimics HSPGs by binding to and inhibiting various heparin-binding growth factors, chemokines, and cytokines such as VEGF, HGF, FGF2, SDF-1a, heparanase and P-selectin all of which are essential for tumor angiogenesis and metastasis to occur. This inhibits heparin binding growth factor-media... |
| Nedaplatin | A second-generation cisplatin analogue with antineoplastic activity. Containing a novel ring structure in which glycolate is bound to the platinum by a bidentate ligand, nedaplatin forms reactive platinum complexes that bind to nucelophillic groups in DNA, resulting in intrastrand and interstrand DNA cross-links, apoptosis and cell death. This agent appears to be less nephrotoxic and neurotoxic compared to both cisplatin and carboplatin. |
| NEDD8 Activating Enzyme E1 Inhibitor TAS4464 | An inhibitor of NEDD8 (neural precursor cell expressed, developmentally down-regulated 8) activating enzyme E1 (NAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, TAS4464 selectively binds to and inhibits NAE, which prevents NAE/NEDD8-mediated signaling and prevents the NEDD8 conjugation of cullin-RING ligase complexes (CRLs). This inactivates the CRLs leading to an accumulation of CRL substrate proteins, such as CDT1, p27, p21 and phosphorylated IkappaB, and inactivates nucle... |
| Nedometinib | A topical gel formulation composed of an inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K; MAPKK; MEK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon topical administration, nedometinib penetrates into the dermis of the skin where it specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the catalytic activity of MEK, thereby inhibiting the activation of MEK-dependent effector proteins including extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells in which ... |
| Nefextinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) and FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, nefextinib binds to and inhibits both FGFR and FLT3, including FLT3 mutant forms, which results in the inhibition of FGFR/FLT3-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation in FGFR/FLT3-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is upregulat... |
| Negalstobart | A monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory receptor lymphocyte-activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, negalstobart targets and binds to LAG-3 expressed by tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks the interaction between LAG-3 and major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC II) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and tumor cells. This prevents the n... |
| Nelarabine | An arabinonucleoside antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity. Nelarabine is demethoxylated by adenosine deaminase to become biologically active 9-beta-D-arabinosylguanine (ara-G); ara-G incorporates into DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis and inducing an S phase-dependent apoptosis of tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Neldaleucel | A preparation of autologous, ex vivo-expanded, CD4- and CD8-positive T-lymphocytes specific for six tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of neldaleucel, the T-cells target, bind to and induce selective toxicity in cancer cells overexpressing one or more of these six TAAs. By targeting more than one antigen, neldaleucel may be able to induce a better and more durable anti-tumor response due to its ability to overco... |
| Nelipepimut-S | A cancer vaccine comprised of a human leukocyte antigen (HLA) A2/A3 restricted HER2/neu (human epidermal growth factor receptor 2; ErbB2) nonapeptide derived from the extracellular domain of the HER2 protein, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal injection, nelipepimut-S may induce a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against HER2/neu-expressing tumor cells. HER2/neu, a tumor-associated antigen and a member of the epidermal growth factor r... |
| Nelipepimut-S Plus GM-CSF Vaccine | A cancer peptide vaccine comprised of a human leukocyte antigen (HLA) A2/A3 restricted HER2/neu (ERBB2) peptide from the extracellular domain of the HER2 protein (E75 peptide) and combined with the immunoadjuvant granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. Upon intradermal injection, nelipepimut-S plus GM-CSF vaccine may induce a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against HER2/neu-expressing tumor cell typ... |
| Nelistotug | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor CD96 (Tactile; T cell activation increased late expression), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nelistotug targets, binds to and inhibits CD96 expressed primarily on T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells, thereby preventing its downstream signaling pathways. This may abrogate CD96-mediated inhibition of T-cell and NK cell effector functi... |
| Nelmastobart | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immune checkpoint protein butyrophilin 1A1 (BTN1A1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nelmastobart targets and binds to the extracellular domain of human BTN1A1, which prevents the formation of the BTN1A1-galectin-9 (Gal9)-programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1) complex, and inhibits downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells... |
| Nemorubicin | A morpholinyl analogue of the anthracycline doxorubicin with antineoplastic activity. Nemorubicin is metabolized via the P450 CYP3A enzyme to a highly cytotoxic derivative. Unlike most anthracyclines, nemorubicin is a topoisomerase I inhibitor and appears to exert its effect through the nucleotide excision repair (NER) system. In addition, this agent does not show cross-resistance with other anthracyclines. |
| Nemorubicin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of nemorubicin, a morpholinyl analogue of the anthracycline doxorubicin with antineoplastic activity. Nemorubicin is metabolized via the P450 CYP3A enzyme to a highly cytotoxic derivative. Unlike most anthracyclines, nemorubicin is a topoisomerase I inhibitor and appears to exert its effect through the nucleotide excision repair (NER) system. In addition, this agent does not show cross-resistance with other anthracyclines. |
| Nemtabrutinib | An orally available reversible inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, nemtabrutinib non-covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of both the wild-type and the C481S mutated form of BTK, a resistance mutation in the BTK active site in which cysteine is substituted for serine at residue 481. This prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway and BTK... |
| Nemvaleukin Alfa | A selective effector cell activator protein and agonist of the intermediate-affinity interleukin-2 (IL-2) receptor with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, nemvaleukin alfa binds to and signals through the intermediate-affinity IL-2 receptor complex; this may selectively stimulate and activate natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8 T-cells, leading to tumor cell elimination, while circumventing the activation of immunosuppressive cells that may prev... |
| Nendratareotide Uzatansine | A miniaturized drug conjugate composed of a peptide analog of somatostatin that targets the somatostatin receptor 2 (SSTR2) and is conjugated, through a cleavable linker, to the microtubule-binding cytotoxic maytansinoid DM1 (mertansine), with potential anti-tumor activity. Upon administration, the peptide ligand moiety of nendratareotide uzatansine targets and binds to SSTR2, which is overexpressed on certain tumor cell types. Binding stimulates SSTR2-mediated endocytosis of the agent; upon ... |
| Neoantigen DNA-Based Pancreatic Cancer Vaccine | A personalized, polyepitope DNA vaccine composed of a DNA plasmid encoding multiple, highly immunogenic tumor associated antigens (TAAs) that are specifically expressed by a patient's pancreatic cancer cells, including personalized epitopes of the TAA mesothelin, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration and electroporation of the neoantigen DNA-based pancreatic cancer vaccine, the expressed TAAs induce a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte ... |
| Neoantigen Heat Shock Protein Vaccine rHSC-DIPGVax | An off-the-shelf (OTS) peptide-based cancer vaccine consisting of sixteen heat shock protein (Hsp) neo-epitopes that are found in the majority of diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (DIPG) and diffuse midline glioma (DMG) tumors, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the neoantigen Hsp vaccine rHSC-DIPGVax, the peptides stimulate the host immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the Hsp ... |
| Neoantigen mRNA Personalized Cancer Vaccine SW1115C3 | A personalized cancer vaccine (PCV) consisting of mRNA encoding a patient's tumor-specific neoantigens, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. The cells from the patient's tumor are analyzed, and genetic sequencing is used to identify neoantigens that may elicit the strongest immune response in the patient. The sequences encoding these neoantigens are transcribed and loaded onto a single mRNA molecule. Upon administration of neoantigen mRNA PCV SW1115C3, the mRNA is ta... |
| Neoantigen Peptide Vaccine | A peptide-based cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific antigens, which are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination with the neoantigen peptide vaccine, the peptides stimulate the host immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoantigens, which results in tumor cell lysis. |
| Neoantigen srRNA Vaccine JCXH-212 | A cancer vaccine consisting of self-replicating RNA (srRNA) encoding a patient's tumor-specific neoantigens, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of neoantigen srRNA vaccine JCXH-212, the srRNA is taken up by and translated into the neoantigens in the patient's antigen-presenting cells (APCs), primarily dendritic cells (DCs), and presented by major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on the surface of the APCs. This may activate tumor antig... |
| Neoantigen Vaccine GEN-009 | A peptide-based, personalized cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific mutated synthetic long peptides (SLPs), which are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous vaccination with the personalized neoantigen peptide vaccine GEN-009, and administration along with the immunoadjuvant poly-ICLC, the peptides stimulate the host immune system to mount a specific and potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) respons... |
| Neoantigen-based Glioblastoma Vaccine | A peptide-based, personalized glioblastoma cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific glioblastoma derived immunogenic mutated epitopes (neoantigens), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with the neoantigen-based glioblastoma vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoantigens, which results in tumor cell lysis. Neoantigens are tumor-specific antigens derived from mu... |
| Neoantigen-based Melanoma-Poly-ICLC Vaccine | A peptide-based melanoma cancer vaccine consisting of neoantigens and peptides derived from patient-specific melanoma immunogenic epitopes, combined with the immunostimulant poly-ICLC with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with the neoantigen-based melanoma vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoantigens, which results in tumor cell lysis. The adjuvant poly-ICLC, compo... |
| Neoantigen-based Renal Cell Carcinoma-Poly-ICLC Vaccine | A peptide-based renal cell carcinoma (RCC) vaccine consisting of neoantigens and peptides derived from immunogenic epitopes identified through DNA and RNA sequencing of a patient's tumor cells, combined with the immunostimulant poly-ICLC with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with the neoantigen-based RCC vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoantigens, leading to tumo... |
| Neoantigen-based Therapeutic Cancer Vaccine GRT-C903 | A cancer priming vaccine consisting of tumor-specific shared neoantigens, which are immunogenic and unique across a subset of patients, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of neoantigen-based therapeutic cancer vaccine GRT-C903, followed by the boosting vaccine GRT-R904, the peptides stimulate the host immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the shared neoantigens expressed on tumor cells, which results in... |
| Neoantigen-based Therapeutic Cancer Vaccine GRT-R904 | A cancer boosting vaccine consisting of tumor-specific shared neoantigens, which are immunogenic and unique across a subset of patients, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the neoantigen-based therapeutic cancer vaccine GRT-R904, which is administered after the initial administration of the priming vaccine GRT-C903, the peptides stimulate the host immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the shared neoa... |
| Neoantigen-encoding Personalized Virus-2 | A personalized cancer vaccine comprised of a not yet disclosed oncolytic virus encoding tumor-specific neoantigens that have been identified through genetic sequencing of a patient's tumor cells, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the neoantigen-encoding personalized virus-2 (PSV-2) infects cells and expresses the tumor-specific neoantigens (TSNAs). This stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against... |
| Neoantigen-HSP70 Peptide Cancer Vaccine AGEN2017 | A proprietary, personalized autologous synthetic cancer vaccine composed of patient-specific synthetic cancer neo-epitopes complexed with heat shock protein 70 (HSP 70; HSP70), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the neoantigen-HSP70 peptide cancer vaccine AGEN2017, the HSPs present the neoantigens to antigen presenting cells (APCs) and help elicit a potent neoantigen-specific T-cell-based anti-tumor immune response, thereby killing the neoan... |
| Neoantigen-loaded Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A personalized, peptide-based therapeutic dendritic cell (DC) vaccine consisting of autologous DCs loaded with immunogenic peptides derived from autologous cancer cells, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, mature DCs are loaded with immunogenic neoantigens. Vaccination with the neoantigen-loaded autologous DC vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoantigens, ... |
| Neratinib | An orally available, 6,7-disubstituted-4-anilinoquinoline-3-carbonitrile irreversible inhibitor of the HER-2 receptor tyrosine kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Neratinib binds to the HER-2 receptor irreversibly, thereby reducing autophosphorylation in cells, apparently by targeting a cysteine residue in the ATP-binding pocket of the receptor. Treatment of cells with this agent results in inhibition of downstream signal transduction events and cell cycle regulatory pathways; arre... |
| Neratinib Maleate | The maleate salt form of neratinib, an orally available, quinazoline-based, irreversible inhibitor of both the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ERBB2) and human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, neratinib targets and covalently binds to the cysteine residue in the ATP-binding pockets of both HER2 and EGFR. This inhibits their activity and results in the inhibition of downstream ... |
| Nesuparib | An orally bioavailable second-generation inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) type 1 (PARP1) and 2 (PARP2) and tankyrase (TNK; TNKS; TANK) 1 and 2, with potential chemo/radiosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, nesuparib selectively and simultaneously targets and binds to PARP1/2 and TNK1/2. Inhibiting PARP activity prevents PARP-mediated DNA repair of single-strand DNA breaks via the base-excision repair pathway. This enhances th... |
| Nesvacumab | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against angiopoietin 2 (ANG2) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Nesvacumab binds to ANG2 and interferes with the interaction between Ang2 and its receptor TEK tyrosine kinase (Tie2), which may inhibit tumor cell angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. ANG2 is upregulated in a variety of cancer cell types and plays a crucial role in angiogenesis. |
| Neural Stem Cells-expressing CRAd-S-pk7 | Neural stem cells (NSCs) that are transfected with the gliomatropic oncolytic adenovirus (OV) CRAd-S-pk7, a conditionally replicative oncolytic adenoviral (CRAd) vector that contains the tumor-specific survivin promoter (S) and a fiber protein polylysine modification (pk7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intracerebral administration of NSC loaded with CRAd-S-pk7, the NSCs preferentially migrate towards tumor cells, and the polylysine moiety of the modified fiber protein expresse... |
| Nezastomig | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and the co-stimulatory T-cell-specific surface glycoprotein CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of nezastomig this bispecific antibody binds to both CD28 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and PSMA found on PSMA-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to PSMA-expressing tumor cells, which may result in t... |
| Nezutatug | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3; ERBB3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, nezutatug targets and binds to HER3 and inhibits its activation. This may prevent HER3-mediated signaling and inhibit HER3-dependent tumor cell proliferation and differentiation. HER3, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is frequently overexpres... |
| NFE2L2/KEAP1/CUL3 Mutant-targeting Agent MGY825 | An antineoplastic agent targeting mutant forms of nuclear factor erythroid 2-related factor 2 protein (NFE2L2), Kelch-like ECH-associated protein 1 (KEAP1), and Cullin-3 (CUL3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, NFE2L2/KEAP1/CUL3 mutant-targeting agent MGY825 inhibits the activity of NFE2L2, KEAP1 and CUL3 mutant forms, thereby halting the proliferation of NFE2L2, KEAP1, and CUL3 mutant-expressing tumor cells. NFE2L2/KEAP1/CUL3 are mutated in certain tumor cell types. |
| NG-nitro-L-arginine | An amino acid derivative and nitric oxide synthase (NOS) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. Upon administration, NG-nitro-L-arginine inhibits the enzyme nitric oxide synthase, thereby preventing the formation of nitric oxide (NO). By preventing NO generation, the vasodilatory effects of NO are abrogated leading to vasoconstriction, reduction in vascular permeability and an inhibition of angiogenesis. As blood flow to tumors is restricted, this may result in... |
| Niacinamide | The active form of vitamin B3 and a component of the coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD). Niacinamide acts as a chemo- and radio-sensitizing agent by enhancing tumor blood flow, thereby reducing tumor hypoxia.  This agent also inhibits poly(ADP-ribose) polymerases, enzymes involved in the rejoining of DNA strand breaks induced by radiation or chemotherapy. |
| Niclosamide | An orally bioavailable chlorinated salicylanilide, with anthelmintic and potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, niclosamide specifically induces degradation of the androgen receptor (AR) variant V7 (AR-V7) through the proteasome-mediated pathway. This downregulates the expression of the AR variant, inhibits AR-V7-mediated transcriptional activity, and reduces AR-V7 recruitment to the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) gene promoter. Niclosamide also prevents AR-V7-mediated ... |
| Nicotinamide Riboside | An orally available form of vitamin B3 and precursor of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) with potential use in the treatment of chemotherapy induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN). Upon oral administration, nicotinamide riboside (NR) is converted to nicotinamide mononucleotide by the NR kinases, nicotinamide riboside kinase 1 (NRK 1) and nicotinamide riboside kinase 2 (NRK 2), to which a second adenine is transferred by nicotinamide mononucleotide adenylyl transferase to generate NAD+. ... |
| Nidanilimab | A low fucose, fully humanized monoclonal immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody (hmAb) against the interleukin 1 receptor accessory protein (interleukin-1 receptor associated protein; IL1RAP), with potential immunomodulating, anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, nidanilimab targets and binds to IL1RAP, thereby preventing IL1RAP-mediated signaling, and disrupting IL-1 and IL-33 mediated nuclear factor kappa beta (NFkB) activation. This prevents the secre... |
| Nifurtimox | A nitrofuran derivative with antiprotozoal and potential antineoplastic activities. Nifurtimox is reduced by cytosol enzymes or flavin-containing microsomal enzymes to a highly reactive nitro anion free radical; autooxidation of the nitro anion free radical generates cytotoxic superoxide anion (02-). In addition, nifurtimox-derived nitro anion free radicals may alkylate macromolecules such as nucleic acids and proteins, resulting in the disruption of their structure and function. |
| Nilotinib | An orally bioavailable aminopyrimidine-derivative Bcr-Abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Designed to overcome imatinib resistance, nilotinib binds to and stabilizes the inactive conformation of the kinase domain of the Abl protein of the Bcr-Abl fusion protein, resulting in the inhibition of the Bcr-Abl-mediated proliferation of Philadelphia chromosome-positive (Ph+) chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) cells. This agent also inhibits the receptor tyrosine kinases platelet-... |
| Nilotinib Hydrochloride Anhydrous | The hydrochloride salt of nilotinib, an orally bioavailable aminopyrimidine-derivative Bcr-Abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Designed to overcome imatinib resistance, nilotinib binds to and stabilizes the inactive conformation of the kinase domain of the Abl protein of the Bcr-Abl fusion protein, resulting in the inhibition of the Bcr-Abl-mediated proliferation of Philadelphia chromosome-positive (Ph+) chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) cells. This agent also inhibits th... |
| Nilotinib Hydrochloride Monohydrate | The monohydrate monohydrochloride form of nilotinib, an orally bioavailable aminopyrimidine-derivative Bcr-Abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Designed to overcome imatinib resistance resulting from Bcr-Abl kinase mutations, upon administration, nilotinib binds to and stabilizes the inactive conformation of the kinase domain of the Abl portion of the Bcr-Abl fusion protein, resulting in the inhibition of the constitutive kinase activity of Bcr-Abl protein. This inhibit... |
| Nilutamide | A synthetic, nonsteroidal agent with antiandrogenic properties. Nilutamide preferentially binds to androgen receptors and blocks androgen receptor activation by testosterone and other androgens; this agent may inhibit androgen-dependent growth of normal and neoplastic prostate cells. (NCI04) |
| Nimesulide-Hyaluronic Acid Conjugate CA102N | A covalently bound conjugate composed of the biological polymer sodium hyaluronate (NaHA) and the hydrophobic, cyclooxygenase 2 (COX-2) inhibitor and cytotoxic agent nimesulide (Nim), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of Nim-HA conjugate CA102N, the HA moiety targets and binds to CD44. Following endocytosis of CA102N and enzymatic degradation within the lysosomal compartment, Nim is released inside CD44-expressing tumor cells, causing Nim-mediated inducti... |
| Nimodipine | A dihydropyridine derivative and an analogue of the calcium channel blocker nifedipine, with antihypertensive activity. Nimodipine inhibits the transmembrane influx of calcium ions in response to depolarization in smooth muscle cells, thereby inhibiting vascular smooth muscle contraction and inducing vasodilatation. Nimodipine has a greater effect on cerebral arteries than on peripheral smooth muscle cells and myocardial cells, probably because this agent can cross the blood brain barrier due... |
| Nimotuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Nimotuzumab binds to and inhibits EGFR, resulting in growth inhibition of tumor cells that overexpress EGFR. This agent may act synergistically with radiation therapy. |
| Nimustine | A nitrosourea with antineoplastic activity. Nimustine alkylates and crosslinks DNA, thereby causing DNA fragmentation, inhibition of protein synthesis, and cell death. (NCI05) |
| Nimustine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of nimustine, a nitrosourea with antineoplastic activity. Nimustine alkylates and crosslinks DNA, thereby causing DNA fragmentation, inhibition of protein synthesis, and cell death. |
| Ningetinib Tosylate | The tosylate salt form of ningetinib, an orally available inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases c-MET/hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2 KDR), Axl (UFO), Mer, and Fms-like tyrosine kinase 3 (Flt3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ningetinib binds to a variety of kinases, including c-Met, VEGFR2, Axl, Mer and Flt3, thereby inhibiting their signaling pathways. This inhibits growth, angiogenes... |
| Nintedanib | An orally bioavailable, indolinone-derived inhibitor of multiple receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) and non-receptor tyrosine kinases (nRTKs), with potential antiangiogenic, antifibrotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nintedanib selectively binds to and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR), fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR), platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR), and colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R) tyrosine kinases, whic... |
| Niraparib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) types 1 and 2 (PARP-1 and -2), with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, niraparib binds to and inhibits the activity of PARP-1 and -2, thereby inhibiting PARP-1 and -2-mediated DNA repair, enhancing the accumulation of DNA strand breaks, promoting genomic instability and resulting in apoptosis. The PARP family of proteins catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear proteins and is activated by singl... |
| Niraparib Tosylate Monohydrate | An orally bioavailable, hydrated, tosylate salt form of niraparib, an inhibitor of poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) types 1 and 2 (PARP-1 and -2), with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, niraparib binds to and inhibits the activity of PARP-1 and -2, thereby inhibiting PARP-1 and -2-mediated DNA repair, enhancing the accumulation of DNA strand breaks, promoting genomic instability and resulting in apoptosis. The PARP family of proteins catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylatio... |
| Nirogacestat | A selective gamma secretase (GS) inhibitor with antitumor activity. Upon administration, nirogacestat targets and binds to GS, thereby blocking the proteolytic activation of Notch receptors. This inhibits the Notch signaling pathway and results in the induction of apoptosis in tumor cells that overexpress Notch. The integral membrane protein GS is a multi-subunit protease complex that cleaves single-pass transmembrane proteins, such as Notch receptors, at residues within their transmembrane d... |
| Nisevokitug | A monoclonal antibody directed against human transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, nisevokitug targets and binds to TGF-beta, thereby preventing the activation of TGF-beta-mediated signaling pathways. TGF-beta, a pro-inflammatory mediator that is mutated and/or overexpressed in a number of cancer cell types, is involved in cancer cell proliferation and migration, and tumor progression. |
| Nitric Oxide-Releasing Acetylsalicylic Acid Derivative | A nitric oxide (NO) donating derivative of acetylsalicylic acid with anti-inflammatory, analgesic, antipyretic, antithrombotic, gastroprotective and potential antitumor activities. The acetylsalicylic acid derivative moiety of this agent inhibits the activities of cyclooxygenase (COX) I and II, preventing the formation of prostaglandins and thromboxanes. A reduction in prostaglandin synthesis accounts for this agent's anti-inflammatory, anti-pyretic and analgesic activities; a reduction in th... |
| Nitrogen Mustard Prodrug PR-104 | A non-toxic, small-molecule, hypoxia-activated, 3,5-dinitrobenzamide nitrogen mustard pre-prodrug with potential antitumor activity. Upon intravenous administration, PR-104 is converted by systemic phosphatases to the alcohol intermediate PR-104A, which is reduced to form the active DNA-crosslinking mustard species hydroxylamine PR-104H intracellularly under hypoxic conditions. PR-104H specifically crosslinks hypoxic tumor cell DNA, resulting in the inhibition of DNA repair and synthesis, cel... |
| Nitroglycerin Transdermal Patch | A sustained release transdermal patch containing the organic nitrate nitroglycerin, with vasodilator and potential immunomodulating activities. Upon application to the skin, nitroglycerin is continuously released from the patch and absorbed. In turn, nitroglycerin is converted into nitric oxide (NO), which activates guanylyl cyclase, increasing cyclic guanosine monophosphate concentration thus resulting in smooth muscle relaxation. In addition, activation of NO-mediated signaling pathways may... |
| Nitroxoline | An orally bioavailable quinoline antibiotic, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, nitroxoline may induce apoptosis and inhibit tumor cell proliferation in NF1-null Schwann cells in neurofibromatosis type I through as of yet undisclosed mechanism of actions, other than inhibiting the RAS/mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathway, and possibly through modulating mitochondrial function. NF1 encodes neurofibromin which inactivates Ras. Loss of neurofibromin in n... |
| Nivatrotamab | A bispecific antibody comprised of a humanized anti-CD3 OKT3 (huOKT3) single chain variable fragment (scFv), linked to the carboxyl end of a humanized anti-GD2 3F8 (hu3F8) immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) light chain, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, nivatrotamab binds to CD3 on T-cells and disialoganglioside GD2 expressed on certain tumor cells, thereby cross-linking T-cells with GD2-expressing tumor cells. This promotes a selective cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL... |
| Nivolumab | A fully human immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed death-1 (PD-1, PCD-1) with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nivolumab binds to and blocks the activation of PD-1, an immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) transmembrane protein, by its ligands programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1), which is overexpressed on certain cancer cells, and programmed cell death lig... |
| Nivolumab/Relatlimab-rmbw | An injectable fixed-dose combination formulation composed of nivolumab, a human immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed death-1 (PD-1, PCD-1), and relatlimab-rmbw, a human IgG4 monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitor receptor lymphocyte activation gene-3 (LAG-3), with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of nivolumab and relatlimab-rmbw, ni... |
| NK Cell-enriched Donor Lymphocytes | A preparation of donor-derived lymphocytes that are enriched for donor-derived natural killer (NK) cells, with direct tumor cytotoxic activity. Following allogeneic stem cell transplantation and subsequent infusion of the NK cell-enriched donor lymphocytes, these cells recognize and bind to tumor cells, upon which they secrete and release perforins, granzymes, and cytokines, which results in cancer cell lysis. Infusion of donor lymphocytes is limited by the risk of graft-versus-host disease (... |
| NK Cell-priming Inert Tumor Cells | An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation of replication-incompetent tumor cells derived from a human tumor cell line (INB16 cells) that are able to prime and activate endogenous natural killer (NK) cells in vivo, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, NK cell-priming inert tumor cells, which express multiple, essential priming signals, bind to the patient's own resting NK cells, thereby priming and activating these NK cells. The tumor-primed ... |
| NKp46/CD16-based CD123-targeted NK Cell Engager SAR443579 | An engineered tri-specific natural killer (NK) cell engager (NKCE) containing specific antibodies targeting the tumor-associated antigen cluster of differentiation 123 (CD123), and the NK activating receptors natural cytotoxicity triggering receptor (NKp46; activating natural killer receptor p46) and CD16, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of NKp46/CD16-based CD123-targeted NK cell engager SAR443579, the NKCE targets and binds to CD123 express... |
| NLRP3 Agonist BMS-986299 | A nucleotide-binding domain and leucine-rich repeat (NLR) family pyrin domain containing 3 (NLRP3; NACHT, LRR and PYD Containing Protein 3; NALP3) agonist with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, NLRP3 agonist BMS-986299 binds to and activates NLRP3, potentially promoting NLRP3 inflammasome-mediated secretion of interleukin-8 (IL-8), which may induce tumoricidal activity of natural killer (NK) cells against tumor cells. NLRP3, a sensor component of t... |
| NLRP3 Inhibitor DFV890 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the innate immune signaling sensor nucleotide-binding domain and leucine-rich repeat (NLR) family pyrin domain containing 3 (NLRP3; NACHT, LRR and PYD containing protein 3; NALP3), with potential immunomodulatory, anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, NLRP3 inhibitor DFV890 specifically binds to and inhibits NLRP3, the sensor component of the NLRP3 inflammasome, and prevents the formation of the NLRP3 inflammasome. This ... |
| N-Methylformamide | A water-soluble organic solvent.  As an adjuvant antineoplastic agent, N-methylformamide depletes cellular glutathione, a key molecule involved in the antioxidation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) and other free radicals, thereby enhancing ionizing radiation-induced DNA cross-linking in and terminal differentiation of tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Nocodazole | A synthetic tubulin-binding agent with antineoplastic activity. Nocodazole binds to beta-tubulin and disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics. This prevents mitosis and induces apoptosis in tumor cells. Although nocodazole binding site overlaps with that of colchicine, the two agents are structurally quite different. |
| Nofazinlimab | A humanized, immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nofazinlimab targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a t... |
| Nogalamycin | An anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces nogalater.  Nogalamycin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase I, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Nogapendekin Alfa | A mutated form of the cytokine interleukin (IL)-15 (IL-15N72D), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nogapendekin alfa binds to the IL-15 receptor on natural killer (NK) and CD8+ T lymphocytes, which activates and increases the levels of NK cells and memory T-cells. This may increase tumor cell killing and decrease tumor cell proliferation. IL-15 regulates CD8+ T and NK cell development, activation and proliferation. |
| Nogapendekin Alfa Inbakicept | A fusion protein soluble complex and interleukin-15 (IL-15) receptor agonist composed of nogapendekin alfa, a mutated form of the cytokine interleukin (IL)-15 (IL-15N72D) and inbakicept, a fusion protein containing a dimeric IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra) sushi domain fused to human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc (IL15Ra-Fc; IL-15RaSu-IgG1 Fc), with potential antineoplastic activity. Each fully assembled nogapendekin alfa inbakicept complex consists of a single inbakicept and two nogapendekin al... |
| Nolatrexed Dihydrochloride | The dihydrochloride salt of nolatrexed, a water-soluble lipophilic quinazoline folate analog with antineoplastic activity. Nolatrexed occupies the folate binding site of thymidylate synthase, resulting in inhibition of thymidylate synthase activity and thymine nucleotide synthesis with subsequent inhibition of DNA replication, DNA damage, S-phase cell cycle arrest, and caspase-dependent apoptosis. This agent also exhibits radiosensitizing activity. |
| Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer mRNA-Derived Vaccine CV9201 | A non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) vaccine containing modified mRNAs encoding cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, melanoma-associated antigens C1 (MAGE-C1/CT7) and C2 (MAGE-C2/CT10), survivin, and the oncofetal antigen 5T4 with potential antitumor and immunomodulatory activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, non-small cell lung cancer mRNA-derived vaccine CV9201 may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic, antigen-specific T lymphocyte response (CTL) against NSCLC cells. The modif... |
| Noraramtide | A synthetic, small, bispecific antibody-redirecting/recruiting molecule (ARM) that recognizes the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and cell surface glycoprotein CD38 on tumor cells with its target binding terminus (TBT) and, through connection by a tunable linker domain, recognizes endogenous antibodies already present in the patient's blood with its universal antibody binding terminus (uABT), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, noraramtide simult... |
| Norcantharidin Lipid Microspheres | A formulation composed of lipid microspheres encapsulating the demethylated derivative of cantharidin and poorly water soluble norcantharidin (NCTD), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the NCTD lipid microspheres, NCTD modulates the expression and activity of numerous proteins and signaling pathways involved in tumor cell proliferation, invasion, metastasis, and angiogenesis. This induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis, promotes tumor cell d... |
| Norgestrel | A synthetic progestin commonly used alone or in combination with an estrogen for contraception.  Norgestrel suppresses the secretion of luteinizing and follicle-stimulating hormones (LH and FSH), thickens cervical mucus, and slows the transit of ova through the fallopian tubes.  This agent also exhibits antiproliferative activity in endometrial tissue and may exhibit chemopreventive and antineoplastic activities in endometrial carcinoma. (NCI04) |
| North American Ginseng Extract AFX-2 | An orally available proprietary aqueous extract from the North American ginseng (Panax quinquefolius) dried root, primarily containing poly-furanosyl-pyranosyl-saccharides, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration, North American ginseng extract AFX-2 may stimulate the proliferation and activation of B-lymphocytes and stimulates IgG production by B cells. Also, this agent induces maturation of dendritic cells, induces T cell proliferation and activates peritoneal exudate... |
| Nortopixantrone | A 9-aza-anthrapyrazole-based antineoplastic antibiotic. Nortopixantrone intercalates into DNA, induces single- and double-stranded DNA breaks and inhibits topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair as well as RNA and protein synthesis. Nortopixantrone is less cardiotoxicity than anthracyclines. |
| NOS Enhancer BZ371A | A synthetic peptide and nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enhancer, with potential vasodilating and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon topical application, NOS enhancer BZ371A induces local expression of NOS, thereby increasing endogenous NO production and NO level. This may result in vasodilation and penile erection when BZ371A is topically applied to the genital area. BZ371A may also be topically applied to other areas such as the eye and the skin for the treatment of glaucoma and various skin co... |
| Noscapine | A phthalide isoquinoline non-narcotic alkaloid derived from the opium poppy Papaver somniferum, with mild analgesic, antitussive, and potential antineoplastic activities. Noscapine exerts its antitussive effects through the activation of sigma opioid receptors. This agent appears to exert its antimitotic effect by binding to tubulin, resulting in a disruption of microtubule assembly dynamics and subsequently, the inhibition of mitosis and tumor cell death. |
| Noscapine Hydrochloride | The orally available hydrochloride salt of the opioid agonist noscapine, a phthalideisoquinoline alkaloid derived from the opium poppy Papaver somniferum, with mild analgesic, antitussive, and potential antineoplastic activities. Noscapine binds to tubulin and alters its conformation, resulting in a disruption of the dynamics of microtubule assembly (by increasing the time that microtubules spend idle in a paused state) and subsequently, the inhibition of mitosis and tumor cell death. Unlike ... |
| Notch Signaling Pathway Inhibitor MK0752 | A synthetic small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. MK0752 inhibits the Notch signaling pathway, which may result in induction of growth arrest and apoptosis in tumor cells in which the Notch signaling pathway is overactivated. The Notch signaling pathway plays an important role in cell-fate determination, cell survival, and cell proliferation. |
| NSCLC Antigen-Loaded Dendritic Cell-derived Exosomes | Exosomes loaded with non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)-specific antigens, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Exosomes derived from autologous maturing dendritic cells (DCs) are pulsed with HLA-DP04-restricted MAGE-3, and HLA-A02-restricted peptides NY-ESO-1, MAGE-1, MAGE-3, and MART-1. Upon vaccination, these exosomes may stimulate natural killer (NK) cell activation and proliferation, restoration of NKG2D expression on NK cells, and antigen-specific T-cell respo... |
| NSD2 Inhibitor KTX-1001 | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of the histone-lysine N-methyltransferase nuclear receptor-binding SET domain protein 2 (NSD2; MMSET; WHSC1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, NSD2 inhibitor KTX-1001 selectively targets and binds to NSD2, and inhibits its catalytic activity and the mono- and di-methylation of histone H3 lysine 36 (H3K36). This modulates the expression of genes involved in cellular processes including cellular proliferation, which m... |
| Nucleolin Antagonist IPP-204106N | A synthetic, multivalent, lysine-rich, pseudopeptide and nucleolin antagonist with potential anti-angiogenic, antineoplastic and pro-apoptotic activities. Upon administration, IPP-204106N antagonizes nucleolin leading to a downregulation of cell-surface nucleolin; preventing the binding of certain growth promoting ligands to nucleolin may suppress tumor cell proliferation and angiogenesis. In addition, IPP-204106N is able to translocate to the nucleolus and bind to nucleolar nucleolin. This p... |
| Nucleoside Analog DFP-10917 | A deoxycytosine analog with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, DFP-10917 is phosphorylated to generate its nucleotide form that functions as a deoxycytosine mimic and is incorporated into DNA in tumor cells. This causes DNA strand breaks during polymerization due to beta-elimination during the fidelity checkpoint, which results in G2/M phase-arrest and tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Nucleotide Analogue GS 9219 | A prodrug of the acyclic nucleoside phosphonate analogue 9-(2-phosphonylmethoxyethyl)guanine (PMEG) with potential antineoplastic activity. Formulated to selectively accumulate in lymphocytes, nucleotide analogue GS 9219 is converted to its active metabolite, PMEG diphosphate (PMEGpp), via enzymatic hydrolysis, deamination, and phosphorylation; subsequently, PMEGpp is incorporated into nascent DNA chains by DNA polymerases, which may result in the termination of DNA synthesis, S-phase cell cy... |
| Numidargistat | An orally available inhibitor of arginase, a manganese-dependent enzyme that hydrolyzes the amino acid arginine to form ornithine and urea, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, numidargistat inhibits the breakdown of arginine by arginase, which is produced by myeloid cells, and restores arginine levels. This allows arginine to stimulate the synthesis of nitric oxide and the secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines, which induces the... |
| Nurulimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nurulimab targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA-4, an inhibitory receptor and member of... |
| Nutraceutical TBL-12 | An orally available nutritional supplement and proprietary formulation containing extracts from the sea cucumber, sea sponge, shark fin, sea urchin and the marine grass Sargassum, with potential antioxidant, antitumor, anti-angiogenic and immunomodulating activities. TBL-12 contains various amino acids, minerals, vitamins and omega-3 fatty acids. |
| Nuvisertib | An orally available, second-generation and selective ATP-competitive inhibitor of proviral integration site for Moloney murine leukemia virus (PIM) kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, nuvisertib selectively binds to and prevents the activation of the PIM kinases. This prevents the activation of PIM-mediated signaling pathways and inhibits proliferation in cells that overexpress PIM. PIMs, constitutively active proto-oncogenic serine/threonine kinases, ar... |
| Nuvustotug | An agonistic human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody that recognizes the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nuvustotug  selectively targets and binds to a unique epitope on OX40, and activates OX40 without competing with the endogenous OX40 ligand (OX40L; tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 4; TNFSF4). This may induce the p... |
| NY-ESO-1 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of an immunogenic peptide derived from the cancer-testis antigen (NY-ESO-1), an antigen found in normal testis and various tumors. Vaccination with NY-ESO-1 peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a humoral and cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response to cells expressing NY-ESO-1 antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| NY-ESO-1 Peptides/Threitolceramide-6-loaded Nanoparticles PORT-3 | An immunomodulating agent and nanovaccine composed of the invariant natural killer T cell (iNKT) agonist, dendritic cell (DC) transactivator, and an alpha-galactosylceramide (a-GalCer) analog threitolceramide-6 (ThrCer6, IMM60) and immunogenic peptides derived from the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) New York Esophageal Squamous Cell Carcinoma-1 (NY-ESO-1) encapsulated within poly(lactic-co-glycolic acid) (PLGA) nanoparticles, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon... |
| NY-ESO-1 Plasmid DNA Cancer Vaccine pPJV7611 | A plasmid DNA encoding an immunogenic peptide derived from the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon administration, NY-ESO-1 plasmid DNA cancer vaccine pPJV7611 may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the NY-ESO-1 antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. NY-ESO-1 is a tumor associated antigen (TAA) found in normal testes and expressed on the surfaces of various... |
| NY-ESO-1 Protein Vaccine Plus Montanide ISA-51 VG | A cancer vaccine consisting of an immunogenic peptide derived from the cancer-testis antigen (NY-ESO-1) and emulsified in the immunoadjuvant Montanide ISA-51 VG, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous vaccination, the NY-ESO-1 protein vaccine emulsified in Montanide ISA-51 VG may stimulate the host immune system to mount a humoral and cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the NY-ESO-1 antigen, resulting in tumor cell lys... |
| NY-ESO-1 Protein/Microparticle MDP/Bacterial DNA-containing MIS416 Vaccine | A combination preparation composed of a protein derived from the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cancer-testis antigen 1 (NY-ESO-1) and a microparticle combining two immune-modifying components derived from the bacterium Propionibacterium acnes, a bacterial cell wall component that is rich in muramyl dipeptide (MDP) and bacteria-derived single-stranded DNA fragments, with potential immunomodulating, immunoadjuvant and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of NY-ESO-1 protein/mic... |
| NY-ESO-1 Reactive TCR Retroviral Vector Transduced Autologous PBL | Human autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T cell receptor (TCR) specific for the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the NY-ESO-1 reactive TCR-transduced autologous PBLs bind to NY-ESO-1-overexpressing tumor cells. This may result in a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) killing of NY-ESO-1-positive cancer cells. ... |
| NY-ESO-1(157-165) Peptide-pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with a peptide derived from the tumor associated antigen human cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1 (NY-ESO-1(157-165)), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the NY-ESO-1(157-165) peptide-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount both an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)- and an antibody-mediated immune response against NY-ES... |
| NY-ESO-1/GLA-SE Vaccine ID-G305 | A cancer vaccine composed of a recombinant form of the tumor antigen NY-ESO-1 and glucopyranosyl lipid adjuvant (GLA)-stable emulsion (GLA-SE), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon intramuscular injection, the adjuvant portion of the NY-ESO-1/GLA-SE vaccine ID-G30 binds to toll-like receptor subtype 4 (TLR-4) expressed on dendritic cells (DCs), monocytes, macrophages and B cells. The activated DCs present the NY-ESO-1 antigen to Th1 CD4 T-lymphocytes. This leads... |
| NY-ESO-1/LAGE-1 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing HLA class I- and II-binding peptides derived from the NY-ESO-1/LAGE-1 cancer/testis antigen with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, NY-ESO-1/LAGE-1 HLA class I/II peptide vaccine may induce a cytotoxic immune response against tumor cells that over-express NY-ESO-1/LAGE-1. Rarely expressed by normal cells, the NY-ESO-1/LAGE-1 cancer/testis antigen has been shown to be preferentially expressed on the surface of some cancer... |
| NY-ESO-1/MAGE-A4/PRAME/Survivin/SSX2-specific Autologous Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL) that are specifically reactive to five tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, melanoma-associated antigen 4 (MAGE-A4), preferentially expressed antigen in melanoma (PRAME), survivin and synovial sarcoma X breakpoint 2 (SSX2; cancer/testis antigen 5.2; CT5.2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Autologous peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are collected and exposed ex vivo to autologous dendritic ... |
| NY-ESO-1/MART-1 Peptide-pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of dendritic cells (DC) pulsed with peptides derived from the tumor-associated antigens human cancer/testis antigen NY-ESO-1 and melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells (MART-1/Melan-A), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the NY-ESO-1/MART-1-peptide pulsed DC vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount an anti-tumor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against NY-ESO-1/MART-1-expressing tumor cells, wh... |
| NY-ESO-1/PRAME/MAGE-A3/WT-1 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide-based cancer vaccine comprised of synthetic peptides derived from the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, preferentially expressed antigen in melanoma (PRAME), human melanoma antigen A3 (MAGE-A3) and the human Wilms tumor protein-1 (WT-1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, NY-ESO-1/PRAME/MAGE-A3/WT-1 peptide vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing NY-ESO-1, ... |
| NY-ESO-1b Peptide Vaccine | A recombinant nonapeptide used as an antineoplastic vaccine. NY-ESO-1b peptide vaccine contains the amino acid sequence SLLMWITQC, derived from the cancer-testis tumor antigen (NY-ESO-1), which is expressed on tumor cells of many different types, including melanomas. Vaccination with this peptide vaccine may elicit strong humoral and cellular immune responses to NY-ESO-1-expressing cancers. |
| NY-ESO-1-expressing Artificial Adjuvant Vector Cells ASP0739 | A preparation of artificial adjuvant vector cells (aAVCs) composed of modified human cells engineered to express the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) New York esophageal squamous cell carcinoma 1 (NY-ESO-1) and loaded with loaded with the cluster of differentiation 1d (CD1d) ligand alpha-galactosylceramide (alpha-GalCer; a-GalCer), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the NY-ESO-1-expressing aAVCs ASP0739, the presentation of α-GalCer by CD1d mo... |
| NY-ESO-1-specific CD4-positive T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous CD4+ T-lymphocytes sensitized to cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. CD4-positive T-lymphocytes are exposed to a NY-ESO-1 peptide ex vivo, expanded, and introduced into the patient. The NY-ESO-1-specific CD4-positive T-lymphocytes may stimulate the host immune system to produce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the NY-ESO-1 antigen, which results in tumor cell lysis. NY... |
| NY-ESO-1-specific TCR Gene-transduced T Lymphocytes TBI-1301 | Human peripheral blood T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Following leukapheresis, isolation of lymphocytes, expansion ex vivo, transduction, and introduction into the patient, the NY-ESO-1-specific TCR gene-transduced T lymphocytes TBI-1301 bind to NY-ESO-1 on tumor cells. This may result in cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated elimination of NY-ESO-1-posi... |
| NY-ESO-B | A tumor-associated antigen belonging to the family of immunogenic testicular proteins that are aberrantly expressed in human cancers in a lineage-nonspecific fashion. Reverse transcription-PCR analysis showed NY-ESO-1 mRNA expression in a variable proportion of a wide array of human cancers, including melanoma, breast cancer, bladder cancer, prostate cancer, and hepatocellular carcinoma; and restricted expression in normal tissues, with high-level mRNA expression found only in testis and ovar... |
| O6-Benzylguanine | A guanine analogue with antineoplastic activity. O6-benzylguanine binds the DNA repair enzyme O(6)-alkylguanine DNA alkyltransferase (AGT), transferring the benzyl moiety to the active-site cysteine and resulting in inhibition of AGT-mediated DNA repair. Co-administration of this agent potentiates the effects of other chemotherapeutic agents that damage DNA. (NCI04) |
| Obatoclax Mesylate | The mesylate salt of obatoclax, a synthetic small-molecule inhibitor of the bcl-2 family of proteins with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Obatoclax binds to members of the Bcl-2 protein family, preventing the binding of these anti-apoptotic proteins to the pro-apoptotic proteins Bax and Bak and so promoting the activation of the apoptotic pathway in Bcl-2-overexpressing cells. The Bcl-2 family of proteins (bcl-2, bcl-xl, bcl-w, and Mcl-1) are overexpressed in a wide var... |
| Obecabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a second-generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR), CAT-41BBz CAR, targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, obecabtagene autoleucel target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressing tumor cells and tumor ... |
| Obinutuzumab | A glycoengineered, humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Obinutuzumab, a third generation type II anti-CD20 antibody, selectivity binds to the extracellular domain of the human CD20 antigen on malignant human B cells. The Fc region carbohydrates of the antibody, enriched in bisected non-fucosylated glycosylation variants, contribute to its higher binding affinity for human FcgammaRIII receptors compared to non-glycoengineered antibodies, resulting in enhan... |
| Oblimersen Sodium | The sodium salt of a phosphorothioate antisense oligonucleotide targeted to the initiation codon region of mRNA for the anti-apoptotic gene Bcl-2. Oblimersen inhibits Bcl-2 mRNA translation, which may result in decreased expression of the Bcl-2 protein and tumor cell apoptosis. This agent may enhance the efficacy of standard cytotoxic chemotherapy. The anti-apoptotic bcl-2 protein is an integral outer mitochondrial membrane protein (OMMP) that is overexpressed in some cancer cell types and is... |
| Obrindatamab | An Fc-bearing humanized bispecific dual-affinity re-targeting (DART) protein composed of Fv regions derived from monoclonal antibodies against the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of obrindatamab, the anti-B7-H3 component targets and binds to the cell surface antigen B7-H3; at the same time, the anti-CD3 component binds to human CD3. This cross-links th... |
| Obrixtamig | A bispecific T-cell engager antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) delta-like protein 3 (DLL3) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, obrixtamig binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and the DLL3 antigen on DLL3-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to DLL3-expressing tumor cells, which results in the CTL-mediated cell death of DLL3... |
| Ocaratuzumab | An Fc-engineered monoclonal antibody directed against human CD20 with potential antineoplastic activity. Ocaratuzumab specifically binds to CD20 antigen (B1), preventing mitogen-induced B-cell proliferation; inhibiting B-cell differentiation; and promoting antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) and apoptosis of B cells expressing CD20. The Fc portion of this monoclonal antibody has been engineered to possess a higher binding affinity for variant Fc receptors on T helper cells, r... |
| O-Chloroacetylcarbamoylfumagillol | A synthetic analog of fumagillin, an antibiotic isolated from the fungus Aspergillus fumigatus fresenius with antineoplastic activity.  TNP-470 binds to and irreversibly inactivates methionine aminopeptidase-2 (MetAP2), resulting in endothelial cell cycle arrest late in the G1 phase and inhibition of tumor angiogenesis.  This agent may also induce the p53 pathway, thereby stimulating the production of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor p21 and inhibiting angiogenesis. (NCI04) |
| Ocifisertib | A  polo-like kinase 4 (PLK4) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ocifisertib selectively inhibits PLK4, which results in the disruption of mitosis and the induction of apoptosis. PLK4 inhibition also prevents cell division and inhibits proliferation of PLK4-overexpressing tumor cells. PLK4, a member of the polo family of serine/threonine kinases overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, plays a crucial role in the regulation of centriole duplication d... |
| Ocifisertib Fumarate | An orally available fumarate salt form of CFI-400945, a polo-like kinase 4 (PLK4) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, polo-like kinase 4 inhibitor CFI-400945 selectively inhibits PLK4, which results in the disruption of mitosis and the induction of apoptosis. PLK4 inhibition also prevents cell division and inhibits proliferation of PLK4-overexpressing tumor cells. PLK4, a member of the polo family of serine/threonine kinases overexpressed in a variety o... |
| Ociperlimab | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, ociperlimab targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of TIGIT... |
| Ocrelizumab | A Fc-modified, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell CD20 cell surface antigen, with immunosuppressive activity. Ocrelizumab binds to CD20 on the surfaces of B-cells, triggering complement-dependent cell lysis (CDCL) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) of B-cells overexpressing CD20. The CD20 antigen, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein that acts as a calcium ion channel, is found on over 90% of B-cells, B-cell lymphomas, and other lymphoid ... |
| Octreotide | A synthetic long-acting cyclic octapeptide with pharmacologic properties mimicking those of the natural hormone somatostatin. Octreotide is a more potent inhibitor of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin than somatostatin. Similar to somatostatin, this agent also suppresses the luteinizing hormone response to gonadotropin-releasing hormone, decreases splanchnic blood flow, and inhibits the release of serotonin, gastrin, vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP), secretin, motilin, pancreatic polyp... |
| Octreotide Depot Formulation CAM2029 | A long-acting depot formulation of the synthetic octapeptide and somatostatin analog octreotide, with potential growth hormone (GH) secretion-inhibiting and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration of octreotide depot formulation CAM2029, octreotide binds to and activates somatostatin receptors (SSTRs), including subtypes 2 and 5, which leads to an inhibition in the secretion of human growth hormone (hGH) in the pituitary gland and results in decreased production of insulin... |
| Octreotide Pamoate | A synthetic long-acting octapeptide analogue of endogenous somatostatin.  Octreotide pamoate binds to somatostatin receptors expressed by some neuroendocrine and non-neuroendocrine tumor cells, thereby initiating somatostatin receptor-mediated apoptosis. Other possible antineoplastic activities of this agent include suppression of tumor angiogenesis and tumor growth-promoting insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1).  (NCI04) |
| Octreotide Sustained-release Formulation Debio 4126 | A sustained-release (SR) formulation of the synthetic octapeptide and somatostatin analog octreotide, with potential growth hormone (GH) secretion-inhibiting and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of octreotide SR formulation Debio 4126, octreotide binds to and activates somatostatin receptors (SSTRs), including subtypes 2 and 5, which leads to an inhibition in the secretion of human growth hormone (hGH) in the pituitary gland and results in decreased production of i... |
| Odetiglucan | An injectable formulation of the polysaccharide beta-1,3/1,6 glucan derived from the cell wall of a strain from the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae and pathogen-associated molecular pattern (PAMP) molecule, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, odetiglucan binds to innate immune effector cells through complement receptor 3 (CR3) and Fc gamma receptor IIA (FcgammaIIA; CD32A), thereby activating innate immune cells and enabling direct killing of tumo... |
| Odronextamab | A bispecific, human monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-CD20/CD3 monoclonal antibody REGN1979 contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T cell surface antigen, and one for human CD20, a tumor-associated antigen that is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development and is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. Upon administration, odronextamab binds to both T-cells and CD20-expressing tumor B-cells, which cross-li... |
| Ofatumumab | A fully human, high-affinity IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the B cell CD20 cell surface antigen with potential antineoplastic activity. Ofatumumab binds specifically to CD20 on the surfaces of B cells, triggering complement-dependent cell lysis (CDCL) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) of B cells overexpressing CD20. The CD20 antigen, found on over 90% of B cells, B cell lymphomas, and other B cells of lymphoid tumors of B cell origin, is a non-glycosylated c... |
| Ofranergene Obadenovec | A non-replicating adenovirus 5 (Ad-5, El-deleted) encoding a human Fas-chimera (Fas-c) transgene under the control of a modified murine pre-proendothelin-1 (PPE-1) promoter, with potential anti-angiogenic activity. Upon the administration of ofranergene obadenovec, the modified murine PPE-1 promoter is specifically activated in PPE-1-expressing angiogenic endothelial cells residing in the tumor microvasculature.  Subsequently, the Fas-c pro-apoptotic transgene, containing the human tumor necr... |
| Oglufanide Disodium | The disodium salt of a synthetic form of a naturally-occurring dipeptide consisting of L-glutamic acid and L-tryptophan with potential antiangiogenic and potential immunomodulating activities. Oglufanide inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), which may inhibit angiogenesis. This agent has also been reported to stimulate the immune response to hepatitic C virus and intracellular bacterial infections. |
| Olaparib | A small molecule inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) with potential chemosensitizing, radiosensitizing, and antineoplastic activities. Olaparib selectively binds to and inhibits PARP, inhibiting PARP-mediated repair of single strand DNA breaks; PARP inhibition may enhance the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging agents and may reverse tumor cell chemoresistance and radioresistance. PARP catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear proteins and can be activat... |
| Olaptesed Pegol | A 45-mer L-stereoisomer RNA oligonucleotide linked to a 40 kDa polyethyleneglycol that targets the small chemokine stromal cell-derived factor 1 (SDF-1 or CXCL12) with potential antineoplastic and hematopoietic stem cell-mobilization activities. SDF-1 targeted agent NOX-A12 specifically binds to SDF-1 thereby preventing the binding of SDF-1 to its receptors CXCR4 and CXCR7 blocking the subsequent receptor activation. This may prevent angiogenesis, tumor cell proliferation, invasion and metast... |
| Olaratumab | A fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the platelet-derived growth factor receptor alpha (PDGFR alpha) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-PDGFR alpha monoclonal antibody IMC-3G3 selectively binds to PDGFR alpha, .blocking the binding of its ligand, PDGF; signal transduction downstream of PDGFR through the MAPK and PI3K pathways is inhibited, which may result in inhibition of angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. Overexpressed by various cancer cell types, PDGFR... |
| Oleandrin | A lipid soluble cardiac glycoside with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, oleandrin specifically binds to and inhibits the alpha3 subunit of the Na/K-ATPase pump in human cancer cells. This may inhibit the phosphorylation of Akt, upregulate MAPK, inhibit NF-kb activation and inhibit FGF-2 export and may downregulate mTOR thereby inhibiting p70S6K and S6 protein expression. All of this may lead to an induction of apoptosis. As cancer cells with relatively higher expression... |
| Oleclumab | A monoclonal antibody against the ectoenzyme CD73 (cluster of differentiation 73), also known as 5'-nucleotidase (5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, oleclumab targets and binds to CD73, leading to clustering of and internalization of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and decreases the amount of free adenosine. This prevents adenosine-mediated lymphocyte suppression and increases the... |
| Oligo-fucoidan | A sulfated polysaccharide low-molecular-weight fucoidan, with potential antioxidant, anti-inflammatory, antiproliferative, anti-angiogenic and pro-apoptotic activities. Upon administration of oligo-fucoidan, this agent seems to exert numerous effects through various mechanisms of action, some of which remain to be fully elucidated. Oligo-fucoidan induces cell cycle arrest, activates caspases, induces apoptosis, and inhibits tumor cell proliferation in susceptible tumor cells. It also increase... |
| Oligomeric Procyanidin Complex | A preparation containing plant-derived polyphenolic bioflavonoids composed of multimers (dimers, trimers, or higher order polymers) of the flavan-3-ol-based monomers catechin and epicatechin, which are extracted from sources rich in these chemicals, such as grape seeds, grape skin and pine bark, with potential anti-oxidant, anti-inflammatory, anti-microbial, anti-cancer and protective activities. Upon oral administration of oligomeric procyanidin complex (OPC), the polyphenols exert anti-oxid... |
| Oligonucleotide SPC2996 | A synthetic antisense oligonucleotide against Bcl-2 messenger RNA with potential antitumor activity. Oligonucleotide SPC2996 binds to and inactivates Bcl-2 mRNA, thereby inhibiting the expression of Bcl-2 protein, promoting tumor cell apoptosis, and potentially enhancing the efficacy of standard cytotoxic chemotherapy. Linked to tumor drug resistance, the antiapoptotic protein Bcl-2 is upregulated in several types of cancers. |
| Olintatug Tesirine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of olintatug, a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human kidney associated antigen 1 (KAAG1; RU2) and conjugated, through a cathepsin-cleavable linker, to SG3199, a cytotoxic pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of olintatug tesirine, the anti-KAAG1 antibody moiety targets and binds to KAAG1, which is expressed on the surfaces of a variety of cancer cell types. Upon endocytosis and ... |
| Olinvacimab | A fully human monoclonal antibody targeting the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), with potential antiangiogenic activity. Upon administration, olinvacimab specifically binds to VEGFR2, thereby preventing the binding of its ligand VEGF. This may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and a decrease in tumor nutrient supply. VEGFR2 is a pro-angiogenic growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase expressed by endothelial cells, while VEGF is overexpressed in many tumors a... |
| Olive Oil Extract/Curcumin-based Capsule | A capsule containing an extract of olive oil, rich in polyphenols, and curcumin, the polyphenol derived from the plant Curcuma longa, also known as turmeric, with potential anti-neoplastic, -angiogenic, -inflammatory, -oxidant and chemopreventive activities. The olive oil extract/curcumin-based capsule is rich in phytonutrients, especially polyphenols. Upon oral administration, the polyphenols, and other active ingredients in this supplement may exert anti-inflammatory activity by decreasing ... |
| Olive Oil/Soya Oil/Egg Lecithin-based Emulsion | An injectable, isotonic, nutritional lipid emulsion composed of approximately 80% refined olive oil and 20% refined soybean oil, used for parenteral nutrition. The olive oil/soya oil/egg lecithin emulsion provides about 15% of saturated fatty acids (SFA), 65% of mono-unsaturated fatty acids (MUFA) and 20% of essential poly-unsaturated fatty acids (EPUFA). Upon parenteral administration, the emulsion supplies calories, for energy, and essential fatty acids that can be incorporated into cell me... |
| Olivomycin | A preparation containing a mixture of glycosidic antibiotics isolated from Streptomyces olivoreticuli with fluorescent microscopy applications and potential antineoplastic activities. Olivomycin preferentially binds to DNA and can be utilized as a fluorescent marker during the characterization of heterochromatin. Additionally, binding to DNA inhibits both RNA transcription and RNA elongation by RNA polymerase; therefore protein synthesis is inhibited. In addition, olivomycin antibiotics are a... |
| Olmutinib | An orally available small molecule, mutant-selective inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Olmutinib binds to and inhibits mutant forms of EGFR, thereby leading to cell death of EGFR-expressing tumor cells. As this agent is selective towards mutant forms of EGFR, its toxicity profile may be reduced as compared to non-selective EGFR inhibitors which also inhibit the EGFR wild type form. |
| Olomorasib | An orally available inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, olomorasib selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C mutant-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction leading to tumor cell growth, proliferation, invasion, and metas... |
| Oltipraz | A synthetic dithiolethione with potential chemopreventive and anti-angiogenic properties. Oltipraz induces phase II detoxification enzymes, such as glutathione S transferase (GST) and NAD(P)H:quinone oxidoreductase 1 (NQO1). The induction of detoxification enzymes enhances the detoxification of certain cancer-causing agents, thereby enhancing their elimination and preventing carcinogen-induced DNA damages. Although the exact mechanism through which the anti-angiogenesis effect remains to be f... |
| Olutasidenib | An orally available inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1; IDH-1; IDH1 [NADP+] soluble) with a mutation at arginine (R) 132, IDH1(R132), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, olutasidenib specifically inhibits IDH1(R132), thereby inhibiting the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG) from alpha-ketoglutarate (a-KG). This prevents 2HG-mediated signaling and leads to both an induction of cellular differentiation and an inhibition of cellular ... |
| Olverembatinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of a variety of kinases, including the Bcr-Abl tyrosine kinase, the mast/stem cell growth factor receptor Kit (c-Kit), the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B), and the extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration,olverembatinib targets, binds to and inhibits the kinase activities of Bcr-Abl, AKT, c-Kit and ERK. This inhibits their mediated signaling pathways and inhibits proliferation of tumor... |
| Olvimulogene Nanivacirepvec | An attenuated oncolytic vaccinia virus encoding the light-emitting fusion protein Renilla luciferase-Aequorea green fluorescent protein (RUC-GFP) with potential bioluminescent and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, light-emitting oncolytic vaccinia virus GL-ONC1 specifically enters tumor cells due to the permeable nature of the tumor vasculature. Once inside the cell, the virus replicates, resulting in tumor cell lysis and the release of mature viral particles into the tumor micr... |
| Omacetaxine | A protein translation inhibitor and cytotoxic plant alkaloid homoharringtonine isolated from the evergreen tree Cephalotaxus, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action has not been fully elucidated, upon administration, omacetaxine targets and binds to the 80S ribosome in eukaryotic cells and inhibits protein synthesis by interfering with chain elongation. This reduces levels of certain oncoproteins and anti-apoptotic proteins. |
| Omacetaxine Mepesuccinate | A semisynthetic formulation of the cytotoxic plant alkaloid homoharringtonine isolated from the evergreen tree Cephalotaxus with potential antineoplastic activity. Omacetaxine binds to the 80S ribosome in eukaryotic cells and inhibits protein synthesis by interfering with chain elongation. This agent also induces differentiation and apoptosis in some cancer cell types. |
| Ombrabulin | A synthetic water-soluble analogue of combretastatin A4, derived from the South African willow bush (Combretum caffrum), with potential vascular-disrupting and antineoplastic activities. Ombrabulin binds to the colchicine binding site of endothelial cell tubulin, inhibiting tubulin polymerization and inducing mitotic arrest and apoptosis in endothelial cells. As apoptotic endothelial cells detach from their substrata, tumor blood vessels collapse; the acute disruption of tumor blood flow may ... |
| Omectatug | A monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, omectatug specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. This may kill CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and inhibit cell proliferation. CLDN18.2, a tight junction protein and stomach-specific isoform of claudin-18, is expressed on a variety of tumor cells, ... |
| Omipalisib | A small-molecule pyridylsulfonamide inhibitor of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) with potential antineoplastic activity. Omipalisib binds to and inhibits PI3K in the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway, which may trigger the translocation of cytosolic Bax to the mitochondrial outer membrane, increasing mitochondrial membrane permeability and inducing apoptotic cell death. Bax is a member of the proapoptotic Bcl2 family of proteins. PI3K, often overexpressed in cancer cells, plays a crucial role ... |
| Ompenaclid | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the creatine transporter, solute carrier family 6, member 8 (SLC6a8), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ompenaclid inhibits phosphocreatine uptake by SLC6a8, thereby reducing intracellular levels of phosphocreatine available for ATP synthesis in tumor cells. SLC6a8 is overexpressed in some cancer types and inhibition of its activity may potentially limit tumor cell growth and metastasis. |
| Onalespib | A synthetic, orally bioavailable, small-molecule inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) with potential antineoplastic activity. Onalespib selectively binds to Hsp90, thereby inhibiting its chaperone function and promoting the degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. Hsp90, a chaperone protein upregulated in a variety of tumor cells, regulates the folding, stability and degradation of many oncogenic signaling proteins. |
| Onalespib Lactate | The lactate form of onalespib, a synthetic, orally bioavailable, small-molecule inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) with potential antineoplastic activity. Onalespib selectively binds to Hsp90, thereby inhibiting its chaperone function and promoting the degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. Hsp90, a chaperone protein upregulated in a variety of tumor cells, regulates the folding, stability and degradation of many oncogenic signal... |
| Onametostat | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration,onametostat selectively targets and irreversibly binds to the S-adenosylmethionine (SAM)- and substrate-binding pockets of the PRMT5/methylosome protein 50 (MEP50) complex, and inhibits its function. By inhibiting its methyltransferase activity, levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in ... |
| Onartuzumab | A humanized monovalent monoclonal antibody directed against the hepatocyte growth factor receptor (c-Met) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-MET monoclonal antibody MetMAb binds to the extracellular domain of c-Met, preventing the binding of its ligand, hepatocyte growth factor (HGF); the activation of the c-Met signaling pathway is thus inhibited, which may result in cell death in c-Met-expressing tumor cells. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase, is overexpressed on the cell surfaces... |
| Onatasertib | An orally available inhibitor of the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Onatasertib inhibits the activity of mTOR, which may result in the induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. mTOR, a serine/threonine kinase that is upregulated in a variety of tumors, plays an important role downstream in the PI3K/AKT/mTOR signaling pathway, which is frequently dysregulated in human cancers. |
| Oncolytic Adenovirus AdAPT-001 | A replication competent human attenuated adenoviral vector, TAV-255, modified to express a human transforming growth factor beta (TGF-b) trap fusion protein that neutralizes TGF-b, with potential oncolytic, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, oncolytic adenovirus AdAPT-001 selectively binds to and replicates in tumor cells and induces tumor cell lysis. In addition, tumor cell lysis releases a variety of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) which may potentially r... |
| Oncolytic Adenovirus CAdVEC | A genetically modified oncolytic viral strain of human adenovirus (Ad) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, the oncolytic adenovirus CAdVEC selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, leading to tumor cell lysis. Additionally, CAdVEC has been genetically modified to express currently undisclosed immunomodulatory molecules that may enhance the anti-tumor effects of endogenous T-lymphocytes as well as adoptively transferred chi... |
| Oncolytic Adenovirus Expressing Interferon Beta/CD40 Ligand MEM-288 | A conditionally replicative, oncolytic adenovirus that has been genetically engineered to encode the transgenes for the human cytokine interferon beta (IFN-beta) and MEM40, a recombinant, chimeric form of CD40 ligand (CD40L), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, the oncolytic adenovirus expressing IFN-beta/CD40L MEM-288 selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, leading to tumor cell lysis. In addition, the IFN-beta expresse... |
| Oncolytic Adenovirus Expressing Interferon YSCH-01 | An oncolytic adenovirus that has been genetically engineered to express interferon (IFN), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, the oncolytic adenovirus expressing IFN YSCH-01 selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, leading to tumor cell lysis. In addition, tumor cell lysis releases a variety of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), which may potentially result in the activation of a systemic immune response against the TAAs-e... |
| Oncolytic Adenovirus GM103 | An oncolytic adenovirus, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon intratumoral administration of oncolytic adenovirus GM103, the oncolytic virus specifically infects and replicates in cancer cells without being able to infect and replicate in normal, healthy cells. This induces selective oncolytic virus-mediated cytotoxicity in cancer cells, which leads to cancer cell lysis. The released virus particles, in turn, infect and replicate in neighboring tumor cells, ther... |
| Oncolytic Adenovirus ICOVIR5-infected Allogeneic Mesenchymal Stem Cells | A preparation of bone marrow-derived allogeneic mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) infected with the oncolytic, replication-competent adenovirus ICOVIR5, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon infusion of the oncolytic adenovirus ICOVIR5-infected allogeneic MSCs, these cells target the adenovirus to tumors. The oncolytic virus then selectively transfects and replicates in the tumor cells causing a direct cytotoxic effect and lysis of the tumor cells. In addition, the viral infection and the ... |
| Oncolytic Adenovirus ICOVIR5-infected Autologous Mesenchymal Stem Cells | Bone marrow-derived autologous mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) infected with the oncolytic, replication-competent adenovirus ICOVIR5, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon infusion of the oncolytic adenovirus ICOVIR5-infected autologous MSCs, these cells target the adenovirus to tumors. The oncolytic virus then selectively transfects and replicates in the tumor cells causing a direct cytotoxic effect and lysis of the tumor cells. In addition, the viral infection may stimulate an immune r... |
| Oncolytic Adenovirus ICVB-1042 | A genetically-engineered, replication competent, optimized E2 transcription factor (E2F)-dependent oncolytic adenovirus (Ad) composed of an Ad serotype 5 (Ad5) backbone that contains genomic modifications to include an Ad5/Ad34 chimeric fiber and dual modifications in E1A and E4orf6/7, and a modified capsid hexon protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the oncolytic adenovirus ICVB-1042 selectively targets and binds to CD46 that is overexpressed on many cancer ce... |
| Oncolytic Adenovirus ORCA-010 | A replication competent, oncolytic adenovirus serotype 5 (Ad5) that has been modified with a delta24 (d24) deletion, an incorporation of an RGD-4C motif in the Ad fiber protein, and an insertion of the T1 mutation in E3/19K gene, with potential oncolytic activity. Upon administration, oncolytic adenovirus ORCA-010 binds to specific Ad3 receptors that are highly expressed on certain tumor cells. This results in the replication of oncolytic adenovirus Ad5/3-delta24 in tumor cells and induces tu... |
| Oncolytic Bacterium | Any bacterium that directly lyses tumor cells and/or induces anti-tumor immune responses. |
| Oncolytic Herpes Simplex Virus-1 Expressing Anti-CTLA-4 Antibody/CD40L/4-1BBL RP3 | A genetically modified oncolytic viral strain of the herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) virus, expressing an antibody directed against the human inhibitory T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4;CTLA4), CD40 ligand (CD40L; CD154; TRAP; TNFSF5) and the co-stimulatory molecule tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily (TNFSF) member 9 (TNFSF9; 4-1BBL) with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the oncolytic HS... |
| Oncolytic Herpes Simplex Virus-1 Expressing Anti-CTLA-4 Antibody-like Molecule and GM-CSF RP2 | A genetically modified oncolytic viral strain of the herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) virus, expressing the immunostimulatory cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) and an antibody-like molecule directed against the human inhibitory T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4;CTLA4), with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the oncolytic HSV-1 expressing anti-CTLA-4 antibody-like ... |
| Oncolytic Herpes Simplex Virus-1 ONCR-177 | A recombinant, genetically modified, microRNA (miRNA)-attenuated oncolytic viral strain of the herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) virus, with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. In ONCR-177, a dual bidirectional promoter enables the expression of five different transgenes: the natural killer (NK) cell and T-cell activating cytokine interleuin-12 (IL-12), the chemokines C-C motif chemokine 4 (CCL4) and the extracellular domain of the Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 l... |
| Oncolytic Herpes Simplex Virus-1-encoding GM-CSF | An ICP34.5-, ICP47-deleted, oncolytic herpes simplex type-1 virus (HSV-1) isolated from the mouth of an HSV-1-infected patient of Chinese Han ethnicity, and encoding the immunostimulating factor cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the recombinant human GM-CSF HSV-1 selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, thereby inducing tumor cell lysis. In addition, GM-CSF attracts ... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 C134 | A neurovirulent, oncolytic second-generation, replication-competent, recombinant and genetically-engineered herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) where the gene for ICP34.5 has been deleted and the gene encoding the human cytomegalovirus (HCMV), protein kinase R (PKR) evasion protein IRS1, with potential oncolytic and immunostimulating activities. Upon intratumoral administration, oncolytic HSV-1 C134 specifically infects and replicates within the rapidly dividing, glioma cells, thereby directl... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 Expressing Anti-PD-1 scFv-Fc/TGFbRII Decoy/IL-12 STI-1386 | A second-generation, genetically engineered oncolytic herpes simplex virus type 1 (oHSV-1) expressing a single-chain variable fragment (scFv)-Fc targeting the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), a human transforming growth factor beta receptor 2 (TGFbRII) decoy and the human immunostimulating cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon adminis... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 Expressing IL-12 and Anti-PD-1 Antibody MVR-C5252 | A genetically engineered oncolytic herpes simplex virus type 1 (oHSV-1) expressing the human immunostimulating cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) and an antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration into the glioma, oHSV-1 expressing IL-12 and anti-PD-1 antibody MVR-C5252 specifically infects and replicates... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 Expressing IL-12 and Anti-PD-1 Antibody T3011 | A genetically engineered oncolytic herpes simplex virus type 1 (oHSV-1) expressing the human immunostimulating cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) and an antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, oHSV-1 expressing IL-12 and anti-PD-1 antibody T3011 infects and replicates in tumor cells causing viral-med... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 Expressing IL-12 and IL-15/IL-15-receptor Alpha VG2025 | An oncolytic herpes simplex virus type 1 (oHSV-1) genetically engineered to express the human immunostimulating cytokine interleukin (IL)-12 and a complex of the immunostimulating cytokine IL-15 and its receptor alpha unit (IL-15Ra), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, oHSV-1 expressing IL-12 and IL-15/IL-15Ra VG2025 infects and replicates in tumor cells causing viral-mediated tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles, in turn... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 Expressing IL-12, IL-15/IL-15-receptor Alpha and PD-L1 Blocking Peptide VG161 | A genetically engineered oncolytic herpes simplex virus type 1 (oHSV-1) expressing the human immunostimulating cytokine interleukin (IL)-12, the immunostimulating cytokine IL-15 and its receptor alpha unit (IL-15Ra), and a blocking peptide directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. The blocking peptide is a fusion pro... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 Expressing IL-2 and IL-12 KB707 | An oncolytic herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) genetically engineered to express the human immunostimulating cytokines interleukin (IL)-2 and IL-12, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, oncolytic HSV-1 expressing IL-2 and IL-12 KB707 infects and replicates in tumor cells causing viral-mediated tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles, in turn, infect and replicate in neighboring tumor cells. Tumor antigens released from the ... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 G207 | A neuroattenuated, replication-competent, recombinant herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1) with potential oncolytic activity. Upon intracerebral administration, oncolytic HSV-1 G207 preferentially replicates within glioma cells, which may elicit tumor-specific systemic immune and cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) responses in addition to direct cytopathic effects. Derived from wild-type HSV-1 strain F, this agent has been neuroattenuated by deletions in both copies of the gamma34.5 gene, the major deter... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 JNJ-87704916 | A recombinant oncolytic herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1), with potential oncolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, oncolytic HSV-1 JNJ-87704916 preferentially infects and replicates in tumor cells causing viral-mediated tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles, in turn, infect and replicate in neighboring tumor cells. Tumor antigens released from the lysed tumor cells also activate the immune system to induce a tumor-specific systemic immune and cytot... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 NV1020 | A genetically engineered oncolytic virus with potential antineoplastic property. NV1020 is constructed from the herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) by the deletion of a single copy of the gamma (1)34.5 gene and the substitution of the UL23 region of the thymidine kinase (tk) gene with a DNA fragment from HSV-2, thereby resulting in a replication-competent, attenuated virus. This modified virus preferentially transfects rapidly dividing cells, which causes cell lysis in tumor cells. NV1020 has show... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 R130 | A recombinant oncolytic herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1), with potential oncolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral or intraperitoneal administration, oncolytic HSV-1 R130 infects and replicates in tumor cells causing viral-mediated tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles, in turn, infect and replicate in neighboring tumor cells. Tumor antigens released from the lysed tumor cells also activate the immune system to induce a tumor-specific systemic immune and cytotoxic... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 rQNestin34.5v.2 | A neuroattenuated, replication-competent, recombinant and genetically-engineered herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1), with potential oncolytic and immunostimulating activities. In rQNestin34.5v.2, the UL39 gene encoding for the viral ribonucleotide reductase large subunit infected cell protein 6 (ICP6) and both endogenous copies of the gamma34.5 gene that encodes for the RL1 neurovirulence protein infected cell protein 34.5 (ICP34.5), which is needed for robust viral growth in an infected cel... |
| Oncolytic HSV-1 rRp450 | A gene therapy agent containing an attenuated, replication-competent, genetically engineered mutant form of the Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) strain KOS with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon infusion into the hepatic artery, oncolytic HSV-1 rRp450 replicates in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) cells and exerts direct cytotoxic effects eventually disrupting cancer cell membranes and liberating progeny virions thereby infecting adjacent tumor cells. In addition, rRp450 expresses the cytoc... |
| Oncolytic HSV1716 | A neuroattenuated, replication-restricted, ICP34.5 deleted (RL1 gene)-mutant herpes simplex virus (HSV) type I, constructed from wild-type strain 17, with potential oncolytic activity. Upon intratumoral injection, oncolytic HSV1716 transfects, replicates in, and lyses rapidly dividing cells such as tumor cells. Because the RL1 gene is deleted, HSV1716 is unable to replicate in non-dividing cells. |
| Oncolytic Influenza A Virus | An attenuated oncolytic influenza A virus, with hemagglutinin and neuraminidase genes of influenza virus strain A/California/07/2009 codon-pair deoptimized, with potential oncolytic activity. Upon intratumoral administration, oncolytic influenza A virus selectively targets and replicates in cancer cells without being able to infect and replicate in normal, healthy cells. This induces selective oncolytic virus-mediated cytotoxicity in cancer cells, which leads to cancer cell lysis. Following t... |
| Oncolytic Measles Virus Encoding Helicobacter pylori Neutrophil-activating Protein | An attenuated oncolytic Edmonston (Ed) strain of measles virus (MV) encoding the N-terminus of the human lambda immunoglobulin light chain containing the Helicobacter pylori neutrophil-activating protein (NAP), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the oncolytic measles virus encoding H. pylori NAP selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, leading to syncytia formation and tumor cell lysis. The expressed NAP, a toll-like receptor-2 (TLR2... |
| Oncolytic Measles Virus Encoding Thyroidal Sodium Iodide Symporter | An attenuated oncolytic Edmonston (Ed) strain of measles virus encoding the human thyroidal sodium iodide symporter (MV-NIS) with potential antineoplastic activity. The cellular receptor of MV is human CD46 antigen, a type 1 integral membrane glycoprotein found on nearly all human tissues and overexpressed on many cancer cell types. After attachment to and fusion of host cell membranes, MV-NIS induces syncytia and cell lysis. When combined with radioiodine 123 (I-123), expressed NIS facilitat... |
| Oncolytic Newcastle Disease Virus MEDI5395 | An oncolytic viral agent containing the oncolytic, live-attenuated, replication-competent strain of the avian paramyxovirus Newcastle disease virus (NDV) that has been engineered to include a transgene encoding granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon administration, MEDI5395 specifically infects and replicates in cancer cells. This may result in a direct cytotoxic effect involving the lysis of tumor cells ... |
| Oncolytic Newcastle Disease Virus MTH-68H | An oncolytic viral agent containing the oncolytic, live-attenuated strain of the paramyxovirus Newcastle disease virus (NDV), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, NDV MTH-68H specifically infects and replicates in cancer cells. This may result in a direct cytotoxic effect involving the lysis of tumor cells via apoptotic mechanisms and may eventually lead to an inhibition of cancer cell proliferation. |
| Oncolytic Newcastle Disease Virus Strain PV701 | An attenuated, replication-competent, oncolytic strain of Newcastle disease virus. PV701 selectively lyses tumor cells. The selectivity of this agent is related to defects in the interferon-mediated antiviral response found in tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Oncolytic RNA Virus IVX037 | A receptor-targeted oncolytic RNA virus, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon intra-tumoral administration, the oncolytic RNA virus IVX037 selectively targets specific receptors overexpressed on cancer cells, thereby allowing for selective replication in cancer cells without being able to infect and replicate in normal, healthy cells. This induces selective oncolytic virus-mediated cytotoxicity in cancer cells, which leads to cancer cell lysis. Following the lys... |
| Oncolytic Type 2 Herpes Simplex Virus Expressing Anti-PD-L1/CD3 Bispecific Antibody BS-006 | A genetically engineered, ICP34.5- and ICP47-deleted oncolytic human herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2), derived from the HG52 strain and encoding a bispecific antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand and immune checkpoint inhibitor programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, oncolytic HSV-2 expressing anti-PD-L1... |
| Oncolytic Type 2 Herpes Simplex Virus Expressing Granulocyte Macrophage Colony-Stimulating Factor OH2 | A genetically engineered, ICP34.5- and ICP47-deleted oncolytic human herpes simplex type-2 virus (HSV-2), derived from the HG52 strain, encoding the immunostimulating factor cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the oncolytic HSV-2 expressing GM-CSF OH2 selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, thereby inducing tumor cell lysis. In addition, GM-CSF attracts dendritic cel... |
| Oncolytic Vaccinia Virus Expressing Anti-CD19/CD3 Bispecific Antibody RGV004 | A genetically-engineered vaccinia virus (VV) encoding a bispecific antibody specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the oncolytic VV expressing anti-CD19/CD3 bispecific antibody RGV004 specifically infects and replicates in tumor cells causing viral-mediated tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles, in turn, infect and replicate in neighboring ... |
| Oncolytic Vaccinia Virus Expressing Anti-CTLA-4 Antibody and GM-CSF BT-001 | An oncolytic vaccinia virus (VV; VACV) genetically engineered to express 4-E03, an immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody directed against the human inhibitory T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4;CTLA4) and the immunostimulatory cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intra-tumoral administration, the oncolytic VV expressing anti-CTLA-4 antibody and ... |
| Oncolytic Vaccinia Virus Expressing Leptin/IL-2 Fusion Protein ASP1012 | An oncolytic vaccinia virus (VV) engineered to express a fusion protein comprised of the metabolic modulator and adipokine leptin and the human cytokine interleukin (IL)-2, with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, oncolytic VV expressing leptin/IL-2 fusion protein ASP1012 specifically infects and replicates in tumor cells causing viral-mediated tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles, in turn, infect and replicate in neighboring tu... |
| Oncolytic Vaccinia Virus OVV-01 | An oncolytic vaccinia virus (VV), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration of the oncolytic vaccinia virus OVV-01, the virus preferentially targets and infects tumor cells, thereby causing oncolysis. In turn, the lysed tumor cells release various tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), which induce an immune response against the tumor cells. This further kills tumor cells. |
| Oncolytic Vaccinia Virus PF-07263689 | An engineered oncolytic vaccinia virus (VV), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of oncolytic VV PF-07263689, the virus preferentially targets and infects tumor cells, thereby causing oncolysis. In turn, the lysed tumor cells release various tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), which induce an immune response against the tumor cells. This further kills tumor cells. |
| Oncolytic Vesicular Stomatitis Virus | A recombinant form of oncolytic vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, oncolytic VSV preferentially replicates in tumor cells. This induces VSV-mediated cytolytic activity towards the tumor cells. VSV, a single-stranded RNA virus belonging to the genus Vesiculovirus of the family Rhabdoviridae, is relatively nonpathogenic to healthy humans but is able to rapidly replicate in and induce apoptosis of tumor cells. |
| Oncolytic Virus ASP9801 | An engineered oncolytic virus with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon intratumoral injection of ASP-9801, the oncolytic virus selectively targets and replicates in cancer cells without being able to infect and replicate in normal, healthy cells. This induces selective oncolytic virus-mediated cytotoxicity in cancer cells, which leads to cancer cell lysis. Following the lysis of infected cells, the replicated virus is released and can infect adjacent tumor cells, wh... |
| Oncolytic Virus CF33-expressing hNIS/Anti-PD-L1 Antibody | A genetically modified oncolytic virus (OV) composed of a replication competent orthopoxviral chimera engineered to express the human sodium iodine symporter (hNIS) and a human monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand and immune checkpoint inhibitor programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities that can be used for radioimaging upon positron emission tomography... |
| Oncolytic Virus M1-c6v1 | A mutant variant of the recombinant oncolytic alphavirus M1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, oncolytic virus M1-c6v1 infects and replicates in tumor cells causing viral-mediated tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles, in turn, infect and replicate in neighboring tumor cells. Tumor antigens released from the lysed tumor cells also activate the immune system to induce a tumor-specific systemic immune and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response, the... |
| Oncolytic Virus RT-01 | An oncolytic virus with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration of RT-01, the oncolytic virus selectively targets and replicates in cancer cells without being able to infect and replicate in normal, healthy cells. This induces selective oncolytic virus-mediated cytotoxicity in cancer cells, which leads to cancer cell lysis. Following the lysis of infected cells, the replicated virus is released and can infect adjacent tumor cells, which both induces furth... |
| Oncolytic VSV-GP BI 1821736 | An oncolytic virus derived from the vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), a single-stranded RNA virus, and containing a genetically modified glycoprotein (GP) and a human CD80 (B7.1) Fc fragment, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, oncolytic VSV-GP BI 1821736 preferentially replicates in tumor cells, and induces VSV-mediated cytolytic activity towards the tumor cells. Viral infection also stimulates the immune system to recognize these same tumor ce... |
| Onfekafusp Alfa | An immunocytokine consisting of human pro-inflammatory cytokine tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNFalpha) fused to a human single-chain variable fragment (scFv) directed against the extra-domain B (ED-B) of fibronectin (L19), with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. Upon adinistration, the L19 moiety of onfekafusp alfa binds to the ED-B domain of fibronectin on tumor cells in the tumor neovasculature. In turn, the TNFalpha moiety may locally induce an immune response agai... |
| Onilcamotide | A cancer vaccine composed of an immunogenic peptide derived from the Ras homolog family member C (RhoC; Rho-related GTP-binding protein RhoC) that is emulsified in the immunoadjuvant montanide ISA-51, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, onilcamotide may stimulate the host immune system to mount a humoral and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing RhoC, which results in tumor cell lysis. RhoC, a tumor-as... |
| Ontorpacept | A soluble recombinant antibody-like fusion protein composed of the N-terminal CD47 binding domain of human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa) linked to the Fc domain of human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ontorpacept selectively targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with endogenous SIRPa, a cell surface protein expressed on macrophages. This prevents... |
| Ontuxizumab | A humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against human endosialin/TEM1 (tumor endothelial marker;CD248) with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Ontuxizumab binds to and inhibits the activity of cell surface protein endosialin/TEM1, which may result in the inhibition of angiogenesis, tumor cell proliferation and metastasis. Endosialin/TEM1 plays a key role in angiogenesis and may be overexpressed on tumor stromal cells and endothelial cells. |
| Onvansertib | An orally bioavailable, adenosine triphosphate (ATP) competitive inhibitor of polo-like kinase 1 (PLK1; PLK-1; STPK13), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, onvansertib selectively binds to and inhibits PLK1, which disrupts mitosis and induces selective G2/M cell-cycle arrest followed by apoptosis in PLK1-overexpressing tumor cells. PLK1, named after the polo gene of Drosophila melanogaster, is a serine/threonine kinase that is crucial for the regulation of mitosis, an... |
| Onvatilimab | A human monoclonal antibody against the protein V-domain immunoglobulin (Ig) suppressor of T-cell activation (VISTA; programmed death 1 homolog; PD1H; PD-1H), with potential negative checkpoint regulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, onvatilimab targets and binds to VISTA. This inhibits VISTA signaling, abrogates the VISTA-induced suppression of T-lymphocyte-mediated immune responses, enhances cytotoxic T-cell responses against tumor cells and inhibits tumor cell growth... |
| Onzigolide | A chimeric dopamine (DA)-somatostatin (SST) compound, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, onzigolide binds with high affinity to dopamine D2 receptor (D2R) and somatostatin receptor subtype 2 (SSTR2), and to a lesser extent to somatostatin receptor subtype 5 (SSTR5). This agent appears to exert its effect mainly by binding to D2R to activate the ERK1/2 and p38 MAPK pathways, thus inducing apoptosis and inhibiting cellular proliferation in non-functioning pituitary ade... |
| Opaganib | An orally available, aryladamantane compound and selective inhibitor of sphingosine kinase-2 (SK2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, opaganib competitively binds to and inhibits SK2, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of the pro-apoptotic amino alcohol sphingosine to sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P), the lipid mediator that is pro-survival and critical for immunomodulation. This may eventually lead to the induction of apoptosis and may result in an inhibition of ce... |
| OPCs/Green Tea/Spirullina/Curcumin/Antrodia Camphorate/Fermented Soymilk Extract Capsule | A capsule containing a fermented soymilk extract and oligomeric proanthocyanidins (OPCs), green tea, spirullina, curcumin and antrodia camphorate powder, with potential antioxidant, immunomodulating, anti-infective and anti-cancer activities. OPCs/green tea/spirullina/curcumin/antrodia camphorate/fermented soymilk extract capsule may boost the immune system and may alleviate fatigue and poor appetite in cancer chemotherapy patients. |
| Opevesostat | An orally bioavailable, non-steroidal, selective inhibitor of the enzyme cytochrome 450 side-chain cleavage (scc) (CYP11A1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, opevesostat targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CYP11A1. This prevents the synthesis of all steroid hormones and their precursors. This may inhibit proliferation of hormone-positive tumor cells. CYP11A1, a mitochondrial enzyme, catalyzes the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone (Preg), whi... |
| Opioid Growth Factor | An endogenous pentapeptide with potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. Opioid growth factor (OGF) binds to and activates the OGF receptor, present on some tumor cells and vascular cells, thereby inhibiting tumor cell proliferation and angiogenesis. (NCI05) |
| Opnurasib | An inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, opnurasib selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C mutant-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction leading to tumor cell growth, proliferation, invasion, and metastasis. |
| Opolimogene Capmilisbac | A proprietary, live-attenuated, double-deleted (LADD) strain of the Gram-positive bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) encoding multiple, as of yet undisclosed, tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, opolimogene capmilisbac is taken up by antigen-presenting cells (APCs), including dendritic cells (DCs). The TAAs are subsequently expressed by the APCs and then processed and presented to the immune syst... |
| Oportuzumab Monatox | A fusion protein immunotoxin consisting of a humanized, single-chain monoclonal antibody fragment specific for the epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM) conjugated with a truncated form of Pseudomonas exotoxin A with potential antineoplastic activity. Oportuzumab monatox binds to Ep-CAM-positive tumor cells, thereby delivering the Pseudomonas exotoxin A moiety specifically; the Pseudomonas exotoxin A moiety then inactivates elongation factor 2 (EF-2) through ADP ribosylation, resulting in... |
| Oprozomib | An orally bioavailable proteasome inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Proteasome inhibitor ONX 0912 inhibits the activity of the proteasome, thereby blocking the targeted proteolysis normally performed by the proteasome; this may result in an accumulation of unwanted or misfolded proteins. Disruption of various cell signaling pathways may follow, eventually leading to the induction of apoptosis and inhibition of tumor growth. Proteasomes are large protease complexes that degrade... |
| Opucolimab | A recombinant human monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, opucolimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 s... |
| Opugotamig Olatansine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of opugotamig, an asymmetric, bivalent, biparatopic antibody targeting two independent epitopes of folate receptor alpha (FRa; FolRa; FOLR1) that is conjugated, via a cleavable peptide linker, to the cytotoxic maytansinoid derivative DM21, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of opugotamig olatansine, the antibody moiety targets and binds to FRa expressed on tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake and internalization, DM21 is released... |
| Oral Aminolevulinic Acid Hydrochloride | A powder for an oral solution comprised of the hydrochloride salt of 5-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) with a potential application for photodynamic therapy. After oral administration, ALA is converted intracellularly into the photosensitizer protoporphyrin IX (PpIX). Upon exposure to light of appropriate wavelength (violet to blue range), excited PpIX emits a characteristic red fluorescence which could facilitate guided resection, and generates excited singlet oxygen molecules that could kill cell... |
| Oral Azacitidine | An orally bioavailable formulation of azacitidine, a pyrimidine nucleoside analogue of cytidine, with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, azacitidine is taken up by cells and metabolized to 5-azadeoxycitidine triphosphate. The incorporation of 5-azadeoxycitidine triphosphate into DNA reversibly inhibits DNA methyltransferase, and blocks DNA methylation. Hypomethylation of DNA by azacitidine may re-activate tumor suppressor genes previously silenced by hypermethylation, resultin... |
| Oral Cancer Vaccine V3-OVA | An orally available cancer vaccine composed of autologous ovarian cancer antigens obtained from hydrolyzed, inactivated blood and tumor tissue of patients with ovarian cancer, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of the oral cancer vaccine V3-OVA, the ovarian cancer antigens stimulate the immune system and activate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against ovarian cancer cells. |
| Oral Docetaxel | An oral proprietary P-glycoprotein (P-gp) pump inhibitor-based formulation containing the taxane docetaxel, a semisynthetic analogue of paclitaxel, and a P-gp pump inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of oral docetaxel, the P-gp pump inhibitor moiety, which is not absorbed, binds to the P-gp pump in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and prevents the P-gp pump-mediated efflux of docetaxel from cells the docetaxel has been internalized by back into the GI tract. ... |
| Oral Fludarabine Phosphate | An oral formulation of the phosphate salt of fludarabine, a synthetic purine nucleoside analogue antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity. Fudarabine is preferentially transported into malignant cells and metabolized by deoxycytidine kinase to its active form, 2-fluoro-ara-ATP; 2-fluoro-ara-ATP competes directly with deoxyadenosine triphosphate (dATP) and inhibits alpha DNA polymerase, RNA reductase, and DNA primase, which may result in inhibition of DNA synthesis and cell death. |
| Oral Hsp90 Inhibitor IPI-493 | An orally bioavailable formulation of the ansamycin derivative 17-amino-17-demethoxygeldanamycin (17-AG) with potential antineoplastic activity. Oral Hsp90 inhibitor IPI-493 binds to and inhibits Hsp90, which may result the in growth inhibition in sensitive tumor cell populations. Hsp90, a 90 kDa molecular chaperone, may be highly expressed in tumor cells, playing a key role in the conformational maturation, stability and function of other substrate or "client" proteins within the cell; man... |
| Oral Irinotecan Hydrochloride Formulation VAL-413 | An orally bioavailable flavored formulation composed of the hydrochloride salt form of irinotecan, a semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of oral irinotecan HCl formulation VAL-413, irinotecan is converted to the biologically active metabolite 7-ethyl-10-hydroxy-camptothecin (SN-38) by a carboxylesterase-converting enzyme. In turn, SN-38 inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the cleavable complex of topoisomerase... |
| Oral Ixabepilone | An enteric-coated formulation of ixabepilone, a semisynthetic analogue of epothilone B and a non-taxane tubulin inhibitor, with antineoplastic activity. Ixabepilone binds to and stabilizes tubulin molecules, thereby interfering with the dynamics of microtubule assembly/disassembly. This results in cell cycle arrest at the G2-M phase and leads to apoptosis within fast growing tumor cells. This agent demonstrates antineoplastic activity against taxane-resistant cell lines. Compared to intraveno... |
| Oral Microencapsulated Diindolylmethane | An orally bioavailable microencapsulated formulation of diindolylmethane, an indole phytonutrient found in cruciferous vegetables, with estrogen-modulating, antiandrogenic, and potential antineoplastic activities. As a dimer of indole-3-carbinol, diindolylmethane (DIM) modulates estrogen balance by reducing the levels of 16-hydroxy estrogen metabolites and increasing the formation of beneficial 2-hydroxy estrogen metabolites. DIM also antagonizes androgen receptor activity, which may result i... |
| Oral Myoma Vaccine V3-myoma | An orally available therapeutic myoma vaccine containing pooled antigens derived from hydrolyzed, inactivated blood and tumor tissue samples from patients with uterine myoma, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon oral administration, V3-myoma may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-mediated response against cells expressing myoma-associated antigens. This may reduce the myoma growth and improve myoma-related symptoms. |
| Oral Pancreatic Cancer Vaccine V3-P | An orally bioavailable, therapeutic cancer vaccine composed of the carbohydrate antigen sialyl-Lewis A (carbohydrate antigen 19-9; CA19.9; CA19-9) that is derived from pooled blood of pancreatic cancer patients, with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon oral administration of the oral pancreatic cancer vaccine V3-P, the CA19.9 antigens may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against pancreatic cancer cells expressing the CA19.... |
| Oral Picoplatin | An oral preparation of picoplatin, a third generation platinum compound with antineoplastic activity. Designed to overcome platinum drug resistance, picoplatin alkylates DNA, forming both inter- and intra-strand cross-linkages, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication and RNA transcription and the induction of apoptosis. Because of the increase in steric bulk around the platinum center, there is a relative reduction in the inactivation of picoplatin by thiol-containing species such as gluta... |
| Oral Sodium Phenylbutyrate | An orally active derivative of the short-chain fatty acid butyrate with potential antineoplastic activity. 4-Phenylbutyrate inhibits histone deacetylase, resulting in cell cycle gene expression modulation, reduced cell proliferation, increased cell differentiation, and apoptosis. This agent also initiates fragmentation of genomic DNA, resulting in decreased DNA synthesis and the inhibition of tumor cell migration and invasion. |
| Oral Topotecan Hydrochloride | An oral formulation of the hydrochloride salt of topotecan, a semisynthetic derivative of the quinoline alkaloid camptothecin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Topotecan selectively inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes during the S phase of the cell cycle, thereby inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-strand DNA breaks and producing potentially lethal double-strand DNA breaks when encountered by the DNA replication m... |
| Orantinib | An orally bioavailable receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor.  SU6668 binds to and inhibits the autophosphorylation of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR), and fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR), thereby inhibiting angiogenesis and cell proliferation.  SU6668 also inhibits the phosphorylation of the stem cell factor receptor tyrosine kinase c-kit, often expressed in acute myelogenous leukemia cells. (NCI04) |
| Oraxol | A combination formulation composed of a capsule containing the taxane compound paclitaxel and a tablet containing the multidrug resistance (MDR) efflux pump P-glycoprotein (P-gp) inhibitor HM30181A, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of oraxol, the HM30181A moiety binds to and inhibits P-gp, which prevents P-gp-mediated efflux of paclitaxel, therefore enhancing its oral bioavailability. In turn, paclitaxel binds to and stabilizes microtubules, preventing their de... |
| Ordesekimab | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ordesekimab binds to and neutralizes IL-15, thereby preventing IL-15-mediated pro-inflammatory signaling. By inhibiting IL-15-mediated immune responses, ordesekimab decreases natural killer (NK) cell activation and proliferation, reduces T-cell infiltration, incre... |
| Oregovomab | A murine monoclonal antibody that attaches to the tumor-associated antigen CA125. Vaccination with monoclonal antibody B43.13 may stimulate a host cytotoxic immune response against tumor cells that express CA125. (NCI04) |
| Orelabrutinib | A small molecule inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, orelabrutinib binds to and inhibits the activity of BTK. This prevents both the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways, inhibiting the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the Src-related BTK/Tec family of cytoplasm... |
| Orludodstat | An orally available inhibitor of dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (DHODH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, orludodstat specifically targets, binds to and prevents the activation of DHODH, thereby preventing the fourth enzymatic step in de novo pyrimidine synthesis. This prevents uridine monophosphate (UMP) formation, DNA synthesis, cell division and cellular proliferation, causes reactive oxygen species (ROS) production, enables differentiation and induces apoptosis i... |
| Ormaplatin | A platinum(IV) analogue with antineoplastic activity. Ormaplatin alkylates DNA, forming both inter- and intra-strand platinum-DNA crosslinks, which result in inhibition of DNA replication and transcription and cell-cycle nonspecific cytotoxicity. |
| Ortataxel | A semisynthetic, second-generation taxane derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Ortataxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin molecules, thereby interfering with the dynamics of microtubule assembly/disassembly. This results in the inhibition of cell division and cellular proliferation. As it represents a poor substrate for P-glycoprotein (P-gp), multi-drug resistance protein (MRP-1) and breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP) mediated efflux, ortataxel modulates multi-drug resistanc... |
| Orteronel | An orally bioavailable non-steroidal androgen synthesis inhibitor of steroid 17alpha-monooxygenase (17,20 lyase) with potential antiandrogen activity. TAK-700 binds to and inhibits the steroid 17alpha-monooxygenase in both the testes and adrenal glands, thereby inhibiting androgen production. This may decrease androgen-dependent growth signaling and may inhibit cell proliferation of androgen-dependent tumor cells. The cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP17A1 (P450C17), localized to the endoplasmic reti... |
| Orvacabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous CD4- and CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that have been ex vivo transduced with a genetically-engineered lentiviral vector (LV) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) fused to the co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the CD3-zeta (CD3z) T-cell signaling domain... |
| Osemitamab | A recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, osemitamab specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. This may kill CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells by antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC), and inhib... |
| Osilodrostat | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of both steroid 11beta-hydroxylase (cytochrome P450 (CYP) 11B1) and aldosterone synthase (CYP11B2; steroid 18-hydroxylase), with potential anti-adrenal activity and ability to treat Cushing disease (CD). Upon administration, osilodrostat binds to and inhibits the activity of CYP11B1, the enzyme that catalyzes the final step of cortisol synthesis from the precursor 11-deoxycortisol, and CYP11B2, the enzyme that catalyzes aldosterone synthesis from corticosteron... |
| Osimertinib | A third-generation, orally available, irreversible, mutant-selective, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, osimertinib covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of numerous mutant forms of EGFR, including the secondarily-acquired resistance mutation T790M, L858R, and exon 19 deletions, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tu... |
| Osugacestat | A small-molecule gamma secretase (GS) and pan-Notch inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, osugacestat binds to GS and blocks activation of Notch receptors, which may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells with an overly-active Notch pathway. The integral membrane protein GS is a multi-subunit protease complex that cleaves single-pass transmembrane proteins, such as Notch receptors, at residues within their transmembrane domains that lead to thei... |
| Osunprotafib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the T-cell specific tyrosine-protein phosphatase non-receptor type 2 (PTPN2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, osunprotafib specifically targets and binds to PTPN2. This prevents PTPN2-mediated signal transduction pathways and may activate anti-tumor T-cell immune responses. It may also sensitize tumor cells to immunotherapeutics. PTPN2 negatively regulates TCR and cytokine signaling needed for T cell ... |
| Otlertuzumab | A recombinant single-chain polypeptide engineered to exhibit the full binding and activity of an anti-CD37 monoclonal antibody with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Otlertuzumab binds to CD37 on B-cells, which may result in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) and apoptosis. CD37 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed at high-levels on B cells and to a lesser extent on T cells and myeloid cells. This agent may have a longer half-life in vivo than c... |
| Ovapuldencel-T | A cancer vaccine consisting of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with autologous, lethally irradiated cancer cells and mixed with the cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, ovapuldencel-T may stimulate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against the repertoire of tumor associated antigens (TAAs) found in the irradiated cancer cells. GM-CSF ... |
| Ovarian Cancer Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of synthetic peptides corresponding to naturally-occurring peptides derived from ovarian cancer cell antigens. Ovarian cancer peptide vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells expressing the related ovarian cancer cell antigens. (NCI05) |
| Ovarian Cancer Stem Cell/hTERT/Survivin mRNAs-loaded Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine DC-006 | A cancer vaccine containing autologous dendritic cells (DCs) that are transfected with mRNAs extracted from amplified ovarian cancer stem cells, and mRNAs of the universal tumor antigens human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT) and survivin with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ovarian cancer stem cell/hTERT/survivin mRNAs-loaded autologous DC-006 vaccine may elicit a highly specific cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against ovarian cancer ce... |
| Ovarian Tumor Antigen-activated Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A dendritic cell (DC)-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) activated with an ovarian tumor cell lysate containing tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the ovarian tumor antigen-activated autologous DC vaccine may stimulate an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against ovarian cancer cells expressing ovarian tumor cell-specific antigens, which may result in ovarian tumo... |
| Ovine Submaxillary Mucin | A naturally occurring mucin glycoprotein. Ovine submaxillary mucin (OSM), extracted from an ovine submaxillary gland, provides a rich source of the sialylated Tn antigen (sTn), which is a carbohydrate antigen found on mucins of many epithelial tumors. Vaccination with OSM may result in the production of antibodies as well as elicitation of a cytotoxic T- lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing sTn, thereby results in decreased tumor cell growth. |
| Oxaliplatin | An organoplatinum complex in which the platinum atom is complexed with 1,2-diaminocyclohexane (DACH) and with an oxalate ligand as a 'leaving group.' A 'leaving group' is an atom or a group of atoms that is displaced as a stable species taking with it the bonding electrons. After displacement of the labile oxalate ligand leaving group, active oxaliplatin derivatives, such as monoaquo and diaquo DACH platinum, alkylate macromolecules, forming both inter- and intra-strand platinum-DNA crosslink... |
| Oxaliplatin Eluting Beads | A formulation of drug-eluting beads (DEB) consisting of polymeric microbeads impregnated with the organoplatinum complex and alkylating agent oxaliplatin, with potential antineoplastic activity. The beads consist of polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) microspheres modified with sulfonic acid groups and loaded with oxaliplatin. During transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) in the hepatic artery, the oxaliplatin eluting beads occlude tumor blood vessels that feed the tumor and induce ischemic necrosis of t... |
| Oxaliplatin-Encapsulated Transferrin-Conjugated N-glutaryl Phosphatidylethanolamine Liposome | A nanoparticle formulation containing N-glutaryl phosphatidylethanolamine (NGPE)-liposomes encapsulating oxaliplatin and conjugated to the human transferrin (Tf) ligand, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon infusion of oxaliplatin-encapsulated transferrin-conjugated NGPE liposomes, the transferrin moiety targets and binds to the Tf receptor, which is overexpressed on a variety of human cancer cells. Upon binding and internalization, oxaliplatin is released and its active derivatives a... |
| Oxidative Phosphorylation Inhibitor IACS-010759 | An orally bioavailable oxidative phosphorylation (OxPhos) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the OxPhos inhibitor IACS-010759, this agent binds to and inhibits complex I of the electron transport chain (NADH ubiquinone oxidoreductase), thereby selectively depriving tumor cells of nutrients, and energy, and inhibiting nucleotide and amino acid production, which induces autophagy, causes tumor cell death and inhibits cell proliferation. Mitochondrial compl... |
| Oxidopamine | An antagonist of the neurotransmitter dopamine with potential antineoplastic activity. 6-Hydroxydopamine (6-HOD) can be taken up by selective adrenergic terminals, thereby causing acute degeneration of adrenergic terminals that leads to depletion of norepinephrine, and of dopamine in the dopamine-sensitive sites. This agent is auto-oxidated at physiological pH that leads to the formation of reactive free radicals, thereby leading to cytotoxicity in neural cells.  6-Hydroxydopamine is often us... |
| OxPhos Inhibitor VLX600 | A lipophilic cation-based triazinoindolyl-hydrazone compound and mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation (OxPhos) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon infusion, in normal cells and proliferating tumor cells where glucose is readily available, inhibition of OxPhos by VLX600 induces a hypoxia-inducible factor 1-alpha (HIF-1alpha)-dependent shift to, and an increase in glycolysis. Glycolysis alone does not produce enough energy to support the growth of tumor cells in this envi... |
| Oxygen Carrier YQ23 | A bovine-derived, stabilized, non-polymeric, cross-linked, tetrameric hemoglobin-based oxygen carrier, with potential oxygen carrying, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, oxygen carrier YQ23 may increase the oxygen level in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This may prevent the increase of circulating endothelial progenitor cells (EPCs) and regulatory T-cells (Tregs) that results from tissue ischemia and hypoxia. EPCs play important roles in tumor vasculogenes... |
| Ozarelix | A highly modified, fourth generation linear decapeptide with gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH or LHRH) antagonizing properties. Ozarelix competitively binds to and blocks the gonadotropin releasing hormone receptor in the anterior pituitary gland, thereby inhibiting the secretion and release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). In males, the inhibition of LH secretion prevents the release of testosterone. As a result, this may relieve symptoms associated wit... |
| Ozekibart | A recombinant, humanized, agonistic, tetravalent monoclonal antibody directed against human death receptor type 5 (DR5), also called tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL) receptor 2 (TRAILR2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ozekibart specifically binds to exactly four DR5 receptors per molecule, which mimics the interaction of DR5 with its natural ligand TRAIL. This activates DR5 and the death receptor signaling... |
| Ozuriftamab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of ozuriftamab, a conditionally active biologic (CAB) antibody against receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 2 (ROR2) conjugated to monomethyl auristatin E, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of ozuriftamab vedotin, the anti-ROR2 antibody becomes activated through an as of yet not fully elucidated process, only under the unique microphysical conditions that are present in the tumor microenvironment (TME) as a result of... |
| p.DOM-WT1-126 DNA Vaccine | A fusion DNA vaccine containing the first domain of fragment C (FrC) of tetanus toxin (TT865-1120) (p.DOM) fused to the human Wilms' Tumor gene-1 (WT1)-derived MHC class I-binding epitope WT1.126, with potential antitumor activity. Upon vaccination with p.DOM-WT1-126 DNA and subsequent electroporation, this vaccine may induce a WT1 epitope-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against WT1 expressing cells, resulting in cell lysis and inhibition of cancer cell proliferation in WT1-ove... |
| p.DOM-WT1-37 DNA Vaccine | A fusion DNA vaccine containing the first domain of fragment C (FrC) of tetanus toxin (TT865-1120) (p.DOM) fused to the human Wilms' Tumor gene-1 (WT1)-derived MHC class I-binding epitope WT1.37, with potential antitumor activity. Upon vaccination with p.DOM-WT1-37 DNA and subsequent electroporation, this vaccine may induce a WT1 epitope-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against WT1 expressing cells, resulting in cell lysis and inhibition of cancer cell proliferation in WT1-overe... |
| P30-linked EphA2/CMV pp65/Survivin Peptide Vaccine P30-EPS | A peptide vaccine comprised of three immunogenic tetanus toxoid epitope P30-linked tumor-associated antigen (TAA) peptides, P30-linked Ephrin receptor A2 (EphA2), P30-linked cytomegalovirus (CMV) matrix protein pp65 (65 kDa lower matrix phosphoprotein; UL83) and P30-linked survivin, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, P30-linked EphA2/CMV pp65/survivin peptide vaccine P30-EPS may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cell... |
| p38 MAPK Inhibitor LY3007113 | An orally active p38 mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) inhibitor with potential immunomodulating, anti-inflammatory, and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, LY3007113 inhibits the activity of p38, thereby preventing p38 MAPK-mediated signaling. This may result in the inhibition of the production of proinflammatory cytokines and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. p38 MAPK, a serine/threonine protein kinase often upregulated in cancer cells, plays a crucial part in the produ... |
| p53 Mutant Reactivator APR-548 | An analog of eprenetapopt and an orally bioavailable, small molecule prodrug and reactivator of p53 mutants, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of p53 mutant reactivator APR-548, as a prodrug APR-548 is converted to its active form, 2-methylene-quinuclidin-3-one (MQ), which binds to mutant p53 proteins at their DNA-binding domain and restores wild-type p53 protein structure and activity. This reconstitutes endogenous p53 activity, blocks tumor cell cycle progress... |
| p53 Peptide Vaccine MPS-128 | A peptide-based cancer vaccine composed of amino acids 264 to 272 of the wild-type protein encoded by the P53 gene. p53 peptide vaccine may elicit an HLA-A2.1-restricted cytotoxic T lymphocyte immune response against tumor cells that overexpress p53 protein. (NCI04) |
| p53 Y220C Mutant Reactivator PC14586 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule reactivator of the p53 Y220C mutant, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, p53 Y220C mutant reactivator PC14586 selectively targets and binds to the crevice created by the p53 Y220C mutation, which normalizes and restores wild-type p53 protein structure and activity. This blocks tumor cell cycle progression and induces apoptosis in tumor cells expressing the p53 Y220C mutant. The p53 gene, a tumor suppressor gene, is mutated i... |
| p53 Y220C Reactivator JAB-30355 | An orally bioavailable reactivator of the tumor suppressor protein p53 mutation TP53 Y220C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, p53 Y220C reactivator JAB-30355 selectively targets, binds to and restores the conformation of TP53 Y220C. This restores the transcriptional activity of TP53 Y220C, reactivates p53-mediated signaling and restores p53 function. This induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in tumor cells expressing the TP53 Y220C mutation and inhibits prol... |
| p53/HDM2 Interaction Inhibitor CGM097 | An orally bioavailable HDM2 (human homolog of double minute 2) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, p53/HDM2 interaction inhibitor CGM097 inhibits the binding of the HDM2 protein to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this HDM2-p53 interaction, the proteasome-mediated enzymatic degradation of p53 is inhibited, which may result in the restoration of p53 signaling and, thus, the p53-mediated induction o... |
| p53-HDM2 Interaction Inhibitor MI-773 | An orally available spiro-oxindole HDM2 (human double minute 2) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the p53-HDM2 protein-protein interaction inhibitor MI-773 binds to HDM2, preventing the binding of the HDM2 protein to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this HDM2-p53 interaction, the proteasome-mediated enzymatic degradation of p53 is inhibited and the transcriptional activity of p53 is restored, wh... |
| P53-Synthetic Long Peptides Vaccine | A peptide vaccine consisting of 10 synthetic long peptides (SLPs), 25-30 amino acids in size and derived from the middle portion of p53 (amino acids 70-251), mixed with the adjuvant Montanide ISA-51 with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Upon administration, p53 synthetic long peptide (70-251) vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-cell lymphocyte (CTL) response against p53-expressing tumor cells. p53, a tumor associated antigen (TAA), may be o... |
| p70S6K Inhibitor LY2584702 | An orally available inhibitor of p70S6K signaling, with potential antineoplastic activity. p70S6K inhibitor LY2584702 inhibits ribosomal protein S6 Kinase (p70S6K), and prevents phosphorylation of the S6 subunit of ribosomes, thereby inhibiting normal ribosomal function within tumor cells leading to a decrease in protein synthesis and in cellular proliferation. P70S6K, a serine/threonine kinase, acts downstream of PIP3 and phosphoinositide-dependent kinase-1 in the PI3 kinase pathway, is ofte... |
| p97 Inhibitor CB-5083 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of valosin-containing protein (VCP) p97, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CB-5083 specifically binds to and inhibits the activity of p97. This prevents ubiquitin-dependent protein degradation and causes cellular accumulation of poly-ubiquitinated proteins. The inhibition of endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-associated protein degradation activates the ER-dependent stress response pathway, and leads to both an induction of apoptosis an... |
| p97 Inhibitor CB-5339 | An orally bioavailable, selective, second-generation inhibitor of valosin-containing protein (VCP)/p97, with potential antineoplastic activity.  Upon oral administration, p97 inhibitor CB-5339 binds to and inhibits the activity of p97.  This prevents ubiquitin-dependent protein degradation and causes cellular accumulation of poly-ubiquitinated proteins.  The inhibition of endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-associated protein degradation activates the ER-dependent stress response pathway, and leads to... |
| p97 Inhibitor CB-5339 Tosylate | The tosylate salt of  CB-5339, an orally bioavailable, selective, second-generation inhibitor of valosin-containing protein (VCP)/p97, with potential antineoplastic activity.  Upon oral administration, p97 inhibitor CB-5339 binds to and inhibits the activity of p97.  This prevents ubiquitin-dependent protein degradation and causes cellular accumulation of poly-ubiquitinated proteins.  The inhibition of endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-associated protein degradation activates the ER-dependent stress... |
| PA-1-STK Ovarian Carcinoma Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine with potential antineoplastic activity. PA-1-STK ovarian carcinoma vaccine is produced by transducing the ovarian cancer cell line, PA-1, with the herpes simplex thymidine kinase (HSV-tk) gene, resulting in a cell line, PA-1-STK, that permanently expresses the HSV tk gene. Upon transfection into malignant cells, this vaccine is capable of sensitizing tumor cells in response to an antiviral drug such as ganciclovir, which is readily phosphorylated by the TK enzyme t... |
| Pacanalotamab | A short half-life bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17), fused to one that is directed against the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of pacanalotamab, this bispecific antibody binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and BCMA found on ... |
| Paclitaxel | A compound extracted from the Pacific yew tree Taxus brevifolia with antineoplastic activity.  Paclitaxel binds to tubulin and inhibits the disassembly of microtubules, thereby resulting in the inhibition of cell division.  This agent also induces apoptosis by binding to and blocking the function of the apoptosis inhibitor protein Bcl-2 (B-cell Leukemia 2). (NCI04) |
| Paclitaxel and Hyaluronic Acid | A water soluble, muco-adhesive co-formulation composed of the natural taxane paclitaxel conjugated to the naturally occurring proteoglycan hyaluronic acid, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravesical administration of paclitaxel and hyaluronic acid, HA targets and binds to CD44 expressed on cancer cells. In turn, paclitaxel binds to and stabilizes microtubules, preventing their depolymerization and inhibiting cellular motility, mitosis, and replication in CD44-expressing tumor c... |
| Paclitaxel Ceribate | The ceribate ester form of paclitaxel, a compound extracted from the Pacific yew tree Taxus brevifolia with antineoplastic activity. Paclitaxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin thereby inhibiting the disassembly of microtubules, resulting in the inhibition of cell division. This agent also induces apoptosis by binding to and blocking the function of the apoptosis inhibitor protein B-cell Leukemia 2 (BCL2). |
| Paclitaxel Injection Concentrate for Nanodispersion | A nanoparticle-based injectable concentrate containing the water-insoluble taxane paclitaxel, with potential antineoplastic activity.  Upon reconstitution and administration, paclitaxel binds to tubulin and inhibits the disassembly of microtubules, thereby resulting in the inhibition of cell division. Compared to paclitaxel alone, the nanodispersion-based formulation uses less toxic solvents and allows for administration of higher doses resulting in higher concentrations of paclitaxel at the ... |
| Paclitaxel Liposome | A liposome-encapsulated formulation of paclitaxel, a taxoid compound extracted from the Pacific yew tree Taxus brevifolia, with antineoplastic property. Paclitaxel binds to tubulin and interferes with the assembly/disassembly dynamics of microtubules, thereby resulting in the inhibition of cell division. This agent also induces apoptosis via inactivation of the apoptosis inhibitor, B-cell Leukemia 2 (Bcl-2) protein. Paclitaxel liposome formulation potentially enhances delivery of higher doses... |
| Paclitaxel Poliglumex | The agent paclitaxel linked to a biodegradable, water-soluble polyglutamate polymer with antineoplastic properties. The polyglutamate residue increases the water solubility of paclitaxel and allows delivery of higher doses than those achievable with paclitaxel alone. Paclitaxel promotes microtubule assembly and prevents microtubule depolymerization, thus interfering with normal mitosis. |
| Paclitaxel Polymeric Micelle Formulation NANT-008 | A nanoparticle-based formulation consisting of polymeric micelles encapsulating the taxane paclitaxel, with potential antineoplastic activity. Paclitaxel is covalently bound to polyethylene glycol (PEG)-based block copolymers which forms a micellar structure with an outer hydrophilic PEG shell surrounding the hydrophobic paclitaxel. Upon administration of the paclitaxel polymeric micelle formulation NANT-008, the nanoparticles are stable in the bloodstream and specifically accumulate in the t... |
| Paclitaxel PPE Microspheres | A paclitaxel formulation containing paclitaxel incorporated in biodegradable polyphosphoester (PPE) polymer form with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intraperitoneal delivery, paclitaxel PPE microspheres slowly and continuously dissolve and deliver paclitaxel to the tumor site, where it binds to tubulin and inhibits the dynamics of disassembly-assembly of microtubules. As a result, this formulation induces cell cycle arrest and leads to cell death. |
| Paclitaxel Trevatide | A peptide-drug conjugate containing the taxane paclitaxel covalently linked to the proprietary 19 amino acid peptide angiopep-2, in a 3:1 ratio, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, paclitaxel trevatide, via angiopep-2 moiety, binds to LRP-1 (low density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 1), which is highly expressed in blood brain barrier (BBB) and glioma cells. This binding allows the transcytosis of the agent across the BBB and the delivery of the cytotoxic agent... |
| Paclitaxel Vitamin E-Based Emulsion | A cremophor-free, P-glycoprotein-inhibiting, vitamin E-based emulsion particle formulation of paclitaxel with antineoplastic activity. Paclitaxel binds to tubulin and inhibits the disassembly of microtubules, thereby resulting in the inhibition of cell division. This agent also induces apoptosis by binding to and blocking the function of the apoptosis inhibitor protein B-cell Leukemia 2 (Bcl-2). The vitamin-E based emulsion allows bolus infusion without steroid premedication and may diminish ... |
| Paclitaxel-conjugated CXCR4 Peptide Antagonist MB1707 | A peptide-drug conjugate (PDC) of paclitaxel with an inhibitor of CXC chemokine receptor 4 (CXCR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of paclitaxel-conjugated CXCR4 peptide antagonist MB1707, the CXCR4 inhibitor moiety binds to the chemokine receptor CXCR4 expressed on tumor cells, thereby preventing CXCR4 binding to its ligand, stromal derived factor-1 (SDF-1), and subsequent receptor activation. This may result in decreased tumor cell proliferation and migration. I... |
| Paclitaxel-Loaded Polymeric Micelle | A biodegradable poly(ethylene glycol)-poly(D,L-lactide) copolymer micelle nanoparticle-entrapped formulation of paclitaxel with antineoplastic activity. Paclitaxel promotes microtubule assembly and prevents depolymerization, thus interfering with normal mitosis. The copolymer residue increases the water-solubility of paclitaxel and allows delivery of higher doses than those achievable with paclitaxel alone. |
| Paclitaxel-loaded Tumor Penetrating Microparticles | A microparticle-based suspension containing the water-insoluble taxane paclitaxel, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intraperitoneal administration of paclitaxel-loaded tumor penetrating microparticles (TPM), the microparticles may adhere to tumor cells, and paclitaxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin molecules, which results in the inhibition of both microtubule depolymerization and cell division. Paclitaxel also induces apoptosis by both binding to and blocking the function of the... |
| Pacmilimab | A recombinant antibody prodrug composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) programmed cell death 1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; B7-H1; CD274) that is linked to a proprietary masking peptide through a protease-cleavable linker on the amino terminus of the light chain domain of the antibody, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of pacmilimab, the linkage system is stable in the circulation and, upon extravas... |
| Pacritinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus kinase 2 (JAK2), the JAK2 mutant JAK2V617F and FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pacritinib competes with JAK2 and the JAK2 mutant JAK2V617F for ATP binding, which may result in inhibition of JAK2 activation, inhibition of the JAK-signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) signaling pathway, and the induction of apoptosis. In addition, pacritinib targets... |
| Pacritinib Citrate | The citrate salt form of pacritinib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus kinase 2 (JAK2), the JAK2 mutant JAK2V617F and FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of pacritinib citrate, pacritinib competes with JAK2 and the JAK2 mutant JAK2V617F for ATP binding, which may result in inhibition of JAK2 activation, inhibition of the JAK-signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) signaling pathway, and ... |
| Padeliporfin | A vascular-acting photosensitizer consisting of a water-soluble, palladium-substituted bacteriochlorophyll derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, paldeliporfin is activated locally when the tumor bed is exposed to low-power laser light; reactive oxygen species (ROS) are formed upon activation and ROS-mediated necrosis may occur at the site of interaction between the photosensitizer, light and oxygen. Vascular-targeted photodynamic therapy (VTP) with padeliporf... |
| Padnarsertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of both the serine/threonine kinase P21-activated kinase 4 (PAK4) and the nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)-synthesizing enzyme nicotinamide phosphoribosyltransferase (NAMPT; NAMPRTase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, padnarsertib allosterically binds to, destabilizes and causes degradation of PAK4. This inhibits PAK4-mediated signaling, induces cell death in, and inhibits the proliferation of PAK4-overexpressing tumor cells... |
| Padoporfin | A novel palladium-substituted bacteriochlorophyll derivative and photosensitizer with potential antitumor activity. Upon administration, inactive padoporfin is activated locally when the tumor bed is exposed to photoirradiation; the activated form induces local cytotoxic processes, resulting in local tissue damage, disruption of tumor vasculature, and tumor hypoxia and necrosis. |
| PAI-1 Inhibitor ACT001 | The fumarate salt form of the parthenolide derivative micheliolide (MCL), and an orally bioavailable guaianolide sesquiterpene lactone and inhibitor of the protease plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 (PAI-1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PAI-1 inhibitor ACT001 targets and binds to PAI-1, thereby inhibiting the PAI-1/phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K)/protein kinase B (AKT) pathway. This induces apoptosis in and inhibits the proliferatio... |
| PAK4 Inhibitor PF-03758309 | An orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of p21-activated kinase 4 (PAK4) with potential antineoplastic activity. PAK4 inhibitor PF-03758309 binds to PAK4, inhibiting PAK4 activity and cancer cell growth. PAK4, a serine/threonine kinase belonging to the p21-activated kinase (PAK) family, is often upregulated in a variety of cancer cell types and plays an important role in cancer cell motility, proliferation, and survival. |
| Palazestrant | An orally available, small molecule antagonist of estrogen receptor alpha (ERalpha; ERa; ESR1; nuclear receptor subfamily 3, group A, member 1; NR3A1) and a selective ER degrader (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, palazestrant competes with the endogenous activating estrogenic ligand 17-beta estradiol for binding in the ligand binding pocket of ERalpha, thereby inhibiting the activity of ERalpha. Palazestrant blocks estrogen-driven transcriptional activi... |
| Palbociclib | An orally available cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Palbociclib selectively inhibits cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), thereby inhibiting retinoblastoma (Rb) protein phosphorylation early in the G1 phase leading to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threonine kinases that are upregulated in many tumor cell types and play a key role in the regulation of cel... |
| Palbociclib Isethionate | The isethionate salt form of palbociclib, an orally available cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Palbociclib selectively inhibits cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), thereby inhibiting retinoblastoma (Rb) protein phosphorylation early in the G1 phase leading to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threonine kinases that are upregulated in many tumor cell types an... |
| Palifosfamide | A synthetic mustard compound with potential antineoplastic activity. An active metabolite of ifosfamide covalently linked to the amino acid lysine for stability, palifosfamide irreversibly alkylates and cross-links DNA through GC base pairs, resulting in irreparable 7-atom inter-strand cross-links; inhibition of DNA replication and cell death follow. Unlike ifosfamide, this agent is not metabolized to acrolein or chloroacetaldehyde, metabolites associated with bladder and CNS toxicities. In a... |
| Palifosfamide Tromethamine | A synthetic mustard compound of the tromethamine (tris) salt of palifosfamide (Isophosphamide mustard), with potential antineoplastic activity. As the stabilized active metabolite of ifosfamide, palifosfamide irreversibly alkylates and crosslinks DNA through GC base pairs, resulting in irreparable 7-atom interstrand crosslinks. This leads to an inhibition of DNA replication and ultimately cell death. Unlike ifosfamide, this agent is not metabolized to acrolein or chloroacetaldehyde, metabolit... |
| Palladium Pd-103 | A radioisotope of the metal palladium used in brachytherapy implants or 'seed'. With a half-life of 17 days, palladium 103 administered with brachytherapy allows continuous, tumor-site specific low-energy irradiation to the tumor cell population while sparing normal adjacent tissues from radiotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Paltimatrectinib | An orally bioavailable, brain-penetrant pan-tropomyosin-related-kinase (tyrosine receptor kinase; TRK) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, paltimatrectinib specifically targets and binds to TRKs, mutated TRKs and fusion proteins containing sequences from neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1 (NTRK1; TrkA), 2 (NTRK2; TrkB), and 3 (NTRK3; TrkC). This inhibits neurotrophin-TRK interaction and TRK activation, thereby preventing the activatio... |
| Paltusotine | An orally bioavailable, nonpeptide somatostatin receptor type 2 (SST2; SSTR2) agonist, with potential growth hormone (GH) secretion-inhibiting and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, paltusotine targets, binds to and activates SSTR2, which leads to an inhibition in the secretion of human growth hormone (hGH) in the pituitary gland and results in decreased production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1). This may inhibit IGF-1-mediated cell signaling pathways, and lead to apo... |
| Palupiprant | An orally bioavailable antagonist of the prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) receptor type 4 (EP4; EP-4), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, palupiprant selectively targets, binds to and blocks the activity of immunosuppressive tumor-associated myeloid cells (TAMCs) in the microenvironment. This abolishes TAMC-dependent immunosuppression and reduces tumor cell proliferation. The presence of immunosuppressive myeloid cells in certain tumors is associat... |
| Pamidronate Disodium | The disodium salt of the synthetic bisphosphonate pamidronate. Although its mechanism of action is not completely understood, pamidronate appears to adsorb to calcium phosphate crystals in bone, blocking their dissolution by inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. This agent does not inhibit bone mineralization and formation. |
| Pamiparib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pamiparib selectively binds to PARP and prevents PARP-mediated repair of single-strand DNA breaks via the base-excision repair (BER) pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks, promotes genomic instability, and eventually leads to apoptosis. PARP is activated by single-strand DNA breaks and, subsequently, catalyzes post-trans... |
| Pamlectabart Tismanitin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of pamlectabart, a humanized immunoglobulin G1-kappa monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA, TNFRSF17) conjugated with tismanitin, which consists of a cleavable linker and the cytotoxic, RNA polymerase II inhibitor alpha-amanitin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of pamlectabart tismanitin, the pamlectabart moiety targets and binds to the cell surface antigen BCMA exp... |
| Pamrevlumab | A human monoclonal antibody targeting connective tissue growth factor (CTGF) with potential anti-fibrotic and antineoplastic activities. Pamrevlumab binds to CTGF thereby preventing the binding of the ligand to the receptor and subsequent receptor activation. As CTGF enhances the production of collagen and fibronectin, FG-319 may prevent and reverse fibrosis. In addition, FG-3019 may prevent tumor cell proliferation in CTGF-expressing tumor cells. CTGF, a member of the CCN family (CTGF, CYR61... |
| Pamvatamig | A human bispecific immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pamvatamig simultaneously targets and binds to the extracellular domains of both EGFR and c-Met expressed on cancer cells. This prevents the activation of both EGFR- and c-Met-mediated signaling pathways. The binding results in antibody-depend... |
| pan FGFR Inhibitor PRN1371 | A highly specific covalent inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor types 1, 2, 3 and 4 (FGFR1-4) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. FGFR1-4 tyrosine kinase inhibitor PRN1371 specifically binds to a conserved cysteine residue in the glycine-rich loop in FGFRs and inhibits their tyrosine kinase activity, which may result in the inhibition of both tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation, and the induction of tumor cell death. FGFRs are a family of r... |
| Pan HER/VEGFR2 Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor BMS-690514 | A pyrrolotriazine-based compound and a pan inhibitor of receptor tyrosine kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Pan HER/VEGFR2 receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor BMS-690514 binds to human epidermal growth factor receptors (EGFR) 1, 2 and 4 (HER1, HER2 and HER4) and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 1, 2 and 3 (VEGFR-1, -2 and -3), all of which are frequently overexpressed by a variety of tumor types. Binding of this agent to these receptors may result in the inhibition of ... |
| Pan-AKT Inhibitor ARQ751 | An orally bioavailable pan inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase AKT (protein kinase B) enzyme family with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AKT inhibitor ARQ 751 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of the AKT isoforms 1, 2 and 3, which may result in the inhibition of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K)/AKT signaling pathway. This may lead to a reduction in tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. The AKT signali... |
| Pan-AKT Inhibitor LY2503029 | An orally bioavailable pan-inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase AKT (protein kinase B; v-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-AKT inhibitor LY2503029 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the AKT isoforms 1, 2 and 3, which may result in the inhibition of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K)/AKT signaling pathway. This may inhibit proliferation and induce apoptosis of tumor cells in which AK... |
| Pan-AKT Kinase Inhibitor GSK690693 | An aminofurazan-derived inhibitor of Akt kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Pan-AKT kinase inhibitor GSK-690693 binds to and inhibits Akt kinases 1, 2, and 3, which may result in the inhibition of protein phosphorylation events downstream from Akt kinases in the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway, and, subsequently, the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. In addition, this agent may inhibit other protein kinases including protein kinase C (PK... |
| Pancratistatin | A isoquinoline alkaloid from amaryllis with antineoplastic activity. |
| Pan-DDR DNA Decoy-cholesterol Conjugate VIO-01 | A pan-DNA damage response (DDR) DNA decoy linked to a cholesterol molecule, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of pan-DDR DNA decoy-cholesterol conjugate VIO-01, the cholesterol moiety enables tumoral and nuclear uptake of the DNA, and mimics DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) inside the tumor cells. This triggers false DNA break signals, binding to and activating DNA repair proteins including poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1, KU70/80, MRN comp... |
| Pan-FGFR Inhibitor ABSK-121 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule pan-inhibitor of fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) family proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-FGFR inhibitor ABSK-121 binds to and inhibits FGFR family proteins, including FGFR2 and FGFR3 gatekeeper, molecular brake, and activation loop mutations. This prevents FGFR-mediated signaling, and inhibits both tumor angiogenesis and proliferation of FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor ty... |
| Pan-FGFR Inhibitor LY2874455 | An orally bioavailable pan-inhibitor of fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) family proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR inhibitor LY2874455 binds to and inhibits FGFR subtypes 1 (FGFR1), 2 (FGFR2), 3 (FGFR3) and 4 (FGFR4), which results in the inhibition of FGFR-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits both tumor angiogenesis and proliferation of FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases upregulate... |
| Pan-HER Inhibitor FCN-411 | An orally bioavailable pan-human epidermal growth factor receptors (EGFR; HER) tyrosine kinase inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-HER inhibitor FCN-411 targets, binds to and inhibits human epidermal growth factor receptors (HER) EGFR (HER1; ErbB1), HER2 (neu, ErbB-2), HER3 (ErbB-3) and HER4 (ErbB-4), and including EGFR activating and resistance mutations such as EGFR T790M/L858. This inhibits downstream signaling leading to the inhibition of proli... |
| pan-HER Kinase Inhibitor AC480 | An orally bioavailable pan-HER tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. BMS-599626 inhibits human epidermal growth factor receptors (HER) HER1, HER2 and HER4, thereby inhibiting the proliferation of tumor cells that overexpress these receptors. (NCI05) |
| Panitumumab | A human IgG2kappa monoclonal antibody specific for the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR). Monoclonal antibody E7.6.3 binds to the EGFR, blocking the binding of epidermal growth factor and transforming growth factor alpha to EGFR-expressing cancer cells and ultimately inhibiting EGFR-dependent cell activation and proliferation. (NCI) |
| Pan-KRAS Inhibitor BI 1701963 | An orally available protein-protein interaction (PPI) inhibitor that targets the guanine nucleotide exchange factor Son of sevenless homolog 1 (SOS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-KRAS inhibitor BI 1701963 selectively targets and binds to SOS1, thereby preventing the interaction of SOS1 with Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) in the guanosine diphosphate (GDP)-bound 'off' state, which is the inactivated state of KRAS. This abrogates the ... |
| Pan-KRAS Inhibitor PF-07934040 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of KRAS mutations, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-KRAS inhibitor PF-07934040 targets, binds to and inhibits various forms of KRAS mutations, thereby inhibiting KRAS-dependent signaling. This inhibits the proliferation of and induces apoptosis in tumor cells in which KRAS is mutated. KRAS plays an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction l... |
| Pan-KRAS Inhibitor YL-17231 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of various KRAS mutations, such as the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutations G12C, G12D and G12V, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-KRAS inhibitor YL-17231 targets, binds to and inhibits various forms of KRAS mutations, thereby inhibiting KRAS-dependent signaling. This inhibits the proliferation of and induces apoptosis in tumor cells in which KRAS is mutated. KRAS plays an important role in cell signaling, division and diff... |
| Pan-LOX Inhibitor PXS-5505 | An orally available, small-molecule, irreversible inhibitor of all lysyl oxidases (LOX) family members, with potential antifibrotic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-LOX inhibitor PXS-5505 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of all enzymes in the LOX family. This prevents the post-translational oxidative deamination of lysine residues on target proteins, including collagen and elastin, and reduces the formation of deaminated lysine (allysine), the formation of inter- and intramo... |
| Pan-Mutant-IDH1 Inhibitor Bay-1436032 | An orally available pan-inhibitor of mutant forms of the metabolic enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1; IDH-1; IDH1 [NADP+] soluble), including forms with mutations of arginine 132 (IDH1(R132)), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pan-mutant-IDH-1 inhibitor BAY-1436032 specifically inhibits the activity of IDH1 mutant forms, which prevents the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG) from alpha-ketoglutarate (a-KG). This prevents 2HG-mediated ... |
| Pan-mutant-selective PI3K-alpha Inhibitor RLY-2608 | An orally bioavailable, pan-mutant selective inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (phosphoinositide 3-kinase alpha; PIK3CA; PI3K p110alpha), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-mutant selective PI3K-alpha inhibitor RLY-2608 selectively targets and allosterically binds to PIK3CA mutated forms, thereby preventing the activity of PIK3CA mutants. This prevents mutant PIK3CA-mediated activation of t... |
| Pan-mutant-selective PI3K-alpha Inhibitor RLY-5836 | An orally bioavailable, pan-mutant selective inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (phosphoinositide 3-kinase alpha; PIK3CA; PI3K p110alpha), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-mutant-selective PI3K-alpha inhibitor RLY-5836 selectively targets and allosterically binds to PIK3CA mutated forms, thereby preventing the activity of PIK3CA mutants. This prevents mutant PIK3CA-mediated activation of t... |
| Panobinostat | A cinnamic hydroxamic acid analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Panobinostat selectively inhibits histone deacetylase (HDAC), inducing hyperacetylation of core histone proteins, which may result in modulation of cell cycle protein expression, cell cycle arrest in the G2/M phase and apoptosis. In addition, this agent appears to modulate the expression of angiogenesis-related genes, such as hypoxia-inducible factor-1alpha (HIF-1a) and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), thus ... |
| Panobinostat Lactate | The lactate form of panobinostat, a pan histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, panobinostat selectively targets, binds to and inhibits HDAC, which induces hyperacetylation of core histone proteins. The accumulation of highly acetylated histones leads to chromatin remodeling, an altered pattern of gene expression, inhibition of tumor oncogene transcription and the selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes. This results in the ... |
| Panobinostat Nanoparticle Formulation MTX110 | A gold nanoparticle (GNP)-based formulation containing panobinostat, a pan histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intra-tumoral injection of MTX110, panobinostat is released from the formulation and selectively targets, binds to and inhibits histone deacetylase (HDAC), which induces hyperacetylation of core histone proteins. The accumulation of highly acetylated histones leads to chromatin remodeling, an altered pattern of gene expression, inhibitio... |
| pan-PI3K Inhibitor CLR457 | An orally bioavailable pan inhibitor of phosphatidylinositol-3-kinase (PI3K), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-PI3K inhibitor CLR457 inhibits all of the PI3K kinase isoforms, which may result in apoptosis and growth inhibition in tumor cells overexpressing PI3K. Activation of the PI3K pathway promotes cell growth, survival, and resistance to both chemotherapy and radiotherapy. |
| pan-PI3K/mTOR Inhibitor SF1126 | A water soluble, small-molecule prodrug containing the pan-PI3K/mTOR inhibitor LY294002/SF1101 conjugated to the RGD-containing tetra-peptide SF1174 with potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. The targeting peptide SF1174 moiety of pan-PI3K/mTOR inhibitor SF1126 selectively binds to cell surface integrins and, upon cell entry, the agent is hydrolyzed to the active drug SF1101; SF1101 selectively inhibits all isoforms of phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) and other members of th... |
| pan-PIM Kinase Inhibitor AZD1208 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of PIM kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Pan-PIM kinase inhibitor AZD1208 inhibits the activities of PIM1, PIM2 and PIM3 serine/threonine kinases, which may result in the interruption of the G1/S phase cell cycle transition, thereby causing cell cycle arrest and inducing apoptosis in cells that overexpress PIMs. The growth inhibition of several leukemia cell lines by this agent is correlated with the expression levels of PIM1, which ... |
| pan-PIM Kinase Inhibitor GDC-0570 | An orally available small molecule pan-inhibitor of the PIM serine/threonine kinase family, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-PIM kinase inhibitor GDC-0570 binds to and prevents the activation of the three PIM family kinases, PIM1, PIM2 and PIM3. This prevents the activation of PIM-mediated signaling pathways and inhibits proliferation in cells that overexpress PIMs. PIMs, constitutively active proto-oncogenic serine/threonine kinases upregulated in various... |
| pan-PIM Kinase Inhibitor NVP-LGB-321 | An orally available, small molecule and selective ATP-competitive pan-inhibitor of proviral integration sites for Moloney murine leukemia virus (PIM) kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-PIM kinase inhibitor NVP-LGB-321 binds to and prevents the activation of the three PIM family kinases, PIM1, PIM2 and PIM3. This prevents the activation of PIM-mediated signaling pathways and inhibits proliferation in cells that overexpress PIMs. PIMs, constitutively ... |
| pan-RAF Inhibitor JZP815 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of all members of the serine/threonine protein kinase Raf family, including A-Raf, B-Raf and C-Raf protein kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-RAF inhibitor JZP815 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of wild-type and mutated forms of Raf, including B-Raf mutations, and B-Raf fusions. This prevents the activation of Raf-mediated signal transduction pathways, which may inhibit tumor cell growth. Oncogenic mut... |
| Pan-RAF Inhibitor LY3009120 | An orally available inhibitor of all members of the serine/threonine protein kinase Raf family, including A-Raf, B-Raf and C-Raf protein kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pan-RAF kinase inhibitor LY3009120 inhibits Raf-mediated signal transduction pathways, which may inhibit tumor cell growth. Raf protein kinases play a key role in the RAF/mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK)/extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) signaling pathway, which is o... |
| pan-RAF Inhibitor QLH11906 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of all members of the serine/threonine protein kinase Raf family, including A-Raf, B-Raf and C-Raf protein kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-RAF kinase inhibitor QLH11906 binds to and inhibits the activity of Raf, including B-Raf mutated forms such as the B-Raf V600E mutation. This prevents the activation of Raf-mediated signal transduction pathways, which may inhibit tumor cell growth. Raf protein kinases play a ke... |
| pan-RAF Inhibitor TR128 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of all members of the serine/threonine protein kinase Raf family, including A-Raf, B-Raf and C-Raf protein kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-RAF inhibitor TR128 binds to and inhibits the activity of Raf, including the BRAF V600E mutation. This prevents the activation of Raf-mediated signal transduction pathways, which may inhibit tumor cell growth. Raf protein kinases are critical enzymes in the Ras/R... |
| pan-RAF Inhibitor XP-102 | An orally bioavailable, second-generation inhibitor of all members of the serine/threonine protein kinase Raf family, including A-Raf, B-Raf and C-Raf protein kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pan-RAF kinase inhibitor XP-102 specifically binds to the ATP binding site of the Raf kinase positioned in the inactive DFG-out conformation, and inhibits the activity of Raf, including B-Raf mutated forms such as the B-Raf V600E mutation. This prevents the activation... |
| pan-RAF Kinase Inhibitor CCT3833 | An orally available inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase family Raf, including A-Raf, B-Raf and C-Raf, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pan-RAF kinase inhibitor CCT3833 inhibits Raf-mediated signal transduction pathways, which may inhibit the proliferation of Raf-overexpressing tumor cells. Raf protein kinases play a key role in the RAF/mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK)/extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) signaling pathway, which is ... |
| Pan-RAF/MEK Molecular Glue NST-628 | An orally bioavailable non-covalent non-degrading pan-RAF/mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K, MAPK/ERK kinase, or MEK) dual molecular glue, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-RAF/MEK molecular glue NST-628 targets and glues A-RAF, B-RAF and C-RAF protein kinases with unphosphorylated MEK1, forming a stable and inactive RAF-MEK complex. This prevents the phosphorylation and activation of MEK by RAF, inhibits the activity of MEK, thereby preventing... |
| Pan-RAR Agonist/AP-1 Inhibitor LGD 1550 | An orally-active synthetic aromatic retinoic acid agent with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities.  LGD 1550 selectively binds to all three retinoic acid receptors (RAR-alpha, RAR-beta, and RAR-gamma), resulting in alterations in the expression of genes responsible for cell differentiation and proliferation.  This agent also acts as an inhibitor of activator protein 1 (AP-1), a protein that mediates trophic responses and malignant transformation. (NCI04) |
| Pan-TEAD Inhibitor ISM6331 | An orally bioavailable non-covalent small molecule inhibitor of the TEA domain (TEAD) family of transcription factors, including TEAD1, TEAD2, TEAD3 and TEAD4, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-TEAD inhibitor ISM6331 reversibly binds to the TEAD palmitoylation site and inhibits TEAD, thereby disrupting the interaction between the transcription co-activators yes-associated protein 1 (YAP)/transcriptional coactivator with PDZ-binding motif (TAZ) and TEAD. Thi... |
| Pan-TRK Inhibitor ONO-7579 | An orally bioavailable, selective pan-tropomyosin-related-kinase (tyrosine receptor kinase; TRK) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ONO-7579 specifically targets and binds to TRK and fusion proteins containing sequences from neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1 (NTRK1; TrkA), 2 (NTRK2; TrkB), and 3 (NTRK3; TrkC).  This inhibits neurotrophin-TRK interaction and TRK activation, thereby preventing the activation of downstream signaling pa... |
| pan-TRK/ROS1 Dual Inhibitor XZP-5955 | An orally available dual inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase c-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1) and the tropomyosin-related-kinase (tyrosine receptor kinase; TRK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-TRK/ROS1 dual inhibitor XZP-5955 targets, binds to and inhibits wild-type, point mutants and fusion proteins of ROS1 and TRK, including fusion proteins containing sequences from neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1 (NTRK1; TrkA), 2 (NTRK2; TrkB), and 3... |
| Panulisib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K), mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), activin receptor-like kinase 1 (ALK-1) and DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, panulisib inhibits the activity of all four kinases. This prevents PI3K/mTOR and ALK-1-mediated signaling pathways and may lead to the inhibition of cancer cell growth in PI3K/mTOR-overexpressing tumor cells and angioge... |
| Pan-variant KIT Inhibitor THE-630 | An orally bioavailable pan-inhibitor of the mutated forms of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) receptor tyrosine kinase mast/stem cell factor receptor c-Kit (SCFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-variant KIT inhibitor THE-630 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of all known, clinically relevant KIT activating and resistance mutations in gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST). More specifically, THE-630 inhibits the primary activating mutations d... |
| Pan-VEGFR/TIE2 Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor CEP-11981 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) and Tie2 receptor tyrosine kinases with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Pan-VEGFR/Tie2 tyrosine kinase inhibitor CEP-11981 selectively binds to VEGFR and Tie2 receptor tyrosine kinases, which may result in the inhibition of endothelial cell migration, proliferation and survival and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and tumor cell death. VEGFR and Tie2 are frequently overexp... |
| PAP/PSA-expressing Arenaviral Vectors HB-302/HB-301 | An alternating, 2-vector replicating arenaviral combination agent composed of two genetically engineered replicating vectors: HB-301, which is based on the arenavirus lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV), and HB-302, which is based on the arenavirus Pichinde virus (PICV), and both expressing the same transgenes encoding for the two prostate cancer-associated antigens prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP) and prostate specific antigen (PSA), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic a... |
| PARG Inhibitor ETX-19477 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of poly (ADP-Ribose) (PAR) glycohydrolase (PARG), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARG inhibitor ETX-19477 targets, reversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of PARG, thereby inhibiting the hydrolysis of PAR chains by PARG. This attenuates DNA repair and induces mitotic arrest, ultimately leading to apoptosis of cancer cells. PARG, the only enzyme responsible for hydrolyzing PAR chains produced by poly (ADP... |
| PARG Inhibitor IDE161 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of poly (ADP-Ribose) (PAR) glycohydrolase (PARG), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARG Inhibitor IDE161 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of PARG, thereby inhibiting the hydrolysis of PAR chains by PARG. This attenuates DNA repair and induces mitotic arrest, ultimately leading to apoptosis. PARG, the only enzyme responsible for hydrolyzing PAR chains produced by poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1, ... |
| Paricalcitol | A synthetic noncalcemic, nonphosphatemic vitamin D analogue.  Paricalcitol binds to the vitamin D receptor and has been shown to reduce parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. This agent also increases the expression of PTEN ('Phosphatase and Tensin homolog deleted on chromosome Ten'), a tumor-suppressor gene, in leukemic cells and cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors, resulting in tumor cell apoptosis and tumor cell differentiation into normal phenotypes. (NCI04) |
| PARP 1/2 Inhibitor NOV1401 | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, NOV1401 selectively binds to PARP-1 and -2, thereby preventing PARP-1 and -2-mediated DNA repair. This promotes genetic instability and enhances the accumulation of single and double strand DNA breaks, ultimately leading to apoptosis. The PARP family of proteins catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear pro... |
| PARP 1/2 Inhibitor RP12146 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARP 1/2 inhibitor RP12146 selectively binds to and inhibits PARP-1 and -2, thereby preventing PARP-1 and -2-mediated DNA repair. This promotes genetic instability and enhances the accumulation of single and double strand DNA breaks, ultimately leading to apoptosis. The PARP family of proteins catalyzes post-tran... |
| PARP 1/2 Inhibitor SC10914 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARP 1/2 inhibitor SC10914 selectively binds to and inhibits PARP-1 and -2, thereby preventing PARP-1 and -2-mediated DNA repair. This promotes genetic instability and enhances the accumulation of single and double strand DNA breaks, ultimately leading to apoptosis. The PARP family of proteins catalyzes post-translational ADP-ri... |
| PARP 1/2 Inhibitor TQB3823 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARP 1/2 inhibitor TQB3823 selectively binds to and inhibits PARP-1 and -2, thereby preventing PARP-1 and -2-mediated DNA repair. This promotes genetic instability and enhances the accumulation of single and double strand DNA breaks, ultimately leading to apoptosis. The PARP family of proteins catalyzes post-tran... |
| PARP Inhibitor AZD2461 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) with potential antineoplastic activity. PARP inhibitor AZD2461 selectively binds to PARP and prevents PARP-mediated DNA repair of single strand DNA breaks via the base-excision repair pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability and eventually leads to apoptosis. PARP catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear proteins that signal and recruit... |
| PARP Inhibitor CEP-9722 | A small-molecule prodrug of CEP-8983, a novel 4-methoxy-carbazole inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration and conversion from CEP-9722, CEP-8983 selectively binds to PARP 1 and 2, preventing repair of damaged DNA via base excision repair (BER). This agent enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability and apoptosis. CEP-8983 may potentiate the cytotoxicity of DNA-d... |
| PARP Inhibitor E7016 | An inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) with potential chemo- and/or radiosensitizing activity. PARP inhibitor E7016 selectively binds to PARP and prevents PARP mediated DNA repair of single strand DNA breaks via the base-excision repair pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability and eventually leads to apoptosis. In addition, this agent may enhance the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging agents and reverse tumor cell r... |
| PARP Inhibitor NMS-03305293 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PARP inhibitor NMS-03305293 selectively binds to PARP and prevents PARP-mediated DNA repair of single-strand DNA breaks via the base-excision repair pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability and eventually leads to apoptosis. PARP catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear protei... |
| PARP/Microtubule Polymerization Inhibitor AMXI-5001 | An orally bioavailable, dual inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1 and 2 and microtubule polymerization, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARP/microtubule polymerization inhibitor AMXI-5001 selectively binds to and inhibits PARP-1 and -2, thereby preventing PARP-1 and -2-mediated DNA repair. This promotes genetic instability and enhances the accumulation of single and double strand DNA breaks, ultimately leading to apoptosis. I... |
| PARP/Tankyrase Inhibitor 2X-121 | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, E7449 selectively binds to PARP 1 and 2, thereby preventing the repair of damaged DNA via the base excision repair (BER) pathway. This agent enhances the accumulation of single and double strand DNA breaks and promotes genomic instability eventually leading to apoptosis. PARP 1/2 inhibitor E7449 may enhance the cytotoxici... |
| PARP1 Inhibitor AZD9574 | An orally bioavailable central nervous system (CNS) penetrant and inhibitor of nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARP1 inhibitor AZD9574 selectively binds to PARP1, thereby preventing repair of damaged DNA via the base excision repair (BER) pathway. This agent enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability eventually leading to apoptosis. AZD9574 may enhance the cytotoxicity o... |
| PARP1 Inhibitor GS-0201 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARP1 inhibitor GS-0201 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of PARP1, thereby preventing the repair of damaged DNA via the base excision repair (BER) pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability eventually leading to apoptosis. PARP1 catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of... |
| PARP1 Inhibitor HRS-1167 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARP1 inhibitor HRS-1167 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of PARP1, thereby preventing the repair of damaged DNA via the base excision repair (BER) pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability eventually leading to apoptosis. PARP1 catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribos... |
| PARP1 Inhibitor HS-10502 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARP1 inhibitor HS-10502 selectively binds to and blocks the activity of PARP1, thereby preventing repair of damaged DNA via the base excision repair (BER) pathway. This agent enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability eventually leading to apoptosis. HS-10502 may enhance the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging... |
| PARP1 Inhibitor IMP1734 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARP1 inhibitor IMP1734 selectively binds to and blocks the activity of PARP1, thereby preventing the repair of damaged DNA via the base excision repair (BER) pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability eventually leading to apoptosis. PARP1 catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of n... |
| PARP1 Inhibitor SNV1521 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PARP1 inhibitor SNV1521 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of PARP1, thereby preventing the repair of damaged DNA via the base excision repair (BER) pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability eventually leading to apoptosis. PARP1 catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosy... |
| PARP-1/2 Inhibitor ABT-767 | An orally available inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ABT-767 selectively binds to PARP 1 and 2, thereby preventing repair of damaged DNA via the base excision repair (BER) pathway. This agent enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability eventually leading to apoptosis. ABT-767 may enhance the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging agents and reverse tumor cell chem... |
| Parsaclisib | An inhibitor of the delta isoform of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K) with potential antineoplastic activity. Parsaclisib inhibits the delta isoform of PI3K and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This both decreases proliferation and induces cell death in PI3K-delta-overexpressing tumor cells. Unlike other isoforms of PI3K, PI3K-delta is expressed primarily in hematopoietic disease and cell lineages. The targeted inhibition of PI3K-delta is designed to preserve PI3K si... |
| Parsaclisib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of parsaclisib, an inhibitor of the delta isoform of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K) with potential antineoplastic activity. Parsaclisib inhibits the delta isoform of PI3K and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This both decreases proliferation and induces cell death in PI3K-delta-overexpressing tumor cells. Unlike other isoforms of PI3K, PI3K-delta is expressed primarily in hematopoietic disease and cell lineages. The targeted inhibition o... |
| Parsatuzumab | A humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor-like domain multiple 7 (EGFL7) with potential antineoplastic activity. Parsatuzumab binds to EGFL7, thereby preventing the activities of EGFL7 on endothelial cells and inhibiting the survival and migration of endothelial cells during angiogenesis. EGFL7, a vascular-restricted extracellular matrix protein which is upregulated during angiogenesis and which regulates vascular development, may be overexpressed on th... |
| Partially HLA-matched Multiple TAA-specific Allogeneic T-lymphocytes | A preparation of partially human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-matched allogeneic T-lymphocytes targeting multiple tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, partially HLA-matched multiple TAA-specific allogeneic T-lymphocytes target and kill tumor cells expressing these TAAs. |
| Parvovirus H-1 | A replication-competent oncolytic parvovirus with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon infection of host cells, parvovirus H-1 preferentially replicates in tumor cells compared to healthy normal cells, thereby potentially resulting in tumor cell lysis and leading to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. In addition, H1-infected tumor cells strongly induce the release of the inducible heat shock protein 72 (Hsp72i), which chaperone tumor associated antigens in the H1-mediated tumor lys... |
| Pasifolate Exatecan | A conjugate composed of folic acid analogs and exatecans covalently bound by linkers to the ultrasmall silica-based nanoparticle carrier C'Dot, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pasifolate exatecan targets and binds to the human folate receptor 1 (FOLR1; FR-alpha) on FR-alpha-expressing tumor cells. Upon internalization, the camptothecin analog exatecan is released via proteolytic cleavage of the linker and inhibits DNA topoisomerase 1 activity, thereby inhibiting D... |
| Pasotuxizumab | A recombinant T-cell engaging bispecific monoclonal antibody (BiTE) directed against human prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and the CD3 epsilon subunit of the T cell receptor complex, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  Pasotuxizumab possesses two antigen-recognition sites, one for PSMA, and one for the CD3 complex, a group of T cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T cell receptor (TCR). This bispecific monoclonal antibody brings PSMA-expressi... |
| Pasritamig | A T-cell redirecting agent and humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 bispecific antibody targeting both human kallikrein-2 (hK2; KLK2) expressed on tumor cells and the CD3 receptor complex expressed on T-cells, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, pasritamig binds to both CD3 on T-cells and KLK2 on KLK2-expressing tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage activates and redirects T-cells to KLK2-expressing tumor cells. This results in T-cel... |
| Patidegib | An orally bioavailable, cyclopamine-derived inhibitor of the Hedgehog (Hh) pathway with potential antineoplastic activity. Specifically, patidegib binds to and inhibits the cell membrane-spanning G-protein coupled receptor SMO, which may result in the suppression of Hh pathway signaling and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation and survival. SMO is activated upon binding of Hh ligand to the cell surface receptor Patched (PTCH); inappropriate activation of Hh signaling and uncontrolled cellul... |
| Patidegib Topical Gel | A topical gel containing patidegib, a cyclopamine-derived inhibitor of the Hedgehog (Hh) pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon topical application of the patidegib gel, patidegib binds to and inhibits the activity of the G-protein coupled receptor smoothened (SMO), thereby inhibiting Hh pathway signaling. This decreases proliferation and survival in tumor cells in which the Hh pathway is overactivated. Upregulated Hh signaling is associated with uncontrolled tumor cell prolife... |
| Patient-derived WT1/PRAME/Survivin-specific Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) specifically reactive to the tumor associated antigens (TAAs) human Wilms tumor protein (WT1), preferentially expressed antigen of melanoma (PRAME, melanoma antigen preferentially expressed in tumors; Opa-interacting protein 4), and survivin (baculoviral IAP repeat-containing protein 5), with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon collection, expansion, and stimulation with antigen presenting cells pulsed with an overlapping peptid... |
| Patritumab | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the membrane-bound receptor HER3 (ERBB3) with potential antineoplastic activity. Patritumab binds to and inhibits HER3 activation, which may result in inhibition of HER3-dependent PI3K/Akt signaling and so inhibition of cellular proliferation and differentiation. HER3, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is frequently overexpressed in solid tumors, including breast, lung, and colorectal... |
| Patritumab Deruxtecan | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of patritumab, a monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor HER3 (ErbB3),linked to the topoisomerase I inhibitor DX 8951, a semisynthetic, water-soluble derivative of camptothecin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of patritumab deruxtecan, the patritumab moiety targets and binds to HER3. After internalization, DX 8951 inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the complex between to... |
| Patupilone | A compound isolated from the myxobacterium Sorangium cellulosum.  Similar to paclitaxel, patupilone induces microtubule polymerization and stabilizes microtubules against depolymerization conditions.  In addition to promoting tubulin polymerization and stabilization of microtubules, this agent is cytotoxic for cells overexpressing P-glycoprotein, a characteristic that distinguishes it from the taxanes.  Patupilone may cause complete cell-cycle arrest. |
| Pavunalimab | An Fc-engineered bispecific antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4) and lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG3; LAG-3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, bavunalimab targets and binds to both CTLA-4 and LAG-3 expressed on T-cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). Both CTLA-4 and LAG-3 are inhibitory receptors and mem... |
| Pavurutamab | A bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17), fused to one that is directed against the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of pavurutamab, this bispecific antibody binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and BCMA found on BCMA-expressing tu... |
| Paxalisib | A phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. paxalisib specifically inhibits PI3K in the PI3K/AKT kinase (or protein kinase B) signaling pathway, thereby inhibiting the activation of the PI3K signaling pathway. This may result in the inhibition of both cell growth and survival in susceptible tumor cell populations. Activation of the PI3K signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis. Dysregulated PI3K signaling may contribute to tumo... |
| Pazopanib | A small molecule inhibitor of multiple protein tyrosine kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Pazopanib selectively inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR)-1, -2 and -3, c-kit and platelet derived growth factor receptor (PDGF-R), which may result in inhibition of angiogenesis in tumors in which these receptors are upregulated. |
| Pazopanib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of a small molecule inhibitor of multiple protein tyrosine kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Pazopanib selectively inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR)-1, -2 and -3, c-kit and platelet derived growth factor receptor (PDGF-R), which may result in inhibition of angiogenesis in tumors in which these receptors are upregulated. |
| pBCAR3 Phosphopeptide-tetanus Peptide Vaccine | A vaccine composed of a phosphorylated peptide from the tumor associated antigen breast cancer anti-estrogen resistance-3 (BCAR3) and a tetanus-derived peptide, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of pBCAR3 phosphopeptide-tetanus peptide vaccine, the pBCAR3 phosphopeptide may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against phosphopeptide-containing tumor cells. The tetanus peptide serves as an immunoadjuvant a... |
| pBCAR3/pIRS2-Phosphopeptide-tetanus Peptide Vaccine | A vaccine composed of phosphorylated peptides from the tumor associated antigens breast cancer anti-estrogen resistance-3 (BCAR3) and insulin receptor substrate-2 (IRS2) and a tetanus-derived peptide, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of pBCAR3/pIRS2 phosphopeptide-tetanus peptide vaccine, the pBCAR3/pIRS2 phosphopeptide may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing either phosph... |
| pbi-shRNA STMN1 Lipoplex | A proprietary RNA interference construct consisting of bifunctional short hairpin RNAs (shRNA) against human stathmin 1 (STMN1) encapsulated in the cationic bilamellar invaginated vesicle lipoplex (LP) with potential antineoplastic activity. pbi-shRNA STMN1 LP contains 2 stem-loop structures encoded by a plasmid vector. Upon intratumoral administration, one shRNA unit with a perfectly matched sequence renders the suppression of STMN1 mRNA translation (mRNA sequestration and cleavage-independe... |
| PBTL CD19CAR-28/CD137/zeta | Peripheral blood T-lymphocytes (PBTLs) transduced with a retroviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment) coupled to the costimulatory signaling domain CD28, the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, PBTL CD19CAR-28/CD137zeta directs the T-lymphocytes to CD19-expressing tumor cells and indu... |
| P-cadherin Antagonist PF-03732010 | An agent that inhibits P-cadherin (cdh3), with potential antineoplastic activity. PF-03732010 binds to and inhibits the activity of p-cadherin. Inhibition of the activity of p-cadherin may inhibit tumor cell invasion and proliferation in p-cadherin expressing tumor cells. P-cadherin, a cell-surface protein and member of the cadherin family, is overexpressed in a variety of solid tumors, and plays a role in cell adhesion, motility, invasion and proliferation. |
| P-cadherin Inhibitor PCA062 | An agent that inhibits p-cadherin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous infusion, PCA062 binds to and inhibits the activity of p-cadherin. Inhibition of the activity of p-cadherin may inhibit both invasion and proliferation of p-cadherin expressing tumor cells. P-cadherin, a cell-surface protein and member of the cadherin family, is overexpressed in a variety of tumors and plays a role in cell adhesion, motility, invasion, and proliferation. |
| P-cadherin-targeting Agent PF-06671008 | An agent that targets p-cadherin (CDH3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PF-06671008 binds to and inhibits the activity of p-cadherin; this may inhibit both invasion and proliferation of p-cadherin expressing tumor cells. P-cadherin, a cell-surface protein and member of the cadherin family, is overexpressed in a variety of tumors and plays a role in cell adhesion, motility, invasion, and proliferation. |
| PCNA Inhibitor AOH1996 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA), with potential chemo-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PCNA inhibitor AOH1996 penetrates cells and targets and binds to PCNA, preventing the binding of PCNA's interacting proteins to PCNA. This disrupts the interactions between PCNA and these proteins and may result in DNA replication stress and inhibition of DNA repair, which may enhance the efficacy of some antin... |
| PCNU | A chloroethylnitrosourea compound and an alkylating agent with antineoplastic property. PCNU inhibits DNA synthesis by alkylating DNA and causing DNA cross links, thereby inducing apoptosis. In addition, this agent may be associated with pulmonary, hepatic, and hematologic toxicities. Unlike other nitrosoureas, PCNU has strong alkylating while weak carbamoylating activity. |
| PD-1 Directed Probody CX-188 | A probody composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor, programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), linked to a proprietary masking peptide that covers the active antigen binding site of the antibody through a protease-cleavable linker, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of PD-1-directed probody CX-188, the masking peptide is cleaved by tumor-associated proteas... |
| PD-1 Targeted IL-15 Mutein Fusion Protein PF-07209960 | A fusion protein composed of a moiety targeting the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) fused to a mutein of the cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of PD-1 targeted IL-15 mutein fusion protein PF-07209960, the PD-1 targeting moiety specifically targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. Thi... |
| PD-1 Targeted IL-2 Mutein Fusion Protein KY-0118 | A fusion protein comprised of a human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279)-targeting moiety linked to an interleukin-2 (IL-2) mutein, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of PD-1-targeted IL-2 mutein fusion protein KY-0118, the PD-1 targeting moiety targets and binds to PD-1 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and inhibits PD-1-mediated downregulation of T-cell activatio... |
| PD-1 targeted IL-2Rb/g Agonist ANV600 | A bispecific antibody composed of a fusion protein comprised of a monoclonal antibody against the IL-2 receptor subunit alpha (IL2Ra; CD25) binding-site on IL-2 fused to the cytokine IL-2 and an antibody arm against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of PD-1 targeted IL-2Rb/g agonist ANV600, the anti-PD-1 binding moiety targets and binds... |
| PD-1-positive B-cell Peptide Antigen/MVF IMU-201/Montanide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of the fusion peptide IMU-201, composed of the B-cell epitope APi2568 (amino acids 92-110) derived from the extracellular domain (ECD) of the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), linked to a promiscuous T-cell epitope derived from measles virus fusion protein (MVF; amino acid residues 288-302) via a 4-amino acid linker (Gly-Pro-Ser-Leu), and combined with the immunoadjuvant Montanide ISA 720, with poten... |
| PDCD-1 Knockout Autologous T-lymphocytes | A population of engineered autologous T-lymphocytes in which the gene encoding for the programmed cell death protein 1 (PDCD-1) is deleted, with potential immunomodulating activity. Following collection of peripheral blood lymphocytes and selection of T-cells, the PDCD-1 gene was knocked out and the T-cells were expanded. Upon reinfusion of the PDCD-1 knockout T-lymphocytes, these T-cells target and lyse cancer cells. The PDCD-1 protein, found on activated T-cells and often overexpressed on T... |
| PDGFR alpha/KIT Mutant-specific Inhibitor NB003 | The tosylate salt form of NB003, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of specific mutated forms of platelet-derived growth factor receptor alpha (PDGFR alpha; PDGFRa) and mast/stem cell factor receptor c-Kit (SCFR; CD117), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PDGFR alpha/KIT mutant-specific inhibitor NB003 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits specific mutant forms of PDGFRa and c-Kit. This results in the inhibition of PDGFRa- and c-Kit-mediated signal transduct... |
| PDK1 Inhibitor AR-12 | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule, celecoxib-derived inhibitor of phosphoinositide-dependent kinase-1 (PDK1) with potential antineoplastic activity. Devoid of any COX inhibiting activity, PDK1 inhibitor AR-12 binds to and inhibits the phosphorylation of 3-phosphoinositide-dependent kinase-1 (PDK-1).; subsequently, the phosphorylation and activation of the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B or PKB) is inhibited, which may result in inhibition of the PI3K/Akt signaling p... |
| PD-L1 Inhibitor ABSK043 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PD-L1 inhibitor ABSK043 specifically targets and binds to PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells, leading to internalization and preventing the binding to and subsequent activation of its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; pr... |
| PD-L1 Inhibitor AN4005 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PD-L1 inhibitor AN4005 specifically targets and binds to PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells, thereby preventing the binding of PD-L1 to and subsequent activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1... |
| PD-L1 Inhibitor BPI-371153 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PD-L1 inhibitor BPI-371153 specifically targets and binds to PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells, thereby preventing the binding to and subsequent activation of its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1)... |
| PD-L1 Inhibitor GS-4224 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-viral and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, PD-L1 inhibitor GS-4224 specifically targets PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells preventing the binding and subsequent activation of its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1). This reverses T-cell i... |
| PD-L1 Inhibitor INCB086550 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the immunosuppressive ligand, programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, PD-L1 inhibitor INCB086550 specifically targets PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells preventing the binding and subsequent activation of its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1). This reverses T-cell inactivati... |
| PD-L1 Inhibitor INCB099280 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PD-L1 inhibitor INCB099280 specifically targets and binds to PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells, thereby preventing the binding to and subsequent activation of its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1)... |
| PD-L1 Inhibitor INCB099318 | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PD-L1 inhibitor INCB099318 specifically targets and binds to PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells, thereby preventing the binding and subsequent activation of its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1). This... |
| PD-L1 Peptide Vaccine | A vaccine composed of a peptide derived from the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and immune checkpoint molecule programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) combined with the immunoadjuvant montanide ISA-51, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with PD-L1 peptide vaccine may activate the immune system to induce an immune response against PD-L1-expressing cells. This may increase and restore the proliferation and activation of various immune cells, including cy... |
| PD-L1/4-1BB/HSA Trispecific Fusion Protein NM21-1480 | A recombinant, trispecific monovalent antibody-based molecule targeting the human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1), 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) and human serum albumin (HSA), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. PD-L1/4-1BB/HSA trispecific fusion protein NM21-1480 consists of three monovalent antibody Fvs specific for PD-L1, HSA and 4-1BB fused in a single chain. Upon administration, PD-L1/4-1BB... |
| PD-L1/IDO Peptide Vaccine IO102-103 | A peptide vaccine composed of IO103, a peptide vaccine derived from the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1), IO102, the 21-mer peptide vaccine derived from the immunomodulatory enzyme indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase (IDO), and the immunoadjuvant montanide ISA-51, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with the PD-L1/IDO peptide vaccine IO102-103 may activate the immune system to induce an immune response against PD-L1 and IDO... |
| PD-L1/PD-L2 Peptide-Montanide Vaccine | A vaccine composed of peptides derived from the immune checkpoint molecules, programmed death ligand 1 (PD-L1) and programmed death ligand 2 (PD-L2), combined with the immunoadjuvant montanide ISA-51, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with PD-L1/PD-L2 peptide-montanide vaccine may stimulate an immune response against PD-L1 and PD-L2 expressing cells. This may enhance T-cell proliferation, cytokine production, and T-cell mediated cytolysis. Binding of p... |
| PD-L1/PD-L2/VISTA Antagonist CA-170 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the immune checkpoint regulatory proteins programmed cell death ligand-1 (PD-L1; B7-H1; CD274), PD-L2, and V-domain immunoglobulin (Ig) suppressor of T-cell activation (VISTA; programmed death 1 homolog; PD1H; PD-1H), with potential negative immune checkpoint regulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PD-L1/PD-L2/VISTA antagonist CA-170 targets and binds to PD-L1, PD-L2 and VISTA. This inhibits PD-L1/PD-L2/VISTA-media... |
| PD-L2 Peptide-Montanide Vaccine | A vaccine composed of a peptide derived from the immune checkpoint molecule programmed death ligand 2 (PD-L2) combined with the immunoadjuvant montanide ISA-51, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with PD-L2 peptide-montanide vaccine may mount an immune response against PD-L2 expressing cells. This may enhance T-cell proliferation, cytokine production, and T-cell mediated cytolysis. PD-L2 binding to its cognate receptor, programmed cell death protein 1 (... |
| pDNA-encoding Emm55 Autologous Cancer Cell Vaccine IFx-Hu2.0 | A whole cell cancer vaccine composed of irradiated autologous whole tumor cells that are transfected, ex vivo, with a plasmid DNA encoding the highly immunogenic Streptococcus pyogenes (S. pyogenes) bacterial antigen Emm55, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intralesional administration of IFx-Hu2.0, the tumor cells expressing the Emm55 bacterial antigen on their cell surface are taken up and processed by antigen-presenting cells (APCs), thereby presenting bo... |
| PE/HPV16 E7/KDEL Fusion Protein/GPI-0100 TVGV-1 | A fusion protein consisting of a peptide sequence of human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 E7 nuclear protein and fused to the Pseudomonas aeruginosa exotoxin A (PE) and a endoplasmic reticulum (ER) retention signal (KDEL), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of PE/HPV16 E7/KDEL fusion protein TVGV-1, the PE moiety binds to CD91 (LRP1) expressed on a variety of cells, including antigen-presenting cells such as dendritic cells (DCs), which facilitates the internalization, ... |
| Pebezertinib | An orally bioavailable, central nervous system (CNS) penetrating, mutant-selective covalent inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) exon 20 insertion (Ex20ins) activating mutations, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pebezertinib selectively targets, irreversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR Ex20ins and some other oncogenic point mutations. This prevents EGFR Ex20ins-mediated signaling. This may induce cell death and inhibit tumor grow... |
| Pegargiminase | An agent consisting of the arginine-degrading enzyme arginine deiminase combined with polyethylene glycol (20,000 MW) (ADI-PEG 20) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pegargiminase breaks down the amino acid arginine into citrulline. Although arginine is a nonessential amino acid for normal human cells, certain cancer cells are autotrophic for arginine and need arginine in order to survive. Depletion of arginine may lead to an inhibition of cellular proliferation in t... |
| Pegaspargase | A complex of polyethylene glycol conjugated with L-asparaginase.  Asparaginase hydrolyzes L-asparagine to L-aspartic acid and ammonia, thereby depleting these cells of asparagine and blocking protein synthesis and tumor cell proliferation, especially in the G1 phase of the cell cycle.  The agent also induces apoptosis in tumor cells. Pegylation decreases the enzyme's antigenicity. Asparagine is critical to protein synthesis in leukemic cells, which cannot synthesize this amino acid due to the... |
| Pegcrisantaspase | A recombinant, pegylated form of Erwinia asparaginase (crisantaspase), derived from the bacterium Erwinia chrysanthemi and genetically engineered to be produced in Pseudomonas fluorescens, with potential antineoplastic activity. Recombinant Erwinia asparaginase hydrolyzes L-asparagine to L-aspartic acid and ammonia. This depletes cancer cells of asparagine, which blocks protein synthesis and tumor cell proliferation. Asparagine is critical to protein synthesis in cancer cells, which cannot sy... |
| Pegdinetanib | A pegylated form of a thermostable and protease resistant peptide targeting human vascular endothelial growth factor receptor-2 (VEGFR-2) with potential antiangiogenic activity. Derived from the 10th type III domain of human fibronectin and one of the natural ligands, pegdinetanib binds to VEGFR-2 and prevents activation of VEGFR-2 by other activating ligands. This may inhibit the growth of new tumor blood vessels. |
| Pegenzileukin | A pegylated recombinant, engineered variant of cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2; IL2) where novel amino acid is encoded in the IL-2 gene that is leveraged for use in site-specific pegylation, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration of pegenzileukin, the IL-2 variant moiety binds to dimers containing the IL-2 receptor beta and gamma chains (IL2Rbg; IL2Rbetagamma) on immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and natural killer (NK) cells, thereby activating these c... |
| Pegilodecakin | A covalent conjugate of recombinant human interleukin-10 (IL-10) and polyethylene glycol (PEG), with potential anti-fibrotic, anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, pegilodecakin may activate cell-mediated immunity against cancer cells by stimulating the differentiation and expansion of tumor specific cytotoxic CD8+ T cells. This agent may also lower serum cholesterol levels and reduce atherosclerotic plaques by inhibiting the synt... |
| Peginterferon Alfa-2a | A covalent conjugate of recombinant interferon alfa, subtype 2a, and polyethylene glycol (PEG), used as an antiviral and antineoplastic agent. The biological activity of this agent is derived from its interferon alpha-2a protein moiety. Interferons alfa bind to specific cell-surface receptors, leading to the transcription and translation of genes whose protein products mediate antiviral, antiproliferative, anticancer and immune-modulating effects. The PEG moiety lowers the clearance of interf... |
| Peginterferon Alfa-2b | A covalent conjugate of recombinant interferon alpha, subtype 2b, and polyethylene glycol (PEG), used as an antiviral and antineoplastic agent. The biological activity of this agent is derived from its interferon alpha-2b protein moiety. Interferons alfa bind to specific cell-surface receptors, leading to the transcription and translation of genes whose protein products mediate antiviral, antiproliferative, anticancer, and immune-modulating effects. The PEG moiety lowers the clearance of inte... |
| PEG-interleukin-2 | A complex of polyethylene glycol conjugated with human recombinant cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) with antineoplastic activity. PEG-interleukin-2 induces natural killer (NK) cell activity and the production of interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma), and enhances T cell-mediated cytotoxicity. Pegylation of IL-2 protects the cytokine from degradation. (NCI04) |
| PEG-modified/Site-mutated IL-2 SHR-1916 | A polyethylene glycol (PEG)-modified and site-mutated form of the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, PEG-modified/site-mutated IL-2 SHR-1916 activates the Janus kinase/signal transducers and activators of transcription (JAK/STAT) signaling pathway. This induces the selective proliferation of CD8+ T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells, enhances tumor cell killing and decreases tumor cell proliferation. Pegylation... |
| PEG-PEI-cholesterol Lipopolymer-encased IL-12 DNA Plasmid Vector IMNN-001 | A nanoparticle-based formulation composed of a non-viral plasmid DNA vector encoding the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) encapsulated in a biodegradable, biocompatible lipoplex composed of polyethylene glycol (PEG), polyethylenimine (PEI), and cholesterol, with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intraperitoneal (IP) delivery of the PEG-PEI-cholesterol lipopolymer-encased IL-12 DNA plasmid vector IMNN-001, the lipoplex is endocytosed by nearby... |
| Pegsitacianine | A micellar polymer tracer labeled with the near-infrared (NIR) fluorescent imaging dye indocyanine green (ICG), with potential fluorescent imaging activity. Upon administration, pegsitacianine accumulates in tumor tissue. The micelles dissociate and subsequently fluoresce upon exposure to the acidic conditions of the tumor microenvironment (TME), allowing the visualization of tumors using infrared-based cameras. |
| Pegtomarginase | A genetically modified form of human enzyme arginase (ARG) site-specifically linked with a linear 20 kDa polyethylene glycol (PEG), with potential arginine depleting and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of pegtomarginase, arginase metabolizes the amino acid arginine to ornithine and urea, thereby lowering blood arginine levels. This normalizes blood arginine levels in patients with arginase deficiency and prevents hyperargininemia. As many cancer types lack the abili... |
| Pegvisomant | A pegylated, recombinant, human growth hormone (GH) structural analog with GH receptor antagonist activity. As a GH analog, the structure of pegvisomant is similar to that of native GH with the exception of 9 amino acid substitutions. Pegvisomant selectively binds to GH receptors on cell surfaces, interfering with endogenous GH receptor binding and so GH signal transduction. Inhibition of GH signal transduction results in decreased serum concentrations of insulin-like growth factor-I (IGF-I),... |
| Pegvorhyaluronidase Alfa | A pegylated formulation of a recombinant form of human hyaluronidase with potential antitumor activity. Upon intravenous administration, pegvorhyaluronidase alfa degrades hyaluronic acid (HA) coating tumor cells, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell growth. In addition, the degradation of HA may result in a lowering of the interstitial fluid pressure (IFP), allowing better penetration of chemotherapeutic agents into the tumor bed. HA is a glycosaminoglycan found in the extracellul... |
| Pegylated CD25/CD122-selective Interleukin-2 Mutein STK-012 | A pegylated, engineered variant form of the human cytokine interleukin 2 (IL-2; IL2), with selective binding affinity for IL-2 receptor subunit alpha (IL-2Ralpha; CD25) and beta (IL-2Rbeta; CD122), with potential immunoregulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, pegylated CD25/CD122-selective IL-2 mutein STK-012 targets and binds to CD25 and CD122 on antigen-activated effector T-cells and activates CD25/CD122-mediated signaling. This activates cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs)... |
| Pegylated Deoxycytidine Analogue DFP-14927 | A pegylated formulation containing DFP-10917, an analogue of the nucleoside deoxycytidine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the pegylated deoxycytidine analogue DFP-14927 is incorporated into the DNA of rapidly proliferating cells, such as tumor cells, and directly inhibits the activity of DNA polymerase, which results in the inhibition of DNA replication and cell cycle arrest, DNA fragmentation, and tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Pegylated IL-2 8MW2311 | A polyethylene glycol (PEG)-conjugated form of the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, pegylated IL-2 8MW2311 activates the Janus kinase/signal transducers and activators of transcription (JAK/STAT) signaling pathway. This induces the proliferation of CD8+ T-cells, enhances tumor cell killing and decreases tumor cell proliferation. Pegylation of IL-2 protects the cytokine from degradation. |
| Pegylated Interferon Alfa | A covalent conjugate of recombinant interferon alpha and polyethylene glycol (PEG), used as an antiviral and antineoplastic agent. The biological activity of this agent is derived from its interferon alpha protein moiety.  Interferons alfa bind to specific cell-surface receptors, leading to the transcription and translation of genes whose protein products mediate antiviral, antiproliferative, anticancer, and immune-modulating effects. The PEG moiety lowers the clearance of interferon alpha, t... |
| Pegylated Liposomal Belotecan | A sterically stabilized, pegylated liposomal formulation containing belotecan, a semi-synthetic analogue of campthotecin with potential antitumor activity. Belotecan inhibits the action of topoisomerase I, an enzyme that produces reversible single-strand breaks in DNA during DNA replication. This agent stabilizes the topoisomerase I and DNA complex, resulting in the inhibition of religation of DNA breaks, inhibition of DNA replication, and apoptotic cell death. The polyethylene glycol coating... |
| Pegylated Liposomal Doxorubicin Hydrochloride | A liposome-encapsulated preparation of the hydrochloride salt of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin. Doxorubicin intercalates between DNA base pairs, thereby hinders the movement of replication machinery along DNA strands, as well as blocks the activity of topoisomerase II during replication. As a result, this agent causes DNA adducts formation, renders single- and double-stranded DNA breakages that induce DNA repair and or apoptotic processes. Doxorubicin also generates ... |
| Pegylated Liposomal Irinotecan | A formulation of polyethylene glycol (PEG)-modified liposomes encapsulating the semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin irinotecan, with antineoplastic activity. As a prodrug, irinotecan is converted to the biologically active metabolite 7-ethyl-10-hydroxy-camptothecin (SN-38) by a carboxylesterase-converting enzyme. In turn, SN-38 inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the cleavable complex of topoisomerase I and DNA, resulting in DNA breaks. This results in an inhibition of DNA r... |
| Pegylated Liposomal Mitomycin C Lipid-based Prodrug | A pegylated liposomal formulation comprised of a lipophilic prodrug of the antineoplastic antibiotic mitomycin C containing a cleavable disulfide bond (PL-MLP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the pegylated liposomal mitomycin C lipid-based prodrug, the MLP moiety becomes activated upon thiolysis at the tumor site, thereby releasing mitomycin C. Bioreduced mitomycin C generates oxygen radicals, alkylates DNA, and produces interstrand DNA cross-links, thereby inh... |
| Pegylated Liposomal Mitoxantrone Hydrochloride | A pegylated liposomal mitoxantrone formulation composed of the hydrochloride salt form of the anthracenedione antibiotic mitoxantrone encapsulated within pegylated small unilamellar vesicles (SUVs), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, mitoxantrone intercalates into and forms crosslinks with DNA, thereby disrupting DNA and RNA replication. This agent also binds to topoisomerase II, which both results in DNA strand breaks and prevents DNA synthesis. This lea... |
| Pegylated Liposomal Nanoparticle-based Docetaxel Prodrug MNK-010 | A formulation containing pegylated liposomal nanoparticles encapsulating a prodrug of the poorly water-soluble, second-generation taxane analog docetaxel, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of the liposomal docetaxel prodrug MNK-010, docetaxel is slowly released into the systemic circulation and accumulates at the tumor site due to the unique characteristics of the tumor's vasculature. In turn, docetaxel is taken up by tumor cells, and subsequently binds t... |
| Pegylated Orthogonal IL-2 STK-009 | A polyethylene glycol (PEG)-conjugated mutein form of the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential and specific activity on enhancing proliferation, survival and anti-tumor activity of engineered orthoIL-2Rb-expressing CAR T-cells. Upon subcutaneous administration, pegylated orthogonal (ortho) IL-2 STK-009 specifically targets and binds to mutated orthoIL-2Rbeta (hoRbeta; hoRb) that is specifically expressed on certain engineered CAR T-cells. This induces selective proliferation, surviva... |
| Pegylated Paclitaxel | A formulation of polyethylene glycol (PEG) conjugated paclitaxel, a compound extracted from the Pacific yew tree Taxus brevifolia, with antineoplastic activity. Paclitaxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin molecules, thereby interfering with the dynamics of microtubule assembly/disassembly and resulting in the inhibition of cell division. This agent also induces apoptosis by binding to and blocking the function of the apoptosis inhibitor protein B-cell Leukemia 2 (Bcl-2). Compared to paclitaxel... |
| Pegylated Recombinant Human Arginase I BCT-100 | A recombinant human arginase I (liver arginase) covalently attached, via a succinamide propionic acid (SPA) linker, to a polyethylene glycol (PEG) of molecular weight 5,000 [rhArg-peg(5,000mw)] with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of pegylated recombinant human arginase I BCT-100, arginase metabolizes the amino acid arginine to ornithine and urea, depleting intracellular arginine, which may inhibit proliferation of cells that are auxotrophic for arginine suc... |
| Pegylated SN-38 Conjugate PLX038 | A pegylated conjugate of SN-38 (7-ethyl-10-hydroxy-camptothecin), a biologically active metabolite of the prodrug irinotecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the proprietary linker slowly releases SN-38 from the pegylated SN-38 conjugate PLX038. SN-38 binds to and inhibits topoisomerase I by stabilizing the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA, resulting in DNA breaks, inhibition of DNA replication, and apoptosis. Compared with irinotecan, this formul... |
| Pegylated TOP1 Inhibitor PEEL-224 | A pegylated camptothecin derivative, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of pegylated TOP1 inhibitor PEEL-224, camptothecin reaches the tumor cells and selectively stabilizes covalent topoisomerase I-DNA complexes, which results in single-stranded and double-stranded DNA breaks, the inhibition of DNA replication, and the induction of apoptosis. Pegylation allows for increases in half-life and the exposure time for tumor cells, while decreasing both blood plasma concent... |
| Pegzilarginase | A recombinant modified form of the human enzyme arginase 1 (ARG1), in which cobalt is substituted for manganese as a cofactor, covalently attached to polyethylene glycol (PEG), with potential arginine degrading and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of pegzilarginase, ARG1 metabolizes the amino acid arginine to ornithine and urea, thereby lowering blood arginine levels. This normalizes blood arginine levels in patients with ARG1 deficiency and prevents hyperargininemia... |
| Pelabresib | The hydrated form of pelabresib, a small molecule inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pelabresib binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs on the bromodomain of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histone peptides. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may... |
| Pelabresib Anhydrous | The anhydrous form of pelabresib, a small molecule inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pelabresib binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs on the bromodomain of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histone peptides. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes ma... |
| Pelareorep | An isolate of the oncolytic, human wild-type serotype 3 Dearing (T3D) strain of the double-stranded RNA virus reovirus (Respiratory Enteric Orphan virus), with potential oncolytic activity. Upon administration, pelareorep is able to replicate specifically in cancer cells bearing an activated Ras pathway. This induces apoptosis in Ras-activated tumor cells and subsequently frees progeny viral particles to infect, replicate in and induce cell death of surrounding cancer cells. In addition, vira... |
| Peldesine | A pyrimidine analogue and purine nucleoside phosphorylase inhibitor with immunosuppressive and antineoplastic properties. Peldesine inhibits purine nucleoside phosphorylase (PNP) that plays a pivotal role in T-cell proliferation and is responsible for the catalysis of the reversible phosphorolytic cleavage of purine ribonucleosides and 2'-deoxyribonucleosides. Inhibition of PNP results in accumulation of dGTP and the subsequent failure of DNA synthesis. This agent maybe used in T-cell related... |
| Pelitinib | A 3-cyanoquinoline pan-ErbB tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity.  Pelitinib irreversibly binds covalently to epidermal growth factor receptors (EGFR) ErbB-1, -2 and -4, thereby inhibiting receptor phosphorylation and signal transduction and resulting in apoptosis and suppression of proliferation in tumor cells that overexpress these receptors. |
| Pelitrexol | A water soluble antifolate with anti-proliferative activity. Pelitrexol inhibits activity of glycinamide ribonucleotide formyltransferase (GARFT), the first folate-dependent enzyme of the de novo purine synthesis pathway essential for cell proliferation. Enzyme inhibition reduces the purine nucleotides pool required for DNA replication and RNA transcription. As a result, this agent causes cell cycle arrest in S-phase, and ultimately inhibits tumor cell proliferation |
| Peluntamig | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) delta-like protein 3 (DLL3) and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of peluntamig, the anti-DLL3 moiety selectively targets and binds to DLL3 on DLL3-expressing tumor cells, thereby improving the binding of the anti-CD47 moiety to DLL3-expressing tumor cells. The CD47 binding by PT217 blocks the interaction o... |
| Pembrolizumab | A humanized monoclonal immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 antibody directed against human cell surface receptor PD-1 (programmed death-1 or programmed cell death-1) with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, pembrolizumab binds to PD-1, an inhibitory signaling receptor expressed on the surface of activated T cells, and blocks the binding to and activation of PD-1 by its ligands, which results in the activation of T-cell-mediated immune responses agains... |
| Pembrolizumab/Quavonlimab MK-1308A | A combination formulation containing fixed doses of the two monoclonal antibodies pembrolizumab and quavonlimab, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of pembrolizumab/quavonlimab MK-1308A, pembrolizumab, a monoclonal antibody directed against the human cell surface receptor PD-1 (programmed death-1 or programmed cell death-1), targets and binds to PD-1, an inhibitory signaling receptor expressed on the surface of activated T cells, and... |
| Pemetrexed | A synthetic pyrimidine-based antifolate. Pemetrexed binds to and inhibits the enzyme thymidylate synthase (TS), which catalyses the methylation of 2'-deoxyuridine-5'-monophosphate (dUMP) to 2'-deoxythymidine-5'-monophosphate (dTMP), an essential precursor in DNA synthesis. |
| Pemetrexed Disodium | The disodium salt of a synthetic pyrimidine-based antifolate. Pemetrexed binds to and inhibits the enzyme thymidylate synthase (TS) which catalyses the methylation of 2'-deoxyuridine-5'-monophosphate (dUMP) to 2'-deoxythymidine-5'-monophosphate (dTMP), an essential precursor in DNA synthesis. |
| Pemigatinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) types 1, 2, and 3 (FGFR1/2/3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Pemigatinib binds to and inhibits FGFR1/2/3, which may result in the inhibition of FGFR1/2/3-related signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation in FGFR1/2/3-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cellular proliferation, migration, and surv... |
| Pemlimogene Merolisbac | A proprietary, live-attenuated, double-deleted (LADD) strain of the Gram-positive bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) encoding the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) epidermal growth factor receptor mutant form EGFRvIII and human mesothelin, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the live-attenuated Listeria monocytogenes encoding EGFRvIII-mesothelin vaccine Pemlimogene merolisbac is taken up by antigen-presenting cells (APCs), includi... |
| Pemrametostat | An orally available, selective small molecule inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Although the mechanism of action has not been completely determined, pemrametostat binds to the substrate recognition site of PRMT5 following oral administration and inhibits its methyltransferase activity, which decreases the levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3 and H4 and modul... |
| Penberol | A derivative of bromoacrylic acid with cytostatic activity. Although the mechanism of action is unclear, penberol might inhibit tumor growth mediated through inhibition of the cell energetic metabolism. |
| Penclomedine | A synthetic derivative of pyrimidine with antineoplastic activity. Penclomedine alkylates and crosslinks DNA, resulting in DNA strand breaks and inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis. This agent is more active against tumor cells that are defective in p53 function. (NCI04) |
| Penicillamine | A beta dimethyl analog of the amino acid cysteine.  As a degradation product of penicillin antibiotics, penicillamine chelates with heavy metals and increases their urinary excretion.  Possessing antineoplastic properties, penicillamine induces apoptosis by a p53-mediated mechanism and inhibits angiogenesis by chelating with copper, a cofactor for angiogenesis. (NCI04) |
| Penpulimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, penpulimab targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglob... |
| Pentamethylmelamine | A principal metabolite of hexamethylmelamine with antineoplastic activity.  Pentamethylmelamine alkylates DNA and other macromolecules and forms DNA intrastrand and DNA-protein crosslinks, thereby preventing DNA replication. (NCI04) |
| Pentamustine | A (2-chloroethy1)nitrosourea compound with antineoplastic activity. Petamustine was never marketed. |
| Pentavalent KLH Conjugate Vaccine | A pentavalent vaccine comprised of the epitope antigens of the ganglioside lactones GD2L and GD3L, Globo H hexasaccharide 1 (Globo H), fucosyl GM1 and N-propionylated polysialic acid conjugated with the immunostimulant keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with the pentavalent KLH conjugate vaccine may induce production of IgG and IgM antibodies as well as an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumor... |
| Pentostatin | A purine nucleotide analogue antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces antibioticus. Also known as 2'-deoxycoformycin, pentostatin binds to and inhibits adenine deaminase (ADA), an enzyme essential to purine metabolism; ADA activity is greatest in cells of the lymphoid system with T-cells having higher activity than B-cells and T-cell malignancies higher ADA activity than B-cell malignancies. Pentostatin inhibition of ADA appears to result in elevated intracellular levels of dATP wh... |
| Pentoxifylline | A methylxanthine derivative with hemorrheologic and immunomodulating properties. Pentoxifylline inhibits phosphodiesterase, resulting in increased levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) in erythrocytes, endothelium, and the surrounding tissues. This leads to vasodilation, improves erythrocyte flexibility, and enhances blood flow. In addition, the increased level of cAMP in platelets inhibits platelet aggregation, which may contribute to a reduction in blood viscosity. This agent also... |
| PEOX-based Polymer Encapsulated Paclitaxel FID-007 | A nanoparticle-based formulation composed of the poorly water-soluble paclitaxel encapsulated within branched polymers composed of polyethyloxazoline (PEOX), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon injection of the PEOX-based polymer encapsulated paclitaxel FID-007, the nanoparticles accumulate at the tumor site, due to the unique characteristics of the tumor vasculature, while avoiding normal, healthy tissue. Once the paclitaxel is released, it binds to tubulin inside tumor cells and in... |
| PEP-3-KLH Conjugate Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of PEP-3, a synthetic peptide encompassing a tumor-specific mutated segment of the epidermal growth factor receptor type vIII (EGFRvIII), conjugated to the naturally-occurring immunoadjuvant keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, PEP-3-KLH conjugate vaccine may induce a cytotoxic immune response against tumor cells that overexpress EGFRvIII; this antitumoral immune response may involve an... |
| PEP-CMV Vaccine | A peptide vaccine derived from cytomegalovirus (CMV) antigens with potential immunostimulating activity. Intradermal administration of the PEP-CMV vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a specific helper and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CMV-infected tumor cells. Infection with the herpesvirus CMV may play a significant role in tumor cell initiation and progression as well as chemoresistance. |
| Pepinemab | A humanized IgG4 monoclonal antibody against the semaphorin 4D (SEMA4D; CD100) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, pepinemab binds to and neutralizes SEMA4D, thereby preventing binding of SEMA4D to its receptor plexin-B1 (PLXNB1). By blocking the interaction of SEMA4D and PLXNB1, pepinemab may cause an inhibition of endothelial cell activation and migration, eventually leading to an inhibition of angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. Semaph... |
| Peplomycin | A semisynthetic analog of Bleomycin, a mixture of several basic glycopeptide antineoplastic antibiotics isolated from Streptomyces verticillus.  Peplomycin forms complexes with iron that reduce molecular oxygen to superoxide and hydroxyl radicals that cause single- and double-stranded breaks in DNA.  This agent appears to show greater antitumor activity than bleomycin; its use is limited due to pulmonary toxicity. (NCI04) |
| Peplomycin Sulfate | The sulfate salt of the bleomycin analogue peplomycin.  Peplomycin forms complexes with iron that reduce molecular oxygen to superoxide and hydroxyl radicals that cause single- and double-stranded breaks in DNA.  This agent appears to show greater antitumor activity than bleomycin; its use is limited due to pulmonary toxicity. (NCI04) |
| Peposertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK) with potential antineoplastic activity, and potential sensitizing and enhancing activities for both chemo- and radiotherapies. Upon administration, peposertib binds to and inhibits the activity of DNA-PK, thereby interfering with the non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) process and preventing repair of DNA double strand breaks (DSBs) caused by ionizing radiation or chemotherapeutic treatment. This increases chemo- and radi... |
| Peptichemio | A mixture of six synthetic oligopeptides in which the peptides are conjugated to metamelphalan, with alkylating and potential antineoplastic activity. Peptichemio causes crosslinking of DNA, thereby preventing DNA replication and eventually cellular proliferation. |
| Peptide 946 Melanoma Vaccine | A melanoma peptide vaccine with potential antineoplastic activity. Peptide 946 melanoma vaccine contains one of the peptide sequences for a melanoma-specific epitope that is recognized by melanoma-specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL). This vaccine contains a peptide sequence homologous to the native epitope and is often formulated with an adjuvant such as QS-21 or Montanide ISA-51 to boost its immune stimulation. Vaccination with peptide 946 vaccine may produce antibodies as well as elicit ... |
| Peptide 946-Tetanus Peptide Conjugate Melanoma Vaccine | A melanoma peptide vaccine complexed with tetanus toxoid with potential antineoplastic activity. Peptide 946 contains a melanoma-specific epitope recognized by melanoma-specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL). In addition to the peptide 946 sequence, this vaccine contains tetanus toxin, a protein known to stimulate the induction of CD4+ T lymphocytes; it thereby enhances antigen processing and presentation. Vaccination with the peptide 946-tetanus conjugate melanoma vaccine may produce antibod... |
| Peptide-drug Conjugate OPD5 | A peptide-drug conjugate (PDC) composed of a peptide conjugated, via an aminopeptidase-targeting linkage, to an as of yet undisclosed alkylating agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PDC OPD5 is hydrolyzed by peptidases to release the alkylating agent, thereby allowing for specific accumulation of the agent in aminopeptidase-positive tumor cells. This may result in the inhibition of DNA and/or RNA synthesis and the induction of apoptosis, thereby inhibiting tumor... |
| Perenostobart | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD39 (cluster of differentiation 39; ectonucleoside triphosphate diphosphohydrolase-1; NTPDase1; ENTPD1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, perenostobart specifically binds to the CD39 antigen, thereby preventing the conversion and degradation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine monophosphate (AMP). This leads to an increase in the extracellular levels of imm... |
| Peretinoin | An orally available, acyclic retinoid with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities. Peretinoin binds to and activates nuclear retinoic acid receptors (RAR), which in turn recruit coactivator proteins and promote, with other transcriptional complexes, the transcription of target genes. As a result, this agent may modulate the expression of genes involved in the regulation of cell proliferation, cell differentiation, and apoptosis of both normal and tumor cells. |
| Perflenapent Emulsion | An oil-in-water nano-emulsion composed of the perfluorocarbon perflenapent, that has oxygen-carrying capacity, can be used as a contrast agent and has potential antihypoxic and radiosensitizing activities. Upon intravenous administration of the perflenapent emulsion, this agent increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood, enhances the transport of oxygen to hypoxic and ischemic tissues and increases the oxygen concentration in these tissues. Hypoxic tumors are correlated with increased re... |
| Perfosfamide | The active metabolite of the nitrogen mustard cyclophosphamide with potent antineoplastic and immunosuppressive properties. Perfosfamide alkylates DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and RNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Perifosine | An orally active alkyl-phosphocholine compound with potential antineoplastic activity.  Targeting cellular membranes, perifosine modulates membrane permeability, membrane lipid composition, phospholipid metabolism, and mitogenic signal transduction, resulting in cell differentiation and inhibition of cell growth.  This agent also inhibits the anti-apoptotic mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathway and modulates the balance between the MAPK and pro-apoptotic stress-activated protein kin... |
| Perillyl Alcohol | A naturally occurring monoterpene related to limonene with antineoplastic activity. Perillyl alcohol inhibits farnesyl transferase and geranylgeranyl transferase, thereby preventing post-translational protein farnesylation and isoprenylation and activation of oncoproteins such as p21-ras, and arresting tumor cells in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. (NCI04) |
| PERK Inhibitor HC-5404-FU | The hemifumarate salt form of  HC-5404, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinase protein kinase R (PKR)-like endoplasmic reticulum kinase (PERK; eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2-alpha kinase 3; EIF2AK3; PEK) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of PERK inhibitor HC-5404-FU, HC-5404 inhibits the activity of PERK. This prevents the activation of the PERK pathway and inhibits unfolded protein response (UPR) stress adaptation, which may... |
| PERK Inhibitor NMS-03597812 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinase protein kinase R (PKR)-like endoplasmic reticulum kinase (PERK; eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2-alpha kinase 3; EIF2AK3; PEK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PERK inhibitor NMS-03597812 inhibits the activity of PERK. This prevents the activation of the PERK pathway and inhibits unfolded protein response (UPR) stress adaptation, which may lead to tumor cell apoptosis and the inhibition... |
| Personalized ALL-specific Multi-HLA-binding Peptide Vaccine | An individualized peptide-based cancer vaccine comprised of three to five human leukocyte antigen (HLA) binding tumor-specific peptides obtained from the autologous mutated proteins from the tumor cells of patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. Upon intradermal administration of the personalized multi-HLA-binding peptide vaccine, the peptides may induce a tumor-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the pe... |
| Personalized and Adjusted Neoantigen Peptide Vaccine PANDA-VAC | A peptide-based, personalized cancer therapeutic vaccine consisting of up to 8 patient-specific tumor peptides, which are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor and identified through DNA and RNA sequencing of a patient's tumor cells, combined with the immunostimulant polyinosinic-polycytidylic acid stabilized with polylysine and carboxymethylcellulose (poly-ICLC), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, personalized and adjusted neoantigen p... |
| Personalized Cancer Neoantigen Vaccine GAd-PEV | A personalized neoantigen priming vaccine comprised of a great ape (gorilla) adenoviral (GAd) vector encoding numerous patient-specific tumor neoantigens, which are identified based on patient-specific tumor mutations obtained from the individual's tumor, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. The neoantigens are the same as the ones in the booster vaccine MVA-PEV. Upon administration of the priming vaccine personalized cancer neoantigen vaccine GAd-PEV, the neoantige... |
| Personalized Cancer Neoantigen Vaccine MVA-PEV | A personalized neoantigen booster vaccine comprised of a modified Vaccinia Ankara (MVA) viral vector encoding numerous patient-specific tumor neoantigens, which are identified based on patient-specific tumor mutations obtained from the individual's tumor, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. The neoantigens are the same as the ones in the priming vaccine GAd-PEV. Following administration of the priming vaccine GAd-PEV, the administration of the booster vaccine, pers... |
| Personalized Liposomal Neoantigen-based Peptide Vaccine EVX-01 | A personalized liposomal peptide vaccine composed of specific cancer neoepitopes, which are highly patient-specific immunogenic tumor associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the personalized liposomal neoantigen-based peptide vaccine EVX-01, the neoepitopes induce cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune responses against tumor cells expressing these specific TAAs. |
| Personalized Live-attenuated Double-deleted Listeria monocytogenes | A proprietary, personalized live, attenuated, double-deleted (pLADD) strain of the Gram-positive bacterium Listeria monocytogenes encoding multiple, patient-specific neoantigens, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) expressed in pLADD are taken up by antigen-presenting cells (APCs), including dendritic cells (DCs), and are processed and presented to the immune system by both major histocompatibili... |
| Personalized Neoantigen Cancer Vaccine VB10.NEO | A personalized cancer vaccine consisting of DNA plasmids encoding patient-specific neoantigens, which are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor, linked to an intrinsic adjuvant, a chemokine MIP-1alpha (CCL3; MIP-1a)-expressing, endocytic chemokine receptor-targeting unit, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of the personalized neoantigen cancer vaccine VB10.NEO, the patient-specific neoantigens are translated in cells and th... |
| Personalized Neoantigen DNA Vaccine GNOS-PV01 | A personalized cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific neoantigen-coding DNA plasmids, which are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of GNOS-PV01, the patient-specific neoantigens are translated in cells and elicit a specific and potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing these neoantigens, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Each patient specific formulation may con... |
| Personalized Neoantigen DNA Vaccine GNOS-PVO2 | A personalized cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific neoantigen-coding DNA plasmids, which are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal delivery by electroporation of GNOS-PVO2, the patient-specific neoantigens are translated in cells and elicit a specific and potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing these neoantigens, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Each patient spe... |
| Personalized Neoantigen Follicular Lymphoma Vaccine | A peptide-based, personalized follicular lymphoma therapeutic vaccine consisting of up to 20 neoantigens and peptides derived from patient-specific follicular lymphoma immunogenic epitopes, combined with the immunostimulant poly-ICLC, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the personalized neoantigen follicular lymphoma vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoa... |
| Personalized Neoantigen Ovarian Cancer Vaccine | A peptide-based, personalized ovarian cancer therapeutic vaccine consisting of up to 20 neoantigens and peptides derived from patient-specific ovarian cancer immunogenic epitopes, combined with the immunostimulant poly-ICLC, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the personalized neoantigen ovarian cancer vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoantigens, which ... |
| Personalized Neoantigen Peptide Vaccine iNeo-Vac-P01 | A peptide-based, personalized cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific mutated long peptides, which are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination with the personalized neoantigen peptide vaccine iNeo-Vac-P01, the peptides stimulate the host immune system to mount a specific and potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoantigens, which results in tumor cell lysis. |
| Personalized Neoantigen Plasmid DNA Melanoma Vaccine EVX-02 | A plasmid DNA melanoma vaccine composed of DNA plasmid encoding multiple, melanoma patient-specific neoepitopes, which are highly immunogenic tumor associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular (IM) administration of personalized neoantigen plasmid DNA melanoma vaccine EVX-02, the plasmid DNA is taken up by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and the expressed neoepitopes induce cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune responses... |
| Personalized Neoantigen Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Cancer Vaccine | A personalized upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract cancer vaccine consisting of multiple patient-specific tumor-derived neoantigens, which are identified based on patient-specific tumor mutations obtained from the individual's tumor, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the personalized neoantigen upper GI tract cancer vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoa... |
| Personalized Neoantigen Vaccine NECVAX NEO1 | A personalized, oral Ty21a-based neoantigen vaccine consisting of eukaryotic expression plasmid encoding patient-specific tumor neoantigens that are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of personalized neoantigen vaccine NECVAX NEO1, the patient-specific neoantigens elicit a specific and potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing these neoantigens. Ty21a is a live... |
| Personalized Neoantigen-specific T-lymphocytes NEO-PTC-01 | A preparation of autologous, personalized tumor neoantigen-specific T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The T-cells are derived from the patients' peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) and are primed and activated against tumor-specific neoantigens that are expressed on the patient's tumor cells or in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and expanded ex vivo. Upon administration, the autologous neoantigen-specific T-lymphocytes NEO-PTC-01 recognize... |
| Personalized Neoepitope Yeast Vaccine YE-NEO-001 | A cancer vaccine composed of a heat-killed yeast that has been genetically modified to express patient-specific neoantigen epitopes. Upon vaccination, neoepitope yeast vaccine YE-NEO-001 may elicit a targeted CD4+ and CD8+ T-lymphocyte-mediated immune response against tumor cells expressing these specific epitopes. |
| Personalized Peptide Cancer Vaccine NEO-PV-01 | A synthetic peptide-based, personalized cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific mutated peptide epitopes, which are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with the neoantigen-based anti-cancer vaccine NEO-PV-01 stimulates the host immune system to mount a specific and potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoantigens, which results in tumor cell lysis. |
| Personalized Peptides-loaded Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based personalized cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with the patient's own tumor-specific peptides, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the personalized peptides (PEP)-loaded autologous DC vaccine, the DCs activate natural killer cells (NKs) and stimulate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against the patient's tumor cells expressing the PEPs, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Personalized Polyepitope Plasmid DNA Breast Cancer Vaccine | A polyepitope DNA vaccine composed of a DNA plasmid encoding multiple, highly immunogenic tumor associated antigens (TAAs) that are specifically selected after genome profiling of the patient's breast cancer cells, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration and electroporation of the personalized polyepitope plasmid DNA breast cancer vaccine, the expressed TAAs induce cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune responses against tumor cells expre... |
| Personalized Synthetic Long Peptide Breast Cancer Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of one or more long, synthetic peptides derived from patient-specific breast cancer tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of the personalized synthetic long peptide breast cancer vaccine, the peptides stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the TAAs, which results in tumor cell lysis. |
| Personalized Synthetic Long Peptide Vaccine | A personalized peptide vaccine consisting of synthetic long peptides (SLPs), ranging from 20-35 amino acids in size, that are derived from two or more of the patient's tumor-specific mutant antigens (TSMAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. A patient's tumor is isolated, TSMAs are identified, assessed and prioritized, and two or more TSMAs are selected to be further processed into SLPs. Upon administration, personalized SLP vaccine may stimulate the host immune syste... |
| Pertuzumab | A humanized recombinant monoclonal antibody directed against the extracellular dimerization domain of the HER-2 tyrosine kinase receptor. Binding of the antibody to the dimerization domain of the HER-2 tyrosine kinase receptor protein directly inhibits the ability of the HER-2 tyrosine kinase receptor protein (the most common pairing partner) to dimerize with other HER tyrosine kinase receptor proteins; inhibiting receptor protein dimerization prevents the activation of HER signaling pathways... |
| Petiveria alliacea Extract | An herbal extract derived from the plant Petiveria alliacea, with potential antineoplastic activity. Petiveria alliacea contains dibenzyl trisulphide (DTS), flavonoids, flavonoid glycosides and coumarin, and may exert antineoplastic activity through multiple pathways including the induction of G2 cell cycle arrest and apoptosis, and the modulation of cell metabolism. |
| Petosemtamab | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody targeting both epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; HER1; ErbB1) and leucine-rich repeat-containing G-protein coupled receptor 5 (LGR5), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, petosemtamab simultaneously targets and binds to both EGFR and LGR5, thereby inhibiting the activation of both EGFR- and LGR5-mediated signaling pathways. This results in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase ... |
| Pevonedistat | A small molecule inhibitor of Nedd8 activating enzyme (NAE) with potential antineoplastic activity. Pevonedistat binds to and inhibits NAE, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and survival. NAE activates Nedd8 (Neural precursor cell expressed, developmentally down-regulated 8), an ubiquitin-like (UBL) protein that modifies cellular targets in a pathway that is parallel to but distinct from the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway (UPP). Functioning in diverse regulatory act... |
| Pexastimogene Devacirepvec | An oncolytic thymidine kinase (TK)-deleted vaccinia poxvirus expressing human GM-CSF (hGM-CSF) with antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral or intravenous administration, pexastimogene devacirepvec selectively infects and lyses tumor cells. While vaccinia displays a natural tumor cell tropism, deletion of the TK gene increases the tumor selectivity of vaccinia by limiting viral replication to cells expressing high levels of TK, such as certain cancer cells. hGM-CSF expression by this agent... |
| Pexidartinib | A small-molecule receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor of proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase (KIT), colony-stimulating factor-1 receptor (CSF1R) and FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3), with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pexidartinib targets, binds to and inhibits phosphorylation of KIT, CSF1R and FLT3 harboring an internal tandem duplication (ITD) mutation. This results in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. FLT3, CSF1R and FLT3 are overexpressed or mutated... |
| Pexmetinib | An orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of p38 and Tie2 kinases with potential antineoplastic, anti-inflammatory and antiangiogenic activities. Pexmetinib binds to and inhibits the activities of p38 and Tie2 kinases, which may inhibit the production of proinflammatory cytokines and may decrease tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell growth and survival. p38 is a MAP kinase that is often upregulated in cancer cells, playing a crucial part in the production of a variety of cytokines involved... |
| PGLA/PEG Copolymer-Based Paclitaxel | A controlled-release, intratumoral paclitaxel formulation in which paclitaxel is incorporated into a thermosensitive, biodegradable triblock copolymer consisting of poly(lactide-co-glycolide) (PLGA) and polyethylene glycol (PEG). Upon intratumoral injection, paclitaxel is released slowly and continuously into tumor tissues from the gelled thermosensitive triblock copolymer over a period of 4 to 6 weeks; in tumor cells, paclitaxel binds to tubulin and inhibits the disassembly-assembly dynamics... |
| pH Low Insertion Peptide-exatecan Conjugate CBX-12 | A conjugate composed of a pH low insertion peptide (pHLIP) linked to the camptothecin analog exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of pHLIP-exatecan conjugate CBX-12, the pHLIP moiety specifically targets and gets inserted into the cellular membrane of tumor cells in environments with low extracellular pH. Then the exatecan moiety is released intracellularly via glutathione reduction of the linker. Exatecan inhibits DNA topoisomerase I activity, thereby inhibit... |
| PH20 Hyaluronidase-expressing Adenovirus VCN-01 | An oncolytic, replication-competent adenovirus encoding the human glycosylphosphatidylinositol-anchored enzyme PH20 hyaluronidase with potential antitumor activity. After intratumoral administration, PH20 hyaluronidase-expressing adenovirus VCN-01 selectively replicates in tumor cells, which may both cause oncolytic virus-induced cell death and induce the infection of adjacent tumor cells. In addition, the virus expresses hyaluronidase, which hydrolyzes and degrades the hyaluronic acid (HA) t... |
| Phaleria macrocarpa Extract DLBS-1425 | An extract of the flesh from the fruit of Phaleria macrocarpa, an Indonesian herbal medicine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the active ingredients and exact components are unclear, gallic acid and its derivatives in DLBS-1425 appear to inhibit the phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K)/protein kinase B (AKT) signaling pathway by reducing PI3K transcription followed by a reduction in AKT phosphorylation. This extract also appears to induce apoptosis through induction of pro-apopto... |
| Pharmacological Ascorbate | A high dose (HD) of ascorbic acid, a pro-oxidant agent, with potential antineoplastic and radio-chemo-sensitizing activities. Upon intravenous (IV) administration, pharmacological ascorbate is able to generate reactive oxygen species (ROS) by donating an electron to oxygen (O2) and forming hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), thereby causing oxidative stress and overwhelming the cell's anti-oxidant defense mechanisms. This induces DNA double-stranded breaks (DSBs) and cell death. Tumor cells are highly ... |
| Phellodendron amurense Bark Extract | A proprietary formulation consisting of a Phellodendron amurense (Amur cork tree) bark extract, often used in traditional Chinese medicine, with anti-inflammatory, anti-oxidant and potential chemopreventive and antineoplastic activities. Phellodendron amurense bark extract contains certain isoquinoline alkaloids, flavone glycosides and phenolic compounds. Upon administration of Phellodendron amurense bark extract, the various phytochemicals in this formulation modulate multiple signal transdu... |
| Phenesterin | A steroidal nitrogen mustard with antineoplastic and mutagenic activities. After attachment to cell-surface steroid receptors and uptake, phenesterin enters the nucleus where it alkylates macromolecules, resulting in decreased cell proliferation. (NCI04) |
| Phenethyl Isothiocyanate | An isothiocyanate found in cruciferous vegetables with chemopreventive and potential antitumor activities. Although the mechanism of action is unclear, phenethyl Isothiocyanate (PEITC) was shown to induce apoptosis in tumor cells, possibly mediated through its metabolic intermediates, reactive oxygen species (ROS). PEITC also is able to activate ERK and JNK signal transduction, which in turn induces expression of stress-responsive genes. Specifically, this agent has been shown to reactivate g... |
| Phenethyl Isothiocyanate-containing Watercress Juice | A juice extracted from watercress containing high amounts of phenethyl isothiocyanate (PEITC), with potential chemopreventive and antitumor activities. Although the mechanism(s) of action through which PEITC exerts its effect(s) has yet to be fully elucidated, PEITC is able to induce apoptosis in tumor cells through the induction of reactive oxygen species (ROS). Additionally, PEITC is able to modulate extracellular signal-regulated kinases (ERK), c-Jun N-terminal kinase (JNK) and mitogen-act... |
| Phenyl Acetate | An aromatic fatty acid metabolite of phenylalanine with potential antineoplastic activity.  Naturally occurring in mammals, phenylacetate induces differentiation, growth inhibition, and apoptosis in tumor cells.  Implicated mechanisms of action include decreased protein prenylation, activation of the peroxisome proliferation-activated receptors, inhibition of DNA methylation, and depletion of glutamine. (NCI04) |
| Phosphatidylcholine-Bound Silybin | An oral preparation of the flavonoid silybin with potential antioxidant and chemopreventive activities. Silybin, also known as silibinin, is a mixture of two stereoisomers, denoted silybin A and silybin B, and is the major active constituent of silymarin, a mixture of flavonolignans extracted from blessed milk thistle (Silybum marianum). Silybin modulates P-glycoprotein (P-gp)-mediated cellular efflux; has oxygen radical-scavenging effects; inhibits the arachidonic acid pathway; and inhibits ... |
| Phosphoramide Mustard | One of a number of chemically-related alkylating agents with antineoplastic properties.  The prototype of this group of agents is cyclophosphamide.  Most phosphoramide mustards are administered as prodrugs that undergo reductive activation in hypoxic environments to yield cytotoxic metabolites. These agents alkylate and crosslink DNA, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication. Phosphoramide mustards are also immunosuppressants, mutagens and teratogens. (NCI04) |
| Phosphorodiamidate Morpholino Oligomer AVI-4126 | A c-Myc antisense phosphorodiamidate morpholino oligomer (PMO) with potential antineoplastic activity. Phosphorodiamidate morpholino oligomer AVI-4126 binds to c-Myc mRNA and blocks its translation, which may result in the death of tumor cells overexpressing c-Myc. Differing from traditional antisense oligodeoxynucleotides (ODNs), neutrally charged PMOs are composed of subunits of nucleic acid bases linked to a synthetic backbone and, so, are less prone to enzymatic degradation. c-Myc, a prot... |
| Phosphorus P-32 | A radioactive isotope of phosphorus with beta particle-emitting radiocytotoxic activity. Emitted by phosphorus P32, beta particles directly damage cellular DNA and, by ionizing intracellular water to produce several types of cytotoxic free radicals and superoxides, indirectly damage intracellular biological macromolecules, resulting in tumor cell death. |
| Photodynamic Compound TLD-1433 | A non-toxic ruthenium-based coordination-complex and photosensitizer, with potential antineoplastic activity upon photodynamic therapy (PDT). Upon intravesical administration, light-activated photodynamic compound (PDC) TLD-1433 targets and binds to transferrin (Tf) and is subsequently taken up by Tf receptors which are located on tumor cells. Upon exposure to green light (525nm), TLD-1433 becomes activated locally and induces the generation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) and singlet oxygen... |
| Photosensitizer Agent REM-001 | A second-generation photodynamic therapy (PDT)-based agent, with potential antineoplastic activity upon PDT. Upon administration, photosensitizer agent REM-001 specifically targets, binds to and is taken up by tumor cells. Upon exposure to light, REM-001 becomes activated locally and may induce apoptosis and destroy the tumor cells. |
| Phytochlorin Sodium-Polyvinylpyrrolidone Complex | A photosensitizer composed of the sodium salt form of chlorin e6 and its derivatives complexed with a low-molecular weight polyvinylpyrrolidone (PVP) polymer component, with diagnostic and antineoplastic activities upon photodynamic therapy (PDT). Upon intravenous administration, the photosensitizer phytochlorin-PVP sodium complex preferentially accumulates in hyperproliferative tissues, such as tumors. Local application of light with a certain wavelength to the tumor site results in the abso... |
| PI3K Alpha/Beta Inhibitor BAY1082439 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the class I phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) alpha and beta isoforms with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K alpha/beta inhibitor BAY1082439 selectively inhibits both PI3K alpha, including mutated forms of PIK3CA, and PI3K beta in the PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathway, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition in PI3K-expressing and/or PTEN-driven tumor cells. By specifically targeting class I PI3K alpha and beta, this agent may be more effica... |
| PI3K alpha/delta Inhibitor TQ-B3525 | An orally available selective inhibitor of the alpha and delta isoforms of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3-kinase subunit alpha/delta; PI3K-alpha/delta; PI3Kalpha/delta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PI3K alpha/delta inhibitor TQ-B3525 selectively targets, binds to, and inhibits PI3K alpha and delta and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This decreases proliferation of and induces cell death in PI3K-alpha/delta over-expressing tu... |
| PI3K Alpha/mTOR Inhibitor PWT33597 Mesylate | The mesylate salt form of PWT33597, an orally bioavailable dual inhibitor of phosphatidylinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) alpha and mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K alpha/mTOR dual inhibitor PWT33597 selectively inhibits both PI3K alpha kinase and mTOR kinase, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition in PI3K/mTOR-overexpressing tumor cells. Activation of the PI3K/mTOR pathway promotes cell growth, survival, and resistance ... |
| PI3K Inhibitor BGT226 | A phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K inhibitor BGT226 specifically inhibits PI3K in the PI3K/AKT kinase (or protein kinase B) signaling pathway, which may trigger the translocation of cytosolic Bax to the mitochondrial outer membrane, increasing mitochondrial membrane permeability; apoptotic cell death may ensue. Bax is a member of the proapoptotic Bcl2 family of proteins. |
| PI3K Inhibitor GSK1059615 | A phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K inhibitor GSK1059615 inhibits PI3K in the PI3K/AKT kinase signaling pathway, which may trigger the translocation of cytosolic Bax to the mitochondrial outer membrane and an increase in mitochondrial membrane permeability, followed by apoptosis. Bax is a member of the proapoptotic Bcl-2 family of proteins. PI3K, an enzyme often overexpressed in cancer cells, plays a crucial role in tumor cell regulation a... |
| PI3K Inhibitor TL117 | An orally bioavailable phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PI3K inhibitor TL117 specifically inhibits the activity of PI3K, and prevents the activation of the PI3K/Akt (protein kinase B)-mediated signaling pathway. This may result in the inhibition of both tumor cell growth and survival in PI3K-overexpressing tumor cells. Activation of the PI3K signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis. Dysregula... |
| PI3K Inhibitor WX-037 | A phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K inhibitor WX-037 specifically inhibits PI3K, which prevents the activation of the PI3K/protein kinase B-mediated signaling pathway. This may result in the inhibition of both tumor cell growth and survival in PI3K-overexpressing tumor cells. Activation of the PI3K signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis. Dysregulated PI3K signaling may contribute to tumor resistance to a variety ... |
| PI3K Inhibitor ZSTK474 | An orally available, s-triazine derivative, ATP-competitive phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K inhibitor ZSTK474 inhibits all four PI3K isoforms. Inhibiting the activation of the PI3K/AKT kinase (or protein kinase B) signaling pathway results in inhibition of tumor cell growth and survival in susceptible tumor cell populations. Dysregulated PI3K signaling may contribute to tumor resistance to a variety of antineoplastic agents. This age... |
| PI3K p110beta/delta Inhibitor CVL237 | A dual selective inhibitor of the beta and delta isoforms of the 110 kDa catalytic subunit of class I phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K-beta/delta), with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K-beta/delta inhibitor CVL237 selectively inhibits the PI3K-beta and -delta isoforms and prevents their activation, which inhibits PI3K-beta/delta-mediated signal transduction pathways. This decreases proliferation and induces cell death in susceptible tumor cells. Unlike other isoforms of PI3K, PI3K-beta ... |
| PI3K/BET Inhibitor LY294002 | A morpholine-based inhibitor of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) and the bromodomain and extra-terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the PI3K/BET inhibitor LY294002 specifically targets and binds to both PI3K and the acetylated lysine recognition motifs in the bromodomains of BET proteins. Inhibition of PI3K activity inhibits the PI3K/AKT kinase signaling pathway. This may result in inhibition of growth and survival for tumor cells... |
| PI3K/HDAC Inhibitor BEBT-908 | The hydrochloride salt form of the free base form of BEBT-908, an inhibitor of both phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) and histone deacetylase (HDAC) enzymes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PI3K/HDAC inhibitor BEBT-908 binds to and inhibits the activity and mediated signaling of both PI3K and HDAC. In addition, BEBT-908 may also inhibit other signaling pathways. This may prevent growth of PI3K and/or HDAC-expressing tumor cells. |
| PI3K/mTOR Inhibitor CLL442 | A topical inhibitor of class I phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) isoforms and mammalian target of rapamycin kinase (mTOR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon topical administration, PI3K/mTOR inhibitor CLL442 targets and inhibits class I PI3K isoforms and mTOR kinase. This disrupts phosphorylation of substrates downstream of PI3K and mTOR and may result in apoptosis and growth inhibition in susceptible tumor cells. The PI3K/mTOR pathway is upregulated in a variety of tumor cells and ... |
| PI3K/mTOR Inhibitor HEC 68498 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of class I phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) isoforms and mammalian target of rapamycin kinase (mTOR), with potential anti-fibrotic, anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PI3K/mTOR inhibitor HEC 68498 targets and inhibits class I PI3K isoforms and mTOR kinase. This disrupts phosphorylation of substrates downstream of PI3K and mTOR and may result in apoptosis and growth inhibition in susceptible tumor cells an... |
| PI3K/mTOR Kinase Inhibitor DS-7423 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K) and mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) kinase in the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K/mTOR kinase inhibitor DS-7423 inhibits both PI3K kinase and mTOR kinase, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition in susceptible tumor cells. Activation of the PI3K/mTOR pathway promotes cell growth, survival, and resistance to chemotherapy and radiotherapy; mTOR, a serine... |
| PI3K/mTOR Kinase Inhibitor PF-04691502 | An agent targeting the phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K) and mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) in the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K/mTOR kinase inhibitor PF-04691502 inhibits both PI3K and mTOR kinases, which may result in apoptosis and growth inhibition of cancer cells overexpressing PI3K/mTOR. Activation of the PI3K/mTOR pathway promotes cell growth, survival, and resistance to chemotherapy and radiotherapy; mTOR, a serine/threonine kinase d... |
| PI3K/mTOR Kinase Inhibitor VS-5584 | A potent and selective inhibitor of both phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K) and mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) kinase in the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K/mTOR kinase inhibitor VS-5584 inhibits mTOR kinase and all class I PI3K isoforms. Consequently, this disrupts phosphorylation of substrates downstream of PI3K and mTOR and may result in apoptosis and growth inhibition in susceptible tumor cells. Activation of the PI3K/mTOR pathway promotes... |
| PI3K/mTOR Kinase Inhibitor WXFL10030390 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of certain phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) isoforms and mammalian target of rapamycin kinase (mTOR) in the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PI3K/mTOR inhibitor WXFL10030390 (WX390) inhibits mTOR kinase and certain PI3K isoforms. Consequently, this disrupts phosphorylation of substrates downstream of PI3K and mTOR and may result in apoptosis and growth inhibition in susceptible tumor... |
| PI3K/mTORC1/mTORC2 Inhibitor DCBCI0901 | An inhibitor of phosphatidylinositide 3-kinase (PI3K), raptor-mTOR (mTOR complex 1 or mTORC1) and rictor-mTOR (mTOR complex 2 or mTORC2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous infusion, PI3K/mTORC1/mTORC2 inhibitor DCBCI0901 binds to and inhibits PI3K as well as both mTORC1 and mTORC2, which may result in both apoptosis and a decrease in cell proliferation in tumor cells overexpressing PI3K, mTORC1, and mTORC2. Activation of the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway promotes cell grow... |
| PI3Ka/mTOR Inhibitor PKI-179 | A second generation, small-molecule mimetic of ATP that targets the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) with potential antineoplastic activity. PKI-179 selectively inhibits mTOR and phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) alpha. By inhibiting the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway, this agent may inhibit tumor cell proliferation and survival. |
| PI3Kalpha Inhibitor AZD8835 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA), with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K alpha inhibitor AZD8835 selectively binds to and inhibits PIK3CA and its mutated forms, in the PI3K/Akt (protein kinase B) /mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) pathway. This results in both apoptosis and growth inhibition in PIK3CA-expressing tumor cells. By specifically targeting PIK3CA, this agent may be more ef... |
| PI3K-alpha Inhibitor HS-10352 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA; PI3K p110alpha), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PI3K-alpha inhibitor HS-10352 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits wild-type PIK3CA and its mutated forms, in the PI3K/Akt (protein kinase B)/mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) pathway. This results in both apoptosis and growth inhibition in PIK3CA-expres... |
| PI3K-alpha Inhibitor JS105 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PI3K-alpha inhibitor JS105 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits PIK3CA in the PI3K/Akt (protein kinase B)/mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) pathway. This results in apoptosis and growth inhibition in PIK3CA-expressing tumor cells. By specifically targeting PIK3CA, JS105 may be more eff... |
| PI3K-alpha Inhibitor TOS-358 | An orally bioavailable, covalent inhibitor of class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA; PI3K p110alpha), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PI3K-alpha inhibitor TOS-358 selectively targets, binds to and covalently inhibits wild-type PIK3CA and its mutated forms in the PI3K/Akt (protein kinase B)/mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) pathway. This results in both apoptosis and growth inhibition in PIK3CA-express... |
| PI3Kbeta Inhibitor AZD8186 | An inhibitor of the beta isoform of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PI3Kbeta inhibitor AZD8186 selectively inhibits the activity of PI3Kbeta in the PI3K/Akt/mTOR signaling pathway, which may result in a decrease of tumor cell proliferation and induces cell death in PI3K-expressing cancer cells. By specifically targeting class I PI3K beta, this agent may be more efficacious and less toxic than pan PI3K inhibitors. PI3K-mediated sig... |
| PI3K-beta Inhibitor GSK2636771 | An orally bioavailable, substituted benzimidazole inhibitor of the class I phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) beta isoform with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K beta inhibitor GSK2636771 selectively inhibits PI3K beta kinase activity in the PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathway, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition in PI3K beta-expressing and/or PTEN-driven tumor cells. Dysregulation of the PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathway is frequently found in solid tumors and results in the promotion o... |
| PI3K-beta Inhibitor SAR260301 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) beta isoform with potential antineoplastic activity. PI3K beta inhibitor SAR260301 selectively inhibits PI3K beta kinase activity in the PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathway, which may result in apoptosis and growth inhibition in PI3K beta-expressing and/or phosphatase and tensin homolog (PTEN)-deficient tumor cells. Dysregulation of the PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathway is frequently found in solid tumors and contributes to increased ... |
| PI3K-delta Inhibitor AMG 319 | A highly selective, potent, and orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the delta isoform of the 110 kDa catalytic subunit of class IA phosphoinositide-3 kinases (PI3K) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities.  PI3K-delta inhibitor AMG 319 prevents the activation of the PI3K signaling pathway through inhibition of the production of the second messenger phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3), thus decreasing proliferation and inducing cell death.  Unlike ... |
| PI3K-delta Inhibitor BGB-10188 | An orally available selective inhibitor of the delta isoform of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3-kinase subunit delta; PI3K-delta; PI3Kdelta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PI3K-delta inhibitor BGB-10188 selectively binds to and inhibits PI3K-delta and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This decreases proliferation of and induces cell death in PI3K-delta over-expressing tumor cells. PI3K-delta also plays a key role in the B-cell re... |
| PI3Kdelta Inhibitor GS-9901 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the delta isoform of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3Kdelta) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PI3Kdelta inhibitor GS-9901 selectively binds to the delta isoform of PI3K and inhibits its activity. This inhibits the activation of the PI3Kdelta-mediated signaling pathway and prevents proliferation of PI3Kdelta-overexpressing tumor cells. Unlike other isoforms of PI3K, PI3Kdelta is expressed ... |
| PI3K-delta Inhibitor SHC014748M | An orally available selective inhibitor of the delta isoform of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3-kinase subunit delta; PI3K-delta; PI3Kdelta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PI3K delta inhibitor SHC014748M selectively binds to and inhibits PI3K delta and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This decreases proliferation of and induces cell death in PI3K delta over-expressing tumor cells. PI3K delta also plays a key role in the B-cell r... |
| PI3Kdelta/gamma Inhibitor ZX-101A | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the delta and gamma isoforms of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of PI3Kdelta/gamma inhibitor ZX-101A, this agent targets and inhibits the PI3K delta and gamma isoforms and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT-mediated signaling pathway. This may lead to a reduction in cellular proliferation in PI3K delta/gamma-expressing tumor cells. ZX-101A may also promote anti-tumor immunity. Unlike other i... |
| PI3K-gamma Inhibitor HS248 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the gamma isoform of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3Kg), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PI3Kg inhibitor HS248 targets and inhibits the PI3Kg isoform and prevents the activation of the PI3Kg-AKT-mediated signaling pathway. As PI3Kg plays an important role in immune suppression and promotes immunosuppressive myeloid cell polarization during tumor growth and metastasis, the inhibition PI3Kg may... |
| PI3K-gamma Inhibitor ZX-4081 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the gamma isoform of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3Kg), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of PI3Kg inhibitor ZX-4081, this agent targets and inhibits the PI3Kg isoform and prevents the activation of the PI3Kg-AKT-mediated signaling pathway. As PI3Kg plays an important role in immune suppression and promotes immunosuppressive myeloid cell polarization during tumor growth and metastasis, the inhi... |
| Pibenzimol | A fluorescent dye of benzimidazole derivative.  Pibenzimol binds to AT-specific sites in the minor groove of duplex DNA and inhibits topoisomerase I, and DNA polymerase, thereby preventing DNA replication. This agent prolongs the G2 phase of the cell cycle and initiates apoptosis in tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Pibrozelesin | A semisynthetic water-soluble derivative of the antineoplastic antibiotic duocarmycin B2.  Activated by carboxyl esterase, pibrozelesin alkylates DNA by binding to adenine-thymine (A-T)-rich sequences in the minor groove of DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and inducing apoptosis. |
| Pibrozelesin Hydrobromide | The hydrobromide salt form of pibrozelesin, a semisynthetic water-soluble derivative of the antineoplastic antibiotic duocarmycin B2, with antineoplastic activity. Activated by carboxyl esterase, pibrozelesin alkylates DNA by binding to adenine-thymine (A-T)-rich sequences in the minor groove of DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and inducing apoptosis. |
| Picibanil | A lyophilized formulation containing cultures of a low-virulent strain of Streptococcus pyogenes, treated and killed with penicillin G, with potential sclerosing, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activity. Besides from picibanil's direct damaging effect as a sclerosing agent, it seems to have multiple effects on the immune system as a non-specific immunostimulant.  Picibanil activates the host immune system by stimulating the activity of natural killer cells, macrophages and lymphocytes, ... |
| Picoplatin | A new generation organic platinum analog with an extended spectrum of antineoplastic activity. Designed to overcome platinum drug resistance, picoplatin alkylates DNA, forming both inter- and intra-strand cross-linkages, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication and transcription, and the induction of apoptosis. |
| Picrasinoside H | A quassinoid glycoside phytochemical isolated from the plant Picrasma ailanthoides with potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Picropodophyllin | A cyclolignan alkaloid found in the mayapple plant family (Podophyllum peltatum), and a small molecule inhibitor of the insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor (IGF1R) with potential antineoplastic activity. Picropodophyllin specifically inhibits the activity and downregulates the cellular expression of IGF1R without interfering with activities of other growth factor receptors, such as receptors for insulin, epidermal growth factor, platelet-derived growth factor, fibroblast growth factor and m... |
| Pictilisib | A small molecule inhibitor of class I phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pictilisib selectively binds to PI3K in an ATP-competitive manner, inhibiting the production of the secondary messenger phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3) and activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway. This may result in inhibition of tumor cell growth, motility and survival in susceptible tumor cell populations. Activation of the PI3K/Akt si... |
| Pictilisib Bismesylate | The orally bioavailable bismesylate salt of pictilisib, a small molecule inhibitor of class I phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pictilisib selectively binds to PI3K in an ATP-competitive manner, inhibiting the production of the secondary messenger phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3) and activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway. This may result in inhibition of tumor cell growth, motility and survival in susceptib... |
| Pidilizumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human PD-1 (programmed cell death 1; PDCD1), with immunomodulating and antitumor activities. Pidilizumab blocks interaction between the receptor PD-1 with its ligands, PD-1 ligand 1 (PD-1L1) and PD-1 ligand 2 (PD-1L2), resulting in the attenuation of apoptotic processes in lymphocytes, primarily effector/memory T cells, and the augmentation of the anti-tumor activities of NK cells. PD-1 is an inhibitory receptor belonging to the B7-receptor fam... |
| Pidnarulex | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of RNA polymerase I (Pol I), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pidnarulex selectively binds to and inhibits Pol I, prevents Pol I-mediated ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis, induces apoptosis, and inhibits tumor cell growth. Pol I, the multiprotein complex that synthesizes rRNA, is upregulated in cancer cells and plays a key role in cell proliferation and survival. Hyperactivated rRNA transcription is associated with uncontrolled c... |
| Pifusertib | An orally bioavailable allosteric and selective pan-inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B; v-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pifusertib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Akt, which may result in the inhibition of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K)/Akt-mediated signaling. This may inhibit proliferation and induce apoptosis of tumor cells in which Akt is overexpres... |
| Pilaralisib | An orally bioavailable small molecule, targeting the class I phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K) family of lipid kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Pilaralisib reversibly binds to class 1 PI3Ks in an ATP-competitive manner, inhibiting the production of the secondary messenger phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3) and activation of the PI3K signaling pathway; this may result in inhibition of tumor cell growth and survival in susceptible tumor cell populations. Activati... |
| PIM Kinase Inhibitor LGH447 | An orally available pan-PIM protein kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. PIM kinase inhibitor LGH447 binds to and inhibits the activities of PIM-1, -2 and -3 serine/threonine kinases, which may result in the interruption of the G1/S phase cell cycle transition, the expression of the pro-apoptotic Bcl2 protein and tumor cell apoptosis in cells that overexpress PIMs. PIM kinases, downstream effectors of many cytokine and growth factor signaling pathways, play key roles in ce... |
| PIM Kinase Inhibitor SGI-1776 | A small-molecule pan-PIM protein kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. PIM kinase inhibitor SGI-1776 binds to and inhibits the activities of PIM-1, -2 and -3 serine/threonine kinases, which may result in the interruption of the G1/S phase cell cycle transition, the expression of pro-apoptotic Bcl2 proteins and tumor cell apoptosis. PIM kinases play key roles in cell cycle progression and apoptosis inhibition and may be overexpressed in various malignancies. |
| Pimasertib | An orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of MEK1 and MEK2 (MEK1/2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Pimasertib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK1/2, preventing the activation of MEK1/2-dependent effector proteins and transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK1/2 (MAP2K1/K2) are dual-specificity threonine/tyrosine kinases that play key roles in the activation of the RAS/R... |
| Pimicotinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; CD115; M-CSFR), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, pimicotinib targets and binds to CSF1R, thereby blocking CSF1R activation and CSF1R-mediated signaling. This inhibits the activities of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs), and prevents immune suppression in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This enhances an... |
| Pimitespib | A specific inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) subtypes alpha and beta, with potential antineoplastic and chemo/radiosensitizing activities. Upon oral administration, pimitespib specifically binds to and inhibits the activity of Hsp90 alpha and beta; this results in the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic client proteins, which inhibits client protein dependent-signaling, induces apoptosis, and inhibits the proliferation of cells overexpressing HSP90alpha/beta. Hsp90, a family of mole... |
| Pimivalimab | A human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, pimivalimab targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transme... |
| Pimurutamab | A glycoengineered humanized version of the monoclonal antibody of cetuximab, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, pimurutamab selectively targets and binds to the extracellular domain of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), thereby preventing the activation and subsequent dimerization of the receptor. This may prevent EGFR-mediated signaling and inhibit EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation.  In addition, the glyco-optimization promotes antibody-d... |
| Pinatuzumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of MCDT2219A, a humanized IgG1 anti-CD22 monoclonal antibody covalently linked, via a protease-cleavable peptide linker, to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of pinatuzumab vedotin binds to B cell-specific CD22 receptors and is rapidly internalized, thereby delivering MMAE intracellularly. Upon p... |
| Pingyangmycin | The naturally-occurring bleomycin antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces pingyangensisn.  Pingyangmycin induces tumor cell apoptosis, possibly via a mechanism mediated by the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathway. (NCI04) |
| Pinometostat | A small molecule inhibitor of histone methyltransferase with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, pinometostat specifically blocks the activity of the histone lysine-methyltransferase DOT1L, thereby inhibiting the methylation of nucleosomal histone H3 on lysine 79 (H3K79) that is bound to the mixed lineage leukemia (MLL) fusion protein which targets genes and blocks the expression of leukemogenic genes. This eventually leads to an induction of apoptosis in the l... |
| Pioglitazone | An orally-active thiazolidinedione with antidiabetic properties and potential antineoplastic activity. Pioglitazone activates peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma), a ligand-activated transcription factor, thereby inducing cell differentiation and inhibiting cell growth and angiogenesis. This agent also modulates the transcription of insulin-responsive genes, inhibits macrophage and monocyte activation, and stimulates adipocyte differentiation. |
| Pioglitazone Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of an orally-active thiazolidinedione with antidiabetic properties and potential antineoplastic activity. Pioglitazone activates peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma), a ligand-activated transcription factor, thereby inducing cell differentiation and inhibiting cell growth and angiogenesis. This agent also modulates the transcription of insulin-responsive genes, inhibits macrophage and monocyte activation, and stimulates adipocyte differentiation... |
| Pipendoxifene | A nonsteroidal 2-phenyl indole and a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) with potential antineoplastic activity. Pipendoxifene antagonizes binding of estradiol to estrogen receptor alpha (ER alpha), thereby inhibiting ER alpha-mediated gene expression, interfering with estrogen activity and inhibiting estrogen-stimulated growth in estrogen-dependent breast cancer. In addition, this agent also exerts intrinsic estrogenic activity depending on the tissue types. |
| Piperazinedione | A crystalline antibiotic fermentation product isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces griseoluteus with antineoplastic activity. Piperazinedione alkylates DNA at the N-7 position of guanine, inhibiting DNA replication and inducing cell cycle arrest. |
| Piperine Extract (Standardized) | A standardized extract containing the active alkaloid piperine, derived from the fruit of the plant Piper nigrum (black pepper) and/or the plant Piper longum L. (long pepper), with thermogenic properties. Co-ingestion of piperidine enhances the bioavailability of various nutrients, including beta-carotene, curcumin, selenium, pyridoxine and coenzyme Q10. In addition, this agent may exert anti-inflammatory and anti-tumor activities and may enhance the production of serotonin. |
| Pipobroman | A piperazine derivative with potential antineoplastic alkyating activity. Although the exact mechanism of action of pipobroman has yet to be fully elucidated, this agent appears to act by alkylating DNA, leading to disruption of DNA replication and eventually cell death. |
| Piposulfan | An alkyl sulfonate with potential antineoplastic activity.  Piposulfan alkylates DNA, thereby producing DNA interstrand crosslinks and DNA strand breaks and inhibiting DNA replication.  This agent has been shown to exhibit antitumor activity in an animal model of prostate cancer. (NCI04) |
| Pirarubicin | An analogue of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin.  Pirarubicin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis.  This agent is less cardiotoxic than doxorubicin and exhibits activity against some doxorubicin-resistant cell lines. (NCI04) |
| Pirarubicin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of pirarubicin, an analogue of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin with antineoplastic activity. Pirarubicin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair as well as RNA and protein synthesis. This agent is less cardiotoxic than doxorubicin and exhibits activity against some doxorubicin-resistant cell lines. |
| Pirfenidone | An orally active synthetic antifibrotic agent structurally similar to pyridine 2,4-dicarboxylate. Pirfenidone inhibits fibroblast, epidermal, platelet-derived, and transforming beta-1 growth factors, thereby slowing tumor cell proliferation. This agent also inhibits DNA synthesis and the production of mRNA for collagen types I and III, resulting in a reduction in radiation-induced fibrosis. (NCI04) |
| Piritrexim | A synthetic antifolate agent with antiparasitic, antipsoriatic and antitumor properties. Piritrexim inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase enzyme, thereby disrupting folate metabolism and DNA synthesis and cell division. (NCI04) |
| Piritrexim Isethionate | The isethionate salt of piritrexim, a synthetic antifolate agent with antiparasitic, antipsoriatic and antitumor properties. Piritrexim inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase enzyme, thereby disrupting folate metabolism and DNA synthesis and cell division. |
| Pirotinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) epidermal growth factor receptor (ErbB; EGFR) family, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pirotinib selectively and irreversibly binds to and inhibits the epidermal growth factor receptors 1 (ErbB1; EGFR), 2 (ErbB2; HER2), and 4 (ErbB4; HER4). This may result in the inhibition of cell growth and angiogenesis in tumors overexpressing these RTKs. EGFRs play major roles in both tumor cell proliferatio... |
| Piroxantrone | An anthrapyrazole antineoplastic antibiotic.  Piroxantrone intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis.  Although less cardiotoxic than doxorubicin, this agent exhibits a narrow spectrum of antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Piroxantrone Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of piroxantrone, an anthrapyrazole antineoplastic antibiotic. Piroxantrone intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair as well as RNA and protein synthesis. Although less cardiotoxic than doxorubicin, this agent exhibits a narrow spectrum of antineoplastic activity. |
| pIRS2 Phosphopeptide-tetanus Peptide Vaccine | A vaccine composed of a phosphorylated peptide from the tumor associated antigen insulin receptor substrate-2 (IRS2) and a tetanus-derived peptide, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of pIRS2 phosphopeptide-tetanus peptide vaccine, the pIRS2 phosphopeptide may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against phosphopeptide-containing tumor cells. The tetanus peptide serves as an immunoadjuvant and induces a he... |
| Pirtobrutinib | An orally available, selective, non-covalent Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pirtobrutinib selectively and reversibly binds to BTK. This prevents both the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways, thereby inhibiting the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress BTK. Reversible binding of LOXO-305 may preserve antitumor activity in t... |
| Pivekimab Sunirine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a humanized anti-CD123 (interleukin-3 (IL-3) receptor alpha chain; IL3RA) immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to a cytotoxic, DNA-alkylating payload, which is an indolino-benzodiazepine dimer containing an imine moiety, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CD123 ADC IMGN632, the antibody moiety targets the cell surface antigen CD123. Upon antibody/antigen binding, interna... |
| Pixantrone | A synthetic, noncardiotoxic aza-anthracenedione analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Pixantrone intercalates into DNA and induces topoisomerase II-mediated DNA strand crosslinks, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication and tumor cell cytotoxicity. |
| Pixantrone Dimaleate | The dimaleate salt of a synthetic, noncardiotoxic aza-anthracenedione analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Pixantrone intercalates into DNA and induces topoisomerase II-mediated DNA strand crosslinks, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication and tumor cell cytotoxicity. |
| Pixatimod | A synthetic sugar modified heparan sulfate mimetic and agonist of toll-like receptor 9 (TLR9), with potential immunostimulating, antineoplastic and anti-viral activities. Upon administration, pixatimod binds to and activates TLR9 expressed by dendritic cells (DCs) and B-cells. This initiates cytokine release from DCs and activates innate immune signaling pathways, and leads to the activation of natural killer (NK) cells to destroy tumor cells. The combination of pixatimod with certain checkpo... |
| PKA Regulatory Subunit RIalpha Mixed-Backbone Antisense Oligonucleotide GEM 231 | A mixed backbone oligonucleotide exhibiting antitumor activity.  GEM-231 is complementary to the RI alpha subunit of Protein Kinase A (PKA), resulting in downregulation of PKA expression and ultimately tumor growth. (NCI) |
| PKC-beta Inhibitor MS-553 | An orally available inhibitor of the beta-isoform of protein kinase C (PKC), with potential immunosuppressive and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PKC-beta inhibitor MS-553 selectively binds to and inhibits PKC-beta, which prevents the activation of PKC-beta-mediated signaling pathways. This may lead to the induction of cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in susceptible tumor cells. PKC-beta, a serine/threonine protein kinase overexpressed in certain types of cancer cells, is ... |
| Pladienolide Derivative E7107 | A synthetic urethane derivative of pladienolide D with potential antineoplastic activity. Pladienolide derivative E7107 is generated from the 12-membered macrolide pladienolide D, one of several macrolides derived from the bacterium Streptomyces platensis Mer-11107. This agent appears to bind to the 130-kDa subunit 3 (spliceosome-associated protein 130; SAP130) of the splicing factor 3b (SF3b), resulting in inhibition of pre-messenger RNA splicing and the arrest of cell-cycle progression. The... |
| Plamotamab | A bispecific, Fc domain-containing, monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Plamotamab contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T cell surface antigen, and one for human CD20, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) that is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development and is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. Upon administration, plamotamab binds to both T-cells and CD20-expressing B-lineage tumor cells. The resulting cros... |
| Plasmacytoid Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A whole cell vaccine derived from a distinct subset of dendritic cells (DCs) with a plasma cell-like morphology that exhibits immunomodulating activity. Plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs) express a characteristic set of surface markers, such as CD123 (interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain), BDCA-2 (blood dendritic cell antigen 2; CD303) and BDCA-4 (CD304), as well as intracellular toll-like receptors 7 and 9. Upon stimulation, the activated pDCs produce substantial amounts of interferon (IFN) a... |
| Plasmid DNA Vaccine pING-hHER3FL | A plasmid DNA cancer vaccine encoding the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor type-3 (HER-3; HER3), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon intramuscular administration of the plasmid DNA vaccine pING-hHER3FL and after cellular uptake by muscle cells, the plasmid DNA expresses HER-3 which, may elicit both antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) and humoral immune responses against tumor cells expressing HER-3. HER-3 plays a k... |
| Plasmid Encoding Antiangiogenic Metargidin Peptide | A plasmid encoding the protein antiangiogenic metargidin plasmid (AMEP), the disintegrin domain of ADAM-15 (metargidin), with potential antiangiogenic and antimetastatic activities. Upon intratumoral electrotransfer of plasmid encoding AMEP, AMEP binds to cellular integrin receptors alpha-v-beta-3 (avb3) and alpha-5-beta-1 (a5b1), which are upregulated on activated endothelial cells and a variety of tumor cells. Binding to the integrin receptors may inhibit angiogenesis and may inhibit tumor ... |
| Platinum Acetylacetonate-Titanium Dioxide Nanoparticles | A preparation of platinum acetylacetonate supported by sol-gel technology functionalized titania, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the platinum moiety forms complexes with nucleophilic groups such as GC-rich sites in DNA, inducing intrastrand and interstrand DNA cross-links, as well as DNA-protein cross-links, resulting in apoptosis and cell growth inhibition. Compared to platinum alone, the nanoparticle formulation allows increased delivery of platinum... |
| Plevitrexed | An orally bioavailable, small molecule, non-polyglutamatable, antifolate quinazoline derivative thymidine synthetase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Plevitrexed is transported into the cell via the physiological reduced folate carrier (RFC) system. Intracellularly, this agent selectively binds to the folate binding site of thymidylate synthase and inhibits thymidine synthesis, which may result in DNA synthesis inhibition and apoptosis. |
| Plicamycin | An antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces plicatus with antineoplastic activity. Plicamycin, also known as mithramycin, binds to the minor groove of DNA at GC-rich sites, resulting in inhibition of RNA synthesis; this agent also inhibits mRNA expression, resulting in a reduction in protein synthesis. In addition, plicamycin may inhibit bone resorption by down regulating transcription of c-src, an oncogene involved in bone metabolism and resorption. (NCI04) |
| Plinabulin | An orally active diketopiperazine derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Plinabulin selectively targets and binds to the colchicine-binding site of tubulin, thereby interrupting equilibrium of microtubule dynamics. This disrupts mitotic spindle assembly leading to cell cycle arrest at M phase and blockage of cell division. In addition, plinabulin may also inhibit growth of proliferating vascular endothelial cells, thereby disrupting the function of tumor vasculature that further c... |
| Plitidepsin | A cyclic depsipeptide isolated from the marine tunicate Aplidium albicans. Plitidepsin displays a broad spectrum of antitumor activities, inducing apoptosis by triggering mitochondrial cytochrome c release, initiating the Fas/DC95, JNK pathway and activating caspase 3 activation. This agent also inhibits elongation factor 1-a, thereby interfering with protein synthesis, and induces G1 arrest and G2 blockade, thereby inhibiting tumor cell growth. |
| Plixorafenib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor and specific dimer breaker of the serine/threonine-protein kinase B-raf (BRAF) protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, plixorafenib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of dimeric BRAF mutants, including BRAF fusions and splice variants, and BRAFV600 monomers, while sparing RAF function in normal cells. This inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells which express these mutated forms of BRAF. BRAF, a member of the ra... |
| Plk1 Inhibitor BI 2536 | A small molecule compound with potential antineoplastic activities. BI 2536 binds to and inhibits Polo-like kinase 1 (Plk1), resulting in mitotic arrest, disruption of cytokinesis, and apoptosis in susceptible tumor cell populations. Plk1, a serine/threonine-protein kinase, is a key regulator of multiple processes fundamental to mitosis and cell division. |
| PLK1 Inhibitor TAK-960 | An orally available, Polo-like kinase 1 (PLK1) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Polo-like kinase 1 inhibitor TAK-960 selectively inhibits PLK1, inducing selective G2/M cell-cycle arrest followed by apoptosis in a variety of tumor cells while causing reversible cell-cycle arrest at the G1 and G2 stages without apoptosis in normal cells. PLK1 inhibition may result in the inhibition of proliferation in PLK1-overexpressed tumor cells. PLK1, named after the polo gene of Drosophila... |
| PLK4 Inhibitor RP-1664 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of polo-like kinase 4 (PLK4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PLK4 inhibitor RP-1664 selectively inhibits PLK4, which results in the disruption of mitosis and the induction of apoptosis. This inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells that overexpress PLK4 and/or tripartite motif-containing protein 37 (TRIM37). PLK4, a member of the polo family of serine/threonine kinases overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, plays a... |
| Plocabulin | A marine-derived, synthetically produced compound with potential antineoplastic activity. Plocabulin covalently binds to residues lying in the minor groove of DNA, which may result in delayed progression through S phase, cell cycle arrest in the G2/M phase and cell death. |
| Plogosertib | A competitive inhibitor for adenosine triphosphate (ATP) binding to polo-like kinase 1 (PLK1; PLK-1; STPK13), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, plogosertib selectively targets, binds to and inhibits PLK1, which disrupts mitosis and induces selective G2/M cell-cycle arrest followed by apoptosis in PLK1-overexpressing tumor cells. PLK1, named after the polo gene of Drosophila melanogaster, is a serine/threonine kinase that is crucial for the regulation of mitosis, and... |
| Plozalizumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human chemokine receptor 2 (CCR2), with potential antiangiogenic, immunomodulating, antimetastatic, and antineoplastic activities. Plozalizumab binds to CCR2 and prevents binding of the endothelium-derived CLL2 (monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 or MCP1) to its receptor CCR2, which may result in inhibition of CCR2 activation and so inhibition of angiogenesis, tumor cell migration, and tumor cell proliferation. In addition, this agent may r... |
| PLZ4-coated Paclitaxel-loaded Micelle Formulation | A nanoparticle-based formulation consisting of polymeric micelles encapsulating the taxane paclitaxel that are coated with the bladder cancer-targeting ligand PLZ4, a cyclic peptide with amino acid sequence of QDGRMGF, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the PLZ4-coated paclitaxel-loaded micelle formulation, the PLZ4 moiety specifically targets and binds to bladder cancer cells while avoiding normal, healthy cells. This specifically delivers paclitaxel to bladder ca... |
| pNGVL3-hICD Vaccine | A plasmid DNA cancer vaccine encoding the intracellular domain (ICD) of the HER-2/neu proto-oncogene. Upon administration and after cellular uptake by skin or muscle cells, the pNGVL3-hICD vaccine plasmid expresses the HER-2/neu protein, which, after intracellular processing, may elicit both antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) and humoral immune responses against tumor cells expressing HER-2. The HER-2/neu ICD protein is highly immunogenic and, as a subdominant epitope, may be assoc... |
| pNGVL3-hICD Vaccine AST-301 | A plasmid DNA therapeutic cancer vaccine encoding the intracellular domain (ICD) of the HER-2/neu proto-oncogene, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the pNGVL3-hICD vaccine AST-301 expresses the HER-2/neu protein and elicits a HER-2-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against tumor cells expressing HER-2. The HER-2/neu ICD protein is highly immunogenic and, as a subdominant epitope, may be associated with decreased immune tole... |
| pNGVL4a-CRT/E7(detox) DNA Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of the DNA plasmid pNGVL4a-A encoding calreticulin (CRT) linked to a detox form of human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 E7 antigen, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, this vaccine may generate a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against E7-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell death. For E7(detox), the amino acids in E7 at positions 24 (cysteine to glycine) and 26 (glutamic acid to glycine) were su... |
| pNGVL4a-CRT-E6E7L2 DNA Vaccine | A therapeutic DNA vaccine encoding human calreticulin (CRT) linked to human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 E6, E7, and L2 proteins, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration via intramuscular injection with electroporation, the pNGVL4a-CRT-E6E7L2 DNA vaccine expresses HPV16 E6, E7 and L2 proteins, which may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response and humoral immune responses against tumor cells expressing these proteins, resulting in tumor cell ly... |
| pNGVL4a-Sig/E7(detox)/HSP70 DNA and HPV16 L2/E6/E7 Fusion Protein TA-CIN Vaccine PVX-2 | A cancer vaccine consisting of a combination of two vaccines, a prime pNGVL4a-Sig/E7(detox)/HSP70 DNA vaccine and a boost HPV16 L2/E6/E7 fusion protein TA-CIN vaccine, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. pNGVL4a-Sig/E7(detox)/HSP70 DNA vaccine is an antigen-specific DNA cancer vaccine consisting of the coding sequences of a signal peptide (pNGVL4a-Sig), a detox form of the human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV-16) antigen E7, and the heat shock protein 70 (HSP70). Upon... |
| pNGVL4a-Sig/E7(detox)/HSP70 DNA Vaccine | An antigen-specific DNA cancer vaccine consisting of the coding sequences of a signal peptide (pNGVL4a-Sig), a detox form of the human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV-16) antigen E7, and the heat shock protein 70 (HSP70). Upon administration, this vaccine may generate potent cytotoxic CD8(+) T-cell responses against E7-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell death. |
| Pocenbrodib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the bromodomain of the histone acetyltransferase (HAT) paralogs, CREB binding protein (CBP) and p300 (E1A-associated protein p300; p300 HAT), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pocenbrodib targets and binds to the bromodomain of CBP and p300. This disrupts the acetylation of histones and other proteins and prevents the co-activation of the androgen receptor (AR) including AR-v7. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation in AR-... |
| Podentamig | A recombinant antibody derivative composed of tri-specific T-cell activating construct (TriTAC) directed against the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17), the epsilon domain of CD3 antigen (CD3e) found on T-lymphocytes, and albumin, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, podentamig targets and binds to BCMA on tumor cells and CD3e on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs), thereby bringing BCMA-expressing tumor c... |
| Pol Theta Inhibitor ART4215 | An orally bioavailable and selective inhibitor of DNA polymerase (pol) theta, with potential chemosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Pol theta inhibitor ART4215 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of pol theta. This prevents pol theta-mediated repair of damaged DNA and may have a synergistic effect if administered in combination with agents that cause DNA damage. Pol theta plays a key role in DNA synthesis and repair. |
| Polatuzumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against B-cell antigen receptor complex-associated protein beta chain (CD79B) conjugated, via a protease-cleavable peptide linker, to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity.  Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of polatuzumab vedotin selectively binds to CD79B, a protein which is abundantly expressed on the sur... |
| Polidocanol | An alkyl polyglycol ether of lauryl alcohol with sclerosing and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon intralesional administration, polidocanol induces endothelial cell injury by disrupting calcium signaling and nitric oxide pathways. Following endothelial damage, platelets aggregate at the site of injury and attach to the venous wall, resulting in a dense network of platelets, cellular debris, and fibrin that occludes the vessel. Inducing endothelial cell damage within melanoma metastase... |
| Poliglusam | A naturally occurring polysaccharide composed of beta-1,4-linked glucosamine residues with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, poliglusam may, through a not yet fully elucidated mechanism, reduce advanced glycation end product (AGE) levels. This may reduce the interaction between AGEs and the receptor for advanced glycation end products (RAGE, AGER), which is overexpressed in some tumor types and is associated with poor patient outcomes. AGE-RAGE interaction may induce the... |
| Polo-like Kinase 1 Inhibitor GSK461364 | A small molecule Polo-like kinase 1 (PLK1) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Polo-like kinase 1 inhibitor GSK461364 selectively inhibits Plk1, inducing selective G2/M arrest followed by apoptosis in a variety of tumor cells while causing reversible cell arrest at the G1 and G2 stage without apoptosis in normal cells. Plk1, named after the polo gene of Drosophila melanogaster, is a serine/threonine protein kinase involved in regulating mitotic spindle function in a non-ATP comp... |
| Polo-like Kinase 1 Inhibitor MK1496 | An orally bioavailable Polo-like kinase 1 (Plk1) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Polo-like kinase 1 inhibitor MK1496 selectively inhibits Plk1, inducing selective G2/M arrest followed by apoptosis in a variety of tumor cells while causing reversible cell arrest at the G1 and G2 stage without apoptosis in normal cells. Plk1, named after the polo gene of Drosophila melanogaster, is a serine/threonine protein kinase involved in regulating mitotic spindle function in a non-ATP c... |
| Poly AU | A synthetic polyadenylic-polyuridylic acid double-stranded RNA. Poly AU may stimulate the release of cytotoxic cytokines and, by inducing the production of interferon, may increase the number and tumoricidal activities of various immunohematopoietic cells. (NCI04) |
| Poly IC | A synthetic polyinosinic-polycytidylic acid double-stranded RNA. Poly IC may stimulate the release of cytotoxic cytokines and, by inducing interferon-gamma production, may increase the number and tumoricidal activities of various immunohematopoietic cells. (NCI04) |
| Poly ICLC | A synthetic complex of carboxymethylcellulose, polyinosinic-polycytidylic acid, and poly-L-lysine double-stranded RNA. Poly ICLC may stimulate the release of cytotoxic cytokines and, by inducing interferon-gamma production, may increase the tumoricidal activities of various immunohematopoietic cells. (NCI04) |
| Poly-alendronate Dextran-Guanidine Conjugate | A polybisphosphonate dextran-guanidine conjugate with potential anti-resorptive and antineoplastic activities. Alendronic acid and aminoguanidine were conjugated sequentially to oxidized dextran resulting in an average of 8 alendronate and 50 guanidine groups coupled to the dextran backbone. Upon administration, the poly-alendronate dextran-guanidine conjugate inhibits the mevalonate pathway by inhibiting farnesyl diphosphate synthase (FDPS) which leads to a reduction in protein prenylation a... |
| Polyamine Analog SL11093 | A synthetic compound of the polyamine class of chemicals with potential antineoplastic activity. Natural endogenous polyamines bind to DNA and are involved in a number of cellular processes such as cell division, differentiation, and membrane function. SL11093 displaces these polyamines from their DNA binding sites, resulting in cessation of cell growth and cell death. (NCI04) |
| Polyamine Analogue PG11047 | A second generation polyamine analogue, synthesized through the restriction of molecular conformations of parent polyamine compounds, with potential antineoplastic activity. Polyamine analogue PG11047 may displace endogenous polyamines from DNA binding sites, thereby interfering with cell cycle processes dependent upon polyamine binding and function, and resulting in cell-cycle arrest, induction of apoptosis, depletion of polyamines, and interference with gene and ligand-receptor activities i... |
| Polyamine Transport Inhibitor AMXT-1501 Dicaprate | The dicaprate salt form of AMXT-1501, an orally bioavailable polyamine transport inhibitor, with immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, AMXT-1501 targets, binds to and blocks polyamine transport from the bloodstream into the tumor microenvironment (TME), thereby preventing cancer cell uptake. This decreases polyamine concentrations inside the TME and tumor cell, inhibits tumor cell proliferation and induces apoptosis. In addition, AMXT-1501 may abrogate polyami... |
| Polyandrol | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from Castela polyandra and other plant species with potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Polyethylene Glycol Recombinant Endostatin | A formulation containing recombinant endostatin attached to polyethylene glycol (PEG), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Endostatin, a 20 kDa C-terminal proteolytic fragment of collagen XVIII, induces microvascular endothelial cell apoptosis and inhibits endothelial proliferation and angiogenesis, which may result in a reduction of tumor cell growth. Modification with PEG extends the circulation half-life of endostatin, improves stability and increases solubility i... |
| Polyethyleneglycol-7-ethyl-10-hydroxycamptothecin DFP-13318 | A long-acting formulation composed of 7-ethyl-10-hydroxycamptothecin (SN38), a camptothecin derivative and active metabolite of irinotecan conjugated to polyethylene glycol (PEG), via a proprietary, cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the proprietary linkage system allows for very slow release of SN38 from the formulation. Upon release, SN38 selectively stabilizes covalent topoisomerase I-DNA complexes, and results in single-stranded and double-stran... |
| Poly-gamma Glutamic Acid | A water-soluble and biodegradable polymer naturally synthesized by various strains of Bacillus and composed of D- and L-glutamic acid polymerized via gamma-amide linkages, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, poly-gamma glutamic acid may augment the immune response by increasing the production of interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) and inducing the activation of macrophage and natural killer (NK) cells. IFN-gamma is a major mediator... |
| Polymer-conjugated IL-15 Receptor Agonist NKTR-255 | A long-acting formulation composed of the human cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15) that is conjugated by polymers, with potential immunomodulating and anti-tumor activities. Upon administration of polymer-conjugated IL-15 receptor agonist NKTR-255, the IL-15 moiety targets and binds to the alpha subunit of the IL-15 receptor on natural killer (NK) and T-cells, thereby activating the IL-15-mediated pathway. This leads to the expansion and activation of natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8+ T-... |
| Polymer-encapsulated Luteolin Nanoparticle | A nanoparticle formulation containing the poorly water-soluble naturally-occurring flavonoid luteolin encapsulated within a water-soluble polymer, with potential anti-oxidant, anti-inflammatory, apoptosis-inducing and chemopreventive activities. Upon administration of the polymer-encapsulated luteolin nanoparticle, luteolin scavenges free radicals, protects cells from reactive oxygen species (ROS)-induced damage and induces direct tumor cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in tumor cells. This inh... |
| Polymeric Camptothecin Prodrug XMT-1001 | A polymeric prodrug of camptothecin (CPT) with potential antineoplastic activity. Polymeric camptothecin prodrug XMT-1001 consists of CPT conjugated to the 60-70 kDa, inert, bio-degradable, hydrophilic copolymer poly[1-hydroxymethylene hydroxymethyl formal] (PHF). Through a dual-phase, non-enzymatic release mechanism, CPT is first released in plasma from XMT-1001 as the lipophilic prodrugs CPT-SI (a succinimidoglycinate derivative) and CPT-SA (a succinamidoyl glycinate derivative), which are ... |
| Polymeric Nanoparticle-conjugated Camptothecin DAN-222 | A polymeric nanoparticle formulation of the topoisomerase I inhibitor camptothecin (CPT), an alkaloid isolated from the Chinese tree Camptotheca acuminata, covalently conjugated, via a linker, to a biocompatible polymer scaffold, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of polymeric nanoparticle-conjugated CPT DAN-222, the nanoparticles accumulate in tumor tissue and CPT is released from the formulation at the tumor site and taken up by tumor cells. During the S... |
| Polypodium leucotomos Extract | A nutritional supplement composed of an aqueous extract derived from the leaves of the tropical fern belonging to the Polypodiaceae family, Polypodium leucotomos (PL; Phlebodium aureum), with potential photoprotective, skin protective, anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antioxidant activities. This extract contains many phenolic compounds, such as ferulic, caffeic, coumaric and vanillic acid, which are mainly responsible for this extract's effects. Upon administration, Polypodium leucoto... |
| Polysaccharide-K | A protein-bound polysaccharide derived from the mushroom Trametes versicolor (Turkey Tail) with immunoadjuvant and potential antitumor activities. Although its mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, in vitro and in vivo studies indicate that polysaccharide-K induces peripheral blood monocyte secretion of IL-8 and TNF-alpha, induces T cell proliferation, and prevents cyclophosphamide-induced immunosuppression. This agent has also been reported to stimulate macrophages to produce r... |
| Polysialic Acid | A highly negative-charged carbohydrate composed of a linear polymer of alpha 2,8-linked sialic acid residue with potential immunotherapeutic activity. Polysialic acid (PSA) is mainly attached to the neural cell adhesion molecule (NCAM), a membrane-bound glycoprotein overexpressed in certain types of cancers. In embryonic tissue PSA-NCAM is abundantly expressed and PSA plays an important role in formation and remodeling of the neural system through modulation of the adhesive properties of NCAM... |
| Polyunsaturated Fatty Acid | A fatty acid containing more than one double bond (C=C). The essential fatty acids omega-3 and omega-6 are polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) that contain 2 or more cis double bonds. Dietary intake of some PUFAs may have beneficial effects on blood pressure, serum lipds, and inflammation. Some PUFAs, such as omega-3 PUFAs, may have antineoplastic or chemopreventive activities. |
| Polyvalent Antigen-KLH Conjugate Vaccine | A multivalent cancer vaccine comprised of the five tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) globo H, GM2 ganglioside, Tn-MUC1, TF, and sTn conjugated with the immunoadjuvant keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, polyvalent antigen-KLH conjugate vaccine may induce production of IgG and IgM antibodies and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumor cells expressing these TAAs, resulting in tumor cell death and tumor growth i... |
| Polyvalent Melanoma Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of whole irradiated heterologous melanoma cells which express multiple melanoma-related antigens.  Polyvalent melanoma vaccine may stimulate an antitumoral cytotoxic T-cell immune response in the host, resulting in inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and tumor cell death. (NCI04) |
| Polzastobart | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory immune checkpoint receptor leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily B member 2 (LILRB2; immunoglobulin-like transcript 4; ILT4; lymphocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor 2; LIR2; monocyte/macrophage immunoglobulin-like receptor 10; MIR-10; CD85d), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, polzastobart targets and binds to LILRB2. This prevents the binding of LILRB2 ligands, includin... |
| Pomalidomide | An orally bioavailable derivative of thalidomide with potential immunomodulating, antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Although its exact mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, pomalidomide appears to inhibit TNF-alpha production, enhance the activity of T cells and natural killer (NK) cells and enhance antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). In addition, pomalidomide may inhibit tumor angiogenesis, promote cell cycle arrest in susceptible tumor cell populations... |
| Pomegranate Juice | A natural juice isolated from the fruit of the plant Punica granatum with antioxidant, potential antineoplastic, and chemopreventive activities.  Pomegranate juice contains flavonoids which promote differentiation and apoptosis in tumor cells by down-regulating vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and stimulating migration inhibitory factor (MIF), thereby inhibiting angiogenesis. The flavonoids in pomegranate juice also scavenge reactive oxygen species (ROS) and, in some cell types, may ... |
| Pomegranate Liquid Extract | A liquid extract preparation derived from pomegranate (Punica granatum) seeds with antioxidant, and potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities. Pomegranate liquid extract contains flavonoids which may promote differentiation and apoptosis in tumor cells by down-regulating vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and stimulating migration inhibitory factor (MIF), thus inhibiting angiogenesis. Pomegranate liquid extract flavanoids also scavenge reactive oxygen species (ROS) and, i... |
| Ponatinib | An orally bioavailable multitargeted receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Ponatinib inhibits unmutated and all mutated forms of Bcr-Abl, including T315I, the highly drug therapy-resistant missense mutation of Bcr-Abl. This agent also inhibits other tyrosine kinases including those associated with vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) and fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs); in addition, it inhibits the tyr... |
| Ponatinib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of an orally bioavailable multitargeted receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Ponatinib inhibits unmutated and all mutated forms of Bcr-Abl, including T315I, the highly drug therapy-resistant missense mutation of Bcr-Abl. This agent also inhibits other tyrosine kinases including those associated with vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) and fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs); i... |
| Pooled Mutant KRAS-Targeted Long Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine containing a mixture of long peptides that are derived from tumor-specific mutant forms of the KRAS (K-ras) antigen, with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities Upon administration of the pooled mutant KRAS-targeted long peptide vaccine, the KRAS peptides may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-cell lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against KRAS-expressing tumor cells. KRAS, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) that plays a key role in t... |
| Porcupine Inhibitor CGX1321 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the membrane-bound O-acyltransferase (MBOAT) porcupine (PORCN), with potential antineoplastic, protective and regenerative activities. Upon oral administration, PORCN inhibitor CGX1321 specifically targets and binds to PORCN in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), thereby inhibiting the post-translational palmitoylation and secretion of Wnt ligands, thus preventing the activation of Wnt-mediated signaling, and inhibiting cell growth in Wnt-driven tumors. In addi... |
| Porcupine Inhibitor ETC-159 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the membrane-bound O-acyltransferase (MBOAT) porcupine (PORCN), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ETC-159 binds to and inhibits PORCN in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), which blocks post-translational palmitoylation of Wnt ligands and inhibits their secretion. This prevents the activation of Wnt ligands, interferes with Wnt-mediated signaling, and inhibits cell growth in Wnt-driven tumors. Porcupine catalyzes the palmitoylati... |
| Porcupine Inhibitor WNT974 | An orally available inhibitor of porcupine (PORCN), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, WNT974 binds to and inhibits PORCN in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), which blocks post-translational acylation of Wnt ligands and inhibits their secretion. This prevents the activation of Wnt ligands, interferes with Wnt-mediated signaling, and inhibits cell growth in Wnt-driven tumors. Porcupine, a membrane-bound O-acyltransferase (MBOAT), is required for the palmitoylation ... |
| Porcupine Inhibitor Wnt-C59 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of porcupine (PORCN), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PORCN inhibitor Wnt-C59 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits PORCN in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), which blocks post-translational acylation of Wnt ligands and inhibits their secretion. This prevents the activation of Wnt ligands, interferes with Wnt-mediated signaling, and inhibits cell growth in Wnt-driven tumors. Porcupine, a membrane-bound O-acyltransferase (M... |
| Porcupine Inhibitor XNW7201 | An orally available inhibitor of porcupine (PORCN), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PORCN inhibitor XNW7201 targets, binds to and inhibits PORCN in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), which blocks post-translational acylation of Wnt ligands and inhibits their secretion. This prevents the activation of Wnt ligands, interferes with Wnt-mediated signaling, and inhibits cell growth in Wnt-driven tumors. PORCN, a membrane-bound O-acyltransferase (MBOAT), is required f... |
| Porfimer Sodium | The sodium salt of a mixture of oligomers formed by ether and ester linkages of up to eight porphyrin units with photodynamic activity. Absorbed selectively by tumor cells, porfimer produces oxygen radicals after activation by 630 nm wavelength laser light, resulting in tumor cell cytotoxicity. In addition, tumor cell death may occur due to ischemic necrosis secondary to vascular occlusion that appears to be partly mediated by the release of thromboxane A2. |
| Porfiromycin | An N-methyl derivative of the antineoplastic antibiotic mitomycin C isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces ardus and other Streptomyces bacterial species.  Bioreduced porfiromycin generates oxygen radicals and alkylates DNA, producing interstrand cross-links and single-strand breaks, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis.  Porfiromycin is preferentially toxic to hypoxic cells. (NCI04) |
| Porustobart | A recombinant human heavy chain only antibody (HCAb) directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4;CTLA4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, porustobart targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells, and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. In addition... |
| Powdered Mixed Berry Extract Supplement | A dietary powder supplement consisting of a mixture of various, as of yet not fully elucidated, berries, with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. As berries are rich in phytonutrients, such as anthocyanins, flavonols, ellagitannins, galltannins, proanthocyanidins, and phenolic acids, the antineoplastic effects of the powdered mixed berry extract supplement on cancer cells may be attributable to the phytonutrients' antioxidant and pro-apoptotic activities. Upon administrat... |
| Poziotinib | An orally bioavailable, quinazoline-based, irreversible pan-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR or HER) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, poziotinib inhibits EGFR (HER1 or ErbB1), HER2 and HER4, thereby inhibiting proliferation of tumor cells in which these receptors are overexpressed and/or mutated. EGFRs, cell surface receptor tyrosine kinases upregulated or mutated in a variety of cancer cell types, play key roles in cellular proliferation and ... |
| Poziotinib Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of poziotinib, an orally bioavailable, quinazoline-based, irreversible pan-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR or HER) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, poziotinib inhibits EGFR (HER1 or ErbB1), HER2 and HER4, thereby inhibiting proliferation of tumor cells in which these receptors are overexpressed and/or mutated. EGFRs, cell surface receptor tyrosine kinases upregulated or mutated in a variety of cancer cell types, pl... |
| P-p68 Inhibitor RX-5902 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of phosphorylated-p68 RNA helicase (P-p68), with potential anti-proliferative and antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, P-p68 inhibitor RX-5902 may both inhibit the activity of the anti-apoptotic B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2) protein and facilitate the induction of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1 (p21). This may prevent G2/M cell cycle progression and lead to growth inhibition in tumor cells. P-p68 is overexpressed in various types ... |
| PPAR Alpha Antagonist TPST-1120 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule, selective and competitive antagonist of peroxisome proliferator activated receptor alpha (PPARa), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, TPST-1120 targets, binds to and blocks the activity of PPARa, thereby blocking transcription of PPARa target genes leading to an intracellular metabolism shift from fatty acid oxidation (FAO) to glycolysis in FAO-dependent tumors and reducing the production of fatty aci... |
| PPAR Gamma Inhibitor FX-909 | An orally available inverse agonist and inhibitor of the transcription factor (TF) peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR gamma; PPARG), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PPARG inhibitor FX-909 selectively targets and covalently binds to a region of PPARG that is sequestered from the mutation site. The binding promotes a repressive conformation of PPARG and inhibits the activity of PPARG. This inhibits both basal- and ligand-activated transcript... |
| PR1 Leukemia Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing PR1, a 9 amino-acid human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2 restricted peptide derived from proteinase 3, with potential immunotherapeutic activity. Vaccination with PR1 leukemia peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing proteinase 3, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Often overexpressed in leukemic cells, proteinase 3 is a serine proteinase that activates progelatinase A and is involv... |
| Pracinostat | An orally available, small-molecule histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Pracinostat inhibits HDACs, which may result in the accumulation of highly acetylated histones, followed by the induction of chromatin remodeling; the selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes; the tumor suppressor protein-mediated inhibition of tumor cell division; and, finally, the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. This agent may possess improved metabolic, pharmacokinet... |
| Pradusinstobart | A humanized immunoglobulin G4 kappa (IgG4k) monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, pradusinstobart targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. ... |
| Pralatrexate | A folate analogue inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) exhibiting high affinity for reduced folate carrier-1 (RFC-1) with antineoplastic and immunosuppressive activities. Pralatrexate selectively enters cells expressing RFC-1; intracellularly, this agent is highly polyglutamylated and competes for the folate binding site of DHFR, blocking tetrahydrofolate synthesis, which may result in depletion of nucleotide precursors; inhibition of DNA, RNA and protein synthesis; and apoptotic tumor... |
| Pralsetinib | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of mutant forms of and fusion products involving the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase RET, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pralsetinib binds to and targets various RET mutants and RET-containing fusion product. RET gene mutations and translocations result in the upregulation and/or activation of RET tyrosine kinase activity in various cancer cell types; dysregulation of RET activity plays a key role in the developm... |
| Praluzatamab Ravtansine | A probody drug conjugate (PDC) composed of a recombinant antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD166, which is masked by a cleavable masking peptide, and conjugated to the cytotoxic agent maytansinoid DM4, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of praluzatamab ravtansine and migration to the tumor microenvironment (TME), the cleavable masking peptide, which prevent anti-CD166 antibody binding to the CD166 expressed on both normal cells and tumor cells, is ... |
| PRAME-targeting T-cell Receptor/Inducible Caspase 9 BPX-701 | Human allogeneic T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a high-affinity T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2-01-restricted, preferentially-expressed antigen in melanoma (PRAME) and containing the chemical induction of dimerization (CID) suicide/safety switch, composed of a drug binding domain coupled to the signaling domain of the suicide enzyme caspase-9, with potential antineoplastic activity. Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are ... |
| PRAME-targeting TCR-engineered NK Cells | A preparation of natural killer (NK) cells that are engineered to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) preferentially expressed antigen in melanoma (PRAME), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the PRAME-targeting TCR-engineered NK cells specifically recognize and bind to PRAME expressed on cancer cells, thereby lysing the PRAME-expressing cancer cells. PRAME is overexpressed by a variety of cancer cell types. |
| Pravastatin Sodium | The sodium salt of pravastatin with cholesterol-lowering and potential antineoplastic activities. Pravastatin competitively inhibits hepatic hydroxymethyl-glutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, the enzyme which catalyzes the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate, a key step in cholesterol synthesis. This agent lowers plasma cholesterol and lipoprotein levels, and modulates immune responses by suppressing MHC II (major histocompatibility complex II) on interferon gamma-stimulated, antigen-pres... |
| PRC2 Inhibitor ORIC-944 | An orally bioavailable allosteric inhibitor of polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PRC2 inhibitor ORIC-944 targets and binds to the regulatory embryonic ectoderm development (EED) subunit of PRC2. This prevents the methyltransferase activity of PRC2, spefifically the methylation of histone 3 at lysine27 (H3K27). This depletes H3K27 trimethylation (H3K27me3) and modulates the expression of target genes. This may inhibit tumor ... |
| Precemtabart Tocentecan | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of precemtabart, a human immunoglobulin G1-kappa monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 5 (CEACAM5; CEA), conjugated with tocentecan, which consists of a linker and the cytotoxic agent and camptothecin analog exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of precemtabart tocentecan, the precemtabart moiety targets and binds to CEACAM5 expres... |
| Prednimustine | The prednisolone ester of chlorambucil and nitrogen mustard alkylating agent with antineoplastic activity. Prednimustine itself is not cytotoxic, however, it becomes cytotoxic upon hydrolysis by serum esterases to chlorambucil. Therefore, the increased potency of prednimustine is linked to the prolonged availability of free chlorambucil. |
| Prednisolone | A synthetic glucocorticoid with anti-inflammatory and immunomodulating properties.  After cell surface receptor attachment and cell entry, prednisolone enters the nucleus where it binds to and activates specific nuclear receptors, resulting in an altered gene expression and inhibition of proinflammatory cytokine production.  This agent also decreases the number of circulating lymphocytes, induces cell differentiation, and stimulates apoptosis in sensitive tumor cells populations. (NCI04) |
| Prednisone | A synthetic glucocorticoid with anti-inflammatory and immunomodulating properties.  After cell surface receptor attachment and cell entry, prednisone enters the nucleus where it binds to and activates specific nuclear receptors, resulting in an altered gene expression and inhibition of proinflammatory cytokine production.  This agent also decreases the number of circulating lymphocytes, induces cell differentiation, and stimulates apoptosis in sensitive tumor cell populations. |
| Prexasertib | An inhibitor of checkpoint kinase 1 (chk1) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, prexasertib selectively binds to chk1, thereby preventing activity of chk1 and abrogating the repair of damaged DNA. This may lead to an accumulation of damaged DNA and may promote genomic instability and apoptosis. Prexasertib may potentiate the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging agents and reverse tumor cell resistance to chemotherapeutic agents. Chk1, a serine/threonine kinase, mediates cell c... |
| Prexigebersen | A liposomal formulation containing the antisense oligodeoxynucleotide (ODN) growth factor receptor-bound protein 2 (Grb2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, liposome-incorporated Grb2 antisense oligodeoxynucleotide binds directly to and blocks Grb2 mRNA, thereby preventing Grb2 protein synthesis, leading to inhibition of cell proliferation of cancer cells overexpressing Grb2. Grb2, an adaptor protein involved in growth signaling pathways, is upregulated in certain t... |
| Prifetrastat | An inhibitor of MYST histone acetyltransferase (HAT) KAT6, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, prifetrastat targets and binds to KAT6, and inhibits the acetylation of histones and other nonhistone substrates. This may disrupt gene expression and inhibit the proliferation of tumors that overexpress KAT6. KAT6A (MOZ; MYST3) and KAT6B (MORF; MOZ2; MYST4), commonly amplified genes in solid tumors, play key roles in cell cycle regulation and in tumorigenesis. |
| Primary Prostate Cancer Tissue/hTERT/Survivin mRNA-loaded Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | An autologous dendritic cells (DCs) vaccine targeting prostate cancer with immunostimulating activity. The autologous DC vaccine is prepared via transfecting DCs with mRNAs extracted from primary prostate cancer tissue, and mRNAs of human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT) and survivin. Upon administration, this DC vaccine may elicit a potent cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against prostate cancer cells, resulting in tumor cell death. Both hTERT and survivin are essential in neoplastic ... |
| Prime Cancer Vaccine MVA-BN-CV301 | A cancer priming vaccine consisting of a proprietary version of the recombinant vaccinia viral vector, modified vaccinia Ankara-Bavarian Nordic (MVA-BN), encoding both the two human tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and mucin-1 (MUC-1), and TRICOM, which is comprised of the three human immune-enhancing co-stimulatory molecules B7-1, ICAM-1 and LFA-3, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration of MVA-BN-CV301, ... |
| Prinomastat | A synthetic hydroxamic acid derivative with potential antineoplastic activity.  Prinomastat inhibits matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) (specifically, MMP-2, 9, 13, and 14), thereby inducing extracellular matrix degradation, and inhibiting angiogenesis, tumor growth and invasion, and metastasis.  As a lipophilic agent, prinomastat crosses the blood-brain barrier. (NCI04) |
| Prizloncabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a second-generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) and CD20, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, prizloncabtagene autoleucel targets and binds to CD19- and CD20-expressing tumor B-cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor B-cells expressing these TAAs. Both CD19 and CD20 are B-cell-spe... |
| PRMT1 Inhibitor | Any agent that inhibits protein arginine N-methyltransferase 1 (PRMT1; histone-arginine N-methyltransferase PRMT1; interferon receptor 1-bound protein 4). |
| PRMT1 Inhibitor GSK3368715 | An orally available inhibitor of protein arginine N-methyltransferase 1 (PRMT1; Histone-arginine N-methyltransferase PRMT1; Interferon receptor 1-bound protein 4) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, GSK3368715 inhibits monomethylation and asymmetric dimethylation of arginine-bearing substrates, including histones, estrogen receptors, RNA-binding proteins, and numerous non-histone substrates catalyzed by PRMT1. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation, migration, and ... |
| PRMT5 Inhibitor AMG 193 | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PRMT5 inhibitor AMG 193 selectively binds to PRMT5 and inhibits its function. By inhibiting its methyltransferase activity, levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3 and H4 are decreased. This modulates the expression of genes involved in several cellular processes, inc... |
| PRMT5 Inhibitor AUR-105 | An orally available inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PRMT5 inhibitor AUR-105 selectively binds to PRMT5 and inhibits its function. By inhibiting its methyltransferase activity, levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3 and H4 are decreased. This modulates the expression of genes involved in several cellular processes, including cellular... |
| PRMT5 Inhibitor AZD3470 | An orally bioavailable second generation methylthioadenosine (MTA)-selective small molecule inhibitor of the protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PRMT5 inhibitor AZD3470 inhibits PRMT5 in the presence of MTA, thereby specifically inhibiting the function of PRMT5 solely within methylthioadenosine phosphoylase (MTAP)-deleted cancer cells and not in normal, healthy cells. By inhibiting the methyltransferase activity of PR... |
| PRMT5 Inhibitor BGB-58067 | A methylthioadenosine (MTA)-selective inhibitor of the protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PRMT5 inhibitor BGB-58067 targets, binds to and inhibits PRMT5 in the presence of MTA, thereby specifically inhibiting the function of PRMT5 solely within methylthioadenosine phosphoylase (MTAP)-deleted cancer cells and not in normal, healthy cells. By inhibiting the methyltransferase activity of PRMT5, levels of both monomethylated ... |
| PRMT5 Inhibitor PRT811 | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PRMT5 inhibitor PRT811 selectively binds to PRMT5 and inhibits its function. By inhibiting its methyltransferase activity, levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3 and H4 are decreased. This modulates the expression of genes involved in several cellular processes, incl... |
| PRMT5 Inhibitor SH3765 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PRMT5 inhibitor SH3765 selectively binds to PRMT5 and inhibits its function. By inhibiting its methyltransferase activity, levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3 and H4 are decreased. This modulates the expression of genes involved in several cellular processes, including cellul... |
| PRMT5 Inhibitor SKL27969 | A central nervous system (CNS)-penetrant, orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PRMT5 inhibitor SKL27969 selectively binds to PRMT5 and inhibits its function. By inhibiting its methyltransferase activity, levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3 and H4 are decreased. This modulates the expression of genes ... |
| PRMT5 Inhibitor SYHX2001 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PRMT5 inhibitor SYHX2001 selectively binds to PRMT5 and inhibits its function. By inhibiting its methyltransferase activity, levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3 and H4 are decreased. This modulates the expression of genes involved in several cellular processes, including cell... |
| PRMT5 Inhibitor TNG462 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PRMT5 inhibitor TNG462 selectively targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of PRMT5. By inhibiting its methyltransferase activity, levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3 and H4 are decreased. This modulates the expression of genes involved in several cellular... |
| PRMT5 Inhibitor TNG908 | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PRMT5 inhibitor TNG908 selectively binds to PRMT5 and inhibits its function. By inhibiting its methyltransferase activity, levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3 and H4 are decreased. This modulates the expression of genes involved in several cellular processes, incl... |
| PRMT5-MTA Inhibitor MRTX1719 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5)-methylthioadenosine (MTA) complex, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PRMT5-MTA inhibitor MRTX1719 selectively binds to the PRMT5-MTA complex that is elevated in methylthioadenosine phosphoylase (MTAP)-deleted cancer cells, thereby specifically inhibiting the function of PRMT5 solely within MTAP-deleted cancer cells and not in normal, healthy cells. By inhibiting the methyltrans... |
| Proapoptotic Sulindac Analog CP-461 | An orally bioavailable second-generation selective apoptotic antineoplastic drug (SAAND) and analog of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) sulindac, with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CP-461 specifically binds to and blocks the activity of cyclic guanosine monophosphate-phosphodiesterase (cGMP-PDE), an enzyme that inhibits the normal apoptosis signal pathway. Inhibition of cGMP-PDE permits the apoptotic signal pathway to proceed unoppo... |
| Procarbazine | A methylhydrazine derivative with antineoplastic and mutagenic activities. Although the exact mode of cytotoxicity has not been elucidated, procarbazine, after metabolic activation, appears to inhibit the trans-methylation of methionine into transfer RNA (t-RNA), thereby preventing protein synthesis and consequently DNA and RNA synthesis. This agent may also undergo auto-oxidation, resulting in the formation of cytotoxic free radicals which damage DNA through an alkylation reaction. |
| Procarbazine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of a methylhydrazine derivative with antineoplastic and mutagenic activities. Although the exact mode of cytotoxicity has not been elucidated, procarbazine, after metabolic activation, appears to inhibit the trans-methylation of methionine into transfer RNA (t-RNA), thereby preventing protein synthesis and consequently DNA and RNA synthesis. This agent may also undergo auto-oxidation, resulting in the formation of cytotoxic free radicals which damage DNA through an alky... |
| Procaspase Activating Compound-1 VO-100 | An orally bioavailable procaspase activating compound-1 (PAC-1), with potential proapoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, VO-100 binds to and forms a chelating complex with zinc (Zn) ions inside cells, which prevents the binding of Zn ions to procaspase-3 (PC3) and abrogates the Zn-mediated inhibition of PC3. This allows for the proteolytic autoactivation of PC3 into the active form caspase-3. This results in the selective caspase-3-mediated induction of apoptosis and c... |
| Prodencel | An autologous dendritic cell (DC) vaccine targeting prostate cancer (PC)-specific antigen(s), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of prodencel, the DCs stimulate a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against PC cells expressing the antigen(s), resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Prodrug PARP Inhibitor TSL-1502 | An orally bioavailable glucuronide prodrug of TSL-1502M, an inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP), with potential chemo/radiosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, prodrug PARP inhibitor TSL-1502 is selectively converted by the enzyme beta-glucuronidase in the tumor microenvironment (TME) to its active form TSL-1502M. TSL-1502M selectively targets and binds to PARP and prevents PARP-mediated DNA repair of DNA breaks via the base-excis... |
| Proglumide | An orally bioavailable cholecystokinin (CCK) receptor antagonist, with gastric acid reducing and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, proglumide binds to and blocks both cholecystokinin receptor type A (CCK-AR; CCK1-R) and gastrin/cholecystokinin type B receptor (CCK-BR; CCK2-R). This prevents the binding of cholecystokinin and gastrin to the CCK receptors, and inhibits both gastrointestinal (GI) motility and gastric secretions. This may also decrease fibrosis in the... |
| Prohibitin-Targeting Peptide 1 | A chimeric, 25-mer peptide that targets prohibitin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Prohibitin-targeting peptide 1 (prohibitin-TP01) consists of a fat-targeting motif (CKGGRAKDC), two repeats of a proapoptotic peptide motif (KLAKLAK) and a GG linker. This peptide binds specifically to prohibitin in the white adipose vasculature; upon receptor-mediated cell internalization, the ligand/receptor complex triggers apoptosis and results in ablation of white fat. Destruction of white fat may... |
| Prolgolimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, prolgolimab binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobulin super... |
| Prostate Cancer Vaccine ONY-P1 | A cell-based vaccine derived from prostate cancer with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. Prostate cancer vaccine ONY-P1 is derived from three irradiated allogeneic prostate cancer cell lines that represent different stages of prostate cancer and express a broad range of prostate and prostate cancer antigens. Upon administration, this vaccine may stimulate a host immune response against prostate cancer cells; in the vaccination schedule, the first two vaccinations are... |
| Prostate Health Cocktail Dietary Supplement | A dietary supplement consisting of a blend of 8 natural ingredients with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities. This dietary supplement contains vitamin D3 (as cholecalciferol), vitamin E (as d-alpha tocopherol), selenium (as L-selenomethionine), epigallocatechin (green tea extract), saw palmetto (berry extract), lycopene, and the isoflavonoids daidzein and genistein. This combination preparation may decrease prostate cell growth and inhibit prostate carcinogenesis. |
| Prostatic Acid Phosphatase-Sargramostim Fusion Protein PA2024 | A genetically-engineered protein formed by the fusion of prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP) and sargramostim (GM-CSF). Vaccination with antigen-presenting cells (APC) loaded with prostatic acid phosphatase-sargramostim fusion protein may elicit a cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells that express PAP. (NCI05) |
| Protease-activated Anti-EGFR/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody Prodrug CX-904 | A recombinant bispecific antibody prodrug composed of a bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; HER1; ErbB1) and the human T-cell surface antigen CD3 that is linked to a proprietary masking peptide through a protease-cleavable linker, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of protease-activated anti-EGFR/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody prodrug CX-904, the linkage system is s... |
| Protease-activated Interferon Alpha-2b Prodrug CX-801 | A dually-masked, prodrug form of the human cytokine interferon alpha-2b (IFN-alpha-2b), composed of IFN-alpha-2b linked to dual proprietary masking peptides through protease-cleavable linkers, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of protease-activated IFN-alpha-2b prodrug CX-801, the linkage system is stable in the circulation and, upon extravasation into the tumor microenvironment (TME), the peptide mask is cleaved by tumor-associated proteases, ... |
| Proteasome Inhibitor TQB3602 | An orally bioavailable proteasome inhibitor (PI) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, proteasome inhibitor TQB3602 inhibits the activity of the proteasome, blocking the targeted proteolysis normally performed by the proteasome, which leads to an accumulation of unwanted or misfolded proteins, the disruption of various cell signaling pathways, and resulting in the induction of apoptosis. Proteasomes are large protease complexes that degrade unneeded or damaged prot... |
| Protein Arginine Methyltransferase 5 Inhibitor PF-06939999 | An orally available inhibitor of protein arginine N-methyltransferase 5 (histone-arginine N-methyltransferase PRMT5; PRMT5) with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Although the mechanism of action has not yet been fully elucidated, orally administered PRMT5 inhibitor PF-06939999 inhibits the methyltransferase activity of PRMT5, thereby decreasing the levels of monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3, and H4, and modulating the expression o... |
| Protein Arginine Methyltransferase 5 Inhibitor PRT543 | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Although the exact mechanism of action has not been completely determined, upon oral administration, PRMT5 inhibitor PRT543 selectively binds to the substrate recognition site of PRMT5 and inhibits its methyltransferase activity. This decreases the levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3 and H... |
| Protein Phosphatase 2A Inhibitor LB-100 | A water soluble inhibitor of the protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A), with potential chemo- and radiotherapy enhancing activity. Upon injection, PP2A inhibitor LB-100 inhibits the removal of phosphate groups from proteins essential for cell cycle progression. When used with radio- or chemotherapy treatment, this agent prevents the activation of PP2A-mediated repair mechanisms and allows for malignant cells to progress through the cell cycle without having their damaged DNA repaired. This enhances t... |
| Protein Stabilized Liposomal Docetaxel Nanoparticles | A formulation containing protein-stabilized liposome nanoparticles encapsulating the poorly water-soluble, second-generation taxane analog docetaxel with antineoplastic activity. Docetaxel binds to and stabilizes the beta-tubulin subunit, thereby inhibiting microtubule disassembly which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell death. This agent also inhibits pro-angiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and displays immunomodulatory and pro-inflammato... |
| Protein-engineered Interleukin-12 XTX301 | An engineered form of the human cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) in which the IL-12 is conjugated, via a tumor protease-cleavable linker, to a protein-engineered masking domain that prevents the binding of IL-12 to its receptors while in circulation and a half-life extension domain that prolongs circulating half-life, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of protein-engineered IL-12 XTX301, IL-12 is bound to the masking domain and pharmacologically ... |
| Protein-engineered Interleukin-2 XTX202 | A modified form of the recombinant form of human endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), that is masked with a protein domain, with potential immunoregulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of protein-engineered IL-2 XTX202, IL-2 is bound to the protein and pharmacologically inactive. IL-2 does not become active until cleaved by specific proteases in the tumor microenvironment (TME). Upon proteolytic cleavage, unbound and active IL-2 locally binds to the IL-2 receptor be... |
| Protopine/Nuciferine Supplement | A nutritional supplement composed of the two alkaloids protopine, a benzylisoquinoline alkaloid occurring in opium poppies and other plants of the Papaveraceae family, and nuciferine, an alkaloid component of Nelumbo nucifera and Nymphaea caerulea, and in certain plants of the Papaveraceae family, with antihistamine, anticholinergic, analgesic, smooth muscle relaxing, central nervous system (CNS) suppressing and antipsychotic-like activities. Upon administration, protopine inhibits histamine ... |
| Proxalutamide | An orally bioavailable androgen receptor (AR) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, proxalutamide binds to AR in target tissues, inhibits androgen-induced receptor activation, and facilitates the formation of inactive complexes that cannot translocate to the nucleus. This prevents binding to and transcription of AR-responsive genes that regulate prostate cancer cell proliferation. In addition, proxalutamide induces AR downregulation, thereby further prev... |
| PSA Prostate Cancer Vaccine | A peptide vaccine containing the prostate specific antigen (PSA) with potential antineoplastic activity. PSA, a glycoprotein secreted by prostatic epithelial and ductal cells, is overexpressed in prostate cancer cells and is used as a tumor marker for both diagnosis and treatment evaluation. Vaccination with PSA peptide vaccine may produce anti-PSA antibodies as well as elicit a cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against prostate cancer cells expressing this antigen, thereby decreasing tumor cel... |
| PSA RNA-Pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine | An autologous dendritic cell vaccine with potential immunostimulatory activity. Dendritic cells harvested from a prostate cancer patient are transfected with the mRNA encoding for prostate specific antigen (PSA), a tumor marker secreted by prostatic epithelial and ductal cells. When reintroduced back to the patient, these PSA RNA pulsed autologous dendritic cells may elicit a cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against PSA-positive prostate cancer cells. |
| PSA/IL-2/GM-CSF Vaccine | A prostate cancer vaccine containing prostate specific antigen (PSA) combined with the cytokines, interleukin-2 (IL-2) and granulocyte macrophage-colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intradermal vaccination, PSA/IL-2/GM-CSF vaccine may activate the immune system to induce a cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against prostate cancer cells expressing this antigen, thereby decreasing tumor cell growth. PSA, a glycoprotein secreted by prostatic epithelial ... |
| PSA/PSMA DNA Plasmid INO-5150 | A plasmid DNA vaccine encoding the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular delivery and electroporation of the PSA/PSMA DNA plasmid INO-5150, both PSA and PSMA are translated in cells which then activate the immune system. This induces cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) responses against tumor cells expressing PSA and PSMA. This may result in both... |
| PSA/PSMA/PSCA-encoding DNA Plasmid Vaccine PF-06755990 | A DNA vaccine consisting of plasmids encoding the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human prostate-specific antigen (PSA), prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and prostate stem cell antigen (PSCA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration via intramuscular electroporation, the PSA/PSMA/PSCA-encoding DNA Plasmid Vaccine PF-06755990 expresses PSA, PSMA and PSCA, which may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that are ... |
| PSA:154-163(155L) Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of a synthetic peptide with an amino acid sequence corresponding to positions 154-163 of the amino acid sequence for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) with a leucine substitution at position 155. Upon administration, PSA:154-163 (155L) peptide vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells that express PSA. (NCI05) |
| PSA-OP Peptide Vaccine | A 30-residue prostate specific antigen (PSA) oligoepitope peptide (OP) vaccine with potential antineoplastic activity.  PSA-OP peptide vaccine contains the PSA-1 and PSA-3 HLA-A2 epitopes and the PSA-9 HLA-class I-A3 epitope joined by peptide linker sequences.  In an animal model, vaccination with this agent has been shown to elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte immune response. (NCI04) |
| PSA-PAP/KLH-pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with the prostate-specific tumor associated antigens (TAAs) prostate specific antigen (PSA) and prostate acid phosphatase (PAP), and conjugated to the immunostimulant Keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, prostate cancer antigen/KLH-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount anti-tumoral cytotoxic... |
| Pseudoisocytidine | A synthetic, pyrimidine C-5 nucleoside with antineoplastic activity. Pseudoisocytidine, after conversion into pseudoisocytidine triphosphate, is incorporated into DNA and RNA eventually halting tumor cell proliferation. Compared to 5-azacytidine and cytarabine, this agent shows enhanced stability and resistance to enzymatic deamination. |
| PSMA/CD3 Tri-specific T-cell Activating Construct HPN424 | A recombinant antibody derivative composed of tri-specific T-cell activating construct (TriTAC) directed against the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA; FOLH1) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes and an albumin-binding domain, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, PSMA/CD3 tri-specific T-cell antibody construct HPN424 targets and binds PSMA on tumor cells and CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs)... |
| PSMA/FRa Bispecific Peptide-drug Conjugate CBP-1018 | A bispecific peptide-drug conjugate (PDC) composed of dual ligands that target human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and human folate receptor alpha (FRa; FolRa; FOLR1) conjugated, via the cathepsin B-cleavable MC-Val-Cit-PABC linker, to the auristatin derivative and potent microtubule disrupting agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of PSMA/FRa bispecific PDC CBP-1018, the dual ligands target and bind to FRa and PSMA expre... |
| PSMA/TARP Peptide Vaccine | A peptide-based cancer vaccine containing epitopes of T cell receptor gamma-chain alternate reading frame protein (TARP) and prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) in combination with a Poly IC-LC immunoadjuvant, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PSMA/TARP peptide vaccine may stimulate a host cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against TARP- and PSMA-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell cytotoxicity. The nuclear protein TARP and PSMA are commonly expressed... |
| PSMA-specific Targeting Module TMpPSMA | A preparation of soluble adapter molecules consisting of an antigen-binding moiety targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), linked to a peptide motif recognizable by UniCAR02-T, that may be used to activate UniCAR02-T.  Upon administration of PSMA-specific targeting module (TM) TMpPSMA, and upon co-administration of UniCAR02-T, the antigen-binding moiety of TMpPSMA targets and binds to cancer cells expressing PSMA, and the binding domain of... |
| PSMA-targeted Docetaxel Nanoparticles BIND-014 | A proprietary preparation of polymeric nanoparticles containing the second-generation taxane docetaxel, targeted to prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), with antineoplastic activity. PSMA-targeted docetaxel nanoparticles BIND-014 carry docetaxel within a matrix of polylactic acid covered with a coating of polyethylene glycol; embedded on the surface of the polyethylene glycol coating are ligands targeted to PSMA. BIND-014 allows gradual release of docetaxel upon degradation of the polyl... |
| PSMA-targeted Tubulysin B-containing Conjugate EC1169 | An injectable, water soluble, small molecule drug conjugate (SMDC) containing a ligand specific for prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), conjugated via a stable, enzyme-cleavable linker to the cytotoxic agent tubulysin B hydrazide (TubBH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of PSMA-targeted tubulysin B-containing conjugate EC1169, the PSMA ligand specifically targets and binds to PSMA, a protein which is abundantly expressed on the surface of metastatic and horm... |
| PSMA-targeting Fluorescent Imaging Agent MDX1201-A488 | A recombinant, human monoclonal antibody targeting an extracellular epitope of human prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) that is conjugated with A488, a photostable fluorescent dye with a high quantum yield, with potential imaging activity. Upon intravenous administration of PSMA-targeting fluorescent imaging agent MDX1201-A488, the MDX1201 moiety targets PSMA expressed on cancer cells. Subsequently, the A488 moiety can then be visualized by fluorescence-based imaging and the amount of ... |
| PSMA-targeting T-cell Redirecting Agent JNJ-80038114 | An agent that targets the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and redirects T-cells to PSMA-expressing tumor cells, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the mechanism of action has not been elucidated, upon administration, PSMA-targeting T-cell redirecting agent JNJ-80038114 targets PSMA found on PSMA-expressing tumor cells, and redirects T-cells to the PSMA-expressing tumor cells. This may result in T-cell-mediated cell death of PSMA-exp... |
| Pterostilbene | A naturally-derived stilbenoid structurally related to resveratrol, with potential antioxidant, anti-inflammatory, pro-apoptotic, antineoplastic and cytoprotective activities. Upon administration, pterostilbene exerts its anti-oxidant activity by scavenging reactive oxygen species (ROS), thereby preventing oxidative stress and ROS-induced cell damage. It may also activate the nuclear factor erythroid 2-related factor 2 (Nrf2)-mediated pathway and increase the expression of various antioxidant... |
| PTTC Topical Ointment ACU-D1 | A topical ointment formulation containing pentaerythritol tetrakis (3-(3,5-di-tert-butyl-4-hydroxyphenyl) propionate) (PTTC), an inhibitor of the 26S proteasome, with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon topical administration of the PTTC topical ointment ACU-D1, PTTC inhibits the activity of the 26S proteasome, blocking the targeted proteolysis normally performed by the proteasome and resulting in an accumulation of unwanted or misfolded proteins. This disrupts variou... |
| pTVG-HP Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing plasmid DNA encoding human prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP) (pTVG-HP) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, pTVG-HP plasmid DNA vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to generate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against PAP-expressing prostate cancer cells. PAP or prostatic specific acid phosphatase (PSAP) is a tumor associated antigen (TAA) that may be overexpressed in prostate cancer. |
| Pucotenlimab | A recombinant human monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, pucotenlimab targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane prote... |
| Pulocimab | A human monoclonal antibody directed against human vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR-2; VEGFR2), with potential anti-angiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, pulocimab specifically binds to and inhibits VEGFR-2 on vascular endothelial cells, which may inhibit tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFR-2, a tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an essential role in angiogenesis and the proliferation, survival, migration and differentiation of... |
| Pulrodemstat | An orally available inhibitor of lysine specific demethylase 1 (LSD1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pulrodemstat binds to and inhibits LSD1, a demethylase that suppresses the expression of target genes by converting the di- and mono-methylated forms of lysine at position 4 of histone H3 (H3K4) to mono- and unmethylated H3K4, respectively. LSD1 inhibition enhances H3K4 methylation and increases the expression of tumor (remove hyphen) suppressor genes. This may l... |
| Pumitepa | A thiotepa derivative with potential antineoplastic alkylating activity. Although the exact mechanism of action of pumitepa has yet to be fully elucidated, this agent appears to work through alkylation, thereby causing DNA damage and cell cycle arrest. |
| pUMVC3-hIGFBP-2 Multi-epitope Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A recombinant plasmid DNA vaccine containing mammalian expression vector, pUMVC3, encoding epitopes of human Insulin-Like Growth Factor-Binding Protein 2 (hIGFBP-2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon vaccination, pUMVC3-hIGFBP-2 multi-epitope plasmid DNA vaccine may produce IGFBP-2 that binds to cell surface, likely via integrin complexes. This results in the dephosphorylation of the focal adhesion-kinase (FAK) and of the p42/44 MAP-kinases, thereby inactivating them; both kinases a... |
| pUMVC3-IGFBP2-HER2-IGF1R Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A polyepitope plasmid DNA vaccine containing the mammalian expression vector pUMVC3 encoding epitopes derived from three tumor-associated antigens (TAAs): human insulin-like growth factor-binding protein 2 (IGFBP2), human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ERBB2) and insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor (IGF1R), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal vaccination, pUMVC3-IGFBP2-HER2-IGF1R plasmid DNA vaccine transfects local keratinocytes, whic... |
| Puquitinib | An orally available selective inhibitor of the delta form of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3-kinase subunit delta; PI3K-delta; PI3Kdelta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, puquitinib selectively binds to the ATP-binding pocket of PI3K-delta and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This decreases proliferation of and induces cell death in PI3K-delta over-expressing tumor cells. PI3K-delta also plays a key role in the B-cell receptor (BC... |
| Puquitinib Mesylate | The mesylate salt of puquitinib, an orally available selective inhibitor of the delta form of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3-kinase subunit delta; PI3K-delta; PI3Kdelta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, puquitinib selectively binds to the ATP-binding pocket of PI3K-delta and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This decreases proliferation of and induces cell death in PI3K-delta over-expressing tumor cells. PI3K-delta also plays a ke... |
| Purine Analogue NSC 750854 | A 5'-sulfamoyl purine and the 6-desamino derivative of the 5'-O-aminosulfonyl-adenosine NSC133114, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, purine analogue NSC 750854 may interfere with DNA replication and may inhibit tumor cell proliferation. |
| Purinostat Mesylate | The mesylate salt form of purinostat, an inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC) classes I and IIb, with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, purinostat selectively inhibits the catalytic activity of class I and IIb HDACs, which results in an accumulation of highly acetylated chromatin histones, the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. This leads to the inhibition of tumor oncogene transcription, and the selective transcription of t... |
| Puromycin | An aminoglycoside antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces alboniger.  Acting as an analog of the 3' terminal end of aminoacyl-tRNA, puromycin incorporates itself into a growing polypeptide chain and causes its premature termination, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis.  This agent has antimicrobial, antitrypanosomal, and antineoplastic properties; it is used as an antibiotic in cell culture. (NCI04) |
| Puromycin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of puromycin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces alboniger. Acting as an analog of the 3' terminal end of aminoacyl-tRNA, puromycin incorporates itself into a growing polypeptide chain and causes its premature termination, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis. This agent has antimicrobial, antitrypanosomal, and antineoplastic properties; it is used as an antibiotic in cell culture. |
| PVA Microporous Hydrospheres/Doxorubicin Hydrochloride | An embolic material composed of microspheres of polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) polymers loaded with doxorubicin hydrochloride with antineoplastic activity. Doxorubicin hydrochloride-loaded microspheres may be used as a drug delivery vehicle during embolization of tumor vasculature. Doxorubicin intercalates DNA, interferes with catalytic activity of topoisomerase II, and causes DNA adducts and other DNA damage, resulting in tumor cell growth inhibition and apoptosis. When used in tumor vasculature em... |
| pVAXrcPSAv53l DNA Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing xenogenic DNA from rhesus macaque (Macaca mulatta) that encodes prostate specific antigen (PSA) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon repeated intradermal administration via electroporation, pVAXrcPSAv53l vaccine may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against PSA-expressing prostate cancer cells. Rhesus PSA is 89% homologous to human PSA. |
| Pyrazoloacridine | A 9-methoxy acridine compound containing a reducible 5-nitro substituent.  Pyrazoloacridine appears to intercalate into DNA and inhibit RNA synthesis, DNA synthesis, and the activities of topoisomerases I and II, thereby causing cytotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Pyridyl Cyanoguanidine CHS 828 | A pyridyl cyanoguanidine that exhibits antitumor activity by an unknown mechanism. (NCI) |
| Pyrotinib | An orally bioavailable, dual kinase inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR or HER-1) and the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (ErbB2 or HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pyrotinib binds to and inhibits both EGFR and HER2, which may result in the inhibition of tumor growth and angiogenesis, and tumor regression in EGFR/HER2-expressing tumor cells. EGFR and HER2 are receptor tyrosine kinases that are upregulated in various tumor c... |
| Pyrotinib Dimaleate | The dimaleate ester of pyrotinib, an orally bioavailable, dual kinase inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR, ErbB1 or HER-1) and the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (ErbB2 or HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pyrotinib binds to and inhibits both EGFR and HER2, which may result in the inhibition of tumor growth and angiogenesis, and tumor regression in EGFR/HER2-expressing tumor cells. EGFR and HER2 are receptor tyrosine kinase... |
| Pyroxamide | A synthetic derivative of hydroxamic acid with antineoplastic properties, Pyroxamide inhibits histone deacetylases involved in transcription; induces hyperacetylation of core histones, modulating chromatin structure and affecting transcription of some genes that inhibit tumor growth; and induces growth arrest and apoptosis. Pyroxamide is used in clinical studies for cancer chemotherapy. (NCI04) |
| Pyruvate Kinase Inhibitor TLN-232 | A synthetic cyclic heptapeptide with potential antineoplastic activity. Pyruvate kinase (PK) inhibitor TLN-232 targets pyruvate kinase M2 (M2PK), which may disrupt tumor cell anaerobic glycolysis. M2PK is a dimeric isoform of PK and the predominant PK isoform found in tumor cells |
| Pyruvate Kinase M2 Isoform Activator TP-1454 | An orally bioavailable activator of pyruvate kinase M2 isoform (PKM2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PKM2 activator TP-1454 locks PKM2 into the active tetrameric form. This may prevent the production of glycolytic intermediates by the less active dimer form of PKM2, depleting the supply of glycolytic intermediates which are needed for tumor cell growth. This may also inhibit immune suppression mediated by the dimer form of PKM2. Altog... |
| Qilisheng Immunoregulatory Oral Solution | An oral solution containing Spondias axillaris, Panax ginseng, schisandra berry, hawthorn, soybean and an as of yet not elucidated bacterium, with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon oral administration of the qilisheng immunoregulatory oral solution, the ingredients in qilisheng may modulate the immune system. |
| Quadrivalent Human Papillomavirus (types 6, 11, 16, 18) Recombinant Vaccine | A non-infectious recombinant, quadrivalent vaccine prepared from the highly purified virus-like particles (VLPs) of the major capsid (L1) protein of human papillomavirus (HPV) types 6, 11, 16, and 18 with immunoprophylactic activity. L1 proteins are produced by separate fermentations in recombinant Saccharomyces cerevisiae, self-assembled into VLPs, and adsorbed onto amorphous aluminium hydroxyphosphate sulfate adjuvant following purification. The immunoprophylactic efficacy of L1 VLP vaccine... |
| Quaratusugene Ozeplasmid | A formulation composed of DOTAP:cholesterol liposomal nanoparticles complexed with a plasmid expression cassette encoding human FUS1 protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, DOTAP:chol-Fus1 liposome complex accumulates mainly in the lungs and particularly in cancer cells. Upon transfer of the Fus1 gene into tumor cells, the expression of Fus1 may induce tumor cell apoptosis and suppress tumor cell proliferation. Fus1, a potent tumor-suppressor protein, is present ... |
| Quarfloxin | A fluoroquinolone derivative with antineoplastic activity. Quarfloxin disrupts the interaction between the nucleolin protein and a G-quadruplex DNA structure in the ribosomal DNA (rDNA) template, a critical interaction for rRNA biogenesis that is overexpressed in cancer cells; disruption of this G-quadruplex DNA:protein interaction in aberrant rRNA biogenesis may result in the inhibition of ribosome synthesis and tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Quavonlimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, quavonlimab targets and binds to CTLA4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA4, an inhibitory receptor and member of ... |
| Quemliclustat | A small molecule, competitive inhibitor of the ectoenzyme CD73 (cluster of differentiation 73; 5'-ecto-nucleotidase; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, quemliclustat targets and binds to CD73, leading to clustering of and internalization of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and decreases the amount of free adenosine in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This p... |
| Quinacrine Hydrochloride | The dihydrochloride salt of the 9-aminoacridine derivative quinacrine with potential antineoplastic and antiparasitic activities. Quinacrine may inhibit the transcription and activity of both basal and inducible nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kappaB), which may result in the induction of tumor suppressor p53 transcription, the restoration of p53-dependent apoptotic pathways, and tumor cell apoptosis. Continuous NF-kappaB signaling, present in many tumors and in chronic inflammatory processes, prom... |
| Quinine | A quinidine alkaloid isolated from the bark of the cinchona tree. Quinine has many mechanisms of action, including reduction of oxygen intake and carbohydrate metabolism; disruption of DNA replication and transcription via DNA intercalation; and reduction of the excitability of muscle fibers via alteration of calcium distribution.  This agent also inhibits the drug efflux pump P-glycoprotein which is overexpressed in multi-drug resistant tumors and may improve the efficacy of some antineoplas... |
| Quisinostat | An orally bioavailable, second-generation, hydroxamic acid-based inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC) with potential antineoplastic activity. HDAC inhibitor JNJ-26481585 inhibits HDAC leading to an accumulation of highly acetylated histones, which may result in an induction of chromatin remodeling; inhibition of the transcription of tumor suppressor genes; inhibition of tumor cell division; and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. HDAC, an enzyme upregulated in many tumor types, deacetyl... |
| Quizartinib | An orally available small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Quizartinib selectively inhibits class III receptor tyrosine kinases, including FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3/STK1), colony-stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R/FMS), stem cell factor receptor (SCFR/KIT), and platelet derived growth factor receptors (PDGFRs), resulting in inhibition of ligand-independent leukemic cell proliferation and apoptosis. Mutations in FLT3, resulting in constitutive activation, are the mo... |
| R-(-)-Gossypol Acetic Acid | The orally bioavailable solvate of the R-(-) enantiomer of gossypol and acetic acid with potential antineoplastic activity. As a BH3 mimetic, R-(-)-gossypol binds to the hydrophobic surface binding groove BH3 of the anti-apoptotic proteins Bcl-2 and Bcl-xL, blocking their heterodimerization with pro-apoptotic members of the Bcl-2 family of proteins such as Bad, Bid, and Bim; this may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. Racemic gossyp... |
| Rabusertib | An inhibitor of the cell cycle checkpoint kinase 2 (chk2) with potential chemopotentiating activity. Rabusertib binds to and inhibits the activity of chk2, which may prevent the repair of DNA caused by DNA-damaging agents, thus potentiating the antitumor efficacies of various chemotherapeutic agents. Chk2, an ATP-dependent serine-threonine kinase, is a key component in the DNA replication-monitoring checkpoint system and is activated by double-stranded breaks (DSBs); activated chk2 is overexp... |
| Rac/Cdc42 Inhibitor MBQ-167 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the Rho GTPases Ras-related C3 botulinum toxin substrate (Rac) and cell division control protein 42 homolog (Cdc42), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Rac/Cdc42 inhibitor MBQ-167 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the GTP-binding proteins Rac and Cdc42 that are expressed on certain cancer cells and immunosuppressive immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This inhibits p21-activated kinase (PAK) and sign... |
| Racemetyrosine/Methoxsalen/Phenytoin/Sirolimus | A combination agent containing racemetyrosine, methoxsalen, phenytoin and sirolimus, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of racemetyrosine/methoxsalen/phenytoin/sirolimus SM-88, racemetyrosine, being a dysfunctional and modified form of the non-essential amino acid tyrosine, is specifically taken up by cancer cells through the transporter L-amino acid transferase-1 (LAT1; CD98). As a tyrosine derivative and faulty amino acid protein building block, racemetyrosine preve... |
| Racotumomab | An anti-idiotype murine monoclonal antibody (MoAb) specific to P3 MoAb with anti-metastatic effect. Racotumomab binds to the idiotype region of P3 MoAb and functionally mimics the three-dimensional structure of N-glycolyl ceramides of mono-sialyl lactose, the antigenic target of P3. As a result, this anti-idiotype antibody may stimulate the host immune system to elicit humoral and cellular immune responses against tumor cells expressing NeuGc-GM3 gangliosides, which are expressed in a wide va... |
| Radgocitabine | An analogue of the nucleoside deoxycytidine with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, radgocitabine is incorporated into DNA and directly inhibits the activity of DNA polymerase, which may result in inhibition of DNA replication and cell cycle arrest in the S and G2/M phases, DNA fragmentation, and tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Radgocitabine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of radgocitabine, an analogue of the nucleoside deoxycytidine with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, radgocitabine is incorporated into DNA and directly inhibits the activity of DNA polymerase, which may result in inhibition of DNA replication and cell cycle arrest in the S and G2/M phases, DNA fragmentation, and tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Radiolabeled CC49 | A radioimmunoconjugate comprised of a humanized monoclonal antibody with antitumor activity. The monoclonal antibody CC49 is developed from the murine monoclonal antibody B72.3 and is humanized by grafting the hypervariable regions onto the variable light (VL) and variable heavy (VH) frameworks of the monoclonal antibodies LEN and 21/28' CL. The resultant antibody binds the pancarcinoma tumor-associated glycoprotein (TAG)-72 with high affinity. Furthermore, the antibody is commonly radiolabel... |
| Radium bromatum | An orally available homeopathic preparation with potential radioprotective activities. Upon administration, radium bromatum may reduce the occurrence of, and ameliorate the symptoms associated with radiation-induced dermatitis. |
| Radium Ra 223 Dichloride | A radiopharmaceutical composed of the dichloride salt of the alpha-emitting isotope radium Ra 223, with antineoplastic activity. Like calcium, radium targets bone tissue and preferentially accumulates in osteoblastic lesions, such as those seen in areas of bone metastases. Radium Ra 223 forms complexes with hydroxyapatite and becomes incorporated into the bone matrix. The radioisotope Ra 223 kills bone cancer cells through local emission of high energy alpha particles, causing DNA double-stra... |
| Radium Ra 224-labeled Calcium Carbonate Microparticles | A radiopharmaceutical composed of biodegradable calcium carbonate microspheres labeled with the alpha-emitting radioisotope radium Ra 224, with antineoplastic activity. Upon intraperitoneal (IP) administration of the radium Ra 224-labeled calcium carbonate microparticles, Ra 224 kills tumor cells through local emission of high energy alpha particles, causing DNA double-strand breaks. The short range effects of alpha emission allows for localized DNA damage with limited toxicity to nearby heal... |
| Radix Angelicae Sinensis/Radix Astragali Herbal Supplement | A traditional Chinese medicine comprising of Radix Angelicae Sinensis (RAS) and Radix Astragali (RA), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunostimulatory, neuroprotective, anti-hepatotoxic and antineoplastic activities. The main chemical constituents of RAS include ferulic acid, Z-ligustilide, butylidenephthalide and various polysaccharides. RA is the dried root of Astragalus membranaceus with primary constituents such polysaccharides, triterpenoids as well as isoflavones. Though their mechan... |
| Radotinib Hydrochloride | An orally available, hydrochloride salt form of radotinib, a second-generation tyrosine kinase inhibitor of Bcr-Abl fusion protein and the platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, radotinib specifically inhibits the Bcr-Abl fusion protein, an abnormal enzyme expressed in Philadelphia chromosome positive chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) cells. In addition, this agent also inhibits PDGFR thereby blocking PDGFR-mediated signal tr... |
| RAF Inhibitor DCC-3084 | An orally bioavailable central nervous system (CNS)-penetrant switch control inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Raf family, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, RAF inhibitor DCC-3084 targets and binds to BRAF and CRAF kinases, including BRAF monomeric class I mutation, dimeric class II (Ras-independent) and class III (Ras-dependent) mutations, BRAF fusions and BRAF/CRAF heterodimers, specifically at the switch pocket regions, thereby binding both mo... |
| RAF Kinase Inhibitor L-779450 | A synthetic triarylimidazole with potential antineoplastic activity.  As a Raf kinase inhibitor, L-779450 competes with ATP for binding to the Raf-1 and A-Raf catalytic sites, thus inhibiting their enzymatic activities and blocking various signal transduction pathways that depend on Raf-1 kinase (particularly the Ras-Raf-MEK-ERK cascade which is often up-regulated in neoplasms). (NCI04) |
| RAF Kinase Inhibitor XL281 | An orally active, small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. XL281 specifically inhibits RAF kinases, located downstream from RAS in the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK kinase signaling pathway, which may result in reduced proliferation of tumor cells. RAS mutations may result in constitutive activation of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK kinase signaling pathway, and have been found to occur frequently in human tumors. |
| Ragifilimab | An anti-human glucocorticoid-induced tumor necrosis factor receptor (tumor necrosis factor superfamily, member 18; TNFRSF18; GITR; CD357) agonistic humanized monoclonal antibody, with potential immune checkpoint modulating activity. Ragifilimab binds to and activates GITRs found on multiple types of T-cells. This stimulates the immune system, induces both the activation and proliferation of tumor-antigen-specific T effector cells (Teff), and suppresses the function of activated T regulatory c... |
| Ralaniten Acetate | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the acetate form of ralaniten, a N-terminal domain (NTD) of the androgen receptor (AR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of ralaniten acetate, ralaniten specifically binds to the NTD of AR, thereby inhibiting both AR activation and the AR-mediated signaling pathway. This inhibits cell growth in AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR is overexpressed in prostate cancers and is involved in proliferation, survival and... |
| Ralimetinib Mesylate | The dimesylate salt form of LY2228820, a tri-substituted imidazole derivative and orally available, p38 mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) inhibitor with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ralimetinib inhibits the activity of p38, particularly the alpha and beta isoforms, thereby inhibiting MAPKAPK2 phosphorylation and preventing p38 MAPK-mediated signaling. This may inhibit the production of a variety of cytokines involved in inflammation, ce... |
| Raloxifene | A selective benzothiophene estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).  Raloxifene binds to estrogen receptors (ER) as a mixed estrogen agonist/antagonist; it displays both an ER-alpha-selective partial agonist/antagonist effect and a pure ER-beta-selective antagonist effect.  This agent functions as an estrogen agonist in some tissues (bones, lipid metabolism) and as an estrogen antagonist in others (endometrium and breasts), with the potential for producing some of estrogen's beneficial effects wit... |
| Raloxifene Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of raloxifene, a selective benzothiophene estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) with lipid lowering effects and activity against osteoporosis. Raloxifene hydrochloride specifically binds to estrogen receptors in responsive tissue, including liver, bone, breast, and endometrium. The resulting ligand-receptor complex is translocated to the nucleus where, depending on the tissue type, it promotes or suppresses the transcription of estrogen-regulated genes, thereby exerti... |
| Raltitrexed | A quinazoline folate analogue with antineoplastic activity.  After transport into cells via the reduced folate carrier, raltitrexed undergoes intracellular polyglutamation and blocks the folate-binding site of thymidylate synthase, thereby inhibiting tetrahydrofolate activity and DNA replication and repair and resulting in cytotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Raludotatug Deruxtecan | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cadherin-6 (CDH6; CDH-6) conjugated to deruxtecan, which is comprised of an enzymatically cleavable tetrapeptide-based linker and MAAA-1181a (DXd), the cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor derivative of exatecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of raludotatug deruxtecan, raludotatug targets and binds to CDH6-expressing ... |
| Ralzapastotug | A FcR-enabled immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, ralzapastotug targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of TIG... |
| Ramucirumab | A recombinant, fully human monoclonal antibody directed against human vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR-2) with antiangiogenesis activity. Ramucirumab specifically binds to and inhibits VEGFR-2, which may result in an inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and a decrease in tumor nutrient supply. VEGFR-2 is a pro-angiogenic growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase expressed by endothelial cells. |
| Ranibizumab | A second-generation, recombinant humanized IgG1 kappa monoclonal antibody fragment directed against human vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) alpha. Ranibizumab binds to VEGF alpha and inhibits VEGF alpha binding to its receptors, VEGFR1 and VEGFR2, thereby preventing the growth and maintenance of tumor blood vessels. The molecular weight of this agent (48 kD) is much smaller than the molecular weight of bevacizumab (MW ~149 kD), allowing complete penetration of the retina and the subre... |
| Ranimustine | A chloroethylnitrosourea derivative that inhibits proliferation and growth of tumor cells by alkylation and cross-linkage of DNA strands of tumor cells. (NCI) |
| Ranolazine | An orally available, piperazine derivative with anti-anginal and potential antineoplastic activities. Ranolazine's mechanism of action for its anti-ischemic effects has yet to be fully elucidated but may involve the alteration of the trans-cellular late sodium current in the ischemic myocyte. By preventing the rise of intracellular sodium levels, ranolazine may affect the transport activity of sodium-dependent calcium channels and prevent the calcium overload during myocardial ischemia, there... |
| Ranosidenib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mutated forms of both isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1, IDH1 [NADP+] soluble) in the cytoplasm and type 2 (IDH2, isocitrate dehydrogenase [NADP+], mitochondrial) in the mitochondria, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ranosidenib specifically targets and inhibits mutant forms of IDH1 and IDH2, thereby inhibiting the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG) from alpha-ketoglutarate (a-KG). This prevents 2HG-medi... |
| Ranpirnase | A natural homologue of ribonuclease A isolated from the eggs of the frog Rana pipiens.  Ranpirnase primarily degrades cellular transfer RNA with a substrate specificity for uridine-guanidine base-pair sequences, resulting in inhibition of protein synthesis and cytotoxicity. This agent also activates caspase-9 in mitochondria, resulting in tumor cell apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| Rapcabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, rapcabtagene autoleucel is directed to and induces selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage malignancies. |
| RARalpha Agonist IRX5183 | An orally bioavailable retinoid acid receptor alpha (RARalpha) agonist and vitamin A derivative, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, RARalpha agonist IRX5183 binds to and activates RARalpha, which promotes RARalpha-mediated signaling. This results in the transcription of RARalpha-responsive genes, which are responsible for cellular differentiation and proliferation. This results in the induction of cellular differentiation and apoptosis, and leads to the inhibition of... |
| Ras Inhibitor LUNA18 | An orally bioavailable cyclic peptide and Ras inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Ras inhibitor LUNA18 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits Ras, thereby inhibiting Ras-dependent signaling and inhibits proliferation of tumor cells in which Ras is overexpressed and/or mutated. Ras serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of Ras may induce constitutive signal transduction leading to tumor cell growth, proli... |
| RAS Inhibitor RMC-6236 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the active, guanosine triphosphate (GTP)-bound form of both wild type and mutant variants of the RAS isoforms, including HRAS, NRAS and KRAS, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, RAS inhibitor RMC-6236 binds to an intracellular chaperone protein, cyclophilin A (CypA). The resulting inhibitory binary complex binds to active, GTP-bound RAS to form a tri-complex. This tri-complex inhibits RAS-dependent signaling and inhibits the pr... |
| Ras Inhibitor RSC-1255 | An orally bioavailable pan-mutant and wild-type Ras inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Ras inhibitor RSC-1255 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits both wild-type and mutated forms of Ras, thereby inhibiting Ras-dependent signaling and inhibits proliferation of tumor cells in which Ras is overexpressed and/or mutated. Ras serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of Ras may induce constitutive signal tran... |
| Ras Peptide ASP | A synthetic form of the ras peptide containing a point mutation at position 12 (glycine to aspartic acid) with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination with ras peptide Asp may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for this ras mutation, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| RAS Peptide Cancer Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing a RAS oncogene-encoded peptide with potential antineoplastic activity.  RAS peptide cancer vaccine may stimulate a RAS peptide-specific antitumoral T-cell cytotoxic immune response, resulting in an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and tumor cell death. (NCI04) |
| RAS Peptide Cancer Vaccine TG01 | A therapeutic cancer vaccine composed of a lyophilizate containing seven 17 amino acids long synthetic RAS oncogene-encoded peptides representing the most common codon 12 and 13 oncogenic mutations in Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The lyophilizate is reconstituted with the natural saponin and immunoadjuvant QS-21 before administration. Upon administration, RAS peptide cancer vaccine TG01 may stimulate a specif... |
| Ras Peptide CYS | A synthetic form of the Ras peptide containing a point mutation at position 12 (glycine to cysteine) with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination with this peptide may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for this Ras mutation, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| Ras Peptide VAL | A synthetic form of the Ras peptide containing a point mutation at position 12 (glycine to valine) with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination with this peptide may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for this Ras mutation, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| RAS/PI3K-alpha Interaction Inhibitor BBO-10203 | An orally bioavailable covalent small molecule inhibitor of RAS-driven phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase catalytic subunit alpha isoform (PI3K-alpha; PI3Ka; PIK3CA) activity, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, RAS/PI3Ka interaction inhibitor BBO-10203 disrupts the interaction between RAS and PIK3CA, thereby inhibiting PIK3CA in the PI3K/Akt (protein kinase B)/mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) pathway. This results in apoptosis and growth inhibiti... |
| Rasdegafusp Alfa | A fusion protein consisting of a fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the endocytic dendritic cell (DC) receptor, DEC-205, linked to the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) NY-ESO-1 with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The monoclonal antibody moiety of rasdegafusp alfa1 binds to the endocytic DC receptor, which may result in DC endocytic internalization of this agent, specifically delivering the NY-ESO-1 moiety. DC processing of NY-ESO-1 may boost the immune ... |
| Ravoxertinib | An orally available inhibitor of extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ravoxertinib inhibits both ERK phosphorylation and activation of ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This prevents ERK-dependent tumor cell proliferation and survival. The mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK pathway is upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation, differentiation and surv... |
| Razoxane | An orally bioavailable bis-dioxopiperazine and a derivative of the chelating agent ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) with antineoplastic, antiangiogenic, and antimetastatic activities. Razoxane specifically inhibits the enzyme topoisomerase II without inducing DNA strand breaks, which may result in the inhibition of DNA synthesis and cell division in the premitotic and early mitotic phases of the cell cycle. This agent may also exhibit antiangiogenic and antimetastatic activities althoug... |
| RBCs-Anti-PD1 Antibody Conjugate WTX212 | A preparation of autologous engineered red blood cells (RBCs) conjugated with pembrolizumab, an antibody against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the RBCs-anti-PD1 antibody conjugate WTX212, the RBCs primarily and directly distribute to the spleen and vascular system. The anti-PD1 antibodies target, bind to and inhibit PD-1, l... |
| Realgar-Indigo naturalis Formulation | An orally bioavailable, traditional Chinese medicine (TCM)-based formulation composed of Realgar-Indigo naturalis formula (RIF) with potential antineoplastic activity. The main constituents in RIF are realgar, Indigo naturalis, and Salvia miltiorrhiza, with tetraarsenic tetrasulfide (As4S4), indirubin and tanshinone IIA as the main active ingredients, respectively, which appear to exert synergistic effects on cancer cells. Tetraarsenic tetrasulfide specifically induces the ubiquitination and ... |
| Rebastinib Tosylate | The tosylate salt of rebastinib, an orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of multiple tyrosine kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Rebastinib binds to and inhibits the Bcr-Abl fusion oncoprotein by changing the conformation of the folded protein to disallow ligand-dependent and ligand-independent activation; in addition, this agent binds to and inhibits Src family kinases LYN, HCK and FGR and the receptor tyrosine kinases TIE-2 and VEGFR-2. Rebastinib may exhibit more poten... |
| Rebeccamycin | An indolocarbazole glycoside antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Saccharothrix aerocolonigenes.  Rebeccamycin intercalates into DNA and stabilizes the DNA-topoisomerase I complex, thereby interfering with the topoisomerase I-catalyzed DNA breakage-reunion reaction and initiating DNA cleavage and apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| Rebemadlin | A small molecule and MDM2 (murine double minute 2) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. In cancer cells, rebemadlin antagonizes the binding of MDM2 to p53, thereby preventing MDM2-mediated p53 degradation. This results in stabilizing and activating p53-dependent cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. The protein MDM2, a negative regulator of p53 activity, is overexpressed in many cancer cell types; the tumor suppressor p53 is mutated or deleted in about 50% of all cancers but active i... |
| Rebimastat | A sulfhydryl-based second-generation matrix metalloproteinase (MMP) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Rebimastat selectively inhibits several MMPs (MMP 1, 2, 8, 9, and 14), thereby inducing extracellular matrix degradation, and inhibiting angiogenesis, tumor growth and invasion, and metastasis. |
| Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor R1530 | A pyrazolobenzodiazepine small molecule with potential antiangiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Mitosis-angiogenesis inhibitor (MAI) R1530 inhibits multiple receptor tyrosine kinases involved in angiogenesis, such as vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR)-1, -2, -3, platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) beta, FMS-like tyrosine kinase (Flt)-3, and fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) -1, -2. In addition, this agents exhibits anti-proliferative activity by init... |
| Recombinant 70-kD Heat-Shock Protein | A recombinant peptide that is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous 70-kD heat shock protein (HSP70).  HSP70 is a molecular chaperone that prevents physiologic stress-induced cell death by inhibiting both caspase-dependent and caspase-independent apoptosis.  Because this peptide is often overexpressed in tumor cells, autologous vaccination with HSP70 derived from tumor cells may stimulate the host immune system to mount a tumoricidal cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Adenovirus 5 Encoding Tumor Necrosis Factor-related Apoptosis-Inducing Ligand | An adenovirus type 5 (Ad5) encoding human tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL), with potential apoptosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of recombinant Ad5 encoding TRAIL, the adenovirus selectively infects tumor cells and expresses TRAIL. The virally expressed TRAIL binds to and activates its receptors TRAIL receptor-1 (TRAIL-R1, death receptor 4, DR4) and TRAIL receptor-2 (TRAIL-R2, death receptor 5, DR5), which subsequently activate ca... |
| Recombinant Adenovirus Encoding p53 | A replication-defective, recombinant adenoviral vector encoding the wild-type human tumor-suppressor protein p53 gene with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral administration, rAD-p53 binds to the coxsackie-and-adenovirus receptor (CAR) on tumor cells and enters cells selectively via receptor-mediated endocytosis, which may result in the overexpression of wild-type p53 intracellularly and p53-mediated tumor regression. In addition, this agent may stimulate the immune system to... |
| Recombinant Adenovirus-hIFN-beta | A recombinant replication-defective adenovirus which encodes the gene for the cytokine human interferon-beta (IFN-beta). Once inserted into and replicating in host tumor cells, recombinant adenovirus-hIFN-beta expresses human IFN-beta, which may stimulate an antiproliferative natural killer (NK) cell response against tumor cells and induce caspase-mediated tumor cell apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Adenovirus-L523S Vaccine | A replication-defective adenovirus containing a gene that encodes the human protein L523S with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, recombinant adenovirus-L523S vaccine expresses L523S, which may stimulate antibody and cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) responses against tumor cells expressing L523S. L523S is an RNA-binding protein that belongs to the KOC (K homology domain containing protein over-expressed in cancer) family of proteins. As an oncofetal protein, L523S is normally... |
| Recombinant Adenovirus-p53 SCH-58500 | A genetically-engineered adenovirus that contains the gene that encodes the human tumor-suppressor protein p53 with potential antineoplastic activity. Recombinant adenovirus-p53 SCH-58500 delivers p53 into tumor cells, which may result in p53-mediated cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. |
| Recombinant Albumin-binding IL-12 SON-1010 | A recombinant form of the human cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) conjugated to a single chain antibody fragment (scFv) targeting albumin, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, recombinant albumin-binding IL-12 SON-1010 targets and binds to serum albumin. The albumin-bound SON-1010 binds to gp60, secreted protein acidic and rich in cysteine (SPARC), and neonatal crystallizable fragment receptor (FcRn), and accumulates in the tumor microenvironment (... |
| Recombinant Anti-WT1 Immunotherapeutic GSK2302024A | An immunotherapeutic composed of the Wilms tumor 1 (WT1) and an as of yet undisclosed adjuvant, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the immune system may be stimulated to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against WT1-expressing tumor cells. The adjuvant stimulates the immune system's response to WT1. WT1, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and transcription factor, is overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types. |
| Recombinant Attenuated Salmonella typhimurium Expressing IL-2 | An orally available, genetically engineered Salmonella typhimurium strain expressing a truncated form of the human cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) gene, with antitumor activity. Upon administration of recombinant attenuated S. typhimurium expressing IL-2 (SalpIL2), this Salmonella strain may selectively accumulate and divide in a variety of tumor types, and express IL-2. In turn, IL-2 may induce natural killer (NK) cell proliferation thereby enhancing their activity. This may inhibit the growth... |
| Recombinant B. pertussis Adenylate Cyclase Toxin-Tyrosinase A2 Epitope Vaccine | A recombinant vaccine containing a genetically detoxified adenylate cyclase toxin (CyaA) of Bordetella pertussis coupled, through its catalytic site, to the melanoma tyrosinase A2 epitope YMDGTMSQV, with potential antineoplastic activity. Via the toxin moiety, the recombinant B. pertussis adenylate cyclase toxin-tyrosinase A2 epitope specifically binds to the alphaMbeta2 integrin (CD11b/CD18) located on CD11b-positive antigen-presenting cells (APC). Upon processing and presentation of the mel... |
| Recombinant Bacterial Minicells VAX014 | A population of recombinant bacterial minicells (rBMCs) engineered to express the alpha3beta1 (a3b1) and alpha5beta1 (a5b1) integrin-targeting invasion and that contain a bacterial protein toxin, perfringolysin O (PFO), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravesical administration, VAX014 selectively targets and binds to tumor cells expressing un-ligated a3b1 and/or a5b1 integrins and delivers PFO, leading to destabilization of tumor cell membranes and tumor cell lysis. By targetin... |
| Recombinant Bispecific Single-Chain Antibody rM28 | A recombinant, bispecific, single-chain antibody directed against both the T-cell surface-associated costimulatory molecule CD28 and a melanoma-associated proteoglycan (MAPG) with potential antitumor activity. By targeting both CD28 and MAPG, recombinant bispecific single-chain antibody rM28 enhances cytotoxic T-cell recognition of melanoma cells, which may result in immune effector cell-mediated tumor cell death and a decrease in distant metastases. This agent appears to have a long serum ha... |
| Recombinant CD40-Ligand | A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to CD40-ligand. CD40-ligand, also known as CD40L/TRAP and CD154, is a type II membrane protein which binds to CD40, a cell surface receptor that belongs to the tumor necrosis factor receptor family; CD40 is expressed on B lymphocytes, monocytes, dendritic cells (DC), hematopoietic progenitors, endothelial cells and epithelial cells. Recombinant CD40-ligand may be used to activate DC ex vivo via CD40 binding; CD40-liga... |
| Recombinant dHER2 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a truncated recombinant HER2 peptide (dHER2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, recombinant dHER2 vaccine may stimulate the host immune response to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response against tumor cells that overexpress the HER2 protein, resulting in tumor cell lysis. The HER2 protein is a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) that is overexpressed in a variety of cancers. dHER2 includes the extracellular domain (ECD) and a part of the in... |
| Recombinant DNA-L523S Vaccine | A plasmid DNA encoding human L523S, an RNA-binding protein that belongs to the KOC (K homology domain containing protein overexpressed in cancer) family, with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with L523S DNA may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) response against tumor cells that express the L523S protein. As an oncofetal protein, L523S is normally expressed in early embryonic tissue, but is overexpressed in certain cancer cell types. |
| Recombinant EphB4-HSA Fusion Protein | A recombinant fusion protein composed of the full-length extracellular domain (soluble) of human receptor tyrosine kinase ephrin type-B receptor 4 (sEphB4) and fused, at its C-terminus, to full-length human serum albumin (HSA), with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. sEphB4-HSA functions as a decoy receptor for the membrane-bound ligand Ephrin-B2 (Efnb2) and interferes with the binding of Efnb2 to its native receptors, including EphB4 and EphA3. This may result in a redu... |
| Recombinant Fas Ligand | A recombinant agent, which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous protein Fas ligand, a protein related to tumor necrosis factor (TNF) with potential antineoplastic activity.  Fas ligand binds to the Fas receptor, thereby activating caspases and inducing apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Fowlpox GM-CSF Vaccine Adjuvant | A cancer vaccine adjuvant consisting of a recombinant fowlpox virus encoding human granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF). GM-CSF binds to specific cell surface receptors on various immuno-hematopoietic cell types, enhancing their proliferation and differentiation and stimulating macrophage and dendritic cell functions in antigen presentation and antitumor cell-mediated immunity. Administration of recombinant fowlpox GM-CSF vaccine adjuvant may induce an immune response aga... |
| Recombinant Fowlpox-B7.1 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of a recombinant fowlpox virus vector encoding the stimulatory molecule transgene B7-1. Recombinant fowlpox-B7.1 vaccine may enhance antigen presentation and activate antitumoral cytotoxic T-cells. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Fowlpox-CEA(6D)/TRICOM Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of a recombinant fowlpox virus vector encoding the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and a TRIad of COstimulatory Molecules (B7-1, ICAM-1 and LFA-3) (TRICOM). This agent may enhance CEA presentation to antigen presenting cells (APC) and activate cytotoxic T-cells against CEA-expressing tumors. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Fowlpox-Mgp100 Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of a replication-defective recombinant fowlpox virus that encodes for the murine melanoma antigen glycoprotein 100 (mgp100) with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination with recombinant fowlpox-mgp100 vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for the gp100 antigen, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Fowlpox-Prostate Specific Antigen Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant fowlpox virus encoding human prostate-specific antigen (PSA). Administration of this agent may stimulate a cytotoxic T cell response against PSA-expressing tumor cells. Fowlpox virus is an attractive vector because its genome is easy to manipulate and it is replication incompetent in mammalian cells. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Fowlpox-TRICOM Vaccine | A vaccine comprised of a recombinant fowlpox virus vector encoding a TRIad of COstimulatory Molecules (B7-1, ICAM-1 and LFA-3) (TRICOM), which may enhance antigen presentation and activate cytotoxic T-cells. Fowlpox virus is an attractive vector because its genome is easy to manipulate and it is replication incompetent in mammalian cells. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Fowlpox-Tyrosinase Vaccine | A recombinant fowlpox virus vaccine with potential antineoplastic activity. Binding to the melanoma antigen tyrosinase, recombinant fowlpox-tyrosinase vaccine generates cellular immune responses against melanoma cells expressing the tyrosinase antigen; this effect is enhanced by the co-administration of interleukin 2 (IL-2). Fowlpox virus is an attractive vector because its genome is easy to manipulate and it is replication incompetent in mammalian cells. |
| Recombinant Fractalkine | A pro-inflammatory delta chemokine with potential antineoplastic activity.  Fractalkine induces the adhesion and migration of T lymphocytes, monocytes and natural killer (NK) cells.  In lymphomas, this agent may promote cell-mediated lympholysis by recruiting activated NK cells. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Globulin Component Macrophage-activating Factor | A recombinant form of naturally-occurring GC (group-specific component) protein-derived macrophage-activating factor (GC-MAF). GC is also known as vitamin D binding protein (VDBP). GC-MAF promotes macrophage activation. |
| Recombinant Human 6Ckine | A therapeutic recombinant analogue of a member of the endogenous CC chemokines with potential antineoplastic activity. Expressed by various lymphoid tissues, endogenous 6Ckine is chemotactic for B and T lymphocytes and dendritic cells. |
| Recombinant Human Adenovirus Type 5 H101 | A replication selective, recombinant, E1B and partial E3 gene deleted form of human adenovirus type 5, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral injection of recombinant human adenovirus type 5, the adenovirus selectively replicates in cancer cells while preventing viral replication in normal, healthy cells. This induces a selective adenovirus-mediated cytotoxicity in cancer cells, which leads to cancer cell lysis. In addition, viral spread to adjacent cells, following lysis o... |
| Recombinant Human Anti-TGF-beta Monoclonal Antibody | A recombinant human IgG4 monoclonal antibody directed against transforming growth factor-beta (TGFb) with potential antineoplastic activity. Recombinant human anti-TGF-beta monoclonal antibody specifically targets and binds to all 3 isoforms of TGFb, thereby neutralizing TGFb isoforms 1, 2 and 3. This prevents activation of TGFb-mediated signaling pathways. TGFb, a pleiotropic cytokine, is often overexpressed in a number of cancer cell types and is involved in cancer cell proliferation, diffe... |
| Recombinant Human Apolipoprotein(a) Kringle V MG1102 | An 86 amino-acid long polypeptide fragment of a recombinant form of human apolipoprotein (a) (apo(a)) kringle V, with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Although the exact mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, upon administration, recombinant human apo(a) kringle V MG1102 inhibits the fibronectin-mediated migration of endothelial cells, binds to and blocks the activity of alpha 3 beta 1 integrin (a3b1 integrin), inhibits the activation of focal adhesion kin... |
| Recombinant Human EGF-rP64K/Montanide ISA 51 Vaccine | A peptide vaccine preparation, containing recombinant human epidermal growth factor (rEGF) linked to the Neisseria meningitidis-derived recombinant immunogenic carrier protein P64k (rP64k) and mixed with the immunoadjuvant Montanide ISA 51, with potential active immunotherapy activity. Recombinant human EGF-rP64K/Montanide ISA 51 vaccine may trigger a humoral immune response against vaccine rEGF and rP64K and, so, against endogenous EGF. Antibody-mediated inhibition of endogenous EGF binding ... |
| Recombinant Human Endostatin | A recombinant human proteolytic fragment of the C-terminal end of type XVIII collagen. Endostatin induces microvascular endothelial cell apoptosis and inhibits endothelial proliferation and angiogenesis, which may result in a reduction in tumor burden. This agent also may decrease hepatic metastasis by inhibiting proinflammatory cytokines and vascular cell adhesion molecule (VCAM)-dependent cell attachment to the hepatic microvasculature.  (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Human GM-CSF-encoding Oncolytic Adenovirus SynOV1.1 | A recombinant oncolytic adenovirus, controlled by synthetic gene circuit, encoding the human immunostimulating factor cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the recombinant human GM-CSF-encoding oncolytic adenovirus SynOV1.1 selectively targets, infects and replicates in tumor cells expressing the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), thereby expressing GM-CSF an... |
| Recombinant Human Hsp110-gp100 Chaperone Complex Vaccine | A recombinant chaperone-peptide complex-based vaccine composed of a complex between heat shock protein hsp110 and the human melanoma-associated antigen gp100, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon vaccination, recombinant hsp110-gp100 chaperone complex activates the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T cell immune response and antigen-specific interferon-gamma production against gp100-overexpressing cancer cells. Gp100, is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types. Hsp110, binds ... |
| Recombinant Human Hyaluronidase and Pembrolizumab | A fixed-dose co-formulation composed of pembrolizumab, a humanized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against human cell surface receptor PD-1 (programmed death-1; programmed cell death-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279), and MK-5180, a recombinant form of human hyaluronidase, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration of recombinant human hyaluronidase and pembrolizumab, the hyaluronidase reversibly de... |
| Recombinant Human MUC1-Oxidized Polymannose-pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing autologous dendritic cells pulsed with a fusion product of an epitope of human tumor-associated epithelial mucin 1 (MUC1) antigen and the vaccine adjuvant mannan (oxidized mannose), with potential antineoplastic activity. When the modified dendritic cells are returned to the patient, they may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells positive for the MUC1 antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Addition of... |
| Recombinant Human Papillomavirus 11-valent Vaccine | A recombinant, 11-valent, human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine, produced in Hansenula polymorpha, with potential immunoprotective and antineoplastic properties. Upon administration, recombinant HPV 11-valent vaccine may generate humoral and cellular immunity against the 11 undisclosed types of HPV antigens, thereby preventing cervical infection upon exposure to these 11 types of HPV. In addition, this agent may stimulate an antitumoral cellular immune response against cervical cancer associated... |
| Recombinant Human Papillomavirus 14-valent Vaccine SCT1000 | A recombinant, 14-valent, human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine, with potential immunoprotective and antineoplastic properties. Upon administration, recombinant HPV 14-valent vaccine SCT1000 may generate humoral and cellular immunity against 14 types of HPV antigens, including types 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58 and 59, thereby preventing infection upon exposure to these 14 types of HPV. In addition, this agent may stimulate cellular immune response against various cancers an... |
| Recombinant Human Papillomavirus Bivalent Vaccine | A recombinant, bivalent, human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine, containing virus-like particles for HPV types 16 and 18 linked to the adjuvant ASO4, with potential immunoprotective and antineoplastic properties. Upon administration, HPV 16/18 L1 virus-like particle/ASO4 vaccine may generate humoral and cellular immunity against HPV types-16 and -18 antigens, thereby preventing cervical infection upon exposure to HPV types 16 and 18. In addition, this agent may stimulate an antitumoral cellular i... |
| Recombinant Human Papillomavirus Nonavalent Vaccine | A non-infectious, recombinant, nonavalent vaccine prepared from highly purified virus-like particles (VLPs) comprised of the major capsid (L1) proteins from human papillomavirus (HPV) types 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, and 58, with active immunizing activity. Upon administration, the recombinant HPV nonavalent vaccine activates the immune system to produce antibodies against the 9 HPV types. This protects against HPV infection and HPV-related cancers. Altogether, HPV types 6, 11, 16, 18, 31... |
| Recombinant Human Plasminogen Kringle 5 Domain ABT 828 | A recombinant human plasminogen kringle 5 domain with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, recombinant human plasminogen kringle 5 domain ABT 828 may promote caspase activity and apoptosis in proliferating endothelial cells, thereby inhibiting migration. Kringle 5 (K5), an internal proteolytic fragment of plasminogen specifically inhibits endothelial cell growth via its interaction with endothelial cell surface ATP synthase, which sequentially triggers ... |
| Recombinant Humanized Anti-HER-2 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody MBS301 | A glyco-engineered heterodimeric bispecific monoclonal antibody, derived from trastuzumab and pertuzumab, directed against two distinct epitopes of the extracellular dimerization (ECD) domain of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, recombinant humanized anti-HER-2 bispecific monoclonal antibody MBS301 simultaneously targets a... |
| Recombinant Interferon | One of a group of recombinant therapeutic glycoprotein cytokines with antiviral, anti-proliferative, and immunomodulating activities. Interferons bind to specific cell-surface receptors, leading to the transcription and translation of genes with interferon-specific response elements (ISREs). The resultant proteins mediate many complex effects, ultimately leading to inhibition of viral protein synthesis and cellular growth, alteration of cellular differentiation, interference with oncogene exp... |
| Recombinant Interferon Alfa | A class of naturally-isolated or recombinant therapeutic peptides used as antiviral and anti-tumor agents.  Alpha interferons are cytokines produced by nucleated cells (predominantly natural killer (NK) leukocytes) upon exposure to live or inactivated virus, double-stranded RNA or bacterial products.  These agents bind to specific cell-surface receptors, resulting in the transcription and translation of genes containing an interferon-specific response element.  The proteins so produced mediat... |
| Recombinant Interferon Alfa-1b | The non-glycosylated recombinant interferon alpha, subtype 1b, with immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Alpha interferon-1b binds to specific cell-surface receptors, resulting in the transcription and translation of genes whose protein products mediate antiviral, antiproliferative, anticancer, and immune-modulating effects. |
| Recombinant Interferon Alfa-2a | A non-glycosylated recombinant human alpha interferon, subtype 2a, produced in the bacterium E. coli.  Interferon alpha-2a binds to its specific cell-surface receptor, resulting in the transcription and translation of genes whose protein products have antiviral, antiproliferative, anticancer, and immune modulating effects. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Interferon Alfa-2b | A non-glycosylated recombinant interferon with antiviral and antineoplastic activities. Alfa interferons bind to specific cell-surface receptors, resulting in the transcription and translation of genes whose protein products mediate antiviral, antiproliferative, anticancer, and immune-modulating effects. |
| Recombinant Interferon Alpha 2b-like Protein | A proprietary recombinant protein highly resembling human interferon alpha 2b (IFN-a2b), with potential anti-tumor, anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antiviral activities. Upon injection, recombinant IFN alpha 2b-like protein binds to specific IFN alpha cell surface receptors. This activates interferon-mediated signal transduction pathways and induces the transcription and translation of genes with interferon-specific response elements (ISREs). This may activate the immune system, inclu... |
| Recombinant Interferon Beta | A recombinant protein which is chemically identical to or similar to endogenous interferon beta with antiviral and anti-tumor activities. Endogenous interferons beta are cytokines produced by nucleated cells (predominantly natural killer cells) upon exposure to live or inactivated virus, double-stranded RNA or bacterial products. These agents bind to specific cell-surface receptors, resulting in the transcription and translation of genes with an interferon-specific response element. The prote... |
| Recombinant Interferon Gamma | A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous lymphokine interferon gamma (IFN-gamma) with antineoplastic, immunoregulatory, and antiviral activities. Therapeutic IFN-gamma binds to and activates the cell-surface IFN-gamma receptor, stimulating antibody-dependent cytotoxicity and enhances natural killer cell attachment to tumor cells. This agent also activates caspases, thereby inducing apoptosis in malignant cells. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Interleukin-13 | The recombinant analogue of an endogenous cytokine interleukin 13 with potential antineoplastic activity. Produced by lymphocytes and exhibiting a variety of functions, interleukin-13 (therapeutic) inhibits DNA synthesis and regulates inflammatory and immune responses. In animal models, this agent has been shown to kill tumor cells both directly and indirectly by activating the host immune system at the tumor site. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Interleukin-6 | A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous cytokine interleukin-6 (IL-6) with antiapoptotic, proinflammatory, antiinflammatory, proproliferative and proangiogenic activities. IL-6 binds to its receptor (IL-6R), activating a receptor-CD130 receptor complex; the CD130 portion of the complex is a signal transduction protein that activates JAK kinases and Ras-mediated signaling pathways, which in turn activate downstream signaling pathways, resul... |
| Recombinant KSA Glycoprotein CO17-1A | A recombinant counterpart of tumor-associated KSA antigen (Ep-CAM), a type-I transmembrane glycoprotein cellular adhesion molecule with a molecular mass of 40 kDa, overexpressed on the majority of tumor cells of most human epithelia in a of variety of tumor tissues such as stomach, colon, pancreas, gall bladder, bile duct, mammary gland, breast, and lung carcinoma. It has been suggested to be involved in the differentiation, growth, and organization of epithelial cells within tissues under no... |
| Recombinant Leukocyte Interleukin | A cocktail preparation of synthetic interleukin (IL) -1, IL-2, IL-6, tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha, interferon gamma and other cytokines that are chemically identical to or similar to signaling molecules secreted by leukocyte cells. Leukocyte interleukins are essential in many immune responses, such as antibodies production, modulating secretion of other cytokines, and activation of bone marrow stem cells. |
| Recombinant Leukoregulin | A formulated therapeutic analog of the endogenous lymphokine leukoregulin with potential antineoplastic activity.  Leukoregulin displays direct and indirect cytotoxicity through tumor cell lysis and enhancing tumor cell susceptibility to natural killer cell-mediated cytotoxicity.  This agent enhances membrane permeability and decreases p-glycoprotein expression, thereby promoting cytotoxic drug uptake into tumor cells.  Leukoregulin also induces the synthesis of collagenase and hyaluronan, ex... |
| Recombinant Macrophage Colony-Stimulating Factor | A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous protein cytokine macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF). Synthesized endogenously by mesenchymal cells, M-CSF stimulates the survival, proliferation, and differentiation of hematopoietic cells of the monocyte-macrophage series and can reverse treatment-related neutropenias. Recombinant M-CSF may also enhance antigen presentation and activate antitumoral cytotoxic T-cells. |
| Recombinant MAGE-3.1 Antigen | A recombinant tumor-specific melanoma antigen. Vaccination with recombinant MAGE-3.1 antigen may induce a host immune response against MAGE-expressing cells, resulting in antitumoral T cell-mediated cytotoxicity. MAGE-expressing cells are found in melanoma, non-small-cell lung carcinoma (NSCLC), head and neck squamous cell carcinoma, transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder, and esophageal carcinoma. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Modified Vaccinia Ankara-5T4 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of a recombinant modified vaccinia Ankara (MVA) viral vector encoding the 5T4 fetal oncoprotein (MVA-h5T4). Vaccination with recombinant modified vaccinia Ankara-5T4 vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a humoral and cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing 5T4 fetal oncoprotein antigen, resulting in tumor cell lysis. The MVA viral vector, derived from the replication-competent strain Ankara, is a highly attenuated, repli... |
| Recombinant Newcastle Disease Virus-encoding Interleukin-12 MEDI9253 | An oncolytic viral agent containing the oncolytic, live-attenuated, replication-competent strain of the avian paramyxovirus Newcastle disease virus (NDV) that has been engineered to include a transgene encoding the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon administration, recombinant NDV-encoding IL-12 MEDI9253 specifically infects and replicates in cancer cells. This may result in a direct cytotoxic effect inv... |
| Recombinant Newcastle Disease Virus-encoding Interleukin-12 V938 | An oncolytic, replication-competent strain of the avian paramyxovirus Newcastle disease virus (NDV) that has been engineered to encode human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon administration, recombinant NDV-encoding IL-12 V938 specifically infects and replicates in cancer cells. This may result in a direct cytotoxic effect involving the lysis of tumor cells via apoptotic mechanisms and may eventually lead to ... |
| Recombinant Oncolytic Adenovirus 5 Encoding Non-secreting Interleukin-12 BioTTT001 | A recombinant oncolytic adenovirus serotype 5 (Ad5) encoding a modified and non-secreting (ns) form of the human immunostimulating cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, recombinant oncolytic Ad5 encoding nsIL-12 BioTTT001 specifically infects and replicates in tumor cells causing viral-mediated tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles, in turn, infect and replicate in neighboring tumor cells. Tumo... |
| Recombinant PRAME Protein Plus AS15 Adjuvant GSK2302025A | A recombinant form of the human PRAME (Preferentially Expressed Antigen of Melanoma) protein combined with the AS15 adjuvant, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration, GSK2302025A may stimulate the host immune response to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that overexpress the PRAME protein, resulting in tumor cell lysis. The tumor-associated antigen PRAME is often overexpressed by a variety of tumor cell ... |
| Recombinant Saccharomyces Cerevisia-CEA(610D)-Expressing Vaccine GI-6207 | A whole, heat-killed, recombinant Saccharomyces cerevisiae yeast-based vaccine genetically altered to express the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) peptide 610D with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, recombinant Saccharomyces cerevisia-CEA(610D) vaccine GI-6207 may stimulate a host cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CEA-expressing tumor cells, which may result in tumor cell lysis. CEA, a tumor associated antigen, is overexpressed on a wide... |
| Recombinant Super-compound Interferon | A recombinant form of the naturally-occurring cytokine interferon-alpha (IFN-a) that has a modified spatial configuration, with immunomodulating, antiviral and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of recombinant super-compound interferon (rSIFN-co), this agent binds to IFN-specific cell surface receptors, resulting in the transcription and translation of genes whose protein products have antiviral, antiproliferative, anticancer, and immune-modulating effects. The 3-dimensional confo... |
| Recombinant Thyroglobulin | A recombinant form of thyroglobulin identical to or similar to the endogenous iodine-containing glycoprotein. Thyroglobulin is synthesized in the thyroid follicular cell, and is the precursor of thyroid hormones T3 and T4. Thyroglobulin levels can serve as a tumor marker for monitoring the status of differentiated thyroid carcinomas. |
| Recombinant Thyrotropin Alfa | A recombinant form of the human anterior pituitary glycoprotein thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) with use in the diagnostic setting. With an amino acid sequence identical to that of human TSH, thyrotropin alfa binds to TSH receptors on normal thyroid epithelial cells or well-differentiated thyroid cancer cells, stimulating iodine uptake and organification, synthesis and secretion of thyroglobulin (Tg), triiodothyronine (T3), and thyroxine (T4). |
| Recombinant Transforming Growth Factor-Beta | A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous cytokine transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta) with proapoptotic and antineoplastic properties. TGF-beta may suppress tumor cell growth by decreasing the expression of cyclin D1, a cell cycle regulatory protein, and downregulating the expression of the oncogene c-myc. This agent is also involved in T cell-mediated immunosuppression by CD4+CD25+ T cells, which permits cancer cells to evade immune... |
| Recombinant Transforming Growth Factor-Beta-2 | A recombinant polypeptide chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous cytokine transforming growth factor-beta-2 (TGF-beta-2). TGF-beta-2 modulates cell growth and immune function and may promote or inhibit tumor growth, depending on the tumor cell type. TGF-beta-2 may also suppress host immune system recognition of and/or response to tumor cells. |
| Recombinant Tumor Necrosis Factor Alpha-Thymosin Alpha 1 Fusion Protein | A recombinant fusion protein composed of the human pro-inflammatory cytokine tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNFalpha) and the immunostimulatory peptide thymosin alpha 1 (Ta1), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Although the mechanism underlying its antineoplastic activity has not been fully elucidated, upon administration of recombinant TNFalpha-Ta1 fusion protein, the TNFalpha moiety may induce an immune response, which lead to apoptosis and tumor cell death, tumor ... |
| Recombinant Tumor Necrosis Factor Family Protein | A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to one of a number of endogenous tumor necrosis factor (TNF) proteins. TNF family cytokines bind to and activate specific cell-surface receptors, thereby mediating inflammatory processes, cell proliferation, immunity, angiogenesis, and tumor cell cytotoxicity. One primary antitumor effect of TNFs involves stimulation of T cell-mediated antitumor cytotoxicity. |
| Recombinant Tumor Necrosis Factor-Alpha | A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous cytokine tumor necrosis factor-alpha with antineoplastic properties.  Tumor necrosis factor-alpha binds to and activates "death receptors" on the cell surface, resulting in apoptosis and cell death by the p53-independent extrinsic pathway. This agent also disrupts tumor vascularization. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Tyrosinase-Related Protein-2 | A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to an endogenous non-mutated melanocyte differentiation antigen expressed by both normal and malignant melanocytes. Vaccinations with recombinant tyrosinase-related protein-2 may elicit an antitumoral cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells and some normal cells that express tyrosinase-related protein-2. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Vaccinia DF3/MUC1 Vaccine | A vaccinia virus based vaccine expressing human tumor associated epithelial mucin (DF3 antigen; MUC1). MUC1 antigen, a membrane bound glycoprotein expressed by most glandular and ductal epithelial cells, is overexpressed in various tumors such as breast, prostate, and ovarian cancers. This vaccine could be used in development of immunotherapeutics against cancers expressing MUC1. |
| Recombinant Vaccinia PSA Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of recombinant vaccinia virus encoding prostate specific antigen (PSA). Vaccination with recombinant vaccinia prostate-specific antigen vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells expressing PSA. |
| Recombinant Vaccinia-B7.1 Vaccine | A recombinant vaccinia virus encoding the T-cell co-stimulatory molecule B7-1. Co-administration of recombinant vaccinia-B7.1 and a tumor-associated antigen vaccine may enhance tumor-associated antigen-specific T-cell responses. (NCI04) |
| Recombinant Vaccinia-CEA(6D)-TRICOM Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of recombinant vaccinia virus encoding the tumor-associated antigen carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and a TRIad of COstimulatory Molecules (B7-1, ICAM-1, and LFA-3; also called TRICOM). Vaccination with recombinant vaccinia-CEA(6D)-TRICOM vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a T-cell response against tumor cells expressing the CEA antigen. The use of TRICOM in the vaccine may elicit a greater antitumor cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) immune response compared to ... |
| Recombinant Vaccinia-MUC-1 Vaccine | A vaccine containing a recombinant vaccinia virus that encodes the gene for human mucin-1, a tumor-associated antigen. Upon administration, recombinant vaccinia-MUC-1 vaccine may elicit a MUC-1-specific cytotoxic T cell response against tumor cells bearing MUC-1. |
| Recombinant Vaccinia-Multiepitope Melanoma Peptides-B7.1-B7.2 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of an inactivated recombinant vaccinia virus encoding epitope peptides derived from melanoma-related HLA-A2-restricted tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), including Melan-A(27-35), gp100(280-288) and tyrosinase(1-9), and two co-stimulatory B7 proteins, B7.1 (CD80) and B7.2 (CD86). Upon administration, recombinant vaccinia-multiepitope melanoma peptides-B7.1-B7.2 vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response against melanoma cells that express TAAs which sha... |
| Recombinant Vaccinia-NY-ESO-1 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant vaccinia viral vector encoding an immunogenic peptide derived from the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, an antigen found in normal testis and various tumors, including bladder, breast, hepatocellular, melanoma, and prostate cancers. Vaccination with recombinant vaccinia NY-ESO-1 peptide vaccine may stimulate the host immune system to mount a humoral and cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing NY-ESO-1 antigen, resulting ... |
| Recombinant Vaccinia-TRICOM Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of recombinant vaccinia virus encoding a TRIad of COstimulatory Molecules (B7-1, ICAM-1, and LFA-3; also called TRICOM). Vaccination with recombinant vaccinia-TRICOM vaccine stimulates the host immune system to mount a non-specific T-cell response. With the addition of a tumor-associated antigen peptide, this vaccine may enhance a tumor-specific immune response. |
| Recombinant Vesicular Stomatitis Virus-expressing Human Interferon Beta and Sodium-Iodide Symporter | A recombinant, replication competent form of the oncolytic RNA virus vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), based on the Indiana strain of VSV, that is genetically engineered to express the genes for the human cytokine interferon beta (IFNbeta) and the human thyroidal sodium-iodide symporter (NIS), with potential oncolytic and imaging activities. Upon intravenous administration, VSV-hIFNbeta-NIS is preferentially taken up by tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell infection, viral replication and a d... |
| Recombinant Vesicular Stomatitis Virus-expressing Interferon-beta | A recombinant, replicating oncolytic vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV) carrying the human interferon-beta (IFN-b) gene, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, recombinant VSV expressing IFN-b replicates in the tumor environment specifically, partially due to defective innate antiviral host defense mechanisms in tumor cells, involving type I IFNs, and exerts its cytolytic activity towards the tumor cells. By expressing human IFN-b, an IN... |
| Recombinant Vesicular Stomatitis Virus-expressing Interferon-beta and Tyrosinase Related Protein 1 | A recombinant, replicating oncolytic vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV) carrying the human interferon-beta (IFN-b) gene and the tyrosinase related protein 1 (TYRP1) gene, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral and intravenous administration, recombinant VSV-expressing IFN-b/TYRP1 preferentially replicates in tumor cells. Due to defective IFN-b-mediated innate antiviral host defense mechanisms in tumor cells, VSV is able to replicate in these cells witho... |
| Redaporfin | A bacteriochlorin-based photosensitizer, with antineoplastic activity upon photodynamic therapy (PDT). Following intravenous administration, redaporfin preferentially accumulates in hyperproliferative tissues, such as tumors. Local application of laser light at the tumor site results in the absorption of light by this agent and a photodynamic reaction between LUZ 11 and oxygen. This results in the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS), which includes singlet oxygen molecules, the supero... |
| Refametinib | An orally bioavailable selective MEK inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Refametinib specifically inhibits mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase 1 (MAP2K1 or MAPK/ERK kinase 1), resulting in inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK, a dual specificity threonine/tyrosine kinase, is a key component of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway that regulates cell growth; constitutive activation of this pathway has been implicated in many c... |
| Regorafenib | The hydrate form of regorafenib, an orally bioavailable small molecule with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Regorafenib binds to and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) 2 and 3, and Ret, Kit, PDGFR and Raf kinases, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFRs are receptor tyrosine kinases that play important roles in tumor angiogenesis; the receptor tyrosine kinases RET, KIT, and PDGFR, and the... |
| Regorafenib Anhydrous | The anhydrous form of regorafenib, an orally bioavailable small molecule with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Regorafenib binds to and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) 2 and 3, and Ret, Kit, PDGFR and Raf kinases, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFRs are receptor tyrosine kinases that play important roles in tumor angiogenesis; the receptor tyrosine kinases RET, KIT, and PDGFR, and t... |
| Relacorilant | An orally available antagonist of the glucocorticoid receptor (GR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration,  relacorilant competitively binds to and blocks GRs. This inhibits the activity of GRs, and prevents both the translocation of the ligand-GR complexes to the nucleus and gene expression of GR-associated genes. This decreases the negative effects that result from excess levels of endogenous glucocorticoids, like those seen when tumors overproduce glucocorticoids. In ... |
| Relatlimab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitor receptor lymphocyte activation gene-3 (LAG-3), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, relatlimab binds to LAG-3 on tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This may activate antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhance cytotoxic T cell-mediated tumor cell lysis, which leads to a reduction in tumor growth. LAG-3 is a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) and binds to major histocompatibility... |
| Relmacabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and containing, as of yet undisclosed, costimulatory signaling domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, relmacabtagene autoleucel target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell ... |
| Relugolix | An orally available, non-peptide gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH or luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH)) antagonist, with potential antineoplastic activity. Relugolix competitively binds to and blocks the GnRH receptor in the anterior pituitary gland, which both prevents GnRH binding to the GnRH receptor and inhibits the secretion and release of both luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). In males, the inhibition of LH secretion prevents the release of ... |
| Remetinostat | A topical formulation containing the histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon cutaneous administration, SHP-141 selectively binds to and inhibits HDAC, resulting in an accumulation of highly acetylated histones in the skin (dermis and epidermis), the induction of chromatin remodeling, and the selective transcription of tumor suppressor genes. These events may result in the inhibition of tumor cell division and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. HDA... |
| Renal Cell Carcinoma Peptides Vaccine IMA901 | A multipeptide cancer vaccine targeting renal cell carcinoma with potential immunopotentiating activity. Renal cell carcinoma peptides vaccine IMA901 consists of 10 different synthetic tumor-associated peptide (TUMAP) antigens (9 HLA-class I-binding and 1 HLA class II-binding); endogenously, these TUMAPs are expressed by the majority of renal cell carcinomas. Vaccination with this agent may significantly increase host cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune responses against tumor cells expressin... |
| Renvistobart | A human monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, renvistobart binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of TIGIT with its ligands CD112 (nectin-2; polio... |
| Reozalimab | A bispecific antibody targeting both the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and its ligand, human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1; CD274), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, reozalimab simultaneously targets and binds to PD-1, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes in the tumor microenvironment (TME), an... |
| Reparixin | An orally available inhibitor of CXC chemokine receptor types 1 (CXCR1) and 2 (CXCR2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, reparixin allosterically binds to CXCR1 and prevents CXCR1 activation by its ligand interleukin 8 (IL-8 or CXCL8). This may cause cancer stem cell (CSC) apoptosis and may inhibit tumor cell progression and metastasis. CXCR1, overexpressed on CSCs, plays a key role in CSC survival and the ability of CSC to self-renew; it is also linked to tumor res... |
| Repotrectinib | An orally available inhibitor of multiple kinases, including the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), c-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), the neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1, 2 and 3, the proto-oncogene SRC, and focal adhesion kinase (FAK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, repotrectinib binds to and inhibits wild-type, point mutants and fusion proteins of ALK, ROS1, NTRK1-3, SRC, FAK and, to a lesser extent, other kinases. Inhib... |
| Resigratinib | An orally bioavailable, small molecule, irreversible pan-inhibitor of fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) family proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, resigratinib covalently binds to and inhibits all four FGFR subtypes, FGFR1, FGFR2, FGFR3 and FGFR4, including wild-type FGFR family proteins, and FGFR2 and FGFR3 gatekeeper, molecular brake, and activation loop mutations. This prevents FGFR-mediated signaling, and inhibits both tumor angiogenesis and ... |
| Resiquimod | An imidazoquinolinamine and Toll-like receptor (TLR) agonist with potential immune response modifying activity. Resiquimod exerts its effect through the TLR signaling pathway by binding to and activating TLR7 and 8 mainly on dendritic cells, macrophages, and B-lymphocytes. This induces the nuclear translocation of the transcription activator NF-kB as well as activation of other transcription factors. This may lead to an increase in mRNA levels and subsequent production of cytokines, especiall... |
| Resiquimod Hydrogel-based Sustained-release formulation | A hydrogel carrier-based, sustained intra-tumoral release formulation of resiquimod, a Toll-like receptor (TLR) 7/8 agonist and an imidazoquinolinamine, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intra-tumoral administration, resiquimod binds to TLR7 and 8, which are found mainly on dendritic cells (DCs), macrophages, and B-lymphocytes, and activates the TLR signaling pathway, which results in the induction of the nuclear translocation of transcription activator nucl... |
| Resiquimod Topical Gel | A topical gel containing the Toll-like receptor (TLR) agonist resiquimod, an imidazoquinolinamine and with potential immunomodulating activity. Resiquimod binds toTLR7 and 8, mainly on dendritic cells, macrophages, and B-lymphocytes, and activates the TLR signaling pathway, resulting in the induction of the nuclear translocation of transcription activator NF-kB and activation of other transcription factors; subsequently, gene expression increases and the production of cytokines increases, esp... |
| Resistant Starch | A form of dietary fiber that resists degradation by gastrointestinal (GI) enzymes in the small intestine with potential chemopreventive and prebiotic activity. Upon consumption of resistant starch, the fiber is not metabolized or absorbed in the small intestine and enters the colon unaltered. Once in the colon, the starch is fermented by anaerobic colonic bacteria and produces short-chain fatty acids (SCFA), including butyrate, which has anti-inflammatory and immunoregulatory activities. In a... |
| Resminostat | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of histone deacetylases (HDACs) with potential antineoplastic activity. Resminostat binds to and inhibits HDACs leading to an accumulation of highly acetylated histones. This may result in an induction of chromatin remodeling, inhibition of the transcription of tumor suppressor genes, inhibition of tumor cell division and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. HDACs, upregulated in many tumor types, are a class of enzymes that deacetylate chromatin histone pro... |
| Resveratrol | A phytoalexin derived from grapes and other food products with antioxidant and potential chemopreventive activities. Resveratrol induces phase II drug-metabolizing enzymes (anti-initiation activity); mediates anti-inflammatory effects and inhibits cyclooxygenase and hydroperoxidase functions (anti-promotion activity); and induces promyelocytic leukemia cell differentiation (anti-progression activity), thereby exhibiting activities in three major steps of carcinogenesis. This agent may inhibit... |
| Resveratrol Formulation SRT501 | A proprietary formulation of resveratrol, a polyphenolic phytoalexin derived from grapes and other food products with potential antioxidant, anti-obesity, antidiabetic and chemopreventive activities. Resveratrol may activate sirtuin subtype 1 (SIRT-1). SIRT1 activation has been reported to inhibit tumorigenesis and tumor cell proliferation. SIRT-1 is a member of the silent information regulator 2 (SIR2) (or sirtuin) family of enzymes that plays an important role in mitochondrial activity and ... |
| RET Inhibitor APS03118 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, RET inhibitor APS03118 selectively targets and binds to wild-type RET and various RET fusions and mutations, including, but not limited to, solvent front mutations (SFMs) RET G810C/S/R and the gatekeeper RET V804 mutation, thereby inhibiting the activity of RET. This results in an inhibition of cell gr... |
| RET Inhibitor FHND5071 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, RET inhibitor FHND5071 selectively targets and binds to wild-type RET and various RET fusions and mutations, thereby inhibiting the activity of RET. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of tumors that exhibit increased RET activity due to these fusions and mutations. RET overexpression, activat... |
| RET Inhibitor HS-10365 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, RET inhibitor HS-10365 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of RET. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of tumors that exhibit increased RET activity. RET overexpression, activating mutations, and fusions result in the upregulation and/or overactivation of RET tyrosine kinase activit... |
| RET Inhibitor KL590586 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, RET inhibitor SY-5007 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of RET. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of tumors that exhibit increased RET activity. RET overexpression, activating mutations, and fusions result in the upregulation and/or overactivation of RET tyrosine kinase activity in variou... |
| RET Inhibitor LOXO-260 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of fusion products and mutated forms of the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the RET inhibitor LOXO-260 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of RET, including the RET V804 gatekeeper and the G810 solvent-front mutations. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of susceptible tumors cells that exhibit increased RET activity. RE... |
| RET Inhibitor SY-5007 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, RET inhibitor SY-5007 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of RET. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of tumors that exhibit increased RET activity. RET overexpression, activating mutations, and fusions result in the upregulation and/or overactivation of RET tyrosine kinase activity in variou... |
| RET Inhibitor TY-1091 | An orally bioavailable, selective, second-generation inhibitor of the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, RET inhibitor TY-1091 selectively targets and binds to wild-type RET and various RET fusions and mutations, including, but not limited to solvent front and gatekeeper mutations RET G810S, RET V804M/L/E, RET V804M/G810S and M918T/G810S, thereby inhibiting the activity of RET. This re... |
| Retaspimycin | A small-molecule inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (HSP90) with antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Retaspimycin binds to and inhibits the cytosolic chaperone functions of HSP90, which maintains the stability and functional shape of many oncogenic signaling proteins and may be overexpressed or overactive in tumor cells. Retaspimycin-mediated inhibition of HSP90 promotes the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins in susceptible tumor cell populations, which may r... |
| Retaspimycin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of a small-molecule inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (HSP90) with antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Retaspimycin binds to and inhibits the cytosolic chaperone functions of HSP90, which maintains the stability and functional shape of many oncogenic signaling proteins and may be overexpressed or overactive in tumor cells. Retaspimycin-mediated inhibition of HSP90 promotes the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins in susceptible tumor cel... |
| Retelliptine | An ellipticine derivative and topoisomerase II inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Retelliptine intercalates with DNA and inhibits topoisomerase II during DNA replication. In addition, this agent appears to induce cell cycle arrest at G2/M phase and apoptosis mediated through the Fas/Fas ligand death receptor and the mitochondrial pathway. |
| Retifanlimab | A proprietary humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, retifanlimab binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobu... |
| Retinoic Acid Agent Ro 16-9100 | A synthetic retinoid with differentiation inducing and potential antineoplastic activities. Like other retinoic acid agents, Ro 16-9100 binds to and activates retinoic acid receptors (RARs), thereby altering the expression of certain genes leading to cell differentiation and decreased cell proliferation in susceptible cells. |
| Retinoid 9cUAB30 | A synthetic analogue of 9-cis retinoic acid with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities. Retinoid 9cUAB30 binds to and activates retinoid X receptor (RXR) homodimers and/or and retinoic acid receptor (RAR)/RXR heterodimers, which may result in the dissociation of corepressor protein and the recruitment of coactivator protein, followed by transcription of downstream target genes into mRNAs and protein translation. Gene transcription regulated by these transcription factors may... |
| Retinol | The fat soluble vitamin retinol. Vitamin A binds to and activates retinoid receptors (RARs), thereby inducing cell differentiation and apoptosis of some cancer cell types and inhibiting carcinogenesis. Vitamin A plays an essential role in many physiologic processes, including proper functioning of the retina, growth and differentiation of target tissues, proper functioning of the reproductive organs, and modulation of immune function. |
| Retinyl Acetate | A naturally-occurring fatty acid ester form of retinol (vitamin A) with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities.  Retinyl acetate binds to and activates retinoid receptors, inducing cell differentiation and decreasing cell proliferation.  This agent also inhibits carcinogen-induced neoplastic transformation in some cancer cell types and exhibits immunomodulatory properties. (NCI04) |
| Retinyl Palmitate | A naturally-occurring phenyl analogue of retinol (vitamin A) with potential antineoplastic and chemopreventive activities.  As the most common form of vitamin A taken for dietary supplementation, retinyl palmitate binds to and activates retinoid receptors, thereby inducing cell differentiation and decreasing cell proliferation.  This agent also inhibits carcinogen-induced neoplastic transformation, induces apoptosis in some cancer cell types, and exhibits immunomodulatory properties. (NCI04) |
| Retlirafusp Alfa | A bifunctional fusion protein composed of an anti-programmed death ligand 1 (PD-L1) monoclonal antibody bound, via the C-terminal ends of the Fc region, to the N-terminal-truncated extracellular domain (ECD) of human transforming growth factor beta (TGFbeta) receptor type II (TGFbetaRII), with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint modulating activities. Upon administration, retlirafusp alfa targets, binds to and neutralizes TGFbeta on the tumor cell while the antibody moiety simultan... |
| Retrovector Encoding Mutant Anti-Cyclin G1 | A replication-incompetent, pathotropic, tumor matrix (collagen)-targeted, retroviral vector encoding an N-terminal deletion mutant form of the cyclin G1 gene with potential antineoplastic activity. Under the control of a hybrid long-terminal repeat/cytomegalovirus (CMV) promoter, retrovector encoding mutant anti-cyclin G expresses the mutant cyclin G1 construct, resulting in disruption of tumor cell cyclin G1 activity and decreased cellular proliferation and angiogenesis. This agent preferent... |
| Revdofilimab | An agonistic humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody that recognizes the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory activity. Upon administration, revdofilimab selectively binds to and activates OX40. This may induce the proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes and inhibit the function of T-regulatory cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME). OX40, a cell surface glycoprotein and member of ... |
| Revumenib | An orally bioavailable protein-protein interaction (PPI) inhibitor of the menin-mixed lineage leukemia (MLL; myeloid/lymphoid leukemia; KMT2A) proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, revumenib targets and binds to the nuclear protein menin, thereby preventing the interaction between the two proteins menin and MLL and the formation of the menin-MLL complex. This reduces the expression of downstream target genes and results in an inhibition of the proliferati... |
| Rexinoid NRX 194204 | An orally bioavailable synthetic retinoid X receptor (RXR) agonist with potential antineoplastic and anti-inflammatory activities. Rexinoid NRX 194204 selectively binds to and activates RXRs. Because RXRs can form heterodimers with several nuclear receptors (NRs), RXR activation by this agent may result in a broad range of gene expression depending on the effector DNA response elements activated. Rexinoid NRX 194204 may inhibit the tumor-necrosis factor (TNF)-mediated release of nitric oxide ... |
| Rezetamig | A human bispecific antibody, with potential antineoplastic activity. Rezetamig contains two binding sites, one for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD22, and one for the T-cell surface antigen CD3. Upon administration, rezetamig binds to both CD3 on T-cells and CD22-expressing B-lineage tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the CD22-expressing tumor B-cells. CD22 is exclusively expressed on B-cells and is often overexpres... |
| Rezivertinib | An orally available third-generation and selective inhibitor of certain epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) activating mutations, including the resistance mutations T790M and L858R, as well as exon 19 deletion, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, rezivertinib specifically and covalently binds to and inhibits selective EGFR mutations, with particularly high selectivity against the T790M mutation, which prevents EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death... |
| Rezorstobart | An Fc-attenuated human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the C-type lectin-like receptor cluster of differentiation 161 (CD161), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, rezorstobart selectivity targets, binds to and blocks CD161. This disrupts the interaction of CD161 with its ligand lectin-like transcript-1 (CLEC2D; LLT1; OCIL), prevents CD161-mediated signaling, abrogates the CLEC2D/ CD161-mediated suppression of CD161-... |
| Rezvilutamide | An orally bioavailable androgen receptor (AR) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, rezvilutamide competitively binds to AR in target tissues, which both prevents androgen-induced receptor activation and facilitates the formation of inactive complexes that cannot be translocated to the nucleus. This prevents binding to and transcription of AR-responsive genes, inhibits the expression of genes that regulate prostate cancer cell proliferation, and may lead to a... |
| RFT5-dgA Immunotoxin IMTOX25 | A recombinant immunotoxin consisting of the anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody RFT5 fused to the deglycosylated ricin A-chain (dgA) with potential antitumor activity.  The monoclonal antibody moiety of RFT5-dgA immunotoxin attaches to CD25 (the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor complex) on the cell membrane; after internalization, the dgA moiety cleaves the N-glycosidic bond between the ribose and adenine base at position 4324 in 28S ribosomal RNA, resulting in ribosome inactivation, inhibition of ... |
| RGD-modified COX-2 Promoter-controlled Conditionally Replicative Adenovirus RGDCRAdCox2F | A conditionally replicative, oncolytic adenovirus type 5 (Ad5), with potential oncolytic activity. Arg-Gly-Asp (RGD)-modified cyclooxygenase (COX)-2 promoter-controlled conditionally replicative adenovirus (CRAd) RGDCRAdCox2F has been engineered to replace the original E1 region with a COX-2 promoter-controlled E1 expression cassette, and to include RGD modification of the fiber protein. Upon administration, the RGD motif of RGD-modified COX-2 CRAd RGDCRAdCox2F binds to integrins expressed on... |
| Rhenium Re 186 Etidronate | An synthetic compound containing the organic phosphonate hydroxyethylidene diphosphonate (HEDP) labeled with the radioisotope rhenium Re 186. Re-186 etidronate binds to hydroxyapatite in bone, delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to primary and metastatic bone tumors. Re-186 is a beta emitter with a short half-life, a radioisotope profile that provides localized antitumor radiocytotoxicity while sparing extramedullary bone marrow tissues. |
| Rhenium Re 186 Obisbemeda | A therapeutic preparation consisting of the beta-emitting radioisotope rhenium Re 186 encapsulated in a nanoliposome, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral infusion of liposomal rhenium Re 186, the radioisotope releases radiation, which directly kills the tumor cells. The nanoliposomes facilitate the retention of the radioisotope by the tumor cells and localize the radiocytotoxicity to the tumor while sparing surrounding normal, healthy cells. Re-186 has a short half-life ... |
| Rhenium Re 188 BMEDA-labeled Liposomes | A liposome-based preparation consisting of the beta- and gamma-emitting radionuclide rhenium Re 188 (Re 188) linked to the chelator N,N-bis (2-mercaptoethyl)-N',N'-diethylethylenediamine (BMEDA) and encapsulated in liposomes, with potential tumor imaging and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous infusion of rhenium Re 188 BMEDA-labeled liposomes, the liposomes selectively target tumor cells, facilitate the retention of the radioisotope by those cells, and cause localized antitumor radio... |
| Rhenium Re-188 Ethiodized Oil | A rhenium (Re) 188 conjugate of ethiodized oil (lipiodol), an iodinated ethyl ester derived from poppy seed oil, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon hepatic intra-arterial injection rhenium Re 188 ethiodized oil accumulates in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) tumor cells, thereby delivering a cytotoxic dose of radiation through Re 188 directly to the tumor cells. This may kill tumor cells while sparing surrounding normal cells and tissues. Compared to iodine I 131, Re 188 has a shorter... |
| Rhenium Re-188 Etidronate | A synthetic compound containing the bisphosphonate etidronate (hydroxyethylidene diphosphonate, HEDP) labeled with rhenium Re188, a beta-emitting radioisotope with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Re-188 etidronate binds to hydroxyapatite in bone, delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to primary and metastatic bone tumors. The beta-radiation may provide localized anti-tumor radiotoxicity while sparing extramedullary bone marrow tissues. |
| Rhizoxin | A macrocyclic lactone. Rhizoxin binds to tubulin and inhibits microtubule assembly, thereby inducing cytotoxicity. This agent also may inhibit endothelial cell-induced angiogenic activity, which may result in decreased tumor cell proliferation. (NCI04) |
| Ribociclib | An orally available inhibitor of the cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) 4 and 6, with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ribociclib specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CDK4 and CDK6. This inhibits the cyclin D1/CDK4 and cyclin D3/CDK6 cell cycle pathway, which inhibits phosphorylation of the retinoblastoma (Rb) protein. Inhibition of Rb phosphorylation prevents CDK-mediated G1-S phase transition, thereby arresting the cell cycle in the G1 phase, suppressing DNA synthesis ... |
| Ribociclib Succinate | The succinate salt form of ribociclib, an orally available inhibitor of the cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) 4 and 6, with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ribociclib specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CDK4 and CDK6. This inhibits the cyclin D1/CDK4 and cyclin D3/CDK6 cell cycle pathway, which inhibits phosphorylation of the retinoblastoma (Rb) protein. Inhibition of Rb phosphorylation prevents CDK-mediated G1-S phase transition, thereby arresting the cell cycle in t... |
| Ribociclib/Letrozole | An orally available co-packaged agent combination of the succinate salt form of ribociclib, a cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor targeting cyclin D1/CDK4 and cyclin D3/CDK6, and letrozole, a nonsteroidal inhibitor of estrogen synthesis, with antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ribociclib specifically inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, thereby inhibiting retinoblastoma (Rb) phosphorylation. Inhibition of Rb phosphorylation prevents CDK-mediated G1-S phase transition, thereby arresting... |
| Ribocytokine IL-2 BNT153 | A formulation consisting of lipid nanoparticles (LNPs) encapsulating nucleoside-modified messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding the endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration, ribocytokine IL-2 BNT153 is taken up by cells and the expressed IL-2 targets and binds to the IL-2 receptor beta subunit (IL2Rb; IL2Rbeta; CD122). The binding of IL-2 to IL2Rb activates IL2Rb-mediated signaling, which activates cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and natur... |
| Ribocytokine IL-7 BNT152 | A formulation consisting of lipid nanoparticles (LNPs) encapsulating nucleoside-modified messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding the endogenous cytokine interleukin-7 (IL-7), with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration, ribocytokine IL-7 BNT152 is taken up by cells and the expressed IL-7 targets and binds to the IL-7 receptor (IL7R). The binding of IL-7 to IL7R activates IL7/IL7R-mediated signaling, which activates B- and T- lymphocytes, may improve immune recovery and activation, an... |
| Ribonuclease QBI-139 | A nuclease of mammalian origin that cleaves the phosphodiester bond between nucleotides of ribonucleic acids with potential antineoplastic activity. Ribonuclease QBI-139 catalyzes the hydrolysis and degradation of RNA leading to the inhibition of protein synthesis and cell death. |
| Ribozyme RPI.4610 | A nuclease-stabilized synthetic ribozyme (ribonucleic acid enzyme) with potential anti-angiogenesis activity. Ribozyme RPI.4610 specifically recognizes the mRNA for FLT1 (vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 1; VEGFR1), and hydrolyzes the mRNA, thereby preventing VEGFR1 proteins from being made. This may prevent VEGF-stimulated angiogenesis in cancerous tissue and metastasis. |
| Rice Bran | The nutrient-rich hard outer layer of the rice cereal grain, with potential chemopreventive, antioxidant, iron chelating, anticholesterol and anti-inflammatory activities. Rice bran is rich in fiber, such as beta-glucan, pectin and gum; it also comprises vitamins and minerals, such as iron, magnesium and phosphorus, and essential fatty acids. In addition, Rice bran contains various bioactive components, including ferulic acid, tricin, beta-sitosterol, gamma-oryzanol, phytic acid, and inositol... |
| Ricolinostat | An orally bioavailable, specific inhibitor of histone deacetylase 6 (HDAC6) with potential antineoplastic activity. Ricolinostat selectively targets and binds to HDAC6, thereby disrupting the Hsp90 protein chaperone system through hyperacetylation of Hsp90 and preventing the subsequent aggresomal protein degradation. This leads to an accumulation of unfolded and misfolded ubiquitinated proteins and may eventually induce cancer cell apoptosis, and inhibition of cancer cell growth. HDAC6, a cla... |
| Ridaforolimus | A small molecule and non-prodrug analogue of the lipophilic macrolide antibiotic rapamycin with potential antitumor activity. Ridaforolimus binds to and inhibits the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), which may result in cell cycle arrest and, consequently, the inhibition of tumor cell growth and proliferation. Upregulated in some tumors, mTOR is a serine/threonine kinase involved in regulating cellular proliferation, motility, and survival that is located downstream of the PI3K/Akt signal... |
| Rigosertib Sodium | The sodium salt form of rigosertib, a synthetic benzyl styryl sulfone analogue and Ras mimetic, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, rigosertib targets and binds to Ras-binding domain (RBD) found in many Ras effector proteins, including Raf kinase and phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K). This prevents Ras from binding to its targets and inhibits Ras-mediated signaling pathways, including Ras/Raf/Erk, Ras/CRAF/polo-like kinase1 (Plk1), and Ras/ PI3K/Akt signaling pathw... |
| Rilimogene Galvacirepvec | A vaccine formulation consisting of recombinant vaccinia virus encoding prostate specific antigen (PSA) and recombinant vaccinia virus encoding three co-stimulatory molecule transgenes B7.1, ICAM-1, and LFA-3 (TRICOM). Vaccination with PSA in combination with TRICOM may enhance antigen presentation, resulting in the augmentation of a cytotoxic T cell (CTL) immune response against tumor cells expressing PSA. |
| Rilimogene Galvacirepvec/Rilimogene Glafolivec | A vaccine formulation consisting of rilimogene galvacirepvec (V-PSA-TRICOM; PROSTVAC-V), a recombinant vaccinia virus, and rilimogene glafolivec (F-PSA-TRICOM; PROSTVAC-F), a recombinant fowlpox virus, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Both viruses encode modified forms of human prostate specific antigen (PSA) and the three co-stimulatory molecule transgenes (TRIad of COstimulatory Molecules; TRICOM), B7.1 (CD80), intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1), and l... |
| Rilimogene Glafolivec | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant fowlpox virus encoding fragment of human prostate-specific antigen (PSA), PSA:154-163 (155L), and a TRIad of COstimulatory Molecules (B7-1, ICAM-1 and LFA-3) (TRICOM).  Administration of this agent may induce a cytotoxic T cell response against PSA-expressing tumor cells. Dendritic cells infected with TRICOM vectors greatly enhance naive T-cell activation and peptide-specific T-cell stimulation. Fowlpox virus is an attractive vector because its gen... |
| Rilogrotug | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against human growth/differentiation factor 15 (GDF-15; macrophage inhibitory cytokine-1; MIC-1; non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug-inducible gene-1; NAG-1; placental transforming growth factor-beta; pTGFB; prostate-derived factor; PDF; placental bone morphogenetic protein; PLAB), with potential anti-cachexic activity. Upon administration, rilogrotug specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of GDF-15, a pro-in... |
| Rilotumumab | A fully human IgG2 monoclonal antibody directed against the human hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-HGF monoclonal antibody AMG 102 binds to and neutralizes HGF, preventing the binding of HGF to its receptor c-Met and so c-Met activation; inhibition of c-Met-mediated signal transduction may result in the induction of apoptosis in cells expressing c-Met. c-Met (HGF receptor or HGFR), a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in a variety of e... |
| Rilunermin Alfa | A recombinant fusion protein composed of the human C-propeptide of alpha1(I) collagen (Trimer-Tag) to the C-terminus of the mature human tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL; Apo2L), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. The binding of TRAIL to the Trimer-Tag allows TRAIL to form a stable covalently-linked homotrimer. Upon administration rilunermin alfa targets, binds to and trimerizes the TRAIL-receptors, pro-apoptotic death receptors (DR... |
| Rilvegostomig | A bispecific antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, rilvegostomig simultaneously targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and TIGIT... |
| Rindopepimut | A cancer vaccine consisting of a human epidermal growth factor receptor variant III (EGFRvIIi)-specific peptide conjugated to the non-specific immunomodulator keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH) with potential antineoplastic activity. Vaccination with rindopepimut may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against tumor cells expressing EGFRvIII. EGFRvIII, a functional variant of EGFR that is not expressed in normal tissues, was originally discovered in glioblastoma multiforme (GBM... |
| Rineterkib | An orally available inhibitor of extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, rineterkib binds to and inhibits ERK, thereby preventing the activation of ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ERK-dependent tumor cell proliferation and survival. The mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK pathway is upregulated in numerous tumor cell types and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation... |
| Ripertamab | A chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against human CD20, with potential antineoplastic activity. Ripertamab binds to the B-cell-specific cell surface antigen CD20, which triggers an immune response against CD20-positive B-cells, leading to apoptosis. CD20, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein, is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development and is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. |
| RIPK1 Inhibitor GSK3145095 | An orally available, small-molecule inhibitor of receptor-interacting serine/threonine-protein kinase 1 (RIPK1; receptor-interacting protein 1; RIP1) with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulatory activities.  Upon administration, GSK3145095 disrupts RIPK1-mediated signaling, which may reduce C-X-C motif chemokine ligand 1 (CXCL1)-driven recruitment and migration of immunosuppressive myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This allows effector cells, ... |
| Ripretinib | An orally bioavailable switch pocket control inhibitor of wild-type and mutated forms of the tumor-associated antigens (TAA) mast/stem cell factor receptor (SCFR) KIT and platelet-derived growth factor receptor alpha (PDGFR-alpha; PDGFRa), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ripretinib targets and binds to both wild-type and mutant forms of KIT and PDGFRa specifically at their switch pocket binding sites, thereby preventing the switch from inactive to active conf... |
| Risovalisib | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, risovalisib selectively targets, binds to and inhibits wild-type PIK3CA and its mutated forms, in the PI3K/Akt (protein kinase B) /mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) pathway. This results in both apoptosis and growth inhibition in PIK3CA-expressing tumor cells. By specifically targeting ... |
| Risperidone Formulation in Rumenic Acid | An orally bioavailable capsule formulation containing the antipsychotic agent risperidone suspended in the lipid rumenic acid, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of VAL401, risperidone may, through an as of yet not elucidated mechanism of action, reduce cellular activity and tumor cell proliferation in multiple cancers. |
| Ritrosulfan | A sulfonate-based alkylation agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Ritrosulfan appears to alkylate DNA, thereby producing DNA crosslinks, resulting in cell cycle arrest. |
| Rituximab | A recombinant chimeric murine/human antibody directed against the CD20 antigen, a hydrophobic transmembrane protein located on normal pre-B and mature B lymphocytes. Following binding, rituximab triggers a host cytotoxic immune response against CD20-positive cells. (NCI04) |
| Rituximab and Hyaluronidase Human | A combination preparation of rituximab, a genetically engineered chimeric murine/human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 kappa monoclonal antibody directed against the CD20 antigen, and the recombinant form of the human enzyme hyaluronidase, with antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration of rituximab and hyaluronidase human, the hyaluronidase reversibly depolymerizes the polysaccharide hyaluronan in the subcutaneous tissue. This increases the permeability of the subcutaneous tissue and e... |
| Rituximab Conjugate CON-4619 | A proprietary conjugate of rituximab, a recombinant chimeric murine/human antibody directed against the CD20 antigen, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the rituximab conjugate CON-4619, the rituximab moiety targets and binds to CD20, a hydrophobic transmembrane protein located on normal pre-B and mature B lymphocytes. Following binding, rituximab triggers a host cytotoxic immune response against CD20-positive cells. |
| Riviciclib | A flavone and cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Riviciclib selectively binds to and inhibits Cdk4/cyclin D1, Cdk1/cyclin B and Cdk9/cyclin T1, serine/threonine kinases that play key roles in the regulation of the cell cycle and cellular proliferation. Inhibition of these kinases leads to cell cycle arrest during the G1/S transition, thereby leading to an induction of apoptosis, and inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. |
| Rivoceranib Mesylate | The mesylate salt of rivoceranib, an orally bioavailable, small-molecule receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Rivoceranib selectively binds to and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2, which may inhibit VEGF-stimulated endothelial cell migration and proliferation and decrease tumor microvessel density. In addition, this agent mildly inhibits c-Kit and c-SRC tyrosine kinases. |
| RNA Electroporated CD19CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing Autologous T-lymphocytes | Autologous, genetically engineered T-lymphocytes that have been electroporated with an mRNA encoding for an anti-CD19 chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment (scFv) coupled to the co-stimulatory signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon transfusion, the RNA electroporated CD19CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing autologous T-l... |
| RNA Transcription Modulator AU-409 | An orally bioavailable RNA transcription modulator, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration,  RNA transcription modulator AU-409 specifically modulates transcription of RNA and affects the expression of certain genes that play a key role in cancer cell proliferation. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation of susceptible tumor cells. |
| RNA-lipoplex Cancer Vaccine BNT116 | A RNA-lipoplex (RNA-LIP)-based cancer vaccine containing six messenger ribonucleic acids (mRNA) each encoding for a different tumor-associated antigen (TAA) expressed in non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC), encapsulated in liposomes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of the RNA-lipoplex cancer vaccine BNT116, the liposomes protect the RNA from degradation in the bloodstream, travel to the spleen and are taken up by antigen-presenting cells (APCs). The RNA ... |
| RNR Inhibitor BBI-825 | An orally available small molecule selective inhibitor of ribonucleotide reductase (RNR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, RNR inhibitor BBI-825 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of RNR, which decreases the pool of deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates (dNTPs) available for DNA synthesis. This disrupts DNA synthesis and extrachromosomal DNA (ecDNA) assembly and repair, resulting in cell cycle arrest and tumor growth inhibition. RNR, an enzyme that cataly... |
| RNR Inhibitor COH29 | An orally available, aromatically substituted thiazole and inhibitor of the human ribonucleotide reductase (RNR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the RNR inhibitor COH29 binds to the ligand-binding pocket of the RNR M2 subunit (hRRM2) near the C-terminal tail. This blocks the interaction between the hRRM1 and hRRM2 subunits and interferes with the assembly of the active hRRM1/hRRM2 complex of RNR. Inhibition of RNR activity decreases the pool of deoxyribonucl... |
| RNR Subunits Interaction Inhibitor TAS1553 | An orally available human ribonucleotide reductase (RNR) subunits interaction inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, the RNR subunits interaction inhibitor TAS1553 blocks the protein-protein interaction between and interferes with the assembly of the RNR subunits R1 and R2. This prevents RNR activity and decreases the pool of deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates (dNTPs) available for DNA synthesis. The resulting decrease in DNA synthes... |
| Robatumumab | A recombinant, fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor (IGF-1R) with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-IGF-1R fully human monoclonal antibody SCH 717454 binds to membrane-bound IGF-1R, preventing binding of the ligand IGF-1 and the subsequent triggering of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway; downregulation of this survival pathway may result in the induction of apoptosis and decreased cellular proliferation. The activation of IGF-1R, a tyro... |
| Roblitinib | An inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, roblitinib binds to and inhibits the activity of FGFR4, which leads to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in FGFR4-overexpressing cells. FGFR4 is a receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated in certain tumor cells and involved in tumor cell proliferation, differentiation, angiogenesis, and survival. |
| ROBO1-targeted BiCAR-NKT Cells | A preparation of natural killer T (NKT) cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for roundabout homolog 1 (ROBO1, Robo1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the ROBO1-targeted BiCAR-NK/T cells target and bind to ROBO1 expressed on the surface of tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in ROBO1-expressing tumor cells. ROBO1, a member of the axon guidance receptor family, is often overexpressed in a variety of ... |
| Rocakinogene Sifuplasmid | A plasmid DNA vaccine encoding the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) with potential immunoactivating activity. Upon intramuscular delivery by electroporation of rocakinogene sifuplasmid, IL-12 is translated in cells and activates the immune system by promoting the activation of natural killer cells (NK cells), inducing secretion of interferon-gamma and promoting cytotoxic T-cell responses against tumor cells. This may result in both immune-mediated tumor cell death and th... |
| Rocapuldencel-T | A cancer vaccine in which autologous dendritic cells are transfected with patient-specific renal cell carcinoma (RCC) RNA and a synthetic, truncated human CD40 ligand (CD40L) RNA with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Individual RCC-specific RNA, encoding a unique repertoire of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) (including telomerase reverse transcriptase, G250, and oncofetal antigen) is electroporated into autologous dendritic cells (DCs), transfected with synthetic RN... |
| Rocbrutinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, rocbrutinib covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of wild-type (WT) BTK and non-covalently binds to inhibits the activity of C481 mutated BTK, a resistance mutation in the BTK active site in which cysteine is substituted for serine at residue 481 (C481S). This prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen recep... |
| Rociletinib | An orally available small molecule, irreversible inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Rociletinib binds to and inhibits mutant forms of EGFR, including T790M, thereby leading to cell death of resistant tumor cells. Compared to other EGFR inhibitors, CO-1686 inhibits T790M, a secondary acquired resistance mutation, as well as other mutant EGFRs and may have therapeutic benefits in tumors with T790M-mediated resistance to other EGFR tyrosi... |
| Rodorubicin | A synthetic tetraglycosidic anthracycline antibiotic with antineoplastic activity. Rodorubicin appears to intercalate DNA and causes cell death. Due to its severe cardiotoxic effects, this agent was never marketed. |
| Roducitabine | An orally available small molecule and nucleoside antimetabolite with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, roducitabine is taken up by cells through a carrier-mediated transporter, phosphorylated by uridine cytidine kinase (UCK) and then further phosphorylated to its diphosphate (RX-DP) and triphosphate forms (RX-TP). The triphosphate form is incorporated into RNA and inhibits RNA synthesis. The diphosphate RX-DP is reduced by ribonucleotide reductase (RR) to dRX-DP; its tr... |
| Rofecoxib | A synthetic, nonsteroidal derivative of phenyl-furanone with antiinflammatory, antipyretic and analgesic properties and potential antineoplastic properties.  Rofecoxib binds to and inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), resulting in an inhibition of the conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandins.  COX-related metabolic pathways may represent key regulators of cell proliferation and neo-angiogenesis. Some epithelial tumor cell types overexpress pro-angiogenic COX-2. (NCI04) |
| Roflumilast | An orally available, long-acting inhibitor of phosphodiesterase (PDE) type 4 (PDE4), with anti-inflammatory and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, roflumilast and its active metabolite roflumilast N-oxide selectively and competitively bind to and inhibit PDE4, which leads to an increase of both intracellular levels of cyclic-3',5'-adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) and cAMP-mediated signaling. cAMP prevents phosphorylation of spleen tyrosine kinase (SYK) and abrogates activ... |
| Rogaratinib | A pan inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Rogaratinib inhibits the activities of FGFRs, which may result in the inhibition of both tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation, and the induction of tumor cell death. FGFRs are a family of receptor tyrosine kinases, which may be upregulated in various tumor cell types and may be involved in tumor cell differentiation and proliferation, tumor angiogenesis, ... |
| Rogletimide | An orally active aminoglutethimide derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Rogletimide reversibly inhibits the activity of aromatase, a cytochrome P450 family enzyme found in many tissues and the key enzyme in the oxidative aromatization process of androgens to estrogens. In estrogen-dependent cancers, the inhibition of aromatase by this agent leads to a reduction in the synthesis of estrogen, thereby inhibiting estrogen-mediated signal transduction and consequently reducing tumor ... |
| Rolinsatamab Talirine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a proprietary monoclonal antibody against the prolactin receptor (PRLR) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of rolinsatamab talirine, rolinsatamab targets and binds to PRLR expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, talirine is released and kills the PRLR-expressing tumor cells, through an as of yet unknown mechanism of action. PRLR, a tumor-ass... |
| Romidepsin | A bicyclic depsipeptide antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Chromobacterium violaceum with antineoplastic activity. After intracellular activation, romidepsin binds to and inhibits histone deacetylase (HDAC), resulting in alterations in gene expression and the induction of cell differentiation, cell cycle arrest, and apoptosis. This agent also inhibits hypoxia-induced angiogenesis and depletes several heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90)-dependent oncoproteins. |
| Roneparstat | An N-acetylated, glycol-split form of heparin that is devoid of anticoagulant activity and is an inhibitor of heparanase with antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, roneparstat inhibits the activity of heparanase. This prevents the heparanase-mediated cleavage of heparan sulfate (HS) proteoglycans on cell surfaces and within the extracellular matrix. In addition, this agent prevents the heparanase-induced production of a number of angiogenic growth fac... |
| Roniciclib | An orally bioavailable cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Roniciclib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK1/Cyclin B, CDK2/Cyclin E, CDK4/Cyclin D1, and CDK9/Cyclin T1, serine/threonine kinases that play key roles in the regulation of the cell cycle progression and cellular proliferation. Inhibition of these kinases leads to cell cycle arrest during the G1/S transition, thereby leading to an induction of apoptosis, and inhibition of... |
| Ropeginterferon Alfa-2B | A long-acting formulation of recombinant interferon alpha subtype 2b (IFN-a2b), in which IFN-a2b is coupled, via proline, to polyethylene glycol (PEG), with antiviral, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of ropeginterferon alfa-2b, IFN-a2b targets and binds to specific IFN cell-surface receptors. This activates IFN-mediated signal transduction pathways and induces the transcription and translation of genes with IFN-specific response elements (ISREs). Their prot... |
| Ropidoxuridine | An orally available 5-substituted 2-pyrimidinone-2'-deoxyribonucleoside analogue and prodrug of 5-iododeoxyuridine (IUdR), an iodinated analogue of deoxyuridine, with radiosensitizing activity. Upon oral administration, ropidoxuridine (IPdR) is efficiently converted to idoxuridine (IUdR) by a hepatic aldehyde oxidase. In turn, IUdR is incorporated into DNA during replication, thereby sensitizing cells to ionizing radiation by increasing DNA strand breaks. Compared to IUdR, ropidoxuridine is a... |
| Ropocamptide | A synthetic form of a human antimicrobial peptide (37 amino acids), belonging to the cathelicidin family, with antimicrobial, anti-inflammatory, immunostimulating and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral injection of the ropocamptide, this peptide increases p53 expression, and induces phosphatidylserine externalization, DNA fragmentation, cell cycle arrest and caspase-independent apoptosis-inducing factor (AIF)/ endonuclease G (EndoG)-mediated apoptotic cell death in suscept... |
| Roquinimex | A quinoline-3-carboxamide with potential antineoplastic activity.  Roquinimex inhibits endothelial cell proliferation, migration, and basement membrane invasion; reduces the secretion of the angiogenic factor tumor necrosis factor alpha by tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs); and inhibits angiogenesis.  This agent is also an immune modulator that appears to alter cytokine profiles and enhance the activity of T cells, natural killer cells, and macrophages. (NCI04) |
| ROR1 CAR-specific Autologous T-Lymphocytes | A mixture of two T-lymphocyte preparations expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1) single chain variable fragment (scFv) fused to either the co-stimulatory signaling domain cluster of differentiation 28 (CD28), and the zeta chain of the T-cell receptor (TCR)/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (ROR1CD28zeta), or the co-stimulatory signaling domain cluster of differentiation 137 (CD137; 4-1BB), and the zeta chain of the T-cel... |
| ROS1 Inhibitor JYP0322 | An orally available selective inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase c-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ROS1 inhibitor JYP0322 targets, binds to and inhibits ROS1. This inhibits proliferation of ROS1-driven tumor cells. ROS1, overexpressed, rearranged and/or mutated in certain cancer cells, plays a key role in cell growth and survival of various types of cancer cells. |
| ROS1/TRK/ALK Inhibitor TY-2136b | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of multiple kinases, including the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), c-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), and the tropomyosin-related-kinase (tyrosine receptor kinase; TRK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ROS1/TRK/ALK inhibitor TY-2136b targets, binds to and inhibits ROS1, TRK, ALK alterations and resistance mutations, including acquired ROS1/TRK/ALK mutations and especially solvent front substitutions such as RO... |
| Rosabulin | A small molecule vascular disrupting agent, with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Rosabulin binds to tubulin in a similar manner as colchicine and inhibits microtubule assembly. This results in the disruption of the cytoskeleton of tumor endothelial cells, ultimately leading to cell cycle arrest and blockage of cell division. By destroying proliferating vascular cells, blood flow to the tumor is reduced and eventually leads to a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. |
| Rose Bengal Solution PV-10 | An injectable ten percent solution of rose bengal disodium, an iodinated fluorescein derivative, with potential antineoplastic and radiosensitizing activities. When injected into tumor tissue, PV-10 specifically targets and concentrates in tumor cells, producing cytotoxic singlet oxygen when exposed to ionizing radiation. In addition, PV-10 may stimulate an anti-tumor immune response. |
| Rosiglitazone Maleate | The maleate salt of rosiglitazone, an orally-active thiazolidinedione with antidiabetic properties and potential antineoplastic activity.  Rosiglitazone activates peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma), a ligand-activated transcription factor, thereby inducing cell differentiation and inhibiting cell growth and angiogenesis.  This agent also modulates the transcription of insulin-responsive genes, inhibits macrophage and monocyte activation, and stimulates adipocyte dif... |
| Rosmantuzumab | An immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 humanized monoclonal antibody targeting human R-spondin 3 (RSPO3), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, rosmantuzumab targets and binds to RSPO3 expressed on tumor cells. This prevents the activation of RSPO3, and inhibits both the binding of RSPO3 to leucine-rich repeat-containing G-coupled receptors (LGRs) and the activation of the RSPO-LGR pathway. This may result in an inhibition of both cancer stem cell... |
| Rosopatamab | A humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against the external domain of the Prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), overexpressed in the malignant prostate and its metastases. Although PSMA is not a biomarker of disease progression, over-expression indicates an aggressive phenotype of the prostate cancer. Rosopatamab was generated by replacing murine Ig sequences with human ones, thereby MoAb huJ591can be administered to patients on multiple occasions over long time periods without inducing ... |
| Rosuvastatin | A statin with antilipidemic and potential antineoplastic activities. Rosuvastatin selectively and competitively binds to and inhibits hepatic hydroxymethyl-glutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, the enzyme which catalyzes the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate, a precursor of cholesterol. This leads to a decrease in hepatic cholesterol levels and increase in uptake of LDL cholesterol. In addition, rosuvastatin, like other statins, exhibits pro-apoptotic, growth inhibitory, and pro-differen... |
| Rovalpituzumab Tesirine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) containing a humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody (MAb) directed against the delta-like protein 3 (DLL3), conjugated to the cytotoxic pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer D6.5 (SC-DR002) via a maleimide-containing linker with an eight-carbon polyethylene glycol spacer and a cathepsin B-cleavable valine-alanine dipeptide, with potential antineoplastic activity. The MAb moiety of rovalpituzumab tesirine selectively binds to DLL3 on tumor cell surfaces. Upon internali... |
| RSK1-4 Inhibitor PMD-026 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinase p90 ribosomal S6 kinase (p90RSK; RSK) subtypes 1-4, with high selectivity for RSK subtype 2 (RSK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the RSK1-4 inhibitor PMD-026, this agent targets and inhibits the RSK subtypes, thereby inhibiting RSK-mediated signaling. This prevents the phosphorylation and activation of the transcription factor Y-box binding protein-1 (YB-1) and leads to cell cycle arrest, an indu... |
| Rubitecan | A semisynthetic agent related to camptothecin with potent antitumor and antiviral properties.  Rubitecan binds to and inhibits the enzyme topoisomerase I and induces protein-linked DNA single-strand breaks, thereby blocking DNA and RNA synthesis in dividing cells; this agent also prevents repair of reversible single-strand DNA breaks. (NCI04) |
| Rucaparib | An orally bioavailable tricyclic indole and inhibitor of poly(ADP-ribose) polymerases (PARPs) 1 (PARP1), 2 (PARP2) and 3 (PARP3), with potential chemo/radiosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, rucaparib selectively binds to PARP1, 2 and 3 and inhibits PARP-mediated DNA repair. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks, promotes genomic instability and induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. This may enhance the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging agents and reve... |
| Rucaparib Camsylate | The camsylate salt form of rucaparib, an orally bioavailable tricyclic indole and inhibitor of poly(ADP-ribose) polymerases (PARPs) 1 (PARP1), 2 (PARP2) and 3 (PARP3), with potential chemo/radiosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, rucaparib selectively binds to PARP1, 2 and 3 and inhibits PARP-mediated DNA repair. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks, promotes genomic instability and induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. This may enhance the cytoto... |
| Rucaparib Phosphate | The phosphate salt form of rucaparib, an orally bioavailable tricyclic indole and inhibitor of poly(ADP-ribose) polymerases (PARPs) 1 (PARP1), 2 (PARP2) and 3 (PARP3), with potential chemo/radiosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, rucaparib selectively binds to PARP1, 2 and 3 and inhibits PARP-mediated DNA repair. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks, promotes genomic instability and induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. This may enhance the cytoto... |
| Rucosopasem Manganese | A mimetic of the enzyme superoxide dismutase (SOD) that may potentially be used to increase the anti-cancer efficacy of stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT). Upon administration, rucosopasem manganese may mimic native SODs and catalyze the formation of molecular oxygen and hydrogen peroxide from the burst of superoxide anion present in the irradiated tissues upon radiation. As hydrogen peroxide is less toxic than superoxide to normal tissues, but more toxic to cancer cells, this may inc... |
| Rulonilimab | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration,rulonilimab targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmem... |
| Runimotamab | An anti-human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)/anti-CD3 T-cell-dependent bispecific (TDB) monoclonal antibody with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, runimotamab possesses two antigen recognition sites, one for HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor overexpressed by many cancer cell types, and one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that interact with the T-cell receptor (TCR). Upon administration of runimotamab, this bi... |
| Rupitasertib | An orally available inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinases ribosomal protein S6 Kinase (p70S6K) and Akt (protein kinase B), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, rupitasertib binds to and inhibits the activity of p70S6K and Akt. This prevents the activation of the PI3K/Akt/p70S6K signaling pathway and inhibits tumor cell proliferation in cancer cells that have an overactivated PI3K/Akt/p70S6K signaling pathway. Constitutive activation and dysregulated signali... |
| Ruserontinib | An orally available inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3, STK1, CD135 or FLK2), and the non-receptor tyrosine kinase ABL (Abl), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ruserontinib specifically binds to and inhibits EGFR, FLT3 and Abl, which interferes with the activation of EGFR-, FLT3- and Abl-mediated signal transduction pathways and reduces cell proliferation in cancer cells that overexpress EGFR, FLT3 and/or Abl. E... |
| Ruthenium Ru-106 | A radioactive isotope of the rare element ruthenium, a member of the light platinum group. A radioactive plaque containing ruthenium 106 may be inserted into the eye to irradiate ophthalmic tumors. (NCI04) |
| Ruthenium-based Small Molecule Therapeutic BOLD-100 | A ruthenium-based, small molecule that selectively inhibits stress-induced upregulation of GRP78, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanisms(s) through which this agent exerts its effects have yet to be fully elucidated, upon administration, BOLD-100 may selectively inhibit stress-induced upregulation of GRP78, thereby preventing the activation of multiple GRP78-mediated pathways and blocking GRP78-induced suppression of apoptotic pathways. This may lead to the indu... |
| Ruthenium-based Transferrin Targeting Agent NKP-1339 | A ruthenium-containing cancer agent targeting transferrin with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, NKP-1339 (Ru3+) binds to transferrin (Tf) and is taken up via Tf receptors (TfR), which are overexpressed on cancer cells. Once inside the cell, NKP-1339 is released from Tf and is reduced, within the acidic environment of the endosomes, to its active form NKP-119 (Ru2+). In turn, the active form induces a redox reaction, thereby leading to the formation of reacti... |
| Ruxolitinib | An orally bioavailable Janus-associated kinase (JAK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Ruxolitinib specifically binds to and inhibits protein tyrosine kinases JAK 1 and 2, which may lead to a reduction in inflammation and an inhibition of cellular proliferation. The JAK-STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) pathway plays a key role in the signaling of many cytokines and growth factors and is involved in cellular proliferation, growth, h... |
| Ruxolitinib Phosphate | The phosphate salt form of ruxolitinib, an orally bioavailable Janus-associated kinase (JAK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Ruxolitinib specifically binds to and inhibits protein tyrosine kinases JAK 1 and 2, which may lead to a reduction in inflammation and an inhibition of cellular proliferation. The JAK-STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) pathway plays a key role in the signaling of many cytokines and growth factors and is invol... |
| Ruxoprubart | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against complement factor Bb (FBb; Bb) that can be used to treat various alternate pathway (AP)-mediated diseases. Upon administration, ruxoprubart selectively targets, binds to and neutralizes Bb. This prevents the binding of Bb to C3 and prevents the formation of protease C3 convertase (C3Bb). This prevents the conversion of C3 into the fragments C3a and C3b, thereby preventing C3b deposition and C3b-mediated extravascular hemolysis. Also, by prevent... |
| Ruxotemitide | A peptide derived from human lactoferrin, with potential lytic and immunostimulating activities. Upon transdermal injection directly into the tumor, ruxotemitide may bind to the tumor cell membranes and subsequently lyse tumor cells, thereby inducing tumor cell necrosis. In turn, presentation of the tumor antigens to the immune system may induce systemic innate and adaptive immune responses mediated by anti-tumor natural killer (NK) cells, cytotoxic T lymphocytes, and natural killer T (NKT) c... |
| RXR-alpha Variant-targeting Agent NM6603 | An orally bioavailable small molecule agent that targets retinoid X receptor alpha (RXR-alpha; RXRA) variant, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, RXR-alpha variant-targeting agent NM6603 selectively targets and binds to RXR-alpha variants and inhibits transforming growth factor-beta (TGFb)-mediated signaling pathway. This abrogates TGF-beta-mediated immunosuppression in the tumor microenvironment (TME), increases cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) activities, and inhib... |
| Sabarubicin | A disaccharide analogue of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin.  Sabarubicin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis.  This agent also induces apoptosis through a p53-independent mechanism.  Sabarubicin is less cardiotoxic than doxorubicin. |
| Sabatolimab | An inhibitor of the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, sabatolimab binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain immune cells, including tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell ly... |
| Sabizabulin | An orally bioavailable, small molecule tubulin inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic, antiviral and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon oral administration, sabizabulin binds to the colchicine-binding site of alpha- and beta-tubulin subunits of microtubules and crosslinks the microtubules, thereby inhibiting microtubule polymerization in tumor blood vessel endothelial cells and tumor cells. This blocks the formation of the mitotic spindle and leads to cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase. As... |
| Sacituzumab Govitecan | An antibody drug conjugate containing the humanized monoclonal antibody, hRS7, against tumor-associated calcium signal transducer 2 (TACSTD2 or TROP2) and linked to the active metabolite of irinotecan, 7-ethyl-10-hydroxycamptothecin (SN-38), with potential antineoplastic activity. The antibody moiety of sacituzumab govitecan selectively binds to TROP2. After internalization and proteolytic cleavage, SN-38 selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes, resulting in DNA breaks t... |
| Sacituzumab Tirumotecan | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) conjugated, via a methyl sulfonyl pyrimidine linker, to the belotecan derivative and topoisomerase I inhibitor tirumotecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of sacituzumab tirumoteca... |
| S-Adenosylmethionine | A nutritional supplement that is synthesized from adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and the amino acid methionine by the endogenous essential enzyme methionine adenosyltransferase (MAT), with potential antineoplastic activity.  Upon administration, S-adenosylmethionine acts as a methyl donor for various transmethylation reactions. In cancer cells, this agent induces the methylation of tumor promoting genes, reverses DNA hypomethylation, and leads to the suppression of oncogene transcription. This ... |
| Safimaltib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma translocation protein 1 (MALT1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, safimaltib targets, binds to, and prevents the activity of MALT1. This inhibits MALT1-dependent signaling, reduces interleukin-10 (IL-10) and upregulates interferon (IFN). This results in the inhibition of Janus kinase/signal transducers and activators of transcription (JAK/STAT) signaling and nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB... |
| Safimestomig | A humanized bispecific antibody targeting both the human cell surface antigen CD47 and the immunosuppressive ligand human programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, safimestomig targets and binds to both CD47 and PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells. The CD47 binding by safimestomig blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRP... |
| Safingol | A saturated derivative of sphingosine. As an inhibitor of protein kinase C (PKC), safingol competitively binds to the regulatory phorbol-binding domain of PKC, a kinase involved in tumorigenesis. This agent has been shown to act synergistically with other chemotherapeutic agents and may potentiate chemotherapy drug-induced apoptosis in vitro and in vivo. |
| Safusidenib | An orally available inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1; IDH-1; IDH1 [NADP+] soluble) mutant forms, including substitution mutations at the arginine in position 132, IDH1(R132) (IDH1-R132), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, safusidenib specifically binds to and inhibits certain mutant forms of IDH1, thereby inhibiting the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG) from alpha-ketoglutarate (a-KG). This prevents 2HG-mediated signaling... |
| Sagopilone | A fully synthetic low-molecular-weight epothilone with potential antineoplastic activity. Sagopilone binds to tubulin and induces microtubule polymerization while stabilizing microtubules against depolymerization, which may result in the inhibition of cell division, the induction of G2/M arrest, and apoptosis. The agent is not a substrate for the P-glycoprotein (P-gp) efflux pump and so may exhibit activity in multidrug-resistant (MDR) tumors. The epothilone class of metabolites was originall... |
| Salirasib | A salicylic acid derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Salirasib dislodges all Ras isoforms from their membrane-anchoring sites, thereby preventing activation of RAS signaling cascades that mediated cell proliferation, differentiation, and senescence. RAS signaling is believed to be abnormally activated in one-third of human cancers, including cancers of the pancreas, colon, lung and breast. |
| Salmonella enterica Serotype Typhimurium Expressing L-methioninase SGN1 | A genetically modified strain of Salmonella enterica, serotype typhimurium that expresses L-methioninase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Salmonella enterica serotype typhimurium expressing L-methioninase SGN1 selectively accumulates and replicates in tumor cells, inhibiting the growth of tumors. SGN1 also delivers the oncolytic enzyme L-methioninase, a pyridoxal phosphate-dependent enzyme that catalyzes the elimination of L-methionine, to tumor cells. This elimin... |
| Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi ZH9 | A formulation containing a live-attenuated strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhi, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi ZH9, the Salmonella in ZH9 may cause a Salmonella-induced systemic reprogramming of myeloid cells within the tumor microenvironment (TME). This enhances the recruitment of innate and adaptive immune cells, including the upregulation of co-stimulatory and major histocompatibility (MHC) molecu... |
| Salmonella VNP20009 | A genetically stable Salmonella typhimurium strain, attenuated by chromosomal deletion of the purI and msbB genes, with tumor-targeting activity. In rodent models, salmonella VNP20009 has been shown to selectively accumulate and grow in a variety of tumor types, inhibiting the growth of primary and metastatic tumors. This agent may be genetically engineered to contain transgenes that express therapeutic agents or cell surface tumor-associated antigen-specific antibodies, such as CEA-specific ... |
| Salt-inducible Kinase Inhibitor GRN-300 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the salt inducible kinases 2 (SIK2) and 3 (SIK3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of SIK inhibitor GRN-300, this agent targets, binds to and blocks the activity of SIK2 and SIK3. This prevents SIK2/3-mediated signaling, blocks centrosome separation, and inhibits proliferation in SIK2/3-overexpressing tumor cells. GRN-300 may enhance tumor sensitivity to other chemotherapeutic agents. SIK2/3, serine/threonine c... |
| Sam68 Modulator CWP232291 | A small molecule and prodrug of CWP232204 targeting Src associated in mitosis, of 68 kDa (Sam68 or KHDRBS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. CWP232291 is converted in serum into its active form CWP232204 which binds to Sam68, thereby resulting in the induction of apoptosis in selective cancer cells. Due to the multimodular structure of Sam68, the apoptosis mediated by CWP232204-Sam68 interaction can attribute from 1) activation of transcription factor NF-kB induced by tumor necrosis f... |
| Samalizumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human immunosuppressive molecule CD200 (OX-2) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Samalizumab binds to CD200, blocking the binding of CD200 to its receptor, CD200R, present on cells of the macrophage lineage; inhibition of CD200 may augment the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) mediated immune response against CD200-expressing tumor cells.  CD200 is a type 1a transmembrane protein, related to the B7 family of co-stimul... |
| Samarium Sm 153-DOTMP | A radioconjugate composed of the phosphonic acid chelator DOTMP (1,4,7,10-tetraazacyclododecane-1,4,7,10-tetramethylenephosphonic acid) conjugated to the beta- and gamma-emitting radioisotope samarium Sm 153, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of samarium Sm 153-DOTMP, the DOTMP moiety targets and binds to growing bone, thereby selectively delivering samarium Sm 153-mediated cytotoxic radiation to bone tumor and metastases, which may help destroy bone metastases and m... |
| Samatatug Zovodotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) comprised of a monoclonal antibody against human tissue factor (TF) conjugated via a linker to an auristatin payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-TF ADC XB002, the anti-TF antibody moiety binds to cell surface TF and is internalized. After internalization of the agent, the auristatin moiety is released. It then binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, which results in G2/M phase arrest and induces apoptosis of T... |
| Samotolisib | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of certain class I phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) isoforms and mammalian target of rapamycin kinase (mTOR) in the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Samotolisib inhibits both certain PI3K isoforms and mTOR in an ATP-competitive manner which may inhibit both the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway in and proliferation of tumor cells overexpressing PI3K and/or mTOR. The PI3K/mTOR pathway is upregulated in a variety of ... |
| Samrotamab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody against leucine-rich repeat containing 15 (LRRC15) linked, via the protease-cleavable valine-citrulline linker, to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of samrotamab vedotin, the samrotamab moiety targets and binds to LRRC15 expressed on cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) and tumor cells. Upon binding and internalizati... |
| Samuraciclib | An orally available, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (CDK7) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, samuraciclib selectively and competitively binds to the CDK7 ATP binding site, thereby inhibiting CDK7-mediated signaling. CDK7, a serine/threonine kinase, plays a role in controlling cell cycle progression, transcriptional regulation, and promotes the expression of key oncogenes such as c-Myc through the phosphorylation of RNA polymerase II. Inhibitio... |
| San Zhong Kui Jian Tang | A traditional Chinese herbal medicine containing sixteen or seventeen herbs, including berberine and baicalin, with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Although the mechanisms of action through which San Zhong Kui Jian Tang (SZKJT) exerts its effects are not yet fully elucidated, upon administration, SZKJT may reduce swelling, induce cell cycle arrest and apoptosis, and inhibit cancer cell proliferation. |
| Sapacitabine | An orally bioavailable pyrimidine analogue prodrug with potential antineoplastic activity. Sapacitabine is hydrolyzed by amidases to the deoxycytosine analogue CNDAC (2'-Cyano-2'-deoxyarabinofuranosylcytosine), which is then phosphorylated into the active triphosphate form. As an analogue of deoxycytidine triphosphate, CNDAC triphosphate incorporates into DNA strands during replication, resulting in single-stranded DNA breaks during polymerization due to beta-elimination during the fidelity c... |
| Sapanisertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of raptor-mTOR (TOR complex 1 or TORC1) and rictor-mTOR (TOR complex 2 or TORC2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Sapanisertib binds to and inhibits both TORC1 and TORC2 complexes of mTOR, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. TORC1 and 2 are upregulated in some tumors and play an important role in the PI3K/Akt/mTOR signaling pathway, which is frequently dysregulated in human cancers. |
| Sapecmeran Autogene | An mRNA-based, personalized cancer vaccine consisting of a self-amplifying mRNA (SAM), formulated in a lipid nanoparticle (LNP), targeting twenty tumor-specific neoantigens (TSNAs) that have been identified through genetic sequencing of a patient's tumor cells, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of sapecmeran autogene, the mRNA is taken up and translated by antigen presenting cells (APCs). Then, the expressed epitopes are presente... |
| Sapitinib | An erbB receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. erbB kinase inhibitor AZD8931 binds to and inhibits erbB tyrosine receptor kinases, which may result in the inhibition of cellular proliferation and angiogenesis in tumors expressing erbB. The erbB protein family, also called the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family, plays major roles in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. |
| Saracatinib | An orally available 5-, 7-substituted anilinoquinazoline with anti-invasive and anti-tumor activities. Saracatinib is a dual-specific inhibitor of Src and Abl, protein tyrosine kinases that are overexpressed in chronic myeloid leukemia cells. This agent binds to and inhibits these tyrosine kinases and affects cell motility, cell migration, adhesion, invasion, proliferation, differentiation, and survival. Specifically, Saracatinib inhibits Src kinase-mediated osteoclast bone resorption. |
| Saracatinib Difumarate | The difumarate salt of saracatinib, an orally available 5-, 7-substituted anilinoquinazoline with anti-invasive and anti-tumor activities. Saracatinib is a dual-specific inhibitor of Src and Abl, protein tyrosine kinases that are overexpressed in chronic myeloid leukemia cells. This agent binds to and inhibits these tyrosine kinases and affects cell motility, cell migration, adhesion, invasion, proliferation, differentiation, and survival. Specifically, Saracatinib inhibits Src kinase-mediate... |
| SarCNU | An alkylating chloroethylnitrosourea with antineoplastic activity.  Selectively accumulating in some tumor cells, SarCNU forms covalent linkages with nucleophilic centers in DNA, causing depurination, base pair miscoding, strand scission, and DNA-DNA cross-linking, which may result in cytotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Sardomozide | A methylglyoxal-bis(guanylhydrazone) (MGBG) derivative with potential antineoplastic and antiviral properties. Sardomozide selectively binds to and inhibits S-adenosylmethionine decarboxylase (SAMDC), an enzyme essential for the biosynthesis of polyamines, such as spermine and spermidine that bind to DNA and play critical roles in cell division, cell differentiation and membrane function. By inhibiting SAMDC, sardomozide reduces the intracellular polyamine concentration, thereby interfering w... |
| Sargramostim | A recombinant therapeutic agent chemically identical to endogenous human GM-CSF except a leucine substitution in position 23.  Binding to specific cell surface receptors, sargramostim modulates the proliferation and differentiation of a variety of hematopoietic progenitor cells with some specificity towards stimulation of leukocyte production and may reverse treatment-induced neutropenias. This agent also promotes antigen presentation, up-regulates antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (AD... |
| Sargramostim Plasmid DNA Pancreatic Tumor Cell Vaccine | A whole cell vaccine comprised of irradiated allogenic pancreatic tumor cells transfected with a plasmid DNA encoding human sargramostim (GM-CSF). Vaccination results in expression of GM-CSF, which induces proliferation and differentiation of hematopoietic lineage cells as well as stimulating macrophage and dendritic cell functions in antigen presentation and antitumor cell-mediated immunity. Furthermore, administration of this pancreatic tumor cell vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T lymphocyte... |
| Sargramostim Plasmid DNA Sarcoma Vaccine | An autologous sarcoma cell vaccine with potential immunostimulatory activity. Tumor cells harvested from a patient with sarcoma are transfected with a plasmid DNA encoding for human sargramostim (GM-CSF) using a particle-mediated gene transfer (PMGT) technique, which avoids the use of infectious components. Vaccination with an autologous sargramostim sarcoma vaccine produces high levels of GM-CSF, a cytokine that enhances antigen presentation by activated macrophages and increases the recogni... |
| Saruparib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP), with potential chemo/radiosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, saruparib selectively targets and binds to PARP and prevents PARP-mediated DNA repair of single-strand DNA breaks via the base-excision repair pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability and eventually leads to apoptosis. This may enhance the cytotoxicity of DNA-dam... |
| Sasanlimab | An inhibitor of the human inhibitory receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, sasanlimab targets and binds to PD-1 and blocks the interaction between PD-1 and its ligands, PD-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) and PD-1 ligand 2 (PD-L2). This prevents the activation of PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of natural killer (NK) cells and cytotoxi... |
| Satraplatin | An orally administered third generation platinum compound with potential antineoplastic activity. Satraplatin forms highly reactive, charged, platinum complexes which bind to nucleophilic groups in DNA, inducing intrastrand and interstrand DNA cross-links, as well as DNA-protein cross-links. These cross-links result in cell growth inhibition and apoptosis. |
| Savolitinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the c-Met receptor tyrosine kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Savolitinib selectively binds to and inhibits the activation of c-Met in an ATP-competitive manner, and disrupts c-Met signal transduction pathways. This may result in cell growth inhibition in tumors that overexpress the c-Met protein. C-Met encodes the hepatocyte growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase and plays an important role in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion, and ... |
| SB-AS15 Adjuvant | A vaccine adjuvant containing CpG 7909, monophosphoryl lipid, and QS-21 with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulatory activities. CpG 7909 is a synthetic 24-mer oligonucleotide containing 3 CpG motifs that selectively targets Toll-like receptor 9 (TLR9), thereby activating dendritic and B cells and stimulating cytotoxic T cell and antibody responses against tumor cells bearing tumor antigens. Monophosphoryl lipid is a detoxified derivative of lipid A, a component of Salmonella minnesota... |
| SBIL-2 | An retroviral vector encoding human IL-2 with potential antineoplastic property. SBIL-2 (Surgery Branch IL-2) can be used to transfect tumor infiltrating lymphocytes, which can then be re-introduced back to cancer patients, thereby stimulate T cell activation and immunopotentiation responses. |
| Scopoletin | A coumarin compound found in several plants including those in the genus Scopolia and the genus Brunfelsia, as well as chicory (Cichorium), redstem wormwood (Artemisia scoparia), stinging nettle (Urtica dioica), passion flower (Passiflora), noni (Morinda citrifolia fruit) and European black nightshade (Solanum nigrum) that is comprised of umbelliferone with a methoxy group substituent at position 6. Scopoletin is used to standardize and establish pharmacokinetic properties for products derive... |
| SDF-1 Receptor Antagonist PTX-9908 | A stromal cell-derived factor 1 (SDF-1; CXCL12) analog and inhibitor of C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4 (CXCR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PTX-9908 selectively targets and binds to CXCR4, thereby preventing the binding of CXCR4 to its ligand SDF-1. This inhibits receptor activation and results in decreased proliferation and migration of CXCR4-overexpressing tumor cells. The G protein-coupled receptor CXCR4, which is overexpressed in several tumor cell types,... |
| Sec61 Inhibitor KZR-261 | A small molecule inhibitor of the Sec61 translocon, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Sec61 inhibitor KZR-261 targets Sec61 and inhibits the translocation of multiple secreted and transmembrane proteins into the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) through the Sec61 channel. This inhibits the secretion pathway and prevents the expression of these secreted and transmembrane proteins, which may include cytokines, oncogenic receptors, angiogenic factors and immune checkpoint mol... |
| Seclidemstat | An orally available, reversible, noncompetitive inhibitor of lysine-specific demethylase 1 (LSD1, or KDM1A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, seclidemstat reversibly inhibits LSD1, a demethylase that suppresses the expression of target genes by converting the di- and mono-methylated forms of lysine at position 4 of histone 3 (H3K4) to mono- and unmethylated H3K4, respectively. LSD1 inhibition enhances H3K4 methylation and increases the expression of tumor supp... |
| Sedoxantrone Trihydrochloride | The trihydrochloride salt of the anthrapyrazole antineoplastic antibiotic sedoxantrone with potential antineoplastic activity. Sedoxantrone intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Segigratinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) types 1, 2, and 3 (FGFR1/2/3) and colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; CD115; M-CSFR), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, segigratinib binds to and inhibits FGFR1/2/3, which may result in the inhibition of FGFR1/2/3-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation in FGFR1/2/3-overexpressing tumor cells. 3D185 also targets and bind... |
| Selatinib Ditosilate | An orally bioavailable ditosilate salt form of selatinib, an analog of the quinazoline lapatinib and dual inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2 (ErbB-2 or HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, selatinib reversibly blocks phosphorylation of both EGFR and ErbB2, thereby suppressing tumor growth in EGFR/ErbB-2-overexpressing tumor cells. The tyrosine kinases EGFR and ErbB2 have been implicated in the growt... |
| Selective Cytokine Inhibitory Drug CC-1088 | An analog of thalidomide with potential antineoplastic activity that belongs to the functional class of agents called selective cytokine inhibitory drugs (SelCIDs).  SelCIDs inhibit phosphodiesterase-4 (PDE 4), an enzyme involved in tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF alpha) production.  CC-1088 inhibits production of the cytokines vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) (a pro-angiogenic factor) and interleukin-6 (IL-6). (NCI04) |
| Selective Estrogen Receptor Covalent Antagonist TQB3915 | An orally bioavailable, selective and covalent antagonist of estrogen receptor alpha (ERalpha; ERa; ESR1; nuclear receptor subfamily 3, group A, member 1; NR3A1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, selective estrogen receptor covalent antagonist TQB3915 selectively and covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of ERalpha. This inhibits the growth and survival of ERalpha-expressing cancer cells. ERalpha, a nuclear hormone receptor often overexpressed and/or m... |
| Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader AND019 | An orally bioavailable selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SERD AND019 specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader AZD9496 | An orally available selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, SERD AZD9496 binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in the degradation of the receptor. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader GDC-0927 | An orally available, nonsteroidal selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SERD GDC-0927 specifically binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in the degradation of the receptor. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader LSZ102 | An selective estrogen receptor (ER) degrader (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of LSZ102, this agent binds to the ER and induces the degradation of the receptor. This prevents ER activation and ER-mediated signaling, and inhibits the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader LX-039 | An orally available selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SERD LX-039 specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator CC-8490 | A benzopyran with potential antineoplastic activity.  CC-8490 acts as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), inhibiting the proliferation of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells.  This agent also inhibits growth and induces apoptosis of glioblastoma cells via a mechanism independent of estrogen receptor-related mechanisms. (NCI04) |
| Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator TAS-108 | A synthetic, antiestrogenic steroidal compound with potential antitumor activity. TAS-108 binds to and inhibits estrogenic receptor alpha (ERa), mainly expressed in the mammary gland and uterus and upregulated in estrogen-dependent tumors. Blockage of ERa by TAS-108 prevents the binding and effects of estrogen and may lead to an inhibition of estrogen-dependent cancer cell proliferation. TAS-108 also is a partial agonist of the estrogenic receptor beta (ERb), expressed in many tissues includi... |
| Selective Human Estrogen-receptor Alpha Partial Agonist TTC-352 | A benzothiophene and orally bioavailable selective human estrogen receptor alpha (ERalpha; ESR1; ERa) partial agonist (ShERPA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, TTC-352 mimics the naturally-occurring 17beta-estradiol (E2) and targets and binds to ERa located in the nucleus. This causes translocation of ERa to extranuclear sites. Nuclear export of ERa prevents normal ER-mediated signaling and inhibits proliferation of ER-positive tumor cells. TTC-352 causes tumor re... |
| Seliciclib | An orally available small molecule and cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor with potential apoptotic and antineoplastic activity. CDKs, serine/threonine kinases that play an important role in cell cycle regulation, are overexpressed in various malignancies. Seliciclib primarily inhibits CDK 2, 7, and 9 by competing for the ATP binding sites on these kinases, leading to a disruption of cell cycle progression. In addition, this agent seems to interfere with CDK-mediated phosphorylation of th... |
| Selicrelumab | A human immunoglobulin G2 (IgG2) monoclonal antibody agonist of the cell surface receptor CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, selicrelumab targets and binds to CD40 expressed on a variety of immune cell types. This induces CD40-dependent signaling pathways and triggers the cellular proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), and activates B-cells and T-cells, resulting in an enhanced anti-tumor immune response. CD40, ... |
| Selinexor | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of CRM1 (chromosome region maintenance 1 protein, exportin 1 or XPO1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Selinexor modifies the essential CRM1-cargo binding residue cysteine-528, thereby irreversibly inactivates CRM1-mediated nuclear export of cargo proteins such as tumor suppressor proteins (TSPs), including p53, p21, BRCA1/2, pRB, FOXO, and other growth regulatory proteins. As a result, this agent, via the approach of selective inhibition ... |
| Selitrectinib | An orally bioavailable, selective tropomyosin-related-kinase (tyrosine receptor kinase; TRK) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LOXO-195 specifically targets and binds to TRK, including the fusion proteins containing sequences from neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1 (NTRK1), 2 (NTRK2), and 3 (NTRK3).  This prevents neurotrophin-TRK interaction and TRK activation, which results in both the induction of cellular apoptosis and the inhib... |
| Selonsertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of apoptosis signal-regulating kinase 1 (ASK1), with potential anti-inflammatory, antineoplastic and anti-fibrotic activities. Upon oral administration, selonsertib targets and binds to the catalytic kinase domain of ASK1 in an ATP-competitive manner, thereby preventing its phosphorylation and activation. This prevents the phosphorylation of downstream kinases, such as c-Jun N-terminal kinases (JNKs) and p38 mitogen-activated protein kinase (p38 MAPK). By prev... |
| Selpercatinib | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of wild-type, mutant and fusion products involving the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, selpercatinib selectively binds to and targets wild-type RET as well as various RET mutants and RET-containing fusion products. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of tumors cells that exhibit increased RET activity. In addition, selpercatinib ta... |
| Selumetinib | An orally active, small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Selumetinib is an ATP-independent inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK or MAPK/ERK kinase) 1 and 2. MEK 1 and 2 are dual specificity kinases that are essential mediators in the activation of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK pathway, are often upregulated in various cancer cells, and are drivers of diverse cellular responses, including proliferation. Inhibition of both MEK1 and 2 by selumetinib prevents the activa... |
| Selumetinib Sulfate | The sulfate salt of selumetinib, an orally active, small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Selumetinib is an ATP-independent inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK or MAPK/ERK kinase) 1 and 2. MEK 1 and 2 are dual specificity kinases that are essential mediators in the activation of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK pathway, are often upregulated in various cancer cells, and are drivers of diverse cellular responses, including proliferation. Inhibition of both MEK1 and 2 b... |
| Semaxanib | A quinolone derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Semaxanib reversibly inhibits ATP binding to the tyrosine kinase domain of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), which may inhibit VEGF-stimulated endothelial cell migration and proliferation and reduce the tumor microvasculature. This agent also inhibits the phosphorylation of the stem cell factor receptor tyrosine kinase c-kit, often expressed in acute myelogenous leukemia cells. |
| Semuloparin | An ultralow-molecular-weight heparin (ULMWH) (Mw: 2000-3000 daltons)consisting of a polydisperse mixture of oligomeric heparin fragments with potential anticoagulant activity. Ultralow-molecular-weight heparin AVE5026 binds to and activates antithrombin III (ATIII), which may result in the inhibition of activated factor Xa and, to a much lesser extent, factor IIa (thrombin) and so the inhibition of fibrin formation. Compared to low-molecular-weight heparins (LMWHs), AVE5026 exhibits an even h... |
| Semustine | A methylated derivative of carmustine with antineoplastic activity. As an alkylating agent, semustine forms covalent linkages with nucleophilic centers in DNA, causing depurination, base-pair miscoding, strand scission, and DNA-DNA cross-linking, which may result in cytotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Senaparib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, senaparib selectively binds to PARP 1 and 2 and prevents PARP-mediated DNA repair of single-strand DNA breaks via the base-excision repair pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability and eventually leads to apoptosis. PARP catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear prote... |
| Sendegobresib | An orally bioavailable heterobifunctional protein degrader of bromodomain-containing protein 9 (BRD9; sarcoma antigen NY-SAR-29; rhabdomyosarcoma antigen MU-RMS-40.8), with potential antineoplastic activity. Sendegobresib is comprised of an E3 ligase-binding moiety and a BRD9-binding moiety. Upon oral administration, sendegobresib targets and binds to BRD9 with its BRD9-binding moiety. Upon BRD9 binding, the E3 ligase-binding moiety binds to cereblon (CRBN), a component of the CRL4-CRBN E3 ub... |
| Seneca Valley Virus-001 | A replication-competent oncolytic picornavirus with potential antineoplastic activity. Administered systemically, Seneca Valley virus-001 specifically targets and infects tumor cells with neuroendocrine characteristics. Upon infection, this agent replicates intracellularly, resulting in tumor cell lysis and reduced tumor cell proliferation. The selective tropism of virus replication may involve receptor-mediated internalization. |
| Seocalcitol | A vitamin D3 analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Seocalcitol binds to and activates the vitamin D receptor, a cytoplasmic polypeptide expressed in normal vitamin D responsive tissues, but also overexpressed in certain cancers including hepatocellular carcinoma and pancreatic cancer. Mediated through vitamin D receptor, this agent induces cancer cell differentiation, inhibits cancer cell growth and induces apoptosis. In addition, seocalcitol may also induce growth arrest and apopt... |
| Sepantronium Bromide | A small-molecule proapoptotic agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Sepantronium bromide selectively inhibits survivin expression in tumor cells, resulting in inhibition of survivin antiapoptotic activity (via the extrinsic or intrinsic apoptotic pathways) and tumor cell apoptosis. Survivin, a member of the inhibitor of apoptosis (IAP) gene family, is expressed during embryonal development and is absent in most normal, terminally differentiated tissues; upregulated in a variety of hum... |
| S-equol | An orally bioavailable, non-steroidal estrogen naturally produced by the metabolism of the isoflavonoid daidzein by human intestinal microflora, with potential chemoprotective and estrogen receptor (ER) modulating activities. S-equol preferentially binds to and activates the beta isoform of ER in certain target tissues, while having an antagonistic effect in other tissues. This modulates the expression of ER-responsive genes in a tissue-specific manner. This agent may increase bone mineral de... |
| Serabelisib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the class I phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) alpha isoform with potential antineoplastic activity. Serabelisib selectively inhibits PI3K alpha kinase, including mutations of PIK3CA, in the PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathway, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition in PI3K alpha-expressing tumor cells. By specifically targeting class I PI3K alpha, this agent may be more efficacious and less toxic than pan PI3K inhibitors. Dysregulation of the PI3K/... |
| Serclutamab Talirine | A antibody drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of serclutamab, an affinity-matured humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) conjugated to a talirine, a cytotoxic, DNA minor groove crosslinking agent and pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of serclutamab talirine, the serclutamab moiety targets and binds to EGFR on tumor cell surfaces. Following receptor internalization and lyso... |
| SERD SHR9549 | An orally available selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SERD SHR9549 specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that promotes ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| SERD ZB-716 | An orally bioavailable selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD) and a structural analog of fulvestrant, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SERD ZB-716 specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that promotes ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| SERD ZN-c5 | An orally available selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SERD ZN-c5 specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Serdemetan | An orally bioavailable HDM2 antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Serdemetan inhibits the binding of the HDM2 protein to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this HDM2-p53 interaction, the proteasome-mediated enzymatic degradation of p53 is inhibited, which may result in the restoration of p53 signaling and thus the p53-mediated induction of tumor cell apoptosis. HDM2 (human homolog of double minute 2), a zinc finger protein, is... |
| Sergiolide | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from Cedronia granatensis and other plant species with potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Seribantumab | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor ErbB3 (Her3) with potential antineoplastic activity. Seribantumab binds to and inhibits ErbB3 activation, which may result in inhibition of ErbB3-dependent PI3K/Akt signaling and so inhibition of cellular proliferation and differentiation. ErbB3, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is frequently overexpressed in solid tumors, including breast, ... |
| Serine/Threonine Kinase Inhibitor CBP501 | A peptide with G2 checkpoint-abrogating activity. G2 checkpoint inhibitor CBP501 inhibits multiple serine/threonine kinases, including MAPKAP-K2, C-Tak1, and CHK1, that phosphorylate serine 216 of the dual-specific phosphatase Cdc25C (cell division checkpoint 25 C); disruption of Cdc25C activity results in the inhibition of Cdc25C dephosphorylation of the mitotic cyclin-dependent kinase complex Cdc2/cyclin B, preventing entry into the mitotic phase of the cell cycle. |
| Serine/Threonine Kinase Inhibitor XL418 | A selective, orally active small molecule, targeting protein kinase B (PKB or AKT) and ribosomal protein S6 Kinase (p70S6K), with potential antineoplastic activity. XL418 inhibits the activities of PKB and p70S6K, both acting downstream of phosphoinosotide-3 kinase (PI3K). These kinases are often upregulated in a variety of cancers. Inhibition of PKB by this agent will induce apoptosis, while inhibition of p70S6K will result in the inhibition of translation within tumor cells. |
| Serplulimab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, serplulimab targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the... |
| Setanaxib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) oxidases (NOX) 1 and 4, with potential anti-inflammatory, anti-fibrotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, setanaxib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of NOX1 and NOX4. This inhibits NOX1- and NOX4- mediated signal transduction pathways, thereby reducing inflammation and fibrosis. By targeting NOX4-overexpressing cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) in the tumor microenv... |
| SETD2 Inhibitor EZM0414 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the histone methyltransferase (HMT) SETD2 (SET domain containing 2, histone lysine methyltransferase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SETD2 inhibitor EZM0414 binds to SETD2 and inhibits its activity. This prevents several key biological processes that are mediated by SETD2, including the methylation of histones and non-histone proteins, transcriptional regulation, RNA splicing, DNA damage repair and B cell develo... |
| Seviteronel | An orally available non-steroidal, lyase-selective inhibitor of the steroid 17-alpha-hydroxylase/C17,20 lyase (CYP17A1 or CYP17), with potential anti-androgenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, seviteronel selectively inhibits the enzymatic activity of the cytochrome P450 C17,20 lyase in both the testes and adrenal glands, thereby inhibiting androgen production. This may decrease androgen-dependent growth signaling and may inhibit cell proliferation of androgen-depende... |
| Shared Anti-Idiotype-AB-S006 | A murine monoclonal anti-idiotype antibody that targets human B-cell lymphomas with potential antineoplastic activity.  Shared Anti-Id-Ab-S006 binds to antigens on neoplastic B cells, resulting in tumor cell destruction by the reticuloendothelial system or cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL). (NCI04) |
| Shared Anti-Idiotype-AB-S024A | A murine monoclonal anti-idiotype antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Shared anti-id-Ab-S024A binds to tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) on the surface of neoplastic cells resulting in tumor cell destruction by the reticuloendothelial system or cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL). |
| Shark Cartilage | A nutritional supplement gleaned from the exoskeleton of the shark. Shark cartilage inhibits metalloproteinases (MMPs) and possesses antiangiogenic and antimetastatic properties. (NCI04) |
| Shark Cartilage Extract AE-941 | A multifunctional antiangiogenic agent derived from shark cartilage with potential antineoplastic activity. Shark cartilage extract AE-941 competitively inhibits the binding of pro-angiogenic vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) to its cellular receptor, thereby inhibiting endothelial cell proliferation. This agent also inhibits matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs), stimulates tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), and activates caspase-mediated apoptotic pathways in endothelial cells. |
| Shenqi Fuzheng Injection SQ001 | An injectable formulation composed of the two Chinese medicinal herbs Radix astragali, the root of astragalus membranaceus (huangqi) and Radix codonopsis, the root of Codonopsis pilosula (dangshen), with potential antineoplastic adjuvant and chemoprotective activities that may prevent cancer-related fatigue. Although the exact mechanisms by which shenqi fuzheng injection (SFI) have yet to be fully elucidated, the herbs may improve tumor response and/or reduce the toxicity of certain chemother... |
| Short Hairpin RNA-IL-6 Gene Silencing Anti-CD19 CAR T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19 and containing a short hairpin RNA (shRNA) against the pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-6 (IL-6), and linked to the intracellular signaling domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (TCRzeta; CD247; CD3zeta), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, short hairp... |
| Sho-Saiko-To | A botanical formulation with potential chemopreventive activities. Sho-Saiko-to, an herbal mixture, contains seven herbal extracts whose mechanism of action if not fully understood. There is evidence of antiproliferative effects against hepatocellular carcinoma in vitro. Other effects of this agent described in animal models include the prevention of liver injury and hepatocyte-regenerating activity. Antitumor effects associated with this herbal product may include induction of apoptosis, cel... |
| SHP-1 Agonist SC-43 | An orally available, small molecule agonist of Src homology region 2 domain-containing phosphatase-1 (SHP-1; tyrosine-protein phosphatase non-receptor type 6; PTPN6) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, SHP-1 agonist SC-43 enhances SHP-1 activity by impairing the association between the N-terminal Src homology 2 (N-SH2) domain and the protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) domain of SHP-1, triggering a conformational change of SHP-1 and relieving its autoinhibition. Activa... |
| SHP2 Inhibitor BBP-398 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SHP2 inhibitor BBP-398 targets, allosterically binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regul... |
| SHP2 Inhibitor ERAS-601 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SHP2 inhibitor ERAS-601 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regulates cell surv... |
| SHP2 Inhibitor ET0038 | An orally bioavailable allosteric inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SHP2 inhibitor ET0038 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regulates ... |
| SHP2 Inhibitor HBI-2376 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SHP2 inhibitor HBI-2376 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regu... |
| SHP2 Inhibitor HS-10381 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SHP2 inhibitor HS-10381 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regulates cell surv... |
| SHP2 Inhibitor JAB-3068 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SHP2 inhibitor JAB-3068 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regulates cell surv... |
| SHP2 Inhibitor JAB-3312 | An orally bioavailable allosteric inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SHP2 inhibitor JAB-3312 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regulate... |
| SHP2 Inhibitor PF-07284892 | A small molecule inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, SHP2 inhibitor PF-07284892 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regulates cell survival, di... |
| SHP2 Inhibitor RLY-1971 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SHP2 inhibitor RLY-1971 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regulates cell surv... |
| SHP2 Inhibitor SH3809 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SHP2 inhibitor SH3809 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regul... |
| Shu Yu Wan Formula | A traditional Chinese medicine comprising different herbs that may be used for a variety of medical purposes. Shu Yu Wan contains the following herbs: Da Zao (Fructus Jujubae), Shu Yu (Radix Dioscoreae Quinquelobae), Gan Cao (Radix Glycyrrhizae Uralensis), Shu Di Huang (Radix Rehmanniae Glutinosae Praeparata), Dang Gui (Radix Angelicae Sinensis), Shen Qu (Massa Medica Fermentata), Gui Zhi (Ramulus Cinnamomi Cassiae), Da Dou Juan (Semen Glycines Germinatum), E Jiao (Gelatinum Corii Asini), Ren... |
| Sialyl Lewis-Keyhole Limpet Hemocyanin Conjugate Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of the oligosaccharide antigen sialyl Lewis (CA19-9) conjugated to the nonspecific immunomodulator keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, sialyl Lewis-keyhole limpet hemocyanin conjugate vaccine may induce production of IgG and IgM antibodies as well as trigger an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumor cells expressing the sialyl Lewis antigen. Sialyl Lewis is a blood group antigen and a tu... |
| Sialyl Tn Antigen | A tumor-associated core-region carbohydrate antigen of epithelial mucin, expressed in most colon carcinoma, mucinous carcinoma, pancreatic cancer, gastric, lung, breast, and ovarian carcinoma. Sialosyl-Tn (STn) antigen has been shown to be highly sensitive and a specific marker of colorectal cancer, associated with more aggressive diseases and poor prognosis. STn antigen and its immediate precursor, Tn antigen, are mucin type glycoprotein structures associated with the earliest steps of mucin... |
| Sialyl Tn-KLH Vaccine | A vaccine containing a pancarcinoma carbohydrate antigen conjugated with keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential antineoplastic activity. Sialylated Tn antigen (sTn) is a monosaccharide glycan usually O-linked to serine or threonine residues of mucins found on most epithelial cancers. Conjugation with KLH, a hapten carrier and an immunostimulant, improves host immune responses. Vaccination with sTn-KLH vaccine may produce antibodies and elicit a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response a... |
| Sibrotuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against human fibroblast activation protein (FAP). FAP is a 95 kDa cell surface glycoprotein and an inducible tumor stromal antigen of epithelial cancers and of a subset of soft tissue sarcomas. FAP shows a very limited distribution pattern in normal tissues, thereby sibrotuzumab has possible diagnostic and therapeutic applications in epithelial cancers. |
| siG12D LODER | A proprietary, miniature biodegradable polymeric matrix containing small-interfering RNAs for the mutated KRAS oncogene, KRASG12D, (siG12D), with potential antitumor activity. Upon intratumoral injection, this siG12D is released locally, thereby preventing translation of KRAS proteins and potentially inhibiting growth of tumor cells overexpressing KRAS. KRAS, a member of the small GTPase superfamily, is mutated in over 90% of human pancreatic ductal adenocarcinomas (PDAC) and is associated wi... |
| SIK3 Inhibitor OMX-0407 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the salt-inducible kinase 3 (SIK3), with potential antineoplastic and chemosensitizing activities. Upon oral administration, SIK3 inhibitor OMX-0407 targets, binds to and blocks the activity of SIK3. This prevents SIK3-mediated signaling, inhibits SIK3-triggered phosphorylation of histone deacetylase 4 (HDAC4) and inhibits the associated transcriptional activity of NF-kB. This inhibits pro-survival signaling mediated by SIK3-HDAC4-nuclear factor kappa B (NF... |
| Silatecan AR-67 | A synthetic, highly lipophilic derivative of camptothecin, with potential antineoplastic and radiosensitizing activities. 7-tert-butyldimethylsilyl-10-hydroxycamptothecin binds to and stabilizes the topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complex. This inhibits the religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-stranded DNA breaks and produces lethal double-stranded DNA breaks when encountered by the DNA replication machinery, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and inducing apoptosis. Camptothecin readil... |
| Silicon Phthalocyanine 4 | A synthetic photosensitizer agent containing a large macrocyclic ring chelated with silicon. Silicon phthalocyanine 4 localizes primarily in mitochondrial cytosolic membranes and, after photoexcitation, forms reactive oxygen species that induce apoptosis. |
| Silmitasertib | An orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of the enzyme casein kinase II (CK2), with potential antineoplastic, anti-viral and immunomodulatory activities. Upon oral administration, silmitasertib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of CK2. This may inhibit proliferation of CK2-expressing tumor cells, and may also inhibit the replication of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus-2 (SARS-COV-2). In addition, this may restore normal host cell cytokine regulation, prevent c... |
| Silmitasertib Sodium | The sodium salt form of silmitasertib, an orally bioavailable small-molecule inhibitor of the enzyme casein kinase II (CK2), with potential antineoplastic, anti-viral and immunomodulatory activities. Upon oral administration, silmitasertib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of CK2. This may inhibit proliferation of CK2-expressing tumor cells, and may also inhibit the replication of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus-2 (SARS-COV-2). In addition, this may restore normal h... |
| Siltuximab | A chimeric, human-murine, monoclonal antibody targeting the pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin 6 (IL-6), with antitumor and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon intravenous administration of siltuximab, this agent targets and binds to IL-6. This inhibits the binding of IL-6 to the IL-6 receptor (IL-6R), which results in the blockade of the IL-6/IL-6R-mediated signal transduction pathway. This inhibits cancer cell growth in tumors overexpressing IL-6. |
| Simalikalactone D | A quassinoid phytochemical isolated from Simaba multiflora, Quassia africana and other plant species with potential antineoplastic activity.  This agent also has antimalarial and antiviral properties. (NCI04) |
| Simeprevir | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the hepatitis C virus (HCV) protease complex comprised of non-structural protein 3 and 4A (NS3/NS4A), with activity against HCV genotype 1. Upon administration, simeprevir reversibly binds to the active center and binding site of the HCV NS3/NS4A protease and prevents NS3/NS4A protease-mediated polyprotein maturation. This disrupts both the processing of viral proteins and the formation of the viral replication complex, which inhibits viral replication in H... |
| Simlukafusp Alfa | A recombinant fusion protein comprised of a human monoclonal antibody directed against fibroblast activation protein-alpha (FAP) linked to an engineered, variant form of interleukin-2 (IL-2v), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of simlukafusp alfa, the monoclonal antibody moiety recognizes and binds to FAP, thereby concentrating IL-2 in FAP-expressing tumor tissue. Subsequently, the IL-2 moiety of this fusion protein may stimulate a local immun... |
| Simmitinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of numerous tyrosine kinases (TKs) including fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2; KDR), and colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R), with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, simmitinib binds to and inhibits the activities of these TKs, thereby preventing both the activation of downstream signaling pathways and the proliferation of tumor c... |
| Simotaxel | A semi-synthetic, orally bioavailable, third-generation taxane derivative and microtubule-stabilizing agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, simotaxel binds to tubulin, promotes microtubule assembly and stabilization, and prevents microtubule depolymerization. This results in G2/M arrest, apoptosis and the inhibition of cell proliferation in susceptible tumor cells. This agent is a poor substrate for P-glycoprotein-related drug resistance mechanisms; therefore, it... |
| Simridarlimab | A recombinant bispecific antibody targeting both the human cell surface antigen CD47 and the immunosuppressive ligand human programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, simridarlimab targets and binds to both CD47 and PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells, with a higher binding affinity to PD-L1 and a lower binding affinity to CD47. The CD47 binding by simri... |
| Simtuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody against lysyl oxidase-like 2 (LOXL2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-LOXL2 monoclonal antibody GS 6624 targets and specifically binds to the scavenger receptor cysteine rich domain 4 (SRCR-4) on LOXL2, thereby preventing the crosslinking of collagen and inhibiting the recruitment and activation of fibroblasts. Inhibiting fibroblast activation and the subsequent production of growth factors and chemokines may lead to an inhibition of tumor cell pro... |
| Simurosertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cell division cycle 7 (cell division cycle 7-related protein kinase; CDC7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, simurosertib binds to and inhibits CDC7; this prevents the initiation of DNA replication during mitosis, which causes cell cycle arrest and induces apoptosis. This inhibits cell growth in CDC7-overexpressing tumor cells. CDC7, a serine/threonine kinase and cell division cycle protein, is overexpressed in a variety of cance... |
| Sintilimab | A recombinant human monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; PD1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, sintilimab binds to PD-1 and inhibits the binding of PD-1 to the PD-1 ligands programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1), and PD-1 ligand 2 (PD-L2). This prevents the activation of PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore im... |
| Siplizumab | A humanized monoclonal immunoglobulin G1 antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Siplizumab binds to CD2, a specific receptor found in T cells and NK cells, thereby triggering a host immune response that results in lysis of CD2+ cells, selective suppression of the immune system, and control of activated T cell growth. |
| Sipuleucel-T | A cell-based vaccine composed of autologous antigen-presenting peripheral blood mononuclear cells (enriched for a dendritic cell fraction) that have been exposed to a recombinant protein consisting of granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) fused to prostatic-acid phosphatase (PAP), a protein expressed by prostate cancer cells.  Upon administration, the vaccine may stimulate an antitumor T-cell response against tumor cells expressing PAP. (NCI05) |
| Siremadlin | An orally bioavailable human double minute 2 homolog (HDM2) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Siremadlin inhibits the binding of the HDM2 protein to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this HDM2-p53 interaction, the proteasome-mediated enzymatic degradation of p53 is inhibited, which may result in the restoration of both p53 signaling and p53-mediated induction of tumor cell apoptosis. HDM2, a zinc finger protein and negativ... |
| Sirexatamab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the WNT antagonist dickkopf homolog 1 (DKK1), with potential anti-osteolytic activity. Upon administration, sirexatamab binds to and inhibits DKK1, thereby restoring signaling through the WNT pathway, which may result in osteoblast differentiation and activation within the bone matrix and the reversal of tumor-induced osteolytic disease. DKK1, overexpressed by certain cancer cells, is an inhibitor of the WNT signaling pathway and prevents the m... |
| siRNA-Expressing SV40 | A simian virus 40 (SV40)-based shuttle vector, encoding small interfering RNA (siRNA), with potential antineoplastic activity. The expression of siRNA in target tumor cells transfected with an siRNA-expressing SV40 vector may result in siRNA-mediated silencing of target oncogenes and, so, the inhibition of tumor cell growth and the induction of tumor cell death. |
| siRNA-transfected Peripheral Blood Mononuclear Cells APN401 | Autologous peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) transfected ex vivo with small-interfering ribonucleic acid (siRNA) directed against the E3 ubiquitin ligase casitas B-lineage lymphoma-b gene (Cbl-b), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. The Cbl-b gene is silenced ex vivo through the binding of Cbl-b siRNA to Cbl-b mRNA, which prevents the translation of the Cbl-b protein in T-lymphocytes. Upon infusion, the activated, Cbl-b-silenced T-lymphocytes are able to in... |
| Sirolimus Albumin-bound Nanoparticles | The macrolide antibiotic rapamycin bound to nanoparticle albumin with immunosuppressant (see sirolimus) and potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Rapamycin binds to the immunophilin FK Binding Protein-12 (FKBP-12) to generate a complex that binds to and inhibits the activation of the mammalian Target Of Rapamycin (mTOR), a key regulatory kinase. In turn, inhibition of mTOR may result in the inhibition of the phosphatidylinositol 3 (PI-3) kinase/Akt pathway and vascular endot... |
| Sirolimus Topical Gel NPC-12Y | A topical gel formulation containing the macrolide sirolimus (rapamycin), with potential anti-proliferative and chemopreventive activities. Upon topical administration of sirolimus topical gel PTX-022, sirolimus migrates into the basal keratinocytes and is internalized by the affected cells. In turn, sirolimus binds to the immunophilin FK binding protein-12 (FKBP-12) and forms a sirolimus-FKBP-12 complex. This complex binds to and inhibits the activity of the serine/threonine kinase mammalian... |
| Sirolimus Topical Gel PTX-022 | A topical gel formulation containing the macrolide sirolimus (rapamycin), with potential anti-proliferative and chemopreventive activities. Upon topical administration of sirolimus topical gel PTX-022, sirolimus migrates into the basal keratinocytes and is internalized by the affected cells. In turn, sirolimus binds to the immunophilin FK binding protein-12 (FKBP-12) and forms a sirolimus-FKBP-12 complex. This complex binds to and inhibits the activity of the serine/threonine kinase mammalian... |
| SIRPa-4-1BBL Fusion Protein DSP107 | A bi-functional, trimeric, fusion protein consisting of the extracellular domains (ECDs) of human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha; SIRPa; CD172a) fused to a 4-1BB ligand (4-1BBL), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the SIRPa-4-1BBL fusion protein DSP107 selectively targets and binds to both CD47 expressed on tumor cells and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) expr... |
| SIRPa-Fc-CD40L Fusion Protein SL-172154 | A bi-functional fusion protein consisting of the extracellular domains (ECDs) of human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha; SIRPa; CD172a) and CD40 ligand (CD40L; CD154; TRAP; TNFSF5) linked via a human Fc domain, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the SIRPa-Fc-CD40L fusion protein SL-172154 selectively targets and binds to both CD47 expressed on tumor cells and CD40, a cell surface receptor that belongs to the tumor necrosis... |
| SIRP-alpha-Fc Fusion Protein HCB101 | A recombinant fusion protein composed of an extracellular domain of human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRP-alpha; SIRPa; CD172a) linked to an Fc domain derived from human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, SIRP-alpha-Fc fusion protein HCB101 selectively targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with endogenous SIRPa, an inhibitory prote... |
| Sirpiglenastat | A broad acting glutamine antagonist, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, DON (6-Diazo-5-oxo-L-norleucine), the active moiety of sirpiglenastat, irreversibly inhibits multiple enzymes involved in glutamine metabolism. Blocking glutamine metabolism inhibits proliferation in rapidly growing tumor cells and leads to an induction of cell death. Unlike normal healthy cells, glutamine-dependent tumors rely heavily on the intracellular conversion of exo... |
| Sirtratumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of sirtratumab, a monoclonal antibody directed against SLIT and NTRK-like protein 6 (SLITRK6), covalently linked to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent inhibitor of microtubule polymerization, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of sirtratumab vedotin binds to SLITRK6 expressed on tumor cells, which facilitates both the internaliza... |
| Site Specific Immunomodulator QBECO | A formulation composed of components of the inactivated bacteria Escherichia coli (E. coli), with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, site specific immunomodulator (SSI) QBECO stimulates the innate immune system by recruiting and activating M1 macrophages. This may restore the unhealthy and altered gut microbiome, restore the function in the gastrointestinal (GI) tact, restore the immune system and rebuild normal barrier function. In addition, by enhancing a... |
| Sitimagene Ceradenovec | A replication-deficient adenovirus type 5 (Ad5) with E1 and partial E3 deletions containing cDNA for the herpes simplex virus thymidine kinase (HSV-Tk), which, when administered in combination with ganciclovir (GCV), possesses potential antineoplastic activity. Following administration, transgene-expressing cells produce thymidine kinase, which phosphorylates GCV to ganciclovir triphosphate, a cytotoxic nucleotide analog that is incorporated into DNA resulting in chain termination and inducti... |
| Sitravatinib | An orally bioavailable, receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, sitravatinib binds to and inhibits the activity of several RTKs including hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; c-Met; MET), tyrosine-protein kinase receptor UFO (AXL receptor tyrosine kinase; AXL), mast/stem cell growth factor receptor (SCFR; c-kit; KIT), the receptor tyrosine kinase MER, discoidin domain receptor 2 (DDR2), vascular endothelial growth factor recept... |
| Sivifene | The phenylhydrazone 4,4'-dihydroxybenzophenone-2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone formulated as a topical agent with immunomodulating and potential antineoplastic activities. Applied topically as a gel, sivifene may stimulate a local immune response against human papillomavirus (HPV)-induced cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN). |
| Sizofiran | A soluble beta-D-glucan produced by the Basidiomycetes fungus, Schizophyllum commune Fries, with potential immunomodulating and antitumor activities. Although sizofiran's exact mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, this agent appears to stimulate the immune system by increasing cytokine production, activating macrophages and enhancing the activity of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PML) and natural killer (NK) cells. |
| SLFN12-PDE3A Complex Inducer BAY 2666605 | An orally bioavailable agent that triggers the formation of a complex of the two proteins Schlafen family member 12 (SLFN12) and phosphodiesterase 3A (PDE3A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SLFN12-PDE3A complex inducer BAY2666605 triggers the formation of the SLFN12-PDE3A complex. This stabilizes SLFN12 and alters the expression of a set of genes that regulate cell survival, death, and proliferation. This suppresses cell cycle progression and induces apoptos... |
| Smac Mimetic BGB-24714 | An orally bioavailable mimetic of the natural second mitochondrial-derived activator of caspases (Smac), with potential apoptotic-inducing, chemo-radio-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Smac mimetic BGB-24714 targets and binds to the Smac binding groove on inhibitor of apoptosis proteins (IAPs), including the direct caspase inhibitor X chromosome-linked IAP (XIAP), and the cellular IAPs 1 (c-IAP1) and 2 (c-IAP2). This inhibits the activities of these IAPs an... |
| SMAC Mimetic BI 891065 | A mimetic of second mitochondrial-derived activator of caspases (Smac/DIABLO) and inhibitor of IAPs (Inhibitor of Apoptosis Proteins), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Smac mimetic BI 891065 targets and binds to the Smac binding groove on IAPs, including the caspase inhibitor X chromosome-linked IAP (XIAP) and the cellular IAPs 1 and 2. This inhibits the activities of these IAPs and promotes the induction of apoptosis through apoptotic signaling pathways. IAPs are ... |
| Smac Mimetic GDC-0152 | A second mitochondrial activator of caspases (Smac) mimetic inhibitor of IAPs (Inhibitor of Apoptosis Proteins) with potential antineoplastic activity. Smac mimetic GDC-0152 binds to the Smac binding groove on IAPs, including the direct caspase inhibitor X chromosome-linked IAP (XIAP) and the cellular IAPs 1 and 2, which may inhibit their activities and promote the induction of apoptosis through apoptotic signaling pathways.  IAPs are overexpressed by many cancer cell types and suppress apopt... |
| Smac Mimetic GDC-0917 | An orally available, monovalent mimetic of second mitochondrial-derived activator of caspases (Smac/DIABLO) and inhibitor of IAPs (Inhibitor of Apoptosis Proteins) with potential antineoplastic activity. Smac mimetic GDC-0917 binds to the Smac binding groove on IAPs, including the direct caspase inhibitor X chromosome-linked IAP (XIAP) and the cellular IAPs 1 and 2. This inhibits the activities of these IAPs and promotes the induction of apoptosis through apoptotic signaling pathways.  IAPs a... |
| Smac Mimetic LCL161 | An orally bioavailable second mitochondrial-derived activator of caspases (SMAC) mimetic and inhibitor of IAP (Inhibitor of Apoptosis Protein) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. SMAC mimetic LCL161 binds to IAPs, such as X chromosome-linked IAP (XIAP) and cellular IAPs 1 and 2. Since IAPs shield cancer cells from the apoptosis process, this agent may restore and promote the induction of apoptosis through apoptotic signaling pathways in cancer cells. IAPs are overexpre... |
| SMARCA2 Degrader PRT3789 | A targeted protein degrader (TPD) of SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily A member 2 (SMARCA2; BRM), with potential antineoplastic activity. PRT3789 is comprised of an E3 ubiquitin ligase-binding moiety conjugated, via a chemical linker, to a SMARCA2-binding moiety. Upon administration of SMARCA2 degrader PRT3789, the SMARCA2-binding moiety specifically targets and binds to SMARCA2 and the E3 ubiquitin ligase-binding moiety targets and binds to th... |
| SMARCA2 Degrader PRT7732 | An orally bioavailable targeted protein degrader (TPD) of SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily A member 2 (SMARCA2; BRM), with potential antineoplastic activity. PRT7732 is comprised of an E3 ubiquitin ligase-binding moiety conjugated, via a chemical linker, to a SMARCA2-binding moiety. Upon oral administration of SMARCA2 degrader PRT7732, the SMARCA2-binding moiety specifically targets and binds to SMARCA2 and the E3 ubiquitin ligase-binding moie... |
| SMARCA2 Inhibitor LY4050784 | An orally bioavailable allosteric inhibitor of SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily A member 2 (SMARCA2; BRM), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SMARCA2 inhibitor LY4050784 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SMARCA2. This may lead to the inhibition of the SWI/SNF (BRG1/BRM-associated factor; BAF) chromatin remodeling complex, disrupt chromatin remodeling and gene expression, and result in the downregulat... |
| SMO Protein Inhibitor ZSP1602 | An orally bioavailable small molecule SMO (Smoothened) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. SMO inhibitor BMS-833923 inhibits the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway protein SMO, which may result in a suppression of the SHH signaling pathway.  SMO is a G-protein coupled receptor that lies just downstream of the SHH ligand cell surface receptor Patched-1 in the SHH pathway; in the absence of ligand Patched-1 inhibits SMO and ligand binding to Patched-1 results in increased levels of SMO.... |
| Smoothened Antagonist BMS-833923 | An orally bioavailable small molecule SMO (Smoothened) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. SMO inhibitor BMS-833923 inhibits the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway protein SMO, which may result in a suppression of the SHH signaling pathway.  SMO is a G-protein coupled receptor that lies just downstream of the SHH ligand cell surface receptor Patched-1 in the SHH pathway; in the absence of ligand Patched-1 inhibits SMO and ligand binding to Patched-1 results in increased levels of SMO.... |
| Smoothened Antagonist IPI-609 | A semi-synthetic cyclopamine analogue and an inhibitor of SMO and the Hedgehog (Hh) pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, smoothened antagonist IPI-609 targets, binds to and inhibits the cell membrane-spanning G-protein coupled receptor SMO, which may result in the suppression of Hh pathway signaling and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation and survival. SMO is activated upon binding of Hh ligand to the cell surface receptor Patched (PTCH); inappropriate acti... |
| Smoothened Antagonist LEQ506 | An orally bioavailable small-molecule Smoothened (Smo) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Smoothened antagonist LEQ506 selectively binds to the Hedgehog (Hh)-ligand cell surface receptor Smo, which may result in the suppression of the Hh signaling pathway, thereby inhibiting tumor cell growth. The Hh signaling pathway plays an important role in cellular growth, differentiation and repair. Dysregulated activation of Hh pathway signaling and uncontrolled cellular proliferation, ... |
| Smoothened Antagonist TAK-441 | An orally bioavailable pyrrolopyridine derivative and Smoothened (Smo) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Smo antagonist TAK-441 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity Smo, which is a cell surface co-receptor for ligands in the Hedgehog (Hh) family. This may result in a suppression of Hh-mediated signaling pathways, thereby inhibiting the growth of tumor cells in which this pathway is aberrantly activated.  Smo is a G-protein coupled receptor that lies just downstream ... |
| SN-38-Loaded Polymeric Micelles NK012 | A formulation consisting of polymeric micelles loaded with the irinotecan metabolite SN-38 with potential antineoplastic activity. SN-38-loaded polymeric micelles NK012 is an SN-38-releasing nanodevice constructed by covalently attaching SN-38 to the block copolymer PEG-PGlu, followed by self-assembly of amphiphilic block copolymers in an aqueous milieu. SN-38 (7-ethyl-10-hydroxy-camptothecin), a biological active metabolite of the prodrug irinotecan (CPT-11), binds to and inhibits topoisomer... |
| SNS01-T Nanoparticles | A colloidal mixture of nanoparticles consisting of small interfering RNA (siRNA) targeting the native eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5A (eIF5A), plasmids expressing a pro-apoptotic mutant of elF5A under the control of a B-cell specific promoter (B29), and a synthetic cationic polymer polyethylenimine (PEI) as a delivery vehicle, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the siRNA component of SNS01-T suppresses elF5A expression, thereby interfering with translatio... |
| Sobuzoxane | The orally available active prodrug of ICRF-154, a bisdioxopiperazine derivative, with cardioprotective and antineoplastic activities. Like other ICRF compounds, sobuzoxane and its active metabolite ICRF-154 interfere with topoisomerase II activity prior to the formation of intermediate cleavable DNA-enzyme complexes during the catalytic cycle resulting in tumor cell growth inhibition. Furthermore, sobuzoxane chelates metal cations thereby limiting the formation of free radical-generating ant... |
| Socazolimab | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, socazolimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 ... |
| Sodium Borocaptate | A boron-carrying compound. After parenteral administration, sodium borocaptate accumulates preferentially in tumor cells. When exposed to neutron irradiation, borocaptate absorbs neutrons and self-destructs releasing short-range alpha radiation and 'recoil' lithium in tumor cells, resulting in alpha radiation-induced tumor cell death. This highly selective, localized radiotargeting of tumor cells, known as boron neutron capture therapy (BNCT), spares adjacent normal tissues. (NCI04) |
| Sodium Butyrate | The sodium salt of butyrate with potential antineoplastic activity. Butyrate, a short chain fatty acid, competitively binds to the zinc sites of class I and II histone deacetylases (HDACs). This binding affects hyperacetylation of histones, resulting in a modified DNA conformation, which subsequently leads to the uncoiling or relaxing of chromatin. Enhanced accessibility of chromatin to transcription-regulatory complexes leads to increased transcriptional activation of various epigenetically ... |
| Sodium Dichloroacetate | The sodium salt of dichloroacetic acid with potential antineoplastic activity. Dichloroacetate ion inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase, resulting in the inhibition of glycolysis and a decrease in lactate production. This agent may stimulate apoptosis in cancer cells by restoring normal mitochondrial-induced apoptotic signaling. |
| Sodium Iodide I-131 | A radiopharmaceutical containing the beta- and gamma-emitting radioisotope I-131. After absorption, the iodide is distributed through the extracellular fluid of the body and accumulates in the thyroid gland, thereby allowing the imaging of the thyroid. |
| Sodium Metaarsenite | A highly soluble, orally available trivalent arsenic-containing telomerase inhibitor with potential antitumor activity. Although the exact mechanism through which sodium metaarsenite exerts its effect has yet to be fully elucidated, this agent appears to target and bind to telomeric sequences, specifically TTAGGG repeats, leading to a shortening of telomeres, and subsequent induction of apoptosis and inhibition of tumor cell growth. In addition, sodium metaarsenite also leads to the transloca... |
| Sodium Pentaborate Pentahydrate | The pentahydrate sodium salt form of the naturally occurring mineral and element boron, with potential radioprotective, cryoprotective, antioxidant, apoptotic, wound healing, anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, sodium pentaborate appears to exert various anticancer and protective activities via multiple mechanisms of actions (MoAs) even though the exact MoAs have yet to be fully elucidated. Sodium pentaborate causes gene expression alterations of multiple ess... |
| Sodium Phenylbutyrate | The sodium salt of phenylbutyrate, a derivative of the short-chain fatty acid butyrate, with potential antineoplastic activity. Phenylbutyrate reversibly inhibits class I and II histone deacetylases (HDACs), which may result in a global increase in gene expression, decreased cellular proliferation, increased cell differentiation, and the induction of apoptosis in susceptible tumor cell populations. |
| Sodium Salicylate | The sodium salt of salicylic acid. As a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), sodium salicylate irreversibly acetylates cyclooxygenases I and II, thereby inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis and associated inflammation and pain.  This agent may also activate mitogen-activated protein kinase (p38MAPK), thereby inducing apoptosis in cancer cells. (NCI04) |
| Sodium Selenite | An inorganic form of the trace element selenium with potential antineoplastic activity. Selenium, administered in the form of sodium selenite, is reduced to hydrogen selenide (H2Se) in the presence of glutathione (GSH) and subsequently generates superoxide radicals upon reaction with oxygen. This may inhibit the expression and activity of the transcription factor Sp1; in turn Sp1 down-regulates androgen receptor (AR) expression and blocks AR signaling. Eventually, selenium may induce apoptosi... |
| Sodium Stibogluconate | Pentavalent antimony (Sb) in differential complex formation with gluconic acid with leishmanicidal and potential antineoplastic activities. The Sb moiety of sodium stibogluconate (SSG) may inhibit protein tyrosine phosphorylases (PTPases) by covalently modifying sulfhydryl groups in PTPase cysteine residues, resulting in specific inactivation of SH2 domain-containing tyrosine phosphatases-1 and -2 (SHP-1 and SHP-2), PTPases which negatively regulate interferon (IFN) signaling; enhancement of ... |
| Sodium-Potassium Adenosine Triphosphatase Inhibitor RX108 | A small-molecule, inhibitor of sodium-potassium adenosine triphosphatase (Na+/K+-ATPase) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, RX108 inhibits the activity of the Na+/K+-ATPase, which prevents the activation of various signal transduction pathways that play a key role in tumor proliferation. This may lead to cell-cycle arrest, apoptosis, and autophagic cell death. Na+/K+-ATPase is overexpressed in certain tumor types and may serve as a scaffold for the assembly of multip... |
| Sofituzumab Vedotin | An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody targeting the MUC16 protein (CA-125) conjugated to, via a cleavable linker, the antimicrotubulin agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of sofituzumab vedotin selectively binds to MUC16. After internalization of the drug conjugate and proteolytic cleavage of the linker, MMAE binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, which results in ... |
| Solitomab | A recombinant bispecific monoclonal antibody directed against both CD3 and epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Solitomab attaches to both CD3-expressing T lymphocytes and EpCAM-expressing tumor cells, thereby selectively cross-linking tumor and T lymphocytes; this may result in the recruitment of cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) to T lymphocyte/tumor cell aggregates and the CTL-mediated death of EpCAM-expressing tumor cells. CD... |
| Solnerstotug | A conditionally active, pH-sensitive human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immune checkpoint regulatory protein V-domain Ig suppressor of T-cell activation (VISTA; programmed death 1 homolog; PD1H; PD-1H), with potential negative immune checkpoint regulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, solnerstotug selectively targets, binds to and blocks the VISTA checkpoint within a low, acidic pH tumor microenvironment (TME). This prevents th... |
| Sonepcizumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P) with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, sonepcizumab binds S1P, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis. S1P is the extracellular ligand for the G protein-coupled lysophospholipid receptor EDG-1 (endothelial differentiation gene-1). |
| Sonesitatug Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of sonesitatug, a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, sonesitatug vedotin specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization and the release of MMAE, MMAE ... |
| Sonidegib | An orally bioavailable small-molecule smoothened (Smo) antagonist with potential antineoplastic activity. Sonidegib selectively binds to the hedgehog (Hh)-ligand cell surface receptor Smo, which may result in the suppression of the Hh signaling pathway and, so, the inhibition of tumor cells in which this pathway is abnormally activated. The Hh signaling pathway plays an important role in cellular growth, differentiation and repair. Inappropriate activation of Hh pathway signaling and uncontro... |
| Sonolisib | A small-molecule wortmannin analogue inhibitor of the alpha, gamma, and delta isoforms of phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) with potential antineoplastic activity. Sonolisib inhibits the production of the secondary messenger phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3) and activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway, which may result in inhibition of tumor cell growth and survival in susceptible tumor cell populations. Activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway is frequently associated w... |
| Sonrotoclax | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, sonrotoclax specifically binds to and inhibits the activity of the pro-survival protein Bcl-2. This restores apoptotic processes and inhibits cell proliferation in Bcl-2-overexpressing tumor cells. Bcl-2, a protein that belongs to the Bcl-2 family, is overexpressed in various tumor cell types and plays an important role... |
| Sontuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor associated antigen (TAA) mucin-1 (MUC1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, sontuzumab targets and binds to MUC1 expressed on the surface of tumor cells, which may activate the immune system to induce an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) against MUC1-expressing tumor cells. MUC1, a glycoprotein overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells, plays a key role in tumor cell survival and... |
| Soquelitinib | An orally available, small-molecule, irreversible inhibitor of interleukin-2 inducible T-cell kinase (ITK) with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, soquelitinib selectively and covalently binds to the cysteine residue at position 442 (CYS-442) of ITK, thereby disrupting ITK-mediated signal transduction, while sparing tyrosine-protein kinase TXK (resting lymphocyte kinase, RLK) activity. This may abrogate T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling through I... |
| Sorafenib | A synthetic compound targeting growth signaling and angiogenesis. Sorafenib blocks the enzyme RAF kinase, a critical component of the RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway that controls cell division and proliferation; in addition, sorafenib inhibits the VEGFR-2/PDGFR-beta signaling cascade, thereby blocking tumor angiogenesis. |
| Sorafenib Tosylate | The tosylate salt of sorafenib, a synthetic compound targeting growth signaling and angiogenesis. Sorafenib blocks the enzyme RAF kinase, a critical component of the RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway that controls cell division and proliferation; in addition, sorafenib inhibits the VEGFR-2/PDGFR-beta signaling cascade, thereby blocking tumor angiogenesis. |
| Sorghum bicolor Supplement | An herbal-based nutritional supplement containing the leaf sheaths of the plant Sorghum bicolor, with potential antioxidant, anti-inflammatory, chemopreventive and immunomodulating activities. Sorghum bicolor supplement contains various phytochemicals, including phenolic acids and polyphenols such as proanthocyanidins. Sorghum bicolor supplement is particularly rich in 3-deoxyanthocyanins, such as luteolinidin and apigeninidin, and appears to induce apoptosis and inhibit cell proliferation in... |
| SOS1 Inhibitor KQB198 | An orally available inhibitor of the guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) Son of sevenless homolog 1 (SOS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SOS1 inhibitor KQB198 selectively targets and binds to SOS1, thereby preventing the interaction of SOS1 with Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) in the guanosine diphosphate (GDP)-bound 'off' state, which is the inactivated state of KRAS. This abrogates the exchange of RAS-bound GDP for guanosine tripho... |
| SOS1 Inhibitor MRTX0902 | An orally available, brain-penetrant, phthalazine-based inhibitor of the guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) Son of sevenless homolog 1 (SOS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SOS1 inhibitor MRTX0902 selectively targets and binds to SOS1, thereby preventing the interaction of SOS1 with Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) in the guanosine diphosphate (GDP)-bound 'off' state, which is the inactivated state of KRAS. This abrogates the exchange... |
| SOS1 Inhibitor ZG2001 Tosylate | The tosylate salt form of ZG2001, an orally available inhibitor of the guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) Son of sevenless homolog 1 (SOS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ZG2001 selectively targets and binds to SOS1, thereby preventing the interaction of SOS1 with Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) in the guanosine diphosphate (GDP)-bound 'off' state, which is the inactivated state of KRAS. This abrogates the exchange of RAS-bound GDP f... |
| Sotevtamab | A humanized, immunoglobulin (Ig) G2 monoclonal antibody against the secreted form of human clusterin (sCLU) expressed by tumor cells, with potential antineoplastic and anti-metastatic activities. Upon administration, sotevtamab specifically binds to tumor-associated sCLU and inhibits its activity. This inhibits both the sCLU-mediated signal transduction pathways and epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT), which leads to the inhibition of tumor cell migration and invasion. In addition, sot... |
| Sotiburafusp Alfa | A recombinant, humanized fusion protein composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) fused to vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 1 (VEGFR-1/FLT-1), with potential anti-angiogenesis, immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of sotiburafusp alfa, the anti-PD-L1 antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to PD-L1 expressing cells i... |
| Sotigalimab | A humanized monoclonal antibody agonist of the cell surface receptor CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Similar to the endogenous CD40 ligand (CD40L or CD154), sotigalimab binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types. This triggers the cellular proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), and activates B-cells, and effector and memory T-cells. This results in an enhanced immune response against tumor cells. Sotigalimab also binds to an... |
| Sotorasib | An orally available inhibitor of the specific KRAS mutation, p.G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, sotorasib selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the KRAS p.G12C mutant. This may inhibit growth in KRAS p.G12C-expressing tumor cells. The KRAS p.G12C mutation is seen in some tumor cell types and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation. |
| Sotrastaurin | An orally available pan-protein kinase C (PKC) inhibitor with potential immunosuppressive and antineoplastic activities. Sotrastaurin inhibits both T- and B-cell activations via PKC theta and beta isozymes, respectively. Both PKCs are important in the activation of nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kB). Inhibition of PKC beta in B-cells results in prevention of NF-kB-mediated signaling and down regulation of NF-kB target genes. This may eventually lead to an induction of G1 cell cycle arrest and tumo... |
| Sotrastaurin Acetate | The acetate salt form of sotrastaurin, an orally available pan-protein kinase C (PKC) inhibitor with potential immunosuppressive and antineoplastic activities. Sotrastaurin inhibits both T- and B-cell activations via PKC theta and beta isozymes, respectively. Both PKCs are important in the activation of nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kB). Inhibition of PKC beta in B-cells results in prevention of NF-kB-mediated signaling and down regulation of NF-kB target genes. This may eventually lead to an ind... |
| Sotuletinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF-1R; CSF1R), with potential antineoplastic activity. CSF1R inhibitor BLZ945 selectively binds to CSF1R expressed on tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs), blocks the activity of CSF1R, and inhibits CSF1R-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits the activity and proliferation of TAMs, and reprograms the immunosuppressive nature of existing TAMs. Altogether, this reduces TAM-mediated immune suppression in the... |
| Sotuletinib Dihydrochloride | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF-1R; CSF1R), with potential antineoplastic activity. CSF1R inhibitor BLZ945 selectively binds to CSF1R expressed on tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs), blocks the activity of CSF1R, and inhibits CSF1R-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits the activity and proliferation of TAMs, and reprograms the immunosuppressive nature of existing TAMs. Altogether, this reduces TAM-mediated immune suppression in the... |
| Sovilnesib | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule inhibitor of the human kinesin-like protein KIF18A, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, sovilnesib selectively inhibits the activity of KIF18A. This may result in multipolar cell division and inhibit tumor cell proliferation. KIF18A, a mitotic kinesin-8 motor protein, plays an important role in the regulation of chromosome positioning during cell division and is overexpressed in certain cancers. Certain cancer cells with chr... |
| Sovipostobart | A probody composed of ipilimumab, a recombinant human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), linked to a proprietary masking peptide that covers the active antigen-binding site of the antibody through a protease-cleavable linker, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of sovipostobart, the masking peptide is cleaved by tumor-associ... |
| Sovleplenib | An orally available inhibitor of spleen tyrosine kinase (Syk), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of sovleplenib, this agent binds to and inhibits the activity of Syk. This inhibits B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling, which leads to the inhibition of B-cell activation, and prevents tumor cell activation, migration, adhesion and proliferation. Syk, a non-receptor cytoplasmic, BCR-associated tyrosine kinase, is expressed in hematopoietic tissues... |
| Soy Isoflavones | A dietary supplement isolated from soybeans containing phytoestrogen isoflavones. Although the mechanism of action is unclear, soy isoflavones mimic estrogen action mediated through estrogen receptors. In addition, this agent also modulates estrogen metabolism. As a result, soy isoflavones have been shown to reduce tumor cell proliferation and induce tumor cell apoptosis, as well as to be able to regulate hormone balance and reduce the risks of breast cancer, heart disease, and osteoporosis. |
| Soy Protein Isolate | A dietary protein isolated from soybeans that contains isoflavone phytoestrogens.  Soy protein isolate has been shown to reduce tumor incidence and growth in some animal studies, possibly by modulating estrogen metabolism, reducing tumor cell proliferation, and inducing tumor cell apoptosis.  Soy protein isolate may also inhibit endothelial cell proliferation.  Isoflavone phytoestrogens display mild estrogen-like activities which may regulate hormone balance and reduce the risks of breast can... |
| Sparfosate Sodium | The disodium salt form of N-phosphonacetyl-L-aspartate (PALA), a pyrimidine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity.  PALA inhibits pyrimidine biosynthesis and increases the extent to which fluorouracil is incorporated into RNA. (NCI04) |
| Sparfosic Acid | A stable transition state analogue for an aspartate transcarbamylase-catalyzed reaction with antineoplastic activity. Sparfosic acid is a stable transition analogue of the activated complex for the reaction catalyzed by aspartate transcarbamylase, the first step in the pyrimidine biosynthetic pathway. This agent inhibits de novo pyrimidine biosynthesis and increases the extent to which fluorouracil metabolites are incorporated into RNA. |
| Spartalizumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed death-1 (PD-1, PCD-1), with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, spartalizumab binds to PD-1 expressed on activated T-cells and blocks the interaction with its ligands, programmed cell death 1 ligand 1 (PD-L1, PD-1L1) and PD-1 ligand 2 (PD-L2, PD-1L2). The inhibition of ligand binding prevents PD-1-mediated signaling and results in b... |
| Spebrutinib | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of Bruton's agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, spebrutinib targets and covalently binds to BTK, thereby preventing its activity. By irreversibly inhibiting BTK, administration of this agent may lead to an inhibition of B cell receptor (BCR) signaling and may inhibit cell proliferation of B-cell malignancies. BTK, a cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase and member of the Tec family of kinases,... |
| Spevatamig | A bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of spevatamig, the anti-CLDN18.2 moiety selectively targets and binds to the TAA CLDN18.2 on CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells, thereby improving the binding of the anti-CD47 moiety to the CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells. T... |
| Spherical Nucleic Acid Nanoparticle NU-0129 | A spherical nucleic acid (SNA) gold nanoparticle formulation composed of small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) targeting the Bcl-2-like protein 12 (BCL2L12) sequence and conjugated to gold nanoparticles, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of SNA NU-0129, the siRNA prevents the translation of the BCL2L12 gene. Inhibiting the expression of BCL2L12 by NU-0129 induces tumor cell apoptosis. Bcl2L12, a protein belonging to the Bcl-2 protein family, is overexpressed in glioblastom... |
| Spirogermanium | A synthetic organometallic compound containing the element germanium with possible antineoplastic activity. Spirogermanium exhibits significant toxicity, particularly neurotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Spiromustine | A bifunctional nitrogen alkylating agent with antineoplastic activity and lipophilic properties. Containing a lipophilic hydantoin group that serves as a carrier to cross the blood brain barrier, spiromustine forms covalent linkages with nucleophilic centers in DNA, causing depurination, base-pair miscoding, strand scission, and DNA-DNA cross-linking, which may result in cytotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Spiroplatin | A synthetic derivative of cyclohexane sulfatoplatinum with antineoplastic properties.  Spiroplatin induces DNA cross-links, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and RNA and protein synthesis. Similar to other platinum compounds, this agent has been shown to be mutagenic and carcinogenic. (NCI04) |
| Splicing Inhibitor H3B-8800 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the splicing factor 3B subunit 1 (SF3B1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, H3B-8800 binds to and blocks the activity of SF3B1, a core spliceosome protein that is mutated in various cancer cells. This modulates RNA splicing by preventing aberrant mRNA splicing by the spliceosome, blocks RNA mis-splicing, enhances proper RNA splicing and prevents the expression of certain tumor-associated genes. This leads to an induction of apopto... |
| Spongistatin | A highly cytotoxic macrocyclic lactone polyether with antitumor activity. Spongistatin, originally isolated from marine Spongia species, binds to the vinca domain of tubulin, thereby interferes with microtubule assembly and results in inhibition of mitosis. This agent does not affect the binding of colchicine to tubulin, but it was a potent inhibitor of the binding of vinblastine and GTP to tubulin. |
| Squalamine Lactate | The lactate salt form of squalamine, an aminosterol isolated from tissues of the dogfish shark Squalus acanthias.  Possessing anti-angiogenic properties, squalamine inhibits the sodium-hydrogen exchanger NHE3, resulting in suppression of endothelial cell proliferation and migration.  This agent also has broad-spectrum antimicrobial properties. (NCI04) |
| Squeezed Red Blood Cells Expressing HPV16 Epitopes SQZ-AAC-HPV | A cell therapy agent composed of autologous red blood cells (RBCs) engineered to act as artificial antigen carriers (AACs) and expressing tumor-specific antigens (TAAs), human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 epitopes, and containing a Toll-like receptor (TLR) agonist as an activating adjuvant, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Using cell squeeze technology, the RBCs are squeezed (SQZ) and loaded with TAAs and an adjuvant to generate SQZ AACs that appear similar to ag... |
| SR-BP1/HSI Inhibitor SR31747A | A synthetic peripheral sigma receptor ligand with immunomodulatory and potential antitumor activities. Although the exact mechanism by which SR31747A exerts its antitumor effects has not been fully established, SR31747A binds to and inhibits the sigma1 receptor (SR31747A-binding protein-1 or SR-BP1), human sterol isomerase (HSI), also known as emopamil-binding protein (EBP), and the sigma2 receptor, which may result in a reduction in tumor cell proliferation and tumor cell apoptosis. In addit... |
| Src Kinase Inhibitor AP 23846 | A novel small molecule Src family kinase inhibitor with potential antiangiogenic activity. Upon administration, Src kinase inhibitor AP23846 selectively binds to and stabilizes an inactive ATP-binding site conformation leading to reduced Src kinase activity. This may reduce the production of pro-angiogenic factors, vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and interleukin (IL)-8. Src tyrosine kinases are upregulated in many tumor cells and play important roles in tumor cell proliferation, sur... |
| Src Kinase Inhibitor M475271 | An inhibitor of Src tyrosine kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Src kinase inhibitor M-475271 targets and binds to Src kinase. This inhibits Src-mediated signaling and the proliferation of tumor cells overexpressing Src. Src tyrosine kinase, a non-receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays an important role in tumor cell proliferation, motility, invasiveness and survival. |
| Src/Abl Kinase Inhibitor AZD0424 | An orally bioavailable small molecule tyrosine kinase inhibitor that targets both Abl and Src kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AZD0424 selectively inhibits both Src and Abl kinase activity which may result in the inhibition of tumor growth in susceptible tumor cells. Src and Abl kinases are upregulated in certain tumor cells and play important roles in tumor cell proliferation and metastasis. |
| Src/tubulin Inhibitor KX2-361 | A lipophilic, orally available inhibitor of both Src kinase activity and tubulin polymerization, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration,Src/tubulin Inhibitor KX2-361 binds to and inhibits the activity of Src kinase. This inhibits both downstream signaling and the proliferation of Src kinase-expressing tumor cells. KX02 also binds to tubulin heterodimers and inhibits microtubule polymerization, thereby disrupting microtubule formation, mitosis, and further proliferati... |
| SRC/YES1 Kinase Inhibitor NXP900 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of SRC family of kinases (SFK), including SRC and YES1, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SRC/YES1 kinase inhibitor NXP900 targets, binds to, and locks SRC and YES1 into their native closed conformation, thereby inhibiting both their kinase activity and their association with protein signaling partners. This inhibits the oncogenic signaling pathways mediated by these kinases and the proliferation of tumor cells overexpressing th... |
| SR-T100 Gel | A cutaneous gel preparation containing an extract from Solanum incanum with potential antineoplastic activity. SR-T100 gel contains high amounts of the steroidal alkaloid glycoside solamargine. Solamargine is able to upregulate expression of tumor necrosis factor receptors 1 (TNFR1) and 6 (TNFRSF6 or Fas), and their signaling adaptors TNFR1-associated death domain, and Fas-associated death domain. In addition, this agent is able to upregulate expression of apoptosis promoter Bax, and suppress... |
| SS1(dsFv)-PE38 Immunotoxin | A recombinant immunotoxin consisting of the single chain anti-mesothelin monoclonal antibody SS1(dsFv) linked to Pseudomonas exotoxin PE-38. The monoclonal antibody moiety of the agent binds to cells that express mesothelin, a cell surface glycoprotein which may be overexpressed in ovarian cancer, mesotheliomas, and some squamous cell carcinomas; after internalization, the exotoxin moiety inactivates eukaryotic translation elongation factor 2, thereby disrupting tumor cell protein synthesis. ... |
| ssRNA-based Immunomodulator CV8102 | A 547 nucleotide (nt), noncoding, uncapped single-stranded RNA (ssRNA) containing several polyU-repeats complexed with a polymeric carrier formed by disulfide-crosslinked cationic peptides, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon intratumoral injection, the ssRNA in CV8102 activates toll-like receptors (TLRs) and retinoic acid-inducible gene I (RIG I; RIG-I; DDX58). This stimulates a T-helper type 1 cell (Th1) response, the production of a variety of pro-inflammatory cytokines and che... |
| St. John's Wort | An herbal extract prepared from the plant Hypericum perforatum (St. John's wort) with photodynamic, antineoplastic, and antidepressant activities. Hypericin, one of the active compounds found in Hypericum perforatum, is a photosensitizer that, when exposed to a particular wavelength and intensity of light, may induce tumor cell apoptosis. Another compound, hyperforin, induces caspase-dependent apoptosis in certain tumor cell lines. Hypericum perforatum preparations may also stimulate the acti... |
| Stallimycin | An oligopeptide antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces distallicus.  Distamycin preferentially binds to adenine-thymine (A-T) rich sequences in the minor groove of DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and RNA transcription.  In addition to antitumor effects, distamycin also possesses antiviral and antiprotozoal activities and is used as a chromosome dye. (NCI04) |
| Staphylococcal Enterotoxin A | A bacterial enterotoxin with potential immunostimulatory activity. Staphylococcal enterotoxin A (SEA), a gram positive bacterial superantigen (SAg), is a potent stimulator of T-cell activation. SEA superantigen binds directly to class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules and to the V beta region of the T-cell receptor (TCR), leading to an amplified T-cell response. In response to SEA, both CD4+ and CD8+ cells proliferate, secrete cytokines, and demonstrate enhanced cytotoxic ac... |
| Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B | A bacterial enterotoxin with potential immunostimulatory activity. Staphylococcal enterotoxin B (SEB), a gram positive superantigen produced by Staphylococcus aureus, is a potent stimulator of T-cell activation. SEB binds directly to class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules and the V beta region of the T-cell receptor (TCR), leading to an amplified T-cell response. In response to SEB, both CD4+ and CD8+ cells proliferate, secrete cytokines and demonstrate enhanced cytotoxic a... |
| Stapuldencel-T | A dendritic cell (DC)-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) activated with a prostate tumor cell lysate containing tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, stapuldencel-T  may stimulate an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against prostate cancer cells expressing prostate tumor cell-specific antigens, which may result in prostate tumor cell lysis. |
| STAT Inhibitor OPB-111077 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of one or more signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) protein(s), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, OPB-111077 binds to and inhibits the phosphorylation of STATs. This prevents binding of STATs to DNA sequences on a variety of STAT-responsive gene promoters, which may result in the inhibition of both STAT-mediated transcription and tumor cell proliferation. STATs are constitutively activated in a variety of canc... |
| STAT3 Decoy Oligonucleotide | A double-stranded 15-mer oligonucleotide, corresponding closely to the signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3) response element within the c-fos promoter, with potential antineoplastic activity. STAT3 decoy oligonucleotide binds specifically to activated STAT3 and blocks binding of STAT3 to DNA sequences on a variety of STAT3-responsive promoters, which results in the inhibition of STAT3-mediated transcription and, potentially, the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. ST... |
| STAT3 Degrader KT-333 | A heterobifunctional small molecule degrader of the protein signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3) composed of a STAT3-binding moiety and a E3 ligase-binding moiety, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the STAT3 degrader KT-333 specifically targets and binds to STAT3, thereby targeting STAT3 for degradation. Upon binding, endogenous E3 ubiquitin ligase is then recruited to STAT3 by the E3 ligase recognition moiety of KT-333, resulting in the taggin... |
| STAT3 Dual Phosphorylation Site Inhibitor YY201 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, STAT3 dual phosphorylation site inhibitor YY201 targets, binds to and inhibits Tyr705 and Ser727 double-site phosphorylation of STAT3, thereby inhibiting the function of STAT3. This prevents STAT3 binding to responsive gene promoters, STAT3-mediated signaling and the expression of STAT3 target genes. This inhibits the proliferation o... |
| STAT3 Inhibitor C-188-9 | An orally bioavailable, binaphthol-sulfonamide-based inhibitor of signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the STAT3 inhibitor C-188-9 specifically targets and binds to the phosphotyrosyl peptide binding site within the Src homology 2 (SH2) domain of STAT3. This inhibits the Janus kinase (JAK)-mediated tyrosine phosphorylation and activation of STAT3. This impedes nuclear translocation of STAT3, prevents STAT... |
| STAT3 Inhibitor DSP-0337 | An orally administered prodrug of napabucasin, a small molecule cancer stemness inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, DSP-0337 is converted to its active form, napabucasin. Napabucasin targets and inhibits signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3), thereby preventing STAT-3-mediated signaling. The STAT3 pathway is overly active in many cancer types and is implicated in cancer stem cell-mediated growth, recurrence and resistance to conventional... |
| STAT3 Inhibitor OPB-31121 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3), with potential antineoplastic activity. OPB-31121 inhibits the phosphorylation of STAT3, which prevents binding of STAT3 to DNA sequences on a variety of STAT3-responsive promoters and may result in the inhibition of STAT3-mediated transcription and, potentially, the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. STAT3 is constitutively activated in a variety of cancers, contributing to the loss of cell g... |
| STAT3 Inhibitor OPB-51602 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3), with potential antineoplastic activity. STAT3 inhibitor OPB-51602 inhibits the phosphorylation and thus the activation of STAT3 protein, impeding STAT3 protein from translocating from the cytoplasm to the nucleus and thereby blocking STAT3's regulation of gene expression through direct binding to the promoters of responsive genes. STAT3 regulates the cellular functions that lead to the cancer pheno... |
| STAT3 Inhibitor VVD-130850 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, STAT3 inhibitor VVD-130850 targets and binds to an allosteric pocket of STAT3. This prevents STAT3 binding to responsive gene promoters, STAT3-mediated signaling and the expression of STAT3 target genes, thereby inhibiting the proliferation of STAT3-overexpressing tumor cells. STAT3 regulates the transcription of genes... |
| STAT3 Inhibitor WP1066 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of signaling transducer and activator 3 (STAT3), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon administration, STAT3 inhibitor WP1066 blocks the intranuclear translocation of p-STAT, thereby suppressing STAT3 signaling and decreasing the levels of downstream products including c-Myc. Additionally, WP1066 may upregulate costimulatory molecules including CD80 and CD86 on human microglia, and reverse glioma cancer stem cell (... |
| Staurosporine | A cell permeable alkaloid isolated from Streptomyces staurosporeus exhibiting anti-cancer activity.  Staurosporine is a potent, non-selective inhibitor of protein kinases, including protein kinase C.  This agent induces apoptosis by an undetermined mechanism. (NCI) |
| Sterile Distilled Water | A preparation of sterile, distilled, nonpyrogenic water that can, among other applications, be used for sterile irrigation, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravesical irrigation with sterile distilled water, the water could kill bladder cancer cells through osmotic lysis. |
| STING Agonist BI 1387446 | An agonist of stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, STING agonist BI 1387446 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cross-presentation of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) by anti... |
| STING Agonist BI 1703880 | A small molecule second-generation agonist of the intracellular innate immune adaptor stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, STING agonist BI 1703880 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cro... |
| STING Agonist BMS-986301 | An agonist of stimulator of interferon genes (STING) protein, with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, STING agonist BMS-986301 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway, which promotes IKK-related kinase TANK-binding kinase 1 (TBK1) signaling and activates nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) and interferon regulatory factor 3 (IRF3) in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cyto... |
| STING Agonist CRD3874 | An allosteric agonist of all isoforms of stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, STING agonist CRD3874 targets and allosterically binds to STING, thereby activating the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cross-presentation of tumor-as... |
| STING Agonist GSK3745417 | An agonist of the stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, STING agonist GSK3745417 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cross-presentation of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) by d... |
| STING Agonist IMSA101 | A small molecule analogue of cyclic GMP-AMP (cGAMP) that acts as an agonist of the stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173) with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, STING agonist IMSA101 binds to STING and activates STING-mediated pathways. This activates the immune response through the activation of certain immune cells which induces the expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines, p... |
| STING Agonist KL340399 | An agonist of the intracellular innate immune adaptor stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, STING agonist KL340399 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cross-presentation of tumor-associate... |
| STING Agonist MK-2118 | An agonist of the intracellular innate immune adaptor stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, STING agonist MK-2118 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cross-presentation of tum... |
| STING Agonist PF-07820435 | An orally bioavailable agonist of the intracellular innate immune adaptor stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, STING agonist PF-07820435 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cross-pre... |
| STING Agonist SB 11285 | An agonist of stimulator of interferon genes (STING) protein, with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, STING agonist SB 11285 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway, which promotes IKK-related kinase TANK-binding kinase 1 (TBK1) signaling and activates nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) and interferon regulatory factor 3 (IRF3) in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflamm... |
| STING Agonist SNX281 | An agonist of the intracellular innate immune adaptor stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, STING agonist SNX281 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cross-presentation of tumor... |
| STING Agonist-containing PTGFRN-expressing Exosomes CDK002 | Exosomes containing an agonist of the stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173) and expressing high levels of the exosome surface glycoprotein prostaglandin F2 receptor negative regulator (PTGFRN; CD315), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, STING agonist-containing PTGFRN-expressing exosomes CDK002 preferentially targets and binds to STING on antigen-presenting cells (APCs), specifically mono... |
| STING-activating Cyclic Dinucleotide Agonist MIW815 | A synthetic, cyclic dinucleotide (CDN) and agonist of stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, the STING agonist MIW815 binds to STING and stimulates STING-mediated pathways. This activates the immune response through the activation of certain immune cells, including dendritic cells (DCs), which induces the expression of cytokines and chemokines, and lead... |
| STING-dependent Activators-loaded Autologous Leukemic Cells | A preparation of autologous ultraviolet (UV)-irradiated leukemic cells loaded with STING-dependent activators (STAVs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of STAVs-loaded autologous leukemic cells, the STAVs activates STING-mediated signaling pathways. This activates the immune response through the activation of certain immune cells, including dendritic cells (DCs), which induces the expression of cytokines and chemokines, and leads t... |
| STING-expressing E. coli SYNB1891 | A non-pathogenic strain of Escherichia coli (E. coli) bacteria that has been engineered to express stimulator of interferon genes (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173) protein, with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, STING-expressing E. coli SYNB1891 are engulfed by antigen presenting cells (APCs) within the tumor. STING-mediated pathways within the APCs are then activated resulting in a type I interferon (IFN) response which prom... |
| Strawberry-Blackberry-Black Raspberry-Blueberry Mixture | A dietary supplement consisting of a mixture of strawberries, blackberries, black raspberries and blueberries with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action through which berries may exert their anti-tumor effect has yet to be elucidated, in vivo studies suggest that the ingestion of a mixture of berries seems to result in a reduction in tumor growth and tumor development. As berries are rich in phytonutrients, such as anthocyanins, flavonols, ellagitannins, ga... |
| Streptonigrin | An aminoquinone antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces flocculus.  Streptonigrin complexes with DNA and topoisomerase II, resulting in DNA cleavage and inhibition of DNA replication and RNA synthesis.  This agent also acts as a reverse transcriptase inhibitor and causes free radical-mediated cellular damage. (NCI04) |
| Streptozocin | A methylnitrosourea antineoplastic antibiotic isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces achromogenes.  Streptozocin alkylates DNA, forming inter-strand DNA cross-links and inhibiting DNA synthesis.  Due to its glucose moiety, this agent is readily taken up by pancreatic beta cells, inducing diabetes mellitus at high concentrations.  Unlike other nitrosoureas, streptozocin causes little myelosuppression. (NCI04) |
| Strontium Chloride Sr-89 | The chloride salt of a radioactive isotope of strontium. Strontium chloride Sr 89 is taken up and incorporated preferentially in metastatic lesions in bone where it emits cytotoxic beta radiation, resulting in an inhibition and/or reduction of tumor growth and so tumor-related bone pain. (NCI04) |
| Subasumstat | A small molecule inhibitor of sumoylation, with potential immune-activating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, subasumstat targets and covalently binds to the small ubiquitin-like modifier (SUMO; small ubiquitin-related modifier) protein, forming an adduct with SUMO protein (subasumstat-SUMO adduct). This prevents the transfer of SUMO from the SUMO-activating enzyme (SAE) to SUMO-conjugating enzyme UBC9. This prevents SUMO conjugation to lysine residues on target ... |
| Submicron Particle Paclitaxel Sterile Suspension | A suspension composed of uncoated, stable, submicron particles of the water-insoluble taxane paclitaxel, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intra-tumoral administration of the submicron particle paclitaxel sterile suspension, paclitaxel binds to tubulin and inhibits the disassembly of microtubules, which leads to the inhibition of cell division, thereby halting the proliferation of rapidly-dividing tumor cells. The submicron particle paclitaxel is produced through a specific proprie... |
| Sudocetaxel Zendusortide | A peptide-drug conjugate composed of the second-generation taxane docetaxel and the sortilin (SORT1)-targeting peptide zendusortide (TH19P01), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of sudocetaxel zendusortide, the zendusortide moiety targets and binds to SORT1 expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization, docetaxel binds to and stabilizes the beta-tubulin subunit, thereby inhibiting microtubule disassembly which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell d... |
| Sugemalimab | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand, programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, sugemalimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signaling and enhances the cytotoxic T-lymp... |
| Sulanemadlin | An orally available peptide inhibitor of both murine double minute 2 (MDM2) and murine double minute X (MDMX), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, sulanemadlin binds to both MDM2 and MDMX and interferes with their interaction with the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing MDM2-p53 and MDMX-p53 interactions, p53 activity is restored, which leads to p53-mediated induction of tumor cell apoptosis. MDM2 and MDMX, negativ... |
| Sulfatinib | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR) 1, 2, and 3, and the fibroblast growth factor receptor type 1 (FGFR1), with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. Upon oral administration, sulfatinib binds to and inhibits VEGFRs and FGFR1 thereby inhibiting VEGFR- and FGFR1-mediated signal transduction pathways. This leads to a reduction of angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation in VEGFR/FGFR1-overexpressing tumor c... |
| Sulforaphane | A naturally-occurring phytochemical belonging to the class of isothiocyanates.  As the aglycone metabolite of glucosinolate glucoraphanin (sulforaphane glucosinolate), sulforaphane acts as an antioxidant and potent stimulator of endogenous detoxifying enzymes.  This agent displays anticarcinogenic properties due to its ability to induce phase II detoxification enzymes, such as glutathione S-transferase and quinone reductase, thereby providing protection against certain carcinogens and toxic, ... |
| Sulindac | A sulfinylindene derivative prodrug with potential antineoplastic activity. Converted in vivo to an active metabolite, sulindac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), blocks cyclic guanosine monophosphate-phosphodiesterase (cGMP-PDE), an enzyme that inhibits the normal apoptosis signal pathway; this inhibition permits the apoptotic signal pathway to proceed unopposed, resulting in apoptotic cell death. (NCI04) |
| Sulofenur | A diarylsulfonylurea with potential antineoplastic activity. Sulofenur's antineoplastic mechanism of action is unknown. (NCI04) |
| Sunitinib | An indolinone derivative and tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Sunitinib blocks the tyrosine kinase activities of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), platelet-derived growth factor receptor b (PDGFRb), and c-kit, thereby inhibiting angiogenesis and cell proliferation.  This agent also inhibits the phosphorylation of Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3), another receptor tyrosine kinase expressed by some leukemic cells. |
| Sunitinib Malate | The orally bioavailable malate salt of an indolinone-based tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity.  Sunitinib blocks the tyrosine kinase activities of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), platelet-derived growth factor receptor b (PDGFRb), and c-kit, thereby inhibiting angiogenesis and cell proliferation.  This agent also inhibits the phosphorylation of Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3), another receptor tyrosine kinase expressed by some leukemi... |
| Sunvozertinib | An orally available, irreversible, dual kinase inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) that shows similar activity against certain activating mutations, including exon 20 insertions (exon20ins), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration,sunvozertinib binds to and inhibits EGFR and HER2, which may result in the inhibition of tumor growth and angiogenesis, and tumor regression in EGFR/HER2-expressing tumors.... |
| Super Enhancer Inhibitor GZ17-6.02 | A synthetic formulation of the Arum palaestinum plant that has been fortified with the already naturally occurring constituents of isovanillin, linolenic acid, and beta-sitosterol, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, GZ17-6.02 may induce apoptosis through caspase-3 activation and poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) cleavage, inhibit tumor cell progression by attenuating macrophage infiltration, and inhibit the phosphorylation of several mediators of tumor cell pro... |
| Suramin | A polysulphonated naphthylurea with potential antineoplastic activity.  Suramin blocks the binding of various growth factors, including insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I), epidermal growth factor (EGF), platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), and tumor growth factor-beta (TGF-beta), to their receptors, thereby inhibiting endothelial cell proliferation and migration.  This agent also inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)- and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF)-induced angiogen... |
| Suramin Sodium | A sodium salt form of suramin, a polysulphonated naphthylurea with potential antineoplastic activity.  Suramin blocks the binding of various growth factors, including insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I), epidermal growth factor (EGF), platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), and tumor growth factor-beta (TGF-beta), to their receptors, thereby inhibiting endothelial cell proliferation and migration.  This agent also inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)- and basic fibroblast growth... |
| Suratadenoturev | A replication-competent oncolytic, telomerase-specific adenovirus serotype 5 (Ad5), with potential antineoplastic activity. Suratadenoturev contains the human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT) gene promoter sequence that drives the expression of the E1A and E1B genes, and is linked to an internal ribosomal entry site (IRES). Upon administration, OBP-301 selectively infects and replicates in cancer cells that are expressing telomerase, which causes cell lysis. This adenovirus does not i... |
| Surovatamig | A human bispecific T-cell engager antibody composed of a fixed-light-chain (FLC) arm targeting the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes and a heavy-chain-only (HCO) arm targeting the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, surovatamig binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and the CD19 antigen expressed on malignant B-cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to CD19-expressing tumor cell... |
| Survivin Antigen | A tumor-associated antigen. Vaccination with survivin antigen may result in a cytotoxic T-cell response against survivin antigen-expressing tumor cells, resulting in decreased tumor cell proliferation and tumor cell death. Overexpressed in many tumors, endogenous survivin inhibits tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Survivin mRNA Antagonist EZN-3042 | A locked nucleic acid (LNA) antisense oligonucleotide targeting survivin mRNA, with potential antineoplastic activity. EZN-3042 hybridizes to survivin mRNA, thereby blocking translation of survivin protein and inhibiting survivin-induced anti-apoptotic activity and promoting tumor cell apoptosis in survivin-overexpressing tumor cells. Survivin, a member of the inhibitor of apoptosis (IAP) family expressed during embryonic development, is upregulated in a variety of human cancers while absent ... |
| Survivin Sur1M2 Peptide Vaccine | A modified recombinant nonapeptide (LMLGEFLKL) derived from the anti-apoptosis protein survivin with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, survivin Sur1M2 peptide vaccine may elicit humoral and cellular immune responses against survivin-expressing cancers, resulting in decreased tumor cell proliferation and tumor cell death. The survivin protein inhibits caspase activation and apoptosis; it is undetectable in normal adult tissues but is expressed by ... |
| Survivin/p53/HER2 Antigen-loaded Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | An autologous dendritic cell (DC) vaccine loaded with tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) derived from survivin, p53 and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2 or ERBB2), with immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, this DC vaccine may elicit a potent cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing these TAAs, resulting in tumor cell death. Survivin, p53 and HER2 are essential in neoplastic growth, and are considered to be universal tumor anti... |
| Survivin-targeted Vaccine OVM-200 | A cancer vaccine consisting of recombinant overlapping peptides (ROPs) derived from the anti-apoptosis protein survivin, with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, survivin-targeted vaccine OVM-200 may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against survivin-expressing tumor cells, resulting in decreased tumor cell proliferation and tumor cell death. The survivin protein inhibits caspase activation and apoptosis; ... |
| Surzebiclimab | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, surzebiclimab binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain T-cells, including tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the engagement of TIM-3 by its ligands, phospha... |
| Sustained-release Lipid Inhaled Cisplatin | A sustained-release formulation for inhalation in which the inorganic platinum (Pt) agent cisplatin is encapsulated in lipids, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon inhalation of the sustained-release lipid inhalation targeting (SLIT) cisplatin into the lungs, this agent forms highly reactive, positively charged, Pt complexes, which covalently bind to nucleophilic groups in DNA, preferably at the N7 position of guanine bases. Pt complex binding introduces intrastrand and interstrand DN... |
| Sustained-release Mitomycin C Hydrogel Formulation UGN-101 | A sustained-release (SR) hydrogel polymer-based formulation containing the antineoplastic antibiotic mitomycin C (MMC), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon local administration of the SR MMC hydrogel formulation to the upper urinary tract via a ureteral catheter, the gel solidifies and deposits MMC locally to prevent the excretion of this chemotherapeutic agent via urinary flow. In turn, MMC alkylates DNA, and produces interstrand DNA cross-links, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis. Du... |
| Sustained-release Mitomycin C Hydrogel Formulation UGN-102 | A sustained-release (SR) reverse thermal (RT) hydrogel formulation containing the antineoplastic antibiotic mitomycin C (MMC), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravesical instillation of the SR MMC hydrogel formulation UGN-102, the liquid converts into gel form and conforms to the bladder wall, allowing MMC to be deposited locally in the bladder to prevent the excretion of this chemotherapeutic agent via urinary flow. In turn, MMC alkylates DNA, and produces interstrand DNA cros... |
| Sustained-release Mitomycin C Hydrogel Formulation UGN-103 | A sustained-release (SR) reverse thermal (RT) hydrogel formulation containing a lyophilized form of the antineoplastic antibiotic mitomycin C (MMC), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravesical instillation of the SR MMC hydrogel formulation UGN-103, the liquid converts into gel form and conforms to the bladder wall, allowing MMC to be deposited locally in the bladder to prevent the excretion of this chemotherapeutic agent via urinary flow. In turn, MMC alkylates DNA, and produce... |
| Sutetinib Maleate | The maleate salt form of sutetinib, an orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, sutetinib selectively targets, irreversibly binds to, and inhibits the activity of various EGFR mutations, including the less common mutations L861Q, G719X, and S768I. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling in susceptible tumor cells. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-ove... |
| Suvemcitug | A monoclonal antibody directed against the human vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential antiangiogenic activity. Upon administration, suvemcitug specifically binds to and inhibits VEGF, thereby preventing its binding to VEGF receptors (VEGFRs). This prevents VEGF/VEGFR-mediated signaling and inhibits the proliferation of vascular endothelial cells and tumor cells. VEGF, overexpressed in a variety of cancer cells, is associated with increased invasiveness and decreased survi... |
| SVN53-67/M57-KLH Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine containing a 15-mer peptide (DLAQMFFCFKELEGW), with C to M alteration at amino acid position 57, derived from the anti-apoptosis protein survivin, and conjugated with keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH), with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration of SVN53-67/M57-KLH peptide vaccine, this peptide is able to bind both HMC class I and II molecules and may activate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) as wel... |
| Synchrotope TA2M Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A recombinant plasmid DNA vaccine encoding epitopes of tyrosinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Synchrotope TA2M vaccine contains a plasmid encoding 2 epitopes, amino acid sequences 207-216 and 1-17 of tyrosinase, a protein frequently expressed by melanoma cells. Vaccination with the TA2M plasmid DNA vaccine may induce the production of anti-tyrosinase antibodies as well as elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tyrosinase-expressing tumor cells, resulting in decreas... |
| Synchrovax SEM Plasmid DNA Vaccine | A bivalent DNA vaccine encoding epitopes for both Melan-A (MART-1) and tyrosinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Synchrovax SEM plasmid DNA vaccine contains a plasmid pSEM that encodes 4 epitopes: Melan-A (26-35), Melan-A (31-96), tyrosinase (1-9), and tyrosinase (369-377). Both Melan-A and tyrosinase are tumor antigens associated with melanoma. Vaccination with this plasmid DNA vaccine may induce both humoral and cytotoxic lymphocyte (CTL) responses against cells expressing either o... |
| Synthetic Alkaloid PM00104 | A synthetic alkaloid compound, related to natural alkaloid compounds, found in molluscs (jorumycin) and sponges (renieramycins), with potential antineoplastic activity. PM00104 reversibly binds to DNA, thereby inducing cytotoxicity due to its interference with DNA replication, transcription, and translation processes. DNA binding by this agent does not trigger DNA damage checkpoint responses, hence PM00104 demonstrates a manageable and reversible cytotoxicity as part of its antitumor activity. |
| Synthetic Brain Tumor Peptides-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with synthetic brain tumor peptides with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, synthetic brain tumor peptides-pulsed autologous dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL)l and antibody responses against glioma tumor cells, resulting in glioma tumor cell lysis. |
| Synthetic Breast Cancer Peptides-Tetanus Toxoid-Montanide ISA-51 Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of multiple synthetic breast cancer peptides and the adjuvant tetanus toxoid helper peptide emulsified in the adjuvant Montanide ISA-51 with immunopotentiation activity. Vaccination with this cancer vaccine may elicit a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response against breast cancer cells. Synthetic breast cancer peptides may stimulate the immune response against cells that produce breast cancer markers such as erbB2 (HER2/neu) while tetanus toxoid helper peptide bin... |
| Synthetic Breast Cancer Peptides-Tetanus Toxoid-Poly ICLC Vaccine | A cancer vaccine comprised of nine class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC)-restricted breast cancer associated peptides, the tetanus toxoid helper peptide and the Toll-like receptor 3 (TLR3) agonist poly ICLC, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. The nine peptides derived from six cancer associated proteins are epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2/neu), carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and four cancer/testis antigens (CTAs: MAGE-A1, -A3, -A10, and NY-ESO-1)... |
| Synthetic Glioblastoma Mutated Tumor-specific Peptides Vaccine Therapy APVAC2 | A personalized peptide-based cancer vaccine comprised of one or two de novo synthesized patient-specific tumor-mutated peptides associated with glioblastoma (GB), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with synthetic GB mutated tumor-specific peptides vaccine therapy APVAC2 stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the selected mutated tumor-associated peptides, which results in decreas... |
| Synthetic Glioblastoma Tumor-associated Peptides Vaccine Therapy APVAC1 | A personalized peptide-based cancer vaccine comprised of five to ten peptides associated with glioblastoma (GB), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with synthetic GB tumor-associated peptides vaccine therapy APVAC1 stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the tumor associated peptides, and results in decreased GB growth. The peptides are derived from a glioma actively personalized ... |
| Synthetic hTERT DNA Vaccine INO-1400 | A DNA vaccine consisting of a plasmid encoding the full-length sequence of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT), which is the catalytic subunit of human telomerase and synthesizes telomeric DNA at the chromosome ends, containing two immunogenic mutations, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal vaccination of the hTERT encoding DNA vaccine INO-1400 in combination with electroporation, hTERT protein is expres... |
| Synthetic hTERT DNA Vaccine INO-1401 | A DNA vaccine consisting of a plasmid encoding a synthetic, full-length sequence of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) telomerase reverse transcriptase (TERT), which was derived from the consensus sequence from humans and primates and contains two immunogenic mutations (SynCon TERT), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of INO-1401 in combination with electroporation, TERT protein is expressed and activates the immune system to moun... |
| Synthetic Human Papillomavirus 16 E6 Peptide | A synthetic peptide sequence of human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 oncoprotein E6.  The E6 oncoprotein is implicated in the tumorigenesis of cervical carcinoma.  Vaccination with HPV 16 E6 peptide may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against cells expressing the E6 oncoprotein, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Synthetic Hypericin | A topical ointment formulation containing a synthetic form of hypericin, an anthraquinone derivative that is naturally found in the yellow flower of Hypericum perforatum (St. John's wort), with potential antineoplastic and photosensitizing activities. Upon topical administration of the ointment to the tumor site, hypericin becomes activated through the application of visible fluorescent light. During photoactivation, hypericin generates singlet oxygen, which induces DNA damage, necrosis and a... |
| Synthetic Long E6 Peptide-Toll-like Receptor Ligand Conjugate Vaccine ISA201 | A therapeutic peptide vaccine consisting of two highly immunogenic synthetic long peptides (SLPs), which are 25-35 amino acids in size, derived from the human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 oncoprotein E6, and conjugated to a proprietary toll-like receptor 2 (TLR2) ligand (TLR2-L) immunoadjuvant, with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon administration, the TLR2-L moiety of the synthetic long E6 peptides TLR ligand conjugate vaccine targets and binds to TLRs expressed on a... |
| Synthetic Long E6/E7 Peptides Vaccine HPV-01 | A therapeutic peptide vaccine consisting of thirteen synthetic long peptides (SLPs), which are 25-35 amino acids in size, derived from the human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 oncoproteins E6 and E7, with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon administration, synthetic long E6/E7 peptides vaccine HPV-01 is taken up and degraded into small pieces by dendritic cells. The processed viral epitopes are presented by dendritic cells, which may stimulate the host immune system to mo... |
| Synthetic Long HPV16 E6/E7 Peptides Vaccine ISA101b | A therapeutic peptide vaccine consisting of nine overlapping synthetic long peptides (SLPs), 25 to 32 amino acids in size, derived from the human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 (HPV16) oncoprotein E6 and three SLPs, each 35 amino acids in size, derived from HPV16 E7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, the synthetic long HPV16 E6/E7 peptides vaccine ISA101b is taken up and the long peptides are proteolytically degraded to form shorte... |
| Synthetic Melanoma-Associated Antigens Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing synthetic epitope peptides derived from melanoma tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), including melanoma-melanocyte antigen gp100(280-288), melanoma-associated antigen tyrosinase(1-9), and melanoma-associated antigen melan-A(27-35). Upon administration, synthetic melanoma-associated antigens vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte immune response against melanoma cells that express TAAs which share epitopes with the vaccine epitope peptides, resulting in tumor ... |
| Synthetic Peptides E-PRA And E-PSM Vaccine | A cancer vaccine consisting of E-PRA and E-PSM, two synthetic peptide analogs of PRAME (PReferential Antigen MElanoma) and PSMA (Prostate Specific Membrane Antigen), with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon direct administration into lymph nodes, synthetic peptides E-PRA and E-PSM vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against PRAME- and PSMA-expressing tumor cells. PRAME and PSMA are tumor-associated antigens upregulated and expressed on the cell surfaces of cer... |
| Synthetic Plumbagin PCUR-101 | A synthetic form of the plant-derived medicinal agent, plumbagin, with potential antineoplastic activity.  Plumbagin may act by inhibiting the expression of protein kinase C epsilon (PKCe), signal transducers and activators of transcription 3 phosphorylation (Stat3), protein kinase B (AKT), and certain epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT) markers, including vimentin and slug. This results in possible inhibition of proliferation in susceptible tumor cells.  PKCe, Stat3, AKT, and the EMT ... |
| T1E28z CAR-expressing Autologous CD4-positive T Lymphocytes | Autologous CD4 positive T-lymphocytes engineered to express the chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T1E28z containing the ErbB ligand, T1E, fused to the hinge region, transmembrane domain and endodomain of CD28 and the CD3zeta endodomain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. T1E, a chimeric polypeptide containing the N-terminus of human transforming growth factor (TGF)-alpha fused to the C-terminus of epidermal growth factor (EGF), binds to ErbB1 homodimers and heterodim... |
| T4N5 Liposomal Lotion | A topical lotion that contains the enzyme T4-bacteriophage endonuclease V encapsulated within liposomes. With topical liposomal delivery, the DNA repair enzyme T4-bacteriophage endonuclease V is transported into skin cells, where the enzyme enters cell nuclei and binds to and incises pyrimidine dimers, thereby catalyzing the first reaction step of the cellular excision repair pathway for removing DNA replication-inhibiting pyrimidine dimers produced within duplex DNA through exposure to ultra... |
| T900607 | A pentafluorophenylsulfonamide compound with potential antineoplastic activity. T900607 inhibits tubulin polymerization by binding irreversibly to colchicine binding sites, resulting in cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| Tabalumab | A human IgG4 monoclonal antibody against B-cell activating factor (BAFF), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Tabalumab binds to and inhibits the activity of both soluble and cell surface-bound BAFF. This may reduce the activity, proliferation and survival of B-cells. A dysregulated expression of BAFF, a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) family of proteins, is often seen in certain autoimmune diseases and certain cancers, and may promote B lymphocyte activat... |
| Tabelecleucel | Allogeneic cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) selective for the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) expressed by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, and after hematopoietic cell transplants (HCT) or solid organ transplants (SOT), or during certain other immunocompromised states, tabelecleucel targets and binds to EBV-associated antigens expressed on EBV-infected cells. This results in lysis of EBV-infected cells and preve... |
| Tacaciclib | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (CDK7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, tacaciclib selectively targets, covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK7, thereby inhibiting CDK7-mediated signaling. The inhibition of CDK7 prevents phosphorylation of the carboxy-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II, thereby preventing transcription of important cancer-promoting genes. It prevents phosphorylation of the cell cy... |
| TACC3 Protein-Protein Interaction Inhibitor AO-252 | An orally bioavailable protein-protein interaction (PPI) inhibitor that targets transforming acidic coiled-coil-containing protein 3 (TACC3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TACC3 PPI inhibitor AO-252 targets and inhibits the interactions of TACC3 with its protein partners, including clathrin/KIFC1, BARD1 and MBD2/HAT complexes. This may inhibit tumor cell growth. TACC3 plays an important role in the regulation of mitosis, DNA damage response and epigenetic f... |
| Tacedinaline | An orally bioavailable substituted benzamide derivative with potential antineoplastic activity. Tacedinaline inhibits histone deacetylation, which may result in histone hyperacetylation, followed by the induction of differentiation, the inhibition of cell proliferation, and apoptosis in susceptible tumor cell populations. |
| TAEK-VAC-HerBy Vaccine | A cancer vaccine targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) HER-2/neu (ErbB-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, TAEK-VAC-HerBy vaccine may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells expressing the HER-2/neu antigen, which may result in the inhibition of proliferation in Her-2/neu-expressing tumor cells. Her-2/neu, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of tyrosine kinases, is ... |
| Tafasitamab | An Fc engineered, humanized anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD19 with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.Tafasitamab targets and binds to CD19, thereby depleting and eliminating CD19-expressing B-cells. The modified Fc region of XmAb5574 increases binding affinity to Fc-gamma receptors of effector cells and thereby enhances antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated phagocytosi... |
| Tag-7 Gene-modified Vaccine | A cell-based vaccine composed of autologus inactivated tumor cells that have been genetically modified with the gene encoding for the innate immunity protein peptidoglycan recognition protein 1 (Tag7; PGRP-S; PGLYRP1; TAG-7), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration of Tag-7 gene-modified vaccine (GMV), the Tag-7 transfected tumor cells express Tag-7 which is presented to the immune system and activates the innate immune system. This may ... |
| Tagitanlimab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tagitanlimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signali... |
| Tagraxofusp-erzs | A recombinant protein consisting of human interleukin 3 (IL3) fused to the first 388 amino acids of diphtheria toxin [DT(388)] (DT388IL3) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of tagraxofusp-erzs, the IL3 moiety binds to IL3 receptors on cells expressing the receptor. Subsequently, the DT(388) toxin moiety, which contains both translocation and catalytic domains, is transported across the cell membrane via endocytosis. Within the cytosol, the catalytic domain... |
| Talabostat | A small molecule with antineoplastic and hematopoiesis- stimulating activities. By cleaving N-terminal Xaa-Pro or Xaa-Ala residues, talabostat inhibits dipeptidyl peptidases, such as fibroblast activation protein (FAP), resulting in the stimulation of cytokine and chemokine production and specific T-cell immunity and T-cell dependent activity. This agent may also stimulate the production of colony stimulating factors, such as granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF), resulting in the sti... |
| Talabostat Mesylate | The mesylate salt of an orally active small molecule with antineoplastic and hematopoiesis- stimulating activities. By cleaving N-terminal Xaa-Pro or Xaa-Ala residues, talabostat inhibits dipeptidyl peptidases, such as fibroblast activation protein (FAP), resulting in the stimulation of cytokine and chemokine production and specific T-cell immunity and T-cell dependent activity. This agent may also stimulate the production of colony stimulating factors, such as granulocyte colony stimulating ... |
| Talacotuzumab | A humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody against CD123 (Interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain or IL3RA) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, talacotuzumab binds to and neutralizes CD123. This may inhibit IL-3-dependent signaling and may inhibit proliferation and differentiation in CD123-positive tumor cells. CSL362 contains an engineered Fc region which increases its binding affinity to Fc-gamma receptors on the surface of natural killer (NK) cells thereby initiat... |
| Talactoferrin Alfa | An orally bioavailable recombinant human lactoferrin produced in the fungus Aspergillus niger with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, talactoferrin is transported into small intestinal Peyer's patches of the gut-associated lymphoreticular tissues (GALT), where it recruits circulating immature dendritic cells (DCs) bearing tumor antigens and induces their maturation. In the GALT, DC maturation in the presence of tumor antigens and lymphoid effec... |
| Taladegib | An orally bioavailable small molecule antagonist of the Hedgehog (Hh)-ligand cell surface receptor smoothened (Smo) with potential antineoplastic activity. Taladegib inhibits signaling that is mediated by the Hh pathway protein Smo, which may result in a suppression of the Hh signaling pathway and may lead to the inhibition of the proliferation of tumor cells in which this pathway is abnormally activated. The Hh signaling pathway plays an important role in cellular growth, differentiation and... |
| Talampanel | A synthetic derivative of dioxolo-benzodiazepine with anti-seizure activity.  Talampanel antagonizes the AMPA (alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid) subtype of glutamate excitatory amino acid receptors and may inhibit the growth of gliomas by interfering with neurotransmitters involved in brain tumor growth. This agent may also protect against traumatic brain injury. |
| Talaporfin Sodium | An agent consisting of chlorin e6, derived from chlorophyll, and L-aspartic acid with photosensitizing activity.  After intratumoral activation by light emitting diodes, taporfin sodium forms an extended high energy conformational state that generates singlet oxygen, resulting in free radical-mediated cell death. (NCI04) |
| Talazoparib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) with potential antineoplastic activity. Talazoparib selectively binds to PARP and prevents PARP-mediated DNA repair of single strand DNA breaks via the base-excision repair pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks, promotes genomic instability and eventually leads to apoptosis. PARP catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear proteins that signal and recruit other protein... |
| Taletrectinib | An orally available inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases C-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1) and the neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1, 2 and 3, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, taletrectinib binds to and inhibits ROS1 and the NTRK family members. This inhibition leads to a disruption of ROS1- and NTRK-mediated signaling and eventually inhibits the growth of tumor cells that are overexpressing ROS1 and/or NTRKs. ROS1, overexpressed in certain canc... |
| Taletrectinib Adipate | The adiptate form of taletrectinib, a n orally available inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases C-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1) and the neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1, 2 and 3, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, taletrectinib binds to and inhibits ROS1 and the NTRK family members. This inhibition leads to a disruption of ROS1- and NTRK-mediated signaling and eventually inhibits the growth of tumor cells that are overexpressing ROS1 and/or NTRKs... |
| Talfirastide | A synthetic heptapeptide identical to endogenous angiotensin-(1-7) with vasodilator and antiproliferative activities. Talfirastide may inhibit cyclooxygenase 2 (COX-2) and the production of proinflammatory prostaglandins and may activate the angiotensin-(1-7) receptor Mas, resulting in diminished tumor cell proliferation. Activation of the angiotensin-(1-7) receptor Mas, a G-protein coupled, seven transmembrane protein, may down-regulate the phosphorylation and activation of Erk1 and Erk2 in ... |
| Talimogene Laherparepvec | An ICP34.5, ICP47-deleted, oncolytic herpes simplex type-1 virus (HSV-1) based on the JS1 strain, and encoding the immunostimulating factor human cytokine granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral injection, talimogene laherparepvec selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, thereby inducing tumor cell lysis. In addition, GM-CSF attracts dendritic cells (DCs) and may stimulate a cytotoxic... |
| Tallimustine | A benzoyl mustard derivative of the antiviral agent distamycin A with potential antineoplastic activity. Tallimustine selectively binds to A-T rich regions in the minor groove of DNA and alkylates at the N3 position of adenine in a highly sequence-specific manner. This prevents DNA replication, inhibits cellular proliferation and triggers apoptosis. Moreover, unlike other clinical nitrogen mustards, tallimustine does not carry out guanine-N7 alkylation in the major groove of DNA, which may le... |
| Talmapimod | An orally bioavailable, small-molecule, p38 mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) inhibitor with potential immunomodulating, anti-inflammatory, and antineoplastic activities. Talmapimod specifically binds to and inhibits the phosphorylation of p38 MAPK, which may result in the induction of tumor cell apoptosis, the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation, and the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis. This agent may also enhance proteasome inhibitor-induced apoptosis. p38 MAPK is a serine/threoni... |
| Talotrexin | An antimetabolite analogue of aminopterin with potential antineoplastic activity. As a folate antagonist, talotrexin binds to and inhibits the function of dihydrofolate reductase, resulting in the inhibition of folate metabolism, DNA synthesis, and cell division. Hydrosoluble, talotrexin is actively transported into cells by the reduced folate carrier (RFC) and, therefore, is unlikely to be associated with P-glycoprotein-mediated multidrug resistance. |
| Talotrexin Ammonium | An ammonium salt of tallotrexin, an analogue of aminopterin with potential antineoplastic activity. As a folate antagonist, talotrexin binds to and inhibits the function of dihydrofolate reductase, resulting in the inhibition of folate metabolism, DNA synthesis, and cell division. Hydrosoluble, talotrexin is actively transported into cells by the reduced folate carrier (RFC) and, therefore, is unlikely to be associated with P-glycoprotein-mediated multidrug resistance. |
| Talquetamab | A bispecific humanized monoclonal antibody against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and human G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member D (GPRC5D), a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, talquetamab binds to both CD3 on T-cells and GPRC5D expressed on certain tumor cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and induces a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against GPRC5D-expressing tumor ce... |
| Taltobulin | An analogue of the naturally occurring tripeptide hemiasterlin, with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Taltobulin binds tubulin in a similar manner as colchicine and inhibits tubulin polymerization. This results in the disruption of the cytoskeleton, ultimately leading to cell cycle arrest in G2/M phase, blockage of cell division and apoptosis. |
| TAM/c-Met Inhibitor RXDX-106 | An orally available and selective inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) activity of both hepatocyte growth factor receptor (c-Met; HGFR) and receptors in the TYRO3, AXL, and MER (TAM) family, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of TAM/c-Met inhibitor RXDX-106, this agent selectively targets and binds to TYRO3, AXL, MER and c-Met, and prevents their RTK activity. This blocks TYRO3/AXL/MER/c-Met-mediated signal transduction pathways,... |
| Tamgiblimab | A recombinant human monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, tamgiblimab targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of TIGIT with its ligands C... |
| Tamibarotene | An orally active, synthetic retinoid, developed to overcome all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) resistance, with potential antineoplastic activity. As a specific retinoic acid receptor (RAR) alpha/beta agonist, tamibarotene is approximately ten times more potent than ATRA in inducing cell differentiation and apoptosis in HL-60 (human promyelocytic leukemia) cell lines in vitro. Due to a lower affinity for cellular retinoic acid binding protein (CRABP), tamibarotene may show sustained plasma levels... |
| Taminadenant | An orally bioavailable adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR) antagonist, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, A2AR antagonist PBF-509 selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This abrogates the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes and activates a T-cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells, thereby reducing proliferation of susceptible tumor cells. A2AR, a G protein-coupled receptor, is highly expressed on the cell surfaces of T... |
| Tamoxifen | An antineoplastic nonsteroidal selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).  Tamoxifen competitively inhibits the binding of estradiol to estrogen receptors, thereby preventing the receptor from binding to the estrogen-response element on DNA.  The result is a reduction in DNA synthesis and cellular response to estrogen.  In addition, tamoxifen up-regulates the production of transforming growth factor B (TGFb), a factor that inhibits tumor cell growth, and down-regulates insulin-like growth ... |
| Tamoxifen Citrate | The citrate salt of an antineoplastic nonsteroidal selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM). Tamoxifen competitively inhibits the binding of estradiol to estrogen receptors, thereby preventing the receptor from binding to the estrogen-response element on DNA. The result is a reduction in DNA synthesis and cellular response to estrogen. In addition, tamoxifen up-regulates the production of transforming growth factor B (TGFb), a factor that inhibits tumor cell growth, and down-regulates ins... |
| Tamrintamab Pamozirine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody against dipeptidase 3 (DPEP3) conjugated, via a plasma-stable valine-alanine dipeptide linker, to a cytotoxic pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of tamrintamab pamozirine targets DPEP3 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic, DNA cross-linking PBD moiety is released. T... |
| Tandutinib | A piperazinyl quinazoline receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Tandutinib inhibits the autophosphorylation of FLT3 (FMS-Like Tyrosine kinase-3), c-KIT and PDGF (platelet-derived growth factor) receptor tyrosine kinases, thereby inhibiting cellular proliferation and inducing apoptosis. |
| Tanespimycin | A benzoquinone antineoplastic antibiotic derived from the antineoplastic antibiotic geldanamycin.  Tanespimycin binds to and inhibits the cytosolic chaperone functions of heat shock protein 90 (HSP90).  HSP90 maintains the stability and functional shape of many oncogenic signaling proteins; the inhibition of HSP90 promotes the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins that may be overexpressed by tumor cells. |
| Taniraleucel | A population of cryopreserved, off-the-shelf (OTS) allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells derived from human placental hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) and expressing the CD56 surface antigen and exhibiting a lack of CD3, with potential immunomodulating, antineoplastic and antiviral activities. Upon infusion of taniraleucel, these cells are able to recognize tumor cells as well as virally-infected cells, secrete perforins, granzymes and cytokines, and induce apoptosis in tumor and virally-infect... |
| Tanomastat | A biphenyl matrix metalloproteinase (MMP) inhibitor (MMPI) with potential antineoplastic activity. Tanomastat inhibits MMP-2, MMP-3, and MMP-9, inhibiting extracellular matrix degradation and potentially inhibiting angiogenesis, tumor growth and invasion, and metastasis. MMPs consist of at least 18 zinc-containing endo-proteinases that are capable of degrading collagen and proteoglycan. |
| Tapotoclax | An inhibitor of induced myeloid leukemia cell differentiation protein MCL-1 (myeloid cell leukemia-1), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tapotoclax binds to and inhibits the activity of MCL-1. This disrupts the formation of MCL-1/Bcl-2-like protein 11 (BCL2L11; BIM) complexes and induces apoptosis in tumor cells. MCL-1, an anti-apoptotic protein belonging to the Bcl-2 family of proteins, is upregulated in cancer cells and promotes tumor cell surv... |
| Taragarestrant | An orally available, nonsteroidal selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, taragarestrant specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that promotes ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells. |
| Tarenflurbil | An orally active synthetic enantiomer of flurbiprofen.  Tarenflurbil activates c-Jun N terminal kinase, increases AP-1 binding to DNA, and downregulates cyclin D1 expression, resulting in arrest of tumor cells in the G1 phase of the cell cycle and apoptosis. This agent also affects the expression of nuclear factor kappa B, a rapid response transcription factor that stimulates the immune response to tumor cells. R-flurbiprofen does not inhibit the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase. |
| Tarextumab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the Notch receptor with potential antineoplastic activity. Tarextumab binds to Notch on the cell surface, thereby inhibiting Notch-mediated signaling and gene transcription, which may impede tumor angiogenesis. Notch receptors are important for cell-cell communication, which involves gene regulation mechanisms that control multiple cell differentiation processes during embryonic and adult life. Dysregulated Notch signaling is implicated in many diseases ... |
| Targeted Therapy Agent | Any agent that specifically targets or interferes with the synthesis or function of a molecule that is expressed specifically in or on cells of the tumor and/or the tumor microenvironment (TME), such as immune cells or surrounding blood vessels. The targeted molecule is usually overexpressed or mutated in tumors but minimally or not expressed by normal, healthy tissues; additionally, expression is typically associated with tumor cell proliferation, progression and/or survival. By blocking the... |
| Tariquidar | An anthranilamide derivative with multidrug resistance properties.  Tariquidar non-competitively binds to the p-glycoprotein transporter, thereby inhibiting transmembrane transport of anticancer drugs.  Inhibition of transmembrane transport may result in increased intracellular concentrations of an anticancer drug, thereby augmenting its cytotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Tarlatamab | A bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) delta-like protein 3 (DLL3) fused to one that is directed against the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tarlatamab binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and the DLL3 antigen found on DLL3-expressing tumor cells. This activates a... |
| TARP 27-35 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide-based cancer vaccine, containing amino acid residues 27 through 35 of T cell receptor gamma alternate reading frame protein (TARP), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, TARP 27-35 peptide vaccine may stimulate a host cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against TARP-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell cytotoxicity. The nuclear protein TARP is commonly expressed on prostate and breast cancer cells and is highly immunogenic. |
| TARP 29-37-9V Peptide Vaccine | A peptide-based cancer vaccine, consisting of amino acid residues 29 through 37 of T cell receptor gamma alternate reading frame protein (TARP) with a leucine-to-valine substitution at position 9, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, TARP 29-37-9V peptide vaccine may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against TARP-expressing tumor cells, which may result in decreased tumor cell proliferation. The leucine-to-valine substitution at pos... |
| Tasadenoturev | An adenovirus serotype 5 strain, selectively replication competent in cells defective in the Rb/p16 tumor suppressor pathway, with potential oncolytic activity. Tasadenoturev contains an integrin binding RGD-4C motif, allowing Coxsackie adenovirus receptor-independent infection of tumor cells, which are often deficient for Coxsackie and adenovirus receptors (CARs). Selectively replication competent in cells that are defective in retinoblastoma gene (Rb) or cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor-2A... |
| Tasadenoturev-infected Allogeneic Bone Marrow-derived Mesenchymal Stem Cells | A preparation of bone marrow-derived allogeneic mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) infected with tasadenoturev (Ad5-DNX-2401), an adenovirus serotype 5 strain that is selectively replication competent in cells defective in the Rb/p16 tumor suppressor pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon infusion of the tasadenoturev-infected bone marrow-derived MSCs, these cells target and deliver the adenovirus to tumor cells. The oncolytic virus then selectively transfects and replicates in the ... |
| Taselisib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the class I phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) alpha isoform (PIK3CA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Taselisib selectively inhibits PIK3CA and its mutant forms in the PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathway, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition in PIK3CA-expressing tumor cells. By specifically targeting class I PI3K alpha, this agent may be more efficacious and less toxic than pan PI3K inhibitors. Dysregulation of the PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathw... |
| Tasidotin | A third generation, synthetic, water-soluble, pentapeptide analog of the marine depsipeptide dolastatin 15, with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Tasidotin and its metabolite, tasidotin C-carboxylate, suppress the dynamic instability behavior of the microtubules through a reduction of the shortening rate (disassembly); reduction of the switching frequency from growth to shortening; and by reducing microtubules growth time. This may eventually result in a reduction of cell ... |
| Tasisulam | An acyl-sulfonamide with potential antineoplastic activity. Selectively toxic towards tumor cells, tasisulam appears to induce tumor cell apoptosis by a mitochondrial-targeted mechanism involving the loss of mitochondrial membrane potential and induction of reactive oxygen species (ROS). In combination with an angiogenesis inhibitor, this agent may exhibit synergistic antiangiogenic activity. |
| Tasisulam Sodium | The sodium salt of an acyl-sulfonamide with potential antineoplastic activity. Selectively toxic towards tumor cells, tasisulam appears to induce tumor cell apoptosis by a mitochondrial-targeted mechanism involving the loss of mitochondrial membrane potential and induction of reactive oxygen species (ROS). In combination with an angiogenesis inhibitor, this agent may exhibit synergistic antiangiogenic activity. |
| Tasquinimod | A quinoline-3-carboxamide linomide analogue with antiangiogenic and potential antineoplastic activities. Tasquinimod has been shown to decrease blood vessel density but the exact mechanism of action is not known. This agent has also been shown to augment the antineoplastic effects of docetaxel and androgen ablation in a murine model of prostate cancer involving human prostate cancer xenografts. |
| Tasurgratinib | An inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor (FGF)/fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tasurgratinib selectively interferes with the binding of FGF to FGFR through an as of yet not fully elucidated mechanism. This inhibits FGFR-mediated signaling and leads to both cell proliferation inhibition and cell death in FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR is a receptor tyrosine kinase essential to tumor cell proliferation, di... |
| Taurolidine | A synthetic broad-spectrum antimicrobial with antibacterial, antifungal, anticoagulant, and potential antiangiogenic activities. Taurolidine, derived from the amino acid taurine, binds to and neutralizes bacterial exotoxins and endotoxins, or lipopolysaccharides (LPS). Taurolidine binding to LPS prevents bacterial adherence to host epithelial cells, thereby prevents bacterial invasion of uninfected host cells. Although the mechanism underlying its antineoplastic activity has not been fully el... |
| Tauromustine | A water-soluble taurine-based nitrosourea with potential antineoplastic activity. Tauromustine alkylates DNA and causes DNA cross links independent of cell cycle, thereby resulting in disruption of DNA function and induction of apoptosis. |
| Taurultam | A reversible metabolite of taurolidine and an amino acid taurine derivative, with antibacterial and antineoplastic activity. Taurultam, like its congener taurolidine, inhibits proliferation of microvascular endothelial cells, although to a lesser extent, by selectively inhibiting the adhesion of endothelial cells to laminin but not to collagen I and fibronectin. |
| Tavokinogene Telseplasmid | A DNA plasmid that encodes genes for both the p35 and p40 subunits of the heterodimeric human interleukin 12 (hIL-12) protein that are separated by an internal ribosome entry site (IRES) and under the control of a single cytomegalovirus (CMV) promoter, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration via intratumoral injection and electroporation, the plasmid is introduced into human cells resulting in expression and highly-localized secretion of a functional... |
| Tavolimab | An agonistic, humanized monoclonal antibody against receptor OX40 (CD134), with potential immunostimulatory activity. Upon administration, tavolimab selectively binds to and activates the OX40 receptor. OX40 receptor activation induces proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes. In the presence of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), this agent may promote an immune response against TAAs-expressing tumor cells. OX40, a cell surface glycoprotein and member of the tumor necrosis factor (TN... |
| Taxane Analogue TPI 287 | A synthetic, third generation taxane with potential antineoplastic activity. TPI 287 binds to tubulin and stabilizes microtubules, resulting in inhibition of microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase, and apoptosis. |
| Taxol Analogue SID 530 | An intravenous formulation containing docetaxel, a semi-synthetic, second-generation taxane derived from a compound found in the European yew tree, Taxus baccata, with potential antineoplastic activity. Taxol analogue SID 530 binds to and stabilizes tubulin, inhibiting microtubule disassembly, which results in cell-cycle arrest at the G2/M phase and cell death. |
| Tazarotene | A synthetic, topical retinoid.  Tazarotene induces the expression of tazarotene-induced gene 3 (TIG3), a tumor suppressor gene.  In psoriasis, tazarotene normalizes abnormal keratinocyte differentiation and reduces their hyperproliferation. (NCI04) |
| Tazemetostat | An orally available, small molecule selective and S-adenosyl methionine (SAM) competitive inhibitor of histone methyl transferase EZH2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, tazemetostat selectively inhibits the activity of both wild-type and mutated forms of EZH2. Inhibition of EZH2 specifically prevents the methylation of histone H3 lysine 27 (H3K27). This decrease in histone methylation alters gene expression patterns associated with cancer pathways and results ... |
| TBC-CEA-Contaminated W/ BVDV | A cancer vaccine consisting of a recombinant vector encoding the tumor-associated carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) that is contaminated with bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV). The carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a prevalent tumor marker expressed by a number of different cancers such as colorectal, breast, lung and ovarian carcinomas; vaccination with vaccinia virus genetically engineered to express CEA may generate antitumoral T-cell responses. BVDV is an RNA pestivirus that may contaminate... |
| T-cell Membrane-anchored Tumor-targeted IL-12-modified Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) engineered to express membrane-bound interleukin-12 (mbIL-12), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion of the T-cell membrane-anchored tumor-targeted IL-12-modified TILs, the cells specifically recognize and kill the tumor cells. IL-12 expression activates the immune system by promoting the secretion of interferon-gamma (IFNg), activating natural killer cells (NKs), and inducing cytotoxic T-lymphocyte ... |
| TCR-engineered T-cells HRYZ-T101 | A preparation of genetically engineered T-lymphocytes expressing a T-cell receptor (TCR) targeting a specific tumor-associated antigen (TAA) of the human papillomavirus (HPV) type 18 (HPV-18), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, HPV-18 expressing TCR T-cells target and bind to tumor cells expressing the HPV-18 TAA leading to selective cytotoxicity in HPV-18 TAA-expressing tumor cells. HPV18 TAAs are overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types. |
| TCR-specific, alpha Fetoprotein-enhanced Autologous T Lymphocytes | A preparation of human autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a viral vector encoding for a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for human alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Following administration, the TCR-specific, alpha fetoprotein-enhanced autologous T-lymphocytes recognize and bind to AFP antigen-positive cells, which results in lysis and killing of AFP-positive cancer cells. AFP is overexpressed in a variety of cancers. |
| TEAD Inhibitor BGC515 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the transcription factor TEAD (TEA domain), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TEAD inhibitor BGC515 targets, binds to and inhibits TEAD, thereby disrupting the interaction between the transcription co-activators yes-associated protein 1 (YAP)/transcriptional coactivator with PDZ-binding motif (TAZ) and TEAD. This may inhibit YAP/TAZ-TEAD-promoted transcription of multiple genes involved in tumor cell proliferation, progressio... |
| TEAD Inhibitor IK-930 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the transcription factor TEAD (TEA domain), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TEAD inhibitor IK-930 targets, binds to and inhibits TEAD, thereby disrupting the interaction between the transcription co-activators yes-associated protein 1 (YAP)/transcriptional coactivator with PDZ-binding motif (TAZ) and TEAD. This may inhibit YAP/TAZ-TEAD-promoted transcription of multiple genes involved in tumor cell prolifera... |
| TEAD Inhibitor SW-682 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the transcription factor TEAD (TEA domain), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TEAD inhibitor SW-682 targets and binds to the TEAD palmitoylation pocket all TEAD isoforms, thereby disrupting the interaction between the transcription co-activators yes-associated protein 1 (YAP)/transcriptional coactivator with PDZ-binding motif (TAZ) and TEAD and inhibiting TEAD auto-palmitoylation. This may inhibit YAP/TAZ-TEAD-promoted transc... |
| TEAD Inhibitor VT3989 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the auto-palmitoylation of the transcription factor TEAD (TEA domain), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TEAD inhibitor VT3989 inhibits TEAD auto-palmitoylation, thereby disrupting the interaction between the transcription co-activators yes-associated protein 1 (YAP)/transcriptional coactivator with PDZ-binding motif (TAZ) and TEAD. This may inhibit YAP/TAZ-TEAD promoted gene transcription involved in tumor ce... |
| Tebentafusp | A fusion protein containing a modified form of human T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the gp100 antigen and fused to an anti-CD3 single-chain antibody fragment, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon direct intratumoral administration of tebentafusp into the melanoma lesion, the TCR moiety of this agent targets and binds to the tumor associated antigen (TAA) gp100 presented on the melanoma tumor cell; the anti-CD3 fragment moiety binds to CD3- expressing T lymphocytes, thereby selecti... |
| Tebotelimab | An Fc-bearing, humanized antibody-like protein that specifically recognizes the immune checkpoint molecules programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PD1; PDCD1; CD279; Programmed Death 1) and lymphocyte activation gene-3 (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential T-lymphocyte immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tebotelimab specifically binds to both PD-1 and LAG-3, which are both expressed on T-cells. The dual blockade of the PD-1 and LAG-3 pathways enables potent activation ... |
| Tecaginlimab | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1, Fc-silenced, bispecific, agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting both CD40 and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration,  tecaginlimab simultaneously binds to CD40 and 4-1BB, crosslinks CD40 and 4-1BB positive cells, induces conditional stimulation, and activates both CD40- and 4-1BB-medicated signaling. The activation of CD40-mediated signa... |
| Teclistamab | A bispecific humanized monoclonal antibody against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17), a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) expressed on plasma cells, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, teclistamab binds to both CD3 on T-cells and BCMA expressed on malignant plasma cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and induces a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against BCMA-expressing pl... |
| Tecogalan Sodium | A sulfated polysaccharide isolated from various Arthrobacter bacterial species.  Possessing potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic properties, tecogalan binds to basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), thereby preventing bFGF from binding to its receptors.  Disruption of this receptor binding results in the inhibition of bFGF-stimulated endothelial cell growth, proliferation, and migration. (NCI04) |
| Tecotabart | A recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tecotabart specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. This may kill CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and inhibit tumor cell proliferation. CLDN18.2, a tight junction protein and stomach-specific isoform of claudin-18, is expressed on a varie... |
| Tecotabart Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) claudin 18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18) conjugated via a cleavable linker, to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tecotabart vedotin specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon internalization and the release of MMAE, MMAE targets and bin... |
| Tefinostat | A hydroxamic acid-derived histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Tefinostat inhibits HDAC leading to an accumulation of highly acetylated histones, which may result in chromatin remodeling, inhibition of tumor oncogene transcription, inhibition of tumor cell division, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. HDAC, an enzyme upregulated in many tumor types, deacetylates chromatin histone proteins; this agent may specifically target HDACs in cells of the ... |
| Tegafur | A congener of the antimetabolite fluorouracil with antineoplastic activity. Tegafur is a prodrug that is gradually converted to fluorouracil in the liver by the cytochrome P-450 enzyme. Subsequently, 5-FU is metabolized to two active metabolites, 5-fluoro-2-deoxyuridine monophosphate (FdUMP) and 5-fluorouridine triphosphate (FUTP) by both tumor cells and normal cells.  FdUMP inhibits DNA synthesis and cell division by inhibiting thymidylate synthase and reducing normal thymidine production, w... |
| Tegafur-gimeracil-oteracil Potassium | An orally bioavailable fluoropyrimidine antagonist composed of tegafur combined with two modulators of 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) activity, gimeracil and potassium oxonate, in a molar ratio of 1:0.4:1. Tegafur is a prodrug of 5-fluorouracil, an antimetabolite that inhibits thymidylate synthase, DNA synthesis and cell division, and competes with uridine triphosphate, thus inhibiting RNA and protein synthesis. Gimeracil is a reversible inhibitor of dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD), the liver en... |
| Tegafur-Gimeracil-Oteracil Potassium-Leucovorin Calcium Oral Formulation | An orally bioavailable granular formulation composed of the fluoropyrimidine antagonist tegafur combined with two modulators of 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) activity, gimeracil and oteracil potassium, and the folic acid derivative leucovorin calcium, with potential antineoplastic activity. Tegafur is a prodrug of 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), an antimetabolite that is further metabolized to 5-fluoro-2'-deoxyuridine monophosphate (FdUMP) and 5-fluorouridine triphosphate (FUTP). FdUMP inhibits thymidylate sy... |
| Tegafur-Uracil | A formulated therapeutic oral agent consisting of a combination of the 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) congener prodrug tegafur (tetrahydrofuranyl-5-fluorouracil) and uracil (1:4). The high concentration of uracil reversibly inhibits the uracil-reducing enzyme dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD), thereby inhibiting first-pass DPD-mediated hepatic metabolism of the uracil analogue 5-FU and permitting administration of 5-FU as the orally bioavailable prodrug tegafur. Tegafur is bioactivated to 5-FU by ... |
| Tegavivint | A small molecule inhibitor of the Wnt/beta-catenin pathway with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, tegavivint binds to transducin beta-like protein 1 (TBL1) and disrupts the binding of beta-catenin to TBL1. This promotes beta-catenin degradation, attenuates nuclear and cytoplasmic levels of beta-catenin, and reduces transcriptional activity of transcription factor 4 (TCF4) and expression of its target genes, cyclin D1, c-Myc and survivin. The Wnt/beta-catenin ... |
| Teglarinad | A water-soluble prodrug of a pyridyl cyanoguanidine compound and an inhibitor of nicotinamide phosphoribosyltransferase (NAMPT) with potential antineoplastic activity. Teglarinad is rapidly converted in the bloodstream into an active compound through hydrolytic cleavage of the carbonate ester bond. The activated form inhibits NAMPT, thereby inhibiting nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) biosynthesis and induces a rapid decline in intracellular NAD+ followed by ATP reduction. As NAD+ is e... |
| Teglarinad Chloride | A water-soluble prodrug of a cyanoguanidine compound with potential antineoplastic activity. In vivo, teglarinad chloride is rapidly converted into active drug through hydrolytic cleavage of a carbonate ester bond. Although the exact mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, the active drug appears to antagonize nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) transcription, resulting in the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Tegtociclib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tegtociclib selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK2. This may lead to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CDKs are serine/threonine kinases that are important regulators of cell cycle progression and cellular proliferation and are frequently overexpressed in tumor cells. CDK2/cyclin... |
| Telaglenastat | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of glutaminase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CB-839 selectively and irreversibly inhibits glutaminase, a mitochondrial enzyme that is essential for the conversion of the amino acid glutamine into glutamate. By blocking glutamine utilization, proliferation in rapidly growing cells is impaired. Glutamine-dependent tumors rely on the conversion of exogenous glutamine into glutamate and glutamate metabolites to both provide ene... |
| Telaglenastat Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of CB-839, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of glutaminase, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon oral administration, CB-839 selectively and reversibly binds to and inhibits human glutaminase, an enzyme that is essential for the conversion of the amino acid glutamine into glutamate. Blocking glutamine metabolism inhibits proliferation in rapidly growing tumor cells and leads to an induction of cell death. Unlike normal healthy cells,... |
| Telapristone | An orally available 21-substituted-19-nor-progestin and selective progesterone receptor modulator (SPRM), with potential anti-progesterone and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, telapristone competitively binds to the progesterone receptor (PR) in progesterone-responsive tissue and inhibits PR-mediated gene expression. This interferes with progesterone activity in the reproductive system. As a result, this agent may suppress ovulation and inhibit proliferation of endometrial... |
| Telapristone Acetate | The acetate form of the 21-substituted-19-nor-progestin telapristone, an orally available selective progesterone receptor modulator (SPRM), with potential anti-progesterone and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CDB-4124 competitively binds to the progesterone receptor (PR) in progesterone-responsive tissue and inhibits PR-mediated gene expression. This interferes with progesterone activity in the reproductive system. As a result, this agent may suppress ovulation and inhibi... |
| Telatinib Mesylate | The orally bioavailable mesylate salt of the 17-allylaminogeldanamycin (17-AAG) small-molecule inhibitor of several receptor protein tyrosine kinases with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Telatinib binds to and inhibits the vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) type 2 and 3, platelet-derived growth factor receptor beta (PDGFRb) and c-Kit, which may result in the inhibition of angiogenesis and cellular proliferation in tumors in which these receptors are ... |
| Telisotuzumab | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR or c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Telisotuzumab binds to c-Met, thereby preventing both c-Met binding to its ligand, HGF and the subsequent activation of the HGF/c-Met signaling pathway. This may cause cell death in c-Met-expressing tumor cells. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cancer c... |
| Telisotuzumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of telisotuzumab, a monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and proto-oncogene, c-Met receptor tyrosine kinase (c-Met; MET; hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR) conjugated to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE) via a valine-citrulline (vc) peptide linker (vc-MMAE; vedotin), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of telisotuzumab vedotin targets a... |
| Telomerase Inhibitor FJ5002 | A derivative of rhodacyanine with potential antineoplastic activity.  FJ5002 inhibits telomerase by interfering with holoenzyme assembly and telomere interaction, thus leading to replication-dependent shortening of telomeres with a concurrent increase in aneuploid metaphases and apoptotic cells.  Telomerase is active in most tumors cells, but is quiescent in adjacent normal cells. (NCI04) |
| Telomerase: 540-548 Peptide Vaccine | A recombinant peptide consisting of the amino acid residues 540 to 548 of the human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT). Telomerase expression has been directly linked to tumor development; its catalytic subunit is expressed in the majority of human cancer cells, but infrequently in normal cells.  Vaccination with telomerase:540-548 peptide may stimulate cytotoxic T cells to recognize and kill telomerase-expressing cells. (NCI04) |
| Teloxantrone | An anthrapyrazole antineoplastic antibiotic. Teloxantrone intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair, as well as RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Teloxantrone Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of an anthrapyrazole antineoplastic antibiotic. Teloxantrone intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair, as well as RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Telratolimod | A toll-like receptor type 7 and 8 (TLR7/8) agonist with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon intratumoral administration, telratolimod binds to and activates TLR7 and 8, thereby stimulating antigen-presenting cells (APCs), including dendritic cells (DCs). Activation of DCs results in the production of proinflammatory cytokines, and the activation of cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) and B-lymphocyte immune responses. This may cause tumor cell lysis. TLR7 and 8, members of the... |
| Temarotene | A synthetic bioactive retinoid with differentiation inducing and potential antineoplastic activities. Like other retinoic acid agents, temarotene binds to and activates retinoic acid receptors (RARs), thereby altering the expression of certain genes leading to cell differentiation and decreased cell proliferation in susceptible cells. |
| Temoporfin | A synthetic light-activated chlorin with photodynamic activity. Upon systemic administration, temoporfin distributes throughout the body and is taken up by tumor cells. Upon stimulation of temoporfin by non-thermal laser light (at 652 nm), and in the presence of oxygen, this agent produces highly reactive short-lived singlet oxygen and other reactive oxygen radicals, resulting in local damage to tumor cells. This may kill tumor cells and may reduce the tumor size. |
| Temozolomide | A triazene analog of dacarbazine with antineoplastic activity.  As a cytotoxic alkylating agent, temozolomide is converted at physiologic pH to the short-lived active compound, monomethyl triazeno imidazole carboxamide (MTIC). The cytotoxicity of MTIC is due primarily to methylation of DNA at the O6 and N7 positions of guanine, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication. Unlike dacarbazine, which is metabolized to MITC only in the liver, temozolomide is metabolized to MITC at all sites. Temoz... |
| Temozolomide Perillyl Alcohol Conjugate NEO212 | An orally bioavailable agent composed of the prodrug and alkylating agent temozolomide (TMZ), a triazene analog of dacarbazine, covalently conjugated to perillyl alcohol (POH), a naturally occurring monoterpene, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of temozolomide perillyl alcohol conjugate NEO212, TMZ is converted at physiologic pH to the short-lived active compound, monomethyl triazeno imidazole carboxamide (MTIC). MTIC is rapidly degraded into a methyldiazonium ... |
| Temsirolimus | An ester analog of rapamycin. Temsirolimus binds to and inhibits the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), resulting in decreased expression of mRNAs necessary for cell cycle progression and arresting cells in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. mTOR is a serine/threonine kinase which plays a role in the PI3K/AKT pathway that is upregulated in some tumors. |
| Temuterkib | An orally available inhibitor of extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, temuterkib inhibits both ERK 1 and 2, thereby preventing the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ERK-dependent tumor cell proliferation and survival. The MAPK/ERK pathway is often upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types and plays a key role in t... |
| Temuterkib Mesylate | The mesylate salt form of temuterkib, an orally available inhibitor of extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, temuterkib inhibits both ERK 1 and 2, thereby preventing the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ERK-dependent tumor cell proliferation and survival. The MAPK/ERK pathway is often upregulated in a variety of tumo... |
| Tenalisib | An orally active, highly selective, small molecule inhibitor of the delta and gamma isoforms of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tenalisib inhibits the PI3K delta and gamma isoforms and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT-mediated signaling pathway. This may lead to a reduction in cellular proliferation in PI3K delta/gamma-expressing tumor cells. In addition, this agent modulates inflammatory responses thr... |
| Tenifatecan | A highly lipophilic preparation of 7-Ethyl-10-hydroxycamptothecin (SN-38) with potential antineoplastic activity. SN2310 is an oil-in-water emulsion of tocopherol covalently linked, via a succinate linker, to SN-38, a synthetic derivative of the cytotoxic alkaloid camptothecin. After succinate linker is hydrolyzed in vivo, the active moiety SN-38 is released and selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes, thereby inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-stra... |
| Teniposide | A semisynthetic derivative of podophyllotoxin with antineoplastic activity. Teniposide forms a ternary complex with the enzyme topoisomerase II and DNA, resulting in dose-dependent single- and double-stranded breaks in DNA, DNA: protein cross-links, inhibition of DNA strand religation, and cytotoxicity. This agent acts in the late S or early G phase of the cell cycle. (NCI04) |
| Tepoditamab | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific human monoclonal antibody against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and human C-type lectin domain family 12 member A (CLEC12A), a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on certain tumor cells, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tepoditamab binds to both CD3 on T-cells and CLEC12A expressed on malignant cells, such as myeloid blasts, atypical progenitor cells and leukemic stem cells (LSCs). This results in the cross-lin... |
| Tepotinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of MET tyrosine kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Tepotinib selectively binds to MET tyrosine kinase and disrupts MET signal transduction pathways, which may induce apoptosis in tumor cells overexpressing this kinase. The receptor tyrosine kinase MET (also known as hepatocyte growth factor receptor or HGFR), is the product of the proto-oncogene c-Met and is overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types; this protein plays key roles in tumor ce... |
| Teprotumumab | A recombinant, fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the insulin-like growth factor-1 receptor (IGF-1R) with potential antineoplastic activity. Teprotumumab binds to membrane-bound IGF-1R, preventing the binding of the natural ligand IGF-1 and the activation of PI3K/AKT signal transduction; downregulation of the PI3K/AKT survival pathway may result in the induction of apoptosis and decreased cellular proliferation. The activation of IGF-1R, a receptor tyrosine kinase of the insulin... |
| Terameprocol | A synthetic tetra-methylated derivative of nordihydroguaiaretic acid (NDGA) and transcriptional inhibitor with potential antiviral, antiangiogenic, and antineoplastic activities. Terameprocol competes with the transcription factor Sp1 for specific Sp1 DNA binding domains within gene promoter regions during DNA synthesis. In virally-infected cells, blocking of the Sp1 binding site suppresses Sp1-regulated viral promoter activity and gene expression, thereby inhibiting viral transcription and r... |
| Terfluranol | A trifluoroethyl derivative with antineoplastic agent. |
| Tergenpumatucel-L | An allogeneic lung cancer vaccine with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Derived from allogeneic lung tumor cells, tergenpumatucel-L is engineered to express the murine alpha-1,3-galactosyltransferase (GalT), an enzyme humans lack. GalT catalyzes the expression of foreign alpha-1,3-galactosyl (alpha-gal) carbohydrate epitopes in glycoproteins and in glycolipids on the cell membranes of the allogeneic lung tumor cells present in the vaccine, essentially producing a 'xe... |
| Teroxirone | A triazene triepoxide with antineoplastic activity. Teroxine alkylates and cross-links DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication. (NCI04) |
| Tertomotide | A synthetic peptide vaccine, containing 16 amino acid residues (611-626) of the human telomerase reverse transcriptase catalytic subunit (hTERT), with potential antineoplastic activity. Telomerase, a reverse transcriptase normally repressed in healthy cells, is overexpressed in most cancer cells and plays a key role in cellular proliferation. Vaccination with tertomotide may activate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against telomerase-expressing cells. |
| Tesetaxel | A semi-synthetic, orally bioavailable taxane derivative with potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenic properties. Tesetaxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin, promoting microtubule assembly and thereby preventing microtubule depolymerization. This may lead to cell cycle arrest and an inhibition of cell proliferation. This agent may also inhibit pro-angiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). As it represents poor substrate for P-glycoprotein-related drug resistance ... |
| Tesevatinib | An orally bioavailable small-molecule receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Tesevatinib binds to and inhibits several tyrosine receptor kinases that play major roles in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization, including epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR; ERBB1), epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ERBB2), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR), and ephrin B4 (EphB4). This may result in the inhibition of tumor growth... |
| Tesidolumab | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the complement pathway protein C5, with complement pathway inhibitory activity and potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, tesidolumab targets and binds to C5, thereby preventing both C5 convertase-mediated cleavage of C5 and the formation of C5a and C5b. This inhibits C5-mediated signal transduction, the formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC) and the activation of the terminal complement pathway, ... |
| Testolactone | A progesterone derivative with antineoplastic activity. Testolactone inhibits steroid aromatase, thereby preventing the formation of estrogen from adrenal androstenedione and reducing endogenous estrogen levels. (NCI04) |
| Tetanus Peptide Melanoma Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of peptides derived from melanoma-associated antigens and a modified T-cell epitope derived from tetanus toxoid. Vaccination with this agent may stimulate a host cytotoxic and helper T-cell response against tumor cells expressing melanoma-associated antigens, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| Tetanus Toxoid Vaccine | A preparation of formaldehyde-deactivated toxin isolated from the bacterium Clostridium tetani. Tetanus toxoid is used for booster injection and can stimulate the production of antitoxin antibodies. This agent may be used as an adjuvant in cancer vaccines. |
| TetMYB DNA Vaccine | A therapeutic engineered DNA vaccine composed of DNA sequences encoding for one or more tetanus toxoid peptides and the oncoprotein MYB, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration, TetMYB is taken up and processed by dendritic cells (DCs), which present the processed antigen to the immune system. This activates cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and causes a CTL-mediated immune response against MYB-expressing tumor cells. MYB, an oncoprotein an... |
| Tetradecanoylphorbol Acetate | A phorbol ester with potential antineoplastic effects.  Tetradecanoylphorbol acetate (TPA) induces maturation and differentiation of hematopoietic cell lines, including leukemic cells. This agent may induce gene expression and protein kinase C (PKC) activity.  In addition to potential antineoplastic effects, TPA may exhibit tumor promoting activity. (NCI04) |
| Tetrahydrouridine | A synthetic pyrimidine nucleoside analogue with biomodulating activity. Tetrahydrouridine increases the efficacy of the radiosensitizer cytochlor (5-chloro-2'-deoxycytidine) by inhibiting the enzyme deoxycytidine monophosphate (dCMP) deaminase and preventing the premature deamination of the cytochlor metabolite 5-chloro-2'-deoxycytidine monophosphate (CldCMP) to 5-chloro-2'-deoxyuridine monophosphate (CldUMP); in turn, this increases tumor concentrations of CldUMP which is then further anabol... |
| Tetrathiomolybdate | An orally bioavailable metal copper (Cu) chelator, with potential antiangiogenic, anti-metastatic and antitumor activities. Upon oral administration, tetrathiomolybdate (TM) targets and binds to copper and food protein in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, thereby forming stable complexes and preventing copper uptake and reabsorption. Additionally, absorbed free TM targets and binds to copper and serum albumin in the bloodstream. This depletes systemic copper reserves and deprives the tumor mic... |
| Tetravalent RNA-lipoplex Cancer Vaccine BNT111 | A RNA-lipoplex (RNA-LIP)-based cancer vaccine containing four naked ribonucleic acid (RNA)-drug products (DPs) RBL001.1, RBL002.2, RBL003.1, and RBL004.1 encoding the four melanoma-associated antigens (MAAs), the cancer-testis antigen NY-ESO-1, the human melanoma-associated antigen A3 (MAGE-A3), tyrosinase, and putative tyrosine-protein phosphatase (TPTE), encapsulated in liposomes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of the tetravalent RNA-lipoplex cancer ... |
| Teverelix | A synthetic decapeptide and antagonist of the naturally occurring gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), with potential hormone production inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, teverelix directly competes with GnRH for receptor binding in the anterior pituitary gland, thereby inhibiting GnRH receptor signaling. This inhibits the secretion and release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). In males, the inhibition of LH secretion prevents t... |
| Teverelix Trifluoroacetate | The trifluoroacetate (TFA) salt form of teverelix, a synthetic decapeptide and antagonist of the naturally occurring gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), with potential hormone production inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, teverelix directly competes with GnRH for receptor binding in the anterior pituitary gland, thereby inhibiting GnRH receptor signaling. This inhibits the secretion and release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). ... |
| Tezacitabine | A synthetic pyrimidine nucleoside analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Phosphorylated by cellular kinases, tezacitabine is converted into its active diphosphate and triphosphate metabolites. Tezacitabine diphosphate binds to and irreversibly inhibits the activity of the enzyme ribonucleotide reductase (RNR), which may result in the inhibition of DNA synthesis in tumor cells and tumor cell apoptosis. Tezacitabine triphosphate acts as a substrate for DNA polymerase, further compromi... |
| Tezacitabine Anhydrous | The anhydrous form of tezacitabine, a synthetic pyrimidine nucleoside analogue with potential antineoplastic activity. Phosphorylated by cellular kinases, tezacitabine is converted into its active diphosphate and triphosphate metabolites. Tezacitabine diphosphate binds to and irreversibly inhibits the activity of the enzyme ribonucleotide reductase (RNR), which may result in the inhibition of DNA synthesis in tumor cells and eventually tumor cell apoptosis. Tezacitabine triphosphate acts as a... |
| Tezemlimogene Daxadenorepvec | A selectively replication competent oncolytic adenovirus that is engineered to express OX40 ligand (OX40L) with potential oncolytic and immunostimulatory activities. Upon administration, tezemlimogene daxadenorepvec, which contains an integrin binding RGD-4C motif, infects tumor cells in a Coxsackievirus-adenovirus receptor-independent manner and selectively replicates in tumor cells that are defective in retinoblastoma gene (Rb) or cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor-2A (p16). Tumor cell selec... |
| TF(c)-KLH Conjugate Vaccine | A vaccine containing a clustered pancarcinoma carbohydrate antigen, Thomsen-Friedenreich (TF) antigen, conjugated with keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH) with potential antineoplastic activity. TF antigen is a disaccharide epitope (galactose-beta1-3-N-acetylgalactose), normally O-linked to serine or threonine of tumor-associated epithelial mucins. This vaccine contains the TF epitope cluster (c) that is synthesized by linking 3 copies of the TF epitope on a threonine backbone to achieve the esse... |
| TGFa-PE38 Immunotoxin | A recombinant, chimeric toxin composed of human transforming growth factor alpha (TGF-alpha) fused to a fragment of Pseudomonas exotoxin (PE38) without its cell-binding domain.  The TGF-alpha moiety of the agent attaches to tumor cells expressing the epithelial growth factor receptor (EGFR); the exotoxin induces caspase-mediated apoptosis of tumor cells via a mechanism involving mitochondrial damage; it also catalyzes the transfer of ADP ribose from nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) to ... |
| TGFbDNRII-transduced Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) that are transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a gene for a dominant-negative form of the transforming growth factor beta (TGFb) receptor, TGFbDNRII, with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, the TGFbDNRII-transduced autologous TILs recognize and kill tumor cells. The expression of TGFbDNRII allows for the TILs to be resistant to TGF-b-mediated inhibition of T cell proliferation and activation, which allows opt... |
| TGFbeta Inhibitor LY3200882 | An orally bioavailable agent that targets transforming growth factor-beta (TGFb), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, LY3200882 specifically targets and binds to TGFb, which prevents both the binding of TGFb to its receptor TGFbR and TGFb-mediated signal transduction. This may lead to a reduction in TGFb-dependent proliferation of cancer cells. The TGFb signaling pathway is often deregulated in tumors, and plays a key role in the regulation of cell growth, differentia... |
| TGFbeta Inhibitor TU2218 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of transforming growth factor-beta (TGFb), with potential antineoplastic and anti-fibrotic activities. Upon oral administration, TGFb inhibitor TU2218 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits TGFb, which prevents both the binding of TGFb to its receptor TGFbR and TGFb-mediated signal transduction. This abrogates TGFb-mediated fibrosis and immunosuppression, enhances anti-tumor immunity in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and promotes a cytotoxic T-lymphocyt... |
| TGF-beta Receptor 1 Inhibitor GFH018 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of transforming growth factor-beta receptor 1 (TGFbR1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TGFbR1 inhibitor GFH018 specifically targets and binds to TGFbR1, which prevents TGFbR1-mediated signal transduction. This abrogates TGFbR1-mediated immunosuppression, enhances anti-tumor immunity in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and promotes a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells leading to tumor cel... |
| TGF-beta Receptor 1 Inhibitor PF-06952229 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of transforming growth factor-beta receptor 1 (TGFbR1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, TGF-betaR1 inhibitor PF-06952229 specifically targets and binds to TGFbR1, which prevents TGFbR1-mediated signal transduction. This abrogates TGFbR1-mediated immunosuppression, enhances anti-tumor immunity in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and promotes a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells leading to tumor... |
| TGF-beta Receptor 1 Kinase Inhibitor SH3051 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinase transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta) receptor 1 (TGFbR1; activin receptor-like kinase 5; ALK5), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, TGFbR1 inhibitor SH3051 specifically targets and binds to TGFbR1, which prevents TGFbR1-mediated signal transduction. This abrogates TGFbR1-mediated immunosuppression, enhances anti-tumor immunity in the tumor microenvironment (TME... |
| TGF-beta Receptor 1 Kinase Inhibitor YL-13027 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinase transforming growth factor-beta receptor 1 (TGFbR1; activin receptor-like kinase 5; ALK5), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, TGF-betaR1 inhibitor YL-13027 specifically targets and binds to TGFbR1, which prevents TGFbR1-mediated signal transduction. This abrogates TGFbR1-mediated immunosuppression, enhances anti-tumor immunity in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and promotes a cyto... |
| TGFbeta Receptor Ectodomain-IgG Fc Fusion Protein BMS-986416 | A fusion protein composed of the ectodomain of the transforming growth factor (TGF) beta (TGF-beta; TGFb) receptor fused to the human immunoglobulin G (IgG) Fc domain, with potential antineoplastic, immunomodulating and anti-fibrotic activities. Upon administration of the TGFb receptor ectodomain-IgG Fc fusion protein BMS-986416, the fusion protein specifically and selectively targets, binds to and neutralizes the TGF ligands TGF-beta isoform 1 (TGFb1) and 3 (TGFb3). This prevents TGF ligands... |
| TGF-beta-15 Peptide Vaccine | A vaccine composed of the transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta; TGFb)-derived peptide TGF-beta-15 combined with the immunoadjuvant montanide ISA-51, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, TGF-beta-15 peptide vaccine may activate TGF-beta-specific CD4+ and CD8+ T-cells and stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against TGF-beta-expressing immunosuppressive cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME), inc... |
| TGF-beta2 Antisense Oligonucleotide TASO-001 | A transforming growth factor (TGF)-beta2 specific antisense oligodeoxynucleotide (ASO), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, TGF-beta2 ASO TASO-001 binds to TGF-beta2 mRNA causing inhibition of protein translation. This decreases TGF-beta2 levels, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell growth and migration, and tumor angiogenesis. TGF-beta2, a cytokine overexpressed in various malignancies, may play an important role in promoting the growth, progression, and ... |
| TGF-beta-Resistant LMP-Specific Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes | A preparation of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta)-resistant cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL) reactive to Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) latent membrane proteins 1 and 2 (LMP 1 and 2) with potential antineoplastic activity. T lymphocytes are transduced with a retroviral vector expressing the dominant-negative mutant type II TGF-beta receptor, which blocks signaling by all three TGF-beta isoforms. These TGF-beta-resistant T-lymphocytes are exposed ex-vivo to dendritic cells (DCs) transfected w... |
| Thalicarpine | A natural aporphine benzylisoquinoline vinca alkaloid with antineoplastic activity. Thalicarpine binds to and inhibits p-glycoprotein, the multidrug resistance efflux pump. Thalicarpine also induces single-strand breaks in DNA and arrests cancer cells at the G2/M and G1 phase of the cell cycle. (NCI04) |
| Thalidomide | A synthetic derivative of glutamic acid (alpha-phthalimido-glutarimide) with teratogenic, immunomodulatory, anti-inflammatory and anti-angiogenic properties.  Thalidomide acts primarily by inhibiting both the production of tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) in stimulated peripheral monocytes and the activities of interleukins and interferons.  This agent also inhibits polymorphonuclear chemotaxis and monocyte phagocytosis.  In addition, thalidomide inhibits pro-angiogenic factors such as... |
| Theramide | A lipophilic disaccharide derivative of muramyl dipeptide (MDP) with strong immunostimulating activity and used as a vaccine adjuvant. MDP, a component of bacterial cell wall, is the minimum chemical structure required for macrophage activation. Due to MDP's toxicity and short duration of action, theramide was developed with improved stability, and can be administered without a liposome carrier. Theramide stimulates macrophage activity, which in turn potentiates other immune responses, includ... |
| Therapeutic Autologous Dendritic Cells | A population of a type of antigen-presenting cell (APC), the dendritic cell (DC), harvested from a patient and grown in vitro in the presence of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) derived from the patient's tumor (a technique known as 'pulsing') and then injected back into the patient; autologous DCs so manipulated may stimulate a specific cell-mediated antitumoral cytotoxicity. DCs derived from a patient may also be fused with the patient's tumor cells in vitro to combine sustained tumor antig... |
| Therapeutic Bacterial Strain CJRB-101 | A live bacterial strain, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the therapeutic bacterial strain CJRB-101, the bacteria activates M1 macrophage and induces repolarization of M2 macrophages. This increases C-X-C motif chemokine 9 (CXCL9) and 10 (CXCL10)-expressing M1 macrophages and induces a shift from M2 to M1 macrophage dominance in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This stimulates the recruitment of other immune cells, increases the populatio... |
| Therapeutic Breast/Ovarian/Prostate Peptide Cancer Vaccine DPX-0907 | A lipid-based multi-peptide cancer vaccine targeted against multiple cancers with immunopotentiating activity. Therapeutic breast/ovarian/prostate peptide cancer vaccine DPX-0907 is a lyophilized liposomal proprietary preparation comprised of 7 tumor-specific HLA-A2-restricted epitopes (TAAs): Topoisomerase II alpha, B-cell receptor-associated protein 31 (CDM protein), TNF-alpha-converting enzyme (TACE/ADAM17), Abelson homolog 2 (Abl2), gamma catenin (Junction plakoglobin), epithelial discoid... |
| Therapeutic Cancer Vaccine ATP128 | A self-adjuvanted chimeric recombinant protein vaccine, based on the self-adjuvanting KISIMA immunization platform, composed of three components: the 42 residue fragment Z12, a cell penetrating peptide (CPP) derived from the ZEBRA protein transduction domain, a toll-like receptor (TLR) peptide agonist as an adjuvant and a chimeric cargo, a multiple antigenic domain (MAD; MultiE), that contains an as of yet not disclosed amount of major histocompatibility class (MHC)-restricted peptides derive... |
| Therapeutic Dendritic Cells/Cytokine-induced Killer Cells | A preparation of autologous dendritic cells (DC) mixed with cytokine-induced killer (CIK) cells (DC-CIK), with potential immunopotentiating and antineoplastic activities. DCs were obtained ex vivo by incubation of peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) with granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor stimulating factor (GM-CSF or CSF2), tumor necrosis factor (TNF), and interleukin (IL)-24 and were sensitized with tumor-associated antigens (TAAs). Cytokine-induced killer (CIK) cells are immu... |
| Therapeutic Ex Vivo-expanded Allogeneic gamma delta T-cells | An off-the-shelf preparation of a subset of therapeutic, ex vivo-expanded, allogeneic T-lymphocytes that express only gamma chain and delta chain T-cell receptors (TCRs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the therapeutic ex vivo-expanded allogeneic gamma delta T-cells, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CT... |
| Therapeutic Ex-vivo-treated Autologous Central Memory T Cells | A preparation of autologous ex-vivo treated central memory T (Tcm) cells with potential immunostimulatory activity. Upon isolation and ex-vivo treatment through as an of yet not elucidated method, the therapeutic ex-vivo-treated autologous Tcm cells, upon reintroduction into the patient, can activate an antitumor immune response which may eradicate tumor cells. |
| Therapeutic gamma delta T-lymphocytes | A subset of therapeutic autologous T-lymphocytes that express a T-cell receptor (TCR) composed of one gamma chain and one delta chain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the therapeutic gamma delta T-lymphocytes, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g), and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma delta T-lymphocyte... |
| Therapeutic Invariant Natural Killer T-cells | A preparation of natural killer T-cells (NKTs) expressing an invariant (alpha, beta) T-cell receptor (iNKTs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion of the therapeutic iNKTs, these cells recognize CD1d-restricted lipid ligands, which are expressed on certain tumor cells, and secrete large amounts of various cytokines. This may activate the immune system against tumor cells. Additionally, iNKTs directly target and lyse tumor cells. |
| Therapeutic Liver Cancer Peptide Vaccine IMA970A | An off-the-shelf hepatocellular cancer (HCC) multi-peptide-based therapeutic vaccine composed of sixteen peptides derived from tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) expressed by hepatic tumor cells, of which seven are restricted to human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2 (HLA-A*02), five to HLA-A*24 and four to HLA class II, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration of the therapeutic liver cancer peptide vaccine IMA970A, the liver-specific peptides in... |
| Therapeutic Prostate Cancer Peptide Vaccine TENDU | A peptide cancer vaccine, based on the tetanus-epitope targeting (TET)-platform, composed of as of yet undisclosed tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) that are specific for prostate cancer and a tetanus-based vaccine adjuvant in the same molecule, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, therapeutic prostate cancer peptide vaccine TENDU may stimulate a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against prostate cancer cells that express these T... |
| Therapeutic Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of cells, consisting of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes, that are manipulated in vitro and, upon administration in vivo, re-infiltrate the tumor to initiate tumor cell lysis. In vitro, therapeutic tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) are isolated from tumor tissue and cultured with lymphokines such as interleukin-2; the therapeutic TILs are then infused into the patient, where, after re-infiltration of the tumor, they may induce lysis of tumor cells and tumor regressi... |
| Thiarabine | A analog of antimetabolite cytarabine (ara-C), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, thiarabine (T-araC) is phosphorylated to the triphosphate form T-araCTP and competes with cytidine for incorporation into DNA. This results in an inhibition of DNA replication and RNA synthesis, chain termination and may eventually decrease tumor cell proliferation. Compared to ara-C, T-araC appears to have a longer half-life and has a higher efficacy. |
| Thiodiglycol | A hydrolysis product of mustard gas, an alkylating agent, with antineoplastic activity. |
| Thioguanine | A synthetic guanosine analogue antimetabolite. Phosphorylated by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase, thioguanine incorporates into DNA and RNA, resulting in inhibition of DNA and RNA syntheses and cell death. This agent also inhibits glutamine-5-phosphoribosylpyrophosphate amidotransferase, thereby inhibiting purine synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Thioguanine Anhydrous | The anhydrous salt form of thioguanine, a synthetic guanosine analogue antimetabolite, with antineoplastic activity. Thioguanine is phosphorylated by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase to 6-thioguanylic acid (TGMP) and upon conversion to thioguanosine diphosphate (TGDP) and thioguanosine triphosphate (TGTP), this agent is incorporated into DNA and RNA, resulting in inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis and cell death. This agent also inhibits glutamine-5-phosphoribosylpyrophosphate ... |
| Thioinosine | A sulfhydryl analog of inosine and an antimetabolite with potential antineoplastic and immunosuppressive properties. Thioinosine interferes with de novo purine synthesis and perturbs the pool of nucleotides necessary for DNA replication. As a result, this agent inhibits DNA synthesis, blocks cellular proliferation and induces apoptosis. |
| Thioredoxin-1 Inhibitor PX-12 | An orally bioavailable small molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Thioredoxin-1 inhibitor PX-12 irreversibly binds to thioredoxin-1 (Trx-1) and inhibits its activity, which may result in growth inhibition and the induction of apoptosis. Overexpressed in many cancer cell types, the low molecular weight redox protein Trx-1 regulates transcription factor activity and inhibits apoptosis, promoting cell growth and survival; it also interacts with growth factors extracellularly to stimu... |
| Thiostrepton | A naturally-occurring, sulfur-rich, cyclic oligopeptide antibiotic of the thiopeptide class, and an irreversible inhibitor of the mitochondrial thioredoxin-dependent peroxide reductase (peroxiredoxin-3; PRX3; antioxidant protein 1; AOP-1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intrapleural administration, thiostrepton irreversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of PRX3. This inhibits the peroxidase activity of the thioredoxin reductase 2 (TXNRD2)-thioredoxin-2 (TRX2)-PRX3 antioxida... |
| Thiotepa | A polyfunctional, organophosphorus alkylating agent and a stable derivative of N,N',N''-triethylenephosphoramide (TEPA), with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, thiotepa is converted into highly reactive ethylenimine groups, which covalently bind to nucleophilic groups in DNA and demonstrate a preference for the N7 position of guanine bases. This induces crosslinking of alkylated guanine bases in double-stranded DNA, interferes with both DNA replication and cell division, and resul... |
| Thioureidobutyronitrile | A water-soluble, small molecule and activator of the tumor suppressor protein p53, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, thioureidobutyronitrile activates p53 which in turn induces the expressions of p21 and PUMA (p53 up-regulated modulator of apoptosis), thereby inhibiting cancer cell growth and causing tumor cell apoptosis. Thioureidobutyronitrile may be effective in drug-resistant cancers with mutated p53. p53 tumor suppressor, a transcription factor regu... |
| THL-P | A proprietary, oral Chinese medicinal herb preparation with potential antioxidant, immunomodulating, and antineoplastic activities. THL-P (Tien-Hsien Liquid-P) contains fourteen Chinese medicinal herbs including: Cordyceps sinensis, Oldenlandia diffusa, Indigo pulverata levis, Polyporus umbellatus, Radix astragali, Panax ginseng, Solanum nigrum L., Pogostemon cablin, Atractylodis macrocephalae rhizoma, Trichosanthes radix, Clematis radix, Margarite, Ligustrum lucidum Ait and Glycyrrhiza radix... |
| Thorium Th 227 Anetumab Corixetan | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of anetumab, a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein mesothelin, conjugated to the chelating agent corixetan, and labeled with the alpha-emitting radioisotope thorium Th 227, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of thorium Th 227 anetumab corixetan, the anetumab moiety binds to the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin, delivering a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to cell... |
| Thorium Th 227 Pelgifatamab Corixetan | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of pelgifatamab, a monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), conjugated to the chelator corixetan, and labeled with the alpha-emitting radioisotope thorium Th 227, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of thorium Th 227 pelgifatamab corixetan, the pelgifatamab moiety targets and specifically binds to PSMA on tumor cells, thereby delivering a cytotoxic dose of alpha r... |
| Thorium Th 227 Trastuzumab Corixetan | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of trastuzumab, a monoclonal antibody targeting the tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2), conjugated to the chelating agent corixetan, and labeled with the alpha-emitting radioisotope thorium Th 227, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of thorium Th 227 trastuzumab corixetan, the trastuzumab moiety targets and specifically binds to HER2 on tumor cells, thereby delivering a cytotoxic dose of alpha ra... |
| Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor CX1106 | A thymidylate synthase (TS) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, TS inhibitor CX1106 binds to and inhibits TS. This reduces thymine nucleotide synthesis, inhibits DNA synthesis and cell division, causes DNA damage and leads to tumor cell apoptosis. TS catalyzes the conversion of deoxyuridine monophosphate (dUMP) to deoxythymidine monophosphate (dTMP), an essential precursor for DNA synthesis, and plays a key role in cell growth and division. |
| Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor DFP-11207 | An orally available thymidylate synthase (TS) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, DFP-11207 binds to and inhibits TS. This reduces thymine nucleotide synthesis, inhibits DNA synthesis and cell division, causes DNA damage and leads to tumor cell apoptosis. TS catalyzes the conversion of deoxyuridine monophosphate (dUMP) to deoxythymidine monophosphate (dTMP). |
| Thymopentin | A synthetic pentapeptide which is the active site of the naturally occurring hormone thymopoietin with immunomodulating properties. Thymopentin enhances the production of thymic T cells and may help restore immunocompetence in immunosuppressed subjects. This agent also augments the effects of ionizing radiation by arresting cancer cells in the G2/M phase of the cell cycle. (NCI04) |
| Thyrointegrin AlphaVBeta3 Antagonist fb-PMT | A fluorobenzyl polyethylene glycol (PEG) conjugated to tetraiodothyroacetic acid that targets the thyrointegrin alphaVbeta3, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the thyrointegrin alphaVbeta3 antagonist fb-PMT targets and binds to alphaVbeta3 integrin. This results in the inhibition of angiogenesis and metastasis. The mechanism of actions (MOAs) through which fb-PMT exerts its actions may be more complex and may be through multiple signaling pathways. AlphaVbeta3 integ... |
| Tiazofurin | A synthetic nucleoside analogue with antineoplastic activity. Tiazofurin (TR) is anabolized intracellularly to an analogue of NAD, tiazole-4-carboxamide adenine dinucleotide (TAD), a potent inhibitor of IMP dehydrogenase (IMPDH); IMPDH is the rate-limiting enzyme for de novo purine synthesis. Inhibition of IMPDH results in reduced levels of guanylates, resulting in the inhibition tumor cell growth in vitro and in vivo. (NCI04) |
| Tidutamab | A humanized, Fc domain-containing, bispecific monoclonal antibody targeting human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and somatostatin receptor 2 (SSTR2), a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) expressed on certain cancer cells, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tidutamab binds to both T-cells and SSTR2-expressing cancer cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the SSTR2-expressing cancer cells. The inclusion of an F... |
| Tifcemalimab | A recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G4 kappa (IgG4k) monoclonal antibody directed against B- and T-lymphocyte attenuator (BTLA), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous infusion administration, tifcemalimab targets and binds to BTLA. This prevents BTLA-mediated inhibition of T-cell activation leading to antigen specific T-cell proliferation and activation of a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. BTLA, an immunog... |
| Tigapotide | A synthetic 15-mer peptide corresponding to amino acids 31-45 of the 94-amino acid isoform of human prostate secretory protein (PSP-94) with potential anti-metastasis and anti-angiogenesis activities. PSP-94-derived peptide PCK3145 may inhibit the secretion of the metastasis-related protein matrix metalloproteinase-9 (MMP-9) and its potential binding to its cell surface receptor CD44; may interfere with the vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) signaling pathway, resulting in an anti-angi... |
| Tigatuzumab | A humanized agonistic monoclonal antibody directed against human tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis-inducing ligand receptor 2 (TRAIL-R2) with potential antitumor activity. Mimicking the natural receptor ligand TRAIL, tigatuzumab binds to TRAIL-R2, activating signal transduction pathways that may result in tumor cell apoptosis and a reduction in tumor growth. A member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor family, TRAIL-R2, also known as DR5 (death receptor 5), is expressed on the s... |
| Tigilanol Tiglate | A short-chain diterpene ester isolated from the seed of Fontainea picrosperma, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral administration, tigilanol tiglate disrupts mitochondrial functioning and induces mitochondrial swelling, which leads to oncolysis of tumor cells that are in direct contact of the agent. In addition, tigilanol tiglate activates protein kinase C (PKC) signaling cascade, which leads to an acute inflammatory response. This results in hypoxia and activates innate... |
| TIGIT/PD-L1 Inhibitor AUR-106 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT) and the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; PDL1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, TIGIT/PD-L1 inhibitor AUR-106 simultaneously ... |
| Tigozertinib | A fourth-generation, orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, tigozertinib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR with C797S triple mutations including ex19del/T790M/C797S and L858R/T790M/C797S, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase muta... |
| TIL 1383I T Cell Receptor-Transduced Autologous T Cells | Autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes-derived T cells transduced with a retroviral encoding TIL 1383I, a T cell receptor (TCR) specific for melanoma antigen tyrosinase, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activity. After transduction, expansion in culture, and reintroduction into the patient, TIL 1383I TCR-transduced autologous T cells bind to tumor cells expressing tyrosinase, which may induce cytokine expression, activation and proliferation of T-cells, and a specific cyto... |
| Tilarginine | A pan-nitric oxide synthase (NOS) inhibitor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tilarginine binds to and inhibits NOS, a free radical signaling molecule that promotes angiogenesis, metastasis, and immunosuppression in the tumor microenvironment (TME). Reduction in NOS activity may abrogate the immunosuppressive TME, enhance tumor antigen-specific immune response and inhibit tumor cell proliferation. |
| Tilatamig Samrotecan | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a tilatamig, a bispecific antibody targeting both epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; c-Met) and conjugated to a topoisomerase-1 inhibitor (TOP1i), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tilatamig samrotecan simultaneously targets and binds to the extracellular domains of wild-type (WT) or certain mutant forms of both EGFR and c-Met expressed on cancer cells. Upon binding and in... |
| Tilogotamab | An agonistic hexamer formation-enhanced mixture of two antibodies (HexaBody) that target two separate epitopes on death receptor type 5 (DR5; TNFRSF10B; tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis-inducing ligand receptor 2; TRAILR2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tilogotamab specifically binds to and activates DR5. This results in the activation of caspase cascades and the induction of apoptosis in DR5-expressing tumor cells. DR5, a cell surface receptor and member... |
| Tilsotolimod Sodium | The sodium salt form of tilsotolimod, a proprietary synthetic oligonucleotide-based agonist of toll-like receptor 9 (TLR9), with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration, tilsotolimod binds to and activates TLR9 expressed by plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs) and B-cells. This initiates immune signaling pathways, activates B-cells and pDCs, and induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. TLR9 is a member of the TLR family, which plays... |
| Tilvestamab | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against AXL receptor tyrosine kinase (AXL; UFO), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tilvestamab targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of AXL, which is expressed on the surfaces of a variety of cancer cell types. This prevents AXL-mediated signaling, and may inhibit tumor cell proliferation, migration and invasion. AXL, a member of the TAM (TYRO3, AXL and MER) family of recept... |
| Timdarpacept | A recombinant fusion protein composed of human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRP-alpha; SIRPa; CD172a) linked to an Fc domain derived from human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, timdarpacept selectively targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with endogenous SIRPa, an inhibitory protein expressed on macrophages and dendritic cells (D... |
| Timonacic | A cyclic sulfur amino acid derivative with potential antineoplastic and antioxidant activities. Acting on cellular membranes of malignant cells through an unknown mechanism, timonacic may induce malignant cells to revert back to an untransformed state. This agent may also restore contact inhibition, a phenomenon characterized by the paracrine inhibition of mitosis following the formation of a critical cell mass, presumably the result of cell-to-cell signal transfer. Timonacic may also produce... |
| Tin Ethyl Etiopurpurin | A synthetic purpurin with photosensitizing activity.  Tin ethyl etiopurpurin preferentially accumulates in tumor cells due to an increased rate of metabolism. Upon exposure to a light source, this agent absorbs light, forming an extended high energy conformational state that produces high quantum yields of singlet oxygen with local cytotoxic effects. (NCI04) |
| Tinengotinib | An orally available small molecule inhibitor of Aurora kinases (AKs) A and B, Janus kinases (JAKs), fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs) and vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulatory activities. Upon oral administration, tinengotinib selectively binds to and inhibits AKs A and B, which inhibit cell division in tumor cells that overexpress AKs. Tinengotinib also targets JAKs that are involved in cytokine signaling and inflam... |
| Tinlorafenib | An inhibitor of the BRAF (B-raf) protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tinlorafenib selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of BRAF, which may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells expressing a mutated BRAF gene. BRAF, a serine/threonine protein kinase, plays a key role in regulating the MAP kinase/ERKs signaling pathway, which may be constitutively activated due to BRAF gene mutations. Tinlorafenib may penetrate the blood-brain-barrier (BBB). |
| Tinodasertib | A selective mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)-interacting protein kinase (MNK) types 1/2 inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tinodasertib may inhibit MNK1/2-dependent phosphorylation of eukaryotic initiation factor 4E (eIF4E) and interfere with its role in mRNA translation. eIF4E is an oncoprotein that must be phosphorylated before it can promote the proliferation and progression of tumor cells. MNKs are a family of serine/threonine kinases that have b... |
| Tinostamustine | An alkylating histone-deacetylase inhibitor (HDACi) fusion molecule composed of the alkylating agent bendamustine fused to the pan-HDACi vorinostat, with potential bi-functional antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of tinostamustine the vorinostat moiety targets and binds to HDACs. This leads to an accumulation of highly acetylated histones, which results in an induction of chromatin remodeling, a modulation of gene expression, an inhibition of tumor cell division and the induction of... |
| Tinurilimab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the immune checkpoint regulator carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 6 (CEACAM6; CEACAM-6; CD66c), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration,tinurilimab targets, binds to and blocks the activity of CEACAM6 expressed on various tumor and immune cells, including T-cells. Blocking CEACAM6 signaling abrogates effector T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes,... |
| Tinzaparin Sodium | The sodium salt of a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), obtained by controlled enzymatic depolymerization of heparin from porcine intestinal mucosa, with antithrombotic properties.  Tinzaparin is a potent inhibitor of several activated coagulation factors, especially Factors Xa and IIa (thrombin); its primary activity is mediated through the plasma protease inhibitor antithrombin. In addition, this agent may inhibit angiogenesis through: 1) competitive binding of the heparin-binding sites o... |
| Tiomolibdate Choline | An orally active second generation tetrathiomolybdate analog with anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Tiomolibdate choline selectively chelates the copper ion in superoxide dismutase 1 (SOD1) in endothelial cells, thereby depleting SOD1 of copper and inhibiting its activity. Inhibition of SOD1 interferes with the activation of several signal transduction pathways required for cellular proliferation and angiogenesis, including those mediated by ERK1/2 and FAK and Src kinases. This r... |
| Tiomolibdate Diammonium | An ammonium salt with potential antiangiogenic and antitumor activities. Tetrathiomolybdate has been found to deplete systemic copper reserves through an unknown mechanism. This agent has been shown to inhibit the activities of cuproenzymes, including superoxide dismutase 1 (SOD1) and cytochrome c oxidase (COX), which may contribute to its antiangiogenic and antitumor effects. |
| Tipapkinogene Sovacivec | A cancer vaccine comprised of a modified, replication-defective, vaccinia virus Ankara (MVA) strain encoding the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV16) subtypes E6 and E7, and human interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Vaccination with tipapkinogene sovacivec stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing HPV16 E6 and E7, resulting in tumor cell ly... |
| Tipifarnib | A nonpeptidomimetic quinolinone with potential antineoplastic activity. Tipifarnib binds to and inhibits the enzyme farnesyl protein transferase, an enzyme involved in protein processing (farnesylation) for signal transduction.  By inhibiting the farnesylation of proteins, this agent prevents the activation of Ras oncogenes, inhibits cell growth, induces apoptosis, and inhibits angiogenesis. (NCI04) |
| Tirabrutinib | An orally available formulation containing an inhibitor of Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tirabrutinib covalently binds to BTK within B cells, thereby preventing B cell receptor signaling and impeding B cell development. As a result, this agent may inhibit the proliferation of B cell malignancies. BTK, a cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase and member of the Tec family of kinases, plays an important role in B lymphocyte dev... |
| Tiragolumab | A human monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, tiragolumab binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of TIGIT with its ligands CD112 (nectin-2; poliov... |
| Tirapazamine | A benzotriazine di-N-oxide with potential antineoplastic activity.  Tirapazamine is selectively activated by multiple reductases to form free radicals in hypoxic cells, thereby inducing single-and double-strand breaks in DNA, base damage, and cell death.  This agent also sensitizes hypoxic cells to ionizing radiation and inhibits the repair of radiation-induced DNA strand breaks via inhibition of topoisomerase II. (NCI04) |
| Tirbanibulin | An orally bioavailable small molecule Src kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Unlike other Src kinase inhibitors which bind to the ATP-binding site, tirbanibulin specifically binds to the peptide substrate binding site of Src kinase; inhibition of kinase activity may result in the inhibition of primary tumor growth and the suppression of metastasis. Src tyrosine kinases are upregulated in many tumor cells and play important roles in tumor cell proliferation and metastasis. |
| Tisagenlecleucel | Autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a modified lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 scFv (single chain variable fragment) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta), coupled to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, tisagenlecleucel directs the T-lymphocytes to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing a selective toxicity in CD19-expressing ... |
| Tislelizumab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tislelizumab binds to PD-1 and inhibits the binding of PD-1 to the PD-1 ligands programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1), and PD-1 ligand 2 (PD-L2). This prevents the activation of PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the ac... |
| Tisotumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) comprised of tisotumab, a monoclonal antibody against human tissue factor (TF) covalently coupled, via a protease-cleavable peptide linker, to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antiangiogenic, anticoagulant and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of tisotumab vedotin, the tisotumab moiety binds to cell surface TF and is internalized. Tisotumab binds to factor VIIa (FVIIa)... |
| Tivantinib | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of c-Met with potential antineoplastic activity. c-Met inhibitor ARQ 197 binds to the c-Met protein and disrupts c-Met signal transduction pathways, which may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. c-Met protein, the product of the proto-oncogene c-Met, is a receptor tyrosine kinase also known as hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR); this protein is overexpressed or... |
| Tivozanib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) 1, 2 and 3 with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities.  Tivozanib binds to and inhibits VEGFRs 1, 2 and 3, which may result in the inhibition of endothelial cell migration and proliferation, inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell death. VEGFR tyrosine kinases, frequently overexpressed by a variety of tumor cell types, play a key role in angiogenesis. |
| Tivumecirnon | An orally available, small molecule antagonist of C-C chemokine receptor type 4 (CCR4) with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, tivumecirnon inhibits the binding of CCR4 to its signaling molecules, thereby blocking the recruitment of regulatory T-cells (Tregs) to the tumor microenvironment (TME). This may abrogate the immunosuppressive effects of Tregs and promote an effective anti-tumor immune response. CCR4, a chemokine receptor normally expre... |
| Tizaterkib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 (ERK1) and 2 (ERK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, tizaterkib specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the serine/threonine-protein kinases ERK1 and ERK2, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of ERK1/2 substrates and the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ERK-dep... |
| TLC ELL-12 | A liposomal formulation of the ether lipid 1-O-octadecyl-2-O-methyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine with potential antineoplastic activity.  TLC ELL-12 induces tumor cell apoptosis via mitochondria- and caspase-mediated mechanisms.  Liposomal encapsulation reduces the free agent's hemolytic toxicity. (NCI04) |
| TLR Agonist BSG-001 | A toll-like receptor (TLR) agonist with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon inhalation, TLR agonist BSG-001 activates one or more not yet disclosed TLRs, which may result in macrophage and plasmacytoid dendritic cell (pDC) stimulation, secretion of interferon alpha (IFNa), production of proinflammatory cytokines, upregulation of co-stimulatory molecules, enhanced T- and B-cell stimulatory responses, T-cell proliferation and a T-helper 1 (Th1) immune response. TLRs a... |
| TLR Agonist CADI-05 | A poly-Toll-like receptor (TLR) agonist polyantigenic vaccine containing heat killed Mycobacterium indicus pranii (Mycobacterium w or Mw) with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, poly-TLR agonist polyantigenic vaccine activates a number of TLRs, which may result in macrophage and plasmacytoid dendritic cell (pDC) stimulation; secretion of interferon alpha; production of pro-inflammatory cytokines; upregulation of co-stimulatory molecules, enhanced T... |
| TLR Agonist Decoy20 | A multi-targeted toll-like receptor (TLR) agonist, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, TLR agonist Decoy20 activates one or more not yet disclosed TLRs expressed on various immune cells, such as macrophages and plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs), which results in their stimulation, the production of certain pro-inflammatory cytokines, and the upregulation of co-stimulatory molecules. This may lead to enhanced T- and B-cell stimulatory responses... |
| TLR1/2 Agonist Pam3Cys-GDPKHPKSF | A vaccine adjuvant and synthetic Toll-like receptor (TLR) type 1 and 2 ligand composed of a lipopeptide containing a water-soluble derivative of Pam3-Cys, the biologically active component of the mycobacterial 19 kDa lipoprotein of mycobacteria, that is covalently linked to a synthetic peptide (GDPKHPKSF), with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration, TLR1/2 agonist Pam3Cys-GDPKHPKSF targets, binds to and activates TLR1/2, which induces CD8- and T-helper 1 CD4-positive T-cel... |
| TLR7 Agonist 852A | A synthetic imidazoquinoline Toll-like receptor 7 (TLR7) agonist with immunostimulating and potential antitumor activities. TLR7 agonist 852A binds to and activates TLR7, thereby stimulating plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDC) through the TLR7-MyD88-dependent signaling pathway. Activation of pDC results in secretion of interferon alpha, the production of proimflammatory cytokines, the upregulation of co-stimulatory molecules, and enhanced T and B-cell stimulatory responses. |
| TLR7 Agonist APR003 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule Toll-Like Receptor 7 (TLR7) agonist, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon oral administration, TLR7 agonist APR003 targets, binds to and activates TLR7, thereby stimulating dendritic cells (DCs) and enhancing natural killer cell (NK) cytotoxicity. This activation results in the production of proinflammatory cytokines, including interferon alpha, and enhanced antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). TLR7 is a member of the TLR family, w... |
| TLR7 agonist BNT411 | A Toll-like receptor (TLR) 7 agonist with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon administration, TLR7 agonist BNT411 binds to and activates TLR7. This may trigger, in addition to other possible responses, the activation of cluster of differentiation (CD) 8+ T cells, B cells, and innate immune cells including natural killer (NK) cells and macrophages. TLR7 is a member of the TLR family, which plays a fundamental role in pathogen recognition and activation of innate immunity. |
| TLR7 Agonist CAN1012 | A Toll-like receptor type 7 (TLR 7) agonist, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral (IT) administration, TLR7 agonist CAN1012 targets, binds to and activates TLR7, thereby activating TLR7-mediated pathways. This stimulates the maturation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), including dendritic cells (DCs). Activation of DCs results in the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, and the activation of cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)- and B... |
| TLR7 Agonist JNJ-64794964 | An orally bioavailable Toll-like receptor (TLR) 7 agonist, with potential immunostimulating, antiviral and antitumor activities. Upon oral administration, TLR7 agonist JNJ-64794964 specifically targets, binds to and activates TLR7. This triggers anti-viral and anti-tumor activities through the activation of cluster of differentiation (CD) 8-positive T cells, B cells, and innate immune cells including natural killer (NK) cells and macrophages, secretion of interferon alpha (IFNa), and the prod... |
| TLR7 Agonist LHC165 | A benzonapthyridine Toll-like receptor (TLR) 7 agonist that is adsorbed to aluminum hydroxide with immunostimulating and potential antitumor activities. Upon intratumoral administration of TLR7 agonist LHC165, the agent is slowly released and targets, binds to and activates TLR7.  This may trigger, in addition to other possible responses, the activation of cluster of differentiation (CD) 8+ T cells and natural killer (NK) cells, the blockage of the suppressive function of regulatory T cells (... |
| TLR7 Agonist RO7119929 | An orally bioavailable Toll-like receptor (TLR) 7 agonist, with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon oral administration, TLR7 agonist RO7119929 targets, binds to and activates TLR7. This may trigger the activation of cluster of differentiation (CD) 8-positive T cells, B cells, and innate immune cells including natural killer (NK) cells and macrophages, and may induce the production of cytokines including interferon alpha (IFNa), leading to antitumor activity. TLR7 is a ... |
| TLR7 Agonist SHR2150 | A Toll-like receptor (TLR) 7 agonist with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, TLR7 agonist SHR2150 targets, binds to and activates TLR7. This may trigger, in addition to other possible responses, the activation of dendritic cells (DCs), macrophages and B cells, and activate cluster of differentiation (CD) 8+ T-cells. This may induce anti-tumor immune responses. TLR7 is a member of the TLR family, which plays a fundamental role in pathogen recognitio... |
| TLR7/8 Agonist INI-4001 | A lipidated toll-like receptor type 7 and 8 (TLR 7/8) agonist, with potential immunoadjuvating, immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon administration, TLR7/8 agonist INI-4001 targets, binds to and activates TLR7 and 8, thereby activating TLR7/8-mediated pathways. This stimulates the maturation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), including dendritic cells (DCs). Activation of DCs results in the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines and the activation of cytotoxic T-... |
| TLR-Directed Cationic Lipid-DNA Complex JVRS-100 | A cationic lipid DNA complex (CLDC) consisting of DOTIM/cholesterol liposomes and plasmid DNA, containing immunostimulatory CpG and non-CpG motifs, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon systemic administration, TLR-directed cationic lipid-DNA complex JVRS-100 enters dendritic cells (DCs) and macrophages; immunostimulatory DNA binds to and activates Toll-like receptors (TLRs), which may result in the generation of anti-tumor natural killer (NK) cell and T-cell re... |
| TM4SF1-CAR/EpCAM-CAR-expressing Autologous T Cells | A mixed preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express either a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the antigen transmembrane 4 L six family member 1 (TM4SF1) (CART-TM4SF1) or a CAR specific for epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM) (CART-EpCAM), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the TM4SF1-CAR/EpCAM-CAR-expressing autologous T cells, the TM4SF1-CAR-expressing autologous T-cells specifica... |
| Tn(c)-KLH Conjugate Vaccine | A vaccine containing a clustered pancarcinoma carbohydrate antigen conjugated with keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH) with potential antineoplastic activity. Alpha-N-acetylgalactosamine (Tn) is a monosaccharide usually O-linked to serine or threonine residues of mucins found on most epithelial cancers with the highest expression on prostate cancer. This vaccine contains the Tn epitope cluster (c) that is synthesized by linking 3 copies of the Tn epitope on a threonine backbone to achieve the ess... |
| TNF Transduced TIL | A preparation of autologous tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) that have been transduced with a retroviral vector encoding the gene for tumor necrosis factor (TNF), a cytokine with anti-angiogenic and cytotoxic activity.  Following genetic modification, the lymphocytes are returned to the patient, infiltrate the tumor site, and deliver TNF directly to the tumor site, thereby exerting a specific antitumor effect, and avoiding TNF-related systemic toxicity. (NCI04) |
| TNFalpha/IL-2-encoding Oncolytic Adenovirus TILT-123 | A genetically-engineered, replication competent, oncolytic serotype 5/3 capsid-modified adenovirus and encoding for the T-cell immunostimulatory cytokines tumor nerosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) and interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential oncolytic and immunostimulating activities. Upon administration of TNFalpha/IL-2-encoding oncolytic adenovirus TILT-123, the oncolytic adenovirus binds to specific Ad3 receptors that are highly expressed on certain tumor cells and selectively infect and replicat... |
| Tobemstomig | A bispecific antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PD1; PDCD1; CD279; Programmed Death 1) and lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tobemstomig targets and binds to both PD-1 and LAG-3 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the PD-1- and LAG-3-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation and prolifer... |
| Tocilizumab | A recombinant, humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the interleukin-6 receptor (IL-6R) with immunosuppressant activity. Tocilizumab targets and binds to both the soluble form of IL-6R (sIL-6R) and the membrane-bound form (mIL-6R), thereby blocking the binding of IL-6 to its receptor. This prevents IL-6-mediated signaling. IL-6, a pro-inflammatory cytokine that plays an important role in the regulation of the immune response, is overproduced in autoimmune disorders, certain type... |
| Tocladesine | An antimetabolite and a chlorine derivative of the intracellular secondary messenger, cyclic adenosine 3,5-monophosphate (cAMP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Tocladesine appears to be converted to 8-chloro-adenosine by phosphodiesterases and subsequently phosphorylated to 8-chloro-ATP, which functions as a purine analogue and competes with ATP in transcription. In addition, generation of 8-chloro-ATP depletes endogenous ATP pool that is essential for many biological reactions in in... |
| Tocotrienol | Any of the four forms, alpha, beta, gamma and delta, of a member of the vitamin E family, with potential hypocholesterolemic, antithrombotic, antioxidant, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Tocotrienol inhibits the activity of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, thereby lowering cholesterol levels. In addition, tocotrienol acts through multiple signal transduction pathways to induce cell cycle arrest and caspase-mediated apoptosis, and to decrease tumor cel... |
| Tocotrienol-rich Fraction | An orally available nutritional supplement containing high amounts of the vitamin E family member tocotrienol with antioxidant, hypolipidemic and potential immunomodulating and antiproliferative activity. Upon oral administration, tocotrienol-rich fraction (TRF) accumulates in tumor cells and induces cell cycle arrest, programmed cell death, and inhibits tumor cell proliferation. In addition, this agent suppresses 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG CoA) reductase activity and inhibits... |
| Tofacitinib Topical Cream | A topical cream formulation containing the Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor tofacitinib, with potential immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon topical administration, tofacitinib binds to JAK and prevents the activation of the JAK-signal transducers and activators of transcription (STAT) signaling pathway. This may decrease the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, such as interleukin (IL)-6, -7, -15, -21, interferon-alpha (IFN-a) and -beta (IFN-b), and may prevent both an in... |
| Tolebrutinib | An orally bioavailable, brain-penetrant, selective, small molecule inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon oral administration, tolebrutinib is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and inhibits the activity of BTK both peripherally and in the central nervous system (CNS). This prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway, and the resulting immune activation and inflammation. The inhi... |
| Tolinapant | An orally bioavailable, non-peptidomimetic antagonist of both X chromosome-linked inhibitor of apoptosis protein (XIAP) and cellular IAP 1 (cIAP1), with potential antineoplastic and pro-apoptotic activities. Upon administration, tolinapant selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of XIAP and cIAP1. This restores and promotes the induction of apoptotic signaling pathways in cancer cells, and inactivates the nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB)-mediated survival pathway. XIAP and cIAP1 are over... |
| Toll-like Receptor 7/8 Agonist BDB018 | A toll-like receptor type 7 and 8 (TLR 7/8) agonist, with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon administration, TLR 7/8 agonist BDB018 binds to and activates TLR7 and 8, thereby activating TLR7/8-mediated pathways. This stimulates the maturation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), including dendritic cells (DCs). Activation of DCs results in the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, and the activation of cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)- and B-lymphocyte-me... |
| Toll-like Receptor 7/8 Agonist EIK1001 | A toll-like receptor type 7 and 8 (TLR7/8) agonist, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, TLR7/8 agonist EIK1001 targets, binds to and activates TLR7 and 8, thereby activating TLR7/8-mediated pathways. This stimulates the maturation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), including dendritic cells (DCs). Activation of DCs results in the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, and the activation of cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)- and B-... |
| Tolnidamine | An indazole carboxylic acid derivative with antispermatogenic and potential antineoplastic activity. As a male contraceptive, tolnidamine may irreversibly inhibit sperm production. This agent is less nephrotoxic than ionidamide, but it is just as effective in antispermatogenic action to ionidamide. |
| Tomaralimab | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 monoclonal antibody directed against toll-like receptor type 2 (TLR2), with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, tomaralimab binds to the ligand-binding site on the TLR2 receptor and blocks the activation of TLR2-mediated innate immunity signaling. This prevents the TLR2-mediated production of pro-inflammatory mediators and prevents inflammation. TLR2, a member of the TLR family primarily found on leukoc... |
| Tomato-Soy Juice | A juice containing tomato extract and soy protein with potential chemopreventive and antiproliferative activities. Tomato-soy juice contains phytochemicals, including flavonoids, such as the soy isoflavone genistein, and carotenoids, including lycopene. These phytochemicals may exhibit antioxidative activity, antitumor activity by modulating certain tumor-associated signal transduction pathways, and apoptosis-inducing activity. |
| Tomivosertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)-interacting serine/threonine-protein kinase 1 (MNK1) and 2 (MNK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, tomivosertib binds to and inhibits the activity of MNK1 and 2. This prevents MNK1/2-mediated signaling, and inhibits the phosphorylation of certain regulatory proteins, including eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4E (eIF4E), that regulate the translation of messenger RNAs (mRNAs) ... |
| Topical AKT Inhibitor SM-020 | A topical gel formulation of an inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase AKT (protein kinase B), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon application, the topical AKT inhibitor SM-020 binds to and inhibits the activity of AKT, which may result in the inhibition of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This may lead to the reduction in tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. The AKT signaling pathway is associated with tumor cell proliferation, survival and mi... |
| Topical Betulinic Acid | A topical formulation of a pentacyclic lupane-type triterpene derivative of betulin (isolated from the bark of Betula alba, the common white birch) with antiinflammatory, anti-HIV and antineoplastic activities. Betulinic acid induces apoptosis through induction of changes in mitochondrial membrane potential, production of reactive oxygen species, and opening of mitochondrial permeability transition pores, resulting in the release of mitochondrial factors involved in apoptosis, activation of c... |
| Topical Celecoxib | A topical cream formulation containing celecoxib, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), with anti-inflammatory and potential keratolytic, chemopreventive and antineoplastic activities. Upon topical application to the affected area, celecoxib selectively binds to and inhibits cyclooxygenase-2 activity (COX-2), which may result in localized keratinocyte apoptosis. The breakdown of keratinocytes prevents their proliferation locally and may reduce tumor cell proliferation. |
| Topical Fluorouracil | A topical formulation containing the antimetabolite 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), with antineoplastic activity. Upon topical administration, 5-FU is converted into the active metabolite 5-fluoroxyuridine monophosphate (F-UMP), which competes with uracil during RNA synthesis and inhibits RNA processing. Conversion of 5-FU into another active metabolite, 5-5-fluoro-2'-deoxyuridine-5'-O-monophosphate (F-dUMP), inhibits thymidylate synthase; this results in the depletion of thymidine triphosphate (TTP),... |
| Topical Gemcitabine Hydrochloride | A topical preparation of gemcitabine hydrochloride with antineoplastic activity. Gemcitabine, an analogue of the antimetabolite nucleoside deoxycytidine, is converted intracellularly to the active metabolites difluorodeoxycytidine di- and triphosphate (dFdCDP, dFdCTP). dFdCDP inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, thereby decreasing the deoxynucleotide pool available for DNA synthesis; dFdCTP is incorporated into DNA, resulting in DNA strand termination and apoptosis. |
| Topical Potassium Dobesilate | A topical formulation composed of an inhibitor of fibroblast growth factor (FGF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon topical administration potassium dobesilate selectively binds to and blocks the activity of FGF, interferes with the binding of FGF to FGFR and prevents FGFR-mediated signaling. This inhibits angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation, and induces cell death in FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGF plays a key role in angiogenesis, tumor cell proliferation, survival and... |
| Topical Sonidegib | A topical formulation containing sonidegib, a small-molecule Smoothened (Smo) antagonist, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon topical application, sonidegib selectively binds to the Hedgehog (Hh)-ligand cell surface receptor Smo, which may result in the suppression of the Hh signaling pathway and, so, the inhibition of tumor cells in which this pathway is abnormally activated. The Hh signaling pathway plays an important role in cellular growth, differentiation and repair. Inappropria... |
| Topical Tirbanibulin | An ointment containing an inhibitor for both Src tyrosine kinase and tubulin polymerization, with potential antineoplastic activity. Unlike other Src kinase inhibitors which bind to the ATP-binding site, tirbanibulin binds to the peptide substrate binding site of Src kinase, upon topical application. This inhibits both downstream signaling and the proliferation of tumor cells overexpressing Src. Src tyrosine kinase, a non-receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays an... |
| Topical Trichloroacetic Acid | A topical solution containing the caustic agent trichloroacetic acid (TCA), with potential keratolytic, anti-viral and antineoplastic activities. Upon topical application to the affected area, TCA causes tissue necrosis through coagulation of proteins, leads to the destruction of human papilloma virus (HPV)-associated warts and inhibits HPV-driven proliferation of cancer cells. |
| Topixantrone | A 9-aza-anthrapyrazole antineoplastic antibiotic. Topixantrone intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair as well as RNA and protein synthesis. Compared to other DNA intercalators, this agent shows minimal cardiotoxicity. |
| Topoisomerase I Inhibitor Genz-644282 | A non-camptothecin inhibitor of topoisomerase I with potential antineoplastic activity. Topoisomerase I inhibitor Genz-644282 binds to and inhibits the enzyme topoisomerase I, which may result in the inhibition of repair of single-strand DNA breaks, DNA replication, and tumor cell growth in susceptible tumor cell populations. |
| Topoisomerase I Inhibitor LMP400 | An indenoisoquinoline and non-camptothecin inhibitor of topoisomerase I (Top I) with potential antineoplastic activity. Topoisomerase I inhibitor LMP400 binds to the topoisomerase I-DNA covalent cleavage complexes, and inhibits repair of single-strand DNA breaks, DNA replication, and tumor cell growth in susceptible tumor cell populations. Compared to camptothecins, indenoisoquinolines are chemically stable, produce stable Top I-DNA cleavage complexes, induce unique DNA cleavage sites and app... |
| Topoisomerase I Inhibitor LMP776 | An indenoisoquinoline and non-camptothecin inhibitor of topoisomerase I (Top I) with potential antineoplastic activity. Topoisomerase I inhibitor LMP776 binds to the topoisomerase I-DNA covalent cleavage complexes, and inhibits repair of single-strand DNA breaks, DNA replication, and tumor cell growth in susceptible tumor cell populations. Compared to camptothecins, indenoisoquinolines are chemically stable, produce stable Top I-DNA cleavage complexes, induce unique DNA cleavage sites and app... |
| Topoisomerase I/II Inhibitor NEV-801 | A multi-targeted agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, NEV-801 appears to selectively inhibit topoisomerase (Topo) I and II, and activates hypoxia-inducible factor 1 (HIF-1) transcription and the expression of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) mRNA. NEV-801 is also able to overcome multidrug resistance (MDR) 1-mediated resistance. |
| Topoisomerase-1 Inhibitor LMP744 | An indenoisoquinoline derivative and topoisomerase 1 (Top1) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, LMP744 binds to and stabilizes cleaved DNA-Top1 complexes, which prevents DNA re-ligation, induces stable, irreversible DNA strand breaks, prevents DNA repair, and leads to cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. As tumor cells proliferate at a much higher rate than normal cells, LMP744 specifically targets cancer cells. Top1, a DNA modifying enzyme essential for transc... |
| Topoisomerase-II Inhibitor Racemic XK469 | The racemic form of a synthetic quinoxaline phenoxypropionic acid derivative with antineoplastic properties. XK469R selectively inhibits topoisomerase II by stabilizing the enzyme-DNA intermediates in which topoisomerase subunits are covalently linked to DNA through 5-phosphotyrosyl linkages, thereby interfering with DNA repair and replication, RNA and protein synthesis. This agent possesses unusual solid tumor selectivity and activity against multidrug-resistant cancer cells. XK469R is more ... |
| Topoisomerase-II-beta Inhibitor Racemic XK469 | The R-isomer of a synthetic quinoxaline phenoxypropionic acid derivative with proapoptotic and antiproliferative activities. R(+)XK469 selectively inhibits topoisomerase II-beta, blocks activation of MEK/MAPK signaling kinases, stimulates caspases, and upregulates p53-dependent proteins, including cyclins A and B1, thereby arresting cancer cells in the G2/M phase of the cell cycle. Both R(+) and S(-) isomers of this agent are cytotoxic, although the R-isomer is more potent. (NCI05) |
| Topotecan | A semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin, a cytotoxic, quinoline-based alkaloid extracted from the Asian tree Camptotheca acuminata. Topotecan inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes during S phase of cell cycle, thereby inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-strand DNA breaks and producing potentially lethal double-strand DNA breaks when encountered by the DNA replication machinery. |
| Topotecan Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt of a semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin with antineoplastic activity. During the S phase of the cell cycle, topotecan selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes, inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-strand DNA breaks and producing potentially lethal double-strand DNA breaks when complexes are encountered by the DNA replication machinery. Camptothecin is a cytotoxic quinoline-based alkaloid extracted from the Asian tree Campto... |
| Topotecan Hydrochloride Liposomes | The hydrochloride salt of a semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin mixed with sphingomyelin/cholesterol and sonicated to form small unilamellar vesicles containing topotecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Topotecan hydrochloride liposomes mediates efficient drug delivery of topotecan into the cytosol from the endosome compartment. During the S phase of the cell cycle, topotecan selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes, inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-... |
| Topotecan Sustained-release Episcleral Plaque | An episcleral plaque containing sustained-release (SR) topotecan, a semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin and a cytotoxic, quinoline-based alkaloid extracted from the Asian tree Camptotheca acuminate, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon local application of the topotecan SR episcleral plaque to the eye, topotecan is released in a sustained manner and inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes during S phase of cell cycle, thereby in... |
| Topsalysin | A targeted prodrug consisting of a recombinant modified form of the Aeromonas protoxin, proaerolysin (PA), bearing a prostate-specific protease cleavage site, with potential antineoplastic activity. When injected directly into the prostate, topsalysin is hydrolyzed to the active toxin aerolysin by the serine protease prostate specific antigen (PSA), a protein overexpressed by prostate cancers and prostate cells in hyperplastic prostatic tissue. Aerolysin molecules then oligomerize to form rin... |
| TORC1/2 Kinase Inhibitor DS-3078a | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of raptor-mTOR protein complex (TORC1) and rictor-mTOR protein complex (TORC2) with potential antineoplastic activity. TORC1/2 inhibitor DS-3078a binds to and inhibits both TORC1 and TORC2, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. TORC1 and 2 are upregulated in some tumors and play an important role in the PI3K/Akt/mTOR signaling pathway, which is frequently dysregulated in human cancers. |
| Toremifene | A nonsteroidal triphenylethylene antiestrogen.  Chemically related to tamoxifen, toremifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).  This agent binds competitively to estrogen receptors, thereby interfering with estrogen activity.  Toremifene also has intrinsic estrogenic properties, which are manifested according to tissue type or species. (NCI04) |
| Toremifene Citrate | The citrate salt of a nonsteroidal triphenylethylene antiestrogen.  Chemically related to tamoxifen, toremifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).  This agent binds competitively to estrogen receptors, thereby interfering with estrogen activity.  Toremifene also has intrinsic estrogenic properties, which is manifested depending on the tissue or species. (NCI04) |
| Toripalimab | A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (programmed death-1; PD-1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, toripalimab binds to PD-1 and inhibits the binding of PD-1 to its ligands, programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) and PD-1 ligand 2 (PD-L2). This prevents the activation of PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. ... |
| Tosedostat | A proprietary orally bioavailable inhibitor of the M1 family of aminopeptidases with potential antineoplastic activity. Aminopeptidase inhibitor CHR-2797 is converted intracellularly into a poorly membrane-permeable active metabolite (CHR-79888) which inhibits the M1 family of aminopeptidases, particularly puromycin-sensitive aminopeptidase (PuSA), and leukotriene A4 (LTA4) hydrolase; inhibition of these aminopeptidases in tumor cells may result in amino acid deprivation, inhibition of protei... |
| Tositumomab | A murine IgG2 monoclonal antibody directed against the CD20 antigen, found on the surface of B-cells.  Tositumomab binds to the CD20 surface membrane antigen, resulting in apoptosis, and may stimulate antitumoral cell-mediated and/or antibody-dependent cytotoxicity. (NCI04) |
| Total Tumor mRNA-pulsed Tumor-specific Ex vivo-expanded Autologous Lymphocyte Transfer Cells | A preparation of ex vivo expanded, autologous lymphocyte transfer cells (xALTs) that are loaded with total tumor RNA (TTRNA) derived from autologous tumor cells, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon re-infusion of the TTRNA-loaded ALTs into the patient, these ALTs may elicit a highly specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) encoded by the TTRNA. |
| Total Tumor RNA-loaded Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing autologous dendritic cells (DCs) that are loaded with total tumor RNA (TTRNA) from a specific tumor, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, TTRNA-loaded DC vaccine may elicit a highly specific cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) encoded by the TTRNA. |
| Tovecimig | A bispecific antibody targeting Delta-like ligand 4 (DLL4) and vascular endothelial growth factor A (VEGF-A), with potential anti-angiogenic  and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tovecimig simultaneously targets, binds to and blocks DLL4 and VEGF-A. This prevents the activation of DLL-4/Notch- and VEGF-A/VEGF receptor (VEGFR)-mediated signaling pathways, which play key roles in angiogenesis and tumor vascularization. This prevents angiogenesis and may halt tumor cell proliferat... |
| Tovetumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) alpha with potential antineoplastic activity. Tovetumab inhibits activation of the cell-surface tyrosine kinase PDGFR alpha subunit and subsequent triggering of mitogenic signaling pathways, including the JAK/STAT, PI3K/Akt, and MAP kinase pathways. PDGFR alpha acts as a mitogenic signaling receptor for cells of mesenchymal origin and inhibition of receptor activity may inhibit tumor cell prol... |
| Tovorafenib | An orally available inhibitor of wild-type and certain mutant forms of A-Raf, B-Raf and C-Raf protein kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tovorafenib inhibits Raf-mediated signal transduction pathways, which may lead to an inhibition of tumor cell growth. Raf protein kinases play a key role in the RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway, which is often deregulated in human cancers and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and survival. |
| Tozasertib Lactate | The lactate salt of tozasertib, a synthetic, small-molecule Aurora kinase inhibitor with potential antitumor activity. Tozasertib binds to and inhibits Aurora kinases (AKs), thereby inducing apoptosis in tumor cells in which AKs are overexpressed. AKs, a family of serine-threonine kinases, are essential for mitotic progression, spindle formation, centrosome maturation, chromosomal segregation, and cytokinesis. |
| TP40 Immunotoxin | A chimeric fusion protein containing human transforming growth factor alpha (TGF-a) covalently linked to a truncated form of the bacterial toxin Pseudomonas exotoxin A, PE40, with potential antitumor activity. PE40 lacks the cell-binding domain, but retains domains II and III that are involved in membrane translocation and inhibition of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. TGF-a moiety of the TP40 immunotoxin binds to and activates epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), a tyrosine kinase ... |
| Trabectedin | A tetrahydroisoquinoline alkaloid isolated from the marine tunicate Ecteinascidia turbinata with potential antineoplastic activity. Binding to the minor groove of DNA, trabectedin interferes with the transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair machinery to induce lethal DNA strand breaks and blocks the cell cycle in the G2 phase. |
| Trabedersen | A transforming growth factor (TGF)-beta2 specific phosphorothioate antisense oligodeoxynucleotide with the sequence 5'-CGGCATGTCTATTTTGTA-3', with potential antineoplastic activity. Trebedersen binds to TGF-beta2 mRNA causing inhibition of protein translation, thereby decreasing TGF-beta2 protein levels; decreasing intratumoral TGF-beta2 levels may result in the inhibition of tumor cell growth and migration, and tumor angiogenesis. TGF-beta2, a cytokine often over-expressed in various maligna... |
| TRAC Locus Integrated Anti-CD19 19(T2)28z1xx CAR-T Cells | A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, linked to the co-stimulatory intracellular signaling domains of CD28 and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (CD28zeta; CD28z), and inserted into the T-cell receptor alpha constant (TRAC) locus, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the TRAC locus integrated anti-CD19 19(T2... |
| Trained Immunity Natural Killer Cells IBR900 | A preparation of trained immunity natural killer (tiNK) cells, with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tiNK cells IBR900 recognize and lyse cancer cells. These cells also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines, which further stimulate an anti-tumor immune response. |
| Trametinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K; MAPK/ERK kinase; MEK) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, trametinib specifically binds to and inhibits MEK 1 and 2, resulting in an inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and cellular proliferation in various cancers. MEK 1 and 2, dual specificity serine/threonine and tyrosine kinases often upregulated in various cancer cell types, play a key role in the act... |
| Trametinib Dimethyl Sulfoxide | A dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) solvated form of trametinib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K; MAPK/ERK kinase; MEK) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, trametinib specifically binds to and inhibits MEK 1 and 2, resulting in an inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and cellular proliferation in various cancers. MEK 1 and 2, dual specificity serine/threonine and tyrosine kinases often upregulated... |
| Trans Sodium Crocetinate | The sodium salt of the trans-isomer of the carotenoid crocetin with potential antihypoxic and radiosensitizing activities. Trans sodium crocetinate (TSC) increases the diffusion rate of oxygen in aqueous solutions such as from plasma to body tissue. The agent has been shown to increase available oxygen during hypoxic and ischemic conditions that may occur in hemorrhage, vascular and neurological disorders, and in the tumor microenvionment. |
| TransCon IL-2 Beta/Gamma | A hydrogel carrier-based, sustained-release (SR) formulation containing a variant of the endogenous cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of TransCon IL-2 beta/gamma (IL-2b/g), the IL-2b/g variant is slowly released over an extended period of time and selectively binds to the IL-2 receptor b/g subunit (IL2Rb/g). The binding of IL-2b/g variant to IL2Rb/g activates IL2Rb/g-mediated signaling, which activate... |
| Transcription Factor Protein SON-DP | A transcription factor (TF) protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, TF protein SON-DP induces pluripotent reprogramming in cancer cells and generates transient induced pluripotent stem cells (tiPSCs). The in situ generated tiPSCs quickly re-differentiate into normal tissue cells. The tiPSCs also secrete exosomes, which provides embryonic stem cells (ESC)-like microenvironments. This may result in malignant phenotype reversion in the surrounding cancer cells. In a... |
| Transdermal 17beta-Estradiol Gel BHR-200 | A proprietary, transdermal, hydroalcoholic gel formulation containing 17beta-estradiol, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon topical administration, 17beta-estradiol exerts its antineoplastic effect(s) through as of yet not fully elucidated mechanism(s) of action(s). This formulation may induce feedback inhibition via the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis feedback loop, block the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) and prevent the release of testosterone from Leydig cells in the t... |
| Transdermal 4-Hydroxytestosterone | A transdermal formulation containing 4-hydroxytestosterone (4-OHT), a steroidal aromatase inhibitor (AI) and androgen receptor (AR) antagonist, with potential antineoplastic activity. 4-OHT is largely converted into 4-hydroxyandrostenedione (4-OHA) and irreversibly binds to and inhibits aromatase, thereby blocking the conversion of androstenedione to estrone, and testosterone to estradiol. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation in estrogen-dependent tumor cells. In addition, 4-OHT binds to... |
| Transferrin Receptor-Targeted Anti-RRM2 siRNA CALAA-01 | A proprietary transferrin receptor-targeted nanoparticle preparation of a non-chemically modified small-interfering RNA (siRNA) directed against the M2 subunit of ribonucleotide reductase (RRM2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, transferrin receptor-targeted anti-RRM2 siRNA CALAA-01 binds to transferrin receptors (TfRs), releasing anti-RRM2 siRNA after endocytosis; anti-RRM2 siRNA silences the expression of RRM2 via the RNAi pathway, impeding the assembly of the hol... |
| Transferrin Receptor-Targeted Liposomal p53 cDNA | A cationic liposomal, tumor-targeting p53 (TP53) gene delivery system with potential anti-tumor activity. Transferrin receptor-targeted liposomal p53 cDNA contains plasmid DNA encoding the tumor suppressor protein p53 packaged in membrane-like liposome capsules that are complexed with anti-transferrin receptor single-chain antibody (TfRscFv). Upon systemic administration, the anti-TfRscFv selectively binds to tumor cells expressing transferrin receptors. The p53 plasmid is delivered into the ... |
| Transferrin-CRM107 | A synthetic targeted protein toxin which consists of human transferrin (Tf) conjugated to a diphtheria toxin that contains a point mutation (CRM107). After binding to the transferrin receptor expressed on the tumor cell surface, transferrin-CRM107 is internalized, where the diphtheria toxin moiety exerts its cytotoxic effect intracellularly by inhibiting protein synthesis through ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor. (NCI04) |
| Transgenic Lymphocyte Immunization Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of a preparation of allogeneic lymphocytes that encode a gene for telomerase.  In transgenic lymphocyte immunization, the transgenic cells are infused into the patient, where they serve as antigen- presenting cells (APCs) with the dual function of antigen synthesis and presentation.  Vaccination produces an immune response targeting cancer cells expressing telomerase. (NCI04) |
| Tranylcypromine Sulfate | The sulfate salt form of tranylcypromine, an orally bioavailable, nonselective, irreversible, non-hydrazine inhibitor of both monoamine oxidase (MAO) and lysine-specific demethylase 1 (LSD1/BHC110), with antidepressant and anxiolytic activities, and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, tranylcypromine exerts its antidepressant and anxiolytic effects through the inhibition of MAO, an enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of the monoamine neurotransmitters serotonin, nor... |
| Trapoxin | An epoxide-containing cyclotetrapeptide with antitumor activity.  It is an irreversible inhibitor of histone deacetylase. |
| Trastuzumab | A recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). After binding to HER2 on the tumor cell surface, trastuzumab induces an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity against tumor cells that overexpress HER2. HER2 is overexpressed by many adenocarcinomas, particularly breast adenocarcinomas. (NCI04) |
| Trastuzumab Botidotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of trastuzumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the microtubule inhibitor and auristatin derivative duostatin-5 (Duo-5), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of trastuzumab botidotin, the trastuzumab moiety targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, duo-5 binds to tubul... |
| Trastuzumab Conjugate BI-CON-02 | A conjugated form of trastuzumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ERBB2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the trastuzumab conjugate BI-CON-02 targets and binds to HER2 on the tumor cell surface, thereby inducing both cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) responses against tumor cells that overexpress HER2. HER2, a tyrosine kin... |
| Trastuzumab Deruxtecan | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of trastuzumab, a monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (ERBB2; EGFR2; HER2) conjugated to deruxtecan, a derivative of the camptothecin analog exatecan (DXd; DX-8951 derivative), a DNA topoisomerase 1 (topoisomerase I; Top1) inhibitor, with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of trastuzumab deruxtecan, trastuzumab targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, deru... |
| Trastuzumab Duocarmazine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of the recombinant humanized anti-epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) monoclonal antibody trastuzumab linked, via a cleavable linker, to the duocarmycin prodrug, seco-duocarmycin-hydroxybenzamide-azaindole (seco-DUBA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of trastuzumab duocarmazine, the trastuzumab moiety binds to HER2 on the tumor cell surface, which triggers the endocytosis of this agent. The linker is then cleaved insi... |
| Trastuzumab Emtansine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of the recombinant anti-epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) monoclonal antibody trastuzumab conjugated to the maytansinoid DM1 via a nonreducible thioether linkage (MCC) with potential antineoplastic activity. The trastuzumab moiety of this ADC binds to HER2 on tumor cell surfaces; upon internalization, the DM1 moiety is released and binds to tubulin, thereby disrupting microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics and inhibiting cell division and... |
| Trastuzumab Envedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of trastuzumab, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) a monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) and site-specifically conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of trastuzumab envedotin, the trastuzumab moiety targets and binds to HER2 on the surface of tumor cells. Follow... |
| Trastuzumab Imbotolimod | An immune stimulating antibody conjugate (ISAC) consisting of trastuzumab, an anti-human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) monoclonal antibody, conjugated to a Toll-like receptor (TLR) 7/8 dual agonist, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of trastuzumab imbotolimod, the trastuzumab moiety targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells and, simultaneously, the TLR 7/8 dual agonist moiety targets, binds to and activates TLR7/8 expresse... |
| Trastuzumab Pamirtecan | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of trastuzumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor P1003, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of trastuzumab pamirtecan, trastuzumab targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake and internalization, P1003 is released and inhibits DNA topoisomerase 1 ... |
| Trastuzumab Rezetecan | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of trastuzumab, a humanized immunoglobulin G1-kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) conjugated to rezetecan, which is composed of a cleavable linker and a camptothecin derivative, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of trastuzumab rezetecan, the trastuzumab moiety targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon... |
| Trastuzumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of trastuzumab, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of trastuzumab vedotin, the trastuzumab moiety targets and binds to HER2 on the surface of tumor cells. Following inte... |
| Trastuzumab/Tesirine Antibody-drug Conjugate ADCT-502 | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of an engineered version of the humanized monoclonal anti-human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) trastuzumab that is site-specifically conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic, DNA cross-linking pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer-based drug tesirine, which targets DNA minor grooves, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the trastuzumab moiety of trastuzumab/tesirine ADC ADCT-502 tar... |
| Trebananib | An angiopoietin (Ang) 1 and 2 neutralizing peptibody, with potential antiangiogenic activity. AMG 386 targets and binds to Ang1 and Ang2, thereby preventing the interaction of the angiopoietins with their target tie2 receptors. This may inhibit angiogenesis and may eventually lead to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. |
| Treg Inhibitor GIM-531 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of regulatory T-cells (Tregs), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Treg inhibitor GIM-531 inhibits the activity of immune suppressive Tregs through an as of yet unknown mechanism of action. This may restore antitumor immune responses. |
| T-regulatory Cell-enriched Donor Cells | A preparation of donor-derived T-cells that have been enriched with donor T-regulatory (Treg) cells, with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration of the Treg cell-enriched donor cells prior to hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT), the donor cells may induce tolerance to HSCT and may reduce risk of relapse and graft-versus-host-disease (GVHD) in hematologic malignancies. |
| Tremelimumab | A human IgG2 monoclonal antibody directed against the T-cell receptor protein cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein 4 (CTLA4). Tremelimumab binds to CTLA4 and blocks the binding of the antigen-presenting cell ligands B7-1 and B7-2 to CTLA4, resulting in inhibition of B7-CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation; subsequently, B7-1 or B7-2 may interact with another T-cell surface receptor protein, CD28, resulting in a B7-CD28-mediated T-cell activation unopposed by B7-CTLA4-mediat... |
| Treosulfan | The prodrug of a bifunctional sulfonate alkylating agent with myeloablative, immunosuppressive, and antineoplastic activities. Under physiological conditions, treosulfan converts nonenzymatically to L-diepoxybutane via a monoepoxide intermediate. The monoepoxide intermediate and L-diepoxybutane alkylate DNA at guanine residues and produce DNA interstrand crosslinks, resulting in DNA fragmentation and apoptosis. In escalated doses, this agent also exhibits myeloablative and immunosuppressive a... |
| Tretazicar | A prodrug of a bifunctional alkylating, dinitrobenzamide derivative with antineoplastic activity. Tretazicar can be activated by the human enzyme quinone oxidoreductase 2 (NQO2) in the presence of the cosubstrate caricotamide, an analogue of the natural cosubstrate dihydronicotinamide riboside (NRH), which acts as an electron donor. The resulting active, but short-lived metabolite, dinitrobenzamide, leads to DNA replication inhibition and the induction of apoptosis in NQO2 expressing cancer c... |
| Tretinoin | A naturally-occurring acid of retinol. Tretinoin binds to and activates retinoic acid receptors (RARs), thereby inducing changes in gene expression that lead to cell differentiation, decreased cell proliferation, and inhibition of tumorigenesis.  This agent also inhibits telomerase, resulting in telomere shortening and eventual apoptosis of some tumor cell types.  The oral form of tretinoin has teratogenic and embryotoxic properties. |
| Tretinoin Liposome | An intravenous formulation of tretinoin (vitamin A acid or all-trans retinoic acid) encased in liposomes. Tretinoin is a naturally occurring retinoic acid agent that binds to and activates retinoic acid receptors (RAR), effecting changes in gene expression that lead to cell differentiation, decreased cell proliferation, and inhibition of carcinogenesis.  This agent also inhibits telomerase, leading to telomere shortening and eventual apoptosis of certain tumor cell types. Liposome encapsulati... |
| Triapine | A synthetic heterocyclic carboxaldehyde thiosemicarbazone with potential antineoplastic activity. Triapine inhibits the enzyme ribonucleotide reductase, resulting in the inhibition of the conversion of ribonucleoside diphosphates to deoxyribonucleotides necessary for DNA synthesis. This agent has been shown to inhibit tumor growth in vitro. (NCI04) |
| Triazene Derivative CB10-277 | A synthetic derivative of dimethylphenyl-triazene related to dacarbazine, with antineoplastic properties.  Related to the agent dacarbazine, CB10-277 is converted in vivo to a monomethyl triazene form that alkylates DNA, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication and repair; in addition, this agent may act as a purine analogue, resulting in inhibition of DNA synthesis, and may interact with protein sulfhydryl groups. (NCI04) |
| Triazene Derivative TriN2755 | A synthetic triazene derivative with antineoplastic activity. Upon metabolic activation via N-demethylation, TriN2755 is converted into highly reactive carbocations that can alkylate DNA and other macromolecules, thereby resulting in DNA cross links, inhibiting DNA replication and repair, and subsequently inducing apoptosis. This agent has high hydrophilicity and photostability and shows a favorable toxicity profile over the other triazenes. |
| Triazinate | A synthetic dihydrotriazine derivative with antineoplastic properties.  As an antifolate agent related to methotrexate (MTX), triazinate inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR), resulting in decreased tetrahydrofolate production and interference with thymidylate synthesis.  Unlike MTX, this agent is not converted to polyglutamate forms. Triazinate also inhibits the transport of folates and may be selectively toxic to MTX-resistant tumor cells. (NCI04) |
| Triaziquone | An aziridinylbenzoquinone-based alkylating agent with potential antineoplastic activity. The alkylating group in triaziquone becomes activated upon reduction of quinone to the hydroquinone form. This eventually results in the alkylation and crosslinking of DNA, thereby inhibiting DNA replication followed by an induction of apoptosis. In addition, reactive oxygen species may form during redox cycling which may contribute to this agent's cytotoxic activity. |
| Tributyrin | A triglyceride prodrug of butyric acid with potential antineoplastic activity. Butyrate, the active metabolite of tributyrin, inhibits histone deacetylase, resulting in increased differentiation, decreased proliferation, cell cycle arrest, and apoptosis in some tumor cell lines. (NCI04) |
| Triciribine Phosphate | The phosphate salt of the synthetic, cell-permeable tricyclic nucleoside triciribine with potential antineoplastic activity. Triciribine inhibits the phosphorylation, activation, and signalling of Akt-1, -2, and -3, which may result in the inhibition of Akt-expressing tumor cell proliferation. Akts are anti-apoptotic serine/threonine-specific protein kinases that phosphorylate and inactivate components of the apoptotic machinery, including Bcl-xL/Bcl-2-associated death promoter (BAD) and casp... |
| Trientine Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of a metal chelating agent with potential anti-angiogenic activity. Trientine chelates excess copper (Cu) ions in the body; the excess copper is subsequently removed from the body through the kidneys. As Cu is an essential cofactor for cuproenzymes, such as superoxide dismutase 1 (SOD1), depletion of copper may inhibit the activation of signal transduction pathways required for cellular proliferation and angiogenesis. In addition, trientine may inhibit copper-induc... |
| Triethylenemelamine | A trisaziridine alkylating agent with antineoplastic and carcinogenic properties.  Used to induce cancer in experimental animal models, triethylenemelamine ethylates DNA, resulting in inhibition of DNA replication, unscheduled DNA synthesis, chromosomal aberrations, and sister chromatid exchanges.  This agent also exhibits reproductive toxicities. (NCI04) |
| Trifluridine | A fluorinated thymidine analog with potential antineoplastic activity. Trifluridine is incorporated into DNA and inhibits thymidylate synthase, resulting in inhibition of DNA synthesis, inhibition of protein synthesis, and apoptosis. This agent also exhibits antiviral activity. (NCI04) |
| Trifluridine and Tipiracil Hydrochloride | An orally bioavailable combination agent composed of the cytotoxic pyrimidine analog trifluridine (5-trifluoro-2'-deoxythymidine or TFT) and a thymidine phosphorylase inhibitor (TPI) tipiracil hydrochloride, in a molar ratio of 1.0:0.5 (TFT:TPI), with potential antineoplastic activity. After oral administration of TAS-102, TFT is phosphorylated to the active monophosphate form TF-TMP, which binds covalently to the active site of thymidylate synthase, thereby reducing the nucleotide pool level... |
| Trilaciclib | A small molecule, competitive inhibitor of cyclin dependent kinases 4 and 6 (CDK4/6), with potential antineoplastic and chemoprotective activities. Upon intravenous administration, trilaciclib binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK4/6, thereby blocking the phosphorylation of the retinoblastoma protein (Rb) in early G1. This prevents G1/S phase transition, causes cell cycle arrest in the G1 phase, induces apoptosis, and inhibits the proliferation of CDK4/6-overexpressing tumor cells. In pat... |
| Trimelamol | A synthetic derivative of trimethylmelamine with antineoplastic properties.  An analogue of siderophores (microbial iron chelators), trimelamol induces the formation of a reactive iminium species which may crosslink DNA. (NCI04) |
| Trimethylcolchicinic Acid | A colchicine analog with potential antineoplastic activity.  Trimethylcolchicinic acid binds to tubulin, inhibiting its polymerization into microtubules and preventing cell division. (NCI04) |
| Trimetrexate | A methotrexate derivative with potential antineoplastic activity.  Trimetrexate inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, thereby preventing the synthesis of purine nucleotides and thymidylate, with subsequent inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis.  Trimetrexate also exhibits antiviral activity. (NCI04) |
| Trimetrexate Glucuronate | A lipid soluble methotrexate derivative with potential antineoplastic activity.  Trimetrexate glucuronate inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, thereby preventing the synthesis of purine nucleotides and thymidylate, with subsequent inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis.  Trimetrexate glucuronate also exhibits antiviral activity. (NCI04) |
| Trioxifene | A nonsteroidal selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) with potential antineoplastic activity.  Trioxifene competes with estradiol in binding to estrogen receptor alpha (ER alpha), thereby inhibiting ER alpha-mediated signal transduction and gene expression. In addition, trioxifene exerts intrinsic estrogenic activity depending on the tissue. Clinical development of trioxifene has not been preceded due to its side effect profile and lack of increased efficacy over tamoxifen. |
| Triplatin Tetranitrate | A cationic tri-nuclear platinum complex related to cisplatin.  BBR 3464 binds to and forms DNA crosslinks and platinum-DNA adducts, preventing DNA replication and tumor cell division. |
| Triptolide Analog | A water soluble analog of the diterpenoid triepoxide triptolide isolated from the Chinese herb Tripterygium wilfordii Hook.f., with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the triptolide analog inhibits heat shock protein 70 (HSP70) and prevents HSP70-mediated inhibition of apoptosis. This leads to both the induction of apoptosis and a reduction of cancer cell growth. HSP70, a molecular chaperone upregulated in various cancer cells, plays a key role in the inhibiti... |
| Triptorelin | A synthetic decapeptide agonist analog of luteinizing hormone releasing hormone (LHRH).  Possessing greater potency than endogenous LHRH, triptorelin reversibly represses gonadotropin secretion. After chronic, continuous administration, this agent effects sustained decreases in LH and FSH production and testicular and ovarian steroidogenesis. Serum testosterone concentrations may fall to levels typically observed in surgically castrated men. (NCI04) |
| Triptorelin Pamoate | The pamoate salt of triptorelin, a synthetic decapeptide agonist analog of luteinizing hormone releasing hormone (LHRH).  Possessing greater potency than endogenous LHRH, triptorelin reversibly represses gonadotropin secretion after prolonged administration.  After chronic, continuous administration, a sustained decrease in LH, FSH and testicular and ovarian steroidogenesis is observed.  The serum testosterone concentration may fall to levels typically seen in surgically castrated men. (NCI04) |
| Tris-acryl Gelatin Microspheres | An embolic particle composed of water-soluble, compressible, nonabsorbable microspheres composed of tris-acryl gelatin, with potential use for embolization. Upon administration, the tris-acryl gelatin microspheres (TAGM) serve as an embolic agent before surgery for highly vascularized areas, such as those seen in certain tumors, by penetrating into the blood vessel system and blocking blood flow. These microspheres may be used to encapsulate various therapeutic agents; drug-loaded microsphere... |
| Tritylcysteine | A derivative of cysteine with antimitotic activity and potential antineoplastic activity. (NCI04) |
| Tri-virus/GD2-specific Allogeneic Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes | Allogeneic tri-viral specific, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), cytomegalovirus (CMV) and adenovirus (Ad), cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (tV-CTLs) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for disialoganglioside GD2 with potential antineoplastic activity. Tri-virus/GD2-specific allogeneic CTLs are produced by transducing tV-CTLs with a GD2-specific CAR retroviral vector. Upon administration, after an allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant, these CTLs may be selective towards EBV, CMV, a... |
| TRK Inhibitor AZD6918 | An orally available liquid suspension containing the tropomyosin receptor kinase (Trk) inhibitor AZD6918 with potential antineoplastic activity. AZD6918 binds to Trk, thereby preventing neurotrophin-Trk interaction and Trk activation, and may eventually result in cell cycle arrest and apoptosis of tumor cells that express Trk. Trk, a receptor tyrosine kinase activated by neurotrophins, is mutated in a variety of cancer cell types and plays an important role in tumor cell growth and survival. |
| TRK Inhibitor TQB3558 | An orally available inhibitor of tropomyosin receptor kinase (Trk), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Trk inhibitor TQB3558 targets and binds to Trk, thereby preventing neurotrophin-Trk interaction and Trk activation. This may lead to apoptosis of Trk-expressing tumor cells and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in Trk-expressing tumors. Trk, a receptor tyrosine kinase activated by neurotrophins, is mutated in a variety of cancer cell types and plays an... |
| TRK Inhibitor TQB3811 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of tropomyosin receptor kinase (TRK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TRK inhibitor TQB3811 targets and binds to TRK, thereby preventing neurotrophin-TRK interaction and TRK activation. This may lead to apoptosis of TRK-expressing tumor cells and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in TRK-expressing tumors. Members of TRK, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases activated by neurotrophins, are mutated in a variety of canc... |
| TRK Inhibitor VC004 | An orally bioavailable, second-generation tropomyosin-related-kinase (TRK) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TRK inhibitor VC004 specifically targets and binds to TRK, TRK mutations and fusion proteins containing sequences from neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1 (NTRK1; TrkA), 2 (NTRK2; TrkB), and 3 (NTRK3; TrkC). This inhibits neurotrophin-TRK interaction and TRK activation, thereby preventing the activation of downstream signaling... |
| TRK/RET Inhibitor ND-003 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of multiple kinases, including tropomyosin-related-kinase (TRK) and rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TRK/RET inhibitor ND-003 targets and binds to TRK and fusion proteins containing sequences from neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK). This inhibits neurotrophin-TRK interaction and TRK activation, thereby preventing the activation of downstream signaling pathways, incl... |
| TRK/ROS1/ALK Inhibitor SIM1803-1A | An orally available inhibitor of multiple kinases, including the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), c-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), and the tropomyosin-related-kinase (tyrosine receptor kinase; TRK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TRK/ROS1/ALK inhibitor SIM1803-1A targets, binds to and inhibits wild-type, point mutants and fusion proteins of ALK, ROS1, and TRK, including fusion proteins containing sequences from neurotrophic tyrosine recepto... |
| TrkA Inhibitor VMD-928 | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of tropomyosin receptor kinase A (TrkA; neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) type 1; NTRK1; TRK1-transforming tyrosine kinase protein), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, VMD-928 specifically targets and binds to TrkA, inhibits neurotrophin-TrkA interaction and prevents TrkA activation. This prevents the activation of downstream signaling pathways and inhibits cell growth in tumors that overexpress TrkA. Uncont... |
| Trodusquemine | A naturally-occurring cholestane and non-competitive, allosteric inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase 1B (PTP1B), with potential hypoglycemic, anti-diabetic, anti-obesity, and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, trodusquemine selectively targets and inhibits PTP1B, thereby preventing PTP1B-mediated signaling. This prevents the dephosphorylation of the insulin receptor, which improves insulin signaling and insulin sensitivity, and decreases blood glucose levels. In susceptible... |
| Trofosfamide | An orally bioavailable oxazaphosphorine prodrug with antineoplastic activity. Trofosfamide (TFF) is metabolized predominantly to the cyclophosphamide analogue ifosfamide (IFO), which is then metabolized by liver cytochrome P450s to the active isophosphoramide mustard (IPM). IPM alkylates DNA to form DNA-DNA cross-links, which may result in inhibition of DNA, RNA and protein synthesis, and ultimately lead to tumor cell apoptosis. |
| Troglitazone | An orally-active thiazolidinedione with antidiabetic and hepatotoxic properties and potential antineoplastic activity.  Troglitazone activates peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma), a ligand-activated transcription factor, thereby inducing cell differentiation and inhibiting cell growth and angiogenesis.  This agent also modulates the transcription of insulin-responsive genes, inhibits macrophage and monocyte activation, and stimulates adipocyte differentiation. (NCI04) |
| Troriluzole | A formulation comprised of a prodrug form of the benzothiazole derivative riluzole, with potential anti-depressant, anxiolytic and antineoplastic activities. Following oral administration, troriluzole is converted into the active form riluzole. While the mechanism of action of riluzole is unknown, its pharmacological activities, some of which may be related to its effect, include the following: 1) an inhibitory effect on glutamate release, 2) inactivation of voltage-dependent sodium channels,... |
| Trotabresib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, trotabresib preferentially binds to the second bromodomain (BD2) of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may lead to an inhibition of proliferation in BE... |
| Troxacitabine | A dioxolane derivative and a novel L-configuration deoxycytidine analogue with potent antineoplastic activity. When incorporated into growing chain during DNA replication, troxacitabine stops DNA polymerization due to its unnatural L-configuration, in contrast to the normal nucleotides with D-configuration. As a result, this agent terminates DNA synthesis upon incorporated into DNA molecules, and consequently interrupts tumor cell proliferation. |
| TRP2 mRNA-electroporated Autologous Langerhans-type Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer cell vaccine composed of autologous human Langerhans-type dendritic cells (also known as Langerhans cells or LCs) that are electroporated with mRNA encoding full-length murine tyrosinase-related peptide 2 (TRP2), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon vaccination, the TRP2 mRNA-electroporated autologous Langerhans-type dendritic cell vaccine may stimulate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against TRP2-expressing tumor cell... |
| TRPM8 Agonist D-3263 | A small-molecule agonist for transient receptor potential melastatin member 8 (TRPM8 or Trp-p8), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, TRPM8 agonist D-3263 targets, binds to and activates TRPM8, which may result in an increase in intracellular calcium and sodium influx; the disruption of calcium and sodium homeostasis; and the induction of cell death in TRPM8-expressing tumor cells. This agent may decrease dihydrotestosterone (DHT) levels, which may contribute to its in... |
| TRPV6 Calcium Channel Inhibitor SOR-C13 | An inhibitor of transient receptor potential cation channel vanilloid family member 6 (TRPV6, CaT1 or CATL) with potential antineoplastic activity. TRPV6 calcium channel inhibitor SOR-C13 binds to TRPV6 and prevents the influx of calcium ions into TRPV6-expressing tumor cells. This inhibits the activation of nuclear factor of activated T-cell (NFAT) transcription complex which may result in an inhibition of calcium-dependent cancer cell proliferation and an induction of apoptosis in tumor cel... |
| TSP-1 Activator VT1021 | A cyclic pentapeptide and stimulator of thrombospondin 1 (TSP-1; THBS1), with potential anti-angiogenic, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, TSP-1 activator VT1021 specifically stimulates TSP-1 expression in inflammatory myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME), which binds to TSP-1 receptors, mainly CD36 and CD47. This activates CD36-mediated signaling and induces apoptosis in tumor and endothelial cells, which may result i... |
| TSP-1 Mimetic ABT-510 | A synthetic peptide that mimics the anti-angiogenic activity of the endogenous protein thrombospondin-1 (TSP-1).  ABT-510 inhibits the actions of several pro-angiogenic growth factors important to tumor neovascularization; these pro-angiogenic growth factors include vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF)), hepatocyte growth factor (HGF), and interleukin 8 (IL-8). (NCI04) |
| TSP-1 Mimetic Fusion Protein CVX-045 | A fusion protein containing two thrombospondin (TSP-1)-derived nonamer peptides covalently attached, via a proprietary diketone linker, to a proprietary humanized catalytic monoclonal aldolase monoclonal antibody with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities.  The TSP-1 mimetic peptide moieties of TSP-1 mimetic fusion protein CVX-045 bind to TSP-1 receptors, such as CD36, and inhibit tumor angiogenesis, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. The propriet... |
| TTK/PLK1 Inhibitor BAL0891 | An inhibitor of threonine tyrosine kinase (TTK; monopolar spindle 1 kinase; Mps1) and polo-like kinase 1 (PLK1; PLK-1; STPK13), with potential mitotic checkpoint inhibiting (MCI) and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, TTK/PLK1 inhibitor BAL0891 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits TTK and PLK1. This disrupts and inactivates the spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC), which results in chromosomal misalignment and missegregation, mitotic checkpoint complex destabilization, and ind... |
| Tubercidin | An antibiotic and adenosine analog isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces tubercidicus with potential antineoplastic activity.  Tubercidin is incorporated into DNA and inhibits polymerases, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and RNA and protein synthesis.  This agent also exhibits antifungal and antiviral activities. (NCI04) |
| Tubulin Inhibitor ALB 109564 Dihydrochloride | A semi-synthetic derivative of the vinka alkaloid vinblastine with potential antineoplastic activity. Tubulin inhibitor ALB 109564 dihydrochloride binds to tubulin monomers and inhibits microtubule formation, resulting in disruption of mitotic spindle assembly and arrest of tumor cells in the G2/M phase of the cell cycle. |
| Tubulin Inhibitor ALB-109564 | A semi-synthetic derivative of the vinka alkaloid vinblastine with potential antineoplastic activity. Tubulin inhibitor ALB-109564 binds to tubulin monomers and inhibits microtubule formation, resulting in disruption of mitotic spindle assembly and arrest of tumor cells in the G2/M phase of the cell cycle. Check for active clinical trials using this agent. |
| Tubulin Polymerization Inhibitor AB8939 | A small molecule tubulin polymerization inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tubulin polymerization inhibitor AB8939 binds to tubulin and prevents its polymerization in tumor blood vessel endothelial cells and tumor cells. This blocks the formation of the mitotic spindle and leads to cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase. As a result, this agent disrupts the tumor vasculature and tumor blood flow, deprives tumor cells of nutrients and induces tumor cell apoptos... |
| Tubulin Polymerization Inhibitor AEZS 112 | An orally bioavailable small molecule tubulin polymerization inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, tubulin polymerization inhibitor AEZS 112 binds to tubulin and prevents its polymerization in tumor blood vessel endothelial cells and tumor cells. This blocks the formation of the mitotic spindle and leads to cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase. As a result, this agent disrupts the tumor vasculature and tumor blood flow, deprives tumor cells of nutrients an... |
| Tubulin-Binding Agent SSR97225 | An antimitotic tubulin-binding agent with potential antineoplastic activity. Tubulin-binding agent SSR97225 binds to tubulin, arresting the cell cycle at the G2/M checkpoint and preventing mitosis. |
| Tucatinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the human epidermal growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase ErbB-2 (also called HER2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Tucatinib selectively binds to and inhibits the phosphorylation of ErbB-2, which may prevent the activation of ErbB-2 signal transduction pathways, resulting in growth inhibition and death of ErbB-2-expressing tumor cells. ErbB-2 is overexpressed in a variety of cancers and plays an important role in cellular proliferation and differe... |
| Tucidinostat | An orally bioavailable benzamide-type inhibitor of histone deacetylase (HDAC) isoenzymes 1, 2, 3 and 10, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tucidinostat binds to and inhibits HDACs, leading to an increase of acetylation levels of histone proteins. This agent also inhibits the expression of kinases in the PI3K/Akt and MAPK/Ras signaling pathways and may result in cell cycle arrest and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation in ... |
| Tucotuzumab Celmoleukin | A recombinant fusion protein comprised of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM or KS) linked to an active interleukin-2 (IL2) molecule with potential antineoplastic activity. Tucotuzumab Celmoleukin recognizes and binds to EpCAM, a cell surface epithelial protein that is expressed on a wide variety of cancer cells, thereby concentrating IL2 in EpCAM-expressing tumor tissue. Subsequently, the localized IL2 moiety of the fusion protein may st... |
| Tulmimetostat | An orally available selective inhibitor of the histone lysine methyltransferase (HMT) enhancer of zeste homolog 2 (EZH2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, tulmimetostat selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EZH2. Inhibition of EZH2 specifically prevents the methylation of histone H3 on lysine 27 (H3K27). This decrease in histone methylation alters gene expression patterns associated with cancer pathways and results in decreased proliferati... |
| Tumor Cell Vaccine plus BCG | A mixture of allogeneic or autologous tumor cells and bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) in a liquid vehicle with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vaccination of the host with tumor cell vaccine plus BCG may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against similar host tumor cells, resulting in decreased tumor growth. The BCG component serves as an adjuvant, a nonspecific stimulator of the immune response. (NCI04) |
| Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes-N2-Transduced | A preparation of lymphocytes harvested from a patient and genetically modified ex vivo for use in gene therapy for the patient's cancer.  Ex vivo, the lymphocytes are transduced with the N2 retroviral vector, which is modified to express a gene whose protein product either kills tumor cells or elicits specific anti-tumor immunity. Genetically modified lymphocytes are infused back into the patient from whom they were harvested, locate to the tumor site, and express the candidate protein that k... |
| Tumor Necrosis Factor Ligand Superfamily Member 10 | Tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 10 (281 aa, ~33 kDa) is encoded by the human TNFSF10 gene. This protein plays a role in the induction of apoptosis. |
| Tumor Peptide-loaded Myeloid Dendritic Cells | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of myeloid dendritic cells (myDCs) pulsed with tumor peptides with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the tumor peptide-loaded myDCs stimulate a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. |
| Tumor-Cells Apoptosis Factor Hormone-Peptide | A synthetic 14-amino acid peptide derived from a novel human peptide hormone, Tumor-Cells Apoptosis Factor (TCApF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, tumor-cells apoptosis factor hormone-peptide binds to the T1/ST2 receptor (IL1RL1) and activates both caspase 8 and Bcl-2 mediated apoptosis, in addition to the activation of p38 MAPK and JNK signaling cascades in tumor cells. Furthermore, this agent inhibits angiogenesis by suppressing the expressions of v... |
| Tunlametinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K, MAPK/ERK kinase, or MEK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tunlametinib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK, preventing the activation of MEK-dependent effector proteins and transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK, a threonine/tyrosine kinase, plays a key role in the activa... |
| Tuparstobart | A Fc-engineered immunoglobulin G1-kappa (IgG1k) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory receptor lymphocyte-activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, tuparstobart targets and binds to human LAG-3 on tumor-infiltrating  lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks the interaction between LAG-3 and major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC II) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting c... |
| Tusamitamab Ravtansine | An immunoconjugate consisting of anti-carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 5 (CEACAM5) conjugated to a cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of tusamitamab ravtansine the antibody moiety targets CEACAM5 on tumor cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the immunoconjugate releases the cytotoxic agent, which results in tumor cell death. CEACAM5, a member of the CEA family of proteins that plays a key role in cell migrat... |
| Tuspetinib | A selective, reversible type I inhibitor of FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tuspetinib reversibly binds to and inhibits the activity of FLT3. This inhibits the proliferation of FLT3-expressing cancer cells. FLT3, a class III receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK), is overexpressed or mutated in most B-lineage neoplasms and in acute myeloid leukemias. |
| Tuvonralimab | An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4), with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tuvonralimab binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA-4, an inhibitory receptor and member of the immun... |
| Tuvusertib | An orally available inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related (ATR) kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, tuvusertib selectively inhibits ATR activity and blocks the downstream phosphorylation of the serine/threonine protein kinase checkpoint kinase 1 (CHK1). This prevents ATR-mediated signaling, which results in the inhibition of DNA damage checkpoint activation, the disruption of DNA damage repair, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. ATR,... |
| Tuxobertinib | An orally bioavailable, irreversible, selective, small-molecule inhibitor of certain oncogenic driver, allosteric mutations of the ErbB receptor tyrosine kinases epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR/ErbB1) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2/neu or ErbB2), including extracellular domain allosteric mutations of HER2, and EGFR and HER2 exon 20 insertion mutations, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, tuxobertinib selectively binds to and inhibits th... |
| Type II JAK2 Inhibitor AJ1-11095 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the type II conformation of Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, type II JAK2 inhibitor AJ1-11095 specifically targets and binds to the inactive, DFG-loop-out conformation of the JAK2 domain, which stabilizes JAK2 in an inactive, DFG-loop-out conformation, and blocks the ATP-binding site and the adjoining hydrophobic pocket. This inhibits JAK2 activation, and thereby prevents the activation of t... |
| Type-1 Polarized Dendritic Cell-induced Antigen-specific Autologous Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL), specifically reactive to melanoma-associated antigen 3 (MAGE-3), MAGE-4, survivin, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ERBB2) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), with potential immunomodulating activity. Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are collected from the patient. Subsequently, autologous dendritic cells (DCs) are separated, treated with a certain combination of cytokines to produce polarized type-1 DCs (DC1), and ... |
| Tyroserleutide | A tripeptide consisting of tyrosine, serine, and leucine with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the mechanism of its antitumor activity has yet to be fully elucidated, tyroserleutide appears to inhibit the expression of ICAM-1 (CD54), a cell adhesion factor of the immunoglobulin (Ig) superfamily that plays an important role in the invasion, adhesion, and metastasis of tumor cells. In addition, this agent may influence the Ca2+/calmodulin pathway, inhibiting phosphatidylinositol 3 ki... |
| Tyrosinase Peptide | One of a number of recombinant peptides consisting of amino acid residues of the enzyme tyrosinase, a protein frequently expressed by melanoma cells.  Vaccination with tyrosinase peptide may stimulate cytotoxic T lymphocyte response against tyrosinase-expressing tumor cells, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| Tyrosinase:146-156 Peptide | A synthetic peptide consisting of amino acid residues 146 through 156 of the enzyme tyrosinase, a protein frequently expressed by melanoma cells, with antitumor activity. Vaccination with tyrosinase:146-156 peptide may stimulate cytotoxic T lymphocyte response against tyrosinase-expressing tumor cells, resulting in decreased tumor growth and cell lysis. |
| Tyrosinase-KLH | A peptide vaccine containing a tyrosinase epitope conjugated with keyhole lymphocyte hemocyanin (KLH) with potential antineoplastic activity. Tyrosinase, one of the melanoma differentiation antigens, is the rate-limiting enzyme for melanin synthesis. This tyrosine epitope is conjugated with KLH, which serves as an immunostimulant and a hapten carrier, to enhance immune recognition. Vaccination with tyrosinase-KLH peptide vaccine may produce anti-tyrosinase antibodies as well as elicit a cytot... |
| Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor OSI-930 | A selective thiophene-derived tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor OSI-930 inhibits stem cell factor receptor (c-Kit) and the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), which may result in the inhibition of both tumor cell proliferation and tumor angiogenesis. Both c-Kit and VEGFR2 are overexpressed in a variety of cancers. |
| Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor SU5402 | An indolinone-based small molecule selective tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. SU5402 blocks the activities of vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR) and fibroblast growth factor 1 (FGFR1) via competing with ATP for the specific binding site within the catalytic domain of these receptors. This agent was shown to inhibit cell growth, decrease cell viability in dose-dependent manner, and induce apoptosis. |
| Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor XL228 | A synthetic molecule that targets multiple tyrosine kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor XL228 binds to and inhibits the activities of multiple tyrosine kinases, such as the insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor (IGF1R), Src tyrosine kinase, and Bcr-Abl tyrosine kinase. Blockade of these kinases may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis, cell proliferation, and metastasis. In addition, this agent may be a potent inhibitor of the T315I mutant form ... |
| UAE Inhibitor TAK-243 | A small molecule inhibitor of ubiquitin-activating enzyme (UAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. UAE inhibitor TAK-243 binds to and inhibits UAE, which prevents both protein ubiquitination and subsequent protein degradation by the proteasome. This results in an excess of proteins in the cells and may lead to endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress-mediated apoptosis. This inhibits tumor cell proliferation and survival. UAE, also called ubiquitin E1 enzyme (UBA1; E1), is more active in cance... |
| Ubamatamab | A bispecific, human monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. REGN4018 contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T cell surface antigen that is part of the T cell receptor complex, and one for human mucin 16 (MUC16, cancer antigen 125; CA125; FLJ14303), a member of the mucin family of glycoproteins that is overexpressed by several epithelial cancers, including ovarian cancer. Upon administration, ubamatamab binds to both T-cells and MUC16-expressing tumor ... |
| Ubenimex | A microbial metabolite and dipeptide with potential immunomodulatory and antitumor activities. Ubenimex competitively inhibits many aminopeptidases, including B, N and leucine aminopeptidases. Aminopeptidases has been implicated in the process of cell adhesion and invasion of tumor cells. Therefore, inhibiting aminopeptidases may partially attribute to the antitumor effect of ubenimex. This agent also activates T lymphocyte, macrophage and bone marrow stem cell as well as stimulates release o... |
| Ubidecarenone Nanodispersion BPM31510n | A nanodispersion containing the benzoquinone ubidecarenone (coenzyme Q10), with potential protective, antioxidant and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ubidecarenone nanodispersion BPM31510 modulates tumor cell metabolism and causes an anti-Warburg effect by inducing a shift from lactate dependency towards mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation, and induces tumor cell apoptosis. This inhibits tumor cell proliferation. BPM 31510 also induces the activation and maturation of T-ly... |
| Ublituximab | A chimeric recombinant IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against human CD20 with potential antineoplastic activity. Ublituximab specifically binds to the B cell-specific cell surface antigen CD20, thereby potentially inducing a B cell-directed complement dependent cytotoxicity (CDC) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CD20-expressing B cells, leading to B cell apoptosis. CD20 is a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein that is exclusively expressed on B cell... |
| Ucalolictide | A water-soluble, positively charged fusion protein consisting of a luteinizing hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) receptor-targeting ligand conjugated to the membrane-disrupting peptide CLIP 71 with membrane-disrupting and potential antineoplastic activities. The LHRH ligand moiety of ucalolictide specifically binds to LHRH receptors, which are upregulated on a variety of human cancer cell types. Subsequently, the positively charged CLIP 71 moiety of this agent interacts with the negatively cha... |
| Ulevostinag | A synthetic cyclic dinucleotide (CDN) and agonist of stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral (IT) administration,ulevostinag binds to STING and activates the STING pathway, which promotes IKK-related kinase TANK-binding kinase 1 (TBK1) signaling and activates nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) and interferon regulatory factor 3 (IRF3) in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment; this leads to the production... |
| Uliledlimab | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, uliledlimab targets and binds to CD73 on tumor cells, thereby inhibiting CD73 activity. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of extracellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine, preventing adenosine-mediated suppression of lymphocyte activity and incr... |
| Ulinastatin | A multivalent Kunitz-type serine protease inhibitor derived from human urine, with potential protective, anti-fibrinolytic and anticoagulant activities. Upon administration, ulinastatin (or urinary trypsinogen inhibitor) inhibits the activities of a variety of enzymes, including trypsin, chymotrypsin, thrombin, kallikrein, plasmin, elastase, cathepsin, lipase, hyaluronidase, factors IXa, Xa, XIa, and XlIa, and polymorphonuclear leukocyte elastase. In addition, ulinastatin inhibits the excessi... |
| Ulixertinib | An orally available inhibitor of extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ulixertinib inhibits both ERK 1 and 2, thereby preventing the activation of ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ERK-dependent tumor cell proliferation and survival. The mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK pathway is often upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types and plays a key role in tumor... |
| Ulocuplumab | An orally bioavailable monoclonal antibody against CXC Chemokine Receptor 4 (CXCR4) with potential antineoplastic activity. Ulocuplumab binds to the chemokine receptor CXCR4, preventing the binding of stromal derived factor-1 (SDF-1) to the CXCR4 receptor and subsequent receptor activation, which may result in decreased tumor cell proliferation and migration. CXCR4, a chemokine receptor belonging to the G protein-coupled receptor family, plays an important role in chemotaxis and angiogenesis ... |
| Umbilical Cord Blood-derived CD16-expressing Natural Killer Cells AB-101 | A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf natural killer (NK) cells, derived from umbilical cord blood (UCB) and ex vivo-expanded, that expresses a high-affinity variant of CD16, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, UCB-derived CD16-expressing NK cells AB-101 lyse tumor cells. NK cells AB-101 also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines, which further stimulate an anti-tumor immune response. Upon coadministration with tumor-targeting monoclonal anti... |
| Umbilical Cord Blood-derived CD4+/CD25+ T-regulatory Cells CK0801 | A preparation composed of allogeneic umbilical cord blood (UCB)-derived, ex vivo expanded and enhanced CD4+/CD25+ T-regulatory cells (Tregs) with potential immunomodulatory activity. Upon administration, the UCB-derived CD4+/CD25+ Tregs CK0801 may promote immunologic homeostasis and prevent autoimmunity by suppressing self-reactive T-cells. This may induce tolerance to allogeneic organ transplants, prevent graft-versus-host disease (GvHD), and suppress autoimmune pathology. |
| Umbilical Cord Blood-derived MAK Immune Cells | A preparation of mixed-activated killer (MAK) immune cells derived from human umbilical cord blood (UCB) cells, with potential cytotoxic activity. Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are isolated followed by ex vivo differentiation and expansion. Upon administration, the UCB-derived MAK immune cells may lyse cancer cells. |
| Umbilical Cord Blood-derived Natural Killer Cells | A population of allogeneic, cytokine-differentiated, highly lytic natural killer (NK) cells derived from CD34+ cells isolated from human umbilical cord blood (UCB) with potential cytotoxic activity. CD34+ hematopoietic stem cells (HSC) are isolated from human UCB mononuclear cells, differentiated into mature, highly lytic, CD3- CD56+ NK cells, by a specific combination of cytokines that includes stem cell factor (SCF), fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 ligand (Flt3-L), interleukin-15 (IL-15) and ... |
| Umbralisib | An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of the delta isoform of the 110 kDa catalytic subunit of class I phosphoinositide-3 kinases (PI3K) with potential antineoplastic activity.  PI3K-delta inhibitor TGR-1202 inhibits PI3K and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT kinase signaling pathway. This decreases proliferation and induces cell death in susceptible tumor cells.  Unlike other isoforms of PI3K, PI3K-delta is expressed primarily in tumor cells and cells of the hematopoietic lineage... |
| Umbralisib Tosylate | The tosylate form of umbralisib, an orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of the delta isoform of the 110 kDa catalytic subunit of class I phosphoinositide-3 kinases (PI3K) with potential antineoplastic activity.  umbralisib inhibits PI3K and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT kinase signaling pathway. This decreases proliferation and induces cell death in susceptible tumor cells.  Unlike other isoforms of PI3K, PI3K-delta is expressed primarily in tumor cells and cells of the hematop... |
| Umikibart | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human hepatocyte growth factor (HGF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, umikibart targets and binds to HGF, preventing the binding of HGF to the HGF receptor c-Met and the activation of the c-Met signaling pathway. This may result in cell death in c-Met-expressing tumor cells. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cancer cell growth, survival, angiogen... |
| Uncaria tomentosa Extract | An extract of Uncaria tomentosa (U. tomentosa), also called Cat's claw, a native Amazonian plant belonging to the Rubiaceae species, with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating, antioxidant and antineoplastic activities. Although the exact mechanism(s) by which U. tomentosa extract exerts its effect(s) has yet to be fully elucidated, this extract may inhibit the proliferation of certain types of cancer cells. This extract may modulate inflammatory and immune responses through the stimu... |
| Unecritinib | An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), C-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1) and Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR; c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration,unecritinib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of ALK, ROS1 and c-Met, which leads to the disruption of ALK-, ROS1- and c-Met-mediated signaling and the inhibition of cell growth in ALK-, ROS1- and c-Met-expressing tumor cells. ... |
| Unesbulin | An orally active inhibitor of the polycomb ring finger oncogene BMI1 (B-cell-specific Moloney murine leukemia virus integration site 1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, unesbulin targets BMI1 expressed by both tumor cells and cancer stem cells (CSCs), and induces hyper-phosphorylation of BMI1 leading to its degradation. This inhibits BMI1-mediated signal transduction pathways and results in a reduction of proliferation of BMI1-expressing tumor cells.  BMI1, a... |
| Universal Anti-CD7 CAR T Cells RD13-01 | A preparation of universal T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD7, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, universal anti-CD7 CAR T cells RD13-01 specifically recognize and bind to CD7-expressing tumor cells, resulting in specific T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis. CD7 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed by T-cells and natural kill... |
| Universal Donor Expanded TGF-beta-imprinted NK Cells | A preparation of ex vivo expanded, universal donor, transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta; TGF-b) imprinted natural killer (NK) cells, with potential cytolytic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the universal donor expanded TGF-beta-imprinted NK cells may directly lyse cancer cells. These cells also secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines and further stimulate a systemic immune response against cancer cells. TGF-beta imprinting during NK cell activation and expansion decreases... |
| Upamostat | An orally bioavailable, 3-amidinophenylalanine-derived, second generation serine protease inhibitor prodrug targeting the human urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA) system with potential antineoplastic and antimetastatic activities. After oral administration, upamostat is converted to the active N alpha-(2,4,6-triisopropylphenylsulfonyl)-3-amidino-(L)-phenylalanine-4-ethoxycarbonylpiperazide (WX-UK1), which inhibits several serine proteases, particularly uPA; inhibition of uPA may result in ... |
| Upinitatug | A proprietary humanized monoclonal antibody against human sodium-dependent phosphate transport protein 2B (SLC34A2; NaPi2b), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of upinitatug, the antibody targets and binds to NaPi2b expressed on tumor cells. Although the tumor cell killing effects of upinitatug are not established, this binding may induce an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)-mediated immune response against NaPi2b-expressing tumor cells, and/or may inhib... |
| Upinitatug Rilsodotin | A proprietary antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of upinitatug , a proprietary, humanized monoclonal antibody against human sodium-dependent phosphate transport protein 2B (SLC34A2; NaPi2b), site-specifically linked, via a protease cleavable linker, to the proprietary cytotoxic aurastatin derivative auristatin F-HPA (AF-HPA; auristatin F-hydroxypropylamide), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upinitatug rilsodotin is produced via the proprietary dolaflexin ADC conjugation platform, w... |
| Uprevstobart | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the ectoenzyme 5'-ecto-nucleotidase (cluster of differentiation 73; CD73; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase; NT5E), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, uprevstobart targets and binds to CD73 on tumor cells, thereby inhibiting the activity of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of extracellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and the adenosine-mediated suppression of lymphocyte activity and ... |
| Uproleselan | A synthetic, glycomimetic molecule and E-selectin (CD62E) antagonist, with potential anti-thrombotic, antineoplastic and chemopotentiating activities. Upon administration, uproleselan binds to E-selectin expressed on endothelial cells and prevents their interaction with selectin-E ligand-expressing cancer cells. This may prevent tumor cell activation, migration and metastasis. GMI-1271 also interferes with the binding of selectin E-expressing vascular endothelial cells to selectin-E ligand-ex... |
| Uprosertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase Akt (protein kinase B) with potential antineoplastic activity. Uprosertib binds to and inhibits the activity of Akt, which may result in inhibition of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway and tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. Activation of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis and dysregulated PI3K/Akt signaling may contribute to tumor resistance to a variet... |
| Urabrelimab | A human monoclonal antibody targeting the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, urabrelimab selectively binds to CD47 on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha), an inhibitory protein expressed on macrophages. This prevents CD47/SIRPalpha-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of phagocytosis. This induces pro-phagocytic signa... |
| Uracil Ointment | A 0.1% topical formulation of uracil used potentially to lower the incidence of hand-foot syndrome (HFS) (or palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia) during 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) or 5-FU prodrug capecitabine chemotherapy. Upon local administration of uracil ointment to the skin, uracil competes with capecitabine or 5-FU as substrates for the activating enzyme thymidine phosphorylase and the metabolizing enzyme dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase. This may prevent the production of 5-FU as well as the b... |
| Urelumab | A fully human agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the CD137 receptor with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Anti-CD137 monoclonal antibody specifically binds to and activates CD137-expressing immune cells, stimulating an immune response, in particular a cytotoxic T cell response, against tumor cells. CD137 is a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF)/nerve growth factor (NGF) family of receptors and is expressed by activated T- and B-lymphocytes and monocytes; i... |
| Uridine Phosphorylase Inhibitor TK-112690 | A 2,2'-anhydropyrimidine derivative and human uridine phosphorylase (UPase) inhibitor that can be used to suppress mucositis induced by certain chemotherapeutics. Upon administration of UPase inhibitor TK-112690 prior to the administration of certain chemotherapeutic agents, such as methotrexate (MTX), this agent targets, binds to and blocks the activity of UPase, thereby preventing the metabolic breakdown of uridine into uracil. This increases the uridine levels in plasma and may prevent muc... |
| URLC10 Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing URLC10 (up-regulated lung cancer 10) epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, URL peptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against URLC10-expressing tumor cells. Up-regulated in lung and esophageal cancers, the function of URLC10 is unknown. |
| URLC10-CDCA1-KOC1 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing multiple peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activities. Peptide epitopes in this vaccine are derived from, URLC10 (up-regulated lung cancer 10), CDCA1 (cell division cycle-associated protein 1), KOC1 (IGF II mRNA Binding Protein 3). Upon administration, URLC10-CDCA1-KOC1 multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing URLC10, CDCA1, KCO1 peptides, resulting in cell lysis and decr... |
| URLC10-TTK-KOC1-VEGFR1-VEGFR2 Multipeptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing five peptide epitopes with potential immunostimulatory and antitumor activity. Peptide epitopes in this vaccine are derived from: URLC10 (up-regulated lung cancer 10), TTK (TTK protein kinase), KOC1 (IGF II mRNA Binding Protein 3) and VEGFRs (vascular endothelial growth factor receptors) 1 and 2. Upon administration, URLC10-TTK-KOC1-VEGFR1-VEGFR2 multipeptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing URLC10, TTK, K... |
| Uroacitides | A mixture of peptides, organic acids, pigments, and phenylacetylglutamine isolated from healthy human urine with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, uroacitides, also known as cell differentiation agent II (CDA-II) may inhibit telomerase activity in tumor cells. This may lead to an accumulation of tumor cells in G1 phase and inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. |
| Urokinase-Derived Peptide A6 | An octapeptide (amino acids 136-143) derived from the proteolytic enzyme urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA), with potential antineoplastic activity. A6 is derived from the nonreceptor-binding domain and connecting region of urokinase. Administration of A6 inhibits the interaction of uPA with its receptor uPAR, and may inhibit endothelial cell motility and tumor cell invasion. uPA and uPAR promote extracellular matrix degradation and growth factor activation and correlate positively with an... |
| Ursolic Acid | A pentacyclic triterpenoid found in various fruits, vegetables and medicinal herbs, with a variety of potential pharmacologic activities including anti-inflammatory, antioxidative, antiviral, serum lipid-lowering, and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ursolic acid may promote apoptosis and inhibit cancer cell proliferation through multiple mechanisms. This may include the regulation of mitochondrial function through various pathways including the ROCK/PTEN and p53 pathways, the ... |
| USP1 Inhibitor HSK39775 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the human deubiquitinating enzyme ubiquitin specific protease 1 (USP1; ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, USP1 inhibitor HSK39775 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of USP1, thereby blocking complex formation of USP1 with USP1-associated factor 1 (UAF1), and inhibits USP1-mediated deubiquitinating activity. This may result in replication fork degrad... |
| USP1 Inhibitor ISM3091 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the human deubiquitinating enzyme ubiquitin specific protease 1 (USP1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, USP1 inhibitor ISM3091 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of USP1, thereby blocking USP1-mediated deubiquitinating activity. This may result in replication fork degradation, inhibition of DNA damage repair, and decreased tumor cell survival. USP1, a deubiquitinating enzyme overexpresse... |
| USP1 inhibitor KSQ-4279 | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the ubiquitin specific protease 1 (USP1), with apoptosis-inducing, tumor-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, USP1 inhibitor KSQ-4279 specifically binds to and inhibits the activity of USP1, thereby blocking USP1-mediated deubiquitylating activity. This blocks the ubiquitin proteasome degradation pathway, prevents the degradation of defective proteins, and leads to an accumulation of mono-ubiquinated substrates. Thi... |
| USP1 Inhibitor SIM0501 | An orally bioavailable non-covalent small molecule inhibitor of the human deubiquitinating enzyme ubiquitin specific protease 1 (USP1; ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, USP1 inhibitor SIM0501 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of USP1, thereby blocking complex formation of USP1 with USP1-associated factor 1 (UAF1), and inhibits USP1-mediated deubiquitinating activity. This may result in replication... |
| USP1 Inhibitor TNG348 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the human deubiquitinating enzyme ubiquitin specific protease 1 (USP1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, USP1 inhibitor TNG348 specifically targets, allosterically binds to and inhibits the activity of USP1, thereby blocking USP1-mediated deubiquitinating activity. This may result in replication fork degradation, inhibition of DNA damage repair, and decreased tumor cell survival. USP1, a deubiquitinating enzym... |
| USP14/UCHL5 Inhibitor VLX1570 | An inhibitor of the 19S proteasome-specific deubiquitylating enzymes (DUBs) USP14 and UCHL5, with apoptosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, VLX1570 specifically binds to both USP14 and UCHL5, thereby blocking their deubiquitylating activity. This blocks the ubiquitin proteasome degradation pathway, prevents the degradation of defective proteins, and leads to an accumulation of poly-ubiquitylated proteins. This induces the unfolded protein response (UPR) and result... |
| Utatrectinib | A tropomyosin receptor kinase (TRK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, utatrectinib binds to TRK, thereby preventing the neurotrophin-TRK interaction and subsequent TRK activation. This may eventually result in an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in TRK-expressing tumor cells. TRK, a receptor tyrosine kinase activated by neurotrophins, is mutated in a variety of cancer cell types and plays an important role in tumor cell growth, invasion and survival. |
| Utidelone | A genetically engineered epothilone analog with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, utidelone binds to tubulin, induces microtubule polymerization and stabilizes microtubules against depolymerization, which may result in the inhibition of cell division, the induction of G2/M arrest, and apoptosis. Compared to first-generation epothilones, this agent exhibits greater safety and enhanced activity against certain multidrug-resistant (MDR) tumors. |
| Utomilumab | A human, agonistic immunoglobulin (Ig) G2 monoclonal antibody (mAb) targeting 4-1BB (CD137, TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration, utomilumab binds to and activates 4-1BB expressed on various immune cells, such as CD8-positive and CD4-positive T cells and natural killer (NK) cells. This enhances 4-1BB-mediated signaling, induces cytokine production and promotes anti-tumor immune responses. 4-1BB, a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF)/nerve growth facto... |
| UV1 Telomerase Peptide Vaccine | A synthetic, peptide cancer vaccine directed against the human telomerase reverse transcriptase catalytic subunit (hTERT) with potential immunomodulating activity. Vaccination with the UV1 telomerase peptide may stimulate cytotoxic T-cells to recognize and kill telomerase-expressing cells. Telomerase, a reverse transcriptase normally repressed in healthy cells, is overexpressed in most cancer cells and plays a key role in cellular proliferation. |
| Uzansertib | An orally available, small molecule and selective ATP-competitive pan-inhibitor of proviral integration sites for Moloney murine leukemia virus (PIM) kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, uzansertib binds to and inhibits the activities of the three PIM isoforms, PIM1, PIM2 and PIM3. This prevents phosphorylation of their downstream targets and inhibits proliferation in cells that overexpress PIMs. PIMs, constitutively active proto-oncogenic serine/threonin... |
| Uzatresgene Autoleucel | Autologous human T-lymphocytes transduced with a retroviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the human melanoma antigen A4 (MAGE-A4) and the CD8alpha co-receptor, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon leukapheresis, isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, uzatresgene autoleucel bind to tumor cells expressing MAGE-A4. This may result in both inhibition of growth and increased cell death of MAGE-A4-expre... |
| V930 Vaccine | A novel cancer vaccine designed to treat HER-2- and/or CEA-expressing cancers. |
| Vaccine-Sensitized Draining Lymph Node Cells | Cells isolated from lymph nodes from patients, and activated in vitro to generate tumor-specific effector T cells.  Lymph nodes in the lymphatics draining tumors often contain T cells that are immunologically sensitized but functionally deficient. Vaccine-sensitized draining lymph node cells are prepared by isolating these lymphocytes in vitro and stimulating them with cytokines to differentiate into mature effector cells.  Vaccine-draining lymph node cells may also be produced by pharmacolog... |
| Vaccinia Virus DD-CDSR | A highly tumor-selective vaccinia virus (vv) with an engineered double deletion (DD) of the thymidine kinase (tk) and vaccinia growth factor genes and additions of both a cytosine deaminase (CD) gene and a somatostatin receptor (SR) gene with potential oncolytic viral activity. The tk and vaccinia growth factor gene deletions in intratumorally administered vaccinia virus (vvDD-CDSR) help to restrict its replication and cytolytic activity to tumor cells with large nucleotide pools and tumor ce... |
| Vaccinia-GM-CSF Vaccine | A recombinant vaccinia virus that encodes granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF). By activating T-cells and macrophages, vaccination with recombinant vaccinia GM-CSF may enhance the host immune system response to poorly immunogenic tumors, resulting in decreased tumor growth. (NCI04) |
| Vaccinia-Tyrosinase Vaccine | A vaccine consisting of recombinant vaccinia virus, based on the modified vaccinia virus Ankara (MVA) that encodes the melanoma-associated antigen tyrosinase. Vaccination with vaccinia-tyrosinase may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-cell response against tumor cells expressing tyrosinase. Tyrosinase is a melanoma-specific differentiation agent that catalyzes the synthesis of the melanin precursor L-3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine (L-DOPA). |
| Vaccinium myrtillus/Macleaya cordata/Echinacea angustifolia Extract Granules | A proprietary suspension formulation prepared from granules of standardized extracts from the fruits of Vaccinium myrtillus, the aerial parts of Macleaya cordata and the roots of Echinacea angustifolia, with potential anti-mucositis, anti-inflammatory, and analgesic activities. The main active ingredients of this formulation include anthocyanosides and procyanidins, benzophenanthridinic alkaloids, and alkylamides from V. myrtillus, M. cordata and E. angustifolia extracts, respectively. Upon a... |
| Vactosertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinase, transforming growth factor (TGF)-beta receptor type 1 (TGFBR1), also known as activin receptor-like kinase 5 (ALK5), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, vactosertib inhibits the activity of TGFBR1 and prevents TGF-beta/TGFBR1-mediated signaling. This suppresses tumor growth in TGFBR1-overexpressing tumor cells. TGFBR1, which is overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumo... |
| Vadacabtagene Leraleucel | Genetically modified CD3-positive-enriched autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a replication incompetent gamma retroviral vector expressing a chimeric T-cell antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of an anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment (scFv), fused to the extracellular, transmembrane and intracellular signaling domains of the T-cell co-stimulatory receptor CD28 and the cytoplasmic signaling domain of the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (CAR19-28z), with potential antineo... |
| Vadastuximab Talirine | An immunoconjugate consisting of a humanized monoclonal antibody that is engineered to contain cysteine residues that are conjugated to the synthetic, DNA cross-linking, pyrrolobenzodiazepine dimer SGD-1882, via the protease-cleavable linker maleimidocaproyl-valine-alanine dipeptide, with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody portion of vadastuximab talirine specifically binds to the cell surface antigen CD33. This causes the internalization of SGN-CD33A, and the release ... |
| Vadimezan | A fused tricyclic analogue of flavone acetic acid with potential antineoplastic activity. Vadimezan induces the cytokines tumor necrosis alpha (TNF-alpha), serotonin and nitric oxide, resulting in hemorrhagic necrosis and a decrease in angiogenesis.  This agent also stimulates the anti-tumor activity of tumor-associated macrophages. |
| Valecobulin | A benzophenone derivative and water soluble valine prodrug of the tubulin binding agent S516, with potential tubulin-inhibiting, vascular-disrupting and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, valecobulin is converted into its active metabolite S-516 that binds to tubulin and prevents its polymerization in tumor blood vessel endothelial cells and tumor cells. This blocks the formation of the mitotic spindle and leads to cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase. As a result, this agent disrup... |
| Valemetostat | An orally available selective inhibitor of the histone lysine methyltransferases enhancer of zeste homolog 1 (EZH1) and 2 (EZH2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, valemetostat selectively inhibits the activity of both wild-type and mutated forms of EZH1 and EZH2. Inhibition of EZH1/2 specifically prevents the methylation of lysine 27 on histone H3 (H3K27). This decrease in histone methylation alters gene expression patterns associated with cancer pathways, enh... |
| Valproic Acid | A synthetic derivative of propylpentanoic acid with antiepileptic properties and potential antineoplastic and antiangiogenesis activities.  In epilepsy, valproic acid appears to act by increasing the concentration of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain. This agent's antitumor and antiangiogenesis activities may be related to the inhibition of histone deacetylases and nitric oxide synthase, which results in the inhibition of nitric oxide synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Valrubicin | A semisynthetic derivative of the antineoplastic anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin. With a mechanism of action that appears to differ from doxorubicin, valrubicin is converted intracytoplasmically into N-trifluoroacetyladriamycin, which interacts with topoisomerase II, stabilizing the complex between the enzyme and DNA; consequently, DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis are inhibited and the cell cycle is arrested in the G2 phase. In addition, this agent accumulates in ... |
| Valspodar | An analogue of cyclosporin-A. Valspodar inhibits p-glycoprotein, the multidrug resistance efflux pump, thereby restoring the retention and activity of some drugs in some drug-resistant tumor cells. This agent also induces caspase-mediated apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| Vamotinib | An orally bioavailable, Bcr-Abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Designed to overcome resistance of tumor cells to second generation Bcr-Abl inhibitors, vamotinib targets and binds to the Bcr-Abl fusion oncoprotein, including those fusion proteins with the 'gatekeeper' resistance mutation T315I, an amino acid substitution at position 315 in Bcr-Abl from a threonine (T) to an isoleucine (I). This inhibits Bcr-Abl-mediated proliferation of, and enhances apoptos... |
| Vandetanib | An orally bioavailable 4-anilinoquinazoline. Vandetanib selectively inhibits the tyrosine kinase activity of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), thereby blocking VEGF-stimulated endothelial cell proliferation and migration and reducing tumor vessel permeability. This agent also blocks the tyrosine kinase activity of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), a receptor tyrosine kinase that mediates tumor cell proliferation and migration and angiogenesis. |
| Vandetanib-eluting Radiopaque Bead BTG-002814 | Radiopaque drug-eluting beads (DEBs) that are loaded with vandetanib, a dual inhibitor of both vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) and epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic, anti-angiogenic and imaging activities. Upon intra-arterial hepatic artery administration of vandetanib (VTB)-eluting Radiopaque beads (VERBs) BTG-002814, the DEBs occlude the tumor blood vessels and deprive tumor cells of oxygen and nutrients, thereby causing hepatic arter... |
| Vandortuzumab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the six transmembrane epithelial antigen of the prostate 1 (STEAP1), and conjugated, via a protease-cleavable peptide linker, to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of vandortuzumab vedotin, the monoclonal antibody moiety of vandortuzumab vedotin binds to STEAP1-expressing tumor... |
| Vantictumab | A monoclonal antibody directed against the Wnt signaling pathway with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, vantictumab binds to certain receptors in the Wnt signaling pathway thereby preventing the activation of the Wnt signaling pathway. This may result in an inhibition of cancer stem cell (CSC) activity and a subsequent inhibition of cancer cell proliferation. The Wnt signaling pathway is dysregulated in many cancer cell types and appears to play a major role in CSC regul... |
| Vanucizumab | A humanized bispecific immunoglobulin G (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting both the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) ligand VEGF-A and the Tie2 receptor ligand angiopoietin-2 (Ang-2), with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. Upon administration of vanucizumab, the anti-VEGF-A arm, which is based on bevacizumab, targets and binds to VEGF-A and the anti-Ang2 arm, which is based on the anti-Ang-2 antibody LC06, targets and binds to Ang2, thereby simultan... |
| Vapreotide | A synthetic cyclic octapeptide analogue of somatostatin with direct and indirect antitumor effects. Vapreotide binds to somatostatin receptors (SSTR), specifically SSTR-2 and to SSTR-5 with a lesser affinity, in the similar behaviors as other octapeptide somatostatin analogues. Like octreotide, this agent has direct and indirect antitumor effects via inhibiting the release of growth hormone and other peptides that regulate release of insulin, gastrointestinal hormones. Furthermore, vapreotide... |
| Varegacestat | An orally bioavailable, gamma secretase (GS) and pan-Notch inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, varegacestat binds to GS and blocks the proteolytic cleavage and release of the Notch intracellular domain (NICD), which would normally follow ligand binding to the extracellular domain of the Notch receptor. This prevents both the subsequent translocation of NICD to the nucleus to form a transcription factor complex and the expression of Notch-regulated genes. Th... |
| Varlilumab | A human agonistic monoclonal antibody (MoAb) specific for CD27, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of varlilumab, this MoAb binds to CD27 and may potentiate the immune response by increasing the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD27-expressing tumor cells. This may lead to growth inhibition of CD27-expressing tumor cells. In addition, this agent may increase the proliferation and activation of antigen-specific T lymphocytes upon co-a... |
| Varlitinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor family with potential antineoplastic activity. Varlitinib selectively and reversibly binds to both EGFR (ErbB-1) and Her-2/neu (ErbB-2) and prevents their phosphorylation and activation, which may result in inhibition of the associated signal transduction pathways, inhibition of cellular proliferation and cell death. EGFR and Her-2 play important roles in cell proliferation and differentiation and are upregulated in vari... |
| Varlitinib Tosylate | The tosylate salt form of varlitinib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor family with potential antineoplastic activity. Varlitinib selectively and reversibly binds to both EGFR (ErbB-1) and Her-2/neu (ErbB-2) and prevents their phosphorylation and activation, which may result in inhibition of the associated signal transduction pathways, inhibition of cellular proliferation and cell death. EGFR and Her-2 play important roles in cell proliferation and diffe... |
| Varnimcabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of adult differentiated autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) composed of an anti-cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) single chain variable fragment (scFv), derived from the CD19-A3B1 hybridoma, linked to the intracellular signaling domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (TCRzeta; CD247; CD3zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The autol... |
| Vascular Disrupting Agent BNC105 | A vascular disrupting agent (VDA), with potential anti-vascular and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, vascular disrupting agent BNC105 binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, which results in a blockage of mitotic spindle formation, cell cycle arrest, and disruption of the tumor vasculature. This deprives tumor cells of nutrients and results in tumor cell apoptosis. In addition to its VDA activity, this agent has a direct cytotoxic effect on tumor cells by inhibiting t... |
| Vascular Disrupting Agent BNC105P | A benzofuran-based vascular disrupting agent (VDA) prodrug with potential anti-vascular and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration vascular disrupting agent BNC105P, the disodium phosphate ester of BNC105, is rapidly converted to BNC105; in activated endothelial cells, BNC105 binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, which may result in a blockage of mitotic spindle formation, cell cycle arrest, and disruption of the tumor vasculature. Hypoxic conditions ensue, depriving tumor... |
| Vascular Disrupting Agent ZD6126 | A water-soluble phosphate prodrug of N-acetylcolchinol with potential antiangiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. ZD-6126 is converted in vivo into N-acetylcolchinol. N-acetylcolchinol binds to and destabilizes the tubulin cytoskeleton of endothelial cells in tumor blood vessels, which may result in tumor endothelial cell apoptosis, the selective occlusion of tumor blood vessels, cessation of tumor blood flow, and tumor necrosis. |
| Vatalanib | An orally bioavailable anilinophthalazine with potential antineoplastic activity.  Vatalanib binds to and inhibits the protein kinase domain of vascular endothelial growth factor receptors 1 and 2; both receptor tyrosine kinases are involved in angiogenesis.  This agent also binds to and inhibits related receptor tyrosine kinases, including platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) receptor, c-Kit, and c-Fms. |
| Vatalanib Succinate | The succinate salt of vatalanib, an anilinophthalazine derivative, with antineoplastic activity.  Vatalanib binds to and inhibits the protein kinase domain of vascular endothelial growth factor receptors 1 and 2; both receptor tyrosine kinases are involved in angiogenesis.  This agent also binds to and inhibits related receptor tyrosine kinases, including platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) receptor, c-Kit, and c-Fms. |
| Vebreltinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the proto-oncogene c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, vebreltinib selectively binds to c-Met, thereby inhibiting c-Met phosphorylation and disrupting c-Met signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays... |
| Vecabrutinib | An orally available second-generation, reversible inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, vecabrutinib non-covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of both wild-type and the C481S mutated form of BTK, a resistance mutation in the BTK active site in which cysteine is substituted for serine at residue 481. This prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling p... |
| Vector-peptide Conjugated Paclitaxel | A proprietary conjugate of paclitaxel with antineoplastic activity. Similar to the free drug, the paclitaxel moiety in vector-peptide conjugated paclitaxel binds to and stabilizes tubulin molecules, promoting assembly of microtubules and inhibiting tubulin disassembly which results in the inhibition of cell division. The Kunitz domain-derived vector-peptide carries the conjugated paclitaxel through the blood brain barrier (BBB), bypassing the transmembrane p-glycoprotein (P-gp) efflux pump, w... |
| Vedolizumab | A recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human lymphocyte Peyer's patch adhesion molecule 1 (LPAM-1; alpha4beta7; a4b7), with immunomodulating, anti-inflammatory, and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, vedolizumab selectively binds to integrin a4b7 and prevents the binding of a4b7, expressed on the surface of a subset of T-lymphocytes, to its natural ligand, mucosal addressin cell adhesion molecule-1 (MAdCAM-1), which is ... |
| VEGF/HGF-targeting DARPin MP0250 | A designed ankyrin repeat proteins (DARPin)-based agent targeting vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and hepatocyte growth factor (HGF), with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Compared to antibodies, DARPins are small in size, have favorable pharmacokinetics and allow for both high affinity binding and efficacy. Upon administration, the VEGF/HGF-targeting DARPin MP0250 binds to and inhibits both HGF and VEGF. This prevents HGF- and VEGF-mediated signaling, and inh... |
| VEGFR Inhibitor KRN951 | An orally bioavailable quinoline-urea derivative inhibitor of vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) 1 and 2 with potential antiangiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. VEGFR inhibitor KRN951 inhibits VEGF-induced phosphorylation of VEGFRs 1 and 2, which may result in inhibition of migration, proliferation and survival of endothelial cells, microvessel formation, the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation, and tumor cell death. Expression of VEGFRs may be upregulated in a va... |
| VEGFR/FGFR Inhibitor ODM-203 | An orally available inhibitor of the human vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) and fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs), with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. VEGFR/FGFR inhibitor ODM-203 inhibits both VEGFRs and FGFRs, which may result in the inhibition of VEGFR- and FGFR-mediated signaling. This leads to an inhibition of angiogenesis and cell proliferation in tumor cells overexpressing VEGFR and/or FGFR. Both VEGFRs and FGFRs belong to the supe... |
| VEGFR/PDGFR Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor TAK-593 | An oral formulation containing a small-molecule receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor of both vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. TAK-593 selectively binds to and inhibits VEGFR and PDGFR, which may result in the inhibition of angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. |
| VEGFR1-1084 Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine containing an HLA-A*2402-restricted epitope of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 1 (VEGFR1 or Flt-1) with potential immunostimulating, antiangiogenic, and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, VEGFR1-1084 peptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against VEGFR1-expressing endothelial cells of the tumor microvasculature, which may inhibit tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFR1, a receptor tyrosine kinase, may be ov... |
| VEGFR-2 DNA Vaccine VXM01 | An orally available DNA cancer vaccine containing an attenuated strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhimurium encoding murine vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR-2) (VXM01), with potential immunomodulating, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration and successful transduction, VEGFR-2 DNA vaccine VXM01 expresses VEGFR-2 in addition to inducing the expression of T-cell activation markers, such as CD25, interleukin-2, the early T-cell activation ant... |
| VEGFR2 Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor PF-00337210 | An orally available ATP-competitive inhibitor of the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2), with potential anti-angiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the VEGFR2 tyrosine kinase inhibitor PF-00337210 selectively binds to VEGFR2 and prevents its phosphorylation which may result in an inhibition of migration, proliferation and survival of endothelial cells, microvessel formation, the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation, and may eventually cause... |
| VEGFR2/PDGFR/c-Kit/Flt-3 Inhibitor SU014813 | An orally-active, tyrosine kinase receptor inhibitor with potential antitumor activity. SU014813 binds to and inhibits the phosphorylation of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) alpha and beta, c-Kit and Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 (Flt-3). This leads to an inhibition of cellular proliferation and angiogenesis and an induction of apoptosis. |
| VEGFR3 Inhibitor EVT801 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of human vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 3 (VEGFR3; VEGFR-3; Flt-4), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, VEGFR3 inhibitor EVT801 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits VEGFR3 tyrosine kinase, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and a decrease in tumor nutrient supply. EVT801 may also decrease the level of immune suppressive myeloid derived suppressor cells... |
| Veligrotug | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human insulin-like growth factor-1 receptor (IGF-1R/CD221) with potential antineoplastic activity. Veligrotug specifically binds to and blocks membrane-bound IGF-1R, preventing the binding of the natural ligand IGF-1 and the subsequent activation of PI3K/AKT signal transduction, which may result in the induction of apoptosis and a decrease in cellular proliferation. Activation of IGF-1R, a receptor tyrosine kinase of the insulin receptor su... |
| Veliparib | A poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) -1 and -2 inhibitor with chemosensitizing and antitumor activities. With no antiproliferative effects as a single agent at therapeutic concentrations, ABT-888 inhibits PARPs, thereby inhibiting DNA repair and potentiating the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging agents. PARP nuclear enzymes are activated by DNA single or double strand breaks, resulting in the poly(ADP-ribosyl)ation of other nuclear DNA binding proteins involved in DNA repair; poly(ADP-ribosyl)atio... |
| Veltuzumab | A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the CD20 antigen with potential antineoplastic activity. Following binding, veltuzumab triggers complement-dependent cell lysis (CDCL) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) in cells that overexpress CD20. CD20 antigen is a hydrophobic transmembrane protein located on pre-B and mature B lymphocytes. |
| Vemurafenib | An orally bioavailable, ATP-competitive, small-molecule inhibitor of BRAF(V600E) kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Vemurafenib selectively binds to the ATP-binding site of BRAF(V600E) kinase and inhibits its activity, which may result in an inhibition of an over-activated MAPK signaling pathway downstream in BRAF(V600E) kinase-expressing tumor cells and a reduction in tumor cell proliferation. Approximately 90% of BRAF gene mutations involve a valine-to-glutamic acid mutation at ... |
| Venetoclax | An orally bioavailable, selective small molecule inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein Bcl-2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Venetoclax mimics BH3-only proteins, the native ligands of Bcl-2 and apoptosis activators, by binding to the hydrophobic groove of Bcl-2 proteins thereby repressing Bcl-2 activity and restoring apoptotic processes in tumor cells. Bcl-2 protein is overexpressed in some cancers and plays an important role in the regulation of apoptosis; its expression is associ... |
| Vepafestinib | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of wild-type, fusion products and mutated forms of the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, vepafestinib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of RET. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of tumors cells that exhibit increased RET activity. RET overexpression, activating mutations, and fusions result in the upregulation and/or o... |
| Vepdegestrant | An orally available hetero-bifunctional molecule and selective estrogen receptor (ER) alpha-targeted protein degrader, using the proteolysis targeting chimera (PROTAC) technology, with potential antineoplastic activity. Vepdegestrant is composed of an ER alpha ligand attached to an E3 ligase recognition moiety. Upon oral administration,vepdegestrant targets and binds to the ER ligand binding domain on ER alpha. E3 ligase is recruited to the ER by the E3 ligase recognition moiety and ER alpha ... |
| Vepsitamab | A half-life extended (HLE), human bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human mucin 17 (MUC17), and one directed against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration vepsitamab binds to both CD3 on T-cells and MUC17 expressed on tumor cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, an... |
| Verapamil | A phenylalkylamine calcium channel blocking agent. Verapamil inhibits the transmembrane influx of extracellular calcium ions into myocardial and vascular smooth muscle cells, causing dilatation of the main coronary and systemic arteries and decreasing myocardial contractility.  This agent also inhibits the drug efflux pump P-glycoprotein which is overexpressed in some multi-drug resistant tumors and may improve the efficacy of some antineoplastic agents. (NCI04) |
| Verpasep Caltespen | A recombinant chimeric protein composed of the heat shock protein 65 (Hsp65) from Mycobacterium bovis, and the human papilloma viral (HPV) protein E7.  Hsp65, similar to other members of its family of proteins, elicits a strong immune response and may be used to design vaccines against a number of different cancers.  E7 protein is involved in carcinogenesis of anal and cervical tumors, and represents a tumor antigen that may be specifically targeted by lymphocytes. (NCI04) |
| Verubulin | A quinazoline derivative with potential antineoplastic activities. Verubulin binds to and inhibits tubulin polymerization and interrupts microtubule formation, resulting in disruption of mitotic spindle assembly, cell cycle arrest in the G2/M phase, and cell death. This agent is not a substrate for several subtypes of multidrug resistance ABC transporters, and may be useful for treating multidrug resistant tumors. In addition, as a vascular disrupting agent, verubulin disrupts tumor microvasc... |
| Verubulin Hydrochloride | The hydrochloride salt form of verubulin, a quinazoline derivative with potential dual antineoplastic activities. Verubulin binds to and inhibits tubulin polymerization and interrupts microtubule formation, resulting in disruption of mitotic spindle assembly, cell cycle arrest in the G2/M phase, and cell death. This agent is not a substrate for several subtypes of multidrug resistance ABC transporters, such as P-glycoprotein, multidrug resistance-associated protein 1 (MRP1), and breast cancer... |
| Verzistobart | A fully human Fc-engineered immunoglobulin G1 kappa (IgG1kappa) antibody directed against the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, verzistobart forms a high-affinity interaction with TIM-3 expressed on certain T-cells, thereby preventing the engagement of TIM-3 by its ligands, phosphatidy... |
| Vesencumab | A human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against neuropilin-1 (NRP1), with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, vesencumab specifically targets and binds to NRP1; the antibody-NRP1 complex prevents the subsequent coupling of NRP1 to VEGFR2, thereby potentially inhibiting VEGF-mediated signaling and potentially preventing angiogenesis. In combination with other anti-VEGF therapies, vesencumab may enhance their anti-angiogenic effect. NRP1 is... |
| Vesigenurtucel-L | An allogeneic urothelial bladder cancer cell vaccine expressing a recombinant secretory form of the immunoadjuvant heat shock protein gp96 fused with an immunoglobulin Fc domain (gp96-Ig) protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of vesigenurtucel-L, the live, irradiated tumor cells continuously secrete gp96-Ig along with its chaperoned tumor associated antigens (TAAs). This enhances antigen cross presentation to cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and, upon expansion, l... |
| Vevoctadekin | An engineered variant of the human cytokine interleukin-18 (IL-18; IL18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of vevoctadekin, the IL-18 variant binds to and activates the IL-18 receptor. This promotes T-cell persistence and enhances the activity and maturation of natural killer (NK) cells, which potentiates the immune response against tumor cells. The IL-18 variant is engineered to preferably bind to the IL-18 receptor and not IL-18 binding pro... |
| VGEF Mixed-Backbone Antisense Oligonucleotide GEM 220 | A mixed-backbone antisense oligonucleotide that is complementary to a pro-angiogenic vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) mRNA sequence.  Because of its antiangiogenic properties, GEM 220 has been studied as a potential antineoplastic agent. (NCI04) |
| VGEFR/c-kit/PDGFR Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor XL820 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. XL820 binds to and inhibits the receptor tyrosine kinases for vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), c-kit, and platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF). In tumor models of breast carcinomas, gliomas, and leukemia, this agent exhibits dose-dependent growth inhibition and has been shown to cause tumor regression. |
| Viagenpumatucel-L | A proprietary, allogeneic tumor cell vaccine expressing a recombinant secretory form of the heat shock protein gp96 fusion (gp96-Ig) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of viagenpumatucel-L, the irradiated live tumor cells continuously secrete gp96-Ig along with its chaperoned tumor associated antigens (TAAs) into the blood stream, thereby activating antigen presenting cells, natural killer cells and priming potent cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) to respond against TAAs... |
| Vibecotamab | An anti-CD123/anti-CD3 bispecific monoclonal antibody, in which most of the naturally-occurring Fc domain is maintained, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Vibecotamab possesses two antigen-recognition and binding sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for CD123, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of certain tumor cells. Upon administration of vibecotam... |
| Vibostolimab | An antagonistic agent targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT; T-cell immunoreceptor with Ig and ITIM domains; T-cell immunoglobulin and ITIM domain), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, vibostolimab targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocyt... |
| Vibostolimab/Pembrolizumab MK-7684A | A co-formulated product containing fixed doses of the two monoclonal antibodies vibostolimab and pembrolizumab, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of vibostolimab/pembrolizumab MK-7684A, vibostolimab, an antibody against the immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT; T-cell immunoreceptor with Ig and ITIM domains; T-cell immunoglobulin and ITIM doma... |
| Vidutolimod | A virus-like particle (VLP) composed of the Qbeta bacteriophage capsid encapsulating the toll-like receptor 9 (TLR9) agonist G10, an unmethylated CpG-A oligodeoxynucleotide (ODN), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of vidutolimod, the VLPs are specifically taken up by and release the oligonucleotide into antigen-presenting cells (APCs), including dendritic cells (DCs). In turn, the oligonucleotide binds to and activates intracellular TLR9. This... |
| Vilamakitug | A human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the inflammatory cytokine interleukin-1 alpha (IL1a), with potential antineoplastic, anti-cachectic and anti-angiogenic activities. Upon administration, vilamakitug targets, binds to, and inhibits the activity of IL1a. This may inhibit IL1a-mediated tumorigenesis, angiogenesis and cachexia. IL1a, an inflammatory mediator expressed on monocytes, platelets and overexpressed by certain tumors, plays a key role in the promotion... |
| Vilaprisan | An orally available progestin and selective progesterone receptor modulator (SPRM), with potential anti-progesterone and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, vilaprisan competitively binds to the progesterone receptor (PR) in progesterone-responsive tissue and inhibits PR-mediated gene expression. This interferes with progesterone activity in the reproductive system and may inhibit PR-mediated proliferative effects in cells overexpressing PRs. As a result, this agent may suppr... |
| Vilzemetkib | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration vilzemetkib targets and binds to the c-Met protein, prevents c-Met phosphorylation and disrupts c-Met-dependent signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. c-Met protein is overexpressed or mutated in many... |
| Vimseltinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase receptor colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; C-FMS; CD115; M-CSFR), with potential antineoplastic, macrophage checkpoint-inhibitory and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, vimseltinib targets and binds to CSF1R expressed on monocytes, macrophages, and osteoclasts and inhibits the binding of the CSF1R ligands colony-stimulating factor-1 (CSF-1) and interleukin-34 (IL-34), to CSF1R. This prevents CSF1R activa... |
| Vinblastine | A natural alkaloid isolated from the plant Vinca rosea Linn. Vinblastine binds to tubulin and inhibits microtubule formation, resulting in disruption of mitotic spindle assembly and arrest of tumor cells in the M phase of the cell cycle. This agent may also interfere with amino acid, cyclic AMP, and glutathione metabolism; calmodulin-dependent Ca++ -transport ATPase activity; cellular respiration; and nucleic acid and lipid biosynthesis. (NCI04) |
| Vinblastine Sulfate | The sulfate salt of vinblastine, a natural alkaloid isolated from the plant Catharanthus roseus (Madagascar periwinkle) with antineoplastic properties.  Vinblastine disrupts microtubule formation and function during mitosis and interferes with glutamic acid metabolism. (NCI04) |
| Vincristine | A natural alkaloid isolated from the plant Vinca rosea Linn. Vincristine binds irreversibly to microtubules and spindle proteins in S phase of the cell cycle and interferes with the formation of the mitotic spindle, thereby arresting tumor cells in metaphase. This agent also depolymerizes microtubules and may also interfere with amino acid, cyclic AMP, and glutathione metabolism; calmodulin-dependent Ca++ -transport ATPase activity; cellular respiration; and nucleic acid and lipid biosynthesi... |
| Vincristine Liposomal | A liposomal formulation of Vincristine designed to reduce toxicity and improve efficacy.  Vincristine binds irreversibly to microtubules and spindle proteins in S phase of the cell cycle and interferes with the formation of the mitotic spindle, thereby arresting tumor cells in metaphase. This agent also depolymerizes microtubules and may also interfere with amino acid, cyclic AMP, and glutathione metabolism; calmodulin-dependent Ca++ -transport ATPase activity; cellular respiration; and nucle... |
| Vincristine Sulfate | The sulfate salt of a natural alkaloid isolated from the plant Catharanthus roseus (Vinca rosea L.) with antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Vincristine binds irreversibly to microtubules and spindle proteins in S phase of the cell cycle and interferes with the formation of the mitotic spindle, thereby arresting tumor cells in metaphase. This agent also depolymerizes microtubules and may also interfere with amino acid, cyclic AMP, and glutathione metabolism; calmodulin-dependent Ca(2+)... |
| Vincristine Sulfate Liposome | A sphingomyelin/cholesterol liposomal formulation of vincristine sulfate with potential antineoplastic activity. Vincristine, a vinca alkaloid isolated from the plant Vinca rosea, irreversibly binds to and stabilizes tubulin, thereby interrupting microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, thereby preventing the formation of the mitotic spindle and leading to cell cycle arrest in metaphase. Liposomal encapsulation prolongs bioavailability of vincristine, increases its delivery to tumor tissues... |
| Vindesine | A synthetic derivative of vinblastine, a naturally occurring vinca alkaloid. Vindesine binds to and stabilizes tubulin, thereby interrupting tubulin polymerization and preventing the formation of the mitotic spindle and cell division; treated cells are unable to undergo mitosis and are arrested in metaphase. This agent also disrupts macromolecular synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Vinepidine | A vinca alkaloid compound and semi-synthetic vincristine derivative with antineoplastic activity. Vinepidine binds to and stabilizes tubulin, thereby preventing tubulin polymerization and depolymerization, which result in microtubule assembly and disassembly, respectively. Treated cells are unable to complete mitosis process and are arrested in the metaphase, thereby leading to an inhibition of cell growth. |
| Vinflunine | A bi-fluorinated derivative of the semi-synthetic vinca alkaloid vinorelbine with antitubulin, antineoplastic, and antiangiogenic activities. Vinflunine inhibits tubulin assembly without any stablization of assembled microtubules at concentrations comparable to those of other vinca alkaloids such as vincristine, vinblastine and vinorelbine; this effect on microtubule dynamics results in cell cycle arrest in mitosis and apoptosis. Compared to other vinca alkaloids, this agent binds weakly to t... |
| Vinflunine Ditartrate | The ditartrate salt of vinflunine, a bi-fluorinated derivative of the semisynthetic vinca alkaloid vinorelbine with potential antimitotic and antineoplastic activities. Vinflunine binds to tubulin and inhibits tubulin assembly and disrupts microtubule assembly dynamics. This results in cell cycle arrest in mitosis and an induction of apoptosis. |
| Vinfosiltine | An aminophosphonate derivative of a vinca alkaloid with potential antineoplastic activity. Vinfosiltine exerts its antineoplastic action just like its parent compound, vinblastine, by immobilizing tubulin molecules, thereby interrupting microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics. As a result, vinfosiltine prevents mitotic spindle formation and leads to cell cycle arrest in metaphase. |
| Vinorelbine | A semisynthetic vinca alkaloid. Vinorelbine binds to tubulin and prevents formation of the mitotic spindle, resulting in the arrest of tumor cell growth in metaphase. This agent may also interfere with amino acid, cyclic AMP. and glutathione metabolism; calmodulin-dependent Ca++ -transport ATPase activity; cellular respiration; and nucleic acid and lipid biosynthesis. |
| Vinorelbine Tartrate | The ditartrate salt of a semisynthetic vinca alkaloid derived from the leaves of the periwinkle plant (Vinca rosea) with antineoplastic properties.  Vinorelbine binds to tubulin, thereby inhibiting tubulin polymerization into microtubules and spindle formation and resulting in apoptosis of susceptible cancer cells. Inhibition of mitotic microtubules correlates with antitumor activity, whereas inhibition of axonal microtubules seems to correlate with vinorelbine's neurotoxicity. Compared to re... |
| Vinorelbine Tartrate Emulsion | An emulsion containing the tartrate salt of the semisynthetic vinca alkaloid vinorelbine with antineoplastic activity. Vinorelbine binds to tubulin, inhibiting tubulin polymerization into microtubules; cell division is prevented, the cell cycle is arrested metaphase and cell death ensues. In this formulation vinorelbine is emulsified in a homogeneous suspension of nanoparticles, which protects the venous endothelium from coming into direct contact with the active ingredient, potentially reduc... |
| Vinorelbine Tartrate Oral | An orally bioavailable tartrate salt of vinorelbine, a semisynthetic vinca alkaloid with potential antineoplastic activity. Vinorelbine binds to tubulin, thereby inhibiting tubulin polymerization into microtubules and spindle formation and resulting in apoptosis of susceptible cancer cells. Inhibition of mitotic microtubules correlates with antitumor activity, whereas inhibition of axonal microtubules seems to correlate with vinorelbine's neurotoxicity. Compared to related vinca alkaloids, vi... |
| Vintafolide | A water-soluble, folate-receptor-targeted conjugate of folate and the vinca alkaloid desacetylvinblastine monohydrazide (DAVLBH) with potential antineoplastic activity. The folate moiety of vintafolide binds to folic acid receptors on the tumor cell surface and the agent is internalized via folate receptor-mediated endocytosis, delivering the tubulin-binding DAVLBH moiety directly into the tumor cell; DAVLBH binding to tubulin results in the disruption of microtubule assembly-disassembly dyna... |
| Vinzolidine | An orally active semisynthetic vinca alkaloid with potential antineoplastic activity. Like other vinca alkaloid compounds, vinzolidine binds to and stabilizes tubulin molecules, thereby interfering with microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics. As a result, vinzolidine prevents mitotic spindle formation and leads to cell cycle arrest in metaphase. |
| Vinzolidine Sulfate | The sulfate salt of vinzolidine, an orally active semisynthetic vinca alkaloid with potential antineoplastic activity. Like other vinca alkaloid compounds, vinzolidine binds to and stabilizes tubulin molecules, thereby interfering with microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics. As a result, vinzolidine prevents mitotic spindle formation and leads to cell cycle arrest in metaphase. |
| Viral Vector-based Cancer Vaccine VAC85135 | An off-the-shelf (OTS) cancer vaccine consisting of a viral vector encoding certain neoantigens, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the viral vector-based cancer vaccine VAC85135, the expressed neoantigens elicit a specific and potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing these neoantigens. |
| Virulizin | A natural biological response modifier (BRM) isolated from bovine reticuloendothelial tissue. Viruzlin may enhance cell-mediated immune response to tumor cells by direct macrophage activation. (NCI04) |
| Vislarafusp Alfa | A bispecific antibody directed against both the human tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2) and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of vislarafusp alfa, the anti-HER2 moiety selectively targets and binds to the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) HER2 on HER2-expressing tumor cells, thereby improving the binding of the anti-CD47 moiety to the HER2-e... |
| Vismodegib | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of SMO and the Hedgehog (Hh) pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, vismodegib targets, binds to and inhibits the cell membrane-spanning G-protein coupled receptor SMO, which may result in the suppression of Hh pathway signaling and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation and survival. SMO is activated upon binding of Hh ligand to the cell surface receptor Patched (PTCH); inappropriate activation of Hh signali... |
| Vistusertib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Vistusertib inhibits the activity of mTOR, which may result in the induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. mTOR, a serine/threonine kinase that is upregulated in a variety of tumors, plays an important role downstream in the PI3K/Akt/mTOR signaling pathway. |
| Visugromab | A humanized, hinge-stabilized immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against growth/differentiation factor 15 (GDF-15; macrophage inhibitory cytokine-1; MIC-1; non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug-inducible gene-1; NAG-1; placental transforming growth factor-beta; pTGFB; prostate-derived factor; PDF; placental bone morphogenetic protein; PLAB), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, visugromab specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of GDF... |
| Vitamin D3 Analogue ILX23-7553 | A vitamin D3 analogue with potential antineoplastic activity.  ILX23-7553 binds to and activates the vitamin D receptor, a cytoplasmic polypeptide expressed in normal vitamin D responsive tissues, but also overexpressed in certain cancers including hepatocellular carcinoma and pancreatic cancer. Mediated through vitamin D receptor, this agent induces cancer cell differentiation, inhibits cancer cell growth and induces apoptosis. In addition, ILX23-7553 may also induce growth arrest and apopto... |
| Vitamin E Compound | A natural fat-soluble antioxidant with potential chemopreventive activity. Also known as tocopherol, vitamin E ameliorates free-radical damage to biological membranes, protecting polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) within membrane phospholipids and within circulating lipoproteins. Peroxyl radicals react 1000-fold faster with vitamin E than with PUFA.  In the case of oxygen free radical-mediated tumorigenesis, vitamin E may be chemopreventive. (NCI04) |
| Vitespen | An autologous cancer vaccine derived from tumor-specific gp96 heat shock proteins.  Heat shock proteins chaperone peptides through the endoplasmic reticulum, are key regulators of dendritic cell maturation, migration and antigen processing, and are involved in T-cell activation. (NCI04) |
| Vixtimotamab | An anti-CD33/anti-CD3 bispecific tetravalent antibody, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Anti-CD33/CD3 tetravalent bispecific monoclonal antibody AMV564 possesses two antigen-recognition and binding sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for CD33, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of a variety of tumor cell types. Upon infusion of vixtimotamab, this b... |
| Vobramitamab Duocarmazine | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) comprised of vobamitamab, an anti-B7-homolog 3 (B7-H3, CD276) humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1)/kappa monoclonal antibody, conjugated to the cleavable linker-duocarmycin payload duocarmazine (valine-citrulline-seco duocarmycin hydroxybenzamide azaindole; vc-seco-DUBA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of vobramitamab duocarmazine, vobramitamab specifically targets and binds to the cell surface antigen B7-H3, leading to internalizati... |
| Vocimagene Amiretrorepvec | A replication competent retroviral vector, derived from the Moloney murine leukemia virus (MoMLV), encoding a modified form of the yeast suicide gene cytosine deaminase (CD) (Toca 511) used as an antineoplastic adjuvant. Upon transcranial injection, vocimagene amiretrorepvec preferentially enters and transfects tumor cells, and expresses cytosine deaminase, an enzyme that catalyzes the intracellular conversion of the prodrug flucytosine (5-FC) into the antineoplastic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-F... |
| Vociprotafib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, vociprotafib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regulates cell survival, diffe... |
| Vodobatinib | An orally bioavailable, Bcr-Abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, vodobatinib selectively targets and binds to the Bcr-Abl fusion oncoprotein, including various Bcr-Abl mutant forms, such as those with the 'gatekeeper' resistance mutation T315I. This inhibits proliferation of Bcr-Abl-expressing tumor cells. The Bcr-Abl fusion protein is an aberrantly activated tyrosine kinase produced by certain leukemia cells. T315I, an amino acid s... |
| Vodudeutentan Sodium | An antagonist of the immune checkpoint endothelin B receptor (ETBR; EDNRB), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the ETBR blocker ENB 003 selectively targets and binds to ETBR expressed on tumor cells. This prevents ETBR-mediated signaling and may abrogate the immunosuppressive tumor microenvironment (TME), may enhance a T-cell mediated anti-tumor immune response and may inhibit proliferation of ETBR-expressing tumor cells. ETBR, a G-protein coup... |
| Vofatamab | A human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the fibroblast growth factor receptor type 3 (FGFR3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, vofatamab specifically binds to and inhibits both wild-type and mutated forms of FGFR3. This may result in the inhibition of FGFR3 phosphorylation, and thereby preventing its activation and FGFR3-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of cell proliferation and the indu... |
| Volasertib | A dihydropteridinone Polo-like kinase 1 (Plk1) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Volasertib selectively inhibits Plk1, inducing selective G2/M arrest followed by apoptosis in a variety of tumor cells while causing reversible cell arrest at the G1 and G2 stage without apoptosis in normal cells. Plk1, named after the polo gene of Drosophila melanogaster, is a serine/threonine protein kinase involved in regulating mitotic spindle function in a non-ATP competitive manner. |
| Volociximab | A chimeric monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Volociximab binds to and inhibits the activity of alpha(5)beta(1) integrin, thereby inhibiting endothelial cell-cell interactions, endothelial cell-matrix interactions, and angiogenesis. (NCI05) |
| Volrustomig | An engineered fragment crystallizable (Fc) domain bispecific human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, volrustomig targets and binds to both PD-1 and CTLA4 expressed on tumor-infiltrating T lymphocyte... |
| Von Hippel-Lindau Peptide Vaccine | A cancer vaccine composed of peptides derived from a tumor-associated protein encoded by a mutated Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) oncogene.  VHL peptide vaccine may stimulate a cytotoxic T cell response against tumor cells expressing the VHL tumor-associated protein. (NCI04) |
| Vonlerolizumab | An agonistic humanized monoclonal antibody against the receptor, OX40 (CD134), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, vonlerolizumab selectively binds to and activates OX40, by mimicking the action of endogenous OX40 ligand (OX40L). OX40 activation induces proliferation of effector T-lymphocytes and inhibits the activity of regulatory T-cells. In the presence of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), this may promote an immune response agai... |
| Vopikitug | A monoclonal antibody against CD25 (IL-2R alpha), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, vopikitug targets and binds to CD25 expressed on tumor-infiltrating regulatory T (Treg) cells. This may deplete Treg cells and prevent immunosuppression, thereby enhancing anti-tumor immune responses. CD25, the alpha chain of the interleukin (IL)-2 receptor, is highly expressed on Treg cells but not on effector T (Teff) cells in tumors. |
| Vopratelimab | An agonistic humanized monoclonal antibody that recognizes inducible T-cell co-stimulator (ICOS; CD278), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-ICOS agonist monoclonal antibody JTX-2011 targets and binds to ICOS expressed on certain T-cells. This stimulates ICOS-mediated signaling, induces proliferation of ICOS-positive T-cells, enhances cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) survival and augments the CTL-mediated immune response against tumor cells. ICOS, a T-cell specific, ... |
| Vorasidenib | An orally available inhibitor of mutated forms of both isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1, IDH1 [NADP+] soluble) in the cytoplasm and type 2 (IDH2, isocitrate dehydrogenase [NADP+], mitochondrial) in the mitochondria, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, vorasidenib specifically inhibits mutant forms of IDH1 and IDH2, thereby inhibiting the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG) from alpha-ketoglutarate (a-KG). This prevents 2HG-mediated signaling ... |
| Vorbipiprant | A small molecule, orally bioavailable antagonist of the prostaglandin E2 receptor subtype 4 (PTGER4; EP4), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, vorbipiprant selectively targets and binds to EP4, thereby inhibiting the binding of the immunosuppressive prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) to EP4 and preventing the activation of EP4. This inhibits PGE2-EP4-mediated signaling and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells in which the PGE2-EP4 signaling pathw... |
| Vorinostat | A synthetic hydroxamic acid derivative with antineoplastic activity. Vorinostat, a second generation polar-planar compound, binds to the catalytic domain of the histone deacetylases (HDACs). This allows the hydroxamic moiety to chelate zinc ion located in the catalytic pockets of HDAC, thereby inhibiting deacetylation and leading to an accumulation of both hyperacetylated histones and transcription factors. Hyperacetylation of histone proteins results in the upregulation of the cyclin-dependa... |
| Vorolanib | An orally available small molecule dual inhibitor targeting human vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) and platelet-derived growth factor receptors (PDGFRs) with antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Vorolanib inhibits all isoforms of VEGFR and PDGFR, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation, and the induction of tumor cell death. Both VEGFRs and PDGFRs are receptor tyrosine kinases that may be upregulated in various tumor ... |
| Vorsetzumab Mafodotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a humanized monoclonal antibody, directed against the extracellular domain of the human CD70 molecule, conjugated to the auristatin analogue monomethyl auristatin phenylalanine (MMAF), with potential antineoplastic activity. The anti-CD70 antibody moiety of vorsetuzumab mafodotin selectively binds to the extracellular domain of CD70 on tumor cell surfaces. Upon internalization, the MMAF moiety is released, binds to tubulin and inhibits its polyme... |
| Voruciclib | A cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, voruciclib selectively inhibits cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6). This inhibits retinoblastoma (Rb) protein phosphorylation early in the G1 phase, which prevents CDK-mediated G1-S phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threonine kinases that are upregulated in many tumor cell ... |
| Vosaroxin | A small molecule and a naphthyridine analogue with antineoplastic activity. Vosaroxin intercalates into DNA in a site-specific manner and blocks the re-ligation process carried out by topoisomerase II during DNA replication. As a result, inhibition of DNA replication, RNA and protein synthesis occurs, followed by cell cycle arrest at G2 phase and induced p53-independent apoptosis. This agent shows a favorable toxicity profile in several aspects: it does not generate reactive oxygen species, a... |
| Vosilasarm | An orally bioavailable, non-steroidal selective androgen receptor modulator (SARM), with potential tissue-selective androgenic/anti-androgenic activities. Upon oral administration, vosilasarm acts as an agonist in select tissues, such as skeletal muscle and bone, where it binds to and activates androgen receptors (ARs). In the prostate and breasts, vosilasarm acts as an antagonist and blocks AR activation and AR-mediated cellular proliferation. Therefore, this agent may improve bone formation... |
| Voxalatamab | An immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) bispecific antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), fused to one that is directed against the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, voxalatamab simultaneously binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and PSMA found on PSMA-expressing tumor cells.... |
| Voxtalisib | An orally bioavailable small molecule targeting the phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase (PI3K) and mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) kinases in the PI3K/mTOR signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Voxtalisib inhibits both PI3K kinase and mTOR kinase, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis and growth inhibition in susceptible tumor cell populations. Activation of the PI3K/mTOR pathway promotes cell growth, survival, and resistance to chemotherapy and radiotherapy; mTOR, a se... |
| VSV-GP BI 1831169 | A recombinant, live-attenuated, oncolytic chimeric virus derived from the vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), a single-stranded RNA virus, and containing a genetically modified glycoprotein (GP), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, VSV-GP BI 1831169 preferentially replicates in tumor cells. Due to defective antiviral host defense mechanisms in tumor cells, VSV-GP BI 1831169 is able to replicate in tumor cells without interference. This induces VSV... |
| VSV-GP-based Cancer Vaccine VSV-GP128 | A boosting cancer vaccine comprised of the recombinant chimeric oncolytic vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV) viral vector VSV-GP containing as of yet undisclosed peptide(s) derived from as of yet undisclosed tumor-associated antigen(s) (TAAs) that are specific for colorectal cancer (CRC) patients, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, VSV-GP-based cancer vaccine VSV-GP128 preferentially replicates in tumor cells. Due to defective antiviral host defe... |
| Vudalimab | A Fc-engineered bispecific antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, vudalimab targets and binds to both PD-1 and CTLA4 expressed on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes (TILs) and inhibits the PD-1- and CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell ac... |
| Vulinacimab | A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against human vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR-2) with potential anti-angiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, vulinacimab specifically binds to and inhibits VEGFR-2, which may inhibit tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFR-2, a tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an essential role in angiogenesis and the proliferation, survival, migration and differentiation of endothelial cells, is overexpr... |
| Vusolimogene Oderparepvec | A genetically modified oncolytic viral strain of the herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) virus, with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, vusolimogene oderparepvec specifically targets, infects and replicates in tumor cells only while not infecting normal, healthy cells. This induces tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles, infect and replicate in neighboring tumor cells, thereby further killing tumor cells. The released tumor-associated ... |
| W_pro1 Cancer Vaccine | A messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA)-based cancer vaccine that encodes five prostate cancer-selective off-the-shelf shared antigens that are separately complexed with liposomes to form serum-stable RNA lipoplexes (RNA-LPX), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of the W_pro1 cancer vaccine, the RNA-LPX are taken up by antigen-presenting cells (APCs), especially dendritic cells (DCs). Upon uptake, the antigens are translated, processed, a... |
| Wee1 Inhibitor APR-1051 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the human tyrosine kinase Wee1 (Wee1-like protein kinase; Wee1A kinase; WEE1hu), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Wee1 inhibitor APR-1051 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Wee1. Inhibition of Wee1 inhibits cyclin-dependent kinase 1 (CDK1) and 2 (CDK2) phosphorylation, promotes both premature mitosis and a prolonged mitotic arrest, which results in the accumulation of unrepaired DNA damage. This le... |
| Wee1 Kinase Inhibitor Debio 0123 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the human tyrosine kinase Wee1 (Wee1-like protein kinase; Wee1A kinase; WEE1hu), with potential antineoplastic sensitizing activity. Upon oral administration of Debio 0123, this agent targets, binds to and inhibits Wee1. Inhibition of Wee1 inhibits Cdk1 (Cdc2) phosphorylation, promotes both premature mitosis and a prolonged mitotic arrest, which results in the accumulation of unrepaired DNA damage. This leads to apoptosis in susceptible tumor cells, such as... |
| Wee1 Kinase Inhibitor IMP7068 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the human tyrosine kinase Wee1 (Wee1-like protein kinase; Wee1A kinase; WEE1hu), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Wee1 kinase inhibitor IMP7068 targets, binds to and inhibits Wee1. Inhibition of Wee1 inhibits Cdk1 (Cdc2) phosphorylation, promotes both premature mitosis and a prolonged mitotic arrest, which results in the accumulation of unrepaired DNA damage. This leads to apoptosis in susceptible tumor cells, such as p53-de... |
| Wee1/Myt1 Inhibitor SGR-3515 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Wee1-like protein kinase (Wee1; Wee1A kinase; WEE1hu) and membrane-associated tyrosine- and threonine-specific cdc2-inhibitory kinase (PKMYT1; Myt1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Wee1/Myt1 inhibitor SGR-3515 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Wee1 and Myt1. This inhibits cyclin-dependent kinase 1 (CDK1; CDC2) and 2 (CDK2) phosphorylation, promotes both premature mitosis and a prolonged mitotic arrest, and lea... |
| Wee1/PKMYT1 Inhibitor ACR-2316 | An orally bioavailable and selectively inhibitor of the human tyrosine kinase Wee1 (Wee1-like protein kinase; Wee1A kinase; WEE1hu) and membrane-associated tyrosine- and threonine-specific cdc2-inhibitory kinase (PKMYT1; Myt1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Wee1/PKMYT1 inhibitor ACR-2316 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of both Wee1 and PKMYT1. This inhibits cyclin-dependent kinase 1 (CDK1; CDC2) and 2 (CDK2) phosphorylation, promotes both premat... |
| Welgenaleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) composed of an anti-cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) single chain variable fragment (scFv) linked to the signaling domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (TCRzeta; CD247; CD3zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, welgenaleucel targets, binds to and induces selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells... |
| Whey Protein Isolate-based Nutritional Supplement | A nutritional supplement composed of a lactose- and gluten-free whey-based protein isolate and containing various vitamins and minerals, with potential immunomodulating activity. In addition to whey protein isolate, this supplement contains phosphoric acid, L-cysteine, ascorbic acid, vitamin E, zinc, ferrous sulfate, niacinamide, vitamin A, calcium pantothenate, copper, manganese, vitamin D3, pyridoxine, thiamine, riboflavin, folic acid, biotin, iodine, phytonadione, and vitamin B12. Upon adm... |
| White Button Mushroom Extract | A heat-stable extract of white button mushrooms (Agaricus bisporus) with potential chemopreventive and immunomodulating activities. Phytochemicals, such as polysaccharides and especially beta-D-glucans found in the white button mushroom extract, bind to and inhibit the activity of aromatase, an enzyme responsible for the conversion of androgens to estrogens and which is often upregulated in breast cancer cells. The consequent decrease in estrogen production may result in the suppression of es... |
| White Carrot | A vegetable, also known as Arracacha, with potential chemoprevenitve, anti-oxidant and protective activities. White carrot contains a variety of nutrients, including minerals and vitamins. Polyacetylenes, including falcarinol, falcarindiol and falcarindiol-3-acetate are mainly responsible for its potential anti-cancer activity. |
| Wnt Signaling Inhibitor APL-5125 | An orally bioavailable small molecule kinase inhibitor of the Wnt signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Wnt signaling inhibitor APL-5125 targets and binds to an as of yet undisclosed kinase in the Wnt signaling pathway, thereby preventing Wnt-mediated signaling. This may inhibit growth of tumor cells in which the Wnt signaling pathway is overactivated. The Wnt signaling pathway is upregulated in many cancers and plays a key role in tumor cell pro... |
| Wnt Signaling Inhibitor SM04755 | An orally bioavailable small molecule inhibitor of the Wnt signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Wnt signaling inhibitor SM04755 targets and binds to an as of yet undisclosed target in the Wnt signaling pathway, thereby preventing Wnt-mediated signaling. This may inhibit growth of tumor cells in which the Wnt signaling pathway is overactivated. The Wnt signaling pathway is upregulated in many cancers and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation. |
| Wnt Signaling Pathway Inhibitor SM08502 | An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the Wnt signaling pathway, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SM08502 inhibits the expression of genes involved in the Wnt signaling pathway through an as of yet not fully elucidated mechanism. This decreased expression of Wnt pathway-related genes prevents Wnt signaling and may inhibit proliferation of cancer cells in which the Wnt signaling pathway is overactivated. The Wnt signaling pathway is dysregulated i... |
| Wnt-5a Mimic Hexapeptide Foxy-5 | A formylated, six amino acid, Wnt5a-derived peptide and wnt-5a mimetic with potential anti-metastatic activity. Upon intravenous administration, Wnt-5a mimic hexapeptide foxy-5 binds to and activates the wnt-5a receptors, Frizzled-2 and -5, which activates wnt-5a-mediated signaling. Increased wnt-5a signaling may inhibit endothelial tumor cell migration and invasion. This may decrease metastasis of susceptible tumor cells. However, foxy-5 does not affect tumor cell proliferation or apoptosis.... |
| Wobe-Mugos E | An enzymatic preparation containing proteolytic enzymes papain, trypsin and chymotrypsin with potential anti-inflammatory and anticarcinogenic activities. Papain can be extracted from the fruit of the papaya plant. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are serine proteases produced and secreted by the pancreas. Although its exact mechanisms has yet to be fully illustrated, Wobe-Mugos E appears to have the ability to modulate the immune system by degrading cytokines, and cytokine receptors and clearing cir... |
| WRN Inhibitor HRO761 | An orally bioavailable selective and allosteric inhibitor of the Werner syndrome ATP-dependent helicase (WRN), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, WRN inhibitor HRO761 allosterically binds at the interface of the D1 and D2 helicase domains of WRN, thereby locking WRN in an inactive conformation. This induces double-stranded DNA breaks and activates the DNA damage response (DDR) to induce WRN degradation. This promotes cell cycle arrest and cell death in, and inhi... |
| WRN Inhibitor RO7589831 | An orally bioavailable and small molecule inhibitor of Werner syndrome ATP-dependent helicase (WRN; RecQ protein-like 2; Werner syndrome protein), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, WRN inhibitor RO7589831 covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of WRN. This may inhibit the growth of cancers with high microsatellite instability (MSI-H). WRN, a multifunctional enzyme with helicase, ATPase, and exonuclease activities, plays an important role in maintaining g... |
| WT1 124-138 Peptide Vaccine | A synthetic peptide vaccine consisting of a HLA-DR15-restricted human Wilms' Tumor protein-1 (WT1) peptide comprised of amino acids 124 through 138, a HLA class II-restricted WT1 peptide, with potential immunomodulating and antitumor activities. Vaccination with WT1 124-138 peptide may stimulate a CD4-positive helper T-lymphocyte-mediated immune response against WT1 expressing cells. Activated helper T-cells stimulate dendritic cells, and activate the proliferation of other T-lymphoctes and B... |
| WT1 126-134 Peptide Vaccine | A synthetic peptide vaccine consisting of the amino acids 126 through 134 of the human Wilms' Tumor protein-1 (WT1) with potential antitumor activity. WT1, a tumor associated antigen, is overexpressed in most types of leukemia and in a variety of solid cancers. Vaccination with WT1 126-134 peptide vaccine may induce a WT1-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against WT1 expressing cells, resulting in cell lysis and inhibition of cancer cell proliferation. |
| WT1 235-243 Peptide Vaccine | A synthetic peptide vaccine consisting of a HLA-A24-restricted human Wilms' Tumor protein-1 (WT1) peptide comprised of amino acids 235 through 243, a MHC class I-restricted peptide, with potential immunomodulating and antitumor activities. Vaccination with WT1 235-243 peptide may induce a WT1-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against WT1 expressing cells, resulting in cell lysis and inhibition of cancer cell proliferation. WT1, a zinc finger DNA-binding protein, is overexpressed ... |
| WT1 247-261 Peptide Vaccine | A synthetic peptide vaccine consisting of a HLA-DRw53-restricted human Wilms' Tumor protein-1 (WT1) peptide comprised of amino acids 247 through 261, a HLA class II-restricted WT1 peptide, with potential immunomodulating and antitumor activities. Vaccination with WT1 247-261 peptide may stimulate a CD4-positive helper T-lymphocyte-mediated immune response against WT1 expressing cells. Activated helper T-cells stimulate dendritic cells, and activate the proliferation of other T-lymphoctes and ... |
| WT1 Analog Peptide Vaccine | A peptide vaccine comprised of an epitope of human Wilms tumor 1 (WT-1) with potential antineoplastic activity. WT-1, a transcription factor, is overexpressed in most types of leukemia and in some solid cancers. Vaccination with the WT-1 analog peptide vaccine may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against WT-1 expressing cells, resulting in cell lysis and inhibition of cancer cell proliferation. |
| WT1 mRNA-Electroporated Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cancer vaccine containing autologous dendritic cells electroporated with full-length mRNA encoding Wilms' tumor 1 (WT1) antigen with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, WT1 mRNA-electroporated autologous dendritic cell vaccine may elicit a cytotoxic T-cell (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing WT1. Wt1 is frequently overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types and often correlates with disease progression and poor prognosis. |
| WT1 Peptide Vaccine OCV-501 | A peptide cancer vaccine comprised of a peptide derived from Wilms tumor gene 1 (WT1) protein, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, WT1 peptide vaccine OCV-501 may stimulate a CD4-positive helper T-lymphocyte-mediated immune response against WT1 expressing cells. WT1 protein, a zinc finger DNA-binding protein, is overexpressed in leukemic cells and in some solid tumors. |
| WT1 Peptide Vaccine WT2725 | A peptide cancer vaccine comprised of a peptide derived from Wilms tumor gene 1 (WT1) protein, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, WT2725 may induce a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against WT1-overexpressing tumor cells. WT1 protein, a zinc finger DNA-binding protein, is overexpressed in leukemic cells and in a vast number of non-hematological solid tumors. |
| WT1 Peptide-loaded Allogeneic Dendritic Cell Vaccine | A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of donor-derived dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with three, human leukocyte antigen A2 (HLA-A2)-binding peptides derived from the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Wilms tumor protein 1 (WT1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, WT1 peptide-loaded allogeneic DC vaccine exposes the immune system to WT1-derived peptides and may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response agai... |
| WT1 Protein-derived Peptide Vaccine DSP-7888 | A peptide cancer vaccine comprised of peptides derived from the Wilms tumor gene 1 (WT1) protein, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, WT1 protein-derived peptide vaccine DSP-7888 may induce a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against WT1-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, DSP-7888 induces a helper T-lymphocyte-mediated immune response against WT1 expressing tumor cells. WT1 protein, a zinc finger DNA-binding protein and transc... |
| WT1/PRAME/Survivin-specific Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes | A preparation of  cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) specifically reactive to the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) human Wilms tumor protein (WT1), preferentially expressed antigen of melanoma (PRAME; melanoma antigen preferentially expressed in tumors; Opa-interacting protein 4; OIP-4), and survivin (baculoviral IAP repeat-containing protein 5; BIRC5), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon collection of peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs), these cells are sti... |
| WT1/PRAME/Survivin-specific T-cells MANA-312 | A preparation of off-the-shelf (OTS) donor-derived T-lymphocytes that are reactive to multiple tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. T-cells derived from allogeneic donor leukocytes are stimulated with monocyte-derived dendritic cells (DCs) that are pulsed with a mix of peptides derived from the three TAAs Wilms tumor 1 (WT1), preferentially expressed antigen of melanoma (PRAME; melanoma antigen preferentially expressed in tumors; Opa... |
| WT1/PSMA/hTERT-encoding Plasmid DNA INO-5401 | A preparation composed of three separate DNA plasmids encoding the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) Wilms tumor gene-1 (WT1), prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and human telomerase reverse transcriptase (hTERT), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activites. Upon intramuscular delivery and electroporation of the WT1/PSMA/hTERT-encoding plasmid DNA INO-5401, the genes are translated into their respective proteins inside the cell. The expressed proteins activate the immu... |
| WT1-A10/AS01B Immunotherapeutic GSK2130579A | An immunotherapeutic consisting of the recombinant fusion protein WT1-A10 combined with the adjuvant ASO1B with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.  Upon administration, WT1-A10/AS01B immunotherapeutic GSK2130579AWT1 may induce a WT1-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against WT1-expressing tumor cells, resulting in cell lysis and the inhibition of cellular proliferation. The tumor-associated antigen WT1 (Wilms tumor protein-1) is overexpressed in most types... |
| WT1-H/K-HELP-survivin-H/K-HELP-MAGE-A4-H / K-HELP-MUC1-22 Peptide-loaded Autologous Dendritic Cells | A preparation of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with helper/killer-hybrid epitope long peptides (H/K-HELP) of Wilms tumor 1 (WT1 H/K-HELP), survivin, melanoma-associated antigen 4 (MAGE-4) and human mucin 1-22 (Muc1-22), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of WT1-H/K-HELP-survivin-H/K-HELP-MAGE-A4-H / K-HELP-Muc1-22 peptide-loaded autologous DCs may stimulate the host immune system to mount an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL), T... |
| WT1-loaded Artificial Adjuvant Vector Cell Immunotherapeutic ASP7517 | A preparation of artificial adjuvant vector cells (aAVCs) composed of cells from the cell line HEK293, which is derived from human embryonic kidney cells, that are transfected with the natural killer T (NKT) immune cell receptor cluster of differentiation 1d (CD1d) and loaded with the glycolipid and CD1d ligand alpha-galactosylceramide (alpha-GalCer) on the cell surface, and loaded with the full-length tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Wilms' tumor 1 (WT1), with potential immunomodulating and an... |
| WT1-Sensitized Allogeneic T-Lymphocytes | A population of allogeneic T-cells sensitized with Wilms tumor 1 (WT1) antigen with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, WT1-sensitized T cells may bind to and lyse WT1-expressing tumor cells. WT1 antigen, a zinc finger DNA-binding protein acting as a transcriptional activator or repressor depending on the cellular or chromosomal context, is overexpressed in leukemic cells and in a vast number of nonhematological solid tumors. |
| WT1-targeted IL-2-based Fusion Protein CUE-102 | A Fc-engineered fusion protein composed of two human leukocyte antigen (HLA) molecules presenting a Wilms' tumor 1 (WT1) peptide that are each linked to two affinity-attenuated interleukin 2 (IL-2; IL2) molecules, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The HLA molecules presenting a WT1 peptide are peptide-HLA-A*0201 major histocompatibility complex (pMHC) derived from the WT1 peptide encoded by the amino acids 37-45. Upon administration of CUE-102, the pMHC moiety sel... |
| Xaluritamig | A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody directed against both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) six transmembrane epithelial antigen of the prostate 1 (STEAP1) and the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, xaluritamig targets and binds to both STEAP1 expressed on the surface of tumor cells and CD3 expressed on T-cells. This results in the cross-linking of tumor cells and T-cells, and induces a cytotox... |
| Xanthohumol | A prenylated flavonoid derived from the female flowers of the hops plant (Humulus lupulus L), with potential chemopreventive and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, xanthohumol scavenges reactive oxygen species (ROS), thereby preventing DNA damage due to oxidative stress. In addition, xanthohumol is able to increase the expression of phase II cytoprotective enzymes, thereby inactivating carcinogens. This agent exerts anti-inflammatory activity, through the inhibition of inflammati... |
| XBP1-US/XBP1-SP/CD138/CS1 Multipeptide Vaccine PVX-410 | A cancer vaccine containing immunogenic, HLA-A2-specific epitopes derived from X-box-binding protein 1-unspliced (XBP1-US), XBP1-spliced (SP), syndecan-1 (CD138), and CS1 (CD2 subset 1, CRACC, SLAMF7, CD319) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, XBP1-US/XBP1-SP/CD138/CS1 multipeptide vaccine PVX-410 may stimulate the immune system to induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte response against the four myeloma-specific antigens.  The tumor associ... |
| Xenogeneic Tyrosinase DNA Vaccine | A plasmid DNA vaccine, encoding an epitope of mouse tyrosinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Administered via intramuscular electroporation, vaccination with xenogeneic tyrosinase DNA vaccine may induce both humoral and cytotoxic lymphocyte (CTL) immune responses against melanoma cells that express tyrosinase, resulting in decreased tumor growth. |
| Xentuzumab | A humanized IgG1 insulin-like growth factor (IGF) monoclonal antibody targeting the IGF ligands 1 (IGF-1) and 2 (IGF-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, xentuzumab binds to both IGF-1 and IGF-2 and inhibits the binding of these ligands to their receptor, IGF-1R. This blocks the insulin growth factor (IGF) signaling pathway, which is upregulated in a number of cancer cell types and plays a key role in cancer cell proliferation and chemoresistance. In addition, BI 8... |
| Xevinapant | An orally available mimetic of the natural second mitochondrial-derived activator of caspases (Smac) and inhibitor of Inhibitor of Apoptosis Proteins (IAPs), with potential immunomodulating, apoptotic-inducing, chemo-radio-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration,xevinapant targets and binds to the Smac binding groove on IAPs, including the direct caspase inhibitor X chromosome-linked IAP (XIAP), and the cellular IAPs 1 (c-IAP1) and 2 (c-IAP2). This inhibits the act... |
| Xiaoai Jiedu Decoction | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) decoction composed of Oldenlandia, Kuh-seng, Codonopsis pilosula, bighead atractylodes rhizome, smoked plum, the rhizome of Chinese goldthread, rhizome zingiberis preparata and semen Coicis, with potential chemopreventive and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of Xiaoai Jiedu decoction, the active ingredients in this decoction may inhibit a variety of signal transduction pathways involved in carcinogenesis. This may induce cell cycle arrest and... |
| XIAP Antisense Oligonucleotide AEG35156 | A second-generation synthetic antisense oligonucleotide with potential antineoplastic activity. AEG35156 selectively blocks the cellular expression of X-linked inhibitor of apoptosis protein (XIAP), a pivotal inhibitor of apoptosis that is overexpressed in many tumors. This agent reduces total levels of XIAP in tumor cells, working synergistically with cytotoxic drugs to overcome tumor cell resistance to apoptosis. XIAP interferes with both the intrinsic and extrinsic program-death signaling ... |
| Xiliertinib | An orally available, ATP-competitive inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, xiliertinib binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling, and may lead to both induction of cell death and inhibition of tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. |
| Xirestomig | A bispecific antibody composed of a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) fused with a single chain variable fragment (scFv) targeting 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, xirestomig simultaneously targets and binds to 4-1BB, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets includi... |
| XPO1 Inhibitor WJ01024 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear export protein exportin-1 (XPO1; chromosome region maintenance 1 protein homolog; CRM1), with potential antineoplastic and pro-apoptotic activities. Upon administration, XPO1 inhibitor WJ01024 reversibly binds to the cargo binding site of XPO1, and prevents the XPO1-mediated nuclear export of cargo proteins, including tumor suppressor proteins (TSPs), such as p53, FOXO, p21, and p27, and leads to their selective accumulation in the nuclei of tum... |
| XPO1 Inhibitor WJ01075 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear export protein exportin-1 (XPO1; chromosome region maintenance 1 protein homolog; CRM1), with potential antineoplastic and pro-apoptotic activities. Upon administration, XPO1 inhibitor WJ01075 targets and binds to XPO1, and prevents the XPO1-mediated nuclear export of cargo proteins, including tumor suppressor proteins (TSPs), such as p53, FOXO, p21, and p27. This  leads to their selective accumulation in the nuclei of tumor cells, which restore... |
| Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody CC49 | A radioimmunoconjugate of the humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) CC49 labeled with Yttrium 90 (Y-90). MoAb CC49 recognizes the pancarcinoma tumor-associated glycoprotein (TAG)-72 with high affinity. Y-90 MoAb CC49 delivers beta particles emitting Y-90 radionuclide directly to tumor cells that express TAG-72, thereby this agent may be used in radioimmunotherapeutic treatment of cancers. |
| Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody HMFG1 | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of HMFG1, a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor associated antigen mucin-1 (MUC-1), labeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope yttrium 90 (Y-90), with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to MUC-1 on the surface of certain tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, pemtumomab and delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to MUC1-expressing tumor cells. MUC1, a gl... |
| Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody Lym-1 | A radioimmunoconjugate of a murine monoclonal antibody, MoAb Lym-1, labeled with yttrium 90 (Y-90). MoAb Lym-1 recognizes an epitope of the histocompatibility antigen HLA-DR, which is over-expressed on most B-cell lymphomas. Y-90 MoAb Lym-1 delivers Y-90 radionuclide directly to tumor cells that express HLA-DR antigen, thereby this agent may be used in radioimmunotherapy of cancers. |
| Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody m170 | A radioimmunoconjugate of m170 monoclonal antibody (MoAb) conjugated with isotope yttrium 90. MoAb m170 is a murine MoAb that recognizes MUC-1 antigen present on the surface of many adenocarcinomas. This radioimmunoconjugate emits beta particles that cause cytotoxicity in tumor cells and has both imaging and therapeutic uses. |
| Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody M195 | A radioimmunoconjugate of humanized M195 monoclonal antibody (MoAb) conjugated with isotope yttrium 90. MoAb M195 is reactive with the cell surface antigen CD33, a glycoprotein found on myeloid leukemia blasts and early hematopoietic progenitor cells but not on normal stem cells. This radioimmunoconjugate emits beta particles that causes cytotoxicity in tumor cells and has both imaging and therapeutic uses. |
| Yang Yin Fu Zheng | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM)-based formulation, with potential immuno-enhancing, detoxifying and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, Yang Yin Fu Zheng may activate the immune system and may help inhibit tumor cell proliferation. This TCM may also help remove toxic substances. |
| Yangzheng Xiaoji Extract | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM)-based formulation containing the Yangzheng Xiaoji (YZXJ) extract, consisting of various components, with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. Some of the main components in Yangzheng Xiaoji are Radix Astragali, Fructus Ligustri Lucidi, Radix Ginseng, Ganoderma, Rhizoma Curcumac, Fried Rhizoma Atractylodis, Macrocephalae and Herba Hedyotidis. Although the exact mechanism(s) through which Yangzheng Xiaoji exerts its effects have yet to be... |
| YAP/TEAD Interaction Inhibitor IAG933 | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the interaction between the transcription coactivator yes-associated protein 1 (YAP) and the transcription factor TEAD (TEA domain), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, YAP/TEAD inhibitor IAG933 disrupts the interaction between YAP and TEAD, thereby disrupting the interaction between the transcription coactivators YAP/transcriptional coactivator with PDZ-binding motif (TAZ) and TEAD. This may inhibit YAP/TAZ-TEAD promoted gene ... |
| YAP1 Antisense Oligonucleotide ION537 | An antisense oligonucleotide (ASO) targeting the transcription coactivator yes-associated protein 1 (YAP1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, YAP1 ASO ION537 targets and binds to messenger RNA (mRNA) for YAP1, thereby inhibiting translation of YAP1. Suppression of YAP1 expression prevents the binding of YAP1 to transcription factors, thereby inhibiting gene transcription involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. The Hippo/YAP1 pathway is dysregulated in cer... |
| Yiqi-yangyin-jiedu Herbal Decoction | A traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) based formulation consisting of milkvetch root, glehnia root, asparagus root, lilyturf root, grossy privet fruit, spikemoss herb, Chinese sage herb, and manyleaf paris rhizome, with potential immuno-enhancing, detoxifying and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, yiqi-yangyin-jiedu decoction (YYJD) may activate the immune system by enhancing T-lymphocyte activity, and inhibiting tumor cell proliferation. YYJD may also ameliorate the qi-yin defici... |
| Young Autologous Tumor-infiltrating Lymphocytes | A preparation of autologous young tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), that are isolated from the patient's tumor tissue and minimally cultured ex vivo, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon re-administration of the young TILs, the TILs re-infiltrate the tumor, recognize the tumor cells and initiate tumor cell lysis. This inhibits tumor cell growth. |
| Yttrium Y 90 Anti-CD19 Monoclonal Antibody BU12 | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of the murine IgG1 anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody (MoAb) BU12 labeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope yttrium Y 90 with radioisotopic and antibody activities. Yttrium Y 90 anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody BU12 binds to the CD19 molecule, specifically delivering cytotoxic beta radiation to CD19-expressing B cells. CD19 is a membrane antigen that is widely expressed during B-cell development, from pro-B-cell to early plasma cell stages. |
| Yttrium Y 90 Anti-CD45 Monoclonal Antibody AHN-12 | A radioimmunoconjugate comprised of the monoclonal antibody AHN-12 conjugated to the radioisotope yttrium 90 with potential radioimmunotherapeutic activity. Yttrium Y 90 monoclonal antibody AHN-12 binds to the tyrosine phosphatase CD45, expressed on the surface of normal and malignant hematopoietic cells. After binding and internalization by CD45-expressing tumor cells, this agent may deliver a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. |
| Yttrium Y 90 Anti-CD45 Monoclonal Antibody BC8 | A radioimmunoconjugate containing the murine IgG1 anti-CD45 monoclonal antibody (MoAb) BC8 labeled with yttrium 90 (Y90), with potential immunotherapeutic activity. Yttrium Y 90 anti-CD45 monoclonal antibody BC8 binds to CD45 antigen, a receptor protein-tyrosine phosphatase expressed on the surface of both normal and malignant hematopoietic cells. After binding and internalization by CD45-expressing tumor cells, this agent may deliver a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. |
| Yttrium Y 90 Anti-CDH3 Monoclonal Antibody FF-21101 | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of a chimeric monoclonal antibody targeting human cadherin-3 (CDH3) and labeled, via the macrocyclic chelator 1,4,7,10-tetraazacyclododecane-1,4,7,10-tetraacetic acid (DOTA), with the beta-emitting radioisotope yttrium Y 90, with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of yttrium Y 90 anti-CDH3 monoclonal antibody FF-21101 binds to CDH3 expressed on tumor cells, thereby specifically delivering cytotoxic beta radiation to ... |
| Yttrium Y 90 Anti-CEA Monoclonal Antibody cT84.66 | A radioimmunoconjugate comprised of a chimeric monoclonal antibody against human carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) conjugated with the radioisotope yttrium 90 (Y-90) via the chelator tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA) with potential antineoplastic activity. The antibody moiety of yttrium Y90 DOTA anti-CEA monoclonal antibody cT84.66 binds to cells expressing the CEA antigen. Upon cellular internalization, this agent selectively delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. CEA, a tumo... |
| Yttrium Y 90 Basiliximab | A radioimmunoconjugate composed of basiliximab, a chimeric, mouse-human monoclonal antibody directed against the alpha subunit of interleukin-2 receptor (IL-2R alpha, CD25 or Tac antigen), and labeled with yttrium y 90, with potential antineoplastic activity. The basiliximab moiety of yttrium Y 90 basiliximab selectively binds to IL-2R alpha expressed on the surface of activated T-lymphocytes, thereby preventing IL-2 binding and blocking the IL-2-mediated activation of lymphocytes. The yttriu... |
| Yttrium Y 90 Carbon Microspheres | An injectable formulation composed of carbon microspheres loaded with the radioisotope yttrium Y 90, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the yttrium Y 90 carbon microspheres selectively deliver a cytotoxic dose of beta-emitting yttrium Y 90 to the tumor site, which may result in both tumor cell death and tumor regression. |
| Yttrium Y 90 Carbon Microspheres NRT6003 | An injectable formulation composed of carbon microspheres loaded with the radioisotope yttrium Y 90, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the yttrium Y 90 carbon microspheres NRT6003 selectively deliver a cytotoxic dose of beta-emitting yttrium Y 90 to the tumor site, which may result in both tumor cell death and tumor regression. |
| Yttrium Y 90 Colloid | An injectable, colloidal formulation of the radioisotope yttrium Y 90, with potential antineoplastic activity. When injected into the tumor, the yttrium Y 90 colloid selectively delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta-emitting yttrium Y 90 to the tumor site, which may result in both tumor cell death and tumor regression. |
| Yttrium Y 90 Daclizumab | A synthetic radioimmunoconjugate comprised of a humanized anti-interleukin-2 (IL-2) antibody linked to the radioisotope Yttrium 90 with potential antineoplastic activity.  Daclizumab binds with high affinity to the Tac (also called CD25) subunit of the IL-2 receptor complex and inhibits the binding of IL-2, thereby blocking the IL-2-mediated activation of lymphocytes.  As Yttrium Y 90 daclizumab, daclizumab delivers radiation specifically to lymphocytes that express the IL-2 receptor. (NCI04) |
| Yttrium Y 90 DOTA Anti-CEA Monoclonal Antibody M5A | A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against the human carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) conjugated with the radioisotope yttrium 90 (Y-90) via the chelator tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA) with potential antineoplastic activity. The antibody moiety of yttrium Y 90 DOTA anti-CEA monoclonal antibody M5A binds to cells expressing the CEA antigen. Upon cellular internalization, this agent selectively delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. CEA, a tu... |
| Yttrium Y 90 Glass Microspheres | An injectable formulation of yttrium Y 90 consisting of glass microspheres containing the radioisotope yttrium Y 90.  When injected into the tumor vascular bed, yttrium Y 90 glass microspheres occlude tumor blood vessels and deliver a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to the tumor site, thereby reducing the tumor burden. (NCI04) |
| Yttrium Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody B3 | A radioimmunoconjugate of monoclonal antibody (MoAb) B3 conjugated with isotope yttrium 90. MoAb B3 is a murine MoAb that recognizes a Lewis Y carbohydrate antigen present on the surface of many carcinomas. This radioimmunoconjugate emits beta particles that causes cytotoxicity in tumor cells and has both diagnostic and therapeutic uses. |
| Yttrium Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody BrE-3 | A radioimmunotherapeutic agent consisting of a monoclonal antibody (BrE-3) directed against the tumor-associated antigen epithelial glycoprotein mucin chelated to the radioisotope yttrium-90.  Yttrium Y 90 monoclonal antibody BrE-3 binds to tumor cells expressing epithelial glycoprotein mucin, selectively delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. (NCI04) |
| Yttrium Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody Hu3S193 | A radioimmunotherapeutic agent consisting of a humanized murine monoclonal antibody (hu3S193) directed against the tumor-associated Lewis Y epithelial antigen chelated to the radioisotope yttrium-90.  Yttrium Y 90 monoclonal antibody Hu3S193 binds to Lewis Y epithelial antigen-expressing tumor cells, selectively delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. (NCI04) |
| Yttrium Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody MN-14 | A radioimmunotherapeutic monoclonal antibody (MN-14) directed against tumor-associated carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and chelated to the radioisotope yttrium-90 (Y 90). Yttrium 90 monoclonal antibody MN-14 binds to tumor cell expressing CEA, delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. (NCI04) |
| Yttrium Y 90 Tabituximab Barzuxetan | A radioimmunoconjugate composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) OTSA101 against FZD10 and labeled with yttrium y 90, with potential antineoplastic activity. The MoAb moiety of yttrium Y 90-labeled anti-FZD10 monoclonal antibody OTSA101 binds to FZD10, thereby delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to FZD10 positive tumor cells. FZD10 (also called CD350), a member of the Frizzled family of G protein-coupled receptors that is involved in the Wnt/beta-catenin/TCF signaling pathw... |
| Yttrium Y 90-DOTA-Biotin | A radioconjugate of biotin and yttrium Y 90 (Y-90) linked through the bifunctional macrocyclic chelating agent tetra-azacyclododecanetetra-acetic acid (DOTA) with radioimmunotherapy property. Biotin is a water-soluble B-complex vitamin, present in minute amounts in every living cell, while its level in cancerous tissue is higher than that of normal tissue. Y 90-DOTA-Biotin could be used in 3-step pre-targeting radioimmunotherapy that employs a tumor targeting antibody conjugated with streptav... |
| Yttrium Y 90-DOTA-di-HSG Peptide IMP-288 | A radiolabeled divalent histamine-succinyl-glycine (HSG) hapten-peptide linked with the macrocyclic chelator 1,4,7,10-tetraazacyclododecane-1,4,7,10-tetraacetic acid (DOTA) to the beta-emitting radionuclide yttrium 90 (Y-90), with radioimmunotherapeutic activity. After pre-treating and targeting tumor cells with a bi-specific monoclonal antibody (BiMoAB) directed against both a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and the HSG hapten-peptide, the HSG portion of the administered yttrium Y 90-DOTA-di-... |
| Yttrium Y 90-Edotreotide | A radioconjugate consisting of the octreotide derivative edotreotide labeled with yttrium 90 (Y-90) with potential radiotherapeutic uses. Similar to octreotide, yttrium Y 90-edotreotide binds to somatostatin receptors (SSTRs), especially type 2 receptors, present on the cell membranes of many types of neuroendocrine tumor cells, delivering tissue-specific, beta-emitting nuclide Y-90-mediated cytotoxicity to SSTR-positive cells. Yttrium Y 90-edotreotide is produced by substituting tyrosine for... |
| Yttrium Y-90 Clivatuzumab Tetraxetan | A radioimmunoconjugate comprised of the humanized monoclonal antibody clivatuzumab, directed against the pancreatic cancer antigen MUC1, that is conjugated to the chelating agent tetraxetan and radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope Yttrium Y 90. Yttrium Y 90 clivatuzumab tetraxetan binds to tumor cells expressing MUC1 antigen, thereby selectively delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. |
| Yttrium Y-90 Epratuzumab Tetraxetan | A radioimmunotherapeutic humanized murine monoclonal antibody (LL2) directed against the CD22 pan-B-cell antigen and chelated to the radioisotope yttrium-90 (Y 90). Y 90 humanized monoclonal antibody LL2 binds to tumor cells expressing CD22, delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. |
| Yttrium Y-90 Ibritumomab Tiuxetan | A radioimmunotherapeutic agent consisting of a murine monoclonal anti-CD20 antibody (ibritumomab) linked by the chelator tiuxetan to the radioisotope yttrium-90 (Y 90).  Yttrium Y 90 ibritumomab tiuxetan binds to and specifically delivers beta radiation to CD20-expressing tumor cells, thereby minimizing the systemic effects of radiation. |
| Yttrium Y-90 Tacatuzumab Tetraxetan | A radioimmunoconjugate comprised of the humanized monoclonal antibody tacatuzumab, directed against alpha fetoprotein, that is conjugated to the chelating agent tetraxetan and radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope Yttrium Y 90. Yttrium Y 90 tacatuzumab tetraxetan binds to tumor cells expressing alpha fetoprotein, thereby selectively delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. |
| Yttrium-90 Polycarbonate Brachytherapy Plaque | A polycarbonate-based semicylindrical plaque impregnated with yttrium Y 90 with radioisotopic and antineoplastic activities. An yttrium-90 polycarbonate brachytherapy plaque may be applied to a tumor site with a special brachytherapy applicator for a predetermined interval of time, selectively delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta-emitting yttrium Y 90. |
| Zabadinostat | A novel histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact therapeutic mechanism of action for CXD101 is not known, oral administration of this agent should inhibit the catalytic activity of HDAC, which results in an accumulation of highly acetylated histones, followed by the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. HDAC, a family of enzymes upregulated in many tumor types, deacetylates chromatin-associated histo... |
| Zalcitabine | A synthetic dideoxynucleoside. After intracellular phosphorylation to its active metabolite, zalcitabine preferentially inhibits the gamma form of DNA polymerase present in tumor cell mitochondria, resulting in the inhibition of tumor cell mitochondrial DNA replication and tumor cell death. (NCI04) |
| Zalifrelimab | A recombinant human monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4), with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, zalifrelimab binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA-4, an inhibitory receptor and member of the immunoglobuli... |
| Zalutumumab | A fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody against epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. EGFR is a cell surface receptor tyrosine kinase, overexpressed on many cancer cells. Zalutumumab selectively binds to and blocks binding of EGF and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-a) to the EGFR receptor, thereby interfering with cellular signaling, leading to cell growth inhibition and apoptosis in tumor cells. In addition, zalutumumab also triggers cell lysis ... |
| Zamaporvint | An orally available inhibitor of porcupine (PORCN), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zamaporvint binds to and inhibits PORCN in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), which blocks post-translational acylation of Wnt ligands and inhibits their secretion. This prevents the activation of Wnt ligands, interferes with Wnt-mediated signaling, and inhibits cell growth in Wnt-driven tumors. Porcupine, a membrane-bound O-acyltransferase (MBOAT), is required for the palmitoyla... |
| Zamtocabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous CD4/CD8 enriched T-lymphocytes engineered to express pLTG1497, a tandem chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) and CD20, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, zamtocabtagene autoleucel target and bind to CD19- and CD20-expressing tumor B-cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor B-cells expressing these TAAs. Both CD19 and CD20 ar... |
| Zandelisib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the delta isoform of phosphatidylinositide 3-kinase (PI3K), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zandelisib selectively inhibits the delta isoform of PI3K and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This both decreases proliferation and induces cell death in PI3K-delta-overexpressing tumor cells. PI3K-delta plays a key role in the proliferation and survival of hematologic cancer cells. The targeted inhibition ... |
| Zanidatamab | An engineered immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bi-specific monoclonal antibody that targets two different non-overlapping epitopes of the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), ECD2 and ECD4, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, zanidatamab targets and binds to the two distinct HER2 domains on the tumor cell surface. This results in dual HER2 signal blockade, HER2 clustering, receptor internalization and downregul... |
| Zanolimumab | A human IgG1k monoclonal antibody against the CD4 receptor on T-lymphocytes, with potential antineoplastic and immunosuppressing activities. Zanolimumab targets and binds to the CD4 receptor on certain T-cells thereby preventing the interaction between the CD4 receptor and the major histocompatibility complex class II molecule. This prevents activation of CD4 positive T cells. In addition, zanolimumab is able to induce an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) response against CD4-ex... |
| Zanubrutinib | An inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, zanubrutinib inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways, which leads to the inhibition of the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the Src-related BTK/Tec family of cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase... |
| Zanzalintinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) hepatocyte growth factor receptor (c-Met; HGFR), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2), AXL and MER, with potential anti-angiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, zanzalintinib targets and binds to c-Met, VEGFR2, AXL and MER, and prevents their RTK activity. This blocks c-Met/VEGFR2/AXL/MER-mediated signal transduction pathways, and inhibits the proliferation and migratio... |
| Zebularine | A synthetic cytidine analogue and a cytidine deaminase inhibitor with anticancer activity. Following metabolic activation by phosphorylation and incorporation into DNA, zebularine inhibits DNA methyltransferase through covalent complex formation between the enzyme and zebularine-substituted DNA, hence resulting in non-specific, genome-wide induction of demethylation including the removal of aberrant methylation of promoter regions of genes critical for normal cellular functions. |
| Zebutinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zebutinib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the src-related BT... |
| Zedenoleucel | A preparation of allogeneic multi-tumor-associated antigen (MultiTAA)-specific T-lymphocytes, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, zedenoleucel may target and kill tumor cells expressing the TAAs. |
| Zegocractin | A calcium (Ca2+) release-activated channel (CRAC) inhibitor, with potential anti-inflammatory and protective activities. Upon administration, zegocractin targets, binds to and inhibits the calcium release-activated calcium channel protein 1 (Orai1), which forms the pore of CRAC, and is expressed on both parenchymal cells and immune cells. This prevents the transport of extracellular Ca2+ into the cell and inhibits the subsequent activation of Ca2+-mediated signaling and transcription of targe... |
| Zelavespib | A purine-based heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Zelavespib specifically inhibits active Hsp90, thereby inhibiting its chaperone function and promoting the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. This may result in the inhibition of cellular proliferation in susceptible tumor cell populations. Hsp90, a molecular chaperone protein, is upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types. |
| Zelebrudomide | An orally bioavailable chimeric targeting molecule (CTM) and targeted degrader of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential immunomodulatory drug (IMiD) and antineoplastic activities. Zelebrudomide is comprised of a cereblon (CRBN)-binding moiety conjugated, via a linker, to a BTK-binding moiety. Upon administration, zelebrudomide targets and binds to BTK with its BTK-targeting moiety. Upon binding, the CRBN-binding moiety recruits CRBN, a component of the CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase c... |
| Zelenectide Pevedotin | A Bicycle toxin conjugate (BTC) composed of a synthetic, bicyclic peptide targeting the cell adhesion molecule nectin-4 (PVRL4) and conjugated to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), via an inert sarcosine spacer chain and a valine-citrulline cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the bicyclic peptide moiety of zelenectide pevedotin selectively binds to nectin-4. After internalization and proteolytic cleavage by peptidases that are upregu... |
| Zelenirstat | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the enzyme N-myristoyl transferase (NMT), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zelenirstat targets and binds to NMT, especially NMT type 2 (NMT2). This prevents NMT-mediated signaling and myristoylation. This inhibits proliferation of certain cancer cells in which NMT expression is lost. Zelenirstat also inhibits B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling and reduces the levels of Src-family tyrosine kinases (SFKs). NMTs mediate myristoyla... |
| Zeluvalimab | A human monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, zeluvalimab targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the imm... |
| Zemirciclib | A selective, short-acting inhibitor of the serine/threonine cyclin-dependent kinase 9 (CDK9), the catalytic subunit of the RNA polymerase II (RNA Pol II) elongation factor positive transcription elongation factor b (PTEF-b; PTEFb), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, zemirciclib binds to and blocks the phosphorylation and kinase activity of CDK9, thereby preventing PTEFb-mediated activation of RNA Pol II, leading to the inhibition of gene transcription of ... |
| Zenocutuzumab | A full-length IgG1 bispecific antibody with enhanced antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) directed against human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; EGFR2, ERBB2) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 3 (HER3; ErbB3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of zenocutuzumab, the bispecific antibody docks on HER2, and subsequently blocks heregulin-stimulated proliferation of tumor cells by binding HER3. In addition to inhibiting HER3-depend... |
| Zeprumetostat | An orally available selective inhibitor of the histone lysine methyltransferase (HMT) enhancer of zeste homolog 2 (EZH2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zeprumetostat selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EZH2. Inhibition of EZH2 specifically prevents the methylation of histone H3 on lysine 27 (H3K27). This decrease in histone methylation alters gene expression patterns associated with cancer pathways and results in decreased proliferati... |
| Zeripatamig | A bispecific monoclonal antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD19, and another that is directed against the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of zeripatamig, the anti-CD19 moiety selectively targets and binds to CD19 on CD19-positive B-cells, thereby improving binding of the anti-CD47 moiety to the CD19+... |
| Zeteletinib | An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of wild-type, fusion products and mutated forms, including gatekeeper mutations, of the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zeteletinib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of RET. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of tumors cells that exhibit increased RET activity. RET overexpression, activating mutations, and fusions res... |
| Zeteletinib Adipate | The adipate form of zeteletinib, an orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of wild-type, fusion products and mutated forms, including gatekeeper mutations, of the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zeteletinib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of RET. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of tumors cells that exhibit increased RET activity. RET overexpression, acti... |
| Zevorcabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a humanized single chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) that is fused to the co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the T-cell receptor signaling domain of CD3zeta (CD3z), with potential immunostimulating and antineo... |
| Zibotentan | An orally available selective antagonist of the endothelin-A (ET-A) receptor with potential antineoplastic activity. Zibotentan binds selectively to the ET-A receptor, thereby inhibiting endothelin-mediated mechanisms that promote tumor cell proliferation. |
| Zidesamtinib | An orally available selective inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase c-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zidesamtinib targets, binds to and inhibits wild-type, point mutants and fusion proteins of ROS1. This inhibits proliferation of ROS-1-driven tumor cells, including in tumor cells harboring certain ROS1 resistance mutations, such as the solvent front mutation G2032R and the S1986Y/F, L2026M, and D2033N resistance mutations. Inhibiti... |
| Zifcasiran | An RNA interference (RNAi) targeting hypoxia-inducible factor 2alpha (HIF-2a), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, zifcasiran binds to and neutralizes mRNA HIF2a, thereby preventing the production of HIF2a. This may lead to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. HIF2a, overexpressed in certain cell types, plays a key role in proliferation, progression and metastasis of tumors. |
| Zifcasiran Sodium | The sodium salt form of zifcasiran, an RNA interference (RNAi) targeting hypoxia-inducible factor 2alpha (HIF-2a), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, zifcasiran binds to and neutralizes mRNA HIF2a, thereby preventing the production of HIF2a. This may lead to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. HIF2a, overexpressed in certain cell types, plays a key role in proliferation, progression and metastasis of tumors. |
| Ziftomenib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the menin-mixed lineage leukemia (MLL; myeloid/lymphoid leukemia; KMT2A) fusion protein, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ziftomenib prevents the interaction between the two proteins menin and MLL, and thus the formation of the menin-MLL complex. This reduces the expression of downstream target genes and results in an inhibition of the proliferation of MLL-rearranged leukemic cells. The menin-MLL complex plays a key role in ... |
| Zigakibart | A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL; tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 13; TNFSF13), with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint inhibitory activities. Upon administration, zigakibart binds to APRIL and inhibits its binding to both of its receptors, B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and transmembrane activator and CAML Interactor (TACI; tumor necrosis factor recept... |
| Zilovertamab | A humanized monoclonal antibody against the extracellular domain of the human receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, zilovertamab binds to ROR1 and blocks ROR1-mediated signaling. This prevents tumor cell proliferation in cancer cells overexpressing ROR1. ROR1, also known as neurotrophic tyrosine kinase, receptor-related 1 (NTRKR1), is normally expressed during embryogenesis.  It is overexpressed in certain leukemia... |
| Zilovertamab Vedotin | An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of zilovertamab vedotin targets and binds to ROR1 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills the ROR1-expressing canc... |
| Zilurgisertib | An inhibitor of activin A receptor type 1 (activin receptor-like kinase 2; ALK2; ALK-2; ACVR1; ACTR-I), with potential anti-anemic and ossification suppressive activities. Upon administration, zilurgisertib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of ALK-2. This prevents ALK2-mediated signaling and ALK2-mediated excessive bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) signaling. This may suppress heterotopic ossification (HO). As ALK-2 enhances the secretion of hepcidin, a peptide liver hormone and a ke... |
| Zimberelimab | A human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, zimberelimab targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transm... |
| Zimistobart | A human monoclonal antibody against the human natural killer (NK) and T-lymphocyte cell checkpoint inhibitor killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily C member 1 (NKG2A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, zimistobart targets and binds to NKG2A, and prevents the binding of NKG2A to its ligand human leukocyte antigen-E (HLA-E), which is overexpressed on tumor cells. This blocks the HLA-E-mediated inhibition of NKG2A-positive infiltrating NK and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte... |
| Zinc Finger Nuclease ZFN-603 | A zinc finger nuclease (ZFN) targeting the human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 (HPV16) oncoprotein E7, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon transfection of ZFN-603 into HPV16-positive cells, ZFN-603 targets, binds to and cleaves the HPV16 E7 oncogene in HPV16-infected cells. By cleaving the HPV16 E7 DNA, the E7 oncoprotein is not expressed. This results in an inhibition of E7-mediated signaling, an induction of apoptosis, and inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in HPV16-expressing c... |
| Zinc Finger Nuclease ZFN-758 | A zinc finger nuclease (ZFN) targeting the human papillomavirus (HPV) type 18 (HPV18) oncoprotein E7, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon transfection of ZFN-758 into HPV18-positive cells, ZFN-758 targets, binds to and cleaves the HPV18 E7 oncogene in HPV18-infected cells. By cleaving the HPV18 E7 DNA, the E7 oncoprotein is not expressed. This results in an inhibition of E7-mediated signaling, an induction of apoptosis, and an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in HPV18-expressin... |
| Zinostatin | An enediyne antineoplastic antibiotic hybrid containing an aminoglycoside chromophore.  Zinostatin is isolated from the bacterium Streptomyces carzinostaticus.  The aminoglycoside component of zinostatin intercalates into DNA and the benzene diradical intermediate of the enediyne core binds to the minor groove of DNA, resulting in single- and double-strand breaks in DNA and apoptosis. (NCI04) |
| Zinostatin Stimalamer | A highly lipophilic conjugate protein comprised of the lipophilic antitumor protein, neocarzinostatin (NCS), conjugated with a water-soluble copolymer of styrene-maleic acid (SMA) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intra-hepatic arterial administration, zinostatin stimalamer is deposited within tumor tissues, where the NCS moiety induces sequence-specific single and double-stranded breaks via free-radical based mechanisms, resulting in tumor cell death. |
| Zipalertinib | An orally available selective inhibitor of a broad spectrum of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutations, including EGFR exon 20 insertion mutations (EGFR Ex20ins; Ex20ins mutations), with potential antineoplastic activity. CLN-081 is also active against other EGFR mutations including exon 19 deletions (exon19del), L858R, and T790M, as well as the less common G719X, L861Q and S768I mutations. Upon administration, zipalertinib specifically and covalently binds to and inhibits a variety... |
| Ziv-Aflibercept | A recombinant protein comprised of epitopes of the extracellular domains of human vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR) fused to the constant region (Fc) of human IgG1 with potential antiangiogenic activity. Afilbercept, functioning as a soluble decoy receptor, binds to pro-angiogenic vascular endothelial growth factors (VEGFs), thereby preventing VEGFs from binding to their endogenous receptors. Disruption of the binding of VEGFs to their cellular receptors may result in the i... |
| Zolacabtagene Autoleucel | A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, zolacabtagene autoleucel specifically target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressing tumor cells and tumor cell lysis. CD19, cluster of differentiation 19... |
| Zolbetuximab | A chimeric immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, zolbetuximab specifically targets and binds to CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. This may kill CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells by antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC), and inhibit cell proliferation... |
| Zoledronic Acid | A synthetic imidazole bisphosphonate analog of pyrophosphate with anti-bone-resorption activity. A third-generation bisphosphonate, zoledronic acid binds to hydroxyapatite crystals in the bone matrix, slowing their dissolution and inhibiting the formation and aggregation of these crystals. This agent also inhibits farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase, an enzyme involved in terpenoid biosynthesis. Inhibition of this enzyme prevents the biosynthesis of isoprenoid lipids, donor substrates of farnesyl... |
| Zoligratinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor subtypes 1 (FGFR-1), 2 (FGFR-2) and 3 (FGFR-3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Zoligratinib binds to and inhibits FGFR-1, -2, and -3, which result in the inhibition of FGFR-mediated signal transduction pathways. This leads to the inhibition of both tumor cell proliferation and angiogenesis, and causes cell death in FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases upregulated in many ... |
| Zomiradomide | A small molecule protein degrader of interleukin-1 receptor-associated kinase 4 (IRAK4) and the immunomodulatory imide drug (IMiD) substrates Ikaros (IKZF1) and Aiolos (IKZF3), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, zomiradomide modulates the E3 (ubiquitin) ligase and targets IRAK4, Ikaros and Aiolos for ubiquitination. This induces proteasome-mediated degradation of IRAK4, Ikaros and Aiolos. The degradation of IRAK4 inhibits IRAK4-mediated signali... |
| Zongertinib | An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zongertinib covalently binds to and inhibits the activity of both wild-type and HER2 mutants, including HER2 mutants with exon 20 insertion (ex20ins) mutations. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and may lead to cell death in HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpresse... |
| Zoptarelin Doxorubicin | A peptide agonist of the gonadotropin releasing hormone-1 receptor (GnRH-1R) that is conjugated to the anthracycline antibiotic doxorubicin with potential antineoplastic activity. Zoptarelin doxorubicin binds to GnRH-1Rs, which may be highly expressed on endometrial and ovarian tumor cell membrane surfaces, and is internalized. Once inside the cell, the doxorubicin moiety of this agent intercalates into DNA and inhibits the topoisomerase II activity, which may result in the inhibition of tumo... |
| Zorifertinib | An orally available inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration,  zorifertinib binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR as well as certain mutant forms of EGFR. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling, and may lead to both induction of cell death and inhibition of tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferatio... |
| Zorubicin | A benzoylhydrazone derivative of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic daunorubicin. Zorubicin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair as well as RNA and protein synthesis. |
| Zorubicin Hydrochloride | A benzoyl-hydrazone derivative of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic daunorubicin.  Zorubicin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and repair and RNA and protein synthesis. (NCI04) |
| Zotatifin | A selective inhibitor of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4A (eIF4A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of zotatifin, this agent targets and binds to elF4A, and promotes eIF4A binding to mRNA with specific polypurine motifs within their 5'-untranslated region (5'-UTR), leading to the formation of a stable sequence-specific ternary complex with eIF4A and mRNA (elF4A- zotatifin-mRNA). This results in the translational repression of key oncogenes and anti-ap... |
| Zotiraciclib Citrate | An orally bioavailable citrate salt form of zotiraciclib a multi-kinase inhibitor for cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) subtypes 1, 2, 7 and 9, Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2), FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3, FLK2, STK1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK/JAK2/FLT3 Inhibitor TG02 binds to and inhibits the CDK subtypes, JAK2, and FLT3. TG02 also inhibits, to a lesser extent, TYK2, TYRO3, STAT5 and P38delta. This may result in both an induction of apoptosis... |
| Zotizalkib | An orally available, compact macrocyclic structure-based inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zotizalkib binds within the ATP binding boundary and inhibits ALK wild-type tyrosine kinase, ALK fusion proteins and numerous ALK point mutations, including acquired resistance mutations, such as the solvent front mutation (SFM) G1202R and compound mutations L1196M/G1202R, L1198F/G1202R, L11... |
| Zuclomiphene Citrate | The cis isomer of clomiphene which exhibits weak estrogen agonist activity evaluated for antineoplastic activity against breast cancer. (NCI04) |
| Zurletrectinib | An orally bioavailable, selective pan-tropomyosin-related-kinase (tyrosine receptor kinase; TRK) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zurletrectinib specifically targets and binds to TRK, TRK mutations and fusion proteins containing sequences from neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1 (NTRK1; TrkA), 2 (NTRK2; TrkB), and 3 (NTRK3; TrkC). This inhibits neurotrophin-TRK interaction and TRK activation, thereby preventing the activation of dow... |

### CauseOfDeathEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| APL Differentiation Syndrome | A syndrome observed in patients with acute promyelocytic leukemia treated with all-trans retinoic acid. It is characterized by weight gain, dyspnea, pleural and pericardial effusions, leukocytosis, and renal failure. |
| Accidental death | An unforeseen and unplanned event or circumstance frequently causing loss or injury.: The absence of life or state of being dead. |
| Acute GVHD | A syndrome of immunologically mediated tissue damage that may occur following an allogeneic transplant, usually affecting the skin, liver, and GI tract. The onset is usually within one hundred days of transplantation or immunologic manipulation. |
| Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) | fulminant pulmonary interstitial and alveolar edema resulting from diffuse infection, shock, or trauma of the lungs. |
| Adverse Event | Any unfavorable or unintended disease, sign, or symptom (including an abnormal laboratory finding) that is temporally associated with the use of a medical treatment or procedure, and that may or may not be considered related to the medical treatment or procedure. Such events can be related to the intervention, dose, route of administration, patient, or caused by an interaction with another drug(s) or procedure(s). |
| Aspiration Pneumonia | Pneumonia secondary to aspiration of liquids and gastric contents into the lungs. |
| BCNU IP | An antineoplastic nitrosourea. Carmustine alkylates and cross-links DNA during all phases of the cell cycle, resulting in disruption of DNA function, cell cycle arrest, and apoptosis. This agent also carbamoylates proteins, including DNA repair enzymes, resulting in an enhanced cytotoxic effect. Carmustine is highly lipophilic and crosses the blood-brain barrier readily. (NCI04): Inflammation of interstitial lung tissue, usually associated with infection. |
| Bacterial infection | infections and associated diseases by bacteria, general or unspecified. |
| Cancer Related | A death attributed to the progression of a cancer-related pathologic condition. |
| Cardiac Disease | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the heart and/or the pericardium. Representative examples include endocarditis, pericarditis, atrial myxoma, cardiac myeloid sarcoma, and pericardial malignant mesothelioma. |
| Cardiac failure | Inability of the heart to pump blood at an adequate rate to meet tissue metabolic requirements or the ability to do so only at an elevated filling pressure. |
| Cardiopulmonary Arrest | Cessation of breathing and/or cardiac function. |
| Cardiovascular Disorder | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the heart or the vessels (arteries, veins and lymph vessels). Representative examples of non-neoplastic cardiovascular disorders are endocarditis and hypertension. Representative examples of neoplastic cardiovascular disorders are endocardial myxoma and angiosarcoma. -- 2003 |
| Cardiovascular accident | A sudden loss of neurologic function secondary to hemorrhagic or ischemia in the brain parenchyma due to a vascular event. Infarction or hemorrhage may be demonstrated either directly by imaging,laboratory, or pathologic examination in patients with symptom duration less than 24 hours, or inferred by symptoms lasting greater than or equal to 24 hours (or fatal within 24 hours) that cannot be attributed to another cause. Diagnostic tests include CT scan, MRI, angiography, and EEG to locate and evaluate the extent of the hemorrhagic or ischemic damage in the brain parenchyma, coagulation studies, complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, and urinalysis. |
| Central nervous system(CNS) failure | The main information-processing organs of the nervous system, consisting of the brain, spinal cord, and meninges.: loss of ability to function normally. |
| Chronic GVHD | A syndrome of immunologically mediated tissue damage that may occur following an allogeneic transplant, and may affect multiple organs with manifestations similar to autoimmune diseases. The onset is usually within three years of transplantation or immunologic manipulation. |
| Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease | A chronic and progressive lung disorder characterized by the loss of elasticity of the bronchial tree and the air sacs, destruction of the air sacs wall, thickening of the bronchial wall, and mucous accumulation in the bronchial tree. The pathologic changes result in the disruption of the air flow in the bronchial airways. Signs and symptoms include shortness of breath, wheezing, productive cough, and chest tightness. The two main types of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are chronic obstructive bronchitis and emphysema. |
| Chronic liver disease | Signs of chronic liver disease which include jaundice, ascites, palmar erythema, spider hemangiomas, gynecomastia, and encephalopathy. |
| Congestive Heart Failure | Failure of the heart to pump a sufficient amount of blood to meet the needs of the body tissues, resulting in tissue congestion and edema. Signs and symptoms include shortness of breath, pitting edema, enlarged tender liver, engorged neck veins, and pulmonary rales. |
| Coronary artery disease (atherosclerosis) | An imbalance between myocardial functional requirements and the capacity of the coronary vessels to supply sufficient blood flow. It is a form of MYOCARDIAL ISCHEMIA (insufficient blood supply to the heart muscle) caused by a decreased capacity of the coronary vessels. |
| Dementia (including Alzheimer's disease) | An acquired organic mental disorder with loss of intellectual abilities of sufficient severity to interfere with social or occupational functioning. The dysfunction is multifaceted and involves memory, behavior, personality, judgment, attention, spatial relations, language, abstract thought, and other executive functions. The intellectual decline is usually progressive, and initially spares the level of consciousness. |
| Diabetes Mellitus | A metabolic disorder characterized by abnormally high blood sugar levels due to diminished production of insulin or insulin resistance/desensitization. |
| Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) | Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a pathological process in the body where the blood starts to coagulate throughout the whole body. This depletes the body of its platelets and coagulation factors, and there is an increased the risk of hemorrhage. There are a variety of causes of DIC, all usually causing the release of chemicals into the blood that instigates the coagulation. (from Wikipedia) |
| Drug Related | An adverse effect of a drug used therapeutically or diagnostically. |
| End-stage Renal Disease | Long-standing and persistent renal disease with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 15 ml/min. |
| Failure to Thrive | A clinical finding indicating less than normal growth in an infant or child, or a state of global decline in an adult. |
| Fungal infection | An infection caused by eukaryotic heterotrophic organisms that live as saprobes or parasites, including mushrooms, yeasts, smuts, molds, etc. They reproduce either sexually or asexually, and have life cycles that range from simple to complex. Filamentous fungi refer to those that grow as multicellular colonies (mushrooms and molds). |
| Gastrointestinal (GI) failure (not liver) | (GAS-tro-in-TES-tih-nul) GI. Refers to the stomach and intestines.: loss of ability to function normally. |
| Gastrointestinal hemorrhage | (GAS-tro-in-TES-tih-nul) GI. Refers to the stomach and intestines.: Bleeding or escape of blood from a vessel. |
| Graft Versus Host Disease | An incompatibility reaction (which may be fatal) in a subject (host) of low immunological competence (deficient lymphoid tissue) who has been the recipient of immunologically competent lymphoid tissue from a donor who lacks at least one antigen possessed by the recipient host; the reaction, or disease, is the result of action of the transplanted cells against those host tissues that possess the antigen not possessed by the donor. Seen most commonly following bone marrow transplantation, acute disease is seen after 5-40 days and chronic disease weeks to months after transplantation, affecting, principally, the gastrointestinal tract, liver, and skin. |
| Graft rejection or failure | Failure of transplanted tissue to become functional or operational, often as a result of destruction by the host's immune system. |
| HIV/AIDS | Human immunodeficiency virus. Species of LENTIVIRUS, subgenus primate lentiviruses (LENTIVIRUSES, PRIMATE), formerly designated T-cell lymphotropic virus type III/lymphadenopathy-associated virus (HTLV-III/LAV). It is acknowledged to be the agent responsible for the acute infectious manifestations, neurologic disorders, and immunologic abnormalities linked to the ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME.: Used to indicate that either or both of two items or options may be valid.: A syndrome resulting from the acquired deficiency of cellular immunity caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). It is characterized by the reduction of the Helper T-lymphocytes in the peripheral blood and the lymph nodes; opportunistic infections (usually pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections, tuberculosis, candida infections, and cryptococcosis); and the development of malignant neoplasms (usually non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and Kaposi's sarcoma). The human immunodeficiency virus is transmitted through sexual contact, sharing of contaminated needles, or transfusion of contaminated blood. Generalized lymphadenopathy, fever, weight loss, and chronic diarrhea are common symptoms of AIDS. The patients usually die either of opportunistic infections or malignant neoplasms. -- 2004 |
| Hemorrhage | Bleeding or escape of blood from a vessel. |
| Hemorrhage, not otherwise specified | Bleeding or escape of blood from a vessel.: Not characterized in any other way. |
| Hemorrhagic cystitis | Bleeding or escape of blood from a vessel.: Inflammation of the urinary bladder. (Dorland, 27th ed) |
| Hepatitis | Inflammation of the liver; usually from a viral infection, but sometimes from toxic agents. |
| Herpes | Any inflammatory skin disease caused by a herpesvirus and characterized by the formation of small vesicles in clusters. |
| IPS, idiopathic | An inflammatory lung disease characterized by diffuse interstitial pneumonitis and alveolitis leading to interstitial fibrosis in the absence of an identifiable infectious agent.: Describes a disease of unknown cause. |
| IPS, viral, cytomegalovirus(CMV) | An inflammatory lung disease characterized by diffuse interstitial pneumonitis and alveolitis leading to interstitial fibrosis in the absence of an identifiable infectious agent.: Having to do with a virus.: A genus of the family herpesviridae, subfamily betaherpesvirinae, infecting the salivary glands, liver, spleen, lungs, eyes, and other organs, in which they produce characteristically enlarged cells with intranuclear inclusions. |
| IPS, viral, other | An inflammatory lung disease characterized by diffuse interstitial pneumonitis and alveolitis leading to interstitial fibrosis in the absence of an identifiable infectious agent.: Having to do with a virus.: Not otherwise specified. |
| Immunotherapy-Related | An observation that a situation is related to immunotherapy received. |
| Infection | A disorder resulting from the presence and activity of a microbial, viral, or parasitic agent. It can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. |
| Infection, NOS | The invasion of an organism's body tissues by disease-causing agents and their multiplication, as well as the reaction by the host to these organisms and/or toxins that the organisms produce._Not characterized in any other way. |
| Infection, organism not identified | A disorder resulting from the presence and activity of a microbial, viral, fungal, or parasitic agent. It can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact.: A living thing, such as an animal, a plant, a bacterium, or a fungus.: The finding is not present, but a value of 'none' cannot be unequivocally established absence in the current context. |
| Influenza | An acute viral infection of the respiratory tract, occurring in isolated cases, in epidemics, or in pandemics; it is caused by serologically different strains of viruses (influenzaviruses) designated A, B, and C, has a 3-day incubation period, and usually lasts for 3 to 10 days. It is marked by inflammation of the nasal mucosa, pharynx, and conjunctiva; headache; myalgia; often fever, chills, and prostration; and occasionally involvement of the myocardium or central nervous system. |
| Interstitial Pneumonia (IP) NOS | Not characterized in any other way.: Inflammation of interstitial lung tissue, usually associated with infection. |
| Intracranial hemorrhage | Bleeding within the cranium. |
| Liver failure (not VOD) | A large organ located in the upper abdomen. The liver cleanses the blood and aids in digestion by secreting bile.: loss of ability to function normally. |
| Multiple Organ Failure | A progressive condition usually characterized by combined failure of the lungs, liver, kidney, and clotting mechanisms. |
| Myocardial infarction | Gross necrosis of the myocardium, as a result of interruption of the blood supply to the area. (Dorland, 27th ed) |
| Natural causes | A description for something that exists in or is produced by nature, and is not artificial or man-made.: The circumstance or condition that results in the death of a living being. |
| Non-protocol cancer therapy | Treatment not specified in a protocol.: Any intervention for management of a malignant neoplasm. |
| Not Cancer Related | A death attributed to any cause other than the progression of a cancer-related pathologic condition. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Organ failure, not otherwise specified | A part of the body that performs a specific function. For example, the heart is an organ.: loss of ability to function normally.: Not characterized in any other way. |
| Other cause | Not otherwise specified.: An explanation of the cause of some phenomenon or action. |
| Parkinson's Disease | A progressive degenerative disorder of the central nervous system characterized by loss of dopamine producing neurons in the substantia nigra and the presence of Lewy bodies in the substantia nigra and locus coeruleus. Signs and symptoms include tremor which is most pronounced during rest, muscle rigidity, slowing of the voluntary movements, a tendency to fall back, and a mask-like facial expression. |
| Persistence or recurrence of underlying disease | A disease that does not go to remission despite treatment.: An article used to connect words, phrases, or clauses representing alternatives; used to connect alternative terms for the same thing; used in correlation; used to correct or rephrase what was previously said; otherwise.: The return of a disease after a period of remission. |
| Pneumonia NOS | Not characterized in any other way.: Inflammation of the lungs. |
| Prior malignancy | Earlier in time or order.: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms usually metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas (adenocarcinomas or squamous cell carcinomas), Hodgkin's and non-Hodgkin's lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas. -- 2004 |
| Protozoal infection | Infections with unicellular organisms of the subkingdom PROTOZOA. |
| Pulmonary Disease | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the lung. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and pneumonia. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include benign processes (e.g., respiratory papilloma) and malignant processes (e.g., lung carcinoma and metastatic cancer to the lung). |
| Pulmonary Embolism | The closure of the pulmonary artery or one of its branches by an embolus, sometimes associated with infarction of the lung. |
| Pulmonary failure | Relating to the lungs.: loss of ability to function normally. |
| Pulmonary hemorrhage | Relating to the lungs.: Bleeding or escape of blood from a vessel. |
| Radiation IP | Treatment of a disease by means of exposure of the target or the whole body to radiation. Radiation therapy is often used as part of curative therapy and occasionally as a component of palliative treatment for cancer. Other uses include total body irradiation prior to transplantation.: Inflammation of interstitial lung tissue, usually associated with infection. |
| Recurrence/persistence/progression of disease reported for first HSCT | To come back or to return.: Retained; never-ceasing.: Cancer that is increasing in scope or severity. |
| Renal Disorder, NOS | A neoplastic or non-neoplastic condition affecting the kidney. Representative examples of non-neoplastic conditions include glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome. Representative examples of neoplastic conditions include benign processes (e.g., renal lipoma and renal fibroma) and malignant processes (e.g., renal cell carcinoma and renal lymphoma). |
| Renal failure | Acute or chronic condition, characterized by the inability of the kidneys to adequately filter the blood substances, resulting in uremia and electrolyte imbalances. Acute renal failure is usually associated with oliguria or anuria, hyperkalemia, and pulmonary edema. Chronic renal failure is irreversible and requires hemodialysis.--2004 |
| Respiratory failure | Impaired gas exchange by the respiratory system resulting in hypoxemia and decreased oxygenation of the tissues that may be associated with increased arterial levels of carbon dioxide. Causes include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, emphysema, acute respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pneumothorax, and congestive heart failure. |
| Sepsis | The presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the blood stream causing a rapidly progressing systemic reaction that may lead to shock. Symptoms include fever, chills, tachycardia, and increased respiratory rate. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent medical attention. |
| Sinusoidal Obstruction Syndrome | Blockage of the small- or medium-sized hepatic veins due to nonthrombotic subendothelial edema which may progress to fibrosis. |
| Spinal Muscular Atrophy | An inherited disorder characterized by degeneration of the spinal cord and the cerebellum. Symptoms may appear at any age and include progressive loss of coordination of gait, hands, speech, and eye movements. |
| Suicide | The act of ending one's own life. |
| Surgical Complication | A disease or disorder that occurs during, soon after or as a result of a surgical procedure. |
| Thromboembolic | Obstruction of a vessel by a blood clot that has been transported from a distant site by the blood stream. |
| Thrombosis | The formation of a blood clot in the lumen of a vessel or heart chamber; causes include coagulation disorders and vascular endothelial injury. |
| Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (HUS/TTP) | Purpura associated with a reduction in circulating blood platelets which can result from a variety of factors. |
| Toxicity | The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something. |
| Unacceptable Toxicity | Therapy-related toxicity leading to multiple treatment dose reductions or delays, early treatment stoppage, unplanned hospital admission, or death. |
| Unclassified infection / Infection NOS | Not characterized in any other way.: Not arranged or included in any specific grouping.: A disorder resulting from the presence and activity of a microbial, viral, or parasitic agent. It can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| VOD | Disorder in which veins are partially or completely obstructed or the blood flow through the veins is suboptimal.--2004 |
| Vascular, not otherwise specified | Relating to or containing blood vessels.: Not characterized in any other way. |
| Veno-occlusive disease (VOD) / sinusodial obstruction syndrome (SOS) | Blockage of the small- or medium-sized hepatic veins due to nonthrombotic subendothelial edema which may progress to fibrosis. |
| Viral infection | A general term for diseases produced by viruses. |

### CauseOfDeathSourceEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Autopsy Report | No Value Exists |
| Death Certificate | A document earned by a person indicating that the person has specific knowledge, skills, or abilities in the view of a certifying body. Similarly, a document indicating that a product or process is suitable or in working order for a specific purpose. |
| Medical Record | A chronological written account of a patient's examination and treatment that includes the patient's medical history and complaints, the physician's physical findings, the results of diagnostic tests and procedures, and medications and therapeutic procedures. |
| Other, specify | Be specific about something; define clearly.: Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned. |
| Physician | A doctor; a person who has been educated, trained, and licensed to practice the art and science of medicine; a practitioner of medicine, as contrasted with a surgeon. |
| Relative or Friend | A person related by blood or marriage.: An article used to connect words, phrases, or clauses representing alternatives; used to connect alternative terms for the same thing; used in correlation; used to correct or rephrase what was previously said; otherwise.: A person whom an individual knows, likes, and trusts. |
| Social Security Death Index | A publically-accessible database derived from the Social Security Administration's (SSA) Death Master File Extract. It includes a listing of the vital statistics of a majority of decedents reported to the SSA since 1962. |

### ClinicalBiospecimenTypeEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| BLOOD | A liquid tissue; its major function is to transport oxygen throughout the body. It also supplies the tissues with nutrients, removes waste products, and contains various components of the immune system defending the body against infection. Several hormones also travel in the blood. |
| BONE MARROW | The tissue occupying the spaces of bone. It consists of blood vessel sinuses and a network of hematopoietic cells which give rise to the red cells, white cells, and megakaryocytes. |
| BUCCAL CELL SAMPLE | The mucosal membranes located on the inside of the cheek, in the buccal cavity.: The smallest units of living structure capable of independent existence, composed of a membrane-enclosed mass of protoplasm and containing a nucleus or nucleoid.: Any material sample taken from a biological entity for testing, diagnostic, propagation, treatment or research purposes, including a sample obtained from a living organism or taken from the biological object after halting of all its life functions. Biospecimen can contain one or more components including but not limited to cellular molecules, cells, tissues, organs, body fluids, embryos, and body excretory products. |
| CEREBROSPINAL FLUID | The fluid that is contained within the brain ventricles, the subarachnoid space and the central canal of the spinal cord. |
| FORMALIN FIXED PARAFFIN EMBEDDED TISSUE | Refers to a process where a sample is preserved with formalin and then embedded into a paraffin block for sectioning.: An anatomical structure consisting of similarly specialized cells and intercellular matrix, aggregated according to genetically determined spatial relationships, performing a specific function. |
| FORMALIN FIXED TISSUE | A colorless poisonous gas synthesized by the oxidation of methanol and used as an antiseptic, disinfectant, histologic fixative, and general-purpose chemical reagent for laboratory applications. Formaldehyde is readily soluble in water and is commonly distributed as a 37% solution in water; formalin, a 10% solution of formaldehyde in water, is used as a disinfectant and to preserve biological specimens. Environmentally, formaldehyde may be found in the atmosphere, smoke from fires, automobile exhaust and cigarette smoke. Small amounts are produced during normal metabolic processes in most organisms, including humans._Tissue which is preserved in a fixative solution, usually formalin. |
| FRESH TISSUE | Tissue that is not frozen or embedded in preservatives |
| FROZEN TISSUE | A specimen that has been subjected to and immobilized by severe cold. |
| OTHER BODILY FLUIDS | Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.: Material produced by living organisms; it can be a necessary constituent of, or product of an organismal process. |
| SALIVA | The watery fluid in the mouth made by the salivary glands. Saliva moistens food to help digestion and it helps protect the mouth against infections. |
| STOOL | The material discharged from the bowel during defecation. It consists of undigested food, intestinal mucus, epithelial cells, and bacteria. |
| URINE | The fluid that is excreted by the kidneys. It is stored in the bladder and discharged through the urethra. |

### ClinicalMStageEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| M0 | A distant metastasis TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of distant metastasis. |
| M1 | A clinical and/or pathologic distant metastasis TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites. |
| M1a | A TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites. The definition of M1a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for colorectal cancer it refers to metastasis confined to one organ or site (e.g., liver, lung, ovary, nonregional node); for prostate cancer it refers to metastasis to non-regional lymph node(s); for bone cancer it refers to metastasis to the lung. |
| M1b | A TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites. The definition of M1b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in more than one organ/site or the peritoneum; for prostate cancer it refers to metastasis to bone(s); for bone cancer it refers to metastasis to distant sites other than lung. |
| M1c | A TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites. The definition of M1c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for prostate cancer it refers to metastasis to anatomic site(s) other than bone, with or without bone disease; for retinoblastoma it refers to central nervous system metastasis; for melanoma of the uvea it refers to distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 8.0 cm or more. |
| MX | A distant metastasis TNM finding indicating that the status of distant metastasis cannot be assessed. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| cM0 (i+) | A distant metastasis TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of distant metastasis clinically or by radiologic studies, but there are small numbers of cells detected by special studies in the blood and bone marrow, or there is tiny metastasis (no larger than 0.2 mm) detected in nonregional lymph nodes. |

### ClinicalNStageEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| N0 | A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of regional lymph node metastasis. |
| N0 (i+) | A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there are malignant cells in regional lymph node(s) no greater than 0.2 mm and are detected by hematoxylin and eosin stain or immunohistochemistry. |
| N0 (i-) | A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of regional lymph node metastasis histologically, and immunohistochemistry is negative. |
| N0 (mol+) | A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of regional lymph node metastasis histologically and by immunohistochemistry, but the molecular analysis (RT-PCR) is positive. |
| N0 (mol-) | A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of regional lymph node metastasis histologically and molecular analysis (RT-PCR) is negative. |
| N1 | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases usually in a limited number of regional lymph nodes. The definition of N1 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to micrometastases or metastases in 1-3 axillary lymph nodes; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to metastasis in 1 regional lymph node; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in 1-3 regional lymph nodes; and for bladder cancer it refers to metastasis in 1 regional lymph node in the true pelvis. |
| N1a | Breast cancer with metastasis in 1 to 3 axillary lymph nodes (at least 1 tumor deposit greater than 2.0 mm). (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.) |
| N1b | Breast cancer with metastasis in internal mammary lymph nodes with microscopic disease detected by sentinel lymph node dissection but not clinically apparent. (from AJCC 6th Ed.) |
| N1bI | A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is metastasis to 1-3 nodes. The metastasis is greater than 2 mm and all are less than 20 mm. |
| N1bII | A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is metastasis to four or more nodes. The metastasis is greater than 2 mm and all are less than 20 mm. |
| N1bIII | A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that the tumor extends beyond the lymph node capsule and is less than 20 mm. |
| N1bIV | A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that the metastases to the lymph nodes are more than 20 mm. |
| N1c | Breast cancer with metastasis in 1 to 3 axillary lymph nodes and in internal mammary nodes with microscopic disease detected by sentinel lymph node dissection but not clinically apparent. (from AJCC 6th Ed.) |
| N1mi | Breast cancer with micrometastases (greater than 0.2 mm and/or more than 200 cells, but none greater than 2.0 mm) (from AJCC 7th Ed.) |
| N2 | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 4-9 axillary lymph nodes; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to metastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in 4 or more regional lymph nodes; and for bladder cancer it refers to metastases in multiple regional lymph nodes in the true pelvis. |
| N2a | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 4 to 9 axillary lymph nodes (at least 1 tumor deposit greater than 2.0 mm); for cutaneous melanoma it refers to micrometastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in 4-6 regional lymph nodes. |
| N2b | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases only in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary nodes and in the absence of clinically evident level I, II axillary lymph node metastases; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to macrometastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in seven or more regional lymph nodes. |
| N2c | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for cutaneous melanoma it refers to intralymphatic metastases (in transit or satellite metastases) without metastatic nodes; for lip and oral cavity cancer it refers to metastases in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. |
| N3 | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 10 or more axillary lymph nodes; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to metastases in 4 or more regional lymph nodes; for gastric cancer it refers to metastases in 7 or more regional lymph nodes; and for bladder cancer it refers to metastases in common iliac lymph nodes. |
| N3a | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 10 or more axillary lymph nodes (at least one tumor deposit greater than 2.0 mm) or metastases to the infraclavicular (level III axillary) lymph nodes; for gastric cancer it refers to metastases in 7-15 regional lymph nodes; for nasopharyngeal cancer it refers to metastases to one or more lymph nodes greater than 6 cm in greatest dimension. |
| N3b | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary lymph nodes in the presence of one or more positive axillary lymph nodes, or in more than 3 axillary lymph nodes and in internal mammary lymph nodes with micrometastases or macrometastases detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy but not clinically detected; for gastric cancer it refers to metastases in sixteen or more regional lymph nodes; for nasopharyngeal cancer it refers to extension to the supraclavicular fossa. |
| N3c | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph nodes. |
| N4 | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N4 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for ocular adnexal lymphoma it refers to metastases to central lymph nodes. |
| NX | A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that the status of regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |

### ClinicalTStageEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| T0 | A primary tumor TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of primary tumor. |
| T1 | A clinical and/or pathologic primary tumor TNM finding indicating that the cancer is limited to the site of growth. |
| T1a | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth. The definition of T1a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 0.1cm, but not more than 0.5 cm in greatest dimension; for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is 4 cm or less in greatest dimension; and for thyroid cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. |
| T1a1 | A pathologic primary tumor TNM stage finding. The definition of pT1a stage finding depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, pT1a stage finding is defined as follows: cancer with tumor size more than 0.1 cm, but not more than 0.5 cm in greatest dimension; for lung cancer, pT1a stage finding is defined as follows: cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a. (from AJCC 7th Ed.) |
| T1a2 | Invasive cervical cancer with measured stromal invasion more than 3.0 mm and not more than 5.0 mm with a horizontal spread 7.0 mm or less. (from AJCC 7th Ed.) |
| T1b | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth. The definition of T1b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 0.5 cm, but not more than 1.0 cm in greatest dimension; for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 4 cm, but not more than 7 cm in greatest dimension; and for thyroid cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 1 cm but not more than 2 cm in greatest dimension. |
| T1b1 | Cervical cancer with clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension confined to the cervix. (from AJCC 7th Ed.) |
| T1b2 | Invasive cervical cancer with clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension confined to the cervix. (from AJCC 7th Ed.) |
| T1c | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth. The definition of T1c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 1.0 cm, but not more than 2.0 cm in greatest dimension; for uterine corpus cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades one-half or more of the myometrium; and for melanoma of the iris it refers to a primary tumor limited to the iris with secondary glaucoma. |
| T1mi | A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth and indicates microinvasion only. |
| T2 | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to primary tumor that is more than 2.0 cm, but not more than 5.0 cm in greatest dimension; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to primary tumor that is 1.01 to 2 mm in thickness, with or without ulceration; for colorectal cancer it refers to primary tumor with invasion into the muscularis propria; and for bladder cancer it refers to primary tumor with invasion into the muscle layer. |
| T2a | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that measures more than 7 cm but less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension, and is limited to the kidney; for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the superficial muscularis propria (inner half); for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to the lower third of vagina and there is no parametrial invasion. |
| T2a1 | Cervical cancer invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina. There is no parametrial invasion. Clinically visible lesions 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension are present. (from AJCC 7th Ed.) |
| T2a2 | Cervical cancer invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina. There is no parametrial invasion. Clinically visible lesions more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension are present. (from AJCC 7th Ed.) |
| T2b | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that measures more than 10 cm in greatest dimension, and is limited to the kidney; for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the deep muscularis propria (outer half); for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to the lower third of vagina and there is parametrial invasion. |
| T2c | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for prostate cancer it refers to a primary tumor that involves both lobes of the prostate gland; for ovarian cancer it refers to a primary tumor that involves one or both ovaries with extension or implants on the uterus and/or fallopian tubes, or other pelvic tissues, with malignant cells in either ascites or peritoneal washings; for fallopian tube cancer it refers to a primary tumor with pelvic extension and malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings. |
| T2d | Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. (from AJCC 7th Ed.) |
| T3 | A clinical and/or pathologic primary tumor TNM finding usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive, without infiltration of adjacent structures. |
| T3a | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive. The definition of T3a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that grossly extends into the renal vein or its segmental (muscle containing) branches or the tumor invades perirenal and/or renal sinus fat but does not extends beyond Gerota's fascia; for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that involves the lower third of vagina, without extension to pelvic wall; for liver cancer it refers to the presence of multiple tumors measuring more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. |
| T3b | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive. The definition of T3b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that grossly extends into the vena cava below the diaphragm; for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that extends to the pelvic wall and/or causes hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney; for liver cancer it refers to a single tumor or multiple tumors of any size involving a major branch of the portal vein or hepatic vein. |
| T3c | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive. The definition of T3c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that grossly extends into the vena cava above the diaphragm, or invades the wall of the vena cava; for fallopian tube cancer it refers to a primary tumor with peritoneal metastasis outside the pelvis measuring more than 2 cm in diameter; for melanoma of the conjunctiva it refers to a primary tumor invading the orbit. |
| T3d | Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. (from AJCC 7th Ed.) |
| T4 | A clinical and/or pathologic primary tumor TNM finding indicating direct invasion of adjacent structures by cancer. |
| T4a | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the prostatic stroma, uterus, and vagina; for gastric cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum); for colorectal cancer it refers to a primary tumor that penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum. |
| T4b | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the pelvic wall and abdominal wall; for gastric cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades adjacent structures; for colorectal cancer it refers to a primary tumor with direct invasion or adherence to other organs or structures. |
| T4c | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that extends to the chest wall, not including the pectoralis muscle, and with edema (including peau d'orange) or ulceration of the skin of the breast or satellite skin nodules confined to the same breast; for ocular adnexal lymphoma it refers to a primary tumor that Involves the maxillofacial, ethmoidal, and/or frontal sinuses; for carcinoma of the conjunctiva it refers to a primary tumor that invades adjacent paranasal sinuses. |
| T4d | A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4d TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that meets the clinical-pathologic criteria of inflammatory carcinoma; for ocular adnexal lymphoma it refers to a primary tumor with intracranial spread; for carcinoma of the conjunctiva it refers to a primary tumor that invades the brain. |
| T4e | Any tumor size category with extraocular extension more than 5 mm in diameter. (from AJCC 7th Ed.) |
| T5 | An antiquated primary tumor finding term that refers to colorectal cancer which has spread by direct extension beyond the immediately adjacent organs or tissues. (AJCC 1st Ed.) |
| TX | A primary tumor TNM finding indicating that the status of the primary tumor cannot be assessed. |
| Ta | A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary, non-invasive, papillary cancer. |
| Tis | Breast cancer with a finding of carcinoma in situ. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.) |
| Tis (DCIS) | A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor microscopically defined as carcinoma in situ.: A carcinoma entirely confined to the mammary ducts. It is also known as DCIS. There is no evidence of invasion of the basement membrane. Currently, it is classified into three categories: High-grade DCIS, intermediate-grade DCIS and low-grade DCIS. In this classification the DCIS grade is defined by a combination of nuclear grade, architectural growth pattern and presence of necrosis. The size of the lesion as well as the grade and the clearance margins play a major role in dictating the most appropriate therapy for DCIS. |
| Tis (LCIS) | A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor microscopically defined as carcinoma in situ.: A non-invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by a proliferation of monomorphic cells completely filling the lumina. The overall lobular architecture is preserved. It is frequently multifocal (90% in some series) and bilateral. It seldom becomes invasive; however there is an increased risk of infiltrating ductal adenocarcinoma. |
| Tis (Paget's) | A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor microscopically defined as carcinoma in situ.: Paget disease involving the skin overlying the mammary gland, without accompanying invasive ductal or lobular breast carcinoma. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |

### ComponentEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Clinical | Clinical data component |
| Demographics | Demographics data component |
| Diagnosis | Diagnosis data component |
| Exposure | Exposure data component |
| Family History | Family history data component |
| Follow-up | Follow-up data component |
| Molecular | Molecular data component |
| Therapy | Therapy data component |
| Vital Status | Vital status data component |

### DiseaseResponseEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Complete Response | Complete disappearance of all clinical evidence of disease with skin, nodes, blood and viscera categories having complete response or noninvolvement. |
| No Evidence of Disease | Diagnostic tests fail to detect presence of disease. |
| No Response | No apparent change or worsening in tumor staging classification. |
| Not Applicable | Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context. |
| Not Evaluable | Unable to be evaluated. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Partial Response | A finding indicating that there is a decrease in the size and the extent of tissue involvement by a malignant tumor in a patient. |
| Persistent Disease | A disease that does not go to remission despite treatment. |
| Progressive Disease | A clinical, pathologic, and/or molecular finding indicating that the course of a disease is worsening in terms of extent or severity. |
| Stable Disease | Cancer that is neither decreasing nor increasing in extent or severity. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |

### ECOGPerformanceStatusEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| 0 | Fully active, able to carry on all pre-disease performance without restriction. |
| 1 | Restricted in physically strenuous activity but ambulatory and able to carry out work of a light or sedentary nature, e.g., light housework, office work. |
| 2 | Ambulatory and capable of all self care but unable to carry out any work activities. Up and about more than 50% of waking hours. |
| 3 | Capable of only limited selfcare, confined to bed or chair more than 50% of waking hours. |
| 4 | Completely disabled. Cannot carry on any selfcare. Totally confined to bed or chair. |
| 5 | Dead. |

### EcogScorePerformedEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Known | The ECOG performance status score was obtained and is available. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |

### EnvironmentalExposureEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| No | The non-affirmative response to a question. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| Yes | The affirmative response to a question. |

### EnvironmentalExposureTypeEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Asbestos Exposure | Inhalation of asbestos fibers. |
| Chemical Exposure | Contact with a chemical substance through touch, inhalation, or ingestion. |
| Marijuana Smoke Exposure | Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced by direct or nearby use of a vaporized or combusted product made from the leaves and flowers of the cannabis plant. |
| Radiation Exposure | Exposure to radioactive materials or ionizing radiation, whether by external irradiation, contact or contamination with radioactive material, or incorporation of radioactive materials, as in the case of certain diagnostic procedures. |
| Radon Exposure | Inhalation of radon gas which is found in rocks, soil and groundwater as a result of radioactive decay of uranium, thorium, or radium in the environment. |
| Respirable Crystalline Silica Exposure | Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to respirable particles derived from industrial processing or breakdown of silica-containing materials such as sand, concrete, stone, mortar, bricks, glass, pottery and ceramics. |
| Smoke Exposure | Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when materials undergo combustion or thermal decomposition. |
| Smokeless Tobacco Exposure | Environmental, occupational, or consumer-based exposure to any smokeless tobacco product. |
| Tobacco Related Exposure | Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced by direct or nearby use of a vaporized or combusted tobacco product. |
| Wood Dust Exposure | Environmental or occupational exposure to granular solids generated when timber is processed, such as when it is chipped, sawed, turned, drilled or sanded. |

### EthnicGroupEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Hispanic or Latino | A person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race. The term, 'Spanish origin,' can be used in addition to 'Hispanic or Latino.' (OMB) |
| Not Hispanic or Latino | A person not of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race. |
| Not Allowed To Collect | An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused |

### EvidenceOfRecurrenceTypeEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Biopsy with Histologic Confirmation | A biopsy with microscopic confirmation. |
| Convincing Image (i.e. CT/PET/MRI) | Radiologic evidence that supports a diagnosis. |
| Positive Biomarkers | A finding indicating the presence of a biomarker in a tumor sample from a patient with a malignant neoplasm. |

### FamilyMemberCancerHistoryEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| No | The non-affirmative response to a question. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| Yes | The affirmative response to a question. |

### GenderIdentityEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Female | Female |
| Male | Male |
| Other | Other |
| Unknown | Unknown |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available |

### GleasonGradeGroupEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| 1 | Grade Group I - Only individual discrete well-formed glands. |
| 2 | Grade Group II - Predominantly well-formed glands with lesser component of poorly-formed/fused/cribriform glands. |
| 3 | Grade Group III - Predominantly poorly formed/fused/cribriform glands with lesser component of well-formed glands. For cases with greater than 95% poorly formed/fused/cribriform glands or lack of glands on a core or at radical prostatectomy, the component of less than 5% well-formed glands is not factored into the grade. |
| 4 | Grade Group IV - Only poorly-formed/fused/cribriform glands or predominantly well-formed glands and lesser component lacking glands or predominantly lacking glands and lesser component of well-formed gland. Poorly-formed/fused/cribriform glands can be a more minor component. |
| 5 | Grade Group V - Lacks gland formation (or with necrosis) with or without poorly formed/fused/cribriform glands. For cases with greater than 95% poorly formed/fused/cribriform glands or lack of glands on a core or at RP, the component of less than 5% well-formed glands is not factored into the grade. |
| Not Applicable | Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |

### InitialDiseaseStatusEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Precancerous | Descriptive of a condition that may or is likely to become cancerous. |
| Primary | A tumor at the original site of origin. |
| Progression or Recurrence | An indication as to whether a subject has a progressive disease or a recurrent disease. |
| Residual Disease | Cancer cells that remain after attempts to remove the cancer have been made. |
| Unknown | Not known, observed, recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |

### LastKnownDiseaseStatusEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Biochemical evidence of disease without structural correlate | An indication that biochemical markers of a disease are present but morphological markers are absent. |
| Distant Metastasis | A biological process that involves the transfer and growth of cancer cells from the site of the primary tumor. Relocation of malignant cells during metastasis can be restricted to movement within a specific tissue/organ or may entail migration to a distal locus within the body. This phenotype is a characteristic of all malignant tumors. |
| Localized Disease | A disease that is confined to a specific organ or tissue and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| New Tumor Event | The presence of a primary, recurrent or metastatic neoplasm which has not been previously noted. |
| Not Allowed To Collect | An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted. |
| Not Applicable | Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Regional Disease | A disease or condition that extends beyond the site and spreads into adjacent tissues and regional lymph nodes. |
| Tumor Free | There is no evidence of a tumor in the individual. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| With Tumor | There is evidence of a tumor in an individual. |

### MenopauseStatusEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Menopausal | The permanent cessation of menses, usually defined by 6 to 12 months of amenorrhea in a woman over 45 years of age. |
| Not Applicable | Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Perimenopausal | The time of a woman's life when menstrual periods become irregular. Refers to the time near menopause. |
| Postmenopausal | Having to do with the time after menopause. Menopause ('change of life') is the time in a woman's life when menstrual periods stop permanently. |
| Postmenopausal (>12 mo since LMP with no prior ovariectomy) | Having to do with the time after menopause. Menopause ('change of life') is the time in a woman's life when menstrual periods stop permanently. |
| Postmenopausal (prior bilateral ovariectomy) | Having to do with the time after menopause. Menopause ('change of life') is the time in a woman's life when menstrual periods stop permanently. |
| Premenopausal | Refers to the time before menopause. Menopause is the time of life when a women's menstrual periods stop permanently; also called 'change of life.' |
| Premenopausal/Perimenopausal | Prior to menopause. : Used to indicate that either or both of two items or options may be valid.: Describes the time in a woman's life when menstrual periods become irregular as she approaches menopause. This is usually three to five years before menopause and is often marked by many of the symptoms of menopause, including hot flashes, mood swings, night sweats, vaginal dryness, trouble concentrating, and infertility. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |

### MetastasisAtDiagnosisEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Metastatic | A term referring to the clinical or pathologic observation of a tumor extension from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| Non-metastatic (confirmed) | An operation in which a term denies or inverts the meaning of another term or construction.: A term referring to the clinical or pathologic observation of a tumor extension from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.: Confirmed; having been established or verified. |
| Non-metastatic (unconfirmed) | An operation in which a term denies or inverts the meaning of another term or construction.: A term referring to the clinical or pathologic observation of a tumor extension from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.: An operation in which a term denies or inverts the meaning of another term or construction.: Confirmed; having been established or verified. |
| Unknown | Not known, observed, recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |

### MethodOfDiagnosisEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Autopsy | Autopsy; an examination and dissection of a dead body to determine cause of death or the changes produced by disease. |
| Biopsy | The removal of tissue specimens or fluid from the living body for microscopic examination, performed to establish a diagnosis. |
| Blood Sample | A small volume of blood removed for testing or storage. |
| Bone Marrow Aspirate | Aspirate from bone marrow. |
| Core Biopsy | The removal of a tissue sample using a needle with a relatively large diameter, for microscopic examination. |
| Cystoscopy | Endoscopic examination of the urinary bladder or urethra. |
| Diagnostic Imaging | Any method that uses a visual display of structural or functional patterns of organs or tissues for diagnostic evaluation. |
| Dilation and Curettage | A surgical scraping and removal of the inner lining of the uterus through direct dilation of the uterine cervix. |
| Enucleation | A surgical procedure by which tissue or an organ (usually containing a tumor) is removed without rupture from a specific anatomic site. |
| Excisional Biopsy | A surgical procedure in which an entire lesion is removed for microscopic examination. |
| Fine Needle Aspiration | The removal of tissue or fluid with a thin needle for examination under a microscope. |
| Histopathology | The microscopic study of characteristic tissue abnormalities by employing various cytochemical and immunocytochemical stains. -- 2004 |
| Imaging Technique | Any technology or method that aids in the visualization of any biological process, cell, tissue or organ for use in screening, diagnosis, surgical procedures or therapy. |
| Incisional Biopsy | A surgical procedure in which part of a lesion is removed for microscopic examination. |
| Laparoscopy | Laparoscopic examination of the abdominal cavity and its contents. |
| Laparotomy | Creation of a surgical opening into the abdominal cavity. |
| Magnetic Resonance Imaging Study File | Imaging that uses radiofrequency waves and a strong magnetic field rather than x-rays to provide amazingly clear and detailed pictures of internal organs and tissues. The technique is valuable for the diagnosis of many pathologic conditions, including cancer, heart and vascular disease, stroke, and joint and musculoskeletal disorders. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Pap Smear | A biospecimen collection and staining procedure in which secretions and superficial cells of the cervix are collected and stained with the Papanicolaou stain followed by microscopic examination to identify the presence of abnormal cells. |
| Pathologic Review | An assessment of disease process to include cause, development, and/or structural and functional changes associated with the disease. |
| Physical Examination | A systemic evaluation of the body and its functions using visual inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment. |
| Surgical Resection | The surgical removal of an organ or a part of an organ. |
| Thoracentesis | The removal of excess fluid via needle puncture from the thoracic cavity. |
| Tumor Debulking | The surgical removal of as much of a malignant tumor as is reasonably possible. This procedure increases the effectiveness of the subsequent administration of chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy. |
| Ultrasound Guided Biopsy | A biopsy procedure that uses an ultrasound imaging device to find an abnormal area of tissue and guide its removal for examination under a microscope. |
| Ultrasound Imaging | A technique in which high-frequency sound waves are bounced off internal organs and the echo pattern is converted into a 2 dimensional picture of the structures beneath the transducer. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |

### MolecularAnalysisMethodEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Comparative genomic hybridization | Comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) is a technique that allows the detection of losses and gains in DNA copy number across the entire genome without prior knowledge of specific chromosomal abnormalities. Comparative genomic hybridization utilizes the hybridization of differentially labeled tumor and reference DNA to generate a map of DNA copy number changes in tumor genomes. Comparative genomic hybridization is an ideal tool for analyzing chromosomal imbalances in archived tumor material and for examining possible correlations between these findings and tumor phenotypes. (from Ried et al. J Mol Med 1997 75:801-14) |
| Cytogenetics, NOS | Not characterized in any other way.: Techniques for analysis of chromosomal and subchromosomal properties and structures, such as those to diagnose, classify, screen for, or manage genetic diseases and abnormalities. |
| FISH | A physical mapping approach that uses fluorescent tags to detect hybridization of probes within metaphase chromosomes or less condensed somatic interphase chromatin. This technique can be used for identification of chromosomal abnormalities and for gene mapping. |
| Flow cytometry | A technique for counting, examining and sorting microscopic particles suspended in a stream of fluid. |
| IHC | Immunohistochemical staining techniques allow for the visualization of antigens via the sequential application of a specific antibody to the antigen (primary antibody), a secondary antibody to the primary antibody and an enzyme complex with a chromogenic substrate. The enzymatic activation of the chromogen results in a visible reaction product at the antigen site. The specimen may then be counterstained and coverslipped. Results are interpreted using a light microscope and aid in the differential diagnosis of pathophysiological processes, which may or may not be associated with a particular antigen. |
| ISH | In Situ Hybridization staining is an immunohistochemistry staining procedure which allows the demonstration of specific nucleic acid sequences (genes) in their cellular environment. The DNA sequence in the host cell is detected by hybridization with a biotin-labeled cDNA probe. Used for detecting protein and gene expression, determining tissue specificity, and localizing genes and proteins within tissue samples. |
| Immunofluorescence | A microscopy staining method that utilizes immunofluorescent markers for use with histological applications of preserved cells. |
| Karyotype | The preparation, analysis, and interpretation of a karyotype, the representation of the chromosome set of a cell. |
| Microarray | Analysis using microarray technology (e.g., cDNA arrays to see gene expression or protein microarrays to profile the pattern of proteins). |
| Microsatellite analysis | Analysis that looks for differences in the lengths of microsatellite repeats between alleles. Polymorphic microsatellites are present in the genome every few thousand base pairs and can function as molecular markers. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Nuclear staining | Pertaining to the nucleus.: Any of the various methods that use a dye, reagent, or other material for producing coloration in tissues or microorganisms for microscopic examination. |
| Other | Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned. |
| PCR | A method for amplifying a DNA base sequence using multiple rounds of heat denaturation of the DNA and annealing of oligonucleotide primers complementary to flanking regions in the presence of a heat-stable polymerase. This results in duplication of the targeted DNA region. Newly synthesized DNA strands can subsequently serve as additional templates for the same primer sequences, so that successive rounds of primer annealing, strand elongation, and dissociation produce rapid and highly specific amplification of the desired sequence. PCR also can be used to detect the existence of the defined sequence in a DNA sample. |
| RNA sequencing | Single-stranded long chain of nucleotides containing ribose. It is the end product of DNA transcription by the enzyme RNA polymerase. It is essential in protein synthesis.: The process of determining the sequence of purines and pyrimidines in nucleic acids and polynucleotides. |
| RT-PCR | RT-PCR is short for reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction. It is a technique in which an RNA strand is first transcribed into a DNA complement and then subjected to PCR amplification. Transcribing an RNA strand into a DNA complement is termed reverse transcription and is done by the enzyme reverse transcriptase. (from Wikipedia) |
| Sequencing, NOS | Not characterized in any other way.: The process of determining the sequence of purines and pyrimidines in nucleic acids and polynucleotides. |
| Southern blotting | A technique for the detection of specific DNA fragments that have been separated by polyacrylamide-gel electrophoresis, transferred to a nitrocellulose or other type of paper or nylon membrane, and detected by hybridization and visualization with a labeled probe. |
| Targeted sequencing | The process of directing an agent to a specific anatomic location.: The process of determining the sequence of purines and pyrimidines in nucleic acids and polynucleotides. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| WGS | A procedure that can determine the DNA sequence for nearly the entire genome of an individual. |
| WXS | A procedure that can determine the DNA sequence for all of the exons in an individual. |

### MolecularAnalysisResultEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Abnormal, NOS | Not characterized in any other way.: Deviating from the norm. |
| Copy Number Reported | The number of molecules of a particular type on or in a cell or part of a cell. Usually applied to specific genes or to plasmids within a bacterium. |
| Equivocal | Open to question. |
| High | An elevated level or position or degree; greater than normal in degree or intensity or amount. |
| Intermediate | Lying between two extremes in time or space or degree. |
| Loss of Expression | An indication that expression of a gene, RNA species or protein is not detected in a sample. |
| Low | A minimum level or position or degree; less than normal in degree, intensity or amount. |
| Negative | A finding of normality following an examination or investigation looking for the presence of a microorganism, disease, or condition. |
| Normal | Being approximately average or within certain limits; conforming with or constituting a norm or standard or level or type or social norm. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Overexpressed | Synthesis of excess polypeptide within the cell. Overexpression is often due to the amplification or deregulation of the gene which encodes the gene product. |
| Positive | A finding of abnormality following an examination or observation confirming something, such as the presence of a disease, condition, or microorganism. |
| Test Value Reported | An indication as to whether a test value has been reported or recorded. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |

### MolecularConsequenceEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Frameshift | A type of mutation in which one or more paired nucleotides are inserted or deleted in the coding region of a gene, which causes the triplet codons to be read in the wrong frame; the resulting polypeptide has a garbled amino acid sequence from the mutated codon on. |
| Missense | A mutation in which a base change results in substitution of one amino acid for another. This change may result in alteration of the protein's activity or stability. |
| Monosomy | The condition in which one chromosome of a pair is missing. In a normally diploid cell it is represented symbolically as 2N-1. |
| None (inframe) | Any mutation that does not cause a change in reading frame. |
| Nullisomy | A chromosomal abnormality consisting of the absence of both copies of a pair of homologous chromosomes. |
| Splice Acceptor | A heritable single nucleotide polymorphism located at the acceptor splice site in certain allelic variants of eukaryotic genes. These sites are located in genes at intron to exon junctions at the 3' end of the intron. |
| Splice Donor | An inherited single base change at a donor splice site in a genomic DNA sequence that results in an allelic variant of the wild-type gene. Donor splice sites are located at exon to intron junctions at the 5' end of the intron. |
| Start Lost | A mutation occurring within the start codon of a gene that results in a sequence that no longer encodes a start codon. This can result in a gene deletion or gene transcription may start from an alternative start site. |
| Stop Gained | A mutation in which a base change creates a stop codon, resulting in premature termination of a polypeptide product. |
| Stop Lost | A mutation occurring within the stop codon of a gene that results in a sequence that no longer encodes a stop codon and results in the transcription of non-coding regions downstream of the gene. |
| Synonymous | A mutation that alters the DNA sequence, but encodes the same amino acid. |
| Trisomy | A chromosomal abnormality consisting of the presence of one chromosome in addition to the normal diploid number. |

### OffTreatmentReasonEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Adverse Event | Any unfavorable or unintended disease, sign, or symptom (including an abnormal laboratory finding) that is temporally associated with the use of a medical treatment or procedure, and that may or may not be considered related to the medical treatment or procedure. Such events can be related to the intervention, dose, route of administration, patient, or caused by an interaction with another drug(s) or procedure(s). |
| Death | The absence of life or state of being dead. |
| Disease Progression | The worsening of a disease over time |
| Non Compliance | Failure of a study subject to comply with an aspect of the study. |
| Other | Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned. |
| Participant Withdrawal | An indication that a study participant has removed itself from the study. |
| Physician Decision | A position, opinion or judgment reached after consideration by a physician with reference to subject. |
| Protocol Defined Delay | A break or delay in treatment that is fully described in a protocol. |
| Protocol Violation | A significant departure from processes or procedures that were required by the protocol. Violations often result in data that are not deemed evaluable for a per-protocol analysis, and may require that the subject(s) who violate the protocol be discontinued from the study. Compare to protocol deviation. (CDISC Glossary) |
| Treatment Complete | An indication or description that the course of study treatment has been carried out in full. |

### PathogenicityEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Benign | A genetic variant that is known to not contribute to the development of a disease. |
| Likely Benign | A genetic variant that is not expected to contribute to the development of a disease, but the scientific evidence may be insufficient to prove this conclusively. |
| Likely Pathogenic | An ad hoc category that describes genetic variants with 90% or greater certainty of contributing to the development of a disease. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Pathogenic | A genetic variant that is known to directly contribute to the development of disease. |
| Uncertain Significance | An indication that there is not enough information to support a more definitive classification of the pathogenicity of a genetic variant. |
| Unknown | Not known, observed, recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |

### PharmacotherapyTypeEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Combination Drug Therapy | Drug therapy with two or more drugs given separately or together for a combined effect. |
| Not Applicable | Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Single Drug Therapy | Pharmacotherapy consisting of a single agent. |
| Unknown | Not known, observed, recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |

### PrimaryDiagnosisNCIThesaurusIDEnum

NCI Thesaurus concept identifier for primary diagnosis. Note that NCI Thesaurus offers very broad and very granular cancer types. Please select the most granular disease term most relevant to your research atlas. For example, for Ovarian Cancer, use: C4908: Ovarian Carcinoma, and not a more specific code such as: C139964: Stage I Ovarian Cancer AJCC v8.

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| C100012 | Evidence of severe retrograde blood flow through the valve(s) of the heart. (ACC) |
| C100020 | There was greater than or equal to 50% stenosis (reduction in cross-sectional area) in three coronary arteries (or greater than or equal to 50% stenosis in the left main coronary artery and greater than or equal to 50% stenosis in the right coronary artery). (ACC) |
| C100023 | There was greater than or equal to 50% stenosis (reduction in cross-sectional area) in two coronary arteries (or greater than or equal to 50% stenosis in the left main coronary artery). (ACC) |
| C100051 | Renal cell carcinoma that develops in patients who are long-term survivors of childhood neuroblastoma. |
| C100054 | "A spectrum of neoplastic changes that occur in the conjunctiva and range from melanocytic hyperplasia through degrees of atypia to melanoma in situ. The lesions are generally unilateral but often multifocal and appear as flat, irregular brown discolorations of the conjunctiva. They usually affect middle-aged and elderly Caucasians. (WHO 2018)" |
| C100062 | Prolonged complete obstruction of the coronary artery. (ACC) |
| C100070 | A tear within the wall of a coronary vein. (ACC) |
| C100093 | "Germ cell tumors of the central nervous system other than germinoma.  This category includes teratoma, choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma, and yolk sac tumor." |
| C101024 | A congenital malformation characterized by the absence of a normal opening in a part of the colon. |
| C101025 | A congenital malformation characterized by the absence of a normal opening in a part of the duodenum. |
| C101026 | A congenital malformation characterized by the absence of a normal opening in a part of the ileum. |
| C101027 | A congenital malformation characterized by the absence of a normal opening in a part of the jejunum. |
| C101028 | Inhalation of fluid from the amniotic sac into the lungs by the neonate. |
| C101029 | A congenital heart malformation characterized by abnormalities in the anatomic structures that relate to the endocardial cushions. These abnormalities can include defects in the lower part of the atrial septum and the ventricular septum and lack of separation of the mitral and tricuspid valves. |
| C101030 | Atrioventricular septal defect in which the atrioventricular junction is shared evenly between the left ventricle and right ventricle. |
| C101031 | Atrioventricular septal defect in which there is usually a single dominant ventricle and a hypoplastic ventricle. |
| C101032 | A congenital heart defect in which the heart is located in the right side and the other organs are in their normal position. |
| C101036 | A stage of retinopathy of prematurity characterized by the presence of the following in at least two quadrants around the optic nerve: dilation and tortuosity of major retinal vasculature as a result of increased blood flow. |
| C101037 | "A respiratory disorder characterized by higher than normal respiratory rates among premature and cesarean section delivered neonates whose lungs have not fully matured. The cause is often excess fluid in the lungs, and resolution is aided by supplemental oxygen and sometimes, antibiotics." |
| C101038 | "A rare variant of multiple pterygium syndrome, characterized by severe athrogryposis, pterygium, akinesia and often hydrops fetalis and cystic hygroma. This variant is fatal, usually during the second or third trimester of pregnancy." |
| C101039 | "A rare congenital disorder, this is the non-lethal variant of multiple pterygium syndrome, characterized by orthopedic and craniofacial abnormalities, pterygium and akinethesia. The majority of cases are autosomal dominant." |
| C101040 | "The severe form of Hirschsprung disease, this is characterized by a complete lack of nerve cells in the large intestine, and often a partial lack in the small intestine. The bowel is not stimulated without innervation and obstruction ensues. Surgical intervention is necessary." |
| C101041 | "The most common form of Hirschsprung Disease, this is characterized by a lack of nerve cells in the sigmoid colon and rectum. The bowel is not stimulated without innervation and obstruction ensues. Surgical intervention is necessary." |
| C101044 | "The mildest form of spina bifida, characterized by any of several neural tube defects which may go undetected until an x-ray is performed. Treatment is symptomatic." |
| C101045 | Methemoglobinemia that is caused by exposure to certain drugs (xylocaine and benzene). |
| C101050 | "A rare, congenital anomaly in the aorta in which a communication exists between the ascending aorta and the pulmonary artery." |
| C101074 | A complete lack of ganglia in the intestine. This is an extremely severe form of Hirschsprung Disease. |
| C101185 | A congenital heart defect in which there is an abnormal arrangement of any of the primary blood vessels of the heart in conjunction with the notable absence of any pathologic opening between the cardiac ventricles. |
| C101186 | A congenital heart defect in which there is an abnormal arrangement of any of the primary blood vessels of the heart in conjunction with a pathologic opening between the cardiac ventricles. |
| C101187 | A rare congenital abnormality characterized by the complete absence of ocular tissue in both orbits. |
| C101188 | A rare congenital abnormality characterized by the complete absence of ocular tissue in one orbit. |
| C101189 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of two abnormally small eye globes. |
| C101190 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of one abnormally small eye globe and one normally sized eye globe. |
| C101191 | "Cataracts in both eyes that result from the aging process, an injury, or as a manifestation of a systemic disorder." |
| C101192 | "A cataract in one eye that results from the aging process, an injury, or as a manifestation of a systemic disorder." |
| C101193 | "Partial or complete opacity of the crystalline lens of both eyes that decreases visual acuity and eventually results in blindness. Some cataracts appear in infancy or in childhood, but most develop in older individuals. (Sternberg Diagnostic Surgical Pathology, 3rd ed.)" |
| C101194 | Cataract in both eyes that are present at birth. |
| C101195 | Cataract in one eye that is present at birth. |
| C101196 | An electrocardiographic finding of a tachycardia that originates in the ventricles that is present at birth. |
| C101197 | A disorder present at birth characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of a tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. |
| C101198 | Partial or complete paralysis of the facial muscles of one side of an individual's face that is present at birth. It is caused by damage to the seventh cranial nerve. |
| C101199 | Damage to the phrenic nerve that results in paralysis of the hemidiaphragm at birth. |
| C101200 | Thrombocytopenia that occurs in neonates as a consequence of transplacental passage of maternal alloantibodies directed against fetal platelet antigens. |
| C101201 | A congenital abnormality in which the spinal cord and meninges protrude through a defect in the spinal column. The protrusion is above the skin surface. |
| C101202 | A congenital abnormality in the cervical region of the spine in which the spinal cord and meninges protrude through a defect in the spinal column. The protrusion is above the skin surface. |
| C101203 | "A congenital abnormality in the lumbar region of the spine, in which the spinal cord and meninges protrude through a defect in the spinal column. The protrusion is above the skin surface." |
| C101207 | "A congenital abnormality in the sacral region of the spine, in which the spinal cord and meninges protrude through a defect in the spinal column. The protrusion is above the skin surface." |
| C101208 | "A congenital abnormality in the thoracic region of the spine, in which the spinal cord and meninges protrude through a defect in the spinal column. The protrusion is above the skin surface." |
| C101209 | A congenital abnormality in which the meninges protrude through a defect in the spinal column. |
| C101210 | A congenital abnormality in the cervical region of the spine in which the meninges protrude through a defect in the spinal column. |
| C101211 | A congenital abnormality in the lumbar region of the spine in which the meninges protrude through a defect in the spinal column. |
| C101212 | A congenital abnormality in the sacral region of the spine in which the meninges protrude through a defect in the spinal column. |
| C101213 | A congenital abnormality in the thoracic region of the spine in which the meninges protrude through a defect in the spinal column. |
| C101214 | A congenital neural tube defect in which vertebrae are not fully formed. It results in the protrusion of the spinal cord through the opening of the vertebrae. |
| C101215 | "A deficiency of the Mullerian inhibiting substance, which is secreted by the Sertoli cells during embryogenesis. It can result in unilateral or bilateral cryptorchidism, testicular regression syndrome and sterility." |
| C101216 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the muscles. Representative examples include muscular dystrophy, metabolic myopathies, muscular atrophies, and dermatomyositis." |
| C101218 | "A group of inherited hemolytic anemias caused by erythrocyte membrane defects. This includes hereditary pyropoikilocytosis, hereditary spherocytosis and hereditary elliptocytosis." |
| C101219 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the absence of both kidneys. |
| C101220 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of only one kidney. |
| C101222 | "A syndrome characterized by the presence of three complete copies of genetic material for chromosome 21, instead of the normal two. It leads to a variety of abnormalities that include mental retardation, macroglossia, microgenia, epicanthic eyelids, and a single transverse palmar crease." |
| C101223 | "A syndrome characterized by the presence of three complete copies of genetic material for chromosome 13, instead of the normal two. It leads to a variety of abnormalities that include mental retardation, microcephaly, low-set ears, eye structural defects, polydactyly, and limb abnormalities." |
| C101228 | Increased pressure in both eyeballs due to obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor. |
| C101253 | "Pathology involving the thoracic, thoracoabdominal, or abdominal aorta (including aneurysms). (ACC)" |
| C101254 | Pathology involving the main renal arteries or extrarenal arterial branches. (ACC) |
| C101268 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the underdevelopment of both optic nerves. |
| C101269 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the underdevelopment of one optic nerve. |
| C101270 | Encephalopathy in infants due to high levels of unconjugated bilirubin that are a result of Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. |
| C101272 | Ischemic necrosis of the spinal cord due to spinal artery occlusion during the birthing process. |
| C101273 | "The diagnosis assigned when a health care practitioner feels strongly the patient has necrotizing enterocolitis, but lacks definitive proof." |
| C101279 | A congenital deformity in which there is no laryngeal structure. |
| C101304 | A disorder of the fetus or newborn that occurs when fetal cells that are coated with IgG alloantibodies from the mother attack antigens inherited from the father. Severity can range from absence of symptoms to death. |
| C101316 | Partial or complete paralysis of the facial muscles of one side of an individual's face that is caused by trauma. |
| C101320 | Respiratory distress in the newborn due to inhalation of blood; this is an unusual event and is sometimes linked to the non passage of meconium before delivery or mothers with antepartum hemorrhage. |
| C101321 | A constellation of neurobehavioral features observed following cessation or reduction of antenatal or postnatal drug exposure. |
| C101322 | A rare congenital heart anomaly in which there is coexistence of tetralogy of Fallot and complete atrioventricular septal defect. The latter is characterized by defects in the atrial and ventricular septa and a common atrioventricular valve. |
| C101325 | A congenital defect in which there is an abnormal spatial arrangement of the internal thoraco-abdominal organs; this manifestation of the disorder presents with many accessory spleens instead of one. |
| C101326 | "A congenital defect in which there is an abnormal spatial arrangement of the internal thoraco-abdominal organs; in this manifestation of the disorder, the spleen is absent." |
| C101328 | Myopathy caused by mitochondrial abnormalities. |
| C101329 | A syndrome characterized by the presence of structural malformations that are present at birth and can be attributed to an exogenous cause. |
| C101331 | Impaired gas exchange by the respiratory system resulting in hypoxemia and decreased oxygenation of the tissues that may be associated with increased arterial levels of carbon dioxide; the respiratory failure is due to a neuromuscular disorder. |
| C101332 | Impaired gas exchange by the respiratory system resulting in hypoxemia and decreased oxygenation of the tissues that may be associated with increased arterial levels of carbon dioxide; the respiratory failure is due to a central nervous system disorder. |
| C101333 | A disorder of blood clotting that is attributable to a deficiency in liver function. |
| C101334 | An inherited disorder that affects the metabolism of any acidic compound containing carbon in a covalent linkage. |
| C101338 | The formation of a thrombus in the artery as a direct result of an activity associated with vascular access. |
| C101339 | The formation of a thrombus in the vein as a direct result of an activity associated with vascular access. |
| C101362 | A constellation of symptoms that occur as a result of the presence of a complete third copy of the 18th chromosome. Characteristics include profound mental retardation and severe malformations. Individuals with this syndrome rarely live past one year. |
| C101539 | "Stage I includes: Any T, Any N, M0.  M0: No evidence of distant metastasis.  (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C101540 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C101541 | "Stage II includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C101542 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No evidence of distant metastasis.  (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C102532 | "A benign or malignant, diffuse and/or follicular lymphocytic proliferation." |
| C102570 | An extremely rare adenosarcoma that arises from the broad ligament. |
| C102820 | A non-granulomatous or granulomatous chronic inflammation of the endometrium. Causes include sexually transmitted pathogens and gynecological procedures. Patients may present with irregular bleeding. |
| C102845 | Localized tumor with incomplete gross excision; representative ipsilateral nonadherent lymph nodes negative for tumor microscopically. (cancer.gov) |
| C102846 | "Localized tumor with or without complete gross excision, with ipsilateral nonadherent lymph nodes positive for tumor. Enlarged contralateral lymph nodes must be negative microscopically. (cancer.gov)" |
| C102870 | A malignant germ cell tumor other than dysgerminoma that arises from the ovary. |
| C102871 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the brain or the spinal cord. |
| C102872 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the pharynx. |
| C102883 | A benign or malignant neoplasm which is not further characterized. |
| C102884 | A malignant neoplasm caused by human papillomavirus in an a patient with a history of AIDS. |
| C102897 | "An astrocytic tumor exhibiting high-grade morphological characteristics. This category includes anaplastic astrocytoma, glioblastoma, and astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, grade 4." |
| C102954 | Any condition resulting in systemically elevated blood pressure that is attributed to an arterial source. |
| C102977 | Inflammation of the peritoneum caused by an intrauterine intestinal perforation leading to presence of meconium within the fetal peritoneal cavity. This is frequently seen as intra-abdominal calcifications on imaging. |
| C102979 | Collection of urine in the renal pelvis that results in dilatation of the renal pelvis and calyces that is present at birth. |
| C103144 | "A rare, autosomal recessive syndrome characterized by the presence of polyhydramnios, neonatal macrosomia, craniofacial abnormalities, nephroblastomatosis, and predisposition to Wilms tumor.  The prognosis is poor." |
| C103170 | Withdrawal signs and symptoms that present during the postnatal period and are caused by drug use by the pregnant mother. |
| C103172 | "A bleeding disorder that is diagnosed during childhood, with the presenting symptom of excessive bleeding." |
| C103183 | Drug withdrawal symptoms in a fetus following maternal discontinuation or reduction of use of one or more addictive substance(s) that have caused fetal physiological dependence. |
| C103184 | An abnormal alignment of the knee backwards that is due to a deformity in the knee joint. |
| C103185 | "A disorder that affects the female or male reproductive system and is present at birth. Representative examples include ovarian agenesis, vaginal agenesis, and penile agenesis." |
| C103186 | A congenital disorder characterized by abnormalities in the development of the sexual characteristics. |
| C103189 | Damage to the phrenic nerve that results in paralysis of the hemidiaphragm and was not present at birth. |
| C103226 | Underdeveloped pulmonary arteries. |
| C103233 | "A congenital metabolic detected in the neonatal period that is characterized by the presence of a meconium ileus. The disease affects the exocrine glands andis inherited as an autosomal trait. The secretions of exocrine glands are abnormal, resulting in excessively viscid mucus production which causes obstruction of passageways (including pancreatic and bile ducts, intestines, and bronchi). The sweat sodium and chloride content are increased. Symptoms usually appear in childhood and include... |
| C103236 | A fetal affliction that has a neurological basis and manifests as a developmental disability. |
| C103266 | An underdeveloped aortic arch that is present at birth. This symptom is usually found in association with other cardiac defects that characterize left heart syndrome. |
| C103296 | An opportunistic infection caused by the human papillomavirus in a patient with AIDS. |
| C103817 | Prostate carcinoma that has developed in relatives of patients with a history of prostate carcinoma. |
| C103917 | "An anatomic abnormality that occurs during embryonic development, in which the aortic arch is right-sided." |
| C103918 | A congenital renal disorder characterized by the presence of small cysts in the renal cortex and/or renal medulla. |
| C103920 | "A severe and rare form of alpha thalassemia characterized by the absence of alpha globin chains. It results in hydrops fetalis, severe anemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart defects, and genitourinary abnormalities. It leads to death in utero or shortly thereafter." |
| C103921 | A rare genetic brain malformation characterized by smooth folds and grooves in the brain. There are approximately 20 different types of lissencephaly that are identified by various symptoms. |
| C103922 | Dilatation of the ureter caused by obstruction of urine flow that is present at birth. |
| C103923 | Abnormal sideways curvature of the spine that is present at birth. |
| C103935 | Dysfunction of the pulmonary valve characterized by incomplete valve closure that is present at birth. |
| C103936 | Dysfunction of the aortic valve characterized by incomplete valve closure that is present at birth. |
| C103956 | A congenital or acquired defect characterized by the presence of a hole in the retina. |
| C103968 | "A genetic disorder caused by mutations in the genes that are responsible for production of protein components of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. It may present with lactic acidosis. Signs and symptoms include developmental delays, seizures and hypotonia." |
| C104003 | A disorder of the blood that is present at birth. |
| C104030 | A term that refers to the staging of adrenal cortical carcinoma according to the European Network for the Study of Adrenal Tumors (ENSAT). |
| C104031 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  Tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension. The tumor has not invaded the surrounding tissues or organs and has not spread to lymph nodes or distant organs or tissues.  (ENSAT 7th Ed, 2009)" |
| C104032 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. Tumor greater than 5 cm. The tumor has not invaded surrounding tissues or organs and has not spread to lymph nodes or distant organs or tissues. (ENSAT 7th Ed, 2009)" |
| C104033 | "Stage III includes: T3/T4, N0/N1, M0.  Tumor of any size that has spread to the fat outside the adrenal gland or into nearby organs or tissues and/or has spread to the regional lymph nodes. (ENSAT 7th Ed, 2009)" |
| C104034 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. Tumor of any size that involves distant organs such as liver, bone or brain. The tumor may or may not involve nearby organs, tissues or lymph nodes. (ENSAT 7th Ed, 2009)" |
| C104373 | "A benign proliferation of the stromal cells in the breast.  It is classified as simple, when associated with the presence of slit-like spaces without erythrocytes and as fascicular/proliferative, when spindle cell proliferation without atypia is present.  It is often seen in breast tissue specimens as small foci associated with benign epithelial lesions.  Pseudoangiomatous stromal hyperplasia presenting as a well-circumscribed palpable mass is rare." |
| C104813 | A congenital defect in the neck that occurs during early embryonic development.  It is caused by developmental abnormalities of the pharyngeal arches and results in the development of a cyst or a fissure in the side of the neck. |
| C105555 | A rapidly growing serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of high-grade cytologic features and frequent mitotic figures. |
| C105556 | A slow-growing serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary. It usually originates from borderline neoplastic processes or adenofibromas. It is characterized by the presence of low-grade cytologic features and infrequent mitotic figures. |
| C105595 | A congenital abnormality in which the meninges protrude through a defect in the spinal column or the cranium. |
| C106273 | A condition of the newborn characterized by the destruction of red blood cells initiated by the transmission of anti-A or anti-B antibodies from a mother to the child via the placenta against A or B antigens of the newborn's blood. |
| C107101 | "An acute hypersensitive immune response that occurs from exposure to an allergen. It results from the release of histamine and histamine-like substances from mast cells, and can present with breathing difficulty due to narrowed airways, dizziness and hypotension, skin rash, weak pulse, nausea and vomiting." |
| C107376 | A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of three or more consecutive complexes of ventricular origin that was not present at birth in an individual under age 21. The QRS complexes are wide and have an abnormal morphology. |
| C107377 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects muscles and bones. |
| C110923 | "Inflammation of the distal posterior uveal tract (choroid) and its structural and vascular attachments to the retina. It is usually caused by infection and though rare, it is clinically significant due to its most serious sequela: loss of vision." |
| C110936 | "Blue skin coloration due to elevated blood levels of methemoglobin. The degree of cyanosis is directly correlated to the concentration of methemoglobin in the blood. As methemoglobin is not suitable for carrying oxygen, hypoxemia becomes a serious sequela." |
| C110938 | A disorder characterized by an arrhythmia with an above normal rate. |
| C110940 | Insufficient production of all the anterior pituitary hormones. |
| C110942 | Aberrant drainage of one or more of the pulmonary veins which causes the return of oxygen-rich blood to the right atrium. |
| C110960 | Depletion of stem cells in the bone marrow that results in the lack of production of hematopoietic cells. |
| C111020 | Gene expression profiling that classifies uveal melanomas into a low-grade group. |
| C111021 | Gene expression profiling that classifies uveal melanomas into a high-grade group. |
| C111022 | Uveal melanoma with low metastatic risk as defined by gene expression profiling. |
| C111023 | Uveal melanoma with intermediate metastatic risk as defined by gene expression profiling. |
| C111030 |  |
| C111119 | Intermittent failure of atrial electrical impulse conduction to the ventricles. |
| C111643 | A rare congenital anomaly where the heart is formed outside of the thoracic cavity. It is associated with intracardiac lesions and other structural malformations. |
| C111646 | A tachycardia originating in or adjacent to the AV junction. |
| C111647 | A condition where the heart is in the correct anatomic position but some or all of the other thoracoabdominal viscera are in the opposite lateral orientation. |
| C111648 | A ventricular tachycardia that is irregular in rate and rhythm. |
| C111649 | An inflammatory disorder of the pericardium and pleura seen as a post-operative complication of cardiovascular surgery. |
| C111652 | The presence of a thrombus within a vascular shunt. |
| C111656 | "A severe form of twin-twin transfusion syndrome that occurs in monochorionic pregnancies. The normal twin (pump twin) supplies the blood flow to its sibling that lacks heart or brain or both (acardiac/acephalic twin). Untreated, it may lead to the demise of the pump twin in some cases." |
| C111691 | Classification of glioblastoma into molecular subtypes as defined by gene expression profiling. |
| C111692 | A molecular subtype of glioblastoma that is associated with younger age at presentation and is characterized by p53 mutations and PDGFRa amplifications. |
| C111693 | "A molecular subtype of glioblastoma characterized by the expression of the neural markers NEFL, GABRA1, SYT1, and SLC12A5." |
| C111694 | "A molecular subtype of glioblastoma characterized by lack of p53 mutations, chromosome 7 amplifications or deletions, and high levels of EGFR amplification." |
| C111695 | A molecular subtype of glioblastoma characterized by the presence of NF1 mutations. |
| C111779 | Congenital absence of the fetal ductus venosus. |
| C111780 | Presence of a large air bubble in the maternal vascular system which originated from a distant site during the antepartum period. |
| C111781 | Presence of a large air bubble in the maternal vascular system which originated from a distant site during the postpartum period. |
| C111782 | Presence of bacterially-infected tissue in the maternal vascular system which originated from a distant site during the antepartum period. |
| C111783 | Presence of a blood clot in the maternal vascular system which originated from a distant site during the antepartum period. |
| C111802 | "A rare genetic disorder characterized by nail dystrophy, reticulated skin pigmentation especially on the neck and chest, and oral leukoplakia.  In about half the cases mutations in the TERT, TERC, DKC1, or TINF2 genes are identified.  Patients are at an increased risk of developing bone marrow failure, myelodysplastic syndrome, leukemia, or cancer, especially in the head and neck region." |
| C111814 | "A rare, autosomal recessive genetic syndrome caused by mutations in the RAB27A gene.  It is characterized by hypopigmentation of the skin, hair and eyes, recurrent infections, neutropenia, and immune system abnormalities.  Patients are prone to develop hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis." |
| C111856 | A clotting condition characterized as a disruption in the homeostatic balance of the coagulation and fibrinolytic systems presenting as a pathological activation of coagulation mechanisms leading to the formation of small clots inside the blood vessels throughout the body of the newborn. |
| C111857 | "A condition characterized as a coagulation disturbance in newborns due to vitamin K deficiency resulting in impaired production of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X, and proteins C and S by the liver." |
| C111861 | Presence of bacterially-infected tissue in the maternal vascular system which originated from a distant site during the postpartum period. |
| C111865 | Presence of a blood clot in the maternal vascular system which originated from a distant site during the postpartum period. |
| C111886 | An inflammatory skin condition in the diaper area that may be caused by irritation or infection. |
| C111887 | "An inflammatory skin condition in the diaper area superimposed with Candida infection, characterized by a bright red rash with a sharply demarcated edge and satellite lesions. Skin folds are often involved." |
| C111888 | "A chronic, inflammatory skin disorder that affects the scalp, central face and skin folds; it is characterized by scaling and itching." |
| C111904 | Fluid accumulation in multiple fetal anatomic cavities attributable to a maternal immune response against fetal blood cell antigens. |
| C111905 | Fluid accumulation in multiple fetal anatomic cavities that is of non-immune origin. |
| C111908 | "Fetal embryopathy associated with maternal angiotensis converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor use during pregnancy that may include fetal acute renal failure, growth restriction, oligohydramnios, calvaria abnormalities, preterm birth, and pulmonary hypoplasia with respiratory distress." |
| C111909 | "A constellation of features seen in the hyperinsulinemic fetus of a diabetic mother that include macrosomia, postnatal hypoglycemia and polycythemia." |
| C111911 | "Acute hypotension or cardiac arrest, acute hypoxia or coagulopathy in the absence of any other potential explanation related to the presence of amniotic fluid or the fetal debris within the maternal vascular system during the antepartum or intrapartum period." |
| C111913 | Diabetes diagnosed before current pregnancy. (reVITALize) |
| C111914 | "Infection of the endometrium, decidua and/or myometrium occurring at any time between birth and 42 days postpartum." |
| C111915 | Clinical syndrome defined by the presence of both infection and a systemic inflammatory response that progresses to multi-organ failure. |
| C111943 | "Inflammation of the fetal sac membranes, characterized by otherwise unexplained fever (at or above 38 degree C (100.4F)) with one or more of the following: uterine tenderness and/or irritability, leukocytosis, fetal tachycardia, maternal tachycardia, or malodorous vaginal discharge." |
| C111963 | "Skin findings arising from repeated rubbing, picking or scratching of a real or imagined irritation of the skin." |
| C112006 | A staging system for thymoma based on the anatomic extent of disease at the time of surgery. |
| C112007 | The tumor is completely encapsulated. |
| C112008 | The tumor shows microscopic invasion into the capsule. |
| C112009 | The tumor shows invasion through the capsule and into the surrounding fatty tissue. |
| C112010 | The tumor shows invasion into the neighboring tissues and organs of the lower neck or upper chest. |
| C112011 | The tumor shows metastasis throughout the pleural and/or pericardial spaces. |
| C112012 | The tumor shows lymphogenous or hematogenous metastasis to distant sites. |
| C112019 | An infection that occurs at a surgical site within 30 days after an operation. |
| C112116 | "Inflammation and induration of the fascia related to an accumulation of white blood cells, including eosinophils." |
| C112117 | "A congenital abnormality of the arteries and veins, lymph vessels or veins and lymph vessels." |
| C112122 | A widespread acute rash characterized by fever and multiple small pustules on a reddish background. |
| C112124 | "A drug-induced photodermatosis characterized by skin fragility, erythema, and the appearance of tense bullae, erosions and scarring in the absence of abnormalities in porphyrin metabolism." |
| C112181 | A skin infection caused by a fungus. |
| C112183 | Inflammation of the eyelids near the eyelashes. |
| C112189 | Inflammation of the thin layer of tissue lining the sclera of the eye characterized by redness in the white portion of the eye. |
| C112197 | An acute eruption of ulcerative lesions on the mucous membrane of the oropharynx. |
| C112198 | "Inflammation of the skin at the corners of the mouth characterized by redness, fissures or crusts." |
| C112200 | "A scalp hair loss condition characterized by excessive shedding of hair in the resting phase of growth, usually following a fever or major body stress." |
| C112202 | "An abrupt onset drug reaction characterized by a red rash that involves the face, neck, and upper torso." |
| C112203 | A reaction to a drug characterized by skin findings common to lupus including photosensitivity and butterfly rash; typically it resolves after drug discontinuation. |
| C112204 | "A skin hypersensitivity reaction due to exposure to a pharmacologic substance that is characterized by raised purpuric lesions, red macules, hemorrhagic blisters and ulcerations." |
| C112208 | "A potentially life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction to a pharmacologic substance that is characterized by rash, lymphadenopathy, fever, hematologic abnormalities and involvement of one or more internal organs." |
| C112209 | A form of drug hypersensitivity syndrome caused by anti-convulsants. |
| C112210 | Inflammation of the blood vessel wall characterized by palpable purpura. |
| C112214 | Fungal infection of a fingernail or toenail. |
| C112831 | "A non-hereditary form of ichthyosis characterized by plate-like scales on the legs, arms and occasionally the torso." |
| C112833 | "A skin condition characterized by hypopigmented, pink or tan, confetti-like, discrete and confluent scaly macules distributed on the chest, shoulders and upper back." |
| C112836 | "Acute onset of severe, life-threatening hyperthyroidism caused by a sudden release of excessive thyroid hormone." |
| C112840 | A life threatening condition due to inadequate levels of glucocorticoids in an individual with adrenal insufficiency. |
| C112843 | "Preeclampsia with a systolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg or higher, or a diastolic blood pressure of 110 mmHg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hours apart while on bedrest. It is associated with thrombocytopenia (platelets less than 100,000 per microliter), impaired liver function (twice normal elevation of hepatic transaminases; severe, persistent right upper quadrant or epigastric pain), progressive renal insufficiency (serum creatinine greater than 1.1 mg/dL or doubling of baseline i... |
| C112844 | Carbohydrate intolerance first diagnosed during pregnancy. Diagnosis from abnormal oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) but normal glucose levels when fasting and two hours post-prandial. Euglycemia achieved with diet and/or exercise. |
| C112845 | Carbohydrate intolerance first diagnosed during pregnancy. Diagnosis from abnormal oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) and abnormal fasting or post-prandial glucose levels. Euglycemia achieved with medication. |
| C112865 | A condition characterized by a temporary imbalance between the oxygen supply and demand of the heart muscle in the newborn. |
| C113143 | Abnormally low levels of thyroid hormones due to a disorder originating within the thyroid gland. |
| C113144 | Abnormally low levels of thyroid hormones due to a disorder originating within the hypothalamic-pituitary axis. |
| C113145 | Overproduction of thyroid hormone due to a disorder originating within the thyroid gland. |
| C113146 | Overproduction of thyroid hormones due to a disorder originating within the hypothalamic-pituitary axis. |
| C113147 | "Severe, transient hyperthyroidism associated with Hashimoto thyroiditis." |
| C113156 | A condition in a newborn characterized by a temporary decrease in right ventricular and/or left ventricular output. |
| C113159 | An inflammatory process affecting the lung parenchyma. It is a milder form of lung inflammation compared to pneumonia. |
| C113169 | "A cluster of closely related metabolic abnormalities associated with insulin resistance that confer an increased risk of the development of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. These abnormalities may include obesity, high blood pressure, abnormal cholesterol levels, proteinuria, and/or polycystic ovary syndrome." |
| C113170 | "Abnormal thyroid function tests, low triiodothyronine with elevated reverse triiodothyronine, in the setting of non-thyroidal illness." |
| C113171 | "A common, self-limiting thyroid disorder seen in preterm infants that is characterized by abnormally low serum levels of thyroxine and free thyroxine with normal serum levels of thyroid stimulating hormone." |
| C113172 | "A hormonal disorder that occurs when the adrenal glands fail to release adequate amounts of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone, 11-deoxycorticosterone), and androgens (dehydroepiandrosterone) to meet physiologic needs, despite release of ACTH from the pituitary." |
| C113210 | Cushing's syndrome due to abnormally high secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. |
| C113214 | Abnormally low levels of parathyroid hormone due to a disorder originating within the parathyroid glands. |
| C113238 | A carcinosarcoma of the uterus characterized by the presence of sarcomatous elements that arise from the tissues of the uterus. |
| C113239 | "A carcinosarcoma of the uterus characterized by the presence of sarcomatous elements composed of tissues that are not found in the uterus (e.g., bone, cartilage, skeletal muscle)." |
| C113335 | Overproduction of parathyroid hormone in response to influence external to the parathyroid glands. |
| C113338 | Occurrence of the first menstrual period in a female before the usual or expected age. |
| C113339 | Abnormally late or absent menarche in a female with normal secondary sexual characteristics. |
| C113340 | "The cessation of menstruation for six months or more in a female that is not pregnant, breastfeeding or menopausal." |
| C113341 | Infrequent menstrual periods. |
| C113347 | Abnormal ovarian or testicular function due to insufficient hormonal stimulation from the hypothalamic-pituitary axis. |
| C113348 | Ovarian or testicular dysfunction associated with high levels of gonadotropins. |
| C113351 | The inability of the ovaries to function. |
| C113352 | Absent or premature cessation of ovarian function due to a pathologic process originating within the ovaries. |
| C113385 | Histologically-confirmed deep attachment of the placenta into the myometrium that does not cross the serosa. |
| C113386 | Histologically-confirmed deep attachment of the placenta into the myometrium and serosa. It may further extend into an adjacent organ such as the bladder. |
| C113387 | A condition in which the placental edge is within 2 cm of but not covering the cervical os. |
| C113395 | Inability to achieve a full feeding volume. |
| C113397 | A condition associated with gastro-esophageal reflux disease that presents in infancy and early childhood and is characterized by spastic torticollis and dystonic body movements. |
| C113400 | A syndrome characterized by progressive kidney failure in a patient with cirrhosis or fulminant liver failure. |
| C113421 | "A disorder observed in a newborn who was exposed to chloramphenicol. Manifestations include hypotension, cyanosis, cardiovascular collapse and/or death." |
| C113422 | "A disorder likely to occur in children and grandchildren of a woman treated with diethylstilbestrol during pregnancy. Manifestations include vaginal adenosis, cervical malformations, vaginal septae, genital tract anomalies or Fallopian tube anomalies causing subsequent fertility problems." |
| C113485 | "A condition in which the offspring of a mother with diabetes predating pregnancy develops congenital malformations that can affect multiple organ systems including the brain and spinal cord, the heart and major vessels, the kidneys, the gut, and skeletal structures." |
| C113609 | "Hepatic necrosis, inflammation, or scarring due to any cause that persists for more than 6 months. Manifestations may include signs and symptoms of cholestasis, portal hypertension, and/or abnormal liver function tests." |
| C113615 | Recurrent episodes of pain localized to the anus or lower rectum which lasts seconds to minutes. There is no pain between episodes. |
| C113664 | An intraductal papillary-mucinous neoplasm of the pancreas that arises from the main pancreatic duct. |
| C113665 | An intraductal papillary-mucinous neoplasm of the pancreas that arises in one of the branches of the main pancreatic duct.  It usually has an indolent behavior. |
| C113667 | An intraductal papillary-mucinous neoplasm of the pancreas that arises primarily from the main pancreatic duct and extends to the branch ducts. |
| C113669 | "A rare systemic and life-threatening infection associated with vaccination with the live attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis, bacillus Calmette-Guerin." |
| C113671 | "A rare, paralytic poliomyelitis associated with the orally administered live attenuated strain of the poliovirus, OPV." |
| C113672 | "A rare systemic and life-threatening infection associated with vaccination with the live attenuated strain of the Varicella-zoster virus, Oka." |
| C113673 | "Coughing, wheezing, or shortness of breath that is triggered by allergens, infection, or other irritants." |
| C113723 | A rare autoimmune disorder in which patients present with overlapping symptoms of systemic scleroderma and polymyositis or dermatomyositis. |
| C113740 | Abnormally high level of fibrinogen in the blood. |
| C113749 | "A self-limiting cutaneous vasculitis that typically presents as a clinical triad of purpura, edema, and fever in children between the ages of four months and two years old. It is usually associated with a recent history of upper respiratory infection and/or antibiotic therapy." |
| C113814 | Diminished production of adrenocortical hormones due to autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. |
| C113824 | A condition which occurs in monozygotic twins in which one of the fetuses supplies the majority of the cardiac output to its co-twin through its umbilical artery. The recipient twin has only rudimentary organs and structure and is not viable. |
| C114130 | "After delivery of neonate, placental retention that requires clinical intervention such as manual extraction, curettage or uterotonic medications." |
| C114281 | Inflammation of the parotid glands. |
| C114282 | "Asymptomatic separation of the uterine wall, usually at the site of a prior uterine scar, that does not include the overlying serosa." |
| C114345 | A hypersensitivity reaction mediated by antibodies formed against cell surface antigens. |
| C114346 | "A hypersensitivity reaction resulting from the deposition of antigen-antibody immune complexes in tissues, which trigger activation of the complement system." |
| C114347 | "A group of chronic, inflammatory childhood diseases characterized by arthritis and enthesitis. This disorder can affect the axial skeleton in late childhood or young adulthood." |
| C114354 | "An autoimmune disorder, similar to systemic lupus erythematosus, that is caused by certain drugs." |
| C114357 | "A group of chronic, inflammatory childhood disorders of unknown etiology that primarily involve joints." |
| C114358 | An idiopathic inflammatory myopathy of childhood resulting in muscle weakness. |
| C114361 | Childhood arthritis typically associated with psoriasis. |
| C114377 | Protrusion of the uterine fundus through the cervix when the placenta fails to detach from the uterus as it exits. |
| C114388 | "Renal failure that occurs postpartum due to any partum problem (hemorrhage, sepsis, preeclampsia)." |
| C114389 | Inflammatory disorder of thyroid gland that occurs postpartum due to any partum problem. |
| C114397 | "The formation of a blood clot in the lumen of a vessel; causes include coagulation disorders, and vascular endothelial injury." |
| C114451 | An infrequent malignant neoplasm that occurs during childhood. |
| C114470 | "Inflammation at the site of insertion of ligaments, tendons, and other fibrous structures into bone." |
| C114471 | "A complication of rheumatic disease that is caused by excessive activation and uncontrolled proliferation of T lymphocytes and well-differentiated macrophages. It is characterized by fever, pancytopenia, liver insufficiency, coagulopathy and neurologic symptoms." |
| C114476 | "An immune response that occurs following re-exposure to an innocuous antigen, and that requires the presence of existing antibodies against that antigen. This response involves the binding of IgE to mast cells, and may worsen with repeated exposures." |
| C114477 | "A proximal renal tubular disorder resulting in diminished reabsorption of phosphate, glucose, amino acids, urate, and low molecular weight proteins." |
| C114483 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis that occurs during childhood. |
| C114541 | An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114560 | L1 acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during childhood. |
| C114562 | L2 acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during childhood. |
| C114574 | Non-T non-B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114576 | Non-T non-B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during childhood. |
| C114579 | "Non-T non-B, CALLA negative acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during childhood." |
| C114580 | "Non-T non-B, CALLA negative acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during adulthood." |
| C114581 | L2 acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114583 | Kidney damage resulting from exposure to drugs. |
| C114585 | Kidney injury caused by calcineurin inhibitor immunosuppressive therapy which may lead to diminished kidney function. |
| C114593 | TdT positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114594 | TdT positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during childhood. |
| C114595 | TdT negative acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114596 | TdT negative acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during childhood. |
| C114598 | A term referring to conventional osteosarcomas which do not have a dominant matrix pattern and contain a mixture of osteoid matrix in combination with chondroid matrix and/or collagen fibers. |
| C114599 | Pre-B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114600 | Pre-B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during childhood. |
| C114656 | A rare endometrial carcinoma characterized by the presence of both malignant glandular and malignant squamous cellular components. |
| C114666 | Inflammation of the bladder resulting in bloody urine. |
| C114667 | The presence of a calculus in the pelvis of the kidney; this is most often composed of mineral salts and proteins. |
| C114688 | Stone(s) within the urinary tract. |
| C114696 | The presence of a calculus in the ureter of the kidney; this is most often composed of mineral salts and proteins. |
| C114722 | An obstruction of a vessel caused by a detached fragment of an indwelling dialysis catheter. |
| C114723 | A local or systemic infection associated with the use of a dialysis catheter. |
| C114724 | A local or systemic infection associated with the use of a hemodialysis catheter. |
| C114725 | A local or systemic infection associated with the use of a peritoneal dialysis catheter. |
| C114726 | Local infection involving the subcutaneously tunneled portion of a dialysis catheter. |
| C114727 | Local infection at the dialysis catheter exit site. |
| C114728 | The presence of bacteria in the blood caused by an infected hemodialysis catheter. |
| C114749 | An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114750 | An undifferentiated high grade pleomorphic sarcoma that arises from the bone and occurs during childhood. |
| C114751 | Infection of the peritoneum related to a peritoneal dialysis catheter. |
| C114752 | A non-infectious inflammation of the peritoneum. |
| C114754 | Narrowing of the lumen of an arteriovenous fistula. |
| C114756 | Partial or complete occlusion of the lumen within an arteriovenous fistula by a thrombus. |
| C114759 | A gliosarcoma that arises from the brain stem and occurs during childhood. |
| C114760 | A mixed glioma that arises from the brain stem and occurs during childhood. |
| C114763 | Partial or complete occlusion of the lumen of an arteriovenous graft by a thrombus. |
| C114766 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder of long-chain fatty-acid oxidation caused by mutations in the CPT2 gene. The disease includes three main types: a lethal neonatal form, a severe infantile hepatocardiomuscular form, and a myopathic form." |
| C114767 | An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the GALK1 gene. The disorder is characterized by an accumulation of galactose and galactitol secondary to the decreased conversion of galactose to galactose-1-phosphate by galactokinase. Its major clinical symptom is the development of cataracts during the first weeks or months of life. |
| C114768 | "A rare autosomal dominant inherited disorder of connective tissue caused by mutations in either the TGFBR1 or TGFBR2 gene. Like Loeys-Dietz syndrome type I the disease is characterized by enlargement of the aorta and other arteries, and arterial tortuosity, but skeletal signs are typically less severe or absent in type 2. Skin abnormalities, such as velvety skin are often present in type 2." |
| C114769 | "A rare autosomal dominant form of diabetes mellitus affecting young people with a positive family history. MODY is a form of monogenic diabetes, resulting from mutations in a single gene. The most common forms are HNF1alpha-MODY (MODY3) and GCK-MODY (MODY2), due to mutations in the HNF1A and GCK genes, respectively." |
| C114770 | Xeroderma pigmentosum caused by bi-allelic mutations in XPC gene. |
| C114771 | Xeroderma pigmentosum caused by bi-allelic mutations in DDB2 gene. |
| C114772 | "Thrombus formation within an apparatus that carries blood outside of the body, such as pheresis, dialysis or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)." |
| C114773 | An oligodendroglioma that arises from the brain and occurs during childhood. |
| C114774 | "A supratentorial embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified that occurs in childhood." |
| C114775 | A rare central nervous system neoplasm with neuroblastic and/or neuronal differentiation that arises from the supratentorial brain and occurs during childhood. It is characterized by the presence of structural rearrangements of FOXR2 gene that result in the activation of the transcription factor FOXR2. |
| C114777 | A germ cell tumor that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114778 | A germ cell tumor that arises within the cranium and occurs during adulthood. |
| C114779 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the central nervous system. |
| C114781 | "A complication occurring during hemodialysis that is thought to be due to a rapid decrease in blood urea nitrogen, and is characterized by an increase in intracranial pressure resulting in nausea, headache, vomiting, restlessness, and/or a decreased level of consciousness." |
| C114782 | An undifferentiated high grade pleomorphic sarcoma that arises from the bone and occurs during adulthood. |
| C114783 | Hodgkin lymphoma that occurs during pregnancy. |
| C114784 | Non-Hodgkin lymphoma that occurs during pregnancy. |
| C114785 | Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114801 | A germ cell tumor that arises from the testis or ovary and occurs during childhood. |
| C114806 | A Hodgkin lymphoma with favorable prognosis that occurs during childhood. |
| C114807 | A Hodgkin lymphoma with favorable prognosis that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114808 | A Hodgkin lymphoma with unfavorable prognosis that occurs during childhood. |
| C114809 | A Hodgkin lymphoma with unfavorable prognosis that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114812 | A pineoblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114819 | A B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during adulthood. It is characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts that carry a translocation between the BCR gene on chromosome 22 and the ABL1 gene on chromosome 9. It results in the production of the p190 kd or p210 kd fusion protein. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome. |
| C114821 | An overproduction of parathyroid hormone that is autonomous and often associated with chronic secondary hyperparathyroidism. |
| C114828 | A melanoma that arises from a mucosal site. |
| C114830 | Abnormally low level of 25-hydroxyvitamin D in the blood. |
| C114831 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the soft tissues from another anatomic site. |
| C114833 | A central nervous system embryonal tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C114836 | The reemergence of childhood central nervous system embryonal tumor after a period of remission. |
| C114837 | Inflammation of the pericardium associated with chronic kidney failure. |
| C114838 | "A sudden immune response occurring after transplantation, directed against donor kidney alloantigens." |
| C114839 | "A sudden onset of T-cell mediated immune response occurring after transplantation, directed against donor kidney alloantigens." |
| C114841 | "A sudden onset of B-cell mediated immune response occurring after transplantation, directed against donor kidney alloantigens." |
| C114842 | Thrombus formation within the arterial or venous system of donor tissue post transplantation. |
| C114844 | Thrombus formation within the arterial or venous system of a donor kidney post transplantation. |
| C114848 | An immediate rejection of transplanted tissue caused by the presence of preformed antibodies to donor human leukocyte antigens. |
| C114852 | "Development of diabetes after transplant, usually associated with calcineurin inhibitor use." |
| C114853 | The need for dialysis within a week of kidney transplant. |
| C114875 | A fetus that does not grow beyond the 10th percentile of conventionally accepted weight for gestational age. |
| C114876 | A fetus that does not grow beyond the 10th percentile of conventionally accepted weight for gestational age and shows evidence of oligohydramnios. |
| C114877 | A fetus that does not grow beyond the 10th percentile of conventionally accepted weight for gestational age and has abnormal Doppler studies. |
| C114878 | A fetus that does not grow beyond the 10th percentile of conventionally accepted weight for gestational age and whose abdominal circumference falls below the tenth percentile. |
| C114899 | "Hyperglycemia in the first month of life due to a genetically determined defect in the structure, secretion and/or function of insulin that resolves spontaneously within nine months of onset." |
| C114900 | A perceived issue with a person's emotional wellbeing. |
| C114902 | "Hyperglycemia in the first month of life due to a genetically determined defect in the structure, secretion and/or function of insulin that does not resolve spontaneously." |
| C114906 | "A hypermetabolic syndrome characterized by tachycardia, palpitations, tremor, weight loss, and moist skin that is caused by the elevation of thyroid hormone levels in the serum of the newborn infant or thyroid-axis receptor activation, most commonly due to transplacental passage of thyroid stimulating globulins." |
| C114907 | A disorder of decreased production of parathyroid hormone by the parathyroid gland in a newborn. It is due to maternal hyperparathyroidism. It may be characterized by hypocalcemic seizures in the first weeks of life. |
| C114909 | "A severe and often fatal form of necrotizing enterocolitis, in which diffuse ischemia, necrosis, and pneumatosis intestinalis are evident in the small and large intestine. Short bowel syndrome is common among survivors." |
| C114923 | An epithelioid hemangioendothelioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114926 | An epithelioid hemangioendothelioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114928 | "Inability to effectively digest or absorb the components of breast milk substitutes. Symptoms may include emesis, abdominal distension or diarrhea." |
| C114929 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114932 | Breast adenocarcinoma that does not respond to hormone therapy. |
| C114933 | Prostate carcinoma that does not respond to hormone therapy. |
| C114940 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the cardiovascular system. |
| C114949 | A Hodgkin lymphoma that has spread to the central nervous system following the initial presentation in another nodal or extranodal site. |
| C114950 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that has spread to the central nervous system following the initial presentation in another nodal or extranodal site. |
| C114951 | A Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the central nervous system. |
| C114956 | The reemergence of a childhood astrocytic tumor after a period of remission. |
| C114960 | "A morphologic defect of an organ, part of an organ, or a larger region of the body that results from the extrinsic breakdown of, or an interference with, an originally normal developmental process." |
| C114963 | A fibrillary astrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114964 | A gemistocytic astrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114966 | A giant cell glioblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114967 | A diffuse astrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114968 | A gliosarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114969 | Gliomatosis cerebri that occurs during childhood. |
| C114970 | A pilomyxoid astrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114971 | A pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114972 | A protoplasmic astrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114973 | An anaplastic oligoastrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114974 | An oligoastrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C114987 | A combined hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114992 | A fibrolamellar carcinoma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C114993 | A hepatocellular pleomorphic carcinoma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C115029 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C115030 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C115031 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C115032 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C115033 | The tumor shows invasion into the capsule. |
| C115034 | The tumor shows metastasis throughout the pleural and/or pericardial spaces or metastasis to distant sites. |
| C115035 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1a, M0); (T1, N1b, M0); (T2, N1b, M0); (T3, N1b, M0); (T4a, N1b, M0). T4a: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor of any size extending beyond the thyroid gland capsule to invade subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus, or recurrent laryngeal nerve. T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland. T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland. T3: T... |
| C115036 | "Stage IVB includes: T4b, Any N, M0. T4b: Very advanced disease. Tumor invades prevertebral fascia or encases carotid artery or mediastinal vessels. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115037 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115038 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1a, M0); (T1, N1b, M0); (T2, N1b, M0); (T3, N1b, M0); (T4a, N1b, M0). T4a: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor of any size extending beyond the thyroid gland capsule to invade subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus, or recurrent laryngeal nerve. T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland. T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland. T3: T... |
| C115039 | "Stage IVB includes: T4b, Any N, M0. T4b: Very advanced disease. Tumor invades prevertebral fascia or encases carotid artery or mediastinal vessels. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115040 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115041 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115042 | "Stage IIB includes: T4a, N0, M0. T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115043 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0. T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115044 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115045 | "Stage IIB includes: T4a, N0, M0. T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115046 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0. T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115047 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0). T1: Tumor invades submucosa. T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes. N1c: Tumor deposit(s) in the subserosa, mesentery, or nonperitonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues without regional lymph node metastasis. N2a: Metastasis in 4-6 regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115048 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0). T1: Tumor invades submucosa. T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum. N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes. N1c: Tumor deposit(s) in the subserosa, mesentery, or nonperitonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues without regional lymph node metastasis. N2a: Metastasis in... |
| C115049 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum. T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes. N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes. N2a: Metastasis in 4-6 regional lymph nodes. N2b: Metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No ... |
| C115050 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0). T1: Tumor invades submucosa. T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes. N1c: Tumor deposit(s) in the subserosa, mesentery, or nonperitonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues without regional lymph node metastasis. N2a: Metastasis in 4-6 regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115051 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0). T1: Tumor invades submucosa. T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum. N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes. N1c: Tumor deposit(s) in the subserosa, mesentery, or nonperitonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues without regional lymph node metastasis. N2a: Metastasis in... |
| C115052 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum. T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes. N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes. N2a: Metastasis in 4-6 regional lymph nodes. N2b: Metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No ... |
| C115053 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, Any N, M1a. M1a: Metastasis confined to one organ or site (e.g., liver, lung, ovary, nonregional node). (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115054 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b. M1b: Metastases in more than one organ/site or the peritoneum. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115055 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, Any N, M1a. M1a: Metastasis confined to one organ or site (e.g., liver, lung, ovary, nonregional node). (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115056 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b. M1b: Metastases in more than one organ/site or the peritoneum. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115057 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C115058 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C115059 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C115060 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0);. IVB (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a (lip): Tumor invades through cortical bone, inferior alveolar nerve, floor of mouth, or skin of face, i.e., chin or nose. T4a (oral cavity): Tumor invades adjacent structures (e.g., through cortical bone, into deep [extrinsic] muscles of tongue, maxillary sinus, skin of face). T4b: Tumor invades masticator space, pt... |
| C115061 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Lip and oral cavity cancer with moderately advanced local disease. Lip: Tumor invades through cortical bone, inferior alveolar nerve, floor of mouth, or skin of face, i.e., chin or nose. Oral cavity: Tumor invades adjacent structures only (e.g., through cortical bone [mandible or maxilla] into deep [extrinsic] muscle of tongue [genioglossus, hyoglossus, palatoglossus, and styloglo... |
| C115062 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0). T4b: Lip and oral cavity cancer with very advanced local disease. Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases internal carotid artery. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115063 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115070 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Maxillary sinus: Tumor limited to the maxillary sinus mucosa with no erosion or destruction of bone.  Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Tumor restricted to any one subsite, with or without bony invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C115071 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Maxillary sinus: Tumor causing bone erosion or destruction including extension into the hard palate and/or middle nasal meatus, except extension to posterior wall of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plates.  Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Tumor invading two subsites in a single region or extending to involve an adjacent region within the nasoethmoidal complex, with or without bony invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.... |
| C115072 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Maxillary sinus: Tumor invading any of the following: bone of the posterior wall of maxillary sinus, subcutaneous tissues, floor or medial wall of orbit, pterygoid fossa, or ethmoid sinuses. Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Tumor invading the medial wall or floor of the orbit, maxillary sinus, palate, or cribriform plate.  T1: Maxillary sinus: Tumor limited to the maxillary sinus mucosa with no erosion or destru... |
| C115073 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4a: Maxillary sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades anterior orbital contents, skin of cheek, pterygoid plates, infratemporal fossa, cribriform plate, sphenoid or frontal sinuses.  Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades any of the following: anterior orbita... |
| C115074 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); T4a: Maxillary sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades anterior orbital contents, skin of cheek, pterygoid plates, infratemporal fossa, cribriform plate, sphenoid or frontal sinuses.  Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades any of the following: anterior orbital contents, skin of nose or cheek, minimal extension to anterior crani... |
| C115075 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T4b: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades any of the following: orbital apex, dura, brain, middle cranial fossa, cranial nerves other than maxillary division of trigeminal nerve, nasopharynx, or clivus.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph node, more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115076 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115086 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C115087 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C115088 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 centimeters in greatest dimension or extension to lingual surface of epiglottis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115089 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Tumor with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades the larynx, extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, or mandible.  Mucosal extension to lingual surface of epiglottis from primary tumors of the base of the tongue and vallecula does not constitute invasion of larynx. T1: Tumor 2 cm or le... |
| C115090 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Tumor with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades the larynx, extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, or mandible.  Mucosal extension to lingual surface of epiglottis from primary tumors of the base of the tongue and vallecula does not constitute invasion of larynx. T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more t... |
| C115091 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T4b: Tumor with very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades lateral pterygoid muscle, pterygoid plates, lateral nasopharynx, or skull base or encases carotid artery. N3: Tumor with metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115092 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115093 | The reemergence of oropharyngeal undifferentiated carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C115094 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0.  T3: Microscopically confirmed peritoneal tumor outside pelvis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C115095 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0.  T3a: Microscopic peritoneal tumor beyond pelvis (no macroscopic tumor). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C115096 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0.  T3b: Macroscopic peritoneal tumor beyond pelvis 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C115097 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T3c, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T3c: Peritoneal tumor beyond pelvis more than 2cm in greatest dimension and/or regional lymph node metastasis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C115098 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis (excludes peritoneal metastasis). (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C115117 | "Stage IA includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: T1, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Any. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1.  Tumor location: Location of the primary cancer site is defined by the position of the upper (proximal) edge of the tumor in the esophagus.  For adenocarcinoma: T1, N0, M0, G1-2, X. T1: Tumor ... |
| C115118 | "Stage IB includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: (T1, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Any); (T2-3, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Lower, X). T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1.  G2: Moderately differentiated.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  Tumor locatio... |
| C115119 | "Stage IIIA includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: (T1-2, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T3, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4a, N0, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any). T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Resectable tumor invading pleura, pericardium, or diaphragm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 3-6 region... |
| C115120 | "Stage IIIB includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: T3, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  Tumor location: Location of the primary cancer site is defined by the position of the upper (proximal) edge of the tumor in the esophagus. For adenocarcinoma: T3, N2, M0, Any G. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C115121 | "Stage IIIC includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: (T4a, N1-2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4b, Any N, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any).  T4a: Resectable tumor invading pleura, pericardium, or diaphragm. T4b: Unresectable tumor invading other adjacent structures, such as aorta, vertebral body, trachea, etc. N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  N3: Metastasis in seven or more regional lymph ... |
| C115124 | A self-resolving eye condition characterized by fluid accumulation under the macula in the retina. It results from leakage of fluid from the choroid. It usually affects one eye only and the vast majority of patients regain full vision. |
| C115130 | Tumor involves adnexa.  No regional lymph node or distant metastasis. |
| C115131 | Tumor involves other pelvic tissues.  No regional lymph node or distant metastasis. |
| C115132 | "A staging classification system for hepatocellular carcinoma that uses variables related to tumor stage, liver functional status, physical status, and cancer-related symptoms, and links the stages with a treatment algorithm. (HPB (Oxford) 2005; 7(1):35-41)" |
| C115133 | Very early hepatocellular carcinoma. Patients are optimal candidates for resection. (HPB (Oxford) 2005; 7(1):35-41) |
| C115135 | "Early hepatocellular carcinoma.  Patients are candidates for radical therapies (resection, liver transplantation, or percutaneous treatments). (HPB (Oxford) 2005; 7(1):35-41)" |
| C115136 | Intermediate hepatocellular carcinoma.  Patients may benefit from chemoembolization. (HPB (Oxford) 2005; 7(1):35-41) |
| C115137 | Advanced hepatocellular carcinoma.  Patients may receive new agents in the setting of randomized controlled trials. (HPB (Oxford) 2005; 7(1):35-41) |
| C115138 | End-stage hepatocellular carcinoma.  Patients will receive symptomatic treatment. (HPB (Oxford) 2005; 7(1):35-41) |
| C115139 | Very early hepatocellular carcinoma. Patients are optimal candidates for resection. (HPB (Oxford) 2005; 7(1):35-41) |
| C115140 | "Early hepatocellular carcinoma.  Patients are candidates for radical therapies (resection, liver transplantation, or percutaneous treatments). (HPB (Oxford) 2005; 7(1):35-41)" |
| C115141 | Intermediate hepatocellular carcinoma.  Patients may benefit from chemoembolization. (HPB (Oxford) 2005; 7(1):35-41) |
| C115143 | Advanced hepatocellular carcinoma.  Patients may receive new agents in the setting of randomized controlled trials. (HPB (Oxford) 2005; 7(1):35-41) |
| C115144 | End-stage hepatocellular carcinoma.  Patients will receive symptomatic treatment. (HPB (Oxford) 2005; 7(1):35-41) |
| C115149 | "An infectious process caused by adenovirus. The virus may cause respiratory illness, conjunctivitis, gastroenteritis, and cystitis." |
| C115150 | Grade III lymphomatoid granulomatosis that occurs in adulthood. |
| C115153 | Myelodysplastic syndrome that occurs in adulthood. |
| C115154 | Nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma that occurs in adulthood. |
| C115163 | Pneumonia that is not acquired in a hospital or long-term care facility setting. |
| C115164 | An infection acquired in a hospital or other healthcare setting. |
| C115165 | Inflammation of the salivary glands. |
| C115192 | An ependymal tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C115195 | A mixed glioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C115196 | A pineal parenchymal cell neoplasm that occurs during childhood. |
| C115200 | Castleman disease that presents with localized lymphadenopathy. |
| C115201 | A cerebellar anaplastic astrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C115202 | A cerebral anaplastic astrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C115203 | "An embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes, C19MC-altered that occurs during childhood." |
| C115204 | Grade III lymphomatoid granulomatosis that occurs during childhood. |
| C115207 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutation in the c-Mpl gene.  It is characterized by thrombocytopenia and absence of megakaryocytes.  It presents with bleeding in the first month of life." |
| C115210 | A carcinoma that arises from the distal part of the urethra. |
| C115211 | Germ cell tumor that arises from the testis and is diagnosed in at least two relatives. |
| C115212 | Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia in a patient who has at least one first degree relative with either Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia or another B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder. |
| C115221 | A coagulation disorder characterized by a tendency for excessive bleeding. |
| C115225 | Genetic inheritance of neuroblastoma caused by mutations in the ALK or PHOX2B genes.  Familial neuroblastomas have a higher incidence of multiple primary tumors and are diagnosed at an earlier age. |
| C115245 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G1 that has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C115248 | A bacterial infection that is caused by Staphylococcus aureus that is not susceptible to methicillin. |
| C115250 | A mixed glioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C115253 | A melanocytic neoplasm that arises from the leptomeninges and occurs during adulthood. |
| C115263 | A myxopapillary ependymoma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C115292 | A soft tissue sarcoma that occurs during childhood and is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C115297 | Pneumonia acquired during a hospital stay. |
| C115326 | "The most severe syndrome in the spectrum of single, large-scale mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) deletions (SLSMDs), usually presenting shortly after birth with sideroblastic anemia. The condition is often associated with exocrine pancreas insufficiency and multi-system dysfunction including diabetes mellitus, cortisol deficiency, hypothyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, and growth hormone deficiency. Commonly associated clinical findings include the following: failure to thrive, hypotonia, ptosis, oph... |
| C115327 | A pineal gland astrocytoma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C115334 | A carcinoma that arises from the proximal part of the urethra. |
| C115339 | Injury of the retina following exposure to radiation.  The retinal injury results from occlusive microangiopathy caused by endothelial cell loss. |
| C115349 | The reemergence of grade III lymphomatoid granulomatosis in adulthood after a period of remission. |
| C115351 | The reemergence of undifferentiated high grade pleomorphic sarcoma of bone in adulthood after a period of remission. |
| C115352 | The reemergence of borderline ovarian epithelial tumor after a period of remission. |
| C115356 | The reemergence of anaplastic astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115357 | The reemergence of anaplastic large cell lymphoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115358 | The reemergence of anaplastic oligoastrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115359 | The reemergence of anaplastic oligodendroglioma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115360 | The reemergence of diffuse astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115361 | The reemergence of fibrillary astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115362 | The reemergence of gemistocytic astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115363 | The reemergence of giant cell glioblastoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115364 | The reemergence of glioblastoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115365 | The reemergence of gliosarcoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115366 | The reemergence of gliomatosis cerebri in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115367 | The reemergence of grade III lymphomatoid granulomatosis in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115368 | The reemergence of undifferentiated high grade pleomorphic sarcoma of bone in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115369 | The reemergence of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115370 | The reemergence of oligoastrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115371 | The reemergence of oligodendroglioma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115372 | The reemergence of pilocytic astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115373 | The reemergence of pilomyxoid astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115374 | The reemergence of pineoblastoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115375 | The reemergence of pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115376 | The reemergence of protoplasmic astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115380 | The reemergence of subependymal giant cell astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115381 | "The reemergence of supratentorial embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified in childhood after a period of remission." |
| C115384 | The reemergence of olfactory neuroblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C115385 | The reemergence of malignant extragonadal germ cell tumor after a period of remission. |
| C115427 | The reemergence of a malignant extragonadal nongerminomatous germ cell tumor after a period of remission. |
| C115428 | The reemergence of extragonadal seminoma after a period of remission. |
| C115429 | The reemergence of fallopian tube carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C115430 | The reemergence of grade I lymphomatoid granulomatosis after a period of remission. |
| C115431 | The reemergence of grade II lymphomatoid granulomatosis after a period of remission. |
| C115432 | The reemergence of inverted Schneiderian papilloma after a period of remission. |
| C115433 | The reemergence of pancreatic neuroendocrine carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C115439 | The reemergence of mycosis fungoides/Sezary syndrome after a period of remission. |
| C115440 | The reemergence of Merkel cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C115441 | The reemergence of primary peritoneal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C115442 | The reemergence of lip and oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C115443 | The reemergence of nasal cavity and paranasal sinus squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C115444 | The reemergence of combined thymus epithelial neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C115445 | The reemergence of renal neoplasm in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C115458 | Hodgkin lymphoma that occurs during childhood and is resistant to treatment. |
| C115460 | Slowly progressive systemic mastocytosis with uncertain prognosis. It is characterized by organomegaly and absence of aggressive disease. |
| C115623 | A subependymoma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C115763 | Accumulation of iron in internal organs that results from repeated blood transfusions. |
| C115787 | Shunting of blood flow from the arterial to the venous side of a hemodialysis access. |
| C115965 | Inflammation of the mucous membranes. |
| C115966 | Invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder which is associated with the presence of in situ or infiltrating urethral carcinoma. |
| C115967 | A protrusion of necrotic tissue through the abdominal wall under the skin near the umbilicus. |
| C115988 | Infection in the first month of life caused by the Herpes simplex virus. |
| C115992 | An acute infection of the anterior portion of the eyelid and surrounding tissues. |
| C115993 | Inflammation of the retina. |
| C115997 | An undifferentiated high grade pleomorphic sarcoma of bone that occurs in adulthood and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C115998 | An undifferentiated high grade pleomorphic sarcoma of bone that occurs in childhood and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C116003 | Inflammation of the throat due to Streptococcus pyogenes. |
| C116006 | Inflammation of the tonsillar tissue. |
| C116007 | Inflammation of the epiglottis. |
| C116008 | Inflammation of the umbilical cord stump in newborns. |
| C116115 | The formation of a blood clot of a vessel or heart chamber after and due to the placement of a stent. |
| C116313 | A condition characterized by cardiorespiratory and neurological depression following birth. |
| C116316 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. Histologically it resembles intestinal adenocarcinoma. It is associated with lengthy occupational exposure to dust. |
| C116317 | A very rare small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the kidney. |
| C116318 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the nose and paranasal sinuses and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C116319 | "A rare chromosomal disorder characterized by trisomy of chromosome 14 in some cells in the body.  It manifests with intrauterine growth retardation, craniofacial abnormalities, failure to thrive, psychomotor delays, and mental retardation." |
| C116333 | "A transient condition that can occur following influenza vaccination that is characterized by bilateral conjunctivitis, facial edema, and upper respiratory symptoms." |
| C116342 | "A grade I or grade II astrocytoma. This category includes pilocytic astrocytoma (grade I), subependymal giant cell astrocytoma (grade I), and diffuse astrocytoma (grade II)." |
| C116343 | A disorder of central nervous system etiology characterized by excessive sleepiness during the daytime. |
| C116345 | "A rapidly progressive autoimmune disorder of the peripheral nervous system characterized by limb paresthesias, areflexia, and generalized muscle weakness or paralysis that often begins in the legs and spreads to the arms, torso, and face." |
| C116347 | An abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricles of the brain that occurs as a consequence of an obstruction at any location within the ventricular system that prevents cerebrospinal fluid flowing into the subarachnoid space. |
| C116359 | Raynaud phenomenon associated with an underlying autoimmune disorder. |
| C116360 | Raynaud phenomenon without a known underlying autoimmune disorder. |
| C116361 | "A childhood disorder characterized by difficulty initiating and maintaining sleep due to negative sleep associations, refusal to go to bed, and/or repeated attempts to delay bedtime." |
| C116362 | "A neurological syndrome characterized by distorted perceptions of shape, loss of sense of time, and visual, auditory, and tactile hallucinations." |
| C116363 | "An autoimmune microvascular disease that is characterized by the clinical triad of encephalopathy, branch retinal artery occlusions, and hearing loss." |
| C116364 | "A hearing disorder characterized by impaired transmission of signals through the auditory nerve, resulting in mild to severe hearing loss and poor speech perception." |
| C116365 | Hearing loss in the absence of auditory system pathology. |
| C116366 | "A disorder in which an individual has an abnormally low noise tolerance, and increased sensitivity to sounds." |
| C116367 | "Bilateral hearing loss caused by progressive degeneration of cochlear structures and central auditory pathways, typically associated with the aging process." |
| C116378 | "A postoperative syndrome, usually presenting after midline posterior fossa tumor resection, that involves a variety of signs and symptoms including aphasia, mutism or speech disturbances, dysphagia, mobility problems, cranial nerve palsies and emotional instability." |
| C116379 | "A syndrome, usually presenting after midline posterior fossa tumor resection, which is characterized by abnormalities of speech, behavioral or affective disturbances, and diffuse cerebellar dysfunction." |
| C116380 | "A congenital autoinflammatory disorder that presents within a few days of birth and is characterized by a clinical triad of skin rash, chronic meningitis, and joint pain with recurrent fever and inflammation." |
| C116381 | Inflammation of a nerve. |
| C116382 | Abnormal increase of cerebrospinal fluid in the subdural space of the brain. |
| C116383 | An abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricles of the brain that occurs as a later sequela of an intraventricular or subarachnoid hemorrhage. |
| C116384 | An abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricles of the brain that occurs as a consequence of a central nervous system inflammation. |
| C116538 | "A neurological disorder of childhood characterized by partial seizures consisting of twitching, numbness, or tingling of the face or tongue that often progress to secondary generalized seizures." |
| C116552 | "A neurological disorder characterized by recurring seizures presenting within the first three months of life, progressive cerebral dysfunction, and an EEG pattern of periods of low electrical brain activity interspersed with bursts of high spiky activity." |
| C116573 | "A severe form of epilepsy that presents in early childhood and is characterized by frequent, prolonged febrile or myoclonic seizures that may progress to status epilepticus and poor development of language, motor, and socialization skills." |
| C116593 | A neurologic disorder characterized by frequently recurring myoclonic seizures and other seizure types presenting within the first months of life. |
| C116599 | Paralysis affecting corresponding parts on both sides of the body. |
| C116601 | "Abnormally late development of the coordination of the muscles, bones, and/or nerves that produces whole body and large muscle group movements." |
| C116602 | Delayed acquisition of age appropriate motor milestones that produce small and precise movements. |
| C116708 | A syndrome of generalized poor muscle tone and muscle weakness presenting in a newborn infant. |
| C116715 | Ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke resulting from cerebral venous thrombosis. |
| C116718 | "A genetic disorder that usually presents in early childhood and is characterized by muscle contractions in a foot, leg, or arm that gradually spreads to other body regions." |
| C116719 | "A genetic disorder in females that presents in early childhood and is responsive to dopamine. It is characterized by clubfeet and Parkinsonian symptoms that may progress from lower to upper extremities witha diurnal pattern, and involuntary muscle contractions and other uncontrolled movements in the lower limbs that worsen with excercise and improve with rest." |
| C116757 | "Neurological conditions resulting in abnormal voluntary or involuntary movement, which may impact the speed, fluency, quality and ease of movement." |
| C116766 | Tics that are secondary to an identifiable cause. |
| C116767 | A neurological disorder presenting in childhood that is characterized by motor and/or phonic tics that occur daily or nearly daily for one to twelve months and are not attributed to an identifiable cause. |
| C116768 | "A neurological disorder presenting in childhood that is characterized by either motor or phonic tics, but not both, that occur daily or nearly daily for at least a year and are not attributed to an identifiable cause." |
| C116771 | "A benign, self-limited eruption of vesicles, pustules and macules seen in newborns. The fluid-filled lesions typically rupture and resolve within 48 hours while the macular lesions may persist for months." |
| C116774 | "A condition of the newborn characterized by the destruction of red blood cells initiated by the transmission of antibodies from a mother to the child via the placenta against the D antigen, the most common Rhesus factor." |
| C116776 | An autoimmune disorder which does not meet classification criteria used to establish the presence of other well-defined connective tissue diseases. |
| C116778 | "A group of inflammatory rheumatic diseases associated with arthritis and enthesitis, and often involving the axial skeleton. The most common form of spondyloarthritis is ankylosing spondylitis. Other forms include axial spondyloarthritis, peripheral spondyloarthritis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis/spondylitis and enteropathic arthritis/spondylitis." |
| C116780 | "A type of localized scleroderma characterized by a long strip of indurated skin, which is typically found unilaterally on an arm or leg, and sometimes on the forehead or trunk. This disorder often affects the tissues beneath the skin, causing damage to bones, muscle or other organs. It can limit movement, alter growth, and disfigure the affected area." |
| C116781 | "A type of linear scleroderma characterized by a linear, colorless, atrophied band across the forehead or scalp. This disorder can affect the tissues under or near the lesion including brain, bone and eyes." |
| C116782 | "A type of morphea characterized by four or more plaques found in two or more anatomic locations. The plaques are indurated, generally well-delineated, and may include muscle atrophy in affected areas; there is no visceral involvement." |
| C116783 | "A benign, self-limited eruption of vesicles, pustules, papules and macules seen in newborns. An eosinophilic infiltrate can be isolated suggesting an immune-mediated reaction in the skin." |
| C116784 | "A type of morphea in which the lesions are circular or ovoid, and may be superficial or deep. The superficial lesions can have an indurated, waxy, ivory colored center with surrounding erythema or violaceous color during the active stage. Deep lesions can be sclerotic and depressed from underlying atrophy, and may show minimal skin color changes. When there are several (greater than or equal to 4), larger (greater than 3cm) lesions on two or more body areas this is classified as ""general... |
| C116785 | "A rare, aggressive form of morphea characterized by sclerosis of the dermis, fascia, and muscle over large parts of the body, resulting in contractures and immobility." |
| C116786 | The presence of more than one variant of morphea in a single patient. |
| C116787 | Localized scleroderma presenting before the age of eighteen. |
| C116789 | A condition in which there are visceral manifestations of systemic sclerosis without any cutaneous findings. |
| C116791 | "A variant of systemic scleroderma characterized by sclerosis of the skin, Raynaud phenomenon, and organ involvement, including pulmonary fibrosis, renal disease, and gastrointestinal tract involvement." |
| C116793 | Infection of an infant from birth to less than seven days of life caused by Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae) from a colonized mother. |
| C116794 | "An autoinflammatory disease caused by a NOD2 gene mutation, usually presenting in children younger than age four, and characterized by granulomatous dermatitis, arthritis with synovitis, and uveitis." |
| C116795 | Infection of an infant from seven days to three months of life caused by Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae). |
| C116796 | An umbrella term for diseases which have chronic muscle inflammation and weakness of unknown etiology. The types of idiopathic inflammatory myopathy are further defined by either clinicopathologic criteria or by the presence of certain autoantibodies. |
| C116797 | A rare form of juvenile dermatomyositis that manifests with characteristic cutaneous findings for at least six months in the absence of any detectable muscle involvement. |
| C116798 | "Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) diagnosed in individuals under the age of eighteen. Children frequently have multi-organ involvement and acute disease onset. Symptoms include fever, arthritis, skin lesions, anemia, and fatigue." |
| C116799 | "An infection, characterized by the rash of chickenpox or shingles, that is caused by the varicella-zoster virus transmitted directly from the mother to the fetus or neonate during late pregnancy or childbirth." |
| C116800 | "A condition, whose clinical manifestations include intrauterine growth restriction, scarring cicatricial lesion of the limbs, abnormalities of the limbs, microcephaly, chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cataracts, cortical atrophy, seizures, and evidence of damage to the autonomic nervous system, that is caused by fetal exposure to the varicella zoster virus during the first trimester of pregnancy." |
| C116801 | "An autoimmune, connective tissue disorder in which the patient exhibits features from two or more diseases. These typically include systemic sclerosis, dermatomyositis, polymyositis, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and Sjogren syndrome; in pediatrics the respective pediatric entities are encountered." |
| C116802 | An infectious disorder of newborn infants that is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response most commonly caused by bacteria. |
| C116803 | An infectious disorder of newborn infants that is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response within 72 hours of life and is most commonly caused by bacteria. |
| C116805 | An infectious disorder of newborn infants that is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response beyond 72 hours of life and is most commonly caused by bacteria. |
| C116806 | A bacterial infection by Listeria monocytogenes in a newborn infant up to 28 days old. |
| C116807 | A bacterial infection by Listeria monocytogenes that is present at birth. |
| C116808 | A bacterial infection by Listeria monocytogenes in a sterile body compartment. |
| C116809 | A bacterial infection by Listeria monocytogenes in two or more non-contiguous sterile body compartments. |
| C116810 | A fungal infection by any of the Candida species in a newborn infant up to 28 days old. |
| C116811 | A fungal infection by any of the Candida species that is present at birth. |
| C116812 | A fungal infection by any of the Candida species in two or more non-contiguous sterile body compartments. |
| C116813 | A fungal infection by any of the Candida species in a sterile body compartment. |
| C116814 | A syndrome of generalized rigidity with muscle spasms and seizures in the neonatal period resulting from Clostridium tetani toxin production. |
| C116815 | Inflammation of the conjunctiva in a newborn due to chemical or infectious causes. Aseptic conjunctivitis is often related to the use of prophylactic medications for infectious conjunctivitis. Septic conjunctivitis is related to perinatal exposure to microorganisms. |
| C116816 | Inflammation of the conjunctiva in a newborn due to Neisseria gonorrhoeae which was acquired during labor and delivery. |
| C116817 | Inflammation of the conjunctiva in a newborn due to Chlamydia trachomatis which was acquired during labor and delivery. |
| C116818 | Inflammation of the conjunctiva in a newborn due to chemical irritation which was acquired postnatally from iatrogenic causes. |
| C116819 | Inflammation of the lacrimal sac in a newborn due to blocked drainage of tears or infection. |
| C116900 | A condition characterized by reduced or absent movement of the ipsilateral diaphragm as a consequence of an injury to the phrenic nerve or its origin in cervical roots 3 through 5 sustained during the birthing process. |
| C116901 | A condition characterized by reduced or absent movement of the ipsilateral face as a consequence of an injury to the seventh cranial nerve sustained during the birthing process. |
| C116902 | A condition characterized by reduced or absent movement of the ipsilateral face as a consequence of an injury to the seventh cranial nerve that has occurred after birth. |
| C116903 | A type of cerebral palsy characterized by increased muscle tone. |
| C116904 | A type of spastic cerebral palsy characterized by increased muscle tone of all four extremities. |
| C116905 | A type of spastic cerebral palsy characterized by increased muscle tone of the arm and leg on the same side of the body. |
| C116906 | A type of cerebral palsy characterized by decreased muscle tone. |
| C116915 | "A malignant tumor that originates from myeloid or lymphoid cells i.e., leukemias and lymphomas." |
| C116916 | "A rare disorder of unknown etiology, which is characterized by slowly progressive, unilateral facial atrophy of the skin, soft tissue, muscles, and underlying bony structures. Neurological, ocular, and oral symptoms are also often seen, including migraines, trigeminal neuralgia, enophthalmos, and dental and gingival abnormalities." |
| C116917 | "An autoinflammatory syndrome of childhood which often resolves in adolescence, and is characterized by periodic fever, aphthous stomatitis, pharyngitis, and cervical adenitis. The fever cycle generally occurs every three to five weeks, and during the interim periods the child appears healthy; diagnosis is exclusionary." |
| C116919 | "Inflammation that includes the brain, spinal cord and surrounding tissues secondary to systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE); it is associated with neurological and/or psychiatric features." |
| C116926 | "A subtype of Guillain-Barre syndrome that targets the myelin sheath, and is characterized by progressive weakness, distal paresthesia and autonomic dysfunction." |
| C116927 | "A subtype of Guillain-Barre syndrome that targets sensory motor axons, and is characterized by acute onset of quadriparesis, distal sensory loss, areflexia, and respiratory insufficiency." |
| C116929 | "A subtype of Guillain-Barre syndrome that targets motor axons, and is characterized by symmetric limb weakness, diffuse areflexia, facial and oropharyngeal muscle weakness, and respiratory insufficiency." |
| C116933 | A developmental brain abnormality characterized by atypical migration of neurons during cortical development. |
| C116936 | A developmental brain abnormality characterized by an excessive amount of small convolutions on the surface of the brain and cognitive dysfunction. |
| C116942 | "Failure to meet, or late achievement of developmental milestones." |
| C116943 | "Failure to meet, or late achievement of motor development milestones." |
| C116955 | "Emaciation in the setting of normal linear growth and intellectual development, which is usually associated with neoplasms involving the anterior hypothalamus in infancy or early childhood." |
| C116958 | "An autoimmune process characterized by the clinical triad of ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and areflexia." |
| C116973 | "Infection caused by bacterial overgrowth in the vagina. Most affected women are asymptomatic. When symptoms occur, they include foul-smelling vaginal discharge, vaginal itching, and burning. Risk factors include sexual activity with multiple partners and the use of vaginal douches and intrauterine devices. Up to a third of cases resolve without treatment. Antibiotic treatment is recommended when symptoms are present and for women that are pregnant at the time of infection." |
| C116985 | Sjogren syndrome without a concomitant systemic autoimmune disorder. |
| C116986 | "Sjogren syndrome that occurs with another systemic autoimmune disorder, such as systemic lupus erythematosus or rheumatoid arthritis." |
| C116994 | "A hypercoaguable state that results from the presence of the immunoglobulin known as Lupus Anticoagulant. The antibody interacts with cell membrane phospholipids, causing increased aggregation and adhesion of platelets, which causes increased clot formation. Though the majority of patients who test positive for lupus anticoagulant do not have lupus, those individuals afflicted with lupus have a higher probability of developing the antibody." |
| C117004 | A migraine disorder characterized by episodes that occur in the absence of preceding focal neurological symptoms. |
| C117005 | A migraine disorder characterized by episodes that are preceded by focal neurological symptoms. |
| C117007 | A disorder of the nervous system related to a vascular etiology. |
| C117009 | A migraine disorder characterized by individual and family history of aura that includes motor weakness. |
| C117011 | A migraine disorder characterized by an aura that includes motor weakness and the absence of family history. |
| C117013 | A migraine disorder characterized by episodes that are preceded by focal neurological symptoms originating in the brainstem. |
| C117015 | "Episodes of migraine occurring on 15 or more days per month, for more than three months." |
| C117022 | An episode of migraine that persists for more than 72 hours. |
| C117024 | Migraine associated with an ischemic brain lesion. |
| C117074 | "A headache disorder characterized by episodes of unilateral, short lasting pain and associated ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms." |
| C117077 | "A headache disorder that is characterized by periodic severe, unilateral orbital, supraorbital, and/or temporal pain, and is associated with ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms." |
| C117103 | Systemic sclerosis that is diagnosed in children. Juvenile systemic sclerosis is more likely to be of the overlap variant and presents with musculoskeletal involvement. |
| C117104 | A manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus with a widespread vesiculobullous eruption. |
| C117111 | "A dermatologic manifestation of lupus involving erythematous, scaly patches or plaques, generally appearing on the upper back, chest, and arms, and often following sun exposure. It most often resolves without scarring." |
| C117112 | A dermatologic manifestation of lupus involving edematous papules and plaques that are typically found on sun-exposed areas of the body. It most often resolves without scarring or pigmentation changes. |
| C117115 | "A group of genetic disorders that result from the inability to produce or use an enzyme required to oxidize fatty acids, resulting in an inability to generate energy from fatty acid sources." |
| C117117 | "A genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the gene that encodes the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, resulting in a severe form of phenylketonuria." |
| C117254 | "An inherited metabolic disorder that affects the metabolism of the spinhgolipids. Representative examples include Gaucher disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Niemann-Pick disease." |
| C117273 | "A rare, genetic disorder in which symptoms are generally secondary to the abnormal location of the organs within the thoracic, abdominal, or peritoneal cavities. Anatomic and functional problems can include cardiac defects, intestinal malrotation leading to volvulus, biliary atresia, and various defects of the central nervous system, urinary tract, and skeleton." |
| C117287 | "Episodes of abrupt awakening associated with screaming, agitation and hyperarousal." |
| C117295 | "A form of vasculitis that involves small to medium size arteries of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. The disorder manifests with tender subcutaneous nodules, livedo reticularis, cutaneous ulcers and necrosis; while internal organ involvement is typically spared, extra-cutaneous symptoms may be present." |
| C117296 | A rare form of myositis that affects only the orbital muscles. |
| C117297 | "Chronic, diffuse, non-inflammatory musculoskeletal pain disorder associated with fatigue and sleep disturbance that can occur in childhood and adolescence. Tender points are not necessary to make the diagnosis, but if present may be less numerous than found in adults." |
| C117307 | A group of genetically-determined conditions characterized by a wide spectrum of seizure types occurring in otherwise healthy newborn infants that start during the first week of life and spontaneously disappear between the first and twelfth months of life. |
| C117308 | A condition characterized as a temporary autoimmune neuromuscular disease leading to fluctuating muscle weakness and fatigue in a newborn infant. |
| C117320 | "A focus of necrotic placental parenchyma with clearly visible outlines of necrotic villous structures and absence of any hyalinization and fibrosis, which is frequently 1-2 days of duration." |
| C117321 | "A focus of necrotic placental parenchyma with moderate hyalinization and fibrosis with partial absence of the necrotic chorionic villi, which is frequently 3-5 days of duration." |
| C117322 | "A focus of necrotic placental parenchyma with marked hyalinization and fibrosis with complete absence of the necrotic chorionic villi, which is frequently more than 7 days of duration." |
| C117323 | A ring of karyorrhectic debris that may exhibit dystrophic mineralization and/or identifiable fetal neutrophil infiltrate in Wharton's jelly that is oriented towards the amniotic surface. The cord has a denser ring externally and a fainter ring centrally. |
| C117324 | A neutrophilic infiltrate arising from fetal vessels in the chorionic plate and oriented towards the amniotic cavity. |
| C117325 | A neutrophilic infiltrate arising from fetal vessels of the umbilical cord into the umbilical vessel wall and oriented towards the amniotic cavity. |
| C117984 | "An infectious disorder that occurs during infancy, childhood, or adolescence." |
| C118172 | Urination during sleep. |
| C118188 | Eating during sleep. |
| C118189 | Excessive sexual behavior. |
| C118190 | A condition in which the failure to establish healthy bonds with caregivers in early childhood leads to lifelong impairment of social interactions. |
| C118200 | Reversion to an earlier stage of development. |
| C118233 | A blistering disorder characterized by linear deposition of IgA at the dermoepidermal junction. |
| C118240 | Fevers of unknown etiology recurring over months or years. |
| C118297 | Inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord due to a bacterial infection. |
| C118298 | Inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord due to a viral infection. |
| C118299 | Inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord without a bacterial pathogen. |
| C118306 | Any abnormality in the growth or formation of one or more teeth. |
| C118308 | A pathologic communication between the skin and the dural space that is located 5-25 mm from the anal verge. |
| C118310 | "Failure to thrive due to poor intake by the infant, inadequate feeding schedule or insufficient maternal production of breast milk." |
| C118312 | "Aspiration of meconium, blood, amniotic fluid or gastric contents around the time of delivery resulting in clinical symptoms from airway obstruction, parenchymal injury, and ventilation-perfusion mismatch. This may lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension in the newborn." |
| C118313 | The protrusion of abdominal cavity contents through the anterior abdominal wall. |
| C118317 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the smooth, skeletal, or cardiac muscles." |
| C118318 | A clinical syndrome resulting from direct or indirect muscle injury and subsequent release of myoglobin into the plasma. |
| C118370 | "A condition characterized by the presence of a growing mature teratoma in a patient during or after chemotherapy for a non-seminomatous germ cell tumor, with normal serum markers for human chorionic gonadotropin and alpha fetoprotein. Complete surgical resection is the preferred treatment." |
| C118374 | Protrusion of abdominal cavity contents or pre-peritoneal fat through the abdominal wall between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process. |
| C118375 | Protrusion of the abdominal cavity contents through the abdominal wall at the umbilicus. |
| C118420 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the ears, nose, paranasal sinuses, oral cavity, or throat." |
| C118421 | A plasmacytoma characterized by the presence of malignant plasma cells with anaplastic features. |
| C118422 | "Elevated pressure in a confined space enclosed by fascia or eschar, which may lead to vascular compromise and subsequent ischemic injury to the tissue within the space." |
| C118423 | "A self-limited inflammatory disorder of unknown etiology found in infants that causes swelling of the soft tissue, changes to bone, and irritability." |
| C118434 | "A rare, autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the GNAS gene. It is characterized by the presence of short stature, obesity, round face, brachydactyly, subcutaneous ossifications, and pseudohypoparathtyroidism." |
| C118435 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by heterozygous mutation in the DSRAD gene. Most cases have been reported from countries in East Asia. It is characterized by the presence of hyperpigmented and hypopigmented macules on the dorsal aspect of the extremities and face." |
| C118436 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the FRAS1, FREM2, or GRIP1 genes. It is characterized by the presence of cryptophthalmos, cutaneous syndactyly, and genitourinary abnormalities." |
| C118437 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder caused by mutation in the PFKM gene. It results in the deficiency of the M subunit of the phosphofructokinase enzyme. It is characterized by the presence of muscle pain and weakness and sometimes rhabdomyolysis with myoglobinuria, following exercise. Affected infants develop muscle weakness. Patients with the hemolytic form of this disorder develop hemolytic anemia without signs or symptoms of muscle pain and weakness." |
| C118438 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutation in the CA2 gene. It is characterized by osteopetrosis, renal tubular acidosis, and cerebral calcifications. It results in growth failure, mental retardation, and fractures." |
| C118455 | A disorder characterized by the malformation of the legs into a single lower limb. |
| C118456 | A condition in which a hair or thread becomes wrapped around a digit obstructing blood flow. |
| C118459 | Absence of one or both mammary glands. |
| C118460 | A growth disorder of the tibia in children and adolescents that presents as progressive bowing of one or both legs. |
| C118475 | Acute inflammation of one or more joints caused by the presence of pus within the joint cavity. |
| C118508 | "A syndrome in preterm neonates exposed to benzyl alcohol preservative in intravascular solutions that is characterized by unremitting gasping respirations and may include anion gap metabolic acidosis, neurologic deterioration, renal failure, convulsions, intraventricular hemorrhage, and cardiovascular collapse." |
| C118509 | "Cardiorespiratory events that are characterized by variable combinations of cessation of breathing, decrease in blood oxygen saturation, and decreased heart rate." |
| C118630 | A rare carcinoma that arises from the intrahepatic bile ducts and is composed of malignant glandular cells and malignant squamous cells. |
| C118631 | "A rare, X-linked recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the ATRX gene. It is characterized by intellectual disability, developmental delays, hypotonia, widely spaced eyes, small nose, low-set ears, tented upper lip, skeletal abnormalities, and a mild form of alpha thalassemia." |
| C118632 | "An autosomal recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in at least fourteen different genes, called BBS genes. It is characterized by loss of vision, obesity, diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, polydactyly, intellectual disability, genital organs abnormalities, and delayed development of motor skills." |
| C118633 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the NTRK1 gene. It is characterized by inability to feel pain and temperature that leads to repeated unintentional self-injuries, and decreased or absent sweating that leads to hyperpyrexia and febrile seizures." |
| C118634 | "A rare, X-linked recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the NDP gene. It is characterized by developmental retinal abnormalities that result in blindness in male infants at birth or soon after birth. Additional manifestations include progressive hearing loss and developmental motor skills delays." |
| C118635 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the COMP gene. It is characterized by short stature, short arms and legs, waddling walk, osteoarthritis, and limited range of motion at the elbows and hips." |
| C118636 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene. It is characterized by hard and thickened skin, usually over the entire body, and limited joint motility." |
| C118675 | A constellation of disorders whose common thread is the insufficient quantity of one or more mitochondrial enzymes. |
| C118696 | "A constellation of disorders involving mutations of the FGFR3 gene, which result in abnormal growth of bone and cartilage; this includes achondroplasia and hypochondroplasia." |
| C118697 | "An autosomal dominant disorder that is often caused by a defect in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3, and characterized by short stature, micromelia, and a comparatively large head. The features are milder than those seen in achondroplasia." |
| C118707 | Visual impairment due to visual cortex dysfunction. |
| C118711 | Disorder of the optic nerve. |
| C118712 | Non-heritable difficulty in distinguishing colors. |
| C118713 | Genetic based difficulty in distinguishing colors. |
| C118722 | An infection of one or more of the glands surrounding the eye. |
| C118749 | Inflammation of the cornea secondary to an infectious process. |
| C118750 | Injury to the cornea secondary to ultraviolet light. |
| C118754 | The protrusion of uveal tissue through an opening in the sclera. |
| C118755 | Retinal detachment secondary to retinal tear or break. |
| C118756 | Retinal detachment secondary to fluid accumulation under the neurosensory retina without a retinal tear or break. |
| C118759 | Retinal detachment secondary to vasoproliferative changes in the retina and/or vitreous. |
| C118764 | Decreased vision that results from abnormal visual development. |
| C118765 | "The deposition of calcium on the cornea, resulting in pain and decreased visual acuity." |
| C118780 | "An autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the TOR1A gene. It usually begins in childhood or adolescence and is characterized by involuntary muscle contractions in the arms, legs, trunk, and neck." |
| C118781 | An X-linked recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the MTM1 gene. Primarily it affects males. Female carriers are usually asymptomatic.  It is characterized by skeletal muscle weakness and hypotonia. The muscle weakness ranges from mild to severe. Newborns with severe X-linked centronuclear myopathy develop respiratory distress which may lead to respiratory failure requiring constant ventilator assistance. Patients with mild X-linked centronuclear myopathy usually require ventila... |
| C118782 | Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease caused by mutations in the MPZ gene (mapped to chromosome 1q23.3). It results in sensorineural peripheral neuropathy. |
| C118783 | "An autosomal recessive inherited congenital muscular dystrophy caused by mutations in the LAMA2 gene. It is characterized by severe hypotonia, muscle weakness, elevated levels of serum creatinine kinase, and white matter abnormalities." |
| C118784 | An autosomal recessive inherited myopathy caused by mutations in the NEB gene. It is characterized by generalized hypotonia and skeletal muscle weakness. |
| C118785 | "An X-linked inherited disorder caused by mutations in the GPR143 gene. It is characterized by reduced visual acuity and reduced stereoscopic vision. Other abnormalities include nystagmus, strabismus, and photophobia." |
| C118786 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the IRF6 gene. It is characterized by the presence of cleft palate, cleft lip, pits in the lower lip, web behind the knee (popliteal pterygium), syndactyly, cryptorchidism, scrotal malformation, and hypoplasia of the labia majora." |
| C118787 | "A rare, X-linked inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the GPC3 and GPC4 genes. It is characterized by pre-and postnatal overgrowth, coarse facial features, macrocephaly, macroglossia, congenital heart defects, and intellectual disability." |
| C118788 | "A rare genetic disorder characterized by macular degeneration in the retina resulting in progressive loss of central vision with retention of the peripheral vision. It may be of early onset, autosomal dominant inherited and caused by mutations in the BEST1 gene (BEST disease) or late onset, caused by mutations in the PRPH2 gene." |
| C118808 | A rare colorectal carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C118809 | A rare breast carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C118810 | A neuroendocrine tumor grade 1 that occurs during childhood. |
| C118811 | A rare carcinoma of the larynx that occurs during childhood. |
| C118812 | A rare carcinoma of the esophagus that occurs during childhood. |
| C118813 | A rare carcinoma of the stomach that occurs during childhood. |
| C118814 | A rare non-small cell carcinoma of the lung that occurs during childhood. |
| C118815 | A rare small cell carcinoma of the lung that occurs during childhood. |
| C118816 | A rare carcinoma of the bladder that occurs during childhood. |
| C118817 | A rare carcinoma of the nasal cavity that occurs during childhood. |
| C118818 | A rare carcinoma of the paranasal sinus that occurs during childhood. |
| C118819 | A rare carcinoma of the parathyroid gland that occurs during childhood. |
| C118820 | A carcinoma of the penis that occurs during adulthood. |
| C118821 | A rare malignant neoplasm of the penis that occurs during childhood. |
| C118822 | A rare pheochromocytoma of the adrenal gland that occurs during childhood. |
| C118823 | A rare carcinoma of the rectum that occurs during childhood. |
| C118824 | A rare carcinoma of the salivary gland that occurs during childhood. |
| C118825 | A carcinoma of the salivary gland that occurs during adulthood. |
| C118826 | A rare malignant small intestinal neoplasm that occurs during childhood. |
| C118827 | A rare carcinoma of the thyroid gland that occurs during childhood. |
| C118828 | A melanoma that arises from the structures of the orbit. |
| C118829 | A papillary or follicular thyroid gland carcinoma with a genetic component that develops within the same family. Current studies suggest that it is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is often multifocal and bilateral and usually affects younger patients. |
| C118843 | "A rare, X-linked recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the SLC16A2 (MCT8) gene. It affects exclusively males and is characterized by mental retardation, limited mobility, muscle hypoplasia, hypotonia, contractures, and spasticity." |
| C118844 | "A rare disorder caused by mutations either in the IKBKG gene resulting in an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern or in the NFKBIA gene resulting in an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. It is characterized by abnormal development of ectodermal tissues including the skin, hair, teeth, and sweat glands and immune system deficiency. It results in dry and wrinkled skin, sparse scalp and body hair, missing teeth, and reduced ability to sweat. Patients have abnormally low levels of antibo... |
| C118845 | "A rare, X-linked dominant inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the FLNA gene. It is characterized by hearing loss caused by malformations in the ossicles, cleft palate, wide-set eyes, prominent brow ridges, small and flat nose, and skeletal abnormalities in the fingers and toes. Males usually experience more severe symptoms than females." |
| C118846 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited skeletal muscle disorder caused by mutation in the dysferlin gene. It affects young adults and is characterized by weakness and atrophy in the muscles of the upper and lower limbs." |
| C118847 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the SMN1 gene. It is characterized by progressive degeneration and loss of the anterior horn cells in the spinal cord and brain stem. It is manifested with hypotonia and muscle weakness, usually in late childhood or adolescence.  Affected individuals can stand and walk but walking and climbing stairs becomes progressively difficult." |
| C118859 | Blockage of the central retinal vein. |
| C118860 | Violation of Tenon's capsule with prolapse of orbital fat into the sub-Tenon's space. |
| C118862 | Corneal thinning just anterior to the limbus secondary to abnormal and/or irregular bulbar conjunctival contour. |
| C118864 | Displacement of the crystalline lens from the visual axis. |
| C118865 | Displacement of the intraocular lens from the visual axis. |
| C118866 | Abnormal superior displacement of resting upper lid margin or abnormal inferior displacement of resting lower lid margin. |
| C118867 | Weakness of extraocular muscle function as a result of inadequate securing of the muscle to the sclera during strabismus surgery. |
| C119011 | The presence of solitary or multiple stones in the intrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C119021 | An arthritis affecting fewer than five separate joints. |
| C119022 | "Early stages of inflammatory arthritis, when the underlying diagnosis is uncertain, usually little or no joint damage has occurred. Treatment may alter the disease course (e.g., potentially avert progression to full RA or other diagnosis)." |
| C119023 | "An inflammation of one or more joints, without loss of articular cartilage or destruction of subchondral bone." |
| C119024 | "A category of juvenile idiopathic arthritis associated with arthritis and enthesitis, which may involve the axial skeleton. It is a form of juvenile spondyloarthritis." |
| C119025 | "The occurrence of arthritis after infection with group A streptococcus. It is non-migratory, protracted in course, and poorly responsive to anti-inflammatory agents. (from Textbook of Pediatric Rheumatology, 6th ed. Cassidy, Petty, Laxer, and Lindsley)" |
| C119026 | "Joint inflammation, most often affecting large joints, associated with Lyme disease, presenting months after infection." |
| C119031 | "A category of juvenile idiopathic arthritis defined by the presence of arthritis and high fevers, and accompanied by at least 2 of the following systemic features: lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, rash, or serositis. Macrophage activation syndrome is a well known complication." |
| C119032 | A category of juvenile idiopathic arthritis defined by the presence of arthritis affecting between one and four separate joints during the first six months of disease. |
| C119033 | "A category of juvenile idiopathic arthritis defined by the presence of arthritis affecting five or more separate joints during the first six months of disease, with negative serologic testing for rheumatoid factor." |
| C119034 | "A category of juvenile idiopathic arthritis defined by the presence of arthritis affecting five or more separate joints during the first six months of disease, with positive serologic testing for rheumatoid factor." |
| C119035 | A category of juvenile idiopathic arthritis that does not fulfill any single category or has criteria for more than one category. |
| C119036 | "An early stage of Lyme disease that may present within 3-30 days after a tick bite with a red, concentrically-expanding rash (erythema migrans), fatigue, chills, fever, headache, muscle and joint aches, and swollen lymph nodes." |
| C119037 | "An early stage of Lyme disease that may present days to weeks after a tick bite with relapsing signs of a red, concentrically-expanding rash (erythema migrans), facial palsy, meningismus, neuralgia, heart palpitations, and dizziness." |
| C119038 | "A late stage of Lyme disease that may present in untreated patients months to years after a tick bite manifested with intermittent bouts of arthralgia, arthritis and neurologic complaints." |
| C119039 | A constellation of symptoms lasting months to years reported by some Lyme disease patients who had undergone previous antibiotic therapy. |
| C119040 | Oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis that never involves more than four separate joints after six months. |
| C119041 | Oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis that eventually involves more than four separate joints. |
| C119042 | An autoinflammatory disease characterized by sterile bone lesions which are multifocal and/or recurrent. |
| C119043 | An autoinflammatory disease caused by mutations in the NLRP12 gene. It is characterized by periodic fevers beginning in the first year of life that are triggered by cold exposure. Episodes occur more than once per month. |
| C119044 | "A category of juvenile idiopathic arthritis defined by the presence of arthritis with a personal or family history of psoriasis, and features such as dactylitis and nail dystrophy." |
| C119045 | Recent diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (usually within one to two years of onset) during which treatment may be more effective and possibly improve the disease course. |
| C119046 | Inflammation of the sclera. |
| C119048 | "A condition in which the nerves register normal stimuli (lack of tissue injury) as pain, resulting in feelings of intense pain with even minor sensory input." |
| C119049 | "A syndrome characterized by synovitis, acne, pustulosis, hyperostosis, and non-infectious osteomyelitis. Includes a spectrum of aseptic neutrophilic dermatoses associated with aseptic osteoarticular lesions." |
| C119050 | A group of disorders of the innate immune system characterized by attacks of seemingly unprovoked inflammation without significant levels of either autoantibodies or autoreactive T cells more characteristic of autoimmune disease. |
| C119051 | "An autoinflammatory disease caused by mutations in the TNFRSF1A gene coding for tumor necrosis factor receptor 1 (TNFR1). This results in attacks of fever, rash, peritoneal, pleural, or pericardial serositis and/or synovial inflammation along with increased acute phase reactants. Complications may include amyloidosis." |
| C119053 | "An autoinflammatory disease caused by mutations in the NLRP3 gene which encodes cryopyrin. It is characterized by short episodes of fever, rash, and arthralgia after exposure to cold or rapid decrease in temperature." |
| C119054 | An autoinflammatory disease caused by mutations in the NLRP3 gene which encodes cryopyrin. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of urticaria and fever which develop in infancy. It may lead to sensorineural hearing loss and/or amyloidosis. |
| C119055 | "An autoinflammatory disease caused by mutations in the PSTPIP1 gene. It is characterized by episodes of destructive arthritis, ulcerative skin lesions and cystic acne." |
| C119056 | "An autoinflammatory disease caused by mutations in the IL1RN gene, which encodes the IL1 receptor antagonist. It presents in infancy, and is characterized by systemic inflammation, pustular rash, bone pain, sterile osteitis, and periostitis." |
| C119057 | "An autoinflammatory disease caused by mutations in the IL36RN gene, which encodes the IL36 receptor antagonist. It is characterized by periodic fevers and psoriasiform rash." |
| C119058 | "An autoinflammatory disease caused by mutations in the LPIN2 gene. It is characterized by early-onset chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis, congenital dyserythropoietic anemia and inflammatory dermatosis." |
| C119676 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutation in the HSD17B4 gene. It is characterized by neurodegeneration that begins in infancy, hypotonia, and seizures. The majority of the affected individuals lack developmental skills." |
| C119677 | "A rare disorder caused by mutation in the AMACR gene. It is characterized by neurological abnormalities that appear in adulthood and include cognitive decline, seizures, and sensorimotor neuropathy." |
| C119678 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutation in the TYMP gene. It affects several parts of the body, particularly the gastrointestinal tract and nervous system. Signs and symptoms can appear in infancy, but they often begin by age twenty. The gastrointestinal signs and symptoms result from gastrointestinal dysmotility and include fullness after eating small amounts of food, dysphagia, nausea and vomiting after eating, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and intestinal blockage. T... |
| C119734 | "A disorder affecting the peripheral nervous system. It manifests with pain, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. It may be the result of physical injury, toxic substances, viral diseases, diabetes, renal failure, cancer, and drugs." |
| C119751 | Injury to the central nervous system in the newborn period that occurs when there is insufficient delivery of oxygen to all or part of the brain. |
| C119756 | "A chronic lung disorder associated with pulmonary maldevelopment, scarring, and/or inflammation that develops in preterm neonates exposed to supplemental oxygen for at least 28 days. For infants born before 32 weeks gestation with mild BPD, there is no supplemental oxygen requirement at 36 weeks postmenstrual age or earlier discharge. For infants born after 32 weeks with mild BPD, there is no supplemental oxygen requirement at 56 days post-natal age or at earlier discharge." |
| C119757 | "A chronic lung disorder associated with pulmonary maldevelopment, scarring, and/or inflammation that develops in preterm neonates exposed to supplemental oxygen for at least 28 days. For infants born before 32 weeks gestation with moderate BPD, there is a supplemental oxygen requirement of less than 30% at 36 weeks postmenstrual age or earlier discharge. For infants born after 32 weeks with moderate BPD, there is a supplemental oxygen requirement of less than 30% at 56 days post-natal age o... |
| C119758 | "Abnormal functioning of the central nervous system in the newborn period that may be due to a variety of etiologies including hypoxia/ischemia, metabolic disturbance, or infection." |
| C119989 | "Sudden onset of anterior uveitis, usually unilateral, and associated with pain, erythema, photophobia, and blurred vision. Often associated with HLA-B27, with or without co-existing spondyloarthritis." |
| C119990 | "Lack of production of functional C1q proteins, due to a genetic defect. Virtually 100% of patients with a C1q deficiency will develop a severe systemic lupus erythematosus at an early age. Patients also present with frequent sinopulmonary infections often with Streptococcus pneumoniae." |
| C119991 | "Lack of production of either functional C1r or C1s protein, due to a genetic defect. Approximately 60% of patients with a C1r/C1s deficiency will develop a severe systemic lupus erythematosus at an early age. Patients also present with frequent sinopulmonary infections often with Streptococcus pneumoniae." |
| C119992 | "Lack of production of functional C2 protein, due to a genetic defect. It is the most common genetic complement deficiency. Ten percent of C2 deficient patient will develop systemic lupus erythematosus at an early age. Patients also present with frequent sinopulmonary infections often with Streptococcus pneumoniae." |
| C119993 | "Lack of production of functional C4 protein, due to a genetic defect requiring homozygous loss of both the C4A and C4B genetic paralogs. Approximately 75% of patients with a C4 deficiency will develop a severe systemic lupus erythematosus at an early age. Patients also present with frequent sinopulmonary infections often with Streptococcus pneumoniae." |
| C119996 | The finding of one or more vertebral compression (crush) fractures in the absence of local disease or high-energy trauma or the presence of both a clinically significant fracture history and BMD Z-score less than or equal to -2.0. A clinically significant fracture history is one or more of the following: 1) two or more long bone fractures by age ten years; 2) three or more long bone fractures at any age up to age nineteen years. (from 2013 International Society for Clinical Densitometry defin... |
| C119999 | "The onset of acute renal failure, normally coupled with marked hypertension in a patient with scleroderma." |
| C120046 | "A rare genetic disorder caused by mutations in the TPM3, ACTA1, RYR1 and SEPN1 genes. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive pattern and rarely in an X-linked pattern. It manifests with myopathy throughout the body, particularly in the muscles of the shoulders, upper arms, hips, and thighs. Affected individuals may have contractures, lordosis, or scoliosis.  In a minority of cases mild to severe breathing problems may occur." |
| C120069 | "A condition affecting premature infants characterized by white matter injury, which is frequently accompanied by neuronal/axonal disease, that may affect all brain parenchymal structures and is due to a combination of destructive processes as well as maturational and trophic disturbances." |
| C120083 | "An inherited syndrome characterized by the development of several cancers, particularly colon and rectal cancers.  It includes Lynch syndrome which is associated with germline mutations in DNA mismatch-repair genes and familial colorectal cancer type X which is characterized by the absence of germline mutations in DNA mismatch-repair genes." |
| C120084 | Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer syndrome characterized by the absence of germline mutations in DNA mismatch-repair genes. |
| C120113 | A rare genetic deficiency characterized by mutations in the SHOX gene and reduced expression or function of the SHOX protein. It results in the disruption of normal bone development and growth starting before birth. It manifests with skeletal abnormalities and short stature. |
| C120145 | Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism not associated with a deficiency of other pituitary hormones. |
| C120148 | Gynecomastia that occurs during puberty and is not due to exogenous substances or disease processes. |
| C120161 | "Ovarian or testicular dysfunction associated with high levels of gonadotropins, that is present at birth." |
| C120162 | Insufficient production of estrogen or testosterone in the ovaries or testes due to decreased secretion of gonadotropins as a result of pituitary or hypothalamus gland dysfunction that is present at birth. |
| C120163 | Gynecomastia that is due to exogenous substances or disease processes. |
| C120164 | "Occurrence of the first menstrual period in a girl before the lower limit of the normal age range for the reference population, without other signs of puberty." |
| C120169 | "A form of interstitial lung disease characterized by increased numbers of pulmonary neuroendocrine cells, typically presenting in the first year of life with persistent tachypnea, retractions, crackles and hypoxemia that has a highly specific chest CT pattern that includes ground-glass opacities and air-trapping." |
| C120186 | A malignant neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C120187 | The development of secondary sexual characteristics contrary to pre-pubertal phenotype (feminization in boys; virilization in girls). |
| C120188 | The presence of Mullerian duct-derived structures in a phenotypically male individual. |
| C120189 | Persistent Mullerian duct syndrome due to deficiency of anti-Mullerian hormone. |
| C120190 | "Persistent Mullerian duct syndrome due to resistance to anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH), resulting from mutations in the AMH receptor (AMHR) gene." |
| C120191 | "A genetic disorder associate with a mutation in the AR gene, resulting in the complete resistance to androgenic hormones." |
| C120192 | "A genetic disorder associated with a mutation in the AR gene, resulting in partial resistance to androgenic hormones." |
| C120194 | "Conditions in 46,XY individuals in which androgens are produced in typical amounts, but tissue response to androgens is reduced." |
| C120195 | Abnormally high or low anti-Müllerian hormone levels. |
| C120196 | A defect in the Anti-Muellerian hormone receptor. |
| C120197 | "Gonadal dysgenesis in an individual with 46,XX karyotype and female phenotype." |
| C120198 | Gonadal dysgenesis in an individual with 46.XY karyotype. |
| C120199 | "A congenital condition characterized by asymmetrical gonadal development in an individual with mosaic karyotype 45,X/46,XY.  45,X/46,XY mosaic is the most common form of mixed gonadal dysgenesis." |
| C120202 | "An autosomal recessive condition that results in aromatase deficiency in the placenta, causing temporary virilization of the pregnant woman and virilization of her 46,XX fetus." |
| C120203 | "Decreased activity of the steroidogenic enzyme, 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, associated with mutation(s) in the HSD17B3 gene, leading to reduced testosterone production." |
| C120205 | A variant of campomelic dysplasia characterized by the absence of skeletal dysplasia. |
| C120224 | "An undifferentiated, high grade small round cell sarcoma affecting predominantly young adults. It is characterized by a recurrent translocation involving the CIC gene on chromosome 19 and either DUX4 gene on chromosome 4 or DUX4L gene on chromosome 10. The translocation results in either CIC-DUX4, t(4;19)(q35;q13) or CIC-DUX4L, t(10;19)(q26;q13) fusions." |
| C120369 | "Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, the cause of which is not present from birth." |
| C120370 | Reduced or absent function of the receptor for follicle stimulating hormone associated with a mutation in the FSHR gene. |
| C120375 | "An enzyme deficiency in the androgen biosynthesis pathway, resulting in the underproduction of one or more androgens by the adrenal glands and/or gonads." |
| C120376 | "Deficiency of the glycoprotein WNT4, associated with loss of function mutation(s) in the WNT4 gene. The condition in 46,XX individuals is characterized by mild hyperandrogenism, absence of underdevelopment of the uterus, and sometimes absence of underdevelopment of the vagina." |
| C120408 | "A microdeletion at 16p11.2, characterized by a predisposition to obesity, developmental delay and autism spectrum disorders." |
| C120409 | "A cause of obesity that results from inheritance of two copies of chromosome 14 from the mother, and no copy of chromosome 14 from the father." |
| C120442 | "Central hypothyroidism, the cause of which is not present at birth." |
| C120454 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the area of the nipple in males. |
| C120455 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the area of the nipple in females. |
| C120456 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the renal parenchyma but not the renal pelvis. |
| C120673 | "A congenital anomaly of the spine, where an extra or supernumerary lumbar vertebra arises from below the 5th lumbar vertebra." |
| C120861 | "Any disease or disorder of a gland, characterized by abnormal development or enlargement of the gland." |
| C120864 | A congenital abnormality resulting in the absence of an anatomical structure. |
| C120887 | Chronic degenerative changes in the glomeruli characterized by loss of cellularity of glomerular capillary tufts and acellular deposition of immunoglobulins. |
| C120888 | A hardening of the kidney glomerulus caused by scarring of the blood vessels. |
| C120902 | Renal damage and impaired renal function secondary to urinary tract obstruction. |
| C120905 | Chronic kidney damage due to vesicoureteral reflux. |
| C121131 | An infiltrating lipoma that affects skeletal muscle.  It has a higher rate of local recurrence. |
| C121148 | "An inflammatory or infectious process in the pituitary gland characterized by a circumscribed, walled collection of purulent material." |
| C121150 | "A syndrome characterized by hypoplastic or aplastic anterior pituitary gland, a very thin or interrupted pituitary stalk, and ectopic or absent posterior pituitary gland, which may be associated with mutation(s) in the HESX1 or LHX4 genes." |
| C121151 | Atypically located posterior pituitary gland that may be associated with anterior or posterior pituitary hormone deficiencies. |
| C121152 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). |
| C121153 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that produces luteinizing hormone (LH). |
| C121154 | "A rapidly growing, poorly circumscribed, mass-forming proliferation that arises from the skeletal muscle. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts, round ganglion-like cells, myxoid to collagenous stroma formation, and high mitotic activity. It recurs only rarely following local excision and does not metastasize." |
| C121156 | "A form of skeletal dysplasia characterized by shortening of the bones of the middle segments of the limbs (i.e., the radii, ulnae, tibiae and fibulae)." |
| C121181 | "A benign mesenchymal neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle shaped myofibroblasts and mast cells in a collagenous stroma.  It is histologically identical to the myofibroblastoma of breast.  It usually arises from the subcutaneous tissue and the most common sites of involvement are the inguinal/groin, paratesticular, and vulvovaginal areas." |
| C121184 | "Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis due to infections, autoimmune disorders, or underlying malignancies. Signs and symptoms include fever, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and pancytopenia." |
| C121198 | "Nephrotic syndrome within the first three motnhs of life, characterized initially by increased mesangial matrix, with or without hypertrophy and hyperplasia of podocytes, and eventual glomerular sclerosis." |
| C121200 | "Nephrotic syndrome within the first three months of life, characterized by scarring of the glomerulus, in which only part of the glomerulus is involved, and less than 50% of the glomeruli are affected." |
| C121207 | An infectious process characterized by the accumulation of pus within the uterus. |
| C121209 | Condition comprising congenital nephrotic syndrome with associated WT1 gene mutation with either intersex disorder or Wilms tumor. |
| C121210 | IgA nephropathy secondary to hepatobiliary disease. |
| C121500 | A fibrohistiocytic neoplasm that metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C121562 | An acute episode of worsening pulmonary symptoms related to cystic fibrosis. |
| C121563 | "A disorder caused by the inability to digest and use lysine, arginine, and ornithine. Lysinuric protein intolerance is caused by mutations in the SLC7A7 gene. y+L amino acid transporter 1, the product of the SLC7A7 gene, is involved in transporting lysine, arginine, and ornithine between cells in the body." |
| C121564 | An inherited condition caused by mutations in the APRT gene that affects the kidneys and urinary tract. The most common feature of this condition is recurrent kidney stones. |
| C121565 | "A rare autosomal recessive disorder associated with abnormalities in bone maturation, and lipids and hormone metabolism and characterized by intrauterine growth retardation, failure to thrive, short stature, a progeroid appearance, hypotonia, variable mental impairment, and death in childhood. Its cause is unknown." |
| C121571 | A rare leiomyosarcoma that arises from the deep soft tissue in the retroperitoneum or abdominal cavity. |
| C121572 | "A neurologic condition characterized by burning pain, tenderness, swelling, and changes in the skin color and temperature of a body part or extremity associated with demonstrable nerve injury. This form is less frequent in pediatric patients." |
| C121583 | A leiomyosarcoma arising from an anatomic site other than skin. |
| C121604 | Inflammation associated with the use of a catheter. |
| C121618 | "A term that refers to germinoma, seminoma, or dysgerminoma." |
| C121619 | "A term that refers to teratoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, or mixed forms of these tumors." |
| C121629 | Any condition characterized by an inability to regulate body temperature. |
| C121650 | Circumscribed morphea in which the lesions are restricted to the skin and the immediately underlying subcutaneous tissues. |
| C121651 | "Circumscribed morphea in which the lesions are found in the deep dermis, panniculus, fascia, or superficial muscle." |
| C121654 | An uncommon variant of rhabdomyosarcoma with spindle cell or sclerosing morphology.  It affects both children and adults and it is more common in males. |
| C121655 | An uncommon variant of rhabdomyosarcoma with sclerosing morphology.  It usually arises from the limbs. |
| C121656 | "A rare syndrome characterized by telangiectasias, elevated erythropoietin level and erythrocytosis, monoclonal gammopathy, perinephric fluid collections, and intrapulmonary shunting.  It is best classified as a type of plasma cell dyscrasia with paraneoplastic manifestations." |
| C121668 | "An intermediate, rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm that more frequently affects young adult males and usually arises in the lower limbs.  In approximately half of the affected patients the tumor is painful and in two-thirds of the patients the tumor is multifocal.  Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of sheets and fascicles of spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and vesicular nuclei.  Cytologic atypia is usually mild.  Approximately 60% of the patient... |
| C121669 | "Abnormal eating behaviors, including binge eating, compulsive eating, emotional eating, night eating, and self-induced vomiting, though not at a level that rises to the diagnosis of eating disorder." |
| C121671 | "An angiosarcoma that arises from the soft tissues, usually in the deep muscles of the lower extremities, retroperitoneum, mediastinum, and mesentery." |
| C121675 | A form of skeletal dysplasia characterized by shortening of the bones of the proximal segments of the limbs (i.e. the humeri and femora). |
| C121677 | "A common, usually encapsulated benign nerve sheath tumor composed of well-differentiated Schwann cells." |
| C121678 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor/microadenoma not associated with a hormonal syndrome. |
| C121679 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor/microadenoma associated with a hormonal syndrome. |
| C121680 | A benign neoplasm with nerve sheath features that arises from the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. It manifests as an asymptomatic nodule and most often arises from the extremities. It is composed of spindle and epithelioid cells in a myxoid stroma. |
| C121681 | "A benign peripheral nerve sheath tumor characterized by the presence of Schwann cells, axons, and perineurial fibroblasts.  It usually arises from the skin of the head and neck or the oral mucosa.  It presents as a solitary and painless nodular mass." |
| C121682 | A hamartoma characterized by the presence of collections of non-neoplastic arachnoidal cells. |
| C121686 | "A benign nerve sheath tumor characterized by the combination of histologic features seen in schwannomas, neurofibromas, and perineuriomas." |
| C121687 | A very rare intraneural mass in a large nerve characterized by the interposition of mature skeletal muscle fibers and nerve fibers. |
| C121713 | "A benign fibroblastic neoplasm that arises from acral sites, usually the periungual area of the digits.  It is characterized by the proliferation of spindled and stellate-shaped fibroblasts in the dermis in a myxoid or collagenous stroma.  Nuclear atypia is usually minimal.  It usually presents as a solitary and slow-growing dome-shaped mass on a digit. The recurrence rate is low." |
| C121719 | "An autoimmune condition affecting the posterior pituitary gland, which is characterized by lymphocytic infiltration, and which often presents as diabetes insipidus." |
| C121720 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor/macroadenoma associated with a hormonal syndrome. |
| C121721 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor/macroadenoma not associated with a hormonal syndrome. |
| C121727 | Hypothyroidism characterized by elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) with normal circulating concentrations of thyroid hormones. |
| C121738 | A soft tissue neoplasm of uncertain differentiation which is locally aggressive but rarely metastasizes. |
| C121741 | "Hypothyroidism due to dysfunction of the hypothalamus, assumed to result in reduced secretion of thyrotropin- releasing hormone." |
| C121743 | "Hypothyroidism due to dysfunction of the pituitary gland, which results in inadequate secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (thyrotropin)." |
| C121745 | A condition associated with reduced export of iodide across the apical membrane of the follicular cells of the thyroid gland that may progress to hypothyroidism. Pendred syndrome is associated with an increased risk of goiter and sensorineural hearing loss due to malformations of the inner ear (vestibular system). Inactivating mutations in the SLC26A4 gene encoding the pendrin transport protein are responsible for the condition. |
| C121747 | A condition associated with reduced active import of iodide across the basolateral membrane of the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Inactivating mutations in the SLC5A5 gene encoding the sodium-iodide symporter are responsible for the condition. |
| C121748 | "Thyroid peroxidase system defect due to presumed mutation(s) in the DUOX2 gene, resulting in decreased activity of dual oxidase 2." |
| C121749 | "Subnormal production of thyroglobulin, the glycoprotein precursor of thyroid hormones, presumed to result from loss-of-function mutation(s) in the TG gene." |
| C121750 | "Thyroid peroxidase system defect due to presumed mutation(s) in the TPO gene, resulting in decreased activity of thyroid peroxidase." |
| C121751 | A defect in any step of the biochemical pathway leading to production of thyroid hormones. |
| C121752 | "A non-encapsulated, slow-growing, locally aggressive subcutaneous tumor characterized by the presence of adipocytes, hemosiderin-laden spindle cells, hemosiderin-laden macrophages, osteoclast-like giant cells, and scattered chronic inflammatory cells. It usually arises from the dorsum of the foot, ankle, dorsum of the hand, thigh, calf, or cheek.  It may recur if it is not completely excised but does not metastasize." |
| C121774 | An ossifying fibromyxoid tumor characterized by the presence of high grade nuclear features or increased cellularity and more than two mitotic figures per 50 HPFs. |
| C121785 | "A rare, well circumscribed, non-encapsulated tumor that arises in the oral cavity, most often the anterior tongue.  It is characterized by the presence of round to spindle cells in a chondromyxoid or hyalinized stroma.  Recurrences have been observed in a minority of patients." |
| C121786 | A benign myoepithelioma characterized by the presence of a minor ductal component. |
| C121787 | A malignant myoepithelioma characterized by the presence of a minor ductal component. |
| C121788 | A phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor with benign histologic features.  It may recur locally but does not metastasize.  Complete excision is curative. |
| C121789 | "A phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor characterized by the presence of nuclear atypia, high mitotic activity, increased cellularity, marked pleomorphism, and necrosis. It usually develops in lesions that have recurred locally and metastasizes to other sites." |
| C121790 | A tumor with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation characterized by the presence of cords of neoplastic cells in a densely collagenous stroma. |
| C121791 | A tumor with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation characterized by the absence of pleomorphism and scarcity or absence of mitotic figures. |
| C121792 | "A usually large and aggressive tumor with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation characterized by the presence of marked nuclear atypia, pleomorphism, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, and infiltrative margins.  The most common metastatic sites are liver, lungs, lymph nodes, and bone." |
| C121793 | "A term that refers to a heterogeneous group of uncommon soft tissue sarcomas that do not show an identifiable line of differentiation using currently available technologies.  This is a diagnosis of exclusion and includes undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (also known as malignant fibrous histiocytoma), undifferentiated spindle cell sarcoma, undifferentiated round cell sarcoma, and undifferentiated epithelioid sarcoma." |
| C121797 | An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma characterized by the presence of a malignant spindle cell infiltrate with amphophilic or palely eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C121799 | An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma characterized by the presence of uniform round or ovoid malignant cells with a high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio. |
| C121802 | An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate with epithelioid morphology. |
| C121804 | An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma which cannot be further characterized. |
| C121831 | A group of lesions that affect the bone and have the appearance and cytogenetic or molecular characteristics of neoplasms but the clinical behavior is suggestive of a non-neoplastic process. |
| C121842 | A rare benign chondroid and osteoid matrix-producing neoplasm of bone characterized by extensive myxoid changes.  It may be a locally destructive neoplasm and has been reported in patients with Carney complex. |
| C121844 | "A benign tumor that affects the distal phalanx, most often the great toe. Grossly it consists of a cartilage cap and a bony stalk. Microscopically it is characterized by an osteochondromatous proliferation with a gradual transition of a peripheral spindle-cell proliferation to hyaline cartilage to trabecular bone. Pain and swelling are present. Simple resection is usually curative." |
| C121845 | "A benign lesion that usually affects the proximal small bones of the hands or feet.  Grossly it consists of a cartilage cap and a bony stalk.  Microscopically it is characterized by the presence of spindle cells, cartilage, and bone, usually in a disorganized pattern compared to subungual exostosis.  Enlarged (bizarre) chondrocytes are present in the cartilage.  Swelling with or without pain is present.  Recurrences following resection have been reported in approximately half of cases." |
| C121846 | A locally aggressive or rarely metastasizing cartilaginous matrix-producing neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic chondrocytes. |
| C121870 | An intermediate-grade chondrosarcoma arising in the medulla of bone or within the cartilaginous cap of a pre-existing osteochondroma. It is characterized by the presence of increased cellularity and a greater degree of nuclear atypia and hyperchromasia as compared to grade 1 chondrosarcoma. Mitotic activity is present. |
| C121871 | "A high-grade chondrosarcoma arising in the medulla of bone or within the cartilaginous cap of a pre-existing osteochondroma. It is characterized by the presence of increased cellularity and a greater degree of nuclear atypia, hyperchromasia, and mitotic activity as compared to grade 2 chondrosarcoma." |
| C121881 | A chondrosarcoma that arises in a pre-existing enchondroma. |
| C121882 | A chondrosarcoma arising within the cartilaginous cap of a pre-existing osteochondroma. |
| C121893 | "A rare tumor-like lesion of the hands and feet characterized by the presence of hemorrhagic fibrous tissue, hemosiderin deposition, osteoclast-like giant cells which are irregularly distributed, and reactive bone formation.  Pain and swelling are the most frequent symptoms.  It may recur following curettage, but is usually cured after a second procedure." |
| C121901 | "An intraosseous benign tumor of notochord origin that arises in the bones of the base of the skull, vertebral bodies, sacrum or coccyx.  It contains vacuolated tumor cells without atypia, but lacks myxoid matrix, necrosis, and lobular architecture, which are features that characterize its malignant counterpart, chordoma.  Most lesions are incidental findings." |
| C121925 | "A non-metastasizing, locally aggressive, bone-forming neoplasm." |
| C121926 | A locally aggressive or rarely metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the bone. |
| C121929 | "A tumor histologically indistinguishable from, but larger than, benign fibrous histiocytoma of bone." |
| C121930 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the bone, without lymph node or other extranodal involvement.  The femur, spine, and pelvic bones are the most frequently affected areas.  The majority of cases are diffuse large B-cell lymphomas.  Most patients present with pain in the affected area.  Systemic symptoms are rare." |
| C121931 | A benign but locally aggressive giant cell tumor that arises from the bone. |
| C121932 | "A benign but locally aggressive tumor that arises from the bone and is composed of mononuclear cells admixed with macrophages and osteoclast-like giant cells.  It usually arises from the ends of long bones or the vertebrae.  Clinical presentation includes pain, edema, and decreased range of motion in the affected joint." |
| C121933 | A giant cell tumor that arises from the bone and is characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular component. |
| C121941 | "A low-grade malignant blood vessel neoplasm arising from the bone.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells.  The neoplastic cells are arranged in cords and nests, which are embedded in a myxoid to hyalinized stroma." |
| C121944 | "A very rare disorder that appears after the first year and a half of life in previously healthy children. It is characterized by rapid-onset weight gain, hypothalamic dysfunction, breathing abnormalities, and autonomic system dysregulation. The hypothalamic dysfunction manifestations include inability to maintain normal water balance, high prolactin levels, low thyroid, low cortisol, and early or late puberty. The breathing abnormalities include sleep apnea and alveolar hypoventilation, req... |
| C121945 | "A rare, progressive, autosomal dominant inherited disorder. It is caused by mutation in the BMPR2 gene in most cases. It is characterized by abnormally high blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, caused by obstruction and obliteration of the small pulmonary arteries." |
| C121946 | "A rare, progressive disorder characterized by abnormally high blood pressure in the pulmonary artery caused by obstruction and obliteration of the small pulmonary arteries due to drugs or toxins. The stimulant appetite suppressant aminorex fumarate and other stimulant anorectics such as the serotonin reuptake inhibitor dexfenfluramine, as well as other agents, including illegal substances have been reported as causative agents." |
| C121953 | "A benign, unilateral tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of conspicuous microcystic changes, cellular areas, and a fibrous stroma." |
| C121955 | "An encapsulated epithelial neoplasm that arises from the kidney. It is composed of cytologically bland epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm forming tubular and papillary patterns. The nuclei are arranged linearly away from the basement membrane. Tumor necrosis, perirenal invasion, and vascular invasion are not present. The clinical course is indolent." |
| C121963 | "A very rare, nonrhabdoid, intraventricular tumor with relatively favorable prognosis.  It is characterized by the presence of neuroepithelial cells forming cribriform patterns, trabeculae, epithelial membrane antigen immunopositivity on epithelial surfaces, and loss of nuclear INI 1 expression." |
| C121967 | A rare vascular malformation in the cerebral cortex and overlying leptomeninges.  It can occur sporadically or in association with neurofibromatosis type 2. |
| C121968 | A rare dermal and subcutaneous lesion that results from the aberrant development of neural crest-derived melanocytes.  It affects the head and neck with a predilection for the scalp.  It presents as a slowly enlarging multinodular plaque.  Morphologically is characterized by the presence of melanocytes and structures with schwannian differentiation in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. |
| C121970 | An abnormality of the pancreatic and biliary ducts in which their junction occurs above the duodenal wall. |
| C121973 | Gene expression-based patient cluster groups in acute lymphoblastic leukemia. |
| C121974 | "B acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by a gene-expression profile similar to that of BCR-ABL1-positive B acute lymphoblastic leukemia, absence of the pathognomonic BCR-ABL1 rearrangement, alterations of lymphoid transcription factor genes, and a poor outcome." |
| C121975 | A gene expression subtype of acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by its expression level of the DDIT4L gene. |
| C121978 | Unique gene expression-based patient cluster groups in high-risk B-precursor acute lymphoblastic leukemia determined by Recognition of Outliers by Sampling Ends (ROSE). |
| C121980 | Gene expression cluster 1 as determined by Recognition of Outliers by Sampling Ends (ROSE) in high-risk B-precursor acute lymphoblastic leukemia. |
| C121981 | Gene expression cluster 2 as determined by Recognition of Outliers by Sampling Ends (ROSE) in high-risk B-precursor acute lymphoblastic leukemia. |
| C121982 | Gene expression cluster 3 as determined by Recognition of Outliers by Sampling Ends (ROSE) in high-risk B-precursor acute lymphoblastic leukemia. |
| C121983 | Gene expression cluster 4 as determined by Recognition of Outliers by Sampling Ends (ROSE) in high-risk B-precursor acute lymphoblastic leukemia. |
| C121984 | Gene expression cluster 5 as determined by Recognition of Outliers by Sampling Ends (ROSE) in high-risk B-precursor acute lymphoblastic leukemia. |
| C121985 | Gene expression cluster 6 as determined by Recognition of Outliers by Sampling Ends (ROSE) in high-risk B-precursor acute lymphoblastic leukemia. |
| C121986 | Gene expression cluster 7 as determined by Recognition of Outliers by Sampling Ends (ROSE) in high-risk B-precursor acute lymphoblastic leukemia. |
| C121988 | Gene expression cluster 8 as determined by Recognition of Outliers by Sampling Ends (ROSE) in high-risk B-precursor acute lymphoblastic leukemia. |
| C122082 | A rare type of gastritis characterized by gastric subepithelial collagen deposition and inflammatory infiltrates in the lamina propria.  The pathogenesis of this disorder is unclear although an association with autoimmune disorders has been reported.  It affects both children and adults.  Children present with iron deficiency anemia and have a nodular stomach on gastroscopy.  Adults present with chronic watery diarrhea and may have an associated collagenous colitis. |
| C122412 | An exacerbation of sickle cell disease. |
| C122413 | An exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. |
| C122414 | Inflammation of the brain secondary to an immune response triggered by the body itself. |
| C122425 | An infection at an anatomic location used for vascular access. |
| C122426 | An infection with the Cytomegalovirus that is not present from birth. |
| C122427 | An infection with the Cytomegalovirus that is present from birth. |
| C122523 | Pneumonia that is caused by Staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to methicillin treatment. |
| C122526 | "Pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Signs and symptoms include productive cough, fever, chills, shortness of breath, and chest pain." |
| C122572 | "An infectious process caused by rhinovirus. The virus usually causes upper respiratory infections, but can infect the lower tract as well." |
| C122574 | An exacerbation of the chronic disease lupus. |
| C122576 | An infectious process in which the bacteria Staphylococcus aureus is present. |
| C122577 | "An acute exacerbation of asthma, characterized by inadequate response to initial bronchodilators." |
| C122579 | "A fear of sounds, which can include fear of voices, including one's own voice, in addition to other sounds." |
| C122584 | "A non-invasive serous neoplasm that arises from the ovary and shows greater cellular proliferation and cytologic atypia as compared to benign ovarian serous tumors, but less as compared to low-grade ovarian serous carcinoma." |
| C122585 | A non-invasive serous neoplasm that arises from the ovary and shows micropapillary and/or cribriform architectural patterns.  It is composed of round epithelial cells with scant cytoplasm and moderate nuclear atypia. |
| C122586 | "A non-invasive neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed of gastrointestinal-type, mucin-containing epithelial cells.  It shows greater cellular proliferation and cytologic atypia as compared to benign ovarian mucinous tumors." |
| C122603 | An acute lymphoblastic or acute myeloid leukemia that occurs in infancy. |
| C122614 | An acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs in infancy. |
| C122617 | An acute lymphoblastic leukemia with rearrangement of the KMT2A gene that occurs in infancy. |
| C122621 | An acute lymphoblastic leukemia without rearrangement of the KMT2A gene that occurs in infancy. |
| C122624 | Acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs in childhood and does not respond to treatment. |
| C122625 | "Acute myeloid leukemias that occur in children and do not fulfill the criteria for inclusion in the group of acute myeloid leukemias with recurrent genetic abnormalities or myelodysplastic changes, or are therapy-related. This category includes entities classified according to the French-American-British classification scheme." |
| C122653 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited progressive neurodegenerative disorder. It is caused by a mutation in the ATN1 gene, resulting in a combined degeneration of the dentatorubral and pallidoluysian systems. It can appear at any age, but it usually affects individuals between 20 and 30 years and leads to death within 10-15 years. The clinical presentation depends on the age of the affected individual; juvenile patients develop severe progressive myoclonus epilepsy and cognitive decline, whe... |
| C122654 | "A group of rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorders characterized by a constricted thoracic cage, short ribs, and a 'trident' appearance of the acetabular roof. Polydactyly may or may not be present. Other abnormalities include cleft lip and palate and abnormalities of the brain, eye, heart, liver, pancreas, intestine, kidney, and genitalia." |
| C122655 | "A rare, slowly progressive, multisystem neurodegenerative disorder that usually affects children.  It is characterized by the presence of eosinophilic neuronal intranuclear inclusions and neuronal loss.  It results in abnormalities of the central, peripheral, and autonomic nervous systems.  Patients present with ataxia, extra-pyramidal signs, absent deep tendon reflexes, weakness, muscle wasting, foot deformities, and behavioral or cognitive abnormalities." |
| C122656 | "A very rare genetic disorder characterized by cleft lip and palate, sparse scalp hair, and partial syndactyly of the fingers and toes." |
| C122657 | "A very rare genetic disorder caused by mutation in the LIG4 gene.  It is characterized by unusual facial features, microcephaly, growth and developmental delay, severe immunodeficiency, and skin abnormalities." |
| C122658 | A very rare genetic syndrome characterized by reduced replicative DNA ligase I.  It results in immunodeficiency and cellular hypersensitivity to DNA-damaging agents. |
| C122659 | Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.  It is caused by mutations in the GARS gene. It results in axonal peripheral neuropathy. |
| C122660 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited dysplasia of the long bones, characterized by symmetrical diaphyseal medullary stenosis, bone infarctions, pathologic fractures, and a high risk of development of malignant fibrous histiocytoma." |
| C122661 | "Glycogen storage disease type I that is caused by mutations in the SLC37A4 gene.  It is characterized by a deficiency of glucose-6-phosphate translocase.  It may be associated with neutropenia resulting in recurrent bacterial infections, inflammatory bowel disease, gingivitis, periodontal disease, and mouth ulcers." |
| C122662 | Glycogen storage disease usually inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern.  It is characterized by a deficiency of hepatic phosphorylase kinase. |
| C122663 | "A rare autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the VCP gene. It can affect the muscles, bones, and brain.  Patients may develop myopathy that initially involves the muscles of the hips and shoulders and as the disorder progresses it may affect the cardiac and respiratory muscles, leading to life-threatening cardiac and pulmonary failure.  Approximately half of the adults develop Paget disease of bone, and approximately one-third develop frontotemporal dementia." |
| C122664 | "A rare, progressive neurological disorder inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.  It is caused by mutations in the EIF2B1, EIF2B2, EIF2B3, EIF2B4, and EIF2B5 genes, resulting in deterioration of central nervous system's white matter.  Usually, there are no signs and symptoms of the disorder at birth.  During early childhood, affected individuals develop spasticity and ataxia which may be associated with deterioration of the metal function.  Examination of the brain at autopsy reveals ... |
| C122685 | "A condition in which blood glucose levels are high, but not high enough to be classified as type 2 diabetes." |
| C122686 | Myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by decreased cellularity in the bone marrow. |
| C122687 | Acute myeloid leukemia that is not associated with cytogenetic abnormalities. |
| C122688 | "Acute myeloid leukemia characterized by the presence of t(8;21)(q22;q22) or inv(16)(p13q22)/t(16;16)(p13;q22). These cytogenetic abnormalities result in disruption of the transcription factor CBF, which is a regulator of normal hematopoiesis." |
| C122690 | An acute myeloid leukemia in infancy characterized by t(7;12)(q36;p13) and fusion of the homeobox gene HLXB9 (MNX1) with the ETV6 gene. |
| C122691 | An acute myeloid leukemia that occurs in childhood and is characterized by the rearrangement of the NUP98 gene. |
| C122716 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with inv(3)(q21.3q26.2) resulting in the reposition of a distal GATA2 enhancer to activate MECOM expression. It may present de novo or follow a myelodysplastic syndrome. The clinical course is aggressive. |
| C122717 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(3;3)(q21.3;q26.2) resulting in the reposition of a distal GATA2 enhancer to activate MECOM expression. It may present de novo or follow a myelodysplastic syndrome. The clinical course is aggressive. |
| C122725 | A rare acute myeloid leukemia that occurs in children and is characterized primarily by deletions of 5q. |
| C122726 | A rare acute myeloid leukemia that occurs in childhood and is characterized by deletion of chromosome 7. |
| C122782 | "An autosomal recessive disorder representing the intermediate form of mucopolysaccharidosis type I. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme alpha-L-iduronidase. Signs and symptoms include short stature, cloudy cornea, umbilical hernia, joint stiffening, hepatosplenomegaly, and mental retardation." |
| C122784 | Inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree. |
| C122786 | "The trapping of bowel or omentum inside the inguinal canal that cannot be reduced, resulting in inflammation, pain, nausea, and possible bowel obstruction." |
| C122787 | A group of rare skeletal muscle ion-channel disorders caused by genetic mutations in the sodium and chloride channel genes. It is characterized by altered membrane excitability resulting in skeletal muscle stiffness. This group of myotonias is distinct from myotonic dystrophy because of the absence of systemic features or progressive weakness. |
| C122788 | "A group of autosomal dominant inherited non-dystrophic myotonias caused by mutations of the SCN4A gene, resulting in sodium muscle channelopathy. They are characterized by muscle stiffness, which worsens by ingestion of potassium-rich food.  This group includes myotonia fluctuans, myotonia permanens, and acetazolamide-responsive myotonia." |
| C122789 | An autosomal dominant inherited potassium aggravated myotonia caused by mutations of the SCN4A gene. It is characterized by mild muscle stiffness that develops during rest approximately an hour after exercise and lasts for about an hour.  It worsens by ingestion of potassium-rich food. |
| C122790 | "An autosomal dominant inherited non-dystrophic myotonia caused by mutations of the SCN4A gene, resulting in sodium muscle channelopathy. It is characterized by muscle stiffness, which is increased by exposure to cold or activity, and usually eases when the patient warms up through physical activity." |
| C122791 | "An autosomal dominant inherited non-dystrophic myotonia caused by mutations of the SCN4A gene, resulting in sodium muscle channelopathy. Currently, it is considered a variant of hyperkalemic periodic paralysis.  Patients with normokalemic periodic paralysis do not have any change in their potassium levels during weakness, but become weak when they ingest potassium." |
| C122792 | "Myotonia caused by mutations of the SCN4A gene, resulting in sodium muscle channelopathy. It is characterized by severe episodes of laryngospasm in the neonatal period, which can be alleviated by channel blockers." |
| C122793 | Acute muscle weakness and paralysis that develops in critically ill patients who have been treated with multiple drugs during their intensive care unit stay. It is associated with delayed weaning from mechanical ventilation and prolonged rehabilitation. |
| C122794 | "An autosomal dominant inherited non-dystrophic myotonia caused by mutations of the SCN4A gene. It is characterized by muscle stiffness, which is increased by exposure to cold but does not change to flaccid paralysis with intense cooling." |
| C122795 | "Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the NPHS1 gene, which encodes the protein nephrin, and most commonly presents during the first three months of life." |
| C122796 | Nephrotic syndrome for which no cause has been identified. |
| C122797 | "Nephrotic syndrome, occurring in the pediatric population, characterized by the normalization of proteinuria with the administration of corticosteroids." |
| C122798 | "Nephrotic syndrome, occurring in the pediatric population, in which proteinuria does not normalize with administration of steroids; this condition is unresponsive to a minimum of four weeks administration of oral corticosteroids." |
| C122799 | Nephrotic syndrome characterized by two or more consecutive relapses during steroid tapering or within fourteen days of discontinuing steroids. |
| C122800 | New onset nephrotic syndrome. |
| C122801 | Pre-existing nephrotic syndrome. |
| C122802 | "Nephrotic syndrome characterized by recurrent proteinuria by dipstick of first morning urine: 2+ or greater for three days or longer, or the presence of edema with proteinuria of any duration following a remission." |
| C122803 | "Nephrotic syndrome in which there is relapse occurring two or more times in the first six months, or four or more times in a year." |
| C122804 | "A condition resembling WAGR (Wilms tumor, aniridia, genitourinary anomalies and developmental delay) syndrome that also includes obesity. This is a contiguous gene syndrome due to deletion in the vicinity of chromosome 11p13-p12 in a region containing the WT1, PAX6 and BDNF genes." |
| C122805 | "A condition, which typically presents during adolescence, that is caused by WT-1 mutation, and is characterized by a developmental sex disorder, FSGS, and may be associated with gonadoblastoma." |
| C122806 | Glomerulonephritis characterized by endocapillary proliferation and the presence of inflammatory cells affecting 50% or more of all glomeruli. |
| C122811 | "A rare, genetically heterogeneous disorder caused by mutations in the SCN1A, GABRG2, GABRD, SCN9A, or STX1B genes. It is characterized by early childhood onset febrile seizures, generalized tonic-clonic seizures, absence seizures, myoclonic seizures, and atonic seizures" |
| C122812 | A seizure caused by a localized disorder. |
| C122813 | "Intractable juvenile myoclonic epilepsy which is not associated with an acute, prolonged epileptic crisis." |
| C122814 | A neurological disorder characterized by recurring seizures presenting within the first three months of life and progressive cerebral dysfunction. |
| C122815 | "A life-threatening disorder characterized by delirium, seizures, and neuromuscular changes." |
| C122822 | The presence of calculi in the gallbladder. |
| C122919 | "A skin hypersensitivity reaction characterized by raised purpuric lesions, red macules, hemorrhagic blisters and ulcerations." |
| C122923 | "A genetic condition caused by mutation(s) in the ABCC8 gene, encoding ATP-binding cassette sub-family C member 8." |
| C122925 | An inherited form of tylosis that presents between 5-14 years of age and is characterized by focal areas of nonepidermolytic palmoplantar keratoderma. Individuals have an increased incidence of esophageal carcinoma. |
| C122926 | An inherited form of tylosis that presents by one year and is characterized by benign palmoplantar keratoderma. |
| C122927 | "An autosomally dominant inherited form of palmoplantar keratoderma that is characterized by a non-gradient diffuse pattern and often, hyperhidrosis of the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. It does not extend beyond the palms, knucklels pads, nails, and the soles." |
| C122985 | "A very rare benign lesion that arises from the sinonasal tract. It usually affects infants and children. It presents as a polypoid mass and is composed of cartilage, myxoid stroma, and other mesenchymal elements." |
| C122991 | Global enlargement of the renal parenchyma in one or both kidneys. |
| C123013 | Chronic kidney disease resulting from deposition of urate crystals or microtophi in the medullary interstitium. |
| C123014 | Tubulointerstitial nephritis resulting from a drug exposure. |
| C123015 | A condition characterized by dilatation of the Bowman space and affecting more than 5% of the glomeruli. |
| C123016 | "An abscess that is located outside the renal capsule, but which is within Gerota's space." |
| C123017 | An abscess that is located within the renal parenchyma. |
| C123018 | "Monogenic diabetes caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the gene HNF1B, encoding hepatocyte nuclear factor 1-beta. In addition to diabetes, this condition may be associated with renal cysts and urogenital anomalies. Homozygous HNF1B mutations result in permanent neonatal diabetes." |
| C123020 | Infection of the kidney due to mycobacteria. |
| C123021 | An autoimmune disorder comprising tubulointerstitial nephritis and uveitis. |
| C123022 | A condition characterized by deposition of IgM antibody in the glomerulus. |
| C123023 | Membranous nephritis associated with systemic lupus erythematosus. |
| C123024 | Kidney damage resulting from uric acid precipitation within the renal tubules. |
| C123025 | Chronic tubulointerstitial disease resulting from aristolochic acid. |
| C123026 | "The underdevelopment of otherwise normal renal parenchyma, characterized by decreased nephron size and possibly a decreased number of nephrons at birth." |
| C123027 | Tubulointerstitial hemorrhage resulting from hantavirus infection. |
| C123028 | Damage to the kidney and renal tubules resulting from heavy metal exposure. |
| C123029 | "Interstitial nephritis due to Leptospira, which may be associated with non-oliguric acute kidney injury." |
| C123030 | Urolithiasis in which the composition of the stone(s) is predominantly magnesium ammonium phosphate. |
| C123031 | "Abnormal development of the kidney that is characterized by atretic ureter, multiple cysts of different sizes that are separated by dysplastic parenchyma, and complete lack of function." |
| C123032 | Pus within the collecting system of the kidney. |
| C123033 | "Tissue damage to the glomerulus and renal tubules resulting from irradiation, which is characterized by vascular endothelial damage, mesangial damage, platelet aggregation in the capillary loops, thickening of the glomerular arteriolar intimal layer, and atrophic tubules." |
| C123035 | Kidney disease associated with Schistosoma infection. Injury to the kidney may be a result of immunologically mediated glomerular or interstitial injury and/or a result of reflux nephropathy. |
| C123036 | Disease affecting the renal tubules and interstitium of the kidney. |
| C123037 | Nephrolithiasis in which the composition of the stone(s) is predominantly uric acid. |
| C123038 | "Chronic, destructive infection of the kidney characterized by lipid-laden macrophages in the setting of obstruction secondary to infected renal stones, most commonly caused by Proteus or Escherichia coli." |
| C123039 | "Proliferative glomerulonephritis characterized by activation of the alternative complement pathway, resulting in mesangial hypercellularity, endocapillary proliferation, and glomerular basement membrane intramembranous highly electron dense deposits." |
| C123040 | Glomerular enlargement greater than the fiftieth percentile. |
| C123042 | Diffuse glomerular (greater than 50% of glomeruli) hypertrophy (greater than 250 micron diameter) that occurs in the context of obesity. |
| C123043 | "Glomerulonephritis characterized by C3 accumulation with little or absent deposition of immunoglobulin, in the absence of ultrastructural electron-dense transformation seen in dense deposit disease." |
| C123044 | "Segmental or global glomerulopathy with tuft wrinkling, collapse and contraction without increased matrix or cells, but with adjacent podocyte hypertrophy and hyperplasia." |
| C123045 | "Nephrotic syndrome associated with a cytomegalovirus infection, most commonly presenting in the first three months of life." |
| C123046 | "Nephrotic syndrome presenting within the first three months of life, and which is associated with an infectious process." |
| C123047 | "Nephrotic syndrome associated with rubella, most commonly presenting in the first three months of life." |
| C123048 | "Nephrotic syndrome associated with toxoplasmosis, most commonly presenting in the first three months of life." |
| C123049 | "Nephrotic syndrome associated with syphilis, most commonly presenting in the first three months of life." |
| C123050 | Glomerulonephritis in the context of cryoglobulinemia. |
| C123051 | "A variant of FSGS characterized by hypercellularity of the glomerulus; this excludes the tip and collapsing FSGS. (D'Agati VD, et al. ""Pathologic Classification of Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis: A Working Proposal."" Am J Kidney Dis 43.2 (2004): 368-82.)" |
| C123052 | "A variant of FSGS characterized by glomerular tuft collapse, which may result in scarring. (D'Agati VD, et al. ""Pathologic Classification of Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis: A Working Proposal."" Am J Kidney Dis 43.2 (2004): 368-82.)" |
| C123053 | "A variant of FSGS characterized by scarring of the glomerulus where at least 50% of the scars are adjacent to the hilum and must have hyalinosis; this excludes cellular, tip and collapsing FSGS. (D'Agati VD, et al. ""Pathologic Classification of Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis: A Working Proposal."" Am J Kidney Dis 43.2 (2004): 368-82.)" |
| C123054 | "A variant of FSGS characterized by scarring of the glomerulus adjacent to the origin of the proximal convoluted tubule; this occurs in the absence of collapsing and perihilar FSGS. (D'Agati VD, et al. ""Pathologic Classification of Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis: A Working Proposal."" Am J Kidney Dis 43.2 (2004): 368-82.)" |
| C123055 | "Glomerulonephritis characterized by mesangial proliferation, endocapillary proliferation, and glomerular capillary wall remodeling with immune complex deposits from classical complement pathway activation." |
| C123056 | "Glomerulonephritis similar in appearance under light microscopy to membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) I, but with subepithelial or transmembranous and subendothelial deposits on electron microscopy." |
| C123057 | Membranous nephropathy associated with an autoimmune disorder. |
| C123059 | Membranous nephropathy associated with exposure to a drug. |
| C123060 | Membranous nephropathy for which no cause has been identified. |
| C123061 | Membranous nephropathy associated with infectious disease. |
| C123062 | Membranous nephropathy in the context of malignancy. |
| C123063 | Membranous nephropathy due to neural endopeptidase (NEP) antibodies. |
| C123064 | Membranous nephropathy due to phospholipase 2 receptor (PLA2R) antibodies. |
| C123065 | Membranous nephropathy due to thrombospondin type-1 domain-containing protein 7A (THSD7A) antibodies. |
| C123067 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the ACTN4 gene. |
| C123068 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the ADCK4 gene. |
| C123069 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the ANLN gene. |
| C123070 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the ARHGAP24 gene. |
| C123071 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the ARHGDIA gene. |
| C123072 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the CD2AP gene. |
| C123073 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the CFH gene. |
| C123074 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the COQ2 gene. |
| C123075 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the COQ6 gene. |
| C123076 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the CRB2 gene. |
| C123077 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the CUBN gene. |
| C123078 | Nephrotic syndrome associated with a cytomegalovirus infection. |
| C123079 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the DGKE gene. |
| C123080 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the EMP2 gene. |
| C123081 | Nephrotic syndrome associated with Epstein-Barr infection. |
| C123082 | Nephrotic syndrome associated with hepatitis B. |
| C123083 | Nephrotic syndrome associated with a hepatitis C infection. |
| C123084 | Nephrotic syndrome associated with human immunodeficiency virus infection. |
| C123085 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the INF2 gene. |
| C123086 | Nephrotic syndrome associated with an infectious process. |
| C123087 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the ITGA3 gene. |
| C123088 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the ITGB4 gene. |
| C123089 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the LAMB2 gene. |
| C123090 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the LMX1B gene. |
| C123091 | Nephrotic syndrome associated with malaria. |
| C123092 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the MEFV gene. |
| C123093 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the MYO1E gene. |
| C123094 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the NEIL1 gene. |
| C123095 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the NPHS2 gene. |
| C123096 | Nephrotic syndrome associated with a parvovirus B19 infection. |
| C123097 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the PDSS2 gene. |
| C123098 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the PLCE1 gene. |
| C123099 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the PTPRO gene. |
| C123100 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the SCARB2 gene. |
| C123101 | Nephrotic syndrome associated with a simian virus 40 infection. |
| C123102 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the SMARCAL1 gene. |
| C123103 | Nephrotic syndrome associated with a syphilis infection. |
| C123104 | Nephrotic syndrome associated with a toxoplasmosis infection. |
| C123105 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the TRPC6 gene. |
| C123106 | Nephrotic syndrome attributed to mutation(s) in the WT1 gene. |
| C123108 | "Glomerulonephritis with paucity of glomerular staining for immunoglobulins that may be accompanied by systemic, small vessel vasculitis containing no anti neutrophil cytoplasm antibody (ANCA)." |
| C123109 | Glomerulonephritis in which anti-neutrophil cytoplasm antibody (ANCA) is almost always present and vasculitis is limited to the kidney. |
| C123110 | "Glomerulonephritis in the context of eosinophilic-rich granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilia, asthma and commonly anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody." |
| C123111 | Glomerulonephritis in the context of granulomatosis with polyangiitis in which anti-neutrophil cytoplasm antibody (ANCA) is almost always present. |
| C123112 | "Glomerulonephritis in the context of systemic, small vessel vasculitis in which anti neutrophil cytoplasm antibody (ANCA) is almost always present." |
| C123113 | Collapsing glomerulopathy for which no underlying cause has been identified. |
| C123114 | Collapsing glomerulopathy for which an underlying cause has been identified. |
| C123115 | "Systemic lupus erythematosus nephritis that appears normal under light microscopy, but with evidence of immune deposits by immunofluorescence. (Weening, Jan J. et al. (2004). The Classification of Glomerulonephritis in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Revisited. Journal of the American Society of Nephrology 15(2), 241-50.)" |
| C123116 | "Systemic lupus erythematosus nephritis exhibiting mesangial hypercellularity or mesangial expansion by light microscopy, with mesangial immune deposits. Isolated subepithelial or subendothelial deposits may be visible by immunofluorescence or electron microscopy, but not by light microscopy. (Weening, Jan J. et al. (2004). The Classification of Glomerulonephritis in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Revisited. Journal of the American Society of Nephrology 15(2), 241-50.)" |
| C123117 | "Systemic lupus erythematosus nephritis with active of inactive focal, segmental or global endo- or extracapillary glomerulonephritis involving less than 50% of all glomeruli, typically with focal subendothelial immune deposits with or without mesangial alterations. (Weening, Jan J. et al. (2004). The Classification of Glomerulonephritis in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Revisited. Journal of the American Society of Nephrology 15(2), 241-50.)" |
| C123118 | "Systemic lupus erythematosus nephritis, with active or inactive diffuse, segmental or global endo- or extracapillary glomerulonephritis involving greater than or equal to 50% of all glomeruli, typically with diffuse subendothelial immune deposits, with or without mesangial alterations. (Weening, Jan J. et al. (2004). The Classification of Glomerulonephritis in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Revisited. Journal of the American Society of Nephrology 15(2), 241-50.)" |
| C123119 | "Systemic lupus erythematosus nephritis, characterized by active or inactive diffuse, global endo- or extracapillary glomerulonephritis that involves 50% or more of all glomeruli. (Weening, Jan J. et al. (2004). The Classification of Glomerulonephritis in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Revisited. Journal of the American Society of Nephrology 15(2), 241-50.)" |
| C123120 | "Systemic lupus erythematosus nephritis characterized by active or inactive diffuse, segmental endo- or extracapillary glomerulonephritis that involves 50% or more of all glomeruli. (Weening, Jan J. et al. (2004). The Classification of Glomerulonephritis in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Revisited. Journal of the American Society of Nephrology 15(2), 241-50.)" |
| C123121 | "Systemic lupus erythematosus nephritis, with global or segmental subepithelial immune deposits or their morphologic sequelae by light microscopy and by immunofluorescence or electron microscopy, with or without mesangial alterations. (Weening, Jan J. et al. (2004). The Classification of Glomerulonephritis in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Revisited. Journal of the American Society of Nephrology 15(2), 241-50.)" |
| C123122 | "Systemic lupus erythematosus nephritis, with 90% or more of glomeruli globally sclerosed without residual activity. (Weening, Jan J. et al. (2004). The Classification of Glomerulonephritis in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Revisited. Journal of the American Society of Nephrology 15(2), 241-50.)" |
| C123123 | "Segmental glomerulopathy of localized intracapillary foam cells with adjacent, often vacuolated glomerular epithelial cells confluent to the origin of the proximal tubule." |
| C123124 | "Nephrotic syndrome in which proteinuria has decreased by at least 50% and below the nephrotic range cutoff from disease onset, but does not normalize following a defined course of treatment." |
| C123125 | Kidney damage resulting from exposure to antimicrobials. |
| C123126 | Kidney damage resulting from exposure to bisphosphonates. |
| C123127 | Kidney damage resulting from exposure to calcineurin inhibitors. |
| C123128 | Kidney damage resulting from exposure to chemotherapeutic drugs. |
| C123129 | Kidney damage resulting from exposure to contrast agents. |
| C123130 | "Kidney damage resulting from lithium which may include distal or collecting tubular cysts, proteinuria, interstitial nephritis and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus." |
| C123131 | Kidney damage resulting from exposure to mechanistic target of rapamycin (mTOR) kinase inhibitors. |
| C123132 | Kidney damage resulting from aminoglycosides. |
| C123133 | Kidney damage resulting from amphotericin. |
| C123134 | Kidney damage resulting from analgesic drugs. |
| C123135 | Kidney damage resulting from ciclosporin. |
| C123136 | Kidney damage resulting from cisplatin. |
| C123137 | Kidney damage resulting from tacrolimus. |
| C123138 | Kidney damage resulting from exposure to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). |
| C123139 | "Segmental scarring of the glomerulus, which may result in isolated proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome, which affects only part of the glomerulus and only some of the glomeruli. Additionally, the Not Otherwise Specified classification excludes FSGS tip, perihilar, collapsing, and cellular variants. (D'Agati VD, et al. ""Pathologic Classification of Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis: A Working Proposal."" Am J Kidney Dis 43.2 (2004): 368-82.)" |
| C123140 | IgA nephropathy secondary to a genetic mutation that is transmitted from parents to offspring. |
| C123141 | IgA nephropathy co-occurring with infectious disease. |
| C123155 | Hydronephrosis that occurs in a fetus. |
| C123158 | "A hereditary disorder characterized by excessive oxalate production, leading to hyperoxaluria." |
| C123159 | A cystic and dysplastic dilation of the distal ureter within the bladder that may extend into the bladder neck and urethra. |
| C123160 | A lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of mildly and moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma cells across the alveolar walls with at least one focus of invasive carcinoma measuring more than 5 mm in greatest dimension. |
| C123161 | "Enlargement of the diameter of the ureter, which can be partial or complete." |
| C123162 | A group of conditions comprising dysfunction of the storage and elimination of urine. |
| C123163 | Acute kidney injury caused by ischemic necrosis of the renal cortex. |
| C123164 | "Antenatal hydronephrosis with the following clinical findings: 1) an anterior-posterior renal pelvis diameter (APRPD) of 4 to less than 7 mm at less than 28 weeks, 2) to less than10 mm at greater than or equal to 28 weeks, and 3) may have central calyceal dilation. (Adapted from: Hiep T. Nguyen, Carol B. Benson, Bryann Bromley, Jeffrey B. Campbell, Jeanne Chow, Beverly Coleman, Christopher Cooper, Jude Crino, Kassa Darge, C.D. Anthony Herndon, Anthony O. Odibo, Michael J.G. Somers, Deborah ... |
| C123165 | "Antenatal hydronephrosis with the following clinical findings: 1) an anterior-posterior renal pelvis diameter (APRPD) of greater than or equal to 7mm at less than 28 weeks, 2) greater than or equal to10 mm at greater than or equal to 28 weeks, or 3) any one of the following findings: a)dilation of peripheral calyces, b) abnormal parenchymal thickness or appearance, c) visibly dilated ureter, d) an abnormal bladder, or e) the presence of oligohydramnios suspected to be related to the urinary... |
| C123166 | Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease caused by a mutation in PKD2. |
| C123167 | Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease caused by a mutation in PKD1. |
| C123170 | A heterogeneous and/or septated cyst located in the kidney. |
| C123171 | "An inherited form of cystic kidney disease that leads to fibrosis and impaired renal function as a result of defects in the MUC1 gene, which encodes mucin 1." |
| C123172 | "An inherited form of cystic kidney disease leading to fibrosis and impaired renal function that is caused by mutations in the UMOD gene, which encodes uromodulin/Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein." |
| C123173 | A homogenous cyst located in the kidney. |
| C123174 | Inflammation of the bladder due to irradiation. |
| C123175 | Inflammation of the trigone of the urinary bladder. |
| C123176 | Inflammation of both the urethra and the trigone of the urinary bladder. |
| C123177 | Epispadias with urinary continence. |
| C123178 | Epispadias with urinary incontinence. |
| C123179 | "Cryoglobulinemia glomerulonephritis associated with chronic disease, often inflammatory conditions." |
| C123180 | "Glomerulonephritis characterized by proliferation of endothelial or mesangial cells, affecting the glomeruli in a focal and segmental pattern." |
| C123181 | Glomerulonephritis in the context of Henoch-Schönlein purpura. |
| C123183 | "Postnatal Hydronephrosis with the following clinical findings: 1) APRPD is 10 to less than 15 mm, 2) central calyceal dilation may be present, but peripheral calyceal dilation is considered to increase risk, 3) renal parenchyma should have normal thickness and appearance, 4) the ureter is not seen, and 5) the bladder is normal. If there is central calyceal dilation but the APRPD is less than 10 mm, it is still considered UTD P1. (Adapted from: Hiep T. Nguyen, Carol B. Benson, Bryann Bromley... |
| C123184 | "Postnatal Hydronephrosis with the following clinical findings: 1) APRPD is greater than or equal to 15 mm, 2) the calyces may be dilated centrally and peripherally, 3) or a dilated ureter is visible, 4) the parenchymal thickness and appearance is normal, and 5) the bladder is normal. Cases in which there is peripheral calyceal dilation but the APRPD is less than 15 mm are classified as UTD P2. (Adapted from: Hiep T. Nguyen, Carol B. Benson, Bryann Bromley, Jeffrey B. Campbell, Jeanne Chow, ... |
| C123185 | "Postnatal Hydronephrosis with the following clinical findings: 1) calyceal dilation and the ureter are the same as those in UTD P2, 2) the renal parenchymal is thinned, has increased echogenicity and/or has decreased corticomedullary differentiation, or 3) the bladder is abnormal (wall thickening, ureterocele, posterior urethral dilation). Cases in which there are parenchymal abnormalities but the APRPD is less than 15 mm, are classified as UTD P3. (Adapted from: Hiep T. Nguyen, Carol B. Be... |
| C123188 | "A condition characterized by a large capacity, thin-walled bladder and megaureter(s)." |
| C123189 | A megaureter in which there is no obstruction at the ureterovesical junction. |
| C123190 | A megaureter in which there is no obstruction at the ureterovesical junction and no vesicoureteral reflux. |
| C123191 | A megaureter in which there is obstruction to the flow of urine at the ureterovesical junction. |
| C123192 | A megaureter that demonstrates retrograde urine flow without ureteral obstruction. |
| C123193 | "A megaureter in which there is retrograde flow of urine and a concomitant, episodic obstruction resulting from ureteral folding." |
| C123194 | An out-pouching of the calyx into the renal parenchyma. |
| C123195 | "Necrosis of the renal papillae, for which no underlying cause has been identified." |
| C123196 | Nephropathy due to hypoperfusion of the kidney. |
| C123197 | Hypertensive nephropathy secondary to malignant hypertension. |
| C123199 | "A syndrome characterized by hematuria with dysmorphic red blood cells, red blood cell casts, and proteinuria; systemic manifestations may be present, including hypertension, edema, oliguria." |
| C123200 | "Progressive tubulointerstitial injury, inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, caused by mutations in genes involved in ciliary function, which may result in an end stage renal failure." |
| C123201 | Nephropathy associated with rhabdomyolysis. |
| C123202 | Congenital renal hypoplasia characterized by small kidneys; reduced nephron number; tubular and glomerular hypertrophy. |
| C123203 | "Nephropathy secondary to sickle cell disease, characterized by the presence of sickled erythrocytes in the renal medullary vessels, renal ischemia and microinfarctions, renal papillary necrosis, and renal tubular abnormalities." |
| C123207 | "A congenital anomaly that involves the protrusion of the exstrophied bladder through the abdominal wall. It is an anomaly that exists along the exstrophy-epispadias complex, which frequently includes urethra exstrophy, separation of the pubic symphysis, external rotation of the pelvic bones, and opening of the puborectal sling and sphincters." |
| C123208 | "Non-coordinated, reflexive contraction of the bladder and sphincter relaxation." |
| C123209 | A congenital out pouching of the bladder involving the ureteral hiatus. |
| C123210 | A posterior urethral valve extending from the vera montanum towards the distal meatus. |
| C123211 | "A posterior urethral valve, presumed to result from incomplete canalization of the urethra, that is located immediately distal to the vera montanum." |
| C123212 | Recessively inherited primary hyperoxaluria due to alanine-glyoxylate aminotransferase (AGXT) deficiency. |
| C123213 | Recessively inherited primary hyperoxaluria due to glyoxylate reductase/hydroxypyruvate reductase (GRHPR) deficiency. |
| C123214 | Recessively inherited primary hyperoxaluria due to mitochondrial 4-hydroxy-2-oxoglutarate aldolase (HOGA1) gene mutations. |
| C123215 | Sudden onset pyelonephritis. |
| C123216 | Persistent pyelonephritis. |
| C123221 | Narrowing of a main artery in the kidney. |
| C123222 | The formation of a thrombus in the renal artery. |
| C123223 | Hemolytic uremic syndrome not associated with shiga toxin-producing enterobacteria. |
| C123225 | A disorder of the heart and kidneys in which dysfunction of one of the organs induces dysfunction of the other organ. |
| C123226 | "Hemolytic uremic syndrome caused by gastrointestinal infection, usually with shiga toxin-producing enterobacteria." |
| C123227 | Fecal constipation or impaction resulting in bowel and bladder dysfunction. |
| C123228 | "Hemolytic uremic syndrome associated with an inherited defect, but which is not associated with shiga toxin-producing enterobacteria." |
| C123229 | "A genetic disorder characterized by impairment of the function of the proximal tubules of the kidney, which results in decreased reabsorption of electrolytes, glucose, amino acids, and other nutrients." |
| C123230 | A genetic disorder caused by PAX2 gene mutations that is characterized by renal hypoplasia and a spectrum of congenital anomalies of the eye and urinary tract. |
| C123231 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of 11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, which is characterized by hypertension, hypokalemia, low renin, and hypoaldosteronism." |
| C123232 | A congenital anomaly in which the ureteral orifice drains into an abnormal location. |
| C123233 | A condition in which two ipsilateral ureters unite and drain into the bladder at a single ureteric orifice. |
| C123234 | "The folding of a ureter, which results in the impediment of urine flow." |
| C123235 | "A ureterocele in which the orifice is located in the bladder, with the ureterocele pouch extending submucosally into the urethra." |
| C123236 | "A ureterocele in which some portion of the ureterocele is situated permanently at the bladder neck or in the urethra. The orifice may be situated in the bladder, at the bladder neck, or in the urethra. (Adapted from Glassberg KI, Braren V, Duckett JW, Jacobs EC, King LR, Lebowitz RL et al. Suggested terminology for duplex systems, ectopic ureters and ureteroceles. J Urol 1984; 132(6):1153-1154.)" |
| C123237 | "A ureterocele that is located entirely within the bladder, and which may be associated with a single system, with the upper pole ureter of a completely duplicated system, or rarely associated with a lower pole ureter. (Adapted from Glassberg KI, Braren V, Duckett JW, Jacobs EC, King LR, Lebowitz RL et al. Suggested terminology for duplex systems, ectopic ureters and ureteroceles. J Urol 1984; 132(6):1153-1154.)" |
| C123238 | "A ureterocele with a small, obstructive orifice." |
| C123239 | A ureterocele in which the orifice is distal to the external urinary sphincter. |
| C123242 | Urolithiasis in which the composition of the stones is predominantly calcium oxalate. |
| C123243 | Urolithiasis in which the composition of the stones is predominantly calcium phosphate. |
| C123244 | Urolithiasis in which the composition of the stones is predominantly cystine. |
| C123245 | Urolithiasis in which the composition of the stones is predominantly urate. |
| C123246 | Difficulty in initiating urination. |
| C123247 | The need to increase intra-abdominal pressure in order to initiate and maintain voiding. |
| C123249 | "A condition characterized by abnormal proliferation of fibrous tissue in the compartment posterior to the peritoneum, for which no underlying cause has been identified." |
| C123250 | "Narrowing of the infundibulum to the calyx, which produces an impediment to urine flow." |
| C123251 | "A hereditary, heterogeneous disorder of electrolyte metabolism that is characterized by renal resistance to aldosterone action, resulting in salt wasting, hypotension, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis." |
| C123252 | A hereditary renal tubular defect characterized by hypertension and hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis in the presence of suppressed plasma renin levels and relatively low aldosterone levels. |
| C123254 | "A condition in which the urachus fails to close proximal to the bladder, resulting in a non-detrusor, blind-ending pouch at the dome of the bladder." |
| C123255 | Remaining collapsed and obliterated urachal tissue between the bladder dome and umbilicus. |
| C123260 | "An X-linked, recessive disorder of the proximal renal tubules that presents during childhood, and is characterized by low-molecular weight proteinuria, hypercalciuria, hypophosphatemia rickets, nephrocalcinosis, nephrolithiasis, and progressive kidney failure." |
| C123261 | "A hereditary condition caused by calcium sensing receptor gene mutations, resulting in calcium-hypersensitivity, and compensatory hypocalcemia and hypercalciuria." |
| C123262 | "A hereditary condition caused by calcium sensing receptor gene mutations, resulting in calcium-hyposensitivity, and compensatory hypercalcemia and hypocalciuria." |
| C123263 | "A hereditary disorder that leads to a selective defect in renal or intestinal magnesium absorption, resulting in a low serum magnesium concentration." |
| C12326 | "The failure of one or both testes of a male fetus to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum during the late part of pregnancy. If not surgically corrected in early childhood, males may be at increased risk for testicular cancer later in life." |
| C123276 | "An infection caused by the BK virus. It usually causes an asymptomatic infection, except in immunocompromised individuals where it may cause nephropathy or hemorrhagic cystitis." |
| C123308 | Myotonic dystrophy that is present at birth. |
| C123317 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the DICER1 gene. People with this syndrome are at an increased risk of developing pleuropulmonary blastoma, cystic nephroma, Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor of the ovary, and multinodular goiter." |
| C123329 | "Multiple endocrine neoplasia caused by mutation of the RET gene. It includes the following neoplastic processes: multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A, multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B, and hereditary thyroid gland medullary carcinoma." |
| C123330 | "Loss of vision in the central portion of the retina (macula), secondary to retinal degeneration." |
| C123384 | "A rare, low-grade carcinoma of the salivary gland with favorable clinical outcome.  It usually arises from the parotid gland and less often from the minor salivary glands.  It shares the same histopathologic features and molecular characteristics (ETV6 gene rearrangement) with secretory breast carcinoma." |
| C123392 | Lymphomatoid granulomatosis that occurs during childhood. |
| C123393 | The reemergence of lymphomatoid granulomatosis in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C123394 | An extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that occurs during childhood. |
| C123395 | "Langerhans cell histiocytosis that occurs during childhood and involves the bone marrow, spleen, liver, or lung." |
| C123396 | "Langerhans cell histiocytosis that occurs during childhood and does not involve the bone marrow, spleen, liver, or lung." |
| C123397 | A spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in children. |
| C123398 | A periosteal osteosarcoma occurring in childhood. |
| C123412 | Alzheimer's disease with an early onset (starts before the age of 65). It is caused by mutations in the PSEN1 gene. |
| C123413 | Alzheimer's disease with an early onset (starts before the age of 65). It is caused by mutations in the PSEN2 gene. |
| C123414 | Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia induced by adrenergic stress. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and is caused by mutations in the ryanodine receptor 2 (RYR2) gene. |
| C123415 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutation in the HPCA gene. It begins in childhood or adolescence and is characterized by involuntary, sustained muscle contractions and torsions affecting initially distal limbs and later the neck, orofacial, and craniocervical regions." |
| C123416 | An autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by very high levels of low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) and total cholesterol in the blood. It is usually caused by mutations in the LDLR gene which is located on the short arm of chromosome 19. |
| C123417 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the LMNA gene. It is characterized by growth retardation, craniofacial abnormalities with mandibular hypoplasia, skeletal abnormalities with progressive osteolysis of the distal phalanges and clavicles, and mottled or patchy skin pigmentation. The affected individuals have a marked acral loss of adipose tissue with normal or increased adipose tissue in the neck and trunk." |
| C123429 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the SCN4A gene. It is characterized by occasional episodes of muscle weakness or paralysis which are usually accompanied by increased levels of potassium in the blood. In some cases, the episodes of paralysis are associated with normal blood potassium levels.  Ingestion of potassium can trigger attacks in affected individuals." |
| C123433 | An autosomal recessive inherited condition caused by mutations in the AASS gene. It is characterized by elevated levels of the amino acid lysine in the blood. It usually does not cause health problems. |
| C123434 | "Decreased or absent levels of serum immunoglobulin A, with normal serum levels of immunoglobulin G and immunoglobulin M in a patient who is older than 4 years of age and in whom all other causes of hypogammaglobulinemia have been excluded. Affected individuals may be asymptomatic or have frequent infections, allergic reactions, or autoimmune disorders." |
| C123435 | A metabolic disorder usually inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and caused by mutations in the MAT1A gene. Affected individuals usually do not have clinical abnormalities. |
| C123436 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the B3GALTL gene. It is characterized by abnormalities in the anterior chamber of the eye, short stature, cleft lip with or without cleft palate, distinctive facial features, and intellectual disability." |
| C123437 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the MMP2 gene. It is characterized by the presence of multiple, painless subcutaneous nodules, osteolysis particularly in the hands and feet, osteoporosis, and arthropathy." |
| C123438 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the COL6A1, COL6A2, and COL6A3 genes. Signs and symptoms usually appear at birth or early infancy. Affected individuals have severe muscle weakness, multiple contractures, and hypermobility in their distal joints." |
| C123638 | Abnormal widening of the central spinal canal. |
| C123639 | A congenital birth defect characterized by the absence of a normal vaginal opening. |
| C123643 | Syringomyelia associated with accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the spinal cord. |
| C123725 | "A X-linked condition characterized by underdevelopment of the adrenal gland and adrenal insufficiency caused by mutation(s) in the NR0B1 gene, resulting in decreased activity of the nuclear receptor protein DAX1, which may be associated with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism." |
| C123726 | "An autosomal recessive condition characterized by female to male sex reversal and kidney, adrenal, and lung dysgenesis, due to mutation(s) in the WNT4 gene." |
| C123729 | "A congenital condition characterized by growth retardation, a decreased number of NK cells, glucocorticoid deficiency, and increased chromosome breakage, associated with mutation(s) in the MCM4 gene." |
| C123731 | An alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of chromosomal translocation t(1;13)(p36;q14) that results in PAX7-FOXO1 gene fusion; or translocation t(2;13)(q35;q14) that results in PAX3-FOXO1 gene fusion.  Approximately 80% of alveolar rhabdomyosarcomas are fusion-positive. |
| C123732 | An alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the absence of chromosomal translocation t(1;13)(p36;q14) or t(2;13)(q35;q14) and therefore the absence of PAX7-FOXO1 or PAX3-FOXO1 gene fusion. |
| C123735 | A rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of chromosomal translocation t(1;13)(p36;q14) that results in PAX7-FOXO1 gene fusion; or translocation t(2;13)(q35;q14) that results in PAX3-FOXO1 gene fusion. |
| C123736 | A rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the absence of chromosomal translocation t(1;13)(p36;q14) or t(2;13)(q35;q14) and therefore the absence of PAX7-FOXO1 or PAX3-FOXO1 gene fusion. |
| C123737 | A malignant germ cell tumor that occurs during childhood and is resistant to treatment. |
| C123739 | Malignant germ cell tumor resistant to treatment. |
| C123813 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the FGFR2 gene. It is characterized by the premature fusion of the bones of the skull (craniosynostosis) and a skin abnormality called cutis gyrata. The craniosynostosis results in a cloverleaf-shaped skull, wide-set eyes, ear abnormalities, underdeveloped upper jaw, and developmental delays. Cutis gyrata is characterized by a wrinkled skin appearance, especially on the face, near the ears, and on the palms and soles." |
| C123814 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the FGFR2 gene. It is characterized by the premature fusion of the bones of the skull (craniosynostosis) and foot abnormalities. The craniosynostosis results in a malformed skull, widely spaced eyes, and a bulging forehead. The foot abnormalities consist of short and wide first toes, which bend away from the other toes. In addition, syndactyly in some toes may be present. The hands are almost always normal." |
| C123815 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the SMAD4 gene.  It is characterized by developmental abnormalities, mild to moderate intellectual disability, hearing loss, skin stiffness, skeletal abnormalities, and typical facial features (short palpebral fissures, shortened distance between the nose and upper lip, midface hypoplasia, prognathism, cleft palate, and/or cleft lip)." |
| C123834 | An immature teratoma occurring in children. |
| C123835 | An immature teratoma that arises from the testis and occurs in children. |
| C123836 | A mature teratoma occurring in children. |
| C123837 | A mature teratoma that arises from the testis and occurs in children. |
| C123838 | A germinomatous germ cell tumor occurring in children. |
| C123840 | A seminoma occurring in children. |
| C123841 | A nongerminomatous germ cell tumor occurring in children. |
| C123842 | A nongerminomatous germ cell tumor that arises in the ovary and occurs in children. |
| C123843 | A non-seminomatous germ cell tumor that arises in the testis and occurs in children. |
| C123844 | A choriocarcinoma occurring in children. |
| C123847 | An embryonal carcinoma occurring in children. |
| C123848 | A mixed germ cell tumor occurring in children. |
| C123849 | A mixed germ cell tumor that arises from the ovary and occurs in children. |
| C123898 | Formation of a blood clot (thrombus) in the lumen of the veins in the liver or hepatic artery. |
| C123899 | Formation of a blood clot (thrombus) in the lumen of the splenic vein or splenic artery. |
| C123900 | Formation of a blood clot (thrombus) in the lumen of a mesenteric vein or mesenteric artery. |
| C123901 | Formation of a blood clot (thrombus) in the lumen of the vein that carries blood away from the testis or ovary. |
| C123903 | A papillary thyroid gland carcinoma occurring during childhood. |
| C123904 | A follicular thyroid gland carcinoma occurring in childhood. |
| C123905 | A medullary thyroid gland carcinoma occurring in childhood. |
| C123906 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) occurring in childhood. Pediatric GISTs differ biologically from adult GISTs in that only 11% of pediatric GISTs have activating mutations of KIT and PDGFRA. |
| C123907 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the kidney and occurs in childhood. |
| C123932 | A small intestinal leiomyosarcoma occurring in childhood. |
| C123933 | A small intestinal carcinoma occurring in childhood. |
| C124056 | "A rare osteochondrodysplasia characterized by short stature, joint laxity, multiple dislocations, vertebral and metaphyseal abnormalities, and advanced carpotarsal ossification. Two forms have been identified: type 1 caused by mutation in the gene CANT1 and type 2 caused by mutations in the gene XYLT1." |
| C124057 | "A rare brain developmental disorder caused by mutations in the TSEN54, TSEN2, TSEN34, or SEPSECS gene. The pons and cerebellum are the brain structures that are more severely affected. It is characterized by microcephaly, lack of voluntary motor skills, dysphagia, inability to communicate, abnormal patterns of movement, and spasticity." |
| C124070 | "A very common, non-neoplastic dermatologic disorder characterized by keratinization of hair follicles of the skin. It manifests as small, rough folliculocentric keratotic papules, usually in the outer-upper arms and thighs. It affects children and adolescents and usually improves with age." |
| C124137 | A pineal parenchymal tumor of intermediate differentiation that occurs during childhood. |
| C124269 | A myxopapillary ependymoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C124270 | A neuroblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C124271 | A ganglioneuroblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C124272 | A central nervous system ganglioneuroblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C124273 | An intermixed ganglioneuroblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C124274 | A nodular ganglioneuroblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C124275 | An astrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C124291 | An atypical choroid plexus papilloma that occurs during childhood. |
| C124292 | A choroid plexus carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C124293 | An anaplastic ependymoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C124493 | "A congenital defect characterized by the absence of most or all of the head, with the presence of a mouth-like opening on the upper thorax." |
| C124495 | "A congenital heart malformation characterised by incomplete separation of the truncus arteriosus and the aorticopulmonary trunk, resulting in communication between the aorta and pulmonary trunk." |
| C124497 | A congenital anatomic defect characterised by the absence of a normally present opening in an organ or tissue. |
| C124505 | "A congenital abnormality characterized by the abnormal development of the lower portion of the body. Findings include hypoplastic lower extremities, defects of the caudal vertebrae, sacrum and neural tube, or maldeveloped gastrointestinal or genital organs." |
| C124506 | "A congenital abnormality characterized by a malformation of the head. The eyes are hypoteleric and the nose may be absent or misshapen (small, flattened, single nostril) and defective." |
| C124507 | A developmental abnormality characterized by the complex protrusion of viscera outside the abdominal wall. |
| C124508 | "A congenital abnormality consisting of a fissure in the midline of the lip, hard and/or soft palate and upper jaw." |
| C124509 | A congenital abnormality consisting of a fissure in the midline of the lip and upper jaw. |
| C124510 | "A congenital abnormality consisting of an opening or gap in the face, which results from incomplete fusion of one or more of the embryonic facial prominences." |
| C124511 | "A congenital abnormality consisting of clefting in the jaw, which results from incomplete fusion of the embryonic mandibular prominence." |
| C124512 | "A congenital abnormality consisting of clefting in the lower face through the midline of the lip and/or mandible, which results from incomplete fusion of the embryonic mandibular prominence." |
| C124513 | A congenital abnormality consisting of a fissure in the midline of the upper jawbone. |
| C124517 | A congenital abnormality in which the meninges protrude through a defect in the cranium. |
| C124518 | "A congenital abnormality characterized by round or oval shaped defects in the membranous skull vault resulting in non-ossified, honey comb-like areas in the calvaria." |
| C124519 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the failure of the bones of the skull to close. |
| C124520 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of a continuous layer of skin extending over the eyeballs and the absence of eyelids and the palpebral fissure. |
| C124522 | A rare congenital abnormality characterized by the failure of the embryonic prosencephalon to separate the eye orbit into two distinct cavities. Facial features tend to be absent although a proboscis has been seen to develop in conjunction. |
| C124529 | "A congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of holoprosencephaly, a proboscis, the absence of a nose and microphthalmic, close-set eyes." |
| C124531 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the extrusion of the brain outside of the skull. |
| C124532 | An abnormal communication between the external auditory canal and the adjacent tissues. |
| C124538 | A developmental abnormality in which the bottom of the tongue is attached to the floor of the mouth. |
| C124541 | "A congenital abnormality characterized by incomplete development of one side of the vertebrae (arch and hemicentrum), resulting in spinal malformation." |
| C124543 | A form of the neural tube defect spina bifida in which the entire spinal column is open. |
| C124549 | A rare neural tube defect characterized by extreme retroflexion of the head and severe defects of the spine. It is usually associated with other congenital anomalies. |
| C124556 | A congenital heart defect resulting from deficient growth or failure of fusion of the membranous component of the ventricular septum. |
| C124557 | A congenital neural tube closure defect resulting in the protrusion of the brain and meninges through a skull opening. |
| C124558 | "A congenital neural tube closure defect resulting in protrusion of the brain, the meninges, and the ventricular system through an opening in the skull, usually involving the squamous part of the occipital bone.." |
| C124563 | A congenital heart defect resulting from deficient growth or failure of fusion of the muscular component of the ventricular septum. |
| C124568 | "A fatal, congenital, anatomic defect of the head characterised by a total or near total absence of the lower jaw, resulting in the union or close approach of the ears on the ventral side of the neck." |
| C124569 | "A congenital anatomic anomaly in which the aorta is positioned directly above a ventricular septal defect, thus receiving blood from both the right and left ventricles, resulting in an overall decrease In oxygenated haemoglobin and tissue cyanosis." |
| C124573 | A congenital anatomic defect characterised by a facial cleft that extends from the mouth to the orbit of the eye. |
| C124575 | A condition consisting of possessing the internal reproductive organs of one sex while exhibiting some of the secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex. |
| C124578 | A crease in the retina. |
| C124580 | "A congenital anatomic defect characterised by the presence of a proboscis-like nose located above the eyes, which are partially or completely fused." |
| C124586 | A congenital fissure of both the thoracic and abdominal walls. |
| C124587 | A congenital fissure of the thoracic wall. |
| C124589 | A congenital anatomic anomaly in which the heart has only three chambers. |
| C124591 | A congenital anatomic anomaly in which the heart has only two chambers. |
| C124837 | "A rare, autosomal dominant or X-linked dominant inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the KMT2D gene (also known as MLL2) or the KDM6A gene. It is characterized by distinctive facial features including arched eyebrows, long eyelashes, long palpebral fissures with the lower lids turned out at the outside edges, a flat nose, and large protruding earlobes, developmental delay and intellectual disability." |
| C124838 | Cleft lip with or without cleft palate mapped to chromosome 6p24. |
| C124839 | "A rare, X-linked inherited syndrome characterized by mental retardation and additional features, which include choreoathetosis, hydrocephalus, Dandy-Walker malformation, seizures, and iron or calcium deposition in the brain." |
| C124840 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited syndrome often caused by mutations in the SKI gene. It is characterized by premature fusion of skull bones and distinctive facial features, including a long, narrow head, hypertelorism, exophthalmos, downslanting palpebral fissures, a high, narrow palate, micrognathia, and low-set ears. The bodies of affected individuals resemble those of people with Marfan syndrome." |
| C124841 | "A rare, autosomal recessive syndrome characterized by orofacial anomalies, metacarpal abnormalities with central polydactyly, and cerebellar dysgenesis." |
| C124842 | "A rare, autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive syndrome caused by mutations in the SOX10, EDN3, or EDNRB genes. It is characterized by pigmentary abnormalities of the hair, skin, and eyes, congenital sensorineural hearing loss, and Hirschsprung disease." |
| C124844 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the DYM gene. It is characterized by abnormal skeletal development, microcephaly, and intellectual disability." |
| C124845 | "A rare, X-linked recessive genetic disorder of glycerol metabolism caused by mutations or deletion in the GK gene. It results in deficiency of the enzyme glycerol kinase.  It is characterized by elevated plasma and urine glycerol levels and neurometabolic manifestations which can cause life-threatening metabolic crisis in children." |
| C124846 | "A rare genetic disorder characterized by hypotonia, failure to thrive, mental retardation, developmental disorders, congenital anomalies, and autism spectrum disorders. The majority of patients harbor a microduplication of chromosome 17p11." |
| C124851 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder characterized by the absence or severe reduction of circulating human serum albumin." |
| C124852 | "A rare syndrome caused by deletion of genetic material in the short arm of chromosome 17. It is characterized by an abnormally smooth brain with fewer folds and grooves. It results in intellectual disability, developmental delay, seizures, spasticity, hypotonia, and feeding difficulties. Affected individuals have distinctive facial features that include a prominent forehead, midface hypoplasia, small, upturned nose, low-set ears, small jaw, and thick upper lip." |
| C124853 | "A rare syndrome of unknown cause that occurs in females. It is characterized by underdeveloped or absent vagina and uterus in an otherwise phenotypically normal female with a normal 46,XX karyotype. Other abnormalities include unilateral renal agenesis, skeletal abnormalities, hearing loss, and heart defects." |
| C124947 | Pulmonary edema that is not a result of cardiac dysfunction. |
| C125383 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SCN9A gene, encoding sodium channel protein type 9 subunit alpha. It is characterized by episodes of recurrent warmth, redness, and burning sensations in the extremities." |
| C125384 | "A rare, progressive chronic inflammation of a single cerebral hemisphere that usually affects children. It is characterized by severe seizures, loss of motor skills and speech, hemiparesis, and dementia." |
| C125385 | "A very rare, autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the SCN9A gene. It is characterized by skin redness and flushing and attacks of severe pain. The pain attacks usually last seconds to minutes." |
| C125386 | "A very rare, autosomal recessive inherited condition caused by mutations in the SCN9A gene. It is characterized by a lack of the ability to perceive physical pain." |
| C125387 | A very rare severe form of epilepsy with poor prognosis that usually begins within a few weeks of birth. The seizure activity can appear in multiple locations in the brain or migrate from one region to another during an episode. It results in severe developmental delay. |
| C125388 | A very rare disorder caused by mutation in the SCN11A gene.  Affected individuals are unable to experience pain since birth resulting in self-inflicted injuries. |
| C125389 | "Neuropathy caused by damage to the small myelinated (A-delta) fibers or unmyelinated C fibers in the peripheral nerves. It manifests with burning pain, shooting pain, allodynia, and hyperesthesia." |
| C125390 | "A rare, autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutation in the SCN11A gene. It is characterized by intense episodic pain mainly affecting the distal lower extremities in early childhood. The pain diminishes with age." |
| C125418 | "A rare syndrome likely inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. It is characterized by holoprosencephaly, polydactyly, phenotypic features reminiscent of trisomy 13, and normal karyotype." |
| C125419 | "A rare disorder caused by mutation in the KIF22 gene. It is characterized by short stature, midface retrusion, progressive knee malalignment, generalized ligamentous laxity, and mild spinal deformity." |
| C125484 | Partial or complete displacement of the crystalline lens from its normal position in the eye. |
| C125485 | A congenital abnormality characterized by an abnormally small cornea. The horizontal corneal diameter is less than 10mm or less than 9mm in newborns. It is associated with an increased risk of glaucoma. |
| C125487 | "An X-linked syndrome caused by mutations in the MID1 gene or autosomal dominant syndrome caused by changes in chromosome 22. It is characterized by ocular hypertelorism, and defects of the larynx, trachea, or esophagus. Most males have hypospadias, cryptorchidism, underdeveloped scrotum, or a scrotum divided into two lobes. Mild intellectual disability and developmental delays occur in approximately half of the affected individuals." |
| C125488 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the ATR gene, RBBP8 gene, CENPJ gene, CEP152 gene, CEP63 gene, NIN gene, DNA2 gene, or TRAIP gene. It is characterized by intrauterine growth retardation, dwarfism, microcephaly, mental retardation, and a ""bird-headed"" facial appearance." |
| C125591 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited syndrome characterized by microcephaly, growth retardation, and a small, round, triangular shaped face with a pointed, receding chin, a broad, wide-tipped nose, and wide-set eyes with drooping eyelids." |
| C125592 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the TBX5 gene. It is characterized by skeletal abnormalities in the upper limbs and heart abnormalities." |
| C125593 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder characterized by high levels of pipecolic acid in the blood, leading to neuropathy and hepatomegaly." |
| C125594 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited bone growth disorder caused by mutations in the COL2A1gene. It is characterized by short stature (dwarfism) and other skeletal abnormalities, round, flat face with bulging and wide-set eyes, myopia and retinal detachment that can lead to blindness." |
| C125595 | "A lysosomal storage disease characterized by multiple bone formation abnormalities, progressive joint stiffness, developmental abnormalities, hearing loss, hepatosplenomegaly, increased acne, enlarged tongue, and cornea clouding due to accumulation of lipid substances." |
| C125596 | An autosomal recessive inherited lysosomal storage disease characterized by excessive intracellular accumulation and urinary excretion of sialic acid associated with neuraminidase deficiency. |
| C125597 | A rare anatomical malformation characterized by polydactyly (extra fingers or toes) and syndactyly (webbed fingers or toes). |
| C125598 | "A rare disorder caused by mutations in the DLL3 gene, MESP2 gene, LFNG gene, or HES7 gene. It is characterized by abnormal development of bones in the spine and ribs." |
| C125599 | "A rare syndrome caused by mutations in the EZH2 gene, and rarely mutations in the NSD1 gene. It is characterized by advanced bone age, foot deformities, permanently bent joints, macrocephaly, flattened back of the head, a broad forehead, hypertelorism, large, low-set ears, micrognathia, delayed development of motor skills, and mild intellectual disability." |
| C125661 | A rare autosomal recessive metabolic disorder caused by mutation in CNDP1 gene. It is characterized by deficiency of carnosinase and manifests with severe mental defects and myoclonic seizures. |
| C125662 | "Spontaneous or traumatic separation of the layers of the carotid artery wall. It manifests with headache, neck pain, temporary vision loss, and/or ischemic stroke." |
| C125663 | "A progressive, fatal autosomal recessive disorder. It results from a defect in the mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation system. It manifests with growth retardation, microcephaly, hypertonicity, axial hypotonia, encephalopathy, cardiomyopathy, and liver dysfunction." |
| C125664 | Loss of the ability to perceive and process pain. |
| C125665 | "A rare X-linked inherited disorder. It is caused by mutations in the SLC6A8 gene resulting in the absence of a compound needed to transport creatine into cells. It manifests with intellectual disability, seizures, short stature, and midface hypoplasia." |
| C125693 | An extremely rare iron overload disorder caused by mutation in the structural gene for transferrin (TF gene). It is characterized by hypochromic microcytic anemia and hemosiderosis. |
| C125694 | "An extremely rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the ABCG5 or ABCG8 genes. It is characterized by a defective sterolin transporter that impairs the elimination of plant sterols and, to a lesser degree, cholesterol from the body. These fatty substances build up in the tissues including arteries and skin, resulting in atherosclerosis and xanthomas." |
| C125695 | "A progressive neurodegenerative disorder caused by a disruption in the connection between the striatum and the substantia nigra. It is a type of multiple system atrophy (MSA). Signs and symptoms include rigidity, instability, impaired speech, and slow movements." |
| C125696 | "A classic type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome resulting from autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the COL5A1 gene, encoding collagen alpha-1(V) chain." |
| C125697 | "A classic type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome resulting from autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the COL5A2 gene, encoding collagen alpha-2(V) chain." |
| C125698 | "Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, type III is the hypermobility type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. In most cases, the cause is unknown. Mutations in the TNXB gene have been found in a very small percentage of cases." |
| C125699 | "Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, type IV is the vascular type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. It results from mutations in the COL3A1 gene." |
| C125700 | "Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, type VI is the kyphoscoliosis type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. It results from mutations in the PLOD1 gene." |
| C125701 | "Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, type VII includes the arthrochalasia type (types VIIA and VIIB) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and the dermatosparaxis type (type VIIC) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. The arthrochalasia type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is caused by mutations in the COL1A1 gene or the COL1A2 gene. The dermatosparaxis type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is caused by mutations in the ADAMTS2 gene." |
| C125702 | Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCA gene. FANCA gene mutations are the most common cause of Fanconi anemia. This gene provides instructions for making a protein that is involved in the Fanconi anemia (FA) pathway. |
| C125703 | Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCB gene. This gene encodes the protein for complementation group B. |
| C125704 | Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCC gene. This gene provides instructions for making a protein that delays the onset of apoptosis and promotes homologous recombination repair of damaged DNA. |
| C125705 | Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the BRCA2 gene. |
| C125706 | "Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCD2 gene. This gene is involved in the repair of DNA double-strand breaks, both by homologous recombination and single-strand annealing." |
| C125707 | Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCF gene. This gene encodes a polypeptide with homology to the prokaryotic RNA-binding protein ROM. |
| C125708 | Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCG gene. |
| C125709 | Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCE gene. This is a protein coding gene. It is required for the nuclear accumulation of FANCC and provides a critical bridge between the FA complex and FANCD2. |
| C125711 | "A syndrome caused by Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) infection. It manifests with fever, weight loss, and fluid retention in the legs or abdomen. Patients are at risk of developing KSHV-related cancers including Kaposi sarcoma and lymphoma." |
| C125712 | "A syndrome that occurs in a proportion of patients with HIV infection and Kaposi sarcoma after initiation of highly active antiretroviral therapy. It is characterized by a deterioration in their clinical status, despite control of virologic and immunologic parameters." |
| C125715 | "The reemergence of acute myeloid leukemia, myelodysplasia-related after a period of remission." |
| C125890 | A morphologic variant of glioblastoma characterized by the presence of a highly proliferative and monotonous population of malignant small glial cells. |
| C125904 | "High-grade B-cell lymphoma characterized by the abnormal rearrangement of two genes, MYC gene and either BCL2 or BCL6 genes. Patients with this type of lymphoma usually respond poorly to standard treatments and have a poor prognosis." |
| C126109 | A carcinoma that arises from the urothelium and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C126110 | An acute undifferentiated leukemia that occurs in infancy. |
| C126111 | An acute biphenotypic leukemia that occurs in infancy. |
| C126112 | A T acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs in infancy. |
| C126290 | "A condition of decreased or absent presence of telomerase RNA component. Deficiency of telomerase RNA component is associated with autosomal dominant dyskeratosis congenita 1, telomere-related pulmonary fibrosis, and bone marrow failure 2." |
| C126291 | "A condition of decreased or absent presence of telomerase reverse transcriptase. Deficiency of this protein is associated with autosomal dominant dyskeratosis congenital 2, autosomal recessive dyskeratosis congenita 4, telomere-related pulmonary fibrosis, and bone marrow failure 1." |
| C126292 | "A condition of decreased or absent presence of perforin. Deficiency of this protein is associated with T-cell lymphoblastic lymphoma, aplastic anemia, hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis familial type 2, autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome and other lymphoproliferative disorders, including various forms of lymphoma." |
| C126293 | A condition of decreased or absent presence of protein unc-13 homolog D. Deficiency of this protein is associated with familial hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis 3. |
| C126294 | A condition of decreased or absent presence of syntaxin-binding protein 2. Deficiency of this protein is associated with familial hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis type 5. |
| C126295 | "An X-linked lymphoproliferative disorder caused by mutations in the XIAP gene. Clinical manifestations include hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (often associated with EBV), dysgammaglobulinemia, and inflammatory bowel disease. Patients are at an increased risk of developing lymphoma, typically B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma." |
| C126296 | A condition of compromised immune function resulting from an uncharacterized defect. |
| C126303 | "A rare, cytologically high grade carcinoma that arises from the renal parenchyma. It is characterized by the presence of prominently dilated cystic spaces in a bland, fibrotic stroma. The lining cells have large irregular nuclei with prominent nucleoli and abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. Necrosis and mitotic figures are not present. It rarely metastasizes." |
| C126306 | The reemergence of glioblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C126307 | The reemergence of bladder urothelial carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C126308 | A non-invasive clear cell adenofibromatous neoplasm that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of atypia in the glandular epithelium. |
| C126309 | Acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs in adulthood and does not respond to treatment. |
| C126310 | "A non-metastasizing cystic mixed epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of more than one epithelial cell type, most often serous and endocervical-type mucinous." |
| C126311 | "A non-metastasizing mixed epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of more than one epithelial cell type, most often serous and endocervical-type mucinous and prominent fibrous stroma.." |
| C126321 | A rare usually bilateral luteinized thecoma that arises from the ovary and is associated with sclerosing peritonitis. It occurs mostly in premenopausal women. The ovarian tumor is benign but patients may develop intestinal obstruction due to the sclerosing peritonitis. |
| C126322 | A retiform Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of an epithelial and/or mesenchymal heterologous component. |
| C126323 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the gastroesophageal junction and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C126324 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the gastroesophageal junction. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C126325 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the gastroesophageal junction and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C126326 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the ESCO2 gene. It is characterized by limb and facial abnormalities and slow growth. Intellectual impairment occurs in approximately half of the affected individuals." |
| C126327 | "A syndrome characterized by congenital, bilateral, severe sensorineural hearing loss, abnormalities in the vestibular system, and adolescent-onset retinitis pigmentosa." |
| C126328 | "A syndrome characterized by congenital, bilateral sensorineural hearing loss that is mild to moderate in the low frequencies and severe to profound in the higher frequencies, no abnormalities in the vestibular system, and retinitis pigmentosa." |
| C126329 | "A syndrome characterized by postlingual progressive hearing loss, abnormalities in the vestibular system, and onset of retinitis pigmentosa symptoms usually by the second decade of life." |
| C126330 | "An X-linked recessive inherited movement disorder caused by mutations in and near the TAF1 gene. It is found only in people of Filipino descent. It is characterized by parkinsonism and later in life the development of involuntary, sustained muscle contractions." |
| C126331 | A rare benign mesothelial tumor that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of gland-like structures. |
| C126336 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the MAGT1 gene, encoding magnesium transporter protein 1. It is characterized by CD4 lymphopenia, defective T-cell activation and susceptibility to severe chronic viral infections, particularly Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), which may lead to the development of EBV-associated B-cell lymphoproliferative disorders." |
| C126337 | A condition of decreased or absent presence or activity of interferon gamma receptor 1. Deficiency of this protein is associated with immunodeficiency 27A and immunodeficiency 27B. |
| C126338 | "A condition of decreased or absent presence or activity of V(D)J recombination-activating protein 1. Deficiency of this protein is associated with Omenn syndrome, severe combined immunodeficiency, b cell-negative, combined cellular and humoral immune defects with granulomas, and alpha/beta T-cell lymphopenia with gamma/delta T-cell expansion, severe cytomegalovirus infection, and autoimmunity." |
| C126339 | A condition of decreased or absent presence or activity of phosphoglucomutase 3. Deficiency of this protein is associated with immunodeficiency 23. |
| C126341 | "A genetic condition caused by mutation(s) in the CTLA4 gene, encoding cytotoxic T-lymphocyte protein 4. Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte protein 4 is an inhibitory receptor acting as a negative regulator of T-cells, and two functional copies of the gene are required for normal immune function. Clinically, it may be characterized by gastrointestinal symptoms, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly, and autoimmune disorders. Mutations(s) in CTLA4 are also associated with autoimmune lymphoproli... |
| C126342 | A condition of decreased or absent presence or activity of signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 protein. Deficiency of this protein is associated with hyper-IgE syndrome. |
| C126343 | A condition of decreased or absent presence or activity of dedicator of cytokinesis protein 8. Deficiency of this protein is associated with autosomal recessive hyper-IgE recurrent infection syndrome. |
| C126344 | "An autosomal recessive immunodeficiency caused but mutation(s) in the ITK gene, encoding tyrosine-protein kinase ITK/TSK. It is characterized by the early childhood onset of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-associated immune dysregulation leading to lymphoma, lymphomatoid granulomatosis, hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis, and/or hypogammaglobulinemia." |
| C126347 | "A disorder characterized by abnormal inflammation of various tissues, particularly the blood vessels, with intermittent. fevers, areas of net-like, mottled skin discoloration (livedo racemosa), hepatosplenomegaly, and recurrent strokes." |
| C126348 | "An EBV-positive T-cell/NK-cell lymphoproliferative disorder characterized by repeated infectious mononucleosis-like symptoms, a very high titer of anti-EBV antibodies, and high levels of Epstein-Barr virus nucleic acids. Patients often develop progressive cellular and humoral immunodeficiency with pancytopenia and hypogammaglobulinemia." |
| C126349 | A condition of decreased or absent presence or activity of endothelial transcription factor GATA-2 protein. Deficiency of this protein is associated with immunodeficiency 21 and autosomal dominant and sporadic monocytopenia and mycobacterial infection syndrome (MonoMAC). |
| C126351 | "Chronic eosinophilic leukemia characterized by the rearrangement of the PDGFRA gene, most often resulting in the formation of FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion transcripts." |
| C126352 | Dyskeratosis congenita inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. It is caused by mutations in the DKC1 gene. |
| C126353 | A serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the lining of the peritoneum. It is characterized by high-grade histopathologic features. |
| C126354 | A serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the lining of the peritoneum. It is characterized by low-grade histopathologic features. |
| C126356 | A desmoplastic small round cell tumor that occurs in the abdominal and/or pelvic peritoneum. |
| C126357 | "A rare, usually benign fibroblastic neoplasm that arises from the peritoneum. It is characterized by the presence of prominent hemangiopericytoma-like vessels." |
| C126358 | "Fibromatosis that occurs in the pelvis. It affects almost always females. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern. It recurs if incompletely resected but lacks metastatic potential." |
| C126359 | Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor that arises from the abdominal cavity. |
| C126360 | A benign condition characterized by the presence of peritoneal implants composed of mature glial tissue. It is usually accompanied by an ovarian teratoma. |
| C126408 | "A thyroid gland carcinoma characterized by the presence of cribriform, trabecular, follicular, papillary, and solid growth patterns and squamoid morulae formation. It may occur with familial adenomatous polyposis or sporadically." |
| C126409 | A rare variant of papillary thyroid gland carcinoma characterized by the presence of eosinophilic large cells lining the papillae and a brisk lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate in the papillary stalks. |
| C126410 | "A rare morphologic variant of papillary thyroid gland carcinoma characterized by the presence of abundant and cellular stroma resembling nodular fasciitis, fibromatosis, or other proliferative myofibroblastic processes. (WHO)" |
| C126449 | A non-invasive serous carcinoma arising from the fallopian tube. |
| C126456 | A rapidly growing serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the fallopian tube. It is characterized by the presence of high-grade cytologic features and frequent mitotic figures. |
| C126457 | A slow-growing serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the fallopian tube. It is characterized by the presence of low grade cytologic features and infrequent mitotic figures. |
| C126461 | Benign proliferation of the fallopian tube epithelium. |
| C126462 | An abscess involving the distal fallopian tube and ovary. It is caused by pelvic inflammatory disease or other infections. |
| C126464 | An exceedingly rare lymphoma that arises from the fallopian tube. |
| C126465 | A carcinoma that arises from the head and neck and has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C126469 | A rare non-invasive tumor that arises from the broad ligament. It is characterized by the presence of serous epithelial cell proliferation and cytological atypia. |
| C126476 | A rare serous cystadenoma arising from the broad ligament. |
| C126477 | A rare serous cystadenofibroma arising from the broad ligament. |
| C126478 | A rare serous adenofibroma arising from the broad ligament. |
| C126479 | A rare serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the broad ligament. |
| C126480 | A slow-growing serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the broad ligament. It is characterized by the presence of low grade cytologic features and infrequent mitotic figures. |
| C126493 | "A neoplasm that arises from the broad or other uterine ligaments and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C126498 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the broad or other uterine ligaments. |
| C126558 | A rare disorder caused by mutation in the LMF1 gene resulting in combined lipase deficiency with concomitant hypertriglyceridemia and associated disorders. |
| C126559 | "A rare disorder characterized by rigid, thick skin that covers the entire body and affects movements. The movement of the chest and abdomen is severely restricted. Affected individuals develop respiratory insufficiency which may lead to death." |
| C126560 | "A bone growth disorder inherited in a pseudoautosomal dominant pattern caused by mutations in the SHOX gene. It is characterized by short long bones in the arms and legs, short stature, and abnormalities of the wrist and forearm bones which may cause pain and limit wrist movement." |
| C126561 | "An autosomal recessive inherited lysosomal storage disease caused by mutations in the SMPD1 gene. It manifests with hepatosplenomegaly, failure to thrive, psychomotor regression, and interstitial lung disease." |
| C126562 | "An autosomal dominant inherited neurodegenerative disorder caused by mutations in the ATXN7 gene. It is characterized by progressive cerebellar ataxia, including dysarthria and dysphagia, cone-rod and retinal dystrophy, and progressive central visual loss resulting in blindness." |
| C126566 | "An X-linked dominant inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the FMR1 gene. It is a late onset disorder, usually occurring after age 50. It affects males more frequently than females. It is characterized by abnormalities in the cerebellum and white matter. It manifests with intention tremor, ataxia, and cognitive disabilities. The symptoms worsen with age." |
| C126594 | An encapsulated or nonencapsulated variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the predominance of follicular structures. The malignant follicular cells display the nuclear features that characterize the papillary adenocarcinomas of the thyroid gland. |
| C126598 | A non-invasive neoplasm of thyroid follicular cells with a follicular growth pattern and nuclear features of papillary thyroid carcinoma that has an extremely low malignant potential. These tumors were formerly classified as non-invasive encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma or well-differentiated tumor of uncertain malignant potential. (WHO) |
| C126650 | "An autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutation(s) in the PRRT2 gene, encoding proline-rich transmembrane protein 2. It is characterized by epileptic seizures and paroxysmal kinesigenic choreoathetosis. It shares features with episodic kinesigenic dyskinesia-1, which is an allelic disorder." |
| C126651 | An autosomal dominant inherited cardiac bundle branch disorder which can progress to complete heart block. |
| C126688 | "A usually autosomal dominant inherited movement disorder caused by mutations in the COL6A1, COL6A2, and COL6A3 genes. It is characterized by progressive muscle weakness and joint stiffness in the fingers, wrists, elbows, and ankles." |
| C126689 | "A myopathy inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive pattern, caused by mutations in the DNM2, BIN1, and TTN genes. Microscopically there is central displacement of the nucleus in muscle cells. It is characterized by muscle weakness and atrophy in the skeletal muscles." |
| C126690 | An autosomal recessive inherited congenital muscular dystrophy caused by mutations in the POMT2 gene. It is characterized by mental retardation and mild structural brain abnormalities resulting from defective glycosylation of alpha-dystroglycan. |
| C126691 | "An inherited muscular dystrophy caused by mutations in the SEPN1 gene. It is characterized by severe limitation in flexion of the dorsolumbar and cervical spine, due to contracture of the spinal extensors. It leads to loss of movement of the spine and the thoracic cage." |
| C126692 | "A syndrome caused by duplication of chromosome 15q11-q13. It is characterized by autism, mental retardation, ataxia, seizures, developmental delays, and behavioral problems." |
| C126738 | "An X-linked recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the PGK1 gene. Clinical manifestations include hemolytic anemia, myopathy, and neurologic involvement." |
| C126739 | "An autosomal recessive inherited limb-girdle muscular dystrophy caused by mutations in the gene encoding fukutin-related protein (FKRP). It is characterized by variable age at onset, normal cognition, and no structural brain changes." |
| C126740 | "An autosomal recessive muscular dystrophy caused by mutations in the POMGNT1 gene. It is associated with characteristic brain and eye malformations, profound mental retardation, and death usually in the first years of life." |
| C126741 | "An autosomal recessive muscular dystrophy caused by mutations in the gene encoding fukutin (FKTN).  It is associated with characteristic brain and eye malformations, seizures, and mental retardation." |
| C126742 | An autosomal recessive muscular dystrophy caused by mutations in the POMT2 gene. It is associated with characteristic brain and eye malformations and profound mental retardation. |
| C126743 | "An autosomal recessive muscular dystrophy caused by mutations in the LARGE gene. It is associated with characteristic brain and eye malformations, profound mental retardation, and death usually in the first years of life." |
| C126744 | "A rare syndrome caused by mutations in the LONP1 gene. It is characterized by developmental delay, cerebral, ocular, dental, auricular, and skeletal abnormalities." |
| C126745 | Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and caused by mutations in the LMNA gene. |
| C126746 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the NGLY1 gene. It is characterized by developmental delay, hypotonia, abnormal involuntary movements, poor tear production, microcephaly, intractable seizures, abnormal eye movements, and liver abnormalities." |
| C126747 | "An X-linked inherited syndrome caused by duplication or triplication of the gene encoding methyl-CpG-binding protein-2 (MECP2). It is characterized by mental retardation, infantile hypotonia, mild dysmorphic features, poor speech development, autistic features, seizures, progressive spasticity, and recurrent infections." |
| C126748 | Acute myeloid leukemia characterized by the presence of a FLT3-internal tandem duplication (ITD) mutation. Patients with this mutation usually present with more aggressive disease and have higher rates of relapse after remission. |
| C126750 | A high-grade carcinoma that arises from the oropharynx. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells which bear minimal resemblance to the cells from which they arose. |
| C126751 | A high-grade variant of squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the oropharynx. It is characterized by the presence of small malignant cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and scant amount of cytoplasm forming lobules with peripheral palisading. |
| C126769 | A carcinoma that arises from the endometrium and is characterized by the presence of an undifferentiated carcinomatous component and a second component of either FIGO grade 1 or 2 endometrioid carcinoma. |
| C126771 | "An epithelial neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the uterine corpus. It includes neuroendocrine tumor G1 (carcinoid tumor), small cell carcinoma pulmonary type, and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma." |
| C126772 | "A high grade neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the endometrium. It is composed of large polygonal cells arranged in well-demarcated nests, trabeculae or cords with peripheral palisading." |
| C126773 | "A very rare, well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the uterine corpus." |
| C126806 | Myelofibrosis that develops in a patient with history of essential thrombocythemia. |
| C126864 | "Type C Niemann-Pick disease associated with a mutation in the gene NPC1, encoding Niemann-Pick C1 protein." |
| C126865 | "Type C Niemann-Pick disease associated with a mutation in the gene NPC2, encoding Niemann-Pick C2 protein." |
| C126866 | "An autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by mutations in the SMPD1 gene, encoding sphingomyelin phosphodiesterase. The condition is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly and interstitial lung disease, but with little neurological involvement. It is part of a continuum of disease resulting from decrease activity of sphingomyelin phosphodiesterase, with Type B being the milder form." |
| C126868 | "A congenital disorder of glycosylation subtype caused by mutation(s) in the PMM2 gene, encoding phosphomannomutase 2." |
| C126869 | "A congenital disorder of glycosylation sub-type caused by mutation(s) in the ALG6 gene, encoding dolichyl pyrophosphate Man9GlcNAc2 alpha-1,3-glucosyltransferase." |
| C126870 | "A congenital disorder of glycosylation subtype caused by mutation(s) in the ALG3 gene, encoding dol-P-Man:Man(5)GlcNAc(2)-PP-Dol alpha-1,3-mannosyltransferase." |
| C126871 | "A congenital disorder of glycosylation sub-type caused by mutation(s) in the DPM1 gene, encoding dolichol-phosphate mannosyltransferase subunit 1." |
| C126872 | "A congenital disorder of glycosylation sub-type caused by mutation(s) in the MPDU1 gene, encoding mannose-P-dolichol utilization defect 1 protein." |
| C126873 | "A congenital disorder of glycosylation sub-type caused by mutation(s) in the ALG12 gene, dol-P-Man:Man(7)GlcNAc(2)-PP-Dol alpha-1,6-mannosyltransferase." |
| C126874 | "A congenital disorder of glycosylation sub-type caused by mutation(s) in the DPAGT1 gene, encoding UDP-N-acetylglucosamine--dolichyl-phosphate N-acetylglucosaminephosphotransferase." |
| C126875 | "An autosomal recessive sub-type of glycogen storage disease caused by mutation(s) in the PYGL gene, encoding glycogen phosphorylase, liver form. The condition is characterized by mild-moderate hypoglycemia, growth retardation and hepatomegaly." |
| C126876 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation (s) in the SHOX gene, encoding short stature homeobox protein. The condition is characterized by shortening of the bones of the middle segments of the limbs." |
| C126877 | "An extremely rare skin disorder usually inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and caused by mutation(s) in the TMC6 or TMC8 gene, encoding transmembrane channel-like protein 6 and transmembrane channel-like protein 8, respectively. It is characterized by chronic human papillomavirus infection. Patients develop papillomatous wart-like lesions and pigmented plaques on the skin. It predisposes to cutaneous carcinomas, especially in situ and invasive squamous cell carcinomas." |
| C126975 | A variant of leiomyoma arising from the uterine corpus. It is characterized by conspicuous zonal edema. Hyalinization may also be present. |
| C126998 | "A rare, high-grade sarcoma that arises from the endometrial stroma. It is characterized by round cell morphology. It was previously also known as undifferentiated uterine sarcoma. In 2014, high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma was reclassified and is currently considered a distinct and rare neoplasm. It appears to have a prognosis that falls between low grade endometrial stromal sarcoma and undifferentiated sarcoma." |
| C127005 | A usually benign neoplasm that arises from the uterine corpus. It resembles ovarian sex cord tumors. It lacks a component of recognizable endometrial stroma and the JAZF1-SUZ12 fusion which is characteristic of the endometrial stromal neoplasms. |
| C127048 | A precancerous lesion characterized by the presence of atypical glandular epithelial features in foci of endometriosis. Atypical endometriosis has been observed in contiguity with carcinomas. |
| C127058 | A rare malignant heterologous neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation arising from the uterine corpus. It usually manifests with vaginal bleeding. The prognosis is poor. |
| C127071 | A benign neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation arising from the uterine corpus. It is characterized by the absence of pleomorphism and scarcity or absence of mitotic figures. It usually affects perimenopausal women. Patients present with a pelvic mass or abnormal bleeding. |
| C127072 | "A malignant neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation arising from the uterine corpus. The neoplasm is usually a large size, and charcaterized by the presence of marked nuclear atypia, pleomorphism, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, and infiltrative margins.  The most common metastatic sites are lungs, lymph nodes, and bone. Patients present with a pelvic mass or abnormal bleeding." |
| C127077 | A benign or malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the uterine corpus. Representative examples include teratoma and yolk sac tumor. |
| C127153 | A malignant solid neoplasm that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C127155 | A malignant solid neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C127156 | A solid neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C127159 | Cushing syndrome as a result of increased glucocorticoids due to medical therapy. |
| C127164 | "A subtype of adrenal hyperplasia, based on histopathologic features, in which there are multiple nodules." |
| C127165 | "Adrenal hyperfunction associated with multiple bilateral adrenal nodules, usually less than one centimeter in diameter." |
| C127166 | "Adrenal hyperfunction associated with multiple bilateral adrenal nodules, usually more than one centimeter in diameter." |
| C127167 | "Difference of sex development characterized by the presence of ovarian and testicular tissue in the same individual. The clinical manifestations of the condition, which can be associated with 46,XX, 46,XY or 46,XX/46,XY mosaic karyotype, are variable." |
| C127168 | A condition affecting gonadal and/or internal and/or external reproductive/genital development in which there is an atypical number of sex chromosomes (i.e. fewer or greater than the typical 2 X chromosomes or 1 X and 1 Y chromosome). |
| C127169 | "Conditions affecting individuals with 46,XX karyotype characterized by atypical development of one or more of the following: the gonads, the internal reproductive structures, the external reproductive/genital structures." |
| C127170 | "Presence of testes in an individual with a 46,XX karyotype, typically associated with translocation of the SRY gene, encoding the transcription factor sex-determining region Y protein, from the paternal Y chromosome to the paternal X chromosome during gametogenesis (SRY-positive). Approximately 15-20% of individuals with 46,XX testicular DSD are SRY-negative. These individuals may have other genetic variations affecting testis determination, such as duplication of the SOX9 gene, which encod... |
| C127171 | "Differences of sex development in individuals with 46,XY karyotype." |
| C127172 | "The presence of ovarian and testicular tissue in the an individual with 46,XX karyotype. The anatomical expression of this condition is variable." |
| C127173 | "The presence of ovarian and testicular tissue in the an individual with 46,XY karyotype. The anatomical expression of this condition is variable." |
| C127174 | "Ovotesticular differences of sex development in individuals with 46,XY/46,XX mosaic karyotype." |
| C127194 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that produces both growth hormone and prolactin. |
| C127816 | "A group of malignant gliomas that includes anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, anaplastic oligoastrocytoma, and anaplastic ependymoma." |
| C127823 | An abnormal communication between the skin and the pharynx. |
| C127824 | An abnormal communication between the skin and the oral cavity. |
| C127825 | An erosion through the tracheal wall into an artery. |
| C127840 | The reemergence of Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia after a period of remission. |
| C127907 | "A cervical adenocarcinoma in which 0-50% of malignant cells contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It is the most common subtype of cervical adenocarcinoma and represents 75% of all invasive cervical adenocarcinomas. The neoplastic epithelium shows a pseudostratified architecture and the malignant cells have enlarged, elongated, and hyperchromatic nuclei. Historically, usual-type cervical adenocarcinomas were termed ""endocervical-type""." |
| C127915 | A carcinoma that arises from the cervix and is characterized by the presence of a cervical adenocarcinoma variant and a neuroendocrine carcinoma component. |
| C127931 | A benign endocervical gland proliferation characterized by the presence of closely packed glands composed of columnar to cuboidal cells with subnuclear mucin vacuoles. It is associated with progestins or pregnancy. |
| C127932 | Lobular proliferations of benign-appearing small to moderate sized endocervical glands in the inner half of the cervical stroma. The glands are lined by columnar epithelial cells which contain pyloric gland-type mucin. There is minimal atypia and mitotic figures are rare. Some cases have been associated with adenocarcinoma in situ/high grade cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia and gastric-type adenocarcinomas. |
| C127933 | "A benign band-like proliferation of tightly-packed, small to medium sized endocervical glands below the surface of the endocervical canal." |
| C127935 | The presence of embryonic remnants of mesonephric ducts in the cervix and their benign hyperplastic proliferations. |
| C127956 | "A major congenital anomaly is a structural or functional defect with the following three characteristics: 1) Of prenatal origin; 2) Present at the time of live birth or fetal demise, or in utero; 3) Affecting (or has the propensity to affect) the health, survival, or physical or cognitive functioning of the individual." |
| C128041 | "A neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the cervix. This category includes neuroendocrine tumor grade 1, neuroendocrine tumor grade 2, and neuroendocrine carcinoma (small cell and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma)." |
| C128043 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the cervix." |
| C128044 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm arising from the cervix." |
| C128045 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the cervix. This category includes small cell and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C128046 | An uncommon benign smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from the cervix. |
| C128047 | A malignant neoplasm with smooth muscle differentiation arising from the cervix. |
| C128048 | A rare malignant neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation arising from the cervix. |
| C128049 | A highly aggressive malignant vascular neoplasm that arises from the cervix and shows endothelial cell differentiation. |
| C128050 | A rare malignant neoplasm with nerve sheath differentiation arising from the cervix. |
| C128051 | "A rare, benign, non-neoplastic reactive lesion that develops in the cervix at the site of a prior operative procedure. It is composed of spindle cells, small blood vessels, and chronic inflammation." |
| C128053 | A rare benign mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the cervix. |
| C128054 | A rare sarcoma that arises from the cervix. |
| C128055 | "A yolk sac tumor that arises from the cervix. Patients present with abnormal vaginal bleeding and a polypoid, friable mass, protruding into the vagina." |
| C128060 | A rare squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vagina resembling transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary tract. |
| C128061 | A rare benign lesion that arises from the vagina. It is characterized by the presence of squamous epithelial and tubular structures in a fibrovascular stroma. |
| C128064 | Endometriosis that affects the vagina. It is characterized by the presence of endometrial stroma with or without endometrial-type glands in the vagina. |
| C128073 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the vagina. This category includes small cell and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C128075 | "A rare aggressive neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with abundant cytoplasm, large nuclei, and prominent nucleoli." |
| C128079 | "An uncommon, benign, well circumscribed mesenchymal neoplasm that grows beneath the vaginal epithelium. It is characterized by the presence of cells containing bland ovoid, spindle, or stellate-shaped nuclei in a collagenous stroma." |
| C128080 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation arising from the vagina. |
| C128081 | "A category of staging terms for ovarian cancer according to the International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO), 2014. AJCC ovarian cancer stage terms from the 6th and 7th editions that are synonymous to the FIGO ovarian cancer staging classification of 2014 are included as preferred terms." |
| C128082 | Stage IC ovarian cancer with surgical spill. (FIGO 2014) |
| C128083 | Stage IC ovarian cancer with capsule rupture before surgery or tumor on ovarian surface. (FIGO 2014) |
| C128084 | Stage IC ovarian cancer with malignant cells in the ascites or peritoneal washings. (FIGO 2014) |
| C128085 | Ovarian cancer involving one or both ovaries with pelvic extension (below the pelvic brim) or primary peritoneal cancer. (FIGO 2014) |
| C128086 | Ovarian cancer involving 1 or both ovaries with cytologically or histologically confirmed spread to the peritoneum outside the pelvis and/or metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes. (FIGO 2014) |
| C128087 | Ovarian cancer with positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes and/or microscopic metastasis beyond the pelvis. (FIGO 2014) |
| C128088 | Ovarian cancer with positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only. (FIGO 2014) |
| C128089 | Ovarian cancer with positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only. Metastasis equal or less than 10 mm. (FIGO 2014) |
| C128090 | Ovarian cancer with positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only. Metastasis greater than 10 mm. (FIGO 2014) |
| C128091 | "Ovarian cancer with microscopic, extrapelvic (above the brim) peritoneal involvement +/- positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. (FIGO 2014)" |
| C128092 | "Ovarian cancer with macroscopic, extrapelvic, peritoneal metastasis equal or less than 2 cm +/- positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. Includes extension to capsule of liver/spleen. (FIGO 2014)" |
| C128093 | "Ovarian cancer with macroscopic, extrapelvic, peritoneal metastasis greater than 2 cm +/- positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. Includes extension to capsule of liver/spleen. (FIGO 2014)" |
| C128094 | Ovarian cancer with pleural effusion with positive cytology. (FIGO 2014) |
| C128095 | "Ovarian cancer with hepatic and/or splenic parenchymal metastasis, metastasis to extra-abdominal organs (including inguinal lymph nodes and lymph nodes outside of the abdominal cavity). (FIGO 2014)" |
| C128106 | A category of staging terms for ovarian cancer according to the American Joint Committee on cancer (AJCC) 6th and 7th editions. International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) ovarian cancer staging terms prior to 2014 are included in this category if synonymous with the AJCC terms. |
| C128108 | "Chronic degenerative changes in the kidney characterized by thickened and inflamed glomeruli and proteinurea, the cause of which is unknown." |
| C128110 | "Nephrotic syndrome in which there is a relapse occurring less than twice in the first six months, or less than four times in a year." |
| C128111 | "A rare, benign, non-neoplastic reactive lesion that develops in the vagina at the site of a prior operative procedure. It is composed of spindle cells, small blood vessels, and chronic inflammation." |
| C128112 | A germ tumor that arises from the vagina. |
| C128113 | A rare benign cystic teratoma that arises from the vagina. It presents as a slow growing cyst in the vaginal wall that contains sebaceous material and hair. The cyst is lined by squamous epithelium. Skin adnexal structures and sometimes smooth and skeletal muscle are present. |
| C128114 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the LDLRAP1 gene, encoding low density lipoprotein receptor adaptor protein 1. The phenotype is similar to that of familial hypercholesterolemia, but generally considered to be a milder form of hypercholesterolemia." |
| C128115 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the COL11A1 gene, encoding collagen alpha-1(XI) chain. The syndrome may be characterized by facial dysmorphism, cataracts, myopia, hearing loss, and short stature. Mutation(s) in the COL11A1 gene are causative in Stickler syndrome, but the phenotype of Marshall syndrome is more mild." |
| C128116 | "A condition associated with mutation(s) in the DNAJC5 gene, encoding dnaJ homolog subfamily C member 5. The condition is one of a group of genetically heterogeneous neurodegenerative disorders, characterized by accumulation of intracellular lipopigments." |
| C128117 | "An autosomal recessive primary ciliary motility defect caused by mutation(s) in the DNAI1 gene, encoding dynein intermediate chain 1, axonemal." |
| C128118 | "An autosomal recessive muscular dystrophy caused by mutations in the POMT1 gene, encoding protein O-mannosyl-transferase 1. It is associated with characteristic brain and eye malformations, profound mental retardation, and early death." |
| C128119 |  |
| C128142 | An intraepithelial lesion of the vulvar squamous epithelium associated with HPV infection. It is characterized by maturation abnormalities and nuclear hyperchromasia that are confined to the basement membrane. |
| C128143 | "Crescentic glomerulonephritis, the cause of which is unknown." |
| C128144 | Membranous nephropathy due to another medical condition. |
| C128145 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation(s) in the LAMB2 gene, encoding laminin subunit beta-2. It is characterized by congenital nephrotic syndrome with diffuse mesangial sclerosis and distinct ocular abnormalities." |
| C128146 | Ischemic necrosis of the kidney caused by interruption of the blood supply to the area. |
| C128162 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the presence of morphological features identical to those seen in breast adenocarcinomas. |
| C128164 | A rare adenocarcinoma arising from vulvar skin sweat glands. |
| C128165 | A rare malignant phyllodes tumor arising from the vulva. |
| C128166 | A rare vulvar mucinous adenocarcinoma that resembles a large intestinal adenocarcinoma. |
| C128167 | A keratoacanthoma that arises from the vulva. It grows rapidly and may regress spontaneously. It is considered a variant of well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma with distinct clinical behavior. |
| C128171 | An adenoma that arises from the colon.  It is characterized by the presence of severe epithelial dysplasia. |
| C128187 | "A group of genetic disorders characterized by elevated urinary concentrations of 2-hydroxyglutaric acid. Three different types have been identified based on the steroisomeric composition of the elevated alpha-hydroxyglutaric acid metabolites. Additionally, the disease may be categorized by the genetic mutation that is causative. Genes associated with 2-hydroxyglutaric aciduria are L2HGDH, D2HGDH, IDH2, and/or SLC25A1. Generally, there is nervous system involvement, but the clinical manifest... |
| C128188 | "Sex reversal in an individual with 46,XY karyotype caused by point mutations or deletions in the SRY gene, encoding sex-determining region Y protein." |
| C128189 | "A common generalized epilepsy syndrome occurring in children, characterized by absence seizures of short duration. The cause of the syndrome is presumed to be genetic. Genes which are associated with the condition include GABRB3, GABRG2, GABRA1, CACNA1H, and ECA1." |
| C128190 | "An autosomal recessive genetic disorder caused by mutations in the SI gene, encoding sucrase-isomaltase, intestinal. The condition is characterized by malabsorption and osmotic diarrhea." |
| C128191 | "An autosomal dominant genetic disorder caused by mutation(s) in the FOXC2 gene, encoding forkhead box protein C2. The condition is characterized by lymphedema and distichiasis." |
| C128192 | "An autosomal recessive genetic disorder caused by mutation(s) in the BUB1B gene, encoding mitotic checkpoint serine/threonine-protein kinase B. The condition is characterized by a predisposition to mitotic non-disjunction, resulting in a high percentage of aneuploid cells. The phenotype is variable and there is a predisposition to cancer." |
| C128193 | "An autosomal recessive genetic disorder caused by mutation(s) in the GSS gene, encoding glutathione synthetase. Mutation(s) in the same gene is causative in hemolytic anemia due to glutathione synthetase deficiency, with the more severe condition causing elevated urinary concentrations of 5-oxoproline and central nervous system damage in addition to hemolytic anemia." |
| C128240 | "A benign glandular neoplasm that arises from the vulva. It presents as a mass or cystic lesion in or adjacent to the interlabial sulcus. It is characterized by the presence of complex branching papillae with fibrovascular stalks, lined by uniform columnar epithelial secretory cells and myoepithelial cells." |
| C128241 | Nodular/lobular proliferation of normal Bartholin gland tissue and ducts. |
| C128242 | A benign epithelial-stromal neoplasm that arises from the vulva and resembles the breast fibroadenoma. |
| C128243 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the vulva. This category includes small cell and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. Most small cell neuroendocrine carcinomas of the vulva are Merkel cell carcinomas. |
| C128244 | A rare small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the vulva. |
| C128245 | A high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the presence of malignant large cells. |
| C128247 | A Merkel cell carcinoma that arises from the vulva. It usually presents as a cutaneous nodular lesion. Most small cell neuroendocrine carcinomas of the vulva are Merkel cell carcinomas. |
| C128265 | Abnormally low concentration of vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) in the blood. |
| C128270 | "An uncommon benign neoplasm of the vulva, composed of lobules of mature adipocytes." |
| C128271 | A lipoma of the vulva with a predominant fibrous component. |
| C128272 | An uncommon benign polypoid or nodular mesenchymal neoplasm that arises in the vulvar region. It is characterized by the presence of oval or spindle-shaped cells in a collagenous stroma and is separated from the epidermis by a variably thick Grenz zone. |
| C128273 | An extremely rare malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the vulva exhibiting skeletal muscle differentiation with an alveolar pattern. |
| C128289 | "A benign, atypical, or dysplastic melanocytic nevus that arises from the vulva." |
| C128294 | A rare germ cell tumor that arises from the vulva. |
| C128295 | A rare yolk sac tumor that arises from the vulva. |
| C128321 | An infectious disorder that occurs in childhood. |
| C128322 | An abscess that develops in the space surrounding one or both palatine tonsils. |
| C128323 | An abscess that develops in the soft tissues of the lateral pharyngeal space. |
| C128324 | An abscess that develops in the soft tissues behind the posterior pharyngeal wall. |
| C128325 | An abscess that develops in the tissues within the prevertebral fascia. |
| C128326 | An abscess within the abdomen. |
| C128327 | An abscess that is located in the anatomical space between the diaphragm and the liver and/or spleen. |
| C128328 | "An abscess that is located in any part of the tissue composing the mesentery, and that generally arises from an infection in an adjacent area of the intestine." |
| C128329 | "An abscess that is located in the anatomical space surrounding the liver, but which is outside of the liver capsule itself." |
| C128330 | An abscess that is located in the abdominal cavity posterior to the peritoneum. |
| C128331 | An abscess that is located in the pelvic cavity. |
| C128332 | A form of inflammatory arthritis that results as a reaction to a bacterial infection outside the joint. |
| C128333 | A form of reactive arthritis in which the inflammation moves between joints. |
| C128334 | Any disease caused by Legionella bacteria. |
| C128335 | "A self-limited, febrile illness without pneumonia that occurs in epidemics, and that is caused by Legionella species." |
| C128336 | "An infection that is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei, which is found in soil and water; symptoms vary widely, but most commonly include fever, cough, pneumonia, arthralgia, myalgia, and skin ulceration." |
| C128337 | "An infection that is caused by Yersinia enterocolitica or Yersinia pseudotuberculosis, and that is usually acquired by consumption of contaminated meat, water, or unpasteurized milk. It can also be transmitted vertically, pre- or perinatally, from mother to infant. Manifestation of symptoms depends on the infecting species and mode of acquisition, and can range from gastrointestinal syndromes to septicemia." |
| C128338 | "Historical term that references a form of pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, or Legionella species." |
| C128339 | "A pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila and other Legionella species, which is characterized by fever, cough, progressive respiratory distress, and which is often accompanied by extrapulmonary manifestations." |
| C128340 | "An infection that is caused by Bartonella henselae, which occurs primarily in immunocompromised persons; it is characterized by blood-filled cysts in the liver and spleen." |
| C128341 | Botulism that is caused by consuming food or beverage that contains the botulinum toxin. |
| C128342 | Botulism that is caused by toxin that is produced in a wound contaminated with Clostridium botulinum. |
| C128343 | "Botulism that is caused by contact with spores of Clostridial bacteria, which subsequently grow in the intestine and release toxin." |
| C128344 | A rare form of botulism that occurs among adults by the same mechanism as infant botulism. |
| C128345 | Botulism that occurs following injection of botulinum toxin. |
| C128346 | "A transmissible, infectious disease that is caused by a protein that is able to induce abnormal folding of normal cellular proteins, leading to characteristic spongiform brain changes, which are associated with neuronal loss without an inflammatory response. Such disorders have typically long incubation periods, but are then generally rapidly progressive and are uniformly fatal." |
| C128347 | Inflammation of the colon that is caused by an alteration in intestinal flora by antibiotic use. |
| C128349 | "A pruritic rash that occurs as consequence of cercariae penetration of the skin after aquatic exposure to animal (usually avian) schistosomes, often in countries non-endemic to human schistosomiasis. The condition is non-invasive and responsive to symptomatic treatment." |
| C128351 | Any disorder that results from the consumption of food contaminated with an infectious agent or toxin. |
| C128355 | Endocarditis affecting a native valve of the heart. |
| C128356 | Endocarditis occurring on parts of a valve prosthesis or a reconstructed heart valve; it can be classified into early and late prosthetic valve endocarditis. |
| C128357 | Prosthetic valve endocarditis that occurs days to weeks after surgery. |
| C128358 | Prosthetic valve endocarditis that occurs several months to years following valve replacement. |
| C128359 | Endocarditis that is caused by an infection with a bacterial agent. |
| C128360 | "A clinical disorder that is caused by obstruction of the lymphatic system years after filarial infection. It is characterized by painful and profound lymphedema, resulting in significant swelling (elephantiasis) of extremities and genitals." |
| C128366 |  |
| C128367 | An infection caused by an infectious agent that is present on or in the host prior to the start of the infection. |
| C128368 | Inflammation of the mucosal lining of the mastoid antrum and mastoid air cell system of the mastoid process. |
| C128369 | "Inflammation of the anatomical structures of the inner ear secondary to an infectious process. Symptoms include severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, anxiety, and pain. Viral etiology is most common, and recent history of an upper respiratory infection is common." |
| C128370 | Keratitis caused by fungi. |
| C128371 | Latent syphilis when infection was acquired more than twelve months previously. |
| C128372 | "Acute malaria with signs of organ dysfunction, severe anemia (hemoglobin less than 5 g/dL or hematocrit less than 15%) and/or hyperparasitemia (greater than 5% of red blood cells infected)." |
| C128373 | "A sequestration of Plasmodium falciparum in the brain, which can cause coma and/or seizures." |
| C128374 | Meningitis in which eosinophils predominate in the cerebrospinal fluid. |
| C128375 | Inflammation of the meninges and brain caused by an infectious agent. |
| C128377 | "The asymptomatic presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the body, which is determined by a positive result to a tuberculin skin test or interferon-gamma release assay." |
| C128378 | "A neurologic disorder that is caused by inflammation across both sides of one level, or segment, of the spinal cord. (from NINDS)" |
| C128379 | "An acute onset of focal limb weakness that is associated mainly with gray matter abnormalities or CSF pleocytosis, but which is without an apparent cause." |
| C128380 | Myocarditis that is caused by an infection with a bacterial agent. |
| C128381 | Myocarditis that is caused by an infection with a viral agent. |
| C128382 | A suppurative infection of muscle. |
| C128384 | Atelectasis of an entire lung. |
| C128385 | Inflammation of the uvula. |
| C128386 | "Otitis media that persists for at least six weeks, and that is associated with otorrhea through a perforated tympanic membrane." |
| C128387 | "A parasitic infection that is caused by liver flukes, usually Fasciola hepatica, of sheep, goats, and cattle. Humans become infected by eating uncooked, infested aquatic vegetation (classically watercress). Adult flukes inhabit the bile ducts, gallbladder, and occasionally ectopic sites. Symptoms arise secondary to inflammatory response or obstruction." |
| C128388 | "A small bowel infection that is caused by Fasciolopsis buski, which is endemic in the Far East and Southeast Asia, and which is transmitted via the consumption of raw or undercooked aquatic plants. The spectrum of manifestations range from  asymptomatic to intestinal symptoms from local invasion or allergic response." |
| C128389 | "An infection that is caused by the intestinal fluke Heterophyes heterophyes, which is most commonly found in Asia, the Middle East, and Africa, and which is transmitted via consumption of contaminated raw or undercooked fish. Symptoms typically range from asymptomatic to intermittent abdominal pain and diarrhea, with occasional ectopic infection." |
| C128390 | "An infection that is most commonly caused by the intestinal fluke Metagonimus yokogawai, which is most commonly found in the Far East, and which is transmitted via consumption of contaminated raw or undercooked fish. Symptoms typically range from asymptomatic to intermittent abdominal pain and diarrhea, with occasional ectopic infection." |
| C128391 | "An infection that is caused by the tapeworm Diphyllobothrium latum and related species; it is transmitted via consumption of raw or undercooked fish, and symptoms include abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, vomiting, fatigue, weight loss, and vitamin B12 deficiency." |
| C128392 | "An infection that is caused by the roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides, many cases of which remain asymptomatic. During the transient larval migratory phase, shortness of breath, fever, and eosinophilia can occur. Depending on the intestinal worm burden, a spectrum of gastrointestinal tract symptoms can occur." |
| C128393 | "An infection that is caused by nematodes of the genus Anisakis, which is most commonly transmitted via ingestion of infective larvae from consumption of raw or undercooked fish or squid; it is characterized by invasion of the stomach wall or intestines, resulting in the death of the worm, and triggering an inflammatory response that surrounds the worm and that can result in intestinal obstruction." |
| C128394 | "An infection that is caused by nematodes of the genus Angiostrongylus; signs and symptoms are dependent on the invading species, but generally include gastrointestinal symptoms and fever, and can have extraintestinal manifestations (e.g., central nervous system, anterior and posterior eye)." |
| C128395 | "An infection that is caused by nematodes of the genus Gnathostoma, which is commonly found in Southeast Asia, and which is transmitted via the consumption of contaminated raw/undercooked birds, eels, fish, frogs, or reptiles. The pattern of symptoms is species-dependent, and extraintestinal manifestations are due to larval migration (e.g., pulmonary infiltrates, eosinophilic meningitis, or painful, pruritic subcutaneous swellings, and peripheral blood eosinophilia)." |
| C128396 | An infection that is caused by the nematode Enterobius vermicularis; it is characterized predominantly by perianal pruritus. |
| C128397 | "An infection that is caused by the raccoon nematode Baylisascaris procyonis, which is transmitted by the ingestion of embryonated eggs in contaminated soil; symptoms depend on larval migration sites (visceral organs, eye, or brain) provoking severe inflammatory responses." |
| C128398 | "An infection that is caused by nematodes of the genus Strongyloides, most commonly Strongyloides stercoralis, which is a soil-transmitted helminth, and which is characterized by a variety of gastrointestinal, dermatologic, and, occasionally, pulmonary manifestations. The worm's autoinfective life cycle can lead to hyper-infection and life-threatening dissemination in immunocompromised hosts decades after initial infection." |
| C128399 | "An infection that is caused by the nematode Trichuris trichiura, a soil-transmitted helminth, which is transmitted via food and/or water contaminated with the eggs of the worm. Symptoms are usually mild and include abdominal pain, diarrhea, fatigue, and possibly anemia secondary to blood loss in diarrhea." |
| C128400 | "The infection of a fly larva (maggot) in human tissue, which most commonly occurs in tropical climates. Affected tissues most commonly include skin, especially if open wounds are present, nasal passages, ears, and eyes." |
| C128401 | "A contagious infestation of parasitic insects found on the head (Pediculus humanus capitis), body (Pediculus humanus corporis), or pubic area (Pthirus pubis) that typically cause itching and rash." |
| C128402 | A painful blister of the periungual skin that is caused by herpes simplex virus type 1 or 2. |
| C128403 | Parotitis that is caused by a bacterial agent. |
| C128404 | Pericarditis that is caused by an infection with a bacterial agent. |
| C128405 | Pericarditis that is caused by an infection with a viral agent. |
| C128406 | Pericarditis that is caused by an infection with a fungal agent. |
| C128407 | Peritonitis that is caused by a bacterial infection. |
| C128408 | "An infection that is caused by Cryptosporidium parvum or hominis, which is acquired by inhalation or ingestion of infectious spores, and which typically manifests as acute enteritis." |
| C128409 | "A protozoan infection that is caused by Cyclospora cayetanensis, which is most commonly acquired from contaminated food or water, and which is characterized by watery diarrhea and abdominal pain." |
| C128410 | "An infection that is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, which is transmitted to humans from infected ticks; it is characterized by the sudden onset of fever, headache, and myalgia, followed by rash that usually begins peripherally." |
| C128411 | Sinusitis lasting less than or equal to thirty days. |
| C128412 | "The subclinical or symptomatic stage of syphilis, occurring at an average of three weeks after contact with an infected individual. It manifests with one or more painless, indurated ulcers (chancres) of the skin or mucous membranes at the site of inoculation. These lesions heal spontaneously within a few weeks." |
| C128413 | "The secondary stage of syphilis typically that is characterized by generalized rash (including palms and soles), mucocutaneous lesions, and lymphadenopathy. It usually begins one to two months after the primary stage." |
| C128414 | A stage of syphilis that occurs fifteen to thirty years after the initial infection; it can include gumma formation and cardiovascular or central nervous system involvement (neurosyphilis). |
| C128415 | Tuberculosis disease that is caused by a multidrug-resistant strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. |
| C128416 | Tuberculosis disease that is caused by a pre-extensively drug-resistant strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. |
| C128417 | Tuberculosis disease that is caused by an extensively drug-resistant strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. |
| C128418 | "A viral hemorrhagic fever that is caused by the Lassa virus, which is transmitted by contact with infected rodents; it is characterized by fever, headache, malaise, myalgia, and hearing loss." |
| C128419 | "A viral hemorrhagic fever that is caused by the Rift Valley fever virus, which is transmitted by mosquitoes and infected animals. The infection is typically asymptomatic or causes only mild illness, but can be associated with retinitis." |
| C128420 | "An infection that is due to human herpesvirus (HHV) types 6 or 7; it is characterized by 3-5 days of high fever followed by the acute onset of a rosy, pink, non-pruritic, macular rash that is predominantly on the neck and trunk." |
| C128421 | "An infection that is caused by an Orthopoxvirus, which is transmitted by primates or rodents, and which is characterized by a prodromal syndrome of fever, chills, headache, myalgia, and lymphedema; initial symptoms are followed by a generalized papular rash that typically progresses from vesiculation through crusting over the course of two weeks." |
| C128422 | "An infection that is caused by the Chikungunya virus, which is transmitted by mosquitoes; it is characterized by fever and severe arthralgia." |
| C128423 | "An infection that is caused by the Zika virus, which is primarily transmitted via mosquitoes; it is characterized by fever, skin rash, arthralgia, and conjunctivitis." |
| C128424 | "A viral respiratory infection that is caused by the MERS coronavirus (MERS-CoV), which most often manifests with moderate to severe respiratory symptoms, including productive cough and shortness of breath, which can progress to pneumonia and acute respiratory distress syndrome." |
| C128425 | "An infection that is caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum, which is transmitted to humans by infected ticks; it is characterized by fever, headache, chills, and myalgia." |
| C128426 | "An infection that is caused by certain species of Rickettsia or Borrelia, which are transmitted to humans from infected lice; it is characterized by sudden fever, chills, headaches, myalgia, arthralgia, nausea, and possibly a rash. Symptoms usually persist for two to nine days, then disappear, with recurrence after several weeks if the patient remains untreated." |
| C128427 | "A putative Borrelia infection causing acute manifestations similar to Lyme disease, particularly erythema migrans, following the bite of the lone star tick, Amblyomma americanum." |
| C128430 | Latent syphilis when infection was acquired less than twelve months previously. |
| C128434 | Inflammation of the mucous membranes lining the nose and paranasal sinuses. |
| C128436 | Inflammation of the palatine tonsils and the posterior pharynx (throat). |
| C128438 | A form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease that is most commonly contracted after consuming meat from an animal suffering from bovine spongiform encephalopathy. |
| C128439 | "A clinical syndrome that is usually caused by enterovirus infection, and that is characterized by fever, anorexia, and painful sores in the mouth, distal extremities, and/or other sites, including the buttocks." |
| C128441 | "An infection that is caused by Bartonella bacilliformis, which is transmitted to humans from infected sandflies. The acute phase (Oroya Fever) is characterized by fever, headache, myalgia, enlargement of the lymph nodes, and anemia. The chronic phase (verruga peruana/Peruvian wart) is characterized by benign, eruptive lesions that are bleeding and pruritic, arthralgia, and malaise." |
| C128451 | A neurofibroma that grows along small branches of nerves in the dermis in patients with neurofibromatosis. It presents as a solid cutaneous tumor. |
| C128460 | The reemergence of a gastrointestinal stromal tumor after a period of remission. |
| C128563 | A carcinoma that arises from the esophagus and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C128629 | A B acute lymphoblastic leukemia (B-ALL) that does not have the cytogenetic abnormality t(9;22)(q34;q11.2). Most cases of B-ALL do not have this translocation. |
| C128637 | "A rare disease caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), most commonly types 6 and 11, that affects tissue along the respiratory tract with the majority of cases affecting the larynx. The disease has a bimodal distribution and manifests in those younger than age 5, juvenile-onset recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (JORRP), and those older than age 40, adult-onset recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (AORRP). JORRP is more common and more severe in presentation than AORRP. In a small perce... |
| C128697 | A very rare NK-cell lymphoma with pathologic and clinical features posing difficulty in its exact diagnosis and classification. |
| C128714 | "A condition in which the placenta implants abnormally into the uterine myometrium, rather than implanting into the uterine decidua basalis as is normal." |
| C128715 | "An ectopic pregnancy implanted in a previous cesarean (hysterotomy) scar, surrounded by myometrium and connective tissue." |
| C128732 | A congenital developmental disorder in which the circumference of the head is smaller than normal for the person's age and sex. |
| C128797 | The reemergence of non-squamous non-small cell lung carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C128798 | A non-squamous non-small cell carcinoma that arises from the lung and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C128801 | A hereditary cutaneous melanoma caused by germline mutation(s) in the CDKN2A gene. |
| C128802 | "An autosomal recessive genetic disorder caused by mutations in the SLC39A4 gene, encoding zinc transporter ZIP4. The condition is characterized by zinc deficiency, periorificial and acral dermatitis, and diarrhea." |
| C128803 | "A genetically heterogenous congenital anomaly in which the aortic valve has two leaflets. It affects 1-2 percent of the population.  It is a clinically heterogeneous condition, with a high incidence of aortic valve and ascending aortic complications requiring surgery." |
| C128804 | "An autosomal recessive genetic disorder caused by mutations in the GLYCTK gene, encoding glycerate kinase. The condition is characterized by excretion of D-glyceric acid in the urine. The phenotype varies from mild to severe, and may result in encephalopathy, mental retardation, microcephaly and early death." |
| C128805 | "An autosomal recessive genetic disorder caused by mutations in the ENPP1 gene, encoding ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase family member 1. The condition is characterized by calcification and narrowing of medium- and large-sized arteries, resulting in cardiovascular complications." |
| C128806 | "An autosomal dominant genetic condition caused by mutation(s) in the CETP gene, encoding cholesteryl ester transfer protein. Affected individuals may have increased longevity due to decreased risk of coronary heart disease." |
| C128807 | The reemergence of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C128829 | An infection that is caused by human herpesvirus-6. |
| C128830 | An infection that is caused by JC virus. |
| C128847 | An aggressive variant of lung adenocarcinoma that exhibits a micropapillary architectural pattern. The prognosis is usually poor. |
| C129021 | "A syndrome of high phenotypic variability caused by contiguous gene deletions in 2q37.  The inheritance is autosomal dominant. The condition may be characterized by brachydactly type E; mental retardation; short stature; and other skeletal, cardiovascular, and neurologic manifestations." |
| C129022 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the GJB2 gene, encoding gap junction beta-2 protein. The condition is characterized by profound sensorineural hearing loss and may be associated with vestibular dysfunction." |
| C129023 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the TRIOBP gene, encoding TRIO and F-actin-binding protein. The condition is characterized by severe to profound sensorineural hearing loss." |
| C129024 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the MARVELD2 gene, encoding MARVEL domain-containing protein 2. The condition is characterized  by profound prelingual deafness." |
| C129025 | "An autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the LOXL1 gene, encoding lysyl oxidase homolog 1. The condition is characterized by abnormal fibrillar extracellular material in anterior segment tissues, and may lead to glaucoma." |
| C129026 | "Fanconi anemia caused by mutations in the FANCI gene, encoding Fanconi anemia group I protein." |
| C129027 | "Fanconi anemia caused by mutations in the BRIP1 gene, encoding Fanconi anemia group J protein." |
| C129028 | "Frontonasal dysplasia caused by mutations in the ALX3 gene, encoding homeobox protein aristaless-like 3. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion." |
| C129029 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation(s) in the SLC25A15 gene, encoding mitochondrial ornithine transporter 1. The condition is characterized by failure to thrive, liver dysfunction, psychomotor retardation, encephalopathy and seizures." |
| C129030 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation(s) in the PNLIP gene, encoding pancreatic triacylglycerol lipase. The condition is characterized by absent or reduced pancreatic lipase." |
| C129031 | "A rare disorder characterized by severe short stature, lumbar lordosis, midface hypoplasia, micromelia, frontal bossing, epiphyseal and metaphyseal abnormalities. The inheritance is autosomal recessive." |
| C129032 | "Tyrosinemia caused by mutation(s) in the TAT gene, encoding tyrosine aminotransferase. The inheritance is autosomal recessive." |
| C129035 | "An autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutation(s) in the ANKRD26 gene, encoding ANKRD26 protein. Additionally, in one family, a mutation(s) has been identified in the MASTL gene, encoding serine/threonine-protein kinase greatwall. The condition is characterized by mild to moderate bruisability." |
| C129068 | "Charcot-Marie-Tooth neuropathy that is inherited in an X-linked manner, and is associated with mutation(s) in the GJB1 gene, encoding gap junction beta-1 protein. The condition is characterized by moderate to severe motor and sensory neuropathy in males, and mild to no symptoms in females." |
| C129069 | A progressive neurodegenerative condition affecting the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia. The disorder is characterized by varying degrees of cognitive and motor impairment. |
| C129070 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the CTH gene, encoding cystathionine gamma-lyase. The condition is characterized by increased concentrations of cystathionine in the plasma and urine." |
| C129071 | "A condition characterized by fetal akinesia and intrauterine growth restriction, that may be associated with mutation(s) in the RAPSN or DOK7 genes, encoding 43 kDa receptor-associated protein of the synapse and protein Dok-7, respectively." |
| C129072 | "The persistence of substantial fetal hemoglobin production into adulthood, usually associated with hemoglobinopathies due to mutations in the alpha and/or beta chain of hemoglobin." |
| C129073 | "An autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by mutation(s) in the HYAL1 gene, encoding hyaluronidase-1. It is characterized by short stature and hyaluronidase deficiency." |
| C129074 | "An autosomal recessive immunodeficiency that is caused by mutation(s) in the AICDA gene, single-stranded DNA cytosine deaminase. It is characterized by normal or elevated concentrations of IgM and decreased or absent concentrations of IgG, IgA, and IgE." |
| C129075 | "A congenital retinopathy that is associated with mutation(s) in at least eighteen genes, typically characterized by severe visual impairment." |
| C129076 | "An autosomal recessive condition that is caused by mutation(s) in the MOCS1 gene, encoding molybdenum cofactor biosynthesis protein 1. it is characterized by poor feeding, encephalopathy, seizures and dysmorphic facial features." |
| C129271 | IDH-mutant astrocytoma characterized by the presence of well-differentiated fibrillary glial cells diffusely infiltrating the central nervous system. |
| C129272 | Gemistocytic astrocytoma carrying IDH mutations. |
| C129274 | Diffuse astrocytoma lacking mutations in IDH1 or IDH2 genes. |
| C129277 | A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of diffuse astrocytoma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes status. |
| C129289 | A poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the gingiva. It is characterized by the presence of malignant pleomorphic spindle cells. |
| C129290 | IDH-mutant astrocytoma characterized by the presence of increased mitotic activity and anaplastic features. |
| C129291 | Anaplastic astrocytoma lacking mutations in IDH1 or IDH2 genes. |
| C129292 | A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of anaplastic astrocytoma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes status. |
| C129293 | "An IDH-wildtype glioblastoma characterized by the presence of large epithelioid cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm, vesicular chromatin, and prominent nucleoli." |
| C129295 | A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of glioblastoma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes status. |
| C129296 | A glioblastoma characterized by the presence of well-demarcated nodules which contain primitive cells exhibiting neuronal differentiation. |
| C129301 | "Decreased activity of the enzyme 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, associated with mutation(s) in the HSD3B2 gene. The lack of activity of this enzyme produces a type of congenital adrenal hyperplasia." |
| C129302 | "Decreased activity of the enzyme 21-hydroxylase, associated with mutation(s) in the CYP21A2 gene. The lack of activity of this enzyme produces a type of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) and is the cause of approximately 95% of CAH." |
| C129303 | "An autosomal recessive disorder that is associated with mutation(s) in the CFTR gene, encoding cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator. Mutation(s) in the same gene are associated with cystic fibrosis." |
| C129304 | "Congenital myasthenic syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the COLQ gene, encoding acetylcholinesterase collagenic tail peptide. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner." |
| C129305 | "An autosomal recessive disorder associated with mutation(s) in at least one of four genes (WDR35, IFT122, WDR19, or IFT43). It is characterized by distinctive abnormalities of the face and skull, in association with developmental abnormalities of the structures derived from ectodermal tissues." |
| C129306 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation(s) in the TUBGCP6 gene, encoding gamma-tubulin complex component 6. It is characterized by microcephaly and chorioretinopathy." |
| C129307 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation(s) in the NAGS gene, encoding N-acetylglutamate synthase, mitochondrial. It may be characterized by failure to thrive, hyperammonemia, lethargy, seizures, and coma." |
| C129308 | "An autosomal dominant disorder associated with mutation(s) in the SETBP1 gene, encoding SET-binding protein. It is characterized by unique facial features, including midface hypoplasia, skeletal abnormalities, and mental retardation." |
| C129309 | A diffuse midline glioma characterized by the presence of histone H3 K27M mutation. |
| C129318 | An oligodendroglioma carrying IDH gene family mutation and combined whole-arm losses of 1p and 19q (1p/19q codeletion). |
| C129319 | A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of oligodendroglioma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes and 1p/19q codeletion status. |
| C129321 | An anaplastic oligodendroglioma carrying IDH gene family mutation and combined whole-arm losses of 1p and 19q (1p/19q codeletion). |
| C129322 | A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of anaplastic oligodendroglioma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes and 1p/19q codeletion status. |
| C129323 | A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of oligoastrocytoma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes status. |
| C129324 | A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of anaplastic oligoastrocytoma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes status. |
| C129325 | A glioma that has diffusely infiltrated the surrounding central nervous system tissues. |
| C129327 | A WHO grade 3 pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma characterized by the presence of five or more mitoses per 10 high-power fields. Necrosis may be present. Patients have shorter survival rates when compared to those with WHO grade 2 pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma. |
| C129351 | A supratentorial ependymoma characterized by a gene fusion involving ZFTA and RELA genes. It accounts for the majority of supratentorial ependymomas in children. It has an unfavorable outcome when compared to other ependymoma subtypes. |
| C129424 | A relatively slow growing diffuse leptomeningeal neoplasm usually affecting children and adolescents. It is characterized by the presence of clear glial neoplastic cells reminiscent of oligodendroglioma. A neuronal component may be present. The prognosis is variable. |
| C129427 | A low-grade tumor affecting the cerebral hemispheres. It is composed of cells with glial and/or neuronal differentiation forming multiple nodules with prominent vacuolation. |
| C129431 | A central nervous system neoplasm mostly occurring in the fourth ventricle region. It is characterized by the presence of neurocytes forming pseudorosettes and astrocytes which contain Rosenthal fibers. Cytologic atypia is minimal. |
| C129436 | A medulloblastoma composed of sheets of large cells mixed with cells characterized by marked nuclear pleomorphism and high mitotic activity. |
| C129439 | A term that refers to the classification of medulloblastomas based on their molecular characteristics. |
| C129440 | A molecular subtype of medulloblastoma associated with activation of the WNT pathway. TP53 mutations may be present or absent. WNT pathway activation in medulloblastomas is associated with good outcome. |
| C129441 | "A molecular subtype of medulloblastoma associated with activation of the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway. TP53 mutations may be present or absent. Patients in this group are young children and adults. Overall survival is variable and depends on the presence or absence of metastatic disease, histology, and the age at diagnosis." |
| C129442 | Medulloblastoma associated with activation of the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway and the presence of TP53 mutations. |
| C129443 | Medulloblastoma associated with activation of the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway and the absence of TP53 mutations. |
| C129444 | "Medulloblastoma not associated with activation of the WNT pathway or sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway. TP53 mutations are absent. This molecular subtype includes medulloblastomas numerically designated as ""group 3"" and ""group 4""." |
| C129445 | Medulloblastoma not associated with activation of the WNT pathway or sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway. MYC amplifications may be present. TP53 mutations are absent. Patients in this group are usually young children. The overall survival is the worst among all the molecular groups. |
| C129446 | Medulloblastoma not associated with activation of the WNT pathway or sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway. MYC amplifications are absent. TP53 mutations are absent. Chromosome 17 abnormalities may be present. |
| C129447 | A medulloblastoma which has not been further characterized. |
| C129449 | An adenocarcinoma composed of small malignant cells. |
| C129499 | An embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes characterized by the absence of C19MC amplification. Approximately half of embryonal tumors with multilayered rosettes that lack a C19MC alteration carry DICER1 mutations. |
| C129501 | A central nervous system embryonal neoplasm characterized by the presence of histological features consistent with atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor and absence of mutations of the INI1 gene or SMARCA4 (BRG1) gene. |
| C129526 | "A mesenchymal, non-meningothelial neoplasm arising from the central nervous system. It is characterized by a collagenous and low cellularity spindle cell and/or hemangiopericytomatous histopathological pattern, recurrent intrachromosomal rearrangement on chromosome 12q that results in the fusion of the NAB2 and STAT6 genes, high recurrence rates, and long-term risk of systemic metastasis." |
| C129527 | A solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the central nervous system. It most often corresponds to the tumor previously diagnosed as anaplastic hemangiopericytoma. |
| C129528 | "A solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the central nervous system. It corresponds to the more cellular, less collagenous tumor with plump cells and staghorn vasculature which was diagnosed as central nervous system hemangiopericytoma in the past." |
| C129530 | A solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the central nervous system. It corresponds most often to the collagenous and low cellularity spindle cell tumor which was diagnosed as central nervous system solitary fibrous tumor in the past. |
| C129534 | A mesenchymal chondrosarcoma that arises from the central nervous system. |
| C129536 | A low-grade malignant blood vessel neoplasm that arises from the central nervous system.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells. |
| C129537 | A rare Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor that affects the central nervous system either as a primary dural neoplasm or by direct extension from adjacent soft tissues or bone. |
| C129538 | An angiolipoma that arises from the central nervous system. |
| C129548 | Intracranial and/or spinal involvement by desmoid fibromatosis. |
| C129549 | A benign fibrous histiocytoma involving the dura or cranial bone. |
| C129551 | A rare myofibroblastoma affecting the central nervous system. |
| C129566 | A rare undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (formerly known as malignant fibrous histiocytoma) involving the central nervous system. |
| C129569 | "A benign, well-circumscribed bone-forming neoplasm that is predominantly composed of lamellar bone and arises in the skull." |
| C129598 | "An anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK-positive, arising from the central nervous system." |
| C129599 | "An anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK-negative, arising from the central nervous system." |
| C129600 | A primary central nervous system non-Hodgkin lymphoma derived from mature or post-thymic T-cells or NK-cells. |
| C129602 | "A rare extranodal B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that affects the central nervous system.  It is characterized by the presence of lymphoma cells exclusively in the lumina of small vessels, particularly capillaries." |
| C129635 | "Hyperthyroidism, the cause of which is not present from birth." |
| C129636 | "Hypoparathyroidism, the cause of which is not present at birth." |
| C129637 | "Diabetes insipidus complicated by a deficient or absent thirst response to hyperosmolality, usually as a result of hypothalamic damage or dysfunction." |
| C129644 | "Hypothyroidism, the cause of which is not present at birth." |
| C129654 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the gastrointestinal system and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C129699 | The most severe form of beta thalassemia that is characterized by the lack of functional beta-globin chain production resulting in the absence of hemoglobin A. |
| C129707 | A malignant solid neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C129718 | "A condition caused by the presence of an extra X chromosome resulting in 47,XXX karyotype in an individual with female phenotype. The condition is characterized by tall stature, increased risk of learning disabilities, and delayed development of speech and language." |
| C129720 | "An X-linked condition associated in a subset of cases with mutation(s) in the FGD1 gene, encoding a complex signaling protein containing FYVE, RhoGEF, and PH domains. The condition is usually characterized by distinctive facial features, short stature, skeletal anomalies, shawl scrotum (altered anatomical relationship between the penis and the scrotum) cryptorchidism, and developmental delay." |
| C129721 | "Parathyroid hormone (PTH) resistance caused by heterozygous inactivating mutation(s) of the maternal allele of the GNAS gene encoding Gs-alpha, resulting in expression of PTH from only the paternal allele. Clinical manifestations include Albright hereditary osteodystrophy, early-onset obesity, and, in some cases, resistance to thyroid-stimulating hormone, gonadotropins, and growth hormone-releasing hormone, reflecting additional manifestations of Gs-alpha deficiency." |
| C129722 | "A condition caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the paternal allele of the GNAS gene, encoding Gs-alpha, resulting in expression of the Gs-alpha protein from only the maternal allele. Affected individuals have the clinical phenotype of Albright hereditary osteodystrophy without hormone resistance." |
| C129723 | "Partial lipodystrophy, the cause of which is not present at birth. Examples include lipodystrophy associated with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) therapy, and Barraquer-Simons syndrome, associated with C3 nephritic factor." |
| C129724 | Thyroiditis due to a bacterial infection. |
| C129726 | "A group of diverse conditions that are characterized by spontaneous, multi-organ autoimmunity, which target both endocrine (adrenal, gonad, pancreatic islet cells, parathyroid, pituitary, thyroid) and non-endocrine (gastrointestinal, integumentary, lymphatic) tissues." |
| C129727 | "Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome caused by homozygous, compound heterozygous, or heterozygous mutation(s) in the AIRE gene, encoding autoimmune regulator protein. Diagnosis requires at least 2 of the 3 major clinical features: chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, primary adrenal insufficiency, or primary hypoparathyroidism. Antibodies against type 1 interferons and interleukin 17 cytokines are almost always present. Heterozygous AIRE mutation(s) typically result in a narrower disease spectru... |
| C129728 | Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome of likely polygenic etiology characterized by the presence of primary adrenal insufficiency in association with autoimmune thyroiditis and/or type 1 diabetes mellitus; this condition is not associated with mucocutaneous candidiasis. |
| C129730 | "Hypoparathyroidism associated with heterozygous mutation(s) in the PTH gene, which encodes parathyroid hormone, or in the GCM2 gene, which encodes chorion-specific transcription factor GCMb." |
| C129731 | "Hypoparathyroidism associated with homozygous mutation(s) in the PTH gene, which encodes parathyroid hormone, or in the GCM2 gene, which encodes chorion-specific transcription factor GCMb." |
| C129732 | "An autosomal dominant form of osteopetrosis due to mutation(s) in the CLCN7 gene, encoding H(+)/Cl(-) exchange transporter 7. Clinical features include sclerosis involving the spine, the pelvis, and the base of the skull. Complications can include optic nerve compression, dental abscesses, anemia, and bone fragility. One third of individuals who carry a CLCN7 mutation have a normal skeletal phenotype." |
| C129733 | "An autosomal recessive form of osteopetrosis caused by mutation(s) in at least 8 genes related to osteoclast function. This condition is characterized by the failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone, resulting in impaired bone modeling/remodeling, and skeletal fragility despite increased bone mass; it is also associated with hematopoietic insufficiency, hypocalcemia, disturbed tooth eruption, nerve entrapment syndromes, and growth impairment. Some cases are also associated with progressive neu... |
| C129734 | "A condition caused by autosomal recessive loss-of-function mutation(s) in the CYP24A1 or SLC34A1 gene, encoding mitochondrial 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D(3) 24-hydroxylase, and sodium-dependent phosphate transport protein 2A, respectively. This condition is characterized by vomiting, polyuria, dehydration, and failure to thrive, accompanied by hypercalcemia, suppressed parathyroid hormone, and nephrocalcinosis." |
| C129735 | Diabetes insipidus caused by excessive intake of water due to psychological factors or damage to the thirst-regulating mechanism. |
| C129736 | An autosomal dominant form of diabetes insipidus caused by mutation(s) in the AVP gene encoding arginine vasopressin. |
| C129739 | "Diabetes mellitus caused by mutation(s) in a single gene, usually presenting in childhood or early adulthood." |
| C129741 | "Monogenic diabetes caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the GCK gene, encoding glucokinase. Heterozygous GCK mutations may manifest as mild hyperglycemia, which is not progressive, and usually requires no treatment. Homozygous GCK mutations result in permanent neonatal diabetes." |
| C129742 | "Monogenic diabetes caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the gene HNF1A, encoding hepatocyte nuclear factor 1-alpha." |
| C129744 | "Monogenic diabetes caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the gene HNF4A, encoding hepatocyte nuclear factor 4-alpha." |
| C129745 | "Monogenic diabetes caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the gene NEUROD1, encoding neurogenic differentiation 1. In addition to diabetes, this condition may be associated with neurogenic anomalies. Homozygous NEUROD1 mutations result in permanent neonatal diabetes." |
| C129746 | "Monogenic diabetes caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the PDX1 gene, encoding pancreas/duodenum homeobox protein 1. Homozygous PDX1 mutations result in permanent neonatal diabetes." |
| C129747 | "Diabetes mellitus caused by activating mutation(s) in the ABCC8 gene, encoding the sulfonylurea receptor 1 (SUR1) subunit of the pancreatic beta cell adenosine triphosphate-sensitive potassium channel. Note: Inactivating mutation(s) in the ABCC8 gene result in hyperinsulinism." |
| C129748 | Monogenic diabetes caused by inactivating mutation(s) in transcription factors regulating expression of pancreatic beta cell genes. |
| C129760 | "Diabetes mellitus caused by activating mutation(s) in the KCNJ11 gene, encoding the inwardly rectifying Kir6.2 subunit of the pancreatic beta cell adenosine triphosphate-sensitive potassium channel. Note: Inactivating mutation(s) in the KCNJ11 gene result in hyperinsulinism." |
| C129782 | An acute myeloid leukemia with double mutations of the CEBPA gene. |
| C129783 | An acute myeloid leukemia with single mutations of the CEBPA gene. |
| C129784 | A carcinoma that arises from the thyroid gland and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C129785 | "A rare, de novo acute myeloid leukemia in which the blasts harbor BCR-ABL1 translocation in the absence of a history and clinical and laboratory features of chronic myelogenous leukemia." |
| C129786 | Acute myeloid leukemia characterized by the presence of RUNX1 gene mutation. |
| C129787 | "B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma characterized by a gene-expression profile similar to that of BCR-ABL1-positive B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma, absence of the pathognomonic BCR-ABL1 rearrangement, alterations of lymphoid transcription factor genes, and a poor outcome." |
| C129806 | Rare involvement of the central nervous system by Langerhans cell histiocytosis. |
| C129807 | Rare involvement of the central nervous system by histiocytic sarcoma. |
| C129808 | Erdheim-Chester disease that affects the central nervous system. |
| C129827 | A transitional cell carcinoma which is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C129828 | A carcinoma that arises from transitional cells and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C129852 | "Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of eosinophilia, PDGFRB gene rearrangement, and t(5;12)(q31;p12)." |
| C129853 | "Hematologic neoplasms characterized by the presence of t(8;9)(p22;p24.1) that results in PCM1-JAK2 fusion gene expression. It is associated with eosinophilia, bone marrow findings of left-shifted erythroid predominance, lymphoid aggregates, and often myelofibrosis. Rare cases present as T- or B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia." |
| C129857 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the gingival mucosa. It presents as an ulcerated lesion or exophytic mass. The prognosis is usually poor. |
| C129861 | A head and neck carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C129864 | "An autosomal recessive form of demyelinating Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease caused by mutations in the SH3TC2 gene, encoding SH3 domain and tetratricopeptide repeat-containing protein 2." |
| C129865 | "An autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder caused by mutation(s) in the FBN2 gene, encoding fibrillin-2. It is characterized by contractures, arachnodactyly, scoliosis, micrognathia, and crumpled ears." |
| C129866 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SLC6A3 gene, encoding sodium-dependent dopamine transporter. It is characterized by Parkinsonian features and has an onset in early infancy." |
| C129867 | "A group of inherited syndromes in which there is impaired growth hormone signaling, despite normal or increased growth hormone concentrations. The syndromes are characterized by some or all of the following: prenatal and/or postnatal growth failure, immature facial features, microcephaly, neurocognitive deficiencies, sensorineural hearing loss, immune dysregulation, and delayed puberty." |
| C129868 | "A subtype of idiopathic generalized epilepsy, whose manifestations occur around puberty, associated with mutation(s) in the EFHC1 gene, encoding EF-hand domain-containing protein 1." |
| C129869 | A rare syndrome that refers to a constellation of anomalies resulting from multiple vascular disruption. |
| C129870 | "An inherited myopathy caused by mutations in the ACTA1 gene, encoding actin, alpha skeletal muscle. The phenotype is highly variable, and as such attempts at classification by clinical features is not optimal. Generally, affected individuals have generalized muscle weakness, typically involving proximal muscles, the face, bulbar and respiratory muscles." |
| C129871 | "An autosomal recessive myopathy caused by mutations in the KLHL40 gene, encoding Kelch-like protein 40. The phenotype is highly variable, and as such attempts at classification by clinical features is not optimal. Generally, affected individuals have generalized muscle weakness, and typically involves proximal muscles, the face, bulbar and respiratory muscles." |
| C129872 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) on the TCF4 gene, encoding transcription factor 4. It is characterized by intellectual disability, developmental delay, breathing problems and seizures." |
| C129873 | An aggressive variant of squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the floor of the mouth. It is characterized by the presence of small malignant cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and scant amount of cytoplasm forming lobules with peripheral palisading. |
| C129874 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the HGF gene, encoding hepatocyte growth factor. It is characterized by profound deafness." |
| C129875 | "A condition caused by a 520 kb deletion at 16p12.1. It is characterized by developmental delay, craniofacial dysmorphology and congenital heart defects." |
| C129927 | A chordoma that arises from the sacral area. |
| C129928 | "An autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by mutation(s) in the CTSA gene, encoding lysosomal protective protein. It is characterized by a combined deficiency of neuraminidase and beta-galactosidase." |
| C129929 | "An inherited condition caused by mutation(s) in the HADHA gene, encoding trifunctional enzyme subunit alpha, mitochondrial. It is characterized by hypoglycemia, hypotonia, neuropathy, cardiomyopathy, pigmentary retinopathy and may be associated with sudden death." |
| C129930 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the L1CAM gene, encoding neural cell adhesion molecule L1. It is characterized by mental retardation, aphasia, shuffling gait and adducted thumbs." |
| C129931 | "An inherited condition caused by mutation(s) in the DDX3X gene, encoding ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX3X. It is characterized by severe intellectual disability and variable neurologic features." |
| C129932 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CTNS gene, encoding cystinosin. It is a sub-type of cystinosis, in which accumulation of cystine in the kidney results in renal dysfunction." |
| C129933 | "A progressive neurodegenerative disorder affecting upper motor neurons, characterized by progressive muscle weakness." |
| C129934 | A condition affecting cranial nerves IX-XII resulting from upper motor neuron damage arising from a variety of causes. |
| C129973 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SLC20A2 gene, encoding sodium-dependent phosphate transporter 2. It is characterized by calcification of the basal ganglia." |
| C129974 | "An inherited condition caused by mutation(s) in the ITPA gene, encoding inosine triphosphate pyrophosphatase. It is characterized by elevated concentrations of inosine triphosphate in erythrocytes." |
| C129975 | "An inherited condition caused by mutation(s) in the ACAD8 gene, encoding isobutyryl-CoA dehydrogenase, mitochondrial. It is characterized by decreased concentrations of carnitine in the blood, encephalopathy, dilated cardiomyopathy, and anemia." |
| C129976 | "A condition caused by mutation or deletion of the EHMT1 gene, encoding histone-lysine N-methyltransferase EHMT1. It is characterized by severe intellectual disability, hypotonia, cardiac defects, and characteristic facial features." |
| C129977 | "An inherited condition caused by mutation(s) in the SLC25A4 gene, encoding ADP/ATP translocase 1. It is characterized by hypertrophic cardiomyopathy." |
| C129978 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the GNPTAG gene, encoding N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphotransferase subunit gamma. It is characterized by a slowing of the growth rate in childhood, joint stiffness, mild cognitive impairment, and cardiorespiratory insufficiency." |
| C129980 | "An idiopathic form of neonatal hemochromatosis, characterized by liver failure and iron accumulation in the tissues." |
| C129981 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SPAST gene, encoding spastin. It is characterized by progressive lower extremity spasticity and weakness." |
| C129982 | "An autosomal dominant neurodegenerative disorder caused by mutations in the ATXN1 gene, encoding ataxin-1. It is characterized by progressive cerebellar ataxia, dysarthria and saccadic abnormalities." |
| C130035 | A chronic myelomonocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of less than 5 percent blasts in the bone marrow and less than 2 percent blasts in the peripheral blood. |
| C130037 | A myelodysplastic syndrome with ring sideroblasts and dysplastic changes involving only one myeloid cell lineage in the bone marrow. |
| C130038 | "A term that refers to myelodysplastic syndromes, myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasms, and acute myeloid leukemias that are associated with germline mutations and are familial." |
| C130039 | B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma characterized by amplification of a portion of chromosome 21. It usually occurs in children and is associated with an adverse prognosis. |
| C130040 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by amplification of a portion of chromosome 21. It usually occurs in children and is associated with an adverse prognosis. |
| C130041 | "A non-neoplastic T-cell lymphoproliferation that may mimic T-lymphoblastic lymphoma. It usually involves the lymphoid tissues of the upper aerodigestive tract. It recurs locally, but systemic dissemination is rare." |
| C130043 | T acute lymphoblastic leukemia in which the blasts have unique immunophenotypic and genetic characteristics suggesting only limited early T-cell differentiation. |
| C130202 | "A rare childhood cancer predisposition syndrome caused by biallelic inheritance of mutations in MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, or PMS2 genes. It is characterized by the development of childhood cancers, usually hematological malignancies and/or brain tumors, and colorectal cancers with multiple intestinal polyps. The majority of patients show signs of neurofibromatosis type 1." |
| C130234 | Prostate carcinoma that grows and continues to spread despite the surgical removal of the testes or medical intervention to block androgen production. |
| C130237 | "Stage IB includes: T2, N0, M0, B0-1. T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T2a (patch only) vs. T2b (plaque +/- patch).  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required.  M0: No visceral organ involvement.  B0: Absence of significant blood involvement: 5% or less of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypical (Sezary cells).  B1: Low blood tumor burden: more than 5% of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypi... |
| C130950 | A neoplasm that arises from the posterior cranial fossa. Examples include meningiomas and medulloblastomas. |
| C130951 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0, B0-1.  T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T1a (patch only) vs. T1b (plaque +/- patch).  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required.  M0: No visceral organ involvement.  B0: Absence of significant blood involvement: 5% or less of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypical (Sezary cells).  B1: Low blood tumor burden: more than 5% of peripheral blood lympho... |
| C130982 | "A congenital condition caused by a deletion on the short arm of chromosome 10p13-p14. The NEBL gene, encoding nebulette, a heart-specific component of the sarcomere, may be responsible for the clinical findings. The condition is characterized by immunodeficiency, unusual facies, congenital heart anomalies (tetralogy of Fallot, pulmonary atresia with ventricular septal defect, truncus arteriosus, interrupted aortic arch, isolated anomalies of the aortic arch, and ventricular septal defect), ... |
| C130983 | "A condition characterized by hypoparathyroidism, sensorineural deafness, and renal failure. It is related to autosomal dominant inactivating mutation(s) in GATA3, encoding a transcription factor important for the embryonic development of the parathyroid gland, the auditory stem, and the kidneys." |
| C130985 | "Bone dysplasia due to autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the P4HB gene, encoding prolyl 4-hydroxylase subunit beta, or autosomal recessive mutation(s) in the SEC24D gene, encoding SEC24 homolog D, COPII coat complex component. This condition is characterized by bone fragility, growth failure, craniosynostosis, hydrocephalus, and distinctive facial features, including marked frontal bossing, blue sclerae, ocular proptosis, midface hypoplasia, and micrognathia." |
| C130986 | "A contiguous gene deletion syndrome involving deletion of the distal portion of the long arm of chromosome 18. The clinically heterogenous condition is characterized by some or all of the following: growth hormone deficiency with resulting short stature; hand, foot, skull, facial, and genital anomalies; hypotonia; and developmental delay." |
| C130988 | "A condition caused by heterozygous mutation(s) in the CDKN1C gene, encoding cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1C, and characterized by intrauterine growth restriction, metaphyseal dysplasia, congenital adrenal hypoplasia, and genital anomalies." |
| C130989 | "An X-linked recessive syndrome caused by loss-of-function mutation(s) in IGSF1, encoding immunoglobulin superfamily member 1. This condition can result in central hypothyroidism, macroorchidism, delayed puberty, and variable prolactin deficiency." |
| C130990 | Insulin resistance caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the INSR gene encoding the insulin receptor. |
| C130991 | "A genetic condition characterized by long bone sclerosis and thickening, short stature, and head and eye anomalies. Many affected individuals have hypoparathyroidism with hypocalcemia." |
| C130992 | "An autosomal recessive form of Kenny-Caffey syndrome due to mutation(s) in the TBCE gene, encoding tubulin-specific chaperone E. This condition is characterized by hypoparathyroidism with hypocalcemia, marked growth retardation, craniofacial anomalies, absent diploic space in the skull, cortical thickening of long bones with medullary stenosis, and small hands and feet." |
| C130993 | "An autosomal dominant form of Kenny-Caffey Syndrome due to mutation(s) in the FAM111A gene, encoding protein FAM111A. This condition is characterized by transient hypocalcemia, delayed closure of the anterior fontanel, eye anomalies, including microphthalmia, proportionate short stature, and cortical thickening and medullary stenosis of the tubular bones." |
| C130994 | "Growth hormone insensitivity syndrome caused by mutation(s) and/or deletion(s) in the GHR gene, encoding the growth hormone receptor." |
| C130995 | Reduced serum concentration of tri-iodothyronine caused by a variety of non-thyroidal conditions in which there is no dysfunction in the thyroid gland or the hypothalamic-pituitary axis. |
| C130996 | "A maternally inherited condition characterized by diabetes and sensorineural deafness with onset after the age of 20, caused by mutation(s) in one of several mitochondrial genes, most frequently the MT-TL1 gene, which encodes the mitochondrial transfer RNA for leucine. Some patients may have additional features observed in mitochondrial disorders, including pigmentary retinopathy, ptosis, cardiomyopathy, myopathy, renal problems, and neuropsychiatric symptoms." |
| C130997 | "A complication of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus in children characterized by linear growth impairment, glycogenic hepatopathy, and Cushingoid features." |
| C130998 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by homozygous or compound heterozygous inactivating mutation(s) in the gene LRP5, encoding low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 5. This condition is characterized by severe juvenile-onset osteoporosis and congenital or juvenile-onset blindness due to a vascularized retinal mass that resembles a glioma." |
| C131000 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the INSR gene, encoding the insulin receptor, and characterized by insulin resistance, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and/or failure to thrive, muscle atrophy, hypertrichosis, and distinctive facial features; the condition is typically diagnosed early in life, with death usually occurring before the third decade of life. The symptoms and course of this syndrome are moderately severe as compared to the other two syndromes on t... |
| C131001 | "A congenital condition associated with mutation(s) in the PITX2 and/or FOXC1 genes, encoding pituitary homeobox 2 and forkhead box protein C1, respectively. The condition is characterized by anterior segment dysgenesis of the eye(s), iris and corneal anomalies, glaucoma, craniofacial anomalies, hypodontia, and pituitary hypoplasia with hypopituitarism, and hypospadius." |
| C131002 | "An X-linked recessive syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the GPC3, OFD1, or rarely the GPC4 gene, encoding glypican 3, oral-facial-digital syndrome 1 protein, and glypican 4, respectively. The condition is characterized by macrosomia, coarse facies, cryptorchidism, congenital heart, kidney, liver, spleen, and musculoskeletal abnormalities." |
| C131003 | "An autosomal dominant condition usually caused by mutation(s) in the SHH gene, encoding sonic hedgehog, a secreted protein involved in the organization and morphology of the developing embryo. This condition is characterized by multiple, mainly midline, developmental variations, including the presence of a tooth in the center of the maxillary dental arch in both primary and permanent dentition, and any combination of the following: holoprosencephaly, congenital nasal malformation (choanal a... |
| C131006 | "A group of syndromes caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the WT1 gene, encoding Wilms tumor protein. Patients with this mutation may have a predisposition to developing Wilms tumors." |
| C131007 | "A rare, autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the EIF2AK3 gene, which encodes translation initiation factor 2-alpha kinase-3. The condition is characterized by the following: permanent insulin-dependent diabetes, with onset in the neonatal period or infancy; epiphyseal dysplasia; deficient bone mineralization, diagnosed in the first year or two of life; and liver dysfunction, occurring in early childhood. Other features may include intellectual deficit, hypothyroidism, rena... |
| C131008 | "A condition characterized by hyperandrogenism, insulin resistance, and acanthosis nigricans, typically associated with obesity in teenage girls. It is considered to be a subtype of polycystic ovarian syndrome, but may occur in male individuals. Etiology is unclear, but some cases may be associated with mutations affecting the tyrosine kinase domain of the insulin receptor." |
| C131009 | "An X-linked recessive autoimmune condition caused by mutation(s) in the FOXP3 gene, encoding the forkhead box P3 transcription factor. The condition is characterized by infantile onset of severe diarrhea due to enteropathy, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and dermatitis. Associated features may include hypothyroidism, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, lymphadenopathy, hepatitis, and nephritis. The condition is usually fatal before age 2 years if not treated with bone marrow transplan... |
| C131010 | "A condition characterized by Mullerian duct aplasia, unilateral renal dysplasia, and cervicothoracic anomalies. Other associated findings may include skeletal abnormalities (scoliosis, vertebral anomalies, rib malformations, spina bifida), and face and limb malformations (brachymesophalangy, ectrodactyly). Heart malformations may include valvular pulmonary stenosis, aortopulmonary window, atrial septal defect, and/or tetralogy of Fallot. Putative candidate genes such as HNF1B (17q12), LHX1 ... |
| C131030 | Hyperinsulinism that resolves spontaneously. This is the most common cause of neonatal hypoglycemia. |
| C131031 | "Reduced concentration of thyroid hormone(s), usually associated with a non-thyroidal illness, that resolves spontaneously." |
| C131032 | Hyperparathyroidism in an infant less than one month of age that resolves spontaneously. |
| C131034 | Primary hypothyroidism that resolves spontaneously. |
| C131072 | Nodular goiter characterized by one discrete tissue mass. |
| C131073 | "An autosomal recessive form of rickets caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the CYP27B1 gene, encoding 25-hydroxyvitamin D-1 alpha hydroxylase, the renal enzyme that converts 25-hydroxyvitamin D to 1 alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol), the active metabolite of vitamin D (cholecalciferol). The condition is characterized by reduced serum concentrations of 1 alpha,25-hydroxyvitamin D, normal concentrations of 25-hydroxyvitamin D, increased serum alkaline phosphatase, hypocalcemia due to... |
| C131074 | "An autosomal recessive form of rickets caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the CYP2R1 gene, encoding vitamin D 25-hydroxylase, the hepatic enzyme that converts vitamin D to 25-hydroxyvitamin D, the precursor of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol). The condition is characterized by reduced serum concentrations of 25-hydroxyvitamin D, hypophosphatemia, hypocalcemia with secondary hyperparathyroidism and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, and by failure to thrive, seizures, muscle weaknes... |
| C131075 | "Rickets caused by a defect in the VDR gene, encoding the vitamin D receptor. This form of rickets is characterized by hypocalcemia, elevated 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) concentrations and may also manifest with alopecia." |
| C131076 | "Rickets caused by a post-receptor defect in the vitamin D signaling pathway producing vitamin D resistance due to constitutive overexpression of a nuclear ribonucleoprotein that competes with the vitamin D receptor-retinoid X receptor dimer binding with DNA vitamin D response elements. This condition has a similar phenotype to vitamin D receptor deficiency rickets including elevated 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) concentrations." |
| C131077 | "An autosomal recessive form of rickets caused by mutation(s) in the VDR gene, encoding the vitamin D receptor. The condition is characterized by hypocalcemia, increased concentrations of calcitriol, secondary hyperparathyroidism, early-onset rickets and alopecia." |
| C131078 | Hypothyroidism induced by excessive levels of iodine in the blood. |
| C131079 | Hypoparathyroidism in which the inheritance is recessive and linked to the q26-q27 region of the X chromosome. The parathyroid glands are usually incompletely developed (parathyroid dysgenesis) or absent (parathyroid agenesis). |
| C131083 | "Decreased activity of 11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2, which catalyzes the conversion of cortisol to cortisone due to autosomal recessive deactivating mutation(s) in the HSD11B2 gene. Resultant elevated cortisol concentrations in the kidney activate the mineralocorticoid receptor, resulting in hypertension, hypokalemia, and hypernatremia." |
| C131084 | "Decreased activity of the enzyme 11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 1 due to inactivating mutation(s) in the HSD11B1 gene. The condition is characterized by hyperandrogenism as a result of increased adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation of the adrenal gland due to failure of cortisol-mediated down-regulation, and is clinically indistinguishable from H6PD deficiency." |
| C131085 | "Decreased or absent activity of the enzyme 11-beta-hydroxylase caused by loss-of-function mutations in the CYP11B1 gene, resulting in congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Clinical manifestations of this condition include virilization in 46XX infants and hypertension." |
| C131086 | "Decreased or absent activity of the enzyme 17-alpha-hydroxylase/17,20 lyase due to loss-of-function mutation(s) in the CYP17A1 gene. The clinical manifestations of the deficiency are dependent on whether one or both activities of the enzyme are affected, and may include hypertension due to reduced 17-hydroxylase activity and incomplete genital masculinization in 46,XY infants due to reduced 17,20 lyase activity." |
| C131087 | "A classic form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia that is characterized by severe 21-hydroxylase deficiency, resulting in glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, without clinically significant salt wasting, and androgen excess, which causes virilization in female infants." |
| C131088 | "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to presumed mutation(s) in the HSD3B2 gene, which results in decreased activity of the enzyme 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase. The clinical manifestations of the deficiency are dependent on the degree of reduction in enzymatic activity: 46,XY infants may have incomplete development of the genitalia, while 46,XX infants may have virilization." |
| C131089 | "Generalized lipodystrophy, the cause of which is not present at birth." |
| C131090 | "Ovarian failure, the cause of which is not present at birth." |
| C131130 | "Growth hormone insensitivity syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the STAT5B gene, encoding signal transducer and activator of transcription 5B, a protein critical for the transcription of growth hormone-dependent genes." |
| C131133 | "An autosomal recessive form of craniotubular hyperostosis due to loss-of-function mutation(s) in the SOST gene, encoding sclerostin. Clinical features include tall stature, enlarged jaw and facial bones, and cranial nerve compression leading to hearing loss and facial palsy. About two-thirds of patients have syndactyly and/or nail malformations. Increased intracranial pressure due to the thickened calvaria and skull base can occur." |
| C131134 | "A classic form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia characterized by complete absence of 21-hydroxylase activity resulting in deficiency of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids accompanied by androgen excess causing virilization in female infants. Mineralocorticoid deficiency results in renal salt-wasting, and if untreated, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and shock." |
| C131187 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by loss-of-function mutation(s) in the CTSK gene, encoding cathepsin K, an enzyme involved in bone resorption by osteoclasts. This condition is characterized by some or all of the following: osteosclerosis, short stature, pituitary hypoplasia with growth hormone deficiency, and cerebral demyelination." |
| C131196 | "A subtype of micronodular adrenal hyperplasia, characterized by multiple pigmented nodules, which may occur in isolation or as part of the Carney complex." |
| C131209 | The reemergence of gliosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C131218 | The reemergence of urethral urothelial carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C131277 | "Transient hyperinsulinism that occurs in response to neonatal stress resulting in prolonged neonatal hypoglycemia, which is distinct from transitional hypoglycemia of typical infants." |
| C131296 | Loss and redistribution of subcutaneous and/or visceral adipose tissue from specific regions of the body. |
| C131308 | A form of osteopetrosis in which osteoclasts are abundant but have severely impaired resorptive function. |
| C131309 | "Hypophosphastasia characterized by the premature loss of deciduous teeth, but without accompanying bony abnormalities." |
| C131420 | "An autosomal recessive lethal condition caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the PTH1R gene, encoding parathyroid hormone/parathyroid hormone-related peptide receptor. This condition is characterized by short limbs, polyhydramnios, hydrops fetalis, facial anomalies, increased bone density, and advanced skeletal maturation." |
| C131421 | "Rickets due to low calcium concentrations, the cause of which can be nutritional or genetic." |
| C131422 | "CLAH due to loss-of-function mutations in the CYP11A1 gene, resulting in decreased or absent activity of the enzyme P450scc, which leads to reduced conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone, the first step in steroidogenesis." |
| C131423 | "A severe form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia characterized by very low or absent activity of an enzyme in the steroidogenic pathway typically presenting early in life, and requiring life-long cortisol replacement." |
| C131425 | "An etiologically heterogenous condition resulting in dysregulated insulin secretion whose cause is present from birth. It is the most common cause of persistent hypoglycemia in neonates, infants and children." |
| C131426 | "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia resulting from the deposition of lipid in the adrenal glands due to a defect of intracellular cholesterol transport or metabolism. The condition is characterized by deficiencies of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids: 46,XY infants are undervirilized, whereas 46,XX infants have no genital manifestations." |
| C131427 | "Ovarian failure, the cause of which is present at birth." |
| C131429 | "An autosomal dominant or recessive form of craniotubular hyperostosis due to mutation(s) in the SOST gene, encoding sclerostin. This condition is characterized by massive generalized hyperostosis and sclerosis, especially involving the skull and facial bones, which is so severe that the resulting facial distortion is referred to as 'leontiasis ossea'; the bone deposition results in progressive stenosis of craniofacial foramina and can lead to severe neurologic impairment in childhood." |
| C131430 | "A group of sclerosing bone dysplasias characterized by pronounced sclerosis of the cranial vault and the long bones, resulting in increased cortical bone density. Most cases are caused by mutation(s) in the SOST or LRP5 genes, encoding sclerostin and low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 5, respectively. Other genes have been implicated, and some cases have been described, but do not yet have identified genetic mutations." |
| C131431 | Impairment in the intracellular synthesis of thyroglobulin. |
| C131432 | Impairment in the intracellular transport of thyroglobulin. |
| C131433 | Graves disease in the neonate resulting from transplacental passage of thyrotropin receptor antibody. |
| C131436 | Enlargement of the entire thyroid gland without discrete mass(es). |
| C131437 | Goiter characterized by discrete tissue mass(es) that may or may not produce thyroid hormones. |
| C131438 | Nodular goiter characterized by more than one discrete tissue mass. |
| C131440 | Goiter associated with reduced thyroid hormone secretion. |
| C131442 | "A milder form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia characterized by decreased activity of an enzyme in the steroidogenic pathway, typically presenting later in life, that does not require life-long cortisol replacement." |
| C131445 | Nutritional rickets due to dietary deficiency of calcium. |
| C131446 | Hypophosphatemic rickets due to insufficient dietary phosphate intake or absorption. |
| C131447 | "Rickets due to dietary deficiency of calcium, phosphate, or vitamin D." |
| C131448 | Nutritional rickets due to dietary deficiency of vitamin D. |
| C131449 | "Rickets due to low serum phosphate concentrations, the cause of which can be nutritional or genetic. This condition is characterized by normal parathyroid hormone concentrations, usually caused by renal phosphate wasting occurring in isolation or as part of a renal tubular disorder, and characterized by resistance to treatment with ultraviolet radiation or vitamin D." |
| C131450 | "An autosomal recessive form of hypophosphatemic rickets caused by inactivating mutation(s) in the SLC34A3 gene, encoding sodium-dependent phosphate transport protein 2C, a protein involved in maintenance of inorganic phosphate concentration in the kidney. The condition is characterized by elevated 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) concentrations, resulting in increased intestinal calcium absorption and hypercalciuria. This form of hypophosphatemic rickets is also distinguished by the lac... |
| C131500 | The reemergence of a primary malignant neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C131501 | "The reemergence of a malignant neoplasm other than the original one, after a period of remission." |
| C131502 | Acute myeloid leukemia with often cytogenetically cryptic fusion of NUP98 (chromosome 11p15) with NSD1 (chromosome 5q35). This alteration occurs in 4% of pediatric AML cases. |
| C131504 | "Acute myeloid leukemia with a cytogenetically cryptic fusion of NUP98 to JARID1A, t(11;15)(p15;q35). It typically has a megakaryocytic phenotype and occurs in 10% of pediatric, non-Down syndrome-related acute megakaryoblastic leukemia cases." |
| C131506 | A melanoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C131533 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the ASXL1 gene, encoding putative polycomb group protein ASXL1. It is characterized by severe intrauterine growth retardation, profound mental retardation, craniofacial dysmorphisms, and flexion deformities of the upper limbs." |
| C131617 | The reemergence of an ependymal tumor after a period of remission. |
| C131621 | An acquired coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of fibrinogen (factor I) activity in the blood. |
| C131622 | An acquired coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of prothrombin (factor II) activity in the blood. |
| C131623 | An acquired coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of tissue factor (factor III) activity in the blood. |
| C131624 | An acquired coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor V activity in the blood. |
| C131625 | An acquired coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor VII activity in the blood. |
| C131626 | An acquired coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor X activity in the blood. |
| C131627 | An acquired coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor XI activity in the blood. |
| C131628 | An acquired coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor XII activity in the blood. |
| C131629 | An acquired coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor XIII activity in the blood. |
| C131630 | "Any form of anemia that results from the absence of, or the defective action of, any enzyme involved in erythropoiesis." |
| C131631 | A coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor VII activity in the blood. |
| C131632 | A coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor X activity in the blood. |
| C131633 | A coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor XIII activity in the blood. |
| C131634 | A disorder of platelet function or platelet production that may cause increased bleeding. |
| C131635 | A coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of tissue factor (factor III) activity in the blood. |
| C131638 | "A rare, autosomal recessive, inherited disorder caused by mutation of the BPGM gene. It is characterized by hemolytic anemia and splenomegaly." |
| C131639 | "An autosomal dominant disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia, giant platelets, nephritis, and deafness; it is associated with mutation of the MYH9 gene." |
| C131640 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation of the AK1 gene. It is associated with moderate to severe non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia and, in some cases, with intellectual disability and psychomotor impairment." |
| C131641 | "A rare, autosomal dominant, inherited disorder caused by mutation of the ENO1 gene. It is associated with spherocytic hemolytic anemia, exercise-induced myalgia and weakness." |
| C131642 | "An autosomal dominant disorder characterized by the triad of thrombocytopenia, giant platelets, and characteristic inclusions in peripheral blood leukocytes, with the additional features of nephritis, hearing loss, and eye abnormalities, mostly cataracts; it is associated with mutation of the MYH9 gene." |
| C131643 | "A rare, autosomal recessive, inherited disorder caused by mutation of the GPI gene. It is characterized by chronic, non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia." |
| C131644 | "An autosomal recessive, inherited coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of tissue factor (factor III) activity in the blood." |
| C131645 | "A rare, autosomal recessive, inherited disorder caused by mutation of the HK1 gene. It is characterized by the early-onset of severe, non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia." |
| C131646 | "An autosomal dominant disorder characterized by the triad of thrombocytopenia, giant platelets, and characteristic inclusions in peripheral blood leukocytes. It is characterized by varying degrees of thrombocytopenia that may be associated with purpura and bleeding; it is associated with mutation of the MYH9 gene." |
| C131647 | "A rare, autosomal recessive, inherited disorder caused by mutation of the PGAM2 gene. It is characterized by non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia, exercise-induced cramping, myoglobinuria, and presence of tubular aggregates on muscle biopsy." |
| C131648 | A coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of plasma-type kallikrein activity in the blood. |
| C131649 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation of the NT5C3A gene. It is the most frequent abnormality of red cell nucleotide metabolism, causing chronic, non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia. Most affected individuals have Mediterranean, Jewish, or African ancestry. Basophilic stippling and accumulation of pyrimidines within erythrocytes are hallmarks of this disorder." |
| C131650 | "An autosomal dominant disorder characterized by the triad of thrombocytopenia, giant platelets, and characteristic inclusions in peripheral blood leukocytes, without other organ dysfunction; it is associated with mutation of the MYH9 gene." |
| C131651 | A disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of tissue-type kallikrein activity in the tissues and glandular secretions where it is normally present. |
| C131652 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the TPI1 gene, encoding triosephosphate isomerase. It is characterized by congenital hemolytic anemia and progressive neuromuscular dysfunction." |
| C131653 | Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura for which the cause is not present at birth. |
| C131655 | Anemia that results from a decreased rate of erythropoiesis. |
| C131656 | Anemia that results from an increased rate of erythrocyte destruction. |
| C131657 | Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura for which the cause is present from birth. |
| C131658 | Disorders of coagulation caused by the depletion of coagulation factors in the peripheral blood. |
| C131659 | A coagulation disorder caused by abnormalities in fibrin that result in defective clot formation. This disorder may be inherited or acquired. |
| C131660 | Presence of inactivating antibodies to fibrinogen (factor I) in the blood. |
| C131661 | Presence of inactivating antibodies to prothrombin (factor II) in the blood. |
| C131662 | Presence of inactivating antibodies to tissue factor (factor III) in the blood. |
| C131663 | Presence of inactivating antibodies to factor IX in the blood. |
| C131664 | Presence of inactivating antibodies to factor V in the blood. |
| C131665 | Presence of inactivating antibodies to factor VII in the blood. |
| C131666 | Presence of inactivating antibodies to factor VIII in the blood. |
| C131667 | Presence of inactivating antibodies to factor X in the blood. |
| C131668 | Presence of inactivating antibodies to factor XI in the blood. |
| C131669 | Presence of inactivating antibodies to factor XII in the blood. |
| C131670 | Presence of inactivating antibodies to factor XIII in the blood. |
| C131673 | Disorders of coagulation caused by autoantibodies generated against native coagulation factors or therapeutically-administered hemostatic agents. |
| C131674 | "A rare, neonatal syndrome characterized by early jaundice that becomes rapidly associated with severe hemolytic anemia. The peripheral blood smear is remarkable for small irregular, contracted red blood cells with hyper-dense spikes (pyknocytes), that progressively increase in number and then spontaneously disappear." |
| C131677 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the CUBN or AMN genes. It is characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to selective malabsorption of the vitamin, and usually results in megaloblastic anemia appearing in childhood (but not immediately after birth)." |
| C131681 | "A rare autosomal dominant bleeding disorder characterized by abnormally enhanced binding of von Willebrand factor (VWF) by the platelet glycoprotein Ib receptor complex. Hemostatic function is impaired due to the removal of VWF multimers from the circulation. It is due to a mutation in the gene encoding for platelet glycoprotein Ib alpha, resulting in enhanced affinity for VWF. It is often misdiagnosed as type 2B von Willebrand disease due to similarities between these two conditions. Patie... |
| C131682 | "A variant of sickle cell disease due to homozygosity of the E6V mutation, amino acid substitution of valine for glutamic acid in the sixth position of the beta chain, resulting in the production of hemoglobin S from both alleles." |
| C131683 | "An acquired pure red cell aplasia that is self-limited. It is the most common cause of decreased red blood cell production in the pediatric population, and typically presents as a normocytic anemia with reticulocytopenia in an otherwise asymptomatic and normal child with no evidence of other causes for anemia, including blood loss, hemolysis, nutritional deficiency, or malignancy." |
| C131684 | "Low serum levels of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) due to poor intestinal absorption, decreased dietary intake, or increased physiologic requirement." |
| C131685 | "An autosomally inherited (generally dominant) coagulation disorder characterized by quantitative partial deficiency of circulating von Willebrand factor (VWF) which account for 60 to 80% of cases of von Willebrand disease. It is characterized by mild to moderate quantitative deficiencies of VWF and factor VIII, which are coordinately reduced from normal plasma levels." |
| C131686 | An autosomally inherited (generally dominant) coagulation disorder characterized by qualitative abnormalities of the von Willebrand factor (VWF). The mutant VWF causes decreased platelet adhesion due to a selective deficiency of high molecular weight multimers. The decrease in large multimers can be due to a failure to synthesize the multimers ('group 1') or enhanced ADAMTS13-mediated proteolysis of the secreted high molecular weight protein ('group 2'). |
| C131687 | "An autosomally inherited (generally dominant) coagulation disorder characterized by qualitative abnormalities of the von Willebrand factor (VWF). The mutant VWF shows increased affinity to platelet glycoprotein Ib alpha, resulting in increased platelet aggregation, and increased proteolysis of VWF subunits causing a decrease of large VWF multimers; patients often have secondary thrombocytopenia due to platelet consumption." |
| C131688 | An autosomally inherited (generally dominant) coagulation disorder characterized by qualitative abnormalities of the von Willebrand factor (VWF). The mutant VWF shows decreased platelet adhesion without a deficiency of high molecular weight multimers; this functional defect is caused by mutations that disrupt VWF binding to platelets or to subendothelium. |
| C131689 | "An autosomally inherited (generally recessive) coagulation disorder characterized by qualitative abnormalities of the von Willebrand factor (VWF). The mutant VWF shows markedly decreased binding affinity for factor VIII, which can be confused with mild hemophilia A. The phenotype is characterized by a disproportionate decrease in factor VIII compared to VWF." |
| C131737 | A coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of prothrombin (factor II) activity in the blood. |
| C131738 | A coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor V activity in the blood. |
| C131739 | A coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor XI activity in the blood. |
| C131740 | A coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor XII activity in the blood. It is not associated with increased bleeding risk. |
| C131760 | An unusual variant of capillary hemangioma. It is characterized by a unique anastomosing sinusoidal-like architecture which may mimic angiosarcoma. It was originally described in the kidney but rare cases have been reported in other sites. |
| C131811 | "An autosomal recessive skeletal dysplasia caused by mutation(s) in the PTH1R gene, encoding parathyroid hormone/parathyroid hormone-related peptide receptor. This condition is characterized by severely delayed skeletal maturation, as well as by abnormal modeling of the bones in the hands and feet, abnormal persistence of cartilage in the pelvis, and mild growth retardation. Calcium and phosphate concentrations are normal." |
| C131812 | "An autosomal recessive form of craniotubular hyperostosis due to a 52-kb deletion in the SOST gene, encoding sclerostin. Clinical features include normal stature, enlarged jaw and facial bones, hearing loss, and facial palsy due to cranial nerve deficits. The absence of syndactyly distinguishes this condition from sclerosteosis." |
| C131813 | "A genetic condition caused by a variant in the ALB gene, associated with increased affinity of albumin for thyroxine." |
| C131814 | Loss of subcutaneous fat confined to small area(s) of the body. |
| C131815 | Almost complete absence of subcutaneous and/or visceral adipose tissue. |
| C131818 | Central hypothyroidism due to medical or surgical treatment. |
| C131819 | Primary hypothyroidism due to medical or surgical treatment. |
| C131830 | KATP-associated hyperinsulinism in which there is an area of adenomatous beta-cell hyperplasia. This condition results from paternal recessive mutation(s) in either the ABCC8 or the KCNJ11 gene and paternal uniparental isodisomy of chromosome region 11p15 with loss of tumor suppressor genes expressed from the maternally inherited chromosome. |
| C131831 | "Hyperinsulinism due to activating mutation(s) in the gene GCK, encoding glucokinase." |
| C131832 | "Hyperinsulinism due to activating mutation(s) in the GLUD1 gene, encoding glutamate dehydrogenase 1. This condition is characterized by protein induced hypoglycemia and hyperammonemia, which is presumed to be due to increased ammonia production in the kidney." |
| C131833 | "Hyperinsulinism due to mutation(s) in the gene HNF1A, encoding the transcription factor hepatocyte nuclear factor 1-alpha. This condition may progress to diabetes later in life." |
| C131834 | "Hyperinsulinism due to mutation(s) in the gene HNF4A, encoding the transcription factor hepatocyte nuclear factor 4-alpha. This condition may progress to diabetes later in life." |
| C131835 | Transient hypoglycemia that occurs in the infant of a diabetic mother due to increased postnatal insulin release as a result of in utero exposure to maternal hyperglycemia. |
| C131836 | "A syndrome of insulin resistance caused by mutation(s) in the INSR gene, encoding the insulin receptor. This condition is characterized by a clinical triad of hyperinsulinemia, acanthosis nigricans, and hyperandrogenism without lipodystrophy. This is the least severe of a spectrum of disorders; the other two conditions are Rabson-Mendenhall Syndrome and Donohoe Syndrome." |
| C131837 | "Hyperinsulinism due to inactivating mutation(s) in the gene HADH, encoding mitochondrial (short-chain) hydroxyacyl-coenzyme A dehydrogenase, resulting in loss of inhibition of glutamate dehydrogenase (GDH). This condition is also characterized by protein-induced hypoglycemia, but in contrast to GLUD1-associated hyperinsulinism, hyperammonemia is absent." |
| C131838 | "Hyperinsulinism due to mutation(s) in the gene UCP2, encoding mitochondrial uncoupling protein 2, which plays a role in attenuating insulin secretion." |
| C131839 | "Hyperinsulinism due to mutation(s) in the regulatory region of the SLC16A1 gene, encoding monocarboxylate transporter 1 (MCT1). The mutation(s) result in aberrant expression of MCT1 in the beta cell, leading to inappropriate insulin secretion and hypoglycemia triggered by anaerobic exercise." |
| C131840 | A genetically heterogenous group of hyperinsulinemic conditions caused by mutation(s) in one of the many genes involved in the regulation of insulin secretion. |
| C131841 | "Insulin resistance associated with obesity, which may be attributed in part to impaired insulin signaling in target tissues, or impaired insulin-stimulated glucose transport due to reduced expression of the glucose transporter protein 4." |
| C131842 | Hyperinsulinism caused by non-functional beta-cell ATP-sensitive potassium channels due to inactivating mutation(s) in either the ABCC8 or KCNJ11 gene. |
| C131843 | KATP-associated hyperinsulinism affecting all pancreatic beta cells. |
| C131845 | A condition characterized by K ATP channel-associated permanent neonatal diabetes mellitus accompanied by neurological manifestations of developmental delay and epilepsy that may be associated with the severity of the mutation(s). |
| C131846 | K ATP channel-associated neonatal diabetes mellitus that resolves spontaneously. |
| C131847 | "Diabetes mellitus caused by activating mutation(s) in genes (KNCJ11 and/or ABCC8) encoding either of the 2 proteins (Kir6.2 and/or SUR1) that make up the pancreatic beta cell adenosine triphosphate-sensitive potassium channel, which is crucial for the regulation of glucose-induced insulin secretion." |
| C131848 | K ATP channel-associated neonatal diabetes mellitus that does not resolve spontaneously. |
| C131849 | "Decreased activity of hexose-6-phosphatase due to autosomal recessive mutation(s) in the H6PD gene. This enzyme is necessary to generate NADPH, a cofactor in the 11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase pathway required for conversion of cortisone to cortisol. The condition is characterized by hyperandrogenism as a result of increased adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation of the adrenal gland due to failure of cortisol-mediated down-regulation, and is clinically indistinguishable from 11-beta... |
| C131851 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by loss-of-function mutation(s) in the GALNT3, FGF23, or KL gene, which encode polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 3, fibroblast growth factor 23, and klotho, respectively. This condition, the biochemical hallmark of which is hyperphosphatemia caused by increased renal phosphate absorption, is characterized by the progressive deposition of calcium phosphate crystals in periarticular spaces, soft tissues, and/or bone." |
| C131852 | "Hyperthyroidism, the cause of which is present at birth." |
| C131853 | "A genetic condition caused by loss-of-function mutation(s) in the CASR gene, encoding extracellular calcium-sensing receptor. It is characterized by severe hypercalcemia and metabolic bone disease occurring in the first six months of life." |
| C131856 | Hypoparathyroidism resulting from medical treatment or intervention. |
| C131857 | Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism with congenital adrenal hypoplasia associated with mutation(s) in the NR0B1 gene (on the X chromosome). |
| C131859 | Diabetes mellitus caused by mutation(s) in mitochondrial DNA. |
| C131860 | Iodine-induced hyperthyroidism. |
| C131861 | "A bone disorder caused by autosomal recessive mutation(s) of the gene TNFRSF11B, which encodes tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 11B. This condition is characterized by excessive osteoclastic resorption of bone followed by deposition of weak, disorganized woven bone. Clinical characteristics include short stature, enlarged skull, bony deformities, bone pain, warm skin over the affected bone, joint stiffness, headaches, hearing loss, and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase." |
| C131862 | "Ovarian dysfunction due to a defect at the receptor or post receptor level, or due to the presence of antibodies against gonadotropin receptors, resulting in deficient gonadotropin signaling that causes elevated concentrations of follicle stimulating hormone and/or luteinizing hormone. A distinguishing feature is the presence of normal numbers of ova." |
| C131863 | Contrasexual pubertal development caused by medical intervention. |
| C131864 | "Conditions affecting individuals whose karyotype is 46,XY that is characterized by atypical development of the internal or external sex structures, or the gonads, and in whom no genetic, environmental, or biochemical causation can be established." |
| C131866 | "A subtype of micronodular adrenal hyperplasia, characterized by multiple non-pigmented nodules." |
| C131867 | "An autosomal recessive or sporadic form of adrenal hypoplasia congenita frequently associated with central nervous system anomalies including anencephaly and pituitary defects. Histologically the adrenal gland is distinguished by the absence of fetal adrenal cortex and the presence of a small amount of normal, permanent adult adrenal cortex." |
| C131868 | "A form of metaphyseal chondrodysplasia caused by mutation(s) in the PTH1R gene, encoding parathyroid hormone/parathyroid hormone-related peptide receptor. This condition is characterized by severe short stature, short bowed limbs, clinodactyly, prominent upper face, and a small mandible. Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia due to PTH resistance can appear later in childhood." |
| C131873 | The reemergence of chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C131875 | The reemergence of T acute lymphoblastic leukemia in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C131906 | "A rare Epstein-Barr virus-positive B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder that affects mucosal sites (including oral mucosa, palate, tonsils, and gastrointestinal tract) and skin. It presents with well-circumscribed, often painful ulcers. It is associated with immune suppression, including age-related and drug-induced immunosuppression. In the majority of cases the lesions regress either spontaneously or following withdrawal of the immunosuppression therapy." |
| C131911 | A molecularly distinct large B-cell lymphoma reminiscent of Burkitt lymphoma. It is characterized by the absence of MYC translocation and the presence of chromosome 11q aberrations. |
| C131913 | "High-grade B-cell lymphoma characterized by the abnormal rearrangement of MYC gene, BCL2 gene, and BCL6 gene. Patients with this type of lymphoma usually respond poorly to standard treatments and have a poor prognosis." |
| C132012 | Squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C132051 | Location of the thyroid gland somewhere other than at the base of the neck. |
| C132052 | Ectopic thyroid gland located at the base of the tongue. |
| C132053 | Hypothyroidism due to insufficient intake of iodine. |
| C132055 | "An autoimmune condition affecting the pituitary gland, characterized by lymphocytic infiltration, commonly presenting with pituitary hormone deficiencies." |
| C132067 | "A grade I or grade II glioma arising from the central nervous system. This category includes pilocytic astrocytoma, diffuse astrocytoma, subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, ependymoma, oligodendroglioma, oligoastrocytoma, and angiocentric glioma." |
| C132080 | "A condition characterized by non-union of the tibia, which is present at birth. It is usually associated with neurofibromatosis type 1." |
| C132096 | "A classic form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia that is characterized by severe 21-hydroxylase deficiency, resulting in glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, but without clinically significant salt wasting, and with androgen excess, which causes virilization in female infants." |
| C132101 | An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by t(10;11)(p12.3;q23.3) resulting in MLLT10-KMT2A gene fusion. It is associated with an unfavorable prognosis. |
| C132105 | An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by t(6;11)(q27;q23.3) resulting in MLLT4-KMT2A gene fusion. It is associated with an unfavorable prognosis. |
| C132109 | A non-Down syndrome acute megakaryoblastic leukemia that occurs in children. It is associated with CBFA2T3-GLIS2 chimeric oncogene and has an unfavorable prognosis. |
| C132111 | A non-Down syndrome acute megakaryoblastic leukemia that occurs in childhood. It is associated with t(11;12)(p15;p13) which results in the presence of NUP98-KDM5A chimeric oncogene. |
| C132146 | A malignant neoplasm arising from tissues that do not include fluid areas. Representative examples include carcinomas and sarcomas. Hematopoietic and lymphoid tissue malignancies are not considered solid neoplasms. |
| C132147 | A leiomyosarcoma which is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C132148 | A liposarcoma which is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C132195 | "An autosomal recessive neurodegenerative condition caused by mutation(s) in the WDR73 gene, encoding WD repeat-containing protein 73. It is characterized by microcephaly and severely delayed psychomotor development." |
| C132196 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CPN1 gene, encoding carboxypeptidase N catalytic chain. It may be characterized by episodic angioedema, chronic urticaria, asthma and/or allergic hypersensitivity." |
| C132224 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the MRE11A gene, encoding double-strand break repair protein MRE11. It is characterized by progressive cerebellar degeneration resulting in ataxia and oculomotor apraxia." |
| C132260 | A myeloid sarcoma that affects the small intestine. It often presents with abdominal pain and obstruction. |
| C132270 | Sex reversal in an individual associated with a 9p24.3 deletion. |
| C132290 | "Decreased or absent activity of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase 1, due to loss-of-function mutation(s) in the gene CA1." |
| C132292 | "Congenital myasthenic syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the CHAT gene, encoding choline O-acetyltransferase. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner." |
| C132293 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the MECP2 gene, encoding methyl-CpG-binding protein 2. It is characterized by severe neonatal encephalopathy." |
| C132294 | The reemergence of endometrial serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C132296 | "A usually aggressive and invasive pituitary neuroendocrine tumor characterized by excessive p53 immunoreactivity, increased mitotic activity, and MIB-1 proliferative index greater than 3%." |
| C132484 | Dilatation of the blood vessels. |
| C132505 | "A category of low grade gliomas that includes diffuse astrocytoma, ependymoma, oligodendroglioma, and oligoastrocytoma." |
| C132506 | The reemergence of a glioma after a period of remission. |
| C132676 | "A term that refers to the staging of unknown primary tumor (except for EBV-related and HPV-related tumors) and metastatic cervical adenopathy according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C132677 | "Stage III includes: T0, N1, M0. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or smaller in greatest dimension and ENE (extranodal extension)(-). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C132678 | "Stage IVA includes: T0, N2, M0. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral or contralateral cervical lymph node 3 cm or smaller in greatest dimension and ENE(+); or metastasis in a single ipsilateral cervical lymph node larger than 3 cm but not larger than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-); or metastases in multiple ipsilateral cervical lymph nodes, none larger than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-); or metastases in bilateral or contralateral cervical ... |
| C132679 | "Stage IVB includes: T0, N3, M0. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. N3: Metastasis in a cervical lymph node larger than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-); or metastases in a single ipsilateral cervical lymph node larger than 3 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(+); or metastases in multiple ipsilateral, contralateral, or bilateral cervical lymph nodes, any size and ENE(+) in any node. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C132680 | "Stage IVC includes: T0, Any N, M1. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C132727 | The formation of a blood clot in a cerebral vein. |
| C132728 | "A term that refers to the staging of lip and oral cavity carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C132729 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension and 5 mm or less depth of invasion (DOI).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C132730 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, DOI greater than 5 mm and equal or less than 10 mm or tumor greater than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension and 10 mm or less DOI.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C132731 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor size greater than 4 cm or any tumor greater than 10 mm DOI. T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension and 5 mm or less DOI. T2: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, DOI greater than 5 mm and equal or less than 10 mm or tumor greater than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension and 10 mm or less DOI N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or smaller in greatest dimensio... |
| C132732 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a (lip): Tumor invades through cortical bone or involves the inferior alveolar nerve, floor of mouth, or skin of face (i.e., chin or nose).  T4a (oral cavity): Tumor invades adjacent structures only (e.g., through cortical bone of the mandible or maxilla, or involves the maxillary sinus or skin of face). Note: Superfic... |
| C132733 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a (lip): Tumor invades through cortical bone or involves the inferior alveolar nerve, floor of mouth, or skin of face (i.e., chin or nose).  T4a (oral cavity): Tumor invades adjacent structures only (e.g., through cortical bone of the mandible or maxilla, or involves the maxillary sinus or skin of face). Note: Superficial erosion of bone/tooth socket (alone) by a gingival primary is ... |
| C132734 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0). T4b: Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases the internal carotid artery. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node larger than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE (-); or in a single ipsilateral lymph node larger than 3 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(+); or metastases in multiple ipsilateral, contralateral or bilateral lymph nodes any with ENE(+). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C132735 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C132736 | "A term that refers to the staging of lip and oral cavity carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th and 7th editions." |
| C132778 | "A term that refers to the staging of major salivary gland cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C132779 | "A term that refers to the staging of major salivary gland cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C132781 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not constitute extraparenchymal extension for classification purposes. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132783 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132785 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132786 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T0, N1, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, and/or tumor having extraparenchymal extension.  T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis... |
| C132787 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Moderately advanced disease.  Tumor invades skin, mandible, ear canal, and/or facial nerve. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension witho... |
| C132788 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Moderately advanced disease.  Tumor invades skin, mandible, ear canal, and/or facial nerve. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm ... |
| C132789 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T4b: Very advanced disease.  Tumor invades skull base and/or pterygoid plates and/or encases carotid artery. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node larger than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-); or in a single ipsilateral node larger than 3 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(+); or multiple ipsilateral, contralateral, or bilateral nodes any with ENE(+). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132790 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132814 | "A term that refers to the staging of pharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C132816 | "A term that refers to the staging of nasopharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C132817 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal involvement. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132818 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T0, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0); (T2, N1, M0). T1: Tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal involvement. T0: No tumor identified, but EBV-positive cervical node(s) involvement is present. T2: Tumor with extension to parapharyngeal space, and/or adjacent soft tissue involvement (medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, prevertebral muscles). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with unil... |
| C132819 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N2, M0); (T0, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0). T1: Tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal involvement. T0: No tumor identified, but EBV-positive cervical node(s) involvement is present. T2: Tumor with extension to parapharyngeal space, and/or adjacent soft tissue involvement (medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, prevertebral muscles). T3: Tumor infiltrating bony s... |
| C132820 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVB (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Tumor with intracranial extension, involvement of cranial nerves, hypopharynx, orbit, parotid gland, and/or extensive soft tissue infiltration beyond the lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid muscle.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with unilateral metastasis in cervical lymph node(s), and/or unilateral or bilateral metastasis in retropharyngeal lymph node(s), 6... |
| C132821 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); T4: Tumor with intracranial extension, involvement of cranial nerves, hypopharynx, orbit, parotid gland, and/or extensive soft tissue infiltration beyond the lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid muscle.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with unilateral metastasis in cervical lymph node(s), and/or unilateral or bilateral metastasis in retropharyngeal lymph node(s), 6 cm or smaller in greatest d... |
| C132822 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132826 | "An autosomal dominant neurodegenerative disorder characterized by juvenile onset, distal motor weakness without sensory impairment, and anterior horn cell degeneration." |
| C132827 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ALOX12B gene, encoding arachidonate 12-lipoxygenase, 12R-type. It is characterized by dry, thickened, scaly skin." |
| C132849 | A Ewing sarcoma which is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C132850 | An osteosarcoma which is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C132853 | The reemergence of a malignant germ cell tumor after a period of remission. |
| C132854 | A malignant germ cell tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C132881 | A carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland and has spread to the soft tissues. |
| C132882 | "A term that refers to the staging of HPV-mediated (p16-positive) oropharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C132883 | "A term that refers to the clinical staging of HPV-mediated (p16-positive) oropharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C132884 | "A term that refers to the pathologic staging of HPV-mediated (p16-positive) oropharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C132885 | "Stage I includes: (T0, N0, M0); (T0, N1, M0); (T1, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0); (T2, N1, M0). T0: No primary identified. T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but not larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or more ipsilateral lymph nodes, none larger than 6 cm. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132886 | "Stage II includes: (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0) ;(T2, N2, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0). T0: No primary identified. T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but not larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension or extension to lingual surface of epiglottis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or more ipsilateral lymph nodes, none larger than 6 cm. N2: Tumor with co... |
| C132891 | "Stage III includes: (T0, N3, M0); (T1, N3, M0); (T2, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0). T0: No primary identified. T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but not larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension or extension to lingual surface of epiglottis. T4: Tumor with moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades the larynx, extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial ptery... |
| C132893 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132898 | "Stage I includes: (T0, N0, M0); (T0, N1, M0); (T1, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0); (T2, N1, M0). T0: No primary identified. T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but not larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in four or fewer lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132899 | "Stage II includes: (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0). T0: No primary identified. T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but not larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension or extension to lingual surface of epiglottis. T4: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades the larynx, extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, or mand... |
| C132900 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N2, M0). T3: Tumor larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension or extension to lingual surface of epiglottis. T4: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades the larynx, extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, or mandible or beyond. Mucosal extension to lingual surface of epiglottis from primary tumors of the base of the tongue and vallecula does not constitute invasion of the larynx. N2: Tumor with metastasis in more than four lymph... |
| C132901 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132902 | A glioblastoma characterized by the absence of DNA methylation in the promoter region of the MGMT gene. It is associated with a poor outcome. |
| C132994 | "A term that refers to the staging of p16-negative oropharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C132995 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132996 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132997 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but not larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132998 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension or extension to lingual surface of epiglottis. T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but not larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or smaller in greatest dimension and ENE (-). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C132999 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades the larynx, extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, or mandible. Mucosal extension to lingual surface of epiglottis from primary tumors of the base of the tongue and vallecula does not constitute invasion of the larynx. T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller ... |
| C133000 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades the larynx, extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, or mandible. Mucosal extension to lingual surface of epiglottis from primary tumors of the base of the tongue and vallecula does not constitute invasion of the larynx. T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but not larger than... |
| C133001 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0). T4b: Very advanced local disease. Tumor invades lateral pterygoid muscle, pterygoid plates, lateral nasopharynx, or skull base or encases carotid artery. N3: Tumor with metastasis in a lymph node larger than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-); or metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node larger than 3 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(+); or metastases in multiple ipsilateral, contralateral, or bilateral lymph nodes any with ENE(+... |
| C133002 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133003 | "A term that refers to the staging of hypopharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133005 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133006 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invading more than one subsite of hypopharynx or an adjacent site, or measuring more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without fixation of hemilarynx. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133007 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor larger than 4 cm in greatest dimension or with fixation of hemilarynx or extension to esophagus. T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor invading more than one subsite of hypopharynx or an adjacent site, or measuring more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without fixation of hemilarynx. N0: No regional lymph node metastasi... |
| C133008 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades thyroid/cricoid cartilage, hyoid bone, thyroid gland, or central compartment soft tissue. Central compartment soft tissue includes prelaryngeal strap muscles and subcutaneous fat. T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or smaller in greatest di... |
| C133009 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades thyroid/cricoid cartilage, hyoid bone, thyroid gland, or central compartment soft tissue. Central compartment soft tissue includes prelaryngeal strap muscles and subcutaneous fat. T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor invading more than one subsite of hypopharynx or a... |
| C133010 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0). T4b: Very advanced local disease. Tumor invades prevertebral fascia, encases carotid artery, or involves mediastinal structures. N3: Tumor with metastasis in a lymph node larger than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-); or metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node larger than 3 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(+); or metastases in multiple ipsilateral, contralateral, or bilateral lymph nodes any with ENE(+). M0: No distant metasta... |
| C133011 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133074 | "A term that refers to the staging of nasal cavity and paranasal sinus carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133076 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Maxillary sinus: Tumor limited to the maxillary sinus mucosa with no erosion or destruction of bone. Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Tumor restricted to any one subsite, with or without bony invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133077 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Maxillary sinus: Tumor causing bone erosion or destruction including extension into the hard palate and/or middle nasal meatus, except extension to posterior wall of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plates. Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Tumor invading two subsites in a single region or extending to involve an adjacent region within the nasoethmoidal complex, with or without bony invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJ... |
| C133078 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Maxillary sinus: Tumor invading any of the following: bone of the posterior wall of maxillary sinus, subcutaneous tissues, floor or medial wall of orbit, pterygoid fossa, or ethmoid sinuses. Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Tumor invading the medial wall or floor of the orbit, maxillary sinus, palate, or cribriform plate.  T1: Maxillary sinus: Tumor limited to the maxillary sinus mucosa with no erosion or destruc... |
| C133079 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Maxillary sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades anterior orbital contents, skin of cheek, pterygoid plates, infratemporal fossa, cribriform plate, sphenoid or frontal sinuses. Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades any of the following: anterior orbital ... |
| C133080 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Maxillary sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades anterior orbital contents, skin of cheek, pterygoid plates, infratemporal fossa, cribriform plate, sphenoid or frontal sinuses. Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades any of the following: anterior orbital contents, skin of nose or cheek, minimal extension to anterior crania... |
| C133081 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T4b: Very advanced local disease. Tumor invades any of the following: orbital apex, dura, brain, middle cranial fossa, cranial nerves other than maxillary division of trigeminal nerve (V2), nasopharynx, or clivus. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node larger than 6 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(-); or metastasis in a single ipsilateral node larger than 3 cm in greatest dimension and ENE(+); or metastases in multiple ipsilateral, contralater... |
| C133082 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133084 | "An autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by mutation(s) in the GM2A gene, encoding ganglioside GM2 activator. It is characterized by GM2-ganglioside accumulation in tissues resulting in hypotonia, cherry-red macular spots, and neurocognitive dysfunction." |
| C133085 | A neurodegenerative condition characterized by asymmetric weakness in the upper extremities resulting from segmental lower motor neuron dysfunction. |
| C133086 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SLC25A20 gene, encoding mitochondrial carnitine/acylcarnitine carrier protein. It is characterized by cardiomyopathy, skeletal muscle damage, and liver dysfunction that results from derangement of long-chain fatty acid oxidation." |
| C133087 | A demyelinating peripheral neuropathy characterized by delayed motor development. |
| C133091 | A very rare benign neoplasm that arises from the lung. It is characterized by the presence of a stromal and an epithelial component. It resembles the adenofibromas that arise from the organs of the female reproductive system. |
| C133092 | The reemergence of breast angiosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C133093 | A malignant solid neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C133095 | A carcinoma arising from the anal canal and occurring in HIV-positive patients. |
| C133156 | "A term that refers to the staging of laryngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133158 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Supraglottis: Tumor is limited to one subsite of supraglottis with normal vocal cord mobility. Glottis: Tumor is limited to the vocal cord(s) (may involve anterior or posterior commissure) with normal mobility. Subglottis: Tumor is limited to the subglottis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133159 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Supraglottis: Tumor invades the mucosa of more than one adjacent subsite of supraglottis or glottis or region outside the supraglottis (e.g., mucosa of base of the tongue, vallecula, medial wall of pyriform sinus) without fixation of the larynx. Glottis: Tumor extends to supraglottis and/or subglottis, and/or with impaired vocal cord mobility. Subglottis: Tumor extends to vocal cord(s) with normal or impaired mobility. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis... |
| C133160 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Supraglottis: Tumor is limited to larynx with vocal cord fixation and/or invades any of the following: postcricoid area, preepiglottic space, paraglottic space, and/or inner cortex of thyroid cartilage. Glottis: Tumor is limited to the larynx with vocal cord fixation and /or invades the paraglottic space, and/or inner cortex of the thyroid cartilage. Subglottis: Tumor is limited to the larynx with vocal cord fix... |
| C133161 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Supraglottis: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades through the outer cortex of the thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissues beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of neck including deep extrinsic muscle of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid, or esophagus). Glottis: Moderately advanced local di... |
| C133162 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Supraglottis: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades through the outer cortex of the thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissues beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of neck including deep extrinsic muscle of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid, or esophagus). Glottis: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades through the outer cortex of the thyroid cartilag... |
| C133163 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0). T4b: Supraglottis: Very advanced local disease. Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures. Glottis: Very advanced local disease. Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures. Subglottis: Very advanced local disease. Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures. N3: metastasis in a lymph node, mo... |
| C133164 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133186 | "A term that refers to the staging of mucosal melanoma of the head and neck according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition. No prognostic stage grouping is proposed in the 8th edition." |
| C133187 | "A melanoma that arises in the mucosa of the nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, oral cavity, oropharynx, nasopharynx, larynx, and hypopharynx." |
| C133192 | A precancerous neoplastic process affecting the oral mucosa. It is characterized by the presence of dysplasia in the mucosal epithelium. |
| C133193 | Thyroid gland carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C133252 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the skin of the head and neck. |
| C133253 | "A term that refers to the staging of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133254 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the lung. It is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells. It includes the clear cell and papillary variants of squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C133255 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133256 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor smaller than 2 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133257 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor 2 cm or larger, but smaller than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133258 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor 4 cm or larger in greatest dimension or minor bone erosion or perineural invasion or deep invasion. Deep invasion is defined as invasion beyond the subcutaneous fat or larger than 6 mm; perineural invasion for T3 classification is defined as tumor cells within the nerve sheath of a nerve lying deeper than the dermis or measuring 0.1 mm or larger in caliber, or presenting with clinical or radiographic invol... |
| C133259 | "Stage IV includes: (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); (T4, Any N, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1). T1: Tumor smaller than 2 cm in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor 2 cm or larger, but smaller than 4 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor 4 cm or larger in greatest dimension or minor bone erosion or perineural invasion or deep invasion. Deep invasion is defined as invasion beyond the subcutaneous fat or larger than 6 mm; perineural invasion for T3 classification is defined as tumor ... |
| C133399 | "A term that refers to the staging of esophageal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133400 | "A term that refers to the staging of esophageal adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133401 | "A term that refers to the clinical staging of esophageal adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133402 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: High-grade dysplasia, defined as malignant cells confined to the epithelium by the basement membrane. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133403 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133404 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T1, N1, M0; IIB: T2, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133405 | "Stage IIA includes: T1, N1, M0. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133406 | "Stage IIB includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133407 | "Stage III includes: (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0-1, M0); (T4a, N0-1, M0). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133408 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T1-4a, N2, M0); (T4b, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or t... |
| C133409 | "Stage IVA includes: (T1-4a, N2, M0); (T4b, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: ... |
| C133410 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133411 | "A term that refers to the staging of esophageal adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C133412 | "A term that refers to the pathologic staging of esophageal adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133413 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0, GN/A. Tis: High-grade dysplasia, defined as malignant cells confined to the epithelium by the basement membrane. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. GN/A: Grade non-applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133414 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0, G1); (T1a, N0, M0, GX); IB: (T1a, N0, M0, G2); (T1b, N0, M0, G1-2); (T1b, N0, M0, GX); IC: (T1, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, G1-2). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. T1b: Tumor invades the submucosa. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. ... |
| C133415 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G1); (T1a, N0, M0, GX). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133416 | "Stage IB includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G2); (T1b, N0, M0, G1-2); (T1b, N0, M0, GX). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. T1b: Tumor invades the submucosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G2: Moderately differentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133417 | "Stage IC includes: (T1, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, G1-2). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. G2: Moderately differentiated. G3: Poorly differentiated, undifferentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133418 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, GX); IIB: (T1, N1, M0, Any G); (T3, N0, M0, Any G). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G3: Poorly differentiated, undifferentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133419 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, GX). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G3: Poorly differentiated, undifferentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133420 | "Stage IIB includes: (T1, N1, M0, Any G); (T3, N0, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133421 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1, N2, M0, Any G); (T2, N1, M0, Any G); IIIB: (T2, N2, M0, Any G); (T3, N1-2, M0, Any G); (T4a, N0-1, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis... |
| C133422 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N2, M0, Any G); (T2, N1, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133423 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T2, N2, M0, Any G); (T3, N1-2, M0, Any G); (T4a, N0-1, M0, Any G). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133424 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N2, M0, Any G); (T4b, N0-2, M0, Any G); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1, Any G). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasis in ... |
| C133425 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N2, M0, Any G); (T4b, N0-2, M0, Any G); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. ... |
| C133426 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1, Any G. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133432 | "A term that refers to the postneoadjuvant therapy staging of esophageal adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133433 | "Stage I includes: T0-2, N0, M0. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133434 | "Stage II includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133435 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T0-2, N1, M0); IIIB: (T3, N1, M0); (T0-3, N2, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to si... |
| C133436 | "Stage IIIA includes: T0-2, N1, M0. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133437 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3, N1, M0); (T0-3, N2, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0:... |
| C133438 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N1-2, M0); (T4a, NX, M0); (T4b, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph no... |
| C133439 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N1-2, M0); (T4a, NX, M0); (T4b, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasi... |
| C133440 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133442 | "A term that refers to the staging of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C133443 | "A term that refers to the staging of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133444 | "A term that refers to the clinical staging of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133445 | "A term that refers to the pathologic staging of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133446 | "A term that refers to the postneoadjuvant therapy staging of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133447 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: High-grade dysplasia, defined as malignant cells confined to the epithelium by the basement membrane. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133448 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0-1, M0. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133449 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0-1, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133450 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N1, M0); (T1-3, N2, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133451 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Tumor invades adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133452 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T4: Tumor invades adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133453 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133454 | "Stage I includes: T0-2, N0, M0. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133455 | "Stage II includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133456 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T0-2, N1, M0); IIIB: (T3, N1, M0); (T0-3, N2, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to si... |
| C133457 | "Stage IIIA includes: T0-2, N1, M0. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133458 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3, N1, M0); (T0-3, N2, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0:... |
| C133459 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N1-2, M0); (T4a, NX, M0); (T4b, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph no... |
| C133460 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N1-2, M0); (T4a, NX, M0); (T4b, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasi... |
| C133461 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133494 | "A large B-cell lymphoma that usually affects the Waldeyer ring and/or cervical lymph nodes and less often the gastrointestinal tract. It occurs most commonly in children and young adults and is low stage. It is characterized by a follicular, follicular and diffuse, or pure diffuse growth pattern resembling follicular lymphoma grade 3B or a diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. Most cases have IG/IRF4 rearrangements. BCL2 rearrangements are not present. Some cases that belong in this category lack ... |
| C133499 | The reemergence of an atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor after a period of remission. |
| C133501 | "A carcinoma that has spread to the central nervous system from its original site in the breast, through the hematogenous route." |
| C133503 | "A carcinoma that has spread to the central nervous system from its original site in the lung, through the hematogenous route." |
| C133504 | "A melanoma that has spread to the central nervous system from its original site of growth, through the hematogenous route." |
| C133519 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0, GN/A, Tumor location: Any. Tis: High-grade dysplasia, defined as malignant cells confined to the epithelium by the basement membrane. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. GN/A: Grade non-applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133521 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0, G1, Tumor location: Any); (T1a, N0, M0, GX, Tumor location: Any); IB: (T1a, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Any); (T1b, N0, M0, G1-3, Tumor location: Any); (T1b, N0, M0, GX, Tumor location: Any); (T2, N0, M0, G1, Tumor location: Any). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. T1b: Tumor invades the submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated... |
| C133525 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G1, Tumor location: Any); (T1a, N0, M0, GX, Tumor location: Any). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133530 | "Stage IB includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Any); (T1b, N0, M0, G1-3, Tumor location: Any); (T1b, N0, M0, GX, Tumor location: Any); (T2, N0, M0, G1, Tumor location: Any). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. T1b: Tumor invades the submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G2: Moderately differentiated. G3: Poorly differentiate... |
| C133532 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Any); (T2, N0, M0, GX, Tumor location: Any); (T3, N0, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Lower); (T3, N0, M0, G1, Tumor location: Upper/middle); IIB: (T3, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Upper/middle); (T3, N0, M0, GX, Tumor location: Any); (T3, N0, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Unknown); (T1, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T3:... |
| C133534 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Any); (T2, N0, M0, GX, Tumor location: Any); (T3, N0, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Lower); (T3, N0, M0, G1, Tumor location: Upper/middle). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G1: Well-differentiated. G2: Moderately differentiated. G3: Poorly differentiated, undifferentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133535 | "Stage IIB includes: (T3, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Upper/middle); (T3, N0, M0, GX, Tumor location: Any); (T3, N0, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Unknown); (T1, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G2: Moderately differentiated. G3: Poo... |
| C133536 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T2, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); IIIB: (T2, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T3, N1-2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4a, N0-1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph... |
| C133537 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T2, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133538 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T2, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T3, N1-2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4a, N0-1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastas... |
| C133539 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4b, N0-2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1, Any G, Tumor location: Any). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor... |
| C133541 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4b, N0-2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3... |
| C133542 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1, Any G, Tumor location: Any. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133548 | "A term that refers to the staging of gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133549 | "A term that refers to the clinical staging of gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133550 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: High-grade dysplasia, defined as malignant cells confined to the epithelium by the basement membrane. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133552 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133553 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T1, N1, M0; IIB: T2, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133554 | "Stage IIA includes: T1, N1, M0. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133555 | "Stage IIB includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133556 | "Stage III includes: (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0-1, M0); (T4a, N0-1, M0). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133557 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T1-4a, N2, M0); (T4b, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or t... |
| C133558 | "Stage IVA includes: (T1-4a, N2, M0); (T4b, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: ... |
| C133560 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133563 | "A term that refers to the pathologic staging of gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133564 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0, GN/A. Tis: High-grade dysplasia, defined as malignant cells confined to the epithelium by the basement membrane. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. GN/A: Grade non-applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133565 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0, G1); (T1a, N0, M0, GX); IB: (T1a, N0, M0, G2); (T1b, N0, M0, G1-2); (T1b, N0, M0, GX); IC: (T1, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, G1-2). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. T1b: Tumor invades the submucosa. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. ... |
| C133566 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G1); (T1a, N0, M0, GX). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133567 | "Stage IB includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G2); (T1b, N0, M0, G1-2); (T1b, N0, M0, GX). T1a: Tumor invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosae. T1b: Tumor invades the submucosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G2: Moderately differentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133568 | "Stage IC includes: (T1, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, G1-2). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well-differentiated. G2: Moderately differentiated. G3: Poorly differentiated, undifferentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133570 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, GX); IIB: (T1, N1, M0, Any G); (T3, N0, M0, Any G). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G3: Poorly differentiated, undifferentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133572 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, GX). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G3: Poorly differentiated, undifferentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133573 | "Stage IIB includes: (T1, N1, M0, Any G); (T3, N0, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133575 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1, N2, M0, Any G); (T2, N1, M0, Any G); IIIB: (T2, N2, M0, Any G); (T3, N1-2, M0, Any G); (T4a, N0-1, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis... |
| C133577 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N2, M0, Any G); (T2, N1, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133579 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T2, N2, M0, Any G); (T3, N1-2, M0, Any G); (T4a, N0-1, M0, Any G). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133580 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N2, M0, Any G); (T4b, N0-2, M0, Any G); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1, Any G). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasis in ... |
| C133581 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N2, M0, Any G); (T4b, N0-2, M0, Any G); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. ... |
| C133582 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1, Any G. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133583 | "A term that refers to the postneoadjuvant therapy staging of gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133584 | "Stage I includes: T0-2, N0, M0. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133585 | "Stage II includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133586 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T0-2, N1, M0); IIIB: (T3, N1, M0); (T0-3, N2, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to si... |
| C133587 | "Stage IIIA includes: T0-2, N1, M0. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133588 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3, N1, M0); (T0-3, N2, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0:... |
| C133589 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N1-2, M0); (T4a, NX, M0); (T4b, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph no... |
| C133590 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N1-2, M0); (T4a, NX, M0); (T4b, N0-2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T4a: Tumor invades the pleura, pericardium, azygos vein, diaphragm, or peritoneum. T4b: Tumor invades other adjacent structures, such as the aorta, vertebral body, or airway. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasi... |
| C133591 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133592 | The reemergence of classic Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C133638 | "A term that refers to the staging of gastric cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133639 | "A term that refers to the clinical staging of gastric cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133640 | "A term that refers to the pathologic staging of gastric cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133641 | "A term that refers to the postneoadjuvant therapy staging of gastric cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C133647 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial tumor without invasion of the lamina propria, high grade dysplasia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133648 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133649 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T1, N1, N2, or N3, M0); (T2, N1, N2, or N3, M0); IIB: (T3, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures. T4a: Tumor invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph node... |
| C133650 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N1, N2, or N3, M0); (T4a, N1, N2, or N3, M0). T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures. T4a: Tumor invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum). N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133651 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4b, Any N, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). T4b: Tumor invades adjacent structures/organs. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133652 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4b, Any N, M0): T4b: Tumor invades adjacent structures/organs. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133653 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133654 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial tumor without invasion of the lamina propria, high grade dysplasia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133655 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, N0, M0); IB: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133656 | "Stage IA includes: (T1, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133657 | "Stage IB includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133659 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0); IIB: (T1, N3a, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures. T4a: Tumor invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or tw... |
| C133660 | "Stage IIA includes: (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC... |
| C133662 | "Stage IIB includes: (T1, N3a, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures. T4a: Tumor invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis i... |
| C133663 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T2, N3a, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); (T4b, N0, M0); IIIB: (T1, N3b, M0); (T2, N3b, M0); (T3, N3a, M0); (T4a, N3a, M0); (T4b, N1, M0); (T4b, N2, M0); IIIC: (T3, N3b, M0); (T4a, N3b, M0); (T4b, N3a, M0); (T4b, N3b, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent struc... |
| C133665 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T2, N3a, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); (T4b, N0, M0). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures. T4a: Tumor invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum). T4b: Tumor invades adjacent structures/organs.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three... |
| C133666 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1, N3b, M0); (T2, N3b, M0); (T3, N3a, M0); (T4a, N3a, M0); (T4b, N1, M0); (T4b, N2, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures. T4a: Tumor invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum). T4b: Tumor invades adjacent structures/organs. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regiona... |
| C133667 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T3, N3b, M0); (T4a, N3b, M0); (T4b, N3a, M0); (T4b, N3b, M0). T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures. T4a: Tumor invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum). T4b: Tumor invades adjacent structures/organs. N3a: Tumor with metastasis in seven to fifteen regional lymph nodes. N3b: Tumor with metastasis in sixteen or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133668 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133670 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133671 | "Stage II includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T1, N3, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures. T4a: Tumor invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional ... |
| C133672 | "Stage III includes: (T4a, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T2, N3, M0); (T4b, N0, M0); (T4b, N1, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4b, N2, M0); (T4b, N3, M0); (T4a, N3, M0). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures. T4a: Tumor invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum). T4b: Tumor invades adjacent structures/organs. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Tumor with metastasis... |
| C133673 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133681 | "Stage IIA includes: (T1, N1, N2, or N3, M0); (T2, N1, N2, or N3, M0). T1: Tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: Tumor with metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor with metastasis in three to six regional lymph nodes. N3: Tumor with metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133682 | "Stage IIB includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T3: Tumor penetrates the subserosal connective tissue without invasion of the visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures. T4a: Tumor invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133709 | The reemergence of squamous cell carcinoma in the head and neck region after a period of remission. |
| C133713 | A paraganglioma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C133716 | "A term that refers to the staging of small intestinal cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C133724 | "An autosomal recessive neurologic condition caused by mutation(s) in the SLC52A3 gene, encoding solute carrier family 52, riboflavin transporter, member 3. It is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss and varying cranial nerve palsies, usually affecting the motor components of the seventh and ninth to twelfth cranial nerves. Spinal motor nerves are often affected. Mutations in SLC52A3 may result in Faxio-Lone disease, which is a similar condition, but sensorineural deafness is not pres... |
| C133725 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the MYBPC3 gene, encoding MYBPC3 protein. It is characterized by severe neonatal hypertrophic cardiomyopathy." |
| C133727 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the TBCE gene, encoding tubulin-specific chaperone E. It is characterized by congenital hypoparathyroidism, mental retardation, seizures and developmental delay." |
| C133729 | "An X-linked dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the IQSEC2 gene, encoding IQ motif and SEC7 domain-containing protein 2. It is characterized by substantially impaired intellectual functioning and behavioral abnormalities." |
| C133730 | "An autosomal recessive limb-girdle muscular dystrophy caused by mutations in the POMT1 gene, encoding protein O-mannosyl-transferase 1. It is characterized by mental retardation without structural brain abnormalities and limb-girdle muscular dystrophy." |
| C133731 | Primary amyloidosis that does not respond to treatment. |
| C133732 | The reemergence of primary amyloidosis after a period of remission. |
| C133733 | "A term that refers to the staging of appendiceal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition. Carcinoid tumors are staged separately. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C133736 | Classic Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C133737 | A malignant solid neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C133742 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the KIF1A gene, encoding kinesin-like protein KIF1A. It is characterized by microcephaly, intellectual disability, and delayed psychomotor development. The condition is progressive, occurs in early infancy, and is of variable severity." |
| C133743 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CNTNAP2 gene, encoding contactin-associated protein-like 2. It is characterized by normal development until the onset of intractable focal seizures at age 1-9. After the onset of seizures, language regression, intellectual disability, hyperactivity, and impulsive behaviors begin to occur. The majority of children eventually fulfill the criteria for autism spectrum disorder." |
| C133744 | "A wedge-shaped, benign, degenerative fibrovascular lesion arising from the bulbar conjunctiva and extending to the cornea. It is caused by chronic exposure to solar ultraviolet radiation, heat, and dust. It may cause severe vision loss." |
| C133787 | "A term that refers to the staging of anal canal cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th and 7th editions. This staging system applies to carcinomas arising in the anal canal only; melanomas, carcinoid tumors, sarcomas, and perianal tumors are not included. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C133794 | "A term that refers to the staging of anal cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to all carcinomas arising in the anal canal, including carcinomas that arise within anorectal fistulas and those arising in the perianal area (anal margin). High-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas (small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma) are staged using this system. There is no AJCC staging system for anal mucosal m... |
| C133795 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (previously termed carcinoma in situ, Bowen disease, anal intraepithelial neoplasia II-III, high-grade anal intraepithelial neoplasia). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133796 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133797 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T2, N0, M0; IIB: T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but equal to or smaller than 5 cm. T3: Tumor larger than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133798 | "Stage IIA includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but equal to or smaller than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133799 | "Stage IIB includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor larger than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133800 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); IIIB: (T4, N0, M0); IIIC: (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N1, M0). T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but equal to or smaller than 5 cm. T3: Tumor larger than 5 cm. T4: Tumor of any size invading adjacent organ(s), such as the vagina, urethra, or bladder. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in inguinal, mesorectal, internal iliac, or external iliac nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133801 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0). T1: Tumor 2 cm or smaller. T2: Tumor larger than 2 cm but equal to or smaller than 5 cm. N1: Metastasis in inguinal, mesorectal, internal iliac, or external iliac nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133802 | "Stage IIIB includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor of any size invading adjacent organ(s), such as the vagina, urethra, or bladder. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133803 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N1, M0). T3: Tumor larger than 5 cm. T4: Tumor of any size invading adjacent organ(s), such as the vagina, urethra, or bladder. N1: Metastasis in inguinal, mesorectal, internal iliac, or external iliac nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133804 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133839 | A carcinoma that arises from the gastrointestinal system and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C133884 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PAI1 gene, encoding plasminogen activator inhibitor 1. It is characterized by increased bleeding following trauma, injury, or surgery and in women, menorrhagia." |
| C133885 | A dermatologic condition characterized by focal loss of elastic tissue. Clinically it presents with atrophic depressions or saccular outpouchings of the skin. |
| C133886 |  |
| C133887 |  |
| C133893 | "A term that refers to the staging of small intestinal adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. Nonadenocarcinomas arising in the small intestine should have a TNM assigned but are not assigned a stage classification. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C133894 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: High grade dysplasia/carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133895 | "Stage I includes: T1-2, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133896 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T3, N0, M0; IIB: T4, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into the subserosa, or extending into nonperitonealized perimuscular tissue (mesentery or retroperitoneum) without serosal penetration. For T3 tumors, the nonperitonealized perimuscular tissue is, for the jejunum and ileum, part of the mesentery and, for the duodenum in areas where serosa is lacking, part of the interface with the pancreas. T4: Tumor perforating the visceral peritoneum or ... |
| C133897 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into the subserosa, or extending into nonperitonealized perimuscular tissue (mesentery or retroperitoneum) without serosal penetration. For T3 tumors, the nonperitonealized perimuscular tissue is, for the jejunum and ileum, part of the mesentery and, for the duodenum in areas where serosa is lacking, part of the interface with the pancreas. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJC... |
| C133898 | "Stage IIB includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor perforating the visceral peritoneum or directly invading other organs or structures (e.g., other loops of small intestine, mesentery of adjacent loops of bowel, and abdominal wall by way of serosa; for duodenum only, invasion of pancreas or bile duct). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133899 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: Any T, N1, M0; IIIB: Any T, N2, M0. N1: Metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. N2: Metastasis in three or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133900 | "Stage IIIA includes: Any T, N1, M0. N1: Metastasis in one or two regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133901 | "Stage IIIB includes: Any T, N2, M0. N2: Metastasis in three or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C133902 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134117 | "A term that refers to the staging of appendiceal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to carcinomas of the appendix, including high-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas, mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinomas, and goblet cell carcinoids. Well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors (carcinoids) are staged according to the classification for neuroendocrine tumors of the appendix. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C134118 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ (intramucosal carcinoma; invasion of the lamina propria or extension into but not through the muscularis mucosae). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134119 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis(LAMN), N0, M0. Tis(LAMN): Low-grade appendiceal mucinous neoplasm confined by the muscularis propria. Acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium may invade into the muscularis propria. T1 and T2 are not applicable to LAMN. Acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium that extends into the subserosa or serosa should be classified as T3 or T4a, respectively. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134120 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134121 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T3, N0, M0; IIB: T4a, N0, M0; IIC: T4b, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or the mesoappendix. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum, including the acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium involving the serosa of the appendix or serosa of the mesoappendix. T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134122 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or the mesoappendix. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134123 | "Stage IIB includes: T4a, N0, M0. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum, including the acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium involving the serosa of the appendix or serosa of the mesoappendix. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134124 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0. T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134125 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); IIIB: (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N1, M0); IIIC: (Any T, N2, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or the mesoappendix. T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum, including the acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium involving the serosa of the appendix or mesoappendix, an... |
| C134126 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: One to three regional lymph nodes are positive (tumor in lymph node measuring 0.2 mm or more) or any number of tumor deposits is present, and all identifiable lymph nodes are negative. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134127 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N1, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or the mesoappendix. T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum, including the acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium involving the serosa of the appendix or mesoappendix, and/or directly invades adjacent organs or structures. N1: One to three regional lymph nodes are positive (tumor in lymph node measuring 0.2 mm or more) or any number of tumor deposits is present, and all id... |
| C134128 | "Stage IIIC includes: Any T, N2, M0. N2: Four or more regional lymph nodes are positive. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134129 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, N0, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b, G1); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1b, G2, G3, or GX); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1c, Any G). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M1a: Intraperitoneal acellular mucin, without identifiable tumor cells in the disseminated peritoneal mucinous deposits. M1b: Intraperitoneal metastasis only, including peritoneal mucinous deposits containing tumor cells. M1c: Metastasis to sites other than peritoneum. G1: Well differentiated. G2: Moderately diffe... |
| C134130 | "Stage IVA includes: (Any T, N0, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b, G1). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M1a: Intraperitoneal acellular mucin, without identifiable tumor cells in the disseminated peritoneal mucinous deposits. M1b: Intraperitoneal metastasis only, including peritoneal mucinous deposits containing tumor cells. G1: Well differentiated. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134131 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b, G2, G3, or GX. M1b: Intraperitoneal metastasis only, including peritoneal mucinous deposits containing tumor cells. G2: Moderately differentiated. G3: Poorly differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed.  (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134132 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1c, Any G. M1c: Metastasis to sites other than peritoneum. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134153 | A neuroblastoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C134154 | A lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C134157 | The reemergence of a lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C134168 | A histiocytic and dendritic cell neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C134172 | The reemergence of a histiocytic and dendritic cell neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C134175 | The reemergence of Langerhans cell histiocytosis after a period of remission. |
| C134177 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis that does not respond to treatment. |
| C134180 | "A term that refers to the staging of colorectal cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to adenocarcinomas, high-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas, and squamous cell carcinomas of the colon and rectum. Appendiceal carcinomas, anal carcinomas, and well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors (carcinoids) are not covered by this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C134182 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ, intramucosal carcinoma (involvement of lamina propria with no extension through muscularis mucosae). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134185 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134186 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T3, N0, M0; IIB: T4a, N0, M0; IIC: T4b, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the visceral peritoneum). T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant meta... |
| C134187 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134188 | "Stage IIB includes: T4a, N0, M0. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the visceral peritoneum). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134190 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0. T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134191 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0); IIIB: (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0); IIIC: (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bo... |
| C134192 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: One to three regional lymph nodes are positive (tumor in lymph nodes measuring 0.2 mm or more), or any number of tumor deposits are present and all identifiable lymph nodes are negative. N1c: No regional lymph nodes are positive, but there are tumor deposits in the subserosa, mesentery, or ... |
| C134193 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the vis... |
| C134194 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the visceral peritoneum). T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N1: One to three regional lymph nodes are positive (tumo... |
| C134195 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, Any N, M1a); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1b); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1c). M1a: Metastasis to one site or organ without peritoneal metastasis. M1b: Metastasis to two or more sites or organs without peritoneal metastasis. M1c: Metastasis to the peritoneal surface alone or with other site or organ metastases. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134196 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, Any N, M1a. M1a: Metastasis to one site or organ without peritoneal metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134197 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b. M1b: Metastasis to two or more sites or organs without peritoneal metastasis.  (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134198 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1c. M1c: Metastasis to the peritoneal surface alone or with other site or organ metastases. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134251 | "A term that refers to the staging of colon cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to adenocarcinomas, high-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas, and squamous cell carcinomas of the colon. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C134258 | "A term that refers to the staging of rectal cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to adenocarcinomas, high-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas, and squamous cell carcinomas of the rectum. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C134271 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ, intramucosal carcinoma (involvement of lamina propria with no extension through muscularis mucosae). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134273 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134274 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T3, N0, M0; IIB: T4a, N0, M0; IIC: T4b, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the visceral peritoneum). T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant meta... |
| C134280 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134281 | "Stage IIB includes: T4a, N0, M0. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the visceral peritoneum). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134282 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0. T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134283 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0); IIIB: (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0); IIIC: (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bo... |
| C134284 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: One to three regional lymph nodes are positive (tumor in lymph nodes measuring 0.2 mm or more), or any number of tumor deposits are present and all identifiable lymph nodes are negative. N1c: No regional lymph nodes are positive, but there are tumor deposits in the subserosa, mesentery, or ... |
| C134285 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the vis... |
| C134286 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the visceral peritoneum). T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N1: One to three regional lymph nodes are positive (tumo... |
| C134287 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, Any N, M1a); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1b); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1c). M1a: Metastasis to one site or organ without peritoneal metastasis. M1b: Metastasis to two or more sites or organs without peritoneal metastasis. M1c: Metastasis to the peritoneal surface alone or with other site or organ metastases. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134288 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, Any N, M1a. M1a: Metastasis to one site or organ without peritoneal metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134289 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b. M1b: Metastasis to two or more sites or organs without peritoneal metastasis.  (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134290 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1c. M1c: Metastasis to the peritoneal surface alone or with other site or organ metastases. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134291 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ, intramucosal carcinoma (involvement of lamina propria with no extension through muscularis mucosae). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134292 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134293 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T3, N0, M0; IIB: T4a, N0, M0; IIC: T4b, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the visceral peritoneum). T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant meta... |
| C134294 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134295 | "Stage IIB includes: T4a, N0, M0. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the visceral peritoneum). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134296 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0. T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134297 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0); IIIB: (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0); IIIC: (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bo... |
| C134298 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: One to three regional lymph nodes are positive (tumor in lymph nodes measuring 0.2 mm or more), or any number of tumor deposits are present and all identifiable lymph nodes are negative. N1c: No regional lymph nodes are positive, but there are tumor deposits in the subserosa, mesentery, or ... |
| C134299 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the vis... |
| C134300 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. T4a: Tumor invades through the visceral peritoneum (including gross perforation of the bowel through tumor and continuous invasion of tumor through areas of inflammation to the surface of the visceral peritoneum). T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N1: One to three regional lymph nodes are positive (tumo... |
| C134301 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, Any N, M1a); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1b); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1c). M1a: Metastasis to one site or organ without peritoneal metastasis. M1b: Metastasis to two or more sites or organs without peritoneal metastasis. M1c: Metastasis to the peritoneal surface alone or with other site or organ metastases. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134302 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, Any N, M1a. M1a: Metastasis to one site or organ without peritoneal metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134303 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b. M1b: Metastasis to two or more sites or organs without peritoneal metastasis.  (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134304 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1c. M1c: Metastasis to the peritoneal surface alone or with other site or organ metastases. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134319 | Acute myeloid leukemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C134514 | "A term that refers to the staging of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C134515 | "A term that refers to the staging of hepatocellular carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to hepatocellular carcinomas and fibrolamellar carcinomas (fibrolamellar variant of hepatocellular carcinoma). Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinomas, combined hepatocellular-cholangiocarcinomas, and sarcomas of the liver are not staged using this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C134516 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1a, N0, M0); IB (T1b, N0, M0). T1a: Solitary tumor equal to or less than 2 cm.  T1b: Solitary tumor larger than 2 cm without vascular invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134517 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Solitary tumor equal to or less than 2 cm.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134518 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Solitary tumor larger than 2 cm without vascular invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134519 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Solitary tumor larger than 2 cm with vascular invasion, or multiple tumors, none larger than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134520 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3, N0, M0); IIIB: (T4, N0, M0). T3: Multiple tumors, at least one of which is larger than 5 cm. T4: Single tumor or multiple tumors of any size involving a major branch of the portal vein or hepatic vein, or tumor(s) with direct invasion of adjacent organs other than the gallbladder or with perforation of visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134521 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Multiple tumors, at least one of which is larger than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134522 | "Stage IIIB includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Single tumor or multiple tumors of any size involving a major branch of the portal vein or hepatic vein, or tumor(s) with direct invasion of adjacent organs other than the gallbladder or with perforation of visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134523 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, N1, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134524 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, N1, M0. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134525 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134604 | "A term that refers to the staging of intrahepatic bile duct cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to intrahepatic cholangiocarcinomas, combined hepatocellular-cholangiocarcinomas (mixed hepatocholangiocarcinomas), and primary neuroendocrine tumors of the liver. Primary sarcomas of the liver, pure hepatocellular carcinomas, hilar cholangiocarcinomas, and gallbladder carcinomas are not staged using this staging system. (from AJCC ... |
| C134609 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ (intraductal tumor). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134610 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1a, N0, M0); IB (T1b, N0, M0). T1a: Solitary tumor equal to or less than 5 cm without vascular invasion.  T1b: Solitary tumor larger than 5 cm without vascular invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134611 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Solitary tumor equal to or less than 5 cm without vascular invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134612 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Solitary tumor larger than 5 cm without vascular invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134614 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Solitary tumor with intrahepatic vascular invasion, or multiple tumors, with or without vascular invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134615 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3, N0, M0); IIIB: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T3: Tumor perforating the visceral peritoneum. T4: Tumor involving local extrahepatic structures by direct invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134616 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor perforating the visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134618 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor involving local extrahepatic structures by direct invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134619 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134660 | "A term that refers to the staging of gallbladder cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to gallbladder carcinomas. Well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors and sarcomas are not staged using this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C134663 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134665 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or muscular layer. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134667 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T2a, N0, M0; IIB: T2b, N0, M0. T2a: Tumor invading the perimuscular connective tissue on the peritoneal side, without involvement of the serosa (visceral peritoneum). T2b: Tumor invading the perimuscular connective tissue on the hepatic side, with no extension into the liver. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134670 | "Stage IIA includes: T2a, N0, M0. T2a: Tumor invading the perimuscular connective tissue on the peritoneal side, without involvement of the serosa (visceral peritoneum). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134671 | "Stage IIB includes: T2b, N0, M0. T2b: Tumor invading the perimuscular connective tissue on the hepatic side, with no extension into the liver. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134672 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3, N0, M0); IIIB: (T1-3, N1, M0). T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or muscular layer. T2: Tumor invading the perimuscular connective tissue on the peritoneal side, without involvement of the serosa (visceral peritoneum); or tumor invading the perimuscular connective tissue on the hepatic side, with no extension into the liver. T3: Tumor perforating the serosa (visceral peritoneum) and/or directly invading the liver and/or one other adjacent organ or structur... |
| C134673 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor perforating the serosa (visceral peritoneum) and/or directly invading the liver and/or one other adjacent organ or structure, such as the stomach, duodenum, colon, pancreas, omentum, or extrahepatic bile ducts. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134674 | "Stage IIIB includes: T1-3, N1, M0. T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or muscular layer. T2: Tumor invading the perimuscular connective tissue on the peritoneal side, without involvement of the serosa (visceral peritoneum); or tumor invading the perimuscular connective tissue on the hepatic side, with no extension into the liver. T3: Tumor perforating the serosa (visceral peritoneum) and/or directly invading the liver and/or one other adjacent organ or structure, such as the stomach, duo... |
| C134675 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: T4, N0-1, M0; IVB: (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Tumor invading the main portal vein or hepatic artery or invading two or more extrahepatic organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastases to one to three regional lymph nodes. N2: Metastases to four or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134676 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, N0-1, M0. T4: Tumor invading the main portal vein or hepatic artery or invading two or more extrahepatic organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastases to one to three regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134678 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1). N2: Metastases to four or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134742 | "A term that refers to the staging of hilar cholangiocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C134743 | "A term that refers to the staging of hilar cholangiocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. Hilar well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors and sarcomas are not staged using this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C134744 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ/high grade dysplasia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134745 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the bile duct, with extension up to the muscle layer or fibrous tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134746 | "Stage II includes: T2a-b, N0, M0. T2a: Tumor invading beyond the wall of the bile duct to surrounding adipose tissue. T2b: Tumor invading adjacent hepatic parenchyma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134747 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3, N0, M0); IIIB: (T4, N0, M0); IIIC: (Any T, N1, M0). T3: Tumor invading unilateral branches of the portal vein or hepatic artery. T4: Tumor invading the main portal vein or its branches bilaterally, or the common hepatic artery; or unilateral second-order biliary radicals with contralateral portal vein or hepatic artery involvement. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: One to three positive lymph nodes typically involving the hilar, cystic duct, common bi... |
| C134748 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invading unilateral branches of the portal vein or hepatic artery. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134749 | "Stage IIIB includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor invading the main portal vein or its branches bilaterally, or the common hepatic artery; or unilateral second-order biliary radicals with contralateral portal vein or hepatic artery involvement. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134750 | "Stage IIIC includes: Any T, N1, M0. N1: One to three positive lymph nodes typically involving the hilar, cystic duct, common bile duct, hepatic artery, posterior pancreatoduodenal, and portal vein lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134751 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, N2, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). N2: Four or more positive lymph nodes involving the hilar, cystic duct, common bile duct, hepatic artery, posterior pancreatoduodenal, and portal vein lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134752 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, N2, M0. N2: Four or more positive lymph nodes involving the hilar, cystic duct, common bile duct, hepatic artery, posterior pancreatoduodenal, and portal vein lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134753 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134755 | "A term that refers to the staging of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C134756 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ (intraductal tumor). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134757 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1a, N0, M0); IB (T1b, N0, M0). T1a: Solitary tumor equal or less than 5 cm without vascular invasion.  T1b: Solitary tumor larger than 5 cm without vascular invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134758 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Solitary tumor equal or less than 5 cm without vascular invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134759 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Solitary tumor larger than 5 cm without vascular invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134760 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Solitary tumor with intrahepatic vascular invasion, or multiple tumors, with or without vascular invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134761 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3, N0, M0); IIIB: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T3: Tumor perforating the visceral peritoneum. T4: Tumor involving local extrahepatic structures by direct invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134762 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor perforating the visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134763 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor involving local extrahepatic structures by direct invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134764 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134810 | "A term that refers to the staging of distal bile duct cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C134811 | "A term that refers to the staging of distal bile duct cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to bile duct adenocarcinomas, biliary intraepithelial neoplasia, high-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas, and papillary carcinomas that arise from the distal bile duct. Tumors arising in the ampulla of Vater, sarcomas, and well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors (carcinoids) are not staged using this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C134812 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ/high-grade dysplasia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134813 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth less than 5 mm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134814 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0); IIB: (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T1: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth less than 5 mm. T2: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth of 5-12 mm. T3: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth greater than 12 mm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in one to three regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134815 | "Stage IIA includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth less than 5 mm. T2: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth of 5-12 mm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in one to three regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134816 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T2: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth of 5-12 mm. T3: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth greater than 12 mm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in one to three regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134817 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); IIIB: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0). T1: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth less than 5 mm. T2: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth of 5-12 mm. T3: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth greater than 12 mm. T4: Tumor involving the celiac axis, superior mesenteric artery, and/or common hepatic artery. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in one to three regional lymp... |
| C134818 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0). T1: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth less than 5 mm. T2: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth of 5-12 mm. T3: Tumor invading the bile duct wall with a depth greater than 12 mm. N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134819 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0). T4: Tumor involving the celiac axis, superior mesenteric artery, and/or common hepatic artery. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in one to three regional lymph nodes. N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134820 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134831 | "A sebaceous gland carcinoma affecting the eyelid. It arises from the meibomian glands, glands of Zeis, or glands associated with the caruncle. It usually affects elderly women and is characterized by high rate of local recurrence, regional, and distant metastases." |
| C134834 | "The reemergence of  B acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like after a period of remission." |
| C134835 | "B acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like that does not respond to treatment." |
| C134863 | "A term that refers to the staging of ampulla of Vater cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C134864 | "A term that refers to the staging of ampulla of Vater cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system does not apply to well-differentiated neuroendocrine (carcinoid) tumors but does apply to high-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas, such as small cell carcinoma and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C134865 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134866 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); IB: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1a: Tumor limited to ampulla of Vater or sphincter of Oddi. T1b: Tumor invading beyond the sphincter of Oddi (perisphincteric invasion) and/or into the duodenal submucosa. T2: Tumor invading into the muscularis propria of the duodenum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134867 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor limited to ampulla of Vater or sphincter of Oddi. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134868 | "Stage IB includes: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1b: Tumor invading beyond the sphincter of Oddi (perisphincteric invasion) and/or into the duodenal submucosa. T2: Tumor invading into the muscularis propria of the duodenum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134869 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T3a, N0, M0; IIB: T3b, N0, M0. T3a: Tumor directly invading the pancreas (up to 0.5 cm). T3b: Tumor extending more than 0.5 cm into the pancreas, or extending into peripancreatic tissue or duodenal serosa without involvement of the celiac axis or superior mesenteric artery. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134870 | "Stage IIA includes: T3a, N0, M0. T3a: Tumor directly invading the pancreas (up to 0.5 cm). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134871 | "Stage IIB includes: T3b, N0, M0. T3b: Tumor extending more than 0.5 cm into the pancreas, or extending into peripancreatic tissue or duodenal serosa without involvement of the celiac axis or superior mesenteric artery. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134872 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3a, N1, M0); (T3b, N1, M0); IIIB: (T4, Any N, M0); (Any T, N2, M0). T1a: Tumor limited to ampulla of Vater or sphincter of Oddi. T1b: Tumor invading beyond the sphincter of Oddi (perisphincteric invasion) and/or into the duodenal submucosa. T2: Tumor invading into the muscularis propria of the duodenum. T3a: Tumor directly invading the pancreas (up to 0.5 cm). T3b: Tumor extending more than 0.5 cm into the pancreas, or ... |
| C134873 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3a, N1, M0); (T3b, N1, M0). T1a: Tumor limited to ampulla of Vater or sphincter of Oddi. T1b: Tumor invading beyond the sphincter of Oddi (perisphincteric invasion) and/or into the duodenal submucosa. T2: Tumor invading into the muscularis propria of the duodenum. T3a: Tumor directly invading the pancreas (up to 0.5 cm). T3b: Tumor extending more than 0.5 cm into the pancreas, or extending into peripancreatic tissue or duode... |
| C134874 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T4, Any N, M0); (Any T, N2, M0). T4: Tumor involving the celiac axis, superior mesenteric artery, and/or common hepatic artery, irrespective of size. N2: Metastasis to four or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134875 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134902 | "A term that refers to the staging of exocrine and endocrine pancreatic cancer including well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th and 7th editions." |
| C134909 | "A term that refers to the staging of pancreatic cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, acinar cell carcinoma, intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm with associated invasive carcinoma, intraductal tubulopapillary neoplasm with associated invasive carcinoma, colloid carcinoma, mucinous cystic neoplasm with associated invasive carcinoma, solid pseudopapillary neoplasm, large cell neuroendocrine... |
| C134914 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. This includes high-grade pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PanIn-3), intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm with high-grade dysplasia, intraductal tubulopapillary neoplasm with high-grade dysplasia, and mucinous cystic neoplasm with high-grade dysplasia.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134915 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, N0, M0); IB: (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm and 4 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134917 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134920 | "Stage IB includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm and 4 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134921 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T3, N0, M0); IIB: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm and 4 cm or less in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in one to three regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134925 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134927 | "Stage IIB includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm and 4 cm or less in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis in one to three regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134928 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm and 4 cm or less in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor involving the celiac axis, superior mesenteric artery, and/or common hepatic artery, regardless of size. N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134930 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C134941 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the GATA1 gene encoding erythroid transcription factor. It is characterized by thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, and impairment of hemoglobin chain synthesis." |
| C134952 | "Charcot-Marie-Tooth caused by mutation(s) in the MFN2 gene, encoding mitofusin-2. It results in peripheral axonal neuropathy." |
| C134953 | "A form of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutation(s) in the NEFL gene, encoding neurofilament light polypeptide. It results in peripheral axonal neuropathy." |
| C134954 | "A form of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease which is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. It is caused by mutation(s) in the FIG4 gene, encoding polyphosphoinositide phosphatase. It results in peripheral demyelinating motor and sensory neuropathy." |
| C135017 | A non-small cell lung carcinoma without evidence of squamous differentiation. |
| C135045 | "A term that refers to the staging of a gastric neuroendocrine tumor according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to gastric ""carcinoid"" tumors (NET G1 and G2, and rare well-differentiated G3). Gastric high-grade neuroendocrine carcinoma and gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma are not included in this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C135046 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and is less than or equal to 1 cm in size. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135047 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or is greater than 1 cm in size. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135048 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0). T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and is less than or equal to 1 cm in size. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or is greater than 1 cm in size. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node metasta... |
| C135049 | "Stage IV includes: (T1, N0, N1, M1); (T2, N0, N1, M1); (T3, N0, N1, M1); (T4, N0, N1, M1). T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and is less than or equal to 1 cm in size. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or is greater than 1 cm in size. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node metast... |
| C135075 | "A term that refers to the staging of a duodenal neuroendocrine tumor according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of the duodenum. Carcinomas of the duodenum, including high-grade (grade 3), poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinomas are not included in this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C135076 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invading the mucosa or submucosa only and is equal or less than 1 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135077 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or measuring more than 1 cm. T3: Tumor invading the pancreas or peripancreatic adipose tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135078 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor invading the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135079 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135080 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the duodenum." |
| C135081 | "A term that refers to the staging of an ampulla of Vater neuroendocrine tumor according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of the ampulla of Vater. Carcinomas of the ampulla of Vater, including high-grade (grade 3), poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinomas are not included in this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C135082 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 1 cm or less and is confined within the sphincter of Oddi. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135083 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2: Tumor invading through the sphincter of Oddi into duodenal submucosa or muscularis propria, or measuring more than 1 cm. T3: Tumor invading the pancreas or peripancreatic adipose tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135084 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor invading the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135085 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135087 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SMARCAL1 gene, encoding SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily A-like protein 1. It is characterized by short stature, intrauterine growth restriction, microdontia, depressed nasal bridge, skeletal dysplasia, immune complex nephritis and immune deficiency." |
| C135088 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the COL2A1 gene, encoding collagen alpha-1(II) chain. It is characterized by short stature, pugilistic facies, midface hypoplasia, spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia, kyphosis, short ulna, and absent styloid process. Mutation(s) in the same gene are responsible for Kniest dysplasia." |
| C135090 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the jejunum." |
| C135092 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the ileum." |
| C135119 | "A term that refers to the staging of a jejunal neuroendocrine tumor, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This classification system applies to small bowel ""carcinoid"" tumors (NET G1 and G2, and rare well-differentiated G3) arising in the jejunum. This classification system does not apply to high-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas, mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinomas, and neuroendocrine tumors of the duodenum. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C135120 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invading lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 1 cm or less in size. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135121 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2: Tumor invading muscularis propria or measuring more than 1 cm in size. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135122 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, N2, M0); (T2, N1, N2, M0); (T3, N1, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, N2, M0). T1: Tumor invading lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 1 cm or less in size. T2: Tumor invading muscularis propria or measuring more than 1 cm in size. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node me... |
| C135123 | "Stage IV includes: (T1, N0, N1, N2, M1); (T2, N0, N1, N2, M1); (T3, N0, N1, N2, M1); (T4, N0, N1, N2, M1). T1: Tumor invading lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 1 cm or less in size. T2: Tumor invading muscularis propria or measuring more than 1 cm in size. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node m... |
| C135124 | "A term that refers to the staging of an ileal neuroendocrine tumor, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This classification system applies to small bowel ""carcinoid"" tumors (NET G1 and G2, and rare well-differentiated G3) arising in the ileum. This classification system does not apply to high-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas, mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinomas, and neuroendocrine tumors of the duodenum. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C135125 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invading lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 1 cm or less in size. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135126 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2: Tumor invading muscularis propria or measuring more than 1 cm in size. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135127 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, N2, M0); (T2, N1, N2, M0); (T3, N1, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, N2, M0). T1: Tumor invading lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 1 cm or less in size. T2: Tumor invading muscularis propria or measuring more than 1 cm in size. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node me... |
| C135128 | "Stage IV includes: (T1, N0, N1, N2, M1); (T2, N0, N1, N2, M1); (T3, N0, N1, N2, M1); (T4, N0, N1, N2, M1). T1: Tumor invading lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 1 cm or less in size. T2: Tumor invading muscularis propria or measuring more than 1 cm in size. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node m... |
| C135129 | "A term that refers to the staging of a digestive system neuroendocrine tumor, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C135155 | "A term that refers to the staging of an appendiceal neuroendocrine tumor, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C135156 | "A term that refers to the staging of an appendiceal neuroendocrine tumor, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system applies to appendiceal NETs (carcinoid tumors) (NET G1 and G2, and rare well-differentiated G3). High-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas (NEC), goblet cell carcinoids, mixed adenocarcinomas, and adenocarcinomas of the appendix are not staged using this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C135157 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135158 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but less than or equal to 4 cm. T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm or with subserosal invasion or involvement of the mesoappendix. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135159 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but less than or equal to 4 cm. T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm or with subserosal invasion or involvement of the mesoappendix. T4: Tumor perforating the peritoneum or directly invading other adjacent organs or structures (excluding direct mural extension to adjacent subserosa of adjacent bowel), e.g., abdomin... |
| C135160 | "Stage IV includes: (T1, N0, N1, M1); (T2, N0, N1, M1); (T3, N0, N1, M1); (T4, N0, N1, M1). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but less than or equal to 4 cm. T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm or with subserosal invasion or involvement of the mesoappendix. T4: Tumor perforating the peritoneum or directly invading other adjacent organs or structures (excluding direct mural extension to adjacent subserosa of adjacent bowel), e.g., abdomi... |
| C135176 | A type of cataract that forms deep in the central zone (nucleus) of the lens. Nuclear cataracts are usually associated with aging. |
| C135177 | "A type of cataract that occurs in the lens cortex. It is characterized by white, wedge-like opacities that start in the periphery of the lens and work their way to the center in a spoke-like fashion." |
| C135180 | "A type of cataract that forms in the most posterior cortical layer of the lens, directly under the lens capsule. This type of cataract tends to occur in younger patients than cortical or nuclear sclerotic cataracts." |
| C135193 | A stage of nuclear sclerotic cataract marked by mild yellowing and sclerosis of the lens nucleus. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135194 | A stage of nuclear sclerotic cataract marked by moderate yellowing and sclerosis of the lens nucleus. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135195 | A stage of nuclear sclerotic cataract marked by pronounced yellowing and sclerosis of the lens nucleus. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135196 | A stage of nuclear sclerotic cataract marked by severe yellowing and sclerosis of the lens nucleus. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135197 | A stage of cortical cataract characterized by 10% of the intrapupillary space obscured by opacity. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135198 | A stage of cortical cataract characterized by 10-50% of the intrapupillary space obscured by opacity. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135199 | A stage of cortical cataract characterized by 50-90% of the intrapupillary space obscured by opacity. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135200 | A stage of cortical cataract characterized by greater than 90% of the intrapupillary space obscured by opacity. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135201 | A stage of posterior subcapsular cataract characterized by 3% of the posterior capsule obscured by opacity. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135202 | A stage of posterior subcapsular cataract characterized by 30% of the posterior capsule obscured by opacity. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135203 | A stage of posterior subcapsular cataract characterized by 50% of the posterior capsule obscured by opacity. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135204 | A stage of posterior subcapsular cataract characterized by greater than 50% of the posterior capsule obscured by opacity. (Modified LOCS II) |
| C135205 | "A term that refers to the staging of a colorectal neuroendocrine tumor, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system applies to colorectal ""carcinoid"" tumors (neuroendocrine tumor G1 and G2, and rare-well differentiated G3). High-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas and mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinomas of the colon and rectum are not staged using this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C135206 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 2 cm or less. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135207 | "Stage IIA includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or measuring more than 2 cm with invasion of the lamina propria or submucosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135208 | "Stage IIB includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135209 | "Stage IIIA includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor invading the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135210 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N1, M0). T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 2 cm or less. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or measuring more than 2 cm with invasion of the lamina propria or submucosa. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N1: Regional ... |
| C135211 | "Stage IV includes: (T1, Any N, M1); (T2, Any N, M1); (T3, Any N, M1); (T4, Any N, M1). T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 2 cm or less. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or measuring more than 2 cm with invasion of the lamina propria or submucosa. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. M1:... |
| C135212 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the colon." |
| C135213 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the rectum." |
| C135214 | "A term that refers to the staging of a colon neuroendocrine tumor, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system applies to colon ""carcinoid"" tumors (neuroendocrine tumor G1 and G2, and rare-well differentiated G3). High-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas and mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinomas of the colon are not staged using this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C135368 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 2 cm or less. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135369 | "Stage IIA includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or measuring more than 2 cm with invasion of the lamina propria or submucosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135370 | "Stage IIB includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135524 | "Stage IIIA includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor invading the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135525 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N1, M0). T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 2 cm or less. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or measuring more than 2 cm with invasion of the lamina propria or submucosa. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N1: Regional ... |
| C135526 | "Stage IV includes: (T1, Any N, M1); (T2, Any N, M1); (T3, Any N, M1); (T4, Any N, M1). T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 2 cm or less. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or measuring more than 2 cm with invasion of the lamina propria or submucosa. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. M1:... |
| C135527 | "A term that refers to the staging of a rectal neuroendocrine tumor, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system applies to rectal ""carcinoid"" tumors (neuroendocrine tumor G1 and G2, and rare-well differentiated G3). High-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas and mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinomas of the rectum are not staged using this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C135528 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 2 cm or less. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135529 | "Stage IIA includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or measuring more than 2 cm with invasion of the lamina propria or submucosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135530 | "Stage IIB includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135531 | "Stage IIIA includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor invading the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135532 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N1, M0). T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 2 cm or less. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or measuring more than 2 cm with invasion of the lamina propria or submucosa. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N1: Regional ... |
| C135533 | "Stage IV includes: (T1, Any N, M1); (T2, Any N, M1); (T3, Any N, M1); (T4, Any N, M1). T1: Tumor invading the lamina propria or submucosa and measuring 2 cm or less. T2: Tumor invading the muscularis propria or measuring more than 2 cm with invasion of the lamina propria or submucosa. T3: Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. T4: Tumor invading the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. M1:... |
| C135560 | "A term that refers to the staging of a pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, following the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v8 staging guidelines. This staging system applies to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors arising in the pancreas. Carcinomas of the pancreas, including high-grade (grade 3), poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinomas are not staged using this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C135561 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor limited to the pancreas and measuring less than 2 cm. N0: No regional lymph node involvement. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135562 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2: Tumor limited to the pancreas and measuring 2-4 cm. T3: Tumor limited to the pancreas and measuring more than 4 cm; or tumor invading the duodenum or bile duct. N0: No regional lymph node involvement. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135563 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor invading adjacent organs (stomach, spleen, colon, adrenal gland) or the wall of large vessels (celiac axis or the superior mesenteric artery). N0: No regional lymph node involvement. N1: Regional lymph node involvement. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135564 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C135565 | "A rare hyperplastic lesion of Brunner's gland in the duodenum. Although it is usually asymptomatic and discovered incidentally during upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, it may cause hemorrhage." |
| C135725 | "Cockayne syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the ERCC8 gene, encoding DNA excision repair protein ERCC-8." |
| C135726 | "Cockayne syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the ERCC6 gene, encoding DNA excision repair protein ERCC-6." |
| C136240 | A carcinoma that originates from the rectum and has spread to the liver. |
| C136320 | "A term that refers to the staging of a thymus epithelial neoplasm, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system applies to thymomas, thymus carcinomas, thymus neuroendocrine tumors, and combined thymus carcinomas. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C136322 | "Stage I includes: T1a, b, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor with no mediastinal pleura involvement. T1b: Tumor with direct invasion of mediastinal pleura. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136323 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor with direct invasion of the pericardium (either partial or full thickness). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136325 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3, N0, M0); IIIB: (T4, N0, M0). T3: Tumor with direct invasion into any of the following: lung, brachiocephalic vein, superior vena cava, phrenic nerve, chest wall, or extrapericardial pulmonary artery or veins. T4: Tumor with invasion into any of the following: aorta (ascending, arch, or descending), arch vessels, intrapericardial pulmonary artery, myocardium, trachea, esophagus. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136327 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor with direct invasion into any of the following: lung, brachiocephalic vein, superior vena cava, phrenic nerve, chest wall, or extrapericardial pulmonary artery or veins. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136328 | "Stage IIIB includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor with invasion into any of the following: aorta (ascending, arch, or descending), arch vessels, intrapericardial pulmonary artery, myocardium, trachea, esophagus. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136329 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, N0,1, M1a); IVB: (Any T, N2, M0, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in anterior (perithymic) lymph nodes. N2: Metastasis in deep intrathoracic or cervical lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1a: Separate pleural or pericardial nodule(s). M1b: Pulmonary intraparenchymal nodule or distant organ metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136330 | "Stage IVA includes: (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, N0,1, M1a). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in anterior (perithymic) lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1a: Separate pleural or pericardial nodule(s). (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136331 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N2, M0, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b). N2: Metastasis in deep intrathoracic or cervical lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1a: Separate pleural or pericardial nodule(s). M1b: Pulmonary intraparenchymal nodule or distant organ metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136345 | "A term that refers to the staging of thymoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C136348 | "Stage I includes: T1a, b, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor with no mediastinal pleura involvement. T1b: Tumor with direct invasion of mediastinal pleura. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136349 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor with direct invasion of the pericardium (either partial or full thickness). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136350 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3, N0, M0); IIIB: (T4, N0, M0). T3: Tumor with direct invasion into any of the following: lung, brachiocephalic vein, superior vena cava, phrenic nerve, chest wall, or extrapericardial pulmonary artery or veins. T4: Tumor with invasion into any of the following: aorta (ascending, arch, or descending), arch vessels, intrapericardial pulmonary artery, myocardium, trachea, esophagus. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136351 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor with direct invasion into any of the following: lung, brachiocephalic vein, superior vena cava, phrenic nerve, chest wall, or extrapericardial pulmonary artery or veins. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136352 | "Stage IIIB includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor with invasion into any of the following: aorta (ascending, arch, or descending), arch vessels, intrapericardial pulmonary artery, myocardium, trachea, esophagus. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136353 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, N0,1, M1a); IVB: (Any T, N2, M0, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in anterior (perithymic) lymph nodes. N2: Metastasis in deep intrathoracic or cervical lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1a: Separate pleural or pericardial nodule(s). M1b: Pulmonary intraparenchymal nodule or distant organ metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136354 | "Stage IVA includes: (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, N0,1, M1a). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in anterior (perithymic) lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1a: Separate pleural or pericardial nodule(s). (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136356 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N2, M0, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b). N2: Metastasis in deep intrathoracic or cervical lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1a: Separate pleural or pericardial nodule(s). M1b: Pulmonary intraparenchymal nodule or distant organ metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136374 | "A term that refers to the staging of pleural malignant mesothelioma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136399 | "A term that refers to the staging of pleural malignant mesothelioma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system applies to pleural diffuse malignant mesothelioma only. Localized pleural malignant mesotheliomas and other primary tumors of the pleura are not staged using this staging system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C136400 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, N0, M0); IB: (T2 or T3, N0, M0). T1: Tumor limited to the ipsilateral parietal with or without involvement of visceral pleura, mediastinal pleura, and diaphragmatic pleura. T2: Tumor involving each of the ipsilateral pleural surfaces (parietal, mediastinal, diaphragmatic, and visceral pleura) with at least one of the following features: involvement of diaphragmatic muscle and/or extension of tumor from visceral pleura into the underlying pulmonary parenchyma. T3: ... |
| C136401 | "Stage IB includes: T2 or T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor involving each of the ipsilateral pleural surfaces (parietal, mediastinal, diaphragmatic, and visceral pleura) with at least one of the following features: involvement of diaphragmatic muscle and/or extension of tumor from visceral pleura into the underlying pulmonary parenchyma. T3: Tumor is locally advanced but potentially resectable. The tumor involves all the ipsilateral pleural surfaces (parietal, mediastinal, diaphragmatic, and visceral p... |
| C136402 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0). T1: Tumor limited to the ipsilateral parietal with or without involvement of visceral pleura, mediastinal pleura, and diaphragmatic pleura. T2: Tumor involving each of the ipsilateral pleural surfaces (parietal, mediastinal, diaphragmatic, and visceral pleura) with at least one of the following features: involvement of diaphragmatic muscle and/or extension of tumor from visceral pleura into the underlying pulmonary parenchyma. N1: Metastases in... |
| C136403 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3, N1, M0); IIIB: (T1-3, N2, M0); (T4, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor limited to the ipsilateral parietal with or without involvement of visceral pleura, mediastinal pleura, and diaphragmatic pleura. T2: Tumor involving each of the ipsilateral pleural surfaces (parietal, mediastinal, diaphragmatic, and visceral pleura) with at least one of the following features: involvement of diaphragmatic muscle and/or extension of tumor from visceral pleura into the underlying pulmona... |
| C136404 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N1, M0. T3: Tumor is locally advanced but potentially resectable. The tumor involves all the ipsilateral pleural surfaces (parietal, mediastinal, diaphragmatic, and visceral pleura) with at least one of the following features: involvement of the endothoracic fascia, extension into the mediastinal fat, solitary, completely resectable focus of tumor extending into the soft tissues of the chest wall, and/or nontransmural involvement of the pericardium. N1: Metastases i... |
| C136405 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1-3, N2, M0); (T4, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor limited to the ipsilateral parietal with or without involvement of visceral pleura, mediastinal pleura, and diaphragmatic pleura. T2: Tumor involving each of the ipsilateral pleural surfaces (parietal, mediastinal, diaphragmatic, and visceral pleura) with at least one of the following features: involvement of diaphragmatic muscle and/or extension of tumor from visceral pleura into the underlying pulmonary parenchyma. T3: Tumor ... |
| C136406 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis present. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136409 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor limited to the ipsilateral parietal with or without involvement of visceral pleura, mediastinal pleura, and diaphragmatic pleura. N0: No regional lymph node metastases. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136410 | A malignant germ cell tumor that affects the peritoneum. |
| C136427 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the head and neck region and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C136464 | "An autosomal dominant skeletal dysplasia caused by mutation(s) in the PRKAR1A gene, encoding cAMP-dependent protein kinase type I-alpha regulatory subunit. It is characterized by short stature, brachydactyly, and characteristic facial features.  Resistance to multiple hormones is a common finding." |
| C136467 | "A term that refers to the staging of lung cancer, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system derives from analyses of the new retrospective and prospective databases of the International Association for the Study of Lung Cancer (IASLC). These databases contain information on patients diagnosed with lung cancer from 1999 to 2010 originating from 35 different databases in 16 countries around the world. This staging system applies to carcinomas of the lun... |
| C136468 | "Occult lung cancer includes: TX, N0, M0. TX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136469 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. Squamous cell carcinoma in situ (SCIS). Adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS): adenocarcinoma with pure lepidic pattern, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136470 | "Stage I includes: IA1: (T1mi, N0, M0); (T1a, N0, M0); IA2: (T1b, N0, M0); IA3: (T1c, N0, M0); IB: (T2a, N0, M0). T1mi: Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma: adenocarcinoma (3 cm or less in greatest dimension) with a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. T1a: Tumor measuring 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. A superficial, spreading tumor of any size whose invasive component is limited to the bronchial wall and may extend proximal to the main bronchus ... |
| C136471 | "Stage IA1 includes: IA1: (T1mi, N0, M0); (T1a, N0, M0). T1mi: Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma: adenocarcinoma (3 cm or less in greatest dimension) with a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. T1a: Tumor measuring 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. A superficial, spreading tumor of any size whose invasive component is limited to the bronchial wall and may extend proximal to the main bronchus also is classified as T1a, but these tumors are uncommon.... |
| C136472 | "Stage IA2 includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Tumor measuring more than 1 cm but 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastases. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136473 | "Stage IA3 includes: T1c, N0, M0. T1c: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastases. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136474 | "Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0. T2a: Tumor measuring more than 3 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastases. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136475 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2b, N0, M0); IIB: (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T1c, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0); (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2b: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Tumor measuring 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. A superficial, spreading tumor of any size whose invasive component is limited to the bronchial wall and may extend proximal to the main bronchus also is classified as T1a, but these tumors are uncommon. T1b: Tumor measuring mor... |
| C136476 | "Stage IIA includes: T2b, N0, M0. T2b: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136477 | "Stage IIB includes: (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T1c, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0); (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T1a: Tumor measuring 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. A superficial, spreading tumor of any size whose invasive component is limited to the bronchial wall and may extend proximal to the main bronchus also is classified as T1a, but these tumors are uncommon. T1b: Tumor measuring more than 1 cm but 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. T1c: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 3 cm or l... |
| C136478 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T1c, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); IIIB: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T1c, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N2, M0); IIIC: (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N3, M0). T1a: Tumor measuring 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. A superficial, spreading tumor of any size whose invasive component is limited to the bronchial wall and may extend proximal to the main bronchus also i... |
| C136479 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T1c, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0). T1a: Tumor measuring 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. A superficial, spreading tumor of any size whose invasive component is limited to the bronchial wall and may extend proximal to the main bronchus also is classified as T1a, but these tumors are uncommon. T1b: Tumor measuring more than 1 cm but 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. T1c: Tumor measuring... |
| C136480 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T1c, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N2, M0). T1a: Tumor measuring 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. A superficial, spreading tumor of any size whose invasive component is limited to the bronchial wall and may extend proximal to the main bronchus also is classified as T1a, but these tumors are uncommon. T1b: Tumor measuring more than 1 cm but 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. T1c: Tumor measuring more than 2 c... |
| C136481 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N3, M0). T3: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension or directly invading any of the following: parietal pleura (PL3), chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), phrenic nerve, parietal pericardium; or separate tumor nodule(s) in the same lobe as the primary. T4: Tumor measuring more than 7 cm or tumor of any size invading one or more of the following: diaphragm, mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent l... |
| C136482 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1c). M1a: Tumor with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural or pericardial nodules or malignant pleural or pericardial effusion. Most pleural (pericardial) effusions with lung cancer are a result of the tumor. In a few patients, however, multiple microscopic examinations of pleural (pericardial) fluid are negative for tumor, and the fluid is nonbloody and not an exudate. If t... |
| C136483 | "Stage IVA includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b). M1a: Tumor with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural or pericardial nodules or malignant pleural or pericardial effusion. Most pleural (pericardial) effusions with lung cancer are a result of the tumor. In a few patients, however, multiple microscopic examinations of pleural (pericardial) fluid are negative for tumor, and the fluid is nonbloody and not an exudate. If these elements and clinical jud... |
| C136484 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1c. M1c: Tumor with multiple extrathoracic metastases in a single organ or in multiple organs. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136486 | "A localized non-invasive adenocarcinoma of the lung measuring 3 cm or less. It is characterized by a pure lepidic growth pattern and the lack of stromal, vascular, or pleural invasion." |
| C136488 | Acute lymphoblastic leukemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C136489 | Erdheim-Chester disease that does not respond to treatment. |
| C136490 | "A term that refers to the staging of lung adenocarcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136491 | "A term that refers to the staging of non-small cell lung carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136492 | "A term that refers to the staging of adenosquamous lung carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136493 | "A term that refers to the staging of large cell lung carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136494 | "A term that refers to the staging of squamous cell lung carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136496 | "A term that refers to the staging of small cell lung carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136517 | The reemergence of anaplastic astrocytoma after a period of remission. |
| C136518 | The reemergence of diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma after a period of remission. |
| C136519 | Diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C136610 | "A term that refers to the staging of bone cancer, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136612 | "A term that refers to the staging of appendicular skeleton, trunk, skull, and facial bones cancer, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system applies to osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, spindle cell sarcoma, hemangioendothelioma, angiosarcoma, fibrosarcoma/myofibroid sarcoma, chordoma, adamantinoma, and other cancers arising in the bone. It does not apply to primary malignant lymphoma of the bone and multiple myeloma. There are no AJCC prog... |
| C136613 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, N0, M0, G1 or GX); IB: (T2, N0, M0, G1 or GX); (T3, N0, M0, G1 or GX). T1: Tumor measuring 8 cm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 8 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G1: Well differentiated, low grade. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136614 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0, G1 or GX. T1: Tumor measuring 8 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G1: Well differentiated, low grade. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136615 | "Stage IB includes: (T2, N0, M0, G1 or GX); (T3, N0, M0, G1 or GX). T2: Tumor measuring more than 8 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G1: Well differentiated, low grade. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136616 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T1, N0, M0, G2 or G3); IIB: (T2, N0, M0, G2 or G3). T1: Tumor measuring 8 cm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 8 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Moderately differentiated, high grade. G3: Poorly differentiated, high grade. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136617 | "Stage IIA includes: T1, N0, M0, G2 or G3. T1: Tumor measuring 8 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Moderately differentiated, high grade. G3: Poorly differentiated, high grade. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136618 | "Stage IIB includes: T2, N0, M0, G2 or G3. T2: Tumor measuring more than 8 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Moderately differentiated, high grade. G3: Poorly differentiated, high grade. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136619 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0, G2 or G3. T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Moderately differentiated, high grade. G3: Poorly differentiated, high grade. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136620 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, N0, M1a, Any G); IVB: (Any T, N1, Any M, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, Any G). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M1a: Metastasis in the lung. M1b: Metastasis in the bone or other distant sites. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136621 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, N0, M1a, Any G. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M1a: Metastasis in the lung. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136622 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N1, Any M, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, Any G). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M1b: Metastasis in the bone or other distant sites. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136632 | "A term that refers to the staging of bone sarcoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136633 | "A term that refers to the staging of osteosarcoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136649 | The reemergence of cervical squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C136650 | The reemergence of cervical adenosquamous carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C136651 | The reemergence of cervical adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C136653 | "An X-linked condition caused by mutation(s) in the GATA1 gene, encoding erythroid transcription factor. It is characterized by thrombocytopenia, as well as abnormal platelet function and morphology. Dyserythropoietic anemia of variable severity may also be present." |
| C136693 | "A term that refers to the staging of soft tissue sarcoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C136694 | "A term that refers to the staging of soft tissue sarcoma of the trunk and extremities, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C136696 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, N0, M0, G1, GX); IB: (T2, T3, T4, N0, M0, G1, GX). T1: Tumor measuring 5 cm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm and less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm and less than or equal to 15 cm in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor measuring more than 15 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assess... |
| C136698 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0, G1, GX. T1: Tumor measuring 5 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G1: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 2 or 3. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136700 | "Stage IB includes: T2, T3, T4, N0, M0, G1, GX. T2: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm and less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm and less than or equal to 15 cm in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor measuring more than 15 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G1: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 2 or 3. (AJCC 8th ed... |
| C136701 | "Stage II includes: T1, N0, M0, G2, G3. T1: Tumor measuring 5 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 4 or 5. G3: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 6, 7, or 8. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136702 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T2, N0, M0, G2, G3); IIIB: (T3, T4, N0, M0, G2, G3). T2: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm and less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm and less than or equal to 15 cm in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor measuring more than 15 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 4 or 5. G3: Total... |
| C136703 | "Stage IIIA includes: T2, N0, M0, G2, G3. T2: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm and less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 4 or 5. G3: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 6, 7, or 8. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136705 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3, T4, N0, M0, G2, G3. T3: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm and less than or equal to 15 cm in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor measuring more than 15 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 4 or 5. G3: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 6, 7, or 8. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136706 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, N1, M0, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1, Any G). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136707 | "A term that refers to the staging of soft tissue sarcoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136708 | "A term that refers to the staging of uterine corpus sarcoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136709 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from the lung. It is characterized by the presence of tall columnar cells and mucin production. This category refers to cases formerly classified as mucinous bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, excluding cases that meet the criteria for adenocarcinoma in situ or mucinous minimally invasive adenocarcinoma." |
| C136710 | A well-differentiated adenocarcinoma located in the lung periphery. It resembles colorectal adenocarcinoma with acinar and/or cribriform architecture and papillotubular structures. |
| C136713 | "A squamous cell lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of keratinization, pearl formation, and/or intercellular bridges." |
| C136714 | "A squamous cell lung carcinoma characterized by the absence of keratinization, pearl formation, and intercellular bridges." |
| C136716 | Lung adenocarcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of type II pneumocyte and/or Clara cell differentiation. Almost all cases of lung adenocarcinoma in situ are non-mucinous. |
| C136717 | A very rare lung adenocarcinoma in situ variant characterized by the presence of tall columnar cells with basal nuclei and abundant cytoplasmic mucin. |
| C136719 | "A preinvasive bronchial neoplastic lesion affecting the squamous epithelium. It is characterized by the absence of progression of maturation from base to luminal surface, basilar zone expansion with cellular crowding throughout the epithelium, absence of the intermediate zone, and surface flattening confined to the most superficial cells. The nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio is often high and variable, the chromatin is coarse and uneven, and mitotic figures are present through full thickness. T... |
| C136767 | "A term that refers to the staging of gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST), following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system does not apply to pediatric GIST, familial GIST (germline mutant KIT or PDGFRA), or syndromic GIST (no AJCC staging system available). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C136768 | "A term that refers to the staging of gastric and omental gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST), following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C136769 | "A term that refers to the staging of small intestinal, esophageal, colorectal, mesenteric, and peritoneal gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST), following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C136770 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1 or T2, N0, M0, Low Mitotic Rate); IB: (T3, N0, M0, Low Mitotic Rate). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm. T3: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm but not more than 10 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. Low Mitotic Rate: Five or fewer mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136771 | "Stage IA includes: T1 or T2, N0, M0, Low Mitotic Rate. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. Low Mitotic Rate: Five or fewer mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136772 | "Stage IB includes: T3, N0, M0, Low Mitotic Rate. T3: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm but not more than 10 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. Low Mitotic Rate: Five or fewer mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136773 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate); (T2, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate); (T4, N0, M0, Low Mitotic Rate). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm. T4: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. High Mitotic Rate: Over 5 mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. Low Mitotic Rate: Five or fewer mitoses per 5 square mil... |
| C136774 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate); IIIB: (T4, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate). T3: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm but not more than 10 cm. T4: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. High Mitotic Rate: Over 5 mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136775 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate. T3: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm but not more than 10 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. High Mitotic Rate: Over 5 mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136777 | "Stage IIIB includes: T4, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate. T4: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. High Mitotic Rate: Over 5 mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136778 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, N1, M0, Any Mitotic Rate); (Any T, Any N, M1, Any Mitotic Rate). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136780 | "Stage I includes: T1 or T2, N0, M0, Low Mitotic Rate. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. Low Mitotic Rate: Five or fewer mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136781 | "Stage II includes: T3, N0, M0, Low Mitotic Rate. T3: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm but not more than 10 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. Low Mitotic Rate: Five or fewer mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136783 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate); (T4, N0, M0, Low Mitotic Rate); IIIB: (T2, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate); (T3, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate); (T4, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm. T3: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm but not more than 10 cm. T4: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant meta... |
| C136784 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate); (T4, N0, M0, Low Mitotic Rate). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less. T4: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. High Mitotic Rate: Over 5 mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. Low Mitotic Rate: Five or fewer mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136785 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T2, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate); (T3, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate); (T4, N0, M0, High Mitotic Rate). T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm. T3: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm but not more than 10 cm. T4: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. High Mitotic Rate: Over 5 mitoses per 5 square millimeters, or per 50 HPF. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136786 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, N1, M0, Any Mitotic Rate); (Any T, Any N, M1, Any Mitotic Rate). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136811 | "A term that refers to the staging of retroperitoneal soft tissue sarcoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system applies to common sarcomas in the retroperitoneum. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C136812 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, N0, M0, G1, GX); IB: (T2, T3, T4, N0, M0, G1, GX). T1: Tumor measuring 5 cm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm and less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm and less than or equal to 15 cm in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor measuring more than 15 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assess... |
| C136813 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0, G1, GX. T1: Tumor measuring 5 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G1: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 2 or 3. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136814 | "Stage IB includes: T2, T3, T4, N0, M0, G1, GX. T2: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm and less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm and less than or equal to 15 cm in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor measuring more than 15 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. G1: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 2 or 3. (AJCC 8th ed... |
| C136815 | "Stage II includes: T1, N0, M0, G2, G3. T1: Tumor measuring 5 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 4 or 5. G3: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 6, 7, or 8. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136816 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T2, N0, M0, G2, G3); IIIB: (T3, T4, N0, M0, G2, G3); (Any T, N1, M0, Any G). T2: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm and less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm and less than or equal to 15 cm in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor measuring more than 15 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Total differenti... |
| C136817 | "Stage IIIA includes: T2, N0, M0, G2, G3. T2: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm and less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 4 or 5. G3: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 6, 7, or 8. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136818 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3, T4, N0, M0, G2, G3); (Any T, N1, M0, Any G). T3: Tumor measuring more than 10 cm and less than or equal to 15 cm in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor measuring more than 15 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis or unknown lymph node status. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 4 or 5. G3: Total differentiation, mitotic count and necrosis score of 6, 7, or ... |
| C136819 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1, Any G. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136825 | "A junctional or compound cutaneous melanocytic neoplasm not fulfilling the histopathologic criteria of melanoma but with one of the following features: asymmetry, predominance of single melanocytes over nests in lesions 4 mm or larger, ulceration, large dermal sheets of melanocytes, lack of maturation in dermis, deep dermal mitotic figures, extensive involvement of subcutis, and nuclear pleomorphism. (Mod Pathol 2006;19: S21)" |
| C136869 | "A term that refers to the staging of Merkel cell carcinoma (primary cutaneous neuroendocrine carcinoma), following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C136870 | "A term that refers to the staging of Merkel cell carcinoma (primary cutaneous neuroendocrine carcinoma), following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C136871 | "A term that refers to the clinical staging of Merkel cell carcinoma (primary cutaneous neuroendocrine carcinoma), following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C136872 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: In situ primary tumor. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. M0: No distant metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136873 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Maximum clinical tumor diameter equal to or less than 2 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. M0: No distant metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136874 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2-3, N0, M0); IIB: (T4, N0, M0). T2: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 5 cm. T3: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 5 cm. T4: Primary tumor invades fascia, muscle, cartilage, or bone. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. M0: No distant metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136875 | "Stage IIA includes: T2-3, N0, M0. T2: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 5 cm. T3: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. M0: No distant metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136876 | "Stage IIB includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Primary tumor invades fascia, muscle, cartilage, or bone. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. M0: No distant metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136877 | "Stage III includes: T0-4, N1-3, M0. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Maximum clinical tumor diameter equal to or less than 2 cm. T2: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 5 cm. T3: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 5 cm. T4: Primary tumor invades fascia, muscle, cartilage, or bone. N1: Metastasis in regional lymph node(s). N2: In-transit metastasis (discontinuous from primary tumor; located between primary tumor and draining regional nodal bas... |
| C136878 | "Stage IV includes: T0-4, Any N, M1. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Maximum clinical tumor diameter equal to or less than 2 cm. T2: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 5 cm. T3: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 5 cm. T4: Primary tumor invades fascia, muscle, cartilage, or bone. M1: Distant metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136880 | "A term that refers to the pathologic staging of Merkel cell carcinoma (primary cutaneous neuroendocrine carcinoma), following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C136881 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: In situ primary tumor. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected on pathologic examination. M0: No distant metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136882 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Maximum clinical tumor diameter equal to or less than 2 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected on pathologic examination. M0: No distant metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136883 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2-3, N0, M0); IIB: (T4, N0, M0). T2: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 5 cm. T3: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 5 cm. T4: Primary tumor invades fascia, muscle, cartilage, or bone. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected on pathologic examination. M0: No distant metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136884 | "Stage IIA includes: T2-3, N0, M0. T2: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 5 cm. T3: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected on pathologic examination. M0: No distant metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136885 | "Stage IIB includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Primary tumor invades fascia, muscle, cartilage, or bone. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected on pathologic examination. M0: No distant metastasis detected on clinical and/or radiologic examination. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136886 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1-4, N1a(sn) or N1a, M0); (T0, N1b, M0); IIIB: (T1-4, N1b-3, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Maximum clinical tumor diameter equal to or less than 2 cm. T2: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 5 cm. T3: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 5 cm. T4: Primary tumor invades fascia, muscle, cartilage, or bone. N1a(sn): Clinically occult regional lymph node metastasis identified only by sentinel lymph node biopsy. N... |
| C136887 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1-4, N1a(sn) or N1a, M0); (T0, N1b, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Maximum clinical tumor diameter equal to or less than 2 cm. T2: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 5 cm. T3: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 5 cm. T4: Primary tumor invades fascia, muscle, cartilage, or bone. N1a(sn): Clinically occult regional lymph node metastasis identified only by sentinel lymph node biopsy. N1a: Clinically occult regional... |
| C136888 | "Stage IIIB includes: T1-4, N1b-3, M0. T1: Maximum clinical tumor diameter equal to or less than 2 cm. T2: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 5 cm. T3: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 5 cm. T4: Primary tumor invades fascia, muscle, cartilage, or bone. N1b: Clinically and/or radiologically detected regional lymph node metastasis, microscopically confirmed. N2: In-transit metastasis (discontinuous from primary tumor; located between primary tumor... |
| C136889 | "Stage IV includes: T0-4, Any N, M1. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Maximum clinical tumor diameter equal to or less than 2 cm. T2: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 5 cm. T3: Maximum clinical tumor diameter more than 5 cm. T4: Primary tumor invades fascia, muscle, cartilage, or bone. M1: Distant metastasis microscopically confirmed. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C136971 | The reemergence of lymphocyte-rich classic Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C136972 | "An aggressive, castration-resistant, histologically distinct, metastatic carcinoma arising from the prostate gland. It is characterized by the presence of a pure population of cytologically bland malignant epithelial cells with moderate to abundant cytoplasm and rare mitotic figures. The prognosis is poor." |
| C137645 | "A term that refers to the staging of cutaneous melanoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system does not apply to melanoma of the conjunctiva, melanoma of the uvea, mucosal melanoma arising in the head and neck, and mucosal melanoma of the urethra, vagina, rectum, and anus. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C137646 | "A term that refers to the clinical staging of cutaneous melanoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C137647 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Melanoma in situ. Thickness: Not applicable. Ulceration status: Not applicable. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137648 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); IB: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0). T1a: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. T1b: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness with ulceration, or 0.8-1.0 mm with or without ulceration. T2a: Tumor measuring more than 1.0 and equal to or less than 2.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatelli... |
| C137649 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137650 | "Stage IB includes: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0). T1b: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness with ulceration, or 0.8-1.0 mm with or without ulceration. T2a: Tumor measuring more than 1.0 and equal to or less than 2.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137651 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0); IIB: (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); IIC: (T4b, N0, M0). T2b: Tumor measuring more than 1.0 and equal to or less than 2.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 2.0 and equal to or less than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. T3b: Tumor measuring more than 2.0 and equal to or less than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration. T4a: Tumor measuring more tha... |
| C137652 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0). T2b: Tumor measuring more than 1.0 and equal to or less than 2.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 2.0 and equal to or less than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137653 | "Stage IIB includes: (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T3b: Tumor measuring more than 2.0 and equal to or less than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration. T4a: Tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137654 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0. T4b: Tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137655 | "Stage III includes: Any T, Tis, N1 or More, M0. Tis: Melanoma in situ. Thickness: Not applicable. Ulceration status: Not applicable. N1: One tumor-involved node or in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases with no tumor-involved nodes. N2: Two or three tumor-involved nodes or in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases with one tumor-involved node. N3: Four or more tumor-involved nodes or in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases with two or more tumo... |
| C137656 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Evidence of distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137657 | "A term that refers to the pathologic staging of cutaneous melanoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C137662 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Melanoma in situ. Thickness: Not applicable. Ulceration status: Not applicable. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137663 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0); IB: (T2a, N0, M0). T1a: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. T1b: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness with ulceration, or 0.8-1.0 mm with or without ulceration. T2a: Tumor measuring more than 1.0 and equal to or less than 2.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatelli... |
| C137664 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0). T1a: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. T1b: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness with ulceration, or 0.8-1.0 mm with or without ulceration. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137665 | "Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0. T2a: Tumor measuring more than 1.0 and equal to or less than 2.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137666 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0); IIB: (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); IIC: (T4b, N0, M0). T2b: Tumor measuring more than 1.0 and equal to or less than 2.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 2.0 and equal to or less than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. T3b: Tumor measuring more than 2.0 and equal to or less than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration. T4a: Tumor measuring more tha... |
| C137667 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0). T2b: Tumor measuring more than 1.0 and equal to or less than 2.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 2.0 and equal to or less than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137668 | "Stage IIB includes: (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T3b: Tumor measuring more than 2.0 and equal to or less than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration. T4a: Tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137669 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0. T4b: Tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis detected. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137670 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1a/b-T2a, N1a or N2a, M0); IIIB: (T0, N1b, N1c, M0); (T1a/b-T2a, N1b/c or N2b, M0); (T2b/T3a, N1a-N2b, M0); IIIC: (T0, N2b, N2c, N3b or N3c); (T1a-T3a, N2c or N3a/b/c, M0); (T3b/T4a, Any N greater than or equal to N1, M0); (T4b, N1a-N2c, M0); IIID: (T4b, N3a/b/c, M0). T1a: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. T1b: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness with ulceration, or 0.8-1.0 mm with or without ulceratio... |
| C137671 | "Stage IIIA includes: T1a/b-T2a, N1a or N2a, M0. T1a: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. T1b: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness with ulceration, or 0.8-1.0 mm with or without ulceration. T2a: Tumor measuring more than 1.0 and equal to or less than 2.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. N1a: One clinically occult nodal metastasis (i.e., detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy). Presence of in-transit, satellite... |
| C137672 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T0, N1b, N1c, M0); (T1a/b-T2a, N1b/c or N2b, M0); (T2b/T3a, N1a-N2b, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor (e.g., unknown primary or completely regressed melanoma). Thickness: Not applicable. Ulceration status: Not applicable. T1a: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. T1b: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness with ulceration, or 0.8-1.0 mm with or without ulceration. T2a: Tumor measuring more than 1.0 and equal ... |
| C137673 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T0, N2b, N2c, N3b or N3c); (T1a-T3a, N2c or N3a/b/c, M0); (T3b/T4a, Any N greater than or equal to N1, M0); (T4b, N1a-N2c, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor (e.g., unknown primary or completely regressed melanoma). Thickness: Not applicable. Ulceration status: Not applicable. T1a: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: Without ulceration. T1b: Tumor measuring less than 0.8 mm in thickness with ulceration, or 0.8-1.0 mm with or without ulc... |
| C137674 | "Breast carcinoma presenting with isolated axillary lymphadenopathy, without clinical or mammographic evidence of breast tumor." |
| C137675 | "Stage IIID includes: T4b, N3a/b/c, M0. T4b: Tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration.  N3a: Four or more clinically occult nodal metastasis (i.e., detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy). Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. N3b: Four or more nodal metastases, at least one of which was clinically detected, or presence of any number of matted nodes. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases... |
| C137677 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Tis, Any N, M1. Tis: Melanoma in situ. Thickness: Not applicable. Ulceration status: Not applicable. M1: Evidence of distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C137839 | Breast lobular carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of neoplastic large cells with marked nuclear pleomorphism. |
| C137857 | Anal carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C137862 | Pancreatic neuroendocrine carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C137957 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the KCNH2 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily H member 2. It is characterized by a prolonged QT interval that may result in torsade de pointes, ventricular fibrillation and/or sudden cardiac death." |
| C137959 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SCN5A gene, encoding sodium channel protein type 5 subunit alpha. It is characterized by a prolonged QT interval that may result in torsade de pointes, ventricular fibrillation and/or sudden cardiac death." |
| C138013 | The reemergence of gray-zone lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C138014 | Gray-zone lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C138015 | The reemergence of extranodal diffuse large B-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C138018 | Extranodal diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C138019 | The reemergence of central nervous system lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C138020 | Central nervous system lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C138021 | The reemergence of testicular lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C138022 | Testicular lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C138023 | The reemergence of breast lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C138024 | Breast lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C138025 | The reemergence of intravascular large B-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C138026 | Intravascular large B-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C138027 | "The reemergence of primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type after a period of remission." |
| C138028 | "Primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type that is resistant to treatment." |
| C138167 | "A header term that includes the following prostate carcinoma subtypes determined by gene expression profiling: luminal A prostate carcinoma, luminal B prostate carcinoma, and basal-like prostate carcinoma." |
| C138168 | "Prostate carcinoma associated with increased androgen receptor expression and signaling (androgen activity pathway), increased luminal markers, and a lower proliferation score than the luminal B and basal-like prostate carcinomas." |
| C138169 | "Prostate carcinoma associated with increased androgen receptor expression and signaling (androgen activity pathway), increased luminal markers, and a higher proliferation score than the luminal A prostate carcinoma. Patients with luminal B prostate carcinoma have the poorest prognosis but respond better to postoperative androgen deprivation therapy compared to patients with non-luminal B prostate carcinoma." |
| C138170 | "Prostate carcinoma in which the CD49f signature is increased, the luminal markers and androgen receptor expression and signaling (androgen activity pathway) are not increased, and the proliferation score is higher than the luminal A prostate carcinoma." |
| C138171 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PTS gene, encoding 6-pyruvoyl tetrahydrobiopterin synthase. It is characterized by BH4-defecient hyperphenylalanemia, depletion of dopamine and serotonin, and progressive cognitive and motor deficits." |
| C138173 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the QDPR gene, encoding dihydropteridine reductase. It is characterized by BH4-defecient hyperphenylalanemia, depletion of dopamine and serotonin, and progressive cognitive and motor deficits." |
| C138174 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the EPG5 gene, encoding ectopic P granules protein 5 homolog. It is characterized by variable immunodeficiency, cleft lip/palate, cataracts, hypopigmentation, and absent corpus callosum." |
| C138179 | "A vaso-occlusive crisis of the pulmonary vasculature occurring in patients with sickle cell disease. It is characterized by the presence of a new radiodensity on a chest radiograph accompanied by fever, cough, sputum production, dyspnea, or hypoxia." |
| C138181 | "A follicular neoplasia confined to the germinal centers of the lymph nodes, without evidence of disseminated disease. It is characterized by the replacement of a germinal center by neoplastic centrocytes with uniformly intense positivity for BCL2. The surrounding mantle cuff and lymphoid architecture are intact. It has a low rate of progression to follicular lymphoma, but is often associated with prior or synchronous overt lymphoma." |
| C138183 | The reemergence of an abdominal neuroendocrine neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C138184 | An abdominal neuroendocrine neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C138185 | "A localized low-grade follicular lymphoma within the gastrointestinal tract, which is distinct from other gastrointestinal tract follicular lymphomas.  It has features that overlap with in situ follicular neoplasia as well as some features resembling an extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. The prognosis is excellent." |
| C138186 | "A predominantly diffuse, low-grade follicular lymphoma. It often presents as a large localized inguinal mass, lacks BCL2 rearrangement, and is associated with 1p36 deletion." |
| C138191 | "A neoplastic lymphoid process characterized by the presence of cyclin D1 positive lymphoid cells, typically in the inner mantle zones of lymphoid tissue follicles, in cases that do not suggest the diagnosis of a mantle cell lymphoma. It is often found incidentally and has a low rate of progression." |
| C138192 | "Mantle cell lymphoma involving the peripheral blood, bone marrow, and often spleen. It usually has an indolent clinical course." |
| C138195 | "High-grade B-cell lymphoma characterized by the abnormal rearrangement of MYC gene, BCL2 gene, and/or BCL6 gene. Patients with this type of lymphoma usually respond poorly to standard treatments and have a poor prognosis." |
| C138211 | "A term that refers to high-grade B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified or high-grade B-cell lymphoma with MYC and BCL2 and/or BCL6 rearrangements." |
| C138320 | "A large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of a diffuse proliferation of large, atypical HHV8-positive neoplastic lymphocytes. It usually arises in association with HHV8-positive multicentric Castleman disease." |
| C138899 | "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma characterized by double expression of MYC and BCL2 proteins without MYC and BCL2 gene aberrations. These lymphomas may have a worse prognosis than other diffuse large B-cell lymphomas, not otherwise specified, but they are not as aggressive as the high-grade B-cell lymphomas, with rearrangements of MYC and BCL2 and/or BCL6 genes." |
| C139001 | A soft tissue sarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C139002 | The reemergence of soft tissue sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C139005 | "A group of node-based peripheral T-cell lymphomas with phenotypic features of T follicular helper (TFH) cells. This category includes the following: follicular helper T-cell lymphoma, angioimmunoblastic-type; follicular helper T-cell lymphoma, follicular-type; and follicular helper T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified." |
| C139008 | A header term that refers to the staging of multiple myeloma according to the Durie/Salmon staging system. |
| C139009 | A header term that refers to the staging of multiple myeloma according to the International Staging System. |
| C139011 | Follicular helper T-cell lymphoma that does not meet the criteria for any other specifically defined entity of follicular helper T-cell lymphoma. |
| C139012 | A rare anaplastic large cell lymphoma that develops in individuals with breast implants. It usually presents as an accumulation of seroma fluid between the implant and the surrounding fibrous capsule. The median interval from the time of the implant to the development of lymphoma is approximately 10 years. |
| C139014 | A variant of lymphomatoid papulosis which mimics primary cutaneous aggressive epidermotropic CD8-positive cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma. |
| C139015 | A variant of lymphomatoid papulosis characterized by the presence of atypical lymphocytes which exhibited distinct angioinvasion. |
| C139017 | A variant of lymphomatoid papulosis associated with chromosomal rearrangements involving the DUSP22-IRF4 locus at 6p25.3. |
| C139021 | "A clonal T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder that can involve the mucosa in all sites of the gastrointestinal tract, but is most common in the small intestine and colon. The lymphoid cells infiltrate the lamina propria but usually do not show invasion of the epithelium. The clinical course is indolent, but most patients do not respond to conventional chemotherapy. A subset of cases progress to a higher-grade T-cell lymphoma with spread beyond the gastrointestinal tract. (WHO 2017)" |
| C139023 | A primary cutaneous T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder that presents as an acral (peripheral) lesion. It is composed of CD8-positive neoplastic T-lymphocytes. It is usually localized to a single site and has an indolent clinical course. Local or more extensive recurrences have been described in a minority of patients. |
| C139028 | An early lesion of post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder with the morphologic appearance of florid follicular hyperplasia. |
| C139151 | A bony projection that forms on the joints of the body. |
| C139288 | "An EBV-positive T-cell/NK-cell lymphoma that arises from the lymph nodes. It is characterized by a monomorphic pattern of infiltration and abscence of the angiodestruction and necrosis seen in extranodal NK/T-cell lymphomas. These lymphomas are more common in elderly patient, or in the setting of immune deficiency. (WHO 2017)" |
| C139291 | A head and neck squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C139532 | "A term that refers to the staging of breast cancer, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. It applies to invasive (infiltrating) carcinoma of the breast and ductal carcinoma in situ of the breast. It does not apply to breast sarcoma, phyllodes tumor, and breast lymphoma. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139533 | "A term that refers to the staging of breast cancer, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system should only be used in global regions where biomarker tests are not routinely available. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139534 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Ductal carcinoma in situ. Lobular carcinoma in situ is a benign entity and is removed from TNM staging in the AJCC Cancer Staging Manual, 8th Edition. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis is identified or isolated tumor cell clusters (ITCs) are identified only. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastases. Imaging studies are not required to assign the M0 category. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C139535 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, N0, M0); IB: (T0, N1mi, M0); (T1, N1mi, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis is identified or isolated tumor cell clusters (ITCs) are identified only. N1mi: Tumor with micrometastases (approximately 200 cells, larger than 0.2 mm, but none larger than 2.0 mm). M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastases. Imaging studies are not required to assign the ... |
| C139536 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis is identified or isolated tumor cell clusters (ITCs) are identified only. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastases. Imaging studies are not required to assign the M0 category. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C139537 | "Stage IB includes: (T0, N1mi, M0); (T1, N1mi, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. N1mi: Tumor with micrometastases (approximately 200 cells, larger than 0.2 mm, but none larger than 2.0 mm). M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastases. Imaging studies are not required to assign the M0 category. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C139538 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T0, N1, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0); IIB: (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 20 mm, but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis is identified or isolated tumor cell clusters (ITCs) are identified only. N1: Tumor with micrometastases; or metastases in 1... |
| C139539 | "Stage IIA includes: (T0, N1, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 20 mm, but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis is identified or isolated tumor cell clusters (ITCs) are identified only. N1: Tumor with micrometastases; or metastases in 1-3 axillary lymph nodes; and/or clinically negative internal mammary nodes with micrometastases ... |
| C139540 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2: Tumor measuring more than 20 mm, but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis is identified or isolated tumor cell clusters (ITCs) are identified only. N1: Tumor with micrometastases; or metastases in 1-3 axillary lymph nodes; and/or clinically negative internal mammary nodes with micrometastases or macrometastases by sentinel lymph node biop... |
| C139541 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); IIIB: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0); IIIC: (Any T, N3, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 20 mm, but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor of any size with direct extension to the chest wall and/or to the skin (ulceration o... |
| C139542 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor measuring 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor measuring more than 20 mm, but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. N1: Tumor with micrometastases; or metastases in 1-3 axillary lymph nodes; and/or clinically negative internal mammary nodes with micrometastases or macrometastases by se... |
| C139543 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0). T4: Tumor of any size with direct extension to the chest wall and/or to the skin (ulceration or macroscopic nodules); invasion of the dermis alone does not qualify as T4. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis is identified or isolated tumor cell clusters (ITCs) are identified only. N1: Tumor with micrometastases; or metastases in 1-3 axillary lymph nodes; and/or clinically negative internal mammary nodes with micrometastases or ... |
| C139544 | "Stage IIIC includes: Any T, N3, M0. N3: Tumor with metastases in 10 or more axillary lymph nodes; or in infraclavicular (level III axillary) lymph nodes; or positive ipsilateral internal mammary lymph nodes by imaging in the presence of one or more positive level I, II axillary lymph nodes; or in more than three axillary lymph nodes and micrometastases or macrometastases by sentinel lymph node biopsy in clinically negative ipsilateral internal mammary lymph nodes; or in ipsilateral supracla... |
| C139545 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastases detected by clinical and radiographic means and/or histologically proven metastases larger than 0.2 mm. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C139546 | A benign epithelial-stromal neoplasm that arises from the anus and resembles the breast fibroadenoma. |
| C139547 | A benign epithelial-stromal neoplasm that arises from the perineum and resembles the breast fibroadenoma. |
| C139548 | A benign composite neoplasm that arises from the vulva and is characterized by mixed histopathologic features of hidradenoma papilliferum and fibroadenoma. |
| C139554 | "A term that refers to the staging of breast cancer, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This staging system should be used in countries where HER2, ER, and PR biomarker tests are routinely performed for patient care (U.S., Canada, etc.). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139555 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0, G1-3, HER2 Status: Any, ER Status: Any, PR Status: Any. Tis: Ductal carcinoma in situ. Lobular carcinoma in situ is a benign entity and is removed from TNM staging in the AJCC Cancer Staging Manual, 8th Edition. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis is identified or isolated tumor cell clusters (ITCs) are identified only. G1: Low combined histologic grade (favorable); SBR score of 3-5 points. G2: Intermediate combined histologic grade (moderately favorable); S... |
| C139556 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, N0, M0, G1, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Any, PR Status: Any); (T1, N0, M0, G1-2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Positive); (T1, N0, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Positive); (T1, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Any); (T0-1, N1mi, M0, G1, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Any, PR Status: Any); (T0-1, N1mi, M0, G1-2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status:... |
| C139557 | "Stage IA includes: (T1, N0, M0, G1, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Any, PR Status: Any); (T1, N0, M0, G1-2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Positive); (T1, N0, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Positive); (T1, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Any); (T0-1, N1mi, M0, G1, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Any, PR Status: Any); (T0-1, N1mi, M0, G1-2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Po... |
| C139558 | "Stage IB includes: (T1, N0, M0, G1, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T1, N0, M0, G1, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Positive); (T1, N0, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T1, N0, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Any); (T1, N0, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Positive); (T1, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Negative, PR St... |
| C139565 | "Lung cancer comprising malignant neoplasms from two or more sites, as determined by clinicopathological assessment." |
| C139569 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T1, N0, M0, G1, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T1, N0, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T1, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T1, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Positive); (T1, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T0-1, N1mi, M0, G1, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: N... |
| C139571 | "Stage IIA includes: (T1, N0, M0, G1, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T1, N0, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T1, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T1, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Positive); (T1, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T0-1, N1mi, M0, G1, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negat... |
| C139572 | "Stage IIB includes: (T0-1, N1, M0, G1, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T0-1, N1, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T0-1, N1, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T0-1, N1, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Positive); (T0-1, N1, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T0-1, N1, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Positive, ER Statu... |
| C139582 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T0-1, N1, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T0-1, N1, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T0-1, N1, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Any); (T2, N0, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T2, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T2, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Ne... |
| C139583 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T0-1, N1, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T0-1, N1, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T0-1, N1, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Any); (T2, N0, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T2, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T2, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negativ... |
| C139584 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T2, N1, M0, G1-2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T2, N1, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T3, N0, M0, G1-2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T3, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T0-2, N2, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T0-2, N2, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: ... |
| C139585 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T2, N1, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Any); (T3, N0, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Any ); (T0-2, N2, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Negative); (T0-2, N2, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Positive, PR Status: Negative); (T0-2, N2, M0, G3, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR Status: Any); (T3, N1-2, M0, G2, HER2 Status: Negative, ER Status: Negative, PR S... |
| C139587 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1, G1-3, HER2 Status: Any, ER Status: Any, PR Status: Any. G1: Low combined histologic grade (favorable); SBR score of 3-5 points. G2: Intermediate combined histologic grade (moderately favorable); SBR score: 6-7 points. G3: High combined histologic grade (unfavorable); SBR score of 8-9 points. M1: Distant metastases detected by clinical and radiographic means and/or histologically proven metastases larger than 0.2 mm. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C139618 | "A term that refers to the staging of vulvar cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to all carcinomas of the vulva. Melanoma of the vulva is staged according to the classification for melanoma of the skin. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139619 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva and/or perineum. Multifocal lesions should be designated as such. The largest lesion or the lesion with the greatest depth of invasion will be the target lesion identified to address the highest pT stage. Depth of invasion is defined as the measurement of the tumor from the epithelial-stromal junction of the adjacent most superficial dermal papilla to the deepest point of invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No di... |
| C139620 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Lesion measuring 2 cm or less, confined to the vulva and/or perineum, and with stromal invasion of 1.0 mm or less. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139621 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Lesion measuring more than 2 cm, or any size with stromal invasion of more than 1.0 mm, confined to the vulva and/or perineum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139622 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor of any size with extension to adjacent perineal structures (lower/distal third of the urethra, lower/distal third of the vagina, anal involvement). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139623 | "Stage III includes: T1-T2, N1-N2c, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva and/or perineum. Multifocal lesions should be designated as such. The largest lesion or the lesion with the greatest depth of invasion will be the target lesion identified to address the highest pT stage. Depth of invasion is defined as the measurement of the tumor from the epithelial-stromal junction of the adjacent most superficial dermal papilla to the deepest point of invasion. T2: Tumor of any size with extension to... |
| C139624 | "Stage IIIA includes: T1-T2, N1, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva and/or perineum. Multifocal lesions should be designated as such. The largest lesion or the lesion with the greatest depth of invasion will be the target lesion identified to address the highest pT stage. Depth of invasion is defined as the measurement of the tumor from the epithelial-stromal junction of the adjacent most superficial dermal papilla to the deepest point of invasion. T2: Tumor of any size with extension to ad... |
| C139625 | "Stage IIIB includes: T1-T2, N2a, N2b, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva and/or perineum. Multifocal lesions should be designated as such. The largest lesion or the lesion with the greatest depth of invasion will be the target lesion identified to address the highest pT stage. Depth of invasion is defined as the measurement of the tumor from the epithelial-stromal junction of the adjacent most superficial dermal papilla to the deepest point of invasion. T2: Tumor of any size with extension... |
| C139626 | "Stage IIIC includes: T1-T2, N2c, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva and/or perineum. Multifocal lesions should be designated as such. The largest lesion or the lesion with the greatest depth of invasion will be the target lesion identified to address the highest pT stage. Depth of invasion is defined as the measurement of the tumor from the epithelial-stromal junction of the adjacent most superficial dermal papilla to the deepest point of invasion. T2: Tumor of any size with extension to a... |
| C139627 | "Stage IV includes: T1-T3, N3, M0-M1. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva and/or perineum. Multifocal lesions should be designated as such. The largest lesion or the lesion with the greatest depth of invasion will be the target lesion identified to address the highest pT stage. Depth of invasion is defined as the measurement of the tumor from the epithelial-stromal junction of the adjacent most superficial dermal papilla to the deepest point of invasion. T2: Tumor of any size with extension to a... |
| C139628 | "Stage IVA includes: (T1-T2, N3, M0); (T3, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor confined to the vulva and/or perineum. Multifocal lesions should be designated as such. The largest lesion or the lesion with the greatest depth of invasion will be the target lesion identified to address the highest pT stage. Depth of invasion is defined as the measurement of the tumor from the epithelial-stromal junction of the adjacent most superficial dermal papilla to the deepest point of invasion. T2: Tumor of any size wi... |
| C139630 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis (including pelvic lymph node metastasis). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139657 | "A term that refers to the staging of vaginal cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to all carcinomas of the vagina. There is no AJCC staging system for mucosal melanoma of the vagina. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139658 | "Stage I includes: IA: T1a, N0, M0; IB: T1b, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor confined to the vagina, measuring 2.0 cm or less. T1b: Tumor confined to the vagina, measuring more than 2.0 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139659 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor confined to the vagina, measuring 2.0 cm or less. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139660 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Tumor confined to the vagina, measuring more than 2.0 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139661 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T2a, N0, M0; IIB: T2b, N0, M0. T2a: Tumor invading paravaginal tissues but not to pelvic wall, measuring 2.0 cm or less. T2b: Tumor invading paravaginal tissues but not to pelvic wall, measuring more than 2.0 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139662 | "Stage IIA includes: T2a, N0, M0. T2a: Tumor invading paravaginal tissues but not to pelvic wall, measuring 2.0 cm or less. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139664 | "Stage IIB includes: T2b, N0, M0. T2b: Tumor invading paravaginal tissues but not to pelvic wall, measuring more than 2.0 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139665 | "Stage III includes: (T1-T3, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T1: Tumor confined to the vagina. T2: Tumor invading paravaginal tissues but not to pelvic sidewall. T3: Tumor extending to the pelvic sidewall and/or involving the lower third of the vagina and/or causing hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Pelvic or inguinal lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139667 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: T4, Any N, M0; IVB: Any T, Any N, M1. T4: Tumor invading the mucosa of the bladder or rectum and/or extending beyond the true pelvis (bullous edema is not sufficient evidence to classify a tumor as T4). M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139669 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Tumor invading the mucosa of the bladder or rectum and/or extending beyond the true pelvis (bullous edema is not sufficient evidence to classify a tumor as T4). M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139670 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139681 | Histologic transformation of a follicular lymphoma to an aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. |
| C139733 | "A term that refers to the staging of cervical cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C139734 | "Stage I includes: T1, Any N, M0. T1: Tumor confined to uterus (extension to corpus should be disregarded). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139735 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, Any N, M0. T1a: Tumor diagnosed only by microscopy. Stromal invasion with a maximum depth of 5.0 mm measured from the base of the epithelium and a horizontal spread of 7.0 mm or less. Vascular space involvement, venous or lymphatic, does not affect classification. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139736 | "Stage IA1 includes: T1a1, Any N, M0. T1a1: Invasive cervical carcinoma with measured stromal invasion of 3.0 mm or less in depth and 7.0 mm or less in horizontal spread. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139737 | "Stage IA2 includes: T1a2, Any N, M0. T1a2: Invasive cervical carcinoma with measured stromal invasion of more than 3.0 mm and not more than 5.0 mm, with a horizontal spread of 7.0 mm or less. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139738 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, Any N, M0. T1b: Tumor with clinically visible lesion confined to the cervix or microscopic lesion greater than T1a/IA2. It includes all macroscopically visible lesions, even those with superficial invasion. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139739 | "Stage IB1 includes: T1b1, Any N, M0. T1b1: Tumor with clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139740 | "Stage IB2 includes: T1b2, Any N, M0. T1b2: Tumor with clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139743 | "Stage II includes: T2, Any N, M0. T2: Cervical carcinoma invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139744 | "Stage IIA includes: T2a, Any N, M0. T2a: Cervical carcinoma invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina without parametrial invasion. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139745 | "Stage IIA1 includes: T2a1, Any N, M0. T2a1: Cervical carcinoma invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina without parametrial invasion. Clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139746 | "Stage IIA2 includes: T2a2, Any N, M0. T2a2: Cervical carcinoma invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina without parametrial invasion. Clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139748 | "Stage IIB includes: T2b, Any N, M0. T2b: Cervical carcinoma invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina with parametrial invasion. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139749 | "Stage III includes: T3, Any N, M0. T3: Tumor extending to pelvic sidewall and/or involving the lower third of vagina, and/or causing hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139750 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, Any N, M0. T3a: Tumor involving the lower third of vagina but not extending to pelvic wall. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139752 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, Any N, M0. T3b: extending to pelvic wall and/or causing hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139753 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: T4, Any N, M0; IVB: Any T, Any N, M1. T4: Tumor invading the mucosa of the bladder or rectum, and/or extending beyond the true pelvis (bullous edema is not sufficient to classify a tumor as T4). M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis (including peritoneal spread or involvement of the supraclavicular, mediastinal, or distant lymph nodes; lung; liver; or bone). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139754 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Tumor invading the mucosa of the bladder or rectum, and/or extending beyond the true pelvis (bullous edema is not sufficient to classify a tumor as T4). M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139755 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis (including peritoneal spread or involvement of the supraclavicular, mediastinal, or distant lymph nodes; lung; liver; or bone). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139801 | "A term that refers to the staging of uterine corpus cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. It does not apply to uterine corpus sarcomas: leiomyosarcomas, endometrial stromal sarcomas, and adenosarcomas. These sarcomas are staged according to the classification for uterine corpus sarcomas. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139802 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor confined to the corpus uteri, including endocervical glandular involvement. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139803 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor limited to the endometrium or invading less than half the myometrium. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139804 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor invading one half or more of the myometrium. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139805 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor invading the stromal connective tissue of the cervix but not extending beyond the uterus. Does not include endocervical glandular involvement. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139806 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor involving serosa, adnexa, vagina, or parametrium. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139807 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0. T3a: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor involving the serosa and/or adnexa (direct extension or metastasis). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139808 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0. T3b: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with vaginal involvement (direct extension or metastasis) or parametrial involvement. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139809 | "Stage IIIC includes: IIIC1: T1-T3, N1/N1mi/N1a, M0; IIIC2: T1-T3, N2/N2mi/N2a, M0. T1: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor confined to the corpus uteri, including endocervical glandular involvement. T2: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor invading the stromal connective tissue of the cervix but not extending beyond the uterus. Does not include endocervical glandular involvement. T3: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor involving serosa, a... |
| C139810 | "Stage IIIC1 includes: T1-T3, N1/N1mi/N1a, M0. T1: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor confined to the corpus uteri, including endocervical glandular involvement. T2: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor invading the stromal connective tissue of the cervix but not extending beyond the uterus. Does not include endocervical glandular involvement. T3: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor involving serosa, adnexa, vagina, or parametrium. N1: Re... |
| C139811 | "Stage IIIC2 includes: T1-T3, N2/N2mi/N2a, M0. T1: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor confined to the corpus uteri, including endocervical glandular involvement. T2: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor invading the stromal connective tissue of the cervix but not extending beyond the uterus. Does not include endocervical glandular involvement. T3: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor involving serosa, adnexa, vagina, or parametrium. N2: Re... |
| C139812 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: T4, Any N, M0; IVB: Any T, Any N, M1. T4: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor invading the bladder mucosa and/or bowel mucosa (bullous edema is not sufficient to classify a tumor as T4). M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis (includes metastasis to inguinal lymph nodes, intraperitoneal disease, lung, liver, or bone. It excludes metastasis to pelvic or para-aortic lymph nodes, vagina, uterine serosa, or adnexa). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139813 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma with tumor invading the bladder mucosa and/or bowel mucosa (bullous edema is not sufficient to classify a tumor as T4). M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139814 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis (includes metastasis to inguinal lymph nodes, intraperitoneal disease, lung, liver, or bone. It excludes metastasis to pelvic or para-aortic lymph nodes, vagina, uterine serosa, or adnexa). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139869 | "A term that refers to the staging of uterine corpus sarcoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to leiomyosarcomas, endometrial stromal sarcomas, and adenosarcomas of the uterine corpus. It does not apply to carcinosarcomas which are staged according to the carcinomas and carcinosarcomas of the uterine corpus. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139870 | "A term that refers to the staging of uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C139871 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139872 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus, measuring 5 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139873 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus, measuring more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139874 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor extending beyond the uterus, within the pelvis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139875 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: T3a, N0, M0; IIIB: T3b, N0, M0; IIIC: T1-3, N1, M0. T1: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus. T2: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor extending beyond the uterus, within the pelvis. T3: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues. T3a: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues at one site. T3b: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues at more than... |
| C139876 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0. T3a: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues at one site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139877 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0. T3b: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues at more than one site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139878 | "Stage IIIC includes: T1-3, N1, M0. T1: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus. T2: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor extending beyond the uterus, within the pelvis. T3: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139879 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: T4, Any N, M0; IVB: Any T, Any N, M1. T4: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor invading bladder or rectum. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis (excluding adnexa, pelvic, and abdominal tissues). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139880 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma with tumor invading bladder or rectum. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139881 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: M1: Distant metastasis (excluding adnexa, pelvic, and abdominal tissues). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139882 | "A term that refers to the staging of uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C139883 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139884 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus, measuring 5 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139885 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus, measuring more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139886 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor extending beyond the uterus, within the pelvis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139887 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: T3a, N0, M0; IIIB: T3b, N0, M0; IIIC: T1-3, N1, M0. T1: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus. T2: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor extending beyond the uterus, within the pelvis. T3: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues. T3a: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues at one site. T3b: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sa... |
| C139888 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0. T3a: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues at one site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139889 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0. T3b: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues at more than one site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139890 | "Stage IIIC includes: T1-3, N1, M0. T1: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus. T2: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor extending beyond the uterus, within the pelvis. T3: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139891 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: T4, Any N, M0; IVB: Any T, Any N, M1. T4: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor invading bladder or rectum. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis (excluding adnexa, pelvic, and abdominal tissues). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139892 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Uterine corpus endometrial stroma sarcoma with tumor invading bladder or rectum. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139893 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: M1: Distant metastasis (excluding adnexa, pelvic, and abdominal tissues). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139894 | "A term that refers to the staging of uterine corpus adenosarcoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C139895 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139896 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor limited to the endometrium/endocervix. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139897 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor invading to less than half of the myometrium. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139898 | "Stage IC includes: T1c, N0, M0. T1c: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor invading more than half of the myometrium. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139899 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor extending beyond the uterus, within the pelvis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139900 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: T3a, N0, M0; IIIB: T3b, N0, M0; IIIC: T1-3, N1, M0. T1: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus. T2: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor extending beyond the uterus, within the pelvis. T3: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues. T3a: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues at one site. T3b: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues at more than one site.... |
| C139901 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0. T3a: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues at one site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139902 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0. T3b: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues at more than one site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139903 | "Stage IIIC includes: T1-3, N1, M0. T1: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor limited to the uterus. T2: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor extending beyond the uterus, within the pelvis. T3: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor infiltrating abdominal tissues. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139904 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: T4, Any N, M0; IVB: Any T, Any N, M1. T4: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor invading bladder or rectum. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis (excluding adnexa, pelvic, and abdominal tissues). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139905 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Uterine corpus adenosarcoma with tumor invading bladder or rectum. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139906 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: M1: Distant metastasis (excluding adnexa, pelvic, and abdominal tissues). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139963 | "A term that refers to the staging of ovarian cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to ovarian carcinomas. Nonepithelial primary ovarian cancers may be staged using this classification but should be reported separately. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139964 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Ovarian cancer with tumor limited to ovaries (one or both). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139965 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Ovarian cancer with tumor limited to one ovary (capsule intact); no malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139966 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Ovarian cancer with tumor limited to one or both ovaries (capsules intact); no tumor on ovarian surface; no malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139967 | "Stage IC includes: T1c, N0, M0. T1c: Ovarian cancer with tumor limited to one or both ovaries, with any of the following: surgical spill, capsule ruptured before surgery or tumor on ovarian surface, or malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139968 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Ovarian cancer with tumor involving one or both ovaries with pelvic extension below pelvic brim. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139969 | "Stage IIA includes: T2a, N0, M0. T2a: Ovarian cancer with tumor extension and/or implants on the uterus and/or fallopian tube(s) and/or ovaries. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139970 | "Stage IIB includes: T2b, N0, M0. T2b: Ovarian cancer with tumor extension to and/or implants on other pelvic tissues. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139971 | "Stage III includes: IIIA1: T1/2, N1, M0; IIIA2: T3a, N0/N1, M0; IIIB: T3b, N0/N1, M0; IIIC: T3c, N0/N1, M0. T1: Ovarian cancer with tumor limited to ovaries (one or both). T2: Ovarian cancer with tumor involving one or both ovaries with pelvic extension below pelvic brim. T3a: Ovarian cancer with microscopic extrapelvic (above the pelvic brim) peritoneal involvement with or without positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. T3b: Ovarian cancer with macroscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond pelvis... |
| C139972 | "Stage IIIA includes: IIIA1: T1/2, N1, M0; IIIA2: T3a, N0/N1, M0. T1: Ovarian cancer with tumor limited to ovaries (one or both). T2: Ovarian cancer with tumor involving one or both ovaries with pelvic extension below pelvic brim. T3a: Ovarian cancer with microscopic extrapelvic (above the pelvic brim) peritoneal involvement with or without positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0... |
| C139973 | "Stage IIIA1 includes: T1/2, N1, M0. T1: Ovarian cancer with tumor limited to ovaries (one or both). T2: Ovarian cancer with tumor involving one or both ovaries with pelvic extension below pelvic brim. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139974 | "Stage IIIA2 includes: T3a, N0/N1, M0. T3a: Ovarian cancer with microscopic extrapelvic (above the pelvic brim) peritoneal involvement with or without positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139975 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0/N1, M0. T3b: Ovarian cancer with macroscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond pelvis 2 cm or less in greatest dimension with or without metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139976 | "Stage IIIC includes: T3c, N0/N1, M0. T3c: Ovarian cancer with macroscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond the pelvis more than 2 cm in greatest dimension with or without metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes (includes extension of tumor to capsule of liver and spleen without parenchymal involvement of either organ). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139977 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1: M1: Distant metastasis, including pleural effusion with positive cytology; liver or splenic parenchymal metastasis; metastasis to extra-abdominal organs (including inguinal lymph nodes and lymph nodes outside the abdominal cavity); and transmural involvement of intestine. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139978 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, Any N, M1a. M1a: Ovarian cancer with pleural effusion with positive cytology. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139979 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b. M1b: Ovarian cancer with liver or splenic parenchymal metastases; metastases to extra-abdominal organs (including inguinal lymph nodes and lymph nodes outside the abdominal cavity); transmural involvement of intestine. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139983 | "A term that refers to the staging of fallopian tube cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C139984 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor limited to fallopian tube(s). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139985 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor limited to fallopian tube surface; no malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139986 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor limited to fallopian tubes; no tumor on fallopian tube surface; no malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139987 | "Stage IC includes: T1c, N0, M0. T1c: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor limited to fallopian tubes, with any of the following: surgical spill, capsule ruptured before surgery or tumor on fallopian tube surface, or malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139988 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor involving fallopian tubes with pelvic extension below pelvic brim. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139989 | "Stage IIA includes: T2a, N0, M0. T2a: Fallopian tube cancer with extension and/or implants on the uterus and/or fallopian tube(s) and/or ovaries. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139990 | "Stage IIB includes: T2b, N0, M0. T2b: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor extension to and/or implants on other pelvic tissues. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139991 | "Stage III includes: IIIA1: T1/2, N1, M0; IIIA2: T3a, N0/N1, M0; IIIB: T3b, N0/N1, M0; IIIC: T3c, N0/N1, M0. T1: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor limited to fallopian tube(s). T2: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor involving fallopian tubes with pelvic extension below pelvic brim. T3a: Fallopian tube cancer with microscopic extrapelvic (above the pelvic brim) peritoneal involvement with or without positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. T3b: Fallopian tube cancer with macroscopic peritoneal meta... |
| C139992 | "Stage IIIA includes: IIIA1: T1/2, N1, M0; IIIA2: T3a, N0/N1, M0. T1: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor limited to fallopian tube(s). T2: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor involving fallopian tubes with pelvic extension below pelvic brim. T3a: Fallopian tube cancer with microscopic extrapelvic (above the pelvic brim) peritoneal involvement with or without positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically c... |
| C139993 | "Stage IIIA1 includes: T1/2, N1, M0. T1: T1: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor limited to fallopian tube(s). T2: Fallopian tube cancer with tumor involving fallopian tubes with pelvic extension below pelvic brim. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139994 | "Stage IIIA2 includes: T3a, N0/N1, M0. T3a: T3a: Fallopian tube cancer with microscopic extrapelvic (above the pelvic brim) peritoneal involvement with or without positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139995 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0/N1, M0. T3b: Fallopian tube cancer with macroscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond pelvis 2 cm or less in greatest dimension with or without metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139996 | "Stage IIIC includes: T3c, N0/N1, M0. T3c: Fallopian tube cancer with macroscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond the pelvis more than 2 cm in greatest dimension with or without metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes (includes extension of tumor to capsule of liver and spleen without parenchymal involvement of either organ). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139997 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1: M1: Distant metastasis, including pleural effusion with positive cytology; liver or splenic parenchymal metastasis; metastasis to extra-abdominal organs (including inguinal lymph nodes and lymph nodes outside the abdominal cavity); and transmural involvement of intestine. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139998 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, Any N, M1a. M1a: Fallopian tube cancer with pleural effusion with positive cytology. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C139999 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b. M1b: Fallopian tube cancer with liver or splenic parenchymal metastases; metastases to extra-abdominal organs (including inguinal lymph nodes and lymph nodes outside the abdominal cavity); transmural involvement of intestine. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140003 | "A term that refers to the staging of primary peritoneal cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C140004 | "A term that refers to the staging of primary peritoneal cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C140005 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Primary peritoneal cancer. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140006 | "Stage IIA includes: T2a, N0, M0. T2a: Primary peritoneal cancer with extension and/or implants on the uterus and/or fallopian tube(s) and/or ovaries. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140007 | "Stage IIB includes: T2b, N0, M0. T2b: Primary peritoneal cancer with tumor extension to and/or implants on other pelvic tissues. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140008 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: T3a, N0/N1, M0; IIIB: T3b, N0/N1, M0; IIIC: T3c, N0/N1, M0. T3a: Primary peritoneal cancer with microscopic extrapelvic (above the pelvic brim) peritoneal involvement with or without positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. T3b: Primary peritoneal cancer with macroscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond pelvis 2 cm or less in greatest dimension with or without metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes. T3c: Primary peritoneal cancer with macroscopic peritoneal metasta... |
| C140009 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0/N1, M0. T3a: Primary peritoneal cancer with microscopic extrapelvic (above the pelvic brim) peritoneal involvement with or without positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140010 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0/N1, M0. T3b: Primary peritoneal cancer with macroscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond pelvis 2 cm or less in greatest dimension with or without metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140011 | "Stage IIIC includes: T3c, N0/N1, M0. T3c: Primary peritoneal cancer with macroscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond the pelvis more than 2 cm in greatest dimension with or without metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes (includes extension of tumor to capsule of liver and spleen without parenchymal involvement of either organ). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only (histologically confirmed). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140012 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1: M1: Distant metastasis, including pleural effusion with positive cytology; liver or splenic parenchymal metastasis; metastasis to extra-abdominal organs (including inguinal lymph nodes and lymph nodes outside the abdominal cavity); and transmural involvement of intestine. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140013 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, Any N, M1a. M1a: Primary peritoneal cancer with pleural effusion with positive cytology. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140014 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b. M1b: Primary peritoneal cancer with liver or splenic parenchymal metastases; metastases to extra-abdominal organs (including inguinal lymph nodes and lymph nodes outside the abdominal cavity); transmural involvement of intestine. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140032 | "A term that refers to the staging of gestational trophoblastic tumor according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C140033 | "A term that refers to the staging of a gestational trophoblastic neoplasm according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This classification applies to the following neoplasms: invasive hydatidiform mole, gestational choriocarcinoma, placental site trophoblastic tumor, and epithelioid trophoblastic tumor. Complete and partial hydatidiform moles are not included in this classification. The current FIGO classification includes an anatomic stage designated by Roman numeral I... |
| C140034 | "Stage I includes: T1, M0. T1: Gestational trophoblastic neoplasm in which the tumor is confined to uterus. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140035 | "Stage II includes: T2, M0. T2: Gestational trophoblastic neoplasm in which the tumor extends to other genital structures (ovary, tube, vagina, broad ligaments) by metastasis or direct extension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140036 | "Stage III includes: Any T, M1a. M1a: Gestational trophoblastic neoplasm with lung metastasis. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140037 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, M1b. M1b: Gestational trophoblastic neoplasm with all other distant metastases. (AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140075 | "A term that refers to the staging of penile cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to penile squamous cell carcinoma and associated histologic subtypes. It does not apply to urethral carcinomas, sarcomas, and melanomas. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140076 | "Stage 0 includes: 0is: Tis, N0, M0; 0a: Ta, N0, M0. Tis: Penile cancer with a finding of carcinoma in situ (penile intraepithelial neoplasia [PeIN]). Ta: Penile cancer with a finding of noninvasive localized squamous cell carcinoma. N0: No lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140077 | "Stage 0is includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Penile cancer with a finding of carcinoma in situ (penile intraepithelial neoplasia [PeIN]). N0: No lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140078 | "Stage 0a includes: Ta, N0, M0. Ta: Penile cancer with a finding of noninvasive localized squamous cell carcinoma. N0: No lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140079 | "Stage I includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Penile cancer with tumor without lymphovascular invasion or perineural invasion and is not high grade (i.e., grade 3 or sarcomatoid). N0: No lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140080 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0); IIB: (T3, N0, M0). T1b: Penile cancer with tumor exhibiting lymphovascular invasion and/or perineural invasion or is high grade (i.e., grade 3 or sarcomatoid). T2: Penile cancer with tumor invading into corpus spongiosum (either glans or ventral shaft) with or without urethral invasion. T3: Penile cancer with tumor invading into corpora cavernosum (including tunica albuginea) with or without urethral invasion. N0: No lymph node metastasis... |
| C140081 | "Stage IIA includes: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1b: Penile cancer with tumor exhibiting lymphovascular invasion and/or perineural invasion or is high grade (i.e., grade 3 or sarcomatoid). T2: Penile cancer with tumor invading into corpus spongiosum (either glans or ventral shaft) with or without urethral invasion. N0: No lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140083 | "Stage IIB includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Penile cancer with tumor invading into corpora cavernosum (including tunica albuginea) with or without urethral invasion. N0: No lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140084 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: T1-3, N1, M0; IIIB: T1-3, N2, M0. T1: Glans: Penile cancer with tumor invading lamina propria. Foreskin: Penile cancer with tumor invading dermis, lamina propria, or dartos fascia. Shaft: Penile cancer with tumor invading connective tissue between epidermis and corpora regardless of location. All sites with or without lymphovascular invasion or perineural invasion and is or is not high grade. T2: Penile cancer with tumor invading into corpus spongiosum (either glan... |
| C140085 | "Stage IIIA includes: T1-3, N1, M0. T1: Glans: Penile cancer with tumor invading lamina propria. Foreskin: Penile cancer with tumor invading dermis, lamina propria, or dartos fascia. Shaft: Penile cancer with tumor invading connective tissue between epidermis and corpora regardless of location. All sites with or without lymphovascular invasion or perineural invasion and is or is not high grade. T2: Penile cancer with tumor invading into corpus spongiosum (either glans or ventral shaft) with ... |
| C140086 | "Stage IIIB includes: T1-3, N2, M0. T1: Glans: Penile cancer with tumor invading lamina propria. Foreskin: Penile cancer with tumor invading dermis, lamina propria, or dartos fascia. Shaft: Penile cancer with tumor invading connective tissue between epidermis and corpora regardless of location. All sites with or without lymphovascular invasion or perineural invasion and is or is not high grade. T2: Penile cancer with tumor invading into corpus spongiosum (either glans or ventral shaft) with ... |
| C140087 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Penile cancer with tumor invading into adjacent structures (i.e., scrotum, prostate, pubic bone). N3: Penile cancer with extranodal extension of lymph node metastases or pelvic lymph node metastases. M1: Distant metastasis present. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140091 | An indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma which has undergone histologic transformation to an aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma and has become resistant to treatment. |
| C140163 | "A term that refers to the staging of prostate cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to adenocarcinomas and squamous cell carcinomas of the prostate gland. It does not apply to sarcomas, urothelial cell carcinomas, and urothelial carcinoma of bladder involving prostate. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140164 | "Stage I includes: (cT1a-c, cT2a, N0, M0, PSA less than 10, Grade Group 1); (pT2, N0, M0, PSA less than 10, Grade Group 1). cT1a: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is an incidental histologic finding in 5% or less of tissue resected. cT1b: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is an incidental histologic finding in more than 5% of tissue resected. cT1c: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is identified by needle biopsy found in one or both sides, but not palpable. cT2a: Prostate cancer in which... |
| C140165 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (cT1a-c, cT2a, N0, M0, PSA equal or more than 10 and less than 20, Grade Group 1); (cT2b-c, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Grade Group 1); IIB: T1-2, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Grade Group 2; IIC: (T1-2, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Grade Group 3); (T1-2, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Grade Group 4). cT1a: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is an incidental histologic finding in 5% or less of tissue resected. cT1b: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is an incidental histologic fi... |
| C140166 | "Stage IIA includes: (cT1a-c, cT2a, N0, M0, PSA equal or more than 10 and less than 20, Grade Group 1); (cT2b-c, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Grade Group 1). cT1a: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is an incidental histologic finding in 5% or less of tissue resected. cT1b: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is an incidental histologic finding in more than 5% of tissue resected. cT1c: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is identified by needle biopsy found in one or both sides, but not palpable.... |
| C140167 | "Stage IIB includes: T1-2, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Grade Group 2. T1: Prostate cancer with clinically inapparent tumor that is not palpable. T2: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is palpable and confined within the prostate. N0: Prostate cancer with no positive regional nodes. M0: Prostate cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. Grade Group 2: Gleason Score 7, Gleason Pattern 3+4. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140168 | "Stage IIC includes: (T1-2, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Grade Group 3); (T1-2, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Grade Group 4). T1: Prostate cancer with clinically inapparent tumor that is not palpable. T2: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is palpable and confined within the prostate. N0: Prostate cancer with no positive regional nodes. M0: Prostate cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. Grade Group 3: Gleason Score 7, Gleason Pattern 4+3. Grade Group 4: Gleason Score 8, Gleason Pattern 4+4... |
| C140169 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: T1-2, N0, M0, PSA 20 or more, Grade Group 1-4; IIIB: T3-4, N0, M0, PSA: Any, Grade Group 1-4; IIIC: Any T, N0, M0, PSA: Any, Grade Group 5. T1: Prostate cancer with clinically inapparent tumor that is not palpable. T2: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is palpable and confined within the prostate. T3: Prostate cancer with extraprostatic tumor that is not fixed or does not invade adjacent structures. T4: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is fixed or invades adjace... |
| C140170 | "Stage IIIA includes: T1-2, N0, M0, PSA 20 or more, Grade Group 1-4; T1: Prostate cancer with clinically inapparent tumor that is not palpable. T2: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is palpable and confined within the prostate. N0: Prostate cancer with no positive regional nodes. M0: Prostate cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. Grade Group 1: Gleason Score 6 or less, Gleason Pattern 3 or less+3. Grade Group 2: Gleason Score 7, Gleason Pattern 3+4. Grade Group 3: Gleason Score 7, ... |
| C140171 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3-4, N0, M0, PSA: Any, Grade Group 1-4; T3: Prostate cancer with extraprostatic tumor that is not fixed or does not invade adjacent structures. T4: Prostate cancer in which the tumor is fixed or invades adjacent structures other than seminal vesicles such as external sphincter, rectum, bladder, levator muscles, and/or pelvic wall. N0: Prostate cancer with no positive regional nodes. M0: Prostate cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. Grade Group 1: Gleason Scor... |
| C140172 | "Stage IIIC includes: Any T, N0, M0, PSA: Any, Grade Group 5. N0: Prostate cancer with no positive regional nodes. M0: Prostate cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. Grade Group 5: Gleason Score 9 or 10, Gleason Pattern 4+5, or 5+4, or 5+5. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140173 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: Any T, N1, M0, PSA: Any, Grade Group: Any; IVB: Any T, N0, M1, PSA: Any, Grade Group: Any. N0: Prostate cancer with no positive regional nodes. N1: Prostate cancer with metastases in regional node(s). M0: Prostate cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. M1: Prostate cancer with distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140174 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, N1, M0, PSA: Any, Grade Group: Any. N1: Prostate cancer with metastases in regional node(s). M0: Prostate cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140175 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, N0, M1, PSA: Any, Grade Group: Any. N0: Prostate cancer with no positive regional nodes. M1: Prostate cancer with distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140225 | "A term that refers to the staging of testicular cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to postpubertal germ cell tumors of the testis and malignant sex cord-stromal tumors of the testis. It does not apply to spermatocytic tumors (no AJCC staging system), nonmalignant sex cord-/gonadal -stromal tumors (no AJCC staging system), prepubertal germ cell tumors (no AJCC staging system), hematolymphoid tumors (hematologic malignancies st... |
| C140226 | "Stage 0 includes: pTis, N0, M0, S0. pTis: Testicular cancer with a finding of germ cell neoplasia in situ. N0: Testicular cancer with no regional lymph node metastasis. M0: Testicular cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140227 | "Stage I includes: pT1-T4, N0, M0, SX. pT1: Testicular cancer which is limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) without lymphovascular invasion. pT2: Testicular cancer which is limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) with lymphovascular invasion or invades hilar soft tissue or epididymis or penetrates visceral mesothelial layer covering the external surface of tunica albuginea with or without lymphovascular invasion. pT3: Testicular cancer in which the tumor invades sper... |
| C140228 | "Stage IA includes: pT1, N0, M0, S0. pT1: Testicular cancer which is limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) without lymphovascular invasion. N0: Testicular cancer with no regional lymph node metastasis. M0: Testicular cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140229 | "Stage IB includes: (pT2, N0, M0, S0); (pT3, N0, M0, S0); (pT4, N0, M0, S0). pT2: Testicular cancer which is limited to testis (including rete testis invasion) with lymphovascular invasion or invades hilar soft tissue or epididymis or penetrates visceral mesothelial layer covering the external surface of tunica albuginea with or without lymphovascular invasion. pT3: Testicular cancer in which the tumor invades spermatic cord with or without lymphovascular invasion. pT4: Testicular cancer in ... |
| C140232 | "Stage IS includes: Any pT/TX, N0, M0, S1-3. TX: Testicular cancer in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. N0: Testicular cancer with no regional lymph node metastasis. M0: Testicular cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. S1: LDH less than 1.5 x N and hCG (mlU/mL) less than 5,000 and AFP (ng/mL) less than 1,000. S2: LDH 1.5-10 x N or hCG (mlU/mL) 5,000-50,000 or AFP (ng/mL) 1,000-10,000. S3: LDH more than 10 x N or hCG (mlU/mL) more than 50,000 or AFP (ng/mL) more than 10,000... |
| C140233 | "Stage II includes: Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, SX. TX: Testicular cancer in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. N1: Testicular cancer with metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension and less than or equal to five nodes positive, none larger than 2 cm in greatest dimension. N2: Testicular cancer with metastasis with a lymph node mass larger than 2 cm but not larger than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or more than five nodes positive, none larger than 5 cm; or evide... |
| C140234 | "Stage IIA includes: (Any pT/TX, N1, M0, S0); (Any pT/TX, N1, M0, S1). TX: Testicular cancer in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. N1: Testicular cancer with metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension and less than or equal to five nodes positive, none larger than 2 cm in greatest dimension. M0: Testicular cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. S1: LDH less than 1.5 x N and hCG (mlU/mL) less than 5,00... |
| C140235 | "Stage IIB includes: (Any pT/TX, N2, M0, S0); (Any pT/TX, N2, M0, S1). TX: Testicular cancer in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. N2: Testicular cancer with metastasis with a lymph node mass larger than 2 cm but not larger than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or more than five nodes positive, none larger than 5 cm; or evidence of extranodal extension of tumor. M0: Testicular cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. S1: LDH less than 1... |
| C140236 | "Stage IIC includes: (Any pT/TX, N3, M0, S0); (Any pT/TX, N3, M0, S1). TX: Testicular cancer in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. N3: Testicular cancer with metastasis with a lymph node mass larger than 5 cm in greatest dimension. M0: Testicular cancer without evidence of distant metastasis. S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. S1: LDH less than 1.5 x N and hCG (mlU/mL) less than 5,000 and AFP (ng/mL) less than 1,000. N indicates the upper limit of normal for the LDH assay... |
| C140237 | "Stage III includes: Any pT/TX, Any N, M1, SX. TX: Testicular cancer in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. M1: Testicular cancer with distant metastasis. SX: Marker studies not available or not performed. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140238 | "Stage IIIA includes: (Any pT/TX, Any N, M1a, S0); (Any pT/TX, Any N, M1a, S1). TX: Testicular cancer in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. M1a: Testicular cancer with non-retroperitoneal nodal or pulmonary metastases. S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. S1: LDH less than 1.5 x N and hCG (mlU/mL) less than 5,000 and AFP (ng/mL) less than 1,000. N indicates the upper limit of normal for the LDH assay. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140239 | "Stage IIIB includes: (Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, S2); (Any pT/TX, Any N, M1a, S2). TX: Testicular cancer in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. N1: Testicular cancer with metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension and less than or equal to five nodes positive, none larger than 2 cm in greatest dimension. N2: Testicular cancer with metastasis with a lymph node mass larger than 2 cm but not larger than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or more than five nodes positive... |
| C140240 | "Stage IIIC includes: (Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, S3); (Any pT/TX, Any N, M1a, S3); (Any pT/TX, Any N, M1b, Any S). TX: Testicular cancer in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. N1: Testicular cancer with metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or smaller in greatest dimension and less than or equal to five nodes positive, none larger than 2 cm in greatest dimension. N2: Testicular cancer with metastasis with a lymph node mass larger than 2 cm but not larger than 5 cm in greatest dimension; ... |
| C140241 | "A term that refers to the staging of testicular cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th and 7th editions." |
| C140264 | Macular dystrophy that is related to a change in a gene. |
| C140267 | Spastic paraplegia that is transmitted from parent to child. |
| C140268 | Cerebellar ataxia that is transmitted from parent to child. |
| C140322 | "A term that refers to the staging of kidney cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to carcinomas arising in the kidney. It does not apply to urothelial carcinomas (are staged according to the classification for renal pelvis and ureter), lymphomas (are staged according to the classification for Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma), sarcomas (are staged according to the classification for soft tissue sarcoma of the abdomen and thoraci... |
| C140323 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 7 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the kidney. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140324 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor measuring more than 7 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the kidney. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140325 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 7 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the kidney. T2: Tumor measuring more than 7 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the kidney. T3: Tumor extending into major veins or perinephric tissues, but not into the ipsilateral adrenal gland and not beyond Gerota's fascia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140326 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, Any N, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Tumor invading beyond Gerota's fascia (including contiguous extension into the ipsilateral adrenal gland). M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140328 | A non-functioning neuroendocrine tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C140329 | "A non-functioning, well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site." |
| C140355 | "A term that refers to the staging of renal pelvis and ureter cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to renal pelvis and ureter urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, including histologic variants micropapillary and nested subtypes. It does not apply to renal cell carcinomas (are staged according to the classification for kidney), renal medullary carcinomas (are staged according to the classification for kidney), collecting duc... |
| C140356 | "A term that refers to the staging of renal pelvis cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to renal pelvis urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, including histologic variants micropapillary and nested subtypes. It does not apply to renal cell carcinomas (are staged according to the classification for kidney), renal medullary carcinomas (are staged according to the classification for kidney), collecting duct carcinomas (are stag... |
| C140357 | "A term that refers to the staging of ureter cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to ureter urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, including histologic variants micropapillary and nested subtypes. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140358 | "Stage 0a includes: Ta, N0, M0. Ta: Papillary noninvasive carcinoma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140359 | "Stage 0a includes: Ta, N0, M0. Ta: Papillary noninvasive carcinoma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140360 | "Stage 0a includes: Ta, N0, M0. Ta: Papillary noninvasive carcinoma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140361 | "Stage 0is includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140362 | "Stage 0is includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140363 | "Stage 0is includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140364 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140365 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140366 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140367 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140368 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140369 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140370 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: For renal pelvis only: Tumor invades beyond muscularis into peripelvic fat or into the renal parenchyma. For ureter only: Tumor invades beyond muscularis into periureteric fat. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140371 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades beyond muscularis into peripelvic fat or into the renal parenchyma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140372 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades beyond muscularis into periureteric fat. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140373 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Tumor invades adjacent organs, or through the kidney into the perinephric fat. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in a single lymph node, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N2: Metastasis in a single lymph node, more than 2 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140374 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Tumor invades adjacent organs, or through the kidney into the perinephric fat. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in a single lymph node, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N2: Metastasis in a single lymph node, more than 2 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140375 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Tumor invades adjacent organs, or through the kidney into the perinephric fat. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in a single lymph node, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N2: Metastasis in a single lymph node, more than 2 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140376 | "A term that refers to the staging of renal pelvis and ureter cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C140377 | "A term that refers to the staging of renal pelvis cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C140378 | "A term that refers to the staging of ureter cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C140416 | "A term that refers to the staging of bladder cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to carcinomas arising in the bladder. The typical carcinoma of the bladder is urothelial carcinoma. These carcinomas may include other histologic elements, including adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma, but should be classified as urothelial unless the cancer is composed entirely of the alternative hist... |
| C140417 | "Stage 0a includes: Ta, N0, M0. Ta: Non-invasive papillary carcinoma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140418 | "Stage 0is includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Urothelial carcinoma in situ: ""flat tumor"". N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140419 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria (subepithelial connective tissue). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140420 | "Stage II includes: (T2a, N0, M0); (T2b, N0, M0). T2a: Tumor invades superficial muscularis propria (inner half). T2b: Tumor invades deep muscularis propria (outer half). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140421 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3a, T3b, T4a, N0, M0); (T1-T4a, N1, M0); IIIB: (T1-T4a, N2, N3, M0). T1: Tumor invades lamina propria (subepithelial connective tissue). T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades perivesical soft tissue. T3a: Tumor invades perivesical soft tissue, microscopically. T3b: Tumor invades perivesical soft tissue, macroscopically (extravesical mass). T4a: Extravesical tumor invades directly into prostatic stroma, uterus, vagina. N0: No regional lymph node ... |
| C140422 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T3a, T3b, T4a, N0, M0); (T1-T4a, N1, M0). T1: Tumor invades lamina propria (subepithelial connective tissue). T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades perivesical soft tissue. T3a: Tumor invades perivesical soft tissue, microscopically. T3b: Tumor invades perivesical soft tissue, macroscopically (extravesical mass). T4a: Extravesical tumor invades directly into prostatic stroma, uterus, vagina. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Single regional l... |
| C140423 | "Stage IIIB includes: T1-T4a, N2, N3, M0. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria (subepithelial connective tissue). T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades perivesical soft tissue. T4a: Extravesical tumor invades directly into prostatic stroma, uterus, vagina. N2: Multiple regional lymph node metastasis in the true pelvis (perivesical, obturator, internal and external iliac, or sacral lymph node metastasis). N3: Lymph node metastasis to the common iliac lymph nodes. M0: No distant ... |
| C140424 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4b, N0, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1a); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1b). T4b: Extravesical tumor invades pelvic wall, abdominal wall. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. M1a: Distant metastasis limited to lymph nodes beyond the common iliacs. M1b: Non-lymph node distant metastases. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140425 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4b, N0, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1a). T4b: Extravesical tumor invades pelvic wall, abdominal wall. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. M1a: Distant metastasis limited to lymph nodes beyond the common iliacs. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140426 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b. M1b: Non-lymph node distant metastases. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140457 | "A term that refers to the staging of urethral cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to urothelial (transitional cell), squamous, and glandular carcinomas of the urethra and to urothelial (transitional cell) carcinomas of the prostate and prostatic urethra. It does not apply to squamous cell carcinomas of the penile foreskin (are staged according to the classification for penis), primary urothelial carcinomas of the bladder with ... |
| C140458 | "Stage 0a includes: Ta, N0, M0. Ta: For male penile urethra and female urethra: Non-invasive papillary carcinoma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140459 | "Stage 0is includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: For male penile urethra and female urethra: Carcinoma in situ. For prostatic urethra: Carcinoma in situ involving the prostatic urethra or periurethral or prostatic ducts without stromal invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140460 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: For male penile urethra and female urethra: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. For prostatic urethra: Tumor invades urethral subepithelial connective tissue immediately underlying the urothelium. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140461 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: For male penile urethra and female urethra: Tumor invades any of the following: corpus spongiosum, periurethral muscle. For prostatic urethra: Tumor invades the prostatic stroma surrounding ducts either by direct extension from the urothelial surface or by invasion from prostatic ducts. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140462 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T1: For male penile urethra and female urethra: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. For prostatic urethra: Tumor invades urethral subepithelial connective tissue immediately underlying the urothelium. T2: For male penile urethra and female urethra: Tumor invades any of the following: corpus spongiosum, periurethral muscle. For prostatic urethra: Tumor invades the prostatic stroma surrounding ducts either ... |
| C140463 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: For male penile urethra and female urethra: Tumor invades other adjacent organs (e.g., invasion of the bladder wall). For prostatic urethra: Tumor invades other adjacent organs (e.g., extraprostatic invasion of the bladder wall, rectal wall). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Single regional lymph node metastasis in the inguinal region or true pelvis [perivesical, obturator, internal (hypogastri... |
| C140464 | "A term that refers to the staging of urethral cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C140511 | "A term that refers to the staging of eyelid carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C140513 | "A term that refers to the staging of eyelid carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system applies to all primary carcinomas of the eyelid, including basal cell carcinoma (BCC), squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), sebaceous carcinoma, and other rare carcinomas, such as all varieties of sweat gland carcinoma (e.g., eccrine carcinoma). It does not apply to carcinomas of the head and neck with direct extension to eyelid (are staged according to the c... |
| C140515 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No evidence of lymph node involvement. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140516 | "Stage I includes: IA: T1, N0, M0; IB: T2a, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 10 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2a: Tumor measuring more than 10 mm but 20 mm or less in greatest dimension without invasion of the tarsal plate or eyelid margin. N0: No evidence of lymph node involvement. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140517 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 10 mm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No evidence of lymph node involvement. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140518 | "Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0. T2a: Tumor measuring more than 10 mm but 20 mm or less in greatest dimension without invasion of the tarsal plate or eyelid margin. N0: No evidence of lymph node involvement. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140519 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T2b-c, T3, N0, M0; IIB: T4, N0, M0. T2b: Tumor measuring more than 10 mm but 20 mm or less in greatest dimension with invasion of the tarsal plate or eyelid margin. T2c: Tumor measuring more than 10 mm but 20 mm or less in greatest dimension involving the full thickness of the eyelid. T3: Tumor measuring more than 20 mm but 30 mm or less in greatest dimension. T4: Any eyelid carcinoma invading adjacent ocular, orbital, or facial structures. N0: No evidence of lymph n... |
| C140520 | "Stage IIA includes: T2b-c, T3, N0, M0: T2b: Tumor measuring more than 10 mm but 20 mm or less in greatest dimension with invasion of the tarsal plate or eyelid margin. T2c: Tumor measuring more than 10 mm but 20 mm or less in greatest dimension involving the full thickness of the eyelid. T3: Tumor measuring more than 20 mm but 30 mm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No evidence of lymph node involvement. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140521 | "Stage IIB includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Any eyelid carcinoma invading adjacent ocular, orbital, or facial structures. N0: No evidence of lymph node involvement. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140522 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: Any T, N1, M0; IIIB: Any T, N2, M0. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral regional lymph node, measuring 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral regional lymph node, measuring more than 3 cm in greatest dimension, or in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140523 | "Stage IIIA includes: Any T, N1, M0. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral regional lymph node, measuring 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140524 | "Stage IIIB includes: Any T, N2, M0. N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral regional lymph node, measuring more than 3 cm in greatest dimension, or in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140525 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140659 | "A term that refers to the staging of choroidal and ciliary body melanoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C140660 | "Stage I includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140661 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1b-d, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0); IIB (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0).  T1b: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement.  T1c: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter.  T1d: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T2a: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular... |
| C140662 | "Stage IIA includes: (T1b-d, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0).  T1b: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement.  T1c: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter.  T1d: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T2a: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. N0: No regional lymph nod... |
| C140663 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0).  T2b: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement. T3a: Tumor size category 3 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140664 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T2c-d, N0, M0); (T3b-c, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); IIIB (T3d, N0, M0); (T4b-c, N0, M0); IIIC: (T4d-e, N0, M0). T2c: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T2d: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T3b: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement. T3c: Tumor size category 3 withou... |
| C140665 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T2c-d, N0, M0); (T3b-c, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0). T2c: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T2d: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T3b: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement. T3c: Tumor size category 3 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less t... |
| C140666 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3d, N0, M0); (T4b-c, N0, M0). T3d: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter.  T4b: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement. T4c: Tumor size category 4 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140667 | "Stage IIIC includes: T4d-e, N0, M0. T4d: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in largest diameter. T4e: Any tumor size category with extraocular extension more than 5 mm in largest diameter. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140668 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1a-c). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis or discrete tumor deposits in the orbit. M0: No distant metastasis. M1a: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 3 cm or less. M1b: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 3.1-8.0 cm. M1c: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 8.1 cm or more.  (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C140671 | A neuroblastoma that is worsening in terms of extent or severity. |
| C140672 | "A term that refers to the staging of uveal melanoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C140750 | "A term that refers to the staging of retinoblastoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition. This staging system does not apply to central nervous system component of ""trilateral retinoblastoma"" (is staged according to the classification for brain and spinal cord), retinoma (or retinocytoma) (no AJCC staging system), and medulloepithelioma (no AJCC staging system). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140751 | "A term that refers to the clinical staging of retinoblastoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C140752 | "Stage I includes: cT1, cT2, cT3, cN0, cM0, Any H. cT1: Intraretinal tumor(s) with subretinal fluid 5 mm or less from the base of any tumor. cT2: Intraocular tumor(s) with retinal detachment, vitreous seeding, or subretinal seeding. cT3: Advanced intraocular tumor(s). cN0: No regional lymph node involvement. cM0: No signs or symptoms of intracranial or distant metastasis. HX: Unknown or insufficient evidence of a constitutional RB1 gene mutation. H0: Normal RB1 alleles in blood tested with d... |
| C140753 | "Stage II includes: cT4a, cN0, cM0, Any H. cT4a: Radiologic evidence of retrobulbar optic nerve involvement or thickening of optic nerve or involvement of orbital tissues. cN0: No regional lymph node involvement. cM0: No signs or symptoms of intracranial or distant metastasis. HX: Unknown or insufficient evidence of a constitutional RB1 gene mutation. H0: Normal RB1 alleles in blood tested with demonstrated high-sensitivity assays. H1: Bilateral retinoblastoma, retinoblastoma with an intracr... |
| C140754 | "Stage III includes: (cT4b, cN0, cM0, Any H); (Any cT, cN1, cM0, Any H). cT4b: Extraocular tumor clinically evident with proptosis and/or an orbital mass. cN0: No regional lymph node involvement. cN1: Evidence of preauricular, submandibular, and cervical lymph node involvement. cM0: No signs or symptoms of intracranial or distant metastasis. HX: Unknown or insufficient evidence of a constitutional RB1 gene mutation. H0: Normal RB1 alleles in blood tested with demonstrated high-sensitivity as... |
| C140755 | "Stage IV includes: Any cT, Any N, cM1 or pM1, Any H. cM1: Distant metastasis without microscopic confirmation. pM1: Distant metastasis with microscopic confirmation. HX: Unknown or insufficient evidence of a constitutional RB1 gene mutation. H0: Normal RB1 alleles in blood tested with demonstrated high-sensitivity assays. H1: Bilateral retinoblastoma, retinoblastoma with an intracranial primitive neuroectodermal tumor (i.e., trilateral retinoblastoma), patient with family history of retinob... |
| C140756 | "A term that refers to the pathologic staging of retinoblastoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 8th edition." |
| C140757 | "Stage I includes: pT1, pT2, pT3, pN0, cM0, Any H. pT1: Intraocular tumor(s) without any local invasion, focal choroidal invasion, or pre-or intralaminar involvement of the optic nerve head. pT2: Intraocular tumor(s) with local invasion. pT3: Intraocular tumor(s) with significant local invasion. pN0: No lymph node involvement. cM0: No signs or symptoms of intracranial or distant metastasis. HX: Unknown or insufficient evidence of a constitutional RB1 gene mutation. H0: Normal RB1 alleles in ... |
| C140758 | "Stage II includes: pT4, pN0, cM0, Any H. pT4: Evidence of extraocular tumor: tumor at the transected end of the optic nerve, tumor in the meningeal spaces around the optic nerve, full-thickness invasion of the sclera with invasion of the episclera, adjacent adipose tissue, extraocular muscle, bone, conjunctiva, or eyelids. pN0: No lymph node involvement. cM0: No signs or symptoms of intracranial or distant metastasis. HX: Unknown or insufficient evidence of a constitutional RB1 gene mutatio... |
| C140759 | "Stage III includes: Any pT, pN1, cM0, Any H. pN1: Regional lymph node involvement. cM0: No signs or symptoms of intracranial or distant metastasis. HX: Unknown or insufficient evidence of a constitutional RB1 gene mutation. H0: Normal RB1 alleles in blood tested with demonstrated high-sensitivity assays. H1: Bilateral retinoblastoma, retinoblastoma with an intracranial primitive neuroectodermal tumor (i.e., trilateral retinoblastoma), patient with family history of retinoblastoma, or molecu... |
| C140760 | "Stage IV includes: Any pT, Any N, cM1 or pM1, Any H. cM1: Distant metastasis without microscopic confirmation. pM1: Distant metastasis with microscopic confirmation. HX: Unknown or insufficient evidence of a constitutional RB1 gene mutation. H0: Normal RB1 alleles in blood tested with demonstrated high-sensitivity assays. H1: Bilateral retinoblastoma, retinoblastoma with an intracranial primitive neuroectodermal tumor (i.e., trilateral retinoblastoma), patient with family history of retinob... |
| C140958 | "A term that refers to the staging of follicular thyroid gland carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C140959 | "A term that refers to the staging of differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C140960 | "A term that refers to the staging of papillary thyroid gland carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C140965 | "A term that refers to the staging of differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C140966 | "Stage I includes: Under 55 years: Any T, Any N, M0. 55 years and older: (T1, N0/NX, M0); (T2, N0/NX, M0).  T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. N0: No evidence of locoregional lymph node metastasis. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140967 | "Stage I includes: Any T, Any N, M0. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140968 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0/NX, M0); (T2, N0/NX, M0).  T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. N0: No evidence of locoregional lymph node metastasis. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140969 | "Stage II includes: Under 55 years: Any T, Any N, M1; 55 years and older: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3a/T3b, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading only strap muscles (sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid, or omohy... |
| C140970 | "Stage II includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140971 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3a/T3b, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading only strap muscles (sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid, or omohyoid muscles) from a tumor of any size. N1: Metastasis ... |
| C140972 | "Stage III includes: 55 years and older: T4a, Any N, M0. T4a: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus, or recurrent laryngeal nerve from a tumor of any size. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140973 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: 55 years and older: T4b, Any N, M0; IVB: 55 years and older: Any T, Any N, M1. T4b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading prevertebral fascia or encasing the carotid artery or mediastinal vessels from a tumor of any size. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140974 | "Stage IVA includes: 55 years and older: T4b, Any N, M0. T4b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading prevertebral fascia or encasing the carotid artery or mediastinal vessels from a tumor of any size. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140975 | "Stage IVB includes: 55 years and older: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140976 | "A term that refers to the staging of papillary thyroid gland carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C140977 | "Stage I includes: Under 55 years: Any T, Any N, M0. 55 years and older: (T1, N0/NX, M0); (T2, N0/NX, M0).  T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. N0: No evidence of locoregional lymph node metastasis. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140978 | "Stage I includes: Any T, Any N, M0. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140979 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0/NX, M0); (T2, N0/NX, M0).  T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. N0: No evidence of locoregional lymph node metastasis. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140980 | "Stage II includes: Under 55 years: Any T, Any N, M1; 55 years and older: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3a/T3b, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading only strap muscles (sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid, or omohy... |
| C140981 | "Stage II includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140982 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3a/T3b, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading only strap muscles (sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid, or omohyoid muscles) from a tumor of any size. N1: Metastasis ... |
| C140983 | "Stage III includes: 55 years and older: T4a, Any N, M0. T4a: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus, or recurrent laryngeal nerve from a tumor of any size. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140984 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: 55 years and older: T4b, Any N, M0; IVB: 55 years and older: Any T, Any N, M1. T4b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading prevertebral fascia or encasing the carotid artery or mediastinal vessels from a tumor of any size. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140985 | "Stage IVA includes: 55 years and older: T4b, Any N, M0. T4b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading prevertebral fascia or encasing the carotid artery or mediastinal vessels from a tumor of any size. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140986 | "Stage IVB includes: 55 years and older: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140987 | "A term that refers to the staging of follicular thyroid gland carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C140988 | "Stage I includes: Under 55 years: Any T, Any N, M0. 55 years and older: (T1, N0/NX, M0); (T2, N0/NX, M0).  T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. N0: No evidence of locoregional lymph node metastasis. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140989 | "Stage I includes: Any T, Any N, M0. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140990 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0/NX, M0); (T2, N0/NX, M0).  T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. N0: No evidence of locoregional lymph node metastasis. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140991 | "Stage II includes: Under 55 years: Any T, Any N, M1; 55 years and older: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3a/T3b, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading only strap muscles (sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid, or omohy... |
| C140992 | "Stage II includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140993 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3a/T3b, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading only strap muscles (sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid, or omohyoid muscles) from a tumor of any size. N1: Metastasis ... |
| C140995 | "Stage III includes: 55 years and older: T4a, Any N, M0. T4a: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus, or recurrent laryngeal nerve from a tumor of any size. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140996 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: 55 years and older: T4b, Any N, M0; IVB: 55 years and older: Any T, Any N, M1. T4b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading prevertebral fascia or encasing the carotid artery or mediastinal vessels from a tumor of any size. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140997 | "Stage IVA includes: 55 years and older: T4b, Any N, M0. T4b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading prevertebral fascia or encasing the carotid artery or mediastinal vessels from a tumor of any size. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140998 | "Stage IVB includes: 55 years and older: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C140999 | "A term that refers to the staging of thyroid gland anaplastic carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C141000 | "A term that refers to the staging of thyroid gland anaplastic carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system." |
| C141001 | "Stage IVA includes: T1-T3a, N0/NX, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. N0: No evidence of locoregional lymph node metastasis. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141003 | "Stage IVB includes: (T1-T3a, N1, M0); (T3b, Any N, M0); (T4, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but 4 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3a: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3b: Gross extrathyroidal extension invading only strap muscles (sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid, or omohyoid muscles) from a tumor of any size. T4: Tumor o... |
| C141004 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141041 | "A term that refers to the staging of thyroid gland medullary carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C141042 | "A term that refers to the staging of thyroid gland medullary carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. Differentiated and anaplastic thyroid gland carcinomas are staged according to the classification for thyroid-differentiated and anaplastic carcinoma. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141043 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. N0: No evidence of locoregional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141044 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but less than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3: Tumor measuring 4 cm or more in greatest dimension or with extrathyroidal extension. N0: No evidence of locoregional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141045 | "Stage III includes: T1-3, N1a, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but less than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3: Tumor measuring 4 cm or more in greatest dimension or with extrathyroidal extension. N1a: Metastasis to level VI or VII (pretracheal, paratracheal, or prelaryngeal/Delphian, or upper mediastinal) lymph nodes. This can be unilateral or bilateral disease. M0: No distant metastas... |
| C141046 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, Any N, M0); (T1-3, N1b, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but less than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3: Tumor measuring 4 cm or more in greatest dimension or with extrathyroidal extension. T4a: Moderately advanced disease; tumor of any size with gross extrathyroidal extension into the nearby tissues of the n... |
| C141047 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, Any N, M0); (T1-3, N1b, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but less than 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to the thyroid. T3: Tumor measuring 4 cm or more in greatest dimension or with extrathyroidal extension. T4a: Moderately advanced disease; tumor of any size with gross extrathyroidal extension into the nearby tissues of the neck, including subcutaneous soft tissue, larynx, tra... |
| C141048 | "Stage IVB includes: T4b, Any N, M0. T4b: Very advanced disease; tumor of any size with extension towards the spine or into nearby large blood vessels, invading the prevertebral fascia, or encasing the carotid artery or mediastinal vessels. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141049 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141076 | Lung carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C141077 | The reemergence of extensive stage lung small cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C141078 | Extensive stage small cell lung carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C141098 | "A term that refers to the staging of adrenal cortical carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C141100 | "A term that refers to the staging of adrenal cortical carcinoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. Adrenal medullary pheochromocytoma is staged according to the classification for adrenal neuroendocrine tumors. There is no AJCC staging system for neuroblastic tumors of the adrenal gland. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141101 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 5 cm or less in greatest dimension, with no extra-adrenal invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141102 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, with no extra-adrenal invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141103 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, Any N, M0); (T4, Any N, M0). T1: Tumor measuring 5 cm or less in greatest dimension, with no extra-adrenal invasion. T2: Tumor measuring more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, with no extra-adrenal invasion. T3: Tumor of any size with local invasion but not invading adjacent organs. T4: Tumor of any size that invades adjacent organs (kidney, diaphragm, pancreas, spleen, or liver) or large blood vessels (renal vein or vena cava). N1: Metast... |
| C141104 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141128 | "A term that refers to the staging of adrenal gland pheochromocytoma and sympathetic paraganglioma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. Parasympathetic paragangliomas are not staged because they are largely benign. This staging system does not apply to neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas (are staged according to the classification for neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas) and carotid body tumors (not staged). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141129 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Pheochromocytoma measuring less than 5 cm in greatest dimension, with no extra-adrenal invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141130 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Pheochromocytoma measuring 5 cm or more in greatest dimension or paraganglioma-sympathetic of any size, with no extra-adrenal invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141131 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, Any N, M0). T1: Pheochromocytoma measuring less than 5 cm in greatest dimension, with no extra-adrenal invasion. T2: Pheochromocytoma measuring 5 cm or more in greatest dimension or paraganglioma-sympathetic of any size, with no extra-adrenal invasion. T3: Tumor of any size with invasion into surrounding tissues (e.g., liver, pancreas, spleen, kidneys). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141132 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141139 | An anatomic stage for Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas  based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141140 | An anatomic stage for non-Hodgkin lymphomas based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141141 | An anatomic stage for Hodgkin lymphomas based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141142 | "A term that refers to the staging of mycosis fungoides and Sezary syndrome, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C141143 | "A term that refers to the staging of mycosis fungoides, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C141148 | "A staging system for adult Hodgkin and adult non-Hodgkin lymphomas based on the Lugano classification criteria. This staging system does not apply to ocular adnexal lymphomas (are staged according to the classification for ocular adnexal lymphoma), pediatric lymphomas (are staged according to the classification for pediatric lymphoma), primary cutaneous lymphomas (are staged according to the classification for primary cutaneous lymphoma), and multiple myelomas (are staged according to the c... |
| C141149 | "Limited stage adult lymphoma based on the Lugano classification criteria. It includes stages I, IE, II, and IIE. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141150 | "Stage I: Involvement of a single lymphatic site (i.e., nodal region, Waldeyer's ring, thymus, or spleen). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141151 | Stage IE: Single extralymphatic site in the absence of nodal involvement (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141152 | Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141153 | Stage IIE: Contiguous extralymphatic extension from a nodal site with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141154 | Stage II Bulky: Stage II with disease bulk. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141155 | Advanced stage adult lymphoma based on the Lugano classification criteria. It includes stages III and IV. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141156 | Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm; nodes above the diaphragm with spleen involvement. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141157 | "Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or noncontiguous extralymphatic organ involvement in conjunction with nodal stage II disease; or any extralymphatic organ involvement in nodal stage III disease. Stage IV includes any involvement of the CSF, bone marrow, liver, or lungs (other than by direct extension in stage IIE disease). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141158 | "A staging system for adult non-Hodgkin lymphomas based on the Lugano classification criteria. This staging system does not apply to ocular adnexal lymphomas (are staged according to the classification for ocular adnexal lymphoma), pediatric non-Hodgkin lymphomas (are staged according to the St. Jude Children's Research Hospital staging system), primary cutaneous lymphomas (are staged according to the classification for primary cutaneous lymphoma), and multiple myelomas (are staged according... |
| C141159 | "Limited stage adult non-Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Lugano classification criteria. It includes stages I, IE, II, and IIE. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141160 | "Stage I: Involvement of a single lymphatic site (i.e., nodal region, Waldeyer's ring, thymus, or spleen). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141161 | Stage IE: Single extralymphatic site in the absence of nodal involvement. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141162 | Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141163 | Stage IIE: Contiguous extralymphatic extension from a nodal site with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141164 | Stage II Bulky: Stage II with disease bulk. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141165 | Advanced stage adult non-Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Lugano classification criteria. It includes stages III and IV. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141166 | Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm; nodes above the diaphragm with spleen involvement. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141167 | "Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or noncontiguous extralymphatic organ involvement in conjunction with nodal stage II disease; or any extralymphatic organ involvement in nodal stage III disease. Stage IV includes any involvement of the CSF, bone marrow, liver, or lungs (other than by direct extension in stage IIE disease). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141168 | A staging system for Hodgkin lymphomas based on the Lugano classification criteria. Staging for childhood Hodgkin lymphoma is the same as for the adult counterpart. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141169 | "Limited stage Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Lugano classification criteria. It includes stages I, IE, II, and IIE. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141170 | "Stage I: Involvement of a single lymphatic site (i.e., nodal region, Waldeyer's ring, thymus, or spleen). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141171 | Stage IE: Single extralymphatic site in the absence of nodal involvement (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141172 | Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141173 | Stage IIE: Contiguous extralymphatic extension from a nodal site with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141174 | Stage II Bulky: Stage II with disease bulk. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141175 | Advanced stage Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Lugano classification criteria. It includes stages III and IV. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141176 | Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm; nodes above the diaphragm with spleen involvement. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141177 | "Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or noncontiguous extralymphatic organ involvement in conjunction with nodal stage II disease; or any extralymphatic organ involvement in nodal stage III disease. Stage IV includes any involvement of the CSF, bone marrow, liver, or lungs (other than by direct extension in stage IIE disease). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141178 | A staging system for childhood Hodgkin lymphomas based on the Lugano classification criteria. Staging for childhood Hodgkin lymphoma is the same as for the adult counterpart. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141179 | "Limited stage childhood Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Lugano classification criteria. It includes stages I, IE, II, and IIE. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141180 | "Stage I: Involvement of a single lymphatic site (i.e., nodal region, Waldeyer's ring, thymus, or spleen). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141181 | Stage IE: Single extralymphatic site in the absence of nodal involvement (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141182 | Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141183 | Stage IIE: Contiguous extralymphatic extension from a nodal site with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141184 | Stage II Bulky: Stage II with disease bulk. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141185 | Advanced stage childhood Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Lugano classification criteria. It includes stages III and IV. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141186 | Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm; nodes above the diaphragm with spleen involvement. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141187 | "Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or noncontiguous extralymphatic organ involvement in conjunction with nodal stage II disease; or any extralymphatic organ involvement in nodal stage III disease. Stage IV includes any involvement of the bone marrow, liver, or lungs (other than by direct extension in stage IIE disease). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141189 | A staging system for adult Hodgkin lymphomas based on the Lugano classification criteria. Staging for adult Hodgkin lymphoma is the same as for the childhood counterpart. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141190 | "Limited stage adult Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Lugano classification criteria. It includes stages I, IE, II, and IIE. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141191 | "Stage I: Involvement of a single lymphatic site (i.e., nodal region, Waldeyer's ring, thymus, or spleen). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141192 | Stage IE: Single extralymphatic site in the absence of nodal involvement (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141193 | Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141194 | Stage IIE: Contiguous extralymphatic extension from a nodal site with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141195 | Stage II Bulky: Stage II with disease bulk. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141196 | Advanced stage adult Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Lugano classification criteria. It includes stages III and IV. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141197 | Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm; nodes above the diaphragm with spleen involvement. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141198 | "Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or noncontiguous extralymphatic organ involvement in conjunction with nodal stage II disease; or any extralymphatic organ involvement in nodal stage III disease. Stage IV includes any involvement of the CSF, bone marrow, liver, or lungs (other than by direct extension in stage IIE disease). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141202 | Staging systems for Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas of childhood. Different systems are used for Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma of childhood. Staging of childhood Hodgkin lymphoma is the same as for the adult counterpart and is based on the Lugano classification criteria. The Ann Arbor staging system has been found to be inappropriate for staging of the non-Hodgkin lymphomas of childhood. The St. Jude staging system has been widely accepted and remains the recommended staging sys... |
| C141205 | A term that refers to the staging of Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma according to the AJCC v8 classification guidelines. |
| C141206 | A term that refers to the staging of chronic lymphocytic leukemia according to modified Rai staging system. This system is mainly used in North America. |
| C141208 | A term that refers to the staging of chronic lymphocytic leukemia according to Binet staging system. This system is in wide use outside the United States. |
| C141209 | Findings: Lymphocytosis only; Survival (months): more than 120. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141210 | Findings: Lymphocytosis and adenopathy; Survival (months): 95. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141211 | "Findings: Lymphocytosis, adenopathy, and enlarged spleen and/or liver; Survival (months): 72. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141217 | A staging system for childhood non-Hodgkin Lymphomas based on the St. Jude Children's Research Hospital staging system. The Ann Arbor staging system has been found to be inappropriate for staging of the non-Hodgkin lymphomas of childhood. The St. Jude staging system has been widely accepted for more than three decades and remains the recommended staging system for childhood non-Hodgkin lymphomas. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141218 | "Stage I: A single tumor (extranodal) or single anatomic area (nodal), with the exclusion of the mediastinum or abdomen. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141219 | "Stage II: A single tumor (extranodal) with regional node involvement. Two or more nodal areas on the same side of the diaphragm. Two single (extranodal) tumors with or without regional node involvement on the same side of the diaphragm. A primary gastrointestinal tract tumor, usually in the ileocecal area, with or without involvement of associated mesenteric nodes only. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141220 | "Stage III: Two single tumors (extranodal) on opposite sides of the diaphragm. Two or more nodal areas above and below the diaphragm. All the primary intrathoracic tumors (mediastinal, pleural, and thymic). All extensive primary intra-abdominal disease. All paraspinal or epidural tumors, regardless of other tumor site(s). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141221 | "Stage IV: Any tumor, with initial CNS and/or bone marrow involvement. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141222 | An anatomic stage for lymphocyte-depleted classic Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141223 | An anatomic stage for nodular sclerosis classic Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141224 | An anatomic stage for mixed cellularity classic Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141225 | An anatomic stage for nodular lymphocyte predominant B-cell lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141226 | An anatomic stage for adult Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141227 | An anatomic stage for childhood Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141235 | An anatomic stage for adult non-Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141236 | An anatomic stage for childhood non-Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141243 | An anatomic stage for B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141247 | An anatomic stage for T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141250 | An anatomic stage for B lymphoblastic lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141253 | An anatomic stage for Burkitt lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141254 | An anatomic stage for diffuse large B-cell lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141255 | An anatomic stage for follicular lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141256 | An anatomic stage for lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141257 | An anatomic stage for mantle cell lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141258 | An anatomic stage for marginal zone lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141259 | An anatomic stage for small lymphocytic lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141260 | An anatomic stage for extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141261 | An anatomic stage for nodal marginal zone lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141262 | An anatomic stage for primary mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141263 | An anatomic stage for centroblastic lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141272 | An anatomic stage for mature T- and NK-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141283 | An anatomic stage for adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141284 | An anatomic stage for noncutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141292 | An anatomic stage for noncutaneous childhood anaplastic large cell lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141294 | "An anatomic stage for follicular helper T-cell lymphoma, angioimmunoblastic-type  based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria." |
| C141295 | An anatomic stage for enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141296 | An anatomic stage for nasal type NK/T-cell lymphoma based on the Ann Arbor classification criteria. |
| C141346 | "A term that refers to the staging of mycosis fungoides and Sezary syndrome, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v8 classification system. This prognostic stage groups system is based on the ISCL/EORTC revision to the staging of mycosis fungoides and Sezary syndrome. There is no prognostic stage groups system for primary cutaneous B-cell/T-cell (non-mycosis fungoides/Sezary syndrome) lymphomas at this time. This staging system does not apply to eyelid skin lymphomas (are staged according to ... |
| C141347 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1, N0, M0, B0,1); IB (T2, N0, M0, B0,1). T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface. T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface. N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required. M0: No visceral organ involvement. B0: Absence of significant blood involvement: 5% or less of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypical (Sezary cells). B1: Low blood tumor burden: more than 5% o... |
| C141348 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0, B0,1. T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface. N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required. M0: No visceral organ involvement. B0: Absence of significant blood involvement: 5% or less of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypical (Sezary cells). B1: Low blood tumor burden: more than 5% of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypical (Sezary cells) but does not meet the criteria of B2. (AJCC... |
| C141349 | "Stage IB includes: T2, N0, M0, B0,1. T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface. N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required. M0: No visceral organ involvement. B0: Absence of significant blood involvement: 5% or less of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypical (Sezary cells). B1: Low blood tumor burden: more than 5% of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypical (Sezary cells) but does not meet the criteria of B2. (AJCC 8th ed.)" |
| C141350 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1,2, N1,2, M0, B0,1); IIB (T3, N0-2, M0, B0,1). T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface. T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface. T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm in diameter). N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required. N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or National Cancer Institute (NCI) LN0-2. N2... |
| C141351 | "Stage IIA includes:  T1-2, N1,2, M0, B0,1. T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface. T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface. N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or National Cancer Institute (NCI) LN0-2. N2: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 2 or NCI LN3. M0: No visceral organ involvement. B0: Absence of significant blood involvement:... |
| C141352 | "Stage IIB includes: T3, N0-2, M0, B0,1. T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm in diameter). N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required. N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or National Cancer Institute (NCI) LN0-2. N2: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 2 or NCI LN3. M0: No visceral organ involvement. B0: Absence of significant blood involvement: 5% or less of peripheral bloo... |
| C141353 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0-2, M0, B0,1); IIIA (T4, N0-2, M0, B0); IIIB (T4, N0-2, M0, B1). T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area. N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required. N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or National Cancer Institute (NCI) LN0-2. N2: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 2 or NCI LN3. M0: No visceral organ involvement. B0: Absence of sig... |
| C141354 | "Stage IIIA includes: T4, N0-2, M0, B0. T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area. N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required. N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or National Cancer Institute (NCI) LN0-2. N2: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 2 or NCI LN3. M0: No visceral organ involvement. B0: Absence of significant blood involvement: 5% or less of peripheral ... |
| C141355 | "Stage IIIB includes: T4, N0-2, M0, B1. T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area. N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required. N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or National Cancer Institute (NCI) LN0-2. N2: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 2 or NCI LN3. M0: No visceral organ involvement. B1: Low blood tumor burden: more than 5% of peripheral blood lymphocyte... |
| C141356 | "Stage IV includes: IVA1 (T1-4, N0-2, M0, B2); IVA2 (T1-4, N3, M0, B0-2); IVB (T1-4, N0-3, M1, B0-2). T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface. T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface. T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm in diameter). T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area. N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required. N1: Clinically abnormal... |
| C141357 | "Stage IVA1 includes: T1-4, N0-2, M0, B2. T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface. T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface. T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm in diameter). T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area. N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required. N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or Nat... |
| C141358 | "Stage IVA2 includes: T1-4, N3, M0, B0-2. T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface. T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface. T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm in diameter). T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area. N3: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grades 3-4 or NCI LN4; clone positive or negative. M0: No visceral organ involvement. ... |
| C141359 | "Stage IVB includes: T1-4, N0-3, M1, B0-2. T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface. T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface. T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm in diameter). T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area. N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required. N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or Na... |
| C141366 | "A beta thalassemia resulting from an unequal crossover/recombination event involving portions of the delta and beta globin genes, resulting in underproduction of the abnormal delta-beta globin." |
| C141367 | "A type of xeroderma pigmentosum resulting from mutation(s) in the POLH gene, encoding DNA polymerase eta. This form of the disease is characterized by normal DNA excision repair, but defective post-replication repair of DNA at UV-damaged sites." |
| C141393 | "A staging system for multiple myeloma based on the Revised International Staging System (RISS) criteria. This staging system does not apply to smoldering multiple myeloma (no AJCC staging system), monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (no AJCC staging system), and Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (no AJCC staging system). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141394 | "Serum beta-2-microglobulin less than 3.5 mg/L and serum albumin 3.5 g/dL or more and no high-risk cytogenetics and normal LDH. High risk cytogenetics consist of one or more of the following: del17p, t(4;14), or t(14;16). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141395 | Not stage I or III. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C141396 | "Serum beta-2-microglobulin 5.5 mg/L or more and high-risk cytogenetics and/or high LDH. High risk cytogenetics consist of one or more of the following: del17p, t(4;14), or t(14;16). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C141423 | "An X-linked condition characterized by joint hyperextensibility, mild skin hyperelastisity, and abnormal scarring. The molecular basis for this condition has not been fully elucidated." |
| C141424 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the MBD5 gene, encoding methyl-CpG-binding domain protein 5. It is characterized by severe developmental and cognitive delay, short stature, craniofacial dysmorphism, and seizures." |
| C141441 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the LGI1 gene, encoding leucine-rich glioma-inactivated protein 1. It is characterized by partial seizures originating in the temporal lobe and often accompanied by auditory sensory manifestations." |
| C141442 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the GCH1 gene, encoding GTP cyclohydrolase 1. It is characterized by hyperphenylalaninemia and GTP cyclohydrolase 1-deficient dopa-responsive dystonia." |
| C141445 | The reemergence of acute biphenotypic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C141446 | The reemergence of acute undifferentiated leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C142079 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CAPN3 gene, encoding calpain-3. It is characterized by muscular dystrophy, primarily affecting the proximal muscles, resulting in difficulty walking." |
| C142080 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the DYSF gene, encoding dysferlin. It is characterized by progressive muscular dystrophy, primarily affecting the proximal muscles, resulting in difficulty walking." |
| C142081 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SGCA gene, encoding alpha-sarcoglycan. It is characterized by progressive muscular dystrophy, primarily affecting the proximal muscles, resulting in difficulty walking." |
| C142082 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the POGLUT1 gene, encoding protein O-glucosyltransferase 1. It is characterized by progressive muscular dystrophy, primarily affecting the proximal muscles, resulting in difficulty walking." |
| C142083 | "A genetically heterogeneous condition, typically inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion, characterized by coenzyme Q10 deficiency." |
| C142084 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the GFI1B gene, encoding zinc finger protein Gfi-1b. It is characterized by a tendency for increased bleeding due to abnormal platelet function." |
| C142085 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the DDC gene, encoding aromatic-L-amino-acid decarboxylase. It is characterized by combined serotonin and catecholamine deficiency, resulting in severe neurologic dysfunction usually beginning in infancy or childhood." |
| C142149 | Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142171 | "An autosomal recessive form of methylmalonic aciduria, caused by mutation(s) in the MMAA gene, encoding MMAA protein." |
| C142172 | "An autosomal recessive form of methylmalonic aciduria, caused by mutation(s) in the MMAB gene, encoding cob(I)yrinic acid a,c-diamide adenosyltransferase, mitochondrial." |
| C142173 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the MTRR gene, encoding methionine synthase reductase. It is characterized by homocystinuria and megaloblastic anemia." |
| C142174 | "An autosomal recessive form of combined methylmalonic aciduria and homocystinuria, caused by mutation(s) in the MMACHC gene, encoding methylmalonic aciduria and homocystinuria type C protein." |
| C142781 | "A highly aggressive, poorly differentiated carcinoma that arises from the thoracic structures. It is characterized by mutations and rearrangement of the NUT gene. It usually presents at an advanced stage with pleuritic chest pain and pleural effusion, non-productive cough, shortness of breath, and weigh loss." |
| C142783 | A lung tumor that arises from perivascular epithelioid cells (PECs). |
| C142784 | A benign lung tumor that arises from perivascular epithelioid cells (PECs). |
| C142785 | A malignant lung tumor that arises from perivascular epithelioid cells (PECs). |
| C142802 | "An autosomal dominant form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the GABRA1 gene, encoding gamma-aminobutyric acid receptor subunit alpha-1." |
| C142803 | "An X-linked dominant form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the ALG13 gene, encoding putative bifunctional UDP-N-acetylglucosamine transferase and deubiquitinase ALG13." |
| C142804 | "An autosomal dominant form of early progressive myoclonic epilepsy, caused by mutation(s) in the KCNC1 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily C member 1." |
| C142805 | "An autosomal recessive corneal dystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the TACSTD2 gene, encoding tumor-associated calcium signal transducer 2. It is characterized by severe corneal amyloidosis that may result in blindness." |
| C142806 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the TCN2 gene, encoding transcobalamin-2. it is characterized by failure to thrive, megaloblastic anemia, and pancytopenia." |
| C142808 | Pancreatic carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142810 | The reemergence of acute lymphoblastic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C142811 | The reemergence of B acute lymphoblastic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C142812 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142823 | "A rare lung neoplasm that occurs in the intrauterine and perinatal period. It is characterized by the proliferation of spindle cells in an interstitial, peribronchial pattern. Surgical resection of the involved lung parenchyma is the treatment of choice." |
| C142825 | A sarcoma arising from the arterial intima of pulmonary arteries. |
| C142827 | A sarcoma that arises from the lung. It is related to a bronchus and is often predominantly endobronchial. It is characterized by the proliferation of round and spindle cells within a myxoid stroma. It is associated with the presence of an EWSR1::CREB1 fusion gene. |
| C142828 | "A very rare, benign or malignant lung tumor with myoepithelial differentiation." |
| C142829 | A very rare benign lung tumor with myoepithelial differentiation. |
| C142830 | A very rare malignant lung tumor with myoepithelial differentiation. |
| C142833 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis affecting the lungs. It is characterized by an interstitial proliferation of Langerhans cells in the lung parenchyma. Most patients are current or former smokers. Steroids are the mainstay therapy for this condition. |
| C142838 | "An autosomal recessive spinocerebellar ataxia caused by an expanded CAG repeat in the CACNA1A gene, encoding voltage-dependent P/Q-type calcium channel subunit alpha-1A. It is an almost pure cerebellar syndrome, with onset typically between the ages of 20 to 60." |
| C142848 | The reemergence of malignant glioma after a period of remission. |
| C142849 | The reemergence of rhabdoid tumor after a period of remission. |
| C142850 | Peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142851 | Rhabdomyosarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142852 | "A subtype of adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) occurring in approximately 40 percent of boys with ALD, primarily affecting the cerebrum, resulting in rapidly declining neurocognitive function and in most patients, premature death." |
| C142853 | Ewing sarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142854 | Hepatoblastoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142855 | Malignant glioma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142856 | Medulloblastoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142857 | Osteosarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142858 | Rhabdoid tumor that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142861 | The reemergence of anaplastic oligoastrocytoma after a period of remission. |
| C142862 | The reemergence of anaplastic oligodendroglioma after a period of remission. |
| C142867 | A microsatellite stable carcinoma that arises from the colon or rectum and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C142868 | A microsatellite stable carcinoma that arises from the colon or rectum and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C142869 | A carcinoma that arises from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C142870 | A carcinoma that arises from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C142876 | The reemergence of primary cutaneous lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C142877 | Primary cutaneous lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142880 | Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142881 | The reemergence of alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C142882 | The reemergence of hairy cell leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C142885 | Endometritis that develops following an abortion. |
| C142891 | A genetically heterogeneous condition characterized by complete or incomplete right bundle branch block accompanied by ST elevation in leads V1-V3. There is a high incidence of ventricular arrhythmia that may result in sudden death. |
| C142892 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the TNNT2 gene, encoding troponin T, cardiac muscle." |
| C142893 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the ATL1 gene, encoding atlastin-1." |
| C142894 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the CACNA1C gene, encoding voltage-dependent L-type calcium channel subunit alpha-1C. It is characterized by a prolonged QT interval that may result in torsade de pointes, ventricular fibrillation and/or sudden cardiac death." |
| C142982 | Lymphocyte-rich classic Hodgkin lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C142983 | Thyroid gland carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C143012 | The reemergence of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin after a period of remission. |
| C143013 | Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin which has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C143014 | "Progressive, symptomatic neurofibromatosis type 1 associated with plexiform neurofibromas that cannot be removed surgically without risk of substantial morbidity." |
| C143085 | Marginal zone lymphoma which does not respond to treatment. |
| C14364 | "Herpes simplex infection of the genitals, most commonly caused by the herpes simplex-2 virus." |
| C146639 | "A group of conditions with overlapping signs and symptoms. It includes Zellweger syndrome, neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy, and infantile Refsum disease." |
| C146640 | "A rare type A thymoma displaying atypical features (hypercellularity, increased mitotic activity, and focal necrosis)." |
| C146706 | "A highly aggressive, poorly differentiated carcinoma that arises from the mediastinum/thymus. It is characterized by mutations and rearrangement of the NUT gene." |
| C146717 | A very rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the thymus. It is characterized by the presence of malignant polygonal cells resembling hepatocytes. |
| C146734 | A glioblastoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C146848 | "A term that refers to the staging of mediastinal malignant germ cell tumors according to the Pediatric Study Group staging criteria. This staging system is not an official UICC TNM classification. (WHO Classification of Tumors of the Lung, Pleura, Thymus and Heart, 2015)" |
| C146849 | "Locoregional tumor, non-metastatic, complete resection. (WHO Classification of Tumors of the Lung, Pleura, Thymus and Heart, 2015)" |
| C146850 | "Locoregional tumor, non-metastatic, macroscopic complete resection but microscopic residual tumor. (WHO Classification of Tumors of the Lung, Pleura, Thymus and Heart, 2015)" |
| C146851 | "Locoregional tumor, regional lymph nodes negative or positive; no distant metastasis; biopsy only or gross residual tumor after primary resection. (WHO Classification of Tumors of the Lung, Pleura, Thymus and Heart, 2015)" |
| C146852 | "Tumor with distant metastasis. (WHO Classification of Tumors of the Lung, Pleura, Thymus and Heart, 2015)" |
| C146856 | An angiosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C146857 | An epithelioid hemangioendothelioma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C146858 | An epithelioid hemangioendothelioma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C146861 | "A malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum. It is characterized by the presence of at least two different germ cell tumor components. The different germ cell tumor components include choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, and seminoma." |
| C146883 | "A malignant tumor that arises from the mediastinum and is composed of myeloblasts, neutrophils and neutrophil precursors. It is the most common type of myeloid sarcoma affecting the mediastinum." |
| C146893 | A carcinoma that arises from the genitourinary system and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C146894 | "Alzheimer's disease caused by mutation(s) in the APP gene, encoding amyloid-beta A4 protein. The onset of this condition typically occurs before age 65." |
| C146899 | "A subtype of trichothiodystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the MPLKIP gene, encoding M-phase-specific PLK1-interacting protein." |
| C146987 | A hemangioma that arises from the mediastinum. It can be of the capillary or the cavernous type. |
| C146988 | An epithelioid hemangioendothelioma that arises from the mediastinum. |
| C146989 | A central nervous system non-Hodgkin lymphoma which does not respond to treatment. |
| C146990 | The reemergence of central nervous system non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C147003 | "An extraskeletal osteosarcoma that arises from the heart. It produces osteoid and bone, and occasionally shows chondroblastic differentiation." |
| C147004 | A low-grade sarcoma that arises from the heart. It is composed of spindle or rounded cells in a myxoid stroma. The most common location is the left atrium. |
| C147005 | A germ cell tumor that arises within the myocardium or cardiac chambers. The reported cases have been teratomas and yolk sac tumors. |
| C147006 | A yolk sac tumor that arises within the myocardium or cardiac chambers. |
| C147007 | A teratoma that arises within the myocardium or cardiac chambers. |
| C147065 | A neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C147070 | "An X-linked dominant form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the CDKL5 gene, encoding cyclin-dependent kinase-like 5." |
| C147071 | "An autosomal dominant form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the SCN1A gene, encoding sodium channel protein type 1 subunit alpha." |
| C147072 | "An early-onset form of Huntington disease (before age 20) caused by trinucleotide repeat expansion in the HTT gene, encoding huntingtin." |
| C147097 | An angiosarcoma that arises from the heart. It most often arises in the right atrium near the atrioventricular groove. The prognosis is poor. |
| C147098 | A rare sarcoma that arises from the pericardium. The two most common types are angiosarcoma and synovial sarcoma. Patients present with symptoms related to pericardial effusion. |
| C147101 | A rare angiosarcoma that arises from the pericardium. Patients present with symptoms related to pericardial effusion. |
| C147102 | A rare synovial sarcoma that arises from the pericardium. Patients present with symptoms related to pericardial effusion. |
| C147103 | A teratoma that arises within the pericardium. |
| C147104 | A malignant germ cell tumor that arises within the pericardium. |
| C147105 | A yolk sac tumor that arises within the pericardium. |
| C147106 | A germ cell tumor that arises from the pericardium. There is no evidence of atypia or metastases. |
| C147107 | Glioma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C147108 | Ependymoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C147109 | The reemergence of SHH-activated medulloblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C147110 | SHH-activated medulloblastoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C147111 | A medulloblastoma that is worsening in terms of extent or severity. |
| C147112 | An ependymoma that is worsening in terms of extent or severity. |
| C147113 | A central nervous system neoplasm that is worsening in terms of extent or severity. |
| C147114 | Graft versus host disease that does not respond to steroid treatment. |
| C147115 | "A medulloblastoma, SHH-activated that is worsening in terms of extent or severity." |
| C147530 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SAMD9 gene, encoding sterile alpha motif domain-containing protein 9A. It is a syndromic condition comprising myelodysplasia, infection, restriction of growth, adrenal hypoplasia, genital abnormalities, and enteropathy." |
| C147561 | Ovarian carcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C147861 | The reemergence of a lymphoproliferative disorder after a period of remission. |
| C147863 | The reemergence of EBV-related lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C147901 | A brain glioblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C147906 | An oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma which is negative for p16INK4a by immunohistochemistry. This negative immunohistochemistry result does not exclude human papillomavirus infection. |
| C147924 | Non-squamous non-small cell lung carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C147948 | "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the brain, meninges, or spinal cord." |
| C147965 | Breast carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C147982 | Colorectal carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C147983 | Melanoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C147996 | Gastric carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148023 | A group of breathing disorders characterized by abnormal respiratory patterns or insufficient ventilation during sleep. |
| C148024 | Hereditary ovarian carcinoma caused by deleterious germline mutation in a gene of the BRCA family. |
| C148025 | The reemergence of BRCA hereditary ovarian carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C148026 | The reemergence of a childhood malignant solid neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C148027 | A childhood malignant solid neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148029 | A malignant solid neoplasm that occurs during childhood. |
| C148036 | A malignant solid neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C148037 | The reemergence of WHO grade 2 glioma after a period of remission. |
| C148038 | The reemergence of a WHO grade 3 glioma after a period of remission. |
| C148065 | A B-cell malignant neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C148074 | A condition in which there is inadequate blood flow through the peripheral blood vessels due to intrinsic disease of the vasculature. |
| C148076 | A craniopharyngioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C148077 | The reemergence of a craniopharyngioma after a period of remission. |
| C148099 | Malignant thymoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148124 | Carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C148125 | A thymus carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C148126 | A thymus carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C148127 | A thymus carcinoma that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C148128 | A carcinoma that arises from the thymus and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C148129 | Mycosis fungoides and Sezary syndrome that is resistant to treatment. |
| C148130 | A carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C148152 | A head and neck squamous cell carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148153 | A head and neck squamous cell carcinoma which has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C148173 | A thymus carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148175 | Indolent adult non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C148244 | The reemergence of grade 3a follicular lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C148245 | A skin melanoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C148259 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Joubert syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the AHI1 gene, encoding Jouberin." |
| C148260 | "An autosomal recessive form of congenital glaucoma caused by mutation(s) in the CYP1B1 gene, encoding cytochrome P450 1B1." |
| C148261 | "A rare form of ectodermal dysplasia, inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, manifesting with varying degrees of severity, ectrodactyly and cleft lip/palate." |
| C148286 | Stage 0 bladder cancer defined according to the AJCC v6 and v7 criteria that is resistant to treatment. |
| C148294 | Leiomyosarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148295 | Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148296 | Synovial sarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148297 | Myxoid liposarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148298 | Myxoid liposarcoma that has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C148299 | Round cell liposarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148300 | Round cell liposarcoma that has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C148301 | A sarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148302 | The reemergence of sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C148315 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the ATXN2 gene, encoding ataxin-2. Specifically, the mutation is an expanded CAG trinucleotide repeat in the gene. It is a progressive cerebellar ataxia associated supranuclear ophthalmoplegia, mild dementia and peripheral neuropathy." |
| C148316 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the NOP56 gene, encoding nucleolar protein 56. It is characterized by slowly progressive adult-onset gait ataxia, associated with eye movement abnormalities, tongue fasciculations and variable upper motor neuron signs." |
| C148317 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SPG11 gene, encoding spatacsin. It is a complicated sub-type of hereditary spastic paraplegia that has varying neurologic manifestations in addition to spasticity." |
| C148318 | "A sub-type of limb-girdle muscular dystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the CAV3 gene, encoding caveolin-3." |
| C148321 | A maternally inherited form of nonsyndromic sensorineural deafness that is caused by a mutation in any of several mitochondrial genes. |
| C148325 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the CAV3 gene, encoding caveolin-3. It is characterized by mechanically triggered contractions of skeletal muscles. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy type 1C is an allelic disorder with an overlapping phenotype." |
| C148327 | "A condition characterized by elevated concentrations of creatine kinase in the blood. It is one of a group of conditions caused by mutation(s) in the CAV3 gene, encoding caveolin-3. Isolated hyperCKmia has no other associated manifestations." |
| C148331 | A sarcoma which is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C148362 | Myelodysplastic syndrome that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148363 | The reemergence of myelodysplastic syndrome after a period of remission. |
| C148366 | "An autosomal recessive form of methylmalonic aciduria caused by mutation(s) in the MUT gene, encoding methylmalonyl-CoA mutase, mitochondrial." |
| C148367 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ADGRG1 gene, encoding adhesion G-protein coupled receptor G1. It is characterized by motor and cognitive developmental delay, pyramidal signs, and seizures." |
| C148368 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CASQ2 gene, encoding calsequestrin-2. It is characterized by a relative resting bradycardia and a slight prolongation of the QTc interval. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia may be induced with exercise stress testing or isoproterenol infusion." |
| C148369 | "An autosomal recessive muscular dystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the LMNA gene, encoding prelamin-A/C. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy type 1B and Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy-2 are allelic disorders with overlapping phenotypes." |
| C148370 | "An autosomal recessive primary ciliary motility defect caused by mutation(s) in the CCDC39 gene, encoding coiled-coil domain-containing protein 39." |
| C148371 | "An extremely rare autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the C12orf57 gene, encoding protein C10. It is characterized by agenesis/hypoplasia of the corpus callosum, associated with developmental delay, and variable craniofacial and skeletal abnormalities." |
| C148382 | Hypopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148383 | Laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148384 | Oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148385 | Oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148386 | Paranasal sinus squamous cell carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148387 | The reemergence of paranasal sinus squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C148392 | "Molecular subtyping of diffuse large B-cell lymphomas (DLBCL) based on structural genomic abnormalities and gene expression data obtained from biopsy samples. The molecular analysis revealed four subtypes of DLBCL (MCD, BN2, N1, and EZB) which have distinct genotypic, epigenetic, and clinical characteristics. (NEJM 2018; 378: 1396-407)" |
| C148394 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma molecular subtype characterized by the co-occurrence of MYD88 and CD79B gene mutations. Patients who belong in this subtype have an inferior outcome. (NEJM 2018; 378: 1396-407) |
| C148395 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma molecular subtype characterized by the presence of BCL6 gene fusions and NOTCH2 gene mutations. Patients who belong in this subtype have a favorable outcome. (NEJM 2018; 378: 1396-407) |
| C148396 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma molecular subtype characterized by the presence of NOTCH1 gene mutations. Patients who belong in this subtype have an inferior outcome. (NEJM 2018; 378: 1396-407) |
| C148398 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma molecular subtype characterized by the presence of EZH2 gene mutations and BCL2 gene translocations. Patients who belong in this subtype have a favorable outcome. (NEJM 2018; 378: 1396-407) |
| C148401 | Nasal cavity and paranasal sinus squamous cell carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148423 | The reemergence of mixed phenotype acute leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C148425 | The reemergence of leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C148426 | Leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C148427 | The reemergence of acute myeloid leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C148429 | The reemergence of acute leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C148430 | Mixed phenotype acute leukemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148431 | Acute leukemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148432 | Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical removal. |
| C148434 | Nasopharyngeal carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C148461 | "An autosomal dominant sub-type of lissencephaly caused by mutation(s) in the TUBA1A gene, encoding adhesion tubulin alpha-1A chain." |
| C148493 | A urothelial carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C148494 | Melanoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C148510 | The reemergence of human papillomavirus-related malignant neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C148512 | Human papillomavirus-related malignant neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C148514 | Uveal melanoma that has spread from its primary site to another anatomic site. |
| C148515 | Uveal melanoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C148517 | Melanoma which is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C148536 | Advanced prostatic carcinoma which was not previously treated with androgen-deprivation therapy. |
| C148633 | An acute embolism to the pulmonary vasculature. |
| C148634 | "Acute pulmonary embolism with evidence of right ventricular dysfunction, but not associated with systemic hypotension." |
| C150027 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the thoracic esophagus. |
| C150029 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the thoracic esophagus. |
| C150031 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the cervical esophagus. |
| C150032 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the cervical esophagus. |
| C150034 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the gastric cardia. |
| C150037 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the distal esophagus. |
| C150043 | The reemergence of chronic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C150044 | Chronic leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150048 | The reemergence of chronic myelomonocytic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C150049 | Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150091 | Ovarian carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150092 | Malignant uterine corpus neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150093 | Endometrial carcinoma that is resistant to treatment |
| C150094 | The reemergence of endometrial carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C150095 | The reemergence of ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C150096 | Ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150097 | The reemergence of endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C150098 | Endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150130 | A melanoma that originates from melanocytes of the uveal tract and has spread to the liver. |
| C150131 | The reemergence of T acute lymphoblastic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C150132 | The reemergence of monomorphic epitheliotropic intestinal T-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C150133 | The reemergence of T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C150134 | Thrombosis within the hepatic portal system. |
| C150179 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the optic nerve. |
| C150201 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C150202 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx which has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C150204 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C150206 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity which has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C150207 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C150209 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx which has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C150210 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the hypopharynx that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C150211 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C150212 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the hypopharynx that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C150213 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C150250 | "An autosomal recessive form of spinocerebellar ataxia caused by mutation(s) in the STUB1 gene, encoding E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase CHIP." |
| C150251 | "Congenital glaucoma that arises independent of another pathologic process, disease, or injury." |
| C150281 | Neuroblastoma usually presenting with metastatic disease and MYCN gene amplifications. |
| C150316 | Bladder carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C150359 | Non-hereditary renal cell carcinoma arising from a kidney and detected in the other kidney within six months of the first primary. The majority are clear cell renal cell carcinomas. |
| C150364 | Urothelial carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C150365 | Urothelial carcinoma that is resistant to platinum therapy. |
| C150367 | "An autosomal recessive sub-type of Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the HPS1 gene, encoding Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome 1 protein. This sub-type is associated with pulmonary fibrosis." |
| C150368 | "An autosomal recessive sub-type of Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the AP3B1 gene, encoding AP-3 complex subunit beta-1. Immunodeficiency due to neutropenia is a characteristic of this sub-type." |
| C150369 | "An autosomal recessive sub-type of Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the HPS6 gene, encoding Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome 6 protein. Individuals with this type of syndrome, as well as with types 3 or 5, have the mildest symptoms." |
| C150396 | "An unusual form of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. It is not mass-forming and does not directly produce symptoms, but it is discovered incidentally on histological examination of surgical pathology specimens, excised for various pathologies other than lymphoma. The specimens typically contain fibrinous materials. Single and small aggregates of large lymphoma cells are found in only small foci within the fibrinous or amorphous material. EBV is positive, with type III latency. The clinical out... |
| C150399 | "A lymphoproliferative disorder caused by the human herpesvirus 8 (HHV8). This category includes the following: HHV8-positive multicentric Castleman disease; HHV8-positive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified; primary effusion lymphoma; and germinotropic lymphoproliferative disorders." |
| C150404 | Multicentric Castleman disease associated with HHV8 infection. |
| C150405 | "A monotypic HHV8-positive lymphoproliferative disorder that usually occurs in HIV-negative individuals. It is characterized by the presence of HHV8-positive plasmablasts partially or completely replacing germinal centers. Coinfection with EBV is characteristic. In most cases, there is a favorable response to chemotherapy or radiation. (WHO 2017)" |
| C150406 | A rare HHV8-positive B-cell lymphoma indistinguishable from primary effusion lymphoma presenting as solid tumor mass. (WHO 2017) |
| C150407 | "A large B-cell lymphoma presenting as a serous effusion without detectable tumor masses. It is universally associated with human herpes virus 8 (HHV8), also called Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus.  It mostly occurs in the setting of immunodeficiency. The most common sites of involvement are the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities. (WHO 2017)" |
| C150489 | "An EBV-positive NK-cell lymphoproliferative disorder characterized by high fever and intense local skin symptoms, including erythema, bullae, ulcers, skin necrosis, and deep scarring following mosquito bites. Patients have NK-cell lymphocytosis in the peripheral blood and an increased risk of developing hemophagocytic syndrome and progressing into overt NK/T-cell lymphoma or aggressive NK-cell leukemia in the longstanding clinical course. (WHO 2017)" |
| C150495 | "A group of mature T-cell and NK-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas that includes enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma, monomorphic epitheliotropic intestinal T-cell lymphoma, and intestinal T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified. Most of these lymphomas arise from the small intestine and a minority from the large intestine or stomach." |
| C150504 | A monomorphic epitheliotropic intestinal T-cell lymphoma arising from the small intestine. It is characterized by the presence of a monomorphic cellular infiltrate of small to medium-sized T-lymphocytes that are cytotoxic and express CD56. It is not associated with celiac disease. |
| C150505 | "A T-cell lymphoma arising in the intestines, or sometimes other sites in the gastrointestinal tract, that does not conform to either classic enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma or monomorphic epitheliotropic intestinal T-cell lymphoma. (WHO 2017)" |
| C150510 | T acute lymphoblastic leukemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C150512 | A urethral urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C150513 | A bladder urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C150514 | A renal pelvis urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C150515 | A ureter urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C150516 | The reemergence of ureter urothelial carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C150519 | The reemergence of renal pelvis urothelial carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C150521 | Urothelial carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150524 | Reemergence of a malignant bone neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C150525 | Malignant bone neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150526 | The reemergence of a malignant female reproductive system neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C150527 | Malignant female reproductive system neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150528 | Reemergence of a malignant neoplasm of multiple primary sites after a period of remission. |
| C150529 | Malignant neoplasm of multiple primary sites that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150530 | Lip or oral cavity malignant neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150531 | Reemergence of a malignant pharyngeal neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C150532 | Malignant pharyngeal neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150533 | The reemergence of a malignant male reproductive system neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C150534 | Malignant male reproductive system neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150535 | Malignant mesothelioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150536 | Reemergence of a malignant soft tissue neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C150537 | Malignant soft tissue neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150538 | The reemergence of malignant thyroid gland neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C150539 | Malignant thyroid gland neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150540 | Reemergence of a malignant endocrine neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C150541 | Malignant endocrine neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150542 | Reemergence of a malignant urinary system neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C150543 | Malignant urinary system neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150544 | Melanoma of the skin that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150545 | Reemergence of a malignant skin neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C150546 | Malignant skin neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C150555 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the PACS1 gene, encoding phosphofurin acidic cluster sorting protein 1. It is characterized by intellectual developmental delay, craniofacial abnormalities, as well as other variable congenital abnormalities." |
| C150556 | "A sub-type of autosomal recessive osteopetrosis caused by mutation(s) in the SNX10 gene, encoding sorting nexin-10." |
| C150557 | A prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the absence of focal or diffuse neuroendocrine differentiation. |
| C150566 | "Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance defined by a serum IgM paraprotein concentration less than 30g/L; bone marrow lymphoplasmacytic infiltration of less than 10%; and no evidence of anemia, constitutional symptoms, hyperviscocity, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, or other end-organ damage that can be attributed to the underlying lymphoproliferative disorder. It is a precursor condition that may progress to lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma/ Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, other B... |
| C150570 | A carcinoma that arises from the bladder mucosa and invades the bladder wall. |
| C150572 | A carcinoma that arises from the bladder mucosa and invades the muscle of the bladder wall. |
| C150573 | A cerebral neoplasm that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C150577 | Gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma which has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C150578 | Gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150579 | The reemergence of myxoid liposarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C150580 | Adrenal cortical carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150581 | Small cell lung carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C150588 | "Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance defined by the presence in the serum of an IgG, IgA, or (rarely) IgD paraprotein at a concentration of less than 30g/L; clonal bone marrow plasma cells less than 10%; and absence of end-organ damage such as hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, bone marrow lesions, and amyloidosis attributable to the plasma cell proliferative disorder. The risk of progression to plasma cell myeloma, light-chain amyloidosis, or a related disorder is 1%... |
| C150589 | "A distinctive variant of follicular lymphoma arising from the testis. It has been reported with higher frequency in children, but is also seen rarely in adults. It differs biologically from nodal follicular lymphoma because it lacks evidence of the BCL2 translocation. It is usually of high cytological grade, usually grade 3A, but has a good prognosis, even without additional therapy beyond surgical excision. (WHO 2017)" |
| C150592 | The reemergence of dedifferentiated liposarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C150593 | Dedifferentiated liposarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C150594 | Liposarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C150595 | A renal cell carcinoma that has spread from the kidney to other anatomic sites. |
| C150597 | A malignant neoplasm which has spread from its original site of growth to any visceral site. |
| C150598 | Dedifferentiated liposarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150601 | "An autosomal recessive sub-type of citrullinemia caused by mutation(s) in the ASS1 gene, encoding argininosuccinate synthetase." |
| C150602 | A malignant neoplasm that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150603 | "An autosomal recessive sub-type of citrullinemia caused by mutation(s) in the SLC25A13 gene, encoding calcium-binding mitochondrial carrier protein Aralar2." |
| C150604 | A carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150605 | Sarcoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150606 | Liposarcoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150607 | Dedifferentiated liposarcoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150608 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the RYR1 gene, encoding ryanodine receptor 1. It may be characterized clinically by neonatal hypotonia, delayed motor development, and generalized muscle weakness, and amyotrophy. Pathologically, the absence of mitochondria and focal disorganization of the sarcomere appear as ""minicores"" on ATPase staining as a result of focal defects in oxidative activity." |
| C150609 | "An autosomal dominant sub-type of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease caused by mutation(s) in the KIF1B gene, encoding kinesin-like protein KIF1B." |
| C150610 | Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150611 | Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150620 | Neuroblastoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150622 | Neuroblastoma which is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C150646 |  |
| C150647 | "An autosomal recessive sub-type of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease caused by compound heterozygous or homozygous mutation(s) in the MFN2 gene, encoding mitofusin-2. This condition is more severe and has an earlier onset as compared to Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2A2A." |
| C150672 | A lymphoproliferative disorder that occurs in a patient with immunodeficiency. |
| C150673 | "A lymphoid proliferation that arises in the setting of immune deficiency due to a primary immunodeficiency or immunoregulatory disorder. The primary immune disorders most frequently associated with lymphoproliferative disorders are ataxia-telangiectasia, Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, common variable immunodeficiency, severe combined immunodeficiency, X-linked lymphoproliferative disease, Nijmegen breakage syndrome, hyper-IgM syndrome, and autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome. (WHO 2017)" |
| C150678 | A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that develops in patients who are immunosuppressed with methotrexate. |
| C150684 | Lymphoid proliferations or lymphomas that arise in patients treated with immunosuppressive drugs for autoimmune diseases or conditions other than in the post-transplant setting. (WHO 2017) |
| C150692 | "This category includes two main sub-groups, according to the degree of cytological atypia and clinical aggressiveness: Langerhans cell histiocytosis and Langerhans cell sarcoma. (WHO 2017)" |
| C150701 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis presenting as a solitary lesion. |
| C150702 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis presenting with multiple sites of involvement. |
| C150703 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis presenting with disseminated disease. |
| C150704 | EBV-positive inflammatory follicular dendritic cell/fibroblastic reticular cell tumor that arises from the digestive system. |
| C150738 | Gastrointestinal stromal tumor which has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C150739 | Gastrointestinal stromal tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C150741 | Malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C151897 | Familial hematologic neoplasms associated with germline mutations without a preexisting disorder or organ dysfunction. |
| C151898 | "Familial acute myeloid leukemia (AML) syndrome associated with biallelic CEBPA mutations. Patients typically present with AML as children or young adults. The familial form of AML with germline CEBPA mutation has morphological and immunophenotypic features similar to those of sporadic AML with CEBPA mutations. Overall, it has a favorable prognosis. (WHO 2017)" |
| C151901 | "An autosomal dominant familial myelodysplastic syndrome/acute myeloid leukemia syndrome characterized by inherited mutations in the gene on chromosome 5 encoding the DEAD box RNA helicase DDX41. Patients usually present with leukopenia, hypocellular bone marrow with prominent erythroid dysplasia and a normal karyotype, often leading to erythroleukemia. The prognosis is generally poor. (WHO 2017)" |
| C151902 | Hematologic neoplasms associated with germline mutations and familial platelet disorders. |
| C151903 | "An autosomal dominant syndrome characterized by abnormalities in platelet number and function and enhanced risk of developing myelodysplastic syndrome/acute myeloid leukemia at a young age. Patients have germline monoallelic mutations in RUNX1 gene. The clinical presentation is variable, even within the same family. Most affected individuals have a mild to moderate bleeding tendency. Platelet counts are normal or mildly reduced, with normal platelet morphology and variable degrees of platel... |
| C151904 | A digestive system carcinoma that has metastasized to another anatomic site and is resistant to treatment. |
| C151905 | The reemergence of a metastatic digestive system carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C151906 | A carcinoma hat arises from any part of the digestive system and is resistant to treatment. |
| C151907 | A head and neck carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C151908 | "An autosomal dominant disorder characterized by moderate thrombocytopenia and increased risk of developing myelodysplastic syndrome/acute myeloid leukemia. This disorder is characterized by germline mutations in ANKRD26, located on chromosome band 10p12.1. (WHO 2017)" |
| C151910 | Familial hematologic neoplasms associated with germline mutations and a preexisting disorder or organ dysfunction other than a platelet disorder. |
| C151911 | "Autosomal dominant familial thrombocytopenia associated with germline ETV6 mutation and hematologic malignancies. The hematologic malignancies reported are diverse, including myelodysplastic syndrome, acute myeloid leukemia, chronic myelomonocytic leukemia, B lymphoblastic leukemia, and plasma cell myeloma. Non-hematological neoplasms, including colorectal adenocarcinoma, have been also reported in affected families. (WHO 2017)" |
| C151912 | Myelodysplastic syndromes/acute myeloid leukemias associated with germline GATA2 mutation. |
| C151921 | Familial myelodysplastic syndromes/ acute myeloid leukemias associated with telomerase biology disorders. |
| C151922 | Familial myelodysplastic syndromes/ acute myeloid leukemias associated with inherited bone marrow failure syndromes. |
| C151940 | A solid neoplasm involving any anatomic site other than the brain. |
| C151957 | Histologic transformation of a usually indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma to an aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma. |
| C151971 | A bile duct carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C151975 | "Acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage, expressing combinations of markers that do not allow for its classification as either acute undifferentiated leukemia or mixed phenotype acute leukemia, and definitive classification along a single lineage is difficult. (WHO 2017)" |
| C151976 | The reemergence of Burkitt leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C151977 | Burkitt leukemia resistant to treatment. |
| C151978 | Lymphoblastic lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C151979 | High-grade B-cell lymphoma with MYC and BCL2 or BCL6 rearrangements that is resistant to treatment. |
| C151980 | The reemergence of high-grade B-cell lymphoma with MYC and BCL2 or BCL6 rearrangements after a period of remission. |
| C151981 | Rhabdomyosarcoma involving the organs and structures in the pelvis. |
| C151982 | Rhabdomyosarcoma involving the organs and structures in the abdomen. |
| C151983 | Rhabdomyosarcoma which is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C151984 | Undifferentiated high grade pleomorphic sarcoma  involving the bones of the pelvis. |
| C151985 | Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma involving the organs and structures in the abdomen. |
| C151990 | "A very rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts express combinations of B, T, myeloid, and megakaryocytic lineage markers but are negative for KMT2A rearrangement and t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation. The prognosis is usually unfavorable." |
| C151991 | "A very rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts show evidence of B-cell, T-cell, and myeloid lineage but are negative for KMT2A rearrangement and t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation." |
| C151992 | A very rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts show clear-cut evidence of both B-cell and T-cell lineage but are negative for KMT2A rearrangement and t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation. |
| C151993 | A pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C151995 | Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma amenable to surgical resection. |
| C152036 | An adenocarcinoma arising from the lower third of the esophagus. The vast majority of esophageal adenocarcinomas involve the lower third of the esophagus. |
| C152046 | Primary peritoneal carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C152047 | Fallopian tube carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C152048 | Female reproductive system carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C152064 | "An autosomal dominant form of dyskeratosis congenita, caused by mutation(s) in the TINF2 gene, encoding TERF1-interacting nuclear factor 2. It is a fatal disease associated with exudative retinopathy and bone marrow failure." |
| C152065 | "A group of disorders caused by mutation(s) that disrupt the maintenance of telomeres, resulting in the short telomere defect." |
| C152074 | A metastatic sarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C152076 | A sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C152077 | The reemergence of a malignant head and neck neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C152078 | A malignant head and neck neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C152105 | "A group of immunodeficiencies caused by damaging germline mutations in single genes. Patients are at an increased risk to develop infections, autoimmunity, bone marrow failure, and malignancies, usually lymphomas." |
| C153066 | Soft tissue sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C153068 | Soft tissue sarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153069 | Soft tissue sarcoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C153070 | Bone sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C153071 | Sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C153072 | Bone sarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153073 | Bone sarcoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C153074 | Synovial sarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153075 | Pancreatic neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C153079 | Pancreatic neuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153080 | Neuroendocrine tumor grade 1 that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153081 | Non-small cell lung carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C153086 | Soft tissue sarcoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153160 | The reemergence of hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C153161 | Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C153169 | A melanoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C153170 | A renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C153171 | Carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C153172 | Lymphoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C153174 | "An autosomal recessive sub-type of Usher syndrome caused by homozygous or compound heterozygous mutation(s) in the ADGRV1 gene, encoding adhesion G protein-coupled receptor V1. It may also result from biallelic digenic mutation(s) in ADGRV1 and PDZD7, which encodes PDZ domain-containing protein 7." |
| C153175 | The reemergence of a mediastinal lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C153177 | Mediastinal lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C153178 | "A condition caused by mutation(s) in the RAD50 gene, encoding DNA repair protein RAD50. It is characterized by microcephaly and chromosomal instability." |
| C153179 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CRADD gene, encoding death domain-containing protein CRADD. It is characterized by mild to moderate intellectual disability and lissencephaly with anterior-predominant pachygyria." |
| C153182 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the skin that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C153184 | A synovial sarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C153185 | A sarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C153200 | Non-squamous non-small cell lung carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C153201 | Non-small cell squamous lung carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C153202 | A carcinoma that arises from the lung and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C153203 | A lung carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C153206 | A lung carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C153213 | A head and neck carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C153217 | The accumulation of amyloid protein in the heart. Cardiac amyloidosis is irreversible and may lead to conductive dysfunction as well as heart failure secondary to restrictive cardiomyopathy. |
| C153224 | A carcinoma that originates from the wall of the colon or rectum and has spread to the lungs. |
| C153226 | A carcinoma that arises from the breast and has spread to the spine. |
| C153227 | A carcinoma that arises from the breast and has spread to the lymph nodes. |
| C153238 | A carcinoma that arises from the breast and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C153278 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153279 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153286 | A malignant small round cell tumor with or without neural differentiation that is resistant to treatment. |
| C153289 | "A rapidly progressive neurodegenerative disorder, caused by mutations in the colony-stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R) gene, that presents in adulthood with a variety of neuropsychiatric and motor disturbances. Hallmark features include diffuse myelin loss and axonal destruction, neuroaxonal spheroids, and pigmented macrophages and other glia." |
| C153290 | "The most common form of Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome, caused by a mutation in the CREB binding protein (CREBBP) gene." |
| C153291 | "Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome caused by a mutation in the EP300 gene on chromosome 22q13, which presents with a mild phenotype associated with less severe facial dysmorphism and better cognitive function." |
| C153293 | The reemergence of aplastic anemia after a period of remission. |
| C153294 | The reemergence of severe aplastic anemia after a period of remission. |
| C153295 | Severe aplastic anemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C153296 | The reemergence of hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis after a period of remission. |
| C153297 | Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis that is resistant to treatment. |
| C153315 | A carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153316 | A gastric adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153319 | A gastric adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C153320 | A gastric carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C153323 | A chordoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C153324 | A chordoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues. |
| C153325 | A chordoma which is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153331 | "The reemergence of EBV-positive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified after a period of remission." |
| C153332 | "EBV-positive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified that is resistant to treatment." |
| C153336 | A prostate carcinoma that is sensitive to castration therapy. |
| C153340 | The reemergence of Cushing disease after a period of remission. |
| C153347 | The reemergence of ovarian carcinosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C153348 | A triple-negative breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C153351 | Colon carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C153352 | Liver carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C153355 | Bile duct carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C153356 | Small intestinal carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C153357 | Small intestinal carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C153358 | Digestive system carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C153359 | The reemergence of gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153360 | The reemergence of bile duct carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153387 | A carcinoma of the cervix that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C153388 | A cervical squamous cell carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C153389 | A cervical adenocarcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C153390 | A cervical adenosquamous carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C153467 | "A condition of decreased or absent presence or activity of phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate 3-phosphatase and dual-specificity protein phosphatase PTEN, which is associated with multiple hamartoma syndrome (Cowden syndrome) and increased risk for development of several types of malignant cancers, including head and neck, breast, lung and prostate cancer and glioblastoma." |
| C153475 | A bone sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153476 | A soft tissue sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153477 | A sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C153568 | The reemergence of acinic cell breast carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153569 | The reemergence of pancreatic acinar cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153570 | The reemergence of prostate acinar adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153571 | The reemergence of parotid gland acinic cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153572 | The reemergence of submandibular gland acinic cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153573 | "The reemergence of endocervical adenocarcinoma, usual-type after a period of remission." |
| C153574 | The reemergence of ampulla of Vater adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153575 | The reemergence of anal adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153576 | The reemergence of anal mucinous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153577 | The reemergence of Paget disease of the anal canal after a period of remission. |
| C153579 | The reemergence of appendix mucinous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153584 | The reemergence of lobular breast carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153587 | The reemergence of invasive breast carcinoma of no special type after a period of remission. |
| C153588 | The reemergence of Paget disease of the breast after a period of remission. |
| C153590 | The reemergence of clear cell renal cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153595 | The reemergence of chromophobe renal cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153611 | The reemergence of salivary duct carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153612 | The reemergence of minor salivary gland adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153614 | The reemergence of ovarian adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153615 | The reemergence of ovarian serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153616 | The reemergence of ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153617 | The reemergence of ovarian cystadenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153618 | The reemergence of ovarian clear cell adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153619 | The reemergence of pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153620 | The reemergence of pancreatic cystadenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153621 | The reemergence of thyroid gland papillary carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153622 | The reemergence of thyroid gland follicular carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153623 | The reemergence of thyroid gland medullary carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153624 | The reemergence of thyroid gland anaplastic carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153626 | The reemergence of skin angiosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C153800 | The reemergence of parotid gland carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153801 | The reemergence of submandibular gland carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153802 | The reemergence of appendix carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153804 | The reemergence of parotid gland adenoid cystic carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153805 | The reemergence of parotid gland carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma after a period of remission. |
| C153806 | The reemergence of parotid gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153807 | The reemergence of submandibular gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153808 | The reemergence of submandibular gland carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma after a period of remission. |
| C153809 | The reemergence of submandibular gland adenoid cystic carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153810 | The reemergence of parotid gland squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153811 | The reemergence of submandibular gland squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153812 | The reemergence of submandibular gland undifferentiated carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153813 | The reemergence of parotid gland undifferentiated carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153818 | The reemergence of malignant ovarian Brenner tumor after a period of remission. |
| C153819 | The reemergence of ovarian transitional cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C153823 | The reemergence of a primary malignant central nervous system neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C153837 | The reemergence of a malignant brain neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C153842 | A primary malignant central nervous system neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C153845 | A malignant brain neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C153865 | A WHO grade 3 glioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C154078 | A fibrolamellar carcinoma that has spread from the liver to another anatomic site. |
| C154082 | The reemergence of fibrolamellar carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C154088 | A carcinoma that arises from the liver and has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C154091 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C154221 | A gastric adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C154222 | A rare condition characterized by hyperplasia and hypertrophy of the pituitary gland. It is caused by hypersecretion of hypothalamic stimulating hormones. |
| C154314 | "An autosomal recessive form of chronic granulomatous disease caused by mutation(s) in the NCF1 gene, encoding neutrophil cytosol factor 1." |
| C154315 | "An X-linked recessive form of chronic granulomatous disease caused by mutation(s) in the CYBB gene, encoding cytochrome b-245 beta chain." |
| C154316 | "An autosomal dominant sub-type of spinocerebellar ataxia caused by mutation(s) in the PPP2R2B gene, encoding serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 55 kDa regulatory subunit B beta isoform. It presents with characteristic action tremors in the upper limbs, followed by other movement abnormalities." |
| C154321 | A squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C154322 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity and/or paranasal sinuses and has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C154324 | A poorly differentiated carcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity and/or paranasal sinuses. |
| C154333 | "The reemergence of peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified after a period of remission." |
| C154335 | A glioblastoma characterized by the presence of DNA methylation in the promoter region of the MGMT gene. It is associated with improved survival. |
| C154339 | "A corticotroph pituitary neuroendocrine tumor composed of basophilic PAS-positive cells that are diffusely and strongly positive for ACTH, consistent with the abundance of secretory granules seen at the ultrastructural level. (WHO)" |
| C154340 | "A corticotroph pituitary neuroendocrine tumor composed of faintly basophilic or chromophobic PAS-positive cells with weak or patchy positivity for ACTH, consistent with the scant, small secretory granules seen ultrastructurally. (WHO)" |
| C154342 | "A corticotroph pituitary tumor composed of cells with Crooke hyaline change. Ring-like cytokeratin expression is typical of these neoplasms. ACTH expression is dislocated to the cell periphery and juxtanuclear region. Ultrastructurally, intermediate filaments are arranged in a ring-like pattern. (WHO)" |
| C154429 | Corticotroph pituitary neuroendocrine tumor not associated with a hormonal syndrome. |
| C154431 | A densely granulated corticotroph pituitary neuroendocrine tumor not associated with a hormonal syndrome. |
| C154432 | A sparsely granulated corticotroph pituitary neuroendocrine tumor not associated with a hormonal syndrome. |
| C154441 | Malignant mesothelioma of the pleura that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C154442 | Malignant mesothelioma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C154443 | Malignant mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C154444 | Malignant mesothelioma of the pleura that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C154473 | A melanoma which has metastasized from an unknown primary anatomic site. |
| C154494 | "A renal cell carcinoma usually seen in children or young adults. It is characterized by papillary, alveolar and nested growth patterns with clear and eosinophilic cells. The carcinomas range from microscopic lesions to clinically symptomatic tumors. It is associated with translocations/gene fusions involving members of the MiT family of transcription factors. There are two subtypes: TFE3-rearranged renal cell carcinoma [Xp11 translocation renal cell carcinoma] and TFEB-rearranged renal cell... |
| C154496 | "A rare tumor, usually occurring in young adults (mean age 12 years) with slight female predominance. It is characterized by a proliferation of anaplastic spindle cells with bizarre, pleomorphic nuclei and atypical mitotic figures. Most cases show chondroid differentiation." |
| C154504 | A plurihormonal pituitary neuroendocrine tumor consisting of a single cell type producing two (or rarely more) hormones. (WHO) |
| C154505 | A plurihormonal pituitary neuroendocrine tumor consisting of two or more different cell lineages. (WHO) |
| C154519 | Pituitary neuroendocrine tumors composed of adenohypopheseal cells of two lineages or a null cell tumor in combination with a lineage-specific pituitary neuroendocrine tumor in the same gland. |
| C154520 | Multiple pituitary neuroendocrine tumors composed of adenohypopheseal cells of two or more lineages or a null cell tumor in combination with a lineage-specific pituitary neuroendocrine tumor in the same gland. |
| C154545 | A renal cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C154547 | Renal cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C154608 | The reemergence of a metastatic malignant neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C154614 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SACS gene, encoding sacsin. It is characterized by  early onset cerebellar ataxia, pyramidal tract signs and peripheral neuropathy." |
| C154615 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the FERMT3 gene, encoding fermitin family homolog 3. It is characterized by a defect in activation of all beta integrins. It manifests clinically as severe infections with marked leukocytosis, accompanied by life-threatening bleeding episodes." |
| C154617 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the digestive system and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20% (often more than 70%). |
| C154618 |  |
| C154621 | A neuroendocrine tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C154622 | The reemergence of gastric adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C154641 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the digestive system and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20% (often more than 70%). |
| C154700 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C155304 | "A rare developmental early childhood neoplasm, arising within the fetal anterior pituitary. It is associated with DICER1 mutations. Patients present with features of Cushing disease, with elevated blood ACTH levels and hypercortisolism. Ophthalmoplegia is a frequent symptom. The overall prognosis is poor. (WHO)" |
| C155305 | A cutaneous melanoma that arises from the upper or lower extremity. |
| C155306 | Cutaneous melanoma of the upper or lower extremity that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C155307 | A variant of sickle cell disease due to heterozygosity for hemoglobin S and hemoglobin E mutations. Patients present with the symptoms of sickle cell disease but the symptoms are less frequent and severe compared to patients with hemoglobin SS disease. |
| C155310 | A variant of sickle cell disease due to heterozygosity for hemoglobin S and hemoglobin D mutations. Patients present with the symptoms of sickle cell disease but the symptoms are less frequent and severe compared to patients with hemoglobin SS disease. |
| C155311 | Cutaneous melanoma of the upper or lower extremity that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C155312 | "A pulmonary complication of sickle cell disease characterized by radiographic interstitial abnormalities and impaired pulmonary function. In severe cases, pulmonary hypertension is present." |
| C155313 | "Retinopathy characterized by the formation of new vessels in the retina. The new vessels are abnormal and fragile. If hemorrhage occurs due to the vascular fragility, there is increased risk of vision loss or blindness." |
| C155316 | Proliferative retinopathy occurring in both eyes. |
| C155647 | A sarcoma that arises from the soft tissues or bones of the upper or lower extremity. |
| C155648 | A sarcoma of the soft tissues or bones of the upper or lower extremity that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C155649 | A sarcoma of the soft tissues or bones of the upper or lower extremity that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C155698 | A carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C155699 | A renal cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C155742 | The reemergence of pancreatic adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C155743 | A pancreatic adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C155747 | "A group of conditions characterized by impairment of peroxisome assembly and metabolic pathways confined to this organelle, caused by mutation(s) in the peroxin (PEX) gene family. Phenotypically, they manifest as Zellweger syndrome (ZS), neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy (NALD), infantile Refsum disease (IRD), and rhizomelic chondrodysplasia punctata (RCDP1), the latter a distinct peroxisome biogenesis disorder phenotype. ZS, NALD, and IRD have multiple complementation groups and form a spectru... |
| C155748 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX1 gene, encoding peroxisome biogenesis factor 1. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 1A manifests phenotypically as Zellweger syndrome." |
| C155749 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX1 gene, encoding peroxisome biogenesis factor 1. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 1B is characterized by overlapping phenotypes of neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy and infantile Refsum disease." |
| C155750 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX5 gene, encoding peroxisomal targeting signal 1 receptor. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 2A manifests phenotypically as Zellweger syndrome." |
| C155751 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX5 gene, encoding peroxisomal targeting signal 1 receptor. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 2B is characterized by overlapping phenotypes of neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy and infantile Refsum disease." |
| C155752 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX12 gene, encoding peroxisome assembly protein 12. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 3A manifests phenotypically as Zellweger syndrome." |
| C155753 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX12 gene, encoding peroxisome assembly protein 12. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 3B is characterized by overlapping phenotypes of neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy and infantile Refsum disease." |
| C155754 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX6 gene, peroxisome assembly factor 2. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 4A manifests phenotypically as Zellweger syndrome." |
| C155755 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX6 gene, peroxisome assembly factor 2, Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 4B is characterized by overlapping phenotypes of neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy and infantile Refsum disease." |
| C155756 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX2 gene, encoding peroxisome biogenesis factor 2. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 5A manifests phenotypically as Zellweger syndrome." |
| C155757 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX2 gene, encoding peroxisome biogenesis factor 2. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 5B is characterized by overlapping phenotypes of neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy and infantile Refsum disease." |
| C155758 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX10 gene, encoding peroxisome biogenesis factor 10. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 6A manifests phenotypically as Zellweger syndrome." |
| C155759 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX10 gene, encoding peroxisome biogenesis factor 10. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 6B is characterized by overlapping phenotypes of neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy and infantile Refsum disease." |
| C155760 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX26 gene, encoding peroxisome assembly protein 26. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 7A manifests phenotypically as Zellweger syndrome." |
| C155761 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX26 gene, encoding peroxisome assembly protein 26. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 7B is characterized by overlapping phenotypes of neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy and infantile Refsum disease." |
| C155762 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX16 gene, encoding peroxisomal membrane protein PEX16. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 8A manifests phenotypically as Zellweger syndrome." |
| C155763 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PEX16 gene, encoding peroxisomal membrane protein PEX16. Peroxisome biogenesis disorder 8B is characterized by overlapping phenotypes of neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy and infantile Refsum disease." |
| C155767 | A pituitary neoplasm composed of mature ganglionic cells admixed with pituitary neoplastic neuroendocrine cells. |
| C155768 | A rare extraventricular neurocytoma (WHO grade 2) of the hypothalamic-pituitary area. (WHO 2017) |
| C155769 | An extremely rare paraganglioma arising from chief cells of the dispersed paraganglia of the sellar region. (WHO) |
| C155772 | An extremely rare ectopic olfactory neuroblastoma that arises from the sellar region. |
| C155774 | "A very rare, low-grade neoplasm that arises from the posterior pituitary. It is composed of epithelioid and oncocytic cells forming sheets and fascicles. It shows histopathological features reminiscent of ependymomas, including perivascular pseudorosettes and true rosettes. There is no evidence of necrosis or increased mitotic activity. Despite the presence of ependymal histopathological features, these neoplasms probably are not related to ependymomas. Their prognosis is unknown." |
| C155776 | A rare meningioma that arises from the sellar region. |
| C155778 | A rare meningioma arising from the intrasellar region. |
| C155780 | An extremely rare schwannoma that arises from the sellar region. |
| C155781 | A chordoma that arises from the sellar region. |
| C155782 | A chondroid chordoma that arises from the sellar region. |
| C155783 | A dedifferentiated chordoma that arises from the sellar region. |
| C155784 | An extremely rare meningeal solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the sellar region. |
| C155786 | A malignant neoplasm that has metastasized to the sellar region from another anatomic site. |
| C155790 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the bones and structures of the skull. |
| C155791 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the skull base. |
| C155792 | "A neoplasm that arises from the bones and structures of skull and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C155793 | "A neoplasm that arises the skull base and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C155796 | A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the pituitary gland. The majority are diffuse large B-cell lymphomas. |
| C155797 | A rare diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the pituitary gland. |
| C155801 | A germ cell tumor that arises from or adjacent to the sellar region. |
| C155802 | A germinoma that arises from or adjacent to the sellar region. |
| C155803 | A germinoma that arises from the suprasellar region. |
| C155804 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from or adjacent to the sellar region. |
| C155805 | An embryonal carcinoma that arises from or adjacent to the sellar region. |
| C155806 | A choriocarcinoma that arises from or adjacent to the sellar region. |
| C155807 | A teratoma that arises from or adjacent to the sellar region. |
| C155808 | A mature teratoma that arises from or adjacent to the sellar region. |
| C155809 | An immature teratoma that arises from or adjacent to the sellar region. |
| C155810 | A teratoma with malignant transformation that arises from or adjacent to the sellar region. |
| C155811 | A mixed germ cell tumor that arises from or adjacent to the sellar region. |
| C155816 | The reemergence of endometrial clear cell adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C155817 | The reemergence of endometrial undifferentiated carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C155818 | The reemergence of uterine corpus carcinosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C155819 | The reemergence of endometrial mixed cell adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C155821 | "The gradual, clonal expansion of hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells carrying specific, disruptive, and recurrent genetic variants, in individuals without clear diagnosis of hematological malignancies. It is associated with an increased risk of developing hematologic cancers." |
| C155829 | Low grade glioma that is not amenable to surgical removal. |
| C155852 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the pancreas and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C155869 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C155870 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that has metastasized from its original site of growth to distal anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C155871 | An infection that is caused by herpes simplex virus. |
| C155872 | An infection that is caused by molluscum contagiosum virus. |
| C155873 | A sarcoma that arises from the anatomic structures that surround the lungs and the pleura. |
| C155874 | A gastric adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C155875 | Desmoid fibromatosis that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C155877 | Desmoid fibromatosis that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C155901 | Lung non-small cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C155902 | Lung carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C155903 | Digestive system carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C155908 | Lung adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C155910 | "Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia with serum IgM monoclonal protein equal or more than 3 g/dL and/or at least 10% bone marrow lymphoplasmacytic infiltration but no evidence of constitutional symptoms, symptomatic anemia, or hyperviscosity. (Blood 2008, 112:2709)" |
| C155919 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the thoracic cavity from another anatomic site. |
| C155933 | A pancreatic neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C155934 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from any part of the digestive system and has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C155935 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from any part of the digestive system and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C155936 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from any part of the digestive system and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C155937 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from any part of the digestive system and does not respond to treatment. |
| C155938 | The reemergence of a neuroendocrine carcinoma in any part of the digestive system after a period of remission. |
| C155947 | A hemangioblastoma that arises from the cerebrum. |
| C155948 | A hemangioblastoma that arises from the spinal cord. |
| C155949 | A hemangioblastoma that arises from the medulla oblongata. |
| C155950 | A malignant urinary system neoplasm that has developed in relatives of patients with a history of malignant urinary system neoplasm. |
| C155951 | Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma that develops in a patient with Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome. |
| C155952 | A cystadenoma that arises from the broad or other uterine ligaments. It is characterized by the presence of small papillary projections in the inner surface of the cysts. It may be sporadic or associated with von Hippel-Lindau disease. |
| C155953 | A cystadenoma that arises from the epididymis. It is characterized by the presence of small papillary projections in the inner surface of the cysts. It may be sporadic or associated with von Hippel-Lindau disease. |
| C155954 | "A syndrome associated with the development of multiple polyps throughout the intestine. It includes familial adenomatous polyposis , hamartomatous polyposis syndromes, and other rare polyposis syndromes." |
| C155957 | A rare thyroid gland follicular adenoma composed predominantly of spindle cells. |
| C155958 | A thyroid gland follicular adenoma seen in patients treated with minocycline. The tumors have black discoloration visible on macroscopic examination and cytoplasmic accumulation of black pigment. (WHO 2017) |
| C155973 | The reemergence of chordoma after a period of remission. |
| C155978 | An encapsulated or well-circumscribed thyroid gland tumor composed of well-differentiated follicular cells with no nuclear features of papillary thyroid carcinoma and with questionable capsular or vascular invasion. This is a tumor indeterminate between follicular adenoma and follicular carcinoma. (WHO) |
| C155983 | The reemergence of visual pathway glioma after a period of remission. |
| C155984 | Visual pathway glioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C155985 | The reemergence of neurofibromatosis type 1 after a period of remission. |
| C155986 | Neurofibromatosis type 1 that is resistant to treatment. |
| C155987 | Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that is resistant to treatment. |
| C155996 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the TTPA gene, encoding alpha-tocopherol transfer protein. It is characterized by spinocerebellar ataxia and extremely low concentrations of vitamin E." |
| C155998 | "An autosomal dominant form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the KCNA2 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily A member 2." |
| C155999 | "An autosomal recessive primary ciliary motility defect caused by mutation(s) in the CCDC40 gene, encoding coiled-coil domain-containing protein 40." |
| C156031 | A condition characterized by the cutaneous features of xeroderma pigmentosum and the systemic and neurological features of Cockayne syndrome. |
| C156032 | "A group of inherited skin disorders that present with multisystem involvement. It includes ichthyosis, epidermolysis bullosa, ectodermal dysplasia, cutis laxa, progeroid conditions, xeroderma pigmentosum, Rothmund Thomson syndrome, and dyskeratosis congenita." |
| C156034 | "A typical papillary thyroid gland carcinoma that is totally surrounded by a fibrous capsule, which may be intact or only focally infiltrated by tumor growth. It accounts for about 10% of all cases of papillary thyroid gland carcinoma and has an excellent prognosis. Regional nodal metastases may be present, but bloodborne metastases are rare. The survival rate is nearly 100%. (WHO 2017)" |
| C156035 | An anaplastic astrocytoma occurring in the frontal lobe. |
| C156036 | An anaplastic astrocytoma occurring in the temporal lobe. |
| C156037 | A pilocytic astrocytoma occurring in the third ventricle. |
| C156038 | A pilomyxoid astrocytoma occurring in the hypothalamic-chiasmatic region. |
| C156039 | A medulloblastoma occurring in the fourth ventricle. |
| C156040 | A germinoma that arises from the third ventricle. |
| C156041 | A pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma that arises from the supratentorial region of the brain. |
| C156042 | A pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma that arises from the temporal lobe of the brain. |
| C156045 | Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland with focal areas of spindle cell metaplasia. |
| C156050 | A rare variant of papillary thyroid gland carcinoma in which more than 30% of cells have hobnail features. (WHO) |
| C156062 | A carcinoma that arises from the bladder and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156063 | A carcinoma that arises from the fallopian tube and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156064 | A carcinoma that arises from the ovary and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156065 | A carcinoma that arises from the vagina and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156066 | A carcinoma that arises from the vulva and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156068 | A carcinoma that arises from the endometrium and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156069 | A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156070 | A carcinoma that arises from the adrenal cortex and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156071 | A sarcoma that arises from the soft tissues during adulthood and has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C156072 | A melanoma that arises from the skin and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156073 | A carcinoma that arises from the esophagus and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156074 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the esophagus and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156075 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the esophagus and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156076 | Chronic atrophic gastritis that is caused by autoimmune destruction of parietal cells in the stomach resulting in hypochlorhydria and decreased production of intrinsic factor. |
| C156077 | A keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156078 | An undifferentiated carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156079 | A carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156080 | A carcinoma that arises from the pharynx and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156081 | A carcinoma that arises from the hypopharynx and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156082 | A carcinoma that arises from the oropharynx and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156085 | A carcinoma that arises from the larynx and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156086 | A carcinoma that arises from the lip and/or oral cavity and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156087 | A carcinoma that arises from the oral cavity and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156088 | A carcinoma that arises from the lip and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156089 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the oral cavity and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156090 | A mucoepidermoid carcinoma that arises from the oral cavity and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156091 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the lip and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156092 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the lung and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156093 | An adenosquamous carcinoma that arises from the lung and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156094 | A non-small cell carcinoma that arises from the lung and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156095 | A small cell carcinoma that arises from the lung and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156096 | A carcinoma that arises from the colon or rectum and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156097 | A carcinoma that arises from the colon and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156098 | A carcinoma that arises from the rectum and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156099 | A follicular carcinoma that arises from the thyroid gland and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156100 | A papillary carcinoma that arises from the thyroid gland and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156101 | A neuroblastoma that has metastasized from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C156103 | The reemergence of a blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C156104 | Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C156120 | An anaplastic oligodendroglioma occurring in the frontal lobe. |
| C156122 | An encapsulated follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland which shows angioinvasion. |
| C156123 | A follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland with extension into surrounding thyroid or extrathyroid tissues. |
| C156166 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the gastroesophageal junction and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C156167 | A carcinoma that arises from the stomach and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C156232 | An aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C156233 | An aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C156253 | A cytomegalovirus infection that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C156254 | An adenovirus infection that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C156255 | An Epstein-Barr virus infection that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C156267 | A rare primary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the presence of clusters of malignant epithelial cells associated with abundant extracellular mucin deposition. |
| C156268 | A rare thymoma arising within or is attached to the thyroid gland. |
| C156269 | A pancreatic adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C156273 | An alveolar soft part sarcoma involving the tongue. It usually occurs in children. |
| C156274 | A sarcoma that arises from the tongue. |
| C156276 | An alveolar soft part sarcoma involving the orbit. It usually occurs in children. |
| C156277 | An alveolar soft part sarcoma involving the bladder. |
| C156278 | "A benign cutaneous neoplasm of uncertain differentiation that usually affects children and young adults and presents as a usually solitary well-circumscribed dermal nodule, predominantly in the face. It is a multilobulated neoplasm composed of nests of epithelioid cells with pale eosinophilic cytoplasm and vesicular nucleus. The nests of neoplastic cells are usually separated by collagenous or myxoid stroma." |
| C156279 | A liposarcoma that arises from the colon. |
| C156280 | A sarcoma that arises from the parotid gland. |
| C156281 | A liposarcoma that arises from the parotid gland. |
| C156282 | A liposarcoma involving the scrotum. |
| C156283 | A sarcoma involving the scrotum. |
| C156284 | A prostatic carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156285 | A prostatic carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C156286 | A prostatic adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156287 | A prostatic adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C156288 | A prostatic carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156289 | A prostatic adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156294 | A cervical carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156295 | A cervical carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C156297 | A cervical adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C156299 | A cervical adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156300 | A cervical carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156304 | A cervical adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156309 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the MYT1L gene, encoding myelin transcription factor 1-like protein. It is characterized by intellectual disability and mild dysmorphic facial features." |
| C156310 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SMN1 gene, encoding survival motor neuron protein. It is characterized by onset between 3 and 15 months of age, and is intermediate in terms of severity between spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) type I and SMA type III." |
| C156311 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SLC26A2 gene, encoding sulfate transporter. It is characterized by  cartilaginous and bony abnormalities, in particular very short arms and legs and the ""hitchhiker"" thumb, resulting from deformity of the first metacarpal." |
| C156340 | A rare schwannoma that arises from the thyroid gland. |
| C156341 | A rare malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that arises from the thyroid gland. |
| C156342 | "A rare benign vascular neoplasm that arises from the thyroid gland. This category includes hemangiomas, cavernous hemangiomas, and lymphangiomas." |
| C156343 | A rare hemangioma that arises from the thyroid gland. |
| C156344 | A rare cavernous hemangioma that arises from the thyroid gland. |
| C156345 | An extremely rare lymphangioma that arises from the thyroid gland. |
| C156346 | A leiomyoma that arises from the thyroid gland. |
| C156347 | A leiomyosarcoma that arises from the thyroid gland. |
| C156348 | Any disorder affecting the peripheral nerves resulting from exposure to chemotherapeutic agents. |
| C156349 | A rare solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the thyroid gland. |
| C156360 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(S) in the NGF gene, encoding beta-nerve growth factor. It is characterized by loss of pain sensation, particularly in the extremities." |
| C156361 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the THAP1 gene, encoding THAP domain-containing protein 1. It is characterized by dystonic craniofacial movements, dysarthria, and dysphagia. Limb involvement is common." |
| C156406 | A rare histiocytic and dendritic cell neoplasm that affects the thyroid gland. |
| C156407 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis involving the thyroid gland focally or diffusely. It is exceedingly rare and usually occurs in patients with multifocal disease. |
| C156408 | A rare follicular dendritic cell sarcoma involving the thyroid gland. It may be associated with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis. |
| C156409 | Rosai-Dorfman-Destombes disease affecting the thyroid gland. It is rare and is usually accompanied by involvement of cervical lymph nodes. |
| C156410 | A rare follicular lymphoma primarily involving the thyroid gland. |
| C156411 | A teratoma that contains mature tissue elements and a limited amount of immature tissue elements. |
| C156424 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SCL46A1 gene, encoding proton-coupled folate transporter. It is characterized by low concentrations of folate resulting in megaloblastic anemia, immune deficiency, and neurologic deficits." |
| C156430 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the DNMT3B gene, encoding DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferase 3B. It is characterized by immunoglobulin deficiency, centromeric instability of chromosomes 1,9, and 19 (rarely chromosome 2), and facial dysmorphism." |
| C156433 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of trichothiodystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the ERCC2 gene, encoding general transcription and DNA repair factor IIH helicase subunit XPD." |
| C156446 | "An autosomal recessive allelic variant of epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica caused by mutation(s) in the COL7A1 gene, encoding collagen alpha-1(VII) chain." |
| C156453 | The reemergence of primary peritoneal serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C156454 | The reemergence of primary peritoneal low grade serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C156455 | The reemergence of ovarian low-grade serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C156456 | The reemergence of low grade fallopian tube serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C156457 | A small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from an anatomic site other than the lung. |
| C156462 | An ependymoma that arises from the brain. |
| C156464 | "A very rare renal cell carcinoma that usually affects young adults. It is characterized by mutations in one of the four subunits of the SDH complex (SDHA, SDHB, SDHC, or SDHD gene). Most frequently, the mutations occur in the SDHB subunit. It has a relatively good prognosis." |
| C156474 | Kaposi sarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C156475 | Kaposi sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C156476 | Kaposi sarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156482 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the genitourinary system. |
| C156483 | "A neoplasm that arises from the genitourinary system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C156484 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the genitourinary system. |
| C156485 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C156486 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156488 | A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the islet cells of the pancreas and has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C156489 | A pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156492 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from any part of the digestive system and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156493 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the breast and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156660 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the genitourinary system. |
| C156664 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the genitourinary system. |
| C156671 | Pneumonitis that does not respond to corticosteroid therapy. |
| C156682 | A gastric neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C156683 | A gastric neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156684 | A gastric large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156685 | A gastric small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156686 | A small intestinal neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C156687 | A small intestinal neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156688 | A small intestinal small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156689 | A small intestinal large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156696 | The reemergence of T-cell/histiocyte-rich large B-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C156699 | Histologic transformation of a marginal zone lymphoma to an aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. |
| C156711 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the peritoneum and/or retroperitoneum. |
| C156713 | "A neoplasm that arises from the peritoneum and/or retroperitoneum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C156714 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the organs and structures of the abdomen. |
| C156715 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the organs and structures of the pelvis. |
| C156716 | The reemergence of acute myeloid leukemia not otherwise specified after a period of remission. |
| C156717 | The reemergence of acute myelomonocytic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C156718 | The reemergence of acute myeloid leukemia with recurrent genetic abnormalities after a period of remission. |
| C156719 | The reemergence of acute myeloid leukemia with t(9;11)(p21.3;q23.3); MLLT3-KMT2A after a period of remission. |
| C156720 | The reemergence of acute myeloid leukemia with multilineage dysplasia after a period of remission. |
| C156722 | The reemergence of acute monoblastic and monocytic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C156723 | The reemergence of acute erythroid leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C156731 | The reemergence of acute megakaryoblastic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C156745 | A microsatellite stable colorectal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C156746 | Digestive system carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C156757 | "A benign ovoid parathyroid gland neoplasm surrounded by a pseudocapsule. It is composed of chief cells, clear cells, oncocytic cells, or a mixture of cell types. It lacks the morphological characteristics of parathyroid gland carcinoma and there is no evidence of capsular invasion, vascular invasion, and perineural invasion." |
| C156767 | A carcinoma involving the basal cells. |
| C156769 | A carcinoma that arises from the basal cells and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C156770 | A basal cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C156771 | Increasing prostate-specific antigen (PSA) following prostatectomy or radiation therapy in a patient with a history of localized prostate carcinoma. Signs of metastasis are absent using the currently available scanning technology. |
| C156781 | "A carcinoma arising from the intrahepatic bile ducts, hepatic ducts, common bile duct, cystic duct, or gallbladder." |
| C156782 | The reemergence of a carcinoma arising from any part of the biliary tract after a period of remission. |
| C156788 | A basal cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156789 | A basal cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156790 | "Graft versus host disease (GVHD) that occurs in an infant as the result of engraftment of maternal lymphocytes, resulting from in utero maternal-fetal cellular trafficking." |
| C156793 | A malignant neoplasm that is associated with human papillomavirus infection and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C156801 | An infection with human immunodeficiency virus that responds to therapy. |
| C156885 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the bronchial tree. |
| C156906 | Pancreatic adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156907 | Pancreatic acinar cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156908 | Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156909 | A digestive system carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156910 | Bile duct adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156911 | Extrahepatic bile duct adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C156943 | An extremely rare sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the adrenal cortex. The reported cases were solitary and unilateral. |
| C156944 | A rare schwannoma that arises from the adrenal medulla. |
| C156945 | A rare lymphoma that arises from the adrenal gland. |
| C156956 | A rare sarcoma that arises from the adrenal gland. |
| C157056 | Breast adenocarcinoma that is positive for hormone receptors. |
| C157057 | Hormone receptor-positive breast adenocarcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C157065 | "An uncommon and potentially fatal intraocular non-Hodgkin lymphoma that involves the uvea, retina, vitreous body, and optic nerve. It is a subset of primary central nervous system non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The majority of cases are diffuse large B-cell lymphomas." |
| C157067 | "An uncommon and potentially fatal diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that involves the uvea, retina, vitreous body, and optic nerve. It is a subset of primary central nervous system diffuse large B-cell lymphoma." |
| C157068 | The reemergence of primary vitreoretinal non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C157069 | Primary vitreoretinal non-Hodgkin lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C157070 | The reemergence of primary vitreoretinal diffuse large B-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C157071 | Primary vitreoretinal diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C157073 | The reemergence of primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system after a period of remission. |
| C157074 | Primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system that does not respond to treatment. |
| C157122 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PHF6 gene, encoding PHD finger protein 6. It is characterized by severe intellectual disability, epilepsy, hypogonadism, hypometabolism, and obesity." |
| C157123 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the STAT3 gene, encoding signal transducer and activator of transcription 3. It is characterized by variable features along a spectrum of autoimmune disorders affecting multiple organs. Common manifestations may include insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus and autoimmune enteropathy, or celiac disease, and autoimmune hematologic disorders. Other features include short stature and nonspecific dermatitis." |
| C157124 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) and or deletion of the SHANK3 gene, encoding SH3 and multiple ankyrin repeat domains protein 3. It is characterized by variable features, which may include intellectual disability, autism spectrum disorder, developmental delay and mild dysmorphic features." |
| C157125 | The reemergence of paraganglioma after a period of remission. |
| C157126 | Paraganglioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C157128 | Adrenal gland pheochromocytoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C157129 | Adrenal gland pheochromocytoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C157130 | The reemergence of a neuroendocrine neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C157131 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C157147 | "An autosomal dominant form of cerebral amyloid angiopathy caused by mutation(s) in the APP gene, encoding amyloid-beta A4 protein. The deposition of amyloid in cerebral blood vessels wall may lead to degenerative vascular changes that may result in cerebral hemorrhage. Mutation(s) in the APP gene may also cause autosomal dominant Alzheimer disease 1." |
| C157148 | "An autosomal dominant sub-type of congenital dyserythropoietic anemia caused by mutation(s) in the KLF1 gene, encoding Krueppel-like factor 1." |
| C157150 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the CAPN1 gene, encoding calpain-1 catalytic subunit." |
| C157158 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the TH gene, encoding tyrosine 3-monooxygenase. It is characterized by onset in infancy of dopa-responsive dystonia." |
| C157235 | A rare variant of invasive lobular breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of histiocyte-like malignant cells with pale cytoplasm forming sheets or linear patterns. Apocrine differentiation may be present. It usually has an aggressive clinical course. |
| C157243 | An intermixed ganglioneuroblastoma arising from the adrenal gland. |
| C157244 | A nodular ganglioneuroblastoma arising from the adrenal gland. |
| C157245 | A ganglioneuroma arising from the adrenal gland. |
| C157246 | "A neoplasm that combines morphologic characteristics of paraganglioma and neuroectodermal tumors such as neuroblastoma, ganglioneuroma, ganglioneuroblastoma, or peripheral nerve sheath tumor." |
| C157248 | "A hereditary adrenal gland pheochromocytoma caused by mutations in SDHB, SDHC, and SDHD genes." |
| C157266 | "An autosomal dominant sub-type of left ventricular noncompaction syndrome caused by heterozygous mutation(s) of the MIB1 gene, encoding E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase MIB1." |
| C157267 | "A group of disorders with overlapping phenotypes caused by mutation(s) of the POLG gene, encoding DNA polymerase subunit gamma-1. Phenotypic variations include Alpers-Huttenlocher syndrome (AHS), childhood myocerebrohepatopathy spectrum (MCHS), myoclonic epilepsy myopathy sensory ataxia (MEMSA), ataxia neuropathy spectrum (ANS), autosomal recessive progressive external ophthalmoplegia (arPEO), and autosomal dominant progressive external ophthalmoplegia (adPEO)." |
| C157268 | A rare autoimmune disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of inflammation of cartilage and other connective tissues. |
| C157320 | Skin squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C157324 | Skin carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C157330 | Basal cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C157331 | Basal cell carcinoma of the skin that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C157334 | A malignant solid neoplasm that arises from any anatomic site other than the brain and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C157335 | A malignant solid neoplasm that arises from any anatomic site other than the brain and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C157336 | An adenovirus infection that does not respond to treatment. |
| C157343 | "A condition caused by a B-cell or plasma cell clone resulting in the deposition of the secreted monoclonal immunoglobulin, without evidence for overt lymphoma or myeloma. This category includes a wide spectrum of renal pathology and include such lesions as immunoglobulin-associated amyloidosis, the monoclonal immunoglobulin deposition diseases (MIDDs; light chain deposition disease, heavy chain deposition disease, and light and heavy chain deposition disease), proliferative glomerulonephrit... |
| C157350 | A pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma term that refers to a continuum between resectable and locally advanced unresectable disease. |
| C157355 | An adenocarcinoma that originates from the colorectal area and has spread to the liver. |
| C157364 | A squamous non-small cell carcinoma that arises from the lung and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C157365 | A non-small cell squamous carcinoma of the lung that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C157366 | A carcinoma that originates from the colorectal area and has spread to the liver. |
| C157449 | "An autosomal dominant tumor syndrome caused by germline CDKN1B mutations that result in a phenotype similar to that of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, characterized by endocrine neoplasms, particularly in the parathyroid glands, pituitary, and pancreas. (WHO 2017)" |
| C157450 | A hemangioblastoma that arises from peripheral nerves or extraneural tissues. |
| C157452 | A squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to the cervical lymph nodes. |
| C157458 | Hyperplasia of the alpha cells of the pancreas. |
| C157461 | An extremely rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the GCGR gene. It is characterized by the presence of islet glucagon cell hyperplasia and glucagon cell tumors. |
| C157474 | The reemergence of monomorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder after a period of remission. |
| C157475 | A monomorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that does not respond to treatment. |
| C157476 | The reemergence of polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder after a period of remission. |
| C157477 | A polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that does not respond to treatment. |
| C157497 | "Castration-resistant prostate carcinoma that is refractory to second-generation androgen receptor axis-targeted agents, namely abiraterone and enzalutamide." |
| C157504 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the AMPD1 gene, encoding AMP deaminase 1. The condition is characterized by exercise-induced muscle pain and/or fatigue, which may be associated with rhabdomyolysis and/or increased concentrations of creatinine kinase." |
| C157573 | Anal canal or perianal skin intraepithelial neoplasia with mild dysplasia. |
| C157574 | Anal canal or perianal skin intraepithelial neoplasia with moderate dysplasia. |
| C157575 | Anal canal or perianal skin intraepithelial neoplasia with severe dysplasia. |
| C157576 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the TP63 gene, encoding tumor protein 63. It is characterized by congenital ectodermal dysplasia, ankyloblepharon filiforme adnatum, and cleft lip/palate." |
| C157577 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the ATP1A3 gene, encoding sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase subunit alpha-3. It is characterized by abrupt onset of dystonia and parkinsonism in young adulthood, often triggered by physical or psychological stress." |
| C157600 | The reemergence of giant cell glioblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C157601 | The reemergence of ependymoma after a period of remission. |
| C157602 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the lung and has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C157606 | Dysplasia in Barrett esophagus that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157607 | A non-neoplastic longstanding disorder of the lower respiratory system. |
| C157614 | A clear cell renal cell carcinoma that is associated with a mutation in BAP1 gene. These tumors are typically high grade and associated with poor outcome. |
| C157616 | Unspecified infectious and parasitic diseases and their sequelae other than those otherwise specified. |
| C157621 | Fallopian tube carcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C157622 | Primary peritoneal carcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C157623 | A cholangiocarcinoma that has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C157624 | Histologic transformation of an indolent chronic lymphocytic leukemia to an aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. |
| C157625 | Histologic transformation of a small lymphocytic lymphoma to an aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. |
| C157631 | The reemergence of urothelial carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C157636 | A urothelial carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C157638 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C157639 | The reemergence of adenoid cystic carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C157652 | Sarcoma involving the organs and structures of the pelvis. |
| C157657 | Lymphoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C157678 | T-cell/histiocyte-rich large B-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157679 | The reemergence of primary effusion lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C157680 | Primary effusion lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157681 | The reemergence of primary lymphoma of bone after a period of remission. |
| C157682 | Primary lymphoma of bone that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157683 | The reemergence of plasmablastic lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C157684 | Plasmablastic lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157685 | The reemergence of HIV-associated lymphoproliferative disorder after a period of remission. |
| C157686 | Lymphoproliferative disorder that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157687 | HIV-associated lymphoproliferative disorder that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157689 | "The reemergence of NK-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable after a period of remission." |
| C157690 | "NK-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable that is resistant to treatment." |
| C157691 | T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157692 | The reemergence of aggressive NK-cell leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C157693 | Aggressive NK-cell leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157694 | Monomorphic epitheliotropic intestinal T-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157695 | The reemergence of subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C157696 | Subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157697 | B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C157709 | A lymphoproliferative disorder that develops in an individual with HIV infection. |
| C157718 | The most common renal cell carcinoma that develops in patients with end-stage renal disease and acquired cystic disease. |
| C157733 | Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis that affects the larynx. |
| C157737 | A rare synovial sarcoma that arises from the kidney. |
| C157743 | "An epithelial neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the kidney.  It includes neuroendocrine tumor, small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma, large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma, and paraganglioma." |
| C157745 | A cystic nephroma that occurs in very young children. |
| C157748 | A neoplasm arising from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct areas of the kidney. |
| C157749 | A rare benign renal neoplasm composed of moderately cellular spindle cells. It occurs mostly in infancy and childhood. |
| C157750 | A bladder squamous cell carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C157751 | A bladder plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C157754 | A bladder lipid-rich urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C157755 | A kidney medullary carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C157757 | A sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C157758 | "An epithelial neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the bladder. This category includes neuroendocrine tumors, neuroendocrine carcinomas, and paragangliomas." |
| C157759 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the bladder. This category includes small cell and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C157760 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the bladder. It is characterized by the presence of malignant large cells. |
| C157762 | A bladder large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C157763 | A bladder small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C157764 | Prostate small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C157766 | A bladder sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C157767 | A bladder micropapillary urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C157768 | A bladder clear cell (glycogen-rich) urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C157769 | A bladder giant cell urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C157770 | A bladder nested urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C157774 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the genitourinary system and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C157781 | "A new infection by the hepatitis B virus, which can be transmitted by direct contact of infected blood with mucous membranes or open areas of the skin. Signs and symptoms may include loss of appetite, joint and muscle pain, low-grade fever and stomach pain. Two to six percent of adults progress to a chronic infection, while 90% of infants become chronically ill. A vaccine is available for those at risk." |
| C157782 | "A new infection by the hepatitis C virus, which can be detected in blood. Signs and symptoms may include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, jaundice, dark urine, white stools and nausea. Approximately 15%-25% individuals clear the virus from their bodies without treatment. 75%-85% individuals develop chronic hepatitis C. There are possible treatments depending on individual characteristics." |
| C157783 | "A new infection by the hepatitis E virus, which is usually spread by the fecal-oral route. Signs and symptoms may include fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, jaundice, dark urine, clay-colored stools and joint pain. There is no specific anti-viral treatment, the infection resolves on its own." |
| C157785 | "A parasitic infection of the colon by Entamoeba histolytica. Signs and symptoms include cramping, diarrhea, bloody stools and fever. It can be treated with antibiotics." |
| C157794 | A cutaneous disorder attributed to a bacterial infection. |
| C157804 | "A gastrointestinal infection attributed to the bacteria campylobacter. It is usually contracted by consuming raw or undercooked poultry or consuming a food that has been in contact with raw poultry. It is characterized by abdominal pain, fever, and  diarrhea and usually resolves in two to five days." |
| C157812 | An acute diarrheal illness caused by consuming water or food contaminated by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. Adequate rehydration is key to surviving this illness. |
| C157813 | Longstanding kidney disease as a complication of diabetes. |
| C157814 | Longstanding kidney disease as a complication of hypertension. |
| C157816 | A non-neoplastic longstanding disorder of the respiratory system. |
| C157817 | Cirrhosis of the liver that develops as a sequelae of a hepatitis b infection. |
| C157818 | Cirrhosis of the liver that develops as a sequelae of a hepatitis c infection. |
| C157841 | "A pathotype of Escherichia coli, which is a gram-negative bacteria that is transmitted through the fecal-oral route. It has an incubation period of 9-12 hours and a duration of 12 days. Symptoms may include persistent severe acute diarrhea." |
| C157842 | "A pathotype of Escherichia coli, which is a gram-negative bacteria that is transmitted through the fecal-oral route. It has an incubation period of 10-72 hours and a duration of 1-5 days. Symptoms may include acute, occasionally severe diarrhea without fever." |
| C157867 | Meningitis that is attributed to the bacteria H influenze type B. |
| C157868 | Pneumonia that is attributed to the bacteria H influenze type B. |
| C157886 | An infection in the gastrointestinal tract by a nematode. |
| C157888 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic vascular disorder that affects the intestines. |
| C157895 | A deficiency of iodine in the diet. |
| C157917 | A pathologic response to infection in a mother or pregnant woman. |
| C157935 | A disorder that is not transmissible from one person to another. |
| C157936 | A disease of the intestines that is inflammatory but not infectious. |
| C157937 | Any stroke that is not related to an obstructed blood vessel. |
| C157938 | A deficiency of a necessary nutrient. |
| C157958 | Meningitis that is attributed to the bacteria Streptococcus pneumonia. |
| C157959 | Pneumonia that is attributed to the bacteria Streptococcus pneumonia. |
| C157971 | Pneumonia that is attributed to the respiratory syncytial virus. |
| C157973 | Enteritis attributed to the rotavirus. |
| C157974 | An intestinal bacterial disease caused by Salmonella bacteria. |
| C157977 | A chlamydial infection that was sexually transmitted. |
| C157978 | An intestinal disease cause by Shigella bacteria. |
| C157995 | A disorder of the subcutaneous tissue. |
| C158032 | An angiomyolipoma that arises from the kidney and is composed exclusively or predominantly of epithelioid cells. It is often associated with cytologic atypia and may recur or metastasize. |
| C158046 | "A family of tumors ranging from predominantly cystic tumors (adult cystic nephromas) to tumors that are variably solid (mixed epithelial and stromal tumors) and contain biphasic epithelial and stromal components with spindle stroma, glands, and cysts. Most of these tumors are benign. (WHO 2016)." |
| C158081 | The reemergence of a B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C158088 | A digestive system neuroendocrine neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C158089 | A digestive system neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C158090 | A digestive system neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C158101 | Cholangiocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C158104 | WHO grade 2 glioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C158135 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the NBAS gene, encoding neuroblastoma-amplified sequence. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of acute liver failure that begin in infancy." |
| C158138 | "A condition characterized by the presence of functioning endometrial tissue in the lung, pleura, chest wall, and/or diaphragm." |
| C158149 | The reemergence of B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma transformed after a period of remission. |
| C158150 | An indolent B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma which has undergone histologic transformation to an aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma and has become resistant to treatment. |
| C158151 | The reemergence of chronic lymphocytic leukemia transformed to aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (Richter's transformation) after a period of remission. |
| C158152 | Chronic lymphocytic leukemia which has undergone histologic transformation to an aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (Richter's transformation) and has become resistant to treatment. |
| C158374 | A non-invasive neoplasm that arises from the urothelial lining of the bladder. |
| C158378 | Endometrial serous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C158379 | Endometrial mixed cell adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C158380 | Endometrial clear cell adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C158381 | Uterine Corpus Carcinosarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C158382 | "Papillary urothelial neoplastic proliferation in the bladder with some level of cytological and architectural disorder visible at low to intermediate magnification, with no invasion beyond the basement membrane (Ta). (WHO 2016)" |
| C158383 | A uterine corpus carcinosarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C158401 | A paraganglioma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C158402 | A pheochromocytoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C158421 | The reemergence of endometrioid adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C158426 | The reemergence of desmoplastic small round cell tumor after a period of remission. |
| C158427 | Desmoplastic small round cell tumor that is resistant to treatment. |
| C158428 | The reemergence of fibrosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C158429 | Fibrosarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C158430 | The reemergence of spindle cell sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C158431 | Spindle cell sarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C158437 | The reemergence of endometrial adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C158463 | A salivary gland carcinoma that has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C158464 | A salivary gland carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C158493 | Lung small cell carcinoma that is resistant to platinum therapy. |
| C158495 | Lung small cell carcinoma that is sensitive to platinum therapy. |
| C158531 | "An X-linked subtype of hyper-IgM caused by mutation(s) in the CD40LG gene, encoding CD40 ligand. It is characterized by normal or elevated IgM concentrations, with markedly decreased concentrations of other immunoglobulins. The clinical course is variable; it manifests as susceptibility to bacterial and opportunistic infections, neutropenia, and increased risk of lymphoma." |
| C158547 | "A term that refers to the presence of somatic mutations in bone marrow or peripheral blood cells in individuals who may be cytopenic but do not have morphologic evidence of hematologic neoplasia. Its prevalence rises with age and is found in approximately 10% of individuals aged 70 to 80. It is associated with an increased risk of hematologic neoplasia. Mutations in the DNMT3A, TET2, or ASXL1 genes are usually identified. Approximately 10%-40% of individuals with age-related clonal hematopo... |
| C158585 | Urethral urothelial carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C158586 | Bladder urothelial carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C158587 | Ureter urothelial carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C158588 | A renal pelvis urothelial carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C158610 | An endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting squamous differentiation. |
| C158616 | "A low grade, non-invasive mixed epithelial proliferative neoplasm that arises from the ovary. In most cases is composed of serous and endocervical-type mucinous cells." |
| C158620 | An endometrioid tumor exhibiting squamous differentiation. |
| C158622 | A neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from a site in the female reproductive system. Almost all cases have been reported in the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of cystic spaces which are lined by atypical serous epithelial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C158636 | A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the bladder. |
| C158650 | An exceptionally rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland. It is characterized by the presence of malignant large cells. |
| C158656 | Acinar adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland characterized by the presence of scattered neuroendocrine cells by immunohistochemistry. |
| C158664 | A prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of cells with eosinophilic cytoplasmic granules that are positive for neuroendocrine markers by immunohistochemistry. |
| C158730 | Graft versus host disease occurring in the eye. |
| C158731 | Chronic graft versus host disease occurring in the eye. |
| C158751 | Inflammatory breast carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C158752 | Breast carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C158787 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in one of several genes, most often SLC26A4 encoding pendrin. It is characterized by  hearing loss and enlargement of the vestibular aqueduct. Mutation(s) in the SLC26A4 gene also cause Pendred syndrome." |
| C158788 | "An autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutation(s) of the MYH9 gene, encoding myosin-9. Clinical features include thrombocytopenia, giant platelets, and characteristic inclusions in peripheral blood leukocytes, and may be associated with other organ dysfunction. It comprises the Epstein syndrome, Fechtner syndrome, May-Hegglin anomaly, and Sebastian syndrome-- all of which were previously believed to be distinct entities." |
| C158908 | A large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has metastasized from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C158909 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C158910 | A large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C158911 | A small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has metastasized from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C158912 | "An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the prostate gland. It is classified as either small or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma based on the size of the malignant cells, the prominence of the nucleoli, and the amount of cytoplasm." |
| C158913 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland and has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C158914 | A prostate neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C158915 | A small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C158960 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the exocrine pancreatic ducts and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C158961 | Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma that has not spread beyond the pancreas. |
| C158962 | A rare type of amyloidosis characterized by the monoclonal deposition of immunoglobulin heavy chain fragments in organs and tissues. It is associated with plasma cell or B-cell lymphoproliferative disorders. |
| C158963 | The most common type of amyloidosis. It is characterized by the monoclonal deposition of immunoglobulin light chain fragments in organs and tissues. It is associated with plasma cell or B-cell lymphoproliferative disorders. |
| C158964 | An extremely rare type of amyloidosis characterized by the monoclonal deposition of immunoglobulin heavy chain and light chain fragments in organs and tissues. |
| C158965 | A subtype of monoclonal immunoglobulin deposition disease in which heavy and light chains deposition results in non-amyloid tissue deposits which may cause organ dysfunction. |
| C158966 | A morphologic variant of light chain proximal tubulopathy with no evidence of crystal formation. It is characterized by acute tubular injury with no evidence lysosomal immunoglobulin crystals. |
| C158967 | A condition characterized by histiocytes containing intra-lysosomal accumulation of immunoglobulin light chains. Crystal-storing histiocytosis is often associated with plasma cell dyscrasias and lymphoproliferative disorders. |
| C158968 | "Glomerulonephritis characterized by the presence of Congo-red negative microfibrils in the mesangium and capillary walls of the glomeruli. Morphologic findings include formation of microtubules, evident on electron microscopy, that are larger than those seen in fibrillary glomerulonephritis (30-50 versus 16-24 nm in diameter). There may be some overlap in the size of fibrils found in both conditions." |
| C158969 | "Glomerulonephritis caused by cryoglobulins which are composed of monoclonal immunoglobulins IgG, IgA, or IgM. It occurs in patients with lymphoproliferative disorders." |
| C158970 | "A sub-type of monoclonal gammopathy of renal significance, characterized by restriction to a single immunoglobulin G heavy chain subclass and a single light chain isotype. Light microscopy often shows an endocapillary proliferative or membranoproliferative glomerulopathy. Electron microscopy reveals electron-dense subendothelial and mesangial deposits." |
| C158971 | A subset of C3 glomerulopathy in which there is an associated finding of monoclonal gammopathy. |
| C159205 | A rare angiosarcoma arising from the kidney. |
| C159206 | An extremely rare rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the kidney. Most cases are of embryonal type. |
| C159208 | A rare Ewing sarcoma arising from the kidney. |
| C159209 | A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the kidney. |
| C159211 | A rare hemangioma arising from the kidney. |
| C159214 | A rare lymphangioma arising from the kidney. |
| C159221 | A rare schwannoma arising from the kidney. |
| C159222 | A rare solitary fibrous tumor arising from the kidney. |
| C159223 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm arising from the kidney. It is characterized by the presence of uniform cells with stippled chromatin and inconspicuous nucleoli. Mitotic activity is low and tumor necrosis is absent. |
| C159224 | "An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the kidney. It is classified as either small or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma based on the size of the malignant cells, the prominence of the nucleoli, and the amount of cytoplasm." |
| C159225 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the kidney. It is characterized by the presence of malignant large cells. |
| C159226 | An extremely rare paraganglioma that arises from the renal hilum. Paragangliomas that arise from the perihilar sympathetic ganglia are not included in this category. |
| C159227 | A rare benign or malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the kidney. |
| C159244 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the penis and is not caused by human papillomavirus infection. Morphologic variants include pseudohyperplastic, pseudoglandular, verrucous, papillary, and sarcomatoid carcinoma." |
| C159245 | "A multifocal, extremely differentiated squamous cell carcinoma of the penis. It typically occurs in older patients and is associated with lichen sclerosus." |
| C159246 | A penile squamous cell carcinoma characterized by cellular discohesion of the tumor cells that results in the formation of pseudolumina resembling glandular structures. |
| C159247 | A variant of verrucous carcinoma of the penis. It is characterized by a labyrinthine growth pattern. |
| C159248 | An extremely rare carcinoma that arises from the penis and is characterized by the presence of glandular and squamous components. |
| C159249 | A variant of penile basaloid squamous cell carcinoma. It is characterized by a papillary exophytic or endophytic growth pattern. |
| C159250 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the penis. It is characterized by warty (condylomatous) and basaloid features. |
| C159251 | A variant of penile squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with clear cytoplasm. |
| C159252 | "A variant of penile squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of islands of malignant cells with uniform vesicular nuclei and prominent nucleoli, and a dense lymphocytic infiltrate." |
| C159311 | "A low grade ovarian epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic mucinous epithelial cells, atypia, and microinvasion of the ovarian stroma." |
| C159312 | "A low grade ovarian epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic mucinous epithelial cells, atypia, and the presence of intraepithelial carcinoma." |
| C159313 | A low grade ovarian epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical neoplastic serous and mucinous cells. Microinvasion of the ovarian stroma is present. |
| C159323 | The formation of a thrombus in the vena cava. |
| C159456 | Fanconi syndrome that is caused by light chain deposition resulting in a proximal tubulopathy. |
| C159486 | A low grade ovarian epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. Microinvasion of the ovarian stroma is present. |
| C159507 | "An extremely rare and highly aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the peritoneum.  Morphologically, it is a high grade tumor, composed of carcinomatous and sarcomatous elements." |
| C159542 | A rare bladder adenocarcinoma with the histologic characteristics of endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium. |
| C159548 | Gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C159556 | An adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C159562 | A clear cell renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C159563 | An adenocarcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C159565 | An adenocarcinoma that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C159582 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm arising from the bladder. It is characterized by the presence of uniform cells with stippled chromatin and inconspicuous nucleoli. Mitotic activity is low and tumor necrosis is absent. |
| C159653 | "An autosomal recessive sub-type of Joubert syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the RPGRIP1L gene, encoding a protein thought to function in programmed cell death. It is characterized by cerebellar and oculomotor apraxia, hypotonia and psychomotor delay, neonatal respiratory abnormalities, renal abnormalities, and retinal dystrophy." |
| C159654 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the DNAJC12 gene, encoding dnaJ homolog subfamily C member 12. It is characterized by increased serum phenylalanine concentrations resulting in variable neurologic defects, including movement defects and intellectual disability. BH4 metabolism is normal." |
| C159655 | "A condition caused by biallelic mutation(s) in the SCYL1 gene, encoding N-terminal kinase-like protein. It is characterized by peripheral neuropathy, cerebellar atrophy, ataxia, and recurrent episodes of liver failure." |
| C159663 | A rare melanoma that arises from the bladder mucosa. |
| C159665 | A rare melanoma that arises from the urethral mucosa. |
| C159667 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation arising from the bladder. |
| C159668 | An embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the bladder. It is the most common type of rhabdomyosarcoma of the bladder affecting young children. |
| C159669 | An alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the bladder. It is the most common type of rhabdomyosarcoma of the bladder affecting older children and adolescents. |
| C159670 | A leiomyosarcoma that arises from the bladder. It is the most common type of bladder sarcoma in adults. |
| C159671 | A very rare angiosarcoma that arises from the bladder. |
| C159673 | A benign or malignant perivascular epithelioid cell tumor arising from the bladder. |
| C159674 | A benign perivascular epithelioid cell tumor arising from the bladder. |
| C159675 | Pleural malignant mesothelioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C159676 | An endometrial carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C159677 | A malignant perivascular epithelioid cell tumor arising from the bladder. |
| C159679 | A solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the bladder. Most of these tumors are benign. |
| C159680 | A hemangioma that arises from the bladder. Most tumors occur in adults. |
| C159681 | A rare granular cell tumor arising from the bladder. Most tumors are benign. |
| C159682 | A plexiform or diffuse neurofibroma arising from the bladder. |
| C159717 | "A lymphoproliferative disorder associated with Epstein-Barr virus. This category includes, but is not limited to, Burkitt lymphoma, classic Hodgkin lymphoma, and lymphomas arising in immunocompromised individuals." |
| C159775 | A gastric carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C159902 | Ovarian carcinoma that has a documented response to platinum-based chemotherapy. |
| C159903 | A thymus carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C159904 | A malignant thymoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C160144 | "A collection of symptoms following removal of part or all of the rectum that may include frequency or urgency of stools, numerous bowel movements over a few hours, fecal incontinence, constipation alternating with numerous bowel movements, and/or increased intestinal gas." |
| C160149 | EBV-related lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C160150 | An EBV-related lymphoid proliferation that arises in the setting of immune deficiency due to a primary immunodeficiency or immunoregulatory disorder. |
| C160151 | The reemergence of EBV-associated lymphoproliferative disease with primary immunodeficiency after a period of remission. |
| C160152 | EBV-associated lymphoproliferative disease with primary immunodeficiency that is resistant to treatment. |
| C160158 | "A carcinoma arising in a bladder diverticulum. Approximately one-third to half of the cases represent non-invasive, low-grade or high-grade urothelial carcinomas. Approximately half of the invasive carcinomas are urothelial. The rest include adenocarcinomas, squamous cell carcinomas, and small cell carcinomas." |
| C160229 | The reemergence of high-grade B-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C160230 | The reemergence of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma germinal center B-cell type after a period of remission. |
| C160231 | The reemergence of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma activated B-cell type after a period of remission. |
| C160232 | The reemergence of transformed follicular lymphoma to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C160233 | High-grade B-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C160238 | Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma germinal center B-cell type that is resistant to treatment. |
| C160239 | Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma activated B-cell type that is resistant to treatment. |
| C160240 | Transformed follicular lymphoma to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C160295 | Lung small cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C160296 | Small cell lung carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C160297 | NUT carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C160298 | NUT carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C160301 | NUT carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C160437 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the jejunum. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C160440 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the ileum. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C160442 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the duodenum. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C160443 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the colon. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C160451 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the rectum. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C160587 | "Cognitive, emotional, and behavioral difficulties that often occur in conjunction with frontal lobe disorders, including traumatic injury and dementia. It is also a feature of attention deficit disorder and other non-trauma-induced conditions." |
| C160599 | Esophageal carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C160619 | The reemergence of malignant ovarian granulosa cell tumor after a period of remission. |
| C160662 |  |
| C160666 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the skin in a patient with a history of hematologic malignancy, usually non-Hodgkin lymphoma or chronic lymphocytic leukemia." |
| C160737 | The reemergence of oligodendroglioma after a period of remission. |
| C160781 | An ovarian serous adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C160782 | An ovarian serous adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C160783 | A non-small cell carcinoma of the lung that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C160817 | Acinar prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of microcystic foci. |
| C160818 | "An extremely rare prostate acinar adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of giant, bizarre anaplastic cells with pleomorphic nuclei and lack of a spindle cell component." |
| C160819 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the colon and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C160820 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the rectum and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C160852 | A paraganglioma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C160853 | An adrenal gland pheochromocytoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C160872 | Primary peritoneal carcinoma that has a documented response to platinum-based chemotherapy. |
| C160873 | Fallopian tube carcinoma that has a documented response to platinum-based chemotherapy. |
| C160874 | Chronic graft versus host disease (GvHD) occurring in the skin. |
| C160904 | The reemergence of anaplastic pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma after a period of remission. |
| C160905 | Anaplastic pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C160912 | The reemergence of anaplastic ependymoma after a period of remission. |
| C160913 | Anaplastic ependymoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C160914 | The reemergence of anaplastic ganglioglioma after a period of remission. |
| C160915 | Anaplastic ganglioglioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C160916 | A liposarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C160917 | A leiomyosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C160919 | An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C160920 | A breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C160974 | A minor salivary gland adenocarcinoma characterized by a cribriform pattern. It often metastasizes to the neck lymph nodes. |
| C160976 | Adenocarcinomas that arises from the sinonasal tract. This category includes salivary-type and non-salivary type adenocarcinomas. The latter includes intestinal-type and non-intestinal-type adenocarcinomas. |
| C160977 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. It is characterized by the absence of features that resemble intestinal adenocarcinoma. |
| C160978 | A sebaceous carcinoma that arises from the head and neck region. |
| C160980 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the head and neck. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C160981 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the head and neck and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20% (often more than 70%). |
| C160982 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the head and neck and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20% (often more than 55%). |
| C160984 | An intestinal-type adenocarcinoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. It is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth pattern. |
| C160986 | An intestinal-type adenocarcinoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. It is characterized by the presence of a tubuloglandular growth pattern. |
| C160987 | An intestinal-type adenocarcinoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. It is characterized by the presence of a solid growth pattern. |
| C160995 | An intestinal-type adenocarcinoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. It is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells with intracytoplasmic mucin. |
| C161000 | An intestinal-type adenocarcinoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of growth patterns. |
| C161005 | "An autosomal dominant familial form of epilepsy caused by mutation(s) in the DEPDC5 gene, encoding GATOR complex protein DEPDC5. It is characterized by focal seizures usually arising from the frontal or temporal lobe. The onset of seizures may occur from infancy to adulthood." |
| C161007 | Adenocarcinomas that arise from the seromucinous glands and surface epithelium of the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. These adenocarcinomas morphologically resemble the adenocarcinomas that arise from the major and minor salivary glands. |
| C161008 | Adenocarcinomas that arise from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses and do not resemble salivary gland adenocarcinomas. This category includes intestinal-type and non-intestinal type adenocarcinomas. |
| C161019 | A malignant solid neoplasm that has metastasized to a limited number of sites— existing in a state intermediate between localized disease and widespread metastatic disease. |
| C161022 | "An intra-acinar and/or intraductal neoplastic epithelial proliferation in the prostate gland that has some features of high-grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia but exhibits much greater architectural and/or cytological atypia, typically associated with high-grade, high-stage prostate carcinoma. (WHO 2016)" |
| C161034 | A rare synovial sarcoma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161035 | A rare osteosarcoma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161038 | A rare undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161042 | A rare inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161045 | A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161048 | Colorectal adenocarcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C161553 | A congenital abnormality of the eye caused by failure of regression of the fetal eye vasculature. |
| C161554 | A congenital abnormality of the eye caused by failure of regression of the primary vitreous and hyaloid vasculature anteriorly and/or posteriorly. |
| C161555 | "A congenital abnormality of the eye caused by incomplete regression of the tunica vasculosa lentis, which is the vascular structure that nourishes the crystalline lens in utero." |
| C161579 | A rare solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161580 | A rare malignant solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161581 | A rare hemangioma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161582 | A rare granular cell tumor that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161583 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm from a primary site to the pelvic cavity. |
| C161584 | A carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland and has spread to the pelvic cavity. |
| C161585 | A clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C161586 | A clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C161587 | A carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland and has spread to the lymph nodes. |
| C161602 | A rare diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161603 | A rare follicular lymphoma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161604 | A rare mantle cell lymphoma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161605 | A rare small lymphocytic lymphoma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C161606 | A rare cystadenoma affecting the prostate gland. It is characterized by the presence of multilocular prostatic cysts. |
| C161607 | A rare Wilms tumor affecting the prostate gland. |
| C161608 | A rare extrarenal rhabdoid tumor affecting the prostate gland. |
| C161609 | "A metastatic, castration-resistant prostate carcinoma that is composed of fibroblast growth factor-driven malignant cells." |
| C161611 | An exceptionally rare melanoma arising from the prostate gland. |
| C161612 | A paraganglioma that affects the prostate gland. |
| C161634 | An extremely rare squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the seminal vesicle. Glandular formation and mucin secretion are absent. |
| C161636 | "A rare biphasic neoplasm that arises from the seminal vesicle. It is characterized by the presence of stromal and benign epithelial components. Rarely, the stromal component may display atypia and mitotic activity and the tumor may behave in a malignant clinical course." |
| C161637 | A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the seminal vesicle. |
| C161638 | A leiomyoma that arises from the seminal vesicle. |
| C161639 | A schwannoma that affects the seminal vesicle. |
| C161640 | An extramammary myofibroblastoma that affects the seminal vesicle. |
| C161641 | A rare leiomyosarcoma that affects the seminal vesicle. |
| C161642 | An extremely rare angiosarcoma that affects the seminal vesicle. |
| C161643 | "A neoplasm that arises from the seminal vesicle and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C161644 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the seminal vesicle. |
| C161649 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the seminal vesicle from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C161765 | A thyroid gland carcinoma that is worsening in terms of extent or severity. |
| C161830 | BRCA hereditary breast carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C161838 | A rare childhood malignant liver neoplasm with overlapping features of hepatoblastoma and hepatocellular carcinoma. |
| C161906 | Adenocarcinoma that arises from the esophagus and is confined entirely to the mucosa. |
| C162015 | Pancreatic adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C162016 | Pancreatic adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162113 | Esophageal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162114 | Gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162116 | A colon adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162117 | A rectal adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162139 | "A testicular germ cell tumor that has undergone either partial or complete regression, resulting in the creation of a fibrotic nodule in the testis." |
| C162141 | "A form of aspergillosis characterized by the presence of septate, acute, branching hyphae invading lung tissue." |
| C162152 | Colon adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162153 | Pancreatic adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162154 | Colorectal adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C162155 | Colon adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C162156 | Rectal carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C162157 | Rectal adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C162158 | Lung non-small cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162182 | A breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162188 | Cellular proliferation of hematopoietic cells where a substantial proportion of the cells is derived from a single hematopoietic stem cell lineage. |
| C162194 | A sarcoma of soft tissue that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162225 | "A term that refers to the staging of cervical cancer according to the International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging, 2018." |
| C162226 | The carcinoma is strictly confined to the cervix (extension to the uterine corpus should be disregarded). (FIGO 2018) |
| C162227 | "Invasive cervical carcinoma that can be diagnosed only by microscopy, with maximum depth of invasion less than 5 mm. (FIGO 2018)" |
| C162228 | Cervical carcinoma with measured stromal invasion less than 3 mm in depth. (FIGO 2018) |
| C162229 | Cervical carcinoma with measured stromal invasion equal or more than 3 mm and less than 5 mm in depth. (FIGO 2018) |
| C162230 | "Invasive cervical carcinoma with measured deepest invasion equal or more than 5 mm (greater than Stage IA), lesion limited to the cervix uteri. (FIGO 2018)" |
| C162231 | "Invasive cervical carcinoma with equal or more than 5 mm depth of stromal invasion, and less than 2 cm in greatest dimension. (FIGO 2018)" |
| C162232 | Invasive cervical carcinoma equal or more than 2 cm and less than 4 cm in greatest dimension. (FIGO 2018) |
| C162233 | Invasive cervical carcinoma equal or more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. (FIGO 2018) |
| C162234 | "The cervical carcinoma invades beyond the uterus, but has not extended onto the lower third of the vagina or to the pelvic wall. (FIGO 2018)" |
| C162235 | Cervical carcinoma limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina without parametrial involvement. (FIGO 2018) |
| C162236 | "Cervical carcinoma limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina without parametrial involvement, less than 4 cm in greatest dimension. (FIGO 2018)" |
| C162237 | "Cervical carcinoma limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina without parametrial involvement, equal or more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. (FIGO 2018)" |
| C162238 | Cervical carcinoma with parametrial involvement but not up to the pelvic wall. (FIGO 2018) |
| C162239 | Cervical carcinoma that involves the lower third of the vagina and/or extends to the pelvic wall and/or causes hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney and/or involves pelvic and/or para-aortic lymph nodes. (FIGO 2018) |
| C162240 | "Cervical carcinoma that involves the lower third of the vagina, with no extension to the pelvic wall. (FIGO 2018)" |
| C162241 | Cervical carcinoma with extension to the pelvic wall and/or hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney (unless known to be due to another cause). (FIGO 2018) |
| C162242 | "Cervical carcinoma with involvement of pelvic and/or para-aortic lymph nodes, irrespective of tumor size and extent (with r and p notations). (FIGO 2018)" |
| C162243 | Cervical carcinoma with pelvic lymph node metastasis only. (FIGO 2018) |
| C162244 | Cervical carcinoma with para-aortic lymph node metastasis. (FIGO 2018) |
| C162245 | "The cervical carcinoma has extended beyond the true pelvis or has involved (biopsy proven) the mucosa of the bladder or rectum. (A bullous edema, as such, does not permit a case to be allotted to Stage IV). (FIGO 2018)" |
| C162246 | The cervical carcinoma has spread to adjacent pelvic organs. (FIGO 2018) |
| C162247 | The cervical carcinoma has spread to distant organs. (FIGO 2018) |
| C162254 | A malignant neoplasm that arises in the female reproductive system and has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C162255 | A malignant neoplasm that arises in the digestive system and has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C162256 | A colorectal carcinoma characterized by a high mutational rate caused by DNA mismatch repair deficiency or POLE/POLD1 driver mutations. |
| C162257 | Colorectal carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162270 | A colorectal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162271 | A colon adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162272 | A rectal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162273 | Colorectal mucinous adenocarcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C162274 | Mucinous adenocarcinoma of the appendix that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C162275 | Carcinoma of the appendix that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C162304 | Gastric carcinoma that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C162305 | Sarcoma that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C162306 | Leiomyosarcoma that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C162398 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the G6PC gene, encoding glucose-6-phosphatase. It is characterized by accumulation of glycogen in the kidneys and liver resulting in  hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia. Adults may have a high incidence of hepatic adenomas." |
| C162399 | "An inherited condition caused by mutations in the CRX gene, encoding cone-rod homeobox protein. It is characterized by loss of visual acuity in early childhood or late adolescence, impaired color vision, loss of peripheral vision, and nyctalopia. The severity of symptoms may vary." |
| C162424 | The reemergence of myelofibrosis after a period of remission. |
| C162425 | Myelofibrosis that is resistant to treatment. |
| C162441 | The reemergence of colorectal adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C162442 | The reemergence of colon adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C162443 | The reemergence of rectal adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C162450 | Hepatocellular carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C162451 | "The reemergence of high-grade B-cell lymphoma with MYC, BCL2, and BCL6 rearrangements after a period of remission." |
| C162453 | "High-grade B-cell lymphoma with MYC, BCL2, and BCL6 rearrangements that is resistant to treatment." |
| C162460 | An epithelial neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the thymus. This category includes neuroendocrine tumors (carcinoid tumors) and neuroendocrine carcinomas. |
| C162461 | A thymus neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C162466 | A clinically benign intratubular neoplastic proliferation of large Sertoli cells in the testis. It is associated with prominent basement membrane deposits. It occurs almost exclusively in patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. |
| C162467 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the testis. It predominantly affects older men. Patients usually present with a unilateral hard painless mass. Bilateral masses have been described in a minority of patients. |
| C162468 | A nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma affecting the testis. Patients usually present with unilateral testicular enlargement. Bilateral involvement is rare. The prognosis is poor. |
| C162469 | A rare myeloid sarcoma that arises from the testis. At presentation the involvement is usually unilateral. |
| C162470 | A rare plasmacytoma that arises in the testis. At presentation the involvement is usually unilateral. |
| C162472 | "An autosomal dominant form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the STXBP1 gene, encoding syntaxin-binding protein 1." |
| C162474 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s), in the ITGA6 or ITGB4 genes, encoding integrin alpha-6  and integrin beta-4 respectively. It is characterized by junctional epidermolysis and pyloric stenosis/atresia." |
| C162475 | Colorectal carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162476 | An adenomatoid tumor arising from the paratesticular structures. It is the most common tumor of the paratesticular region. The tail of the epididymis is the most common site of involvement. |
| C162477 | A rare malignant mesothelioma that arises from the tunica vaginalis. |
| C162483 | A benign cystadenoma that arises from the epididymis. |
| C162484 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the POLE and/or POLD1 genes, encoding DNA polymerase epsilon catalytic subunit A and DNA polymerase delta catalytic subunit, respectively. It is characterized by colorectal polyposis and a predisposition to colorectal cancer. Mutation(s) in POLE and/or POLD1 genes have been associated with an increased risk of endometrial cancer, breast and brain tumors, and multi-tumor phenotypes." |
| C162485 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm that affects the paratesticular structures." |
| C162486 | An extremely rare squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the paratesticular structures. |
| C162488 | A rare neoplasm that arises from the epididymis and is characterized by the presence of a mixture of melanin-containing epithelial cells and smaller neuroblast-like cells. It usually occurs in infants and has a benign clinical course. |
| C162489 | A rare Wilms tumor that arises from the paratesticular structures. |
| C162490 | An extremely rare paraganglioma that arises from the paratesticular structures. |
| C162492 | A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the paratesticular region. |
| C162493 | A liposarcoma that arises from the paratesticular region. |
| C162494 | A leiomyoma that arises from the paratesticular region. |
| C162495 | A leiomyosarcoma that arises from the paratesticular region. |
| C162496 | A rhabdomyoma that arises from the paratesticular region. |
| C162497 | A rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the paratesticular region. |
| C162498 | A cellular angiofibroma that arises from the paratesticular region. |
| C162500 | An extramammary myofibroblastoma that arises from the paratesticular region. |
| C162501 | "A locally infiltrating, non-metastasizing angiomyxoma that arises from the paratesticular region." |
| C162502 | A schwannoma that arises from the paratesticular region. |
| C162503 | A capillary or cavernous hemangioma that arises from the paratesticular region. |
| C162531 | An invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from an adenomatous polyp. |
| C162538 | Gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162539 | "Intraepithelial neoplasia of the penis that is not caused by human papillomavirus infection. It usually presents as a solitary white or pink macule or plaque that may be slightly elevated. A background of long-standing lichen sclerosus is often present. It is characterized by a thickened epithelium, subtle abnormal cellular maturation, and atypical basal layer cells. Parakeratosis is common. (WHO 2016)" |
| C162541 | Intraepithelial neoplasia of the penis caused by human papillomavirus infection. |
| C162542 | "Intraepithelial neoplasia of the penis characterized by full-thickness replacement of the squamous epithelium by immature, small, monotonous, basophilic cells. The cells have round to oval nuclei, inconspicuous nucleoli, and scant cytoplasm. Apoptosis and mitotic figures are prominent. (WHO 2016)" |
| C162543 | "Intraepithelial neoplasia of the penis characterized by a slightly spiking papillomatous surface with atypical parakeratosis. There is prominent cellular pleomorphism, koilocytosis, and mitoses. Unlike in basaloid penile intraepithelial neoplasia, there is squamous maturation. (WHO 2016)" |
| C162546 | Intraepithelial neoplasia of the penis characterized by the presence of a variable mixture of warty and basaloid cells. (WHO 2016) |
| C162547 | A melanoma that arises from the penis. It may be cutaneous or mucosal. The most common site of involvement is glans penis. |
| C162548 | "A lymphoma that arises from penile skin, subcutis, corpora cavernosa, and spongiosum. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma is the most common primary penile lymphoma. (WHO 2016)" |
| C162549 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the penis from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C162562 | An extremely rare carcinoma arising from the peritoneum. It is characterized by the presence of a diffuse malignant infiltrate that is composed of epithelial cells without evidence of glandular or squamous differentiation. |
| C162564 | An extremely rare transitional cell carcinoma that arises from the peritoneum. |
| C162566 | An extremely rare adenocarcinoma arising from the peritoneum. It is composed of malignant glandular epithelium containing clear cells. |
| C162569 | Head and neck carcinoma that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C162570 | Lung carcinoma that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C162572 | A Merkel cell carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C162574 | A rare mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the penis. |
| C162578 | A rare angiosarcoma that affects the penis. |
| C162579 | A hemangioma that occurs in the skin of the penis. |
| C162580 | An epithelioid hemangioma that occurs in the skin of the penis. |
| C162581 | An epithelioid hemangioendothelioma that occurs in the penis. |
| C162582 | A glomus tumor that occurs in the penis. |
| C162583 | A leiomyoma that occurs in the penis. |
| C162584 | A rare malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that occurs in the penis. |
| C162585 | A leiomyosarcoma that occurs in the penis. |
| C162586 | A schwannoma that occurs in the penis. |
| C162587 | A neurofibroma that occurs in the penis. |
| C162588 | A rhabdomyosarcoma that occurs in the penis. It usually affects young children. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common type. |
| C162589 | A rare undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that occurs in the penis. |
| C162590 | A rare benign mesenchymal neoplasm that occurs in the glans and corpora of the penis. It is characterized by the proliferation of spindle-shaped myofibroblasts in the intravascular spaces. |
| C162592 | A lymphangioma that occurs in the skin of the penis. |
| C162594 | "The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the head and neck.  This may be from a primary head and neck malignant neoplasm, or from a malignant neoplasm at a distant site." |
| C162595 | A carcinoma that has metastasized to the head and neck region from an unknown primary anatomic site. Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma in the neck lymph nodes accounts for the vast majority of these lesions. |
| C162600 | A colorectal carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162602 | A fibrolamellar carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162611 | "The most common form of autoimmune hemolytic anemia, in which the autoantibodies react with red blood cells at temperatures greater than or equal to 37 degrees Celsius." |
| C162612 | The reemergence of adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma after a period of remission. |
| C162616 | A ureter urothelial carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C162617 | A renal pelvis urothelial carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C162618 | A bladder urothelial carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C162619 | A urethral urothelial carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C162642 | Lung non-squamous non-small cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162648 | Breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162652 | A squamous cell carcinoma that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C162653 | Squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162661 | Osteosarcoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162686 | Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis associated with a viral infection. |
| C162687 | "A severe form of chronic Epstein-Barr virus infection characterized by continued intermittent fever, lymphadenopathy, thrombocytopenia, lymphocytopenia, neutropenia, polyclonal gammopathy, and greatly elevated titers for antibodies to EBV-related antigens." |
| C162688 | The reemergence of systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C162689 | Systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162694 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the DCLRE1C gene, encoding protein artemis. It is characterized by severe combined immunodeficiency that is T-cell negative, B-cell negative, NK-cell positive. Sensitivity to ionizing radiation and a high incidence of occurrence amongst the Athabascan Indians are also characteristic of this disease." |
| C162695 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the NHEJ1 gene, encoding non-homologous end-joining factor 1. It is characterized by severe combined immunodeficiency that is T-cell negative, B-cell negative, NK-cell positive. Microcephaly, growth retardation, and sensitivity to ionizing radiation are also characteristic of this disease." |
| C162696 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the RUNX1 gene, encoding runt-related transcription factor 1. It is characterized by thrombocytopenia, abnormal platelet function, and a propensity to develop acute myeloid leukemia." |
| C162702 | The reemergence of a childhood malignant neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C162703 | A childhood malignant neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162706 | A thyroid gland medullary carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C162719 | Urinary system carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162721 | A chordoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162722 | An epithelioid sarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162723 | An atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162724 | The reemergence of an epithelioid malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor after a period of remission. |
| C162725 | An epithelioid malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162726 | The reemergence of kidney medullary carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C162727 | A kidney medullary carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162728 | The reemergence of dedifferentiated chordoma after a period of remission. |
| C162729 | A dedifferentiated chordoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162730 | The reemergence of a rhabdoid tumor of the kidney after a period of remission. |
| C162731 | A rhabdoid tumor of the kidney that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162732 | The reemergence of a malignant myoepithelioma after a period of remission. |
| C162733 | A malignant myoepithelioma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C162748 | A cytomegalovirus infection that is resistant to treatment. |
| C162750 | Biliary tract carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C162751 | A biliary tract carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C162752 | A cholangiocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162753 | Gallbladder carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C162754 | A gallbladder carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C162755 | Gallbladder carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162756 | The effects of cancer and its treatments on cognitive processes. |
| C162758 | A head and neck squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C162759 | Gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C162760 | A papillary renal cell carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C162761 | A papillary renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162762 | A bone sarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162763 | A myxoid liposarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C162766 | A colorectal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C162767 | A gastric adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C162768 | A clear cell renal cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C162770 | A head and neck squamous cell carcinoma in which the malignant cells are positive for ASPH gene. |
| C162772 | A gastric carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C162775 | An acute myeloid leukemia with trisomy 8. Trisomy 8 is one of the most frequent occurring cytogenetic abnormalities in acute myeloid leukemia. It is grouped as intermediate risk in cytogenetic classifications of acute myeloid leukemia. |
| C162776 | A B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with t(4;11)(q21;23.3). This translocation leads to the generation of the fusion gene KMT2A-AFF1. |
| C162780 | A malignant neoplasm that arises in the colon or rectum that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C162782 | Breast carcinoma that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C162786 | Merkel cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162787 | Oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162820 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the parapharyngeal space. |
| C162822 | "A neoplasm that arises from the parapharyngeal space and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C162823 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the parapharyngeal space. |
| C162825 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the retropharyngeal space. |
| C162826 | "A neoplasm that arises from the retropharyngeal space and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C162828 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the retropharyngeal space. |
| C162833 | Oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162845 | A malignant digestive system neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162876 | Paranasal sinus squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C162881 | An oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C162882 | Nasal cavity and/or paranasal sinus squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C162909 | "Neurotoxicity associated with immune effector cell therapy. It may be characterized by aphasia, altered level of consciousness, motor weakness, seizures, and cerebral edema." |
| C162940 | "Malignant mesothelioma that arises from the peritoneum. It is characterized by the presence of cells with epithelioid morphology. The epithelioid cells usually have eosinophilic cytoplasm, bland nuclei, and form tubulopapillary, microglandular, or sheet-like patterns." |
| C162942 | The reemergence of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck after a period of remission. |
| C162943 | Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C162966 | An extremely rare tumor that arises from the testis. It is characterized by the proliferation of epithelioid cells with signet ring appearance separated by fibrous tissue into trabeculae and nests. The histologic features are bland and there is no mucin production. Mutations of CTNNB1 gene have been identified in the reported cases. It is considered a special type of sex cord-stromal tumor. All reported cases had a benign clinical course without metastases. |
| C162973 | A carcinoma characterized by the presence of a cribriform architectural pattern. There is no evidence of surrounding stromal invasion by the malignant cells. |
| C162993 | "A grade 3 or 4 glioma that arises from the brain. This category includes anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic ependymoma, anaplastic oligoastrocytoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, anaplastic pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma (all grade 3 gliomas), and glioblastoma (grade 4 glioma)." |
| C163003 | "A category that includes benign neoplasms and neoplasms with uncertain malignant potential. The latter are characterized by clinicopathological features that are not benign, including some degree of mild or mild/moderate atypia/dysplasia, but lack overt malignant morphologic characteristics and there is no evidence of metastasis at the time of diagnosis." |
| C163006 | A meningioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C163754 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the CHAMP1 gene, encoding chromosome alignment-maintaining phosphoprotein 1. It is characterized by moderate to severe intellectual disability with poor speech acquisition. Variable dysmorphic features may be present as well." |
| C163755 | "An autosomal recessive type of short rib-polydactyly syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the DYNC2H1 gene, encoding cytoplasmic dynein 2 heavy chain 1. Additionally, there is evidence that it may be caused by digenic biallelic mutation in DYNC2H1 and in NEK1 (the latter encoding serine/threonine-protein kinase Nek1). It is characterized by a constricted thoracic cage, short ribs, and a 'trident' appearance of the acetabular roof. Polydactyly may or may not be present." |
| C163756 | "An autosomal dominant form of spinocerebellar ataxia (SCA), caused by mutation(s) in the KCND3 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily D member 3. SCA19 and SCA22 were initially described independently, but the molecular basis for both conditions is mutation(s) in the KCND3 gene." |
| C163954 | A bladder urothelial carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C163955 | A ureter urothelial carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C163956 | Pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C163958 | A parathyroid gland carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C163959 | Metastatic pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C163960 | A small cell glioblastoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C163961 | The reemergence of small cell glioblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C163962 | A gliosarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C163963 | A urethral urothelial carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C163964 | Thyroid gland medullary carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C163965 | A renal pelvis carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C163966 | A renal pelvis carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C163967 | Mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the digestive system and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C163974 | Thyroid gland medullary carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C163975 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that has metastasized from an  unknown primary site. |
| C164012 | Adenoid cystic carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C164013 | Adenoid cystic carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C164070 | Dedifferentiated liposarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C164071 | Dedifferentiated liposarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C164074 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C164076 | Alveolar soft part sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C164078 | Alveolar soft part sarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C164080 | Ewing sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C164141 | "A carcinoma arising from the genitourinary system. Representative examples include kidney carcinoma, bladder carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, endometrial carcinoma, cervical carcinoma, and ovarian carcinoma." |
| C164143 | A genitourinary system carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C164144 | A carcinoma characterized by the presence of a predominant micropapillary pattern. |
| C164145 | An obsolete term referring to a Hodgkin lymphoma that lacks inflammatory elements. |
| C164153 | "An X-linked recessive sub-type of osteogenesis imperfecta caused by mutation(s) in the MBTPS2 gene, encoding membrane-bound transcription factor site-2 protease. It is characterized by prenatal fractures and osteopenia, with severe short stature in adulthood. Variable dysmorphic features may occur including scoliosis, pectal deformity, and anterior angulation of the tibia." |
| C164154 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the GNB5 gene, encoding guanine nucleotide-binding protein subunit beta-5. It is characterized by severe intellectual disability, poor speech acquisition, and cardiac arrhythmia. Biallelic missense mutation in the GNB5 gene can cause language delay and attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder/cognitive impairment with or without cardiac arrhythmia, which is a less-severe disorder with overlapping features." |
| C164155 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the RCBTB1 gene, encoding RCC1 and BTB domain-containing protein 1. It is characterized by severe retinal dystrophy. Associated extraocular abnormalities may or may not be present." |
| C164156 | "A rare, highly aggressive renal cell carcinoma caused by germline or (in a subset) somatic mutation of fumarate hydratase gene. It arises mostly in the setting of hereditary leiomyomatosis-renal cell carcinoma syndrome." |
| C164159 | A renal pelvis and ureter urothelial carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C164160 | Renal pelvis and ureter urothelial carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C164162 | Alopecia caused by treatment with chemotherapeutic agents. |
| C164185 | "Prostate adenocarcinoma that metastasizes quickly to other anatomic sites. It usually has a Gleason score between 8 and 10, a PSA level higher than 20 ng/ml, and is classified as T3b or T4." |
| C164186 | "A term that refers to the staging of prostate adenocarcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C164198 | A sarcoma that arises from the head and neck region. |
| C164205 | "A rare, slow-growing, low-grade soft tissue sarcoma arising from the sinonasal tract. It presents with non-specific obstructive nasal symptoms. Morphologically, it is an infiltrative, cellular spindle cell neoplasm. It is associated with rearrangement of the PAX3 gene." |
| C164213 | "A recurrent form of cholangitis that is characterized by intrabiliary pigment stone formation, biliary tree stricture and obstruction, and recurrent bouts of cholangitis. There is an association with biliary parasitosis, but evidence supporting these infections in the pathogenesis of recurrent pyogenic cholangitis is inconclusive. The most common causes of death are sepsis, liver failure, or complications from cirrhosis. Patients are also at increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma." |
| C164214 | Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C164224 | "An autosomal recessive sub-type of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the AP4B1 gene, encoding AP-4 complex subunit beta-1. It is characterized by severe mental retardation and spasticity." |
| C164225 | "An autosomal dominant myopathy caused by mutation(s) in the TPM2 gene, encoding tropomyosin beta chain. Classification of nemaline myopathies by clinical features is not optimal, as the phenotypes are highly variable." |
| C164226 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PDE6C gene, encoding cone cGMP-specific 3',5'-cyclic phosphodiesterase subunit alpha. It is characterized by low visual acuity and severe color vision defects. This condition is closely related to cone dystrophy 4, which is also caused by mutation(s) in the PDE6C gene." |
| C164228 | Colon carcinoma that has developed in relatives of patients with a history of colon carcinoma. |
| C164236 | Clear cell renal cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C164245 | A malignant PEComa that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C164246 | A malignant PEComa that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C164247 | A malignant PEComa that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C164248 | "A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern, hyperkeratosis, and koilocytosis." |
| C164249 | Intraepithelial neoplasia of the penis or vulva. It usually presents as a solitary white or pink macule or plaque that may be slightly elevated. A background of long-standing lichen sclerosus is often present. |
| C164250 | A squamous cell carcinoma not associated with human papilloma virus infection. |
| C164251 | A papilloma with an exophytic growth arising from the sinonasal track. |
| C164252 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma that exhibits spindle cell sarcomatoid features. |
| C164253 | An adenoma that arises from the glandular epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract and is associated with intestinal-type differentiation. |
| C164255 | A rare neoplasm that consists of neuroendocrine and non-neuroendocrine cellular components. At least 30% of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C164256 | A papilloma that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the nasal cavity. |
| C164312 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C164313 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that is associated with NF1 gene inactivation and a history of neurofibromatosis type 1. |
| C164314 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that is not caused by inherited genetic mutations. |
| C164315 | A category of lung diseases characterized by varying degrees of inflammation and fibrosis of the interstitial lung tissue. Causes include occupational lung exposures and drugs. In a minority of cases there is no clear cause and such cases are termed idiopathic interstitial pneumonia. |
| C164316 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that is the result of exposure to ionizing radiation. |
| C164675 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the DDX11 gene, encoding ATP-dependent DNA helicase DDX11. It is characterized by severe intellectual disability and variable dysmorphic features." |
| C164676 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the IL10RA gene, encoding interleukin-10 receptor subunit alpha. It is characterized by early-onset chronic relapsing intestinal inflammation." |
| C164677 | "Fanconi anemia caused by mutations in the FANCL gene, encoding E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase FANCL." |
| C165171 | Liver carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165172 | Carcinoma that arises from the ampulla of Vater and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165173 | Adenocarcinoma that arises from the periampullary region and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165174 | Carcinoma that arises from the head and neck region and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165176 | Nasopharyngeal carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165190 | A soft tissue sarcoma that arises from the trunk or the extremities. |
| C165240 | "The reemergence of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified after a period of remission." |
| C165241 | "Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified that is resistant to treatment." |
| C165252 | Malignant mesothelioma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C165253 | The reemergence of neuroendocrine carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165260 | An exceedingly rare endometrioid adenocarcinoma arising from the peritoneum. |
| C165261 | An exceedingly rare solid pseudopapillary neoplasm that occurs in ectopic pancreatic tissue in the ovary. |
| C165262 | The reemergence of ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165265 | The reemergence of fallopian tube endometrioid adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165267 | The reemergence of fallopian tube high-grade serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165268 | The reemergence of primary peritoneal high-grade serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165269 | The reemergence of primary peritoneal endometrioid adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165282 | The reemergence of endometrial dedifferentiated carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165283 | The reemergence of endometrial squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165284 | The reemergence of endometrial transitional cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165285 | The reemergence of moderate-severe chronic graft versus host disease after a period of remission. |
| C165286 | Endometrial dedifferentiated carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165287 | Endometrial transitional cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165288 | Endometrial transitional cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165289 | Endometrial adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165290 | Endometrial mucinous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165291 | The reemergence of endometrial mucinous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165293 | Liver carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165298 | Endometrial undifferentiated carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165299 | Gastric carcinoma that has metastasized from its original site of growth to distal anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C165300 | A Merkel cell carcinoma that has metastasized from its original site of growth to distal anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C165446 | A lung neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C165447 | A pancreatic neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C165448 | A pancreatic neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C165449 | A clear cell renal cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165450 | Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165452 | Pancreatic carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C165453 | A neuroendocrine tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165454 | A lung neuroendocrine neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165455 | A digestive system neuroendocrine neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165456 | A pancreatic neuroendocrine neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165458 | An ovarian carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C165465 | "A verrucous carcinoma that arises from the skin. It usually affects the palms, soles, and distal digits." |
| C165466 | A rare squamous cell carcinoma of the skin characterized by the presence of multinucleated non-neoplastic giant cells that resemble osteoclasts. |
| C165467 | "A rare, poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma of the skin. It is characterized by the presence of tumor cells islands surrounded and infiltrated by lymphocytes and plasma cells." |
| C165468 | A rare carcinoma of the skin characterized by the presence of squamous cell carcinomatous and sarcomatous components. |
| C165469 | The presence of multiple serrated polyps in the colon and/or rectum. The polyps are predominantly sessile serrated adenomas/polyps.  A minority of the polyps are microvesicular variants of hyperplastic polyps. |
| C165470 | "A group of hereditary neoplastic syndromes that affect the colon and rectum. Included in this grouping are hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCCC) , familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), and the hamartomatous polyposis syndromes." |
| C165472 | Oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C165473 | Laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C165474 | A squamous cell carcinoma of unknown primary that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C165475 | A hyperkeratotic skin lesion that occurs in patients who have been exposed to arsenic. |
| C165477 | A hyperkeratotic skin lesion that occurs in patients with a history of prolonged exposure to psoralen and ultraviolet A (PUVA) therapy. |
| C165484 | The accumulation of ATTR amyloid deposits in the heart. |
| C165485 | "A benign intraepidermal squamoproliferative neoplasm characterized by irregular acanthosis, hyperkeratosis, parakeratosis, and prominent chronic inflammation." |
| C165489 | The accumulation of ATTR amyloid deposits in the heart due to mutations in the TTR gene. |
| C165491 | Triple-negative breast carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165497 | A cutaneous melanoma that is associated with genomic alterations observed in Spitz nevus and Spitz melanocytoma. It shares histopathological and clinical features with Spitz melanocytoma. |
| C165498 | "A rare cutaneous melanocytic neoplasm that presents as a slow growing pigmented nodule or papule. It is characterized by the proliferation of heavily pigmented epithelioid and dendritic cells, predominantly in the dermis. PRKAR1A gene inactivation is present in the majority of cases. It can spread to regional lymph nodes, but distant metastases are rare." |
| C165500 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SETX gene, encoding probable helicase senataxin. It is characterized by juvenile onset progressive cerebellar ataxia, axonal sensorimotor peripheral neuropathy, and increased concentrations of serum alpha-fetoprotein. Oculomotor apraxia is common, but is not always present." |
| C165501 | "A heritable condition, caused by mutation(s) in the TREX1 gene, encoding three-prime repair exonuclease 1. Clinical features and onset may vary significantly, but is characterized in its most severe form by cerebral atrophy, leukodystrophy, intracranial calcifications, chronic cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) lymphocytosis, and increased concentrations of CSF alpha-interferon." |
| C165504 | Hyperplasia of the immature cells located between the surface columnar epithelium and the basal layer. |
| C165523 | A BAP1-inactivated melanocytoma that is combined with a smaller area of melanocytic proliferation in the basal layer of the epidermis. |
| C165525 | "A cutaneous melanocytoma caused by the inactivation of BAP1 tumor suppressor gene. It is characterized by the presence of a predominantly intradermal proliferation of large epithelioid melanocytes with a large amount of eosinophilic cytoplasm, and vesicular nuclei with prominent nucleoli. Progression to melanoma is infrequent." |
| C165527 | An autosomal dominant sub-type of familial partial lipodystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the LMNA gene encoding prelamin-A/C. |
| C165529 | "A melanocytic nevus that arises from the skin or conjunctiva and is characterized by the presence of two or more morphologically distinct melanocytic nevus components in a single lesion. One component is a conventional nevus component, and the other(s) are usually blue nevus, deep penetrating nevus, Spitz nevus, or balloon cell nevus components." |
| C165531 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the YY1 gene, encoding transcriptional repressor protein YY1. It is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by intellectual disability, developmental delay, and variable functional and morphological abnormalities." |
| C165532 | "The spontaneous occurrence of a dissection of the coronary artery. The clinical recognition of this phenomenon has increased as coronary angiography is becoming more commonly used in the treatment of acute coronary syndrome. The etiology of the condition has not been fully elucidated, but the mean age of presentation is 30-45 years, more than 70% are women, and 30% of cases occur in the peripartum period." |
| C165533 | "An X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutation(s) in the PQBP1 gene, encoding polyglutamine-binding protein 1. It is characterized by moderate to severe intellectual disability, developmental delay and characteristic dysmorphic features, which may include short stature, microcephaly, and a narrow face." |
| C165535 | An acral lentiginous melanoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165536 | Mucosal melanoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165537 | Non-small cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C165542 | A malignant solid neoplasm characterized by the expression of antigens resulting from cancer-specific mutations (neoantigens). |
| C165545 | A malignant solid neoplasm that expresses unique tumor-specific neoantigens in a single patient. |
| C165546 | A malignant solid neoplasm that expresses unique tumor-specific neoantigens across a subset of patients. |
| C165560 | Laryngeal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C165561 | Pharyngeal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C165562 | Lip and oral cavity carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C165563 | Paranasal sinus carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C165582 | Acute graft versus host disease that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165596 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of dilated cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the LMNA gene, encoding lamin-A and lamin C." |
| C165597 | "A rare chromosomal anomaly cause by partial duplication of small segment of chromosome 7 (7q11.23). It is characterized by a highly variable phenotype, typically including mild-moderate intellectual developmental delay, and delayed development of speech and motor skills." |
| C165607 | Differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165608 | Thyroid gland papillary carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165609 | Thyroid gland follicular carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165610 | Thyroid gland oncocytic carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165611 | The reemergence of differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165614 | A familial or acquired bone marrow failure syndrome. |
| C165628 | A gastric adenocarcinoma that arises from the proximal part of the stomach. |
| C165630 | A proximal gastric adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C165631 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the pancreas and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C165659 | A cutaneous melanoma that develops on sun-exposed sites with a high degree of cumulative sun damage (CSD). |
| C165662 | An acral nevus that arises from the nail matrix. |
| C165663 | "An undifferentiated, high grade small round cell sarcoma affecting predominantly young adults. It is characterized by a recurrent translocation involving the CIC gene on chromosome 19 and DUX4 gene on chromosome 4. The translocation results in CIC-DUX4, t(4;19)(q35;q13) fusions." |
| C165665 | "An undifferentiated, high grade small round cell sarcoma affecting predominantly young adults. It is characterized by a recurrent translocation involving the CIC gene on chromosome 19 and DUX4L gene on chromosome 10. The translocation results in CIC-DUX4L, t(10;19)(q26;q13) fusions." |
| C165671 | A high-grade sarcoma characterized by the absence of EWSR1 rearrangement and the presence of small round malignant cells with a small amount of cytoplasm. |
| C165673 | "An inherited, usually autosomal recessive condition cause by mutation(s) in the RNASEH2B gene, encoding ribonuclease H2 subunit B. Clinical features and onset may vary significantly, but is characterized in its most severe form by cerebral atrophy, leukodystrophy, intracranial calcifications, chronic cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) lymphocytosis, and increased concentrations of CSF alpha-interferon." |
| C165674 | A genetically heterogenous condition characterized by early onset of absence and myoclonic seizures following developmental delay. Intellectual disability may develop following the onset of seizures. |
| C165675 | A type of multiple sclerosis characterized by intermittent flare-ups with a return to few or no symptoms. |
| C165698 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the breast and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C165699 | Breast adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C165700 | Breast adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C165701 | Hypopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C165702 | Bladder urothelial carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C165703 | Breast adenocarcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C165704 | "Benign vascular proliferations in the skin following external radiation. The lesions present in adults, predominantly in elderly women following radiotherapy for breast carcinoma. They consist of papules, small vesicles, or erythematous ecchymotic plaques with prominent telangiectasias. Identical skin lesions can occur after radiation for cervical carcinoma, endometrial carcinoma, ovarian carcinoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, and melanoma. There is an increased risk for subsequent development of ang... |
| C165716 | An invasive bladder carcinoma characterized by the presence of more than one histologic pattern. |
| C165723 | A carcinoma characterized by the presence of more than one malignant epithelial histologic pattern. |
| C165735 | Skin squamous cell carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C165736 | The reemergence of a metastatic skin squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165737 | "The reemergence of skin squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C165738 | A Merkel cell carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C165739 | The reemergence of a metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C165740 | "The reemergence of Merkel cell carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C165741 | Merkel cell carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C165742 | Neuroendocrine carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C165743 | Breast adenocarcinoma that is negative for hormone receptors. |
| C165745 | Renal cell carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C165767 | Lung non-small cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C165780 | A leiomyosarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C165781 | An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C165783 | Histologic transformation of mycosis fungoides to an aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma. |
| C165784 | The reemergence of transformed mycosis fungoides after a period of remission. |
| C165785 | Transformed mycosis fungoides that is resistant to treatment. |
| C165789 | The reemergence of T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma transformed after a period of remission. |
| C165791 | An indolent T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma which has undergone histologic transformation to an aggressive T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma and has become resistant to treatment. |
| C165799 | The reemergence of mature B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C166120 | Esophageal adenocarcinoma that has metastasized to a limited number of sites. |
| C166121 | Gastric adenocarcinoma that has metastasized to a limited number of sites. |
| C166142 | The reemergence of a myeloproliferative neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C166143 | The reemergence of a myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C166151 | Lymphedema that manifests in the head and neck. |
| C166152 | A congenital disorder characterized by chronic neutropenia with absolute neutrophil count less than 500/uL and arrest of neutrophil maturation at the promyelocyte/myelocyte level. It is inherited in autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant patterns. Sporadic cases have also been reported. It is usually diagnosed in the first year of life. Patients present with frequent and life-threatening infections. |
| C166153 | Severe congenital neutropenia inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and caused by HCLS1-associated protein X-1 (HAX1) mutations. |
| C166155 | Severe congenital neutropenia inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Mutations in the ELANE gene have been reported in approximately half of the cases. |
| C166156 | A glioblastoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C166171 | Esophageal carcinoma that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C166179 | Anaplastic large cell lymphoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C166180 | Anaplastic large cell lymphoma that has spread extensively to distant anatomic sites. |
| C166181 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the central nervous system and has spread from its original site of growth to other sites. |
| C166182 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the central nervous system and has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C166255 | Gastric adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C166256 | Esophageal adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C166257 | Colorectal adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C166354 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm that affects muscles and bones." |
| C166355 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects muscles and bones. |
| C166356 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from muscle or bone and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C166357 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects muscles and bones. |
| C166399 | Melanoma that arises from the mucosal surface of the nasal cavity and paranasal sinus. |
| C166405 | Nodular melanoma that arises from a mucosal site. |
| C166414 | Rhabdomyosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C166415 | A rhabdomyosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C166418 | "A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas, bile ducts, or gallbladder." |
| C167069 | A genitourinary system carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C167071 | A bladder carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C167072 | An ovarian carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C167073 | An ovarian carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C167074 | Gastric adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C167075 | Bladder carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C167076 | Triple-negative breast carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C167081 | The reemergence of diffuse astrocytoma after a period of remission. |
| C167082 | The reemergence of oligoastrocytoma after a period of remission. |
| C167089 | "A high risk pediatric acute myeloid leukemia with an extremely poor prognosis. The blasts show bright CD56 expression, dim-to-negative expression of CD45 and CD38, and lack of HLA-DR expression. This immunophenotype was named after one of the pediatric patient's initials (RAM), from Children's Oncology Group (COG) clinical trial AAML0531." |
| C167168 | A malignant neoplasm that occurs in the context of obesity. |
| C167179 | A malignant neoplasm caused by deleterious germline mutation in a gene of the BRCA family. |
| C167189 | Hereditary breast carcinoma caused by deleterious germline mutation in a gene of the BRCA family. |
| C167193 | Hereditary breast carcinoma caused by deleterious germline mutation in the PALB2 gene. |
| C167202 | A fallopian tube carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C167203 | A carcinoma that arises from the peritoneum and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C167204 | Primary peritoneal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C167215 | "A sub-type of autosomal recessive osteopetrosis caused by mutation(s) in the TCIRG1 gene on chromosome 11q13, encoding the osteoclast-specific (alpha 3) subunit of the vacuolar proton pump. It is characterized by macrocephaly, frontal bossing, nystagmus, optic atrophy, blindness, deafness, and facial palsy." |
| C167216 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutations(s) in the CUL4B gene on chromosome Xq23, encoding a core component of the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. It is characterized by short stature, hypogonadism, and abnormal gait." |
| C167236 | Nasal cavity squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C167237 | Colon carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C167238 | Colon carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C167255 | Prostate carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C167256 | Prostate adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C167260 | A malignant female reproductive system neoplasm that has spread extensively from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C167265 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C167266 | The reemergence of squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx after a period of remission. |
| C167324 | A pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C167327 | "A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the jejunum, ileum, proximal colon, or appendix." |
| C167328 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the jejunum, ileum, proximal colon, or appendix. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C167329 | A midgut neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C167330 | A midgut neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C167331 | A midgut neuroendocrine tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C167332 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C167333 | A neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C167335 | IDH-mutant astrocytoma characterized by the presence of necrosis and/or microvascular proliferation or homozygous deletion of CDKN2A and/or CDKN2B genes. The term glioblastoma no longer applies to central nervous system WHO grade 4 IDH-mutant astrocytomas. (WHO 2021) |
| C167336 | Hepatocellular carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C167338 | A bladder carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C167341 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the sweat glands and is characterized by the absence of specific morphological features to allow further classification. |
| C167342 | A benign adnexal neoplasm with histological features of both spiradenoma and cylindroma in a single nodular lesion. |
| C167344 | A carcinoma that arises from a spiradenocylindroma. |
| C167346 | A rare malignant skin neoplasm that arises from a benign mixed tumor of the skin. |
| C167352 | Nasopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C167354 | Anal carcinoma with minimal stromal invasion. |
| C167364 | "A rare, low-grade sweat gland carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation. It usually arises on the eyelids and periorbital skin. It affects mostly older individuals. Women are affected more frequently than men. Morphologically, it is characterized by well-demarcated nodules with cystic, papillary, or cribriform architectural patterns. The neoplastic cells are small to intermediate polygonal to round cells. Small amounts of intracellular or extracellular mucin are present. In some cases, ... |
| C167365 | A sweat gland carcinoma usually arising from a pre-existing syringocystadenoma papilliferum. |
| C167366 | "An indolent epithelial neoplasm that arises from the sweat glands. It is composed of neoplastic cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm that form cribriform and solid patterns. It was originally called a carcinoma, but it has an uncertain malignant potential." |
| C167368 | A rare adnexal carcinoma characterized by the presence of morphological features identical to those seen in salivary gland and breast secretory carcinomas. |
| C167369 | "A rare aggressive adnexal carcinoma that affects the eyelid and rarely the axilla. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of signet ring cells or histiocytoid epithelial cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm infiltrating the dermis, often in a single file pattern." |
| C167370 | A benign skin neoplasm composed exclusively of myoepithelial cells. |
| C167378 | Epithelioid sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C167379 | Epithelioid sarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C167380 | Epithelioid sarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C167381 | A rare hair follicle carcinoma characterized by the presence of two components: a malignant epithelial component that resembles follicular germinative cells and a non-malignant stromal component identical to that of trichoblastoma. |
| C167382 | A rare hair follicle malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of two components: a malignant epithelial component that resembles follicular germinative cells and a malignant stromal component that resembles follicular mesenchyme. |
| C167395 | A fallopian tube carcinoma that has spread extensively from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C167396 | Primary peritoneal carcinoma that has spread extensively from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C168128 | Inflammation of the heart or its surroundings. (ACC/AHA) |
| C168177 | Diffuse dilation of a coronary artery segment. |
| C168216 | The enlargement of the gallbladder secondary to prolonged obstruction of the cystic duct. |
| C168217 | Genetic anomalies and collections of malformations that are known to cluster together that can be associated with congenital heart defects. (ACC/AHA) |
| C168331 | A muscular dystrophy that was caused by a primary mitochondrial disorder. |
| C168332 | A muscular dystrophy that was caused by a primary disorder of oxidative phosphorylation. |
| C168339 | A myopathy that was caused by a primary disorder of fatty acid oxidation. |
| C168340 | A myopathy that was caused by a primary disorder of glycogen storage. |
| C168375 | An indication that the patient has a history of a genetic syndrome associated with a congenital heart defect other than those listed. |
| C168440 | "Replacement of destroyed tissue by fibrous tissue due to a surgical procedure where a vertical inline incision is made along the sternum, after which the sternum itself is divided. (ACC/AHA)" |
| C168445 | "A neurologic disorder characterized by smooth involuntary, uncoordinated movements affecting especially the hands, feet, and face. (ACC/AHA)" |
| C168454 | Replacement of destroyed tissue by fibrous tissue due to a surgical procedure where an incision was made into the chest wall to the left or to the right of the midline. |
| C168497 | The presence of multiple congenital malformations in a patient. |
| C168519 | A breast adenocarcinoma that is negative for the expression of the HER2 receptor. |
| C168539 | Acute graft versus host disease occurring in the gastrointestinal tract. |
| C168540 | Acute graft versus host disease occurring in the gastrointestinal tract that is resistant to treatment with steroids. |
| C168541 | Graft versus host disease occurring in the gastrointestinal tract and is characterized by complications that may be life-threatening. |
| C168542 | Skin squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C168543 | Thyroid gland medullary carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C168545 | Pleural malignant mesothelioma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C168564 | "A genetic condition usually inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. It is cause by mutation(s) in the SAMHD1 gene, encoding deoxynucleoside triphosphate triphosphohydrolase SAMHD1. Clinical features and onset may vary significantly, but is characterized in its most severe form by cerebral atrophy, leukodystrophy, intracranial calcifications, chronic cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) lymphocytosis, and increased concentrations of CSF alpha-interferon." |
| C168571 | "A constellation of signs and symptoms occurring in the context of administration of isocitrate dehydrogenase (IDH) inhibitors in hematologic malignancies. It is characterized by dyspnea, unexplained fever, pulmonary infiltrates, hypoxia, pleural effusion, acute kidney injury, pericardial effusion, arthralgia, lymphadenopathy, edema and weight gain." |
| C168572 | Differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C168573 | A glioma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C168582 | Acute graft versus host disease that is resistant to treatment with steroids. |
| C168583 | A metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C168585 | "A genetic condition usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is cause by mutation(s) in the IFIH1 gene, encoding interferon-induced helicase C domain-containing protein 1. Clinical features and onset may vary significantly, but is characterized in its most severe form by cerebral atrophy, leukodystrophy, intracranial calcifications, chronic cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) lymphocytosis, and increased concentrations of CSF alpha-interferon." |
| C168586 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ASNS gene, encoding asparagine synthetase. It is characterized by microcephaly, severely delayed psychomotor development, progressive encephalopathy, seizures, and cortical atrophy." |
| C168587 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the ITM2B gene, encoding integral membrane protein 2B. It is characterized by progressive loss of central vision, and inner retinal dystrophy with ganglion cell abnormalities." |
| C168588 | A genetically heterogenous condition usually inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. It is characterized by nephronophthisis and retinitis pigmentosa. |
| C168591 | "A rare primary immunodeficiency caused by homozygous CD70 mutation. It is characterized by susceptibility to Epstein-Barr virus infection, hypogammaglobulinemia, and development of B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas and Hodgkin lymphomas." |
| C168592 | "A rare benign pilar tumor with numerous intratumoral pigmented dendritic melanocytes. It typically affects elderly men. The most common location is the head and neck, followed by the trunk and the limbs. It manifests as a small, pigmented, purple or brownish-black papule or nodule. (WHO 2018)" |
| C168597 | "An autosomal recessive form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the SLC13A5 gene, encoding solute carrier family 13 member 5." |
| C168598 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the GRIN2A gene, encoding glutamate receptor ionotropic NMDA 2A. It is characterized by childhood-onset seizures affecting the temporal lobe or rolandic area of the brain, with a variable phenotype. It often affects speech and language." |
| C168599 | "A genetic condition usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is caused by mutation(s) in the SCL2A1 gene, encoding solute carrier family 2, facilitated glucose transporter member 1. It is characterized by wide phenotypic variability, but may include infantile onset epileptic encephalopathy with delayed development, acquired microcephaly, motor dysfunction, and spasticity." |
| C168602 | A rare phyllodes tumor that arises from mammary-like glands in the anogenital region. |
| C168651 | Burkitt lymphoma that affects the skin. |
| C168666 | Carcinoma that has spread diffusely to the gastrointestinal system. |
| C168667 | High-grade sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C168668 | High-grade sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C168669 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the digestive system from another anatomic site. |
| C168670 | Myxofibrosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C168671 | Myxofibrosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C168672 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the thoracic region of the spine. |
| C168673 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the lumbar region of the spine. |
| C168674 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the sacral region of the spine. |
| C168677 | "Myelodysplastic syndrome, unclassifiable characterized by refractory cytopenia with unilineage dysplasia or refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia but with 1 percent blasts in the peripheral blood." |
| C168678 | "Myelodysplastic syndrome, unclassifiable characterized by persistent cytopenia (s) with 1 percent or fewer blasts in the blood and fewer than 5% in the bone marrow, unequivocal dysplasia in less than 10 percent of the cells in one or more myeloid lineages, and cytogenetic abnormalities considered as presumptive evidence of myelodysplastic syndrome." |
| C168681 | "Myelodysplastic syndrome, unclassifiable characterized by unilineage dysplasia and associated pancytopenia." |
| C168693 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the vertebrae and/or vertebral canal. |
| C168694 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the lumbosacral region of the spine. |
| C168698 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the neck region of the spine. |
| C168701 | A liposarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C168714 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C168715 | A dedifferentiated liposarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C168716 | Fibrosarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C168717 | A fibrosarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C168718 | An angiosarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C168719 | A myxoid liposarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C168720 | An angiosarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C168721 | An epithelioid hemangioendothelioma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C168722 | A round cell liposarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C168723 | An epithelioid hemangioendothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C168724 | A round cell liposarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C168725 | A soft tissue leiomyosarcoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C168727 | A soft tissue leiomyosarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C168728 | A soft tissue leiomyosarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C168729 | An extremely rare autosomal recessive dystonia-parkinsonism condition caused by mutation(s) in the PRKRA gene encoding interferon-inducible double-stranded RNA-dependent protein kinase activator A. |
| C168730 | "Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern and caused by mutations in the EMD gene, encoding emerin." |
| C168731 | "Oculocutaneous albinism inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, and caused by mutation(s) in the TYR gene, encoding tyrosinase." |
| C168733 | "Stickler syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, caused by mutation(s) in the COL2A1 gene, encoding collagen alpha-1(II) chain." |
| C168742 | Myelodysplastic syndrome caused by inherited damaging mutations in cancer susceptibility genes. |
| C168746 | A familial myelodysplastic syndrome caused by inherited mutations in the SAMD9 gene. |
| C168747 | A familial myelodysplastic syndrome caused by inherited mutations in the SAMD9L gene. |
| C168749 | "An inherited form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, caused by mutation(s) in the SOD1 gene, encoding superoxide dismutase." |
| C168750 | "A form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis caused by heterozygous mutation(s) in the FUS gene, encoding RNA-binding protein FUS." |
| C168751 | "An autosomal dominant form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis caused by mutation(s) in the VAPB gene, encoding vesicle-associated membrane protein-associated protein B/C." |
| C168752 | "An autosomal dominant form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis caused by mutation(s) in the TARDBP gene, encoding TAR DNA-binding protein 43." |
| C168753 | "An autosomal dominant form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis caused by mutation(s) in the FIG4 gene, encoding polyphosphoinositide phosphatase." |
| C168754 | "A form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis caused by heterozygous mutation(s) in the VCP gene, encoding transitional endoplasmic reticulum ATPase." |
| C168755 | "An autosomal dominant form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis caused by mutation(s) in the MATR3 gene, encoding matrin-3." |
| C168756 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by heterozygous hexanucleotide repeat expansion in a noncoding region of the C9ORF72 gene , encoding guanine nucleotide exchange C9orf72. It is characterized by amyotrophic lateral sclerosis with frontotemporal dementia." |
| C168757 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CNGA3 gene, encoding cyclic nucleotide-gated cation channel subunit alpha-3. It is characterized by achromatopsia." |
| C168777 | A HER2-negative breast adenocarcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C168778 | The reemergence of follicular helper T-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C168779 | Follicular helper T-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C168780 | "The reemergence of follicular helper T-cell lymphoma, follicular-type after a period of remission." |
| C168781 | "Follicular helper T-cell lymphoma, follicular-type that is resistant to treatment." |
| C168782 | A HER2-negative breast adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C168783 | The reemergence of HER2-negative breast adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C168784 | A HER2-negative breast adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C168804 | Malignant mesothelioma that arises from the peritoneum. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells. Anaplastic morphologic features and multinucleated malignant cells may also be seen. |
| C168805 | "Malignant mesothelioma that arises from the peritoneum. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid and sarcomatoid components, with each component representing at least 10% of the tumor." |
| C168973 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C168974 | "An autosomal dominant form of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease caused by mutations in the VCP gene, encoding transitional endoplasmic reticulum ATPase." |
| C168975 | "An autosomal recessive form of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the CHST14 gene, encoding carbohydrate sulfotransferase 14." |
| C168976 | Esophageal carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C168977 | Anal carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C168978 | Adenocarcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C168979 | Hepatocellular carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C168980 | A histiocytic and dendritic cell neoplasm that affects the skin. |
| C168981 | "Carcinoma that arises from the intrahepatic, hilar, extrahepatic bile ducts, cystic duct, or gallbladder and has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes." |
| C168983 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis that affects the skin. It manifests with skin papules and plaques. |
| C168984 | "A very rare dendritic cell tumor affecting the skin. It is composed of spindle to ovoid cells with a phenotype that is similar to the Langerhans cells. It manifests with cutaneous papules, nodules, and plaques.  The clinical course is variable." |
| C168985 | A pancreatic carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C168986 | "Rosai-Dorfman-Destombes disease affecting the skin. It manifests with multiple papules, nodules, or plaques." |
| C168987 | A lipid transport disorder characterized by extremely elevated levels of high density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL C; HDLC). It is caused by heterozygous mutations in the SCARB1 gene that result in decreased transport of HCL C into the liver by scavenger receptor class B member 1. |
| C168988 | A condition in which the seminiferous tubules are lined only by Sertoli cells. |
| C168989 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CEP57 gene, encoding centrosomal protein of 57 kDa. It is characterized by variable phenotypes, associated with mosaic aneuploidies." |
| C168990 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the RIPK4 gene, encoding receptor-interacting serine/threonine-protein kinase 4. It is characterized by popliteal pterygia, ankyloblepharon, cleft lip/palate, and syndactyly. Early lethality is common." |
| C168991 | Erdheim-Chester disease that affects the skin. |
| C168992 | "A reactive cutaneous proliferation of macrophages associated with local trauma. It is characterized by the presence of giant cells with ground-glass cytoplasm. It presents as a single, asymptomatic, cutaneous or mucosal, firm xanthomatous to dark-red papule or nodule. (WHO 2018)" |
| C168993 | A reactive cutaneous proliferation of macrophages. It is characterized by the presence of giant cells with ground-glass cytoplasm. It presents with multiple cutaneous or mucosal papules or nodules. |
| C168994 | Cholangiocarcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C168995 | A renal cell carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C168997 | "An autosomal recessive form of congenital myasthenic syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the GFPT1 gene, encoding glutamine--fructose-6-phosphate aminotransferase 1." |
| C168998 | "Glycogen storage disease caused by mutation(s) in the SLC2A2 gene, encoding solute carrier family 2, facilitated glucose transporter member 2. It is characterized by marked proximal renal tubular dysfunction and hepatorenal glycogen accumulation." |
| C168999 | An autosomal dominant form of macular dystrophy associated with mutation(s) in the DNase1 hypersensitivity site DHS6S1. |
| C169000 | "An autosomal dominant form of hereditary optic atrophy caused by mutation(s) in the OPA1 gene, encoding dynamin-like 120 kDa protein, mitochondrial." |
| C169001 | A rare condition in which the two arms of chromosome 20 are fused resulting in a ring chromosome. It is characterized by recurrent seizures with an onset in childhood. Additional features my include microcephaly and short stature. |
| C169021 | A malignant female reproductive system neoplasm that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C169041 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the pancreas and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C169043 | A bladder urachal urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C169050 | The reemergence of a soft tissue sarcoma of the trunk and extremities after a period of remission. |
| C169074 | An anaplastic oligodendroglioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C169075 | An anaplastic astrocytoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C169085 | Choroid melanoma that has spread from its primary site to another anatomic site. |
| C169086 | Mucosal melanoma that has spread from its primary site to another anatomic site. |
| C169099 | A clear cell renal cell carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C169100 | A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the skin. |
| C169102 | The reemergence of anal squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C169103 | Anal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its primary site to another anatomic site. |
| C169104 | "A form of Alzheimer's disease associated with mutation(s) in the TREM2 gene, encoding triggering receptor expressed on myeloid cells 2." |
| C169107 | The reemergence of acute promyelocytic leukemia with t(15;17)(q24.1;q21.2); PML-RARA after a period of remission. |
| C169108 | Periampullary adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical removal. |
| C170433 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SPTLC1 gene, encoding serine palmitoyltransferase long chain base subunit 1. It is characterized by distal sensory impairment with variable autonomic and motor involvement." |
| C170434 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SH2D1A gene, encoding SH2 domain-containing protein 1A. It is characterized by a susceptibility to severe EBV infection, acquired hypogammaglobulinemia, hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis, and/or lymphoma." |
| C170435 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the KIF1A gene, encoding kinesin-like protein KIF1A." |
| C170436 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of dilated cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the LDB3 gene, encoding LIM domain-binding protein 3." |
| C170437 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ACOX1 gene, encoding peroxisomal acyl-coenzyme A oxidase 1. It is characterized by increased concentrations of serum VLCFA and lack of ACOX1 activity. The clinical manifestations of this disease are similar to those of disorders of peroxisomal assembly." |
| C170458 | "A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas, bile ducts, gallbladder, or ampulla of Vater and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site." |
| C170459 | "A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas, bile ducts, gallbladder, or ampulla of Vater and has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes." |
| C170460 | A malignant female reproductive system neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170461 | An endometrial carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170462 | Gallbladder carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170464 | Skin squamous cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170465 | Skin carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170467 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the head and neck region and has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C170469 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the head and neck region and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170470 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the head and neck region and has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170472 | "A rare, locally aggressive cutaneous mesenchymal neoplasm characterized by the presence of an adipocytic proliferation exhibiting at least focal nuclear atypia in both adipocytes and stromal cells. Amplification of MDM2 and/or CDK4 is almost always present." |
| C170473 | A rare pleomorphic liposarcoma arising from the skin. |
| C170474 | A spindle cell/pleomorphic lipoma arising from the skin. |
| C170475 | A spindle cell lipoma arising from the skin. |
| C170476 | A pleomorphic lipoma arising from the skin. |
| C170478 | An angiolipoma arising from the skin. |
| C170511 | "A rare cutaneous hamartoma characterized by the presence of ectopic adipose tissue in the dermis. Histologically, there are aggregates of mature adipocytes usually around blood vessels, in the papillary and upper reticular dermis." |
| C170513 | Cervical carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C170514 | Anal carcinoma that has spread from its primary site to another anatomic site. |
| C170515 | Anal carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170517 | Thyroid gland carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170725 | "A neoplasm that arises from the periampullary region and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential.." |
| C170726 | The reemergence of a malignant breast neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C170727 | The reemergence of breast sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C170728 | A malignant breast neoplasm that has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C170731 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder, caused by mutation(s) in the MMP14 gene, encoding matrix metalloproteinase-14. It is characterized by short stature, coarse facial features, flat nose, joint contractures, severe osteolysis in the hands and feet, and generalized osteoporosis." |
| C170732 | A genetically heterogenous group of disorders characterized by loss of bone tissue. |
| C170733 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the lining of the peritoneum. |
| C170734 | An appendiceal neoplasm characterized by mucinous epithelial proliferation with extracellular mucin and pushing tumour margins. (WHO 2019) |
| C170736 | "A benign fibroblastic dermal neoplasm characterized by the presence of bizarre pleomorphic cells. It is associated with RB1 gene deletion and presents with small polyps and papules affecting the extremities, trunk, and head and neck." |
| C170748 | The reemergence of platinum-resistant ovarian carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170750 | The reemergence of platinum-resistant fallopian tube carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170751 | The reemergence of platinum-resistant primary peritoneal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170754 | The reemergence of ovarian undifferentiated carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170755 | The reemergence of fallopian tube undifferentiated carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170756 | The reemergence of primary peritoneal undifferentiated carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170757 | The reemergence of fallopian tube transitional cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170759 | The reemergence of primary peritoneal transitional cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170760 | The reemergence of fallopian tube clear cell adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170761 | The reemergence of primary peritoneal clear cell adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170766 | The reemergence of fallopian tube adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170767 | The reemergence of primary peritoneal adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170772 | An infiltrating urothelial carcinoma of the bladder that has not invaded into the bladder muscularis propria. |
| C170773 | The reemergence of non-muscle invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C170774 | Squamous cell carcinoma arising from the upper or lower alveolar ridge. |
| C170775 | Squamous cell carcinoma arising from the upper alveolar ridge. |
| C170776 | Squamous cell carcinoma arising from the lower alveolar ridge. |
| C170777 | Rectal carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170778 | Rectal carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170779 | Rectal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C170780 | Rectal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170781 | Rectal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170782 | Oropharyngeal carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170783 | Oropharyngeal carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170784 | Pharyngeal carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170785 | A vulvar carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170786 | A vulvar carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170787 | A vaginal carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170788 | A vaginal carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170789 | Penile carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170790 | Penile carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170804 | An endometrial serous adenocarcinoma that has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C170805 | An endometrial adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170806 | An endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C170807 | Endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170809 | An endometrial serous adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170810 | An endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170811 | A malignant neoplasm of the skin that has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C170812 | A malignant neoplasm of the skin that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170814 | A neoplasm arising from the brain. |
| C170816 | Malignant mastocytosis that is resistant to treatment. |
| C170817 | The reemergence of malignant mastocytosis after a period of remission. |
| C170826 | A desmoplastic small round cell tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170827 | A desmoplastic small round cell tumor that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170828 | A rhabdoid tumor that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170829 | A rhabdoid tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170830 | The reemergence of an extracranial malignant solid neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C170831 | Thyroid gland anaplastic carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170832 | Thyroid gland anaplastic carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C170833 | Thyroid gland anaplastic carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170888 | "A rare benign cutaneous mesenchymal neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic fusiform spindle cells without atypical features, exhibiting fibroblastic and myofibroblastic differentiation. It most often affects young females." |
| C170889 | "A congenital or acquired benign dermal spindle cell fibroblastic neoplasm characterized by the presence of a band-like proliferation of CD34-positive neoplastic spindle cells without atypical features. It presents as a solitary, slow-growing oval, round, or medallion shaped plaque." |
| C170910 | Colon carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170911 | A myeloproliferative neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C170919 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the jejunum. |
| C170924 | Carcinosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170928 | Carcinosarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170929 | A female reproductive system carcinosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170930 | A female reproductive system carcinosarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170931 | Uterine corpus carcinosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170933 | Ovarian carcinosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170934 | An ovarian carcinosarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170937 | An ovarian serous adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170938 | An ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170940 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the gastric fundus. |
| C170941 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the optic nerve. |
| C170942 | An ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170943 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the urinary system from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C170944 | An ovarian clear cell adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170945 | An ovarian clear cell adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170953 | Chondrosarcoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170954 | The reemergence of a mucosal melanoma after a period of remission. |
| C170955 | A malignant germ cell tumor that is resistant to platinum therapy. |
| C170956 | A platinum-resistant malignant germ cell tumor that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170957 | A platinum-resistant malignant germ cell tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170958 | A platinum-resistant malignant germ cell tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170961 | A carcinoma of unknown primary that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170962 | An adenocarcinoma of unknown primary that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170963 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the female reproductive system and is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170965 | Thyroid gland carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C170966 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the central nervous system and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170967 | A malignant germ cell tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170968 | Ovarian adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C170969 | A fallopian tube carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170970 | A fallopian tube adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170971 | Fallopian tube adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C170972 | Primary peritoneal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170973 | Primary peritoneal carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170974 | Primary peritoneal adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C170975 | Primary peritoneal adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C170977 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the colon and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C170978 | Glioblastoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C170979 | Glioblastoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C170980 | Glioblastoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues. |
| C171012 | The reemergence of prostate adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C171013 | A gliosarcoma arising from the supratentorial region. |
| C171014 | The reemergence of triple-negative breast carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C171015 | Ovarian serous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C171016 | A fallopian tube high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C171017 | A fallopian tube high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C171019 | Primary peritoneal serous adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C171020 | Primary peritoneal serous adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C171021 | Primary peritoneal serous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C171023 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the mucosal sites of head and neck and is associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C171026 | A soft tissue angiosarcoma arising from the internal organs. |
| C171028 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma arising from the minor salivary glands in the tongue. |
| C171031 | A small or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from the thymus. |
| C171032 | "A small cell carcinoma, pulmonary-type or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from the ovary." |
| C171033 | A small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from the endometrium. |
| C171036 | An anaplastic astrocytoma occurring in the parietal lobe. |
| C171037 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the mediastinum. |
| C171064 | Hairy cell leukemia variant that is resistant to treatment. |
| C171065 | The reemergence of hairy cell leukemia variant after a period of remission. |
| C171070 | Primary central chondrosarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C171072 | Primary central chondrosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C171089 | A disorder caused by a dysfunction of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs). |
| C171098 | "A group of conditions characterized by impaired platelet function, which may be suggested by clinical evidence of bleeding in the setting of a normal platelet count." |
| C171100 | An infection caused by human papillomavirus 16. HPV16 infection is associated with a risk for cervical cancer. |
| C171101 | A lymphoma involving the skin. |
| C171128 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the endocrine pancreas. |
| C171133 | "An acute infection of the respiratory tract that is caused by the severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2). Based on currently available information, SARS-CoV-2 is thought to mainly spread from person to person through respiratory droplets. Typically, there is a two- to 14-day incubation period and infected persons can present with no symptoms or mild to severe fever, dry cough, fatigue, and difficulty breathing. Dysgeusia, anosmia, and gastrointestinal and flu-like symp... |
| C171146 | Sepsis due to the presence of Salmonella bacteria in the bloodstream. |
| C171147 | A bacterial infection caused by members of the gram-positive bacilli genus Nocardia. |
| C171148 | Pathologic loss of more than 10% of body weight concurrent with 30 or more days of either diarrhea or weakness and fever. |
| C171158 | Ann Arbor Stage II diffuse large B-cell lymphoma with a mass of nodes with one diameter more than 10cm or a mediastinal mass larger than one third of the transthoracic width. (Cotswolds modification) |
| C171159 | Ann Arbor Stage II non-Hodgkin lymphoma with a mass of nodes with one diameter more than 10cm or a mediastinal mass larger than one third of the transthoracic width. (Cotswolds modification) |
| C171168 | Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C171169 | An extrarenal rhabdoid tumor affecting the ovary. |
| C171170 | The reemergence of extrarenal rhabdoid tumor of the ovary after a period of remission. |
| C171171 | An extrarenal rhabdoid tumor of the ovary that is resistant to treatment. |
| C171198 | A respiratory disorder occurring as a consequence of a procedure. |
| C171201 | Inflammation of the fallopian tubes and ovaries. |
| C171202 | "A urogenital anomaly characterized by infraumbilical exstrophy of a bladder open only in its upper portion and pubic diastasis.  It has been described in both males and females and may be associated with trisomy 18, omphalocele, and urethral duplication." |
| C171226 | The infection of a urinary organ due to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. |
| C171264 | Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that has spread extensively to distant anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C171265 | Prostate carcinoma that has metastasized to a limited number of sites. |
| C171267 | A group of conditions characterized by lack of expression of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I proteins. |
| C171268 | A group of conditions characterized by lack of expression of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II proteins. |
| C171269 | "An autosomal dominant form of spinocerebellar ataxia caused by mutation(s) in the CACNA1G gene, encoding voltage-dependent T-type calcium channel subunit alpha-1G." |
| C171270 | "An X-linked recessive mental retardation syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the MED12 gene, encoding mediator of RNA polymerase II transcription subunit 12." |
| C171280 | Hypopharyngeal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C171281 | Oral cavity carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C171284 | A malignant neoplasm of the skin that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C171285 | Cutaneous melanoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C171286 | The reemergence of lung squamous non-small cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C171294 | The reemergence of ocular melanoma after a period of remission. |
| C171295 | Ocular melanoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C171296 | Ocular melanoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues. |
| C171297 | Non-cutaneous melanoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C171298 | Liver carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C171299 | "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma with an indolent clinical course. Representative examples include grade 1 and grade 2 follicular lymphoma, marginal zone lymphoma, and lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma." |
| C171300 | A T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma with an indolent clinical course. |
| C171304 | Myxofibrosarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C171317 | Fibrosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C171322 | Bile duct carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C171326 | Carcinoma that arises from the ampulla of Vater and has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C171327 | Carcinoma that arises from the ampulla of Vater and has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C171329 | A carcinoma that arises from the ampulla of Vater and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C171330 | "A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas, bile ducts, gallbladder, or ampulla of Vater and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment." |
| C171331 | "Carcinoma that arises from the intrahepatic, hilar, extrahepatic bile ducts, cystic duct, or gallbladder and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment." |
| C171339 | A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C171340 | Primary myelofibrosis that is resistant to treatment. |
| C171399 | Synovial sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C171426 | The congenital absence of one or a few teeth with the exclusion of third molars. |
| C171452 | The occurrence of more cases of disease than expected in a given area or among a specific group of people over a particular period of time. (CDC) |
| C171503 | "The constant presence of a disease or infectious agent within a given geographic area or population group; may also refer to the usual prevalence of a given disease within such area or group. (A dictionary of epidemiology, edited for the International Epidemiological Association by John M. Last, Oxford University Press 2001)" |
| C171519 | "An epidemic occurring worldwide, or over a very wide area, crossing international boundaries, and usually affecting a large number of people. (A dictionary of epidemiology, edited for the International Epidemiological Association by John M. Last, Oxford University Press 2001)" |
| C171538 | Cushing syndrome that is caused by excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal gland. |
| C171539 | The reemergence of endogenous Cushing syndrome after a period of remission. |
| C171547 | An infection caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) and is asymptomatic at the time of testing. |
| C171549 | An infection caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) and is symptomatic at the time of testing. |
| C171557 | A non-neoplastic disorder affecting the trigeminal nerve. |
| C171572 | Cutaneous melanoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C171573 | Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C171574 | Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C171575 | Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck that does not respond to treatment. |
| C171576 | "A lethal form of advanced castration-resistant prostate carcinoma that emerges in the later stages of castration-resistant treatment. It is an adaptive response to androgen receptor pathway inhibition. The morphologic features vary, ranging from poorly differentiated carcinomas to mixed adenocarcinoma-small cell carcinomas to pure small cell carcinomas expressing neuroendocrine markers. Clinically, it manifests with rapidly progressive disease, visceral or lytic bone metastases and bulky tu... |
| C171579 | A chromophobe renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C171580 | A chromophobe renal cell carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C171581 | A sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C171582 | "A renal cell carcinoma, not otherwise specified, that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment." |
| C171583 | "A renal cell carcinoma, not otherwise specified, that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site." |
| C171585 | Colorectal adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C171602 | A condition presenting toward the end of pregnancy or in the months following delivery characterized by left ventricular dysfunction. The NHLBI introduced the metric of left ventricular ejection fraction of less than 45 percent in 1999. MicroRNA-146a has been cited as a potential biomarker for PPCM. |
| C171603 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CLCN2 gene, encoding chloride channel protein 2. It is characterized by variable clinical features including mild cerebellar ataxia, chorioretinopathy, visual field defects, and headaches. A characteristic pattern of white matter abnormalities is evident on MRI." |
| C171604 | Esophageal carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C171605 | Squamous cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C171606 | Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C171607 | Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment |
| C171608 | Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C171609 | Lung non-small cell squamous carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C171610 | An endometrial carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C171611 | Prostate carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C171612 | Lung non-small cell squamous carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C171953 | "Unexpected increase in cerebral blood flow after carotid endarterectomy or carotid artery stenting presenting with a clinical triad of ipsilateral headache, seizure and focal neurologic symptoms." |
| C171957 | Complete loss of the ability to detect or understand sounds present in an infant within its first month after birth. |
| C171980 | Occlusion of a lumen by a foreign object. |
| C172016 | Partial loss of the ability to detect or understand sounds present in an infant within its first month after birth. |
| C172026 | Abnormal connection between rectum and vagina. |
| C172036 | Conditions characterized by an alteration in the ability to perceive touch. |
| C172037 | Conditions characterized by an alteration in the ability to perceive taste. |
| C172040 | An acute postoperative inflammatory reaction in which a noninfectious substance enters the anterior segment of the eye and induces toxic damage to the intraocular tissues. |
| C172051 | Abnormal connection between vagina and bladder. |
| C172076 | A bacterial infection that is resistant to antibiotics and antimicrobials. |
| C172091 | Transitional cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172092 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the CAV3 gene, MYH7 gene, or MYLK2 gene encoding caveolin-3,  myosin heavy chain 7, and myosin light chain kinase 2, skeletal/cardiac muscle respectively." |
| C172093 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the JPH2 gene, encoding junctophilin-2." |
| C172094 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the KCNE1 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily E member 1. It is characterized by a prolonged QT interval that may result in torsade de pointes, ventricular fibrillation and/or sudden cardiac death." |
| C172095 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the FBXL4 gene, encoding F-box and leucine rich repeat protein 4. It is characterized by early-onset lactic acidosis, growth failure, encephalopathy, hypotonia, and developmental delay." |
| C172096 | "An autosomal dominant form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the SCN2A gene, encoding sodium channel protein type 2 subunit alpha." |
| C172099 | "An autosomal dominant immune dysregulation condition characterized by chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, as well as other variable clinical features. It is caused by gain-of-function mutation(s) in the STAT1 gene, encoding signal transducer and activator of transcription 1-alpha/beta." |
| C172100 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the CHD2 gene, encoding chromodomain-helicase-DNA-binding protein 2. It is characterized by childhood-onset severe seizures and is associated with a poor prognosis." |
| C172127 | "A rare syndrome temporally associated with COVID-19 in children, marked by persistent fever, inflammation (neutrophilia, elevated C-reactive protein (CRP), and lymphopenia), poor function in one or more organs, and other specific clinical and laboratory features not attributable to other infections. The characteristics of this syndrome appear to be similar to toxic shock syndrome and Kawasaki disease. The following variable signs and symptoms have been most commonly reported to date: coagul... |
| C172129 | An acute myeloid leukemia that develops in patients with a prior history of myeloproliferative neoplasm. |
| C172130 | An acute myeloid leukemia that develops in patients with a prior history of myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm. |
| C172132 | The reemergence of a myeloid neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C172133 | The reemergence of a malignant lymphoid neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C172160 | "Skin manifestations of acute graft versus host disease, which typically presents as an erythematous maculopapular rash involving the face, ears, palms, and soles that may spread to the trunk and evolve to erythroderma." |
| C172183 | A malignant neoplasm that is positive for progesterone receptors. |
| C172203 | "Benign vascular proliferations in the breast skin following external radiation for breast carcinoma. The lesions consist of small papules, small vesicles, or erythematous ecchymotic plaques with prominent telangiectasias. There is an increased risk for subsequent development of angiosarcoma." |
| C172204 | "A benign cutaneous vascular tumor characterized by the nodular proliferation of large polygonal epithelioid endothelial cells that have abundant cytoplasm and vesicular nuclei with small eosinophilic nucleoli in the superficial to mid-dermis. There is hemosiderin deposition, chronic inflammatory cellular infiltrates, and mitotic activity present. However, atypical mitoses and nuclear pleomorphism are absent. It manifests with a small bluish papule or nodule and usually affects the trunk and... |
| C172206 | "A rare variant of cavernous hemangioma that manifests as a solitary, painless, bluish nodule in the reticular dermis or subcutaneous tissue. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of irregular, dilated, interconnecting thin-walled vascular channels in a sinusoidal or sieve-like pattern." |
| C172207 | A skin congenital hemangioma that regresses completely. |
| C172208 | A skin congenital hemangioma that does not regress. |
| C172209 | A skin congenital hemangioma that regresses incompletely. |
| C172218 | A papillary renal cell carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C172219 | A sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C172222 | "A renal cell carcinoma, not otherwise specified that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes." |
| C172227 | Esophageal adenocarcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C172234 | An ovarian undifferentiated carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C172235 | An ovarian undifferentiated carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172241 | A distal cholangiocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172242 | A distal cholangiocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C172245 | Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172247 | Uveal melanoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172248 | Distal esophagus adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172249 | Distal esophagus adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C172252 | Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C172276 | A renal pelvis and ureter urothelial carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172277 | A renal pelvis carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C172278 | A renal pelvis urothelial carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172280 | A malignant lymphoid neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C172281 | A myeloid neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C172282 | Chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C172289 | The reemergence of a plasma cell neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C172303 | "An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to animal-associated allergens, includes allergenic factors in venom, saliva and dander." |
| C172304 | "An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to allergens found in food; exposure can occur through the skin, respiratory tract or digestive tract." |
| C172306 | An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to airborne allergens expressed by dust mites or molds. |
| C172307 | "An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to ant venom, usually as a result of being bitten by a fire ant (Solenopsis spp.)." |
| C172308 | An allergic reaction triggered by being exposed to bee venom following a bee sting. |
| C172309 | Grade 1 follicular lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C172310 | "An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to allergens expressed by cats, includes allergenic factors found in feline saliva and dander." |
| C172311 | "An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to allergens expressed by dogs, includes allergenic factors found in canine saliva and dander." |
| C172312 | Grade 2 follicular lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C172313 | An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to foodborne allergens found in eggs. |
| C172314 | Grade 3 follicular lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C172315 | Grade 3a follicular lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C172316 | An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to foodborne allergens found in fruit. |
| C172317 | An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to foodborne allergens found in meat. |
| C172318 | Grade 3b follicular lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C172320 | "An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to allergens found in foods containing molluscs, crustaceans or echinoderms." |
| C172321 | An allergic reaction triggered by being exposed to wasp venom following a wasp sting. |
| C172323 | The reemergence of grade 3b follicular lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C172328 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the absence of one or more teeth. |
| C172342 | An infection caused by a herpesvirus. |
| C172358 | Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C172359 | Follicular lymphoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172360 | Marginal zone lymphoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172361 | Transformed non-Hodgkin lymphoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172362 | Basal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172371 | Non-Hodgkin lymphoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172373 | Hodgkin lymphoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172378 | "A form of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) that is marked by severe hypoxemia. Based on the Berlin criteria, onset must occur within one week of a clinical insult or there must be evidence of new or worsening respiratory symptoms. Chest imaging reveals bilateral opacities consistent with pulmonary edema that are not fully explained by effusions, lobar/lung collapse, or nodules. Respiratory failure is not fully explained by heart failure or fluid overload and objective assessment, ... |
| C172392 | "An inherited ciliary motility defect caused by mutation(s) in the DNAH5 gene, encoding dynein heavy chain 5, axonemal." |
| C172393 | "An autosomal recessive primary ciliary motility defect caused by mutation(s) in the CCNO gene, encoding cyclin-O." |
| C172442 | Primary cutaneous T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172450 | A malignant uterine corpus neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172617 | A kidney carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172618 | A kidney carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C172620 | A kidney medullary carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C172621 | A rare perineurioma arising from the skin. |
| C172622 | The reemergence of kidney carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C172623 | Kidney carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C172624 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that arises from the skin. |
| C172625 | An epithelioid malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that arises from the skin. |
| C172626 | The reemergence of acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage after a period of remission. |
| C172630 | Acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage that is resistant to treatment. |
| C172632 | Myxofibrosarcoma that arises from the dermis. |
| C172634 | A rare Ewing sarcoma that arises from the skin. |
| C172637 | "A rare, low-grade skin neoplasm of mesenchymal cells of unknown lineage with prominent cytoplasmic granularity. The lesions are most commonly non-ulcerated papules or nodules. Most cases are indolent, despite worrisome histopathologic features. Few cases with regional lymph node metastasis have been reported. (WHO 2018)" |
| C172639 | "A syndrome caused by germline mutations in the BAP1 gene. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Individuals carrying heterozygous BAP1 mutations have an increased risk of developing various tumor types, most commonly BAP1-inactivated nevi/melanocytomas of the skin, uveal and cutaneous melanomas, peritoneal and pleural mesotheliomas, clear cell renal cell carcinoma, and basal cell carcinoma. (WHO 2018)" |
| C172644 | Oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172645 | Laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172646 | Hypopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172647 | Nasopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172648 | Paranasal sinus squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172649 | Salivary gland squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C172650 | The reemergence of salivary gland squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C172651 | Salivary gland squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172655 | "A benign epithelial neoplasm composed of columnar cells with differentiation to chief cells, parietal cells, or both, with a high rate of progression to adenocarcinoma (submucosal invasion). (WHO 2019)" |
| C172659 | "A very rare biphasic tumor arising in the gastric muscularis propria (usually of the antrum), generally in boys and young men. It is associated with MALAT1-GLI1 gene fusion. (WHO 2019)" |
| C172660 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the digestive system. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172661 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the esophagus. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172662 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the stomach. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172664 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the small intestine. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172665 | A rare appendix mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells with high grade features. |
| C172666 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the appendix. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172667 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the ileum. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172668 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the jejunum. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172669 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the jejunum, ileum, proximal colon, or appendix. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172670 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the small or large intestine. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172672 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the duodenum. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172673 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the ampulla of Vater and the periampullary region. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172674 | A cerebral infarction that is evident by new neurological symptoms lasting greater than 24 hours or having an area of diffusion restriction or a T2 or fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) hyperintensity on an MRI of the brain that was consistent with the neurological findings. |
| C172675 | An asymptomatic cerebral infarction that was incidentally noted by T2 or fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) hyperintensities on an MRI of the brain. |
| C172680 | "A premalignant colorectal neoplasm composed of dysplastic epithelium. The descriptor ""conventional"" distinguishes this from lesions in the serrated pathway. (WHO 2019)" |
| C172682 | "A premalignant colon neoplasm composed of dysplastic epithelium. The descriptor ""conventional"" distinguishes this from lesions in the serrated pathway. (WHO 2019)" |
| C172683 | "A premalignant rectal neoplasm composed of dysplastic epithelium. The descriptor ""conventional"" distinguishes this from lesions in the serrated pathway. (WHO 2019)" |
| C172694 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the colorectal mucosa and is characterized by the presence of isolated malignant cells or malignant cells that form small aggregates. |
| C172699 | A well differentiated colorectal adenocarcinoma with good prognosis. It resembles a villous adenoma on the surface. |
| C172700 | A colorectal adenocarcinoma that develops in patients with a history of inflammatory bowel disease. |
| C172701 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the colon and rectum. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172702 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the colon. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172703 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the rectum. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172704 | An autosomal dominant form of facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy associated with contraction of the D4Z4 macrosatellite repeat. |
| C172705 | "A form of facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy with digenic inheritance, caused by a combination of heterozygous mutation in the SMCHD1 gene and the presence of a haplotype that is permissive for DUX4." |
| C172706 | Anal canal or perianal skin intraepithelial neoplasia with moderate or severe dysplasia. |
| C172707 | Hepatocellular adenoma with features of both beta-catenin-activated hepatocellular adenoma and inflammatory hepatocellular adenoma. |
| C172709 | "Hepatocellular carcinoma characterized by the presence of steatohepatitis features, including macrovesicular steatosis, fibrosis, ballooning of malignant hepatocytes, Mallory bodies, and inflammation." |
| C172710 | Hepatocellular carcinoma characterized by more than 50% growth of macrotrabecular pattern (equal to or more than 6 to 10 cells thick). It presents with higher grade and stage compared to conventional hepatocellular carcinoma. It has poor prognosis with early recurrence and poor overall survival. |
| C172712 | "Hepatocellular carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with smooth chromophobic cytoplasm, abrupt focal nuclear anaplasia, and scattered microscopic pseudocysts." |
| C172713 | Hepatocellular carcinoma characterized by the presence of diffuse neutrophil infiltrates within the tumor. |
| C172714 | Hepatocellular carcinoma measuring equal to or less than 2 cm in diameter. It includes early hepatocellular carcinoma and small progressed hepatocellular carcinoma. |
| C172716 | A well to moderately differentiated small hepatocellular carcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of obvious stromal invasion and increase atypia compared with early hepatocellular carcinoma. |
| C172718 | A carcinoma that arises from the liver and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component.  At least 30 percent of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C172719 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the liver. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C172720 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the liver. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C172721 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the liver. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172722 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the liver and is composed of malignant large cells. |
| C172725 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the liver and is composed of malignant small cells. |
| C172731 | A grossly visible non-invasive neoplasm of the gallbladder composed of uniform back-to-back mucinous glands arranged in a tubular configuration. (WHO 2019) |
| C172735 | An adenoma that arises from the gallbladder and is associated with intestinal-type differentiation. |
| C172742 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172743 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172803 | Pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of low grade epithelial dysplasia. |
| C172804 | Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of low grade epithelial dysplasia. |
| C172806 | Neuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172807 | "An X-linked dominant porphyria caused by gain of function mutations in the ALAS2 gene, encoding 5'-aminolevulinate synthase 2 (5-aminolevulinate synthase, erythroid-specific, mitochondrial), which lead to overproduction of protoporphyrin and its accumulation in the blood, liver, and skin. Excess protoporphyrin in the blood may lead to iron deficient anemia, while accumulation in the liver may contribute to the formation of gallstones and subsequent obstruction of the bile ducts. Exposure to... |
| C172808 | Digestive system mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172810 | Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C172811 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the pancreas and is characterized by the presence of isolated malignant cells or malignant cells that form small aggregates. |
| C172812 | An undifferentiated carcinoma that arises from the pancreas. It is characterized by the presence of rhabdoid cells. |
| C172813 | An invasive pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of clusters of malignant cells located within artifactual clear stromal spaces. |
| C172814 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the pancreas. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C172823 | "A form of beta thalassemia characterized by decreased or absent synthesis of both the delta- and beta-globin chains, which leads to a compensatory increase in fetal gamma-chain synthesis. This disorder results in a microcytic anemia that is clinically mild." |
| C172844 | "An extranodal low-grade B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising in mucosal or glandular tissues of the digestive system. It recapitulates the cytoarchitectural features of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT). It is composed of small lymphoid cells, often including marginal zone cells. (WHO 2019)" |
| C172846 | Follicular dendritic cell sarcoma that is not associated with Epstein-Barr virus. |
| C172847 | "A rare, Epstein-Barr virus-associated variant of follicular dendritic cell sarcoma. It usually arises from the liver or spleen and has a favorable prognosis. The name of this entity has been changed from ""sarcoma"" to ""tumor"" because of its indolent nature." |
| C172849 | A sarcoma that arises from the digestive system. |
| C172850 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the digestive system. |
| C172851 | "A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the digestive system. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells." |
| C172852 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the digestive system." |
| C172853 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the esophagus." |
| C172854 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the hepatobiliary system." |
| C172855 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder." |
| C172856 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the liver and intrahepatic bile ducts." |
| C172857 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the small or large intestine." |
| C172940 | "A solitary fibrous tumor arising from an anatomic site in the digestive system, including the esophagus, gallbladder, liver, pancreas, small bowel mesentery, and the serosal surfaces of the stomach and colon." |
| C172941 | "A benign, often polypoid, hypocellular fibroblastic neoplasm with a predilection for the stomach and ileum, containing a prominent inflammatory infiltrate, especially eosinophils. (WHO 2019)" |
| C172942 | A leiomyoma arising from an anatomic site in the digestive system. |
| C172945 | A lipoma arising from an anatomic site in the digestive system. |
| C172951 | A leiomyosarcoma arising from an anatomic site in the digestive system. |
| C172952 | A rhabdomyosarcoma arising from an anatomic site in the digestive system. |
| C172953 | Meningioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C172955 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the digestive system. |
| C172980 | "A gastrointestinal tract sarcoma with neuroectodermal differentiation. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic round cells with pale eosinophilic cytoplasm. Cytoplasmic clearing is seen only in a minority of cases. Half of the cases contain osteoclastic giant cells. It is associated with gene fusion translocations involving the EWSR1 gene, usually EWSR1-ATF1 fusion or EWSR1-CREB1 fusion." |
| C172989 | "An autosomal dominant cancer predisposition syndrome associated with an increased risk of gastric (but not colorectal) adenocarcinoma, together with proximal polyposis of the stomach. It is caused by germline point mutations in the YY1 binding site of the APC promoter 1B. (WHO 2019)" |
| C173046 | Indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C173077 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the mucosal epithelium of the nasal cavity or the paranasal sinuses and is characterized by prominent production of keratin. |
| C173078 | A distinctive HPV-related non-keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma of the sinonasal tract arising most frequently from the maxillary sinus or nasal cavity. Most patients present with nasal obstruction and/or epistaxis. It is characterized by the presence of basaloid cell proliferations separated by collagenous fibrous bands. The basaloid cells align around microcystic spaces. |
| C173079 | A poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma arising from the sinonasal tract. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with spindle cell features. |
| C173080 | "A nonkeratinizing squamous cell carcinoma arising from the sinonasal tract. It is characterized by the presence of large cells with vesicular nuclei and prominent nucleoli, a syncytial growth pattern, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate." |
| C173085 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of cerebrooculofacioskeletal syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the ERCC6 gene, encoding DNA excision repair protein ERCC-6." |
| C173087 | "A highly aggressive, poorly differentiated carcinoma that arises from the head and neck. Most cases are in the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It is characterized by mutations and rearrangement of the NUT gene." |
| C173088 | "A highly aggressive, poorly differentiated carcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It is characterized by mutations and rearrangement of the NUT gene." |
| C173089 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C173091 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C173094 | "A malignant sinonasal neoplasm with combined histological features of teratoma and carcinosarcoma, lacking malignant germ cell components. (WHO 2017)" |
| C173095 | "A neoplasm that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C173097 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173099 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of trichothiodystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the GTF2H5 gene, encoding general transcription factor IIH subunit 5." |
| C173102 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of trichothiodystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the TARS1 gene, encoding threonine-tRNA ligase 1, cytoplasmic." |
| C173103 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of trichothiodystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the ERCC3 gene, encoding general transcription and DNA repair factor IIH helicase subunit XPB." |
| C173104 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of cerebrooculofacioskeletal syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the ERCC1 gene, encoding DNA excision repair protein ERCC-1." |
| C173106 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ERCC6 gene, encoding DNA excision repair protein ERCC-6. It is characterized by cutaneous photosensitivity and mild freckling, without an increased risk of skin tumors." |
| C173107 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the UVSSA gene, encoding UV-stimulated scaffold protein A. it is characterized by cutaneous photosensitivity and slight dyspigmentation, without an increased risk of skin tumors." |
| C173110 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ERCC8 gene, encoding DNA excision repair protein ERCC-8. It is characterized by cutaneous photosensitivity and increased freckling, without an increased risk of skin tumors." |
| C173111 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ERCC4 gene, encoding DNA repair endonuclease XPF. it is characterized by characterized by cutaneous photosensitivity and progeroid features in multiple organ systems." |
| C173112 | A benign acquired overgrowth of indigenous glands of the sinonasal tract arising from the surface epithelium. (WHO 2017) |
| C173113 | A benign overgrowth of indigenous seromucinous glands of the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. (WHO 2017) |
| C173114 | A pleomorphic adenoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C173117 | A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173118 | A sarcoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173119 | Biliary cirrhosis due to obstruction of the extrahepatic ducts. |
| C173120 | A fibrosarcoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173121 | An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173123 | A leiomyosarcoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173124 | A rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173125 | An angiosarcoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173126 | "Hemochromatosis that is not inherited and is caused by iron overload from excessive consumption, multiple transfusions, or disorders of erythropoiesis." |
| C173127 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173128 | A synovial sarcoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173129 | Chronic passive congestion of the liver secondary to right heart failure. Elevation of central venous pressure leads to restriction of the hepatic circulation. Prolonged hepatic venous pressure may lead to liver fibrosis and cirrhosis. |
| C173131 | "A genetically heterogenous condition, usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, characterized by hypopigmented and hyperpigmented macules involving the entire body surface." |
| C173132 | A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the sinonasal tract and is characterized by an increased risk of local recurrence and/or a low risk of metastasis. |
| C173133 | Desmoid fibromatosis that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173136 | A sinonasal soft tissue neoplasm with hemangiopericytoma-like features. |
| C173137 | A solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173138 | An epithelioid hemangioendothelioma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173139 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C173140 | A leiomyoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173142 | A hemangioma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173143 | A schwannoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173144 | A neurofibroma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173146 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of 3-methylglutaconic aciduria caused by mutation(s) in the DNAJC19 gene, encoding mitochondrial import inner membrane translocase subunit TIM14." |
| C173147 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CRLF1 gene, encoding cytokine receptor-like factor 1. It is characterized by cold-induced sweating syndrome, dysmorphic features, poor sucking reflex, and temperature spikes presenting at infancy." |
| C173148 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CLCF1 gene, encoding cardiotrophin-like cytokine factor 1. It is characterized by cold-induced sweating syndrome, dysmorphic features, poor sucking reflex, and temperature spikes presenting at infancy. It is clinically indistinguishable from Crisponi/cold-induced sweating syndrome-1." |
| C173154 | The reemergence of an intracranial neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C173155 | An intracranial malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C173156 | Anal squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173162 | Esophageal adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173163 | A rare extracranial meningioma that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C173164 | "Deposits of borderline, malignant, and rarely benign tumors, usually from the ovary, on the peritoneal surface." |
| C173166 | "A locally aggressive, primarily gnathic (jaw) tumor with a high propensity for recurrence. It originates wholly within the sinonasal tract, without connection to gnathic sites, arising from sinonasal epithelium and showing histological features identical to those of its counterpart originating in the jaw. (WHO 2017)" |
| C173167 | "A benign, locally destructive, sinonasal tumor-like growth containing mixed mesenchymal elements. (WHO 2017)" |
| C173169 | A plasmacytoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C173170 | A lymphoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C173171 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C173172 | An extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C173173 | An extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma that arises from the nasal cavity. |
| C173174 | An olfactory neuroblastoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C173175 | A Ewing sarcoma that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173176 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C173324 | Colorectal carcinoma characterized by the absence of microsatellite instability. |
| C173328 | Non-cutaneous melanoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C173329 | Ocular melanoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C173330 | Lung squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C173331 | Lung squamous cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C173332 | Microsatellite stable colorectal carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C173333 | A chordoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C173334 | Anal canal squamous cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C173335 | Uveal melanoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C173336 | Thyroid gland anaplastic carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C173338 | Anal canal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C173340 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C173341 | "A rare midline nasopharyngeal lesion that affects infants. It presents with respiratory distress due to nasal airway obstruction. It is a biphasic lesion characterized by the presence of epithelial and myoepithelial components. The histological features suggest that this lesion may be a hamartoma, rather than a neoplasm." |
| C173342 | "A benign polypoid lesion that usually arises from the nasopharynx. It may also occur in the oropharynx, palate, tonsil, tongue, lip, and middle ear. It usually affects neonates and older infants and is composed of ectoderm and mesoderm." |
| C173343 | "A benign polypoid lesion that arises from the nasopharynx. It usually affects neonates and older infants. It manifests as a pedunculated mass associated with cough, dyspnea, vomiting, or difficulty in swallowing. It is composed of ectoderm and mesoderm." |
| C173344 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the nasopharynx. |
| C173345 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that does not involve the sella turcica. |
| C173352 | An ectopic pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C173354 | A lymphoma that arises from the pharynx. |
| C173355 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the pharynx. |
| C173356 | A Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the pharynx. |
| C173357 | A lymphoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C173359 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C173361 | A Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C173385 | "A rare aggressive neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the skin and most often affects older individuals. It is usually located in the head, neck, and extremities. The tumor is composed of small round cells with scanty cytoplasm. Merkel cell polyomavirus is implicated in the majority of cases." |
| C173387 | A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the head and neck. |
| C173388 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the head and neck. There is necrosis present and/or the mitotic count is 2-10 per 2 mm2. The Ki-67 index is less than 20%. |
| C173390 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the larynx. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C173391 | A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the larynx. |
| C173392 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the larynx. There is necrosis present and/or the mitotic count is 2-10 per 2 mm2. The Ki-67 index is less than 20%. |
| C173395 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the larynx and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C173397 | A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the larynx. |
| C173399 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the larynx and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C173400 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the larynx. |
| C173401 | "An autosomal recessive cerebellar ataxia caused by mutation(s) in the APTX gene, encoding aprataxin. It is characterized by peripheral axonal neuropathy, oculomotor apraxia, and hypoalbuminemia." |
| C173402 | An inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor that arises from the larynx. |
| C173403 | "An autosomal recessive cerebellar ataxia caused by mutation(s) in the PIK3R5 gene, encoding phosphoinositide 3-kinase regulatory subunit 5. It is characterized by oculomotor apraxia and distal muscle atrophy and weakness, predominantly affecting the lower limbs." |
| C173404 | A liposarcoma that arises from the tongue. |
| C173405 | A granular cell tumor that arises from the larynx. |
| C173406 | "A benign neoplasm arising from hyaline cartilage of the larynx. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, and calcification." |
| C173407 | A chondrosarcoma that arises from hyaline cartilage of the larynx. |
| C173408 | A sarcoma that arises from soft tissue of the larynx. |
| C173409 | The reemergence of mature T-cell and NK-cell neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C173411 | Mature T-cell and NK-cell neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C173412 | A very rare pleomorphic adenoma that arises from the larynx. |
| C173414 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the oropharynx and lacks association with human papillomavirus type 16 infection. |
| C173468 | "An autosomal recessive disorder of creatine synthesis caused by mutations(s) in the GAMT gene on chromosome 19p13, encoding guanidinoacetate N-methyltransferase. It is characterized by developmental delay/regression, mental retardation, severe disturbance of expressive and cognitive speech, intractable seizures and movement disturbances, severe depletion of creatine/phosphocreatine in the brain, and accumulation of guanidinoacetic acid (GAA) in brain and body fluids." |
| C173469 | "An X-linked condition caused by mutations(s) in the FLNA gene on chromosome Xq28, encoding filamin A. It is characterized by multivalvular dysplasia and regurgitation, which can lead to lethal heart failure in some patients." |
| C173470 | "An autosomal dominant arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy caused by mutations(s) in the TMEM43 gene on chromosome 3p25, encoding transmembrane protein 43. It is characterized by ventricular ectopy, left ventricular dilation, heart failure, and early death." |
| C173471 | "An autosomal dominant arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy caused by mutations(s) in the PKP2 gene on chromosome 12p11, encoding plakophilin 2. It is characterized by right ventricular structural abnormalities and arrhythmias, electrocardiographic depolarization/repolarization changes, and sudden death." |
| C173474 | Benign multifocal squamous epithelial proliferation affecting the oral mucosa. It is associated with human papilloma virus infection. |
| C173475 | Verruca vulgaris in the lips and oral cavity. |
| C173476 | "A benign, exophytic and polypoid growth that arises from the lips or oral cavity. It is covered by hyperplastic epithelium. Some cases are caused by human papillomavirus infection." |
| C173477 | Kaposi sarcoma arising from the oral cavity. |
| C173478 | A low-grade myofibroblastic sarcoma arising from the oral cavity. |
| C173479 | A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the oral cavity. |
| C173480 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the oral cavity and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C173481 | A soft tissue sarcoma that arises from the oral cavity. |
| C173483 | "A form of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) that is marked by mild hypoxemia. Based on the Berlin criteria, onset must occur within one week of a clinical insult or there must be evidence of new or worsening respiratory symptoms. Chest imaging reveals bilateral opacities consistent with pulmonary edema that are not fully explained by effusions, lobar/lung collapse, or nodules. Respiratory failure is not fully explained by heart failure or fluid overload and objective assessment, e.... |
| C173484 | "A form of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) that is marked by moderate hypoxemia. Based on the Berlin criteria, onset must occur within one week of a clinical insult or there must be evidence of new or worsening respiratory symptoms. Chest imaging reveals bilateral opacities consistent with pulmonary edema that are not fully explained by effusions, lobar/lung collapse, or nodules. Respiratory failure is not fully explained by heart failure or fluid overload and objective assessment... |
| C173485 | A histiocytic and dendritic cell neoplasm that affects the head and neck. |
| C173486 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis involving the head and neck. |
| C173487 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis that affects the oral cavity. |
| C173488 | A melanocytic neoplasm that arises from the skin or mucosal sites in the head and neck region. |
| C173489 | "An extramedullary myeloid tumor that arises from the oral cavity. It occurs de novo or can precede, coincide with, or follow the presentation of acute myeloid leukemia, or can constitute blastic transformation of a myelodysplastic syndrome or myeloproliferative neoplasm. (WHO 2017)" |
| C173502 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C173503 | Acute undifferentiated leukemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C173530 | Ganglioneuroblastoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C173531 | The reemergence of ganglioneuroblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C173555 | Alopecia caused by treatment with endocrine therapy agents. |
| C173565 | Primitive neuroectodermal tumor that does not respond to treatment. |
| C173570 | "A viral infection caused by a parainfluenza virus, typically resulting in infections of the lower respiratory tract." |
| C173571 | An X-linked recessive inherited disorder caused by loss of function mutations in the PIGA gene. It is characterized by deficient GPI-anchor synthesis. Patients may develop somatic paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) or multiple congenital anomalies-hypotonia-seizures syndrome 2 (MCAHS2; early infantile epileptic encephalopathy 20; EIEE20). |
| C173575 | A pleomorphic adenoma that arises from the oropharynx. |
| C173576 | A salivary gland polymorphous adenocarcinoma that arises from the oropharynx. |
| C173577 | A lymphoma that arises from the oropharynx. |
| C173578 | A Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the oropharynx. |
| C173579 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the oropharynx. |
| C173580 | "A follicular dendritic cell sarcoma that arises from the head and neck. The most frequently affected sites are the cervical lymph nodes, the Waldeyer ring, and the soft tissue of the neck." |
| C173586 | "A rare Merkel cell carcinoma that arises from extracutaneous sites, including the oral cavity, salivary glands, breast, vulva, and vaginal wall." |
| C173587 | Merkel cell carcinoma that arises from the head and neck region. It usually arises from sun-exposed skin. Rare cases arising from the oral cavity and salivary glands have been reported. |
| C173588 | A head and neck carcinoma arising from heterotopic tissue elements (i.e. histologically normal tissue of a particular type that is present at an abnormal anatomical site). (WHO 2017) |
| C173605 | "A rare malignant mesothelioma arising from the tunica vaginalis. It is characterized by the presence of cells with epithelioid morphology. The epithelioid cells usually have eosinophilic cytoplasm, bland nuclei, and form tubulopapillary, microglandular, or sheet-like patterns." |
| C173606 | A rare malignant mesothelioma arising from the tunica vaginalis. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells. Anaplastic morphologic features and multinucleated malignant cells may also be seen. |
| C173607 | "A rare malignant mesothelioma arising from the tunica vaginalis. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid and sarcomatoid components, with each component representing at least 10% of the tumor." |
| C173608 | Paratesticular malignant mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173609 | Paratesticular epithelioid mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173610 | Paratesticular sarcomatoid mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173611 | Paratesticular biphasic mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173612 | Peritoneal malignant mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173613 | Peritoneal epithelioid mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173614 | Peritoneal sarcomatoid mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173615 | Peritoneal biphasic mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173616 | Pleural epithelioid mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173617 | Pleural sarcomatoid mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173618 | Pleural biphasic mesothelioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173625 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of dilated cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the PLN gene, encoding cardiac phospholamban." |
| C173626 | "An autosomal recessive condition causes by mutation(s) in the FAN1 gene, encoding Fanconi-associated nuclease 1. It is characterized by renal failure, interstitial fibrosis, glomerular sclerosis, and atrophic tubules." |
| C173637 | Hereditary thyroid gland medullary carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C173638 | The reemergence of hereditary thyroid gland medullary carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C173642 | Thalassemia that results in severe anemia and requires regular blood transfusions for patient survival. |
| C173643 | Beta thalassemia that results in severe anemia and requires regular blood transfusions for patient survival. |
| C173648 | A rare sebaceous carcinoma that arises from the salivary glands. |
| C173649 | A high-grade carcinoma that arises from the salivary glands. This category includes large and small cell types with or without neuroendocrine differentiation. |
| C173650 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the salivary gland and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C173653 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the salivary gland. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C173659 | A rare benign salivary gland tumor that consists of a well-circumscribed biphasic proliferation of epithelial cells and reactive lymphoid tissue. Sebaceous and non-sebaceous forms can be distinguished. (WHO 2017) |
| C173661 | "A benign salivary gland lesion characterized by acinar atrophy, ductal hyperplasia, and epimyoepithelial islands in lymphoid stroma. (WHO 2017)" |
| C173662 | A salivary ductal proliferation resembling intercalated ducts. (WHO 2017) |
| C173663 | A rare lesion characterized by multiple non-neoplastic nodular proliferations composed of cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm (oncocytes) and/or clear cytoplasm (clear cells) in one or both parotid glands. (WHO 2017) |
| C173680 | A hemangioma that arises from a salivary gland. It occurs almost exclusively in the parotid gland. |
| C173681 | A lipoma that arises from a salivary gland. It usually occurs in the parotid gland. |
| C173682 | A benign salivary gland neoplasm composed of mature adipose tissue and epithelial tissue. It usually occurs in the parotid gland. |
| C173683 | Acute biphenotypic leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C173684 | A benign parotid gland neoplasm composed of mature adipose tissue and epithelial tissue. |
| C173685 | Pharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C173687 | "A self-limiting, rapidly growing, non-encapsulated benign neoplasm that arises from the salivary glands. It is composed of fibroblastic/myofibroblastic cells. It usually occurs in the parotid gland." |
| C173688 | "A self-limiting, rapidly growing, non-encapsulated benign neoplasm that arises from the parotid gland. It is composed of fibroblastic/myofibroblastic cells." |
| C173689 | The reemergence of pharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C173690 | A lymphoma that manifests initially in a salivary gland. It usually occurs in the parotid gland. |
| C173691 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that manifests initially in a salivary gland. It usually occurs in the parotid gland. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma is the most common primary salivary gland non-Hodgkin lymphoma. |
| C173692 | A very rare Hodgkin lymphoma that manifests initially in a salivary gland. |
| C173693 | A low-grade extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue arising from a salivary gland. It usually occurs in the parotid gland and is often associated with Sjogren syndrome. The prognosis is favorable. |
| C173694 | Pharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C173715 | A follicular lymphoma that manifests initially in a salivary gland. It usually occurs in the parotid gland. |
| C173716 | A follicular lymphoma that manifests initially in the parotid gland. |
| C173717 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that manifests initially in a salivary gland. It usually occurs in the parotid gland. |
| C173719 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that manifests initially in the parotid gland. |
| C173720 | A carcinoma that arises from tooth-forming tissues. |
| C173733 | "A rare, low-grade primary intraosseous carcinoma of the jaws, with bland cytology, markedly sclerotic stroma, and aggressive infiltration. It is characterized by single-file thin cords, nests, and strands of epithelium in a densely sclerotic stroma. Cytologically, individual epithelial cells are bland, with infrequent mitoses. Their cytoplasm may show vacuolation or partial clearing. There is no squamous differentiation. Despite the benign appearance, there is invasion of skeletal muscle, a... |
| C173735 | An extremely rare malignant mixed odontogenic neoplasm in which both the epithelial and the mesenchymal components are cytologically malignant. (WHO 2017) |
| C173738 | A sarcoma that arises from tooth-forming tissues. |
| C173739 | An odontogenic sarcoma producing dentin/dentinoid. |
| C173740 | An odontogenic sarcoma producing enamel/enameloid and dentin. |
| C173761 | Transmission of an infectious disease from a reservoir vertebrate population with a high pathogen prevalence coming into contact with a naive human population. |
| C173766 | A respiratory infectious disorder that leads to an acute illness that requires medical attention. |
| C173783 | "Acute impairment of breaking down fibrin clots leading to venous thromboembolism, stroke, and renal failure." |
| C173784 | "New or worsening impairment in physical, cognitive, or mental health that occurs after treatment for a critical illness in an intensive care setting." |
| C173788 | "Aplastic anemia that is characterized by bone marrow (BM) cellularity less than 25% (or less than 50% if BM is comprised of less than 30% hematopoietic cells), and two or more of the following: absolute neutrophil count of less than 200 per microliter; platelet count of less than 20,000 per microliter; or an absolute reticulocyte count of less than 20,000 per microliter." |
| C173789 | Aplastic anemia that is characterized by bone marrow cellularity less than 30% and does not meet criteria for severe aplastic anemia. |
| C173793 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the tongue. |
| C173794 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the tongue. |
| C173795 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the gums. |
| C173796 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the gums. |
| C173797 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the tonsils. |
| C173798 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the tonsils. |
| C173799 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the appendix. |
| C173800 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the appendix. |
| C173807 | A rare adenosquamous carcinoma that arises from the tongue. |
| C173808 | A rare undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. |
| C173809 | An exceptionally rare alveolar soft part sarcoma that arises from the lung. |
| C173811 | "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the bone, without lymph node or other extranodal involvement." |
| C173813 | An exceedingly rare squamous cell carcinoma arising from the pancreas. |
| C173814 | Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C173815 | The reemergence of ectomesenchymoma after a period of remission. |
| C173819 | "A benign odontogenic tumor composed of variably cellular loose fibrous tissue with areas similar to the dental papilla, entirely surrounded by cuboidal to columnar epithelium resembling the internal epithelium of the enamel organ. It occurs intraosseously, with a marked preference for the mandible. (WHO 2017)" |
| C173820 | A benign fibro-osseous neoplasm affecting the jaws and the craniofacial skeleton. (WHO 2017) |
| C173841 | A sarcoma that arises in a maxillofacial bone. |
| C173842 | A chondrosarcoma that arises in a maxillofacial bone. |
| C173843 | A mesenchymal chondrosarcoma that arises in a maxillofacial bone. |
| C173844 | An osteosarcoma that arises in a maxillofacial bone. |
| C173845 | A neoplasm that arises in a maxillofacial bone. |
| C173846 | A glioma affecting both sides of the thalamus. |
| C173892 | "A neoplasm that arises from a maxillofacial bone and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C173893 | "A benign neoplasm of hyaline cartilage that arises within the medullary cavity of a maxillofacial bone. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, and calcification." |
| C173894 | "A benign, well-circumscribed bone-forming neoplasm that is predominantly composed of lamellar bone and arises in a maxillofacial bone." |
| C173895 | A benign chondroid-producing neoplasm arising in a maxillofacial bone. |
| C173897 | "An uncommon benign cartilaginous neoplasm arising in a maxillofacial bone. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped or stellate chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, myxoid stroma formation, and sometimes multinucleated giant cells." |
| C173898 | "A small, benign bone-forming neoplasm that arises in a maxillofacial bone and is characterized by the presence of a central portion (nidus) containing differentiated osteoblasts that produce osteoid and sometimes bone. The lesion is usually surrounded by hypervascular sclerotic bone and has limited growth potential." |
| C173899 | A benign bone-forming neoplasm with prominent osteoblastic rimming arising in a maxillofacial bone. |
| C173900 | "A rare, benign, locally aggressive osteolytic neoplasm that arises in a maxillofacial bone. It is characterized by the presence of a rich collagenous stroma and spindle cells with minimal cellular atypia." |
| C173916 | The reemergence of a metastatic malignant neoplasm in the leptomeninges after a period of remission. |
| C173926 | Fibrous dysplasia affecting the craniofacial bones. |
| C173927 | "A non-neoplastic fibro-osseous lesion of the tooth-bearing regions of the gnathic bones. It is characterized by a variably cellular fibrous stroma with areas of swirling and/or loose collagen. Within the stroma are mineralizing tissues consisting of osteoid, bone, and cementum-like material. As the lesions mature, they become increasingly calcified. (WHO 2017)" |
| C173928 | Cemento-osseous dysplasia affecting the apical areas of mandibular anterior teeth. (WHO 2017) |
| C173929 | Cemento-osseous dysplasia affecting a single tooth. (WHO 2017) |
| C173932 | "A neoplasm that arises from the head and neck and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C173979 | Differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C173980 | Differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C174022 | "A locally invasive, papillary epithelial neoplasm arising in any area of the middle ear, including the mastoid process and air cells, and may fill the tympanic cavity. It is characterized by the presence of a papillary glandular pattern, with complex interdigitating papillae lying loosely or infiltrating fibrous connective tissue. (WHO 2017)" |
| C174023 | "A neoplasm that arises from the inner ear and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include vestibular schwannoma and lipoma." |
| C174024 | A cervical carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174025 | A cervical squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174026 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the inner ear. |
| C174027 | A cervical adenosquamous carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174029 | A cervical adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174030 | A cervical squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C174031 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the middle ear. |
| C174032 | A cervical adenosquamous carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C174033 | A rare extracranial meningioma that arises from the middle ear. |
| C174034 | Salivary gland carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174043 | An endometrial adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C174044 | An endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C174045 | Endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C174046 | Poorly differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C174047 | The reemergence of poorly differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C174054 | The reemergence of AL amyloidosis after a period of remission. |
| C174055 | AL amyloidosis that does not respond to treatment. |
| C174107 | "A chronic infection caused by Cryptosporidium parvum or hominis that manifests as enteritis. It usually occurs in immunocompromised patients including persons with AIDS, transplant recipients, patients receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy, and patients with hematologic malignancies." |
| C174113 | "A blood borne fungal infection of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column (meninges) caused by Cryptococcus, usually C. neoformans or C. gattii. It usually occurs in immunocompromised patients including persons with AIDS, transplant recipients, patients receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy, and patients with hematologic malignancies." |
| C174114 | Meningitis in which lymphocytes predominate in the cerebrospinal fluid. |
| C174122 | Rectal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C174129 | "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by rearrangement of the KMT2A gene. It affects infants, children and adults. It is usually associated with poor prognosis." |
| C174184 | A disorder of the liver secondary to the excessive consumption of ethanol that is characterized by the replacement of healthy tissue with fibrotic scar tissue and the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. |
| C174186 | An abscess that is located both in the kidney and across the renal capsule into the perinephric space. |
| C174191 | A non-inflammatory disorder that affects the female reproductive system. |
| C174198 | A vulvar carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174199 | A vulvar squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174200 | The reemergence of vulvar squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C174201 | A vulvar squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C174202 | The reemergence of supratentorial glioblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C174215 | "A subtype of age-related macular degeneration associated with mutation(s) in the CFH gene, encoding complement factor H." |
| C174216 | "An autosomal recessive form of congenital myasthenic syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the CHRNE gene, encoding acetylcholine receptor subunit epsilon." |
| C174217 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the LMNA gene, encoding prelamin-A/C. It is characterized by dilated cardiomyopathy and hypergonadotropic hypogonadism." |
| C174218 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ECHS1 gene, encoding enoyl-CoA hydratase, mitochondrial. The condition represents a clinical spectrum in which there are multiple phenotypes." |
| C174247 | Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C174377 | "Spontaneous degeneration of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves characterized by myelin sheath vacuolation, Wallerian degeneration and intramyelinic space infiltration by macrophages." |
| C174388 | A benign epithelial neoplasm that arises from the conjunctiva. It is characterized by the presence of oncocytic cells with abundant eosinophilic and granular cytoplasm. |
| C174390 | "A rapidly growing neoplasm that arises from the conjunctiva. It is characterized by a proliferation of squamous cells, acanthosis, keratinization, dysplasia, increased mitotic activity, and a central crater filled with keratinocytes. It is considered a variant of well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma with distinct clinical behavior." |
| C174398 | A conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of pleomorphic spindle cells. |
| C174402 | A carcinoma that arises from the conjunctiva and is characterized by the presence of a variable combination of squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma components. |
| C174403 | A carcinoma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C174404 | A rare sebaceous carcinoma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C174407 | A non-neoplastic proliferation of the conjunctival epithelium in response to irritating stimuli. |
| C174408 | A reactive proliferation of the conjunctival epithelium associated with the presence of prominent glandular elements. |
| C174409 | A reactive proliferation of the conjunctival squamous epithelium not associated with glandular elements. |
| C174414 | "A congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of an increased population of non-proliferating hyperpigmented melanocytes in the sclera, iris, ciliary body, choroid, and orbit. Patients present with hyperchromic heterochromia." |
| C174415 | "A group of benign, non-neoplastic lesions in the conjunctiva characterized by increased production of melanin without proliferation of conjunctival melanocytes." |
| C174416 | A junctional nevus that arises from the conjunctiva. It occurs almost exclusively in the juxtalimbal bulbar conjunctiva. It is characterized by an intraepithelial proliferation of type A nevus cells and/ or type B nevus cells. |
| C174418 | "A compound nevus that arises from the conjunctiva. It usually occurs in the bulbar conjunctiva, caruncle, and plica semilunaris. It is characterized by the presence of nevus cells within the epithelium and in the substantia propria. Type A nevus cells are present in the junctional nests and superficial substantia propria, and type B nevus cells are present in the deeper layers of the subepithelial compartment." |
| C174426 | A conjunctival nevus characterized by an intrastromal proliferation of predominantly type B nevus cells. |
| C174435 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of dilated cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the RBM20 gene, encoding RNA-binding protein 20." |
| C174436 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ESPN gene, encoding espin. It is characterized by profound sensorineural hearing loss." |
| C174439 | "A genetic condition caused by mutation(s) in the POR gene, encoding NADPH--cytochrome P450 reductase. It is characterized by glucocorticoid deficiency, sexual ambiguity in both boys and girls, and skeletal malformations." |
| C174440 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the C1QBP gene, encoding complement component 1 Q subcomponent-binding protein, mitochondrial. The phenotype is highly variable." |
| C174441 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the OTULIN gene, encoding ubiquitin thioesterase otulin. It is characterized by neonatal onset of recurrent fever, erythematous rash with painful nodules, painful joints, and lipodystrophy." |
| C174443 | Adrenal cortical carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C174444 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the TMC1 gene, encoding transmembrane channel-like protein 1. It is characterized  by bilateral progressive hearing loss." |
| C174448 | A compound nevus that arises from the conjunctiva in children and adolescents. It is characterized by the presence of chronic inflammatory features. |
| C174452 | "A benign melanocytic neoplasm that arises from the conjunctiva. It is characterized by the presence of dendritic and spindle-shaped melanocytes in the subepithelial connective tissue. It presents as a dark brown or black, slightly elevated conjunctival lesion." |
| C174456 | Ewing sarcoma characterized by the presence of large malignant cells with prominent nucleoli and irregular contours. |
| C174486 | Acute myeloid leukemia not otherwise specified that does not respond to treatment. |
| C174493 | A rare nevus that arises from the conjunctiva and is characterized by the presence of large spindle-shaped or epithelioid melanocytes. |
| C174496 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the conjunctiva from another anatomic site. |
| C174498 | An iris melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes. |
| C174500 | A benign nevus that arises from the ciliary body. Only a small percentage of cases progress to ciliary body melanoma. |
| C174501 | A benign nevus that arises from the choroid. Only a small percentage of cases progress to choroid melanoma. |
| C174502 | A benign nevus derived from melanocytes of the uveal tract. Only a small percentage of cases progress to uveal melanoma. |
| C174503 | "A subtype of ciliary body, iris, and choroidal nevi. It is intensely pigmented and composed of large, plump, polyhedral cells." |
| C174504 | "A paraneoplastic syndrome characterized by diffuse proliferation of benign melanocytes in the uvea, in patients with an underlying extraocular malignancy. (WHO 2018)" |
| C174505 | A cervical squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C174506 | "A melanoma arising from the iris. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of spindle A melanoma cells, spindle B melanoma cells, and epithelioid melanoma cells." |
| C174507 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the uvea from another anatomic site. |
| C174508 | Vulvar carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C174509 | Vaginal carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C174510 | Lung adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174511 | Acute monoblastic and monocytic leukemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C174512 | Acute myelomonocytic leukemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C174539 | An astrocytoma that arises from the retina. It is often found in association with the tuberous sclerosis complex. |
| C174543 | "A spectrum of discrete retinal glial proliferations surrounding blood vessels, ranging in size from small nodules to massive lesions that fill the eye. (WHO 2018)" |
| C174545 | "A congenital patch of hypertrophic, benign retinal pigment epithelial cells containing macromelanosomes. The lesions are typically asymptomatic and are found incidentally during ophthalmoscopy. (WHO 2018)" |
| C174546 | A hamartoma composed of normal retinal elements but lacks the distribution and organization of the normal retina and retinal pigment epithelium. (WHO 2018) |
| C174547 | A retinal hamartoma that involves only the retinal pigment epithelium. (WHO 2018) |
| C174548 | A retinal hamartoma that involves cellular elements of both the retina and the retinal pigment epithelium. (WHO 2018) |
| C174549 | "A reactive, non-neoplastic hyperplasia of the retinal pigment epithelium." |
| C174550 | "A benign neoplasm that arises from the retinal pigment epithelium. It consists of cords and tubules of variably pigmented proliferating retinal pigment epithelium cells, separated by fibrous stroma. Malignant transformation is rare. (WHO 2018)" |
| C174551 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the retinal pigment epithelium. The prognosis is good if the tumor has not extended extraocularly. |
| C174553 | "Thrombotic microangiopathy that presents in some patients undergoing hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). Though similar in presentation to thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) and atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS), transplant-associated thrombotic microangiopathy (TA-TMA) is a distinct disorder. Several risk factors may be associated with TA-TMA, including high-dose chemotherapy, radiation therapy, HLA mismatch, use of calcineurin inhibitors, acute graft-versus-host... |
| C174556 | "An increase in cell number and volume of the ciliary epithelium, usually in response to injury. (WHO 2018)" |
| C174560 | A benign neoplasm of the pigmented ciliary epithelium (pigmented epithelial adenoma) and/or the non-pigmented ciliary epithelium (non-pigmented epithelial adenoma). (WHO 2018) |
| C174561 | An adenocarcinoma arising from the pigmented or non-pigmented ciliary epithelium. |
| C174562 | A congenital choristoma in the ciliary body. It consists of a mass of mature glial and neuronal cells without neoplastic potential in an otherwise healthy child; there is usually an adjacent coloboma of the anterior uvea and retina. (WHO 2018) |
| C174565 | A kidney carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174566 | Pancreatic adenosquamous carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174567 | A kidney medullary carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174568 | Rhabdoid tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C174569 | Poorly differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174570 | Thyroid gland papillary carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174571 | Thyroid gland follicular carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174572 | Thyroid gland oncocytic carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C174573 | The reemergence of thyroid gland oncocytic carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C174574 | Thyroid gland oncocytic carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C175047 | "An autosomal dominant form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the KCNB1 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily B member 1." |
| C175048 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the FZD4 gene, encoding frizzled-4. It is characterized by a variable phenotype resulting from incomplete development of the retinal vasculature. Mutation(s) in the FZD4 gene, also cause a form of retinopathy of prematurity." |
| C175208 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the TRPV4 gene, encoding transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily V member 4. It is characterized by interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and metatarsophalangeal joint deformity and painful osteoarthritis becoming apparent during the first decade of life." |
| C175209 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the TRPV4 gene, encoding transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily V member 4. It is characterized by a variable phenotype, which may include short limbs, kyphoscoliosis, and other skeletal abnormalities." |
| C175210 | "An X-linked dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the WDR45 gene, encoding WD repeat domain phosphoinositide-interacting protein 4. it is characterized by global developmental delay in early childhood, and subsequent dystonia and dementia in young adulthood." |
| C175214 | Gallbladder carcinoma that is discovered incidental to gallbladder surgery for another indication. |
| C175215 | A congenital condition characterized by the presence of giant and/or multiple satellite congenital melanocytic nevi in the skin and benign melanocytic pigmentation of the leptomeninges. |
| C175216 | "The reemergence of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that resulted from the transformation of marginal zone lymphoma, after a period of remission." |
| C175217 | Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that resulted from the transformation of marginal zone lymphoma and is resistant to treatment. |
| C175218 | Lung adenosquamous carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175219 | Lung adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175220 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the visual pathway from another anatomic site. |
| C175221 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the visual pathway. |
| C175222 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm from its original site of growth to nearby lymph nodes. |
| C175223 | A benign neoplastic melanocytic proliferation affecting the optic disk and optic nerve or the uvea. |
| C175224 | A benign neoplastic melanocytic proliferation affecting the optic disk and optic nerve. |
| C175225 | "A very rare, benign or malignant embryonal neoplasm affecting the visual pathway during childhood. It arises from primitive medullary epithelium." |
| C175236 | Triple-negative breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C175237 | Triple-negative breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175240 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the ATP6V1B2 gene, encoding V-type proton ATPase subunit B, brain isoform. It is characterized by congenital deafness and onychodystrophy." |
| C175241 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SRCAP gene, encoding helicase SRCAP. It is characterized by proportionate short stature, delayed bone age, delayed speech development, and typical facial features." |
| C175257 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the lacrimal gland and/or the lacrimal drainage system. |
| C175259 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the lacrimal duct. |
| C175264 | A benign epithelial neoplasm that arises from the lacrimal gland. It is characterized by the presence of oncocytic cells with abundant eosinophilic and granular cytoplasm. |
| C175267 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the lacrimal gland. It is characterized by the presence of large malignant epithelial cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C175272 | A benign neoplasm with myoepithelial differentiation arising from the lacrimal gland. It lacks an infiltrative growth pattern and does not metastasize. |
| C175274 | A carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal gland. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate exhibiting myoepithelial differentiation. |
| C175279 | "An aggressive, high grade malignant neoplasm that arises from the lacrimal gland. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant epithelial and a sarcomatous component." |
| C175288 | "A rare, slow-growing carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal gland. It is characterized by the presence of duct-like structures lined by two layers of cells, an inner layer composed of epithelial-type cells and an outer layer composed of clear, myoepithelial-type cells." |
| C175290 | "An extremely rare, low-grade, salivary gland-type carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal gland. It exhibits acinar differentiation." |
| C175291 | A rare benign tumor that arises from the lacrimal gland. It is characterized by an oncocytic epithelial component and dense lymphoid stroma. |
| C175304 | A malignant gastric neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C175307 | "A neoplasm that arises from the lacrimal gland or lacrimal drainage system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C175308 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the lacrimal gland or the lacrimal drainage system. |
| C175316 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the lacrimal drainage system. |
| C175318 | "A neoplasm that arises from the lacrimal drainage system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C175319 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the lacrimal drainage system. |
| C175327 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to the lacrimal gland or lacrimal drainage system. |
| C175329 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to the lacrimal gland. |
| C175330 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to the lacrimal drainage system. |
| C175332 | A benign exophytic papillary neoplasm that arises from the lacrimal drainage system. It consists of fibrovascular cores lined by epithelial cells. |
| C175334 | A benign neoplasm of the lacrimal drainage system characterized by an inverted/endophytic or mixed growth pattern. It is the most common epithelial neoplasm of the lacrimal drainage system. (WHO 2018) |
| C175335 | "A squamous cell carcinoma of the lacrimal drainage system characterized by a plexiform or ribbon-like growth pattern, cytological atypia, and lack of histological evidence of keratinization." |
| C175336 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the lacrimal sac or nasolacrimal duct. |
| C175337 | "A carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal sac, canaliculi, or nasolacrimal duct." |
| C175339 | "A carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal sac. It is characterized by the presence of squamous cells, mucus producing cells, and cells of intermediate type." |
| C175340 | "A carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal sac. It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells that form cribriform, tubular, and solid patterns." |
| C175344 | "A rare nonkeratinizing squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal sac or nasolacrimal duct. It is characterized by the presence of large cells with vesicular nuclei and prominent nucleoli, a syncytial growth pattern, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate." |
| C175345 | An extremely rare melanoma that arises from the lacrimal drainage system. |
| C175348 | A carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal gland or the lacrimal drainage system. |
| C175360 | The reemergence of anal canal squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C175363 | Rectal adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C175364 | "The reemergence of anal canal squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C175383 | Anal canal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C175384 | Anal canal squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgery. |
| C175429 | "A polyclonal proliferation of lymphoid tissue in the conjunctiva that typically occurs in young adults. It usually presents as a unilateral, red or orange, painless swelling and is probably caused by chronic antigen stimulation. (WHO 2018)" |
| C175430 | A follicular lymphoma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C175431 | A mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma affecting the conjunctiva. |
| C175432 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C175433 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C175434 | A vaginal carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C175435 | The reemergence of acral lentiginous melanoma after a period of remission. |
| C175436 | Ampulla of Vater carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C175437 | Extrahepatic bile duct carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C175438 | Distal cholangiocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C175451 | "An indolent, low-grade B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the choroid, iris, or ciliary body. It is characterized by the presence of a diffuse infiltrate of small, round lymphocytes. Lymphoid follicles with germinal centers may be present. In the past these tumors were termed 'reactive lymphoid hyperplasia'. Now they are considered low-grade B-cell lymphomas, most commonly extranodal marginal zone lymphomas of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue." |
| C175464 | "An indolent, low-grade B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the choroid. It is characterized by the presence of a diffuse infiltrate of small, round lymphocytes. Lymphoid follicles with germinal centers may be present. In the past these tumors were termed 'reactive lymphoid hyperplasia'. Now they are considered low-grade B-cell lymphomas, most commonly extranodal marginal zone lymphomas of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue." |
| C175466 | "An extremely rare low-grade B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the ciliary body. It is characterized by the presence of a diffuse infiltrate of small, round lymphocytes. Most cases represent extranodal marginal zone lymphomas of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue." |
| C175467 | "An extremely rare low-grade B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the iris. It is characterized by the presence of a diffuse infiltrate of small, round lymphocytes. Most cases represent extranodal marginal zone lymphomas of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue." |
| C175470 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that has spread to the choroid following the initial presentation in another nodal or extranodal site. |
| C175478 | "A polyclonal proliferation of lymphoid tissue in the lacrimal gland. It usually presents as painless palpable masses leading to globe displacement, decreased motility, diplopia, and ptosis. It has a tendency to involve bilateral lacrimal glands. There is a higher incidence in females and in the setting of autoimmune disease. (WHO 2018)" |
| C175479 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the lacrimal gland or the lacrimal drainage system. The majority of cases are of B-cell type. The most common subtypes are mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, follicular lymphoma, and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma." |
| C175480 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the lacrimal gland. The majority of cases are of B-cell type. The most common subtypes are mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, follicular lymphoma, and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma." |
| C175481 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the lacrimal sac. The majority of cases are of B-cell type. The most common subtypes are mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. |
| C175482 | A mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma that arises from the lacrimal gland or the lacrimal drainage system. |
| C175483 | A mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma that arises from the lacrimal gland. |
| C175484 | A mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma that arises from the lacrimal sac. |
| C175485 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the lacrimal gland or the lacrimal drainage system. |
| C175486 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the lacrimal gland. |
| C175487 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the lacrimal sac. |
| C175488 | A follicular lymphoma that arises from the lacrimal gland. |
| C175491 | Nasopharyngeal carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C175493 | Transitional cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175494 | "A rare benign stromal tumor that arises from the bulbar conjunctiva. It is characterized by the presence of myxoid/collagenous stroma, spindle-shaped cells, pseudonuclear inclusions, and multinucleated cells." |
| C175495 | A rare myxoma arising from the bulbar conjunctiva. |
| C175496 | A rare solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the optic nerve sheath. |
| C175497 | A hemangioma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C175498 | A lymphangioma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C175499 | An angiosarcoma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C175500 | A leiomyosarcoma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C175501 | A rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C175502 | A sarcoma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C175503 | A distal bile duct carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C175505 | Leiomyosarcoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C175506 | Distal bile duct carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175507 | Thyroid gland oncocytic carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175515 | Small intestinal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175516 | Small intestinal adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C175520 | An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to allergens found in foods containing lactose or other dairy components. |
| C175521 | An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to allergens found in nuts. |
| C175522 | An allergic reaction triggered by exposure to allergens found in processed foods. |
| C175539 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the hypothalamus. |
| C175547 | A malignant digestive system neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C175549 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the brain and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C175550 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the brain and has spread from its original site of growth to other sites. |
| C175556 | "Inflammation of the lining of the anterior portion of the nasal cavity, usually caused by a bacterial infection." |
| C175581 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from the breast. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C175585 | An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of focal neuroendocrine differentiation. |
| C175588 | The reemergence of breast adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C175596 | An endometrial clear cell adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C175597 | An endometrial adenosquamous carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C175598 | The reemergence of endometrial adenosquamous carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C175599 | An endometrial mixed cell adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C175604 | "A rare, low grade malignant epithelial neoplasm arising from the breast. It is characterized by the presence of uniform, small to medium size malignant epithelial cells and an infiltrating pattern." |
| C175607 | "A rare subtype of invasive breast carcinoma characterized by tall columnar cells with reversed nuclear polarity, arranged in solid and solid papillary patterns, most commonly associated with IDH2 p.Arg172 hotspot mutations. (WHO 2019)" |
| C175610 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the breast. It may be classified as G1 (low grade) or G2 (intermediate grade) neuroendocrine tumor. |
| C175611 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm arising from the breast." |
| C175661 | A malignant glomus tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C175662 | A malignant glomus tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C175663 | A malignant glomus tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175664 | A malignant glomus tumor that is resistant to treatment. |
| C175665 | Osteosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175667 | Desmoid-type fibromatosis that has invaded the surrounding tissues. |
| C175668 | Adenoid cystic carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C175669 | Adenoid cystic carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175670 | Desmoid fibromatosis that is resistant to treatment. |
| C175700 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the P2RX2 gene, encoding P2X purinoceptor 2. It is characterized by progressive sensorineural hearing loss, usually in the second decade of life." |
| C175702 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Joubert syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the CPLANE1 gene, encoding ciliogenesis and planar polarity effector 1." |
| C175705 | "A rare condition in which the two arms of chromosome 8 are fused resulting in a ring chromosome. Ring chromosome syndromes typically are characterized by developmental delay, intellectual disability, microcephaly, and dysmorphic facial features." |
| C175706 | "A rare condition in which the two arms of chromosome 18 are fused resulting in a ring chromosome. Ring chromosome syndromes typically are characterized by developmental delay, intellectual disability, microcephaly, and dysmorphic facial features." |
| C175707 | "A genetic condition associated with mutation(s) in the C19orf12 gene, encoding protein C19orf12. It is characterized by progressive spastic paraplegia, parkinsonism unresponsive to L-DOPA treatment, and psychiatric or behavioral symptoms." |
| C175882 | "Wrinkling or bulging of contracted scar tissue that has formed on retinal surface secondary to retinal injury, inflammation, blood vessel occlusion, or vitreous detachment." |
| C175883 | A disorder affecting the vitreous fluid and retina. |
| C175934 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm from its original site of growth to supraclavicular lymph nodes. |
| C175935 | Malignant mesothelioma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175936 | Pleural malignant mesothelioma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C175937 | Epithelioid mesothelioma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C175938 | The reemergence of epithelioid mesothelioma after a period of remission. |
| C175939 | An abdominal neuroendocrine neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C175949 | "Breast lobular carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of dyscohesive proliferations of type A and/or type B epithelial cells. Type A cells are small cells with uniform hyperchromatic nuclei, whereas type B cells have slightly larger vesicular nuclei, with mild variability in size and shape and with small nucleoli. The cell populations may be mixed in individual proliferations. (WHO 2019)" |
| C175950 | "Breast lobular carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with cytological features identical to classic lobular carcinoma in situ, but with marked distention of terminal ductal lobular units or ducts." |
| C175991 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of congenital dyserythropoietic anemia caused by mutation(s) in the SEC23B gene, encoding protein transport protein Sec23B." |
| C176005 | Breast ductal carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of sheets of tumor cells with evidence of central necrosis and associated karyorrhectic/nuclear debris. |
| C176008 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia caused by mutation(s) in the CTNNA3 gene, encoding catenin alpha-3." |
| C176009 | "Breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of fine fibrovascular stalks covered by neoplastic epithelial cells of low or intermediate nuclear grade, typically present within a cystic space and surrounded by a fibrous capsule. There are usually no myoepithelial cells along the papillae or at the periphery of the lesion. (WHO 2019)" |
| C176010 | Encapsulated breast papillary carcinoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic elements that permeate beyond the fibrous capsule with an irregular infiltrative appearance. (WHO 2019) |
| C176011 | "Breast solid papillary carcinoma characterized by the presence of nodules with rounded, well-circumscribed contours and a distribution pattern consistent with an in situ process. (WHO 2019)" |
| C176012 | Breast solid papillary carcinoma associated with areas featuring strands or large clusters of tumor cells. (WHO 2019) |
| C176014 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the APOB gene, encoding apolipoprotein B-100. It is characterized by hypercholesterolemia and abnormal low-density lipoproteins." |
| C176042 | Biliary tract carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C176043 | A clinical term that refers to neoplastic lesions that arise from the conjunctival squamous epithelium and includes squamous intraepithelial neoplasia and squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C176045 | "A fibroadenoma characterized by the presence of a pericanalicular growth pattern, increased stromal cellularity, and less than 2 mitoses per 10 high-power fields." |
| C176251 | An angiosarcoma that arises from the breast parenchyma and is not associated with radiation exposure. |
| C176253 | "A self-limiting, rapidly growing, non-encapsulated benign neoplasm that arises from the breast. It has been described in both the subcutis and parenchyma of the breast. It occurs most frequently in the upper-outer quadrant. It is composed of fibroblastic/myofibroblastic cells." |
| C176255 | "An angiolipoma that arises from the breast. The majority are located in the subcutaneous tissue overlying the breast parenchyma, rather than in breast parenchyma." |
| C176409 | "A rare condition characterized by bone marrow fat cell atrophy, loss of hematopoietic cells, and bone marrow deposition of extracellular gelatinous substances containing mucopolysaccharides rich in hyaluronic acid. The pathogenesis is unknown. It presents with weight loss and anemia. It has been associated with infections, alcoholism, anorexia nervosa, cachexia, end stage renal disease, and cancers." |
| C176414 | A schwannoma that arises from the breast. |
| C176415 | A neurofibroma that arises from the breast. |
| C176416 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of immunodeficiency with hyper-IgM caused by mutation(s) in the CD40 gene, encoding tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 5." |
| C176464 | The reemergence of low-grade astrocytoma after a period of remission. |
| C176467 | An extremely rare chondrosarcoma arising from the synovium either as a de novo neoplasm or secondary to synovial chondromatosis. |
| C176503 | A proliferation of atypical neoplastic epithelial cells confined to the mammary ducts of the male breast. It includes the entire spectrum of carcinoma in situ observed in the female breast. It usually develops in the retroareolar region. |
| C176504 | "A rare invasive carcinoma that arises from the male breast. Morphologically, it is similar to the invasive carcinomas that arise from the female breast. It usually develops in the retroareolar region." |
| C176513 | Sinonasal squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C176514 | Nasal cavity squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C176515 | A rare angiosarcoma that arises from the vulva. |
| C176517 | A carcinoma that arises from the prostate and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C176558 | A sarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C176579 | An invasive carcinoma that arises from the breast in females. |
| C176580 | A proliferation of atypical neoplastic epithelial cells confined to the mammary ducts of the female breast. |
| C176588 | "An autosomal dominant cancer predisposition syndrome caused by germline mutations of the CHEK2 gene. It is associated with breast carcinoma, gastric carcinoma, colorectal carcinoma, thyroid gland carcinoma, kidney carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma." |
| C176592 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the IKBKG gene, encoding NF-kappa-B essential modulator (NEMO). It is characterized by the onset of recurrent severe infections due to immunodeficiency in early infancy or in the first years of life. Affected individuals may present with ectodermal dysplasia, including conical incisors, hypo/anhidrosis, and thin skin or hair." |
| C176593 | A group of diseases or disorders caused by genetic defects within the immune system and comprising: Congenital neutropenia; Defects of motility; Defects of respiratory burst; and other nonlymphoid defects. |
| C176594 | "A group of diseases or disorders caused by genetic defects within the immune system, comprised by: Mendelian susceptibility to mycobacterial disease (MSMD); Epidermodysplasia verruciformis (HPV); Predisposition to severe viral infection; Herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE); Predisposition to invasive fungal diseases; Predisposition to mucocutaneous candidiasis; TLR signaling pathway deficiencies with bacterial susceptibility; and other inborn errors of immunity related to nonhematopoietic tis... |
| C176595 | "A group of autoimmune disorders characterized by defects in self-tolerance (central or peripheral) resulting in autoimmune disease with or without recurrent infections, comprised by: Familial hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (FHL) syndromes; FHL syndromes with hypopigmentation; Regulatory T cell (Treg) defects (eg, IPEX); Autoimmunity with or without lymphoproliferation (eg, autoimmune polyendocrinopathy with candidiasis and ectodermal dystrophy [APECED]); Autoimmune lymphoproliferative s... |
| C176596 | "A group of genetic immunodeficiency syndromes with unique clinical features and well-characterized underlying immune defects, comprised of: CID with congenital thrombocytopenia; CID due to DNA repair defects other than forms of SCID in category I; CID due to thymic defects with additional congenital anomalies; CID with immunoosseous dysplasias; Hyper-IgE syndromes (HIES); CID due to defects of vitamin B12 and folate metabolism; Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia with immunodeficiency; CID due ... |
| C176597 | A group of immunodeficiency disorders that include combined immunodeficiencies (CIDs) generally less profound than SCID. |
| C176598 | "A group of immunodeficiency disorders that include T cell-negative, B cell-positive severe combined immunodeficiencies; and T cell-negative, B cell-negative severe combined immunodeficiencies." |
| C176599 | "A group of primary immunodeficiency diseases caused predominantly by antibody deficiencies, comprised of: Agammaglobulinemia with absent B cells; Severe reduction in at least two serum immunoglobulins, common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) phenotype; Severe reduction in serum IgG and IgA with normal or elevated IgM, hyper-IgM; and Isotype, light chain, or functional deficiencies with generally normal numbers of B cells." |
| C176600 | "A group of immune diseases characterized predominantly by immune dysregulation leading to organ-specific autoimmunity, excessive inflammation, and non-malignant lymphoproliferation. Unlike classical primary immunodeficiencies, susceptibility to infections is typically less prominent in these disorders." |
| C176601 | "A rare inherited disorder typically presenting in childhood characterized by a susceptibly to infection (local and disseminated), particularly from mycobacteria. This disorder has been associated with mutations in several genes including: IFNGR1, IFNGR2, STAT1, IL12B, IL12RB1, IRF8,  ISG15, IKBKG, CYBB." |
| C176602 | "Severe congenital neutropenia inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and caused by mutation(s) in the JAGN1 gene, encoding protein jagunal homolog 1." |
| C176605 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PTPRC (CD45) gene, encoding receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase C. It is characterized by severe combined immunodeficiency that is T-cell negative, B-cell positive, and NK cell positive." |
| C176606 | "An inherited condition caused by mutation(s) in the RAG1 gene, encoding V(D)J recombination-activating protein 1. It is characterized by severe combined immunodeficiency that is both T-cell and B-cell negative." |
| C176607 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the RAG2 gene, encoding V(D)J recombination-activating protein 2. It is characterized by severe combined immunodeficiency that is both T-cell and B-cell negative." |
| C176608 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the RHOH gene, encoding Rho-related GTP-binding protein RhoH. It presents in childhood and is characterized by defects in T-cell development and signaling leading to increased susceptibility to certain human papilloma viruses (HPV) that cause warty skin lesions that are unresponsive to treatment." |
| C176610 | "Severe congenital neutropenia inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and caused by mutation(s) in the GFI1 gene, encoding zinc finger protein Gfi-1." |
| C176611 | "Severe congenital neutropenia inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and caused by mutation(s) in the G6PC3 gene, encoding glucose-6-phosphatase 3. It is characterized by cardiac abnormalities, hepatosplenomegaly, intermittent thrombocytopenia and a prominent superficial venous pattern." |
| C176612 | "Severe congenital neutropenia inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and caused by mutation(s) in the VPS45 gene, encoding vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 45. It is characterized by neutrophil dysfunction, a lack of response to G-CSF, life-threatening infections, bone marrow fibrosis, and renal extramedullary hematopoiesis." |
| C176614 | "Severe congenital neutropenia inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and caused by mutation(s) in the CSF3R gene, encoding granulocyte colony-stimulating factor receptor. It is characterized by the onset of recurrent infections in infancy or early childhood and peripheral neutropenia, despite normal granulocyte maturation, that is unresponsive to treatment with G-CSF." |
| C176617 | "An X-linked recessive bleeding disorder caused by mutation(s) in the WAS gene, encoding Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome protein, resulting in thrombocytopenia." |
| C176619 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PSMB8 gene, encoding proteasome subunit beta type-8. It is characterized by early onset annular erythematous plaques, partial lipodystrophy, and recurrent fever." |
| C176624 | Severe congenital neutropenia inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. |
| C176628 | A cancer susceptibility syndrome caused by inactivating germline mutations of the CDH1 gene. It is associated with the development of lobular carcinoma of the breast. Females with mutation of the CDH1 gene have a 40% risk of developing lobular breast carcinoma. |
| C176630 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the CARD11 gene, encoding caspase recruitment domain-containing protein 11. It is characterized by the onset of moderate to severe atopic dermatitis in early childhood, defects in T-cell activation, increased IgE, and eosinophilia." |
| C176631 | "A deficiency caused by mutation(s) in the PIK3R1 gene, encoding phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase regulatory subunit alpha. It is associated with autosomal recessive agammaglobulinemia 7, immunodeficiency 36 and SHORT (short stature, hyperextensibility of joints or hernia, ocular depression, Rieger anomaly, teething delay) syndrome." |
| C176678 | A malignant small intestinal neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C176679 | A malignant small intestinal neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C176680 | The reemergence of breast implant-associated anaplastic large cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C176681 | Breast implant-associated anaplastic large cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C176682 | "The reemergence of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C176696 | A class of genetic diseases that occur when microsatellite repeats expand beyond a threshold length. |
| C176697 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the rectum and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C176703 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the PIK3R1 gene, encoding phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase regulatory subunit alpha. It is characterized by a heterogenous phenotype, including recurrent respiratory infections, lymphoproliferation, and antibody deficiency. There is an increased likelihood of development of B-cell lymphoma." |
| C176704 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the YARS gene encoding tyrosine-tRNA ligase. It is characterized by a variable phenotype which may include poor growth, developmental delay, abnormal brain white matter, hearing loss, involuntary eye movements, progressive cholestatic liver disease, pancreatic insufficiency, hypoglycemia, anemia, intermittent excess of protein in urine, recurrent bloodstream infections, and chronic pulmonary disease." |
| C176705 | A lung neuroendocrine tumor that is associated with carcinoid syndrome. |
| C176706 | A lung neuroendocrine tumor that is not associated with carcinoid syndrome. |
| C176711 | The reemergence of a lung neuroendocrine neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C176715 | A lung neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C176717 | A loss of structural integrity within a tissue or organ. |
| C176727 | Lung adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C176728 | A primary central chondrosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C176729 | A malignant neoplasm caused by deleterious germline mutation in the PALB2 gene. This mutation is associated with the development of breast carcinoma and pancreatic carcinoma. |
| C176731 | "The most common subtype of autoimmune hepatitis (AIH). It is characterized by the presence of antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-smooth-muscle antibody (ASMA), a prevalence of female patients, and is highly corticosteroid-responsive. It may be associated with other concomitant autoimmune disorders including autoimmune thyroiditis, Graves disease, and ulcerative colitis." |
| C176732 | "A subtype of autoimmune hepatitis (AIH). In contrast to type 1 AIH, patients tend to be younger, have more severe disease, a poorer response to corticosteroid therapy, and more frequent relapses. It is characterized by the presence of anti-liver kidney microsomal antibody type 1 (anti-LKM1) and/or anti-liver cytosol type 1 (anti-LC1) autoantibodies. It may be associated with other concomitant autoimmune disorders including diabetes mellitus type 1, vitiligo, and autoimmune thyroiditis." |
| C176733 | "A form of autoimmune hepatitis (AIH) that has features of overlapping cholestatic autoimmune liver diseases including primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), or autoimmune cholangitis (AIC)." |
| C176734 | A type of dermatosis characterized by dense infiltration of neutrophils in the skin without evidence of infection or vasculitis. It may be secondary to an underlying systemic illness. |
| C176752 | An autoinflammatory syndrome caused by either gain-of-function splice site variants in the IKBKG gene resulting in a deletion in the C-terminal domain of the NEMO (NF-kappa-B essential modulator) protein or by increased expression of an isoform lacking the domain encoded by exon 5. It is clinically distinct from the immunodeficiency syndromes caused by loss-of-function IKBKG mutations and has features more characteristic of chronic atypical neutrophilic dermatosis with lipodystrophy and eleva... |
| C176791 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by heterozygous germline gain-of-function mutation(s) in the CARD11 gene, encoding caspase recruitment domain-containing protein 11. It is characterized by splenomegaly and lymphocytosis resulting from polyclonal expansion of B-cells." |
| C176792 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the TTC7A gene encoding tetratricopeptide repeat protein 7A. It is characterized by multiple intestinal atresia, multi-organ impairment and associated with T- and B-cell dysfunction." |
| C176795 | "An autosomal recessive severe combined immunodeficiency caused by mutation(s) in the PRKDC gene, encoding DNA-dependent protein kinase catalytic subunit." |
| C176799 | "An autosomal recessive combined immunodeficiency caused by mutation(s) in the DOCK2 gene, encoding dedicator of cytokinesis protein 2. It is characterized by combined immunodeficiency, primarily affecting T-cells, with more variable defects in B-cell and NK-cell function, resulting in viral and bacterial infections that may lead to death in severe cases." |
| C176800 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the IL12RB1 gene, encoding interleukin-12 receptor subunit beta-1. It is characterized by a susceptibility to mycobacterial disease. IL12RB1 associated with IL12RB2 results in a high affinity receptor for IL12. IL12RB1 combined with IL23R forms the interleukin-23 receptor." |
| C176801 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of common variable immunodeficiency caused by mutation(s) in the IL21 gene, encoding interleukin-21." |
| C176804 | "An autosomal recessive severe combined immunodeficiency, the phenotype of which is caused by mutation(s) in the IL7R or PTPRC genes, encoding interleukin-7 receptor subunit alpha and receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase C (CD45) respectively." |
| C176805 | "A genetic condition caused by mutation(s) in the IFNGR2 gene, encoding interferon gamma receptor 2, resulting in impairment of interferon-gamma mediated immunity. Clinically, it is characterized by predisposition to illness caused by moderately virulent mycobacterial species." |
| C176806 | "A genetic condition caused by mutation(s) in the IFNGR1 gene, encoding interferon gamma receptor 1, resulting in impairment of interferon-gamma mediated immunity. Clinically, it is characterized by predisposition to illness caused by moderately virulent mycobacterial species." |
| C176807 | "An autosomal recessive severe combined immunodeficiency caused by mutation(s) in the JAK3 gene, encoding tyrosine-protein kinase JAK3. It is characterized by decreased concentrations of T-cells and NK-cells and normal concentrations of B-cells." |
| C176808 | "An extremely rare autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the LCK gene, encoding tyrosine-protein kinase Lck. It is characterized by T-cell dysfunction." |
| C176809 | "An autosomal recessive common variable immunodeficiency caused by mutation(s) in the LRBA gene, encoding lipopolysaccharide-responsive and beige-like anchor protein. It is characterized by recurrent infections and the development of autoimmune disorders." |
| C176817 | "A rare autosomal recessive immunodeficiency caused by mutation(s) in the PNP gene, encoding purine nucleoside phosphorylase. It is characterized by recurrent infections resulting from severe T-cell dysfunction." |
| C176818 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the WAS gene, encoding Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome protein. It is characterized by severe neutropenia and early onset severe bacterial infections." |
| C176819 | "An autosomal dominant immunodeficiency syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the CXCR4 gene, encoding C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4. It is characterized by neutropenia, hypogammaglobulinemia, extensive human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, and myelokathexis." |
| C176820 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the WIPF1 gene, encoding WAS/WASL-interacting protein family member 1. It is characterized by recurrent infections, eczema, thrombocytopenia, and T-cell and NK-cell dysfunction." |
| C176821 | "An autosomal recessive immunodeficiency caused by mutation(s) in the ZAP70 gene, encoding tyrosine-protein kinase ZAP-70. It is characterized by absent CD8+ cells." |
| C176822 | A genetically heterogenous group of primary immunodeficiencies characterized by low or absent circulating antibodies/or and low or absent B-cells. |
| C176823 | "A genetic disorder caused by molecular defects in the genes encoding for four regulatory factors controlling transcription of MHC class II genes. The phenotype is similar to SCID, and susceptibility to infection by viral, bacterial, fungal and protozoal agents is characteristic of the disease." |
| C176825 | "A genetic condition caused by mutation(s) in the IRF8 gene encoding interferon regulatory factor 8. Autosomal dominant (Immunodeficiency 32A) and autosomal recessive (Immunodeficiency 32B) genetic alterations result in different phenotypes, both of which have impairment of function in dendritic cells." |
| C176826 | "A rare disorder caused by mutations in the NFKBIA gene resulting in an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. It is characterized by abnormal development of ectodermal tissues including the skin, hair, teeth, and sweat glands and immune system deficiency. It results in dry and wrinkled skin, sparse scalp and body hair, missing teeth, and reduced ability to sweat. Patients have abnormally low levels of antibodies causing inability to fight infections." |
| C176827 | "Severe congenital neutropenia inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and caused by mutation(s) in the ELANE gene, encoding neutrophil elastase" |
| C176857 | Lung small cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C176858 | Non-squamous non-small cell lung carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C176859 | A malignant genitourinary neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C176862 | A malignant thoracic neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C176863 | A malignant thoracic neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C176886 | "A psychiatric disorder characterized by the personal experience of intense and prolonged yearning for, or preoccupation with the circumstances surrounding, a loss that leads to significant impairment in social or occupational functioning. Associated symptoms may include: identity disruption, disbelief, avoidance of reminders, difficulty moving on, emotional pain or numbness, feeling that life is meaningless, and loneliness." |
| C176887 | "An extremely rare variant of serous carcinoma arising from the ovary or peritoneum. It is characterized by extensive formation of psammoma bodies, low-grade cytological features, and invasion of surrounding structures." |
| C176888 | A distal cholangiocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C176889 | A glioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C176890 | A glioblastoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C176891 | Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C176892 | Esophageal adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C176894 | "Fanconi anemia caused by mutation(s) in the PALB2 gene, encoding partner and localizer of BRCA2." |
| C176895 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SURF1 gene, encoding surfeit locus protein 1. It is characterized by rapidly progressive neurodegeneration and encephalopathy with loss of motor and cognitive skills with onset between 5 and 18 months of age. It is one of several types of cytochrome c oxidase deficiencies caused by mutation(s) in nuclear encoded or mitochondrial encoded genes." |
| C176896 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PIGN gene, encoding GPI ethanolamine phosphate transferase 1. Though the phenotype is variable, it may be characterized by neonatal hypotonia, lack of psychomotor development, seizures, dysmorphic features, and variable congenital anomalies involving the cardiac, urinary, and gastrointestinal systems." |
| C176897 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the CTNNB1 gene, encoding catenin beta-1. It is characterized by severe intellectual disability, progressive spastic diplegia, visual impairment, and dysmorphic craniofacial features." |
| C176898 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the PMP22 gene, encoding peripheral myelin protein 22. Neuropathy is precipitated by mechanical compression on a nerve, typically with onset in the first and second decades." |
| C176899 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the MYH6 gene, encoding myosin-6." |
| C176900 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the GNE gene, encoding bifunctional UDP-N-acetylglucosamine 2-epimerase/N-acetylmannosamine kinase. It is characterized by distal muscle weakness and atrophy, especially the tibialis anterior, and sparing of the quadriceps." |
| C176901 | "An autosomal dominant form of spinocerebellar ataxia caused by mutation(s) in the BEAN1 gene, encoding protein BEAN1." |
| C176902 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the CFB gene, encoding complement factor B." |
| C176903 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the FOXG1 gene, encoding forkhead box protein G1. It is the most severe form of Rett syndrome, and typically manifests within the first three months of life." |
| C176904 | "An inherited condition caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the CDKN2A gene, encoding cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A. The condition is characterized by an increased risk of developing melanoma and/or pancreatic carcinoma." |
| C176905 | "An inherited condition caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the CDKN2A gene, encoding cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A. The condition is characterized by an increased risk of developing melanoma and/or cerebral astrocytoma." |
| C176906 | "An inherited condition caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the KIT or PDGFRA genes, encoding mast/stem cell growth factor receptor Kit and platelet derived growth factor receptor alpha respectively. The condition is characterized by the occurrence of multiple gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)." |
| C176908 | "An inherited condition caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the SAMD9L gene, encoding sterile alpha motif domain-containing protein 9-like. The condition is characterized by an increased risk of developing myelodysplastic syndrome and acute myelogenous leukemia." |
| C176909 | "An inherited condition caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the SAMD9L gene, encoding sterile alpha motif domain-containing protein 9-like. The condition is characterized by cerebellar ataxia, variable hematologic cytopenias, and predisposition to bone marrow failure and myeloid leukemia." |
| C176910 | "Fanconi anemia caused by autosomal recessive mutation(s) in the RAD51C gene, encoding DNA repair protein RAD51 homolog 3." |
| C176911 | "Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPS19 gene, encoding 40S ribosomal protein S19." |
| C176912 | "Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPS24 gene, encoding 40S ribosomal protein S24." |
| C176913 | "Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPS17 gene, encoding 40S ribosomal protein S17." |
| C176914 | "Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPL35A gene, encoding 60S ribosomal protein L35a." |
| C176915 | "Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPL5 gene, encoding 60S ribosomal protein L5." |
| C176916 | "Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPL11 gene, encoding 60S ribosomal protein L11." |
| C176917 | "Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPS7 gene, encoding 40S ribosomal protein S7." |
| C176918 | "Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPS10 gene, encoding 40S ribosomal protein S10." |
| C176919 | "Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPS26 gene, encoding 40S ribosomal protein S26." |
| C176920 | "Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPL26 gene, encoding 60S ribosomal protein L26." |
| C176921 | "Dyskeratosis congenita caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the TERC gene, encoding telomerase RNA component." |
| C176922 | "Dyskeratosis congenita caused by mutation(s) in the TERT gene, encoding telomerase reverse transcriptase." |
| C176923 | "Dyskeratosis congenita caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the TINF2 gene, encoding TERF1-interacting nuclear factor 2. Mutations in TINF2 may also lead to another phenotype known as Revesz syndrome (Dyskeratosis Congenita, Autosomal Dominant 5)." |
| C176924 | "Dyskeratosis congenita caused by mutation(s) in the ACD gene, encoding adrenocortical dysplasia protein homolog." |
| C176925 | "Dyskeratosis congenita caused by autosomal recessive mutation(s) in the NOP10 gene, encoding H/ACA ribonucleoprotein complex subunit 3." |
| C176926 | "Dyskeratosis congenita caused by autosomal recessive mutation(s) in the NHP2 gene, encoding H/ACA ribonucleoprotein complex subunit 2." |
| C176927 | "Dyskeratosis congenita caused by autosomal recessive mutation(s) in the WRAP53 gene, encoding telomerase Cajal body protein 1." |
| C176928 | "Dyskeratosis congenita caused by mutation(s) in the RTEL1 gene, encoding regulator of telomere elongation helicase 1." |
| C176929 | "Dyskeratosis congenita caused by autosomal recessive mutation(s) in the PARN gene, encoding poly(A)-specific ribonuclease PARN." |
| C176930 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal recessive mutation(s) in the LZTR1 gene, encoding leucine-zipper-like transcriptional regulator 1." |
| C176931 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the KRAS gene, encoding GTPase KRas." |
| C176932 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the SOS1 gene, encoding son of sevenless homolog 1." |
| C176933 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RAF1 gene, encoding RAF proto-oncogene serine/threonine-protein kinase." |
| C176934 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the NRAS gene, encoding GTPase NRas." |
| C176935 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the BRAF gene, encoding serine/threonine-protein kinase B-raf." |
| C176936 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RIT1 gene, encoding GTP-binding protein Rit1." |
| C176937 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the SOS2 gene, encoding son of sevenless homolog 2." |
| C176938 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the LZTR1 gene, encoding leucine-zipper-like transcriptional regulator 1." |
| C176939 | "An inherited condition caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the SHOC2 gene, encoding leucine-rich repeat protein SHOC-2. The condition is characterized by facial features similar to those seen in Noonan syndrome but may also include short stature, cognitive deficits, relative macrocephaly, small posterior fossa resulting in Chiari I malformation, hypernasal voice, cardiac defects, and ectodermal abnormalities, which typically presents as slow-growing, sparse, and/or unruly hair." |
| C176940 | "An inherited condition caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the PPP1CB gene, encoding serine/threonine-protein phosphatase PP1-beta catalytic subunit. The condition is characterized by facial features similar to those seen in Noonan syndrome but may also include short stature, cognitive deficits, relative macrocephaly, small posterior fossa resulting in Chiari I malformation, hypernasal voice, cardiac defects, and ectodermal abnormalities, which typically presents as slow-growing, sp... |
| C176941 | "An inherited condition caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the SPRED1 gene, encoding sprouty-related, EVH1 domain-containing protein 1. The condition resembles neurofibromatosis type I but is less severe. Affected individuals may present with multiple cafe-au-lait spots, variable dysmorphic features, including hypertelorism or macrocephaly, lipomas, and mild learning disabilities or attention problems." |
| C176942 | "An inherited condition caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the CBL gene, encoding E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase CBL. The condition resembles Noonan syndrome 1 and is characterized by facial dysmorphism, a wide spectrum of cardiac disease, reduced growth, variable cognitive deficits, and ectodermal and musculoskeletal anomalies. Affected individuals may have an increased risk for certain malignancies, particularly juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia." |
| C176943 | "A rare inherited form of myofibromatosis caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the PDGFRB gene, encoding platelet-derived growth factor receptor beta. The condition is characterized by the onset of solitary or multicentric benign tumors in the skin, striated muscles, bones, and viscera. The lesions may be present at birth or become apparent in early infancy or even occasionally in adult life." |
| C176944 | "A rare inherited form of myofibromatosis caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the NOTCH3 gene, encoding neurogenic locus notch homolog protein 3. The condition is characterized by the onset of solitary or multicentric benign tumors in the skin, striated muscles, bones, and viscera. Soft tissue lesions may regress spontaneously whereas visceral lesions are associated with high morbidity and mortality." |
| C176979 | "An atypical lipomatous tumor/well differentiated liposarcoma composed of mature adipocytes in which, unlike in benign lipoma, substantial variation in cell size is appreciated alongside nuclear atypia in fat cells or stromal spindle cells. (WHO 2020)" |
| C176980 | A locally aggressive mesenchymal neoplasm of a superficial body structure that is characterized by the presence of an adipocytic proliferation exhibiting at least focal nuclear atypia in both adipocytes and stromal cells. Amplification of MDM2 and/or CDK4 is almost always present. |
| C176981 | An atypical lipomatous tumor/well differentiated liposarcoma that occurs in deep soft tissue. |
| C176989 | "An exceptionally rare, aggressive adipocytic neoplasm, typically occurring in children and adolescents. Myxoid pleomorphic liposarcoma shows mixed histological features of conventional myxoid liposarcoma and pleomorphic liposarcoma and lacks the gene fusions and amplifications of myxoid liposarcoma, atypical lipomatous tumor, and dedifferentiated liposarcoma. (WHO 2020)" |
| C176994 | Lymphoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C176995 | Ureter urothelial carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C176996 | Urethral urothelial carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C176997 | Renal pelvis urothelial carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C176998 | Giant cell glioblastoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C176999 | The reemergence of Sezary syndrome after a period of remission. |
| C177000 | Sezary syndrome that is resistant to treatment. |
| C177001 | Dermatitis associated with the therapeutic use of an immune checkpoint inhibitor. |
| C177119 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the MRAS gene, encoding Ras-related protein M-Ras." |
| C177120 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RRAS2 gene, encoding Ras-related protein R-Ras2." |
| C177121 | "Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the MAPK1 gene, encoding mitogen-activated protein kinase 1." |
| C177122 | "A disorder caused by mutation(s) in the PIK3CA gene, encoding phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase catalytic subunit alpha isoform. It is characterized by mixed capillary, lymphatic, venous, and arteriovenous vascular malformations, segmental progressive overgrowth of subcutaneous, muscular, and visceral fibroadipose tissue with skeletal overgrowth." |
| C177149 | Male reproductive system carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C177150 | Penile carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C177151 | Rectal squamous cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C177153 | Nasopharyngeal non-keratinizing carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C177243 | Lung neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C177244 | A focal seizure disorder affecting the temporal lobe. It is the most common form of partial epilepsy and may be more often seen in patients who have a history of febrile seizures. |
| C177245 | Lung neuroendocrine tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C177246 | Lung neuroendocrine tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C177248 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia caused by mutation(s) in the DSG2 gene, encoding desmoglein-2." |
| C177249 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the PRKAG2 gene, encoding 5'-AMP-activated protein kinase subunit gamma-2." |
| C177250 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the CYP7B1 gene, cytochrome P450 7B1." |
| C177251 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the OPA1 gene, encoding dynamin-like 120 kDa protein, mitochondrial. It is characterized by optic atrophy and neurological features, which may include ophthalmoparesis, nystagmus, spastic paraparesis, ataxia, peripheral neuropathy and learning difficulties." |
| C177252 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the KIF1C gene, encoding kinesin-like protein KIF1C. It is characterized by cerebellar ataxia, dysarthria, and variable spasticity of the lower limbs." |
| C177278 | "A benign fibroblastic neoplasm characterized by a fusion of exon 7 of EWSR1 gene with exon 5 of SMAD3 gene. Patients usually present with a small painless superficial tumor in the hands and feet. Morphologically, there is zonation with acellular hyalinized center and peripheral proliferation of fibroblastic spindle cells without atypia. It may recur following incomplete excision." |
| C177323 | "A benign fibroblastic neoplasm composed of uniform spindle cells with abundant fibromyxoid stroma and a prominent network of innumerable branching, thin-walled blood vessels. It typically arises in the extremities, mainly the legs, frequently involving or adjacent to large joints such as the knee. Unusual anatomical locations include the back, abdominal wall, pelvic cavity, and breast. The tumors are often subcutaneous but may be intramuscular and deep. The lesion presents most often as a s... |
| C177324 | "A low-grade neoplasm of the skin and subcutaneous tissue that is characterized by the presence of CD34-positive spindle cells with abundant, eosinophilic, granular to glassy cytoplasm, low mitotic activity, marked nuclear pleomorphism, and frequent keratin immunoreactivity. Rearrangement of PRDM10 gene is often present. It manifests as a slow-growing, painless mass of the superficial soft tissues, with a predilection to the lower extremities. Rare cases present as deep-seated tumors. The pr... |
| C177325 | "A rare variant of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans characterized by plaque-like growth, resembling plaque-like CD34-positive dermal fibroma." |
| C177364 | A malignant non-germ cell component that typically develops secondarily within a germ cell tumor. The malignant cellular component is usually sarcomatous or carcinomatous. |
| C177414 | A rare subtype of myxofibrosarcoma composed predominantly of malignant epithelioid cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C177425 | Myocarditis associated with the therapeutic use of an immune checkpoint inhibitor. |
| C177438 | "A rare and potentially fatal perioperative complication of cemented bone surgery, characterized by hypotension, hypoxia, cardiac dysrhythmias, and in severe cases cardiac arrest." |
| C177451 | "Cytopenia in one or more hematopoietic cell lineages that remains unexplained following thorough evaluation. The hematopoietic cell dysplasia is mild and does not fulfill the criteria for myelodysplastic syndrome, but the cytopenia may be severe. There is no evidence of clonal hematopoiesis or the variant allele frequency (VAF) is less that 2 percent. There is no other evidence of hematologic malignancy. It may progress to an overt myelodysplastic syndrome or other myeloid neoplasms such as... |
| C177452 | Clinically meaningful cytopenia in one or more hematopoietic cell lineages. Clonal hematopoiesis is present with the variant allele frequency (VAF) equal or more that 2 percent. There is no other evidence of hematologic malignancy. |
| C177453 | "Prominent hematopoietic cell dysplasia with mild or absent cytopenia. It may progress to an overt myelodysplastic syndrome or other myeloid neoplasms such as acute myeloid leukemia, myeloproliferative neoplasm, or mast cell disorder." |
| C177531 | An in situ or invasive urothelial carcinoma that arises from the bladder wall and does not grow toward the hollow part of the bladder. |
| C177534 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of long QT syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the CALM1 gene, encoding calmodulin-1." |
| C177535 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the USB1 gene, encoding U6 snRNA phosphodiesterase. It is characterized by poikiloderma and chronic noncyclic neutropenia." |
| C177539 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by a contiguous gene deletion involving the PKD1 and TSC2 genes, encoding polycystin-1 and tuberin respectively. It is characterized by polycystic kidneys and tuberous sclerosis." |
| C177544 | "An X-linked genetic condition caused by duplication of a small segment of Xq25, which may encompass the GRIA3 and STAG2 genes, encoding glutamate receptor 3 and cohesin subunit SA-2. It is characterized by intellectual disability and distinctive facial dysmorphisms." |
| C177545 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the GRIN2D gene, encoding glutamate receptor ionotropic, NMDA 2D. It is characterized by developmental delay and intractable seizures." |
| C177546 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the RAPSN gene, encoding 43 kDa receptor-associated protein of the synapse. It is characterized by postsynaptic neuromuscular junction dysfunction resulting in muscle weakness of variable severity." |
| C177547 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the STING1 gene, encoding stimulator of interferon genes protein. It is characterized by an autoinflammatory vasculopathy resulting in severe skin lesions." |
| C177548 | A benign vascular lesion characterized by the presence of a complex network of communicating arterial and venous vascular structures in the skin. |
| C177552 | "Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma characterized by a t(1;3)(p36;q23-q25) translocation, resulting in a WWTR1-CAMTA1 gene fusion. This translocation and associated gene fusion occur in more than 90% of epithelioid hemangioendotheliomas." |
| C177553 | Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma characterized by a YAP1-TFE3 gene fusion. This gene fusion occurs in a subset of epithelioid hemangioendotheliomas characterized by the presence of well-formed vessels lined by epithelioid endothelial cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. Patients with YAP1-TFE3 gene fusion tumors tend to be younger than those with a WWTR1-CAMTA1 gene fusion. |
| C177554 | A form of chronic arthritis that is found in some patients with inflammatory bowel disease. |
| C177642 | A form of spondyloarthritis that is found in some patients with inflammatory bowel disease. |
| C177680 | A carcinoma that arises from the sigmoid colon. |
| C177721 | A malignant salivary gland neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C177722 | Salivary gland carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C177723 | Salivary gland carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C177724 | The reemergence of a malignant genitourinary system neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C177725 | Medulloblastoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C177763 | Diabetes mellitus that does not show any evidence of tissue or organ damage. |
| C177769 | A germ cell tumor that arises from the suprasellar region. |
| C177770 | A malignant nongerminomatous germ cell tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C177771 | The reemergence of a malignant nongerminomatous germ cell tumor after a period of remission. |
| C177774 | "An ovarian dermoid cyst associated with a distinct secondary component that resembles a somatic-type malignant neoplasm (e.g., carcinoma or sarcoma)." |
| C177775 | A chordoma that arises from the thoracic spine. |
| C177776 | Rectal carcinoma characterized by the absence of microsatellite instability. |
| C177777 | Colon carcinoma characterized by the absence of microsatellite instability. |
| C177779 | A rare congenital condition in which one half of the brain is abnormally large. It is characterized by developmental delay and severe seizures. |
| C177793 | A low-grade glioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C177794 | The reemergence of low-grade glioma after a period of remission. |
| C177795 | A low-grade astrocytoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C177796 | The reemergence of WHO grade 1 glioma after a period of remission. |
| C177797 | "A category of low-grade gliomas that includes subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, pilocytic astrocytoma, angiocentric glioma, and subependymoma." |
| C177798 | WHO grade 1 glioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C177799 | Lung large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C177801 | Lung large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C177802 | Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C177895 | The reemergence of B acute lymphoblastic leukemia with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 after a period of remission. |
| C177898 | "A rare, aggressive type of chordoma characterized by loss of SMARCB1 expression. It affects children and occasionally young adults. Females are affected twice as frequently as males. It usually arises in the axial skeleton. It is composed of sheets or nests of malignant epithelioid cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. The prognosis is poor." |
| C178082 | Death of bone tissue in a joint due to temporary or permanent interruption of blood flow. |
| C178129 | "An inherited condition caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the SHOC2 or PPP1CB genes, encoding leucine-rich repeat protein SHOC-2 and serine/threonine-protein phosphatase PP1-beta catalytic subunit, respectively. The condition is characterized by facial features similar to those seen in Noonan syndrome but may also include short stature, cognitive deficits, relative macrocephaly, small posterior fossa resulting in Chiari I malformation, hypernasal voice, cardiac defects, and ectoder... |
| C178217 | "A rare smooth muscle neoplasm of uncertain biological potential. It is associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection and seen in patients with immunodeficiency, including primary immunodeficiency, HIV/AIDS infection, and post-transplant immunosuppression." |
| C178220 | "A leiomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of poorly differentiated areas with pleomorphic appearance, in addition to areas with typical morphologic features." |
| C178222 | A pleomorphic leiomyosarcoma that lacks immunohistochemical staining for myogenic markers in the pleomorphic areas. |
| C178232 | "Congenital/infantile spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of gene fusions involving the VGLL2, SRF, TEAD1, NCOA2, and CITED2 genes." |
| C178235 | "Spindle cell/sclerosing rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of MYOD1 p.Leu122Arg substitution mutation. This subtype includes most spindle cell/sclerosing rhabdomyosarcomas in adolescents and young adults, as well as some cases in older adults. It follows an aggressive clinical course." |
| C178236 | "Intraosseous spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the fusion of the EWSR1 or FUS gene with the TFCP2 gene, or the MEIS1 gene with the NCOA2 gene." |
| C178245 | "A schwannoma characterized by the presence of epithelioid cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm, within a myxoid and/or hyalinized stroma." |
| C178255 | "A premalignant neurofibromatous neoplasm characterized by the presence of at least two of the following features: cytologic atypia, hypercellularity, less than 3 mitotic figures per 10 HPFs, and loss of neurofibroma architecture. It is associated with an increased risk of progression to malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor." |
| C178268 | Microsatellite stable colon carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C178269 | Microsatellite stable colon carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C178271 | A digestive system neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C178283 | An extracranial malignant solid neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178285 | "A group of rare disorders that are usually caused by somatic mutations in the PIK3CA gene, but may rarely be caused by de novo germline mutations. These disorders are typically characterized by sporadic overgrowth of parts of the body, intellectual disability, low muscle tone, and vascular malformations with congenital or early childhood onset. Representative examples include: fibroadipose hyperplasia, CLOVES syndrome, megalencephaly-capillary malformation syndrome, hemihyperplasia-multiple... |
| C178348 | A HER2-negative breast adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C178372 | A myxofibrosarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C178375 | "Multiple myeloma that is resistant to three classes of therapeutic agents, including proteasome inhibitors, immunomodulatory agents, and monoclonal antibodies." |
| C178382 | "A group of autosomal dominant-inherited disorders caused by mutation(s) in the CDC73 gene, encoding parafibromin. These disorders are associated with hyperparathyroidism secondary to parathyroid neoplasms." |
| C178393 | "Rhabdoid tumor predisposition syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the SMARCB1 gene, encoding SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily B member 1." |
| C178394 | "Rhabdoid tumor predisposition syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the SMARCA4 gene, encoding transcription activator BRG1." |
| C178411 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis caused by mutation(s) in the ANXA11 gene, encoding annexin A11." |
| C178412 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Bartter syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the SLC12A1 gene, encoding solute carrier family 12 member 1.The onset occurs in the antenatal period, and may be characterized by polyhydramnios, premature birth, failure to thrive and mental retardation. Clinical variability in the severity of symptoms exists and an essential feature of antenatal forms of Bartter syndrome is marked hypercalciuria." |
| C178413 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the PRRT2 gene, encoding proline-rich transmembrane protein 2. It is characterized by dyskinesia triggered by sudden movement. It shares features with infantile convulsions and paroxysmal choreoathetosis, familial. It is an allelic disorder." |
| C178414 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SYNGAP1 gene, encoding Ras/Rap GTPase-activating protein SynGAP. It is characterized by intellectual disability, with most patients developing generalized epilepsy, with some having autism spectrum disorder." |
| C178415 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the POR gene, encoding NADPH--cytochrome P450 reductase. It is exceptionally rare, characterized by craniosynostosis, radiohumeral synostosis, genital anomalies, and impaired steroidogenesis." |
| C178416 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the MAFB gene, encoding transcription factor MafB. It is characterized by progressive destruction of the carpal and tarsal bones, usually with onset in early childhood." |
| C178417 | "A reversible cardiomyopathy presumed to result from the presence of arrhythmias, including the tachycardia-induced cardiomyopathy (T-CM), atrial fibrillation-induced cardiomyopathy (AF-CM), and premature ventricular contraction-induced cardiomyopathy (PVC-CM)." |
| C178426 | "An emerging rare group of soft tissue tumors, usually characterized by a monomorphic spindle cell infiltrate, stromal hyalinization, and frequent coexpression of S100 and CD34 by immunohistochemistry. Most tumors harbor NTRK1 fusions with a variety of partners. Rare cases involving NTRK2 and NTRK3 fusions have also been reported. The tumors usually arise from the extremities, trunk, and head and neck area, and less often within body cavities." |
| C178437 | A malignant melanocytic neoplasm that arises from a mucosal site of the female genital tract. |
| C178441 | A melanoma arising from the ovary. |
| C178443 | A malignant melanocytic neoplasm that arises from a mucosal site of the genitourinary system. |
| C178453 | A malignant melanocytic neoplasm that arises from a mucosal site of the urinary system. |
| C178459 | "A group of rare round and spindle cell sarcomas characterized by the presence of EWSR1 or FUS fusions involving partners unrelated to the ETS gene family. This category includes EWSR1-NFATC2, EWSR1-PATZ1, and FUS-NFATC2 sarcomas." |
| C178460 | A group of rare round and spindle cell sarcomas characterized by the presence of EWSR1-NFATC2 gene fusion. |
| C178461 | A group of rare round and spindle cell sarcomas characterized by the presence of EWSR1-PATZ1 gene fusion. |
| C178462 | A group of rare round and spindle cell sarcomas characterized by the presence of FUS-NFATC2 gene fusion. |
| C178465 | "A group of rare primitive round cell sarcomas characterized by the presence of BCOR genetic alterations. This category includes sarcomas with BCOR-related gene fusions, most frequently BCOR-CCNB3, and sarcomas showing internal tandem duplication (BCOR-ITD)." |
| C178466 | A group of rare primitive round cell sarcomas characterized by the presence of BCOR-CCNB3 fusion gene. |
| C178468 | A group of rare primitive round cell sarcomas characterized by the presence of BCOR internal tandem duplication. This genetic alteration has been described in infantile undifferentiated round cell sarcomas and primitive myxoid mesenchymal tumors of infancy. |
| C178470 | "A spectrum of lower urogenital tract signs and symptoms that are associated with the decreased production of estrogen experienced during menopause.  Findings may include genital dryness, burning or irritation, dyspareunia, decreased libido, urinary urgency, dysuria and recurrent urinary tract infections." |
| C178473 | "A locally aggressive, low-grade chondrosarcoma arising in the medulla of bone. Tumors in the appendicular skeleton are called central atypical cartilaginous tumors and tumors in the axial skeleton are called central chondrosarcomas, grade 1. Tumors arising in the medulla of the bone without a benign precursor are called primary central atypical cartilaginous tumors/chondrosarcomas, grade 1. Tumors arising in the medulla of the bone in association with a pre-existing enchondroma are called s... |
| C178476 | "Central atypical cartilaginous tumor/chondrosarcoma, grade 1 arising in the medulla of bone without a benign precursor." |
| C178477 | "Central atypical cartilaginous tumor/chondrosarcoma, grade 1 arising in the medulla of bone in association with a pre-existing enchondroma." |
| C178478 | "A locally aggressive, low-grade chondrosarcoma arising in the medulla of bone in the appendicular skeleton." |
| C178479 | "A locally aggressive, low-grade chondrosarcoma arising in the medulla of bone in the axial skeleton." |
| C178480 | "A locally aggressive, low-grade chondrosarcoma arising within the cartilaginous cap of a pre-existing osteochondroma. Tumors in the appendicular skeleton are called peripheral atypical cartilaginous tumors and tumors in the axial skeleton are called peripheral chondrosarcomas, grade 1." |
| C178481 | "A locally aggressive, low-grade chondrosarcoma arising within the cartilaginous cap of a pre-existing osteochondroma in the axial skeleton." |
| C178482 | "A locally aggressive, low-grade chondrosarcoma arising within the cartilaginous cap of a pre-existing osteochondroma in the appendicular skeleton." |
| C178483 | "A locally aggressive, low grade chondrosarcoma arising in the medulla of bone or within the cartilaginous cap of a pre-existing osteochondroma in the appendicular skeleton." |
| C178484 | "A locally aggressive, low grade chondrosarcoma arising in the medulla of bone or within the cartilaginous cap of a pre-existing osteochondroma in the axial skeleton." |
| C178491 | An intermediate-grade chondrosarcoma arising in the medulla of bone. |
| C178492 | An intermediate-grade chondrosarcoma arising within the cartilaginous cap of a pre-existing osteochondroma. |
| C178493 | A high-grade chondrosarcoma arising in the medulla of bone. |
| C178494 | A high-grade chondrosarcoma arising within the cartilaginous cap of a pre-existing osteochondroma. |
| C178502 | "A rare syndrome found in adults with positive test results for SARS-CoV-2 by polymerase chain reaction or antibody assays indicating recent infection that is marked by cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, dermatologic, and neurologic symptoms without severe respiratory illness. The most common signs and symptoms that have been reported to date include fever, low blood pressure, abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, neck pain, rash, chest pain, and tiredness not attributable to other infections." |
| C178506 | A group of SMARCB1/INI1 deficient tumors that arise from the central nervous system. It includes highly aggressive and slow-growing tumors. |
| C178507 | A SMARCB1-deficient tumor of the brain arising in the pineal region. It is characterized by the presence of spindled and epithelioid cells with low-grade morphology that are embedded in a desmoplastic stroma alternating with various extents of loose myxoid matrix. |
| C178517 | A melanoma that arises from the mucosa of the penis. |
| C178518 | A melanoma that arises from the skin of the penis. |
| C178519 | A melanoma that arises from mucosa of the stomach. |
| C178521 | A melanoma that arises from the mucosal surface of the pharynx. |
| C178522 | A melanoma that arises from the mucosal surface of the nasopharynx. |
| C178523 | A yolk sac tumor that is characterized by morphologic transformation to somatic-type malignancy. The somatic-type malignant component most often is sarcomatous or carcinomatous. |
| C178541 | "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma with an aggressive clinical course. This category includes B lymphoblastic lymphoma, subtypes of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma, grade 3 follicular lymphoma, and mantle cell lymphoma." |
| C178547 | "A T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma with an aggressive clinical course. This category includes T lymphoblastic lymphoma, anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK-negative, angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma, hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma, intestinal T-cell lymphoma, nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified, and subtypes of primary cutaneous T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma." |
| C178553 | The reemergence of an aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C178554 | The reemergence of an aggressive T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C178555 | An aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178556 | An aggressive T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178558 | Low-grade glioma that has spread from its primary site to another anatomic site. |
| C178559 | Low grade astrocytoma that has spread from its primary site to another anatomic site. |
| C178563 | "A malignant bone tumor arising from the remnants of the fetal notochord. It is characterized by the presence of large epithelioid cells with clear to light eosinophilic cytoplasm. Some of the cells are large with bubbly, vacuolated cytoplasm (physaliphorous cells). The cells form cords and nests that are embedded within an extracellular myxoid matrix." |
| C178599 | "A very rare, locally aggressive neoplasm arising from the bones, usually from the metaphysis of long tubular bones. It is composed of spindle cells, hyaline cartilage nodules, and trabeculae of bone. It may recur locally, but no metastases have been reported." |
| C178604 | A benign neoplasm that is composed of brown adipocytes and arises within or on the surface of bone. |
| C178607 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis that affects the bone. |
| C178609 | Erdheim-Chester disease affecting the bone. |
| C178613 | Rosai-Dorfman-Destombes disease affecting the bone. |
| C178668 | The reemergence of fallopian tube mucinous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C178669 | The reemergence of ovarian seromucinous carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C178670 | Fallopian tube mucinous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178671 | Ovarian seromucinous carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178672 | Fallopian tube clear cell adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178673 | Fallopian tube endometrioid adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178674 | Fallopian tube transitional cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178675 | Fallopian tube undifferentiated carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178676 | Fallopian tube high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178677 | Ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178678 | Low grade fallopian tube serous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178679 | Ovarian low-grade serous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178680 | Ovarian clear cell adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178681 | Ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178682 | Ovarian transitional cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178683 | Ovarian undifferentiated carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178684 | Primary peritoneal clear cell adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178685 | Primary peritoneal endometrioid adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178686 | Primary peritoneal high grade serous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178687 | Primary peritoneal low grade serous adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178688 | Primary peritoneal transitional cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178689 | Primary peritoneal undifferentiated carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C178697 | A malignant female reproductive system neoplasm that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C178698 | Fallopian tube carcinoma that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C178700 | Ovarian carcinoma that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C178702 | Primary peritoneal carcinoma that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C178826 | Rothmund-Thomson syndrome characterized by the absence of RECQL4 gene mutations. |
| C178827 | Rothmund-Thomson syndrome characterized by the presence of RECQL4 gene mutations. |
| C178901 | Cytomegalovirus infection is evident at the time of testing. |
| C178902 | Epstein-Barr virus infection is evident at the time of testing. |
| C178903 | Hepatitis B infection is evident at the time of testing. |
| C178904 | Human immunodeficiency virus infection is evident at the time of testing. |
| C178905 | Seasonal coronavirus infection is evident at the time of testing. |
| C178942 | A disorder in which immune function is suppressed. |
| C179052 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic proliferation of B-lymphocytes. |
| C179053 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic proliferation of T-lymphocytes and/or NK-cells. |
| C179054 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the ALPK3 gene, encoding alpha-protein kinase 3." |
| C179057 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in HPGD, encoding 15-hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase. It is characterized by digital clubbing, pachydermia, and hyperhidrosis." |
| C179058 | "A progressive neurological disorder resulting in weakness or paralysis of the legs, lower back pain, and urinary symptoms. It is a sequela of infection with the HTLV-1 virus." |
| C179151 | Head and neck carcinoma that is resistant to platinum therapy. |
| C179174 | The reemergence of appendix adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C179177 | Appendix carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C179178 | Appendix adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C179179 | The reemergence of pseudomyxoma peritonei after a period of remission. |
| C179180 | Pseudomyxoma peritonei that is resistant to treatment. |
| C179181 | A malignant digestive system neoplasm that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C179182 | "The reemergence of uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C179188 | "A form of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) that presents with T-cell counts that are higher than typical for SCID, and variable signs and symptoms including: itchy, erythematous skin, alopecia, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, anemia, thyroid dysfunction and diarrhea. T-cell counts may initially be noted to be within normal ranges since some may ""leak"" through into the peripheral blood affecting proper measurement." |
| C179197 | Loss of appetite associated with cancer or its treatment. |
| C179203 | The reemergence of primary myelofibrosis after a period of remission. |
| C179204 | The reemergence of acute bilineal leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C179205 | Acute bilineal leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C179206 | "A melanoma that has spread to the brain from its original site of growth, through the hematogenous route." |
| C179207 | Ovarian squamous cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C179208 | An extremely rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of signet ring malignant epithelial cells. |
| C179209 | Lung adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C179218 | "A rare, low-grade malignant stromal tumor that arises from the breast. It is characterized by the proliferation of atypical stromal spindle cells that surround benign tubules and ducts in a pericanalicular pattern. Mitotic activity is present. The tumor has a multinodular and infiltrative growth pattern and lacks the leaf-like architecture of phyllodes tumor. Wide excision with negative margins is the treatment of choice." |
| C179220 | The reemergence of pilocytic astrocytoma after a period of remission. |
| C179221 | The reemergence of gliomatosis cerebri after a period of remission. |
| C179222 | "The reemergence of diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27M mutant, after a period of remission." |
| C179223 | The reemergence of anaplastic (malignant) meningioma after a period of remission. |
| C179224 | The reemergence of atypical meningioma after a period of remission. |
| C179226 | The reemergence of a malignant choroid plexus neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C179227 | The reemergence of pineal parenchymal cell neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C179229 | "A rare, low-grade glioneuronal neoplasm characterized by a dinucleotide mutation at codon 385 of the PDGFR gene. It usually occurs in the septum pellucidum. It has also been described in the corpus callosum and periventricular white matter of the lateral ventricle. It has histologic features reminiscent of either dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor or rosette-forming glioneuronal tumor. It is composed of oligodendrocyte-like cells in a prominent myxoid stroma." |
| C179230 | A myxoid glioneuronal tumor that arises from the septum pellucidum. |
| C179251 | "A rare, low grade ovarian epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells." |
| C179259 | A low grade ovarian epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical neoplastic serous and mucinous cells. |
| C179263 | "A constellation of signs and symptoms that can persist for weeks or months after acute infection with SARS-CoV-2, or appear weeks after infection.  This condition may be characterized by fatigue, shortness of breath, difficulty focusing or concentrating (""brain fog""), sleep disorders, fevers, gastrointestinal symptoms, anxiety, and depression." |
| C179295 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the FLNC gene, encoding filamin-C." |
| C179296 | "An autosomal recessive form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the ACTL6B gene, encoding actin-like protein 6B." |
| C179297 | Basal ganglia calcification for which no underlying cause can be identified. |
| C179298 | "A genetic condition caused by mutation(s) in the PRKG2 gene, encoding cGMP-dependent protein kinase 2. It is characterized by acromelia and mesomelia." |
| C179299 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation (s) in the CYP4V2 gene, encoding cytochrome P450 4V2. It is characterized by multiple glistening intraretinal crystalline deposits scattered throughout the posterior pole associated with progressive atrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium and choroidal sclerosis. The crystalline deposits are also present in the corneal limbus in some individuals." |
| C179320 | An exceedingly rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the uterine corpus and ovary and displays mesonephric differentiation. Some tumors are thought to derive from mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) remnants. Others may have a Mullerian duct lineage. |
| C179321 | An exceedingly rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary and displays mesonephric differentiation. Some tumors are thought to derive from mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) remnants. Others may have a Mullerian duct lineage. |
| C179322 | An exceedingly rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the endometrium and displays mesonephric differentiation. Some tumors are thought to derive from mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) remnants. Others may have a Mullerian duct lineage. |
| C179334 | "An aggressive carcinoma arising from the ovary.  Most patients present with advanced disease.  Microscopically, it is characterized by the presence of an undifferentiated carcinomatous component and a second component of either endometrioid carcinoma or, rarely, serous carcinoma." |
| C179339 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of two or more adenocarcinoma components, most often endometrioid and clear cell." |
| C179359 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed of neoplastic cells with smooth muscle differentiation." |
| C179360 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the ovary. It is usually characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern. Variants with increased cellularity, increased mitotic activity, myxoid changes, or epithelioid morphology have also been reported." |
| C179362 | A smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from the ovary and cannot be reliably diagnosed as benign or malignant because of the presence of ambiguous morphologic findings. |
| C179410 | "An exceedingly rare, high-grade variant of conventional osteosarcoma characterized by the presence of numerous osteoclast-like giant cells and variable amount of tumor osteoid." |
| C179415 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G2 that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C179418 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G1 that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C179419 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G1 that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C179420 | A malignant thoracic neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C179423 | Plexiform neurofibroma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C179427 | Acral lentiginous melanoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C179429 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 that is resistant to treatment. |
| C179459 | A platinum-resistant ovarian carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C179460 | A platinum-resistant ovarian carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C179461 | Castration-resistant prostate carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C179462 | Peritoneal malignant mesothelioma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C179463 | The reemergence of a malignant retroperitoneal neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C179464 | The reemergence of a malignant scrotal neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C179465 | The reemergence of a malignant abdominal neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C179466 | The reemergence of a malignant spermatic cord neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C179474 | A rare ovarian malignant tumor with neuroectodermal differentiation. It is characterized either by a small round cell proliferation or by neuronal or glial differentiation. |
| C179475 | An ovarian mixed germ cell-sex cord-stromal tumor in which the neoplastic cellular infiltrate does not have the distinctive appearance of a gonadoblastoma. |
| C179515 | Breast carcinoma that has metastasized to a limited number of sites. |
| C179547 | An epithelial neoplasm of Wolffian (mesonephric) origin arising from the broad ligament. Most tumors behave in a benign fashion. |
| C179548 | An epithelial neoplasm of Wolffian (mesonephric) origin arising from the ovarian hilum. Most tumors behave in a benign fashion. |
| C179550 | "A rare benign lesion characterized by tumor-like enlargement of the ovaries due to fibroblastic proliferation with collagen deposition (fibromatosis) or stromal accumulation of edema fluid (massive edema). It presents in premenopausal patients, with menstrual abnormalities, abdominal pain, or androgenic manifestations. Most cases are unilateral. (WHO 2020)" |
| C179551 | An increased number of Leydig cells in the hilar region of the ovary. (WHO 2020) |
| C179553 | A breast adenocarcinoma defined by low expression of HER2 (IHC1+ or IHC2+; FISH negative). |
| C179554 | A HER2-low breast adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C179555 | A HER2-low breast adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C179560 | "A benign well-circumscribed lesion arising from the mesentery. It is characterized by the presence of fibroblasts, lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates, collagenous stroma formation, psammoma bodies, and dystrophic calcifications." |
| C179562 | A very rare sarcoma that arises from the peritoneum and is characterized by the presence of cells that resemble endometrial stromal cells. |
| C179570 | An autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the G6PC3 gene. It is characterized by the absence or presence of very low levels of glucose-6-phosphatase 3. Patients may develop severe congenital neutropenia. |
| C179648 | "Progressive, potentially reversible physiologic dysfunction in two or more organ systems in response to severe physiologic insult. Dysregulated immunological response is the critical pathophysiologic factor in most cases." |
| C179654 | A carcinoma that has spread to the peritoneum from an adjacent or distal anatomic site. |
| C179656 | A condition in which a sarcoma has spread extensively throughout the peritoneum. |
| C179657 | A sarcoma that has spread to the peritoneum from an adjacent or distal anatomic site. |
| C179667 | "A group of genetic disorders associated with mutation(s) in genes that are constituents of the RAS signaling pathway. These disorders are characterized by distinct facial features, developmental delays, cardiac defects, growth delays, and feeding problems. Representative examples include: neurofibromatosis type 1, capillary malformation-arteriovenous malformation syndrome, cardiofaciocutaneous syndrome, Costello syndrome, multiple lentigines syndrome, and Noonan syndrome." |
| C179668 | "An autosomal dominant inherited vascular disorder associated with loss of function mutations in the RASA1 or EPHB4 gene, encoding Ras GTPase-activating protein 1 or ephrin type-B receptor 4, respectively.  It is characterized by cutaneous capillary malformations, often in association with arteriovenous malformations and arteriovenous fistulas, which may lead to abnormal bleeding, migraine headaches, seizures, and heart failure." |
| C179677 | A chromophobe renal cell carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C179702 | "A rare condition in which the two arms of chromosome 22 are fused resulting in a ring chromosome. Ring chromosome syndromes typically are characterized by developmental delay, intellectual disability, microcephaly, and dysmorphic facial features." |
| C179703 | "A rare condition in which the two arms of chromosome 13 are fused resulting in a ring chromosome. Ring chromosome syndromes typically are characterized by developmental delay, intellectual disability, microcephaly, and dysmorphic facial features." |
| C179707 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the IL1RAPL1 gene, encoding interleukin-1 receptor accessory protein-like 1. It is characterized by intellectual disability ranging from moderate mental retardation to high-functioning autism." |
| C179708 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the DYRK1A gene, encoding dual specificity tyrosine-phosphorylation-regulated kinase 1A. It is characterized by moderate-severe intellectual disability and typical facial dysmorphisms." |
| C179709 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the KLHL24 gene, encoding kelch-like protein 24. It is characterized by epidermolysis bullosa and dilated cardiomyopathy." |
| C179710 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CSTB gene, encoding cystatin-B. It is characterized by progressive myoclonic epilepsy, with progression occurring between 6 and 13 years of age." |
| C179717 | Histologic transformation of an indolent B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma to an aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. |
| C179721 | "Histologic transformation of a B-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable, with features intermediate between diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and classic Hodgkin lymphoma to an aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma." |
| C179738 | "A non-invasive, precursor epithelial proliferation that arises from the fallopian tube, lacks severe atypia, and demonstrates serous differentiation." |
| C179742 | A rare benign lesion that arises in the fallopian tubes of postpartum women. It is characterized by intratubal luminal papillary proliferation lined by columnar cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. Significant cytologic atypia and mitoses are absent. Mucinous and oncocytic metaplasia may be present. |
| C179743 | A rare non-neoplastic trophoblastic disorder characterized by the presence of remnants of intermediate trophoblasts in the fallopian tube from a previous pregnancy. |
| C179861 | "An autosomal dominant form of spinocerebellar ataxia caused by mutation(s) in the TBP gene, encoding TATA-box-binding protein." |
| C179863 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the AP4M1 gene, encoding AP-4 complex subunit mu-1." |
| C179866 | "An autosomal recessive form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the ARX gene, encoding homeobox protein ARX." |
| C179867 | "Presence of testes in an individual with a 46,XX karyotype associated with translocation of the SRY gene, encoding the transcription factor sex-determining region Y protein (SRY-positive)." |
| C179868 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the TRAF7 gene, encoding E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase TRAF7. It is characterized by developmental delay, cardiac, facial, and digital anomalies." |
| C179882 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the basal ganglia. |
| C179883 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the cerebellar peduncle. |
| C179884 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the corpus callosum. |
| C179885 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the optic tract. |
| C179886 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the optic chiasm. |
| C179888 | "An extremely rare, well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the esophagus. It is characterized by the presence of hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dyskeratosis, keratin-filled cysts, koilocyte-like cells, intraepithelial neutrophils, and focal cytologic atypia." |
| C179894 | "A variant of well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma arising from the oral cavity. It is characterized by the presence of minimal cytological atypia, multiple keratin-filled crypts, and intraepithelial neutrophils." |
| C179915 | "A rare, autosomal dominant hereditary syndrome caused by germline mutation in the PTEN gene. It manifests with macrocephaly, neurocognitive deficits, hamartomas in multiple locations, polyposis, vascular abnormalities, and an increased risk of developing malignant tumors, particularly breast, thyroid, and endometrial carcinoma." |
| C179921 | A cystadenoma that arises from the broad ligament. It is characterized by the presence of small papillary projections in the inner surface of the cysts. It may be sporadic or associated with von Hippel-Lindau disease. |
| C179923 | A leiomyoma that arises from the broad or other uterine ligaments. |
| C179924 | A leiomyoma that arises from the broad ligament. |
| C179925 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the broad or other uterine ligaments. It is characterized by the presence of a glandular and a mesenchymal component. |
| C179926 | A rare leiomyosarcoma that arises from the broad ligament. |
| C179927 | An epithelial neoplasm of Wolffian (mesonephric) origin arising from a uterine ligament. Most tumors behave in a benign fashion. |
| C179928 | A rare neoplasm that arises from the broad or other uterine ligaments and shows ependymal differentiation. |
| C179929 | A rare neoplasm that arises from the broad ligament and shows ependymal differentiation. |
| C179930 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the PTEN gene, encoding phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate 3-phosphatase and dual-specificity protein phosphatase PTEN. It is considered a type of PTEN-hamartoma syndrome. It has many features in common with Proteus syndrome, including hamartomous overgrowth of multiple tissues, cerebriform connective tissue nevi, vascular malformations and linear epidermal nevi, but has not been associated with AKT1 gene mutation(s)." |
| C179931 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm that affects the broad ligament." |
| C179932 | "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that through the process of dedifferentiation, results in an uncommon phenotype. Dedifferentiation in the context of GIST, may manifest as loss of CD117 expression and regression from specialized tissue to a more anaplastic/pleomorphic appearance, high nuclear atypia, high mitotic activity, and necrosis." |
| C179933 | "A neoplasm that arises from the broad ligament and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C179934 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the broad ligament. |
| C180332 | Ovarian carcinoma characterized by the absence of microsatellite instability. |
| C180333 | A microsatellite stable ovarian carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C180334 | A microsatellite stable ovarian carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C180335 | Endometrial carcinoma characterized by the absence of microsatellite instability. |
| C180336 | A microsatellite stable endometrial carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C180337 | A microsatellite stable endometrial carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C180338 | The reemergence of gangliocytoma after a period of remission. |
| C180374 | Primary cutaneous T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues. |
| C180378 | A low-grade cerebral tumor associated with seizures and in many cases refractory epilepsy. It usually occurs in the second and third decades of life. It is characterized by the presence of oligodendroglioma-like components. It may also contain astrocytic components. MAPK pathway-activating genetic alterations play a role in the development of this tumor. Causative gene alterations include mutations resulting in the expression of BRAF p.V600E and gene fusions involving FGFR2 or FGFR3 genes. ID... |
| C180397 | The reemergence of myxoid glioneuronal tumor after a period of remission. |
| C180398 | The reemergence of multinodular and vacuolated neuronal tumor following a period of remission. |
| C180400 | The reemergence of polymorphous low-grade neuroepithelial tumor of the young after a period of remission. |
| C180404 | Thyroid gland medullary carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C180406 | Colon carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C180407 | A glioma that arises from the tectum mesenchephali. |
| C180408 | The reemergence of tectal glioma after a period of remission. |
| C180510 | "Endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting 50% or less solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C180512 | An endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma characterized by mutations in the exonuclease domain of the DNA polymerase epsilon (POLE) gene that result in an ultra-mutated tumor phenotype. |
| C180514 | "An endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma characterized by mismatch repair (MMR) deficiency caused by inactivating methylation or less frequently mutation of an MMR gene (MLH1, PMS2, MSH2, or MSH6)." |
| C180515 | An endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma with p53 mutant pattern immunostaining. |
| C180516 | "An endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma characterized by the absence of POLE gene mutations, mismatch repair (MMR) deficiency, and p53 gene mutations." |
| C180523 | "A bacterial infection caused by Clostridium difficile (Clostridioides difficile), which is a spore-forming, toxin-producing Gram-positive anaerobic bacillus that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. Infection may cause symptoms ranging from diarrhea to life-threatening inflammation of the colon, and risk factors include use of antibiotic medication, advanced age, and hospital or long-term care facility admission." |
| C180530 | Non-muscle invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C180532 | "A very rare, low-grade midline brain neoplasm that affects the septum pellucidum. It is characterized by similar histological features to those found in dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor, but does not display multinodularity. It usually manifests with symptoms related to increased intracranial pressure. Epilepsy has been reported in approximately one third of patients. PDGFRA gene mutations have been identified in the majority of patients. Alterations in FGFR1 and NF1 genes have also b... |
| C180536 | A rare mucinous adenocarcinoma arising from intestinal metaplasia of the endometrium. |
| C180537 | A rare mucinous adenocarcinoma arising from gastric metaplasia of the endometrium. |
| C180540 | A smooth muscle tumor of uncertain malignant potential that arises from the uterine corpus and is composed of neoplastic spindle cells. |
| C180541 | A smooth muscle tumor of uncertain malignant potential that arises from the uterine corpus and displays myxoid changes. |
| C180542 | A smooth muscle tumor of uncertain malignant potential that arises from the uterine corpus and is composed of neoplastic epithelioid cells. |
| C180545 | A rare inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor that arises from the uterine corpus. |
| C180546 | A rare uterine corpus malignant small round cell tumor with neuroglial differentiation. The prognosis is poor. |
| C180553 | A disorder in which there is pathological development of blood clots within the cardiovascular system. |
| C180557 | "A neurological disorder characterized by the inability to execute skilled movements, despite having the willingness, physical ability and understanding of how to perform them." |
| C180604 | A bladder urothelial carcinoma invading into the bladder muscularis propria. |
| C180605 | A bladder urothelial carcinoma that has focally invaded into the bladder muscularis propria. |
| C180606 | Urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells with high grade features. |
| C180607 | Renal pelvis urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells with high grade features. |
| C180608 | Ureter urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells with high grade features. |
| C180609 | Bladder urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells with high grade features. |
| C180633 | "A group of pregnancy-related proliferative disorders. It includes non-neoplastic disorders (complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, placental site nodule and plaque, and exaggerated placental site reaction) and neoplasms (invasive hydatidiform mole and trophoblastic tumors). Trophoblastic tumors include gestational choriocarcinoma, epithelioid trophoblastic tumor, placental-site trophoblastic tumor, and mixed trophoblastic tumor." |
| C180634 | "A gestational trophoblastic tumor characterized by the presence of two or three histological types of gestational trophoblastic tumor, including choriocarcinoma, placental site trophoblastic tumor, and epithelioid trophoblastic tumor." |
| C180635 | "The spread of abnormal molar chorionic villi from an invasive hydatidiform mole in the uterine cavity to other anatomic sites, usually the vaginal wall and pelvis." |
| C180670 | "A rare sinonasal carcinoma characterized by the presence of a papillary architecture and bland morphological features similar to the Schneiderian papilloma, a pushing pattern of stromal invasion, and an increased risk of local recurrence." |
| C180730 | Acneiform dermatitis caused by epidermal growth factor receptor inhibitory therapy in a dose-dependent manner. |
| C180837 | A condition characterized by the absence of squamous maturation in the cervical epithelium. It is associated with decreased estrogen production. |
| C180839 | Cervical squamous cell carcinoma in which information on the p16 immunohistochemistry or HPV testing status is not available. |
| C180840 | "A condition resulting in inadequate blood flow through the blood vessels supplying the brain, due to intrinsic disease of the vasculature." |
| C180841 | A cervical squamous cell carcinoma not associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C180842 | A condition in which the external ear is underdeveloped or malformed. |
| C180843 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation (s) in the AIFM1 gene, encoding apoptosis-inducing factor 1, mitochondrial . It is characterized by auditory neuropathy, followed by peripheral neuropathy." |
| C180844 | "An X-linked dominant condition caused by mutation (s) in the SMPX gene, encoding small muscular protein. It is characterized by progressive sensorineural hearing loss." |
| C180845 | Cervical adenocarcinoma in situ associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C180846 | Cervical adenocarcinoma in situ not associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C180848 | Cervical adenocarcinoma not associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C180849 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of limb-girdle muscular dystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the SGCB gene, encoding beta-sarcoglycan." |
| C180850 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the POLR3B gene, encoding DNA-directed RNA polymerase III subunit RPC2. It is characterized by early onset cerebellar ataxia and mild intellectual disability. Diffuse cerebral hypomyelination and cerebellar atrophy are apparent on MRI.  Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypodontia are also features of this condition." |
| C180851 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the AARS2 gene, encoding alanine--tRNA ligase, mitochondrial. It is characterized by lethal infantile hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Skeletal and brain involvement may be apparent." |
| C180860 | "A rare, human papillomavirus-associated premalignant glandular intraepithelial neoplasm that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of stratified, immature epithelial cells containing varying quantities of intracytoplasmic mucin. There is no evidence of stromal invasion. It is distinct from conventional cervical squamous or glandular intraepithelial neoplasias." |
| C180861 | "A rare, distinct form of invasive cervical mucinous adenocarcinoma associated with human papillomavirus infection. It is characterized by the presence of stratified, immature epithelial cells containing varying quantities of intracytoplasmic mucin." |
| C180864 | "A rare, invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from the cervix and is characterized by a micropapillary architecture." |
| C180869 | "A cervical mucinous adenocarcinoma in which more than 50% of malignant cells contain intracytoplasmic mucin. There is no evidence of gastric, intestinal, or signet ring cell differentiation." |
| C180870 | A cervical adenocarcinoma that cannot be classified by WHO criteria or International Endocervical Adenocarcinoma Criteria and Classification (IECC). |
| C180871 | A thymus neuroendocrine neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C180872 | A thymus neuroendocrine neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C180874 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the brain that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C180875 | Desmoplastic small round cell tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C180876 | Glioma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C180877 | A glioma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C180878 | "A rare carcinoma that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of squamous cells, mucus producing cells, and cells of intermediate type." |
| C180879 | "A rare germ cell tumor that arises from the cervix. Examples include mature cystic teratoma, yolk sac tumor, and choriocarcinoma." |
| C180880 | "A rare papillary neoplasm that grows within and is limited to the duct system of the minor salivary glands. This category includes papillary cystadenoma, ductal papilloma (including the intraductal and inverted variants), sialadenoma papilliferum, and intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm." |
| C180881 | "A rare, low-grade epithelial neoplasm with ductal differentiation that grows within and is limited to the duct system of the minor salivary glands. It is characterized by a proliferation of mucin-producing cells within the minor salivary gland ducts, intraductal accumulation of mucin, and a papillary growth pattern. Cytologic and architectural atypia and mitotic activity are present. AKT1 gene mutations have been identified in the majority of cases. Morphologically it resembles the intraduc... |
| C180885 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the gastroesophageal junction and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C180887 | "A benign, localized, nodular and well-circumscribed neoplasm seen as a congenital neoplasm or in the first year of life. It is characterized by a biphasic growth pattern and is composed of small, undifferentiated mesenchymal cells associated with branching thin-walled vessels and more mature neoplastic spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm in a collagenous stroma." |
| C180888 | A rare myofibroma that occurs in adults. |
| C180891 | Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C180892 | "Medulloblastoma, WNT-activated that is resistant to treatment." |
| C180893 | "The reemergence of medulloblastoma, WNT-activated after a period of remission." |
| C180894 | Mucosal melanoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C180895 | Non-cutaneous melanoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C180896 | Mucosal melanoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C180897 | "Acute myeloid leukemia, myelodysplasia-related that is resistant to treatment." |
| C180914 | A condition characterized by the absence of squamous maturation in the vaginal epithelium. It is associated with decreased estrogen production. |
| C180915 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vagina. It is classified as human papillomavirus-related or human papillomavirus-independent. When p16 immunohistochemistry or HPV testing is not available, the morphological diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma, not otherwise specified is acceptable." |
| C180917 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vagina and is caused by human papillomavirus infection. |
| C180919 | Vaginal squamous cell carcinoma not associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C180920 | A vaginal adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C180921 | "A vaginal squamous cell carcinoma, not otherwise specified that that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment." |
| C180922 | Bronchogenic carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C180923 | The reemergence of bronchogenic carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C180924 | HER2-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C180925 | HER2-positive breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C180943 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the vagina and is caused by human papillomavirus infection. |
| C180945 | Vaginal mucinous adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of gastric differentiation. |
| C180946 | A vaginal mucinous adenocarcinoma that resembles a large intestinal adenocarcinoma. |
| C180947 | A rare vaginal adenocarcinoma arising from the Skene gland. It is characterized by morphological and immunohistochemical features similar to prostate adenocarcinoma. |
| C180948 | A rare urethral adenocarcinoma arising from the Skene gland. It is characterized by morphological and immunohistochemical features similar to prostate adenocarcinoma. |
| C180979 | Clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue that is resistant to treatment. |
| C180980 | The reemergence of clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue after a period of remission. |
| C180985 | The reemergence of T-cell large granular lymphocyte leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C180986 | T-cell large granular lymphocyte leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C180992 | Partial or complete paralysis of the optic nerve. |
| C180994 | Partial or complete paralysis of the trochlear nerve. |
| C180995 | Partial or complete paralysis of the trigeminal nerve. |
| C180996 | Partial or complete paralysis of the vestibulocochlear nerve. |
| C180997 | Partial or complete paralysis of the vagus nerve. |
| C180998 | Partial or complete paralysis of the spinal accessory nerve. |
| C180999 | Partial or complete paralysis of the hypoglossal nerve. |
| C181000 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of limb-girdle muscular dystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the TOR1AIP1 gene, encoding torsin-1A-interacting protein 1." |
| C181001 | "An X-linked dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SLC9A6 gene, encoding sodium/hydrogen exchanger 6. It is characterized by intellectual disability, delayed development, and difficulty standing or walking." |
| C181002 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Joubert syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the CC2D2A gene, encoding coiled-coil and C2 domain-containing protein 2A." |
| C181028 | A vaginal adenosquamous carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C181029 | A vaginal adenosquamous carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C181031 | A vaginal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C181032 | A vaginal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C181034 | Cervical squamous cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C181035 | "Cervical squamous cell carcinoma, not otherwise specified, that is resistant to treatment." |
| C181036 | Cervical adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C181038 | Paralysis that affects one limb. |
| C181044 | The reemergence of primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C181045 | Primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C181047 | "The reemergence of systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK-positive after a period of remission." |
| C181048 | "Systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK-positive that is resistant to treatment." |
| C181078 | A rare neoplasm that arises from the salivary gland and consists of at least two histologically distinct types of tumor within the same topographic location. The tumor components can be either benign or malignant. |
| C181079 | "A rare carcinoma that arises from the salivary gland and consists of at least two histologically distinct types of carcinoma within the same topographic location. The carcinoma components usually are adenoid cystic carcinoma, epithelial-myoepithelial carcinoma, and/or salivary duct carcinoma. Adenoid cystic carcinoma is commonly the predominant component." |
| C181081 | Triple-negative breast carcinoma that has not spread beyond the breast or axillary lymph nodes. |
| C181157 | A carcinoma that arises from the jejunum. |
| C181158 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the jejunum. |
| C181159 | A basal cell carcinoma that arises from the eyelid. |
| C181160 | A mucoepidermoid carcinoma that arises from the tongue. |
| C181161 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the parotid or submandibular gland. |
| C181162 | "A malignant neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of any part of the female reproductive system. Representative examples include ovarian carcinoma, cervical carcinoma, and endometrial carcinoma." |
| C181196 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of any part of the male reproductive system. Representative examples include prostate carcinoma and penile carcinoma. |
| C181197 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of any part of the urinary system. Representative examples include kidney carcinoma and bladder carcinoma. |
| C181201 | A rare rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the lung. |
| C181205 | A rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises in and is confined to the lung at the time of diagnosis. |
| C181207 | "An exceedingly rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the bone, without lymph node or other extranodal involvement." |
| C181209 | An exceedingly rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the thyroid gland. |
| C181210 | A mantle cell lymphoma that manifests initially in the parotid gland. |
| C181211 | An exceedingly rare follicular lymphoma that arises in and is confined to the lung at the time of diagnosis. |
| C181562 | "A term that refers to the staging of cervical cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 9th edition. This staging system applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. It does not apply to sarcomas, lymphomas, and melanomas. Sarcomas are staged according to the corpus uteri classification for sarcomas. Lymphomas are staged according to Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma classification. Melanomas are not staged. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181564 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor strictly confined to the cervix (extension to corpus should be disregarded). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181565 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor that can be diagnosed only by microscopy with maximum depth of invasion equal or less than 5 mm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181567 | "Stage IA1 includes: T1a1, N0, M0. T1a1: Tumor with measured stromal invasion equal or less than 3 mm in depth. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181568 | "Stage IA2 includes: T1a2, N0, M0. T1a2: Tumor with measured stromal invasion of more than 3.0 mm and equal or less than 5.0 mm in depth. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181570 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Tumor with measured deepest invasion more than 5 mm (greater than FIGO stage IA); lesion limited to the cervix uteri with size measured by maximum tumor diameter. Note: The involvement of vascular/lymphatic spaces should not change the staging. The lateral extent of the lesion is no longer considered. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181571 | "Stage IB1 includes: T1b1, N0, M0. T1b1: Tumor measuring more than 5 mm in depth and equal or less than 2 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181576 | "Stage IB2 includes: T1b2, N0, M0. T1b2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm and equal or less than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181579 | "Stage IB3 includes: T1b3, N0, M0. T1b3: Tumor measuring more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181583 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181584 | "Stage IIA includes: T2a, N0, M0. T2a: Tumor with involvement limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina without parametrial invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181586 | "Stage IIA1 includes: T2a1, N0, M0. T2a1: Tumor with involvement limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina without parametrial invasion measuring 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181588 | "Stage IIA2 includes: T2a2, N0, M0. T2a2: Tumor with involvement limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina without parametrial invasion measuring more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181591 | "Stage IIB includes: T2b, N0, M0. T2b: Tumor with parametrial invasion but not up to the pelvic wall. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181592 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor extending to pelvic sidewall and/or involving the lower third of vagina, and/or causing hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney. The pelvic sidewall is defined as the muscle, fascia, neurovascular structures, and skeletal portions of the bony pelvis. Cases with no cancer-free space between the tumor and pelvic wall by rectal examination are FIGO III. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181594 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0. T3a: Tumor involving the lower third of vagina but not extending to pelvic wall. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181595 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0. T3b: Tumor extending to pelvic wall and/or causing hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney (unless known to be due to another cause). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181596 | "Stage IIIC includes: IIIC1: TX, T0, T1-3, N1, M0; IIIC2: TX, T0, T1-3, N2, M0. TX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor strictly confined to the cervix (extension to corpus should be disregarded). T2: Tumor invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina. T3: Tumor extending to pelvic sidewall and/or involving the lower third of vagina, and/or causing hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney. The pelvic sidewall is de... |
| C181597 | "Stage IIIC1 includes: TX, T0, T1-3, N1, M0. TX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor strictly confined to the cervix (extension to corpus should be disregarded). T2: Tumor invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina. T3: Tumor extending to pelvic sidewall and/or involving the lower third of vagina, and/or causing hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney. The pelvic sidewall is defined as the muscle, fascia, neurov... |
| C181598 | "Stage IIIC2 includes: TX, T0, T1-3, N2, M0. TX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed. T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor strictly confined to the cervix (extension to corpus should be disregarded). T2: Tumor invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina. T3: Tumor extending to pelvic sidewall and/or involving the lower third of vagina, and/or causing hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney. The pelvic sidewall is defined as the muscle, fascia, neurov... |
| C181599 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: T4, Any N, M0; IVB: Any T, Any N, M1. T4: Tumor has involved (biopsy-proven) the mucosa of the bladder or rectum, or has spread to adjacent organs. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis including inguinal lymph nodes, lung, liver, bone, or intraperitoneal metastases. Metastases to pelvic or paraaortic lymph nodes, or vagina are excluded. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181601 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Tumor has involved (biopsy-proven) the mucosa of the bladder or rectum, or has spread to adjacent organs. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181603 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis including inguinal lymph nodes, lung, liver, bone, or intraperitoneal metastases. Metastases to pelvic or paraaortic lymph nodes, or vagina are excluded. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C181652 | "A rare immunological disorder characterized by mast cell activation in the absence of cutaneous findings. Bone marrow biopsy shows the presence of monoclonal mast cells that carry the D816V KIT gene mutation and/or express CD25 while not meeting the diagnostic requirements for systemic mastocytosis. Patients may present with recurrent symptoms, including hypotension, flushing, headache, abdominal cramping, nausea, diarrhea, arrhythmias, and bronchoconstriction. Symptoms may be triggered by ... |
| C181657 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the SPG7 gene, encoding paraplegin." |
| C181714 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx that arises from the epiglottis. |
| C181757 | An infection caused by any coronavirus. |
| C181758 | Sudden decompensation of chronic graft versus host disease. |
| C181759 | Cellulitis of the pharynx. |
| C181761 | Sickle cell-SS disease exacerbated by sudden pain caused by sickled erythrocytes impeding blood flow within a vessel. |
| C181762 | Sickle cell-hemoglobin C disease exacerbated by sudden pain caused by sickled erythrocytes impeding blood flow within a vessel. |
| C181767 | Acute inflammation of the pericardium. |
| C181769 | "A disorder affecting the vocal cords. Representative examples include vocal cord nodules, polyps, leukoplakia, dysplasia, and paralysis." |
| C181772 | "Rheumatoid arthritis in which a patient's serum is positive for certain disease-related antibodies including anti-cyclic citrullinated peptides (anti-CCPs), also called anti-citrullinated protein antibodies (ACPAs),and rheumatoid factor (RF). Screening for anti-CCPs is more specific than RF which can be found in other pathologic conditions. The production of these disease-associated antibodies may precede the development of clinical symptoms by several years. Seropositive patients have a gr... |
| C181775 | Orientation of a ureter in an unusual anatomic location. |
| C181787 | Inflammatory carcinoma of the breast that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C181793 | HER2-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C181796 | The reemergence of indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C181856 | The reemergence of metastatic gastric carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C181859 | Durie/Salmon stage I multiple myeloma associated with a relatively normal renal function (serum creatinine concentration < 2.0 mg/dL). |
| C181860 | Durie/Salmon stage I multiple myeloma associated with abnormal renal function (serum creatinine concentration greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL). |
| C181862 | Durie/Salmon stage II multiple myeloma associated with a relatively normal renal function (serum creatinine concentration < 2.0 mg/dL). |
| C181864 | Durie/Salmon stage II multiple myeloma associated with abnormal renal function (serum creatinine concentration greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL). |
| C181865 | Durie/Salmon stage III multiple myeloma associated with a relatively normal renal function (serum creatinine concentration < 2.0 mg/dL). |
| C181866 | Durie/Salmon stage III multiple myeloma associated with abnormal renal function (serum creatinine concentration greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL). |
| C181902 | Vulvar squamous cell carcinoma in which information on the p16 immunohistochemistry or HPV testing status is not available. |
| C181903 | Vulvar squamous cell carcinoma not associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C181905 | "A rare benign, borderline, or malignant phyllodes tumor arising from the vulva." |
| C181906 | A rare benign phyllodes tumor arising from the vulva. |
| C181907 | A rare borderline phyllodes tumor arising from the vulva. |
| C181909 | "A dense, superficial benign lymphoid cell proliferation in the cervix. It almost always occurs in premenopausal women. It is composed of a mixture of large and small lymphocytes including immunoblasts. Plasma cells and neutrophils are also present. Immunohistochemical studies reveal a mixture of B and T lymphocytes, and polytypic plasma cells." |
| C181910 | A rare extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue affecting the endometrium. |
| C181924 | "An X-linked inherited condition caused by somatic mutation(s) in the UBA1 gene, encoding ubiquitin-like modifier-activating enzyme 1. It is characterized by the adult onset of rheumatologic symptoms in males, including recurrent fevers, pulmonary and dermatologic inflammatory manifestations, vasculitis, arthralgias, facial chondritis and hematologic abnormalities." |
| C181925 | "A benign, well-defined, lobulated, myxoid or gelatinous tumor that arises from the vulva. It shares morphological features with lipoblastoma, myxoid liposarcoma, and spindle cell lipoma. It is characterized by a lobulated growth and is composed of mature adipocytes, lipoblasts, and spindle cells without atypia in a myxoid matrix. DDIT3 and PLAG1 gene rearrangements seen in lipoblastoma and myxoid liposarcoma are not present in this tumor. It can recur infrequently and there are no reports o... |
| C181926 | "A rare, benign mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the vulvar region, usually the labia majora of prepubertal girls. It presents as a slow-growing, unilateral painless mass. It is characterized by an infiltrative growth of bland spindle cells in a collagenous, edematous, or myxoid stroma. It may recur following incomplete excision." |
| C181935 | A rare solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the vulva. |
| C181936 | A rare solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the vagina. |
| C181938 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the vulva. |
| C181939 | A smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from the vulva and cannot be reliably diagnosed as benign or malignant because of the presence of ambiguous morphologic findings. |
| C181940 | A smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from the vagina and cannot be reliably diagnosed as benign or malignant because of the presence of ambiguous morphologic findings. |
| C181941 | A smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from any part of the female reproductive system and cannot be reliably diagnosed as benign or malignant because of the presence of ambiguous morphologic findings. |
| C181942 | "A rare benign polypoid skeletal muscle neoplasm arising from the vulva. It is characterized by the presence of round striated muscle cells and strap-like skeletal muscle cells, and vascular space formations within a fibrous and myxoid stroma." |
| C181944 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation arising from the vulva. |
| C181945 | "A benign conjunctival finding noted especially among darker pigmented individuals. While it is typically found perilimbally and bilaterally, it can also cover the conjunctivae extensively and may present asymmetrically. The flat, non-cystic pigmentation may increase in size with age. It is rare to have this finding evolve into conjunctival melanoma." |
| C181966 | The reemergence of distal cholangiocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C181967 | Lung adenosquamous carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C181971 | An epithelioid sarcoma that arises from the vulva. |
| C181973 | A rare epithelioid sarcoma of the distal type that arises from the vulva. |
| C181977 | Ewing sarcoma arising from the vulva. |
| C182018 | "The reemergence of astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, Grade 4, after a period of remission." |
| C182019 | "The reemergence of glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype after a period of remission." |
| C182020 | The reemergence of metastatic melanoma after a period of remission. |
| C182024 | Metastatic melanoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C182025 | Pleomorphic liposarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C182026 | Pleomorphic liposarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C182028 | Pleomorphic liposarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C182029 | The reemergence of schwannoma after a period of remission. |
| C182030 | The reemergence of a nervous system neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C182034 | Immunoblastic lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C182035 | The reemergence of immunoblastic lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C182076 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the TPM1 gene, encoding tropomyosin alpha-1 chain." |
| C182078 | "A subtype of dilated cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the TTN gene, encoding titin." |
| C182104 | Appendix adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C182105 | Appendix adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C182108 | The reemergence of HER2-positive breast carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C182110 | HER2-positive breast carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C182111 | Squamous cell carcinoma of the penis that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C182126 | A bacterial infection that is caused by Staphylococcus aureus that is susceptible to methicillin. |
| C182127 | Conjunctival melanoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C182151 | A diffuse glioma that arises from the midline structures of the central nervous system. The majority of these tumors are found in the brainstem. |
| C182436 | "A diffuse glioma that arises from the midline structures of the central nervous system, other than the pons." |
| C182452 | A neurological disorder characterized by impairment of handwriting ability that may be associated with other learning disabilities in children or traumatic damage to the parietal lobe in adults. |
| C183045 | "A rare, benign, circumscribed nodule arising from the bronchioles. It is usually seen in middle-aged to elderly patients. It is characterized by the presence a two-layer cellular structure composed of a basal and luminal layer." |
| C183109 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from the lung. It is characterized by the absence of tall columnar cells and mucin production. This category includes lepidic adenocarcinoma, acinar adenocarcinoma, papillary adenocarcinoma, micropapillary adenocarcinoma, and solid adenocarcinoma." |
| C183115 | "An aggressive, high-grade malignant neoplasm characterized by biallelic inactivation of SMARCA4 gene. It affects adults, usually heavy smokers, and involves the thorax (lung, pulmonary hilum, mediastinum, and/or pleura) with or without chest wall invasion. It is composed of sheets of malignant large round to epithelioid cells. Rhabdoid cells may be present. Increased number of mitoses and necrosis are frequently seen. The prognosis is poor." |
| C183116 | "An extremely rare, low-grade carcinoma that arises endobronchially in the central airways. It is composed of small to medium-sized malignant epithelial cells with clear and eosinophilic cytoplasm forming nests, cords, and trabeculae in a hyalinized stroma. It is associated with the presence of EWSR1-ATF1 fusion gene." |
| C183121 | "An aggressive extranodal B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that affects the lung.  It is characterized by the presence of large neoplastic lymphocytes exclusively in the lumina of small vessels, particularly capillaries." |
| C183126 | Malignant ovarian Brenner tumor that is resistant to treatment. |
| C183127 | The reemergence of small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C183128 | The reemergence of extrapulmonary small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C183134 | A non-invasive mesothelial neoplasm that arises from the pleura. It is characterized by the proliferation of a single-layer of flat or cuboidal neoplastic mesothelial cells. Cytological atypia is absent or minimal. Mitoses are absent. BAP1 gene inactivation and/or CDKN2A gene homozygous deletion are present. Patients present with non-resolving pleural effusion. It may progress to invasive epithelioid mesothelioma. |
| C183135 | Primary effusion lymphoma that affects the pleural cavity. The majority of patients are HIV-positive men. |
| C183136 | Primary effusion lymphoma that affects the pericardial cavity. The majority of patients are HIV-positive men. |
| C183137 | Primary effusion lymphoma that affects the peritoneal cavity. The majority of patients are HIV-positive men. |
| C183140 | The reemergence of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma associated with chronic inflammation after a period of remission. |
| C183141 | A rare fibrin-associated diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that affects the heart. |
| C183142 | Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma associated with chronic inflammation that is resistant to treatment. |
| C183144 | "A benign soft tissue mass that involves the endocardium, myocardium, or epicardium. It is characterized by the presence of an admixture of mature mesenchymal tissues normally found within the heart." |
| C183146 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the heart. |
| C183152 | Malignant leptomeningeal neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C183153 | A subtype of pemphigus vulgaris in which lesions are predominantly found on mucosal membranes with relative sparing of cutaneous tissues. |
| C183184 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the organs and structures of the pelvis. |
| C183244 | An ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C183245 | An ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C183250 | Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C183251 | A sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C183277 | "A rare, benign, well-circumscribed lesion arising from the pleura. It is characterized by the presence of fibroblasts, lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates, collagenous stroma formation, and dystrophic calcifications. Patients may present with chest pain, dyspnea, cough, or may be asymptomatic." |
| C183304 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the abdomen and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C183305 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the abdomen and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C183308 | "A genetically heterogenous afebrile seizure disorder of infancy, typically occurring between the third and eight month of life, that is characterized by brief partial seizures occurring in clusters over a day or several days. Psychomotor and neurologic development before and after seizures are normal." |
| C183309 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the FLNC gene, encoding filamin-C.  It is characterized by restrictive cardiomyopathy in the context of normal contractility, left ventricular wall thickness and systolic function." |
| C183310 | "A genetic disorder of infancy or early childhood caused by mutation(s) in the TUBB4A gene, encoding the tubulin beta-4A chain. It is characterized by hypomyelination or atrophy of the cerebellum and or putamen leading to delayed motor development, gait instability, and extrapyramidal movement disorders." |
| C183311 | "An X-linked dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the HNRNPH2 gene, encoding heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein H2. It is characterized by delayed psychomotor development, intellectual disability with behavioral abnormalities, and dysmorphic facial features in females." |
| C183312 | "An autosomally inherited subtype of moyamoya disease often presenting in childhood caused by mutation(s) in the RNF213 gene, encoding E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase RNF213." |
| C183313 | A very rare primary thymus carcinoma that resembles adenoid cystic carcinoma of the salivary gland. |
| C183314 | A primary thymus adenocarcinoma characterized by morphological and immunohistochemical features seen in colorectal adenocarcinoma. |
| C183315 | A primary thymus adenocarcinoma that does not conform to either low-grade papillary adenocarcinoma or enteric-type adenocarcinoma. |
| C183316 | A primary thymus carcinoma that cannot be defined as one of the thymic carcinomas with specific morphologic characteristics. |
| C183374 | A rare follicular dendritic cell sarcoma that affects the structures of the mediastinum. |
| C183510 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the mediastinal lymph nodes from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C183512 | The reemergence of indolent B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C183513 | The reemergence of indolent T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C183514 | Indolent B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C183515 | Indolent T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C183524 | "An autosomal recessive form of combined methylmalonic aciduria and homocystinuria, caused by mutation(s) in the MMADHC gene, encoding cobalamin trafficking protein CblD." |
| C183525 | "An autosomal recessive form of combined methylmalonic aciduria and homocystinuria, caused by mutation(s) in the LMBRD1 gene, encoding lysosomal cobalamin transport escort protein LMBD1." |
| C183526 | "An autosomal recessive form of combined methylmalonic aciduria and homocystinuria, caused by mutation(s) in the ABCD4 gene, encoding lysosomal cobalamin transporter ABCD4." |
| C183527 | "A genetic condition characterized by methylmalonic aciduria, caused by mutation(s) in the CD320 gene, encoding CD320 antigen." |
| C183529 | "A rare autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SLC52A2 gene, encoding solute carrier family 52, riboflavin transporter, member 2. It is characterized by progressive pontobulbar palsy associated with sensorineural deafness, which may include respiratory compromise." |
| C183531 | "A autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SUCLG1 gene, encoding succinate--CoA ligase [ADP/GDP-forming] subunit alpha, mitochondrial. It is characterized by infantile onset of hypotonia, lactic acidosis, developmental delay, cognitive impairment, and excretion of methylmalonic acid." |
| C183562 | Cheilitis due to chronic exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation. It may increase the risk for the development of invasive squamous cell carcinoma of the lip. |
| C184295 | "A benign adenoma that arises from the salivary gland. This group includes pleomorphic adenoma, canalicular adenoma, basal cell adenoma, and sebaceous adenoma." |
| C184324 | "Two or more episodes of acute pancreatitis, with complete resolution of symptoms between episodes." |
| C184957 | Bronchiolitis obliterans following lung or allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation. |
| C184958 | "Chronic liver disease that occurs secondary to, and after recovery from, hepatitis." |
| C184989 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the TNNI3 gene, encoding troponin I, cardiac muscle." |
| C184990 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the PINK1 gene, encoding serine/threonine-protein kinase PINK1, mitochondrial." |
| C184991 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the RAB39B gene, encoding Ras-related protein Rab-39B. It is characterized by clinical features of early-onset parkinsonism and intellectual disability." |
| C185035 | "The presence of more than one plasmacytoma arising in the bone, concurrently or sequentially, in the absence of bone marrow involvement by plasma cell myeloma." |
| C185037 | Multiple myeloma involving the central nervous system. It manifests with single or multiple intraparenchymal lesions and/or leptomeningeal involvement. Patients present with diffuse cerebral dysfunction and nerve paralysis. The prognosis is poor. |
| C185039 | A central nervous system multiple myeloma involving the leptomeninges. |
| C185041 | A plasmacytoma that arises in the spleen. |
| C185042 | A plasmacytoma that arises in the liver. |
| C185043 | A plasmacytoma that arises in the lung. |
| C185044 | A plasmacytoma that arises in the skin. |
| C185067 | Fibrolamellar carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C185068 | Hilar cholangiocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C185069 | Hilar cholangiocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C185070 | Hilar cholangiocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C185071 | Extrahepatic bile duct carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C185072 | Extrahepatic bile duct carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C185073 | "The reemergence of chordoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C185134 | Histologic transformation of a lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma to an aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. |
| C185135 | Histologic transformation of Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia to an aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. |
| C185149 | "Infiltration of organs and soft tissues by malignant (clonal) plasma cells in patients with history of multiple myeloma. Skin, liver, lymph nodes, pleura, and central nervous system are the most frequently affected sites." |
| C185151 | Infiltration of the spleen by malignant (clonal) plasma cells in patients with history of multiple myeloma |
| C185152 | Infiltration of the hepatic sinusoids by malignant (clonal) plasma cells in patients with history of multiple myeloma. |
| C185153 | Infiltration of the kidney by malignant (clonal) plasma cells in patients with history of multiple myeloma. |
| C185155 | Infiltration of the skin by malignant (clonal) plasma cells in patients with history of multiple myeloma. |
| C185156 | "Bone infiltration by malignant plasma cells in patients with history of plasma cell myeloma. Bone involvement occurs in approximately eighty percent of newly diagnosed symptomatic plasma cell myeloma patients. The axial skeleton, particularly the spine, and the proximal long bones are the most commonly affected bone sites. It results in osteolytic bone lesions, widespread osteopenia, and compression fractures." |
| C185157 | The reemergence of hormone receptor-positive breast adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C185165 | Colorectal carcinoma that has metastasized to a limited number of sites. |
| C185167 | "An astrocytoma associated with IDH1 or IDH2 gene mutations and absence of 1p/19q codeletion. It is classified as grade 2, 3, or 4." |
| C185178 | "A glioblastoma characterized by the presence of large numbers of neoplastic cells with granular, PAS-positive cytoplasm. It is associated with an aggressive clinical course." |
| C185179 | "An astrocytoma characterized by the presence of large numbers of neoplastic cells with granular, PAS-positive cytoplasm. It is associated with an aggressive clinical course, even when the histologic features suggest a lower-grade astrocytoma." |
| C185180 | A rare glioblastoma characterized by the presence of a predominant population of neoplastic cells with foamy cytoplasm. |
| C185184 | "Astrocytoma lacking mutations in IDH1 or IDH2 genes. It includes diffuse astrocytoma, IDH-wildtype and anaplastic astrocytoma, IDH-wildtype." |
| C185185 | A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of astrocytoma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes status. |
| C185195 | "A rare IDH-and H3-wildtype diffuse astrocytoma characterized by the presence of a monomorphic population of neoplastic cells that exhibit alteration in the MYB gene. This alteration is associated with fusion between MYB gene and a partner gene, usually PCDHGA1, MMP16, and MAML2 genes." |
| C185196 | "A rare IDH-and H3-wildtype diffuse astrocytoma characterized by the presence of a monomorphic population of neoplastic cells that exhibit alteration in the MYBL1 gene. This alteration is associated with fusion between MYBL1 gene and a partner gene, usually PCDHGA1, MMP16, and MAML2 genes." |
| C185218 | "A rare, low-grade diffuse glioma with morphological features of astrocytoma or oligodendroglioma, generally affecting children. It is characterized by a gene alteration that results in a MAPK pathway abnormality. The genetic abnormalities are typically a BRAF p.V600E substitution mutation, mutations or fusions involving the FGFR1 gene and internal tandem duplication (ITD) of the sequences of FGFR1 gene encoding the tyrosine kinase domain (TKD). The tumor is IDH-wildtype and does not have a ... |
| C185219 | Diffuse low-grade glioma characterized by internal tandem duplications of the sequences in the FGFR1 gene encoding the tyrosine kinase domain. |
| C185220 | "Diffuse low-grade glioma characterized by FGFR1 gene mutations, an internal tandem duplication within the FGFR1 gene or the presence of an FGFR1 fusion gene." |
| C185221 | Diffuse low-grade glioma characterized by the presence of BRAF gene mutations encoding a p.V600E substitution mutation. |
| C185235 | A genetically heterogenous group of disorders characterized by low mitochondrial DNA in specific tissues resulting in impaired energy production. |
| C185236 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of mitochondrial depletion syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the TK2 gene, encoding thymidine kinase 2, mitochondrial. It is characterized by muscle weakness associated with mtDNA depletion in skeletal muscle." |
| C185237 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the DNM1 gene, encoding dynamin-1." |
| C185238 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CARS2 gene, encoding probable cysteine--tRNA ligase, mitochondrial, resulting in a defect in the mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation system. It is characterized by epileptic encephalopathy, and phenotypically variable clinical findings." |
| C185242 | "A usually autosomal dominant inherited metabolic disorder affecting the bony labyrinth of the inner ear. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of sharply demarcated active (otospongiotic) and inactive (sclerotic) bony areas. It is one of the most common causes of conductive hearing loss." |
| C185243 | "A chronic inner ear disorder affecting balance and hearing. Symptoms may include vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss." |
| C185244 | "A Y-linked genetic condition caused by mutation(s) in the USP9Y gene, encoding probable ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase FAF-Y.  It is associated with male infertility secondary to nonobstructive azoospermia and hypospermatogenesis." |
| C185245 | "A familial phenotype characterized by a normal QT interval at rest, but major QT lengthening during catecholergic stimulation." |
| C185246 | "A digenic recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ADH5 gene accompanied by a specific mutation in the ALDH2 gene. It is characterized by global developmental delay, impaired intellectual development, bone marrow failure, and myelodysplastic syndrome." |
| C185293 | Myelodysplastic syndromes/acute myeloid leukemias associated with germline SAMD9 mutation. |
| C185294 | Myelodysplastic syndromes/acute myeloid leukemias associated with germline SAMD9L mutation. |
| C185302 | The reemergence of vaginal squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C185303 | Vaginal squamous cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C185304 | Vulvar squamous cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C185305 | Pancreatobiliary carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C185321 | Infiltration of the lung by malignant (clonal) plasma cells in patients with history of multiple myeloma. |
| C185350 | Nasal cavity squamous cell carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C185351 | Paranasal sinus squamous cell carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C185368 | "A diffuse midline glioma characterized by H3 K27 alteration and usually either a histone H3 K27M mutation, an EGFR mutation, or aberrant overexpression of EZHIP. The prognosis is poor." |
| C185369 | "A diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered, characterized by the presence of EGFR gene mutation." |
| C185370 | "A diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered, characterized by the presence of EZHIP overexpression." |
| C185371 | A WHO grade 4 diffuse glioma arising in the cerebral hemispheres. It is characterized by the presence of missense mutation of the H3-3A gene. The prognosis is poor. |
| C185381 | A mesonephric adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C185434 | Bone disorders that present in thalassemia patients. |
| C185462 | An abnormal communication between the genital tract and another organ or anatomic structure. |
| C185467 | "An aggressive, WHO grade 4 diffuse brain glioma usually affecting children, adolescents, or young adults. It is characterized by the absence of histone H3, IDH1, and IDH2 mutations. It includes the following subtypes, based on DNA methylation profiles: diffuse pediatric-type high grade glioma RTK1, diffuse pediatric-type high grade glioma RTK2, and diffuse pediatric-type high grade glioma MYCN." |
| C185468 | "An aggressive, WHO grade 4 diffuse glioma usually affecting children, adolescents, or young adults. It is characterized by receptor tyrosine kinase type 2 (RTK2) alterations." |
| C185469 | "An aggressive, WHO grade 4 diffuse glioma usually affecting children, adolescents, or young adults. It is characterized by receptor tyrosine kinase type 1 (RTK1) alterations." |
| C185470 | "An aggressive, WHO grade 4 diffuse glioma usually affecting children, adolescents, or young adults. It is characterized by the expression of MYCN molecular signature." |
| C185471 | "A high-grade cellular astrocytoma that arises in the cerebral hemisphere and occurs in early childhood. It is characterized by receptor tyrosine kinase fusions in the NTRK family, ROS1, ALK, or MET genes. It includes the following subtypes: infant-type hemispheric glioma, NTRK-altered, infant-type hemispheric glioma, ROS1-altered, infant-type hemispheric glioma, ALK-altered, and infant-type hemispheric glioma, MET-altered." |
| C185472 | A high-grade cellular astrocytoma that arises in the cerebral hemisphere and occurs in early childhood. It is characterized by receptor tyrosine kinase fusions in the NTRK family. |
| C185473 | A high-grade cellular astrocytoma that arises in the cerebral hemisphere and occurs in early childhood. It is characterized by receptor tyrosine kinase fusions in the ROS1 gene. |
| C185474 | A high-grade cellular astrocytoma that arises in the cerebral hemisphere and occurs in early childhood. It is characterized by receptor tyrosine kinase fusions in the ALK gene. |
| C185475 | A high-grade cellular astrocytoma that arises in the cerebral hemisphere and occurs in early childhood. It is characterized by receptor tyrosine kinase fusions in the MET gene. |
| C185635 | "A condition caused by the presence of an three extra X chromosomes resulting in 49,XXXXY karyotype in an individual with male phenotype." |
| C185638 | "A rare condition in which the two arms of chromosome 14 are fused resulting in a ring chromosome. Ring chromosome syndromes typically are characterized by developmental delay, intellectual disability, microcephaly, and dysmorphic facial features." |
| C185752 | A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from an anatomic site other than a lymph node. |
| C185753 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from an anatomic site other than a lymph node. |
| C185879 | "An astrocytoma characterized by high-grade piloid and/or glioblastoma-like histological features. It may occur anywhere in the central nervous system but most often arises in the posterior fossa. Alterations in the following three pathways are responsible for the pathogenesis of this tumor: MAPK pathway, retinoblastoma tumor suppressor protein cell-cycle pathway, and telomere maintenance pathway." |
| C185880 | Hormone receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C185881 | Hormone receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C185882 | Malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumor that is resistant to treatment. |
| C185902 | A localized protrusion of a structure into an adjacent structure or cavity. |
| C185935 | "A provisional tumor entity described in the supratentorial brain and characterized by a distinct DNA methylation profile and monosomy of chromosome 14. It is composed of small to medium-sized cells showing perinuclear oligodendroglioma-like haloes, scattered multinucleated cells, and nuclear clusters composed of large pleomorphic nuclei. Most cases have been reported in pediatric patients." |
| C185954 | Triple-negative breast inflammatory carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C186229 | Common origin for left subclavian and left carotid arteries. |
| C186234 | "Defects of endocardial cushions resulting in low atrial and high ventricular septal defects. (Makris S, Solomon HM, Clark R, Shiota K, Barbellion S, Buschmann J, Ema M, Fujiwara M, Grote K, Hazelden KP, Hew KW, Horimoto M, Ooshima Y, Parkinson M, Wise LD. Terminology of developmental abnormalities in common laboratory mammals (Version 2). Part B. Birth Defects Res B Dev Reprod Toxicol. 2009 Aug;86(4):227-327.)" |
| C186240 | More than the usual or expected number of hemivertebra. |
| C186272 | An ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C186273 | An ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C186274 | A fallopian tube endometrioid adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C186275 | Primary peritoneal high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C186276 | Primary peritoneal endometrioid adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C186278 | "A rare condition in which the two arms of chromosome 21 are fused resulting in a ring chromosome. Ring chromosome syndromes typically are characterized by developmental delay, intellectual disability, microcephaly, and dysmorphic facial features." |
| C186283 | HER2-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C186284 | HER2-positive breast carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C186306 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the GPC4 gene, encoding glypican-4. It is characterized by multiple congenital abnormalities, including distinctive facial dysmorphism, sensorineural hearing loss, variable learning difficulties, and digital anomalies." |
| C186307 | "A genetic condition, caused by mutation(s) in the DDX24 gene, encoding ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX24. It is associated with vascular stenosis of portal and hepatic veins and/or lymphatic vessels." |
| C186308 | A condition in which the fingers or toes are abnormally enlarged. |
| C186343 | A circumscribed ependymoma that arises from the supratentorial region of the brain. The diagnosis of supratentorial ependymoma should be made either when genetic analysis did not reveal a fusion gene involving ZFTA or YAP1 genes (not elsewhere classified -NEC) or when the genetic analysis was unsuccessful or not reported (not otherwise specified-NOS). |
| C186348 | "A circumscribed ependymoma that arises from the supratentorial region of the brain, characterized by the absence of a fusion gene involving ZFTA or YAP1 genes." |
| C186349 | A circumscribed ependymoma that arises from the supratentorial region of the brain in which the genetic analysis for fusion genes involving ZFTA or YAP1 genes was unsuccessful or not reported. |
| C186350 | A circumscribed ependymoma that arises from the supratentorial region of the brain. It is characterized by the presence of a fusion gene involving ZFTA gene. Available data indicate that it has the poorest prognosis of all supratentorial ependymomas. |
| C186351 | An uncommon circumscribed ependymoma that arises from the supratentorial region of the brain. It affects young children and is characterized by the presence of a fusion gene involving YAP1 gene. Available data indicate that it has a favorable prognosis as compared to other supratentorial ependymomas. |
| C186355 | A supratentorial ependymoma characterized by a gene fusion involving YAP1 and MAMLD1 genes. |
| C186432 | "A spectrum of disorders associated with long-term Aspergillus infection of the lung that usually occur in immunocompetent individuals with underlying respiratory disorders, and may be characterized by pulmonary fibrosis or cavitation." |
| C186433 | Vulvovaginal candidiasis occurring at least three times in one year. |
| C186443 | A circumscribed ependymoma that arises in the posterior fossa. The diagnosis of posterior fossa ependymoma should be made either when molecular analysis for DNA methylation profiling cannot assign a molecular group (not elsewhere classified -NEC) or when the molecular analysis for DNA methylation profiling was unsuccessful or not reported (not otherwise specified-NOS). |
| C186448 | A circumscribed ependymoma that arises in the posterior fossa in which molecular analysis for DNA methylation profiling cannot assign a molecular group. |
| C186449 | A circumscribed ependymoma that arises in the posterior fossa in which molecular analysis for DNA methylation profiling was unsuccessful or not reported. |
| C186450 | "A circumscribed ependymoma that arises in the posterior fossa with characteristic DNA methylation patterns, including CpG island hypermethylation, global DNA hypomethylation, reduction of nuclear H3 p.K28me3 (K27me3) expression, and EZHIP  overexpression. It usually occurs in children younger than five years. PFA ependymomas have a worst prognosis compared to PFB ependymomas." |
| C186451 | "A circumscribed ependymoma that arises in the posterior fossa with characteristic DNA methylation patterns including retention of nuclear H3 p.K28me3 (K27me3) expression, absence of CpG island hypermethylation, absence of global DNA hypomethylation, and absence of EZHIP overexpression. Widespread cytogenetic abnormalities are present. Frequent chromosomal aberrations include loss of 22q, monosomy 6, and trisomy 18. It occurs in children older than five years and adults and has a relatively ... |
| C186453 | Primary peritoneal high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C186454 | An ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C186455 | Prostate adenocarcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C186456 | Prostate adenocarcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C186483 | "The reemergence of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that resulted from the transformation of indolent B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, after a period of remission." |
| C186484 | Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that resulted from the transformation of indolent B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma and is resistant to treatment. |
| C186485 | The reemergence of a fungal infection after a period of remission. |
| C186486 | A fungal infection that is resistant to treatment. |
| C186494 | "A rare, aggressive ependymoma that arises from the spinal cord. It displays microvascular proliferation, necrosis, and high mitotic rate. It is characterized by high-level MYCN amplification. Cytogenetic abnormalities include loss of chromosome 10 and focal losses on chromosome 11q. The prognosis is poor." |
| C186495 | An ependymoma of the spinal cord not associated with MYCN amplification and occurring in children. |
| C186511 | The reemergence of T lymphoblastic lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C186521 | "No evidence of subarachnoid or hematogenous metastasis. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186522 | "Microscopic tumor cells are detected in the cerebrospinal fluid. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186523 | "Gross nodular seeding is detected in the cerebellar/cerebral subarachnoid space or in the third or lateral ventricles. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186524 | "Gross nodular seeding is detected in the spinal subarachnoid space. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186525 | "Metastasis outside the cerebrospinal axis. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186528 | "No evidence of subarachnoid or hematogenous metastasis. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186529 | "Microscopic tumor cells are detected in the cerebrospinal fluid. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186530 | "Gross nodular seeding is detected in the cerebellar/cerebral subarachnoid space or in the third or lateral ventricles. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186531 | "Gross nodular seeding is detected in the spinal subarachnoid space. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186532 | "Metastasis outside the cerebrospinal axis. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186534 | A central nervous system embryonal tumor characterized by the presence of multilayered rosette formation and typically the presence of amplification of the C19MC region on chromosome 19 (19q13.42) or rarely a DICER1 mutation. |
| C186535 | An embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes characterized by the presence of DICER1 mutation. Approximately half of embryonal tumors with multilayered rosettes that lack a C19MC alteration carry DICER1 mutations. |
| C186537 | "No evidence of subarachnoid or hematogenous metastasis. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186538 | "Microscopic tumor cells are detected in the cerebrospinal fluid. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186539 | "Gross nodular seeding is detected in the cerebellar/cerebral subarachnoid space or in the third or lateral ventricles. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186540 | "Gross nodular seeding is detected in the spinal subarachnoid space. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186541 | "Metastasis outside the cerebrospinal axis. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186542 | A central nervous system embryonal tumor lacking molecular abnormalities that would classify it as one of the molecularly defined central nervous system embryonal neoplasms. |
| C186547 | A rare central nervous system neoplasm with neuroblastic and/or neuronal differentiation that arises from the supratentorial brain. It is characterized by the presence of structural rearrangements of FOXR2 gene that result in the activation of the transcription factor FOXR2. |
| C186556 | "A rare central nervous system embryonal tumor characterized by the presence of uniform oval or spindle-shaped cells with round or oval nuclei, pseudorosette formation, and heterozygous internal tandem duplication in exon 15 of the BCOR gene." |
| C186568 | "No evidence of subarachnoid or hematogenous metastasis. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186569 | "Microscopic tumor cells are detected in the cerebrospinal fluid. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186570 | "Gross nodular seeding is detected in the cerebellar/cerebral subarachnoid space or in the third or lateral ventricles. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186571 | "Gross nodular seeding is detected in the spinal subarachnoid space. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186572 | "Metastasis outside the cerebrospinal axis. (Chang CH, Housepian EM, Herbert C. Radiology, 1969; 93(6):1351-9.)" |
| C186591 | "An SHH-activated, TP53-wildtype medulloblastoma caused by germline ELP1 gene variations and develops during childhood." |
| C186592 | "An autosomal dominant syndrome caused by germline ELP1 gene variations and characterized by an increased risk of developing SHH-activated, TP53-wildtype medulloblastoma during childhood." |
| C186603 | A central nervous system solitary fibrous tumor characterized by the presence of areas of abrupt transition to high grade sarcoma. |
| C186607 | "A rare, undifferentiated, high grade small round cell sarcoma that arises from the central nervous system. It is characterized by a recurrent translocation involving the CIC gene on chromosome 19 resulting in CIC gene fusion with different gene partners." |
| C186610 | A primary intracranial sarcoma composed of malignant pleomorphic or spindle neoplastic cells typically demonstrating myogenic and/or chondroid differentiation. Cytoplasmic eosinophilic globules and myxoid stroma formation are usually present. It is associated with mutations in the DICER1 gene. |
| C186611 | Ewing sarcoma that arises in the central nervous system. |
| C186614 | "A provisional entity that refers to a group of neoplasms with a broad morphological spectrum, characterized by fusion of a FET family gene (usually EWSR1 and rarely FUS) with a member of the CREB family of transcription factors (CREB1, ATF1, or CREM). It includes entities previously termed intracranial angiomatoid fibrous histiocytoma or intracranial myxoid mesenchymal tumor. It is usually located in the supratentorial brain and mostly affects children and young adults. There is a spectrum ... |
| C186619 | "A term that refers to the staging of cervical cancer according to the International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging, 2009." |
| C186620 | The carcinoma is strictly confined to the cervix (extension to the uterine corpus should be disregarded). (FIGO 2009) |
| C186621 | Cervical carcinoma measuring equal or less than 5 mm in depth and equal or less than 7 mm in width. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186622 | Cervical carcinoma measuring equal or less than 3 mm in depth. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186623 | Cervical carcinoma measuring more than 3 mm and not more than 5 mm in depth. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186624 | Cervical carcinoma measuring more than 5 mm in depth. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186625 | Cervical carcinoma measuring more than 5 mm in depth and equal or less than 4 cm in maximum diameter. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186626 | Cervical carcinoma measuring more than 5 mm in depth and more than 4 cm in maximum diameter. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186627 | Cervical carcinoma invading beyond the uterus but not extending onto the lower third of the vagina or to the pelvic wall. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186628 | Cervical carcinoma limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186629 | Cervical carcinoma limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina and is equal or less than 4 cm in diameter. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186630 | Cervical carcinoma limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina and measuring more than 4 cm in diameter. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186631 | Cervical carcinoma with parametrial invasion. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186632 | "Cervical carcinoma involving lower vagina, pelvic sidewall, and ureters. (FIGO 2009)" |
| C186633 | Cervical carcinoma involving lower one-third of the vagina. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186634 | Cervical carcinoma involving the pelvic sidewall. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186635 | Cervical carcinoma involving adjacent and distant organs. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186636 | Cervical carcinoma with rectal or bladder involvement. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186637 | Cervical carcinoma involving distal organs outside the pelvis. (FIGO 2009) |
| C186649 | A circumscribed neoplasm that arises from leptomeningeal melanocytes. This category includes meningeal melanocytoma and meningeal melanoma. |
| C186650 | A circumscribed meningeal melanocytic neoplasm with bland histological features and increased mitotic activity or invasion of the central nervous system. |
| C186658 | "A lymphoma that arises from the central nervous system in patients with acquired immunodeficiency conditions or rarely, hereditary immunodeficiency syndromes." |
| C186660 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the central nervous system in AIDS patients. |
| C186662 | "Lymphomatoid granulomatosis that affects the brain, spinal cord, and leptomeninges." |
| C186663 | "Rosai-Dorfman-Destombes disease affecting the central nervous system. It presents with localized or multiple dural masses, parenchymal, and/or intrasellar lesions." |
| C186703 | Schwannomatosis caused by germline mutations in the SMARCB1 gene. |
| C186704 | Schwannomatosis caused by germline mutations in the LZTR1 gene. |
| C186730 | Acute myeloid leukemia not associated with cytogenetic abnormalities and arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of chemotherapy and/or ionizing radiation. |
| C186731 | A melanocytic nevus that arises from the lip and/or oral cavity. The majority are benign. Dysplastic nevi that can lead to the development of melanoma can rarely arise from the lip and/or oral cavity. |
| C186732 | Aggressive systemic mastocytosis associated with a germ cell tumor. |
| C186735 | A disorder characterized by systemic infiltration of internal organs by aggregates of neoplastic mast cells and the presence of a co-occurring germ cell tumor. |
| C186748 | A disorder affecting the muscles of the pelvic floor. |
| C186785 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of dilated cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the PPCS gene, encoding phosphopantothenate--cysteine ligase." |
| C186786 | "Loeys-Dietz syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the SMAD3 gene, encoding mothers against decapentaplegic homolog 3." |
| C186787 | Interstitial lung fibrosis resulting from chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis. |
| C186788 | "A genetic condition caused by mutation(s) in the MTATP6 gene, encoding ATP synthase subunit a. The disorder is part of a group of congenital defects of complex V (ATP synthase)." |
| C186789 | "An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation(s) in the ADAT3 gene, encoding probable inactive tRNA-specific adenosine deaminase-like protein 3. It is characterized by a neurodevelopmental disorder with brain abnormalities, poor growth, and abnormal facies." |
| C187051 | A squamous cell carcinoma that is associated with human papillomavirus infection and has metastasized to the neck lymph nodes from an unknown primary anatomic site. |
| C187056 | An acute leukemia that occurs during childhood. |
| C187086 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor arising from PIT1-lineage adenohypophysial cells. |
| C187087 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor arising from TPIT-lineage adenohypophysial cells. |
| C187088 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor arising from SF1-lineage adenohypophysial cells. |
| C187096 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that belongs to more than one adenohypophysial cell lineage or does not show evidence of adenohypophysial hormonal immunoreactivity and specific adenohypophysial cell derivation. |
| C187098 | "A well-differentiated pituitary neuroendocrine tumor composed of PIT1-lineage adenohypophyseal cells with acidophilic cytoplasm, extensive immunoreactivity for growth hormone and variable immunoreactivity for TSH, prolactin, and alpha-subunit. (WHO)" |
| C187099 | "An immature pituitary neuroendocrine tumor composed of PIT1-lineage adenohypophyseal cells with cytologic atypia and limited differentiation towards thyrotroph, somatotroph, and/or lactotroph cells. (WHO)" |
| C187135 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor in which further characterization regarding subtyping is not available. |
| C187160 | Hormone receptor-positive breast carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187161 | A HER2-negative breast adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187162 | Lung large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187163 | Lung large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C187189 | The reemergence of childhood osteosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C187192 | Childhood osteosarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C187193 | Childhood rhabdomyosarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C187194 | Childhood soft tissue sarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C187195 | Lung carcinoma that has metastasized to a limited number of sites. |
| C187196 | The reemergence of a childhood Hodgkin or non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C187197 | Childhood Hodgkin or non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C187206 | The development of dilated terminal airspaces in the lung adjacent to parenchymal scarring. |
| C187207 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the brain during childhood. |
| C187210 | A childhood malignant solid neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C187211 | A childhood malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to the brain. |
| C187212 | A childhood malignant neoplasm that arises from the brain and has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C187213 | A childhood malignant neoplasm that arises from the brain and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C187214 | A central nervous system neoplasm in childhood that is resistant to treatment. |
| C187215 | A childhood brain neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C187234 | An ovarian serous cystadenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C187235 | An ovarian serous cystadenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C187241 | The reemergence of ovarian serous cystadenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C187242 | An ovarian serous cystadenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C187243 | An ovarian serous adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C187244 | Extrahepatic bile duct carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C187255 | "A benign, non-inflammatory, multifocal proliferation of thyroid follicular cells that results in the formation of multiple thyroid nodules. The clinical term multinodular goiter refers to the changes caused in the thyroid gland by follicular nodular disease." |
| C187258 | "An autosomal recessive condition characterized by decreased activity of the mitochondrial respiratory chain enzyme complex succinate dehydrogenase (SDH; mitochondrial complex II), which can be caused by loss of function mutation(s) in the any of the genes that encode subunits of SDH. The clinical presentation of this deficiency shows wide variation that ranges from isolated muscle weakness to multisystem symptoms involving the brain, heart and musculoskeletal system with complications such ... |
| C187261 | "A benign, encapsulated thyroid gland neoplasm characterized by the presence of large follicles with intrafollicular papillary architecture. The cells lining the papillae are usually columnar. It is usually a cystic neoplasm and lacks nuclear atypia and capsular invasion. Psammoma bodies are not present. Activating TSHR mutations have been described in the majority of cases. In a small number of cases GNAS mutations have been identified." |
| C187273 | "A thyroid gland neoplasm in which the incidence of metastatic spread is extremely low. This category includes thyroid gland noninvasive follicular neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features, thyroid gland hyalinizing trabecular tumor, and thyroid gland tumors of uncertain malignant potential." |
| C187279 | Blood extravasation in the retina. |
| C187280 | Blood extravasation in the choroid. |
| C187284 | "An encapsulated or well-circumscribed thyroid gland tumor composed of well-differentiated follicular cells, in which capsular or vascular invasion is indeterminate." |
| C187288 | "Condition where iris pigment is released into the anterior chamber and deposited in the trabecular meshwork, due to a procedure or device implantation." |
| C187316 | A malignant testicular germ cell tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C187332 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G1 that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C187341 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G2 that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C187345 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G2 that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187373 | Infection around an implant following joint replacement. |
| C187374 | An endometrial serous adenocarcinoma that has a documented response to platinum-based chemotherapy. |
| C187389 | Primary peritoneal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187393 | An ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187394 | A fallopian tube carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187398 | A HER2-negative breast adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187399 | Hormone receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C187400 | Hormone receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187402 | Triple-negative breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187405 | A rare variant of invasive breast lobular carcinoma characterized by the presence of pools of extracellular mucin in which groups of floating lobular carcinoma cells are identified. |
| C187406 | An endometrial carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187411 | A non-small cell squamous carcinoma of the lung that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187412 | Cholangiocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187413 | Gallbladder carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187445 | A genetic subtype of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma characterized by SGK1 and TET2 gene mutations. |
| C187447 | A genetic subtype of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma characterized by TP53 gene mutations and deletions that is often accompanied by aneuploidy. |
| C187448 | Malignant bone neoplasm that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C187449 | Childhood acute myeloid leukemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C187450 | Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma that has metastasized to a limited number of sites. |
| C187643 | A morphologic variant of follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the presence of malignant follicular cells with cytoplasmic vacuoles and eccentrically placed nuclei. |
| C187644 | "A thyroid gland papillary carcinoma characterized by the presence of thin cores of fibrovascular tissue lined by one or occasionally several layers of malignant cells with distinct nuclear features that include nuclear pseudoinclusions, nuclear grooves, and ground glass nuclear inclusions." |
| C187645 | A thyroid gland carcinoma that arises from follicular cells and is characterized by the presence of high mitotic activity and necrotic changes in the absence of anaplastic histological features. This category includes poorly differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma and differentiated high-grade thyroid gland carcinoma. |
| C187648 | A follicular-derived thyroid gland carcinoma that is histologically differentiated and has high-grade features. |
| C187703 | "A type of esophageal atresia (EA) / tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) in which the upper segment of the esophagus ends in a blind pouch and the lower segment is connected to the trachea via a TEF. This is the most common type of EA/TEF, which accounts for approximately 85 percent of cases." |
| C187704 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of age-related macular degeneration associated with mutation(s) in the CFI gene, encoding complement factor I." |
| C187983 | "An genetic condition that is a subtype of dilated cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the VCL gene, encoding vinculin." |
| C187984 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) caused by mutation(s) in the FN1 gene, encoding fibronectin. It is characterized by microscopic hematuria, proteinuria and hypertension resulting in end-stage renal disease." |
| C187986 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the GTPBP3 gene, encoding tRNA modification GTPase GTPBP3, mitochondrial. It is characterized by childhood onset of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and/or neurologic symptoms." |
| C187988 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) caused by mutation(s) in the PIK3CD gene, encoding phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase catalytic subunit delta isoform. It is characterized by defects in T-cells and B-cells and recurrent sinopulmonary infections in childhood." |
| C187989 | "An X-linked condition caused by mutation(s) in the BGN gene, encoding biglycan. It is characterized by cardiovascular defects and abnormal facies." |
| C187992 | "A primary carcinoma of the thyroid gland containing a medullary carcinoma component that is immunohistochemically positive for calcitonin, and follicular carcinoma component that is immunohistochemically positive for thyroglobulin." |
| C187993 | "A primary carcinoma of the thyroid gland containing a medullary carcinoma component that is immunohistochemically positive for calcitonin, and papillary carcinoma component that is immunohistochemically positive for thyroglobulin." |
| C187994 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the presence of cells that secrete eosinophilic material. It is composed of cystic spaces, tubular structures, and solid areas. ETV6 translocations and ETV6-NTRK3 fusion are present." |
| C187995 | "A high-grade, rapidly growing malignant embryonal neoplasm that arises from the thyroid gland. It is characterized by the presence of primitive follicular-like structures surrounded by primitive small cells and primitive spindle cell mesenchymal stroma. It is associated with DICER1 gene mutations. The prognosis is poor." |
| C188013 | "A teratoma that arises outside an endocrine organ and shows endocrine differentiation. The endocrine component ranges from benign endocrine tissue to malignant endocrine neoplasms. This category includes struma ovarii, thyroid carcinoma arising in struma ovarii, and carcinoid tumor arising in ovarian teratoma." |
| C188015 | An ovarian teratoma characterized by the presence of a neoplastic neuroendocrine component consistent with carcinoid tumor. |
| C188021 | "A clonal lymphoproliferative disorder composed of neoplastic B-cells. It includes B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas, B-cell leukemias, and plasma cell myeloma." |
| C188027 | Parathyroid gland hyperplasia that occurs in the absence of physiological stimuli. |
| C188028 | "Parathyroid gland hyperplasia that occurs in response to physiological stimuli (e.g., vitamin D deficiency, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia)." |
| C188029 | "Parathyroid gland hyperplasia that results from progression of secondary hyperparathyroidism in which the parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone autonomously, despite the presence of elevated parathyroid hormone and calcium levels in the serum." |
| C188031 | "Mast cell leukemia associated with another clonal non-mast cell myeloid neoplasm (e.g., myelodysplastic syndrome, myeloproliferative neoplasm, and acute myeloid leukemia)." |
| C188032 | Bladder urothelial carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C188034 | Alveolar soft part sarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C188035 | Breast carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C188036 | Adrenal cortical carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C188038 | Wilms tumor that is resistant to treatment. |
| C188041 | "Smoldering systemic mastocytosis associated with the presence of a clonal non-mast cell myeloid neoplasm (e.g., myelodysplastic syndrome,  myeloproliferative neoplasm, and acute myeloid leukemia)." |
| C188043 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the sigmoid colon. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C188049 | "A neoplasm that arises from the central nervous system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C188051 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the pylorus. |
| C188055 | A rare epithelioid sarcoma of the proximal type that arises from the pleura. |
| C188061 | A rare extraskeletal osteosarcoma that arises from the lung parenchyma. |
| C188063 | A rare leiomyosarcoma that arises from the pleural cavity. |
| C188064 | An exceedingly rare malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that arises from the bone. |
| C188065 | A rare leiomyosarcoma that arises from the pancreas. |
| C188067 | A melanoma that arises from the jejunum. |
| C188068 | "A rare carcinoma that arises from the lung and has histopathological, immunohistochemical, and genetic features identical to those described in breast and salivary gland secretory carcinomas." |
| C188070 | A rare alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the prostate gland. |
| C188071 | A rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the retroperitoneum. |
| C188072 | Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that affects the tonsil and the bulk of the tumor is in this anatomic area. |
| C188073 | Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that arises in the retroperitoneum. |
| C188074 | Infiltration of the uterine corpus by malignant (clonal) plasma cells in patients with history of multiple myeloma. |
| C188075 | A rare Burkitt lymphoma arising from the kidney. |
| C188076 | A carcinoma that has spread to the rectum from another anatomic site. |
| C188077 | A carcinoma that has spread to the pancreas from another anatomic site. |
| C188079 | An epithelioid cell melanoma arising from the rectum. |
| C188080 | A rare mantle cell lymphoma that affects the tonsil and the bulk of the tumor is in this anatomic area. |
| C188081 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the nasal cavity. |
| C188082 | A rare anaplastic large cell lymphoma that arises in the lung parenchyma. |
| C188112 | A squamous cell carcinoma that has spread to the breast from another anatomic site. |
| C188113 | A squamous cell carcinoma that has spread to the skin from another anatomic site. |
| C188114 | A B-or T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising in the skin. |
| C188115 | A rare embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma that arises in the middle ear. |
| C188126 | "The reemergence of oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant and 1p/19q-codeleted after a period of remission." |
| C188127 | The reemergence of IDH-mutant astrocytoma after a period of remission. |
| C188128 | Thyroid gland anaplastic carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C188139 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the SCN8A gene, encoding sodium channel protein type 8 subunit alpha." |
| C188141 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the KCNT1 gene, encoding potassium channel subfamily T member 1." |
| C188142 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the CACNA1A gene, encoding voltage-dependent P/Q-type calcium channel subunit alpha-1A." |
| C188143 | "Loeys-Dietz syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the TGFB3 gene, encoding transforming growth factor beta-3 proprotein." |
| C188145 | "An autosomal recessive phenotypically variable condition caused by mutation(s) in the PATL2 gene, encoding protein PAT1 homolog 2. It is characterized by oocyte maturation defects." |
| C188148 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the PITX1 gene, encoding pituitary homeobox 1. It is characterized by clubfoot, and may have associated long bone deformity and/or polydactyly." |
| C188150 | "Down syndrome caused by translocation of the long arm of chromosome 21, resulting in trisomy 21." |
| C188151 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the CACNA1D gene, encoding voltage-dependent L-type calcium channel subunit alpha-1D. It is characterized by primary hyperaldosteronism, seizures, and neurologic defects." |
| C188179 | Neoplastic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that is resistant to treatment. |
| C188180 | The reemergence of neoplastic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder after a period of remission. |
| C188181 | A carcinoma that arises from the adrenal cortex and is composed of oncocytic cells that constitute more than 90% of malignant cells. |
| C188182 | A carcinoma that arises from the adrenal cortex and is characterized by the presence of abundant extracellular connective tissue mucin. |
| C188183 | A carcinoma that arises from the adrenal cortex and is characterized by the presence of more than twenty mitoses per ten square millimeters. |
| C188184 | A term that refers to the presence of benign adrenal cortical tissue outside the adrenal glands. |
| C188185 | A rare melanoma that arises within the adrenal cortex. |
| C188198 | Alveolar soft part sarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C188205 | Soft tissue leiomyosarcoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C188207 | Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C188208 | Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C188209 | Uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C188213 | "A benign, usually encapsulated slow growing tumor composed of Schwann cells affecting the seventh cranial nerve." |
| C188214 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the GRN gene, encoding progranulin. The condition is one of a group of genetically heterogeneous neurodegenerative disorders, characterized by accumulation of intracellular lipopigments." |
| C188215 | "An X-linked condition caused by mutation(s) in the NAA10 gene, encoding N-alpha-acetyltransferase 10. It is characterized by characterized by postnatal growth failure, severely delayed psychomotor development, variable dysmorphic facial features, and hypotonia." |
| C188216 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the MAP3K7 gene, encoding mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase 7. It is characterized by growth retardation, short stature, failure to thrive, cardiac anomalies, and dysmorphic facial features." |
| C188217 | A rare mixed neuroendocrine non-neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the pancreas and is composed of ductal adenocarcinoma and a neuroendocrine neoplastic component. The latter is usually a poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinoma and rarely a well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor. |
| C188218 | "A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm of low, intermediate, or high grade." |
| C188221 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the cervix. It may be classified as G1 (low grade) or G2 (intermediate grade) neuroendocrine tumor. |
| C188222 | "A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the head and neck. This category includes neuroendocrine tumors, neuroendocrine carcinomas, and paragangliomas." |
| C188223 | "A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the larynx. There is no evidence of necrosis, the mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2, and the Ki-67 index is less than 20%." |
| C188224 | "A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the head and neck. There is no evidence of necrosis, the mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2, and the Ki-67 index is less than 20%." |
| C188228 | The reemergence of a digestive system neuroendocrine neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C188229 | "A usually indolent neuroendocrine neoplasm that almost exclusively arises in the second part of the duodenum. Rare sites of involvement include jejunum, pylorus, appendix, thymus, and lung. It is a triphasic tumor consisting of a mixture of epithelioid neuroendocrine cells, Schwann-like cells, and ganglion cells." |
| C188230 | Microsatellite stable endometrial carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C188250 | A rare lipoma that arises from the adrenal gland. |
| C188251 | A rare hemangioma that arises from the adrenal gland. |
| C188252 | A rare lymphangioma that arises from the adrenal gland. |
| C188253 | A rare leiomyoma that arises from the adrenal gland. |
| C188254 | A rare leiomyosarcoma that arises from the adrenal gland. |
| C188257 | "An inherited neoplastic syndrome caused by mutations in the MYC-associated factor X (MAX) gene. It is associated with the development of paragangliomas/pheochromocytomas, pituitary neuroendocrine tumors, and parathyroid adenomas. Renal cell carcinomas, squamous cell carcinomas, breast carcinomas, lung carcinomas, and endometrial carcinomas have also been reported." |
| C188259 | An autosomal dominant neoplastic syndrome caused by MAFA (MAF bZIP Transcription Factor A) gene mutations. It is characterized by the development of multiple insulin secreting pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors. |
| C188270 | Orientation of the uterus in an unusual anatomic location or position. |
| C188271 | An infection caused by any papovavirus. |
| C188274 | An inflammatory disease of the stomach and intestines due to a non-infectious cause. |
| C188277 | A group of disorders characterized by the sensation of constant motion or spinning despite not moving. |
| C188280 | An infection caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that is asymptomatic at the time of testing. |
| C188304 | "A rare form of chronic graft-versus-host disease characterized by cutaneous features and/or mucocutaneous features including sclerosis, atrophy, and contractures. It may manifest as localized or generalized disease." |
| C188305 | Sclerodermatous Graft Versus Host Disease that is resistant to treatment. |
| C188314 | Primary myelofibrosis characterized by the presence of less than 10% blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow. |
| C188315 | "Rapid progression of a myeloproliferative neoplasm, characterized by the presence of myeloblasts accounting for 10-19% of the peripheral blood white cells or the nucleated cells in the bone marrow." |
| C188316 | "Transformation of a myeloproliferative neoplasm into acute myeloid leukemia, typically via accelerated phase myeloproliferative neoplasm. Myeloblasts account for 20% or more of the peripheral blood white cells or the nucleated cells in the bone marrow." |
| C188317 | "Rapid progression of primary myelofibrosis, characterized by the presence of myeloblasts accounting for 10-19% of the peripheral blood white cells or the nucleated cells in the bone marrow." |
| C188318 | "Transformation of primary myelofibrosis into acute myeloid leukemia, typically via accelerated phase primary myelofibrosis. Myeloblasts account for 20% or more of the peripheral blood white cells or the nucleated cells in the bone marrow." |
| C188353 | Osteomyelitis resulting from an infection with Staphylococcus. |
| C188366 | Breast adenocarcinoma that is positive for estrogen receptors. |
| C188391 | The reemergence of platinum-sensitive ovarian carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C188393 | Chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis without portal hypertension. |
| C188394 | Cirrhosis with portal hypertension but without any history of variceal bleeding. |
| C188395 | "Cirrhosis and portal hypertension with variceal bleeding, ascites, chronic jaundice, or status post liver transplantation." |
| C188397 | "A group of rare but severe toxicities resembling hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) that present in a subset of patients with cytokine release syndrome (CRS) following chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy. Characteristic findings may include hyperferritinemia, hypertriglyceridemia, hypofibrinogenemia, coagulopathy, hepatic transaminitis, hyperbilirubinemia, neutropenia, elevated lactate dehydrogenase, and occasionally hemophagocytosis." |
| C188449 | Myelodysplastic syndrome with excess blasts that occurs during childhood. |
| C188450 | An acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22; q22.1); RUNX1-RUNX1T1 occurring in children. |
| C188451 | An acute myeloid leukemia with t(9;11)(p21.3;q23.3); MLLT3-KMT2A occurring in children. |
| C188453 | B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188455 | Primary mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188456 | "An EBV-positive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified, that occurs during childhood. It was originally described in patients older than 50 years, but it has been increasingly recognized in younger patients." |
| C188457 | "An EBV-positive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified, that occurs in adults. It was originally described in patients older than 50 years, but it has been increasingly recognized in younger patients." |
| C188458 | A large B-cell lymphoma with IRF4 rearrangement that occurs during childhood. |
| C188459 | "Peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified, that occurs during childhood." |
| C188460 | "An anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK-positive that occurs during childhood." |
| C188469 | An astrocytoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C188470 | An oligodendroglioma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C188691 | "The reemergence of anaplastic astrocytoma, IDH-wildtype after a period of remission." |
| C188753 | "A header term that refers to the classification of lung small cell carcinoma based on the expression pattern of different neuroendocrine markers such as chromogranin A, synaptophysin, neural cell adhesion molecule 1, and gastrin-releasing peptide." |
| C188754 | "Lung small cell carcinoma characterized by high expression pattern of different neuroendocrine markers such as chromogranin A, synaptophysin, neural cell adhesion molecule 1, and gastrin-releasing peptide. It is associated with low numbers of infiltrating immune cells (immune desert phenotype)." |
| C188755 | "Lung small cell carcinoma characterized by low expression pattern of different neuroendocrine markers such as chromogranin A, synaptophysin, neural cell adhesion molecule 1, and gastrin-releasing peptide. It is associated with increased numbers of infiltrating immune cells (immune oasis phenotype)." |
| C188756 | "A header term that refers to the molecular classification of lung small cell carcinomas based on the relative expression of four transcription factors: achaete-scute homolog 1 (ASCL1), neurogenic differentiation factor 1 (NEUROD1), yes-associated protein 1 (YAP1), and POU class 2 homeobox 3 (POU2F3)." |
| C188761 | A molecular subtype of lung small cell carcinoma characterized by the overexpression of achaete-scute homolog 1 (ASCL1) transcription factor. It is associated with high expression of neuroendocrine markers and classic morphology. |
| C188762 | A molecular subtype of lung small cell carcinoma characterized by the overexpression of neurogenic differentiation factor 1 (NEUROD1). It is associated with low expression of neuroendocrine markers and variant morphology. |
| C188763 | A molecular subtype of lung small cell carcinoma characterized by the overexpression of POU class 2 homeobox 3 (POU2F3) transcription factor. |
| C188765 | "A molecular subtype of lung small cell carcinoma characterized by the low expression of achaete-scute homolog 1 (ASCL1), neurogenic differentiation factor 1 (NEUROD1), and POU class 2 homeobox 3 (POU2F3) transcription factor signatures and elevated inflammatory gene signature expression." |
| C188766 | A molecular subtype of lung small cell carcinoma characterized by the overexpression of yes-associated protein 1 (YAP1) transcription factor. |
| C188788 | "The reemergence of high-grade B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified, after a period of remission." |
| C188789 | "High-grade B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified, that is resistant to treatment." |
| C188790 | The reemergence of ALK-positive large B-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C188791 | ALK-positive large B-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C188881 | The reemergence of extrarenal rhabdoid tumor after a period of remission. |
| C188884 | Extrarenal rhabdoid tumor that is  resistant to treatment. |
| C188886 | Extrarenal rhabdoid tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C188887 | Fibrolamellar carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C188888 | Rhabdoid tumor of the kidney that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C188920 | "A rare diffuse astrocytoma, MYBL1-altered that occurs during childhood." |
| C188921 | "A rare diffuse astrocytoma, MYB-altered that occurs during childhood." |
| C188922 | "A diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered that occurs during childhood." |
| C188923 | "A rare diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered that occurs during adulthood." |
| C188924 | A diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188925 | A diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C188926 | "A diffuse hemispheric glioma, H3 G34-mutant that occurs during childhood." |
| C188927 | "A diffuse hemispheric glioma, H3 G34-mutant that occurs in young adults." |
| C188929 | "An astroblastoma, MN1-altered that occurs during childhood." |
| C188930 | "An astroblastoma, MN1-altered that occurs during adulthood." |
| C188931 | A dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C188932 | A dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor that occurs during adulthood. |
| C188933 | A multinodular and vacuolated neuronal tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C188934 | A multinodular and vacuolated neuronal tumor that occurs in adults. |
| C188935 | A supratentorial ependymoma ZFTA fusion-positive that occurs during childhood. |
| C188936 | "Immune effector cell-associated neurotoxicity syndrome (ICANS) characterized by an immune-effector cell-associated encephalopathy (ICE) tool score of 7, 8, or 9 (for adults and children over 12), or a Cornell Assessment of Pediatric Delirium (CAPD) score of less than 9 (for children 12 and under), and the ability of the affected individual to awaken spontaneously." |
| C188937 | "Immune effector cell-associated neurotoxicity syndrome (ICANS) characterized by an immune-effector cell-associated encephalopathy (ICE) tool score of 3, 4, 5, or 6 (for adults and children over 12), or a Cornell Assessment of Pediatric Delirium (CAPD) score of less than 9 (for children 12 and under), and the ability of the affected individual to awaken to voice commands." |
| C188938 | A supratentorial ependymoma ZFTA fusion-positive that occurs in adults. |
| C188939 | "Immune effector cell-associated neurotoxicity syndrome (ICANS) characterized by an immune-effector cell-associated encephalopathy (ICE) tool score of 0, 1, or 2 (for adults and children over 12), or a Cornell Assessment of Pediatric Delirium (CAPD) score of greater than or equal to 9 (for children 12 and under), the ability of the affected individual to awaken only to tactile stimulus, clinical focal or generalized seizures that resolve rapidly, or non-convulsive seizures detected by electr... |
| C188940 | "Immune effector cell-associated neurotoxicity syndrome (ICANS) characterized by an immune-effector cell-associated encephalopathy (ICE) tool score of 0 or if the ICE scale cannot be performed (for adults and children over 12), or if the Cornell Assessment of Pediatric Delirium (CAPD) scale cannot be performed (for children 12 and under), the inability of the affected individual to be arousable without vigorous or repetitive tactile stimuli, life-threatening prolonged (greater than 5 minutes... |
| C188943 | A posterior fossa ependymoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188945 | A posterior fossa ependymoma that occurs in adults. |
| C188946 | A ganglioneuroma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188947 | A ganglioneuroma that occurs in adults. |
| C188948 | An adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188949 | An adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma that occurs in adults. |
| C188950 | A neoplasm that affects the nervous system during childhood. |
| C188951 | A neoplasm that affects the peripheral nervous system during childhood. |
| C188956 | A rare ganglioneuroma that arises from the choroid. |
| C188963 | A soft tissue or bone neoplasm that occurs during childhood. |
| C188964 | An NTRK-rearranged spindle cell neoplasm that occurs during childhood. |
| C188965 | An EWSR1-SMAD3 rearranged fibroblastic tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C188970 | A low-grade fibromyxoid sarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188971 | A sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188972 | An inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C188973 | A low-grade myofibroblastic sarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188974 | A fibrous histiocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188975 | A plexiform fibrohistiocytic tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C188976 | A tenosynovial giant cell tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C188977 | A kaposiform hemangioendothelioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188978 | A papillary intralymphatic angioendothelioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188979 | A pseudomyogenic hemangioendothelioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188980 | Kaposi sarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188981 | A sarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188982 | An EBV-associated smooth muscle tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C188983 | A rhabdomyoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188984 | An ectomesenchymoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188989 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the FA2H gene, encoding fatty acid 2-hydroxylase." |
| C188990 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the ACTC1 gene, encoding actin, alpha cardiac muscle 1." |
| C188991 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the DARS2 gene, encoding aspartate--tRNA ligase, mitochondrial. It is characterized by slowly developing progressive cerebellar ataxia, spasticity, dorsal column dysfunction, and may also include a mild cognitive deficit or decline." |
| C188992 | A schwannoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188993 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the DCHS1 gene, encoding protocadherin-16. It is characterized by intellectual disability, typical craniofacial features, auditory malformations resulting in hearing loss, skeletal and limb malformations, and may include renal hypoplasia. Periventricular nodular heterotopia is often noted on MRI." |
| C188994 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the FAT4 gene, encoding protocadherin Fat 4. It is characterized by periventricular nodular heterotopia, renal hypoplasia, hand anomalies, and skeletal dysplasia." |
| C188995 | A neurofibroma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188996 | "An X-linked condition caused by mutations(s) in the BGN gene on chromosome Xq28, encoding biglycan. It is characterized by severe short-trunk dwarfism and brachydactyly, but with normal facies and normal intelligence." |
| C188997 | A perineurioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C188998 | A granular cell tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C188999 | An angiomatoid fibrous histiocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189000 | A PEComa that occurs during childhood. |
| C189001 | A myoepithelial tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C189002 | A Ewing sarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189003 | A round cell sarcoma with EWSR1-non-ETS fusion that occurs during childhood. |
| C189005 | "A group of disorders that affect the neuromuscular system. They may be acquired or inherited and tend to be progressive, resulting in debilitating muscle weakness." |
| C189006 | A CIC-rearranged sarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189007 | A sarcoma with BCOR genetic alterations that occurs during childhood. |
| C189009 | A pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma that has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C189013 | A pneumonia that occurs during or following treatment for an acute (primary) pneumonia that was caused by a different organism. It may be the result of increased susceptibility due to the initial treatment. |
| C189014 | "An inflammatory process affecting the liver, bile ducts and gallbladder." |
| C189015 | A bone neoplasm that occurs during childhood. |
| C189017 | A sarcoma that arises from the bone and occurs during childhood. |
| C189019 | Subungual exostosis that occurs during childhood. |
| C189020 | An osteoblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189021 | An osteoid osteoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189022 | An osteosarcoma that arises from the bone and occurs during childhood. |
| C189023 | A chondroblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189024 | An osteochondroma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189025 | A chondromyxoid fibroma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189026 | A rare primary central chondrosarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189027 | A rare chondrosarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189028 | A bone hemangioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189029 | An aneurysmal bone cyst that occurs during childhood. |
| C189030 | A giant cell tumor of bone that occurs during childhood. |
| C189031 | A non-ossifying fibroma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189032 | A rare chordoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189033 | Fibrous dysplasia that occurs during childhood. |
| C189042 | "The reemergence of B acute lymphoblastic leukemia, Philadelphia chromosome negative, after a period of remission." |
| C189043 | "B acute lymphoblastic leukemia, Philadelphia chromosome negative, that does not respond to treatment." |
| C189045 | A teratoma that develops as a primary tumor in an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary. |
| C189046 | An extragonadal teratoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189052 | An exceptionally rare congenital abnormality in which a malformed and parasitic fetus is located within the body of its twin. |
| C189057 | A testicular teratoma associated with germ cell neoplasia in situ and chromosome 12p amplification. |
| C189064 | Adenocarcinoma that arises from the gallbladder and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C189065 | Adenocarcinoma that arises from the ampulla of Vater and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C189225 | An infection caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) where the individual is still ambulatory but may have limitation of their activities. (based on WHO COVID-19 Disease Severity 1 and 2) |
| C189226 | An infection caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) where the individual is hospitalized and may require oxygen therapy. (based on WHO COVID-19 Disease Severity 3 and 4) |
| C189227 | "An infection caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) where the individual is hospitalized, requires respiratory support, and may also require additional organ support including vasopressor therapy, renal replacement therapy, or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. (based on WHO COVID-19 Disease Severity 5, 6 and 7)" |
| C189240 | A soft tissue sarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C189241 | A term that refers to the classification of kidney carcinomas based on their molecular characteristics. |
| C189242 | A TFE3 or TFEB-rearranged renal cell carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189244 | A kidney carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189247 | A high-grade carcinoma that arises from the renal medulla and is characterized by inactivation of the SMARCB1 gene. It affects children and adults and occurs mainly in patients with sickle cell trait. The majority of the cases occur in the right kidney. |
| C189248 | A SMARCB1-deficient kidney medullary carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189249 | An extremely rare renal cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of chromosomal translocations involving the chromosome 2p23 breakpoint that result in gene fusions between the anaplastic lymphoma kinase gene (ALK) and various gene partners. |
| C189250 | An ALK-rearranged renal cell carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189254 | A renal cell carcinoma associated with biallelic somatic mutations in the TSC1 or TSC2 genes and characterized by the presence of neoplastic polygonal cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and cystic changes. |
| C189255 | An eosinophilic solid and cystic renal cell carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189258 | A neoplasm that affects the genitourinary system during childhood. |
| C189260 | An anaplastic sarcoma of the kidney that occurs during childhood. |
| C189261 | An extremely rare Ewing sarcoma that arises from the kidney during childhood. |
| C189269 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the genitourinary system during childhood. |
| C189273 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the WWOX gene, encoding WW domain-containing oxidoreductase." |
| C189277 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of familial hemiplegic migraine caused by mutation(s) in the CACNA1A gene, encoding voltage-dependent P/Q-type calcium channel subunit alpha-1A." |
| C189278 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia caused by mutation(s) in the TECRL gene, encoding trans-2,3-enoyl-CoA reductase-like." |
| C189281 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CP gene, encoding ceruloplasmin. It is characterized by low concentrations of ceruloplasmin." |
| C189282 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the OSMR gene, encoding oncostatin-M-specific receptor subunit beta. It is characterized by localized cutaneous amyloidosis." |
| C189285 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the TUBB2A gene, encoding tubulin beta-2A chain. It is characterized by cortical dysplasia and is associated with impaired intellectual development, hypotonia, global developmental delay, cortical dysplasia, and dysmorphic corpus callosum." |
| C189286 | A neoplasm that affects the ovary during childhood. |
| C189288 | A fibroma that arises from the ovary during childhood. |
| C189289 | A sclerosing stromal tumor that arises from the ovary during childhood. |
| C189292 | An ovarian Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C189319 | A term that refers to the classification of ovarian Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors based on their molecular characteristics. |
| C189328 | "Ovarian Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor characterized by the presence of DICER1 gene mutation. It is associated with moderately and poorly differentiated histological features, presence of retiform or heterologous elements, and younger age." |
| C189329 | Ovarian Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor characterized by mutation at position 402 of the coding sequence of the FOXL2 gene where cytosine has been replaced by guanine. It is associated with moderately and poorly differentiated histological features and absence of retiform or heterologous elements. It is described in postmenopausal patients. |
| C189331 | "Ovarian Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor characterized by the absence of DICER1 and FOXL2 gene mutations. It is associated with well-differentiated histological features, absence of retiform or heterologous elements, and intermediate age." |
| C189333 | An ovarian gynandroblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189334 | "A rare ovarian small cell carcinoma, hypercalcemic type that occurs during childhood." |
| C189336 | A benign papillary neoplasm that arises from the cervix or vagina. It mostly occurs in prepubertal girls and rarely in adolescents or young adults. It is characterized by the presence of a fibrovascular core covered by cuboidal or columnar epithelial cells. Squamous metaplasia may be present. Cytologic atypia is absent. |
| C189337 | Mullerian papilloma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189338 | A neoplasm that affects the breast and occurs during childhood. |
| C189339 | A fibroadenoma that arises from the breast and occurs during childhood. |
| C189340 | A phyllodes tumor that arises from the breast and occurs during childhood. |
| C189830 | The reemergence of sclerodermatous graft versus host disease after a period of remission. |
| C189841 | "Medulloblastoma, SHH-activated, characterized by SUFU gene mutations and chromosome 2 gain. It affects mostly infants." |
| C189844 | "Medulloblastoma, SHH-activated, characterized by chromosome 9q loss and nodular morphology. It affects mostly infants." |
| C189845 | "Medulloblastoma, SHH-activated, characterized by mutations of TP53 and ELP1 genes. It affects older individuals." |
| C189846 | "Medulloblastoma, SHH-activated, characterized by mutations of U1-snRNA and TERT genes. Mutations of PTCH1 or SMO genes are usually also present. It affects mostly adults." |
| C189850 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the anus and rectum. |
| C189869 | A neoplasm that affects any part of the digestive system and occurs during childhood. |
| C189870 | A malignant neoplasm that affects any part of the digestive system and occurs during childhood. |
| C189921 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the REEP1 gene, encoding receptor expression-enhancing protein 1." |
| C189922 | "An autosomal dominant form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis caused by mutation(s) in the KIF5A gene, encoding kinesin heavy chain isoform 5A." |
| C189923 | "A subtype of hepatoblastoma characterized by the presence of an epithelial component and absence of mesenchymal elements. It includes hepatoblastoma with pure fetal epithelial differentiation, hepatoblastoma with combined fetal and embryonal epithelial differentiation, macrotrabecular hepatoblastoma, and small cell undifferentiated hepatoblastoma (small cell undifferentiated hepatoblastoma with loss of INI1 nuclear staining should be classified as rhabdoid tumor)." |
| C189924 | Epithelial hepatoblastoma characterized by the presence of fetal or embryonal cells showing nuclear pleomorphism. Malignant giant cells may be present. |
| C189926 | "A mixed epithelial and mesenchymal hepatoblastoma characterized by the absence of heterologous elements, muscle, cartilage or osteoid." |
| C189927 | "A term that refers to the staging of hepatoblastoma, following the rules of the PRETEXT (pre-treatment extent of tumor) system." |
| C189929 | A term that refers to the staging of hepatoblastoma according to post-operative findings. |
| C189932 | A fibrolamellar carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C189934 | An embryonal sarcoma of the liver that occurs during childhood. |
| C189935 | An embryonal sarcoma of the liver that occurs during adulthood. |
| C189977 | A platinum-resistant ovarian carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C189978 | A platinum-resistant ovarian carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C190009 | Uterine corpus sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C190016 | Uterine corpus sarcoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190019 | A hemangioma that arises from the liver and is present at birth. The majority involute in infancy. |
| C190020 | An angiosarcoma that arises from the liver during childhood. Most cases arise within preexisting liver infantile hemangiomas. |
| C190023 | A pancreatoblastoma that occurs during childhood. It is the most common malignant pancreatic  neoplasm in children younger than ten years of age. |
| C190024 | An acinar cell carcinoma that arises from the pancreas during childhood. |
| C190026 | An acinar cell cystadenocarcinoma that arises from the pancreas during childhood. |
| C190027 | A solid pseudopapillary neoplasm of the pancreas occurring during childhood. It is the most frequent pediatric pancreatic tumor. It usually affects adolescent females. |
| C190028 | A gastroblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190029 | A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the appendix during childhood. It is usually located in the tip of the appendix. The vast majority of cases are grade 1 neuroendocrine tumors. |
| C190056 | A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from the epithelial cells of an endocrine organ during childhood. |
| C190060 | A follicular adenoma of the thyroid gland that occurs during childhood. |
| C190064 | A spindle epithelial tumor with thymus-like elements that arises from the thyroid gland and occurs during childhood. |
| C190066 | An adenoma of the parathyroid gland that occurs during childhood. |
| C190068 | An adenoma of the adrenal cortex that occurs during childhood. |
| C190069 | A carcinoma that arises from the adrenal cortex and occurs during childhood. |
| C190070 | A malignant neoplasm arising from the epithelial cells of an endocrine organ during childhood. |
| C190071 | A sympathetic paraganglioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190072 | A parasympathetic paraganglioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190073 | A composite paraganglioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190074 | A paraganglioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190075 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that occurs during childhood. |
| C190076 | A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the digestive system and occurs during childhood. |
| C190077 | A neuroendocrine tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C190078 | A neuroendocrine tumor grade 2 that occurs during childhood. |
| C190090 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that involves the tissues of the thorax during childhood. |
| C190095 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that involves the lungs during childhood. |
| C190098 | A malignant neoplasm that involves the tissues of the thorax during childhood. |
| C190100 | A malignant neoplasm that involves the lungs during childhood. |
| C190104 | A benign tumor that arises from striated cardiac myocytes during childhood. It is the most common heart tumor in the pediatric population. |
| C190105 | "A congenital benign tumor of lung interstitial mesenchymal cells that presents with respiratory symptoms in neonates. Images reveal a well-circumscribed solid or partially cystic lung mass. Microscopical examination reveals widened alveolar septa that contain bland, uniform mesenchymal cells. Some cases show ALK rearrangement and A2M-ALK gene fusion." |
| C190119 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the anatomic structures of the head and neck region and occurs during childhood. |
| C190121 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the anatomic structures of the head and neck region and occurs during childhood. |
| C190123 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm that affects the skin and occurs during childhood." |
| C190125 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the skin and occurs during childhood. |
| C190137 | Ocular melanoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C190138 | Uveal melanoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190149 | A squamous cell carcinoma that is not associated with human papillomavirus infection and has metastasized to the neck lymph nodes from an unknown primary anatomic site. |
| C190150 | A squamous papilloma of the larynx that occurs during childhood. |
| C190152 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from tooth-forming tissues and occurs during childhood. |
| C190154 | An ameloblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190155 | An ameloblastic fibroma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190156 | An adenomatoid odontogenic tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C190157 | An odontogenic myxoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190158 | An ossifying fibroma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190160 | "A rare, benign, non-odontogenic tumor that arises from the sinonasal tract and occurs almost exclusively in children younger than three years old. It is a hypocellular tumor composed of spindle, stellate, or round cells in a myxoid stroma." |
| C190161 | A salivary gland pleomorphic adenoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190194 | "The reemergence of carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C190195 | "The reemergence of lung non-small cell carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C190196 | "The reemergence of breast carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C190197 | "The reemergence of clear cell renal cell carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C190198 | "The reemergence of gastric carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C190199 | "The reemergence of colorectal carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C190200 | "The reemergence of endometrial carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C190201 | "The reemergence of ovarian carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C190215 | A HER2-negative breast carcinoma that has not spread beyond the breast and the axillary lymph nodes. |
| C190239 | Melanoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190240 | Cutaneous melanoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190248 | Erectile dysfunction that does not respond to treatment. |
| C190272 | A mucoepidermoid carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190273 | A mucoepidermoid carcinoma of the salivary gland that occurs during childhood. |
| C190274 | An acinic cell carcinoma of the salivary gland that occurs during childhood. |
| C190275 | A rare carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190276 | A nasopharyngeal carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190277 | A NUT carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190278 | A NUT carcinoma that arises from the head and neck and occurs during childhood. |
| C190279 | A pilomatricoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C190280 | A rare melanoma of the skin that occurs during childhood. |
| C190281 | A pigmented spindle cell nevus of the skin that occurs during childhood. |
| C190282 | A Spitz nevus of the skin that occurs during childhood. |
| C190283 | A blue nevus that occurs during childhood. |
| C190284 | "A circumscribed proliferation of melanocytes in the skin that occurs during childhood. It is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190285 | A cutaneous junctional nevus that occurs during childhood. |
| C190286 | A compound nevus of the skin that occurs during childhood. |
| C190287 | A dermal nevus that occurs during childhood. |
| C190373 | "A hereditary cancer syndrome characterized by the development of multiple paragangliomas including pheochromocytomas. It is caused by mutations in SDHA, SDHB, SDHC, SDHD, and SDHAF2 genes." |
| C190397 | T/NK-cell lymphoproliferative disorder that is resistant to treatment. |
| C190398 | The reemergence of T/NK-cell lymphoproliferative disorder after a period of remission. |
| C190400 | The reemergence of T-cell and NK-cell neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C190401 | T-cell and NK-cell neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C190402 | T/NK-cell lymphoproliferative disorder that is associated with Epstein-Barr virus. |
| C190413 | Colorectal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C190415 | Colon adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C190505 | A papillary renal cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190508 | "A renal cell carcinoma, not otherwise specified, that is not amenable to surgical resection." |
| C190573 | "A neoplasm that occurs during childhood and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190574 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the breast and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190575 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the breast and occurs during childhood. |
| C190576 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from connective and soft tissue and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190577 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from bone and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190578 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the bone or articular cartilage and occurs during childhood. |
| C190580 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the digestive system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190581 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the liver and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190592 | "A neoplasm that arises from the liver and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190593 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the liver. |
| C190600 | "A childhood epithelial neoplasm that arises from an endocrine organ and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190602 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from any part of the genitourinary system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190608 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the kidney and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190613 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the head and neck and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190618 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the skin and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190620 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the tissues of thorax and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190621 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the lung and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190622 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the nervous system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190623 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C190631 | Oropharyngeal undifferentiated carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C190632 | Oropharyngeal undifferentiated carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190633 | An ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C190658 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C190659 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the ovary and occurs during childhood. |
| C190676 | Hormone receptor-negative breast carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190677 | Hormone receptor-negative breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C190678 | Hormone receptor-negative breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C190679 | The reemergence of microsatellite stable colorectal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C190680 | "A group of aggressive endometrial carcinomas with high-grade histological features. It includes high grade endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma, endometrial clear cell adenocarcinoma, endometrial serous adenocarcinoma, and endometrial undifferentiated carcinoma." |
| C190685 | A malignant solid neoplasm that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C190711 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G2 that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C190712 | Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor G1 that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C190713 | Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor G1 that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C190714 | Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor G2 that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C190715 | Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor G2 that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C190746 | Melanoma that affects both the iris and ciliary body. |
| C190769 | Oropharyngeal undifferentiated carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190770 | Pancreatic adenosquamous carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C190771 | Pancreatic squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C190772 | A non-muscle invasive bladder carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C190773 | A non-muscle invasive bladder carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C190774 | The reemergence of non-muscle invasive bladder carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C190775 | The reemergence of MGMT-methylated glioblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C190776 | The reemergence of basal cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C190782 | Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190783 | Genitourinary system carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190786 | "The reemergence of accelerated phase chronic myeloid leukemia, BCR-ABL1 positive after a period of remission." |
| C190787 | "Accelerated phase chronic myeloid leukemia, BCR-ABL1 positive that is resistant to treatment." |
| C190847 | "A B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs in patients with Down syndrome. It usually affects young children, but it can occur in adults as well. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome. Cases of T-acute lymphoblastic leukemia in patients with Down syndrome have not been reported." |
| C190851 | Breast carcinoma that is positive for androgen receptors. |
| C190852 | Androgen receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C190856 | Estrogen receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C190868 | "An autosomal recessive form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the CAD gene, encoding CAD protein." |
| C190869 | "An autosomal recessive form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the NAPB gene, encoding beta-soluble NSF attachment protein." |
| C190870 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the CYP2U1 gene, encoding cytochrome P450 2U1." |
| C190871 | "An autosomal recessive form of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease caused by mutations in the SBF1 gene, encoding myotubularin-related protein 5." |
| C190872 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the EXOSC3 gene, encoding exosome complex component RRP40. It is characterized by severe intellectual disability, skeletal muscle weakness, and seizures." |
| C190873 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the GIPC1 gene, encoding PDZ domain-containing protein GIPC1. It is characterized by distal muscle weakness and ophthalmoplegia, with a slowly progressive course." |
| C190952 | Lung carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190953 | Lung squamous cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190954 | Lung adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C190956 | "B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma characterized by a gene-expression profile similar to that of ETV6-RUNX1-positive B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma, absence of the pathognomonic ETV6-RUNX1 rearrangement, and rearrangements or deletions of ETV6 and IKZF1 genes." |
| C190957 | "B acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by a gene-expression profile similar to that of ETV6-RUNX1-positive B acute lymphoblastic leukemia, absence of the pathognomonic ETV6-RUNX1 rearrangement, and rearrangements or deletions of ETV6 and IKZF1 genes." |
| C191197 | "The reemergence of astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, grade 3 after a period of remission." |
| C191198 | The reemergence of brain glioblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C191370 | A renal cell carcinoma that cannot be classified into one of the established subtypes of renal cell carcinoma. |
| C191375 | A renal cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of mutations in the ELOC (TCEB1)  gene at 8q21.11. |
| C191391 | "A benign mesenchymal tumor that arises from the kidney and is composed of mature adipose tissue, thick-walled blood vessels, and epithelioid and spindle smooth muscle cells." |
| C191392 | A rare angiomyolipoma of the kidney characterized by the presence of polygonal cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C191393 | A rare angiomyolipoma of the kidney characterized by the presence of solid and cystic architectural patterns. The cysts are lined by hobnail epithelial cells. |
| C191394 | A rare hemangioblastoma that arises from the kidney. |
| C191395 | The reemergence of platinum-sensitive fallopian tube carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C191407 | The reemergence of platinum-sensitive primary peritoneal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C191408 | Malignant nongerminomatous germ cell tumor that is resistant to treatment. |
| C191418 | Acute myocardial injury diagnosed by rise and fall in cardiac troponin above the 99th percentile of a reference population. |
| C191430 | A finding indicating that there is prior evidence of COVID-19 in an individual who is no longer in the infectious period. |
| C191431 | Cardiovascular sequelae persisting weeks or months after SARS-CoV-2 infection. |
| C191432 | Transformation of plasma cell myeloma to plasma cell leukemia. |
| C191433 | The sudden or severe onset of neurological deficit(s) attributable to an acute focal vascular injury of the central nervous system. |
| C191443 | Acute pericarditis in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. |
| C191452 | Bradycardia (ventricular rate less than 60 bpm) showing signs of hypoperfusion and that requires temporary or permanent pacemaker intervention in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. |
| C191453 | Atrial fibrillation in a patient without prior history of atrial tachyarrhythmias that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19. |
| C191454 | "Newly occurring atrial fibrillation (AF) in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. It is further categorized as first detected AF, paroxysmal AF (self-terminating within seven days of recognized onset), or persistent AF (not self-terminating within seven days)." |
| C191455 | Atrial flutter in a patient without prior history of atrial tachyarrhythmias that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19. |
| C191456 | Newly occurring atrial flutter in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. |
| C191478 | Reduced left ventricular function with less than 50% ejection fraction in a patient with history of suspected or confirmed myocardial ischemia or acute coronary syndrome (ACS) that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19. |
| C191479 | Reduced left ventricular function with less than 50% ejection fraction but without evidence of myocardial ischemia that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19. |
| C191485 | The formation of a blood clot in a cerebral vein that is related to contracting COVID-19. |
| C191509 | Coronary artery ectasia in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. |
| C191512 | "A new, discrete episode of acute COVID-19 in an individual with a prior history of probable/confirmed COVID-19." |
| C191513 | "An acute COVID-19 infection that is verified by detection of SARS-CoV-2 RNA in a clinical or autopsy specimen using a molecular amplification test (e.g., RT-PCR)." |
| C191515 | "A likely acute COVID-19 infection as evidenced by detection of specific antibody in serum, plasma, or whole blood, or detection of specific antigen by immunocytochemistry in an autopsy specimen." |
| C191540 | "Formation of multiple thrombi in the large veins of the body, diagnosed with Doppler ultrasound, occurring most frequently in lower extremities or upper extremities, that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19." |
| C191541 | Deep vein thrombosis in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. |
| C191555 | "New onset of heart failure with a clinical syndrome of dyspnea, fatigue, fluid retention/peripheral edema that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19." |
| C191556 | New or worsening signs of heart failure in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. This can be the first presentation or it can reflect an acute decompensation in a patient with history of chronic heart failure. |
| C191565 | "Inappropriate sinus tachycardia at rest with heart rate  greater than 100 bpm that cannot be explained by any identifiable cause, including anemia, hypoxia, hypotension, or fever that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19." |
| C191581 | A disorder of the nervous system related to a vascular etiology that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19. |
| C191593 | Pericardial effusion that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19. |
| C191595 | Pericarditis that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19. |
| C191600 | Polyneuropathy and myopathy arising in intensive care unit patients. |
| C191601 | Polyneuropathy arising in intensive care unit patients.  It is a common complication of severe sepsis and is thought to represent a neurologic manifestation of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). |
| C191603 | Postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (POTS) that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted at least three months after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19. |
| C191607 | A finding indicating that there is prior evidence of COVID-19 in an individual who has residual sequelae of post-acute COVID-19. |
| C191608 | A finding indicating that there is prior evidence of COVID-19 in an individual who has no residual sequelae of post-acute COVID-19. |
| C191609 | "A presumed acute COVID-19 infection as evidenced by detection of SARS-CoV-2 by antigen test in a respiratory specimen, by meeting clinical criteria and epidemiological linkage criteria for COVID-19 with no confirmatory laboratory testing performed, or by a death certificate that lists COVID-19 disease or SARS-CoV-2 as an underlying cause of death or a significant condition contributing to death with no confirmatory laboratory evidence of SARS-CoV-2." |
| C191610 | Rapid or severe onset or rapid progression of pulmonary edema causing significant hypoxemia or the need for supplemental oxygen. |
| C191611 | "Intravascular migration of a venous embolus to the pulmonary arterial circulation, microvascular thrombosis in the pulmonary capillaries, or pulmonary artery thrombus in situ diagnosed by a positive pulmonary angiogram, an unequivocally positive helical CT scan, a high-probability ventilation-perfusion scan, or autopsy that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19." |
| C191612 | Pulmonary embolism in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. |
| C191617 | Rhabdomyolysis in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. |
| C191625 | Cardiac structural changes or abnormalities characterized by myocardial systolic dysfunction or myocardial edema or fibrosis on non-invasive cardiac imaging that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19. |
| C191630 | Supraventricular tachycardia other than atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter in a patient without prior history of atrial tachyarrhythmias that started during probable or confirmed acute COVID-19 and persisted beyond four weeks after the initial diagnosis of COVID-19. |
| C191631 | "A supraventricular tachycardia, including AV nodal re-entry, orthodromic re-entrant tachycardia, multifocal atrial tachycardia, other atrial tachycardia that lasts more then 30 seconds in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19." |
| C191638 | Thrombophilia in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. |
| C191642 | Blood clot formation in the small blood vessels of the body in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19. |
| C191643 | "Ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation lasting greater than or equal to 30 seconds, or requiring direct current cardioversion (DCCV) in a patient with probable or confirmed acute COVID-19." |
| C191672 | "A papillary neoplasm of the urothelium. The papillary structures exhibit minimal architectural distortion and minimal atypia. Mitoses are infrequent. It usually occurs in the urinary bladder, but it can arise from other sites in the urinary tract. Patients are at an increased risk of developing new papillary lesions. Occasionally, the new lesions are urothelial carcinomas." |
| C191673 | "A non-invasive papillary urothelial carcinoma characterized by minimal cytologic atypia and infrequent mitotic figures (usually limited to the lower half of the tumor). It usually occurs in the urinary bladder, but it can arise from other sites in the urinary tract. This type of carcinoma recurs frequently, may invade the urinary tract wall, and has a low risk of progression." |
| C191675 | "A non-invasive papillary urothelial carcinoma characterized by marked architectural and cytologic abnormalities and frequent mitotic figures (at all levels of the urothelium). It usually occurs in the urinary bladder, but it can arise from other sites in the urinary tract." |
| C191678 | Invasive urothelial carcinoma with lymphoepithelioma-like features. |
| C191679 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of giant cells. |
| C191680 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma that exhibits glandular differentiation. |
| C191681 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma that exhibits squamous differentiation. |
| C191682 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of trophoblastic differentiation. |
| C191683 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of clear (glycogen-rich) cells. |
| C191684 | Invasive urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of lipid laden tumor cells. |
| C191685 | Invasive urothelial carcinoma characterized by microcysts formation. |
| C191686 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma exhibiting micropapillary growth pattern. |
| C191687 | Invasive urothelial carcinoma characterized by a nested growth pattern. |
| C191688 | Invasive urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with plasmacytoid features. |
| C191692 | A clear cell (glycogen-rich) urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C191693 | A giant cell urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C191694 | A lipid-rich urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C191695 | A micropapillary urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C191696 | A nested urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C191697 | A plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C191725 | A rare invasive urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of medium to large nests of malignant cells. |
| C191726 | A rare invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma characterized the presence of medium to large nests of malignant cells. |
| C191728 | Invasive urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of a tubular growth pattern. |
| C191729 | Invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma characterized the presence of a tubular growth pattern. |
| C191730 | Invasive urothelial carcinoma that lacks the morphological features indicating urothelial origin. Immunohistochemical studies are required to demonstrate the urothelial lineage in these tumors. |
| C191731 | Invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma that lacks the morphological features indicating urothelial origin. Immunohistochemical studies are required to demonstrate the urothelial lineage in these tumors. |
| C191734 | "Invasive urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells forming trabeculae, cords, sheets, and nests. Individual malignant cells are also present." |
| C191735 | "Invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells forming trabeculae, cords, sheets, and nests. Individual malignant cells are also present." |
| C191736 | A sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C191740 | A rare papillary neoplastic growth that arises from the urothelial mucosa. It is characterized by the presence of fibrovascular cores lined by benign keratinizing squamous epithelium. There is no evidence of architectural or cytologic atypia. It usually occurs in elderly people and is found in the bladder and urethra. |
| C191749 | "A rare squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the urinary tract. Almost all cases have been reported in the bladder. Causes include urinary stasis, recurrent chronic inflammation, and smoking. In regions where schistosomiasis is endemic, it is the major etiologic factor of bladder squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C191750 | "An exophytic glandular neoplasm of the urinary tract, morphologically similar to its intestinal counterpart. It usually arises from the bladder and urachus. It often coexists with in situ or infiltrating bladder adenocarcinoma." |
| C191751 | A rare carcinoma with pure glandular differentiation arising anywhere in the urinary tract. This group does not include clear cell and endometrioid adenocarcinomas. |
| C191753 | A carcinoma that arises from a diverticulum in the urinary tract. Most histological subtypes of urinary tract carcinomas have been reported in urinary tract diverticula. |
| C191765 | "An autosomal dominant type of spinal muscular atrophy caused by mutation(s) in the DYNC1H1 gene, encoding cytoplasmic dynein 1 heavy chain 1." |
| C191766 | "An autosomal dominant type of spinal muscular atrophy caused by mutation(s) in the BICD2 gene, encoding protein bicaudal D homolog 2." |
| C191768 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the urinary tract and is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with clear and eosinophilic cytoplasm arranged in tubulo-cystic, papillary, or solid growth patterns. It usually arises from the urethra but can also occur in the bladder. It predominantly affects females and usually has an aggressive clinical course." |
| C191769 | An exceptionally rare endometrioid adenocarcinoma that arises from the urinary tract. It occurs in middle-aged and elderly females. It is associated with genitourinary endometriosis and has been described in the bladder and ureter. |
| C191771 | "Myoclonic-atonic epilepsy caused by mutation(s) in the SLC6A1 gene, encoding sodium- and chloride-dependent GABA transporter 1." |
| C191818 | The reemergence of primary cutaneous gamma-delta T-cell lymphoma after a period of remission |
| C191820 | Primary cutaneous gamma-delta T-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C191823 | The reemergence of primary cutaneous CD8-positive aggressive epidermotropic cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C191824 | Primary cutaneous CD8-positive aggressive epidermotropic cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C191852 | Extrapulmonary small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C191853 | Small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C191854 | Extrapulmonary small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C191855 | Extrapulmonary small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C191856 | Prostate small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C191857 | Bladder small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C191859 | The reemergence of prostate small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C191860 | The reemergence of bladder small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C191861 | Bladder small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C191862 | Prostate small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C191863 | Adrenal cortical carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C191961 | A rare subtype of prostate acinar adenocarcinoma that morphologically resembles high-grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia. It is characterized by the presence of large malignant glands lined with pseudostratified epithelium. It is graded as Gleason score 3+3=6. |
| C191963 | A prostate carcinoma with partial or complete neuroendocrine differentiation that results from the transformation of castration-resistant prostate adenocarcinoma following potent androgen-deprivation therapy. The prognosis is poor. |
| C191977 | A small or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from an anatomic site other than the lung. |
| C191978 | The reemergence of extrapulmonary neuroendocrine carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C191979 | Extrapulmonary neuroendocrine carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C191980 | Extrapulmonary neuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C191981 | Extrapulmonary neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C191982 | Extrapulmonary neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C191983 | Extrapulmonary neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C191984 | A large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from an anatomic site other than the lung. |
| C191985 | The reemergence of extrapulmonary large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C191986 | Extrapulmonary large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C191987 | Extrapulmonary large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C191988 | Extrapulmonary large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C191990 | Extrapulmonary large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C191991 | Extrapulmonary large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C191992 | Extrapulmonary small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C191993 | Extrapulmonary small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C191997 | Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C192014 | Small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C192018 | Lung neuroendocrine carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C192023 | The reemergence of large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C192058 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the KIF5A gene, encoding kinesin heavy chain isoform 5A." |
| C192082 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of dilated cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the BAG3 gene, encoding BAG family molecular chaperone regulator 3." |
| C192087 | "An autosomal dominant form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the KCNQ2 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily KQT member 2." |
| C192088 | "An autosomal dominant form of bicuspid aortic valve caused by mutation(s) in the NOTCH1 gene, encoding neurogenic locus notch homolog protein 1." |
| C192089 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the KCNV2 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily V member 2. It is characterized by photophobia, progressive loss of visual acuity and reduced color discrimination." |
| C192090 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis caused, by mutation(s) in the CLN5 gene, encoding ceroid-lipofuscinosis neuronal protein 5." |
| C192092 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations(s) in the AHDC1 gene, encoding transcription factor Gibbin. It has a broad clinical spectrum, which includes impaired intellectual development, obstructive sleep apnea and mild facial dysmorphia." |
| C192096 | Intratubular germ cell neoplasia characterized by the filling of the seminiferous tubules by embryonal carcinoma cells. Central necrosis and calcifications are often present. |
| C192098 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the STAMBP gene, encoding STAM-binding protein. It is characterized by severe microcephaly, diffuse cutaneous capillary malformations, refractory epilepsy, and developmental delay." |
| C192099 | Testicular yolk sac tumor that is associated with germ cell neoplasia in situ and usually occurs as a component of mixed germ cell tumor. Pure postpubertal-type testicular yolk sac tumor is exceedingly rare. |
| C192100 | Testicular yolk sac tumor that almost always occurs in pure form and is not associated with germ cell neoplasia in situ. It affects young children and is the most frequently seen testicular neoplasm in prepubertal children. |
| C192105 | "A rare trophoblastic neoplasm that arises in metastatic sites of testicular mixed germ cell tumors following chemotherapy, or is part of treated or untreated testicular mixed germ cell tumors, or is secondary to either chemotherapy-induced or spontaneous regression of testicular choriocarcinoma. It has also been described in central nervous system post-chemotherapy primary germ cell tumors. It is characterized by the presence of cysts lined by squamoid trophoblastic cells. The cysts are oft... |
| C192106 | "A rare trophoblastic neoplasm that arises in metastatic sites of testicular mixed germ cell tumors following chemotherapy, or is part of treated or untreated testicular mixed germ cell tumors, or is secondary to either chemotherapy-induced or spontaneous regression of testicular choriocarcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of cysts lined by squamoid trophoblastic cells. The cysts are often compressed surrounded by other germ cell components." |
| C192107 | A testicular teratoma that is not associated with germ cell neoplasia in situ or chromosome 12p amplification. |
| C192115 | A very rare testicular germ cell tumor that combines teratoma and yolk sac tumor. It usually affects young children. It is not associated with chromosome 12p amplification or germ cell neoplasia in situ. |
| C192116 | "A rare, benign, well-circumscribed tumor that arises from the testis. It is characterized by the presence of fascicles of spindle cells showing muscle cell differentiation. It lacks sex cord differentiation." |
| C192119 | An exceedingly rare carcinoma with squamous differentiation arising from the epididymis. |
| C192120 | A rare carcinoma that arises from the epididymis. |
| C192121 | "A rare, indolent, usually solitary mesothelial neoplasm that arises from the tunica vaginalis. It is characterized by the presence of a papillary architecture in which the papillae are lined by cuboidal mesothelial cells. Mitotic figures are usually absent. Stromal invasion is absent or minimal. It usually manifests with a hydrocele and less frequently scrotal mass." |
| C192122 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the paratesticular structures." |
| C192123 | A rare serous cystadenoma that arises from the paratesticular structures. |
| C192124 | "A rare, non-invasive, serous cystic tumor that arises from the paratesticular structures. It is characterized by the presence of irregular papillary formations with irregular branching. The papillae are lined by atypical columnar epithelial cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm. Mitoses are rare. Metastases have not been reported." |
| C192125 | A rare serous cystadenocarcinoma that arises from the paratesticular structures. |
| C192126 | A rare mucinous cystadenoma that arises from the paratesticular structures. |
| C192127 | "A rare, non-invasive, mucinous cystic tumor that arises from the paratesticular structures. It is characterized by the presence of irregular papillary formations with irregular branching. The papillae are lined by atypical mucinous epithelial cells. Metastases have not been reported." |
| C192128 | A rare mucinous cystadenocarcinoma that arises from the paratesticular structures. |
| C192129 | A carcinoma that arises from the paratesticular structures. |
| C192130 | A carcinoma that arises from the seminal vesicle. |
| C192131 | Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis that is resistant to treatment. |
| C192139 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the paratesticular structures. |
| C192140 | "A neoplasm that arises from the paratesticular structures and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C192141 | "A group of very rare tumors with endometrioid epithelial differentiation arising from the paratesticular structures. It includes benign tumors, borderline tumors (tumors with atypical epithelial proliferation), and malignant tumors (endometrioid adenocarcinomas)." |
| C192142 | "An exceedingly rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the paratesticular structures. It is characterized by the presence of columnar, hobnail, and polygonal cells with clear cytoplasm." |
| C192144 | "A mesothelial neoplasm that arises from the paratesticular structures. It includes adenomatoid tumor, well differentiated papillary mesothelial tumor, and malignant mesothelioma." |
| C192195 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of long QT syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the AKAP9 gene, encoding A-kinase anchor protein 9." |
| C192201 | "A subtype of generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures plus caused by mutation(s) in the STX1B gene, encoding syntaxin-1B." |
| C192202 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of long QT syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the SNTA1 gene, encoding alpha-1-syntrophin." |
| C192203 | Gastric adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C192204 | Gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C192211 | Estrogen receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C192212 | Estrogen receptor-positive breast carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C192213 | Estrogen receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C192216 | Hepatoblastoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C192221 | "A human papillomavirus-related benign neoplasm affecting the penis. Most often it arises from the glans penis in young men. It usually presents with a nodular wart. Morphologically, it is characterized by an exophytic papillary proliferation of squamous cells and acanthosis. Most cases either resolve spontaneously or do not recur following removal." |
| C192222 | A penile squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the absence of special morphologic features and lack of information on p16 immunohistochemistry and human papilloma virus testing status. |
| C192223 | An extremely rare carcinoma that arises from the penis and is characterized by the presence of mucinous and squamous components. |
| C192630 | The reemergence of muscle invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C192631 | "A bladder urothelial carcinoma that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites, and has not invaded the bladder muscularis propria." |
| C192634 | "A clinical phenotype of severe gut motility disorder, with generally a poor prognosis. The molecular basis of chronic intestinal pseudo-obstruction is genetically heterogeneous." |
| C192635 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations(s) in the CTBP1 gene, encoding C-terminal-binding protein 1. It is characterized by hypotonia, ataxia, developmental delay, and tooth enamel defects." |
| C192636 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutations(s) in the TAF8 gene, encoding transcription initiation factor TFIID subunit 8. It is characterized by severe motor impairment, absent language, cerebral hypomyelination, and brain atrophy." |
| C192662 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the genitourinary system from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C192663 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the male or female reproductive system from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C192664 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the male reproductive system from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C192665 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the female reproductive system from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C192666 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm involving the urinary tract (renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, and urethra)." |
| C192667 | "A neoplasm that arises from the organs that comprise the urinary tract and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C192668 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the urinary tract. |
| C192669 | "A carcinoma that arises from the organs that comprise the urinary tract. This category includes renal pelvis carcinoma, ureter carcinoma, bladder carcinoma, urethral carcinoma, urothelial carcinoma, adenocarcinoma of the urinary tract, clear cell adenocarcinoma of the urinary tract, diverticular carcinoma of the urinary tract, endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the urinary tract, and squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary tract." |
| C192670 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the urinary tract from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C192671 | "A hereditary neoplastic syndrome characterized by germline mutations of homologous recombination (HR) pathway genes. It is associated with an increased risk of developing various malignancies including breast, ovarian, pancreatic, and prostate carcinoma, and melanoma." |
| C192672 | "A malignant solid neoplasm with an annual incidence of less than 6 per 100,000 people." |
| C192675 | A rare malignant solid neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C192677 | A rare malignant solid neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C192732 | A carcinoma that arises from the base of the skull. |
| C192733 | The reemergence of skull base carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C192769 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G3 that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C192773 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G3 that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C192787 | Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor G3 that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C192791 | Panreatic neuroendocrine tumor G3 that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C192794 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G3 that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C192795 | Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor G3 that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C192797 | Lung neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C192798 | Lung neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C192799 | Lung neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C192837 | The reemergence of hormone receptor-negative breast carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C192838 | Hormone receptor-negative breast carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C192839 | Microsatellite stable colorectal carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C193407 | The reemergence of acute myeloid leukemia with KMT2A rearrangement after a period of remission. |
| C193409 | "A condition affecting the bony or membranous labyrinth of the inner ear and which may be characterized by vertigo, dysequilibrium, nystagmus, or hearing loss." |
| C193410 | The reemergence of acute panmyelosis with myelofibrosis after a period of remission. |
| C193412 | Invasion of the body by complex organisms that are typically non-microscopic such as worms and arthropods. |
| C193414 | The reemergence of atypical chronic myeloid leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C193416 | "A neoplasm that arises from a cranial nerve and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C193417 | "A grade I, slowly growing meningioma that arises from the spinal cord meninges." |
| C193418 | The reemergence of extraosseous plasmacytoma after a period of remission. |
| C193420 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that arises from the rectum. |
| C193422 | The reemergence of juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C193424 | The reemergence of lymphoid leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C193425 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the ileum. |
| C193426 | The reemergence of mast cell leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C193429 | The reemergence of acute monocytic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C193431 | The reemergence of myeloid leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C193432 | The reemergence of myeloid sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C193433 | The reemergence of plasma cell leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C193436 | The reemergence of solitary plasmacytoma after a period of remission. |
| C193440 | Condition which affects the structures or function of the pupil of the eye. |
| C193450 | Merkel cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C193453 | Malignant phyllodes tumor that is resistant to treatment. |
| C193455 | Angiosarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C193456 | Solitary fibrous tumor that is resistant to treatment. |
| C193458 | PEComa that is resistant to treatment. |
| C193459 | Pleomorphic liposarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C195501 | Evidence of nutritional marasmus. |
| C195502 | Evidence of marasmic kwashiorkor. |
| C197813 | An aggressive osteosarcoma with high-grade morphological features. This category includes high-grade surface osteosarcoma and conventional osteosarcoma. |
| C197814 | An osteosarcoma with intermediate-grade morphological features. A representative example is periosteal osteosarcoma. |
| C197815 | An osteosarcoma with low-grade morphological features. This category includes parosteal osteosarcoma and low-grade central osteosarcoma. |
| C197816 | A condition attributed to iodine deficiency during gestation. It is characterized by a spectrum of mental and physical disabilities. |
| C197817 | Anemia caused by folate deficiency. |
| C197818 | "A group of progressive, degenerative neurological disorders characterized by motor impairments." |
| C197821 | "Atrophy of the thyroid gland, the cause of which is not present at birth." |
| C197822 | Hemophilia caused by the development of autoantibodies. |
| C197823 | Acute congestive heart failure due to reduced contractility of the left ventricle and which does not fill properly due to decreased compliance. |
| C197824 | Acute congestive heart failure due to a left ventricle which does not fill properly due to decreased compliance though the ejection fraction may be preserved. |
| C197825 | Acute decompensation of chronic combined systolic and diastolic congestive heart failure. |
| C197826 | Acute decompensation of chronic diastolic congestive heart failure. |
| C197827 | Acute decompensation of chronic right heart failure. |
| C197828 | Acute decompensation of chronic systolic congestive heart failure. |
| C197829 | New or worsening signs of right heart failure. |
| C197830 | Acute congestive heart failure due to reduced contractility of the left ventricle. |
| C197831 | Acute inflammation of the thyroid gland. |
| C197832 | Still disease presenting in adulthood. |
| C197834 | A disorder associated with the inhalation of aluminum dust or fumes in lung tissue secondary to chronic exposure. |
| C197840 | "An uncommon stroke syndrome caused by infarction of the cerebral territories supplied by the anterior cerebral artery (ACA)and characterized by hemiparesis, dysarthria, aphasia, and limb apraxia." |
| C197841 | "A syndrome caused by occlusion or injury to the anterior spinal artery. It is typically characterized by an abrupt onset of pain followed by bilateral motor deficits at or below the level of the lesion, and alterations of pain and temperature sensations a few dermatomal segments below the level of the lesion." |
| C197842 | "An arteriovenous fistula, the cause of which is not present at birth." |
| C197844 | A cholesterol plaque embolus that has become lodged in the renal vasculature. |
| C197845 | Atherosclerosis of the aorta. |
| C197846 | Atherosclerosis of the renal artery. |
| C197848 | A disorder associated with chronic exposure to inhaled beryllium dust or fumes. |
| C197849 | "A bipolar disorder in which at least one episode of major depression alternates with at least one episode of hypomania. In contrast to bipolar I disorder, affected individuals do not experience any manic episodes." |
| C197850 | Heart failure due to dysfunction of both the left and right ventricles. |
| C197851 | "A stroke syndrome caused by infarction of the brainstem. Signs and symptoms may include vertigo, ataxia, diplopia, dysarthria and an altered level of consciousness." |
| C197852 | Endocarditis caused by fungal infection with Candida species. |
| C197853 | A disorder associated with chronic exposure to inhaled dust during the processing of hemp. |
| C197854 | "Complications of syphilis seen in the cardiovascular system. These may include aortitis, aortic valve insufficiency with regurgitation, coronary artery stenosis, aortic root aneurysm and mucinous myocarditis." |
| C197855 | A syndrome caused by stenosis or occlusion of a carotid artery due to atherosclerotic plaque. Symptoms are particular to the cerebral hemisphere supplied by the given carotid artery. |
| C197856 | "A rare condition caused by the median arcuate ligament compressing the celiac trunk, which supplies blood to the upper abdominal organs. Presenting signs and symptoms include chronic, recurrent abdominal pain especially postprandially, weight loss, and occasionally an abdominal bruit." |
| C197857 | "A rare neurological disorder characterized initially by selective demyelination and necrosis of the corpus callosum. It is associated with chronic ethanol consumption or malnutrition, and depending on the acuity of presentation, signs and symptoms may include an altered mental state, motor disturbances, seizures, delirium and coma." |
| C197858 | A disorder in which damaged or dying hepatocytes severely impair venous outflow leading to sinusoidal dilatation and hemorrhage. |
| C197859 | "A neurological condition characterized by diffuse sensory changes, most commonly pain, secondary to central nervous system disease or injury." |
| C197860 | "Pulmonary emphysema in which the changes are noted around the central pulmonary artery and bronchiole of a secondary pulmonary lobule, particularly in the upper lobes of the lung. It is the most common type of pulmonary emphysema and it is the most closely associated with cigarette smoking." |
| C197861 | An uncommon stroke syndrome caused by infarction of the cerebellum. Signs and symptoms may include vertigo and incoordination. |
| C197862 | Chronic heart failure due to reduced contractility of the left ventricle and which does not fill properly due to decreased compliance. |
| C197863 | Chronic congestive heart failure due to a left ventricle which does not fill properly due to decreased compliance though the ejection fraction may be preserved. |
| C197864 | Long-standing and persistent renal disease with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) between 45-59 ml/min. |
| C197865 | Long-standing and persistent renal disease with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) between 30-44 ml/min. |
| C197868 | Persistent and long-standing pulmonary embolism. |
| C197869 | Persistent and long-standing right heart failure. |
| C197870 | Chronic congestive heart failure due to reduced contractility of the left ventricle. |
| C197872 | Persistent and long-standing thyroiditis associated with temporary elevations of thyroid hormones. |
| C197873 | Persistent and long-standing hepatitis C infection. Presenting signs and symptoms may be mild but severe findings likely indicate progression to advanced disease including cirrhosis and liver cancer. |
| C197875 | "A rare, rapidly progressive variant of multiple sclerosis. Characteristic findings of alternating bands of demyelinated and myelinated white matter in concentric layers may be seen throughout the central nervous system." |
| C197876 | Congenital iodine deficiency syndrome associated with overlapping features of both the neurological and myxedematous variants. |
| C197877 | "Congenital iodine deficiency syndrome associated with milder mental retardation, short stature, goiter, and hypothyroidism. It results from iodine deficiency and hypothyroidism in the fetus during late pregnancy or in the neonatal period." |
| C197878 | "Congenital iodine deficiency syndrome associated with mental retardation, deaf-mutism, and abnormal gait. It results from severe maternal iodine deficiency and hypothyroidism during pregnancy." |
| C197880 | A defect of the tricuspid valve present at birth. |
| C197881 | Mitral valve insufficiency that is present at birth. |
| C197883 | "A clinically and genetically heterogenous group of rare, predominantly non-progressive neurological disorders present at birth and characterized by hypotonia, developmental delays, and ataxia. Cognitive and motor impairments may improve over time." |
| C197887 | "A type of asthma associated with a persistent, non-productive cough but without wheezing or dyspnea." |
| C197889 | A bipolar disorder in which an individual experiences recurring hypomanic and depressive symptoms whose severity or duration do not meet criteria as hypomanic or depressive episodes. |
| C197890 | Hepatitis secondary to viral infection with cytomegalovirus. |
| C197891 | Anemia caused by folate deficiency due to insufficient dietary intake. |
| C197892 | A disorder of microvessels. |
| C197893 | "A condition in which children or adolescents experience irritability, anger, and intense temper outbursts. The episodes may be frequent and may eventually impact functioning at school, at home or with peers." |
| C197894 | Loss of integrity along the wall of the abdominal aorta. |
| C197895 | A tear within the wall of an iliac artery. |
| C197896 | A tear within the wall of a renal artery. |
| C197897 | A tear within the wall of the thoracic aorta. |
| C197898 | A tear within the wall of the thoracoabdominal aorta. |
| C197899 | A tear within the wall of a vertebral artery. |
| C197900 | Psoriatic arthritis with a particular pattern of involvement that affects the joints closest to the nails in both fingers and toes. |
| C197901 | "The terminal phase of heart failure in patients. The disease course may have progressed despite intervention and may be characterized by dyspnea, fatigue, and weakness." |
| C197902 | Motor neuron disease that is inherited. |
| C197904 | A disorder associated with chronic exposure to inhaled particles of unprocessed flax during processing. |
| C197906 | Abnormal distension of gastric veins. |
| C197907 | An inherited dystonia that is characterized by abnormal postures and sustained muscle contractions leading to twisting or repetitive movements. |
| C197908 | A group of rare autosomal recessively inherited progressive neurological disorders caused by GM2 ganglioside accumulation in lysosomes. Representative examples include Tay-Sachs and Sandhoff disease. |
| C197909 | Arthritis caused by bacterial infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae. |
| C197910 | A disorder associated with chronic exposure to inhaled dust from crystallized carbon. |
| C197911 | "A thickening of the liver parenchyma. Hepatic sclerosis, fibrosis and cirrhosis may exist along a continuum." |
| C197912 | A disorder more commonly seen in patients with chronic liver disease and portal hypertension. Pulmonary manifestations include dyspnea and hypoxemia. |
| C197913 | Hypertensive crisis with acute or ongoing end-organ damage. |
| C197914 | Hypertensive crisis without end-organ damage. |
| C197915 | "A disorder characterized by hydrocephalus in the setting of normal cerebrospinal fluid pressure, gait apraxia, impaired cognition and urinary urgency or incontinence." |
| C197916 | Prolonged ischemia to the liver resulting in necrosis. |
| C197917 | A diffuse goiter caused by inadequate iodine intake. |
| C197918 | A multinodular goiter caused by inadequate iodine intake. |
| C197919 | Ankylosing spondylitis occurring in children or adolescents. |
| C197920 | Polyarteritis occurring in children or adolescents. |
| C197922 | "Malnutrition caused by severe protein deficiency. In contrast to marasmus, the total caloric intake is sufficient as the diet may be supported by other nutrients such as carbohydrates. Signs may include peripheral edema and ascites." |
| C197923 | Endocarditis caused by bacterial infection with Listeria species. |
| C197925 | "A rare neurologic disorder caused by an insult to the brainstem. It is characterized by quadriplegia, bulbar palsy, and sensory loss.  However, level of consciousness, cognition, hearing, eye movements and blinking may be preserved." |
| C197926 | "A hypereosinophilic syndrome characterized by the presence of a clonal T-cell population. Patients present with cutaneous findings including eczematous dermatitis, nodules, papules, and pruritis, rheumatological symptoms, gastrointestinal symptoms, and lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsies show eosinophilia, atypical lymphocytes, clonally rearranged T-cells, and architectural distortion. Skin biopsies may also show the clonally rearranged T-cell population." |
| C197929 | A hypersensitivity pneumonitis associated with the inhalation of organic dust from moldy barley infected with Aspergillus clavatus that is released during harvesting. |
| C197931 | A hypersensitivity pneumonitis associated with the inhalation of fungal spores of Cryptostroma corticale in workers stripping the bark from maple and sycamore logs affected by sooty bark disease. |
| C197932 | Endocarditis caused by bacterial infection with Meningococcus species. |
| C197933 | A group of neurologic disorders caused by alterations to the biochemical functioning of the brain. They are characterized by an altered level of consciousness and depressed cerebral functioning. |
| C197934 | "A common stroke syndrome caused by infarction of the cerebral territories supplied by the middle cerebral artery (MCA). As the areas of the brain perfused by the MCA are extensive, symptoms vary widely but may be characterized by hemiparesis, hemianopia, hemineglect and aphasia." |
| C197936 | A rare syndrome of unknown etiology characterized by progressive fibrosis involving multiple organ sites. |
| C197937 | A hypersensitivity pneumonitis associated with the inhalation of fungal spores that are released during mushroom cultivation. |
| C197938 | "A condition resulting from the destruction of bone marrow precursor cells and their stroma. Bone marrow is displaced by fibrosis, tumors, or granulomas." |
| C197941 | Disorders of blood vessels characterized by luminal narrowing due to intramural immune deposits. |
| C197942 | A diffuse goiter that is not associated with changes in thyroid function or malignancy. |
| C197943 | A multinodular goiter that is not associated with changes in thyroid function or malignancy. |
| C197944 | "Pulmonary emphysema in which the changes are noted throughout a secondary pulmonary lobule, particularly in the lower lobes of the lung." |
| C197945 | "A rare vascular condition in the liver in which the hepatic sinusoids proliferate and become engorged. Though it is often an incidental finding, it may be associated with certain medications, infections, transplants, malignancy, hematologic disorders, and autoimmune conditions." |
| C197946 | Inflammation of the portal vein. |
| C197947 | "A stroke syndrome caused by infarction of the cerebral territories supplied by the posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Signs and symptoms may include visual field deficits, agnosia, aphasia and memory deficits." |
| C197948 | "A syndrome caused by insult to the posterior columns of the spinal cord and resulting in impairments of proprioception, vibration, and fine touch. Typical presenting signs and symptoms may include sensory ataxia, dizziness, unsteady gait, and frequent falls." |
| C197949 | "A more severe form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) with more extreme mood and physical symptoms. As with PMS, symptoms begin prior to an individual's menstrual cycle and typically taper off as menstruation begins." |
| C197950 | Anemia associated with inadequate protein intake. |
| C197951 | Aortic valve insufficiency secondary to rheumatic fever. |
| C197952 | Aortic valve stenosis secondary to rheumatic fever. |
| C197953 | A disorder of the aortic valve secondary to rheumatic fever. |
| C197954 | Heart failure secondary to rheumatic fever. |
| C197955 | Mitral valve insufficiency secondary to rheumatic fever. |
| C197956 | Mitral valve stenosis secondary to rheumatic fever. |
| C197957 | A disorder of the mitral valve secondary to rheumatic fever. |
| C197958 | Tricuspid valve insufficiency secondary to rheumatic fever. |
| C197959 | Tricuspid valve stenosis secondary to rheumatic fever. |
| C197960 | A disorder of the tricuspid valve secondary to rheumatic fever. |
| C197961 | "Heart failure due to dysfunction of the right ventricle, tricuspid valve or right atrium and which is characterized by decreased perfusion of the lungs." |
| C197963 | Schizoaffective disorder with episodes of mania and depression. |
| C197964 | Schizoaffective disorder with episodes of depression only. |
| C197967 | Anemia associated with vitamin C deficiency. |
| C197968 | A disorder associated with chronic exposure to the inhalation of iron compounds. |
| C197969 | A disorder associated with chronic exposure to inhaled tin oxide dust or fumes. |
| C197971 | "A hypersensitivity pneumonitis associated with the inhalation of cork dust. The etiologic agents are fungi, including Penicillium glabrum and Aspergillus fumigatus, that colonize the cork and are released during cork processing." |
| C197972 | "An inherited, progressive neurodegenerative disorder caused by the lack of functional sulfatase leading to the accumulation and deposition of glycosaminoglycans in tissue." |
| C197974 | Aortitis secondary to syphilis. |
| C197975 | Endocarditis secondary to syphilis. |
| C197976 | "A neurological condition caused by scarring and degeneration of the temporal lobe. It is characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms, and focal epilepsy." |
| C197980 | "Hepatitis caused by infection with the protozoan parasite, Toxoplasma gondii." |
| C197981 | Tuberculosis affecting the heart. |
| C197983 | "Temporary occlusion of the vertebral artery caused by rotation of the neck leading to symptoms of dizziness and vertigo, secondary to bone spurs or ligament impingement." |
| C197984 | Endocarditis caused by a viral infection. |
| C197986 | Lung squamous cell carcinoma that has spread to nearly tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C198011 | "PRETEXT I hepatoblastoma confined to the liver including regional lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198012 | "PRETEXT II hepatoblastoma confined to the liver including regional lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198013 | "PRETEXT III hepatoblastoma confined to the liver including regional lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198014 | "PRETEXT IV hepatoblastoma confined to the liver including regional lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198015 | "PRETEXT I hepatoblastoma with distant metastases. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198016 | "PRETEXT II hepatoblastoma with distant metastases. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198017 | "PRETEXT III hepatoblastoma with distant metastases. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198018 | "PRETEXT IV hepatoblastoma with distant metastases. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198027 | "A term that refers to the staging of childhood cancers following the rules of the Toronto guidelines v2, 2019. The guidelines were developed to address the lack of consistent information on childhood cancer staging in population registries and are not intended to replace staging systems in clinical use. They include a two-tiered approach that provides less detailed criteria for registries with limited resources and/or limited data access (Tier 1) and more detailed criteria for better-resour... |
| C198030 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood acute lymphoblastic Leukemia according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198031 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198032 | "No clinical signs of CNS involvement and no blasts in CSF. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198034 | "Clinical signs of CNS involvement or blasts in CSF. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198035 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198036 | "No clinical signs of CNS involvement and no blasts in CSF. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198039 | "No clinical signs of CNS involvement and blasts in CSF and either: WBC < 5/μL CSF or WBC > or = 5/uL CSF and RBC > or = 10/uL CSF and WBC/RBC in CSF < or = 2x WBC/RBC in blood. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198040 | "Clinical signs of CNS involvement or blasts in CSF and WBC > or = 5/uL CSF and either: RBC < 10/uL CSF or RBC > or = 10/uL CSF and WBC/RBC in CSF > 2x WBC/RBC in blood. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198041 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood Hodgkin lymphoma according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. Staging is the same for both tiers (tier 1 and 2). |
| C198042 | "Involvement of a single lymph node region or involvement of a single extra-lymphatic organ or site, without lymph node involvement. This definition applies to both tiers (tier 1 and 2).  (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198043 | "Involvement of a single lymph node region or involvement of a single extra-lymphatic organ or site, without lymph node involvement. No constitutional symptoms are recorded. This definition applies to both tiers (tier 1 and 2). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198044 | "Involvement of a single lymph node region or involvement of a single extra-lymphatic organ or site, without lymph node involvement. The medical record states there are constitutional symptoms. This definition applies to both tiers (tier 1 and 2).  (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198045 | "Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side (either above or below) of the diaphragm or localized involvement of a single extra-lymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement (i.e., local extension from a lymph node area into a nearby organ), with or without involvement of other contiguous lymph node regions on the same side (either above or below) of the diaphragm. This definition applies to both tiers (tier 1 and 2). (Childhood cancer stagin... |
| C198046 | "Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side (either above or below) of the diaphragm or localized involvement of a single extra-lymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement (i.e., local extension from a lymph node area into a nearby organ), with or without involvement of other contiguous lymph node regions on the same side (either above or below) of the diaphragm. No constitutional symptoms are recorded. This definition applies to both tiers... |
| C198047 | "Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side (either above or below) of the diaphragm or localized involvement of a single extra-lymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement (i.e., local extension from a lymph node area into a nearby organ), with or without involvement of other contiguous lymph node regions on the same side (either above or below) of the diaphragm. The medical record states there are constitutional symptoms. This definition a... |
| C198048 | "Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides (above and below) of the diaphragm. This may be accompanied by extra-lymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (i.e., local extension from a lymph node area into a nearby organ) and/or involvement of spleen. This definition applies to both tiers (tier 1 and 2). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and C... |
| C198049 | "Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides (above and below) of the diaphragm. This may be accompanied by extra-lymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (i.e., local extension from a lymph node area into a nearby organ) and/or involvement of spleen. No constitutional symptoms are recorded. This definition applies to both tiers (tier 1 and 2). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - V... |
| C198050 | "Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides (above and below) of the diaphragm. This may be accompanied by extra-lymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (i.e., local extension from a lymph node area into a nearby organ) and/or involvement of spleen. The medical record states there are constitutional symptoms. This definition applies to both tiers (tier 1 and 2). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer ... |
| C198051 | "Diffuse or disseminated (multifocal) involvement of one or more extra-lymphatic organs with or without associated lymph node involvement or isolated (non-contiguous) extra-lymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s) or any involvement of liver, bone marrow, lungs (except by direct extension from another site) or CSF. This definition applies to both tiers (tier 1 and 2). (Childhood cancer staging f... |
| C198052 | "Diffuse or disseminated (multifocal) involvement of one or more extra-lymphatic organs with or without associated lymph node involvement or isolated (non-contiguous) extra-lymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s) or any involvement of liver, bone marrow, lungs (except by direct extension from another site) or CSF. No constitutional symptoms are recorded. This definition applies to both tiers (t... |
| C198053 | "Diffuse or disseminated (multifocal) involvement of one or more extra-lymphatic organs with or without associated lymph node involvement or isolated (non-contiguous) extra-lymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s) or any involvement of liver, bone marrow, lungs (except by direct extension from another site) or CSF. The medical record states there are constitutional symptoms. This definition appl... |
| C198054 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood non-Hodgkin lymphoma according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198055 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood non-Hodgkin lymphoma according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198056 | "No involvement of CNS and no involvement of bone marrow. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198057 | "Involvement of CNS and/or bone marrow. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198058 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood non-Hodgkin lymphoma according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198059 | "Involvement of a single tumor mass or nodal area, excluding the abdomen and mediastinum. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198060 | "A single tumor (extranodal) with regional node involvement or two or more nodal areas on the same side (either above or below) of the diaphragm or two or more single (extranodal) tumors, with or without regional node involvement, on the same side (either above or below) of the diaphragm or a completely resected primary gastrointestinal tract tumor with or without involvement of associated mesenteric nodes only. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Chi... |
| C198061 | "Tumors (extranodal) or nodal areas on both sides (above and below) of the diaphragm or any primary intrathoracic tumors (mediastinal, hilar, pulmonary, pleural, or thymic) or extensive (unresectable) primary intra-abdominal disease or any paraspinal or epidural tumors regardless of other tumor sites. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; ... |
| C198062 | "Initial CNS and/or bone marrow involvement. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198063 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood neuroblastoma according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198064 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood neuroblastoma according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198065 | "Localized tumor not involving vital structures and confined to one body compartment. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198066 | "Locoregional tumor with spread. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198067 | "Distant metastatic disease (except stage MS). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198069 | "Metastatic disease confined to skin, liver, and/or bone marrow in a patient less than 18 months (547 days). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198071 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood neuroblastoma according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198072 | "Localized tumor that does not involve any vital structures as defined by the list of IDRFs (i.e., there are no IDRFs) and the tumor must be confined within one body compartment, neck, chest, abdomen, or pelvis. An intraspinal tumor extension that does not fulfill the criteria for an IDRF is consistent with stage L1. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisb... |
| C198073 | "Locoregional tumor with one or more IDRFs. The tumor may be ipsilateral contiguous within body compartments (i.e., a left-sided abdominal tumor with left-sided lung, bone or pleura involvement should be considered stage L2). However, a clearly left-sided abdominal tumor with right-sided lung, bone or pleura (or vice-versa) involvement is defined as metastatic disease. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. ... |
| C198074 | "Distant metastatic disease (i.e., not contiguous with the primary tumor) except as defined for stage MS. Nonregional (distant) lymph node involvement is metastatic disease. However, an upper abdominal tumor with enlarged lower mediastinal nodes or a pelvic tumor with inguinal lymph node involvement is considered locoregional disease. Ascites and/or a pleural effusion, even with malignant cells, do not constitute metastatic disease unless they are remote from the body compartment of the prim... |
| C198075 | "Metastatic disease confined to skin, liver, and/or bone marrow, in a patient less than 18 months (547 days). MIBG scintigraphy must be negative in bone and bone marrow. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198076 | "A term that refers to the staging of childhood malignant kidney neoplasms excluding renal cell carcinoma, according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2, International Society of Pediatric Oncology (SIOP) protocol. It is based on findings at surgery for patients who have received chemotherapy prior to surgery. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Austr... |
| C198077 | "A term that refers to the staging of childhood malignant kidney neoplasms excluding renal cell carcinoma, according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2, International Society of Pediatric Oncology (SIOP) protocol." |
| C198078 | "Tumor confined to area of origin including abdominal lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198079 | "Distant metastases present at diagnosis. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198080 | "A term that refers to the staging of childhood malignant kidney neoplasms excluding renal cell carcinoma, according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2, International Society of Pediatric Oncology (SIOP) protocol." |
| C198081 | "Tumor limited to kidney and completely resected. Renal capsule may be infiltrated by tumor, but tumor does not reach the outer surface. Tumor may protrude or bulge into the pelvic system or ureter but does not infiltrate. Vessel of renal sinus not involved. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198082 | "Tumor extends beyond kidney but completely resected. Tumor penetrates renal capsule into perirenal fat. Tumor infiltrates the renal sinus and/or invades blood and lymphatic vessels outside renal parenchyma but is completely resected. Tumor infiltrates adjacent organs or vena cava but is completely resected. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Aust... |
| C198083 | "Incomplete excision of the tumor (gross or microscopic extension beyond the resection margins). Involved abdominal lymph nodes, including necrotic tumor or chemotherapy-induced changes. Tumor rupture before or intraoperatively. Tumor has penetrated the peritoneal surface. Tumor thrombi present at resection margins. Surgical biopsy prior to resection (does not include needle biopsy). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guideline... |
| C198084 | "Hematogenous metastases or spread beyond abdomen at diagnosis. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198085 | "A term that refers to the staging of childhood malignant kidney neoplasms excluding renal cell carcinoma, according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2, Children's Oncology Group (COG) protocol. It is based on findings at surgery for patients who have not received chemotherapy prior to surgery. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane,... |
| C198086 | "A term that refers to the staging of childhood malignant kidney neoplasms excluding renal cell carcinoma, according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2, Children's Oncology Group (COG) protocol." |
| C198087 | "Tumor confined to area of origin including abdominal lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198088 | "Distant metastases present at diagnosis. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198089 | "A term that refers to the staging of childhood malignant kidney neoplasms excluding renal cell carcinoma, according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2, Children's Oncology Group (COG) protocol." |
| C198096 | "Tumor is limited to the kidney and completely excised. Renal capsule intact, not penetrated by tumor. No tumor invasion of veins or lymphatics of renal sinus. No nodal or hematogenous metastases. No prior biopsy. Negative margins. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198097 | "Tumor extends beyond kidney but completely resected. Tumor penetrates renal capsule. Tumor in lymphatics or veins of renal sinus. Tumor in renal vein with margin not involved. No nodal or hematogenous metastases. Negative margins. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198098 | "Residual tumor or nonhematogenous metastases confined to abdomen. Involved abdominal nodes. Peritoneal contamination or tumor implant. Tumor spillage of any degree occurring before or during surgery. Gross residual tumor in abdomen. Biopsy of tumor (including fine-needle aspiration) prior to removal of kidney. Resection margins involved by tumor. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensl... |
| C198100 | "Hematogenous metastases or spread beyond abdomen at diagnosis. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198104 | "A term that refers to the staging of childhood malignant kidney neoplasms excluding renal cell carcinoma, according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2." |
| C198147 | "The reemergence of oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C198148 | "The reemergence of oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C198149 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood rhabdomyosarcoma according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198150 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood rhabdomyosarcoma according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198151 | "The reemergence of laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C198152 | "Tumor confined to the area of origin including the regional lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198153 | "The reemergence of hypopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C198154 | "Distant metastases present. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198155 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood rhabdomyosarcoma according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198156 | "Favorable site and any T, any N, M0. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198157 | "Unfavorable site and T1a, T2a, N0, M0. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198158 | "Unfavorable site and (T1a, T2a, N1, M0); (T1b, T2b, Any N, M0). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198159 | "Any site and any T, any N, M1. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198160 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood non-rhabdomyosarcoma soft tissue sarcoma according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198161 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood non-rhabdomyosarcoma soft tissue sarcoma according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198162 | "Tumor confined to the area of origin including regional lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198163 | "Distant metastases present. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198164 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood non-rhabdomyosarcoma soft tissue sarcoma according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198165 | "Any T, N0, M0, G1 or GX. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198166 | "T1, N0, M0, G2 or G3. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198167 | "T2 or T3 or T4, N0, M0, G2 or G3 or Any T, N1, M0, Any G (G1, G2, G3 or GX). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198168 | "Any T, Any N, M1, Any G (G1, G2, G3, GX). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198170 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood malignant bone neoplasm according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. Staging is the same for both tiers (tier 1 and 2). |
| C198172 | "Tumor confined to the area of origin including the regional lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198173 | "Distant metastases present. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198174 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood retinoblastoma according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198175 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood retinoblastoma according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198176 | "Intraocular tumor. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198177 | "Orbital extension or regional lymph nodes involvement. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198178 | "Distant metastases present. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198179 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood retinoblastoma according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198180 | "The tumor is confined to the globe. Enucleation has not been performed. (The patient is treated ""conservatively"" with either focal therapies or chemotherapy.) (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198181 | "Enucleation with negative margins. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198182 | "Enucleation with microscopic residual disease. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198183 | "Regional extension: involvement of the orbit and/or preauricular or cervical lymph node extension. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198185 | "Distant metastatic disease. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198186 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood hepatoblastoma according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198187 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood hepatoblastoma according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198188 | "Tumor confined to the liver including regional lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198189 | "Distant metastases present. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198190 | "A term that refers to the staging of childhood hepatoblastoma according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. It includes localized tumors, metastatic tumors, and the PRETEXT system. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198191 | "Tumor confined to the liver including regional lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198192 | "Distant metastases present. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198413 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood testicular germ cell tumor according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198414 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood testicular germ cell tumor according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198415 | "Tumor confined to the testes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198416 | "Tumor extension to regional lymph nodes: interaortocaval, para-aortic (periaortic), paracaval, preaortic, precaval, retroaortic, retrocaval, and along spermatic cord. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198417 | "Distant metastases present. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198418 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood testicular germ cell tumor according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198419 | "pT1-4, N0, M0, SX. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198420 | "pT1, N0, M0, S0. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198421 | "pT2-4, N0, M0, S0. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198423 | "Any pT, N0, M0, S1-3. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198424 | "Any pT, N1-3, M0, SX. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198425 | "Any pT, N1, M0, S0, S1. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198426 | "Any pT, N2, M0, S0, S1. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198427 | "Any pT, N3, M0, S0, S1. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198428 | "Any pT, Any N, M1, SX. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198429 | "Any pT, Any N, M1, S0, S1. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198430 | "Any pT, N1-N3, M0, S2 or Any pT, Any N, M1, S2. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198432 | "Any pT, N1-N3, M0, S3 or Any pT, Any N, M1, S3. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198434 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood ovarian germ cell tumor according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198436 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood ovarian germ cell tumor according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198437 | "Tumor confined to ovaries. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198439 | "Tumor involves one or both ovaries with pelvic extension and/or spread to the peritoneum outside the pelvis and/or retroperitoneal lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198441 | "Distant metastatic disease excluding peritoneal metastases. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198444 | A malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the ovary and has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C198445 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood ovarian germ cell tumor according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198446 | "Tumor confined to ovaries (one or both). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198447 | "Tumor involves one or both ovaries with pelvic extension (below the pelvic brim). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198448 | "Tumor involves one or both ovaries with cytologically or histologically confirmed spread to the peritoneum outside the pelvis and/or metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198449 | "Distant metastasis (excludes peritoneal metastases). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198450 | "A term that refers to the staging of childhood astrocytoma according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. This staging system is the same for both tiers (tier 1 and 2). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198451 | "Localized disease. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198452 | "Distant metastases present. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198453 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood central nervous system embryonal tumor according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198455 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood central nervous system embryonal tumor according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198457 | "Localized disease. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198459 | "Disease beyond local site (e.g., other lesions in brain or spine or tumor cells in CSF or distant metastases). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198460 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood central nervous system embryonal tumor according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198461 | "No visible disease on imaging (MRI brain and spine) beyond primary site of disease and no tumor cells in the CSF. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198462 | "Tumor cells in the CSF. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198471 | "Visible metastasis in brain. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198472 | "Visible metastasis in spine or visible metastasis in cervicomedullary junction. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198473 | "Metastasis outside of the central nervous system. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198474 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood medulloblastoma according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198475 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood medulloblastoma according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198476 | "Localized disease. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198477 | "Disease beyond local site (e.g., other lesions in brain or spine or tumor cells in CSF or distant metastases). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198478 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood medulloblastoma according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198479 | "No visible disease on imaging (MRI brain and spine) beyond primary site of disease and no tumor cells in the CSF. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198480 | "Tumor cells in the CSF. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198481 | "Visible metastasis in brain. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198482 | "Visible metastasis in spine or visible metastasis in cervicomedullary junction. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198483 | "Metastasis outside of the central nervous system. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198484 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood ependymoma according to the Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198485 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood ependymoma according to the tier 1 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198486 | "Localized disease. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198487 | "Disease beyond local site (e.g., other lesions in brain or spine or tumor cells in CSF or distant metastases). (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198488 | A term that refers to the staging of childhood ependymoma according to the tier 2 Toronto childhood cancer staging guidelines v2. |
| C198489 | "No visible disease on imaging (MRI brain and spine) beyond primary site of disease and no tumor cells in the CSF. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198490 | "Tumor cells in the CSF. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198491 | "Visible metastasis in brain. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198492 | "Visible metastasis in spine or visible metastasis in cervicomedullary junction. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198493 | "Metastasis outside of the central nervous system. (Childhood cancer staging for population registries according to the Toronto Childhood Cancer Stage Guidelines - Version 2. Cancer Council Queensland and Cancer Australia: Brisbane, Australia; 2021.)" |
| C198501 | A ganglioneuroblastoma that arises from the brain and occurs during childhood. |
| C198555 | "A myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the absence of Philadelphia chromosome and BCR-ABL1 fusion gene expression. This group includes polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia, and primary myelofibrosis." |
| C198559 | "Hematologic neoplasms characterized by the rearrangement of the FLT3 gene, most often resulting in the formation of t(12;13)(p13.2;q12.2)/ETV6-FLT3 fusion transcripts. Patients usually present with T-ALL or myeloid sarcoma." |
| C198565 | Hematologic neoplasms characterized by t(9;12)(q34.1;p13.2) that results in ETV6-ABL1 gene fusion. They have clinicopathological features of chronic myeloid leukemia with frequent eosinophilia. |
| C198573 | A variant of indolent systemic mastocytosis that affects predominantly older males. It is characterized by a limited degree of bone marrow infiltration by clonal mast cells and an absence of skin involvement. The serum tryptase levels are normal or slightly elevated. |
| C198575 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the GATM gene, encoding glycine amidinotransferase, mitochondrial. The resulting enzyme deficiency is characterized by developmental delay, intellectual disability, and severe impairment of speech." |
| C198576 | "An autosomal dominant form of early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the PACS2 gene, encoding phosphofurin acidic cluster sorting protein 2." |
| C198578 | "An X-linked dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the ZC4H2 gene, encoding zinc finger C4H2 domain-containing protein.  It is characterized by neurogenic arthrogryposis resulting from decreased fetal movements. Additional features may include global developmental delay, peripheral neuropathy, and characteristic facies." |
| C198580 | "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the presence of persistent monocytosis, presence of at least one myeloid neoplasm-associated mutation, absence of significant dysplasia or increased blasts in the bone marrow, absence of morphologic findings suggestive of chronic myelomonocytic leukemia in the bone marrow, and absence of history of a reactive condition that would explain the persistent monocytosis." |
| C198581 | "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by thrombocytosis, anemia, blasts less than 5% in bone marrow and less than 1% in peripheral blood, presence of SF3B1 gene mutation, absence of BCR/ABL fusion, absence of genetic abnormalities associated with myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with eosinophilia and tyrosine kinase gene fusions, and no history of other myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasms or myeloproliferative neoplasms and myelodysplastic syndromes." |
| C198582 | A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm that fulfills the diagnostic criteria of clonal monocytosis of undetermined significance and is associated with cytopenia. |
| C198583 | "A new provisional entity under the umbrella of myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasms, not otherwise specified. It is characterized by the presence of isochromosome 17q. The clinical course is aggressive." |
| C198587 | Myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by mutation of SF3B1 gene. There is bone marrow dysplasia typically in one or more hematopoietic cell lineages. There are less than 5% blasts in bone marrow and less than 2% blasts in peripheral blood. |
| C198588 | A premalignant hematologic condition characterized by cytopenia and absence of bone marrow dysplasia. There are less than 5% blasts in bone marrow and less than 2% blasts in peripheral blood. |
| C198589 | Myelodysplastic syndrome with low blasts characterized by the absence of defining genetic abnormalities. |
| C198593 | "Myeloid neoplasm characterized by the presence of TP53 gene mutations. This category includes myelodysplastic syndrome, myelodysplastic syndrome/acute myeloid leukemia, and acute myeloid leukemia with mutated TP53." |
| C198594 | Myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of TP53 gene mutations. |
| C198595 | Myelodysplastic syndrome/acute myeloid leukemia characterized by the presence of TP53 gene mutations. There are 10%-19% blasts in bone marrow or peripheral blood. |
| C198596 | Acute myeloid leukemia characterized by the presence of TP53 gene mutations. There are 20% or more blasts in bone marrow or peripheral blood. |
| C198597 | Myelodysplastic syndrome/acute myeloid leukemia in which there is no information on myelodysplasia-related gene mutations and cytogenetic abnormalities. |
| C198599 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of dilated cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the TNNT2 gene, encoding troponin T, cardiac muscle." |
| C198602 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the SNCA gene, encoding alpha-synuclein. Mutation(s) in the SNCA gene are responsible for PARK4 and Lewy body dementia, and have overlapping phenotypes." |
| C198603 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the PRKN gene, encoding E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase parkin." |
| C198604 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the SNCA gene, encoding alpha-synuclein. Mutation(s) in the SNCA gene are responsible for PARK1 and Lewy body dementia, and have overlapping phenotypes." |
| C198605 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the LRRK2 gene, encoding leucine-rich repeat serine/threonine-protein kinase 2." |
| C198606 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the PARK7 gene, encoding Parkinson disease protein 7." |
| C198607 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the FBXO7 gene, encoding F-box only protein 7." |
| C198608 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the DNAJC6 gene, encoding putative tyrosine-protein phosphatase auxilin. It is characterized by an onset of Parkinsonism in the first or second decade. Mutations(s) in DNAJC6, are also causative in PARK19B." |
| C198609 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the DNAJC6 gene, encoding putative tyrosine-protein phosphatase auxilin. It is characterized by an onset of Parkinsonism between the third and fifth decades. Mutations(s) in DNAJC6, are also causative in PARK19A." |
| C198610 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the IPO8 gene, encoding importin-8. It is a generalized connective tissue disorder resulting in skin laxity, vascular aneurysms, immune dysregulation, and skeletal anomalies." |
| C198615 | Esophageal adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C198616 | Ampulla of Vater adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C198617 | Gallbladder adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C198661 | A myeloid neoplasm that resembles juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia by clinical and hematologic criteria but lacks mutations of the RAS pathway. Secondary mutations may be present. |
| C198662 | "A transient myeloproliferative disorder that is associated with Noonan syndrome and occurs in the first year of life. It is associated with germline mutations in PTPN11, KRAS, NRAS, or RIT1 genes." |
| C198663 | "A group of myeloid disorders that occur in childhood and/or are associated with germline gene mutations. It includes juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia, juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia-like neoplasm, refractory cytopenia of childhood, Noonan syndrome-associated myeloproliferative disorder, and myeloid neoplasm with germline predisposition." |
| C198678 | The reemergence of mesonephric adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C198680 | Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia that is associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). |
| C198681 | "A syndrome caused by germline mutations in the CBL gene. It manifests with clinical features resembling Noonan syndrome (developmental delay, craniofacial abnormalities, and congenital heart defects). It is associated with an increased risk of developing juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia." |
| C198682 | Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia that is associated with a genetic disorder caused by germline mutations in the CBL gene and phenotypically resembles Noonan syndrome (Noonan syndrome-like disorder). |
| C198683 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that results from germline gene mutations. This category includes B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia with germline PAX5 mutation and B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia with germline IKZF1 mutation. |
| C198684 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that results from germline mutation of the PAX5 gene. |
| C198685 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that results from germline mutation of the IKZF1 gene. |
| C198700 | "Tissue-invasive cytomegalovirus infection, typically seen in solid-organ transplant recipients." |
| C198703 | Inflammation of a cerebral ventricle. |
| C198705 | An endometrial undifferentiated carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C198706 | An endometrial undifferentiated carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C198827 | Acute promyelocytic leukemia with a variant RARA rearrangement and expression of STAT3-RARA fusion protein. |
| C198831 | Acute promyelocytic leukemia with a variant RARA rearrangement associated with t(1;17)(q42.3;q21.2) that results in the expression of IRF2BP2-RARA fusion protein. |
| C198834 | Acute promyelocytic leukemia with a variant RARA rearrangement and expression of TBL1XR1-RARA fusion protein. |
| C198839 | Acute promyelocytic leukemia with a variant RARA rearrangement and expression of FIP1L1-RARA fusion protein. |
| C198841 | Acute promyelocytic leukemia with a variant RARA rearrangement and expression of BCOR-RARA fusion protein. |
| C198846 | A term referring to acute myeloid leukemias with rearrangement of the MECOM gene with various genes other than the GATA2 gene. |
| C198847 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(3;8)(q26.2;q24) resulting in MYC and MECOM rearrangement. |
| C198849 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(3;12)(q26.2;p13.2) resulting in the expression of ETV6-MECOM fusion gene. |
| C198850 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(3;21)(q26.2;q22.1) resulting in the expression of MECOM-RUNX1 fusion gene. |
| C198861 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(4;11)(q21.3;q23.3) resulting in AFF1-KMT2A gene fusion. |
| C198869 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(10;11)(q21.3;q23.3) resulting in TET1-KMT2A gene fusion. |
| C198870 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(11;19)(q23.3;p13.1) resulting in KMT2A-ELL gene fusion. |
| C198874 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(11;19)(q23.3;p13.3) resulting in KMT2A-MLLT1 gene fusion. It usually affects infants and children. |
| C198883 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with ASXL1 gene mutation. |
| C198884 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with BCOR gene mutation. |
| C198885 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with EZH2 gene mutation. |
| C198886 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with SF3B1 gene mutation. |
| C198887 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with SRSF2 gene mutation. |
| C198888 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with STAG2 gene mutation. |
| C198889 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with U2AF1 gene mutation. |
| C198890 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with ZRSR2 gene mutation. |
| C198891 | An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by the presence of CEBPA bZIP domain mutation. It is associated with a favorable clinical outcome. |
| C198918 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the stomach and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C198950 | A malignant supratentorial neoplasm that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C198951 | The reemergence of a malignant supratentorial neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C198957 | A group of acute myeloid leukemias classified based on specific karyotype findings. |
| C198959 | Acute myeloid leukemia associated with deletion of the long arm of chromosome 5 [del(5q)]. |
| C198960 | Acute myeloid leukemia associated with deletion of the long arm of chromosome 7 [del(7q)]. |
| C198961 | Acute myeloid leukemia associated with deletion of the short arm of chromosome 12 [del(12p)]. |
| C198962 | Acute myeloid leukemia associated with isochromosome 17q [i(17q)]. |
| C198963 | Acute myeloid leukemia associated with deletion of the short arm of chromosome 17 [del(17p)]. |
| C198964 | Acute myeloid leukemia associated with deletion of the long arm of chromosome 20 [del(20q)]. |
| C198965 | Acute myeloid leukemia associated with at least 3 unrelated clonal chromosomal abnormalities. |
| C198966 | Acute myeloid leukemia associated with isodicentric chromosome Xq13 [idic(X)(q13)]. |
| C199146 | "Endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting 50% or less solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C199147 | "Endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting 5% or less solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C199148 | "Endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting 6-50% solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C199149 | "Endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting more than 50% solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C199150 | The reemergence of low-grade endometrioid adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C199152 | The reemergence of high-grade endometrioid adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C199153 | The reemergence of endometrial low-grade endometrioid adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C199156 | The reemergence of endometrial high-grade endometrioid adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C199159 | "Ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting 50% or less solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C199160 | "Ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting 5% or less solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C199162 | "Ovarian  endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting 6-50% solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C199166 | "Ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting more than 50% solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C199167 | The reemergence of ovarian low-grade endometrioid adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C199168 | The reemergence of ovarian high-grade endometrioid adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C199170 | T lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma in which the blasts have unique immunophenotypic and genetic characteristics suggesting only limited early T-cell differentiation. |
| C199171 | An early T precursor acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with the presence of BCL11B gene rearrangement. |
| C199172 | Early T precursor acute lymphoblastic leukemia in which further genetic/molecular characterization is not available. |
| C199173 | T lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma in which further genetic/molecular characterization is not available. |
| C199174 | T acute lymphoblastic leukemia in which further genetic/molecular characterization is not available. |
| C199202 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemias characterized by the presence of recurring cytogenetic and/or molecular abnormalities. |
| C199204 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemias characterized by the absence of recurrent genetic abnormalities. |
| C199210 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 and characterized by lymphoblastic proliferation without differentiating myeloid cell proliferation. |
| C199211 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 and characterized by both lymphoblastic and differentiating myeloid cell proliferation. |
| C199213 | B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with a low hypodiploid karyotype. |
| C199215 | B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with a near haploid karyotype. |
| C199223 | "B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like in which further genetic/molecular characterization is not available." |
| C199224 | "B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like associated with aberrant activation of the JAK-STAT signaling pathway." |
| C199228 | "B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like associated with rearrangement of an ABL class gene (e.g., ABL1, ABL2, CSF1R, PDGFRA, and PDGFRB)." |
| C199229 | "B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1-like associated with ABL1 gene rearrangement." |
| C199230 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with MYC gene rearrangement. The prognosis is poor. |
| C199231 | B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma associated with MYC gene rearrangement. The prognosis is poor. |
| C199232 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with DUX4 gene rearrangement. The prognosis is good. |
| C199233 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with MEF2D gene rearrangement. The prognosis is poor. |
| C199234 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with ZNF384 gene rearrangement. The prognosis is variable. |
| C199237 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with ZNF362 gene rearrangement. The prognosis is variable. |
| C199239 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with NUTM1 gene rearrangement. The prognosis is good. |
| C199240 | An exceptionally rare childhood B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with HLF gene rearrangement. The prognosis is poor. |
| C199241 | An exceptionally rare childhood B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with TCF3-HLF gene rearrangement resulting in the formation of TCF3-HLF chimeric transcription factor. The prognosis is poor. |
| C199242 | An exceptionally rare childhood B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with TCF4-HLF gene rearrangement resulting in the formation of TCF4-HLF chimeric transcription factor. The prognosis is poor. |
| C199258 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with concomitant CDX2 deregulation and expression of the chimeric UBTF-ATXN7L3 fusion oncoprotein. It usually affects female adolescents and young adults. The prognosis is poor following treatment with conventional chemotherapy. |
| C199259 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with IKZF1 missense mutation p.Asn159Tyr (N159Y). |
| C199260 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with PAX5 P80R mutation. |
| C199262 | B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with mutations in the ZEB2 gene that encode a histidine to arginine amino acid substitution at codon 1038. This variation appears to phenocopy the IGH-CEBPE gene fusion. This is a provisional entity. |
| C199264 | "B acute lymphoblastic leukemia associated with PAX5 gene alteration, including rearrangements, point mutations, and intragenic lesions. This is a provisional entity." |
| C199373 | Monoclonal B-cell lymphocytosis characterized by the presence of more than 5 x 10^9/L abnormal B-lymphocytes in peripheral blood and presence of the characteristic immunophenotype of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. This type of monoclonal B-cell lymphocytosis evolves to chronic lymphocytic leukemia at a rate of 1-2% per year. |
| C199374 | Monoclonal B-cell lymphocytosis characterized by the presence of fewer than 5 x 10^9/L abnormal B-lymphocytes in peripheral blood and absence of the characteristic immunophenotype of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. This type of monoclonal B-cell lymphocytosis does not progress to chronic lymphocytic leukemia. |
| C199382 | "A subtype of IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance characterized by the presence of clonal plasma cells, absence of clonal B-lymphocytes, and absence of MYD88 gene mutation. The t(11;14)(q13;q32) is present in some cases. This subtype is considered a precursor of multiple myeloma." |
| C199384 | A subtype of IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance that includes cases associated with MYD88 mutation and cases associated with the presence of monoclonal B-lymphocytes without the presence of abnormal lymphoplasmacytic aggregates that are diagnostic of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma or other small B-lymphocytic neoplasms. |
| C199387 | "A clonal B-cell lymphoproliferative disease of the bone marrow that results in autoimmune hemolytic anemia. It is distinct from lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma and IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. It lacks MYD88 gene mutation and is associated with trisomies of chromosomes 3, 12, and 18, and mutations in KMT2D and CARD11 genes." |
| C199391 | "Amyloidosis that arises and remains localized in the skin. There are three main forms of primary cutaneous amyloidosis: lichen amyloidosis presenting with multiple itchy, raised, scaly red/brown spots; macular amyloidosis presenting with itchy, flat, brown or grey spots that form patches of darkened skin; and nodular amyloidosis presenting with brown or red nodules." |
| C199392 | Multiple myelomas characterized by the presence of recurring cytogenetic abnormalities. |
| C199405 | Multiple myeloma characterized by the presence of a translocation involving a CCND family gene. |
| C199406 | Multiple myeloma characterized by the presence of a translocation involving a MAF family gene. |
| C199407 | Multiple myeloma characterized by the presence of a translocation involving the NSD2 gene. |
| C199409 | Multiple myeloma characterized by the presence of plasma cells in which the chromosomal number is greater than the normal diploid number. |
| C199413 | Multiple myeloma characterized by the presence of t(11;14)(q13;q32). It is the most common immunoglobulin heavy chain translocation found in multiple myeloma and results in CCND1 overexpression. |
| C199418 | Multiple myelomas characterized by the absence of recurrent genetic abnormalities. |
| C199427 | The reemergence of estrogen receptor-positive breast carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C199457 | A primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoproliferative disorder characterized by class-switched immunoglobulin heavy chain expression. The majority of cases are IgG-positive. |
| C199458 | A primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoproliferative disorder characterized by the presence of class-switched immunoglobulin heavy chain expressing IgG. |
| C199459 | A primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoproliferative disorder characterized by the presence of class-switched immunoglobulin heavy chain expressing IgG4. |
| C199460 | A primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoproliferative disorder characterized by expression of IgM and absence of class-switched immunoglobulin heavy chain expression. |
| C199462 | The reemergence of fallopian tube carcinosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C199463 | The reemergence of primary peritoneal carcinosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C199467 | "Follicular lymphoma characterized by the absence of BCL2 rearrangement and the presence of CD23-positive neoplastic cells. It is associated with STAT6 mutations. It presents with low-stage disease, typically in the inguinal region, and often has a predominant diffuse growth pattern." |
| C199481 | A molecular subtype of mantle cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of cyclin D1 expression and/or CCND1 rearrangement.. |
| C199482 | Mantle cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of CCND2 gene rearrangement. A small number of cases express this gene rearrangement and not CCND1 gene rearrangement. |
| C199483 | Mantle cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of CCND3 gene rearrangement. A small number of cases express this gene rearrangement and not CCND1 gene rearrangement. |
| C199567 | Ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C199576 | "An HHV-8 and EBV-negative primary effusion-based lymphoma that affects elderly, HIV-negative patients with history of medical conditions that result in fluid overload. The majority of cases have been reported in Japan. Most tumors exhibit centroblastic or immunoblastic morphology. The prognosis is good." |
| C199580 | An EBV-positive B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder characterized by altered tissue architecture and a polymorphic infiltrate that does not fulfill the criteria for the diagnosis of lymphoma and cannot be precisely categorized. |
| C199617 | High-grade B-cell lymphoma characterized by the abnormal rearrangement of MYC and BCL2 genes. |
| C199618 | High-grade B-cell lymphoma characterized by the abnormal rearrangement of MYC and BCL6 genes. |
| C199636 | Sebaceous carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C199637 | Adnexal carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C199640 | Basal cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C199643 | Extramammary Paget disease that is resistant to treatment. |
| C199662 | Salivary duct carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C199663 | "The reemergence of salivary gland adenocarcinoma, not otherwise specified after a period of remission." |
| C199664 | "Salivary gland adenocarcinoma, not otherwise specified that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site." |
| C199665 | Salivary gland adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C199666 | The reemergence of salivary gland adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C199676 | Hydroa vacciniforme lymphoproliferative disorder characterized by the presence of self-limited papulovesicular skin lesions in sun-exposed areas. There is no involvement of internal organs. It has an indolent course and usually affects White individuals. |
| C199677 | "Hydroa vacciniforme lymphoproliferative disorder characterized by severe clinical course and associated with fever, lymph node involvement, and involvement of internal organs by EBV-positive T-cells and NK-cells. It usually affects Asian and Latin American individuals." |
| C200033 | Celiac disease characterized by persistent and recurrent symptoms of malabsorption and villous atrophy in patients who adhere strictly to a gluten-free diet for at least six to twelve months. It is classified as type I or II. |
| C200034 | Refractory celiac disease associated with normal intraepithelial lymphocyte phenotype. |
| C200035 | Refractory celiac disease associated with abnormal (clonal) intraepithelial lymphocyte phenotype. It is a precursor of enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma. |
| C200037 | "An indolent lymphoproliferative disorder that affects the gastrointestinal tract. The neoplastic lymphocytes have the typical phenotype of NK-cells, are of medium to large size, show mild pleomorphism, and are EBV infection negative. Features that characterize extranodal NK/T-cell lymphomas (e.g., angioinvasion and angiodestruction) are not present." |
| C200050 | "A genetic subtype of systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK-negative characterized by rearrangement of DUSP22 gene. It tends to have a favorable prognosis." |
| C200054 | Inadequate production of cortisol due to negative feedback on the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis that is caused by exposure to exogenous glucocorticoids or endogenous hypercortisolism. |
| C200060 | Sebaceous carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C200062 | Adnexal carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C200063 | Adnexal carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C200064 | Sebaceous carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C200065 | The reemergence of adnexal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C200066 | The reemergence of sebaceous carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C200067 | Extramammary Paget disease that has spread from the original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C200068 | Extramammary Paget disease that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C200069 | The reemergence of extramammary Paget disease after a period of remission. |
| C200073 | "A molecular subtype of peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified, characterized by high expression of GATA3. It is composed of a monomorphic lymphocytic infiltrate with minimal inflammation and is associated with a poor prognosis." |
| C200074 | "A molecular subtype of peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified, characterized by high expression of T-box 21 (TBX21). It is composed of a polymorphic lymphocytic infiltrate admixed with abundant inflammatory cells and is associated with a better prognosis compared to peripheral T-cell lymphoma-GATA3." |
| C200083 | Differentiated thyroid gland carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C200087 | "Diagnosis of more than one distinct tumor focus in the same breast, within two months." |
| C200088 | Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C200105 | "A rare histiocytic neoplasm associated with ALK gene rearrangement leading to activation of signaling pathways. The neoplastic cells have a mature histiocytic phenotype, and usually have a foamy cytoplasm. It is characterized by frequent neurologic involvement and responds to ALK inhibition treatments." |
| C200207 | An intestinal-type adenoma that arises from the vulva. It is characterized by the presence of a tubulovillous architectural pattern. |
| C200227 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant cystic neoplasm that arises from the exocrine pancreas. This category includes pancreatic mucinous-cystic neoplasms, pancreatic serous cystadenomas, and pancreatic cystadenocarcinomas." |
| C200299 | "A rare, progressive, autosomally dominant inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by mutations in the TTR gene encoding transthyretin (prealbumin).  It is characterized by deposition of amyloid fibrils in the peripheral nervous system." |
| C200313 | A rare benign salivary gland adenoma that arises from ducts that resemble normal striated ducts. |
| C200376 | Myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of biallelic TP53 inactivating alterations. They include biallelic TP53 gene mutations or one TP53 gene mutation and concurrent copy loss of TP53. There are less than 20% blasts in bone marrow and peripheral blood. It is associated with a poor prognosis. |
| C200377 | Myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of TP53 gene inactivating alterations. They include monoallelic or biallelic TP53 gene mutations or one TP53 gene mutation and concurrent copy loss of TP53. |
| C200379 | Myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of monoallelic TP53 gene mutation. |
| C200381 | Myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of biallelic TP53 gene mutations. It is associated with a poor prognosis. |
| C200389 | Myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of less than 5% blasts in bone marrow and less than 2% blasts in peripheral blood. |
| C200390 | Myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of defining genetic abnormalities. |
| C200396 | Myelodysplastic syndrome that occurs in childhood and is characterized by cytopenia and the presence of less than 5% blasts in bone marrow and less than 2% blasts in peripheral blood. |
| C200397 | Childhood myelodysplastic syndrome with low blasts that is characterized by bone marrow hypocellularity. |
| C200398 | Childhood myelodysplastic syndrome with low blasts in which further characterization is not available. |
| C200400 | Myelodysplastic syndromes/acute myeloid leukemias characterized by the presence of gene mutations that are associated with myelodysplasia. |
| C200402 | Myelodysplastic syndromes/acute myeloid leukemias classified based on specific karyotype findings. |
| C200407 | Acute myeloid leukemia characterized by rearrangement of the MECOM gene with various genes. |
| C200411 | Acute myeloid leukemia characterized by rearrangement of the NUP98 gene with various genes. |
| C200419 | Acute myeloid leukemia associated with FUS-ERG gene fusion. The prognosis is poor. |
| C200420 | Acute myeloid leukemia associated with NPM1-MLF1 gene fusion. |
| C200421 | Acute myeloid leukemia associated with KAT6A-CREBBP gene fusion. |
| C200422 | "An autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by germline mutations of the SAMD9L gene. It is characterized by cerebellar ataxia, cytopenia in all cell lineages, and predisposition to myelodysplasia and myeloid leukemia." |
| C200494 | Acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage characterized by the presence of defined genetic alterations. |
| C200495 | A midgut neuroendocrine tumor G1 that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C200496 | A midgut neuroendocrine tumor G2 that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C200497 | A midgut neuroendocrine tumor G3 that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C200502 | A very rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts show evidence of T-cell and megakaryocytic lineage but are negative for KMT2A rearrangement and t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation. |
| C200513 | "A clonal proliferation of plasmacytoid dendritic cells in patients with defined myeloid neoplasms. It is characterized by neoplastic proliferations of mature cells with plasmacytoid morphology in the skin, bone marrow, and very rarely, lymph nodes. Patients are predominantly older males." |
| C200520 | A group of mesenchymal neoplasms that arise from the lymph node and spleen. |
| C200524 | "A very rare benign vascular neoplasm that is unique to the spleen and is characterized by vascular proliferations with a hybrid endothelial-histiocytic phenotype. Most patients are asymptomatic, and the tumor is discovered incidentally on imaging studies performed for other reasons." |
| C200528 | A rare hamartoma that arises from the spleen. The majority of cases are incidental findings in splenectomy specimens or during autopsy. |
| C200530 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the spleen. |
| C200533 | "A benign, circumscribed lesion that arises from the spleen and is composed of multiple angiomatoid nodules in a fibrosclerotic stroma. It most often affects middle-aged females. It is usually asymptomatic, and most cases are detected incidentally on imaging studies." |
| C200569 | Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that has metastasized to a limited number of sites. |
| C200570 | Breast adenocarcinoma that is positive for progesterone receptors. |
| C200572 | Progesterone receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C200573 | Progesterone receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C200574 | The reemergence of progesterone receptor-positive breast carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C200577 | Appendix carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C200582 | The reemergence of tonsillar squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C200583 | Tonsillar squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C200584 | Sinonasal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C200587 | An exceptionally rare childhood B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma associated with TCF3-HLF gene rearrangement resulting in the formation of TCF3-HLF chimeric transcription factor. The prognosis is poor. |
| C200590 | "A term that refers to non-neoplastic, dense B-cell lymphoproliferations in nodal or extranodal sites that resemble B-cell lymphoma." |
| C200597 | A term that refers to the classification of atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumors based on their molecular characteristics. |
| C200598 | "Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor characterized by overexpression of genes in the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway (GLI2, BOC, PTCHD2, and MYCN)." |
| C200599 | Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor characterized by overexpression of MYC gene. |
| C200600 | "Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor characterized by overexpression of melanosomal genes (TYR, TYRP, MITF, and OTX2)." |
| C200605 | "Polycythemia vera, post-polycythemic myelofibrosis phase that is resistant to treatment." |
| C200606 | Post-essential thrombocythemia myelofibrosis that is resistant to treatment. |
| C200652 | A neoplasm that does not respond to hormone therapy. |
| C200669 | "A term that refers to follicular lymphoma grade 1, 2, and 3A." |
| C200684 | An uncommon morphologic variant of follicular lymphoma characterized by the presence of predominantly medium-sized neoplastic lymphocytes with blastoid features or large neoplastic lymphocytes with cleaved nuclei. |
| C200685 | A molecular subtype of mantle cell lymphoma characterized by the absence of cyclin D1 expression and CCND1 rearrangement. |
| C200687 | "A term that refers to diffuse large B-cell lymphomas that arise as primary tumors in the central nervous system, vitreoretina, and testis in immunocompetent patients." |
| C200688 | Burkitt lymphoma that is not associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C200719 | The reemergence of platinum-resistant ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C200738 | "A term that refers to rare paraneoplastic syndromes associated with plasma cell neoplasms. This category includes the following: POEMS syndrome (polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal gammopathy, and skin changes); TEMPI syndrome (telangiectasia, elevated erythropoietin and erythrocytosis, monoclonal gammopathy, perinephric fluid collection, and intrapulmonary shunting); and AESOP syndrome (adenopathy and extensive skin patch overlying a plasmacytoma)." |
| C200742 | An exceedingly rare syndrome characterized by adenopathy and a red-to-brown skin patch overlying a plasmacytoma. |
| C200758 | "A group of malignant gliomas that includes the following: glioblastoma; diffuse midline glioma; diffuse hemispheric glioma, H3 G34-mutant; astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, grade 4; and diffuse pediatric-type high grade glioma, H3-wildtype and IDH-wildtype." |
| C200759 | The reemergence of WHO grade 4 glioma after a period of remission. |
| C200787 | "A urinary voiding disorder that includes urinary urgency, with or without incontinence, nocturia, and urinary frequency." |
| C201052 | Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome characterized by the presence of germline FAS mutation. |
| C201053 | Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome characterized by the presence of somatic FAS mutation. |
| C201054 | "Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome characterized by the presence of FAS pathway germline mutations in the FASLG, CASP10, CASP8, and FADD genes." |
| C201055 | Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome characterized by the presence of germline CASP8 mutation. |
| C201057 | Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome characterized by the presence of germline FADD mutation. |
| C201080 | "An exceedingly rare peripheral T-cell lymphoma that arises from the skin and does not meet the criteria that define the other well characterized primary cutaneous peripheral T-cell lymphomas, i.e., it is a diagnosis of exclusion." |
| C201095 | A disorder which indicates progression from HIV infection to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). |
| C201124 | An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cribriform glands with central necrotic changes. |
| C201127 | Myeloid leukemia presenting with leukemic infiltration of tissues and normal or decreased leukocyte count in the peripheral blood. |
| C201129 | "An angiofibroma that arises from the nose. It is found in adults as a solitary, dome-shaped papule on the nose." |
| C201135 | A rare adenocarcinoma of the digestive system that exhibits neuroendocrine differentiation and is associated with the presence of neoplastic signet-ring cells resembling goblet cells of the intestine. |
| C201136 | "A low-grade malignant neoplasm that arises from the exocrine pancreas. Rare cases arising from ectopic pancreatic tissue in the ovary have also been described. It is characterized by the presence of uniform cells that form solid and pseudopapillary patterns, cystic changes, and hemorrhage. It usually presents as an encapsulated, solitary, and lobulated mass. It occurs predominantly in young women. Complete removal of the tumor is curative in the majority of cases." |
| C201196 | Pancreatic acinar cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C201514 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the FGF12 gene, encoding fibroblast growth factor 12." |
| C201518 | "An autosomal dominant form of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, caused by mutation(s) in the CYFIP2 gene, encoding cytoplasmic FMR1-interacting protein 2." |
| C201519 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the PLA2G6 gene, encoding 85/88 kDa calcium-independent phospholipase A2." |
| C201520 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the VPS35 gene, encoding vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 35." |
| C201521 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the UQCRC1 gene, encoding cytochrome b-c1 complex subunit 1, mitochondrial." |
| C201567 | Thrombotic microangiopathy of the gastrointestinal tract. |
| C201578 | Chronic graft versus host disease that is resistant to treatment with steroids. |
| C201585 | "A genetic condition inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion linked to chromosome 2p21-p12, characterized by bilateral hearing loss." |
| C201586 | "A genetic condition inherited in an autosomal recessive caused by mutation(s) in the CDH23 gene, encoding cadherin-23, characterized by progressive sensorineural hearing loss. Mutation(s) in the CDH23 gene may also cause Usher syndrome 1D." |
| C201587 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the CLDN11 gene, encoding claudin-11.  It is characterized by global developmental delay, mild impaired intellectual development, limited ability to walk, and hypomyelinating leukodystrophy on MRI." |
| C201588 | "An autosomal dominant type of functional intestinal obstruction caused by mutation(s) in the ACTG2 gene, encoding actin, gamma-enteric smooth muscle." |
| C201589 | "An autosomal recessive syndromic condition caused by mutations(s) in the UBR7 gene, encoding putative E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase UBR7. It is characterized by global developmental delay, impaired intellectual development, dysmorphic facial features, variable cardiac and urogenital system abnormalites, and hypothyroidism." |
| C201590 | "An X-linked subtype of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the PCDH19 gene, encoding protocadherin-19." |
| C201591 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the NT5E gene, encoding 5'-nucleotidase. Deficiency in this enzyme (also know as CD73 antigen) results in arterial calcification of the lower extremities, and the joints affecting the hands and feet." |
| C201594 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the COL18A1 gene, encoding collagen alpha-1(XVIII) chain. It is characterized by eye abnormalities, including high myopia and vitreoretinal degeneration." |
| C201595 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the CHD4 gene, encoding chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 4. It is characterized by disordered intellectual development, with variable congenital defects." |
| C201596 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SGCE gene, encoding epsilon-sarcoglycan. It is characterized by myoclonus of the proximal muscles and dystonia." |
| C201597 | "An exceedingly rare autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation (s) in the UNC45A gene, encoding protein unc-45 homolog A. It is characterized neonatal cholestasis, deafness, and bone fragility." |
| C201634 | "A highly aggressive, poorly to undifferentiated carcinoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. It is characterized by loss of one SWI/SNF complex subunit (either SMARCB1 or SMARCA4) and lacks histological features to allow classification into another specific entity. Most patients present with locally advanced disease." |
| C201635 | "An SWI/SNF-deficient sinonasal carcinoma characterized by biallelic deletion or inactivating mutation of SMARCB1 gene. It usually affects the paranasal sinuses, especially ethmoid. It is composed of a monomorphic malignant epithelial cellular population with a predominantly basaloid or plasmacytoid/rhabdoid morphology." |
| C201636 | An SWI/SNF-deficient sinonasal carcinoma characterized by inactivating mutation of SMARCB1 gene. It usually affects the nasal sinuses. It is composed of malignant epithelial cells with a predominantly oncocytoid/plasmacytoid morphology and prominent glandular formations. |
| C201637 | An SWI/SNF-deficient sinonasal carcinoma characterized by inactivating mutation of SMARCA4 gene. It usually affects the nasal sinuses. It is composed of malignant large epithelioid anaplastic cells. |
| C201742 | "An exophytic, warty, well differentiated, slow growing and non-metastasizing squamous cell carcinoma arising from the trachea." |
| C201743 | "An exophytic, warty, well differentiated, slow growing and non-metastasizing squamous cell carcinoma arising from the hypopharynx." |
| C201746 | "A high-grade, aggressive variant of squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the hypopharynx. It is characterized by the presence of small malignant cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and scant amount of cytoplasm forming lobules with peripheral palisading." |
| C201747 | "A high-grade, aggressive variant of squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the trachea. It is characterized by the presence of small malignant cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and scant amount of cytoplasm forming lobules with peripheral palisading." |
| C201748 | A variant of squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the hypopharynx. It is characterized by exophytic and papillary growth. The papillae are covered by a malignant stratified squamous epithelium. |
| C201749 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the hypopharynx. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant spindle cell cellular component. In some cases, there is a biphasic morphology due to the presence of a well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma component. The latter is either in situ or invasive squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C201764 | "A benign, well-circumscribed or encapsulated neoplasm that arises from the salivary glands, usually the parotid. It is characterized by nodular and less often multinodular proliferation of cuboidal ductal cells and attenuated myoepithelial cells, resembling bi-layered intercalated ducts. Most lesions are incidental findings, usually measuring less than 5 mm." |
| C201770 | "A benign neoplasm that arises from the parotid gland. It is characterized by the presence of multicystic formations, lined by neoplastic stratified squamous epithelium and containing keratotic lamellae. The neoplastic squamous epithelial cells have bland nuclei and abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. Focally, solid islands of squamous cells surrounded by collagenous stroma are present." |
| C201772 | "A rare, low-grade adenocarcinoma that arises from the salivary gland. Almost all cases have been described in the oral cavity. It is characterized by a microcystic growth pattern, uniform intercalated duct-like tumor cells, basophilic luminal secretions, and fibromyxoid stroma formation. It is associated with MEF2C-SS18 fusion gene expression." |
| C201781 | "A salivary gland polymorphous adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of uniform malignant cells with scant cytoplasm forming trabecular, tubular, microcystic, solid, and papillary-cystic patterns. The tumor stroma can be mucinous, myxoid, or hyalinized. Perineural involvement is often seen." |
| C201786 | A salivary gland polymorphous adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells forming cribriform and multinodular patterns. |
| C201821 | "A rare, slow-growing carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant clear and eosinophilic cells in a hyalinized stroma. It has been described in the salivary glands and lung. Most cases are associated with translocation of EWSR1 and ATF1, resulting in the formation of EWSR1-ATF1 fusion gene. The prognosis is good." |
| C201823 | "A rare, slow-growing carcinoma that arises from the salivary glands, usually the minor salivary glands of the oral cavity. It is composed of malignant clear and eosinophilic cells in a hyalinized stroma. Most cases are associated with translocation of EWSR1 and ATF1, resulting in the formation of EWSR1-ATF1 fusion gene. The prognosis is good." |
| C201832 | "A low-grade adenocarcinoma that arises from the minor salivary glands, usually in the oral cavity. It is characterized by the presence of a biphasic population of ductal and myoepithelial cells in a collagenous stroma. The prognosis is good." |
| C201837 | Penile carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C201838 | Penile squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C201839 | A rare variant of chromophobe renal cell carcinoma that exhibits oncocytoma-like features. |
| C201844 | Death due to Immune Effector Cell Associated Neurotoxicity Syndrome (ICANS) where another cause is not the primary determinant. |
| C201845 | A reactive and self-limiting inflammation of the salivary glands that results in degeneration and necrosis of salivary acini and ductal squamous metaplasia. It usually affects the minor salivary glands in the posterolateral hard palate. It is probably caused by trauma and hypoxia. |
| C201846 | "A non-neoplastic indolent oral lesion, characterized by proliferation of mucosal epithelial and melanocytic cells. It is distinct from neoplastic cutaneous melanoacanthoma. It usually affects the buccal mucosa and presents as a rapidly growing, pigmented lesion. It is caused by chronic trauma and/or reactions to oral care." |
| C201849 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the prostate and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C201878 | "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma arising from the tongue.  It is an exophytic, warty, slow growing tumor, usually affecting older males. It is associated with the chronic use of smokeless tobacco." |
| C201880 | "Ectomesenchymal chondromyxoid tumor that arises from the tongue, usually the anterior dorsal aspect." |
| C201900 | A rare hamartomatous polyp that arises from the palatine tonsil. |
| C201904 | An oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of keratinization and intercellular bridges. |
| C201905 | An oropharyngeal human papillomavirus-independent squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of keratinization and intercellular bridges. |
| C201906 | An oropharyngeal human papillomavirus-related squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of keratinization and intercellular bridges. |
| C201907 | An oropharyngeal human papillomavirus-related squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the absence of keratinization and intercellular bridges. |
| C201951 | Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C201952 | Soft tissue sarcoma of the trunk and extremities that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C201953 | A chromophobe renal cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C201960 | Histologic transformation of chronic lymphocytic leukemia to Hodgkin lymphoma. |
| C201961 | Histologic transformation of small lymphocytic lymphoma to Hodgkin lymphoma. |
| C201966 | A term that refers to the classification of pineoblastomas based on their molecular characteristics. |
| C201967 | "Pineoblastoma characterized by alterations in genes involved in miRNA biogenesis (DICER1, DROSHA, and DGCR8). It may manifest as a sporadic tumor or part of DICER1 syndrome. It affects children." |
| C201968 | "Pineoblastoma characterized by alterations in genes involved in miRNA biogenesis (DICER1, DROSHA, and DGCR8). It may manifest as a sporadic tumor or part of DICER1 syndrome. It affects older children and follows a more favorable course." |
| C201969 | "Pineoblastoma characterized by alterations in RB1 gene. It may develop in the setting of congenital retinoblastoma, also known as trilateral retinoblastoma. It affects young children and is associated with a dismal prognosis." |
| C201973 | "Pineoblastoma characterized by MYC activation, chromosome 16 losses, and overexpression of FOXR2. It affects young children and is associated with a dismal prognosis." |
| C201975 | Pilocytic astrocytoma that arises from the brain. |
| C201976 | Pilocytic astrocytoma that arises from the spinal cord. |
| C201977 | A low-grade glioma that arises from the brain. |
| C201978 | "A very rare, non-invasive epithelial neoplasm that arises from the lung. It is composed of multilocular cysts filled with mucus. The cysts are lined with columnar mucinous epithelium. Focal cellular atypia is present." |
| C202010 | An embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes that arises from the fourth ventricle. |
| C202011 | A type of pulmonary alveolar proteinosis associated with low concentrations of GM-CSF. |
| C202012 | "An autoimmune syndrome characterized by continuous muscle activity on electromyography, occurring at rest and unaffected by local nerve blockade." |
| C202017 | "A clinico-radiologic syndrome consisting of acute encephalopathy characterized by biphasic seizures and altered consciousness in the acute phase, followed by restricted diffusion in the subcortical white matter on diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging." |
| C202018 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the HTRA1 gene, encoding serine protease HTRA1. It is characterized by subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy resulting in progressive motor dysfunction and dementia." |
| C202046 | "A rare autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the RFC1 gene, encoding replication factor C subunit 1. It is characterized by cerebellar dysfunction, bilateral vestibulopathy, and axonal neuropathy." |
| C202047 | "A genetic condition associated with mutation(s) in the ADCY5 gene, encoding adenylate cyclase 5. It is characterized by abnormal involuntary movements with orofacial involvement." |
| C202057 | A calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor that contains a variable proportion of clear cells containing diastase-labile PAS-positive material that is consistent with glycogen. |
| C202058 | A calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor characterized by cystic/microcystic changes. |
| C202059 | A calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor that contains significant numbers of Langerhans cells. |
| C202061 | A rare ameloblastoma characterized by the presence of cribriform architecture and the formation of duct-like structures. Dentinoid is usually present. |
| C202069 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the UBE2A gene, encoding ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 A. It is characterized by facial dysmorphisms and intellectual impairment." |
| C202070 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation in the C1QTNF5 gene, encoding complement C1q tumor necrosis factor-related protein 5. It is characterized by dark adaptation abnormalities, sub-retinal pigment epithelium lipid-rich material deposits, choroidal neovascularization, and chorioretinal atrophy. The typical onset is in the fifth or sixth decade of life." |
| C202071 | "A condition in which the ligamentum flavum is progressively ossified which may cause compression of elements inside the spinal canal, resulting in various neurological symptoms." |
| C202072 | "A genetically heterogenous condition characterized by round, nodular masses of normal neurons and glial cells with no laminar organization near the ventricles. Patients often develop drug-resistant epilepsy." |
| C202073 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PLA2G6 gene, encoding 85/88 kDa calcium-independent phospholipase A2. It is characterized by axonal swelling and spheroid bodies in the central nervous system. The onset is typically in the first two years of life." |
| C202076 | "A metabolic disorder caused by polymorphisms in the LPA gene that affect the number of kringle-4 repeats in the encoded protein, apolipoprotein(a) (apo(a)). The number of kringle-4 repeats are inversely correlated with apo(a) expression in the blood. Thus, forms of apo(a) with fewer repeats are expressed at elevated levels, which leads to increased concentrations of apo(a)-containing lipoprotein particles and an elevated risk for atherosclerosis, cardiovascular disease, and coronary artery ... |
| C202077 | An odontogenic fibroma that arises from tooth-forming tissues in the mandible and maxilla. |
| C202078 | A central odontogenic fibroma characterized by the presence of amyloid deposits. Langerhans cells are often present in the odontogenic epithelium. |
| C202079 | A central odontogenic fibroma composed of granular cells admixed with odontogenic epithelium. |
| C202080 | A central odontogenic fibroma characterized by the presence of odontogenic fibroma components admixed with ossifying fibroma-like tissue. |
| C202081 | A central odontogenic fibroma characterized by the presence of combined histological features of giant cell granuloma and odontogenic fibroma. |
| C202114 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the PIK3R2 gene, encoding phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase regulatory subunit beta. It is characterized by mild to severe intellectual disability, megencephaly, polymicrogyria, and postaxial polydactyly." |
| C202115 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the COL2A1 gene, encoding collagen alpha-1(II) chain. It is characterized by osteoarthritis and mild chondrodysplasia." |
| C202116 | A clinico-pathologic syndrome primarily affecting the respiratory bronchioles with evidence of inflammation in all layers of the bronchiole. Sinusitis is often an accompanying feature. |
| C202117 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the MPC1 gene, encoding mitochondrial pyruvate carrier 1. it is characterized by lactic acidosis with a normal lactate/pyruvate ratio, and global developmentally." |
| C202118 | "A disorder characterized by benign depositions of calcium in the anterior longitudinal ligament. This condition is usually asymptomatic, but may be associated with dyspnea, dysphagia, spinal cord compression, and peripheral nerve entrapment." |
| C202121 | "A genetically heterogenous autoinflammatory condition characterized by sterile non-follicular pustules over wide areas of the body.  It is a rare and severe form of psoriasis, and may result in death if not treated." |
| C202128 | "Histologic transformation of EGFR mutation-positive lung adenocarcinoma to squamous cell carcinoma, following treatment with tyrosine kinase inhibitors." |
| C202129 | "A clinical condition characterized by persistent and occult gastrointestinal bleeding, multiple sharply demarcated lesions surrounded by normal mucosa in the small intestine, which do not affect the muscular layer. It shares many features with NSAID-induced enteropathy. The etiology is not fully elucidated but may include a genetic component." |
| C202130 | Lung adenocarcinoma that is associated with EGFR gene mutation. |
| C202131 | Lung non-small cell carcinoma that is associated with EGFR gene mutation. |
| C202132 | "Histologic transformation of EGFR mutation-positive lung non-small cell carcinoma to small cell carcinoma, following treatment with tyrosine kinase inhibitors." |
| C202133 | "Histologic transformation of EGFR mutation-positive lung adenocarcinoma to small cell carcinoma, following treatment with tyrosine kinase inhibitors." |
| C202161 | A developmental abnormality that is characterized by segmental enlargement in the premolar/molar region of the maxilla and associated with dento-osseous abnormalities. |
| C202205 | "A rare, benign fibro-osseous neoplasm that usually affects the jaws and predominantly arises in children and adolescents. It is characterized by prominent osteoid formation rimmed by osteoblasts in a fibrotic stroma. Patients usually present with painless jaw expansion that is associated with rapid growth and tooth displacement. Amplifications of MDM2 and RASAL1 genes have been detected in some cases. Recurrences have been reported in a minority of cases." |
| C202209 | "A rare, benign fibro-osseous neoplasm that arises from the craniofacial skeleton. It is characterized by the presence of multiple ossicles resembling psammoma bodies in a hypercellular stroma. It usually affects individuals in their second to fourth decades. Recurrences following surgical excision have been reported in a minority of cases." |
| C202219 | "An extremely rare, benign, rapidly progressing fibro-osseous lesion that arises from the jaws as a multifocal expansile growth in children or adolescents. It results in significant deformity, orbital distortion, and possible airway involvement. An autosomal dominant inheritance has been proposed. Histologically, it is characterized by the presence of immature bony trabeculae and cementum-like calcifications within a hypercellular fibroblastic stroma. It shares morphological features with fl... |
| C202252 | An osteoma that arises from the surface of the bone. |
| C202253 | An osteoma that arises from the endosteum. |
| C202254 | "A benign, well-circumscribed bone-forming neoplasm that is predominantly composed of lamellar bone and arises in the jaw. It affects the mandible more often than the maxilla." |
| C202256 | An osteoblastoma that arises from the jaw. It affects the mandible more often than the maxilla. |
| C202257 | A chondromyxoid fibroma that arises from the jaw. |
| C202258 | A desmoplastic fibroma that arises from the jaw. It affects the mandible more often than the maxilla. |
| C202260 | A rare osteochondroma that arises from a maxillofacial bone. |
| C202261 | An osteosarcoma that arises from the jaw. It affects the mandible more often than the maxilla. |
| C202262 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects a maxillofacial bone. |
| C202263 | "An aggressive, high-grade rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by TFCP2 rearrangement that results either in TFCP2-FUS or TFCP2-EWSR1 fusion gene formation. It affects young adults and arises from bone and less frequently soft tissue. It predominantly affects the craniofacial bones. Histologically, it usually shows a biphasic pattern with spindle and epithelioid cell areas. It is associated with poor prognosis." |
| C202264 | A rhabdomyosarcoma with TFCP2 rearrangement that arises from a maxillofacial bone. |
| C202265 | A rhabdomyosarcoma with TFCP2 rearrangement that arises from the jaw. It affects the mandible more often than the maxilla. |
| C202298 | A malignant glioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C202299 | A low-grade glioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C202497 | A group of renal cell carcinomas characterized by the absence of lipid-containing clear adenocarcinoma cells. This category includes the following morphological subtypes: papillary renal cell carcinoma; sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma; chromophobe renal cell carcinoma; tubulocystic renal cell carcinoma; and eosinophilic solid and cystic renal cell carcinoma. |
| C202500 | A digestive system adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C202543 | "Sex reversal in an individual with 46,XY karyotype caused by point mutations or deletions in the NR0B1 gene, encoding nuclear receptor subfamily 0 group B member 1." |
| C202544 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the GMPPA gene, encoding mannose-1-phosphate guanyltransferase alpha. It is characterized by alacrima, achalasia, and impaired intellectual development." |
| C202545 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the RYR1 gene, encoding ryanodine receptor 1. The phenotype is variable, but generally includes weakness in the proximal muscles of the lower limb and individuals are at increased risk for malignant hyperthermia." |
| C202546 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the NKX2-1 gene, encoding homeobox protein Nkx-2.1. It is characterized by choreoathetosis, congenital hypothyroidism, and pulmonary dysfunction." |
| C202547 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the UBA5 gene, encoding ubiquitin-like modifier-activating enzyme 5." |
| C202548 | "An X-linked dominant subtype of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the SMC1A gene,  encoding structural maintenance of chromosomes protein 1A." |
| C202572 | "A relatively common non-neoplastic inflammatory and degenerative lesion that affects the external ear. It is characterized by necrotic changes in the dermis and perichondrium. It usually affects the helix. Patients present with a painful nodule that contains a cup-shaped crater filled with necrotic debris, inflammatory cells, and fibrin. It is caused by helmets, headsets, actinic changes, and frostbite resulting in dermal microtraumas. It is often confused clinically with squamous or basal ... |
| C202573 | A degenerative pseudocystic lesion that affects the auricular cartilaginous plate. Causes include ischemic necrosis and trauma. |
| C202574 | "An osteoma that arises from the bony cortex of the external auditory canal and, rarely, the middle ear." |
| C202582 | A rare papilloma that arises from the middle ear and resembles a sinonasal papilloma. Approximately half of the patients have concurrent sinonasal or nasopharyngeal papillomas. |
| C202583 | An inverted papilloma that arises from the middle ear and resembles a sinonasal inverted papilloma. |
| C202584 | An exophytic papilloma that arises from the middle ear and resembles an exophytic sinonasal papilloma. |
| C202585 | An oncocytic papilloma that arises from the middle ear and resembles an oncocytic sinonasal papilloma. |
| C202594 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the keratinizing squamous epithelium that lines the external auditory canal. |
| C202602 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the TBCD gene, encoding tubulin-specific chaperone D. It is characterized by encephalopathy, cerebellar and cerebral atrophy, and a thin corpus callosum." |
| C202603 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the CACNA1A gene, encoding voltage-dependent P/Q-type calcium channel subunit alpha-1A. It is characterized by paroxysms of vertigo, visual disturbance, dysarthria, and ataxia." |
| C202604 | "An autosomal dominant type of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis caused by mutation(s) in the PAX2  gene, encoding which paired box protein Pax-2." |
| C202606 | "An autosomal dominant neurodevelopmental syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the GATAD2B gene, encoding transcriptional repressor p66-beta. It is characterized by global developmental delay and intellectual impairment." |
| C202607 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ADAMTSL2 gene, encoding ADAMTS-like protein 2. It is characterized by severe short stature, short hands and feet, skin thickening, and variable cardiorespiratory abnormalities." |
| C202608 | "A rare autosomal recessive subtype of mitochondrial dysfunctions syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the IBA57 gene, encoding putative transferase CAF17, mitochondrial. It is characterized by encephalopathy, leukodystrophy and developmental regression." |
| C202609 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm that arises from the buccal mucosa. |
| C202610 | "An autosomal recessive primary ciliary motility defect caused by mutation(s) in the MCIDAS gene, encoding multicilin." |
| C202611 | "A liposarcoma that arises from the head and neck. The majority affect the subcutaneous connective tissue of the face, neck, and scalp." |
| C202612 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CCN6 gene, encoding cellular communication network factor 6. It is a progressive arthropathy that clinically resembles rheumatoid arthritis but differs in its radiological appearance." |
| C202613 | "Nodular fasciitis that arises from the head and neck. It usually affects the face, oral cavity, orbit, ear, parotid gland, and neck." |
| C202620 | A solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the orbit. Most of these tumors are benign. |
| C202621 | A low-grade myofibroblastic sarcoma arising from the tongue. |
| C202622 | A low-grade myofibroblastic sarcoma arising from the gingiva. |
| C202623 | A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the soft tissue of the head and neck. |
| C202624 | A non-metastasizing mesenchymal neoplasm that lacks cytological/morphological atypical features and arises from the soft tissue of the head and neck. |
| C202625 | A mesenchymal neoplasm with cytological/morphological malignant features and metastatic potential that arises from the soft tissue of the head and neck. |
| C202633 | "A colon carcinoma that arises from cecum, ascending colon, or hepatic flexure." |
| C202634 | "A colon carcinoma that arises from the splenic flexure, descending colon, or sigmoid colon." |
| C202635 | "An inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor that arises from the head and neck. The most frequently affected sites are the larynx, sinonasal tract, and oral cavity." |
| C202646 | "A benign adipose tissue neoplasm that arises from the head and neck. The most frequently affected sites are the lower lip, buccal mucosa, and tongue." |
| C202647 | A hemangioma that arises from the head and neck. The most frequently affected sites are the oral cavity and sinonasal tract mucosa. |
| C202652 | "An epithelioid hemangioma that arises from the head and neck. The most frequently affected sites are the forehead, preauricular region, and scalp." |
| C202654 | A lymphangioma that arises from the head and neck. It usually affects the skin and soft tissue of the head and neck region. |
| C202655 | "A rare epithelioid hemangioendothelioma that arises from the head and neck. The most frequently affected sites are the oral cavity, soft tissue of the neck, and salivary glands." |
| C202656 | "An angiosarcoma that arises from the head and neck. The most frequently affected sites are the oral cavity, nasal cavity, and maxillary sinus." |
| C202711 | A benign neoplasm with smooth muscle differentiation that arises from the head and neck. The most frequently affected site is the oral cavity. |
| C202849 | "A rare neoplasm of uncertain biological potential that arises from the head and neck. It is associated with EBV infection, exhibits smooth muscle differentiation, and occurs in immunocompromised patients. The most frequent sites of involvement are the larynx, oropharynx, and eye/orbit." |
| C202851 | A neoplasm with smooth muscle differentiation that cannot be reliably diagnosed as benign or malignant because of the presence of ambiguous morphologic findings. The vast majority of cases arise from the female reproductive system. Malignant behavior has been reported in a minority of cases. |
| C202852 | A rare smooth muscle tumor of uncertain malignant potential that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C202853 | A malignant neoplasm with smooth muscle differentiation that arises from the head and neck. The most frequently affected sites are the subcutaneous and deep neck soft tissues. |
| C202858 | "A benign neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation that arises from the head and neck. It usually affects the mouth, parapharyngeal space, larynx, salivary glands, and soft tissue of the neck." |
| C202859 | "A malignant neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation that arises from the head and neck. It usually affects the orbit, eyelid, ear, sinonasal tract, and nasopharynx." |
| C202860 | A neurofibroma that arises from the oral cavity. The tongue is the most frequently affected site. |
| C202861 | A neurofibroma that arises from the tongue. |
| C202876 | A schwannoma that arises from the oral cavity. |
| C202877 | A schwannoma that arises from the tongue. |
| C202878 | "A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that arises from the head and neck. It usually affects the soft tissue of the neck. The head and neck region is the most frequently involved site for malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors, following the trunk and extremities." |
| C202879 | "A phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor that arises from the head and neck. It usually affects the paranasal sinuses. The head and neck region is the most frequently involved site for phosphaturic mesenchymal tumors, following the appendicular skeleton." |
| C202880 | A phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor that arises from the appendicular skeleton. The appendicular skeleton is the most frequently involved site for phosphaturic mesenchymal tumors. |
| C202881 | An extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma that arises from the head and neck. The orbit is the most frequently affected site. |
| C202882 | An extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma that arises from the orbit. The orbit is the most frequently affected site for extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcomas in the head and neck region. |
| C202883 | A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of poorly differentiated morphological features and absence of spindle cells. |
| C202884 | A synovial sarcoma that arises from the head and neck region. |
| C202894 | Prostate small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C202896 | "A rare mesenchymal neoplasm of uncertain histogenesis that arises from soft tissue and viscera. It is characterized by the presence of nests and sheets of neoplastic epithelioid cells separated by a rich delicate arborizing vascular network, and GLI1 gene rearrangement. It presents as a slow-growing painless mass. The majority of cases have an indolent clinical course following complete excision. Distant metastases have been reported in a minority of cases." |
| C202897 | A GLI1-altered soft tissue tumor that arises from the head and neck. The majority of cases arise from the tongue. Less frequently involved sites include the submandibular gland and soft tissue of neck. |
| C202898 | A GLI1-altered soft tissue tumor that arises from the tongue. |
| C202899 | Non-muscle invasive bladder carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C202901 | An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that arises from the head and neck region. |
| C202904 | "A Ewing sarcoma that arises from the head and neck region. The most frequent sites of involvement are the skull and facial bones, head and neck soft tissue, and mandible." |
| C202914 | A rare myeloid sarcoma that arises from the head and neck region. The oral cavity is the most frequently affected site. |
| C202921 | "A Hodgkin or non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the head and neck region. Hodgkin lymphomas are usually located in the lymph nodes of the neck. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas usually arise from the ocular adnexa, salivary glands, larynx, and thyroid gland." |
| C202922 | A Hodgkin lymphoma that affects the head and neck region. It is usually located in the lymph nodes of the neck. |
| C202923 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that affects the head and neck region. It usually arises from the ocular adnexa, salivary glands, larynx, and thyroid gland." |
| C202924 | An extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that affects the head and neck region. It usually arises from the ocular adnexa and salivary glands. |
| C202925 | "A mantle cell lymphoma that affects the head and neck region. The most common site of involvement is the Waldeyer ring, usually the tonsils. Other sites of involvement include the orbit, salivary glands, and nasopharynx." |
| C202926 | "A follicular lymphoma that arises from the head and neck region. It usually affects older individuals, and the most common sites of involvement are the cervical lymph nodes and Waldeyer ring." |
| C202927 | A pediatric-type follicular lymphoma that affects the head and neck region. |
| C202929 | "A large B-cell lymphoma with IRF4 rearrangement that arises from the head and neck region, usually the Waldeyer ring and/or cervical lymph nodes." |
| C202930 | "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the head and neck region. It affects both lymph nodes and extranodal sites. The most frequently affected extranodal site is the Waldeyer ring, particularly the palatine tonsil." |
| C202935 | "A Burkitt lymphoma that arises from the head and neck region. In patients with endemic Burkitt lymphoma, the jaws and other facial bones are usually affected. In patients with sporadic Burkitt lymphoma, the gingiva, orbit, and Waldeyer ring are usually affected. In patients with immunodeficiency-related Burkitt lymphoma, the lymph nodes are usually affected." |
| C202936 | A plasmablastic lymphoma that arises from the head and neck region. The most frequently affected site is the oral cavity. |
| C202952 | "A spectrum of T-cell lymphoproliferative disorders that arise from skin, subcutaneous tissue, and head and neck mucosal sites. They are characterized by the presence of CD30-positive neoplastic lymphocytes. Cells that resemble the hallmark cells of anaplastic large cell lymphoma are often seen." |
| C202953 | "A spectrum of T-cell lymphoproliferative disorders that arise from the mucosal sites of the head and neck. They are characterized by the presence of CD30-positive neoplastic lymphoid cells with pleomorphic nuclei and abundant cytoplasm. Cells that resemble the hallmark cells of anaplastic large cell lymphoma are often seen. The lesions usually arise from the oral cavity and, less frequently, the conjunctiva, orbit, and nasopharynx. In most cases complete remission is achieved, following exc... |
| C202954 | A neoplasm of hematopoietic and lymphoid cell origin that affects the head and neck region. |
| C202955 | "A spectrum of T-cell lymphoproliferative disorders that arise from the oral mucosa and are characterized by the presence of CD30-positive neoplastic lymphoid cells with pleomorphic nuclei and abundant cytoplasm. Cells that resemble the hallmark cells of anaplastic large cell lymphoma are often seen. The lesions arise from the gingiva, buccal mucosa, tongue, and palate. Patients usually present with a mass that is often ulcerated. In most cases complete remission is achieved, following excis... |
| C202966 | "A benign histiocytic tumor that arises from the skin and occurs during childhood; it is distinct from Langerhans cell histiocytosis. It is characterized by the presence of lipid-laden, foamy histiocytes and Touton-type giant cells in the dermis. The lesions usually develop during infancy. They consist of cutaneous papules and nodules (most often in the head and neck)." |
| C202967 | "A benign histiocytic tumor that usually arises from the skin of the head and neck and occurs during childhood. It is distinct from Langerhans cell histiocytosis. Rarely, it can arise from extracutaneous head and neck sites, including the eye, ocular adnexa, oral cavity, paranasal sinuses, and ear. It is characterized by the presence of lipid-laden, foamy histiocytes and Touton-type giant cells." |
| C202971 | "Rosai-Dorfman-Destombes disease that affects the head and neck region. It usually affects the cervical lymph nodes. Extranodal head and neck sites of involvement include the orbit, oral cavity, nasal cavity, and paranasal sinuses." |
| C202972 | "Erdheim-Chester disease that affects the head and neck region. Patients present with xanthelasma-like lesions in the face, neck, and around the eyes." |
| C202973 | A plasmacytoma that arises from the head and neck region. |
| C202975 | "A dermoid cyst that arises from the head and neck region. It usually affects the orbit, periorbital tissue, dorsum of the nose, floor of the mouth, and ear." |
| C202977 | An exceptionally rare benign or malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the head and neck region. It usually affects the sinonasal tract and nasopharynx. |
| C202978 | An exceptionally rare benign or malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. |
| C202979 | An exceptionally rare benign or malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C202980 | An exceptionally rare mature or immature teratoma that arises from the head and neck region. |
| C202981 | An exceptionally rare mature or immature teratoma that arises from the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. |
| C202982 | An exceptionally rare mature or immature teratoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C202983 | An exceptionally rare malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the head and neck region. It usually affects the sinonasal tract and nasopharynx. |
| C202984 | An exceptionally rare malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. |
| C202985 | An exceptionally rare malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C202986 | "The reemergence of HHV8-positive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified, after a period of remission." |
| C202987 | "HHV8-positive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified that is resistant to treatment." |
| C202989 | Lymphomatoid granulomatosis that is resistant to treatment. |
| C202990 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C202991 | A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C202992 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the nasal cavity. |
| C202993 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the paranasal sinuses. |
| C202994 | A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the nasal cavity. |
| C202995 | A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the paranasal sinuses. |
| C202996 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C202997 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the paranasal sinuses. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C203002 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C203004 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the paranasal sinuses and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C203005 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C203006 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the paranasal sinuses and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C203007 | "A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. There is no evidence of necrosis, the mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2, and the Ki-67 index is less than 20%." |
| C203008 | "A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the nasal cavity. There is no evidence of necrosis, the mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2, and the Ki-67 index is less than 20%." |
| C203009 | "A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the paranasal sinuses. There is no evidence of necrosis, the mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2, and the Ki-67 index is less than 20%." |
| C203010 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. There is necrosis present and/or the mitotic count is 2-10 per 2 mm2. The Ki-67 index is less than 20%. |
| C203011 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the nasal cavity. There is necrosis present and/or the mitotic count is 2-10 per 2 mm2. The Ki-67 index is less than 20%. |
| C203012 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the paranasal sinuses. There is necrosis present and/or the mitotic count is 2-10 per 2 mm2. The Ki-67 index is less than 20%. |
| C203013 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C203014 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C203015 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C203016 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the oropharynx. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C203017 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the oropharynx and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C203018 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the oropharynx and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C203250 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm. It arises from multiple sites, including the digestive system, lung, and head and neck." |
| C203251 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade epithelial neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation. It usually arises from the digestive system." |
| C203252 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G3 that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C203253 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from any part of the digestive system and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C203258 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C203259 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C203260 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C203262 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the sigmoid colon, descending colon, or rectum. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C203263 | Diffuse midline glioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203265 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the sigmoid colon, descending colon, or rectum. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C203266 | "A well-differentiated, high-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the sigmoid colon, descending colon, or rectum. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%." |
| C203267 | The reemergence of diffuse midline glioma after a period of remission. |
| C203269 | "Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant that is not amenable to surgical resection." |
| C203270 | "Oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant and 1p/19q-codeleted that is not amenable to surgical resection." |
| C203271 | "Diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27M-mutant that is not amenable to surgical resection." |
| C203272 | "Diffuse hemispheric glioma, H3 G34-mutant that is not amenable to surgical resection." |
| C203273 | "The reemergence of diffuse hemispheric glioma, H3 G34-mutant after a period of remission." |
| C203274 | The reemergence of an astrocytic tumor after a period of remission. |
| C203282 | An astrocytic tumor that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203283 | A pilocytic astrocytoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203284 | An oligodendroglioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203285 | The reemergence of a diffuse glioma after a period of remission. |
| C203286 | A diffuse glioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203302 | The reemergence of glioneuronal and neuronal tumors after a period of remission. |
| C203308 | Glioneuronal and neuronal tumors that are not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203309 | A primary central nervous system neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203310 | A primary malignant central nervous system neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203311 | A fallopian tube high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C203312 | A primary peritoneal high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C203313 | A platinum-resistant fallopian tube carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C203314 | A platinum-resistant primary peritoneal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C203315 | A platinum-resistant fallopian tube carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203316 | A platinum-resistant primary peritoneal carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203331 | A breast adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203339 | The reemergence of breast ductal carcinoma in situ after a period of remission. |
| C203341 | The reemergence of breast medullary carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C203342 | The reemergence of breast mucinous carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C203344 | The reemergence of breast papillary carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C203362 | The reemergence of breast tubular carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C203369 | A WHO grade 4 glioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C203370 | "A salivary gland adenocarcinoma, not otherwise specified, characterized by the presence of high-grade morphological features." |
| C203374 | "A salivary gland adenocarcinoma, not otherwise specified, characterized by the presence of low-grade morphological features." |
| C203375 | "A salivary gland adenocarcinoma, not otherwise specified, characterized by the presence of intermediate-grade morphological features." |
| C203376 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from the salivary gland. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of intestinal-type malignant epithelial cells." |
| C203380 | A salivary gland secretory carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C203381 | The reemergence of salivary gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C203384 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the colon. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C203385 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the rectum. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C203386 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the cecum." |
| C203387 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the ascending colon." |
| C203388 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the descending colon." |
| C203389 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the sigmoid colon." |
| C203390 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the transverse colon." |
| C203391 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the ascending colon. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C203392 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the cecum. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C203393 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the descending colon. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C203394 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the sigmoid colon. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C203395 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the transverse colon. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C203406 | A bladder adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C203407 | A bladder adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C203409 | Bladder adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203410 | A bladder squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C203411 | Bladder squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203412 | A kidney medullary carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C203413 | Penile squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C203415 | A bladder small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C203422 | A group of non-neoplastic and neoplastic disorders characterized by the proliferation of histiocytes. This category includes hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis and histiocytic and dendritic cell neoplasms. |
| C203426 | T acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by an ectopic activation of the HOXA genes. |
| C203428 | T acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by the presence of SPI1 gene rearrangement. It has a poor prognosis. |
| C203431 | T acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by the presence of TLX1 gene rearrangement. |
| C203432 | T acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by the presence of TLX3 gene rearrangement. |
| C203433 | T acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by the presence of TAL1 gene rearrangement. |
| C203434 | T acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by the presence of LMO1 gene rearrangement. |
| C203435 | T acute lymphoblastic leukemia characterized by the presence of LMO2 gene rearrangement. |
| C203436 | "An autosomal dominant disorder characterized by decreased platelets, bleeding tendency, and mutation in the ETV6 gene. It is associated with an increased risk of developing hematologic malignancy." |
| C203437 | A rare acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage characterized by the presence of BCL11B gene rearrangement. |
| C203443 | Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia characterized by the absence of a markedly elevated white blood cell count in the peripheral blood. |
| C203444 | Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of a markedly elevated white blood cell count in the peripheral blood. |
| C203448 | "A disorder of platelets characterized by a finding of low platelet concentrations (thrombocytopenia) typically below 50,000 platelets per microliter of blood." |
| C203453 | A rare severe combined immunodeficiency disorder caused by null mutations in recombination activating gene (RAG) 1 or RAG2. It is associated with a lack of T and B cells. |
| C203455 | "A severe combined immunodeficiency disorder that is associated with a lack of T, B, and NK cells." |
| C203458 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited primary immunodeficiency disorder caused by mutations in either PIK3CD gene or PIK3R1 gene. Clinical manifestations include the following: recurrent respiratory tract infections; non-malignant lymphoproliferation that results in generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly; chronic infections with Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex virus; cytopenia; and glomerulonephritis. Patients are at an increased risk of developing non-Hod... |
| C203459 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited primary immunodeficiency disorder caused by mutations in PIK3CD gene. Clinical manifestations include the following: recurrent respiratory tract infections; non-malignant lymphoproliferation that results in generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly; chronic infections with Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex virus; cytopenia; and glomerulonephritis. Patients are at an increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lympho... |
| C203461 | Familial hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis caused by biallelic mutations in the STX11 gene. |
| C203462 | Familial hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis caused by biallelic mutations in the PRF1 gene. |
| C203463 | Familial hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis caused by biallelic mutations in the UNC13D gene. |
| C203464 | Familial hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis caused by biallelic mutations in the STXBP2 gene. |
| C203465 | "An autosomal recessive combined immunodeficiency caused by mutation(s) in the MRTFA (MKL1) gene, encoding myocardin-related transcription factor A. It is characterized by neutropenia and recurrent bacterial infections in infancy." |
| C203469 | T acute lymphoblastic leukemias characterized by the presence of recurring cytogenetic and/or molecular abnormalities. |
| C203511 | Olfactory neuroblastoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C203513 | Olfactory neuroblastoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C203515 | Sinonasal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C203523 | Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C203526 | A neuroblastoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C203528 | Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C203534 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the ATP13A2 gene, encoding polyamine-transporting ATPase 13A2." |
| C203535 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the SYNJ1 gene, encoding synaptojanin-1." |
| C203536 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the VPS13C gene, encoding intermembrane lipid transfer protein VPS13C." |
| C203583 | A sarcoma in which the grade cannot be evaluated. |
| C203618 | Appendix adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C203619 | Appendix adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203667 | The reemergence of primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C203669 | Primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C203673 | A carcinoma that arises from the esophagus or gastroesophageal junction. |
| C203675 | A carcinoma that arises from the gastroesophageal junction. The vast majority of cases are adenocarcinomas. Rare cases are neuroendocrine carcinomas. |
| C203700 | A HER2-low breast adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C203795 | A very rare mixed neuroendocrine non-neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the pancreas and is composed of ductal adenocarcinoma and a neuroendocrine tumor component. |
| C203799 | Actinic keratosis characterized by the presence of dermal projections of nested atypical keratinocytes and dense dermal inflammation. |
| C203800 | "Actinic keratosis characterized by the presence of epidermal hyperplasia, parakeratosis, and orthokeratosis." |
| C203801 | Actinic keratosis characterized by the presence of a band-like chronic inflammatory infiltrate in the papillary dermis and vacuolar changes in the basal keratinocytes. |
| C203802 | Actinic keratosis characterized by the presence of marked epidermal atrophy. |
| C203803 | Actinic keratosis characterized by the presence of acantholysis of the dysplastic keratinocytes. |
| C203804 | Actinic keratosis characterized by the presence of increased melanin pigmentation in the basal keratinocytes. |
| C203806 | "Actinic keratosis characterized by the presence of usually focal, nearly full-thickness squamous atypia." |
| C203815 | "The reemergence of non-invasive bladder papillary urothelial carcinoma, low grade after a period of remission." |
| C203825 | "An autosomal recessive form of severe combined immunodeficiency characterized as T-cell negative, B-cell positive, NK cell positive, and with mutations in the gene encoding interleukin-7 receptor alpha chain protein. This class of SCID accounts for approximately 10% of all SCID cases." |
| C203904 | "A phase of chronic myeloid leukemia, Philadelphia chromosome positive, BCR-ABL1 positive in which the peripheral blood smear shows leukocytosis with neutrophils in different stages of maturation, less than 2% blasts, and normal or increased platelet count. Most patients have mild anemia. The bone marrow is hypercellular due to increased numbers of neutrophils and their precursors, and blasts usually account for fewer than 5% of the marrow cells. Megakaryocytes are smaller than normal and ha... |
| C203946 | A low-grade mucinous adenocarcinoma that has spread to the peritoneum. |
| C203948 | A high-grade mucinous adenocarcinoma that has spread to the peritoneum. |
| C203949 | A high-grade mucinous adenocarcinoma that has spread to the peritoneum and is characterized by the presence of signet ring malignant cells. |
| C203968 | A wart on the palmar surface of the hand. It is caused by human papillomavirus. |
| C203969 | "A wart characterized by the presence of flat-topped cutaneous papules. It is caused by human papillomavirus. It most commonly affects children and usually arises on the face, hands, and shins." |
| C204035 | Pancreatic adenosquamous carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C204036 | A digestive system neuroendocrine tumor that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C204037 | A digestive system neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C204038 | A digestive system neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C204124 | The reemergence of a B-cell malignant neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C204126 | A B-cell malignant neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C204355 | A nodular basal cell carcinoma composed of solid and cystic areas. |
| C204383 | A Merkel cell carcinoma that is associated with Merkel cell polyoma virus infection. |
| C204385 | A Merkel cell carcinoma that is not associated with Merkel cell polyoma virus infection. |
| C204437 | A HER2-low breast adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C204482 | A nevus characterized by an intraepidermal proliferation of nested melanocytes along the basal epidermis. |
| C204514 | "A benign melanocytic neoplasm composed of spindle and/or epithelioid melanocytes and melanophages. It is caused by the combined activation of the WNT signaling and MAP-kinase pathways. It occurs in the head and neck region, trunk, extremities, and conjunctiva. It presents with well-circumscribed, darkly pigmented papules. The neoplastic melanocytes form wedge-shaped, fascicular, or plexiform patterns. Lesions with a wedge-shaped pattern extend into the deep reticular dermis. In plexiform sp... |
| C204516 | "A WNT-activated deep penetrating/plexiform melanocytoma (nevus) characterized by the proliferation of neoplastic melanocytes in the upper dermis, forming a plexiform pattern." |
| C204574 | A pigmented epithelioid melanocytoma that is associated with PRKAR1A gene inactivation. |
| C204739 | A cutaneous neoplasm associated with MITF gene rearrangement and either ACTIN-MITF translocation or MITF-CREM translocation. It is composed of large cells with clear cytoplasm that exhibit melanocytic differentiation and proliferate in the dermis. It presents as a single non-pigmented cutaneous nodule. |
| C204740 | A MITF pathway-activated melanocytic tumor characterized by a cytogenetic translocation between ACTIN and MITF genes that results in ACTIN-MITF gene fusion. It presents as a single non-pigmented cutaneous nodule in the distal extremities or trunk. It is composed of large cells with clear cytoplasm that exhibit melanocytic differentiation and proliferate in the dermis without an intraepidermal component. Extension in the subcutaneous tissue is frequently seen. Atypical nuclear features may be ... |
| C204741 | "A MITF pathway-activated melanocytic tumor characterized by a cytogenetic translocation between MITF and CREM genes that results in MITF-CREM gene fusion. It presents as a single non-pigmented cutaneous nodule in the distal extremities. It is composed of large cells with clear cytoplasm that exhibit melanocytic differentiation and proliferate in the dermis without an intraepidermal component. Extension in the subcutaneous tissue is frequently seen. The neoplastic cells exhibit atypical feat... |
| C204755 | A clear cell tumor with melanocytic differentiation characterized by a cytogenetic translocation between ACTB and MITF genes that results in ACTB-MITF gene fusion. |
| C204756 | A clear cell tumor with melanocytic differentiation characterized by a cytogenetic translocation between ACTG1 and MITF genes that results in ACTG1-MITF gene fusion. |
| C204787 | A cutaneous Spitz nevus characterized by the presence of both junctional and dermal melanocytic components. |
| C204788 | A cutaneous Spitz nevus characterized by the presence of a junctional melanocytic component without involvement of the dermis. |
| C204789 | A cutaneous Spitz nevus characterized by the presence of an intradermal melanocytic component without junctional melanocytic activity. |
| C204790 | "A term that refers to a group of cutaneous melanocytic neoplasms that are composed of epithelioid and/or spindle cells and extend from the epidermis into the reticular dermis, often in a wedge-shaped configuration. They are usually associated with oncogenic mutations that activate the MAP-kinase pathway. This category includes Spitz nevus, Spitz melanocytoma, and Spitz melanoma." |
| C204840 | A melanoma that arises from the skin in the absence of severe actinic keratosis. It can arise from a pre-existing nevus or de novo. |
| C204843 | "A cutaneous melanoma that develops on sun exposed sites with low cumulative sun damage (CSD). It is characterized by a prominent junctional and intraepidermal component with intraepidermal proliferation of individual atypical melanocytes and formation of nests of atypical melanocytes along the dermal-epidermal junction. The dermal component is composed of atypical melanocytes that fail to mature. The atypical melanocytes have large nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and eosinophilic or lightly pig... |
| C204864 | A melanoma that arises from a chronically sun-exposed skin area. It is associated with severe actinic keratosis. |
| C204865 | A platinum-refractory ovarian carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C204866 | A platinum-refractory ovarian carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C204867 | A platinum-refractory ovarian carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C204868 | A platinum-refractory ovarian carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C204883 | "A cutaneous melanoma that arises from the palms, soles, and nails." |
| C204887 | A melanoma that arises from the area underneath a fingernail or toenail. It affects the fingernails more often than the toenails. |
| C204888 | A melanoma that arises from the palmar surface of hands and plantar surface of feet. |
| C204889 | A melanoma that arises from the nail plate. |
| C204907 | A nevus that arises from a mucosal site. |
| C204910 | A blue nevus characterized by the proliferation of dendritic melanocytes in sclerotic stromal collagen. |
| C204911 | A dendritic blue nevus characterized by the presence of prominent sclerotic stromal collagen. |
| C204932 | Gastrointestinal tract acute graft versus host disease that is responsive to treatment with steroids but relapses during attempts at tapering or discontinuing steroid therapy. |
| C204976 | A cutaneous congenital nevus measuring 15-200 mm. It is typically amenable to surgical resection. |
| C204977 | "A melanocytic neoplasm that arises from the conjunctiva. This category includes conjunctival nevi, conjunctival melanocytic intraepithelial lesions, and conjunctival melanomas." |
| C204978 | "A melanocytic nevus that arises from the conjunctiva and is characterized by the presence of large melanocytes with clear, foamy, or finely vacuolated cytoplasm." |
| C204979 | Conjunctival melanocytic intraepithelial lesion characterized by the presence of mild atypia. |
| C204980 | Conjunctival melanocytic intraepithelial lesion characterized by the presence of moderate to severe atypia. |
| C204981 | A term that refers to conjunctival melanocytic intraepithelial lesions with severe atypia involving close to full thickness of the epithelium or lesions with histologic characteristics of melanoma that lack documented evidence of subepithelial invasion. |
| C204982 | Fallopian tube high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C204984 | The reemergence of platinum-resistant fallopian tube high-grade serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C204985 | Primary peritoneal high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C204986 | The reemergence of platinum-resistant primary peritoneal high-grade serous adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C204987 | Ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C204988 | Fallopian tube high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C204991 | Primary peritoneal high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C205057 | "A melanocytic neoplasm that arises from the iris, ciliary body, and choroid. This category includes nevus and its subtype melanocytoma, and melanoma." |
| C205069 | A diffuse proliferation of melanocytes that affects the leptomeninges. This category includes melanocytosis and melanomatosis. |
| C205125 | "A melanoma that arises from the skin, conjunctiva, and mucosal sites. It is characterized by a vertical growth phase and lacks a significant radial growth phase. It may or may not arise from a pre-existing nevus. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of cohesive aggregates of neoplastic melanocytes in the dermis that often exhibit an epithelioid appearance. The overlying epidermis is often involved." |
| C205127 | A nodular melanoma that does not arise from a nevus and lacks a radial growth phase. |
| C205129 | A melanoma that is confined to the dermis and subcutaneous tissue without involvement of the epidermis. |
| C205130 | A melanoma that has spread to the skin from a cutaneous or extracutaneous primary site. |
| C205131 | A melanoma that has spread to the lymph nodes from a cutaneous or extracutaneous primary site. |
| C205132 | A melanoma that has spread to visceral organs from a cutaneous or extracutaneous primary site. |
| C205187 | An endometrial carcinoma that has a documented response to platinum-based chemotherapy. |
| C205188 | The reemergence of platinum-sensitive endometrial carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C205226 | A pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C205238 | "The reemergence of castration-sensitive prostate carcinoma in an anatomic site other than the prostate gland, after a period of remission." |
| C205286 | Bladder urothelial carcinoma confined to the lining of the bladder. |
| C205287 | "A stage term that refers to cervical carcinoma stages IA, IB, and IIA." |
| C205289 | A stage term referring to clear cell renal cell carcinoma that presents as a small tumor and is confined to the kidney. |
| C205290 | "A stage term referring to colorectal carcinoma that is limited to the colon/rectum or local lymph nodes, without metastasis to distant anatomic sites." |
| C205295 | A stage term referring to endometrial carcinoma that is confined to the uterus. |
| C205298 | A stage term referring to esophageal carcinoma that is confined to the esophageal mucosa or submucosa. |
| C205301 | A stage term referring to hepatocellular carcinoma that presents as a single tumor with the largest diameter measuring 2 cm or less. The liver function is well-preserved and there is no vascular invasion or metastasis. (Barcelona Liver Cancer Classification). |
| C205303 | "A stage term that refers to lung non-small cell carcinoma stages I, II, and IIIA." |
| C205307 | A stage term that refers to a malignant tumor confined to a limited area of the skin without lymph node or distant metastases. |
| C205308 | Cervical carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C205309 | Clear cell renal cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C205310 | Endometrial carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C205311 | Esophageal carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C205313 | Malignant solid neoplasm that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C205314 | Triple-negative breast carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C205357 | "A very rare carcinoma that arises from the sweat glands. It is characterized by mutations and rearrangement of the NUT gene. It presents as a papular or nodular skin lesion and has been described in the hand, shoulder, trunk, and lower limb. Histologically, there is a proliferation of malignant epithelial cells in the dermis and/or subcutaneous tissue. The tumor cells display round nuclei with prominent single nucleoli. Features include the presence of small round ducts and foci of abrupt k... |
| C205361 | A renal cell carcinoma that is mainly confined to the kidney with or without involvement of perinephric tissues and without evidence of spread to other organs. |
| C205363 | "A rare autosomal dominant inherited disorder associated with germline mutations of the CYLD tumor suppressor gene. It is characterized by the development of multiple cylindromas, usually in the skin of the scalp." |
| C205364 | "A rare autosomal dominant inherited disorder associated with germline mutations of the CYLD tumor suppressor gene. It is characterized by the development of multiple trichoepitheliomas in the central face and sometimes on the scalp, neck, or trunk." |
| C205371 | A rare subtype of trichoblastoma characterized by the presence of lobules of basaloid cells. The lobules are separated by fibrous stroma. It is associated with the expression of recurrent FOXK1/GRHL and GPS2/GRHL gene fusions. |
| C205459 | "A rare, benign cystic neoplasm that arises from the apocrine gland. It is characterized by the presence of papillary-like epithelial projections and more complex architectural patterns compared to apocrine hidrocystoma." |
| C205462 | A poroma with eccrine differentiation. |
| C205463 | A poroma with apocrine differentiation. |
| C205475 | A poroma characterized by the presence of aggregates of basaloid cells confined to the epidermis. |
| C205476 | A poroma characterized by the presence of a single or several nodules of neoplastic cells forming solid and cystic areas in the dermis. |
| C205539 | A hidradenoma characterized by the presence of solid lobular neoplastic cell proliferations and cystic spaces filled with homogeneous eosinophilic material. |
| C205541 | "The development of multiple skin tumors including cylindromas, spiradenomas, trichoepitheliomas, and rarely, basal cell adenoma of the salivary gland. It usually manifests in the second or third decade. The tumors typically arise from the scalp and face but can also arise from the torso and sun-protected sites. It is caused by germline mutations of the tumor suppressor gene CYLD." |
| C205551 | "A skin myoepithelioma characterized by a solid syncytial growth of ovoid, spindled, or histiocytoid cells. The majority of cases are associated with EWSR1/PBX3 gene fusion." |
| C205615 | Laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C205616 | Laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C205617 | Hypopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C205618 | Hypopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C205619 | Lip and oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C205620 | Lip and oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C205621 | Head and neck squamous cell carcinoma that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C205628 | "A disorder caused by changes in the structure of transthyretin protein, affecting its ability to form tetramers. The tetramers break down and form strands of amyloid fibrils. The fibrils clump together and form amyloid deposits in tissues, causing irreversible damage. It can be hereditary, caused by mutations in the TTR gene or age-related." |
| C205629 | "An autosomal dominant hereditary disorder caused by mutations in the TTR gene. These mutations alter the structure of transthyretin protein, affecting its ability to form tetramers. The tetramers break down and form strands of amyloid fibrils. The fibrils clump together and form amyloid deposits in tissues, causing irreversible damage. Forms of ATTR amyloidosis include neuropathic, cardiac, and leptomeningeal, which primarily affects the central nervous system." |
| C205630 | ATTR amyloidosis that is not caused by genetic mutations. It is age-related and results from the collection of misfolded transthyretin amyloid proteins in various organs. |
| C205632 | Plasma cell leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C205633 | "An autosomal dominant allelic variant of epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica caused by heterozygous mutation(s) in the COL7A1 gene, encoding collagen alpha-1(VII) chain." |
| C205634 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of familial hemiplegic migraine caused by mutation(s) in the  SCN1A gene, encoding sodium channel protein type 1 subunit alpha." |
| C205635 | "An autosomal dominant type of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis caused by mutation(s) in the TRPC6 gene, encoding short transient receptor potential channel 6." |
| C205640 | "An autosomal recessive neurodegenerative condition caused by mutation(s) in the RNF216 gene, encoding E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase RNF216. It is characterized by dementia and movement disorders. This phenotype is associated with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism." |
| C205642 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the NOVA2 gene, encoding RNA-binding protein Nova-2. It is characterized by global developmental delay, impaired speech development, and behavioral characteristics of autism." |
| C205643 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of Parkinson disease, caused by mutation(s) in the CHCHD2 gene, encoding coiled-coil-helix-coiled-coil-helix domain-containing protein 2." |
| C205644 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SMARCA2 gene, encoding probable global transcription activator SNF2L2. It is characterized by severe intellectual disability, early-onset seizures, and facial dysmorphia." |
| C205645 | "An X-linked subtype of lissencephaly caused by mutation(s) in the DCX gene, encoding neuronal migration protein doublecortin." |
| C205647 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the KCNH1 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily H member 1. It is characterized by gingival fibromatosis, abnormal fingernails, and characteristic facies." |
| C205745 | A germinoma that arises from the basal ganglia. |
| C205746 | A germinoma that arises from the thalamus. |
| C205836 | A physical and psychological reliance on opioid drugs with clinically significant distress or impairment upon abstinence. |
| C205923 | A rare inherited disorder caused by germline mutation of the PLCD1 gene. It is characterized by the development of multiple pilomatricomas and is frequently associated with myotonic dystrophy and familial adenomatous polyposis. |
| C206070 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ADAR gene, encoding double-stranded RNA-specific adenosine deaminase. Clinical features and onset may vary significantly, but is characterized in its most severe form by cerebral atrophy, leukodystrophy, intracranial calcifications, chronic cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) lymphocytosis, and increased concentrations of CSF alpha-interferon." |
| C206077 | "A genetically heterogeneous condition characterized by clinical features and onset that may vary significantly. It is characterized in its most severe form by cerebral atrophy, leukodystrophy, intracranial calcifications, chronic cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) lymphocytosis, and increased concentrations of CSF alpha-interferon." |
| C206079 | "A rare hamartomatous papular lesion that arises from the hair follicle. It shares morphological features with fibrofolliculoma, but in contrast to fibrofolliculoma, the predominant component is stroma." |
| C206080 | A hamartoma that arises from the hair follicle. |
| C206081 | A hamartoma that arises from the eccrine or apocrine glands. |
| C206083 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of Alzheimer disease caused by mutation(s) in the ABCA7 gene, encoding phospholipid-transporting ATPase ABCA7. The onset is after the age of 65." |
| C206086 | "The reemergence of polycythemia vera, post-polycythemic myelofibrosis phase after a period of remission." |
| C206089 | The reemergence of post-essential thrombocythemia myelofibrosis after a period of remission. |
| C206090 | "An autosomal dominant form of congenital myopathy caused by mutation(s) in the MYH7 gene, encoding myosin-7." |
| C206095 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SORD gene, encoding sorbitol dehydrogenase. It is characterized by distal muscle weakness mainly affecting the lower limbs." |
| C206097 | "An autosomal recessive congenital disorder of glycosylation subtype caused by mutation(s) in the ALG8 gene, encoding probable dolichyl pyrophosphate Glc1Man9GlcNAc2 alpha-1,3-glucosyltransferase." |
| C206098 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the KCNT1 gene, encoding SZT2 subunit of KICSTOR complex." |
| C206099 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of dilated cardiomyopathy caused by mutation(s) in the CRYAB gene, encoding alpha-crystallin B chain." |
| C206102 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the TWNK gene, encoding twinkle mtDNA helicase. In both sexes, it is characterized by deafness, with ovarian dysgenesis in females." |
| C206103 | "An X-linked dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the FHL1 gene, encoding four and a half LIM domains protein 1. It is characterized by weakness in the shoulder-girdle and peroneal muscles." |
| C206108 | A proliferating trichilemmal tumor without atypical or malignant morphological characteristics and with absence of metastatic potential. |
| C206109 | A proliferating trichilemmal tumor with atypical morphological characteristics and absence of metastatic potential. |
| C206110 | "An autosomal dominant inherited form of retinal dystrophy caused by mutation(s) in the TIMP3 gene, encoding metalloproteinase inhibitor 3. It is characterized by night blindness or sudden loss of visual acuity, usually in the third to fourth decades of life due to choroidal neovascularization." |
| C206111 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SAMD12 gene, encoding sterile alpha motif domain-containing protein 12. It is characterized by adult onset cortical myoclonic tremor and epilepsy." |
| C206112 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the JUP gene, encoding junction plakoglobin. It is characterized by ectodermal abnormalities and right ventricular arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy." |
| C206113 | "An autosomal recessive form of nanophthalmos caused by mutation(s) in the MFRP gene, encoding membrane frizzled-related protein." |
| C206114 | "An autosomal dominant familial form of epilepsy caused by mutation(s) in the NPRL2 gene, encoding GATOR1 complex protein NPRL2." |
| C206115 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the NAXD gene, encoding ATP-dependent (S)-NAD(P)H-hydrate dehydratase." |
| C206116 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ABHD12 gene, encoding lysophosphatidylserine lipase ABHD12. It is characterized by polyneuropathy, hearing loss, ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa and cataract." |
| C206117 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the POLR3A gene, encoding DNA-directed RNA polymerase III subunit RPC1. It is characterized by cerebellar ataxia and/or lower limb spasticity." |
| C206118 | Hereditary breast carcinoma that is associated with a mutation in a gene other than the BRCA genes. |
| C206119 | A sebaceous carcinoma that arises from the periocular region. |
| C206121 | A term that refers to the classification of extraocular sebaceous carcinomas based on their molecular characteristics. |
| C206122 | "A molecular subtype of extraocular sebaceous carcinoma characterized by a high frequency of gene mutations, including TP53, RREB1, and Notch family gene mutations." |
| C206124 | A molecular subtype of extraocular sebaceous carcinoma characterized by HRAS and NOTCH1 gene mutations. |
| C206125 | A molecular subtype of extraocular sebaceous carcinoma characterized by HRAS and KRAS gene mutations. |
| C206153 | A benign or malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the nail bed. |
| C206155 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the nail bed. |
| C206156 | A rare benign neoplasm that arises from the nail matrix and rarely proximal nail fold and is composed of fibroepithelial cells. It is usually located in fingers and less often in toes. |
| C206158 | An onychomatricoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic fibroepithelial cells with multinucleated and pleomorphic nuclei. |
| C206163 | "A benign epithelial proliferation with papillary formations that arises from the distal nail matrix. In some cases, multinucleated keratinocytes are present. It is usually located in fingernails." |
| C206170 | A benign lesion that arises from the periungual area and is composed of fibrovascular tissue. |
| C206171 | Multiple ungual fibrokeratomas that develop in patients with tuberous sclerosis. |
| C206174 | A benign lesion of the nail plate that presents as a localized longitudinal melanonychia that is slightly raised (pachymelanonychia). |
| C206175 | A subtype of onychocytic matricoma characterized by the presence of acanthosis of the matrix epithelium. |
| C206176 | A subtype of onychocytic matricoma characterized by the presence of papillomatous projections of the matrix epithelium. |
| C206177 | A subtype of onychocytic matricoma characterized by the presence of thickened keratogenous zone of the matrix epithelium. |
| C206179 | "A rapidly growing, painful tumor that arises from the nail bed and is characterized by the proliferation of squamous cells, with histological features indistinguishable from squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C206180 | "A rapidly growing, painful nail bed tumor that is indistinguishable histologically from subungual keratoacanthoma and occurs in patients with incontinentia pigmenti." |
| C206181 | An onychomatricoma characterized by the presence of marked epithelial proliferation. |
| C206182 | An onychomatricoma characterized by the presence of epithelial and nail plate melanin pigmentation. |
| C206183 | An onychomatricoma characterized by the presence of myxoid stromal changes. |
| C206192 | "A term that refers to carcinomas that arise from the cervix, excluding squamous cell carcinomas. This category includes adenocarcinomas, adenoid basal carcinomas, adenoid cystic carcinomas, mucoepidermoid carcinomas, neuroendocrine carcinomas, and undifferentiated carcinomas." |
| C206195 | A non-squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the cervix and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C206197 | The reemergence of cervical non-squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C206198 | Cervical non-squamous cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C206199 | A cervical non-squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C206200 | A cervical non-squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C206202 | Cervical adenosquamous carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C206203 | A cervical non-squamous cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C206204 | A myeloid neoplasm that affects the skin. It is characterized by infiltration of skin by neoplastic myeloid cells and/or myeloblasts. |
| C206205 | A myeloid sarcoma that affects the skin. It may present in association with or as a site of relapse of acute myeloid leukemia. |
| C206206 | A clonal proliferation of neoplastic cells that are derived from plasmacytoid dendritic cells. It includes blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm and mature plasmacytoid dendritic cell proliferation associated with myeloid neoplasm. |
| C206207 | A clonal cutaneous proliferation of neoplastic cells that are derived from plasmacytoid dendritic cells. |
| C206208 | "A blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm that affects the skin. It manifests with patches, plaques, and nodules." |
| C206209 | ALK-positive histiocytosis that affects the skin. It manifests with solitary or multiple papular or nodular lesions. |
| C206210 | "A histiocytic sarcoma that affects the skin. The skin is commonly affected by histiocytic sarcomas, however primary involvement is very rare." |
| C206212 | An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of extracellular mucin and signet ring cells. |
| C206216 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: ovarian cancer with pleural effusion with positive cytology; IVB: ovarian cancer with hepatic and/or splenic parenchymal metastasis, metastasis to extra-abdominal organs (including inguinal lymph nodes and lymph nodes outside of the abdominal cavity). (FIGO 2014)" |
| C206217 | "A term that refers to the staging of endometrial carcinoma according to the International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging, 2023." |
| C206218 | "A term that refers to the staging of early endometrial carcinoma with molecular findings (Stages I and II after surgical staging) according to the International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging, 2023." |
| C206219 | "FIGO stage I includes: 1A1: non-aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma limited to a polyp or confined to the endometrium; 1A2: non-aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma involving less than 50% of the myometrium with no or focal lymphovascular space invasion (LVSI) as defined by WHO criteria; 1A3: low-grade endometrioid carcinoma limited to the uterus with simultaneous low-grade endometrioid ovarian involvement; IB: non-aggressive histological type of endometri... |
| C206220 | FIGO stage II includes: IIA: Non-aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma with invasion of cervical stroma without extrauterine extension; IIB: non-aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma with substantial LVSI; and IIC: aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma with any myometrial invasion. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206221 | "FIGO stage III includes: IIIA: endometrial carcinoma with invasion of uterine serosa, adnexa, or both by direct extension or metastasis; IIIB: endometrial carcinoma with metastasis or direct spread to the vagina and/or to the parametria or pelvic peritoneum; and IIIC: endometrial carcinoma with metastasis to the pelvic or para-aortic lymph nodes or both. (FIGO 2023)" |
| C206222 | FIGO stage IV includes: IVA: endometrial carcinoma with locally advanced disease infiltrating the bladder and/or the intestinal/bowel mucosa; IVB: endometrial carcinoma with extrapelvic peritoneal metastasis; and IVC: endometrial carcinoma with distant metastasis. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206223 | "POLEm endometrial carcinoma, confined to the uterine corpus or with cervical extension, regardless of the degree of LVSI or histological type. (FIGO 2023)" |
| C206224 | "p53abn endometrial carcinoma confined to the uterine corpus with any myometrial invasion, with or without cervical invasion, and regardless of the degree of LVSI or histological type. (FIGO 2023)" |
| C206225 | Non-aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma limited to a polyp or confined to the endometrium. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206226 | Non-aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma involving less than 50% of the myometrium with no or focal lymphovascular space invasion (LVSI) as defined by WHO criteria. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206227 | Low-grade endometrioid carcinomas limited to the uterus with simultaneous low-grade endometrioid ovarian involvement. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206228 | Non-aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma involving 50% or more of the myometrium with no LVSI or focal LVSI. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206229 | "Aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma, i.e. serous, high-grade endometrioid, clear cell, carcinosarcoma, undifferentiated, mixed, and other unusual types without any myometrial invasion. (FIGO 2023)" |
| C206230 | Non-aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma with invasion of the cervical stroma without extrauterine extension. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206231 | Non-aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma with substantial LVSI. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206232 | Aggressive histological type of endometrial carcinoma with any myometrial invasion. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206233 | "Endometrial carcinoma with invasion of uterine serosa, adnexa, or both by direct extension or metastasis. (FIGO 2023)" |
| C206234 | Endometrial carcinoma with spread to ovary or fallopian tube (except when meeting stage IA3 criteria). (FIGO 2023) |
| C206235 | Endometrial carcinoma with involvement of uterine subserosa or spread through the uterine serosa. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206236 | Endometrial carcinoma with metastasis or direct spread to the vagina and/or to the parametria or pelvic peritoneum. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206237 | Endometrial carcinoma with metastasis or direct spread to the vagina and/or the parametria. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206238 | Endometrial carcinoma with metastasis to the pelvic peritoneum. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206239 | Endometrial carcinoma with metastasis to the pelvic or para-aortic lymph nodes or both. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206240 | Endometrial carcinoma with metastasis to the pelvic lymph nodes. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206241 | Endometrial carcinoma with micrometastasis to the pelvic lymph nodes. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206242 | Endometrial carcinoma with macrometastasis to the pelvic lymph nodes. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206243 | "Endometrial carcinoma with metastasis to para-aortic lymph nodes up to the renal vessels, with or without metastasis to the pelvic lymph nodes. (FIGO 2023)" |
| C206244 | "Endometrial carcinoma with micrometastasis to para-aortic lymph nodes up to the renal vessels, with or without metastasis to the pelvic lymph nodes. (FIGO 2023)" |
| C206245 | "Endometrial carcinoma with macrometastasis to para-aortic lymph nodes up to the renal vessels, with or without metastasis to the pelvic lymph nodes. (FIGO 2023)" |
| C206246 | Endometrial carcinoma with locally advanced disease infiltrating the bladder and/or the intestinal/bowel mucosa. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206247 | Endometrial carcinoma with extrapelvic peritoneal metastasis. (FIGO 2023) |
| C206248 | "Endometrial carcinoma with distant metastasis, including metastasis to any extra-or intra-abdominal lymph nodes above the renal vessels, lungs, liver, brain, or bone. (FIGO 2023)" |
| C206249 | FIGO Stage IC includes: IC1: ovarian cancer with surgical spill; IC2: ovarian cancer with capsule rupture before surgery or tumor on ovarian surface; IC3: ovarian cancer with malignant cells in the ascites or peritoneal washings. (FIGO 2014) |
| C206275 | An endometrial carcinoma with p53 mutant pattern immunostaining. |
| C206276 | "An endometrial carcinoma characterized by mismatch repair (MMR) deficiency caused by inactivating methylation or less frequently mutation of an MMR gene (MLH1, PMS2, MSH2, or MSH6)." |
| C206277 | An endometrial carcinoma characterized by mutations in the exonuclease domain of the DNA polymerase epsilon (POLE) gene that result in an ultra-mutated tumor phenotype. |
| C206278 | A term that refers to the classification of endometrial carcinomas based on their molecular characteristics. |
| C206287 | A cutaneous reactive B-cell rich lymphoid proliferation caused by Borrelia burgdorferi infection. |
| C206289 | "A reactive, dense dermal nodular or nodular and diffuse lymphocytic infiltrate that is predominantly composed of B-cells. It may extend to subcutaneous tissue. In some cases, the histological and clinical characteristics can resemble cutaneous B-cell lymphomas." |
| C206290 | A cutaneous reactive B-cell rich lymphoid proliferation that manifests with milia-like papules in sun light exposed areas. |
| C206292 | The reemergence of a malignant digestive system neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C206293 | The reemergence of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in the digestive system after a period of remission. |
| C206305 | A mature B-cell neoplasm that arises from the skin. |
| C206326 | "A reactive, dense cutaneous lymphocytic infiltrate that is predominantly composed of T-cells. Causes include viral, bacterial, and parasitic infections, drugs, vaccines, arthropod-bites, and trauma. In some cases, the histological and clinical characteristics can resemble cutaneous T-cell lymphomas." |
| C206338 | A cutaneous reactive T-cell rich lymphoid proliferation that presents with a solitary non-ulcerated nodule. |
| C206350 | A cutaneous reactive T-cell rich lymphoid proliferation characterized by the presence of intraepidermal lymphocytes that exhibit irregular nuclear contours. |
| C206352 | A cutaneous reactive T-cell rich lymphoid proliferation characterized by the presence of medium-sized and rarely large lymphocytes that express CD30. |
| C206354 | A cutaneous reactive T-cell rich lymphoid proliferation characterized by the presence of large lymphocytes inside and around lymphatic vessels. |
| C206355 | A cutaneous reactive T-cell rich lymphoid proliferation associated with proliferation of capillaries and postcapillary venules. |
| C206356 | A reactive T-cell rich lymphoid proliferation that presents with subcutaneous involvement. |
| C206365 | A cutaneous reactive T-cell rich lymphoid proliferation of unknown etiology. |
| C206377 | A systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma that affects the skin. It manifests with papular and nodular lesions or ulcerating tumors. |
| C206378 | "T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia that affects the skin. Cutaneous manifestations include generalized eruptions, erythroderma, nodules, and edema." |
| C206388 | AL amyloidosis affecting the kidneys. |
| C206389 | Primary amyloidosis affecting the kidneys. |
| C206394 | "A cutaneous EBV-negative lymphoproliferative disorder that is composed of CD8-positive T-cells and is associated with inborn immunodeficiency. The cutaneous manifestations include generalized papulo-nodular indurated lesions. It infrequently affects the subcutaneous tissue, lungs, bone marrow, and gastrointestinal tract as well. It has a variable clinical course." |
| C206426 | A cervical adenosquamous carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C206427 | An anaplastic astrocytoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C206428 | A malignant glioma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C206429 | An anaplastic astrocytoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C206431 | A malignant glioma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C206434 | A rare benign mesenchymal dermal tumor characterized by the presence of CD34-positive fibroblastic/myofibroblastic spindle cells without atypia. |
| C206435 | "A very rare malignant dermal tumor of uncertain differentiation that morphologically overlaps with clear cell sarcoma, exhibits partial melanocytic differentiation, and is characterized by the presence of CRTC1-TRIM11 gene fusion. It is composed of epithelioid to fusiform cells with pale cytoplasm and vesicular nuclei. It appears to behave less aggressively than melanoma and clear cell sarcoma, and only a minority of the published cases have shown regional or distant metastasis." |
| C206436 | "A HER2-negative, BRCA gene mutation-positive breast adenocarcinoma that has spread to another anatomic site." |
| C206437 | "A HER2-negative, BRCA gene mutation-positive breast adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection." |
| C206441 | The reemergence of myelodysplastic syndrome/acute myeloid leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C206442 | Myelodysplastic syndrome/acute myeloid leukemia that does not respond to treatment. |
| C206447 | A variant of fibrous histiocytoma of the skin characterized by the presence of scattered atypical and pleomorphic neoplastic cells. Necrotic changes and atypical mitoses may be present. |
| C206448 | "A variant of fibrous histiocytoma of the skin characterized by the presence of blood-filled spaces, hemosiderin deposition, and spindle-shaped neoplastic cells in the dermis. There is peripheral entrapment of collagen bundles, and the overlying epidermis is hyperplastic." |
| C206450 | A variant of fibrous histiocytoma of the skin characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped neoplastic cells that are surrounded by dendrocytes and macrophages in the dermis. The neoplastic cellular infiltrate may exhibit a storiform growth pattern. The overlying epidermis is usually hyperplastic with elongated hyperpigmented rete ridges. |
| C206471 | Inclusion body fibromatosis that affects the soft tissue of the digits. |
| C206472 | "Inclusion body fibromatosis that affects extradigital areas, including the extremities, breasts, and tongue." |
| C206475 | "A rare benign cutaneous mesenchymal neoplasm characterized by the presence of multinucleated cells, dermal fibrosis that is often parallel to the epidermis, and increased number of stromal blood vessels with thickened walls and dilated lumens. It manifests with solitary or multiple papules and nodules." |
| C206476 | A multinucleate cell angiohistiocytoma that manifests with a solitary papule or nodule. |
| C206477 | A multinucleate cell angiohistiocytoma that manifests with multiple papules and nodules. |
| C206515 | "A subtype of myofibrillar myopathy caused by mutations in the DES gene, encoding desmin." |
| C206516 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of myofibrillar myopathy caused by mutation(s) in the CRYAB gene, encoding alpha-crystallin B chain." |
| C206517 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of myofibrillar myopathy caused by mutation(s) in the MYOT gene, encoding myotilin." |
| C206518 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the GRIN1 gene, encoding glutamate receptor ionotropic, NMDA 1. It is characterized by developmental delay, intellectual disability and may include epilepsy and associated muscular disorders." |
| C206519 | "An autosomal recessive congenital disorder of glycosylation subtype caused by mutation(s) in the MPI gene, encoding mannose-6-phosphate isomerase." |
| C206520 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of developmental and epileptic encephalopathy caused by mutation(s) in the CELF2 gene, encoding CUGBP Elav-like family member 2." |
| C206521 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the ADSS1 gene, encoding adenylosuccinate synthetase isozyme 1. It is characterized by adolescent onset of distal muscular weakness primarily affecting the lower limbs." |
| C206522 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of intellectual developmental disorder caused by mutation(s) in the ASH1L gene, encoding histone-lysine N-methyltransferase ASH1L." |
| C206523 | "A lethal autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CEP55 gene, encoding centrosomal protein of 55 kDa. It is characterized by renal dysplasia, anhydramnios, hydrancephaly, cerebellar hypoplasia, and multinucleated neurons in remaining brain tissue." |
| C206524 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the KAT6B gene encoding histone acetyltransferase KAT6B. It is characterized by intellectual disability, distinctive facial features. Other characteristics are variable, but often include absent knee caps in males." |
| C206525 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ST3GAL5 gene, encoding lactosylceramide alpha-2,3-sialyltransferase. It is characterized by refractory and recurrent seizures with an onset in infancy and delayed psychomotor development and or developmental regression." |
| C206527 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ALDH5A1 gene, encoding succinate-semialdehyde dehydrogenase, mitochondrial. It is characterized by intellectual disability, developmental delay, and hypotonia." |
| C206528 | "An X-linked recessive condition caused by a mutation in the MED12 gene, encoding mediator of RNA polymerase II transcription subunit 12. It is characterized by intellectual disability, developmental delay, blepharophimosis, wide nasal bridge, and other associated facial features." |
| C206529 | "An X-linked condition caused by mutation(s) in the TFE3 gene, encoding transcription factor E3. It is characterized by a triad of developmental delay, Blaschkoid pigmentary mosaicism, and characteristic coarse facial features." |
| C206530 | "A rare, chronic autoimmune disorder characterized by myositis, non-erosive polyarthritis, and interstitial lung disease (ILD). It may be associated with the presence of anti-aminoacyl-transfer RNA antibodies." |
| C206531 | "A subgrouping of the inflammatory myopathies characterized by severe proximal weakness, elevated creatine kinase levels, and myofiber necrosis. They can be further distinguished by the presence or absence of associated autoantibodies, including anti-3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase (HMGCR), anti-signal recognition particle (SRP), and antibody negative immune-mediated necrotizing myopathy (IMNM)." |
| C206532 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the MAPK8IP3 gene, encoding c-Jun-amino-terminal kinase-interacting protein 3. It is commonly characterized by global developmental delay, intellectual disability, and spastic diplegia. There may be associated brain abnormalities include cerebellar and/or cerebral atrophy, and hypoplasia of the corpus callosum." |
| C206533 | Gastroesophageal junction carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C206534 | Gastroesophageal junction carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C206544 | "A disorder of the tendons with signs/symptoms of pain, diffuse or localized swelling and impaired performance." |
| C206545 | The blockage of a blood vessel by fat particles in the circulation. |
| C206546 | Impaired or abnormal functioning of the bladder. |
| C206547 | "Condition where a person experiences persistent severe and debilitating pain, involving an extremity or other body region, hyperesthesia, and localized autonomic dysfunction following injury to soft tissue or nerve." |
| C206549 | "A detachment of the choroid from the sclera often due to the accumulation of fluid (blood for hemorrhagic, other fluids for serous detachment) in the suprachoroidal space." |
| C206550 | Fluid accumulation in the suprachoroidal space. |
| C206552 | Bleeding into a joint. |
| C206670 | "An autosomal dominant subtype of myofibrillar myopathy caused by mutation(s) in the FLNC gene, encoding filamin-C." |
| C206679 | A rare hemangioma that affects the reticular dermis and consists of small vascular channels that resemble venules. |
| C206681 | A hemangioma characterized by the presence of dilated vascular channels with prominent intraluminal papillary projections in the dermis. It usually affects adult males and manifests as a solitary bluish-red papule almost always on the head and neck. |
| C206686 | An angiokeratoma that manifests in late childhood with numerous pinpoint papules without significant epidermal changes. It is associated with Fabry disease. |
| C206687 | An angiokeratoma that affects the scrotum. It manifests with single or multiple small red keratotic papules. |
| C206688 | "An infantile hemangioma that affects the skin, usually of the head and neck and the extremities. It manifests as a bright red or blue nodule or plaque, usually in the first two to six weeks of life." |
| C206690 | "A term that refers to a group of skin hemangiomas that are present at birth. It includes non-involuting congenital hemangioma, rapidly involuting congenital hemangioma, and partially involuting congenital hemangioma." |
| C206692 | A nervous system neoplasm that is worsening in terms of extent or severity. |
| C206693 | A skin hemangioma characterized by the proliferation of small blood vessels in the superficial dermis and loss or reduction of elastic fibers. It manifests with erythematous or violet color plaques described as poikilodermatous. Almost all lesions arise in the lower extremities in elderly males. |
| C206695 | A rare skin hemangioma characterized by the presence of a band-like proliferation of small blood vessels in the upper reticular dermis. It is associated with solar elastosis and manifests with a small papule or plaque in sun-exposed areas with chronic sun damage. |
| C206708 | "A rare, congenital non-hereditary syndrome that manifests with multiple, often large arteriovenous malformations predominantly in the retina, brain, orbit, and facial structures." |
| C206710 | "A small vascular lesion that arises from the perioral skin, lips, and skin of the nose and eyelids, and affects middle-aged to elderly men." |
| C206711 | "A rare arteriovenous malformation that affects the head and neck and manifests with nodules or papules due to the presence of tortuous dilated vessels in the subcutaneous tissues, usually of the scalp. It may be congenital or caused by trauma." |
| C206716 | The reemergence of non-keratinizing carcinoma of the nasopharynx after a period of remission. |
| C206717 | Squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx that is resistant to treatment. |
| C206718 | Non-keratinizing carcinoma of the nasopharynx that is resistant to treatment. |
| C207025 | A rare epithelioid hemangioendothelioma that affects the skin. It manifests with nodular or ulcerated lesions. |
| C207026 | "A papillary intralymphatic angioendothelioma that affects the skin and soft tissue, usually of the proximal extremities and most often the buttocks or thighs. It manifests as a slow-growing induration, nodule, or plaque." |
| C207028 | "A composite hemangioendothelioma that affects the skin, usually of the hands, feet, and head and neck. It is characterized by the presence of longstanding reddish-blue nodules or plaques, and in some cases it is associated with lymphedema." |
| C207030 | A composite hemangioendothelioma characterized by aberrant neuroendocrine markers expression. It more often involves deep locations and has a more aggressive behavior as compared to conventional composite hemangioendotheliomas. |
| C207032 | A composite hemangioendothelioma that affects the skin and expresses neuroendocrine markers. |
| C207033 | "A clear cell sarcoma that arises from the dermis. It usually affects the extremities, most often distal extremities, and manifests with small amelanotic nodules." |
| C207041 | Glomus tumor inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and caused by mutations in the GLMN gene encoding glomulin. |
| C207042 | A glomus tumor that is not caused by inherited genetic mutations. |
| C207045 | An extremely rare myopericytoma that develops within vessels. |
| C207046 | A myopericytoma characterized by the presence of a diffuse plexiform growth. |
| C207047 | Myofibromatosis that manifests with multiple tumors in the skin or subcutaneous tissue without visceral involvement. |
| C207048 | Myofibromatosis that manifests with multiple tumors in the skin or subcutaneous tissue with concomitant visceral involvement. |
| C207051 | A hamartomatous lesion characterized by the proliferation of haphazardly arranged mature smooth muscle bundles in the dermis. It usually affects the trunk or extremities and manifests as a skin plaque. |
| C207052 | A smooth muscle hamartoma that is present at birth. |
| C207053 | A smooth muscle hamartoma that develops after birth. |
| C207056 | Ovarian carcinosarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C207057 | Fallopian tube carcinosarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C207058 | Primary peritoneal carcinosarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C207060 | The reemergence of female reproductive system carcinosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C207061 | Female reproductive system carcinosarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C207062 | A neuroma that arises from the dermis and is characterized by the presence of mature squamous epithelium that surrounds the perineurium. It manifests with single or multiple asymptomatic lesions. |
| C207063 | A form of small nerve hypertrophy characterized by the presence of large and prominent nerve fibers in the dermis. |
| C207064 | A morphologic subtype of perineurioma characterized by the presence of anastomosing cords of elongated spindle cells that form a reticular pattern. |
| C207065 | A morphologic subtype of perineurioma characterized by the presence of strands of small epithelioid to spindle cells in a collagenous stroma. |
| C207066 | "A morphologic subtype of perineurioma characterized by the presence of high mitotic activity, hypercellularity, hyperchromasia, and pleomorphism." |
| C207068 | Distal esophagus adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C207076 | Lung non-squamous non-small cell carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C207077 | Lung non-small cell squamous carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C207078 | A neurofibroma that manifests as a single mass. |
| C207079 | "A rare schwannoma characterized by the presence of large rosette-like structures that are surrounded by small, round, hyperchromatic Schwann cells." |
| C207080 | A hybrid nerve sheath tumor characterized by the combination of histologic features seen in schwannomas and neurofibromas. |
| C207081 | A hybrid nerve sheath tumor characterized by the combination of histologic features seen in perineuriomas and schwannomas. |
| C207082 | A hybrid nerve sheath tumor characterized by the combination of histologic features seen in perineuriomas and neurofibromas. |
| C207083 | A hybrid nerve sheath tumor that arises from the skin. It manifests with painless masses in the dermis. |
| C207229 | "A carcinoma that arises from the exocrine or endocrine pancreas. The vast majority of pancreatic carcinomas arise from the exocrine pancreas and are almost always adenocarcinomas. The main subtype of pancreatic adenocarcinoma is ductal adenocarcinoma, which is the most frequently seen type of pancreatic carcinoma. The carcinomas that arise from the endocrine pancreas (islet cells) are neuroendocrine carcinomas (small cell and large cell neuroendocrine carcinomas)." |
| C207262 | "A rare mesenchymal tumor with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation that arises from the skin. It usually affects the extremities and manifests with papules, nodules, or plaques. Almost all reported cases have a benign clinical course." |
| C207263 | "An NTRK-rearranged spindle cell neoplasm that arises from the dermis and subcutaneous tissue of the extremities, trunk, and head and neck area. It manifests with palpable masses." |
| C207408 | "A morphologic variant of atypical fibroxanthoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with clear to foamy cytoplasm, pleomorphism, and hyperchromasia." |
| C207409 | A morphologic variant of atypical fibroxanthoma characterized by the presence of hemosiderin deposition and hemorrhage. |
| C207410 | "A morphologic variant of atypical fibroxanthoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm, significant pleomorphism, and a high mitotic rate." |
| C207411 | A morphologic variant of atypical fibroxanthoma characterized by the presence of keloid-like sclerotic background with hyalinized collagen bundles. |
| C207447 | A morphologic variant of atypical fibroxanthoma characterized by the presence of myxoid change. |
| C207448 | A morphologic variant of atypical fibroxanthoma characterized by the presence of blood-filled spaces and intratumoral hemorrhage. |
| C207621 | A superficial CD34-positive fibroblastic tumor that is associated with PRDM10 gene rearrangement. |
| C207624 | A hereditary cutaneous melanoma caused by germline mutation(s) in the CDK4 gene. |
| C207662 | "A term that refers to the staging of vulvar cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 9th edition. This staging system applies to carcinomas. It does not apply to sarcomas, hematopoietic neoplasms, melanomas, and Merkel cell carcinomas. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207664 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207686 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension and with stromal invasion measuring 1mm or less. Note: Depth of invasion is measured from the basement membrane of the deepest adjacent tumor-free rete ridge to the deepest point of invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207687 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm in greatest dimension or with stromal invasion more than 1 mm. Note: Depth of invasion is measured from the basement membrane of the deepest adjacent tumor-free rete ridge to the deepest point of invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207688 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor of any size with extension to lower 1/3 of urethra, lower 1/3 of vagina, or anus. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207689 | "Stage III includes: TX-T3, N1, M0. TX: Tumor in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva. T2: Tumor of any size with extension to lower 1/3 of urethra, lower 1/3 of vagina, or anus. T3: Tumor of any size with disease extension to upper 2/3 of urethra, upper 2/3 of vagina, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa. N1: Tumor involvement of non-fixed, non-ulcerated regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207690 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T3, N0, M0); (TX-T3, N1mi, N1a, M0). TX: Tumor in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva. T2: Tumor of any size with extension to lower 1/3 of urethra, lower 1/3 of vagina, or anus. T3: Tumor of any size with disease extension to upper 2/3 of urethra, upper 2/3 of vagina, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa. N1mi: Tumor involvement greater than 0.2 mm but equal to or less than 2.0 mm in diameter of regional lymph nodes. N1a: Tumor involve... |
| C207691 | "Stage IIIB includes: TX-T3, N1b, M0. TX: Tumor in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva. T2: Tumor of any size with extension to lower 1/3 of urethra, lower 1/3 of vagina, or anus. T3: Tumor of any size with disease extension to upper 2/3 of urethra, upper 2/3 of vagina, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa. N1b: Tumor involvement greater than 5 mm of regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207692 | "Stage IIIC includes: TX-T3, N1c, M0. TX: Tumor in which the primary tumor cannot be assessed. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva. T2: Tumor of any size with extension to lower 1/3 of urethra, lower 1/3 of vagina, or anus. T3: Tumor of any size with disease extension to upper 2/3 of urethra, upper 2/3 of vagina, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa. N1c: Tumor involvement of regional lymph nodes with extranodal extension (ENE). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207693 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4, Any N, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); IVB: Any T, Any N, M1. T4: Tumor fixed to pelvic bone. N2: Tumor involvement of fixed or ulcerated regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207694 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4, Any N, M0); (Any T, N2, M0). T4: Tumor fixed to pelvic bone. N2: Tumor involvement of fixed or ulcerated regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207695 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207705 | "A term that refers to the staging of appendix carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 9th edition. This staging system applies to adenocarcinomas, mucinous neoplasms (low-grade mucinous neoplasms and high-grade mucinous neoplasms), poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinomas, mixed neuroendocrine-nonneuroendocrine neoplasms (mixed adenocarcinoma-neuroendocrine carcinoma), and goblet cell adenocarcinomas (formerly termed goblet cell carcinoids). Well-differentiated... |
| C207706 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ (intramucosal carcinoma; invasion of the lamina propria or extension into but not through the muscularis mucosae). N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207707 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis (LAMN), N0, M0. Tis (LAMN): Low-grade appendiceal mucinous neoplasm confined to the muscularis propria; Acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium may invade into the muscularis propria. T1 and T2 are not applicable to LAMN; Acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium that extends into the subserosa or serosa should be classified as T3 or T4a, respectively. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207708 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0, Any G); (T2, N0, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207709 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T3, N0, M0, Any G; IIB: T4a, N0, M0, Any G; IIC: T4b, N0, M0, Any G. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or the mesoappendix. T4a: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum, including acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium involving the serosa of the appendix or serosa of the mesoappendix. T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. ... |
| C207710 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0, Any G. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or the mesoappendix. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207711 | "Stage IIB includes: T4a, N0, M0, Any G. T4a: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum, including acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium involving the serosa of the appendix or serosa of the mesoappendix. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207712 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0, Any G. T4b: Tumor directly invades or adheres to adjacent organs or structures. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207713 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1, N1, M0, Any G); (T2, N1, M0, Any G); IIIB: (T3, N1, M0, Any G); (T4, N1, M0, Any G); IIIC: Any T, N2, M0, Any G. T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or the mesoappendix. T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum, including the acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium involving the serosa of... |
| C207714 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N1, M0, Any G); (T2, N1, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades the submucosa (through the muscularis mucosa but not into the muscularis propria). T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N1: Tumor involvement of one to three regional lymph nodes (tumor in lymph node measuring greater than or equal to 0.2 mm) or any number of tumor deposits is present with no tumor involvement in all identifiable lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207715 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3, N1, M0, Any G); (T4, N1, M0, Any G). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or the mesoappendix. T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum, including the acellular mucin or mucinous epithelium involving the serosa of the appendix or mesoappendix, and/or directly invades adjacent organs or structures. N1: Tumor involvement of one to three regional lymph nodes (tumor in lymph node measuring greater than or equal to 0.2 mm) or any number o... |
| C207716 | "Stage IIIC includes: Any T, N2, M0, Any G. N2: Tumor involvement of four or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207717 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, Any N, M1a, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, G1); IVB: Any T, Any N, M1b, G2, G3, or GX; IVC: Any T, Any N, M1c, Any G. M1a: Intraperitoneal acellular mucin, without identifiable tumor cells in the disseminated peritoneal mucinous deposits. M1b: Intraperitoneal metastasis only, including peritoneal mucinous deposits containing tumor cells. M1c: Microscopic confirmation of metastasis to sites other than the peritoneum. G1: Well differentiated. G2: Moderately differ... |
| C207718 | "Stage IVA includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, G1). M1a: Intraperitoneal acellular mucin, without identifiable tumor cells in the disseminated peritoneal mucinous deposits. M1b: Intraperitoneal metastasis only, including peritoneal mucinous deposits containing tumor cells. G1: Well differentiated. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207719 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b, G2, G3, or GX. M1b: Intraperitoneal metastasis only, including peritoneal mucinous deposits containing tumor cells. G2: Moderately differentiated. G3: Poorly differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207720 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1c, Any G. M1c: Microscopic confirmation of metastasis to sites other than the peritoneum. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207787 | "An extremely rare type of renal cell carcinoma that histologically resembles thyroid follicular neoplasms. It is a well-circumscribed mass, characterized by the presence of thyroid-like follicles that contain eosinophilic, colloid-like material. It is negative for thyroid transcription factor 1 (TTF-1) and thyroglobulin. The majority of the reported cases have a low-grade malignant potential. Rare cases with lymph nodes involvement and distant metastases have also been described." |
| C207789 | "A term that refers to the staging of anal cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 9th edition. This staging system applies to all carcinomas arising in the anal canal, including high-grade neuroendocrine carcinomas (small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma), carcinomas that arise within anorectal fistulas, and those arising in the perianal area. This staging system does not apply to sarcomas (they are staged according to the classificat... |
| C207790 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor less than or equal to 2 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207791 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T2, N0, M0; IIB: T1-T2, N1, M0. T1: Tumor less than or equal to 2 cm in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor greater than 2 cm but less than or equal to 5 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207792 | "Stage IIA includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor greater than 2 cm but less than or equal to 5 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207793 | "Stage IIB includes: T1-T2, N1, M0. T1: Tumor less than or equal to 2 cm in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor greater than 2 cm but less than or equal to 5 cm in greatest dimension. N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207794 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: T3, N0-N1, M0; IIIB: T4, N0, M0; IIIC: T4, N1, M0. T3: Tumor greater than 5 cm in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor of any size invading adjacent organ(s), such as the vagina, urethra, or bladder. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207795 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0-N1, M0. T3: Tumor greater than 5 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207796 | "Stage IIIB includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor of any size invading adjacent organ(s), such as the vagina, urethra, or bladder. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207797 | "Stage IIIC includes: T4, N1, M0. T4: Tumor of any size invading adjacent organ(s), such as the vagina, urethra, or bladder. N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207798 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207802 | Secondary hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis that is resistant to treatment. |
| C207803 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the mucosal sites of the head and neck and is not associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C207804 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the mucosal sites of the head and neck, is not associated with human papillomavirus infection, and is amenable to surgical resection." |
| C207809 | "A rare bone marrow disorder characterized by a marked decrease or complete absence of megakaryocytes with preservation of all other hematopoietic cell lineages. Causes include toxins, viruses, drugs, and humoral and cell-mediated suppression of megakaryocytopoeisis. It usually presents with bleeding, severe thrombocytopenia, and absence of splenomegaly. It is often misdiagnosed as immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)." |
| C207847 | "A term that refers to the staging of duodenal and ampulla of Vater neuroendocrine tumors, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of the duodenum and ampulla of Vater. It does not apply to the following: Carcinomas of the duodenum, including neuroendocrine carcinoma and mixed adenocarcinoma-neuroendocrine carcinoma; carcinomas of the ampulla of Vater, including neuroendocrine carci... |
| C207848 | "Stage I includes: T1, NX, N0, M0. T1: For duodenum neuroendocrine tumor: Tumor invades the mucosa or submucosa only and is equal to or less than 1 cm in greatest dimension. For ampulla of Vater neuroendocrine tumor: Tumor is equal to or less than 1 cm in greatest dimension and is confined within the sphincter of Oddi. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207849 | "Stage II includes: T2, T3, N0, M0. T2: For duodenum neuroendocrine tumor: Tumor invades the muscularis propria or is more than 1 cm in greatest dimension. For ampulla of Vater neuroendocrine tumor: Tumor invades through sphincter of Oddi into duodenal submucosa or muscularis propria or is more than 1 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor invades the pancreas or peripancreatic adipose tissue. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207850 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207851 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207852 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the duodenum or ampulla of Vater." |
| C207853 | "A term that refers to the staging of duodenal neuroendocrine tumors, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of the duodenum. It does not apply to carcinomas of the duodenum, including neuroendocrine carcinoma and mixed adenocarcinoma-neuroendocrine carcinoma. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207854 | "Stage I includes: T1, NX, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades the mucosa or submucosa only and is equal to or less than 1 cm in greatest dimension. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207855 | "Stage II includes: T2, T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria or is more than 1 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor invades the pancreas or peripancreatic adipose tissue. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207856 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207857 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207858 | "A term that refers to the staging of ampulla of Vater neuroendocrine tumors, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of the ampulla of Vater. It does not apply to carcinomas of the ampulla of Vater, including neuroendocrine carcinoma and mixed adenocarcinoma-neuroendocrine carcinoma. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C207859 | "Stage I includes: T1, NX, N0, M0. T1: Tumor equal to or less than 1 cm in greatest dimension and is confined within the sphincter of Oddi. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207860 | "Stage II includes: T2, T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades through sphincter of Oddi into duodenal submucosa or muscularis propria or is more than 1 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor invades the pancreas or peripancreatic adipose tissue. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207861 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207862 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C207863 | A carcinoma that arises from the small intestine and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C207999 | "A term that refers to the staging of appendix neuroendocrine tumors, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies only to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of the appendix (NET G1, G2, and G3). It does not apply to high-grade neuroendocrine carcinoma (NEC), goblet cell adenocarcinoma, and mixed adenocarcinoma-NET/NEC of the appendix. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C208000 | "Stage I includes: T1, NX, N0, M0. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208001 | "Stage II includes: (T2, NX, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0). T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 4 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, or with subserosal invasion, or involvement of the mesoappendix. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208002 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor perforating the peritoneum or directly invading other adjacent organs or structures (excluding direct mural extension to adjacent subserosa of adjacent bowel), e.g., abdominal wall and skeletal muscle. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208003 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208024 | An intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma term that refers to a continuum between resectable and locally advanced unresectable disease. |
| C208025 | A cholangiocarcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts. It includes hilar (perihilar) cholangiocarcinoma and distal cholangiocarcinoma (distal bile duct adenocarcinoma). |
| C208026 | The reemergence of nasal cavity squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C208027 | Colon adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C208090 | "A term that refers to the staging of colorectal neuroendocrine tumor, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies only to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of the colon and rectum (NET G1, G2, and G3). It does not apply to poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinomas and mixed neuroendocrine-non-neuroendocrine neoplasms (formerly mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinomas) of the colon and rectum. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C208091 | "A term that refers to the staging of colon neuroendocrine tumor, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies only to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of the colon (NET G1, G2, and G3). It does not apply to poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinomas and mixed neuroendocrine-non-neuroendocrine neoplasms (formerly mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinomas) of the colon. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C208092 | "A term that refers to the staging of rectal neuroendocrine tumor, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies only to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of the rectum (NET G1, G2, and G3). It does not apply to poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinomas and mixed neuroendocrine-non-neuroendocrine neoplasms (formerly mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinomas) of the rectum. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C208093 | "Stage I includes: T1, NX, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades the mucosa or submucosa and measures 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208094 | "Stage I includes: T1, NX, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades the mucosa or submucosa and measures 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208095 | "Stage I includes: T1, NX, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades the mucosa or submucosa and measures 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208096 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T2, N0, M0; IIB: T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria, or measures more than 2 cm in greatest dimension with invasion of the mucosa or submucosa. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208097 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T2, N0, M0; IIB: T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria, or measures more than 2 cm in greatest dimension with invasion of the mucosa or submucosa. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208098 | "Stage II includes: IIA: T2, N0, M0; IIB: T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria, or measures more than 2 cm in greatest dimension with invasion of the mucosa or submucosa. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208099 | "Stage IIA includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria, or measures more than 2 cm in greatest dimension with invasion of the mucosa or submucosa. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208100 | "Stage IIA includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria, or measures more than 2 cm in greatest dimension with invasion of the mucosa or submucosa. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208101 | "Stage IIA includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria, or measures more than 2 cm in greatest dimension with invasion of the mucosa or submucosa. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208102 | "Stage IIB includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208103 | "Stage IIB includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208104 | "Stage IIB includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208105 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: T4, N0, M0; IIIB: Any T, N1, M0. T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum (serosa), or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208106 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: T4, N0, M0; IIIB: Any T, N1, M0. T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum (serosa), or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208107 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: T4, N0, M0; IIIB: Any T, N1, M0. T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum (serosa), or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208108 | "Stage IIIA includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum (serosa), or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208109 | "Stage IIIA includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum (serosa), or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208110 | "Stage IIIA includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum (serosa), or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208111 | "Stage IIIB includes: Any T, N1, M0. N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208112 | "Stage IIIB includes: Any T, N1, M0. N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208113 | "Stage IIIB includes: Any T, N1, M0. N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208114 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208115 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208116 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208152 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the jejunum or ileum." |
| C208153 | "A term that refers to the staging of jejunal and ileal neuroendocrine tumors, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies only to well-differentiated tumors of the jejunum/ileum (NET G1, G2, and G3). It does not apply to carcinoma of the jejunum and ileum, including neuroendocrine carcinoma and mixed adenocarcinoma-neuroendocrine carcinoma, and neuroendocrine tumors of the duodenum and ampulla of Vater. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C208154 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades mucosa or submucosa, and measures 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208155 | "A term that refers to the staging of jejunal neuroendocrine tumors, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies only to well-differentiated tumors of the jejunum (NET G1, G2, and G3). It does not apply to carcinoma of the jejunum, including neuroendocrine carcinoma and mixed adenocarcinoma-neuroendocrine carcinoma. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C208156 | "A term that refers to the staging of ileal neuroendocrine tumors, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies only to well-differentiated tumors of the ileum (NET G1, G2, and G3). It does not apply to carcinoma of the ileum, including neuroendocrine carcinoma and mixed adenocarcinoma-neuroendocrine carcinoma. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C208157 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades mucosa or submucosa, and measures 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208158 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades mucosa or submucosa, and measures 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208159 | "Stage II includes: T2-T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria or measures more than 1 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208160 | "Stage II includes: T2-T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria or measures more than 1 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208161 | "Stage II includes: T2-T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria or measures more than 1 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208162 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, N2, M0). T4: Tumor invades visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of less than 12 regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor involvement of large mesenteric masses (measuring more than 2 cm) and/or extensive nodal deposits (12 or greater), especially those that encase the superior mesenteric vessels. Note: Mesenteric masses measuring 2 cm or less should ... |
| C208163 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, N2, M0). T4: Tumor invades visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of less than 12 regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor involvement of large mesenteric masses (measuring more than 2 cm) and/or extensive nodal deposits (12 or greater), especially those that encase the superior mesenteric vessels. Note: Mesenteric masses measuring 2 cm or less should ... |
| C208164 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, N2, M0). T4: Tumor invades visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of less than 12 regional lymph nodes. N2: Tumor involvement of large mesenteric masses (measuring more than 2 cm) and/or extensive nodal deposits (12 or greater), especially those that encase the superior mesenteric vessels. Note: Mesenteric masses measuring 2 cm or less should ... |
| C208165 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208166 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208167 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208221 | "A term that refers to the staging of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies only to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas (NET G1, G2, and G3). It does not apply to carcinomas of the pancreas, including poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinoma (NEC) and mixed neuroendocrine non-neuroendocrine (MiNEN) neoplasms of the pancreas. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C208222 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor limited to the pancreas and measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208223 | "Stage II includes: T2, T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor limited to the pancreas and measuring more than 2 cm but equal to or less than 4 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor limited to the pancreas and measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension; or tumor invading the duodenum, ampulla of Vater, or common bile duct. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208224 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor invades adjacent organs (stomach, spleen, colon, adrenal gland) or the wall of large vessels (celiac axis, superior mesenteric artery/vein, splenic artery/vein, gastroduodenal artery/vein, portal vein). N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208225 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastases. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208228 | "A rare disorder that manifests with autoimmune hemolytic anemia and is caused by cold-reacting autoantibodies. It may be a primary clonal B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder or a secondary disorder, resulting from infection or malignancy." |
| C208269 | The reemergence of childhood fibrolamellar carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C208274 | Childhood fibrolamellar carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C208289 | Childhood malignant liver neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C208290 | Childhood hepatocellular carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C208291 | Anal squamous cell carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C208293 | A benign or malignant (primary or metastatic) neoplasm that affects the hematopoietic and lymphatic system and occurs during childhood. |
| C208295 | The reemergence of anal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C208301 | "A term that refers to the staging of gastric neuroendocrine tumors, based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) v9 staging guidelines. This staging system applies only to well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of the stomach (NET G1, G2, and G3). It does not apply to carcinoma of the stomach including neuroendocrine carcinoma (NEC), mixed adenocarcinoma-NEC and mixed adenocarcinoma-NET. (from AJCC 9th Ed.)" |
| C208302 | "Stage I includes: T1, NX, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades the mucosa or submucosa and measures 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208303 | "Stage II includes: T2, T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria or measures more than 1 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208304 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor invades visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs or adjacent structures. N0: No tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). N1: Tumor involvement of regional lymph node(s). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208305 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 9th ed.)" |
| C208306 | A WHO grade 3 glioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C208308 | A WHO grade 4 glioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C208309 | The reemergence of childhood myelodysplastic syndrome after a period of remission. |
| C208311 | Childhood myelodysplastic syndrome that is resistant to treatment. |
| C208312 | An individual has an inability to process a substance without adverse effects. |
| C208328 | "An intradermal nevus characterized by the presence of benign pigmented dendritic spindle-shaped melanocytes. It most frequently occurs in the skin of the distal upper extremities, followed by the lower extremities, scalp, face, and buttocks. It usually presents as a single blue or blue-black papular lesion that is less than 1cm in diameter. Simple excision is usually curative." |
| C208332 | "A benign, atypical, or malignant neoplasm that arises from and is composed of melanocytes and occurs during childhood." |
| C208352 | "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by the predominance of abnormal promyelocytes and translocations involving the retinoic acid receptor-α (RARA) gene. Over 95% of cases are characterized by the presence of the reciprocal balanced translocation t(15;17)(q24.1;q21.2) that results in the fusion of the promyelocytic leukemia (PML) gene and RARA gene. The remainder of the cases show variant RARA gene translocations with other genes including NUMA1, ZBTB16, STAT5B, and NPM1." |
| C208353 | An acute promyelocytic leukemia that occurs in adults. |
| C208354 | An acute promyelocytic leukemia that occurs in children. |
| C208355 | The reemergence of acute promyelocytic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C208359 | A large cell carcinoma that arises from the lung and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C208360 | A large cell carcinoma of the lung that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C208361 | A large cell carcinoma of the lung that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C208362 | A platinum-resistant fallopian tube carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C208363 | A platinum-resistant ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C208364 | Platinum-resistant primary peritoneal carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C208366 | Anal squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C208367 | A platinum-resistant ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C208455 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the periorbital region. |
| C208469 | "A neoplasm that arises from the periorbital region and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C208472 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the periorbital region. |
| C208482 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the skin of the periorbital region. |
| C208484 | A rare cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma that affects the orbital region. |
| C208487 | The reemergence of orbital cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C208488 | An orbital cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma that has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C208489 | An orbital cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C208490 | A periorbital cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma that has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C208491 | A periorbital cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C208492 | An orbital cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C208493 | A periorbital cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C208494 | The reemergence of periorbital cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C209277 | A myeloid sarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C209280 | Distal cholangiocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C209281 | Acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage that occurs during childhood. |
| C209283 | An adenoma characterized by the presence of a tubular architectural pattern. The vast majority of cases occur in the gastrointestinal tract. |
| C209284 | An adenoma characterized by the presence of a villous architectural pattern. The vast majority of cases occur in the gastrointestinal tract. |
| C209285 | An adenoma characterized by the presence of a tubular and a villous architectural pattern. The vast majority of cases occur in the gastrointestinal tract. |
| C209286 | A distal bile duct carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C209297 | A myelodysplastic syndrome developing in patients with a prior history of acquired aplastic anemia. |
| C209345 | An acute myeloid leukemia developing in patients with a prior history of acquired aplastic anemia. |
| C209346 | A mucosal melanoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C209348 | A cutaneous melanoma that has metastasized to a limited number of sites. |
| C209363 | A childhood central nervous system embryonal tumor that does not respond to treatment. |
| C209371 | A medulloblastoma that occurs during childhood and is worsening in terms of extent or severity. |
| C209372 | A childhood medulloblastoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C209395 | An adenoma that arises from the exocrine pancreas and is characterized by the presence of microcystic changes. The cysts are lined by cuboidal epithelium that does not show atypia. |
| C209738 | A carcinoma that arises from the lung and occurs during childhood. |
| C209748 | A childhood malignant solid neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C209751 | Metastatic lung carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C209752 | Metastatic colorectal carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C209813 | The reemergence of childhood neuroblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C209814 | Childhood neuroblastoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C209834 | A neuroblastoma that arises from the peripheral nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C209992 | "The reemergence of rectal carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C210013 | Childhood T acute lymphoblastic leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C210122 | "A neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the head and neck. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2, the Ki-67 index is more than 20%, and there is absence of small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma cytomorphological features." |
| C210123 | "A neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the larynx. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2, the Ki-67 index is more than 20%, and there is absence of small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma cytomorphological features." |
| C210124 | B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C210125 | "A thyroid gland medullary carcinoma with no necrosis, less than 5 mitoses per 2 mm2, and a Ki-67 index less than 5%." |
| C210126 | The reemergence of childhood B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C210129 | "A thyroid gland medullary carcinoma with at least one of the following characteristics: necrosis, 5 or more mitoses per 2 mm2, and/or a Ki-67 index equal to or greater than 5%." |
| C210132 | Childhood B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C210133 | Childhood non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C210135 | The reemergence of childhood B acute lymphoblastic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C210136 | Childhood B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C210139 | Severe aplastic anemia that occurs during childhood. |
| C210140 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from any part of the digestive system. |
| C210141 | A neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the salivary gland. It includes neuroendocrine tumors and neuroendocrine carcinomas. |
| C210142 | A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the salivary gland. |
| C210143 | "A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the salivary gland. There is no evidence of necrosis, the mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2, and the Ki-67 index is less than 20%." |
| C210144 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the salivary gland. There is necrosis present and/or the mitotic count is 2-10 per 2 mm2. The Ki-67 index is less than 20%. |
| C210145 | "A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the salivary gland. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2, the Ki-67 index is more than 20%, and there is absence of small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma and large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma cytomorphological features." |
| C210146 | Myxoid liposarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C210147 | Pleomorphic liposarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C210148 | Round cell liposarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C210165 | Exocrine pancreas carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C210257 | Gastroesophageal junction carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C210258 | The reemergence of gastroesophageal junction carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C210424 | Gastroesophageal junction carcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C210468 | Iron-deficiency anemia occurring in childhood. |
| C210617 | Adrenal cortical carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210619 | An adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210620 | A digestive system adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210637 | The reemergence of childhood malignant glioma after a period of remission. |
| C210638 | The reemergence of childhood diffuse midline glioma after a period of remission. |
| C210639 | A diffuse midline glioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C210640 | A diffuse midline glioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C210654 | A sarcoma that arises from the soft tissue in the pelvis. |
| C210655 | A sarcoma that arises from a pelvic bone. |
| C210658 | A sarcoma that arises from the soft tissue in the abdomen. |
| C210687 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210699 | "A neoplasm that arises from the duodenum and consists of a mixture of neuroendocrine cells, Schwann-like cells, and ganglion cells. It was formerly known as gangliocytic paraganglioma." |
| C210709 | "A carcinoma that shows both neuroendocrine and non-neuroendocrine differentiation in the same malignant cells. It has been described in the digestive system and extra-digestive sites. It is distinct from mixed neuroendocrine non-neuroendocrine neoplasms as it does not contain two distinct neoplastic components, one neuroendocrine and one non-neuroendocrine." |
| C210710 | A carcinoma that arises from the digestive system and shows both neuroendocrine and non-neuroendocrine differentiation in the same malignant cells. |
| C210711 | A carcinoma that arises from the lung and shows both neuroendocrine and non-neuroendocrine differentiation in the same malignant cells. |
| C210713 | A hindgut neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C210714 | A hindgut neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C210716 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C210717 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C210718 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C210739 | An extremely rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the tongue. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C210740 | An extremely rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the tongue and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C210741 | An extremely rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the tongue and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C210742 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the oral cavity. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C210743 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the oral cavity and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C210744 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the oral cavity and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C210813 | Gastric carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210814 | Ovarian carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210815 | Head and neck carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210816 | Kidney carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210817 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the POLR3A gene, encoding DNA-directed RNA polymerase III subunit RPC1. It is characterized by neurological, dental, ophthalmological, and endocrine alterations, including cognitive impairment, ataxia, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, and eye abnormalities." |
| C210820 | A carcinoma that arises from the female reproductive system and is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210822 | A carcinoma that arises from the urinary system and is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210823 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the urinary system and is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210826 | "An extremely rare autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the UBR1 gene, encoding E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase UBR1. It is characterized by failure to thrive, often due to pancreatic insufficiency, craniofacial abnormalities, and intellectual disability." |
| C210872 | "An autosomal recessive neurodevelopmental condition caused by mutation(s) in the HTT gene, encoding Huntingtin. It is characterized by delayed psychomotor development, severe intellectual disability, and both cerebral and cerebellar atrophy." |
| C210888 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ALDH7A1 gene, encoding alpha-aminoadipic semialdehyde dehydrogenase. It is characterized by early-onset seizures that are unresponsive to standard anticonvulsant therapies, but respond to the administration of pyridoxine (hydrochloride)." |
| C210890 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the TNPO2 gene, encoding transportin-2. It is characterized by intellectual developmental disorder with hypotonia, impaired speech, and dysmorphic facies (IDDHISD)." |
| C210892 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SQSTM1 gene, encoding sequestosome-1. It is characterized by childhood-onset neurodegeneration with ataxia, dystonia, and gaze palsy (NADGP)." |
| C210893 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the LAMC2 gene, encoding laminin subunit gamma-2. It is characterized by severe skin blisters and erosions and is often fatal." |
| C210968 | An estrogen receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210977 | An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of well differentiated histopathological features. |
| C210978 | An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of histopathological features that are intermediate between well differentiated and poorly differentiated. |
| C210979 | An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of poorly differentiated histopathological features. |
| C210980 | A prostate carcinoma that is confined to the prostate gland and shows rising prostate-specific antigen concentration despite castration therapy. It progresses to metastatic disease. |
| C210981 | A prostate carcinoma that has spread to other sites and is resistant to castration therapy. |
| C210982 | A prostate carcinoma that has spread to other sites and is sensitive to castration therapy. |
| C210985 | A progesterone receptor-positive breast carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C210986 | A lung non-small cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210990 | A prostate carcinoma that is confined to the prostate gland and is sensitive to castration therapy. |
| C210995 | A breast ductal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C210996 | A breast lobular carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C211028 | Colorectal carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C21129 | "The neuroadaptation of the body to the presence of an opioid, and is characterized by the onset of acute symptoms and signs of withdrawal if the opioid is stopped or an opioid antagonist is administered." |
| C21131 | A behavioral pattern characterized by a craving for the mood-altering effects of a drug and an overwhelming preoccupation with obtaining and using the drug. |
| C211514 | Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis that affects the bronchi. |
| C211515 | Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis that affects the trachea. |
| C211516 | A malignant solid neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C211517 | A fallopian tube endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C211518 | Primary peritoneal endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C211519 | A fallopian tube clear cell adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C211520 | Primary peritoneal clear cell adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C211521 | Fallopian tube carcinosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C211522 | Primary peritoneal carcinosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C211523 | A fallopian tube endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C211524 | Primary peritoneal endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C211525 | A fallopian tube clear cell adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C211526 | Primary peritoneal clear cell adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C211527 | A fallopian tube carcinosarcoma that has spread extensively from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C211528 | Primary peritoneal carcinosarcoma that has spread extensively from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C211531 | A neoplasm that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C211532 | A primary or metastatic neoplasm in the brain that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C211551 | A squamous cell carcinoma composed of malignant cells without morphologic evidence of keratin production. |
| C211565 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the anus and is composed of malignant cells without morphologic evidence of keratin production. It includes cloacogenic and basaloid carcinoma. |
| C211587 | Lymphedema resulting from breast cancer or its treatment. |
| C211594 | "A common form of eczema that is characterized by chronic skin inflammation, dryness, pruritus, and irritation. It often presents in patients with allergies and may more commonly be noted on the folds of the skin or the scalp." |
| C211597 | A fumarate hydratase-deficient renal cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C211601 | A fumarate hydratase-deficient renal cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C211604 | A fumarate hydratase-deficient renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C211606 | A succinate dehydrogenase-deficient renal cell carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C211607 | A succinate dehydrogenase-deficient renal cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C211608 | A succinate dehydrogenase-deficient renal cell carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C211669 | A childhood neoplasm that is categorized using nomenclature that is no longer in use or diagnostic criteria that are outdated. |
| C211682 | "The reemergence of chronic phase chronic myeloid leukemia, BCR-ABL1 positive after a period of remission." |
| C211843 | A nasopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus infection. The vast majority of nasopharyngeal non-keratinizing squamous cell carcinomas (differentiated or type II and undifferentiated or type III nasopharyngeal squamous cell carcinomas) and a small minority of nasopharyngeal keratinizing squamous cell carcinomas (type I nasopharyngeal squamous cell carcinomas) are associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C211861 | A subtype of type I pleuropulmonary blastoma characterized by the presence of cysts without the presence of primitive malignant small cells. |
| C211864 | "A term that refers to the staging of gastrointestinal stromal tumor, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C211865 | "A term that refers to the staging of gastric gastrointestinal stromal tumor, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C211866 | "A term that refers to the staging of small intestinal gastrointestinal stromal tumor, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C211868 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor arising from the small intestine. It is characterized by large size (diameter greater than 5 cm) or more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields. |
| C211869 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor arising from the colon or rectum. It is characterized by large size (diameter greater than 5 cm) or more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields. |
| C211871 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor characterized by the presence of KIT gene mutations. |
| C211872 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor characterized by the presence of PDGFRA gene mutations. |
| C211873 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor characterized by the presence of mutations in the SDH genes and absence of mutations in the KIT and PDGFRA genes. It has an epithelioid morphology and a multinodular growth pattern. |
| C211874 | A non-squamous non-small cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C211875 | A malignant solid neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C211879 | Ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C211882 | The reemergence of a grade 1 meningioma after a period of remission. |
| C211914 | Primary peritoneal endometrioid adenocarcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C211915 | Fallopian tube endometrioid adenocarcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C211916 | Ovarian high-grade endometrioid adenocarcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C211924 | An infection caused by human metapneumovirus. |
| C211942 | Inflammation of the conjunctiva characterized by the presence of reactive lymphoid aggregates in the conjunctiva substantia propria. It presents with multiple rounded elevations of the conjunctiva. |
| C211943 | "Follicular conjunctivitis caused by viruses and a few bacteria (e.g., Chlamydia)." |
| C211944 | "Follicular conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, Moraxella, Borrelia, Molluscum contagiosum, or toxicity from eye make-up and eye drops." |
| C211945 | "Papillary conjunctivitis caused by bacteria (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus, Hemophilus influenzae, and Streptococci)." |
| C211946 | "Papillary conjunctivitis that is persistent and long-standing. It includes giant papillary conjunctivitis, which is associated with contact lens wear." |
| C211951 | "The reemergence of fallopian tube carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C211952 | "The reemergence of primary peritoneal carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C211953 | Diffuse astrocytoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C211954 | A childhood astrocytic tumor that is resistant to treatment. |
| C211955 | Pilomyxoid astrocytoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C211956 | Oligodendroglioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C211958 | Anaplastic oligoastrocytoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C211960 | Childhood glioblastoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C211961 | Childhood anaplastic astrocytoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C211962 | Liver carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C211963 | Anal carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C211964 | Rectal carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C211965 | Childhood fibrillary astrocytoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C211966 | Childhood pilomyxoid astrocytoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C211967 | Childhood oligodendroglioma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C211968 | Childhood anaplastic oligoastrocytoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C211971 | "Diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27M-mutant that is resistant to treatment." |
| C212032 | An acral melanoma that has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C212033 | An acral melanoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C212034 | A glioma affecting the thalamus. |
| C212036 | "A rare X-lined condition, caused by mutation(s) in the ABCD1 gene, encoding ATP-binding cassette sub-family D member 1. It may present with varying clinical findings and may present at different ages (child or adult)." |
| C212038 | A melanoma that arises from the skin of the extremity and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C212054 | Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that has spread to the central nervous system following the initial presentation in another nodal or extranodal site. |
| C212055 | The reemergence of secondary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system after a period of remission. |
| C212056 | Secondary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212057 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that affects the central nervous system. |
| C212058 | The reemergence of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system after a period of remission. |
| C212059 | Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system that does not respond to treatment. |
| C212063 | A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that either arises in the central nervous system or has spread to the central nervous system following the initial presentation in another nodal or extranodal site. |
| C212064 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that either arises in the central nervous system or has spread to the central nervous system following the initial presentation in another nodal or extranodal site. |
| C212068 | The reemergence of primary central nervous system non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C212069 | A primary central nervous system non-Hodgkin lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C212070 | A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the meninges. |
| C212071 | A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the leptomeninges. |
| C212072 | A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the dura mater. |
| C212080 | "T-cell negative (T-), B-cell negative (B-) severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) caused by missense mutation(s) in the RAG1 and/or RAG2 genes, from which proteins encoded for by these gene(s) retain partial biologic activity that result in a less severe form of classical T-B-SCID, along with clinical features of Omenn Syndrome." |
| C212081 | "A rare severe combined immunodeficiency disorder caused by null mutations in recombination activating gene RAG1 or RAG2. Phenotypically, it is toward the more severe end of the clinical spectrum due to complete arrest of T and B-cell development, without the clinical features of Omenn Syndrome." |
| C212085 | A conjunctival squamous papilloma characterized by the presence of frond-like epithelial hyperplasia that surrounds central vascular cores. |
| C212087 | A conjunctival squamous papilloma characterized by the presence of endophytic squamous proliferation that pushes into the substantia propria. |
| C212089 | A conjunctival squamous papilloma characterized by the presence of exophytic and endophytic growth patterns. |
| C212097 | "A rare autosomal dominant disorder with high penetrance that affects the limbal conjunctiva. It is almost exclusively encountered in Native Americans belonging to the Haliwa-Saponi tribe of northeastern North Carolina and is caused by a duplication in chromosome 4q35. It is characterized by the presence of frequently bilateral, elevated epithelial dyskeratotic plaques in the limbal conjunctiva. There is prominent inflammation in substantia propria. Epithelial dysplasia is absent." |
| C212098 | A rare autosomal dominant disorder with high penetrance that affects the oral mucosa. It is almost exclusively encountered in Native Americans belonging to the Haliwa-Saponi tribe of northeastern North Carolina and is caused by a duplication in chromosome 4q35. It is characterized by the presence of elevated epithelial dyskeratotic plaques in the oral mucosa. Epithelial dysplasia is absent. |
| C212100 | Colorectal adenocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C212102 | "A variant of urticaria pigmentosa/maculopapular cutaneous mastocytosis characterized by the presence of multiple small, roundish maculopapular skin lesions." |
| C212103 | A variant of urticaria pigmentosa/maculopapular cutaneous mastocytosis characterized by the presence of larger skin lesions of variable size compared to the monomorphic variant. |
| C212107 | Multiple distinct mastocytomas that arise from the skin. |
| C212108 | Colorectal adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site and is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C212110 | A conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of various degrees of keratinization. |
| C212111 | "A conjunctival poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with scant basophilic cytoplasm, a high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio, and oval to spindle hyperchromatic nuclei without prominent nucleoli. Apoptosis and tumor cell necrosis are present." |
| C212112 | A conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of focal intracytoplasmic mucin. |
| C212113 | A conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of acantholysis of the tumor cells that results in the formation of pseudolumina resembling glandular structures. |
| C212114 | A conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma that occurs in patients with Fitzpatrick skin types IV-VI and is characterized by the presence of dendritic melanocytic hyperplasia among the tumor cells. |
| C212115 | The reemergence of high-grade B-cell lymphoma with MYC and BCL6 rearrangements after a period of remission. |
| C212116 | High-grade B-cell lymphoma with MYC and BCL6 rearrangements that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212117 | "A benign, precancerous, or malignant neoplasm that affects the ovaries, fallopian tubes, or surrounding connective tissue." |
| C212118 | High-grade B-cell lymphoma with MYC and BCL2 rearrangements that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212119 | "A benign, precancerous, or malignant neoplasm that affects the adnexal structures of the skin (hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands), uterus (ovaries, fallopian tubes, or surrounding connective tissue), or eye (conjunctiva, lacrimal system, and eyelid)." |
| C212120 | The reemergence of high-grade B-cell lymphoma with MYC and BCL2 rearrangements after a period of remission. |
| C212171 | Hepatitis B infection persisting longer than six months. |
| C212181 | "Anaplastic astrocytoma, not otherwise specified that occurs during childhood." |
| C212185 | "The reemergence of anaplastic astrocytoma, not otherwise specified in childhood after a period of remission." |
| C212186 | The reemergence of anaplastic ependymoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C212187 | The reemergence of Erdheim-Chester disease after a period of remission. |
| C212190 | The reemergence of histiocytic sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C212191 | Histiocytic sarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212192 | The reemergence of Rosai-Dorfman-Destombes disease after a period of remission. |
| C212193 | Rosai-Dorfman-Destombes disease that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212194 | The reemergence of mixed phenotype acute leukemia in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C212195 | Childhood mixed phenotype acute leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212197 | The reemergence of fibroblastic reticular cell sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C212198 | The reemergence of interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C212199 | A fibroblastic reticular cell sarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212200 | An interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212201 | A mixed phenotype acute leukemia that occurs during childhood. |
| C212202 | A childhood acute leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212203 | The reemergence of childhood acute leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C212204 | Myasthenia gravis that involves multiple muscle groups and is resistant to treatment. |
| C212205 | A malignant testicular neoplasm that has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C212206 | A malignant testicular neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C212210 | "A hematopoietic and lymphoid tissue neoplasm that arises from histiocytic and dendritic cells and is characterized by malignant cytological and architectural features, and presence of invasive features or metastatic potential. This category includes histiocytic sarcoma, fibroblastic reticular cell sarcoma, follicular dendritic cell sarcoma, interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma, Langerhans cell sarcoma, and plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm." |
| C212211 | The reemergence of a malignant histiocytic and dendritic cell neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C212212 | A malignant histiocytic and dendritic cell neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212214 | "The reemergence of triple-negative breast carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C212215 | "The reemergence of prostate carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C212216 | "The reemergence of pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C212217 | "The reemergence of biliary tract carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C212218 | "The reemergence of urothelial carcinoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C212816 | The reemergence of acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C212817 | Childhood acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212819 | "An uncommon carcinoma that arises from the urinary tract and is characterized by the presence of non-urothelial histological features. This category includes squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, and neuroendocrine carcinoma." |
| C212820 | "An uncommon carcinoma that arises from the bladder and is characterized by the presence of non-urothelial histological features. This category includes squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, and neuroendocrine carcinoma." |
| C212836 | A conjunctival squamous intraepithelial neoplasia that occurs in patients with Fitzpatrick skin types IV-VI and is characterized by the presence of dendritic melanocytic hyperplasia among the dysplastic cells. |
| C212841 | A conjunctival squamous intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of dysplastic squamous cells with intracytoplasmic mucin. |
| C212845 | A conjunctival squamous intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of dysplasia that involves the lower two-thirds of epithelial thickness. |
| C212849 | A conjunctival squamous cell neoplasm characterized by the presence of dysplasia that involves the entire epithelium (full thickness) without surface epithelial maturation. The basement membrane is intact. |
| C212862 | "Dilated cardiomyopathy inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern caused by mutation(s) in the SCN5A gene, encoding sodium channel protein type 5 subunit alpha." |
| C212863 | "Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern caused by mutation(s) in the MPV17 gene, encoding mitochondrial inner membrane protein Mpv17." |
| C212871 | "A dome-shaped, rapidly growing neoplasm composed of well differentiated squamous cells. It almost always affects the skin and usually occurs on sun-exposed areas of the body, most often the head, neck, and limbs. Rare cases have been reported in extracutaneous sites including the conjunctiva, subungual space, and vulva. It is considered a variant of well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma with distinct clinical behavior." |
| C212884 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the TREM2 gene, encoding triggering receptor expressed on myeloid cells 2. It is characterized by presenile dementia with leukoencephalopathy and calcification of the basal ganglia." |
| C212885 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SLC19A3 gene, encoding thiamine transporter 2. It is characterized by episodic encephalopathy, which may present with a variety of clinical features, and is responsive to high doses of biotin and/or thiamine." |
| C212886 | "An inherited condition caused by mutations in the PROM1 gene, encoding prominin-1. It is characterized by a progressive reduction in color vision and loss of visual acuity." |
| C212887 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the EYA4 gene, encoding eyes absent homolog 4. It is a type of nonsyndromic hearing loss characterized by progressive sensorineural hearing loss." |
| C212888 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the MAST1 gene, encoding microtubule-associated serine/threonine-protein kinase 1. It is characterized by enlargement of the corpus callosum, cerebellar hypoplasia, and cortical malformations." |
| C212890 | "An autosomal recessive subtype of hereditary spastic paraplegia caused by mutation(s) in the AP4S1 gene, encoding AP-4 complex subunit sigma-1." |
| C212893 | "A genetic condition caused by a terminal 6q27 deletion. It is characterized by an array of developmental abnormalities including facial dysmorphisms, developmental delay, as well as structural abnormalities of the brain, heart, and vertebrae." |
| C212894 | Colorectal carcinoma that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C212895 | Hilar cholangiocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C212896 | Biliary tract carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C212898 | Gallbladder carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C212899 | The reemergence of breast mixed carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C212968 | A myeloproliferative neoplasm associated with CALR gene mutation. |
| C212969 | Essential thrombocythemia associated with CALR gene mutation. |
| C212970 | Primary myelofibrosis associated with CALR gene mutation. |
| C212971 | A myeloproliferative neoplasm associated with MPL gene mutation. |
| C212972 | Essential thrombocythemia associated with MPL gene mutation. |
| C212973 | Primary myelofibrosis associated with MPL gene mutation. |
| C212974 | A myeloproliferative neoplasm associated with JAK2 gene mutation. |
| C212975 | Essential thrombocythemia associated with JAK2 gene mutation. |
| C212976 | Primary myelofibrosis associated with JAK2 gene mutation. |
| C212977 | Essential thrombocythemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C212978 | Essential thrombocythemia associated with the repeated formation of blood clots due to the underlying disorder. |
| C212979 | The repeated formation of blood clots. |
| C212980 | A HER2-positive breast carcinoma that has not spread beyond the breast and the axillary lymph nodes. |
| C212981 | "The reemergence of follicular helper T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified after a period of remission." |
| C212982 | "Follicular helper T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified that is resistant to treatment." |
| C212983 | A malignant neoplasm that is mainly confined to the kidney with or without involvement of perinephric tissues and without evidence of spread to other organs. |
| C212992 | The reemergence of astrocytoma after a period of remission. |
| C212994 | The reemergence of astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C213011 | "A benign, precancerous, or malignant neoplasm that affects the conjunctiva, eyelid, or lacrimal system." |
| C213012 | An idiopathic inflammatory myopathy that occurs during childhood. |
| C213015 | "The reemergence of myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm, not otherwise specified after a period of remission." |
| C213016 | "Myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm, not otherwise specified that is resistant to treatment." |
| C213017 | Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C213036 | "A clear cell renal cell carcinoma that develops in a patient with Von Hippel Lindau syndrome. Renal involvement in Von Hippel Lindau syndrome is characterized by multiple, bilateral, and recurring tumors." |
| C213037 | "A hemangioblastoma that arises from the brain, spinal cord, or retina in a patient with Von Hippel Lindau syndrome." |
| C213038 | A hemangioblastoma that arises from the retina in a patient with Von Hippel Lindau syndrome. |
| C213039 | "A pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor that develops in a patient with Von Hippel Lindau syndrome. Most often, there are multiple non-functional tumors." |
| C213040 | A pancreatic serous microcystic adenoma that develops in a patient with Von Hippel Lindau syndrome. |
| C213041 | A pancreatic serous cystadenoma that develops in a patient with Von Hippel Lindau syndrome. |
| C213042 | A metastatic malignant neoplasm of unknown primary that is resistant to treatment. |
| C213043 | The reemergence of a malignant neoplasm of unknown primary after a period of remission. |
| C213048 | A malignant uterine corpus neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C213049 | A breast carcinoma that has reemerged after a period of remission at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213052 | A malignant neoplasm that is associated with human papillomavirus infection and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213055 | A pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor that develops in a patient with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1). The incidence of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors in patients with MEN1 ranges between 30-80% in various studies. |
| C213091 | A benign melanocytic neoplasm that arises from the conjunctiva and is composed of spindle and/or epithelioid melanocytes and melanophages. It is caused by the combined activation of the WNT signaling and MAP-kinase pathways. It rarely progresses to melanoma. |
| C213094 | "A benign melanocytic lesion that arises from the conjunctiva and is characterized by the presence of increased melanin pigmentation within the conjunctival melanocytes. Atypical features such as mitotic activity, nuclear enlargement, and prominent nucleoli are absent. It is usually bilateral and is frequently seen in people with Fitzpatrick skin types IV -VI. In White populations the occurrence is low. The prognosis is very good and malignant transformation to melanocytic intraepithelial ne... |
| C213097 | "A conjunctival melanocytic neoplasm characterized by the absence of malignant morphological characteristics and metastases. This category includes melanocytic nevus, benign epithelial melanosis of the conjunctiva, and WNT-activated deep penetrating/plexiform melanocytoma (nevus)." |
| C213098 | Benign epithelial melanosis of the conjunctiva that is present at birth. |
| C213099 | Benign epithelial melanosis of the conjunctiva that is not present at birth. |
| C213111 | An extremely rare colorectal adenocarcinoma that exhibits neuroendocrine differentiation and is associated with the presence of neoplastic signet-ring cells resembling goblet cells. |
| C213112 | "A melanocytic nevus that arises from the conjunctiva and is characterized by the presence of two or more morphologically distinct melanocytic nevus components in a single lesion. One component is a conventional nevus component, and the other(s) are blue nevus, WNT-activated deep penetrating/plexiform melanocytoma (nevus), or balloon cell nevus components." |
| C213113 | "A nevus that arises from the skin and is characterized by the presence of two or more morphologically distinct melanocytic nevus components in a single lesion. One component is a conventional nevus component, and the other(s) are usually blue nevus, deep penetrating nevus, or Spitz nevus components." |
| C213114 | A nevus that arises from the skin or conjunctiva and is characterized by the presence of nevus cells within the epithelium and in the dermis (skin) or substantia propria (conjunctiva). |
| C213115 | "A melanocytic nevus that arises from the skin or conjunctiva and is characterized by the presence of large melanocytes with clear, foamy, or finely vacuolated cytoplasm." |
| C213118 | "An acquired or congenital benign melanocytic neoplasm that occurs in the skin and rarely the conjunctiva and is characterized by a proliferation of large spindle, oval, or large epithelioid melanocytes." |
| C213135 | Ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C213136 | Ovarian clear cell adenocarcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C213137 | Ovarian clear cell adenocarcinoma that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C213138 | Ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C213139 | Ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C213145 | Ovarian seromucinous carcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C213148 | Ovarian seromucinous carcinoma that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C213149 | Ovarian undifferentiated carcinoma that progresses between one and six months of completing platinum therapy. |
| C213150 | Ovarian undifferentiated carcinoma that progresses during platinum therapy or within one month of completing platinum therapy. |
| C213152 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the intestine and occurs during childhood. |
| C213155 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the pleura and occurs during childhood. |
| C213156 | A neuroblastic tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C213198 | A slightly raised pigmented melanocytic lesion with irregular borders characterized by the presence of atypical melanocytes. The differential diagnosis from melanoma may be difficult and patients are at an increased risk for the development of melanoma. |
| C213199 | "A melanocytic nevus that arises from the skin or conjunctiva. In the skin, it is characterized by the presence of a junctional proliferation of nevus cells without involvement of the dermis. In the conjunctiva, it is characterized by an intraepithelial proliferation of nevus cells." |
| C213200 | A nodular melanoma that arises from the conjunctiva and is characterized by a vertical growth phase and lack of a significant radial growth phase. |
| C213201 | A melanoma that arises from the conjunctiva and is characterized by the absence of melanin pigment in the melanoma cells. |
| C213202 | A melanoma that arises from the conjunctiva and is characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes and malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes. |
| C213230 | A metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C213274 | A lung small cell carcinoma that has spread to the cerebrum. |
| C213275 | A carcinoma that has spread to the lymph nodes. |
| C213276 | A carcinoma that has spread to the colon from another anatomic site. |
| C213277 | A carcinoma that has spread to the sigmoid colon from another anatomic site. |
| C213278 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the sigmoid colon. |
| C213279 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the sigmoid colon. |
| C213280 | A carcinoma that has spread to the ovary. |
| C213281 | A carcinoma that has spread to the prostate gland. |
| C213282 | A carcinoma that has spread to the bladder. |
| C213283 | A lung large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread to the cerebrum. |
| C213284 | A lung carcinoma that has spread to the cerebrum. |
| C213285 | A lung large cell carcinoma that has spread to the cerebrum. |
| C213286 | A lung large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that has spread to the brain. |
| C213287 | A lung small cell carcinoma that has spread to the brain. |
| C213290 | A spindle cell squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the skin of the head and neck. |
| C213291 | An extremely rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the hypopharynx and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C213292 | An extremely rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the tonsil and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C213293 | An extremely rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the palate and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C213294 | An extremely rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the gingiva and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C213295 | A papillary squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the gingiva. |
| C213296 | An invasive or non-invasive urothelial carcinoma exhibiting papillary growth. |
| C213297 | A verrucous carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the gingiva. |
| C213305 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the border of the tongue. |
| C213306 | A non-invasive intraepithelial squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the border of the tongue. |
| C213307 | A non-invasive intraepithelial squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C213310 | A non-invasive intraepithelial squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the maxillary sinus. |
| C213311 | A non-invasive intraepithelial squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vulva. |
| C213312 | An uncommon squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the eyelid. |
| C213313 | A non-invasive intraepithelial squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the eyelid. |
| C213314 | A squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to the lymph nodes. |
| C213315 | A squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to the oropharynx. |
| C213316 | A squamous cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to the posterior wall of the oropharynx. |
| C213317 | A keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the hypopharynx. |
| C213319 | A non-keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the oropharynx. |
| C213320 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the head and neck region and is characterized by the absence of keratin production. |
| C213321 | A rare variant of squamous cell carcinoma of the lung characterized by cellular discohesion of the tumor cells that results in the formation of pseudolumina resembling glandular structures. |
| C213322 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the base of the tongue and is associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C213323 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the tongue and is associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C213326 | An ovarian high-grade endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C213327 | An ovarian high-grade endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213329 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the tonsil and is associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C213330 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx and is associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C213331 | Extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213332 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the pharynx and is associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C213333 | A carcinoma that arises from the skin of the head and neck. |
| C213334 | A basal cell carcinoma that arises from the skin of the head and neck. |
| C213335 | "A rare adenocarcinoma of the parotid gland, originating from basaloid, myoepithelial, and ductal cells. While morphologically it resembles basal cell carcinoma, it is a distinct entity. The tumor is not encapsulated, may invade locally, and less frequently may metastasize. It usually occurs in older patients." |
| C213336 | The reemergence of extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C213337 | An extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C213338 | An extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213339 | The reemergence of HER2-low breast carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C213340 | A low-grade glioma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213341 | A glioma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213342 | A diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C213343 | A diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213344 | An ependymoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C213345 | An ependymoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213346 | An osteosarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213347 | A hepatoblastoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213348 | An exceptionally rare rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the bone. |
| C213349 | A rhabdomyosarcoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213350 | A rare hepatoblastoma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C213351 | "A hepatoblastoma that occurs during childhood. It occurs almost exclusively in infants, although isolated cases in older children have been reported." |
| C213352 | The reemergence of primary central nervous system lymphoma after a period of remission. The vast majority of cases are non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C213353 | A primary central nervous system lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. The vast majority of cases are non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C213362 | A bladder urothelial carcinoma that does not invade the basement membrane and is characterized by the presence of glandular differentiation of the neoplastic cells. |
| C213363 | A bladder urothelial carcinoma that does not invade the basement membrane and presents as a flat or papillary lesion. |
| C213364 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C213367 | A carcinoma that has spread to the central nervous system from its original site of growth. |
| C213368 | An adenocarcinoma that has spread to the central nervous system from its original site of growth. |
| C213369 | A carcinoma that has spread to the hepatic flexure from another anatomic site. |
| C213370 | An adenocarcinoma that has spread to the hepatic flexure from another anatomic site. |
| C213371 | An adenocarcinoma that has spread to the colon from another anatomic site. |
| C213372 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the hepatic flexure. |
| C213373 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the hepatic flexure. |
| C213374 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the sigmoid colon. |
| C213375 | A rare pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of intestinal-type malignant epithelial cells resembling colonic adenocarcinoma. |
| C213376 | A very rare adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the lip. |
| C213377 | A very rare adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the external upper lip. |
| C213378 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from an adenomatous polyp in the colon. |
| C213379 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from an adenomatous polyp in the rectum. |
| C213418 | An autoimmune disease affecting multiple organ systems. |
| C213422 | An acute myeloid leukemia that develops in patients with a prior history of chronic myelomonocytic leukemia. |
| C213423 | The reemergence of secondary acute myeloid leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C213424 | A secondary acute myeloid leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C213425 | The reemergence of acute myeloid leukemia post cytotoxic therapy after a period of remission. |
| C213426 | An acute myeloid leukemia post cytotoxic therapy that is resistant to treatment. |
| C213429 | An osteosarcoma that arises from the bones of the upper or lower extremity and is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C213430 | A high-grade osteosarcoma that arises from the bones of the upper or lower extremity and is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C213437 | "A rare, low-grade carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland and is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm. It usually has an indolent clinical course." |
| C213439 | "A rare, low-grade carcinoma that arises from the minor salivary glands and is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm. It usually has an indolent clinical course." |
| C213445 | An extremely rare mucoepidermoid carcinoma that arises from the gingiva. |
| C213446 | "A rapidly growing serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary, fallopian tube, or peritoneum. It is characterized by the presence of high-grade cytologic features and frequent mitotic figures." |
| C213448 | A serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary or the peritoneum. It is characterized by low-grade histopathologic features. |
| C213452 | A carcinoma that arises from the epithelial lining of a duct and has not invaded the surrounding stroma. |
| C213456 | Rectal adenocarcinoma that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C213459 | A stage term that refers to a malignant solid neoplasm that is confined to a limited area with or without regional lymph node involvement and without metastasis to distant anatomic sites. |
| C213475 | Paget disease that affects the pelvic bones. |
| C213477 | An adenosquamous carcinoma that arises from the head and neck region. |
| C213478 | An adenosquamous carcinoma that arises from the oropharynx. |
| C213479 | A rare and aggressive extrahepatic carcinoma that morphologically and immunophenotypically resembles hepatocellular carcinoma and arises from the colon or rectum. |
| C213480 | A rare and aggressive extrahepatic carcinoma that morphologically and immunophenotypically resembles hepatocellular carcinoma and arises from the colon. |
| C213481 | A rare and aggressive extrahepatic carcinoma that morphologically and immunophenotypically resembles hepatocellular carcinoma and arises from the rectum. |
| C213482 | An undifferentiated round cell sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C213483 | A round cell sarcoma with EWSR1-non-ETS fusion that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C213484 | A CIC-rearranged sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C213485 | A small cell sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C213486 | A sarcoma with BCOR genetic alterations that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C213487 | "An undifferentiated sarcoma, not otherwise specified that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site." |
| C213488 | An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C213491 | An exceedingly rare melanoma that arises from the mediastinum. |
| C213492 | A paraganglioma that arises from the temporal bone. |
| C213493 | A paraganglioma that arises from the maxillary bone. |
| C213497 | Castration-resistant prostate carcinoma that has invaded the prostate capsule and has spread to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C213510 | A melanoma that has spread to the bone from another anatomic site. |
| C213511 | A melanoma that has spread to the temporal bone from another anatomic site. |
| C213513 | An exceedingly rare melanoma that arises from the mucosal lining of the ear canal and invades the temporal bone. |
| C213517 | An exceedingly rare melanoma that arises from the parotid gland. The vast majority of melanomas affecting the parotid gland are metastatic lesions. |
| C213518 | A myeloid sarcoma that arises from the gingiva. |
| C213519 | An exceedingly rare epithelioid sarcoma that arises from the oral cavity. |
| C213523 | An exceedingly rare undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that arises from the lung. In the vast majority of cases lung involvement is due to metastasis from another anatomic site. |
| C213524 | Enterocolitis associated with the use of immunotherapeutic agents. |
| C213527 | An exceedingly rare desmoplastic small round cell tumor that arises from the lung. |
| C213538 | An exceedingly rare liposarcoma that arises from the lung. |
| C213540 | A liposarcoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. It is the most common soft tissue sarcoma of the retroperitoneum. |
| C213544 | An exceedingly rare myxoid liposarcoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. |
| C213545 | An exceedingly rare pleomorphic liposarcoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. |
| C213546 | An exceedingly rare liposarcoma that arises from the liver. |
| C213547 | An exceedingly rare dedifferentiated liposarcoma that arises from the liver. |
| C213548 | An exceedingly rare leiomyosarcoma that arises from the oral cavity. |
| C213549 | An exceedingly rare leiomyosarcoma that arises from the gingiva. |
| C213563 | "Compression of the spinal cord secondary to mass effect in the epidural space, most commonly from metastases." |
| C213582 | An exceedingly rare rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the stomach. In the vast majority of cases gastric involvement is due to metastasis from another anatomic site. |
| C213583 | An exceedingly rare embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the stomach. In the vast majority of cases gastric involvement is due to metastasis from another anatomic site. |
| C213584 | A rare rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C213586 | A rare alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C213587 | An exceedingly rare rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the adrenal gland. |
| C213588 | An exceedingly rare alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the adrenal gland. |
| C213589 | A rare gastrointestinal stromal tumor that arises from the jejunum. |
| C213590 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that arises from the colon. |
| C213591 | A rare synovial sarcoma that arises from a nerve. |
| C213592 | A rare spindle cell synovial sarcoma that arises from a nerve. |
| C213593 | A rare biphasic synovial sarcoma that arises from the kidney. |
| C213594 | Significant distress or impairment resulting from an inconsistency between an individual's biological sex and their self-identification. IMPORTANT NOTICE: The NCI Thesaurus contains biomedical terminologies that NCI does not own or control. This concept contains gender-related content that does not comply with Executive Order 14168. |
| C213595 | A condition characterized by a disturbance in sexual desire and in the psychophysiological changes that make up the sexual response cycle. |
| C213596 | A rare malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the the base of the coccyx. |
| C213597 | A very rare mixed germ cell tumor that arises from the liver. |
| C213598 | A very rare malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the liver. |
| C213601 | A rare malignant solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the pleura. |
| C213613 | A rare malignant solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the orbit. |
| C213621 | A rare chondrosarcoma that arises from the jaw. |
| C213627 | "An exceedingly rare variant of Ewing sarcoma with epithelial differentiation that resembles carcinoma. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of nests of basaloid cells, tumor cell palisading, myxoid or hyalinized stroma, focal keratin pearl formation, and high-grade features with minimal pleomorphism. It usually affects the head and neck region." |
| C213629 | "An exceedingly rare variant of Ewing sarcoma with epithelial differentiation that resembles carcinoma and arises from the head and neck. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of nests of basaloid cells, tumor cell palisading, myxoid or hyalinized stroma, focal keratin pearl formation, and high-grade features with minimal pleomorphism. It most often arises from the salivary glands, thyroid gland, and sinonasal tract." |
| C213630 | "An exceedingly rare variant of Ewing sarcoma with epithelial differentiation that resembles carcinoma and arises from the major salivary glands. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of nests of basaloid cells, tumor cell palisading, myxoid or hyalinized stroma, focal keratin pearl formation, and high-grade features with minimal pleomorphism." |
| C213631 | "An exceedingly rare variant of Ewing sarcoma with epithelial differentiation that resembles carcinoma and arises from the parotid gland. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of nests of basaloid cells, tumor cell palisading, myxoid or hyalinized stroma, focal keratin pearl formation, and high-grade features with minimal pleomorphism." |
| C213632 | "An exceedingly rare variant of Ewing sarcoma with epithelial differentiation that resembles carcinoma and arises from the pancreas. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of nests of basaloid cells, tumor cell palisading, myxoid or hyalinized stroma, focal keratin pearl formation, and high-grade features with minimal pleomorphism." |
| C213633 | An exceedingly rare Ewing sarcoma that arises from the lung. |
| C213636 | A rare ectopic olfactory neuroblastoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C213638 | An exceedingly rare neuroblastoma that arises from the cervix. |
| C213639 | A rare neuroblastoma that arises from the kidney. |
| C213643 | Alpha thalassemia that results in severe anemia and requires regular blood transfusions for patient survival. |
| C213648 | A grade 3 meningioma that arises from the sheath of the optic nerve. |
| C213651 | A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the oral cavity. |
| C213652 | A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the gingiva. |
| C213654 | A non-Hodgkin or rarely a Hodgkin lymphoma that manifests initially in the parotid gland. |
| C213655 | A very rare Hodgkin lymphoma that manifests initially in the parotid gland. |
| C213657 | A rare mantle cell lymphoma that manifests initially in the oral cavity. |
| C213658 | A childhood lymphoblastic lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C213659 | A very rare mantle cell lymphoma that manifests initially in the tongue. |
| C213660 | A non-Hodgkin or very rarely a Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the oral cavity. |
| C213661 | The reemergence of lymphoblastic lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C213662 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the tonsil. |
| C213663 | A rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the tonsil. |
| C213664 | A rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the oral cavity. |
| C213666 | "The reemergence of a malignant solid neoplasm after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C213667 | A mantle cell lymphoma that manifests initially in the salivary glands. |
| C213669 | A very rare mantle cell lymphoma that manifests initially in the thyroid gland. |
| C213672 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the oral cavity. |
| C213673 | A rare diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the gingiva. |
| C213674 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C213675 | A urethral carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213677 | An ovarian high-grade endometrioid adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213681 | A platinum-resistant ovarian high-grade serous adenocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213690 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the ocular adnexa. |
| C213696 | A rare follicular lymphoma that arises from the oral cavity. |
| C213697 | An exceedingly rare follicular lymphoma that arises from the gingiva. |
| C213698 | A lung adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213699 | A urothelial carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213700 | A female reproductive system carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213701 | A female reproductive system carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213702 | A female reproductive system carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C213703 | A female reproductive system carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C213704 | A urinary system carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213705 | A urinary system carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C213707 | A urinary system carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C213708 | A urinary system carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213709 | A female reproductive system carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C213713 | A gallbladder adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213714 | A digestive system carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213717 | A malignant genitourinary system neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C213723 | A rare follicular lymphoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C213728 | A rare follicular lymphoma that arises from the colon or rectum. |
| C213729 | A rare follicular lymphoma that arises from the colon. |
| C213730 | A rare follicular lymphoma that arises from the rectum. |
| C213731 | A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the rectum. |
| C213737 | An exceedingly rare follicular lymphoma that arises from the mediastinum. |
| C213738 | "A rare lymphoma that arises from the female reproductive system. It usually affects the ovaries and less commonly the cervix, whereas primary lymphoma involving the endometrium or fallopian tube is exceedingly rare." |
| C213739 | A rare lymphoma that arises from the cervix. |
| C213740 | An exceedingly rare follicular lymphoma that arises from the stomach. |
| C213741 | An exceedingly rare grade 1 follicular lymphoma that arises from the stomach. |
| C213742 | An exceedingly rare grade 2 follicular lymphoma that arises from the stomach. |
| C213743 | An exceedingly rare grade 3 follicular lymphoma that arises from the stomach. |
| C213744 | A rare follicular lymphoma that arises from the digestive system. |
| C213745 | A non-Hodgkin or rarely a Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the intestine. |
| C213746 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the intestine. |
| C213747 | A rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the intestine. |
| C213749 | A rare follicular lymphoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. |
| C213750 | A rare grade 1 follicular lymphoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. |
| C213751 | A rare grade 2 follicular lymphoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. |
| C213752 | A rare grade 3 follicular lymphoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. |
| C213753 | A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. |
| C213754 | A rare diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. |
| C213755 | A rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. |
| C213757 | The reemergence of childhood leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C213758 | A leukemia that occurs during childhood and is resistant to treatment. |
| C213759 | The reemergence of retroperitoneal sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C213760 | "The reemergence of retroperitoneal sarcoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C213763 | "The reemergence of sarcoma after a period of remission, at or adjacent to the site of the original tumor." |
| C213768 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the retroperitoneum from another (primary) anatomic site. |
| C213769 | The reemergence of a large B-cell lymphoma with IRF4 rearrangement after a period of remission. |
| C213770 | A large B-cell lymphoma with IRF4 rearrangement that is resistant to treatment. |
| C213771 | An acral melanoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213774 | A melanoma that develops in an area of the skin that is not exposed to sunlight. |
| C213775 | A melanoma that develops in non-sun exposed skin and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C213776 | A melanoma that develops in non-sun exposed skin and has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C213786 | A rare extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C213787 | A rare extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the rectum. |
| C213788 | An exceedingly rare extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the pleura. |
| C213789 | An exceedingly rare extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the kidney. |
| C213799 | A nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C213805 | A rare plasmablastic lymphoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C213806 | A rare plasmablastic lymphoma that arises from the nasal cavity. |
| C213807 | A rare plasmablastic lymphoma that arises from the paranasal sinus. |
| C213811 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the sinonasal tract. |
| C213824 | A post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the gastrointestinal tract. The most common sites of involvement are the stomach and small intestine. |
| C213827 | Langerhans cell histiocytosis that affects the gingiva. |
| C213840 | A post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the stomach. |
| C213842 | A post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the intestine. |
| C213846 | A post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the small intestine. |
| C213847 | A post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the colon or rectum. |
| C213848 | A post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the colon. |
| C213849 | A post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the lung. |
| C213850 | A post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the central nervous system. |
| C213851 | A post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the brain. |
| C213852 | A post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the spinal cord. |
| C213853 | An exceedingly rare post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the adrenal gland. |
| C213854 | A polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the intestine. |
| C213855 | A polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the small intestine. |
| C213856 | A polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the colon or rectum. |
| C213857 | A polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the colon. |
| C213858 | A polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the lung. |
| C213859 | A polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the central nervous system. |
| C213860 | A polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the brain. |
| C213861 | An exceedingly rare polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the adrenal gland. |
| C213862 | "A neoplasm that arises from the peripheral nervous system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C213870 | A neoplasm that arises from mature B-lymphocytes or plasma cells in the intestine. |
| C213871 | A polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the stomach. |
| C213872 | A neoplasm that arises from mature B-lymphocytes or plasma cells in the stomach. |
| C213873 | A polymorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the gastrointestinal tract. |
| C213874 | A neoplasm that arises from mature B-lymphocytes or plasma cells in the digestive system. |
| C25765 | "An acute myeloid leukemia arising from prior myelodysplastic syndrome, myeloproliferative neoplasm, or myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm, or as a result of previous exposure to alkylating agents or topoisomerase II inhibitors." |
| C25771 | A malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the testis and has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C26323 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that arises from the hematopoietic and lymphoid cells. Representative examples include disorders that affect the synthesis of hemoglobin, coagulation disorders, leukemias, and lymphomas." |
| C26324 | A non-neoplastic disorder that arises from hematopoietic and lymphoid cells. It is characterized by the absence of a clonal cellular component. It rarely progresses to a malignant neoplasm. |
| C26326 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the connective and soft tissue. |
| C26458 | A hyperplasia of the intraductal cells. |
| C26684 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder which results from exposure to radiation. Examples of non-neoplastic disorders include dermatitis, enteritis, stomatitis, pneumonitis, and cerebritis. Examples of neoplastic disorders include myelodysplastic syndromes, leukemias, and sarcomas." |
| C26685 | "Placental separation from the uterus with bleeding (concealed or vaginal) before fetal birth, with or without maternal/fetal compromise. (reVITALize)" |
| C26686 | "An inflammatory process characterized by the accumulation of pus within a newly formed tissue cavity which is the result of a bacterial, fungal, or parasitic infection or the presence of a foreign body." |
| C26687 | "A melanotic cutaneous lesion that develops in the axilla and other body folds. It may be idiopathic, drug-induced, or it may be associated with the presence of an endocrine disorder or malignancy." |
| C26688 | "An acute inflammatory process affecting the larynx.  It is caused by bacteria, viruses, or vocal strain.  Signs and symptoms include sore throat, cough, swallowing difficulties, and hoarseness." |
| C26689 | A long-standing and persistent diminished production of adrenocortical hormones due to a disorder originating within the adrenal glands. |
| C26690 | Any disease affecting the adrenal gland. |
| C26691 | "An endocrine or hormonal disorder that occurs when the adrenal cortex does not produce enough of the hormone cortisol and in some cases, the hormone aldosterone. It may be due to a disorder of the adrenal cortex (Addison's disease or primary adrenal insufficiency) or to inadequate secretion of ACTH by the pituitary gland (secondary adrenal insufficiency)." |
| C26692 | "A usually inherited blood coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of fibrinogen in the blood, resulting in bleeding." |
| C26695 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the anal canal or anal margin. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include hemorrhoids and anal ulcer. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include carcinoma, lymphoma, and melanoma." |
| C26699 | "The inflammation of one or more joints caused by a bacterial infection within the joint space. Symptoms include pain, stiffness, and decreased range of motion in the affected joint." |
| C26700 | "The inflammation of one or more joints caused by any infectious pathogen within the joint space. Symptoms include pain, stiffness, and decreased range of motion in the affected joint." |
| C26702 | "Lack of coordination of muscle movements resulting in the impairment or inability to perform voluntary activities. Causes include peripheral nerve disorders, posterior column injuries, cerebral and cerebellar disorders, basal ganglia disorders, and thalamic disorders." |
| C26704 | "Acute infection of the lung parenchyma caused by bacteria (e.g., Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and Legionella pneumophila).  Signs and symptoms include productive cough, fever, chills, shortness of breath, and chest pain." |
| C26705 | An infectious or non-infectious inflammatory process that affects the glans penis.  Symptoms include redness and pain of the glans penis and foreskin and discharge. |
| C26709 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the breast. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include fibrocystic disease, gynecomastia, and mastitis. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include fibroadenoma, lobular neoplasia, carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C26710 | "Acute inflammation of the walls of the terminal bronchioles that spreads into the peribronchial alveoli and alveolar ducts.  It results in the creation of foci of consolidation, which are surrounded by normal parenchyma. It affects one or more lobes, and is frequently bilateral and basal.  It is usually caused by bacteria (e.g., Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Haemophilus influenzae).  Signs and symptoms include fever, cough with production of brown-red sputum, dyspnea, and chest pain." |
| C26711 | Infection with the organism Candida. |
| C26712 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells that contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland." |
| C26713 | "Partial or complete opacity of the crystalline lens of one or both eyes that decreases visual acuity and eventually results in blindness. Some cataracts appear in infancy or in childhood, but most develop in older individuals. (Sternberg Diagnostic Surgical Pathology, 3rd ed.)" |
| C26714 | "An autoimmune genetic disorder with an unknown pattern of inheritance that primarily affects the digestive tract. It is caused by intolerance to dietary gluten. Consumption of gluten protein triggers an immune response which damages small intestinal villi and prevents adequate absorption of nutrients. Clinical signs include abdominal cramping, diarrhea or constipation and weight loss. If untreated, the clinical course may progress to malnutrition, anemia, osteoporosis and an increased risk ... |
| C26715 | "Inflammation of the dermis and subcutaneous tissues caused by a bacterial infection. Symptoms include erythema, edema, and pain to the affected area." |
| C26716 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process that affects the cervix. Causes include sexually transmitted diseases and bacterial infections. Clinical manifestations include abnormal vaginal bleeding and vaginal discharge. |
| C26717 | An eyelid cyst caused by the blockage of a meibomian gland. |
| C26718 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process affecting the biliary tract. |
| C26720 | A morphologic finding indicating inflammation of the fetal sac membranes. It is characterized by neutrophilic infiltration of the amnion and chorion. |
| C26721 | An X-linked inherited bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of the coagulation factor IX. |
| C26722 | "A type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease characterized by chronic inflammation in the bronchial tree that results in edema, mucus production, obstruction, and reduced airflow to and from the lung alveoli.  The most common cause is tobacco smoking.  Signs and symptoms include coughing with excessive mucus production, and shortness of breath." |
| C26723 | Inflammation of the colon. |
| C26725 | A primary immunodeficiency characterized by low levels or absence of all the immunoglobulin classes and lack of B-lymphocytes or plasma cells. It results in recurrent bacterial infections. Complications include autoimmune phenomena and cancer development. |
| C26726 | "A disorder resulting from the presence and activity of a microbial, viral, fungal, or parasitic agent. It can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact." |
| C26729 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the connective tissue. |
| C26731 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the cornea.  Representative examples include keratitis, bullous keratopathy, and squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C26732 | Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to fatty deposits inside the arterial walls. The diagnostic criteria may include documented history of any of the following: documented coronary artery stenosis greater than or equal to 50% (by cardiac catheterization or other modality of direct imaging of the coronary arteries); previous coronary artery bypass surgery (CABG); previous percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI); previous myocardial infarction. (ACC) |
| C26733 | A neoplastic or non-neoplastic disorder that affects one of the cranial nerves. |
| C26734 | "A deficiency of thyroid hormone present at birth. The etiology can be genetic or environmental, or a combination of both; treatment is based on severity and causality." |
| C26735 | Acute upper respiratory airways infection that results in the swelling of the larynx. It is usually caused by parainfluenza viruses. Signs include a characteristic barking cough and stridor. |
| C26736 | "A condition characterized by the presence of cryoglobulins in the blood. Cryoglobulins are abnormal proteins that precipitate within the microvasculature on exposure to cold; microvasculature effects of cryoglobulinemia may result in restricted tissue blood flow, tissue hypoxia, and tissue necrosis. --2004" |
| C26738 | Inflammation of the urinary bladder. |
| C26739 | "Hearing loss resulting from damage to the cochlea, auditory nerve and/or brainstem." |
| C26742 | "A chronic autoimmune skin disorder characterized by the development of pruritic papulovesicular and bullous lesions in the elbows, knees, buttocks, and back. It is associated with an increased expression of HLA-A1, HLA-B8, and HLA-DR3 antibodies." |
| C26743 | An inflammatory skin condition caused by direct contact between the skin and either an irritating substance or an allergen. |
| C26744 | Inflammation of the skin and muscle. |
| C26745 | "A common fungal infection of the stratum corneum of the skin, hair, or nails by a dermatophyte. It is characterized by itching, inflammation, redness of the skin, small papular vesicles, central clearing, fissures, scaling, and/or hair loss in the affected area." |
| C26746 | "A localized or systemic chronic and progressive autoimmune disorder characterized by thickening of the skin and the connective tissues. Localized scleroderma affects only the skin. Systemic scleroderma affects internal organs, including the heart, lungs, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys." |
| C26747 | A type of diabetes mellitus that is characterized by insulin resistance or desensitization and increased blood glucose levels. This is a chronic disease that can develop gradually over the life of a patient and can be linked to both environmental factors and heredity. |
| C26748 | "A chronic, pathological complication associated with diabetes mellitus, where nerve damages are incurred due to diabetic microvascular injury involving small blood vessels that supply these nerves, resulting in peripheral and/or autonomic nerve dysfunction." |
| C26749 | An often clinically aggressive neuroendocrine tumor located in the pancreas or small intestine.  It is composed of cells containing vasoactive intestinal peptide.  It may cause intractable diarrhea and metabolic disturbances. |
| C26752 | "An infection that develops in the diverticula of the intestinal tract. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis." |
| C26754 | A sleep disorder characterized by excessive sleepiness and drowsiness. |
| C26755 | An ulcer in the duodenal wall. |
| C26757 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the ear.  Representative examples include infections, hearing disorders, benign neoplasms, and carcinomas." |
| C26759 | "The blockage of a blood vessel lumen by air or solid material such as blood clot or other tissues (e.g., adipose tissue, cancer cells) that have migrated from another anatomic site." |
| C26760 | "An inflammatory process affecting the brain parenchyma. Causes include viral infections and less frequently bacterial infections, toxins, and immune-mediated processes." |
| C26761 | "A form of encephalitis, the etiology of which is uncertain, that is characterized by lethargy and headache." |
| C26762 | Inflammation of the endocervix. |
| C26763 | "Endometriosis that affects the fallopian tube.  Symptoms include infertility, pelvic pain, painful menstruation, and painful intercourse." |
| C26764 | "An acute or chronic, usually bacterial infectious process affecting the endometrium. It may extend to the myometrium and parametrial tissues. Symptoms include lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and vaginal bleeding." |
| C26765 | Inflammation of the small intestine. |
| C26767 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the eye. Representative examples include conjunctivitis, glaucoma, cataract, conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma, uveal melanoma, and retinoblastoma." |
| C26768 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the eyelid. |
| C26769 | Partial or complete paralysis of the facial muscles of one side of a person's face. It is caused by damage to the seventh cranial nerve. It is usually temporary but it may recur. |
| C26770 | A rare autosomal recessive inherited bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of coagulation factor XII. It may be asymptomatic or manifest with bleeding. |
| C26771 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the fallopian tube. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include salpingitis and endometriosis.  Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include papilloma, adenofibroma, carcinoma, leiomyosarcoma, and carcinosarcoma." |
| C26773 | The development of secondary female sex characteristics in males. |
| C26780 | Inflammation of the stomach. |
| C26781 | A chronic disorder characterized by reflux of the gastric and/or duodenal contents into the distal esophagus. It is usually caused by incompetence of the lower esophageal sphincter. Symptoms include heartburn and acid indigestion. It may cause injury to the esophageal mucosa. |
| C26782 | Increased pressure in the eyeball due to obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor. |
| C26784 | "A renal disorder characterized by damage in the glomeruli. It may be acute or chronic, focal or diffuse, and it may lead to renal failure. Causes include autoimmune disorders, infections, diabetes, and malignancies." |
| C26785 | "Enlargement of the thyroid gland usually caused by lack of iodine in the diet, hyperthyroidism, or thyroid nodules. Symptoms include difficulty in breathing and swallowing." |
| C26786 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the testis or the ovary. |
| C26787 | Inflammation of the urethra secondary to infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae; this infection is spread through sexual contact. |
| C26788 | "A rare genetic disorder with a predominantly X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance resulting in impaired phagocytic clearance of bacteria and fungi. It is caused by a defect in the phagocytic NADPH oxidase (phox) complex. The phagocytes can engulf pathogens but are unable to produce the microbicidal precursors needed to destroy them. Clinical signs of severe disease present in childhood with milder forms later in life. They include recurrent infection especially pneumonia, cervical lymp... |
| C26789 | "An infectious or non-infectious inflammatory process that affects the prostate gland. Infectious causative agents include bacteria, parasites, fungi, and viruses.  It is characterized by the formation of granulomas in the prostatic tissue." |
| C26790 | An acute inflammatory process affecting the peripheral nervous system and nerve roots. It results in demyelination. It is often caused by an acute viral or bacterial infection. |
| C26792 | Dilated veins in the anal canal. |
| C26793 | "A disorder characterized by inflammation and damage of the hepatic sinusoidal endothelial cells of the hepatic venules that leads to venular occlusion and hepatocellular necrosis. It is most often a conditioning-related toxicity that results as a complication of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). It has also been described in populations of individuals who have ingested pyrrolizidine plant alkaloids. The clinical signs and symptoms include hyperbilirubinemia, hepatomegaly, and ... |
| C26796 | Dilation of the urinary collecting space in the kidney. |
| C26798 | "A rare, serious metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the gene encoding tissue non-specific alkaline phosphatase (TNSALP) activity. It is characterized by low activity of TNSALP in the serum. The signs and symptoms vary significantly and include death in utero, failure to thrive, premature loss of deciduous teeth, early loss of the adult dentition, hypercalcemia, osteomalacia, skeletal defects, renal stones, and movement disorders." |
| C26799 | "A very rare autosomal recessive inherited blood coagulation disorder characterized by deficiency of prothrombin, resulting in bleeding." |
| C26800 | Abnormally low levels of thyroid hormone. |
| C26801 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the small or large intestine. |
| C26802 | "A rare transmittable degenerative disorder of the brain caused by prions. Morphologically it is characterized by spongiform degeneration of the cerebral and cerebellar cortex. Signs and symptoms include sleep disturbances, personality changes, aphasia, ataxia, muscle atrophy and weakness, visual loss, and myoclonus. It usually leads to death within a year from the onset of the disease." |
| C26804 | Tuberculosis affecting a joint. |
| C26805 | Inflammation of the cornea. |
| C26806 | "A degenerative, structural disorder of the eye, characterized by a cone-shaped protrusion of the cornea. It may lead to visual disturbances." |
| C26808 | "Sudden and sustained deterioration of the kidney function characterized by decreased glomerular filtration rate, increased serum creatinine or oliguria." |
| C26809 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the lacrimal gland and/or the lacrimal drainage system. |
| C26810 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the larynx.  Representative examples include laryngitis, vocal cord polyp, squamous papilloma, and carcinoma." |
| C26811 | "An acute or chronic, bacterial or viral inflammatory process affecting the larynx. Signs and symptoms include sore throat, cough, swallowing difficulties, and hoarseness." |
| C26812 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the lens of the eye. |
| C26813 | "A poorly defined concept which at best is described as an extremely rare entity, possibly related to various subtypes of acute myeloid leukemia with abnormal eosinophils.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C26814 | Leukemia that is caused by radiation. |
| C26815 | A progressive demyelination within the central nervous system associated with reactivation of a latent JC virus infection. |
| C26817 | "A chronic inflammatory process affecting the skin. It is characterized by the presence of white, indurated plaques, epidermal atrophy, and fibrosis of the upper dermis. It usually appears in the vulva and penis." |
| C26818 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the lips.  Representative examples include inflammation and carcinoma. |
| C26819 | "An autoimmune disorder that manifests as different lupus-specific skin disorders; it can occur with systemic lupus erythematosus, or as a singular disease." |
| C26820 | "A chronic, autoimmune skin condition that manifests with a red, scaling rash, most often found on the face, ears, and scalp; these lesions often lead to permanent scarring and dyspigmentation. Patients may have lesions with or without other symptoms or antibodies suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)." |
| C26821 | Acute or chronic inflammation of one or more lymph nodes. It is usually caused by an infectious process. |
| C26822 | Infection with the organism Mycobacterium. |
| C26826 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the structures of the mediastinum.  Representative examples include mediastinitis, mediastinal lipoma, mediastinal schwannoma, thymoma, and mediastinal lymphoma." |
| C26827 | An inflammatory process affecting the mediastinum. |
| C26828 | A disorder characterized by acute inflammation of the meninges of the brain and/or spinal cord. |
| C26829 | Heavy bleeding during regular menstruation. |
| C26830 | Inflammation of the mesenteric lymph nodes. |
| C26831 | Infection due to organisms from the genus Mycobacteria. |
| C26832 | "An inflammatory process affecting the spinal cord. Causes include viral infections, autoimmune disorders, vascular disorders, and toxic agents. Symptoms include weakness, paresthesia, sensory loss, pain, and incontinence." |
| C26833 | Inflammation of renal tissue. |
| C26834 | Inflammation of the renal tubules and supporting tissues of the kidney. |
| C26835 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves." |
| C26836 | Any condition related to a disturbance between proper intake and utilization of nourishment. |
| C26837 | A group of usually autosomal dominant inherited disorders characterized by defective synthesis of collagen type I resulting in defective collagen formation. It is characterized by brittle and easily fractured bones. |
| C26838 | "A metabolic bone disease that results from either a deficiency in vitamin D, or an abnormality in the metabolism of vitamin D, or a deficiency of calcium in the diet.  The most common symptoms are bone pain and muscle weakness.  When it occurs in children it is commonly referred to as rickets. (Diagnostic Surgical Pathology, 3rd ed.) --2003" |
| C26839 | An acute or chronic infectious process affecting the bones. |
| C26840 | "A rare genetic disorder inherited in an autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, or X-linked recessive pattern. In the majority of cases it is caused by mutations in the CLCN7, TCIRG1, or IKBKG genes. It is characterized by excessive bone formation due to the failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone. It manifests with deformities, fractures, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, and extramedullary hematopoiesis." |
| C26841 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the ovary. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include endometriosis and polycystic ovarian disease. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include ovarian surface epithelial-stromal tumors, germ cell tumors, and sex cord-stromal tumors." |
| C26842 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the pancreas.  Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include pancreatitis and pancreatic insufficiency.  Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include cystadenomas, carcinomas, lymphomas, and neuroendocrine neoplasms." |
| C26843 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the paranasal sinuses. Examples include inflammation, polyps, and cancer." |
| C26844 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the parathyroid glands.  Representative examples include hyperparathyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, adenoma, and carcinoma." |
| C26845 | "A progressive degenerative disorder of the central nervous system characterized by loss of dopamine producing neurons in the substantia nigra and the presence of Lewy bodies in the substantia nigra and locus coeruleus. Signs and symptoms include tremor which is most pronounced during rest, muscle rigidity, slowing of the voluntary movements, a tendency to fall back, and a mask-like facial expression." |
| C26846 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the penis.  Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include phimosis, balanitis, and hypospadias.  Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include hemangioma, penile intraepithelial neoplasia, and penile carcinoma." |
| C26847 | "A necrotizing vasculitis that affects medium-sized arteries, it is usually idiopathic, and may be triggered by viral infections (Hepatitis B, also others). A multisystem disease, it most commonly affects skin (nodules, livedo reticularis) and peripheral nerves; higher morbidity is associated with gastrointestinal, central nervous system, cardiac, and/or other organ involvement. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are typically negative." |
| C26848 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the peritoneum.  Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include peritonitis and panniculitis.  Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include adenomatoid tumor, primary peritoneal carcinoma, metastatic carcinoma to the peritoneum, and malignant mesothelioma." |
| C26849 | "Inflammation of the peritoneum due to infection by bacteria or fungi. Causes include liver disease, perforation of the gastrointestinal tract or biliary tract, and peritoneal dialysis. Patients usually present with abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, chills, and nausea and vomiting. It is an emergency medical condition that requires prompt medical attention and treatment." |
| C26850 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the pharynx.  Representative examples include pharyngitis and carcinoma. |
| C26851 | "Inflammation of the throat most often caused by viral and bacterial infections. Other causes include allergens, chemical substances, and trauma." |
| C26852 | "A condition in which there is constriction in the tip of the foreskin resulting in inability to fully retract the foreskin over the glans penis.  Causes include balanoposthitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and untreated diabetes." |
| C26853 | "A rare, potentially life-threatening disorder caused by acute ischemic infarction or hemorrhage in the pituitary gland.  It is most often associated with the presence of a pituitary gland adenoma.  Signs and symptoms include headache, vomiting, visual disturbances, and endocrine dysfunction." |
| C26854 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the pituitary gland. |
| C26855 | "A mild, self-limited skin disorder that is most commonly seen in children and young adults. It is characterized by an initial large round spot on the chest, abdomen, or back, often referred to as a herald patch, that is usually followed within a week by a distinctive pattern of similar but smaller papules on the torso, arms, and legs. There may also be itching, especially when overheated." |
| C26856 | The clinical condition in which any part of the placenta invades and is inseparable from the uterine wall. (reVITALize) |
| C26857 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the placenta. Representative examples include chorioamnionitis, hemangioma, and choriocarcinoma." |
| C26858 | A condition in which the placenta covers or is within 1 cm of the cervical os. |
| C26859 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the pleura.  Representative examples include pleural infection, pleural mesothelioma, and pleural solitary fibrous tumor." |
| C26860 | Inflammation of the pleura. It is usually caused by infections. Chest pain while breathing or coughing is the presenting symptom. |
| C26861 | "An occupational lung disorder caused by inhalation of dust particles. It is characterized by bilateral interstitial lung infiltrates. Representative examples include asbestosis, silicosis, anthracosis, and talc pneumoconiosis." |
| C26862 | "A disorder that manifests as multiple cysts on the ovaries. It results in hormonal imbalances and leads to irregular and abnormal menstrual periods, excess growth of hair, acne eruptions and obesity." |
| C26863 | "Abnormally high mass or concentration of red blood cells in the blood, either due to an increase in erythropoiesis or a decrease in plasma volume." |
| C26864 | Inflammation of several peripheral nerves. |
| C26865 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the prostate gland.  Representative examples include prostatitis, prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia, and carcinoma." |
| C26866 | An infectious or non-infectious inflammatory process affecting the prostate gland. |
| C26867 | "A chronic, benign, inflammatory condition that is characterized by the swelling of lymph node in the head and neck." |
| C26868 | "Accumulation of fluid in the lung tissues causing disturbance of the gas exchange that may lead to respiratory failure. It is caused by direct injury to the lung parenchyma or congestive heart failure. The symptoms may appear suddenly or gradually. Suddenly appearing symptoms include difficulty breathing, feeling of suffocation, and coughing associated with frothy sputum. Gradually appearing symptoms include difficulty breathing while lying in bed, shortness of breath during activity, and w... |
| C26869 | "Chronic progressive interstitial lung disorder characterized by the replacement of the lung tissue by connective tissue, leading to progressive dyspnea, respiratory failure, or right heart failure. Causes include chronic inflammatory processes, exposure to environmental irritants, radiation therapy, autoimmune disorders, certain drugs, or it may be idiopathic (no identifiable cause)." |
| C26870 | Purpura associated with a reduction in circulating blood platelets which can result from a variety of factors. |
| C26871 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the respiratory system. Representative examples include pneumonia, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pulmonary failure, lung adenoma, lung carcinoma, and tracheal carcinoma." |
| C26872 | "The significant impairment of gas exchange within the lungs resulting in hypoxia, hypercarbia, or both, to the extent that organ tissue perfusion is severely compromised. Causes include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, emphysema, acute respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pneumothorax, and congestive heart failure. Treatment requires intubation and mechanical ventilation until the time the lungs recover sufficient function." |
| C26873 | An acute or chronic infectious process affecting the lungs. |
| C26874 | "An eye emergency condition which may lead to blindness if left untreated. It is characterized by the separation of the inner retina layers from the underlying pigment epithelium. Causes include trauma, advanced diabetes mellitus, high myopia, and choroid tumors. Symptoms include sudden appearance of floaters, sudden light flushes, and blurred vision." |
| C26875 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the retina. |
| C26876 | "A rare, serious disorder characterized by extensive fibrosis in the retroperitoneum. In most cases its etiology is unknown. In some cases it is related to autoimmunity or metastatic cancer. It leads to the entrapment and obstruction of vital retroperitoneal structures including the ureters." |
| C26878 | "Bone softening and weakening usually caused by deficiency or impaired metabolism of vitamin D. Deficiency of calcium, magnesium, or phosphorus may also cause rickets. It predominantly affects children who suffer from severe malnutrition. It manifests with bone pain, fractures, muscle weakness, and skeletal deformities." |
| C26879 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic (benign or malignant) disorder involving a salivary gland. |
| C26880 | "Acute or chronic inflammation of the fallopian tube. It is most often caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis infections. The infections usually originate in the vagina and ascend to the fallopian tube. Symptoms include abdominal, pelvic, and lower back pain, pain during ovulation and sexual intercourse, fever, nausea, and vomiting. Complications include infertility and ectopic pregnancy." |
| C26881 | "Benign, pigmented spots on the skin that are associated with aging and exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the sun. The spots are found on areas of the body that are most often exposed to the sun; including the hands, face, shoulders, arms, forehead, and scalp. In some cases, this condition may mimic melanoma." |
| C26882 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process affecting a salivary gland. Signs and symptoms include pain and tenderness in the affected area. |
| C26883 | "An autoimmune disorder affecting the salivary and lacrimal glands. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of lymphocytic and plasmacytic infiltrates which cause destruction of these glands. It results in dry mouth and dry eyes. It may be associated with the presence of other autoimmune disorders, including rheumatoid arthritis and lupus erythematosus." |
| C26885 | "An emergency condition caused by the twisting of the spermatic cord which contains the vessels that provide the blood supply to the testis and surrounding structures. It manifests with acute testicular pain. If immediate medical assistance is not provided, it will lead to necrosis and loss of the testicular tissue." |
| C26886 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the stomach.  Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include gastritis and gastric ulcer.  Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include adenomas, carcinomas, and lymphomas." |
| C26887 | Inflammation of the oral mucosa due to local or systemic factors. |
| C26889 | "A condition characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of abnormally rapid heart rate with its origin in the sinus node. Thresholds for different age, sex, and patient populations exist." |
| C26890 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the testis. Representative examples include torsion, infarction, germ cell tumor, sex cord-stromal tumor, lymphoma, and leukemia." |
| C26891 | The formation of a blood clot in the lumen of a vessel or heart chamber; causes include coagulation disorders and vascular endothelial injury. |
| C26893 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the thyroid gland.  Representative examples include hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, thyroiditis, follicular adenoma, and carcinoma." |
| C26894 | "Inflammation of the thyroid gland. This category includes Hashimoto thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, acute thyroiditis, subacute thyroiditis, and radiation-induced thyroiditis." |
| C26895 | "Extrapulmonary tuberculosis involving the larynx.  Signs and symptoms include hoarseness, cough, and odynophagia. The condition is rare." |
| C26896 | Tuberculosis of the lymph node. |
| C26897 | Tuberculosis of the bone. |
| C26898 | Inflammation of the pleura secondary to an infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. |
| C26899 | "A bacterial infection that affects the lungs and is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.  Most patients with tuberculosis do not have symptoms (latent tuberculosis) and are not contagious.  When signs and symptoms occur (active tuberculosis), patients become contagious.  The signs and symptoms include chronic cough with blood-tinged sputum, night sweats, fever, fatigue, and weight loss." |
| C26900 | "A gonadal dysgenesis syndrome occurring in phenotypic females, characterized by the absence of a part or all of one of the sex chromosomes. Signs and symptoms include short stature, webbing of neck, low-set ears, hypogonadism, and sterility." |
| C26903 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the urethra. |
| C26904 | Inflammation of the urethra. |
| C26907 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the uterine corpus or the cervix. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include endometritis and cervicitis. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include endometrial carcinoma, carcinosarcoma, and cervical carcinoma." |
| C26908 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the uvea.  Representative examples include uveitis, chorioretinitis, and uveal melanoma." |
| C26909 | "An inflammatory process affecting a part of or the entire uvea. Causes include inflammatory agents (e.g., herpes simplex, herpes zoster, leptospirosis) and systemic diseases (e.g., inflammatory bowel disease, multiple sclerosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, ankylosing spondylitis). Patients present with pain and redness in the eye, light sensitivity, and blurred and decreased vision." |
| C26910 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the vagina. Representative examples include vaginal infection, vaginal polyp, and vaginal squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C26911 | A non-infectious or infectious inflammatory process affecting the vagina. |
| C26912 | "An inflammatory process involving the wall of the vessels (large, medium, or small-sized vessels). The inflammatory process may cause necrosis or formation of granulomas in the vascular wall. It may be the result of an autoimmune disorder, infection, or malignancy. Representative examples include polyarteritis nodosa, temporal arteritis, Wegener granulomatosis, Kawasaki disease, Takayasu arteritis, and Henoch-Schonlein purpura." |
| C26913 | A wart on the plantar surface of the foot. It is caused by human papillomavirus. |
| C26915 | Generalized well circumscribed patches of leukoderma that are generally distributed over symmetric body locations and is due to autoimmune destruction of melanocytes. |
| C26918 | "Renal disease in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients. It is characterized by nephrotic syndrome, azotemia, normal to large kidneys on ultrasound images, and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis on renal biopsy findings." |
| C26919 | An antiquated term that refers to a non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small and medium sized lymphocytes. |
| C26920 | "A functional and/or structural disorder of the brain caused by diseases (e.g. liver disease, kidney disease), medications, chemicals, and injuries." |
| C26922 | "A disorder characterized by the inability of the liver to metabolize chemicals in the body. Causes include cirrhosis and drug-induced hepatotoxicity. Signs and symptoms include jaundice and encephalopathy. Laboratory test results reveal abnormal plasma levels of ammonia, bilirubin, lactic dehydrogenase, and alkaline phosphatase." |
| C26923 | "A condition characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of abnormally slow heart rate with its origin in the sinus node. Thresholds for different age, sex, and patient populations exist." |
| C26924 | A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of an atypical cardiac rhythm resulting from a pathologic process in the cardiac ventricles. |
| C26925 | An idiopathic inflammatory disorder affecting the muscles. It presents with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness and elevated skeletal muscle enzymes. |
| C26926 | Any disease affecting more than one nerve. |
| C26927 | Dilatation of the ureter caused by obstruction of urine flow. |
| C26928 | Inflammation of the stomach resulting in bleeding. |
| C26929 | Inflammation of the stomach that is chronic in nature. |
| C26930 | An infectious or non-infectious chronic inflammatory process that affects the prostate gland. |
| C26931 | A decreased level of serum immunoglobulins. It may be inherited or acquired. It is caused by decreased or inefficient production of immunoglobulins from B cells or by a decrease in the numbers of B cells themselves. Low levels of immunoglobulins will affect the immune system's ability to combat bacterial infection. Supplementation of immunoglobulins is needed to prevent worsening outcomes. |
| C26932 | "Acute inflammation and edema of the larger bronchi caused by viruses or bacteria.  Signs and symptoms include cough, sputum production, shortness of breath, and wheezing." |
| C26933 | Acute inflammation of the stomach. |
| C26934 | "An acute infection of the bladder. It is usually caused by bacteria. Signs and symptoms include increased frequency of urination, pain or burning during urination, fever, cloudy or bloody urine, and suprapubic pain." |
| C26935 | "An acute inflammatory process that affects the prostate gland.  It is caused by bacteria, most often Escherichia coli, Proteus mirabilis, Klebsiella, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa." |
| C26937 | Inflammation of the cervical lymph nodes. |
| C26941 | Injury to any of the cranial nerves or their nuclei in the brain resulting in muscle weakness. |
| C26942 | Tissue degeneration and diminished size of the thyroid gland. |
| C26950 | An ulcerated lesion in the esophageal wall. |
| C26951 | A disease or disorder affecting more than one nerve. |
| C26952 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the trigeminal nerve (fifth cranial nerve). |
| C26953 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the accessory nerve (eleventh cranial nerve). |
| C26954 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the hypoglossal nerve (twelfth cranial nerve). |
| C26955 | Polycythemia that occurs in groups of related individuals. |
| C26956 | An obsolete term that includes cases currently classified as nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma. |
| C26957 | Bronchiectasis that develops in patients with a history of pulmonary tuberculosis.  It is usually associated with healed scars but occasionally may be seen in patients with active pulmonary tuberculosis. |
| C26958 | Tuberculosis of the adrenal gland. |
| C26959 | "An antiquated term that refers to a non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of diffuse infiltrates of large, often anaplastic lymphocytes affecting the spleen." |
| C26960 | An antiquated term that refers to a non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small and medium sized lymphocytes affecting the spleen. |
| C26961 | An obsolete term that includes cases currently classified as nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma with splenic involvement. |
| C26962 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the thymus.  Representative examples include thymic hyperplasia, thymoma, and thymic carcinoma." |
| C26964 | "A dysgammaglobulinemia characterized by low or undetectable serum levels of immunoglobulin class A (IgA). It is the most common primary antibody deficiency. It may be inherited or the reversible sequela of infection or certain drugs. It may be caused by decreased or inefficient class-switching from progenitor B cells without any corresponding decreases in the other isotypes. Though affected persons may be asymptomatic, low levels of IgA will reduce the immune system's ability to combat infe... |
| C26965 | "A rare dysgammaglobulinemia characterized by low or undetectable serum levels of immunoglobulin class M (IgM). It is an uncommon primary antibody deficiency. It is most likely an inherited immunodeficiency. It may be caused by decreased or inefficient production of IgM from progenitor B cells without any corresponding decreases in the other isotypes. There is a widely variable clinical course. Some affected individuals may be asymptomatic while others show increased susceptibility to infect... |
| C26966 | Inflammation of the lymph nodes that is chronic in nature. |
| C26967 | An imperfection if the retina of the eye in association with detachment of the retina from its blood supply. |
| C26968 | An imperfection of the retina of the eye. |
| C26969 | An abscess of the cornea. |
| C26970 | Keratopathy that is characterized by the presence of epithelial bullae. |
| C26971 | Inflammation and enlargement of the lacrimal gland. |
| C26972 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the pinna and/or the ear canal.  Representative examples include infection and carcinoma. |
| C26973 | Hearing loss caused by damage to the cochlea in the inner ear. |
| C26974 | Hearing loss characterized by a combination of conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. It is caused by problems in both the inner ear and middle or outer ear. |
| C26975 | "Persistent laryngitis usually caused by smoking, heavy alcohol consumption, voice abuse, or gastroesophageal reflux disease.  It results in hoarseness and other voice changes." |
| C26976 | Chronic airway obstruction caused by asthma. |
| C26977 | Inflammation of the stomach resulting from alcohol ingestion. |
| C26978 | Acute inflammation of the lymph nodes. |
| C26979 | A group of conditions used to describe polyarthritis occurring in children. |
| C26980 | Arthritis occurring after the ingestion of allergenic substance(s). |
| C26981 | Arthritis that occurs during menopause. |
| C26983 | Any disease of a degenerative nature that affects the intervertebral disc. |
| C26984 | "An infectious process affecting the skeletal muscles. It can be caused by viruses (including HIV), bacteria, fungi, and parasites. Symptoms include muscle weakness and muscle pain." |
| C26985 | A form of myositis that is characterized by the formation of connective tissue within the muscle. |
| C26996 | An arthritis affecting five or more separate joints. |
| C26997 | A permanent mark on the skin caused by deposits of excessive amounts of collagen during wound healing. It is elevated and does not extend beyond the original boundaries of the wound; the elevation may stabilize or regress spontaneously. |
| C26998 | "An inflammatory skin condition caused by an immune response to direct contact between the skin and an allergen. It consists of a delayed type of allergic reaction at the affected site with resulting red, swollen, and blistered skin that may itch or leak." |
| C27004 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle cells and anaplastic morphologic features.  Giant cells and a sarcomatous component may also be present. |
| C27005 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm composed of spindle-shaped cells.  This is a morphologic term which can be applied to a wide range of sarcomas. |
| C27006 | "Inflammation of interstitial lung tissue, usually associated with infection." |
| C27007 | "An acquired or congenital benign cutaneous melanocytic neoplasm characterized by a proliferation of large spindle, oval, or large epithelioid melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction. The melanocytic proliferation subsequently extends into the dermis. It can occur on any area of the body, but most commonly occurs on the face of children and the thighs of young females." |
| C27008 | Recurrent infections of the urinary bladder. |
| C27012 | Any disorder of the cornea. |
| C27013 | Gastritis that is characterized by erosion of the mucosal surface. |
| C27014 | Esophagitis secondary to chemical exposure. |
| C27015 | Hepatitis that is characterized by the presence of granulomas. |
| C27016 | Inflammation of the submandibular lymph nodes. |
| C27017 | Exacerbation of an arthritic condition. |
| C27018 | A hemangioma that is not present at birth but develops later in life. |
| C27019 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the male genital system. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include infection, testicular torsion, and undescended testis. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include germ cell tumors, carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C27020 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the female genital system. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include infection, endometriosis, and adenomyosis. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include germ cell tumors, carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C27021 | A type of microscopic colitis of unknown etiology. It is characterized by the presence of collagen deposits in the lamina propria of the colonic mucosa. Patients present with chronic watery diarrhea. Colonoscopy reveals normal-appearing mucosa. The diagnosis is made with the microscopic examination of the colonic biopsy samples. |
| C27022 | "An acute, usually bacterial infection affecting the endometrium. It is characterized by the presence of neutrophils or microabscesses in the endometrial glands. Symptoms include fever, lower abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge." |
| C27023 | Esophagitis resulting from exposure to herpes virus. |
| C27024 | "A classification of dysgammaglobulinemias characterized by low or undetectable serum levels of one of the four immunoglobulin class G (IgG) subclasses. Selective IgG1 deficiency is rare and primarily decreases the immune response to bacterial protein antigens. Selective IgG2 deficiency is the most common subclass deficiency among children and primarily leads to an inadequate response to bacterial polysaccharide antigens. Selective IgG3 deficiency is the most common subclass deficiency among... |
| C27025 | Neuropathy that is caused by inadequate blood supply. |
| C27026 | Pneumoconiosis caused by exposure to talc.  It is characterized by fibrosis and granulomatous changes in the lung parenchyma. Chest x-rays reveal diffuse lung opacities and pleural abnormalities. |
| C27027 | Esophagitis resulting from Candida. |
| C27029 | "Hepatitis caused by autoantibodies. Drugs, infections, and toxins may trigger the production of the autoantibodies against the liver parenchyma." |
| C27030 | "A bacterial, fungal, or parasitic abscess that develops in the cerebral hemispheres. Causes include skull trauma, middle ear infection, congenital heart disease, and frontal and ethmoid sinus infection." |
| C27031 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the islet cells of the pancreas. It includes neuroendocrine tumors and neuroendocrine carcinomas. |
| C27033 | "An inherited or acquired peripheral neuropathy affecting the autonomic nervous system. It results in disruption of the involuntary body functions. Inherited causes include Fabry disease and porphyrias. Acquired causes include diabetes, uremia, hepatic disorders, vitamin deficiencies, toxins, and drug toxicities." |
| C27036 | Paralysis that is caused by damage to a nerve. |
| C27037 | "A chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by itchiness and a rash in the chest and abdominal areas. It affects males more than females and is usually contracted at a relatively young age. It is thought to be caused by an allergic reaction to food, insect bites, or medication." |
| C27038 | "A syndrome characterized by persistent eosinophilia, for which no underlying cause can be found, and which is associated with signs of organ involvement and dysfunction.  This term has often been applied to cases of chronic eosinophilic leukemia.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C27039 | "A form of arthritis that affects hemophiliacs, which is characterized by bleeding into the joint space." |
| C27040 | Degenerative arthritis of the spinal column. |
| C27041 | Arthritis of the cervical spine. |
| C27042 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the soft tissue. |
| C27043 | "Life-threatening respiratory failure that develops rapidly. Causes include injury, sepsis, drug overdose, and pancreatitis. It manifests with dyspnea and cyanosis and may lead to cardiovascular shock." |
| C27044 | "A disorder characterised by persistent eosinophilia and acute endocardial lesions, which may progress to endomyocardial fibrosis; most cases are idopathic, but there is some association with malignant tumors." |
| C27048 | The abnormal formation of the eyelid that is present at the time of birth. |
| C27049 | The drooping of the upper or lower eyelid that is present at the time of birth. |
| C27050 | A non-neoplastic abnormality that affects the placenta. Representative examples include multi-lobed and bilobed placenta. |
| C27051 |  |
| C27052 |  |
| C27053 | Inflammation of the colon that is characterized by eosinic infiltration. |
| C27055 | Neuropathy resulting from uremia. |
| C27056 | Acute inflammation of the cervix. Clinical manifestations include mucopurulent vaginal discharge and burning sensation. |
| C27057 | Chronic inflammation of the cervix. |
| C27059 | "White matter changes first described in children with leukemia, associated with radiation and chemotherapy injury, often associated with methotrexate; pathologically characterised by diffuse reactive astrocytosis with multiple areas of necrotic foci without inflammation." |
| C27060 | Myelopathy resulting from exposure to radiation. |
| C27061 | Paralysis of the nerves located in the legs. |
| C27062 | Polyneuropathy that is characterized by demyelination of axons. |
| C27063 | Polyneuropathy that is caused by exposure to toxins. |
| C27064 | A cataract resulting from exposure to radiation. |
| C27065 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the middle ear.  Representative examples include infection, cholesteatoma, and carcinoma." |
| C27066 | Ischemic or hemorrhagic necrosis of the pituitary gland. |
| C27067 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the endocrine pancreatic tissue (islets of Langerhans). Representative examples include diabetes mellitus and neuroendocrine neoplasms. |
| C27068 | Autonomic neuropathy that is caused by diabetes mellitus. |
| C27069 | A condition in which the red blood cell level is greater than established reference ranges in a newborn. |
| C27070 | "A rare severe combined immunodeficiency disorder characterized by congenital agranulocytosis, lymphoid tissue and thymic tissue hypoplasia, and lymphopenia. Both cellular and humoral immunities are absent." |
| C27071 | "A rare, primary humoral immunodeficiency of childhood characterized by decreasing serum levels of immunoglobulin G (IgG) as maternal antibodies clear the circulation while serum levels of immunoglobulin A and immunoglobulin M remain normal or are slightly decreased. Diagnosis may be suspected after the age of six months when a child's own synthesis of IgG should accelerate but it must be confirmed retrospectively after normalization of all serum immunoglobulin levels is seen by ages 2-6. Th... |
| C27074 |  |
| C27075 |  |
| C27076 |  |
| C27077 |  |
| C27078 |  |
| C27079 | Inflammation of the urethra secondary to infection with any bacteria other than Neisseria gonorrhoeae. |
| C27080 | "Refractory anemia with excess blasts in transformation (RAEB-T) is characterised by dysplastic features of the myeloid and usually erythroid progenitor cells in the bone marrow and an increased number of myeloblasts in the peripheral blood.  The peripheral blood blast count ranges from 20% to 30%.  RAEB-T used to be a subcategory of myelodysplastic syndromes in the past.  Recently, the term has been eliminated from the WHO based classification of myelodysplastic syndromes.  The reason is th... |
| C27081 | A pilocytic astrocytoma that occurs during adolescence. |
| C27082 | Cerebritis arising due to radiation therapy. |
| C27084 | A poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with spindle cell features. |
| C27087 | "A benign squamoproliferative skin lesion caused by human papillomavirus. It is characterized by hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, papillomatosis, parakeratosis, and prominent rete ridges. It usually affects the hands and fingers. Other sites of involvement include the elbows, knees, face, and genitalia." |
| C27090 | A disorder characterized by the progressive loss of function and/or structure of the affected tissues. |
| C27091 | A neoplasm characterized by the presence of malignant spindle cells. |
| C27092 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of malignant fusiform small cells. |
| C27093 | "A malignant epithelial neoplasm confined to the squamous epithelium, without invasion of the underlying tissues." |
| C27094 | "A benign sweat gland neoplasm usually occurring in the scalp or the face. It may present as solitary or multiple papular or nodular lesions. It may be a sporadic lesion or part of Brooke-Spiegler syndrome. It arises from the dermis and has a multinodular, circumscribed appearance. The nodules contain basaloid cells with small, dark nuclei. Complete excision is usually curative." |
| C27095 | A cutaneous nevus characterized by the absence of melanin pigment in the melanocytes. |
| C27096 | "An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the liver and usually occurs in older children.  It is composed of immature spindle, stellate, polymorphous, and giant cells." |
| C27098 |  |
| C27099 |  |
| C27100 |  |
| C27101 | A notable change in cognitive function. |
| C27102 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the nasal cavity.  Representative examples include inflammatory disorders, papillomas, and carcinomas." |
| C27103 | Replacement of the lung tissue by connective tissue in a specific area of the lung. |
| C27104 | A damage to arteries caused by radiation therapy. |
| C27105 | "Allergic inflammation of the esophagus. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of eosinophils infiltrating the esophageal epithelium. Patients present with swallowing difficulty and heartburn." |
| C27106 | An acute bacterial infection that affects the esophagus. Symptoms include severe pain on swallowing and retrosternal pain. Endoscopic examination reveals esophageal mucosal ulcerations and pseudomembranous formations. |
| C27107 | "Infection of the esophagus caused by fungi, most often candida albicans and candida tropicalis. It usually affects patients with immunodeficiency disorders or diabetes mellitus. Symptoms include dysphagia and pain on swallowing." |
| C27108 | "Viral infection of the esophagus. It often occurs in immunocompromised patients and it is caused by cytomegalovirus or herpes simplex virus. Symptoms include pain on swallowing, fever, and retrosternal burning." |
| C27110 |  |
| C27111 | Inflammation of the colon resulting from irradiation. |
| C27112 | Absence of the thyroid gland in a newborn. |
| C27113 | Incomplete development of the thyroid gland in a newborn. |
| C27114 | Thyroid hormone deficiency present at birth that is associated with ectopic thyroid tissue located in the neck region. |
| C27115 | "A rare disorder characterized by the development of an abscess in the thyroid gland.  It usually follows an upper respiratory tract, pharyngeal, or middle ear infection.  It is usually caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus infection.  It presents with fever, pain, and neck mass." |
| C27116 | Thyroid hormone deficiency present at birth and caused by iodine deficiency. |
| C27117 | Ischemic necrosis of the pituitary gland. |
| C27120 | "A metabolic disorder that is characterized by electrolyte imbalances (e.g., hyperkalemia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia)." |
| C27121 | Inflammation of the stomach that is associated with Helicobacter Pylori. |
| C27122 | A clinical variant of Burkitt lymphoma that occurs in equatorial Africa.  The Epstein-Barr virus has been detected in all patients.  It is the most common malignancy of childhood in this area. |
| C27124 | Phimosis that is present since birth. |
| C27125 | "A neoplasm with tricholemmal differentiation. It affects women more frequently than men. It usually presents on the scalp as a solitary, multilobular, large, exophytic mass. Morphologically, it may display benign cytological features and appear as a circumscribed solid-cystic neoplasm or it may display malignant characteristics and invasive features. Cases without malignant characteristics usually have an indolent course. Complete surgical excision is recommended in such cases to avoid recu... |
| C27127 | "A vascular neoplasm that arises from the skin and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C27131 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma confined to the mucosa or mucosa and submucosa of the gastric wall.  The regional lymph nodes may or may not be involved.  It usually occurs in the lesser curvature. The 5-year survival rate following resection is between 80 percent and 95 percent, and remains high even when lymph node metastases are present." |
| C27132 | "A benign hair follicle neoplasm with trichoblastic differentiation. It usually presents as a solitary papular lesion It most often presents on the head and neck area, but it may develop in any anatomic site containing hair follicles. Because of its benign nature, treatment usually is not required, provided that the diagnosis has been established with certainty." |
| C27134 | "A neoplasm that arises from hematopoietic and lymphoid cells. Representative examples include myeloproliferative neoplasms, myelodysplastic syndromes, leukemias, Hodgkin lymphomas, and non-Hodgkin lymphomas." |
| C27135 | A form of lymphadenitis that is characterized by formation of pus; it is most often caused by staphylococcal or streptococcal bacteria. |
| C27137 | "Inflammation of the mouth mucosa caused by head and neck radiation therapy.  Signs and symptoms include dry mouth due to lack of saliva, mucosal ulcerations and diffuse erythema of the mouth, taste alteration, and dysphagia." |
| C27141 | "A disorder that affects the production of complete immunoglobulins. Deletions in the heavy chain genes on chromosome 14 disrupt the synthesis and secretion of properly functioning antibodies resulting in monoclonal populations of truncated heavy chains without covalently bonded light chains. Such deletions have been implicated as playing a significant role in several diseases including leukemias, lymphomas and myelomas." |
| C27142 | "A broad classification of dysgammaglobulinemias characterized by low or undetectable serum levels of immunoglobulin class G (IgG). Deficiencies of IgG present variably according to subclass. IgG deficiencies are typically relative among subclasses and not absolute. Thus even with a given selective IgG subclass deficiency, total IgG levels may still fall within normal range. The clinical course and prognosis is dependent upon the severity of the deficiency and associated morbidity." |
| C27143 | A rare dysgammaglobulinemia characterized by low or undetectable serum levels of immunoglobulin class E (IgE). It is an uncommon primary antibody deficiency.  It is most likely an inherited immunodeficiency. It may be caused by decreased or inefficient class-switching from progenitor B cells without any corresponding decreases in the other isotypes. Most affected persons appear asymptomatic but may show a predisposition to autoimmune and respiratory diseases. |
| C27144 | A rare dysgammaglobulinemia characterized by low or undetectable serum levels of immunoglobulin class D (IgD). It is an uncommon primary antibody deficiency. It is most likely an inherited immunodeficiency. It may be caused by decreased or inefficient production of IgD from progenitor B cells without any corresponding decreases in the other isotypes. Most affected persons are asymptomatic and do not appear to be at increased risk for infection. |
| C27145 | A broad classification of disorders that affect the cell-mediated aspect of the immune response. Circulating numbers of T lymphocytes are decreased or ineffective. |
| C27146 | "An inherited deficiency of coagulation factor VIII characterized by the tendency to spontaneous or exaggerated post-traumatic hemorrhage. Inherited as an X-linked recessive disease, hemophilia A is the most common hemophilia, occurring in approximately 1 in 10,000 male births." |
| C27147 | Microscopic colitis characterized by the accumulation of lymphocytes in the colonic epithelium and lamina propria. Patients present with chronic watery diarrhea. Colonoscopy reveals normal colonic mucosa. The diagnosis is made with the microscopic examination of the colonic biopsy samples. |
| C27148 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the ureter. |
| C27149 | Phimosis that develops in an uncircumcised male with a previously loose foreskin. |
| C27151 | "An inflammatory skin condition caused by direct contact between the skin and an irritating substance. It is typically manifested by erythema, mild edema, and scaling at the affected site." |
| C27152 | Enlargement of the sebaceous glands. |
| C27153 | "An autoimmune, connective tissue chronic inflammatory disorder affecting the skin, joints, kidneys, lungs, heart, and the peripheral blood cells. It is more commonly seen in women than men. Variants include discoid and systemic lupus erythematosus." |
| C27154 | Any degenerative disorder affecting one or more vertebral discs of the lumbar spine. |
| C27155 | Any degenerative disorder affecting one or more vertebral discs of the thoracic spine. |
| C27156 | Any degenerative disorder affecting one or more vertebral discs of the cervical spine. |
| C27157 | An inflammatory lesion on the mucosal surface of the oral cavity. |
| C27162 | Granulomatous inflammation of the testis. It is characterized by the formation of granulomas around the seminiferous tubules. History of trauma may be present. It is assumed to be a reactive process due to autoimmune phenomena. |
| C27163 |  |
| C27166 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the inner ear. Causes are inner ear infections, head injuries, and neoplasms (e.g., acoustic schwannoma). Symptoms include dizziness, imbalance, nausea, and vision problems." |
| C27167 | An autoimmune inflammatory disorder characterized by destruction of the small intrahepatic bile ducts. It affects predominantly females and it may lead to cirrhosis and liver failure. Patients have antimitochondrial and antinuclear antibodies in the peripheral blood. |
| C27168 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent episodic disruptions of breathing during sleep. It is caused by the intermittent relaxation of pharyngeal muscles leading to the narrowing or complete blockage of the upper airway. This results in compensatory arousal from sleep to breathe again. An anatomically narrow airway from body habitus or enlarged pharyngeal structures may also predispose to obstruction. Clinical presentation usually includes snoring, daytime sleepiness, difficulty concentrating... |
| C27169 | "A broad classification of disorders which includes 6 subtypes (primary central sleep apnea, central sleep apnea due to Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern, central sleep apnea due to medical condition not Cheyne-Stokes, central sleep apnea due to high-altitude periodic breathing, central sleep apnea due to drug or substance and primary sleep apnea of infancy) that are each characterized by interruptions in breathing while asleep. It is caused by improper signaling from the brainstem to respirat... |
| C27171 | A rash associated with systemic lupus erythematosus. |
| C27174 | Polycythemia that is caused by stress. |
| C27175 | Thrombophlebitis in the veins surrounding an injection site. |
| C27177 | "A condition characterized by redness, pain, swelling, and tingling in the palms of the hands or the soles of the feet. It may appear as a side effect to chemotherapy agents." |
| C27178 | Polycythemia resulting from an elevated concentration of erythropoietin. |
| C27179 | "An older, deprecated term that encompassed three major types of autoimmune or autoinflammatory arthritis in children: systemic-onset, pauciarticular, or polyarticular arthritis. The juvenile rheumatoid arthritis classification system has been replaced by the International League of Associations for Rheumatology (ILAR) juvenile idiopathic arthritis classification system." |
| C27180 | Fibrous mediastinitis arising due to radiation therapy. |
| C27181 | "Interruption of the blood supply to a portion of the placenta, resulting in ischemic necrosis." |
| C27182 | A histologic variant of basal cell carcinoma of the skin characterized by the presence of strands and nests of malignant cells that are embedded in a dense fibrotic stroma. |
| C27183 | A rare glioblastoma that arises from the spinal cord and occurs in adults. |
| C27184 | Inflammation of the stomach resulting from viral infection. |
| C27185 | Adenocarcinoma that is spread throughout the body. |
| C27187 | A hereditary disorder that affects the sensory and/or motor nerves or the autonomic nerves. |
| C27189 | "Inflammation of the urinary bladder wall leading to urinary frequency, urgency, and discomfort, pelvic pain, and pain during intercourse. Morphologically it is characterized by a transmural bladder inflammatory infiltrate containing mast cells." |
| C27191 | An autoimmune disorder caused by the production of autoantibodies against thyroid tissue. There is progressive destruction of the thyroid follicles leading to hypothyroidism. |
| C27193 | "A viral or bacterial infection that affects the external, middle, or inner ear.  It may follow an upper respiratory infection.  Signs and symptoms include pain, ear discharge, ear fullness, hearing loss, vertigo, nausea, and vomiting." |
| C27194 | "A brachial plexus disorder characterized by regional paresthesia, pain and muscle weakness, and limited movement in the arm or hand." |
| C27195 | "An inflammatory process of the sebaceous glands which is characterized by comedones, nodules, papules and/or pustules on the skin." |
| C27196 | Encephalitis that is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus. |
| C27197 | "Acute inflammation of the lung parenchyma caused by viruses, bacteria, fungi, radiation treatment, or exposure to chemicals.  Signs and symptoms include cough, shortness of breath, fevers, chills, chest pain, headache, sweating, and weakness." |
| C27199 | Inflammation of the cerebrum. |
| C27200 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the stomach.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C27202 | An invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma exhibiting micropapillary growth pattern. |
| C27203 | An acute or chronic bacterial infection that affects the prostate gland. |
| C27204 | "Inflammatory and degenerative diseases of connective tissue structures, such as arthritis." |
| C27206 | An antiquated term indicating arthritis and bone loss. |
| C27207 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the acoustic nerve. |
| C27209 | A malignant neoplasm arising in a site exposed to radiation therapy. |
| C27210 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the olfactory nerve (first cranial nerve). |
| C27211 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the glossopharyngeal nerve (ninth cranial nerve). |
| C27212 |  |
| C27215 | Congenital or acquired deficiency of one of the coagulation factors. It results in bleeding. |
| C27216 | Diffuse replacement of the lung tissue by connective tissue. |
| C27217 | Inflammation of stomach that is associated with cytomegalovirus. |
| C27218 | Inflammation of the esophagus that is associated with cytomegalovirus. |
| C27219 | "A respiratory tract infection caused by a virus.  Viruses represent the most common causes of upper and lower respiratory tract infections and include rhinoviruses, influenza viruses, parainfluenza viruses, and respiratory syncytial virus." |
| C27220 | Ischemic necrosis of the bone tissue and the marrow. |
| C27221 | Any nerve disorder caused by the entrapment and compression of a nerve. |
| C27223 | A malignancy in which there is a well-documented association between a neoplastic process and a specific infectious agent. |
| C27224 |  |
| C27225 |  |
| C27226 | "A disorder of sexual development in persons with 46XY karyotype, characterized by an abnormality of the genes encoding androgen receptors. It results in a female sex appearance or the development of both male and female characteristics." |
| C27227 | Leukopenia that occurs in the neonatal period. |
| C27228 | A congenital disorder characterized by the complete absence of gonadal tissue. |
| C27233 |  |
| C27234 | A carcinoma that develops in the ducts of the nipple. |
| C27235 | An extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the stomach with the bulk of the mass located in the stomach.  The vast majority of cases are diffuse large B-cell lymphomas and B-cell lymphomas of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. |
| C27236 |  |
| C27237 | "A medulloblastoma developing in patients with familiar adenomatous polyposis syndrome.  It is observed in patients with Turcot syndrome, type 2." |
| C27238 | Intraepithelial neoplasia involving the anal canal.  The epithelial cells exhibit mild dysplasia (grade I intraepithelial neoplasia). |
| C27239 |  |
| C27240 |  |
| C27241 |  |
| C27242 |  |
| C27243 |  |
| C27244 |  |
| C27245 |  |
| C27246 | An aggressive malignant tumor arising from trophoblastic cells in the uterus during pregnancy.  Approximately half of the cases develop from a complete hydatidiform mole.  There is often marked elevation of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood.  Choriocarcinomas disseminate rapidly through the hematogenous route; the lungs are most frequently affected. |
| C27247 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: distant metastasis (including pelvic lymph node metastasis).  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C27248 | "A rare, self-limiting, rapidly growing, non-encapsulated benign osteolytic neoplasm that arises from the cranium. It is characterized by the presence of plump spindle-shaped fibroblasts, multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, chronic inflammatory infiltrate, red blood cell extravasation, and high mitotic activity." |
| C27249 |  |
| C27250 | A benign mesothelial neoplasm that arises from the uterine body. It is characterized by the presence of gland-like structures. |
| C27252 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm arising from the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of enterochromaffin-like type granules in the neoplastic cells. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C27253 | "A benign, well-circumscribed renal cortical neoplasm affecting females more often than males.  Polycythemia has been reported in twelve-percent of patients." |
| C27255 | "An adenocarcinoma with eccrine differentiation arising from the sweat glands. It includes the following subtypes: ductal eccrine adenocarcinoma, papillary eccrine carcinoma, and eccrine porocarcinoma." |
| C27256 | "A morphologic variant of angiofibroma characterized by the presence of multinucleated giant cells, collagenous or myxoid stroma, focal sclerotic areas, and angiectoid spaces." |
| C27257 | A benign mesenchymal neoplasm that usually arises in the superficial soft tissues of the vulva or inguinal and scrotal regions.  It is characterized by the presence of a cellular fibroblastic proliferation in an edematous to fibrous stroma containing numerous vessels. |
| C27258 |  |
| C27259 |  |
| C27260 | A dendritic cell neoplasm that does not fall into well-defined categories or shows hybrid features. |
| C27261 |  |
| C27262 | A category of clonal hematopoietic disorders that have both myelodysplastic and myeloproliferative features at the time of initial presentation. |
| C27263 | A benign or malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle cells. |
| C27264 | "An autosomal dominant hereditary neoplastic syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the CDKN2A gene. It is characterized by the presence of multiple melanocytic nevi, some of which are atypical, and a family history of melanoma. Patients are at an increased risk of developing melanoma and other malignancies, including pancreatic, breast, and lung carcinoma." |
| C27265 | "Antiquated term describing non-Hodgkin lymphomas that are usually diffuse and are composed of large cells with irregular nuclei, invisible nucleoli and a small amount of cytoplasm.  This morphologic category includes both mature B- and mature T-cell lymphomas." |
| C27266 | Antiquated term for diffuse non-Hodgkin lymphomas composed of non-cleaved cells.  The vast majority of cases are mature B-cell lymphomas (Burkitts or diffuse large B-cell lymphomas). |
| C27267 |  |
| C27268 |  |
| C27269 |  |
| C27270 |  |
| C27271 |  |
| C27272 | "Antiquated term describing follicular (nodular) or diffuse non-Hodgkin lymphomas that are composed of a mixture of large cells: large cleaved cells, with irregular nuclei without visible nucleoli; and large non-cleaved cells (centroblasts), having a rounder nucleus with two to three small, peripherally placed nucleoli and a small amount of basophilic cytoplasm.  The follicular variants represent mature B-cell lymphomas, whereas the diffuse variants can be either mature B- or mature T-cell l... |
| C27273 | "A benign, well circumscribed adnexal neoplasm arising from the intraepidermal portion of the sweat gland duct. It usually presents as a solitary, dome-shaped papule, nodule, or plaque on acral sites. It is characterized by a proliferation of uniform basaloid cells in the dermis and is associated with the presence of focal ductal and cystic structures. Complete excision is curative." |
| C27274 | A pathologic process that arises from the hematopoietic and lymphatic system and has the potential to evolve into a malignant myeloid or lymphoid neoplasm. |
| C27275 | Intraepithelial neoplasia involving the anal canal.  The epithelial cells exhibit moderate dysplasia (grade II intraepithelial neoplasia) or severe dysplasia (grade III intraepithelial neoplasia or carcinoma in situ). |
| C27278 | L1 acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during adulthood. |
| C27280 | A myelodysplastic syndrome resulting from chemotherapy or radiation therapy for cancer or exposure to certain chemicals. |
| C27281 | An antiquated term that refers to acute lymphoblastic leukemia with large and irregular lymphoblasts. |
| C27282 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C27283 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C27284 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3,N0, M0).  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C27285 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0); IIIB (T4, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T4: Tumor of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).  N1: Metastasis in perirectal lymph node(s).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N2: Metastasis in unilateral internal iliac and/or i... |
| C27286 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C27287 | A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular structures with endometrial-type well-differentiated cells in a fibrotic stroma. |
| C27288 | A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by endometrial-type well-differentiated cells in a fibrotic stroma. |
| C27289 | An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of cystic spaces which are lined by atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C27290 | An acute lymphoblastic leukemia (current term: precursor lymphoblastic leukemia) of B-or T-cell origin which according to the FAB classification is characterized by the presence of more mature-appearing lymphoblasts. |
| C27291 | "A spectrum of malignant tumors, affecting mostly males under age 20, characterized morphologically by the presence of small round cells.  Ewing sarcoma and peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor represent the ends of a spectrum, with Ewing sarcoma lacking evidence of neural differentiation and the markers that characterize the peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor.  Ewing sarcoma and peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor may share cytogenetic abnormalities, proto-oncogene expr... |
| C27292 | A small round cell tumor with or without neural differentiation that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C27293 | "A spectrum of malignant tumors arising from the soft tissues, characterized morphologically by the presence of small round cells.  Ewing sarcoma and peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor represent the ends of a spectrum, with Ewing sarcoma lacking evidence of neural differentiation and the markers that characterize the peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor.  Ewing sarcoma and peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor may share cytogenetic abnormalities, proto-oncogene expression,... |
| C27294 | A primitive neuroectodermal tumor that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C27295 | The reemergence of a primitive neuroectodermal tumor of the central or the peripheral nervous system after a period of remission. |
| C27298 | The drooping of the upper eyelid. |
| C27300 | Inflammation of a congenital diverticulum of the lower intestine. |
| C27301 | Any nerve disorder affecting the axon of a nerve. |
| C27302 | A reactive lesion characterized by the presence of a bland histiocytic cellular infiltrate admixed with giant cells. |
| C27304 | "A thyroid gland disorder present at birth. It includes thyroid gland aplasia and thyroid gland hypoplasia, both result in hypothyroidism." |
| C27305 | "Acute inflammation of the larynx caused by viruses, including rhinovirus, influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, and adenovirus." |
| C27306 | Arthritis due to staphylococcal sepsis. |
| C27307 | An anaplastic meningioma that arises within the cranial cavity. |
| C27308 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C27310 | Polycythemia resulting from dehydration. |
| C27311 | Polycythemia that is not pathologic. |
| C27312 | Polycythemia resulting from hypoxia. |
| C27313 | Dermatomyositis in an adult. |
| C27314 | Lymph node infection by Mycobacterium avium or Mycobacterium intracellulare. It most often affects children and usually presents with cervical lymph node enlargement. It generally follows a benign clinical course. |
| C27316 | Spinal nerve paralysis that is irreversible. |
| C27319 | "A broad classification for humoral immunodeficiencies. These disorders may be caused by inadequate activation of progenitor B cells, defective class-switching or the effects of medications. Despite the potential for increased susceptibility to infection, these disorders are self-limited with eventual normalization of serum antibody levels." |
| C27320 | A form of reactive arthritis that is associated with lesions on both the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. |
| C27321 | Enterocolitis associated with the AIDS virus. |
| C27322 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the periampullary region. |
| C27323 | Carcinoma of the duodenum amendable to surgical removal. |
| C27324 | Cholangiocarcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C27325 | The reemergence of cholangiocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C27326 | Cholangiocarcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C27327 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C27328 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C27329 | "A variant of phlegmonous gastritis, typically progressing to gastric gangrene." |
| C27330 |  |
| C27331 | An anatomic abnormality of the thyroid gland. |
| C27332 | Inflammation of the postauricular lymph nodes. |
| C27333 | An infection of the lymph nodes in the axilla. |
| C27334 | An abscess that is located in the adrenal gland. |
| C27335 | Paralysis of the glossopharyngeal nerve. |
| C27337 |  |
| C27338 | "Neuropathy, the cause of which is present at birth." |
| C27340 | Gastritis resulting from bacteria. |
| C27341 | Gastritis resulting from herpes virus. |
| C27342 | Gastritis resulting from fungi. |
| C27343 | Incomplete development of the pituitary gland. |
| C27344 | Retinopathy resulting from AIDS. |
| C27345 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C27346 | An abscess that is located in the parathyroid gland(s). |
| C27347 | An abscess resulting from infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. |
| C27348 | Gastritis that is associated with the presence of granulomas. |
| C27349 | "An aggressive malignant neoplasm with a poor response to therapy, usually presenting as stage III/IV disease. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with morphologic and immunophenotypic characteristics similar to those seen in mature histiocytes." |
| C27350 | "This subgroup of myeloproliferative neoplasms includes cases which do not meet the morphologic criteria of any of the defined myeloproliferative neoplasms, or which have characteristics that overlap at least two of the myeloproliferative neoplasms." |
| C27351 | "A group of non-neoplastic and neoplastic disorders resulting from the deregulation and/or deficiency of immune system functions. It includes autoimmune disorders (e.g., lupus erythematosus, dermatomyositis, rheumatoid arthritis), congenital and acquired immunodeficiency syndromes including the acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), and neoplasms (e.g., lymphomas and malignancies secondary to transplantation)." |
| C27352 |  |
| C27353 | A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation that is confined to a specific area of the bone and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C27354 | The reemergence of peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor of the bone after a period of remission. |
| C27356 |  |
| C27357 | A hematologic malignancy that is resistant to treatment. |
| C27358 | The reemergence of a hematologic malignancy after a period of remission. |
| C27359 | A malignant neoplasm which is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C27361 |  |
| C27362 | A ganglioglioma that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C27363 |  |
| C27364 | A yolk sac tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C27365 | Primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma that occurs in adults. |
| C27366 | An anaplastic large cell lymphoma affecting multiple anatomic sites and occurring in adults. |
| C27367 | An anaplastic large cell lymphoma occurring in adults. |
| C27368 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the liver and occurs during childhood. |
| C27369 | "An aggressive rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in adults.  The neoplasm is characterized by the presence of bizarre round, spindle, and polygonal cells.  Clinical presentation includes a rapidly enlarging painful mass usually in the lower extremities." |
| C27370 | A clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue occurring during adulthood. |
| C27371 | A clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue occurring in children. |
| C27372 | A desmoplastic small round cell tumor occurring in children. |
| C27373 | A desmoplastic small round cell tumor occurring in adults. |
| C27374 | A rare mesenchymal chondrosarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C27375 | A mesenchymal chondrosarcoma occurring in adults. |
| C27376 | An osteosarcoma that arises from the soft tissue and occurs during childhood. |
| C27377 | A myxoid chondrosarcoma occurring in children. |
| C27379 | An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which produce mucin. |
| C27380 | An adenocarcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. |
| C27381 | A carcinoma that has spread to the adrenal cortex from an adjacent or distal anatomic site. |
| C27382 | A condition in which a carcinoma has spread extensively throughout the peritoneum. |
| C27383 | Diffuse spread of cancer to the meninges. |
| C27384 | Carcinoma that has spread diffusely to the pleura. |
| C27385 | Carcinoma that has spread diffusely to the pericardium. |
| C27388 | "An uncommon type of hepatocelluar carcinoma, morphologically characterized by significant fibrosis around the sinusoid-like spaces and atrophy of the tumor trabeculae." |
| C27389 | A rare squamous cell carcinoma that either arises from or is associated with the presence of inverted papilloma in the nose. |
| C27390 | "A carcinoma that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of small malignant cells.  It includes small cell carcinoma, hypercalcemic type and small cell carcinoma, pulmonary type." |
| C27391 | A primary small cell carcinoma of the ovary that is associated with hypercalcemia and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C27392 |  |
| C27393 | A parathyroid gland adenoma composed predominantly or entirely of neoplastic cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C27394 | A primary malignant neoplasm of the vagina composed of malignant melanocytes. |
| C27396 | An ameloblastoma that arises from the soft tissues in the gingiva or alveolar mucosa.  It presents as a painless exophytic mass. |
| C27397 | A histologic variant of conventional ameloblastoma characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelial islands in a fibrotic stroma. |
| C27398 | A conventional ameloblastoma with follicular pattern in which the odontogenic epithelial islands contain granular cells. |
| C27399 | An ependymoma of the spinal cord not associated with MYCN amplification and occurring in adults. |
| C27400 | A mature teratoma that arises from the central nervous system in adults. |
| C27401 |  |
| C27402 |  |
| C27403 | A mixed germ cell tumor that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C27404 | A mature teratoma that arises from the central nervous system during childhood. |
| C27405 | An immature teratoma that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C27406 | A germinoma arising from the central nervous system during childhood. |
| C27407 | A somatostatin-producing neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the duodenum. |
| C27408 | "The spread of a carcinoma to the lung. This may be from a primary lung carcinoma, or from a carcinoma at a distant anatomic site." |
| C27409 | A Burkitt lymphoma that arises from the small intestine. |
| C27410 | "A morphologic variant of Burkitt lymphoma that arises from the small intestine.  It is characterized by marked nuclear pleomorphism, abundant apoptotic debris, and the presence of tangible body macrophages." |
| C27411 | A mantle cell lymphoma that arises from the colon.  It often presents as a polypoid lesion. |
| C27412 | An intestinal-type adenoma arising from the ampulla of Vater.  It is characterized by the presence of tubular and villous epithelial structures and it is associated with dysplasia. |
| C27413 | An intramucosal malignant glandular epithelial infiltrate in a colonic adenoma.  There is no evidence of submucosal invasion. |
| C27414 | "A carcinoma with glandular differentiation arising from the ampulla of Vater.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of glycogen-rich cells with hyperchromatic nuclei." |
| C27415 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma arising from the ampulla of Vater. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of intestinal-type malignant epithelial cells." |
| C27416 | "A carcinoma with glandular differentiation arising from the ampulla of Vater.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of mucoid stroma formation." |
| C27417 | "A carcinoma with squamous differentiation arising from the ampulla of Vater. Signs and symptoms include jaundice, abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss." |
| C27418 | "A carcinoma with glandular and squamous differentiation arising from the ampulla of Vater. Signs and symptoms include jaundice, abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss." |
| C27419 | "An aggressive carcinoma arising from the ampulla of Vater.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells without evidence of glandular or squamous differentiation.  Signs and symptoms include jaundice, abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss." |
| C27420 | "A rare variant of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma.  It is an exophytic, cauliflower-like or papillary mass that can arise in any part of the esophagus.  This variant of squamous cell carcinoma grows slowly and invades locally, with a very low metastasizing potential.  (WHO)" |
| C27421 | An esophageal carcinoma characterized by the presence of distinguishable squamous and glandular carcinomatous components. |
| C27422 | An esophageal carcinoma characterized by the absence of microscopic features of squamous differentiation. |
| C27423 | A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities involve either the lower or both the lower and the upper half of the esophageal squamous epithelium. |
| C27424 | A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities involve either the lower or both the lower and the upper half of the esophageal glandular epithelium. |
| C27425 | "A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities involve both the lower and the upper half of the esophageal mucosa.  It includes lesions termed moderate dysplasia, and carcinoma in situ (severe dysplasia).  (WHO, 2000)" |
| C27426 | A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities involve both the lower and the upper half of the esophageal squamous epithelium. |
| C27427 | A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities are confined to the lower half of the esophageal squamous epithelium. |
| C27428 | A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities are confined to the lower half of the esophageal glandular epithelium. |
| C27429 | A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities involve both the lower and the upper half of the esophageal glandular epithelium. |
| C27430 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that arises from the esophagus.  The majority are spindle cell tumors that exhibit high mitotic activity and affect the distal esophagus. |
| C27431 |  |
| C27432 |  |
| C27433 |  |
| C27434 |  |
| C27435 |  |
| C27436 | "A gastric intraepithelial lesion characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with mild cytologic atypia, mild architectural changes, and low number of mitotic figures." |
| C27437 | "A gastric intraepithelial lesion characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells that are cuboidal with a high nucleus to cytoplasmic ratio, prominent nucleoli, significant architectural changes, and increased number of mitotic figures." |
| C27438 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the stomach and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include leiomyoma, lipoma, and hemangioma." |
| C27439 | "A sarcoma that arises from the stomach. Representative examples include Kaposi sarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and liposarcoma." |
| C27440 | A mantle cell lymphoma that affects the stomach.  It may arise as a solitary mass or it may be a component of multifocal lymphomatous polyposis of the gastrointestinal tract.  It usually has an aggressive clinical course. |
| C27441 | A mantle cell lymphoma that arises from the small intestine.  It may present as an isolated mass in the small intestine or as a part of the multiple lymphomatous polyposis. |
| C27443 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the stomach. It produces serotonin and it may occasionally be found in association with a carcinoid syndrome. |
| C27444 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the stomach. It produces gastrin and it may be associated with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. |
| C27445 | "A neuroendocrine tumor arising from the wall of the appendix, producing glucagon-like peptides.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells forming tubular or trabecular patterns." |
| C27446 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the colon and produces serotonin. |
| C27447 | "A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the colon and produces glucagon-like peptides.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells forming tubular or trabecular patterns." |
| C27448 | "A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the gastrointestinal tract and produces glucagon-like peptides.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells forming tubular or trabecular patterns." |
| C27449 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the small intestine and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C27450 | A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the small intestine.  It is characterized by the presence of uniform cells that form pseudorosettes.  The neoplastic cells have uniform nuclei and small amount of eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C27451 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the small intestine and produces serotonin. |
| C27452 | "A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the small intestine and produces glucagon-like peptides.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells forming tubular or trabecular patterns." |
| C27453 | A somatostatin-producing neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the small intestine. |
| C27454 | A usually malignant pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor producing vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP).  It may or may not be associated with inappropriate secretion of VIP and an associated clinical syndrome. |
| C27455 | A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the small intestine and produces vasoactive intestinal peptide. |
| C27456 | A usually polypoid neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the colonic and rectal mucosa. It is characterized by a tubular architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C27457 | An adenoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of moderate epithelial dysplasia. |
| C27458 | An adenoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of mild epithelial dysplasia. |
| C27459 | A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the colon or rectum.  It is characterized by low or high grade dysplasia of the mucosal epithelium.  There is no evidence of invasion. |
| C27460 | A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the colon or rectum.  It is characterized by mild epithelial dysplasia and mild architectural alterations of the mucosal epithelium.  There is no evidence of invasion. |
| C27461 | A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the colon or rectum.  It is characterized by moderate or severe epithelial dysplasia and complex architectural alterations of the mucosal epithelium.  There is no evidence of invasion. |
| C27462 | A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the small intestine.  It is characterized by low or high grade dysplasia of the mucosal epithelium.  There is no evidence of invasion. |
| C27463 | A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the small intestine.  It is characterized by mild epithelial dysplasia and mild architectural alterations of the mucosal epithelium.  There is no evidence of invasion. |
| C27464 | A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the small intestine.  It is characterized by moderate or severe epithelial dysplasia and complex architectural alterations of the mucosal epithelium.  There is no evidence of invasion. |
| C27465 | A rare Burkitt lymphoma that arises from the colon. |
| C27466 | An ectopic ACTH producing pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor. It may be associated with Cushing syndrome. Most patients present with metastases at the time of diagnosis and the prognosis is usually poor. |
| C27467 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C27469 | Carcinoma that is spread throughout the body. |
| C27470 | "Cancer that is spread throughout the body, a metastatic phenomenon." |
| C27471 | A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation arising from the soft tissues. |
| C27472 | "An epithelioid sarcoma predominantly involving the pelvis, perineum, and genital organs.  It tends to have a more aggressive clinical course as compared to the more frequently seen distal-type epithelioid sarcoma." |
| C27473 | "An epithelioid sarcoma involving the extremities.  It usually presents as nodular masses in the dermis and subcutaneous tissues or in the tendons and fascia.  It frequently recurs and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.  The most common sites of metastasis are the lungs, lymph nodes, bones, and brain." |
| C27474 | An infiltrating carcinoma of the bladder that has not invaded into the bladder muscularis propria. |
| C27475 | A benign neoplasm which is composed of adipocytes and arises from the surface of the bone or the medullary cavity. |
| C27476 | A very rare schwannoma of the bone. It is often located in the mandible and is well circumscribed. |
| C27477 | A giant cell tumor that arises from the bone and is characterized by the absence of local aggression and lack of metastatic potential. |
| C27478 | A benign neoplasm arising from the fibrous soft tissues of the gingiva. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and numerous dilated vascular channels. |
| C27479 | A morphologic variant of fibroma with numerous dilated vascular channels that arises from the posterolateral wall of the roof of the nasal cavity or lateral nasopharynx. It is associated with somatic mutations in CTNNB1 gene in the majority of cases. |
| C27480 | A morphologic variant of fetal rhabdomyoma characterized by the presence of a prominent myxoid stroma and primitive skeletal spindle cells. |
| C27481 | A rare malignant tumor of soft tissue characterized by a bimorphic pattern composed of undifferentiated small round cells and islands of well differentiated hyaline cartilage. |
| C27482 | A chondrosarcoma that arises either in a pre-existing enchondroma or within the cartilaginous cap of a pre-existing osteochondroma. |
| C27483 | "A lipoma usually occurring in the extremities of young children (usually boys). It is characterized by lobules of adipose tissue, separated by fibrous septa.  The adipose tissue is composed of mature adipocytes and lipoblasts. The lipoblasts may be scarce, depending on the age of the patient." |
| C27485 | An angiomyolipoma arising from the liver. |
| C27486 | "A neoplastic process characterized by a diffuse poorly circumscribed overgrowth of adipose tissue in the pelvic region.  Clinical presentation includes complaints of back and abdominal pain, urinary frequency, perineal pain and constipation.  It predominately affects black males." |
| C27487 | "A neoplastic process characterized by a diffuse poorly circumscribed overgrowth of adipose tissue in the face, upper middle back, and sternal region. It is associated with adrenocortical steroid therapy or an increase in endogenous adrenocortical hormone." |
| C27488 | A neoplastic process characterized by a diffuse poorly circumscribed overgrowth of adipose tissue in the mediastinum. |
| C27489 | "A benign adipocytic neoplasm, characterized by ill-defined tumor margins and the presence of variable proportions of mild to moderately atypical spindle cells, adipocytes, lipoblasts, pleomorphic cells, multinucleated giant cells, and a myxoid or collagenous extracellular matrix. It has a low tendency for local recurrence if incompletely excised. Unlike conventional atypical lipomatous tumors, there is no risk for dedifferentiation. (WHO 2020)" |
| C27492 | "An alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of large striated muscle cells with clear cytoplasm, giant cells with myoblastic differentiation, and fibrovascular septa." |
| C27493 | A morphologic variant of alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.  It is characterized by the presence of a solid growth pattern and the absence of fibrovascular stroma. |
| C27494 | An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant smooth muscle cells with granular cytoplasmic changes. |
| C27495 | A morphologic variant of leiomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of an inflammatory infiltrate admixed with malignant spindle cells. |
| C27496 | A benign multifocal proliferation of glomus cells forming clusters around dilated vascular spaces. |
| C27497 | A glomus tumor that shows atypical characteristics and has borderline malignant potential. |
| C27498 |  |
| C27499 | A benign hemangiopericytoma with lipomatous differentiation. |
| C27500 | A Kaposi sarcoma affecting the lymph nodes. |
| C27501 | A well differentiated extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma. |
| C27502 | "A rare malignant soft tissue neoplasm of uncertain differentiation, characterized by the presence of chondroblast-like cells in a myxoid stroma and a multinodular growth pattern.  The most common sites of involvement are the deep soft tissues of the extremities, particularly the thigh.  It usually presents as an enlarging soft tissue mass.  Patients may have long survivals, but local recurrences and metastases occur in approximately half of the cases.  The most common site of metastasis is ... |
| C27503 | A benign diffuse vascular proliferation usually occurring in young adults. It is characterized by the formation of capillary-sized and cavernous vascular spaces. Patients present with diffuse persistent swelling. |
| C27505 | "A rare cutaneous hemangioma that manifests with solitary or multiple blue-red papules that morphologically resemble renal glomeruli. It is located mainly on the trunk and proximal limbs and is associated with polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal gammopathy, and skin changes (POEMS) syndrome and Castleman disease." |
| C27506 | A hemangioma characterized by the presence of hobnail endothelial cells. |
| C27507 | A hemangioma arising from the peripheral nerves. |
| C27508 | A lymphangioma arising from the organs of the abdominal cavity. |
| C27509 | A lymphangioma arising from the skin. |
| C27510 | "An intermediate, locally aggressive blood vessel neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle endothelial cells, and formation of capillary-sized and slit-like vascular channels.  It is often associated with hemorrhage and hemosiderin deposition." |
| C27511 | "A rare, intermediate, locally aggressive and rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm of the skin and subcutaneous tissue that usually affects the distal extremities, most often the leg.  It manifests as a slow-growing red/bluish nodule or plaque and is characterized by the presence of hobnail endothelial cells and formation of arborizing vascular channels." |
| C27512 | An angiosarcoma that develops in association with long standing lymphedema. |
| C27513 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising in an anatomic site exposed to radiation therapy. |
| C27514 | "A benign histiocytic tumor that arises from the skin and occurs during adulthood. It is distinct from Langerhans cell histiocytosis. It is characterized by the presence of lipid-laden, foamy histiocytes and Touton-type giant cells in the dermis. The lesions appear as cutaneous papules and nodules." |
| C27515 | "A rare benign soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of an abundant collagenous or myxocollagenous matrix, spindle-shaped, and stellate-shaped fibroblasts.  It usually presents as an asymptomatic, slowly growing subcutaneous mass. The most common sites of involvement are the upper arm, shoulder, and lower limb." |
| C27516 | "A benign epithelial verrucous lesion of the skin. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of epidermolytic hyperkeratosis and papillomatosis." |
| C27517 | "A benign epithelial neoplasm of the skin. It presents as a papular or nodular lesion. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, papillomatosis, and prominent acantholysis." |
| C27518 | "A benign, well-circumscribed skin squamous lesion characterized by the presence of enlarged keratinocytes with nuclei twice the normal size. (WHO 2018)" |
| C27519 | "A rare genetic skin keratinization disorder with an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance. It is characterized by numerous flesh-colored warty papules on the back of the hands, medial aspect of the feet, knees, and elbows." |
| C27520 | "A neoplasm that arises from the hair follicle of the skin and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C27521 | Trichilemmoma in which there is no evidence of sclerotic stroma formation. |
| C27522 | A variant of tricholemmoma that is characterized by extensive sclerotic stroma formation. |
| C27523 |  |
| C27524 | A benign adnexal tumor occurring in the face of young female subjects. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial neoplastic cells and keratinous cysts in a desmoplastic stroma. |
| C27526 | A myxoid hamartomatous lesion that arises from the hair follicle. |
| C27527 | A benign dermal adnexal neoplasm with apocrine differentiation.  It usually occurs in the scalp and has a female predilection.  It presents as an asymptomatic solitary nodule.  It is characterized by a lobular architecture.  The lobules are composed by tubular structures lined by epithelial cells.  There is no cytologic atypia or mitotic figures present. |
| C27529 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from blood vessels and lymphatics of the skin. |
| C27530 | "A benign well-circumscribed tumor, composed of lobules of mature adipocytes, that arises within subcutaneous tissue, deep soft tissues or on the surface of bones." |
| C27531 | A term that refers to precancerous epithelial pathologic processes that affect the skin. |
| C27533 | "A rare low-grade carcinoma of the sweat glands. The most common sites are eyelids, scalp, axilla, face and trunk. It is histologically characterized by proliferating ducts until the overproduction of mucin creates islands of tumor cells, essentially floating in mucinous pools (Rosai J. Ackerman's Surgical Pathology)." |
| C27534 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the sweat glands. Most cases present as nodular lesions on the digits, usually in the hands. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial cells in the dermis forming nodules. Cystic structures containing papillary projections are also present. It may recur and metastasize, most commonly to the lungs." |
| C27535 | A variant of basal cell carcinoma morphologically characterized by the presence of thin strands of basaloid cells forming a reticulate pattern. |
| C27536 | A morphologic variant of basal cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of clear cells. |
| C27537 | A basal cell carcinoma of the skin that is characterized by cyst formation. |
| C27538 | A basal cell carcinoma of the skin that is characterized by follicular differentiation. |
| C27539 | "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as a pale, indurated plaque, usually in the upper trunk or face. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of strands, cords, and columns of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Perineural invasion may be present and the basaloid cell infiltrate may extend into deeper tissues." |
| C27540 | A rare type of basal cell carcinoma. It is characterized by multiple tiny cysts lined by infundibular epithelium. |
| C27541 | "A basal cell carcinoma of the skin characterized by the presence of small nodules that permeate the dermis.  It presents as an elevated or flat infiltrating tumor, usually in the back." |
| C27542 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the skin histologically resembling a vascular tumor due to extreme acantholysis. |
| C27543 | An aggressive variant of skin squamous cell carcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of nests of malignant basaloid squamous cells with scant amount of cytoplasm. |
| C27545 | "A morphologic variant of atypical fibroxanthoma characterized by the presence of atypical mitotic figures, high mitotic activity, and pleomorphic cells." |
| C27546 | A morphologic variant of atypical fibroxanthoma characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibrohistiocytic cells and a storiform growth pattern. |
| C27547 | A morphologic variant of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans characterized by the presence of a fibrosarcomatous component. |
| C27548 | "A benign, darkly pigmented skin lesion characterized by proliferation of keratinocytes and melanocytes." |
| C27549 | "A benign, epidermal skin lesion characterized by overexpression of collagen during wound healing." |
| C27550 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the gastrointestinal tract, anus, liver, biliary system, and pancreas. Representative examples include infections, ulcers, cirrhosis, and diverticulosis." |
| C27551 | A term that refers to the classification of a disorder according to the anatomic site that is involved in the pathologic process. |
| C27552 | A lobular hemangioma present in multiple anatomic sites. |
| C27553 | Infection of the genitalia by human papillomavirus. |
| C27554 | "A disorder involving lesions or eruptions of the skin, usually without inflammation." |
| C27555 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the skin. |
| C27557 | "A lung disorder not caused by a neoplasm. Representative examples include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, atelectasis, lung infections, pulmonary fibrosis, and pneumoconiosis." |
| C27558 | "Interstitial pneumonia characterized by the presence of bibasilar pulmonary interstitial infiltrates composed of lymphocytes and plasma cells.  It may be associated with autoimmune and lymphoproliferative disorders.  Signs and symptoms include fever, cough, and dyspnea.  Symptomatic patients may require immunosuppressive treatment." |
| C27559 | Pneumoconiosis caused by the inhalation of mixed mineral dust particles. |
| C27560 | "A condition beginning in the first day of life that results from inadequate surfactant production, causing increased work of breathing and impaired gas exchange." |
| C27562 | "A serious disorder affecting newborns, particularly premature infants. It is caused by deficiency of surfactant, resulting in the formation of a membrane in the alveoli lining. This membrane contains fibrin and cellular debris and interferes with respiration. Infants with this disorder develop breathing problems immediately or in a few hours after delivery. It may lead to respiratory failure." |
| C27563 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the pleura.  Representative examples include pleural infection and pneumothorax. |
| C27564 | "A group of signs, symptoms, and clinicopathological characteristics that result from the pathologic function of one or more endocrine organs." |
| C27565 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the endocrine system.  Representative examples include diabetes mellitus, hyperthyroidism, and adrenal gland insufficiency." |
| C27566 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the thyroid gland.  Representative examples include hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, thyroiditis, and thyroid gland abscess." |
| C27567 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the pituitary gland.  Representative examples include pituitary gland hypoplasia and apoplexy. |
| C27568 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the parathyroid glands.  Representative examples include hyperparathyroidism and hypoparathyroidism. |
| C27569 |  |
| C27570 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the testis or the ovary. Representative examples include gonadal agenesis, dysgenesis, and hypogonadism." |
| C27571 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the anatomic structures of the head and neck region.  This category includes inflammatory disorders, benign neoplasms, precancerous conditions, and malignant neoplasms." |
| C27572 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the bone or articular cartilage. |
| C27573 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the soft tissue. |
| C27574 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the connective and soft tissue. |
| C27575 |  |
| C27576 | "An inflammatory myopathy of childhood resulting in muscle weakness, and associated with a characteristic skin rash." |
| C27577 | An acute or chronic inflammation of the bone and its structures due to infection with pyogenic bacteria. |
| C27578 | "An inflammatory process affecting the skeletal muscles. Causes include infections, injuries, and autoimmune disorders." |
| C27579 |  |
| C27580 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the peripheral nervous system. |
| C27582 | "An infectious process that affects the brain and/or spinal cord. Representative examples include encephalitis, poliomyelitis, arachnoiditis, and meningitis." |
| C27583 |  |
| C27584 |  |
| C27586 |  |
| C27587 |  |
| C27588 |  |
| C27589 | An infectious process affecting the peripheral nerves. |
| C27590 |  |
| C27591 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the vagus nerve (tenth cranial nerve). |
| C27592 | Paralysis of the abducens nerve. |
| C27593 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the abducens nerve (sixth cranial nerve). |
| C27594 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the facial nerve (seventh cranial nerve). |
| C27595 | Neuropathy of the femoral nerve. |
| C27596 |  |
| C27597 | Paralysis of the oculomotor nerve. |
| C27598 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the oculomotor nerve (third cranial nerve). |
| C27599 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the urinary system. Representative examples include urinary tract infections, urolithiasis, and acute kidney insufficiency." |
| C27600 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the renal parenchyma and/or renal pelvis. Representative examples include glomerulonephritis and pyelonephritis. |
| C27601 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the urinary bladder. Representative examples include cystitis, cystolithiasis, and urinary bladder rupture." |
| C27602 | A non-neoplastic disorder affecting the urethra. |
| C27603 | A non-neoplastic disorder affecting the ureter. |
| C27604 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the eye. |
| C27605 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the conjunctiva. Representative examples include conjunctivitis and squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C27607 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the conjunctiva. |
| C27608 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the cornea. |
| C27609 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the eyelid. |
| C27610 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the retina. |
| C27611 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the male reproductive system. Representative examples include prostatitis, balanitis, and phimosis." |
| C27612 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the female reproductive system. Representative examples include endometriosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and endometritis." |
| C27613 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the male or female reproductive system. Representative examples include prostatitis, balanitis, phimosis, endometriosis, and pelvic inflammatory disease." |
| C27614 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the prostate gland.  Representative examples include acute and chronic prostatitis. |
| C27615 | An acute or chronic infectious process affecting the prostate gland. |
| C27616 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the testis.  Representative examples include infection, torsion, and infarction." |
| C27617 | "Ischemic necrosis of the testis usually caused by torsion of the spermatic cord, trauma, or severe epididymo-orchitis." |
| C27618 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the penis. Representative examples include phimosis, balanitis, and hypospadias." |
| C27619 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that arises from the placenta. Representative examples include chorioamnionitis, infarction, and malformations." |
| C27620 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the vulva. Representative examples include infection and fibroepithelial polyp. |
| C27621 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the vagina. Representative examples include vaginal infection and vaginal fibroepithelial polyp. |
| C27622 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the cervix. Representative examples include endometriosis and cervicitis. |
| C27623 | Endometriosis that affects the cervix. Most patients are asymptomatic. Some patients may present with recurrent minimal uterine bleeding. |
| C27624 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the uterine corpus. Representative examples include endometritis and uterine adenomyosis. |
| C27625 | Chronic endometritis characterized by the presence of plasmacytic infiltrates in the endometrium. There are no granulomas present. |
| C27626 | "Chronic inflammation of the endometrium characterized by the presence of epithelioid granulomas. Causes include tuberculosis, fungal infections, parasitic infections, and sarcoidosis." |
| C27627 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the ovary.  Representative examples include endometriosis and polycystic ovarian disease. |
| C27628 | "A non-neoplastic disorder characterized by the growth of endometrial tissue in the ovaries.  It results in the development of blood filled ovarian cysts (chocolate cysts), and creation of scars and adhesions." |
| C27629 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the uterine corpus or the cervix. Representative examples include endometritis, uterine adenomyosis, and cervicitis." |
| C27630 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the fallopian tube.  Representative examples include acute and chronic salpingitis, salpingitis isthmica nodosa, and endometriosis." |
| C27631 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the vulva. Representative examples include infection, Bartholin gland adenoma, and vulvar carcinoma." |
| C27632 | A malignant neoplasm that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C27633 | A carcinoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C27634 | A bladder urothelial carcinoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C27635 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C27636 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the skin in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C27637 | A lung carcinoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C27638 | A renal cell carcinoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C27639 | A hematologic malignancy that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C27640 | A Kaposi sarcoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C27641 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the oral cavity. |
| C27642 | A pathologic process that arises from the anatomic structures of the head and neck and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. Representative examples include oral leukoplakia and leukoplakia of the vocal cords. |
| C27643 | A condition in which a person partially loses the ability to hear sounds in one or both ears. |
| C27644 | An inherited or acquired condition characterized by the inability to hear in one or both ears. |
| C27645 | Hearing loss caused by impaired transmission of signals from the external auditory canal or middle ear to the cochlea. |
| C27647 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses.  Representative examples include inflammatory disorders, papillomas, and carcinomas." |
| C27648 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the anatomic structures of the neck region.  This category includes disorders of the pharynx, larynx, thyroid gland, and parathyroid gland." |
| C27650 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the oral cavity or the lips. |
| C27651 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the oral cavity.  Representative examples include inflammation, fibroepithelial polyp, and cleft palate." |
| C27652 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the ear.  Representative examples include infection, cholesteatoma, and hearing disorders." |
| C27653 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the pinna and/or the ear canal. |
| C27654 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the inner ear.  Representative examples include infection and sensory hearing loss. |
| C27655 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects structures of the skull. |
| C27656 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses.  Representative examples include rhinitis, sinusitis, and mucocele." |
| C27657 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the paranasal sinuses.  Representative examples include sinusitis and mucocele. |
| C27658 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the nasal cavity.  Representative examples include rhinitis and Wegener granulomatosis. |
| C27659 | "A non-neoplastic pathologic process that affects the larynx.  Representative examples include laryngitis, vocal cord nodule, and laryngeal cleft." |
| C27660 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the anatomic structures of the neck region.  This category includes non-neoplastic disorders of the pharynx, larynx, thyroid gland, and parathyroid gland." |
| C27661 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the pharynx.  Representative examples include pharyngitis and mucositis. |
| C27662 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the major or minor salivary glands. |
| C27663 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the anatomic structures of the head and neck region. |
| C27664 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the peritoneum and/or retroperitoneum. |
| C27665 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the peritoneum and/or retroperitoneum. |
| C27666 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the peritoneum. Representative examples include peritonitis and panniculitis. |
| C27667 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the retroperitoneum. |
| C27668 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the retroperitoneum. |
| C27669 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the respiratory system or the thoracic organs. |
| C27671 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the structures of the mediastinum.  Representative examples include mediastinitis and thymic hyperplasia. |
| C27672 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the heart and/or vessels.  Representative examples include myocardial infarction, endocarditis, arteriosclerosis, thrombosis, and lymphedema." |
| C27673 | A malignancy in which there is a well-documented association between a neoplastic process and a specific virus as the causative agent. |
| C27674 | A carcinoma associated with the presence of human papillomavirus infection. |
| C27675 | A carcinoma that arises from the cervix and is caused by human papillomavirus infection. |
| C27676 | A cervical squamous cell carcinoma associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C27677 | A cervical adenocarcinoma associated with the presence of human papillomavirus infection. |
| C27678 | A verrucous carcinoma that is associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C27679 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vulva and is caused by human papillomavirus infection. |
| C27680 | An esophageal squamous cell carcinoma that arises from squamous epithelial cells infected with human papillomavirus. |
| C27681 | An anal squamous cell carcinoma related to infection with sexually transmittable human papillomavirus. |
| C27682 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the penis and is caused by human papillomavirus infection. |
| C27683 | A squamous cell carcinoma associated with the presence of human papillomavirus infection. |
| C27684 | An adenocarcinoma associated with the presence of human papillomavirus infection. |
| C27685 |  |
| C27686 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that develops following hepatitis virus exposure and injury of the liver parenchyma. |
| C27687 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that develops following hepatitis B virus exposure and injury of the liver parenchyma. |
| C27688 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that develops following hepatitis C virus exposure and injury of the liver parenchyma. |
| C27689 | A malignant neoplasm that develops in a patient infected with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and in which there is a well-documented association between the malignancy and EBV. Representative examples include EBV-related lymphomas and carcinomas. |
| C27690 | "Carcinoma that develops in individuals infected with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), and in which there is a well-documented association between the neoplastic process and EBV." |
| C27691 | Lymphoma that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C27692 | Hodgkin lymphoma that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C27693 | Non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C27694 | Burkitt lymphoma that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C27695 | A clonal lymphoproliferative disorder that develops following organ transplantation and is associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C27696 | A lymphoproliferative disorder that develops following organ transplantation and is associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C27697 |  |
| C27698 | Carcinoma that develops in the context of an individual infected with a virus. |
| C27699 | Lymphoma that is caused by a virus infection. |
| C27700 | Carcinoma occurring in HIV-positive patients. |
| C27701 | Myelofibrosis that develops in patients with a history of hematologic malignancies or toxic injury to the bone marrow. |
| C27707 | A sarcoma that is caused by a virus. |
| C27710 | A neoplasm originating from the apical lung. Most superior sulcus neoplasms are bronchogenic carcinomas. This tumor may be associated with Pancoast syndrome. It is also known as Pancoast tumor. |
| C27716 | A rare gastrointestinal stromal tumor that presents as a solitary mass outside the gastrointestinal tract. |
| C27718 | A malignant neoplasm associated with the presence of human papillomavirus infection. |
| C27719 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from an area of skin exposed to radiation therapy. |
| C27720 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the islet cells of the pancreas. According to the presence or absence of clinical syndromes that result from hormone hypersecretion, pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors are classified either as functional or nonfunctional." |
| C27721 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation arising from the digestive system. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C27722 | A myelodysplastic syndrome resulting from chemotherapy or radiation therapy for cancer. |
| C27723 | "A chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown etiology that affects the vulva. It is characterized by the development of white elevated plaques in the vulva. Histologically there is marked subepithelial fibrosis. Clinical manifestations include pruritus, dysuria, and dyspareunia." |
| C27724 | "A chronic, sporadic, acquired pruritic non-infectious skin condition characterized by one or more well defined inflamed (pink or red) patches or plaques of varying size." |
| C27725 | "A cutaneous form of the genetic photosensitive disease, porphyria, that is characterized by onset in adult life and the presence of scarring bullae, hyperpigmentation, facial hypertrichosis, and sometimes sclerodermatous thickenings and alopecia.  Uroporphyrins are found in the urine due to a deficiency of uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase, an enzyme required for the synthesis of heme." |
| C27726 | "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by bi-cytopenia or pancytopenia, dysplastic changes in 10% or more of the cells in two or more of the myeloid cell lines, and 15% or more ring sideroblasts in the bone marrow.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C27729 | An encapsulated or well-circumscribed thyroid gland tumor composed of well-differentiated follicular cells with well-developed or partially developed nuclear features of papillary thyroid carcinoma and with questionable capsular or vascular invasion. This is a tumor indeterminate between follicular adenoma and follicular carcinoma. Tumors in which vascular invasion has been excluded by all means are called non-invasive follicular thyroid neoplasms with papillary-like nuclear features. (WHO) |
| C27730 | A Wilms tumor of the kidney which occurs in children. |
| C27731 |  |
| C27732 |  |
| C27733 |  |
| C27734 |  |
| C27735 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that arises from the colon or rectum. The majority of cases have spindle cell morphology. |
| C27736 |  |
| C27737 |  |
| C27738 |  |
| C27739 |  |
| C27740 |  |
| C27742 | "Stage IIB includes: (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0).  T3b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T4a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No detectable evidence of distant metastases. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C27743 | "An uncommon subacute encephalopathy seen following cranial irradiation for cerebral neoplasms. Clinical signs manifest several weeks after treatment and include drowsiness, fatigue, lethargy and slowed mental processing. Clinical course is usually benign, self-limited and independent of radiotherapy dose." |
| C27744 |  |
| C27745 | A carcinoma characterized by the presence of large adenocarcinoma cells. |
| C27749 |  |
| C27750 |  |
| C27753 | "Acute myeloid leukemias that do not fulfill the criteria for inclusion in the group of acute myeloid leukemias which have recurrent genetic abnormalities or myelodysplastic changes, or are therapy-related.  This category includes entities classified according to the French-American-British classification scheme." |
| C27754 | Acute myeloid leukemia occurring as late complication of prior therapy with alkylating agents. |
| C27755 | Acute myeloid leukemias arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of therapeutic agents targeting DNA-topoisomerase II. The vast majority of patients present without a preceding myelodysplastic phase. The acute myeloid leukemias are usually of the monoblastic or myelomonocytic type. Clonal cytogenetic abnormalities are frequently present and usually involve chromosome 11q23 (MLL gene). |
| C27756 | Acute Promyelocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of hypergranular promyelocytes and characteristic cells that contain bundles of Auer rods. |
| C27757 | Acute promyelocytic leukemia in which the promyelocytes in the peripheral blood have paucity or absence of cytoplasmic granules and characteristic bilobed nuclei. |
| C27760 | A malignancy in which there is a well-documented association between a neoplastic process and a specific bacterium as the causative agent. |
| C27761 |  |
| C27762 | Non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is caused by Helicobacter Pylori. |
| C27763 | "A low grade, indolent B-cell lymphoma that is associated with Helicobacter pylori infection." |
| C27764 | A carcinoma that is caused by Helicobacter pylori. |
| C27765 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the gastric mucosa and is caused by persistent infection with Helicobacter pylori. |
| C27766 | A malignancy in which there is a well-documented association between a neoplastic process and a specific parasite as the causative agent. |
| C27767 | A term that refers to a group of carcinomas that are caused by parasites. |
| C27768 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder that is caused by Schistosoma hematobium. |
| C27769 | A cholangiocarcinoma that has developed following infection with Opisthorchis viverrini. |
| C27770 | Malignant neoplasm occurring in immunodeficient patients. |
| C27771 |  |
| C27772 |  |
| C27773 |  |
| C27774 |  |
| C27775 |  |
| C27776 | A malignant neoplasm arising in an anatomic site exposed to solar radiation. |
| C27777 | "A cavernous hemangioma characterized by the presence of hylanized vascular channels and is often associated with the presence of calcifications, fibrosis, and hemorrhage." |
| C27778 |  |
| C27779 |  |
| C27780 | "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm that does not meet the criteria of other myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasms, myelodysplastic syndromes, and myeloproliferative neoplasms. It is associated with cytopenia, blasts less than 20% in bone marrow and peripheral blood, thrombocytosis, and absence of genetic abnormalities associated with myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with eosinophilia and tyrosine kinase gene fusions." |
| C27781 | "A liposarcoma characterized by the presence of round non-lipogenic primitive mesenchymal cells and small signet ring lipoblasts within a myxoid stoma with a branching vascular pattern.  This category includes hypercellular lesions with round cell morphology, formerly known as round cell liposarcoma." |
| C27784 | Carcinoma of the penis that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C27785 | "Stage I includes: pT1-4, N0, M0, SX.  pT1: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis without vascular/lymphatic invasion; tumor may invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis.  pT2: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis with vascular/lymphatic invasion, or tumor extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis.  pT3: Tumor invades the spermatic cord with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.  pT4: Tumor invades the scrotum with or wi... |
| C27786 | "Stage II includes: Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, SX.  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N1: Metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or less in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 5 cm in greatest d... |
| C27787 | "Stage III includes: Any pT/TX, Any N, M1, SX.  M1: Distant metastasis. SX: Marker studies not available or not performed.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C27788 | "A pathologic process that arises from the female reproductive system and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. Representative examples include atypical endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia, and cervical intraepithelial neoplasia." |
| C27789 | "A neoplastic clonal expansion of endometrial glands characterized by cytologic changes of the epithelium and the presence of an increased number of endometrial glands. The glands form crowded aggregates with tubular or branching patterns which are cytologically distinct from the background architectural and cytological pattern. It is associated with molecular changes seen in endometrioid endometrial carcinoma, including microsatellite instability, PAX2 inactivation, and PTEN, KRAS, and CTNN... |
| C27790 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  cN0: No palpable or visibly enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.  pN0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C27791 |  |
| C27792 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor composed of neoplastic spindle cells. |
| C27793 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor composed of a mixture of neoplastic epithelioid and spindle cells. |
| C27794 | An increase in the concentration of red blood cells (hemoglobin) that is not caused by polycythemia vera. |
| C27797 |  |
| C27798 | An acute lymphoblastic leukemia that originates from pre-B lymphocytes. The pre-B lymphoblasts contain cytoplasmic immunoglobulin. |
| C27799 | Acute lymphoblastic leukemia of early B-lineage. |
| C27800 | "A peripheral (mature) T-cell lymphoma presenting in the skin with patches/plaques and it is characterized by epidermal and dermal infiltration of small to medium-sized T-cells with cerebriform nuclei.  Patients with limited disease generally have an excellent prognosis.  In the more advanced stages, the prognosis is poor. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C27801 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the thymus.  Representative examples include acute thymic involution and thymic hyperplasia. |
| C27802 | The developmental arrest and architectural distortion of the thymus that results in immunodeficiency. |
| C27803 | "The sudden shrinking and/or complete disappearance of the thymus gland; this often happens as a response to a physiologic stressor, such as infection or malnutrition." |
| C27804 | "A condition in which the thymus gland is abnormally located; this can be secondary to failure of descent during fetal development, or failure of involution." |
| C27805 | "An increase in gross volume and weight of the thymus gland, with maintenance of normal lobular architecture, and preservation of corticomedullary differentiation." |
| C27806 | A carcinoma that arises from the kidney and has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C27807 |  |
| C27808 |  |
| C27809 |  |
| C27810 |  |
| C27811 |  |
| C27813 | An adenocarcinoma arising from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C27814 | A carcinoma arising from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C27815 | Primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the endometrium (mucous membrane that lines the endometrial cavity). |
| C27816 | A nevus characterised by the presence of excessive pigment. |
| C27817 | "A rare, usually non-invasive intraepithelial adenocarcinoma that arises from the penile skin or mucosal surface. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic large cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and large nuclei with prominent nucleoli." |
| C27818 | A ureter carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C27819 | A urethral carcinoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C27820 |  |
| C27821 |  |
| C27822 | An antiquated term referring to non-Hodgkin lymphomas with a diffuse architectural pattern. |
| C27823 | An antiquated term that refers to a morphologic variant of non-Hodgkin lymphoma which is composed predominantly or exclusively of large neoplastic lymphocytes. |
| C27824 | "An antiquated term that refers to a non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of diffuse infiltrates of large, often anaplastic lymphocytes." |
| C27825 | A carcinoma that produces mucin. |
| C27826 |  |
| C27827 |  |
| C27828 | "Stage IIIC Breast Cancer was added in the 6th Edition AJCC Staging Manual, on the basis of metastasis to the infraclavicular lymph nodes (N3) plus any T, M0." |
| C27829 |  |
| C27830 | An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of well differentiated histopathological features. |
| C27831 | An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of histopathological features that are intermediate between well differentiated and poorly differentiated. |
| C27832 | An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of poorly differentiated histopathological features. |
| C27836 | Persistent inflammation of the superficial portion of the gastric mucosa.  It is a condition that predisposes to the development of ulcer and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma. |
| C27837 |  |
| C27838 | "A high-grade, aggressive adenocarcinoma arising from the endometrium. It is characterized by the presence of complex papillary patterns with cellular budding. Atypical mitoses, necrosis, and psammoma bodies may be present. It is classified as type II endometrial carcinoma and it is not associated with endometrial hyperplasia. It tends to invade deeply into the myometrium and spreads into the lymphatic vessels. Patients frequently present with spread of the tumor beyond the uterus at the tim... |
| C27839 | An endometrioid adenocarcinoma arising from the endometrium. Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells containing glycogen vacuoles which are usually subnuclear and reminiscent of early secretory endometrium. |
| C27840 |  |
| C27841 |  |
| C27842 |  |
| C27843 | A morphologic variant of endometrioid adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of large multinucleated clear cells. |
| C27844 | A primary endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium characterized by the presence of a component with poorly differentiated carcinoma cells. |
| C27845 | A primary endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium characterized by the presence of a component with undifferentiated malignant cells. |
| C27846 | A primary endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium characterized by the presence of numerous finger-like villi lined by neoplastic columnar cells. |
| C27847 |  |
| C27848 | "An endometrioid adenocarcinoma arising from the endometrium, in which ciliated cells line the majority of the malignant glands." |
| C27849 | A primary endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium characterized by the presence of eosinophilic malignant glandular epithelial cells. |
| C27850 | A primary endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium characterized by the presence of spindled malignant epithelial cells. |
| C27851 | An infectious process caused by a human papillomavirus. This infection can cause abnormal tissue growth. |
| C27853 | "The commonest type of Castleman disease. It is seen most commonly in the mediastinum. Histologically this is characterized by hyalinized germinal centers surrounded by small lymphocytes in a concentric fashion, giving an onion skin appearance." |
| C27854 | Castleman disease characterized by the presence of prominent hyalinized vessels in the germinal centers and prominent sheets of plasma cells in the interfollicular areas. |
| C27855 | "Castleman disease characterized by fever, generalized lymphadenopathy, hypergammaglobulinemia, and dysfunction of multiple organs.  Other signs and symptoms include anemia, thrombocytopenia, hepatomegaly, peripheral neuropathy and pleural effusions.  Morphologically, in the majority of cases the lymph nodes show features of Castleman disease of the plasma cell type.  In a minority of cases, changes of Castleman disease of the hyaline-vascular type are seen. In contrast to patients with loca... |
| C27856 | An aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma occurring in patients with HHV8-positive multicentric Castleman disease. It is characterized by the presence of human herpesvirus 8-infected large B-lymphocytes that resemble plasmablasts. It is usually seen in patients with HIV infection. |
| C27857 | A Burkitt lymphoma with plasmacytoid differentiation occurring in HIV-positive patients. |
| C27858 | Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma arising in HHV8-positive multicentric Castleman disease occurring in HIV-positive patients. |
| C27859 | A plasmablastic lymphoma in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. |
| C27860 |  |
| C27861 |  |
| C27862 | An opportunistic infection caused by herpes zoster in a patient with AIDS. |
| C27863 | "A serious AIDS-related opportunistic infection of the lungs, caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii.  It is one of the most common AIDS-related illnesses and is a major cause of morbidity in patients with AIDS.  Signs and symptoms include cough, fever, dyspnea, and pain or tightness in the chest." |
| C27864 | A successful invasion of a host by an organism that uses the host for food and shelter. |
| C27865 |  |
| C27866 | Pelvic inflammatory disease that develops in a patient with HIV/AIDS. |
| C27867 |  |
| C27868 |  |
| C27869 | Thrombocytopenia that occurs in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. |
| C27870 | A broad classification of dysgammaglobulinemias characterized by low or undetectable serum levels of one of the five immunoglobulin classes. Deficiencies of immunoglobulins present variably according to isotype. Selective deficiencies may be caused by decreased or inefficient production from progenitor B cells without any corresponding decreases in the other isotypes. The clinical course and prognosis is dependent upon the severity of the selective deficiency and associated morbidity. |
| C27871 | "A broad classification of inherited disorders presenting at birth that affect both the cell-mediated and humoral aspects of the immune response. Circulating numbers of B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes and NK cells are variable but where present do not function properly. Susceptibility to infection is the primary concern." |
| C27872 | A broad classification of inherited disorders presenting at birth that affect the cell-mediated aspect of the immune response. Circulating numbers of T lymphocytes are decreased or ineffective. |
| C27873 | "A broad classification of inherited disorders presenting at birth that affect the initial immunologic response to infection. In these disorders, the primary role of innate immunity to detect and neutralize pathogens which the individual has not been previously exposed is decreased or ineffective." |
| C27874 | A rare autosomal recessive immunodeficiency disorder caused by deficiency of CD18 expression. It is characterized by defects in neutrophil adhesion and bacterial infections. |
| C27875 | "A non-invasive bladder papillary urothelial carcinoma characterized by minimal cytologic atypia and infrequent mitotic figures (usually limited to the lower half of the tumor). This type of carcinoma recurs frequently, may invade the bladder wall, and has a low risk of progression." |
| C27876 | A non-invasive bladder papillary urothelial carcinoma characterized by marked architectural and cytologic abnormalities and frequent mitotic figures (at all levels of the urothelium). |
| C27877 | Hyperplasia of the transitional epithelium of the urinary tract.  Morphologically it is subdivided into flat and papillary hyperplasia. -- 2003 |
| C27878 | A type of hyperplasia that is characterized by a marked thickening of the urinary tract epithelium.  There is no evidence of cytologic atypia. -- 2003 |
| C27879 | A type of hyperplasia that is characterized by variable thickening of the urinary tract epithelium and a slight papillary growth.  The latter is not associated with the presence of fibrovascular cores.  There is no evidence of atypia.  The relationship between this lesion and papillary urothelial neoplasia is not clear. -- 2003 |
| C27880 | Marked thickening of the bladder urothelium with minimal or absent cytologic atypia and absence of true papillary formations. It is found most commonly on routine follow-up cystoscopy in patients with a history of papillary urothelial neoplasms. (WHO 2016) |
| C27881 |  |
| C27883 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the urothelial lining of the urinary tract and is characterized by papillary formations. |
| C27884 | "A papillary urothelial neoplasm that arises from the urinary bladder. The papillary structures exhibit minimal architectural distortion and minimal atypia. Mitoses are infrequent. Patients are at an increased risk of developing new papillary lesions. Occasionally, the new lesions are urothelial carcinomas." |
| C27885 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma that arises from the urinary bladder urothelium. |
| C27886 | A papillary renal cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of papillae covered by small cells with scant amount of cytoplasm. The cells are arranged in a single layer on the basement membrane of the papillae. |
| C27887 | A papillary renal cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of papillae covered by cells of a higher nuclear grade as compared to type 1 papillary renal cell carcinoma. The cells have eosinophilic cytoplasm and pseudostratified nuclei. |
| C27888 | A variant of chromophobe renal cell carcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of large pale cells with thickened cell membranes. |
| C27889 | "A variant of chromophobe renal cell carcinoma in which more than 80% of the malignant cells have granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm." |
| C27890 | A papillary renal cell carcinoma that occurs in a patient who does not have a family history of papillary renal cell carcinoma nor is a carrier of an inherited DNA change that would increase the risk of developing this carcinoma. |
| C27891 | "A group of renal cell carcinomas characterized by the presence of different translocations involving the chromosome Xp11.2. These translocations result in the creation of gene fusions involving the TFE3 gene. Patients are usually children and young adults. Morphologically, the malignant epithelial cells form papillary patterns." |
| C27893 | A high-grade carcinoma that arises from the kidney. It is not a distinct clinicopathological entity and includes a diverse group of renal cell carcinomas that have been transformed from a lower to a higher grade. |
| C27896 | "A systemic disease, often associated with arthritis, fever, and weight loss.  The cutaneous lesions consist of histiocytes, which are usually confined to the dermis.  A large number of patients develop malignant tumors (carcinomas, sarcomas, and lymphomas). --2003" |
| C27897 | A T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder with uncertain malignant potential. A representative example is lymphomatoid papulosis. |
| C27898 | The reemergence of a malignant small round cell tumor with or without neural differentiation after a period of remission. |
| C27899 | The reemergence of a small round cell tumor with neural differentiation after a period of remission. |
| C27900 | The reemergence of Askin tumor after a period of remission. |
| C27901 | A small round cell tumor with or without neural differentiation that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C27902 | A small round cell tumor confined to a specific area of the thoracic cavity without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C27903 | "A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation, confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites." |
| C27904 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the retroperitoneum.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C27905 | An invasive prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of well differentiated malignant glandular epithelial components. |
| C27906 | An invasive prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells exhibiting moderate differentiation. |
| C27907 | "A lymphoproliferative disorder composed of neoplastic B-cells. It includes B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas, B-cell leukemias, plasma cell neoplasms, and B-cell proliferations of uncertain malignant potential." |
| C27908 | A group of neoplasms composed of T-lymphocytes and/or NK-cells. |
| C27909 | A group of neoplasms composed of T-lymphocytes with a mature (peripheral/post-thymic) immunophenotypic profile and/or NK-cells. |
| C27910 | "A neoplasm that arises from mature B-lymphocytes or plasma cells. Representative examples include mature B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, hairy cell leukemia, plasma cell neoplasms, and B-cell proliferations of uncertain malignant potential." |
| C27911 | "An indolent, mature B-cell neoplasm composed of small, round B-lymphocytes. When the bone marrow and peripheral blood are involved, the term chronic lymphocytic leukemia is used. The term small lymphocytic lymphoma is restricted to cases which do not show leukemic involvement of the bone marrow and peripheral blood." |
| C27912 | "Acute myeloid leukemias, myelodysplastic syndromes, and myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasms arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of chemotherapy agents and/or radiation that are used for the treatment of neoplastic or non-neoplastic disorders." |
| C27913 | Acute myeloid leukemias and myelodysplastic syndromes arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of alkylating agents that are used for the treatment of malignant tumors. Patients usually develop a myelodysplastic syndrome which may evolve to a higher grade myelodysplastic syndrome or acute myeloid leukemia. A minority of patients present with an acute myeloid leukemia. Clonal cytogenetic abnormalities are frequently present and usually are unbalanced translocations or deletions of chromosom... |
| C27914 | A clinical variant of Burkitt lymphoma that occurs throughout the world.  It affects both children and adults and is more frequently seen in males. |
| C27915 | Burkitt lymphoma in a patient with immunodeficiency. |
| C27916 | An invasive prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of poorly differentiated malignant cells. |
| C27918 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the skin that arises from burn scars. It usually manifests between 20 and 40 years after the original burn. |
| C27919 | A cutaneous melanoma that arises in an old burn scar tissue. |
| C27920 | Cutaneous melanoma that arises following exposure to solar radiation. |
| C27921 | A squamous cell carcinoma arising in a skin site exposed to solar radiation. |
| C27922 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that develops following exposure to aflatoxin. |
| C27924 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that develops following alcohol-induced injury of the liver parenchyma. |
| C27925 | A carcinoma arising in the lung due to exposure to asbestos. |
| C27926 | Malignant mesothelioma occurring in a patient exposed to asbestos. |
| C27927 | A carcinoma that is caused by alcohol abuse. |
| C27928 | An esophageal carcinoma that results from alcohol consumption.  The alcohol-related esophageal carcinomas are always of squamous cell type.  There is no association between alcohol consumption and esophageal adenocarcinomas. |
| C27929 | A carcinoma that arises from the larynx and is caused by alcohol abuse. |
| C27930 | A malignant neoplasm arising in an anatomic site exposed to ionizing radiation. |
| C27931 | Acute myeloid leukemia caused by benzene. |
| C27932 | Pneumonitis that is associated with irradiation. |
| C27933 |  |
| C27935 |  |
| C27936 |  |
| C27937 | A rare low-grade primary thymus adenocarcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern. |
| C27939 | "A spectrum of non-invasive neoplastic lesions that arise from the terminal ductal lobular units of the breast.  There is atypical small epithelial cell proliferation.  Pagetoid involvement of the terminal ducts may or may not be present.  In the minority of cases, there is a risk for subsequent development of invasive ductal or invasive lobular carcinoma." |
| C27940 | A variant of gastrointestinal stromal tumor with ultrastructural features of neural differentiation.  It is composed of spindle or epithelioid neoplastic cells. |
| C27941 | "A neoplastic ductal proliferative lesion of the breast characterized by the formation of secondary lumens and prominent intraductal proliferation of a heterogeneous cellular population that may include epithelial cells, myoepithelial cells, or metaplastic apocrine cells." |
| C27942 | "A group of non-invasive epithelial proliferations that occur in the ductal system of the breast.  The vast majority of cases arise in the terminal ductal lobular units.  This category includes atypical ductal hyperplasia, usual ductal hyperplasia, flat epithelial atypia, and ductal carcinoma in situ.  There is an increased risk for subsequent development of invasive breast carcinoma." |
| C27944 | A breast papilloma characterized by the presence of predominant sclerosing architectural features. |
| C27947 | Anemia arising due to radiation therapy. |
| C27948 | Acute and progressive bronchopneumonia caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria.  It is characterized by widespread pulmonary patchy consolidations. |
| C27949 | "A general term used to describe carcinomas arising from epithelial cells that have been transformed into another cell type (metaplastic epithelial cells). A representative example is the adenocarcinoma arising in Barrett esophagus. This term is also used to describe carcinomas in which the malignant epithelial cells show differentiation towards another cell type. A representative example of the latter is the metaplastic breast carcinoma in which the malignant glandular cells show squamous, ... |
| C27951 |  |
| C27952 | A hyperplasia of the sebaceous glands. It is usually seen as small yellow papules in the face of middle aged-older population. |
| C27953 |  |
| C27961 | "A group of neurologic disorders caused by damage to the nervous system following exposure to pharmacologic, biologic, and chemical agents. Examples of neurotoxins include chemotherapy agents, radiation treatment, heavy metals, pesticides, and food additives." |
| C27996 | "Gross necrosis of the myocardium, as a result of interruption of the blood supply to the area, as in coronary thrombosis." |
| C28137 | Infection of the mucosal lining of the mouth with the fungus Candida albicans. |
| C28155 | Interruption of sympathetic innervation to eye and face. |
| C28182 | "A life-threatening viral infection caused by the neurotropic Rabies virus. It is transmitted to humans usually from a bite by an infected dog. The initial signs and symptoms include malaise, fever, and headache, followed by the central nervous system manifestations which include abrupt behavioral changes. Paralysis, lethargy, and coma follow the behavioral changes." |
| C28193 | "A group of signs, symptoms, and clinicopathological characteristics that may or may not have a genetic basis and collectively define an abnormal condition." |
| C28194 | Local dilatation of small vessels resulting in red discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes. |
| C28195 | Occlusion of the lumen of a vessel by a thrombus that has migrated from a distal site via the blood stream. |
| C28244 | "A rare genetic syndrome with an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the FLCN gene which encodes the protein folliculin. Clinical signs include multiple benign growths of the skin and lungs that begin to manifest in the second or third decade of life. The clinical course is characterized by the progressive growth of new and existing neoplasms. In those with mutations in both copies of FLCN, the kidneys may also be affected by the growth of benign or malig... |
| C28286 | A sleep disorder characterized by difficulty in falling asleep and/or remaining asleep. |
| C28292 | An intraepidermal squamous cell carcinoma involving the area of the nipple. |
| C28302 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that occurs during adulthood and has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C28311 | A carcinoma that arises from the breast and has metastasized to the skin. |
| C28316 | "A flare of acne which may be precipitated by variety of factors, including hormonal activity, stress, oils and oily cosmetics, sweat, overwashing, and certain foods and drugs." |
| C28333 | A neuroendocrine tumor arising from the delta cells of the pancreas. It is characterized by the absence of a hormone-related clinical syndrome. |
| C28337 |  |
| C28356 | "Infectious and parasitic diseases endemic in tropical and subtropical zones, including Chagas' disease, leishmaniasis, leprosy, malaria, onchocerciasis, schistosomiasis, sleeping sickness, yellow fever, and others; often water- or insect-borne." |
| C28396 | "A usually malignant neuroendocrine tumor arising from the delta cells of the pancreas.  It may be associated with inappropriate secretion of somatostatin and an associated clinical syndrome, or it may be hormonally inactive (non-functioning)." |
| C28397 | A chronic respiratory disease manifested as difficulty breathing due to the narrowing of bronchial passageways. |
| C28432 | A carcinoma that arises in the area of the nipple.  Representative examples include Paget disease and skin squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C2849 | "Any abnormality, anatomical or biochemical, evident at birth or during the neonatal period." |
| C2850 | Absence of hydrochloric acid in the gastric juice. |
| C2851 | "A syndrome resulting from the acquired deficiency of cellular immunity caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). It is characterized by the reduction of the Helper T-lymphocytes in the peripheral blood and the lymph nodes. Symptoms include generalized lymphadenopathy, fever, weight loss, and chronic diarrhea. Patients with AIDS are especially susceptible to opportunistic infections, tuberculosis, candida infections, and cryptococcosis), and the development of malignant neoplasms (us... |
| C2852 | "A common cancer characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells.  Morphologically, adenocarcinomas are classified according to the growth pattern (e.g., papillary, alveolar) or according to the secreting product (e.g., mucinous, serous).  Representative examples of adenocarcinoma are ductal and lobular breast carcinoma, lung adenocarcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma (hepatoma), colon adenocarcinoma, and prostate adenocarcinoma." |
| C2853 | "A morphologic variant of adenocarcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth pattern. Representative examples include thyroid gland papillary carcinoma, invasive papillary breast carcinoma, and ovarian serous surface papillary adenocarcinoma." |
| C2854 | "A benign tumor that arises from the salivary gland and is characterized by the presence of an oncocytic, often papillary epithelial component, dense lymphoid stroma, and cystic spaces. It occurs primarily in the parotid gland and is the second most common benign parotid gland tumor (after pleomorphic adenoma). A strong association with smoking has been reported. It typically presents as a painless swelling in the lower portion of the parotid gland." |
| C2855 | "A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium. It may be encapsulated or non-encapsulated. The neoplastic glandular epithelial cells may or may not display cellular atypia or dysplasia. Representative examples include gastrointestinal tract adenomas, thyroid gland follicular adenomas, and pituitary neuroendocrine tumors/adenomas. The vast majority are benign." |
| C2856 | An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with basic dyes. |
| C2857 | An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells do not stain with acidic or basic dyes. |
| C2858 | A benign or malignant (primary or metastatic) neoplasm affecting the adrenal cortex. |
| C2859 | A benign or malignant (primary or metastatic) neoplasm affecting the adrenal glands. |
| C2860 | "A benign, testicular or ovarian tumor, derived from adrenal embryonic rest cells. It is composed of hyperplastic adrenal cortical tissue, and it is associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia." |
| C2862 | "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, proliferation of atypical megakaryocytes and granulocytes in the bone marrow, anemia, splenomegaly, and extramedullary hematopoiesis. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C2864 | Dementia resulting from AIDS. |
| C2866 | "A progressive, neurodegenerative disease characterized by loss of function and death of nerve cells in several areas of the brain leading to loss of cognitive function such as memory and language." |
| C2868 | "A disorder characterized by the localized or diffuse accumulation of amyloid protein in various anatomic sites. It may be primary, due to clonal plasma cell proliferations; secondary, due to long standing infections, chronic inflammatory disorders, or malignancies; or familial. It may affect the nerves, skin, tongue, joints, heart, liver, spleen, kidneys and adrenal glands." |
| C2869 | "A reduction in the number of red blood cells, the amount of hemoglobin, and/or the volume of packed red blood cells. Clinically, anemia represents a reduction in the oxygen-transporting capacity of a designated volume of blood, resulting from an imbalance between blood loss (through hemorrhage or hemolysis) and blood production. Signs and symptoms of anemia may include pallor of the skin and mucous membranes, shortness of breath, palpitations of the heart, soft systolic murmurs, lethargy, a... |
| C2870 | "Anemia resulting from bone marrow failure (aplastic or hypoplastic bone marrow). The production of erythroblasts and red cells is markedly decreased, and it may be associated with decreased production of granulocytes (granulocytopenia) and platelets (thrombocytopenia) as well. Aplastic anemia may be idiopathic or secondary due to bone marrow damage by toxins, radiation, or immunologic factors." |
| C2871 | Megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B-12 deficiency due to impaired absorption. The impaired absorption of vitamin B-12 is secondary to atrophic gastritis and loss of gastric parietal cells. |
| C2872 | "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized mainly by dysplasia of the erythroid series.  Refractory anemia is uncommon.  It is primarily a disease of older adults.  The median survival exceeds 5 years.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C2875 | Loss of appetite. |
| C2877 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the anal canal or anal margin.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include squamous papilloma and papillary hidradenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, lymphoma, and melanoma." |
| C2878 | A category of psychiatric disorders which are characterized by anxious feelings or fear often accompanied by physical symptoms associated with anxiety. |
| C2880 | "A benign or malignant sex cord-stromal tumor arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic Leydig cells. Signs and symptoms include hirsutism, menorrhagia and metrorrhagia. It may be associated with trisomy 8." |
| C2881 | Any variation from the normal rate or rhythm (which may include the origin of the impulse and/or its subsequent propagation) in the heart. |
| C2882 | A benign vascular lesion characterized by the presence of a complex network of communicating arterial and venous vascular structures. |
| C2883 | "An inflammatory process affecting a joint. Causes include infection, autoimmune processes, degenerative processes, and trauma. Signs and symptoms may include swelling around the affected joint and pain." |
| C2884 | "A chronic, systemic autoimmune disorder characterized by inflammation in the synovial membranes and articular surfaces. It manifests primarily as a symmetric, erosive polyarthritis that spares the axial skeleton and is typically associated with the presence in the serum of rheumatoid factor." |
| C2886 | An infection that is caused by Aspergillus. |
| C2887 | Rare hereditary disease characterized by extreme sensitivity to ionizing radiation or radiomimetic drugs because of a defect in DNA repair. AT heterozygosity is estimated to occur in more than 2% of the U.S. population; heterozygotes exhibit increased radiation sensitivity and are at increased risk for several types of cancer. The normal version of the gene that is defective in AT appears to activate the p53-dependent response to DNA damage. |
| C2888 | "The collapse of part or the entire lung due to airway obstruction, infection, tumor, or general anesthesia." |
| C2889 | "A disorder resulting from loss of function or tissue destruction of an organ or multiple organs, arising from humoral or cellular immune responses of the individual to his own tissue constituents. It may be systemic (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosus), or organ specific, (e.g., thyroiditis)." |
| C2890 | "An acute infectious disorder that is caused by gram positive or gram negative bacteria; representative examples include pneumococcal, streptococcal, salmonella, and meningeal infections." |
| C2891 | Esophageal lesion lined with columnar metaplastic epithelium which is flat or villiform. Barrett epithelium is characterized by two different types of cells: goblet cells and columnar cells. The symptomatology of Barrett esophagus is that of gastro-esophageal reflux. It is the precursor of most esophageal adenocarcinomas.  (WHO) |
| C2892 | "An autosomal dominant genetic syndrome caused by abnormalities in the PTCH and SUFU gene. It is characterized by multiple basal cell carcinomas at a young age, odontogenic keratocysts, and skeletal defects (bifurcated and splayed ribs, fusion of vertebrae, spinal bifida). Patients with this syndrome may also develop medulloblastomas and ovarian fibromas." |
| C2893 | "A disorder characterized by behavioral and/or psychological abnormalities, often accompanied by physical symptoms. The symptoms may cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social and occupational areas of functioning. Representative examples include anxiety disorders, cognitive disorders, mood disorders and schizophrenia." |
| C2894 | "A neoplasm that arises from the colon and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C2895 | "A neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include serous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenoma, clear cell adenofibroma, benign Brenner tumor, thecoma, and fibroma." |
| C2896 | "A neoplasm that arises from the skin and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C2897 | "A non-cancerous nodular enlargement of the prostate gland.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelial cell nodules, and stromal nodules containing fibrous and smooth muscle elements.  It is the most common urologic disorder in men, causing blockage of urine flow." |
| C2898 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include bile duct adenoma and extrahepatic bile duct lipoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include intrahepatic and extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma. |
| C2899 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts or the gallbladder. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include cholangitis and cholecystitis. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include extrahepatic bile duct adenoma, intrahepatic and extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, and gallbladder carcinoma." |
| C2900 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the urinary bladder. A representative example of non-neoplastic bladder disorder is bacterial bladder infection. A representative example of neoplastic bladder disorder is bladder carcinoma. |
| C2901 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm of the bladder." |
| C2902 | A condition in which there is a deviation from or interruption of the normal coagulation properties of the blood. |
| C2903 | "Bloom syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder associated with mutations in BLM gene encoding protein that belongs to the family of DNA helicases. It is characterized by predisposition to cancer, immunodeficiency, high sensitivity to UV and genomic instability of somatic cells. (Oncogene 2001 Dec 13;20(57):8276-80)" |
| C2904 | "A usually unilocular, intramedullary cystic cavity in the bone.  It is lined by fibrous tissue and is filled with serous or serosanguineous fluid.  It can arise from any bone.  The most frequent sites are proximal humerus, proximal femur, and proximal tibia.  In most cases the lesion is asymptomatic and is usually detected after a pathologic fracture or during radiologic examination for unrelated reasons.  Recurrences have been reported in a minority of cases." |
| C2905 | Increase in the number of hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow. It may involve all or individual hematopoietic cell lines. |
| C2906 | "Intraepidermal squamous cell carcinoma, confined to the epidermis. There is no evidence of invasion." |
| C2907 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from or metastasizes to the brain. |
| C2909 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the breast. Representative examples include fibrocystic disease, gynecomastia, mastitis, and adenosis." |
| C2910 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm of the breast parenchyma. It can originate from the ducts, lobules or the breast adipose tissue. Breast neoplasms are much more common in females than males." |
| C2911 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process affecting the bronchi. |
| C2912 | "A highly aggressive lymphoma composed of monomorphic medium-sized B-cells with basophilic cytoplasm and numerous mitotic figures.  It is often associated with the presence of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and is commonly seen in AIDS patients.  Three morphologic variants are recognized: classical Burkitt lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma with plasmacytoid differentiation, and atypical Burkitt/Burkitt-like lymphoma.  All cases express the MYC translocation [t(8;14)]. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C2914 | Infection of the vulva and vagina with a fungus of the genus CANDIDA.  It is a disease associated with HIV infection. |
| C2916 | "A malignant tumor arising from epithelial cells. Carcinomas that arise from glandular epithelium are called adenocarcinomas, those that arise from squamous epithelium are called squamous cell carcinomas, and those that arise from transitional epithelium are called transitional cell carcinomas. Morphologically, the malignant epithelial cells may display abnormal mitotic figures, anaplasia, and necrosis. Carcinomas are graded by the degree of cellular differentiation as well, moderately, or p... |
| C2917 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm which is confined to the epithelial layer without evidence of further tissue invasion. |
| C2918 | A carcinoma that arises from the breast in females.  It is the most common malignant tumor that affects females. |
| C2919 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the prostate gland.  It is one of the most common malignant tumors afflicting men.  The majority of adenocarcinomas arise in the peripheral zone and a minority occurs in the central or the transitional zone of the prostate gland.  Grading of prostatic adenocarcinoma predicts disease progression and correlates with survival.  Several grading systems have been proposed, of which the Gleason system is the most commonly used.  Gleason sums of 2 to 4 represent well... |
| C2920 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the skin. Primary malignant skin neoplasms most often are carcinomas (either basal cell or squamous cell carcinomas) or melanomas. Metastatic malignant neoplasms to the skin include carcinomas and lymphomas. |
| C2921 | "The most frequently seen skin cancer. It arises from basal cells of the epidermis and pilosebaceous units. Clinically it is divided into the following types: nodular, ulcerative, superficial, multicentric, erythematous, and sclerosing or morphea-like. More than 95% of these carcinomas occur in patients over 40. They develop on hair-bearing skin, most commonly on sun-exposed areas. Approximately 85% are found on the head and neck and the remaining 15% on the trunk and extremities. Basal cell... |
| C2922 | "A basal cell carcinoma which displays squamous differentiation. The neoplastic cells have more abundant cytoplasm with more marked keratinization than typical basal cell carcinomas. It usually has a more aggressive clinical course compared to typical basal cell carcinoma, and it may produce regional or widespread metastases." |
| C2923 | "A solitary adenocarcinoma arising from the lung and measuring 3 cm or less in size. It is characterized by a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. It is usually a non-mucinous adenocarcinoma, but rarely may be mucinous." |
| C2924 | "A breast carcinoma entirely confined to the mammary ducts. It is also known as DCIS. There is no evidence of invasion of the basement membrane. Currently, it is classified into three categories: High-grade DCIS, intermediate-grade DCIS and low-grade DCIS. In this classification the DCIS grade is defined by a combination of nuclear grade, architectural growth pattern and presence of necrosis. The size of the lesion as well as the grade and the clearance margins play a major role in dictating... |
| C2926 | "A group of at least three distinct histological types of lung cancer, including non-small cell squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, and large cell carcinoma. Non-small cell lung carcinomas have a poor response to conventional chemotherapy." |
| C2927 | "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern. A papillary carcinoma may be composed of glandular cells (papillary adenocarcinoma), squamous cells (papillary squamous cell carcinoma), or transitional cells (papillary transitional cell carcinoma). Bladder carcinoma is a representative example of papillary transitional cell carcinoma." |
| C2928 | An infiltrating adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of desmoplastic stromal reaction. |
| C2929 | "A carcinoma arising from squamous epithelial cells.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the proliferation of atypical, often pleomorphic squamous cells.  Squamous cell carcinomas are graded by the degree of cellular differentiation as well, moderately, or poorly differentiated.  Well differentiated carcinomas are usually associated with keratin production and the presence of intercellular bridges between adjacent cells.  Representative examples are lung squamous cell carcinoma, skin sq... |
| C2930 | "A malignant neoplasm arising from the transitional epithelium, usually affecting the urinary bladder, ureter, or renal pelvis. It may or may not have a papillary configuration. It is graded 1 to 3 or 4 according to the degree of cellular differentiation and architectural patterns. Grade 1 transitional cell carcinoma is histologically benign but it may recur. Transitional cell carcinomas may also affect the upper respiratory tract and the ovaries." |
| C2931 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the heart or the vessels (arteries, veins and lymph vessels). Representative examples of non-neoplastic cardiovascular disorders are endocarditis and hypertension. Representative examples of neoplastic cardiovascular disorders are endocardial myxoma and angiosarcoma." |
| C2932 | "A parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia adjacent to or in the bifurcation of the common carotid artery.  Most patients present with a slow growing, painless mass in the neck." |
| C2934 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder which affects the brain and/or spinal cord. |
| C2935 | A benign or malignant (primary or metastatic) tumor involving the cerebellum. |
| C2936 | A benign vascular lesion characterized by the presence of a complex network of communicating arterial and venous vascular structures in the brain. |
| C2937 | "A neoplasm that involves a brain ventricle.  It may be a primary neoplasm arising from a brain ventricle, a metastasis from a distant anatomic site, or an extension of an invasive neoplasm from an adjacent brain structure." |
| C2938 | "A disorder resulting from inadequate blood flow in the vessels that supply the brain. Representative examples include cerebrovascular ischemia, cerebral embolism, and cerebral infarction." |
| C2939 | A polyp that arises from the surface of the cervix. |
| C2940 | "A benign, malignant, or precancerous neoplasm that affects the cervix." |
| C2941 | "A rare autosomal recessive immunodeficiency disorder characterized by abnormal intracellular protein transport. Chediak-Higashi syndrome (CHS) is characterized by immune deficiency; partial oculocutaneous albinism; a bleeding disorder due to deficient platelet dense bodies; neutropenia; neutrophils with impaired chemotaxis and bactericidal activity; recurrent infection; and abnormal natural killer (NK) cell function. CHS may be associated with hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, anemia, th... |
| C2942 | "A benign, well-demarcated polypoid neoplasm arising from the bile duct epithelium. According to the growth pattern, it is classified as tubular, papillary, or tubulopapillary. Adenomas arising from the extrahepatic bile ducts usually produce symptoms related to biliary obstruction." |
| C2944 | "A pathologic process characterized by the proliferation of keratinizing squamous epithelium resulting in the accumulation of keratin and cells in the middle ear and/or mastoid.  It may be congenital or acquired.  If left untreated, it may increase in size and destroy adjacent structures." |
| C2945 | "A benign, chondroid-producing, well-circumscribed, lytic neoplasm usually arising from the epiphysis of long bones.  It is characterized by the presence of chondroblasts, osteoclast-like giant cells, chondroid formation, calcification, and mitotic activity. In aggressive cases, there is rearrangement of the 8q21 chromosome band.  It occurs most frequently in children and young adults and rarely metastasizes." |
| C2946 | "A malignant cartilaginous matrix-producing mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the bone and soft tissue.  It usually affects middle-aged to elderly adults.  The pelvic bones, ribs, shoulder girdle, and long bones are the most common sites of involvement.  Most chondrosarcomas arise de novo, but some may develop in a preexisting benign cartilaginous lesion." |
| C2947 | "A malignant bone tumor arising from the remnants of the fetal notochord. Although it can occur at all ages, it is more frequently seen in middle-aged adults. The most frequent sites of involvement are the sacrococcygeal area, spheno-occipital area, and cervico-thoraco-lumbar spine. Chordomas tend to recur and may metastasize. The most common sites of metastasis are lung, bone, lymph nodes, and subcutaneous tissue." |
| C2948 | An aggressive malignant tumor arising from trophoblastic cells. The vast majority of cases arise in the uterus and represent gestational choriocarcinomas that derive from placental trophoblastic cells. Approximately half of the cases develop from a complete hydatidiform mole. A minority of cases arise in the testis or the ovaries. There is often marked elevation of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Choriocarcinomas disseminate rapidly through the hematogenous route; the lungs a... |
| C2949 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the choroid. |
| C2951 | "A disorder characterized by replacement of the liver parenchyma with fibrous tissue and regenerative nodules. It is usually caused by alcoholism, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. Complications include the development of ascites, esophageal varices, bleeding, and hepatic encephalopathy." |
| C2952 | "An inflammatory bowel disease involving the mucosal surface of the large intestine and rectum. It may present with an acute or slow onset and follows an intermittent or continuous course. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhea, fever, weight loss, and intestinal hemorrhage." |
| C2953 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the colon.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include lipoma and leiomyoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma.  Colonic adenomas always exhibit epithelial dysplasia and are considered premalignant neoplasms." |
| C2954 | "A polypoid lesion that arises from the colon and protrudes into the lumen.  This group includes adenomatous polyps, serrated polyps, and hamartomatous polyps." |
| C2955 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the colon or rectum and invades through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa.  The vast majority are adenocarcinomas. |
| C2956 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the colon or rectum.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include lipoma and leiomyoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma.  Colorectal adenomas always exhibit epithelial dysplasia and are considered premalignant neoplasms." |
| C2958 | "A disorder characterized by an individual's inability to comprehend or share ideas or feelings because of an impairment in language, speech, or hearing." |
| C2960 | A sexually transmitted papillary growth caused by the human papillomavirus. It usually arises in the skin and mucous membranes of the perianal region and external genitalia. |
| C2961 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm that affects the conjunctiva. Representative examples include papilloma, squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma." |
| C2963 | Abnormal growth of the cells that comprise the cranial nerves. |
| C2964 | "A benign, partly cystic, epithelial tumor of the sellar region, presumably derived from Rathke pouch epithelium. It affects mainly children and young adults. There are two clinicopathological forms: adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma and papillary craniopharyngioma. The most significant factor associated with recurrence is the extent of surgical resection, with lesions greater than 5 cm in diameter carrying a markedly worse prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C2965 | "A gastrointestinal disorder characterized by chronic inflammation involving all layers of the intestinal wall, noncaseating granulomas affecting the intestinal wall and regional lymph nodes, and transmural fibrosis. Crohn disease most commonly involves the terminal ileum; the colon is the second most common site of involvement." |
| C2967 | "An acute or chronic, localized or disseminated infection by Cryptococcus neoformans.  Sites of involvement include the lungs, central nervous system and meninges, skin, and visceral organs.--2004" |
| C2969 | "A syndrome caused by high levels of cortisol in the blood either due to excessive production and secretion of corticosteroids secondary to pituitary or adrenocortical neoplasms, or intake of glucocorticoid drugs. Signs and symptoms include a round face, upper body obesity, fragile and thin skin, purple stretch marks in the skin, fatigue, muscle weakness, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hypertrichosis and amenorrhea in women, impotence in men, and osteoporosis." |
| C2970 | "A malignant tumor arising from the epithelial cells.  Microscopically, the neoplastic epithelial cells form cylindrical spatial configurations (cribriform or classic type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), cordlike structures (tubular type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), or solid structures (basaloid variant of adenoid cystic carcinoma).  Adenoid cystic carcinomas mostly occur in the salivary glands.  Other primary sites of involvement include the lacrimal gland, the larynx, and the lungs.  Adenoi... |
| C2971 | A malignant cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium.  The malignant epithelial cells invade the stroma.  The cystic spaces contain serous or mucinous fluid.  Representative examples include ovarian and pancreatic cystadenocarcinomas. |
| C2972 | A benign or borderline cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium.  The epithelial cells line the cystic spaces which contain serous or mucinous fluid.  Representative examples include ovarian and pancreatic cystadenomas. |
| C2973 | "A benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm composed of cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung." |
| C2974 | A serous or mucinous benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures. |
| C2975 | "A congenital, autosomal, metabolic disorder affecting the exocrine glands. The secretions of exocrine glands are abnormal, resulting in excessively viscid mucus production that causes obstruction of passageways, including pancreatic and bile ducts, intestines, and bronchi. Symptoms usually appear in childhood, and include meconium ileus, poor growth despite good appetite, malabsorption and foul bulky stools, chronic bronchitis with cough, recurrent pneumonia, bronchiectasis, emphysema, club... |
| C2976 | "An autosomal recessive hereditary disorder characterized by defective transportation of cystine across the lysosomal membranes and systemic deposition of cystine crystals in the body. It is associated with slight increase of the plasma cystine, cystinuria, aminoaciduria, glycosuria, polyuria, hypophosphatemia, rickets, and renal tubular dysfunction." |
| C2977 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant fibroepithelial neoplasm arising from the breast and rarely the prostate gland.  It may recur following resection.  The recurrence rates are higher for borderline and malignant phyllodes tumors.  In borderline and malignant phyllodes tumors metastases to distant anatomic sites can occur.  The incidence of metastases is higher in malignant phyllodes tumors." |
| C2981 | "A usually reversible condition characterized by the acute and sudden development of confusion, illusions, movement changes, inattentiveness, agitation, and hallucinations. Causes include drug abuse, poisoning, infectious processes, and fluid and electrolyte imbalance." |
| C2982 | A melancholy feeling of sadness and despair. |
| C2983 | "An inflammatory process affecting the skin. Signs include red rash, itching, and blister formation. Representative examples are contact dermatitis, atopic dermatitis, and seborrheic dermatitis." |
| C2984 | A benign skin condition commonly seen in dark-skinned individuals that is characterized by multiple small hyperpigmented papular lesions resembling seborrheic keratosis on the face and upper body. |
| C2985 | A metabolic disorder characterized by abnormally high blood sugar levels due to diminished production of insulin or insulin resistance/desensitization. |
| C2986 | A chronic condition characterized by minimal or absent production of insulin by the pancreas. |
| C29888 | "A contagious viral infection caused by the mumps virus. Symptoms include swollen and tender parotid glands, fever, muscle aches and fatigue. Due to vaccination programs, mumps has become a rare disease." |
| C2989 | "A congenital anomaly characterized by immunodeficiency, abnormal facies, congenital heart disease, hypocalcemia, and increased susceptibility to infections. Pathologic characteristics include conotruncal abnormalities and absence or hypoplasia of thymus and parathyroid glands. DiGeorge syndrome is associated with abnormalities of chromosome 22. Also known as DiGeorge anomaly." |
| C2990 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the gastrointestinal tract, anus, liver, biliary system, and pancreas." |
| C2992 | "A pathological process where the blood starts to coagulate throughout the whole body. This depletes the body of its platelets and coagulation factors, and there is an increased risk of hemorrhage." |
| C2993 | "A chromosomal dysgenesis syndrome resulting from a triplication or translocation of chromosome 21. Down syndrome occurs in approximately 1:700 live births. Abnormalities are variable from individual to individual and may include mental retardation, retarded growth, flat hypoplastic face with short nose, prominent epicanthic skin folds, small low-set ears with prominent antihelix, fissured and thickened tongue, laxness of joint ligaments, pelvic dysplasia, broad hands and feet, stubby finger... |
| C2994 | "A disorder of the gastrointestinal tract. It is typically caused by the rapid emptying of undigested food from the stomach to the small intestine following gastroesophageal surgery but may be seen secondary to diabetes or the use of certain medications. Clinical signs may be seen 30-60 minutes after eating (early dumping): cramping, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea or they may be seen 1-3 hours later as a result of hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia (late dumping): sweating, dizziness, confusion an... |
| C2995 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the wall of the duodenum.  Representative examples include adenoma, carcinoma, and lymphoma." |
| C3000 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the external, middle, or internal ear.  Representative examples include ceruminous adenoma, polyp, and carcinoma." |
| C3001 | "A form of dermatitis characterized by red, itchy, scaly, or crusty patches that can be chronic or intermittent." |
| C3007 | "A common benign hyaline cartilage neoplasm arising in the intramedullary bone.  It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, low mitotic activity, and in some cases, a nodular pattern and calcification. The small bones of the hands and feet are the most frequently affected sites." |
| C3008 | "A rare benign disorder characterized by lack of normal endochondral ossification, and the growth of multiple enchondromas.  It primarily affects the bones of the hand, in children and young adults.  Extent of the disease varies; in some cases, neoplastic involvement may be widespread causing considerable deformity." |
| C3009 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the endocrine system. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include diabetes mellitus, hyperthyroidism, and adrenal gland insufficiency. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include carcinoid tumor, neuroendocrine carcinoma, and pheochromocytoma." |
| C3010 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from the epithelial cells of an endocrine organ. Representative examples include pituitary gland adenoma, pituitary gland carcinoma, thyroid gland carcinoma, carcinoid tumor, and neuroendocrine carcinoma." |
| C3011 | "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor composed of primitive germ cells.  It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in the pediatric population. It occurs in the infant testis, ovary, sacrococcygeal region, vagina, uterus, prostate, abdomen, liver, retroperitoneum, thorax, and pineal/third ventricle. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Treatment includes: surgical resection, radiation, and chemotherapy. This tumor is very responsive ... |
| C3012 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm that affects the endometrium." |
| C3013 | "A proliferation of the endometrial cells resulting in glandular enlargement and budding. The proliferation may or may not be associated with atypia of the endometrial cells. When the hyperplastic changes are excessive, there is formation of complex epithelial structures (complex endometrial hyperplasia)." |
| C3014 | The growth of functional endometrial tissue in anatomic sites outside the uterine body. It most often occurs in the pelvic organs. |
| C3016 | "A clinical variant of Langerhans cell histiocytosis characterized by unifocal involvement of a bone (most often), skin, or lung.  Patients are usually older children or adults usually presenting with a lytic bone lesion.  The etiology is unknown.  Morphologically, eosinophilic granuloma is characterized by the presence of Langerhans cells in a characteristic milieu which includes histiocytes, eosinophils, neutrophils, and small, mature lymphocytes." |
| C3017 | "A WHO grade 2, slow growing tumor of children and young adults, usually located intraventricularly. It is the most common ependymal neoplasm. It often causes clinical symptoms by blocking cerebrospinal fluid pathways. Key histological features include perivascular pseudorosettes and ependymal rosettes. (WHO)" |
| C3019 | A primary or metastatic neoplasm that involves the space between the vertebral periosteum and dura mater that surrounds the spinal cord. |
| C3020 | "A brain disorder characterized by episodes of abnormally increased neuronal discharge resulting in transient episodes of sensory or motor neurological dysfunction, or psychic dysfunction. These episodes may or may not be associated with loss of consciousness or convulsions." |
| C3021 | A chronic condition characterized by recurrent generalized seizures. |
| C3022 | Epilepsy characterized by generalized tonic-clonic seizures. |
| C3023 | "Epilepsy characterized by very brief episodes of sudden cessation of activity, usually associated with eye blinking. There is no loss of the muscle tone." |
| C3024 | "A hypersensitivity reaction characterized by the sudden appearance of symmetrical cutaneous and mucocutaneous macular or papular lesions which evolve into lesions with bright red borders (target lesions). The lesions usually appear in the hands, feet, extremities, and face. Symptoms include fever, malaise, sore throat, cough, vomiting, diarrhea, arthralgia, and myalgia. Causes include infections (most commonly herpes simplex virus), drugs (e.g., sulfonamides, anticonvulsants, and antibiotic... |
| C3025 | "A clinical term that refers to the presence of a red flat and well defined lesion on the oral mucosa that is not caused by trauma, vascular, or inflammatory processes.  It is a precancerous condition and is seen more commonly in middle aged or older males.  It is associated with tobacco and alcohol consumption.  Microscopic examination reveals severe epithelial dysplasia, carcinoma in situ, or invasive squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C3027 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the esophagus. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include esophagitis and esophageal ulcer. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include carcinomas, lymphomas, and melanomas." |
| C3028 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving the esophagus. |
| C3029 | Non-neoplastic overgrowth of bone. |
| C3030 | A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the structures of the eye. |
| C3031 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the eyelid.  Representative examples include hemangioma, nevus, and carcinoma." |
| C3032 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the fallopian tube. Representative examples of benign neoplasms include papilloma, adenofibroma, and leiomyoma. Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, carcinosarcoma, and adenosarcoma." |
| C3034 | "A genetic or acquired disorder characterized by impairment of the function of the proximal tubules of the kidney. It results in decreased reabsorption of electrolytes, glucose, amino acids, and other nutrients." |
| C3037 | "A syndrome of unknown etiology. Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a clinical diagnosis characterized by an unexplained persistent or relapsing chronic fatigue that is of at least six months' duration, is not the result of ongoing exertion, is not substantially alleviated by rest, and results in substantial reduction of previous levels of occupational, educational, social, or personal activities. Common concurrent symptoms of at least six months duration include impairment of memory or conce... |
| C3039 | Fibrosis associated with cyst formation in the breast parenchyma. |
| C3040 | A condition in which there is progressive heterotopic bone formation of the tendons and muscles. |
| C3041 | A non-metastasizing neoplasm arising from the fibrous tissue. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts. |
| C3042 | A poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and an infiltrative growth pattern. |
| C3043 | A malignant mesenchymal fibroblastic neoplasm affecting the soft tissue and bone. |
| C3045 | Abnormal epithelial-lined communication between two anatomical structures. |
| C3048 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the gallbladder. Representative examples of benign neoplasms include lipoma, leiomyoma, and neurofibroma. Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C3049 | "A benign neuroblastic tumor of the sympathetic nervous system that occurs in childhood. Ganglioneuroma typically arises from the sympathetic trunk in the mediastinum. Histologic features include spindle cell proliferation (resembling a neurofibroma) and the presence of large ganglion cells. Common presenting features include a palpable abdominal mass, hepatomegaly, and a thoracic mass detected on routine chest X-ray." |
| C3050 | "A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor. It is usually located in the pancreas but it is also found at other anatomic sites, including the stomach and small intestine." |
| C3052 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving any part of the digestive system. |
| C3053 | "A benign, precancerous, or malignant neoplasm that affects the female reproductive system. Representative examples include uterine corpus leiomyoma, endocervical polyp, ovarian carcinoma, cervical carcinoma, and endometrial carcinoma." |
| C3054 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm that affects the male reproductive system.  Representative examples include benign prostate phyllodes tumor, benign testicular Sertoli cell tumor, prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia, prostate carcinoma, testicular seminoma, and testicular embryonal carcinoma." |
| C3055 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant tumor that arises from the bone or soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells." |
| C3056 | "A disorder characterized by lymphoid hyperplasia in the lymph nodes. There are two histologic variants recognized: the hyaline-vascular type and the plasma cell type. In the hyaline vascular type there are hyalinized vessels present in the lymphoid follicles. In the plasma cell type there is pronounced plasma cell proliferation. Clinically, the disease may be localized; manifested with localized lymphadenopathy, or multicentric; manifested with generalized lymphadenopathy, fever, organomega... |
| C3057 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the upper or lower gingiva. |
| C3058 | "The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade 4).  It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation, and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C3059 | "A benign or malignant brain and spinal cord tumor that arises from glial cells (astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells). Tumors that arise from astrocytes are called astrocytic tumors or astrocytomas. Tumors that arise from oligodendrocytes are called oligodendroglial tumors. Tumors that arise from ependymal cells are called ependymomas." |
| C3060 | A rare benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from cells that resemble the modified smooth muscle cells of the glomus body. The majority of glomus tumors occur in the distal extremities. |
| C3061 | An extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia in the base of the skull and middle ear. |
| C3062 | "A usually malignant, glucagon-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the pancreatic alpha cells.  It may or may not be associated with inappropriate secretion of glucagon and an associated clinical syndrome." |
| C3063 | "A reaction, which may be fatal, in an immunocompromised subject (host) who has received an antigenically incompatible tissue transplant (graft) from an immunocompetent donor. The reaction is secondary to the activation of the transplanted cells against those host tissues that express an antigen not expressed by the donor, and is seen most commonly following bone marrow transplantation; acute disease is seen after 5-40 days, and chronic disease occurs weeks to months after transplantation." |
| C3065 | "A condition resulting from infection by Klebsiella granulomati, which is characterized by ulcerative lesions of the genitalia." |
| C3070 | A slow-growing sex cord-stromal tumor characterized by the presence of granulosa-like cells and Call-Exner bodies. It is almost always found in the ovary and rarely in the testis. There are two types of granulosa cell tumors: the adult and the juvenile. |
| C3071 | "Hyperthyroidism associated with diffuse hyperplasia of the thyroid gland (goiter), resulting from production of antibodies that are directed against the thyrotropin receptor complex of the follicular epithelial cells. As a result, the thyroid gland enlarges and secretes increased amounts of thyroid hormones." |
| C3072 | "A rare neoplasm arising from the ovary. Although it may occur at any age, it is more often seen in young females. Morphologically, it is characterized by a mixture of two cellular populations: well differentiated Sertoli cells and granulosa cells, with the latter constituting at least ten percent of the neoplasm. The vast majority of cases are stage I lesions at presentation and produce either estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. Although it may present as a massive ovarian tumor, it us... |
| C3073 | A non-neoplastic focal or diffuse proliferation of glandular tissue of breast in males. |
| C3074 | A usually benign congenital skin growth that is often pigmented and sometimes develop coarse surface hair. There is a lifetime risk of transformation to malignant melanoma which varies depending on the size of the lesion. |
| C3075 | A benign and excessive tumor-like growth of mature cells and normal tissues which grow in a disorganized pattern. |
| C3076 | "An autosomal dominant hereditary syndrome characterized by a variety of hamartomas and neoplasms including verrucous skin lesions, fibromas of the oral cavity, facial trichilemmomas, hamartomatous colonic polyps, thyroid neoplasms, breast cancer, and dysplastic gangliocytomas of the cerebellum." |
| C3077 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the anatomic structures of the head and neck region.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include salivary gland pleomorphic adenoma and nasal cavity papilloma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma, laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma, and salivary gland carcinoma." |
| C3078 | A disorder characterized by the partial or complete loss of the ability to detect sounds due to damage to the ear structures or inability of the brain to properly interpret or process the auditory signals it receives from the anatomic structures of the ear. |
| C3079 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the heart and/or the pericardium. Representative examples include endocarditis, pericarditis, atrial myxoma, cardiac myeloid sarcoma, and pericardial malignant mesothelioma." |
| C3080 | "Failure of the heart to pump a sufficient amount of blood to meet the needs of the body tissues, resulting in tissue congestion and edema. Signs and symptoms include shortness of breath, pitting edema, enlarged tender liver, engorged neck veins, and pulmonary rales." |
| C3081 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the heart and/or the pericardium. Representative examples include atrial myxoma, cardiac myeloid sarcoma, and pericardial malignant mesothelioma." |
| C3082 | A group of rare clonal disorders of immunoglobulin synthesis associated with B-cell proliferative disorders. |
| C3083 | "A clonal disorder characterized by the secretion of a truncated gamma chain.  In most cases, it is associated with morphologic changes also seen in lymphoplasmacytic lymphomas, but the clinical course is typically more aggressive than in lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma." |
| C3084 | A vascular proliferation characterized by the presence of prominent endothelial cells and the formation of vascular channels. Hemangioendotheliomas may display borderline or low grade characteristics. |
| C3085 | A benign vascular lesion characterized by the formation of capillary-sized or cavernous vascular channels. |
| C3086 | A hemangioma characterized by the presence of cavernous vascular spaces. |
| C3087 | An antiquated term that refers to benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasms characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle-shaped to round cells arranged around thin-walled branching vascular spaces. |
| C3088 | "A malignant tumor arising from the endothelial cells of the blood vessels.  Microscopically, it is characterized by frequently open vascular anastomosing and branching channels.  The malignant cells that line the vascular channels are spindle or epithelioid and often display hyperchromatic nuclei.  Angiosarcomas most frequently occur in the skin and breast.  Patients with long-standing lymphedema are at increased risk of developing angiosarcoma." |
| C3092 | An inherited disorder characterized by structural alterations of a globin chain within the hemoglobin molecule. |
| C3093 | "A deficiency or abnormality of a blood coagulation factor characterized by the tendency to hemorrhage. Hemophilia is typically a hereditary disorder but, rarely, may be acquired. Inherited coagulation factor-deficient hemophilias include hemophilia A or classic hemophilia (hereditary factor VIII deficiency) hemophilia B or Christmas disease (hereditary factor IX deficiency), and hemophilia C (hereditary factor XI deficiency). Factor VIII inhibitors may occur spontaneously as autoantibodies,... |
| C3095 | "Inflammation of the liver; usually from a viral infection, but sometimes from toxic agents." |
| C3096 | "Acute inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis A virus. It is highly contagious and usually contracted through close contact with an infected individual or their feces, contaminated food or water." |
| C3097 | A viral infection caused by the hepatitis B virus. |
| C3098 | A viral infection caused by the hepatitis C virus. |
| C3099 | "A malignant tumor that arises from hepatocytes. Hepatocellular carcinoma is relatively rare in the United States but very common in all African countries south of the Sahara and in Southeast Asia. Most cases are seen in patients over the age of 50 years, but this tumor can also occur in younger individuals and even in children. Hepatocellular carcinoma is more common in males than females and is associated with hepatitis B, hepatitis C, chronic alcohol abuse and cirrhosis. Serum elevation o... |
| C3101 | "Genetic diseases are diseases in which inherited genes predispose to increased risk. The genetic disorders associated with cancer often result from an alteration or mutation in a single gene. The diseases range from rare dominant cancer family syndrome to familial tendencies in which low-penetrance genes may interact with other genes or environmental factors to induce cancer. Research may involve clinical, epidemiologic, and laboratory studies of persons, families, and populations at high r... |
| C3105 | "An inherited familial cancer syndrome which is characterized by development of capillary hemangioblastomas of the central nervous system and retina; clear cell renal carcinoma; pheochromocytoma; pancreatic tumors; and inner ear tumors. The syndrome is associated with germline mutations of the VHL tumor suppressor gene, located on chromosome 3p25-26. Symptoms of VHL syndrome may not be apparent until the third decade of life. CNS hemangioblastoma is the most common cause of death, followed b... |
| C3107 | "A neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells which contain Birbeck granules by ultrastructural examination. Three major overlapping syndromes are recognized: eosinophilic granuloma, Letterer-Siwe disease, and Hand-Schuller-Christian disease. The clinical course is generally related to the number of organs affected at presentation. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3108 | An infection caused by the human immunodeficiency virus. |
| C3110 | "A gestational trophoblastic disorder characterized by marked enlargement of the chorionic villi, hyperplasia of the villous trophoblastic cells and hydropic changes." |
| C3111 | A disorder characterized by an abnormal increase of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain. |
| C3113 | An abnormal increase in the number of cells in an organ or a tissue with consequent enlargement. |
| C3114 | "An immune response that occurs following exposure to an innocuous antigen, but that does not require the presence of preformed antibodies to the antigen." |
| C3115 | "Delayed hypersensitivity reaction (DTH) - type IV reaction, an inflammatory response that develops 24 to 72 hours after exposure to an antigen that the immune system recognizes as foreign. DTH is mediated by T cells rather than by antibodies. Th1 cells produce interferon gamma, interleukin (IL)-2, and tumor necrosis factor-beta and promote a cell-mediated immune response." |
| C3116 | "Immediate hypersensitivity reaction - type I reaction, involves immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated release of chemical mediators from mast cells and basophils. Th2 cells produce IL-4 and IL-13, which then act on B cells to promote the production of antigen-specific IgE. Reexposure to the antigen can then result in the antigen binding to and cross-linking the bound IgE antibodies on the mast cells and basophils. This causes the release of preformed mediators (histamine, tryptase, tryptase, chem... |
| C3122 | "A severe, acute increase in blood pressure that may result in stroke or myocardial ischemia." |
| C3123 | "Overactivity of the thyroid gland resulting in overproduction of thyroid hormone and increased metabolic rate. Causes include diffuse hyperplasia of the thyroid gland (Graves' disease), single nodule in the thyroid gland, and thyroiditis. The symptoms are related to the increased metabolic rate and include weight loss, fatigue, heat intolerance, excessive sweating, diarrhea, tachycardia, insomnia, muscle weakness, and tremor." |
| C3125 | "Excessive enlargement of one or both breasts.  Causes include pregnancy, obesity, and penicillamine therapy.  It may result in neck, back, and shoulder pain." |
| C3127 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the hypopharynx. |
| C3129 | A primary or metastatic neoplasm that affects the hypothalamus. |
| C3130 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the wall of the ileum.  Representative examples include adenoma, carcinoma, and lymphoma." |
| C3131 | "Syndromes in which there is a deficiency or defect in the mechanisms of immunity, either cellular or humoral." |
| C3132 | "A clonal disorder, also known as immunoproliferative small intestinal disease or Mediterranean lymphoma, characterized by the secretion of a defective alpha heavy chain. It predominantly affects young people in the Mediterranean region. It involves the small intestine, and patients usually present with malabsorption syndrome, abdominal pain, weight loss, and fever. There is extensive villous atrophy of the small intestinal mucosa, which is heavily infiltrated by small lymphocytes and plasma... |
| C3133 | A disorder characterized by the persistent or recurrent inability to achieve or to maintain an erection during sexual activity. |
| C3138 | "A spectrum of small and large bowel inflammatory diseases of unknown etiology. It includes Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, and colitis of indeterminate type." |
| C3139 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that occurs in brain parenchymal tissue below the tentorium cerebelli. |
| C3140 | An insulin-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the beta cells of the pancreas.  It may or may not be associated with inappropriate secretion of insulin and an associated clinical syndrome. |
| C3141 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving the small or large intestine. |
| C3142 | A neoplasm that affects the iris.  This category includes nevus and melanoma. |
| C3144 | "A condition that is characterized by elevated serum IgE, dermatitis, and respiratory infections." |
| C3145 | "An irregularly shaped, elevated mark on the skin caused by deposits of excessive amounts of collagen during wound healing. It extends beyond the original boundaries of the wound and may enlarge progressively." |
| C3146 | "A dome-shaped, rapidly growing skin neoplasm composed of well differentiated squamous cells. It usually occurs on sun-exposed areas of the body, most often the head, neck, and limbs. It is considered a variant of well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma with distinct clinical behavior. Keratoacanthomas affect males more frequently than females and the majority tend to regress spontaneously." |
| C3147 | "An inherited disorder characterized by the development of keratotic lesions on the palms and soles. It appears in childhood as redness on the palms and soles which progresses to well demarcated, thickened, yellowish and waxy lesions." |
| C3148 | "A precancerous lesion of the skin composed of atypical keratinocytes. It is characterized by the presence of thick, scaly patches of skin. Several histologic variants have been described, including atrophic, acantholytic, hypertrophic, proliferative, lichenoid, bowenoid, and pigmented variants." |
| C3149 | "A neoplastic or non-neoplastic condition affecting the kidney. Representative examples of non-neoplastic conditions include glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome. Representative examples of neoplastic conditions include benign processes (e.g., renal lipoma and renal fibroma) and malignant processes (e.g., renal cell carcinoma and renal lymphoma)." |
| C3150 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the kidney. Representative examples of benign renal neoplasms include fibroma, lipoma, oncocytoma, and juxtaglomerular cell tumor. Representative examples of malignant renal neoplasms include renal cell carcinoma, renal pelvis carcinoma, Wilms tumor, rhabdoid tumor, sarcoma, and lymphoma." |
| C3151 | "A precancerous condition characterized by the presence of abnormal whitish areas on the glans or prepuce of the penis. Risk factors include chronic irritation, inflammation, and infection of the penis, and poor genital hygiene." |
| C3152 | The presence of hyperkeratotic white patches on the vulvar epithelium. |
| C3153 | Metastatic signet-ring cell carcinoma in the ovary. The primary site is the gastrointestinal tract or breast. |
| C3154 | "Inability to fully digest and absorb lactose due to limited or no lactase activity in the small intestine.  Congenital intolerance is inherited following an autosomal recessive pattern but is rare. It is more often due to a gradual decline of lactase production in adulthood following the ingestion of fewer lactose-containing foods or secondary to an intestinal mucosal brush-border injury. Prevalence is highest among Asians, Native Americans and Africans. Clinical signs include abdominal cra... |
| C3155 | "A rare autoimmune presynaptic disorder characterized by impairment of the impulse transmission at the neuromuscular junction. It affects predominantly the proximal muscles of the lower extremities, resulting in muscle weakness and fatigability. It has been associated with small cell lung carcinoma." |
| C3156 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving the larynx. |
| C3157 | "A well-circumscribed benign smooth muscle neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C3158 | "An uncommon, aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, usually occurring in post-menopausal women.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells.  Morphologic variants include epithelioid, granular cell, inflammatory and myxoid leimyosarcomas." |
| C3159 | "A flat, benign, pigmented spot on the skin caused by excessive deposition of melanin from an increased number of melanocytes in the cell layer directly above the basement membrane of the epidermis. Formation is usually related to sun exposure during youth, and the lesions do not typically progress to malignancy." |
| C3160 | "A multifocal, multisystem form of Langerhans-cell histiocytosis. There is involvement of multiple organ systems including the bones, skin, liver, spleen, and lymph nodes. Patients are usually infants presenting with fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, bone and skin lesions, and pancytopenia." |
| C3161 | "A malignant (clonal) hematologic disorder, involving hematopoietic stem cells and characterized by the presence of primitive or atypical myeloid or lymphoid cells in the bone marrow and the blood. Leukemias are classified as acute or chronic based on the degree of cellular differentiation and the predominant cell type present. Leukemia is usually associated with anemia, fever, hemorrhagic episodes, and splenomegaly. Common leukemias include acute myeloid leukemia, chronic myelogenous leukem... |
| C3162 |  |
| C3163 | "The most common type of chronic lymphoid leukemia.  It comprises 90% of chronic lymphoid leukemias in the United States.  Morphologically, the neoplastic cells are small, round B-lymphocytes.  This type of leukemia is not considered to be curable with available therapy. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3164 | A rare acute myeloid leukemia in which the immature cells differentiate towards basophils. |
| C3165 | Acute lymphoblastic leukemia which is positive for the common acute lymphoblastic leukemia antigen. |
| C3167 | "Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia." |
| C3168 | An acute lymphoblastic leukemia occurring during childhood.  The majority of cases are B-acute lymphoblastic leukemias. Approximately 15% of the cases are T-acute lymphoblastic leukemias. |
| C3169 | "A variant of systemic mastocytosis with involvement of the bone marrow (20% or more mast cells) and the peripheral blood (mast cells account for 10% or more of peripheral blood white cells). (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3170 | "An acute myeloid leukemia in which at least 50% of the blasts are of megakaryocytic lineage. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3171 | "A clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in the bone marrow, blood or other tissues. The classification of acute myeloid leukemias (AMLs) encompasses four major categories: 1) AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities; 2) AML with multilineage dysplasia; 3) Therapy-related AML; 4) AML not otherwise specified. The required bone marrow or peripheral blood blast percentage for the diagnosis of AML is 20% (WHO classification)." |
| C3172 | "A clonal proliferation of myeloid cells and their precursors in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and spleen. When the proliferating cells are immature myeloid cells and myeloblasts, it is called acute myeloid leukemia. When the proliferating myeloid cells are neutrophils, it is called chronic myelogenous leukemia." |
| C3173 | "A phase of chronic myeloid leukemia characterized by one or more of the following: 1) Myeloblasts accounting for 10-19% of the peripheral blood white cells or of the nucleated cells in the bone marrow, 2) peripheral blood basophils at least 20%, 3) persistent thrombocytopenia that is unrelated to therapy, 4) persistent thrombocytosis despite adequate therapy, 5) increasing white blood cell count and increasing spleen size unresponsive to therapy, and/or evidence of clonal evolution. (WHO, 2... |
| C3174 | "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the expression of the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene. It presents with neutrophilic leukocytosis. It can appear at any age, but it mostly affects middle aged and older individuals. Patients usually present with fatigue, weight loss, anemia, night sweats, and splenomegaly. If untreated, it follows a biphasic or triphasic natural course; an initial indolent chronic phase which is followed by an accelerated phase, a blast phase, or both. Allogeneic ... |
| C3175 | "A phase of chronic myeloid leukemia, BCR-ABL1 positive in which the peripheral blood smear shows leukocytosis with neutrophils in different stages of maturation, less than 2% blasts, and normal or increased platelet count. Most patients have mild anemia. The bone marrow is hypercellular due to increased numbers of neutrophils and their precursors, and blasts usually account for fewer than 5% of the marrow cells. Megakaryocytes are smaller than normal and have hypolobated nuclei. The spleen ... |
| C3176 | Myeloid leukemia characterized by the absence of Philadelphia chromosome. |
| C3177 | Myeloid leukemia characterized by the presence of Philadelphia chromosome. |
| C3178 | "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm which is characterized by persistent monocytosis, absence of a Philadelphia chromosome and BCR/ABL fusion gene, fewer than 20 percent blasts in the bone marrow and blood, myelodysplasia, and absence of PDGFRA or PDGFRB rearrangement." |
| C3179 | A rare chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by neutrophilic leukocytosis.  There is no detectable Philadelphia chromosome or BCR/ABL fusion gene. |
| C3180 | An aggressive plasma cell neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic plasma cells in the peripheral blood. It is characterized by the presence of a circulating clonal plasma cell count that exceeds 2x10^9/L or is 20% of the leukocyte differential count. |
| C3181 | "A mature B- or T- cell leukemia with progressive clinical course. It is characterized by the presence of medium-sized lymphocytes with visible nucleoli (prolymphocytes) in the peripheral blood, bone marrow, and spleen." |
| C3182 | An acute promyelocytic leukemia characterized by the reciprocal balanced translocation t(15;17)(q24.1;q21.2) that results in the fusion of the promyelocytic leukemia (PML) gene and retinoic acid receptor-α (RARA) gene. The t(15;17)(q24.1;q21.2) with the resulting PML-RARA fusion gene occurs in over 95% of cases of acute promyelocytic leukemia. The remainder of the cases show variant RARA gene translocations with other genes. |
| C3183 | "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia of T-cell origin.  It comprises about 15% of childhood cases and 25% of adult cases.  It is more common in males than females.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3184 | "A peripheral (mature) T-cell neoplasm linked to the human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1).  Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma is endemic in several regions of the world, in particular Japan, the Caribbean, and parts of Central Africa." |
| C3186 | "A white patch or plaque on a mucous membrane that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease. The diagnosis of leukoplakia is one of exclusion; other conditions such as candidiasis, lichen planus, leukoedema, etc., must be ruled out before a diagnosis of leukoplakia can be made. Leukoplakia may be a premalignant condition." |
| C3187 | "A white patch or plaque on the oral mucosa that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease. The diagnosis of leukoplakia is one of exclusion; other conditions such as candidiasis, lichen planus, leukoedema, etc., must be ruled out before a diagnosis of leukoplakia can be made. Leukoplakia may be a premalignant condition." |
| C3188 | A sex cord-stromal tumor occurring in the testis and rarely in the ovary. It is predominantly or completely composed of Leydig cells which may contain crystals of Reinke. In males it usually presents as a painless testicular enlargement and it may be associated with gynecomastia and decreased libido. The majority of the cases have a benign clinical course. Approximately 10% of the cases have a malignant clinical course and metastasize. In females it may be associated with androgenic manifesta... |
| C3189 | "A chronic, recurrent, pruritic inflammatory disorder of unknown etiology that affects the skin and mucus membranes. It presents with rashes and papules that tend to resolve spontaneously. It may be associated with hepatitis C. Certain drugs that contain arsenic or bismuth are associated with reactions mimicking lichen planus." |
| C3191 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving the lip. |
| C3192 | "A benign, usually painless, well-circumscribed lipomatous tumor composed of adipose tissue." |
| C3193 | A neoplastic process characterized by diffuse overgrowth of mature adipose tissue. |
| C3194 | "A usually painless malignant tumor that arises from adipose tissue.  Microscopically, it may contain a spectrum of neoplastic adipocytes ranging from lipoblasts to pleomorphic malignant adipocytes.  Morphologic variants include: well differentiated, dedifferentiated, pleomorphic, and myxoid liposarcoma.  The metastatic potential is higher in less differentiated tumors." |
| C3196 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the liver parenchyma and intrahepatic bile ducts. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include hepatitis, cirrhosis, cholangitis, and polycystic liver disease. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include hepatocellular adenoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, lymphoma, and angiosarcoma." |
| C3198 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the lung. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and pneumonia. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include benign processes (e.g., respiratory papilloma) and malignant processes (e.g., lung carcinoma and metastatic cancer to the lung)." |
| C3199 | "A chronic and progressive lung disorder characterized by the loss of elasticity of the bronchial tree and the air sacs, destruction of the air sacs wall, thickening of the bronchial wall, and mucous accumulation in the bronchial tree. The pathologic changes result in the disruption of the air flow in the bronchial airways. Signs and symptoms include shortness of breath, wheezing, productive cough, and chest tightness. The two main types of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are chronic o... |
| C3200 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm involving the lungs.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include adenoma, papilloma, chondroma, and endobronchial lipoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, carcinoid tumor, sarcoma, and lymphoma." |
| C3201 | An autoimmune multi-organ disease typically associated with vasculopathy and autoantibody production. Most patients have antinuclear antibodies (ANA). The presence of anti-dsDNA or anti-Smith antibodies are highly-specific. |
| C3202 | A benign ovarian stromal tumor in which more than 90% of the tumor cells resemble steroid hormone-secreting cells. Crystals of Reinke are not present. It occurs in post-menopausal women and it is usually associated with estrogenic effects. |
| C3203 | A lymphangioma characterized by the presence of collagen bundle formation.  It has an indolent clinical course and may be associated with skin plaques. |
| C3204 | "A neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation, often associated with tuberous sclerosis. It is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle and epithelioid cells and by the proliferation of lymphatic vessels. Sites of involvement include the lymph nodes, lung, mediastinum, and retroperitoneum." |
| C3205 | A malignant neoplasm arising from the endothelial cells of the lymphatic vessels. |
| C3207 | "Excess fluid collection in tissues, causing swelling. It is the result of obstruction of lymphatic vessels or lymph nodes." |
| C3208 | "A malignant (clonal) proliferation of B- lymphocytes or T- lymphocytes which involves the lymph nodes, bone marrow and/or extranodal sites. This category includes Non-Hodgkin lymphomas and Hodgkin lymphomas." |
| C3209 | "A neoplasm of follicle centre B cells which has at least a partial follicular pattern.  Follicular lymphomas comprise about 35% of adult non-Hodgkin lymphomas in the U.S. and 22% worldwide.  Most patients have widespread disease at diagnosis.  Morphologically, follicular lymphomas are classified as Grade 1, Grade 2, and Grade 3, depending on the percentage of the large lymphocytes present.  The vast majority of cases (70-95%) express the BCL-2 rearrangement [t(14;18)].  Histological grade c... |
| C3210 | An antiquated term that refers to a lymphoma composed of a mixture of small and large lymphocytes. |
| C3211 | "Distinct from Hodgkin lymphoma both morphologically and biologically, non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) is characterized by the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells, can occur at any age, and usually presents as a localized or generalized lymphadenopathy associated with fever and weight loss. The clinical course varies according to the morphologic type. NHL is clinically classified as indolent, aggressive, or having a variable clinical course. NHL can be of B-or T-/NK-cell lineage." |
| C3212 | "A clonal neoplasm of small B-lymphocytes, lymphoplasmacytoid cells, and plasma cells involving the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and the spleen. The majority of patients have a serum IgM paraprotein." |
| C3213 | A rare non-inherited disorder primarily affecting the skin and skeletal system. It is classified as a mesodermal dysplasia. Clinical signs appear within the first decade and are characterized by multiple soft tissue hemiangiomas and enchondromas leading to skeletal deformities. Clinical course is progressive with variable development of associated malignancies. |
| C3214 | "A syndrome resulting from the inadequate absorption of nutrients in the small intestine. Symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea." |
| C3215 | "A syndrome characterized by signs and symptoms caused by advanced carcinoid tumors. They include skin flushing, diarrhea, wheezing, and tachycardia." |
| C3216 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the retina. |
| C3217 | A usually localized tumor that arises from the skin and is composed of sheets of mast cells without atypia. |
| C3218 | "A rare and most severe variant of cutaneous mastocytosis characterized by generalized skin thickening, erythroderma, dermatographia, and a positive Darier's sign." |
| C3219 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the maxillary sinus.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include Schneiderian papilloma and salivary gland-type adenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma and lymphoma. |
| C3221 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the structures of the mediastinum.  Representative examples include mediastinal lipoma, mediastinal schwannoma, thymoma, mediastinal germ cell tumor, and mediastinal lymphoma." |
| C3222 | "A malignant, invasive embryonal neoplasm arising from the cerebellum or posterior fossa. It occurs predominantly in children and has the tendency to metastasize via the cerebrospinal fluid pathways. Signs and symptoms include truncal ataxia, disturbed gait, lethargy, headache, and vomiting. There are four histologic variants: classic medulloblastoma, large cell/anaplastic medulloblastoma, desmoplastic/nodular medulloblastoma, and medulloblastoma with extensive nodularity." |
| C3223 | "A rare syndrome affecting females. It is characterized by pleural effusion, ascites and non-malignant ovarian neoplasm. This syndrome usually follows a benign course. Prognosis is favorable following surgical resection of the ovarian mass." |
| C3224 | "A malignant, usually aggressive tumor composed of atypical, neoplastic melanocytes. Most often, melanomas arise in the skin (cutaneous melanomas) and include the following histologic subtypes: superficial spreading melanoma, nodular melanoma, acral lentiginous melanoma, and lentigo maligna melanoma. Cutaneous melanomas may arise from acquired or congenital melanocytic or dysplastic nevi. Melanomas may also arise in other anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal system, eye, urinary tra... |
| C3225 | "Multiple endocrine neoplasia caused by inactivation of the tumor suppressor gene MEN-1. Patients may develop hyperparathyroidism and parathyroid gland adenomas, pituitary gland adenomas, and neuroendocrine tumors." |
| C3226 | "Multiple endocrine neoplasia caused by mutation of the RET gene. Patients develop medullary thyroid carcinomas, and may also develop pheochromocytomas and parathyroid gland hyperplasia." |
| C3227 | Multiple endocrine neoplasia caused by mutation of the RET gene. Patients develop medullary thyroid carcinomas and numerous neural defects including neuromas. |
| C3229 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the meninges.  The majority of the neoplasms arise from meningothelial cells and are called meningiomas.  Non-meningothelial cell neoplasms include mesenchymal, non-meningothelial tumors, hemangiopericytomas, and melanocytic lesions." |
| C3230 | "A generally slow growing tumor attached to the dura mater. It is composed of neoplastic meningothelial (arachnoidal) cells. It typically occurs in adults, often women and it has a wide range of histopathological appearances. Of the various subtypes, meningothelial, fibrous and transitional meningiomas are the most common. Most meningiomas are WHO grade 1 tumors, and some are WHO grade 2 or 3 tumors. Most subtypes share a common clinical behavior, although some subtypes are more likely to re... |
| C3233 | "A term describing a soft tissue tumor which consists of two or more mesenchymal lines of differentiation, excluding a fibroblastic line of differentiation." |
| C3235 | A congenital (due to inherited enzyme abnormality) or acquired (due to failure of a metabolic important organ) disorder resulting from an abnormal metabolic process. |
| C3240 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the oral cavity or the lips.  Representative examples include inflammatory disorders, precancerous conditions, and carcinomas." |
| C3242 | "A bone marrow-based plasma cell neoplasm characterized by a serum monoclonal protein and skeletal destruction with osteolytic lesions, pathological fractures, bone pain, hypercalcemia, and anemia.  Clinical variants include non-secretory myeloma, smoldering myeloma, indolent myeloma, and plasma cell leukemia. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3243 | A progressive autoimmune disorder affecting the central nervous system resulting in demyelination. Patients develop physical and cognitive impairments that correspond with the affected nerve fibers. |
| C3245 | An infection caused by a fungus. |
| C3246 | "A peripheral (mature) T-cell lymphoma presenting in the skin with patches/plaques. It is characterized by epidermal and dermal infiltration of small to medium-sized T-cells with cerebriform nuclei.  Patients with limited disease generally have an excellent prognosis.  In the more advanced stages, the prognosis is poor. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3247 | "A clonal hematopoietic disorder characterized by dysplasia and ineffective hematopoiesis in one or more of the hematopoietic cell lines. The dysplasia may be accompanied by an increase in myeloblasts, but the number is less than 20%, which, according to the WHO guidelines, is the requisite threshold for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia. It may occur de novo or as a result of exposure to alkylating agents and/or radiotherapy. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3248 | "A partial or complete replacement of the bone marrow stroma by fibrous tissue.  It can be a primary bone marrow lesion as part of the chronic myeloproliferative disorders (chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis), a manifestation of acute myeloid leukemia (acute panmyelosis with myelofibrosis), or a secondary phenomenon due to bone marrow involvement by a metastatic tumor (e.g., metastatic breast carcinoma). --2003" |
| C3249 | "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) characterized by blasts without evidence of maturation to more mature neutrophils. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3250 | "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) characterized by blasts with evidence of maturation to more mature neutrophils. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3252 | "A granular cell tumor characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3253 | "A self-limited benign neoplasm characterized by a zonal architecture. It is composed of spindle cells oriented randomly or in short intersecting fascicles. Peripherally, the spindle cells merge with osteoblasts that rim and populate ill-defined trabeculae and sheets of unmineralized woven bone, which is surrounded by well-formed trabecular and cortical-type bone that remodels into lamellar bone. Treatment is usually simple excision. Prognosis is excellent; recurrence is uncommon. (WHO 2020)" |
| C3255 | An infiltrating malignant soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of immature undifferentiated cells and abundant myxoid stroma formation. |
| C3256 | A soft and painless polypoid mass that arises from the mucosa in the nasal cavity.  It is usually the result of an inflammatory process.  It may recur following surgical resection. |
| C3257 | A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the nasopharynx. Representative examples of benign neoplasms include angiofibroma and squamous papilloma. Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma and nonkeratinizing carcinoma. |
| C3260 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the neck region. |
| C3261 | "A tumor that has spread from its original (primary) site of growth to another site, close to or distant from the primary site.  Metastasis is characteristic of advanced malignancies, but in rare instances can be seen in neoplasms lacking malignant morphology." |
| C3262 | "A benign or malignant tissue growth resulting from uncontrolled cell proliferation. Benign neoplastic cells resemble normal cells without exhibiting significant cytologic atypia, while malignant cells exhibit overt signs such as dysplastic features, atypical mitotic figures, necrosis, nuclear pleomorphism, and anaplasia. Representative examples of benign neoplasms include papillomas, cystadenomas, and lipomas; malignant neoplasms include carcinomas, sarcomas, lymphomas, and leukemias." |
| C3263 | A term that refers to the classification of a neoplastic process according to the anatomic site that is involved. |
| C3264 | "A usually malignant neoplasm composed of primitive (immature) tissues that resemble fetal tissues.  Medulloblastoma, ependymoblastoma, pineoblastoma, and Wilms tumor are representative embryonal neoplasms." |
| C3265 | A neoplasm that develops as a result of exposure to radiation. |
| C3266 | An inherited genetic condition in which members within a family are at an increased risk for the development of benign and/or malignant neoplasms. |
| C3267 | "An embryonal neoplasm characterized by the presence of epithelial, mesenchymal, and blastema components. The vast majority of cases arise from the kidney. A small number of cases with morphologic features resembling Wilms tumor of the kidney have been reported arising from the ovary and the cervix." |
| C3268 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm involving the central or peripheral nervous system." |
| C3269 | "A benign, usually encapsulated slow growing tumor composed of Schwann cells.  It affects peripheral and cranial nerves.  It recurs infrequently and only rare cases associated with malignant transformation have been reported." |
| C3270 | "A malignant neuroblastic tumor characterized by the presence of neuroblastic cells, the absence of ganglion cells, and the absence of a prominent Schwannian stroma formation." |
| C3272 | An intraneural or extraneural neoplasm arising from nerve tissues and neural sheaths. It is composed of perineurial-like fibroblasts and Schwann cells. It usually presents as a localized cutaneous lesion and less often as a circumscribed peripheral nerve mass. Patients with neurofibromatosis type 1 present with multiple masses. Neurofibromas which arise from major nerves and plexiform neurofibromas are precursor lesions to malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors. |
| C3273 | "The most common type of neurofibromatosis.  It is characterized clinically by cutaneous and subcutaneous tumors with patches of hyperpigmentation. The hyperpigmented skin areas, are present from birth and found anywhere on the body surface.  They can vary markedly in size and color.  The dark brown areas are called cafe-au-lait spots. The multiple cutaneous and subcutaneous tumors are nerve sheath tumors, called neurofibromas.  They can develop anywhere along the peripheral nerve fibers. Ne... |
| C3274 | "An autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the NF2 tumor suppressor gene.  It is characterized by the development of peripheral and central nervous system tumors including acoustic schwannomas, neurofibromas, gliomas, and meningiomas." |
| C3275 | A tumor that grows from a nerve or is composed of nerve cells and nerve fibers. |
| C3276 | A benign peripheral nerve sheath neoplasm that arises from the vestibular division of the vestibulocochlear nerve (eight cranial nerve) in the auditory canal or within the labyrinth. It is composed almost entirely of differentiated neoplastic Schwann cells. |
| C3286 | A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Benign neoplasms are slow growing and are not associated with specific clinical symptoms. Pain is absent or slight. Malignant neoplasms are usually associated with rapid swelling and pain. |
| C3287 | "A benign, slow growing, and painless hamartomatous tumor occurring in tooth-bearing areas of the jaws. According to the presence or absence of tooth-like structures, it is classified as complex type or compound type. Odontoma of complex type is characterized by the presence of enamel and dentin and the absence of tooth-like structures. It is treated with local excision. If it is incompletely removed, it may recur. Odontoma of compound type is characterized by the presence of tooth-like stru... |
| C3288 | "A well-differentiated (WHO grade 2), diffusely infiltrating neuroglial tumor, typically located in the cerebral hemispheres.  It is composed predominantly of cells which morphologically resemble oligodendroglia. The neoplastic cells have rounded homogeneous nuclei and, on paraffin sections, a swollen, clear cytoplasm ('honeycomb' appearance). (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C3289 | Infection caused by an organism that is capable of causing disease in immunocompromised patients only (e.g. HIV-positive or transplanted patients).--2004 |
| C3290 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the orbit. |
| C3291 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the oropharynx. |
| C3292 | A disease of bone that initially results in the excessive resorption of bone (by osteoclasts) followed by the replacement of normal bone marrow with vascular and fibrous tissue. |
| C3293 | "A noninflammatory degenerative joint disease occurring chiefly in older persons, characterised by degeneration of the articular cartilage, hypertrophy of bone at the margins and changes in the synovial membrane. It is accompanied by pain and stiffness, particularly after prolonged activity." |
| C3294 | A rare benign bone-forming neoplasm usually arising from the spine. It is a well-circumscribed lytic tumor that varies in size. The tumor is composed of woven bone trabeculae and shares similar histologic characteristics with the osteoid osteoma. Surgical curettage is the treatment of choice. The prognosis is excellent. |
| C3295 | "A common, benign cartiliginous neoplasm arising from the metaphysis of bone. The tumor grows on the surface of the bone; it may be pedunculated or sessile. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a cartilage cap, and a fibrous perichondrium that extends to the periosteum of the bone. In some cases, there is deletion of 8q24.1 chromosome locus." |
| C3296 | "A benign, well-circumscribed bone-forming neoplasm predominantly composed of lamellar bone. It usually arises from the calvarial, facial, or jaw bones.  It is usually asymptomatic but it may cause local swelling or obstruction of the paranasal sinuses.  Asymptomatic cases have an indolent clinical course." |
| C3297 | "A small, benign bone-forming neoplasm that can arise from any bone but more frequently affects the long bones. The central portion of the neoplasm (nidus) contains differentiated osteoblasts that produce osteoid and sometimes bone. The lesion is usually surrounded by hypervascular sclerotic bone and has limited growth potential. Clinical signs and symptoms include pain and localized tenderness, at the site of the lesion. The pain may be intense but in the majority of cases it is completely ... |
| C3298 | "A condition of reduced bone mass, with decreased cortical thickness and a decrease in the number and size of the trabeculae of cancellous bone (but normal chemical composition), resulting in increased fracture incidence. Osteoporosis is classified as primary (Type 1, postmenopausal osteoporosis; Type 2, age-associated osteoporosis; and idiopathic, which can affect juveniles, premenopausal women, and middle-aged men) and secondary osteoporosis (which results from an identifiable cause of bon... |
| C3299 | "Inflammation of the anatomical structures of the outer ear and ear canal secondary to an infectious process. Bacterial etiology is most common, but fungal infection is also possible. Symptoms include erythema, edema, and pain." |
| C3301 | A malignant epithelial cellular proliferation characterized by the presence of atypical cells with large nuclei and abundant pale cytoplasm within the squamous epithelium of the nipple.  In almost all cases there is an underlying intraductal breast carcinoma or intraductal and invasive carcinoma.  The skin changes range from redness to eczematous appearance. |
| C3302 | "A malignant neoplasm in which there is infiltration of the skin by neoplastic large cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and large nuclei with prominent nucleoli (Paget cells). It may affect the anus, penis, scrotum, and vulva." |
| C3305 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving the pancreas. |
| C3306 | Inflammation of the pancreas. |
| C3308 | "A neoplasm arising from paraganglia located along the sympathetic or parasympathetic nerves.  Infrequently, it may arise outside the usual distribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic paraganglia.  Tumors arising from the adrenal gland medulla are called pheochromocytomas.  Morphologically, paragangliomas usually display a nesting (Zellballen) growth pattern.  There are no reliable morphologic criteria to distinguish between benign and malignant paragangliomas.  The only definitive i... |
| C3309 | A paraganglioma arising from sympathetic or parasympathetic paraganglia outside the adrenal gland. |
| C3311 | "A classification for rare disorders of diverse organ systems (endocrine, neuromuscular, gastrointestinal, renal, dermatologic, rheumatologic, hematologic) that are affected by substances secreted by a distant neoplasm but not by the action of the neoplasm itself metastasizing to that organ or tissue. Less than 1 % of neoplasms are associated with these syndromes. An immune-mediated response to neoplasm-elaborated proteins may be the cause of these syndromes. Additionally, their manifestatio... |
| C3312 | An inflammatory skin disorder of unknown etiology characterized by papules and plaques or scaly patches resembling psoriasis. |
| C3313 | A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the parathyroid glands. |
| C3314 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the parotid gland.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include Warthin tumor, monomorphic adenoma, and pleomorphic adenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C3316 | "Fibromatosis arising from the soft tissues of the penis. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts, and an infiltrative growth pattern.  It causes the penis to bend when it becomes erect." |
| C3317 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm that affects the penis.  Representative examples include penile hemangioma, penile intraepithelial neoplasia, and penile carcinoma." |
| C3318 | "A mucosal erosion that occurs in the esophagus, stomach or duodenum. Symptoms can include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, and bleeding." |
| C3321 | A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from a peripheral nerve or the perineural sheaths. |
| C3322 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the peritoneum.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include adenomatoid tumor and disseminated peritoneal leiomyomatosis.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include primary peritoneal carcinoma, metastatic carcinoma to the peritoneum, and malignant mesothelioma." |
| C3324 | "An inherited condition characterized by generalized hamartomatous multiple polyposis of the intestinal tract. Transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome consistently involves the jejunum and is associated with melanin spots of the lips, buccal mucosa, and fingers. This syndrome is associated with abnormalities of chromosome 19. Also known as Jeghers-Peutz syndrome and Peutz's syndrome." |
| C3325 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the nasopharynx, oropharynx, or hypopharynx." |
| C3326 | "A neuroendocrine neoplasm of the sympathetic nervous system that arises from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla and secretes catecholamines. Clinical presentation includes headaches, palpitations, chest and abdominal pain, hypertension, fever, and tremor.  Microscopically, a characteristic nesting (zellballen) growth pattern is usually seen.  Other growth patterns including trabecular pattern may also be present." |
| C3328 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the pineal region. |
| C3329 | "A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the adenohypophysial cells of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. The tumor can be hormonally functioning or not. It has a low frequency of metastatic spread. When metastatic, the term metastatic pituitary neuroendocrine tumor is endorsed instead of pituitary carcinoma. (WHO)" |
| C3330 | A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the pituitary gland. The vast majority are pituitary neuroendocrine tumors (formerly pituitary adenomas). |
| C3332 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that involves the serous membrane that lines the lungs and thoracic cavity. Most pleural neoplasms are metastatic. Diffuse malignant mesothelioma is the most common primary malignant neoplasm of the pleura. |
| C3333 | "An acute, acute and chronic, or chronic inflammation focally or diffusely affecting the lung parenchyma, due to infections (viruses, fungi, mycoplasma, or bacteria), treatment (e.g. radiation), or exposure (inhalation) to chemicals. Symptoms include cough, shortness of breath, fevers, chills, chest pain, headache, sweating, and weakness." |
| C3334 | "Pneumonia resulting from infection with Pneumocystis jirovecii, frequently seen in the immunologically compromised, such as persons with AIDS, or steroid-treated individuals, the elderly, or premature or debilitated babies during their first three months.  Patients may be only slightly febrile (or even afebrile), but are likely to be extremely weak, dyspneic, and cyanotic. This is a major cause of morbidity among patients with AIDS." |
| C3335 | "An autosomal recessive inherited syndrome usually caused by mutations in the RECQL4 gene. It is characterized by poikilodermatous skin changes, sparse hair, cataracts, small stature, skeletal abnormalities, and an increased predisposition to cancer, particularly osteosarcoma." |
| C3336 | "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by an increased red blood cell production. The bone marrow is hypercellular due to a panmyelotic proliferation typically characterized by pleomorphic megakaryocytes. The major symptoms are related to hypertension, splenomegaly or to episodes of thrombosis and/or hemorrhage." |
| C3337 | "A polypoid lesion composed of fibrous tissue and epithelium. Representative examples include skin tag, anal fibroepithelial polyp, and gingival fibroepithelial polyp." |
| C3339 | "An autosomal dominant disorder, characterized by the presence of multiple adenomas in the colon and rectum. It is caused by a germline mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) gene which is located on the long arm of chromosome 5. The adenomas are most often tubular, and they have the tendency to progress to adenocarcinoma. They can occur throughout the colon, but they tend to concentrate in the rectum and sigmoid colon. The colorectal adenomas are detected during endoscopic examina... |
| C3340 | "A usually exophytic mass attached to the underlying tissue by a broad base or a thin stalk.  Polyps can be neoplastic or non-neoplastic.  Neoplastic polyps usually represent proliferations of the epithelium, and are commonly seen in the gastrointestinal tract.  Polyps of the gastrointestinal tract are often called adenomas, are associated with dysplasia, and may eventually transform into carcinomas.  Non-neoplastic polyps may be inflammatory, degenerative, or the result of malformations." |
| C3341 | "A pathological process with signs indicating it may become cancerous.  Representative examples include leukoplakia, dysplastic nevus, actinic keratosis, xeroderma pigmentosum, and intraepithelial neoplasia." |
| C3342 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that produces prolactin. |
| C3343 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm that affects the prostate gland.  Representative examples include benign prostate phyllodes tumor, prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia, prostate carcinoma, and prostate sarcoma." |
| C3345 | "A usually well differentiated mucinous adenocarcinoma of the peritoneum.  The majority of cases represent tumor spread from a primary low grade mucinous neoplasm of the appendix.  Cases of pseudomyxoma peritonei associated with mucinous adenocarcinomas of the gallbladder, stomach, colon, rectum, pancreas, lung, breast, and fallopian tubes have also been reported.  In the past, the ovary has been considered as a common primary site associated with pseudomyxoma peritonei.  However, there is r... |
| C3346 | "An autoimmune condition characterized by red, well-delineated plaques with silvery scales that are usually on the extensor surfaces and scalp. They can occasionally present with these manifestations: pustules; erythema and scaling in intertriginous areas, and erythroderma, that are often distributed on extensor surfaces and scalp." |
| C3348 | "A subcategory of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It occurs in people who smoke and suffer from chronic bronchitis. It is characterized by inflation of the alveoli, alveolar wall damage, and reduction in the number of alveoli, resulting in difficulty breathing." |
| C3349 | A cutaneous inflammatory reaction occurring as a result of exposure to biologically effective levels of ionizing radiation. |
| C3350 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the rectum.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include lipoma and leiomyoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma.  Rectal adenomas always exhibit epithelial dysplasia and are considered premalignant neoplasms." |
| C3351 | "A polypoid lesion that arises from the rectum and protrudes into the lumen. This group includes adenomatous polyps, serrated polyps, and hamartomatous polyps." |
| C3353 | "Progressive and life-threatening pulmonary distress in the absence of an underlying pulmonary condition, usually following major trauma or surgery. Cases of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome are not included in this definition." |
| C3354 | "Infection with the respiratory syncytial virus, an RNA virus of the genus Pneumovirus, in the family Paramyxoviridae, which is characterized by the formation of syncytia in tissue culture. It causes minor respiratory infection with rhinitis and cough in adults, but is capable of causing severe bronchitis and bronchopneumonia in young children." |
| C3355 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm involving the respiratory system." |
| C3356 | "A rare cutaneous lesion composed of eosinophilic histiocytes, which are often multinucleated.  The lesions are yellow-brown papules affecting any part of the body.  Patients are usually adult men.  The prognosis is excellent. -- 2003" |
| C3357 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the retroperitoneum. |
| C3358 | A benign mesenchymal tumor arising from skeletal or cardiac muscle. |
| C3359 | A rare aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle. It usually occurs in children and young adults. Only a small percentage of tumors arise in the skeletal muscle of the extremities. The majority arise in other anatomic sites. |
| C3361 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the major or minor salivary glands.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include Warthin tumor, monomorphic adenoma, and pleomorphic adenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C3362 | "A major psychotic disorder characterized by abnormalities in the perception or expression of reality. It affects the cognitive and psychomotor functions. Common clinical signs and symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, and retreat from reality." |
| C3363 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the sebaceous glands. Representative examples include sebaceous adenoma and sebaceous carcinoma. |
| C3364 | "The presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the blood stream causing a rapidly progressing systemic reaction that may lead to shock. Symptoms include fever, chills, tachycardia, and increased respiratory rate. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent medical attention." |
| C3365 | A disorder acquired through sexual contact. |
| C3366 | "A generalized peripheral (mature) T-cell neoplasm characterized by the presence of erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, and neoplastic, cerebriform T-lymphocytes in the blood.  Sezary syndrome is an aggressive disease. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3369 | "An occupational lung disorder caused by the inhalation of silica dust. It results in the inflammation and scarring of the upper lobes of the lungs. It may be an acute or chronic disorder. In the acute form, patients develop shortness of breath, fever, and cyanosis. In the chronic form patients, develop progressive shortness of breath." |
| C3370 | A non-neoplastic growth in the vocal cord. It is characterized by tissue swelling in both vocal cords in a symmetrical manner. It is caused by vocal abuse behavior. Hoarseness is the presenting symptom. |
| C3371 | Any deviation from the normal structure or function of the skin or subcutaneous tissue that is manifested by a characteristic set of symptoms and signs. |
| C3372 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm involving the skin." |
| C3374 | "A small, benign growth that arises from the skin.  It is characterized by the presence of fibrovascular tissue lined by epidermis.  It may be sessile or pendulous and usually occurs in sites where there is friction." |
| C3375 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the bones and structures of the skull. |
| C3376 | "A change from the patient's baseline sleeping pattern, in the hours slept and/or an alteration/dysfunction in the stages of sleep." |
| C3377 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm that arises from the soft tissue.  The most common types are lipomatous (fatty), vascular, smooth muscle, fibrous, and fibrohistiocytic neoplasms." |
| C3379 | "A rare, usually malignant neuroendocrine tumor arizing from delta cells.  This neoplasm produces large amounts of somatostatin, which may result in a syndrome characterized by diarrhea, steatorrhea, weight loss, and gastric hyposecretion. Sixty percent are found in the pancreas and 40% in the duodenum or jejunum. The peak incidence occurs between 40 and 60 years of age; women are affected more than men by 2:1." |
| C3380 | Compression of the spinal cord. |
| C3381 | A primary or metastatic neoplasm affecting the spinal cord. |
| C3382 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that occurs within the spinal canal. |
| C3383 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the spleen.  Representative examples include hemangioma, lymphoma, splenic involvement by leukemia, and angiosarcoma." |
| C3385 | "A severe, sometimes life-threatening, form of erythema multiforme. It is considered to be a hypersensitivity skin reaction triggered by a variety of stimuli, including infections and medication. It is characterized by raised, edematous papules in the extremities; involvement of one or more mucous membranes; and epidermal detachment involving less than ten percent of the total body surface area." |
| C3387 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving the stomach. |
| C3388 | An ulcerated lesion in the mucosal surface of the stomach. It may progress to involve the deeper layers of the gastric wall. |
| C3389 | An anxiety disorder precipitated by an experience of intense fear or horror while exposed to a traumatic (especially life-threatening) event. The disorder is characterized by intrusive recurring thoughts or images of the traumatic event; avoidance of anything associated with the event; a state of hyperarousal and diminished emotional responsiveness. These symptoms are present for at least one month and the disorder is usually long-term. |
| C3390 | A sudden loss of neurological function secondary to hemorrhage or ischemia in the brain parenchyma due to a vascular event. |
| C3391 | "A congenital disorder caused by mutation in the GNAQ gene. It is characterized by the presence of a port-wine nevus birthmark on one or both sides of the face. Additional clinical manifestations may include seizures, leptomeningeal angiomas, glaucoma, progressive hemiparesis, and cognitive deficits." |
| C3392 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the sublingual gland. |
| C3393 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the submandibular gland. |
| C3396 | "Obstruction of the blood flow in the superior vena cava caused by a malignant neoplasm, thrombosis, or aneurysm. It is a medical emergency requiring immediate treatment. Signs and symptoms include swelling and cyanosis of the face, neck, and upper arms, cough, orthopnea, and headache." |
| C3397 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that occurs within the intracranial cavity above the tentorium cerebelli. |
| C3398 | A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. |
| C3400 | "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the chromosomal translocation t(X;18)(p11;q11).  It can occur at any age, but mainly affects young adults, more commonly males.  Although any site can be affected, the vast majority of the cases arise in the deep soft tissues of extremities, especially around the knee.  Microscopically, synovial sarcoma is classified as monophasic (with a spindle or epithelial cell component) or biphasic (with both spindle and epithelial cell components).  Synovial sarc... |
| C3401 | "A locally aggressive, diffusely infiltrating tumor, arising in the tendon sheath.  It is composed of synovial-like mononuclear cells, hemosiderin-laden macrophages, foam cells, and inflammatory cells.  Multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells are usually present, although in a minority of cases they may be absent or rare.  It predominantly affects young adults.  Symptoms include joint swelling, pain, and joint effusion." |
| C3402 | "A tumor usually arising in the synovium of joints, bursa or tendon sheath. It is characterized by the presence of mononuclear cells, multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, hemosiderin-laden macrophages, foam cells, and an inflammatory infiltrate. According to the growth pattern, it is classified as localized or diffuse." |
| C3403 | "A non-seminomatous germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of various tissues which correspond to the different germinal layers (endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm). It occurs in the testis, ovary, and extragonadal sites including central nervous system, mediastinum, lung, and stomach. According to the level of differentiation of the tissues which comprise the tumor, teratomas are classified as benign (grade 0 or 1), immature (grade 2), and malignant (grade 3). Grade 0 teratomas contain... |
| C3404 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the testis.  Representative examples include fibroma, thecoma, benign Sertoli cell tumor, seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, sarcoma, leukemia, and lymphoma." |
| C3405 | "An ovarian or testicular stromal tumor characterized by the presence of lipid-rich neoplastic spindle cells. In females, uterine bleeding is the most common symptom. A minority of post-menopausal women with thecoma have an associated endometrial adenocarcinoma or rarely a malignant mixed mullerian tumor or endometrial stromal sarcoma. Rare cases with nuclear atypia and mitotic activity may metastasize. In males, thecomas are rare and they usually present as slow growing, sometimes painful m... |
| C3406 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm involving the tissues of the thorax." |
| C3407 | "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm that involves primarily the megakaryocytic lineage. It is characterized by sustained thrombocytosis in the blood, increased numbers of large, mature megakaryocytes in the bone marrow, and episodes of thrombosis and/or hemorrhage. (WHO, 2008)" |
| C3410 | Inflammation of the veins associated with the presence of a thrombus. |
| C3411 | "A neoplasm arising from the epithelial cells of the thymus.  Although thymomas are usually encapsulated tumors, they may invade the capsule and infiltrate the surrounding tissues or even metastasize to distant anatomic sites.  The following morphologic subtypes are currently recognized: type A, type B, type AB, metaplastic, micronodular, microscopic, and sclerosing thymoma.  Thymomas type B are further subdivided into types B1, B2, and B3. Thymoma type B3 usually has the most aggressive cli... |
| C3412 | A neoplasm that affects the thymus.  Representative examples include thymoma and carcinoma. |
| C3414 | A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the thyroid gland. |
| C3415 | "A nodular lesion that develops in the thyroid gland.  Causes include adenoma, thyroiditis, fluid-filled cyst, multinodular goiter, and carcinoma." |
| C3416 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving the tongue. |
| C3417 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the tonsil. |
| C3418 | A parasitic disease contracted by the ingestion or fetal transmission of toxoplasma gondii. |
| C3419 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the trachea.  Representative examples include tracheal leiomyoma and tracheal carcinoma. |
| C3422 | A gestational or non-gestational neoplasm characterized by excessive proliferation of trophoblastic cells. |
| C3423 | "A chronic, recurrent infection caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Tuberculosis (TB) may affect almost any tissue or organ of the body with the lungs being the most common site of infection. The clinical stages of TB are primary or initial infection, latent or dormant infection, and recrudescent or adult-type TB. Ninety to 95% of primary TB infections may go unrecognized. Histopathologically, tissue lesions consist of granulomas which usually undergo central caseation necros... |
| C3424 | "Hereditary disease characterized by seizures, mental retardation, developmental delay, and skin and ocular lesions. First signs usually occur during infancy or childhood but in rare cases may not occur until 2nd or 3rd decade." |
| C3425 | "A condition of metabolic abnormalities that result from a spontaneous or therapy-related cytolysis of tumor cells. Tumor lysis syndrome typically occurs in aggressive, rapidly proliferating lymphoproliferative disorders. Burkitt lymphoma and T cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia are commonly associated with this syndrome. Metabolic abnormalities include hyperuricemia, lactic acidosis, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia and may result in renal failure, multiple organ failure, and... |
| C3427 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the ureter. |
| C3428 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the urethra.  Urethral carcinoma is a representative example. |
| C3430 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the urinary system. |
| C3431 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm involving the urinary system (kidney, ureter, bladder, and urethra)." |
| C3432 | "A transient, itchy skin eruption characterized by wheals with pale interiors and red margins." |
| C3433 | "The most frequent form of cutaneous mastocytosis.  In children, the lesions tend to be papular, and are characterized by aggregates of elongated or spindle-shaped mast cells which fill the papillary dermis and extend into the reticular dermis.  In adults, the lesions tend to have fewer mast cells compared to those in children.  The lesions are located most commonly on the trunk, but they can be seen on the extremities, head and neck. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C34345 | "An autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutation(s) in the FGFR3 gene, encoding fibroblast growth factor receptor 3. The condition is characterized by inappropriate cartilage growth plate differentiation and deficient endochondral growth, manifest clinically with severe rhizomelic short stature, short limbs, characteristic facies with frontal bossing and midface hypoplasia." |
| C34346 | "A chronic eruption of fibrous papules that develop and fuse to form a thick sclerotic, hypertrophic band at a site of deep folliculitis, usually along the posterior hairline of the scalp. It is most commonly seen in men of African descent." |
| C34347 | "Deficiency of a coagulation factor that is not caused by genetic alterations. Causes include vitamin K deficiency, amyloidosis, and severe liver disease." |
| C34348 | A genetic disorder characterized by craniosynostosis and fusion of the fingers and toes. |
| C34349 | A chronic granulomatous inflammation involving the deep dermis and the subcutaneous tissues. It is caused by Actinomycetes bacteria. |
| C3434 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the body of the uterus. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C34350 | "An infectious process caused by bacteria of the Actinomyces species. It is characterized by the formation of purulent and painful abscesses in the mouth, lungs and gastrointestinal tract." |
| C34351 | Actinomycotic infection of the face and hands. |
| C34352 | Acute hepatitis resulting from ingestion of alcohol. |
| C34353 | Atopic conjunctivitis that is of relatively short duration and that has a rapid onset. |
| C34354 | An acute inflammatory process that affects the tissues that surround and support the teeth. |
| C34355 | "An acute and painful inflammatory process that affects the pharynx.  It is usually caused by viruses and less often bacteria. Signs and symptoms include discomfort on swallowing, low-grade fever, headache, and earache." |
| C34356 | Ischemia of the intestine that is rapid in onset. |
| C34357 | "A rare syndrome characterized by an abnormally dilated pupil, hypoflexia, and diaphoresis. The syndrome is usually caused by a viral or bacterial infection. The abnormally dilated pupil is caused by damage to postganglionic parasympathetic fibers innervating the eye." |
| C34358 | Temporary maladaptive depressive signs and symptoms associated with a life event. |
| C34359 | Inflammation of the appendages of the uterus. |
| C3435 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the uterine corpus or the cervix. Representative examples of benign neoplasms include leiomyoma, adenomyoma, and endocervical polyp. Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include endometrial carcinoma, carcinosarcoma, and cervical carcinoma." |
| C34360 | "A genetic disorder characterized by defects in the synthesis of cortisol and/or aldosterone, resulting in hyperplasia of the adrenal cortical cells." |
| C34361 | "The manifestation of psychotic symptoms, such as hallucinations or delusions, in the presence of a mood disorder." |
| C34362 | "An anxiety disorder characterized by an intense, irrational fear of venturing out into open places or situations in which help (or escape) might not be available should excessive anxiety or panic symptoms develop." |
| C34363 | "An anxiety disorder characterized by agoraphobia in the absence of a history of panic attacks; the individual fears incapacitation or humiliation in open, public places or situations due to panic-like symptoms rather than a full-blown panic attack." |
| C34365 | A orthopoxvirus that causes a milder clinical syndrome than smallpox. |
| C34366 | "A syndrome which occurs in individuals with a history of alcohol abuse. It is caused by prolonged alcohol-induced neurological damage and malnutrition including vitamin and electrolyte deficiencies. Clinical signs include altered mental status, visual impairment and decreased muscle coordination. The clinical course varies and is, in part, dependent upon the severity of symptoms at presentation. The prognosis is poor and worsens if alcohol abuse continues." |
| C34368 | A genetic hematologic disorder characterized by partial or complete absence of the alpha globin chains of the heme molecule. |
| C34369 | "An inflammatory interstitial lung disease caused by hypersensitivity reaction to inhalation or ingestion of antigens.  The antigens are usually related to the patient's occupation.  It can present as an acute illness with flu-like symptoms, subacute with repeated episodes of pneumonia, or chronic with dyspnea and productive cough.  The majority of patients recover following the cessation of the exposure to the antigen that causes the disease.  Chronic exposure may eventually progress to int... |
| C3436 | A neoplasm that affects the uvea.  Uveal melanoma is a representative example. |
| C34370 | A congenital malformation characterized by the complete absence of all limbs. |
| C34371 | An optical condition in the eye where there is an error of refraction of light rays on the retina. |
| C34373 | A neurodegenerative disorder characterized by progressive degeneration of the motor neurons of the central nervous system. It results in weakness and atrophy of the muscles which leads to an inability to initiate and control voluntary movements. |
| C34374 | Ancylostomiasis that is caused by infection by Ancylostoma Duodenale. |
| C34375 | An autosomal recessive disorder that affects the production of beta polypeptide chains which are necessary for the hemoglobin synthesis. Anemia and failure to thrive are characteristic features. |
| C34376 | "Anemia resulting from the premature destruction of the peripheral blood red cells. It may be congenital or it may be caused by infections, medications, or malignancies." |
| C34377 | "Hemolytic anemia, the cause of which is not present at birth." |
| C34378 | "An acquired anemia caused by destruction of the red blood cells by autoantibodies. Causes include autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and infections." |
| C34379 | "A congenital hemolytic anemia caused by defects of the erythrocyte membrane, enzyme deficiencies, or hemoglobinopathies." |
| C3437 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the vagina. Representative examples of benign neoplasms include squamous papilloma and melanocytic nevus. Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, melanoma, and sarcoma." |
| C34380 | "Anemia caused by the reduction of hemoglobin in relation to the red cell volume. As a result, the red cells have an area of central pallor which is increased in size. The leading cause is iron deficiency." |
| C34381 | Anemia that is characterized by increased red blood cell volume. |
| C34382 | Anemia characterized by the presence of unusually large erythroblasts in the bone marrow called megaloblasts. It is usually caused by vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency. Other causes include toxins and drugs. |
| C34383 | A blood disorder characterized by the appearance of sickle-shaped red blood cells and anemia. |
| C34384 | Anemia resulting from an abnormality of glutathione deficiency. |
| C34387 | "A disorder most often seen in adolescent females characterized by a refusal to maintain a minimally normal body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight, a disturbance in body image, and, in postmenarcheal females, the development of amenorrhea." |
| C34389 | Fibrosis of the lung parenchyma caused by inhalation of carbon and silica dust.  It manifests as shortness of breath. |
| C3438 | A benign focal growth composed of vascular tissue. |
| C34390 | A chronic lung disorder characterized by deposition of coal dust in the lung parenchyma leading to the formation of black nodules and emphysema. It occurs in coal miners. |
| C34391 | "A syndrome resulting from structural defects of the arteries that arise from the aortic arch. Signs and symptoms include weakness, dizziness, arm numbness, blurred vision and transient ischemic attacks." |
| C34392 | The absence of the crystalline lens of the eye. |
| C34395 | "A group of viral illnesses that are vectored by arthropods, and that are characterized by increased susceptibility to bleeding diatheses." |
| C34396 | A viral infection that is transmitted by an arthropod. |
| C34398 | A vascular disorder characterized by thickening and hardening of the walls of the arteries. |
| C34399 | An inflammatory process affecting an artery. |
| C3439 | Any disease caused by a virus. |
| C34400 | A localized vasculitis resulting from deposition of antibody-antigen complexes. |
| C34403 | Cardiovascular disease resulting from arteriosclerosis. |
| C34404 | Aseptic necrosis involving the head and neck of the femur. |
| C34409 | "An occupational lung disorder caused by inhalation of bagasse dust.  In the acute phase, it manifests as cough, dyspnea, fever, chills, and weakness.  Chronic exposure may lead to interstitial lung fibrosis." |
| C3440 | A non-neoplastic polypoid swelling of the vocal cord mucosa.  It is usually unilateral and caused by excessive use of the voice. |
| C34410 | A rare type of pneumoconiosis caused by long standing exposure to barium dust.  It is characterized by the formation of fine dense lesions in the lung parenchyma.  The lesions do not affect the lung function and disappear without treatment after the exposure to barium dust stops. |
| C34411 | "A neurologic syndrome following injury of the spinal sympathetic nerves of the neck. The injury usually results from arthritis or pinching by the adjacent vertebrae. Symptoms include facial pain, chronic allergies, dizziness, neck pain, ear pain and vertigo." |
| C34412 | "A rare inherited syndrome characterized by juxtaglomerular cell hyperplasia, hyperaldosteronism, hypokalemia, and alkalosis. Patients have high levels of plasma renin concentration which is not associated with hypertension." |
| C34413 | "A syndrome which occurs as a result of the occlusion of the basilar artery. It may be caused by atherosclerosis, embolism or hemorrhage. Clinical signs include dizziness, headache, vomiting, hemiparesis or hemiplegia, dysarthria, dysphagia, blurred vision and loss of consciousness. The clinical course is variable and is dependent upon the extent of the occlusion and the location of the clot along the basilar artery which determines the resultant neurologic impairment. Prognosis is dismal in... |
| C34415 | "A genetic syndrome caused by abnormalities in chromosome 11. It is characterized by large birth weight, macroglossia, umbilical hernia, ear abnormalities, and hypoglycemia. Patients with this syndrome have an increased risk of developing embryonal tumors (gonadoblastoma, hepatoblastoma, Wilms tumor, rhabdomyosarcoma) and adrenal cortex carcinomas." |
| C34416 | "A rare chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown etiology. It is characterized by the development of ulcers in the mouth and genital region and uveitis. Other signs and symptoms include arthritis, deep vein thrombosis and superficial thrombophlebitis." |
| C34417 | A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the mandible. |
| C34418 | Abnormally low concentrations of vitamin B1 in the blood. |
| C3441 | "A pathologic process in the larynx that affects the production of speech.  Causes include vocal cord paresis, vocal cord nodule, vocal cord polyp, and laryngitis." |
| C34421 | A congenital disorder characterized by blockage or absence of the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C34422 | Any inability to efficiently utilize and/or sustain binocular vision. |
| C34423 | "A disorder of the brain that causes unusual shifts in mood, energy, activity levels and the ability to carry out day-to-day tasks. Often these moods range and shift from periods of elation and energized behavior to those of hopelessness and depression." |
| C34424 | The depressive stage of bipolar disorder. |
| C34425 | "Hypersensitivity granulomatous pneumonitis caused by the inhalation of avian antigens that are present in the dust of the droppings and feathers of many species of birds.  In the acute phase it manifests as fever, chills, dyspnea, cough, and chest tightness.  Chronic exposure may lead to interstitial lung fibrosis." |
| C34426 | A complication of malaria resulting from hemolysis. |
| C34428 | "A fungal infection caused by inhalation of spores of Blastomyces dermatitidis. It presents with flu-like symptoms including fever, chills, cough, pleuritic chest pain and myalgias. It may lead to a chronic granulomatous pulmonary infection and disseminate to other anatomic sites including skin, nervous system and bones." |
| C34429 | "A pulmonary disease resulting from infection with Blastomyces dermatitidis, which is prevalent in North America." |
| C34430 | Inflammation of both the eyelids and the conjunctiva. |
| C34431 | "A disorder affecting the small intestine. It is caused by the stasis of food and subsequent overgrowth of bacteria in a portion of the small intestine that is unintentionally bypassed as a complication of abdominal surgery or as a sequela of gastrointestinal disorders which impede effective motility. Clinical signs include bloating, abdominal pain, diarrhea and weight loss. If untreated, the clinical course progresses to malabsorption of fats, vitamin B12 and calcium, the latter which predi... |
| C34432 | Any disorder of development of the bone. |
| C34433 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the bone marrow. |
| C34434 | "A genetic syndrome which occurs in females. It is caused by the inheritance of only one complete X chromosome (45, X). Clinical signs of the symmetrical form are identical to those of Turner syndrome and include bilateral webbing of the neck and edema of the extremities. Clinical characteristics include decreased stature and under-developed sexual organs. Patients usually have a normal life expectancy." |
| C34435 | Encephalopathy that is persistent or long-standing in nature. |
| C34436 | An occlusion of a branch of the retinal artery. |
| C34439 | Sudden contraction of the smooth muscles of the bronchial wall. |
| C3443 | "A benign, precancerous, or malignant neoplasm that affects the vulva. Representative examples include Bartholin gland adenoma, vulvar nodular hidradenoma, vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia, vulvar carcinoma, and vulvar melanoma." |
| C34440 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge-eating over which the individual feels a lack of control; these episodes of binge-eating are followed by recurrent compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain, usually self-induced vomiting. In addition, self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body image." |
| C34444 | Mucocutaneous candidiasis that is persistent or long-standing in nature. |
| C34445 | Physical and psychological dependence on the drug cannabis. |
| C34446 | "A rare neuropsychiatric disorder whose primary feature is the delusion that relatives or close acquaintances are not the persons that they are known to be. Visual recognition appears intact but familiar persons are thought be imposters, that is, they appear similar or identical to known individuals but are not. Most cases are seen in the context of a psychotic state. However, if manifested post-traumatically, the cause is most likely due to neurologic impairment. This disorder should be con... |
| C34447 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from any of the following anatomic sites: lip and oral cavity, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, and salivary glands." |
| C34448 | A malignant tumor composed of a mixture of carcinomatous and sarcomatous elements. |
| C34449 | A condition in which the myocardium is hypertrophied without an obvious cause. The hypertrophy is generally asymmetric and may be associated with obstruction of the ventricular outflow tract. |
| C3444 | "A rare, autoimmune, systemic medium and small size vasculitis. It is characterized by the formation of necrotizing granulomas in the respiratory tract, necrotizing angiitis, and glomerulonephritis." |
| C34450 | "Entrapment of the median nerve in the wrist that is characterized by numbness, tingling and painful movement." |
| C34453 | "A rare neurologic disorder caused by impingement of the nerve roots of the cauda equina secondary to disc herniation, spinal stenosis, vertebral fracture, neoplasm or infection. Clinical signs may include bladder or bowel dysfunction, paresthesia and weakness of the lower extremities. The development of neurogenic bladder implies that surgical decompression was either ineffective, delayed or not attempted." |
| C34454 | Cellulitis of the hand. |
| C34456 | Blockage of the central retinal artery. |
| C34457 | An unusual presentation of schistosomiasis characterized by a pruritic papular rash in the perigenital or periumbilical area due to an allergic reaction to schistosoma eggs deposited in the skin. |
| C34459 | Atherosclerosis of the cerebral vasculature. |
| C34460 | "A group of disorders affecting the development of movement and posture, often accompanied by disturbances of sensation, perception, cognition, and behavior. It results from damage to the fetal or infant brain." |
| C34462 | "A dilated cardiomyopathy caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. Patients may present with heart block, congestive heart failure, or anginal symptoms." |
| C34463 | An infection that is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. |
| C34465 | An acute or chronic inflammation involving the gallbladder wall. It may be associated with the presence of gallstones. |
| C34466 | Any dysfunction in the growth of cartilage. |
| C34467 | "An uncommon, benign cartilaginous neoplasm usually occurring in adults.  The nodular tumor arises from the synovial membranes of joints.  It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, nuclear pleomorphism, and hyaline cartilage differentiation.  Clinical presentation may include joint pain, swelling, and limited range of motion." |
| C34468 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the choroid.  Representative examples include choroiditis, hemangioma, and melanoma." |
| C34469 | "A rare, X-linked inherited disorder characterized by choroid atrophy and retinal degeneration. It leads to progressive loss of vision." |
| C3446 | "Acquired thrombocytopenia of unknown cause, characterized by immune-mediated destruction of normal platelets. It affects both children and adults. It manifests with petechiae, purpura, and overt bleeding. Based upon the duration of the disease, it is classified as newly diagnosed (from diagnosis until 3 months), persistent (3-12 months), and chronic (lasting for more than 12 months)." |
| C34470 | A disorder that results from a chromosomal abnormality. |
| C34471 | "Chronic inflammatory disorder of the lungs characterized by the presence of eosinophils in the interalveolar septa and alveolar spaces and peripheral blood eosinophilia.  Chest x-rays reveal peripheral infiltrates.  Approximately half of the patients have history of asthma or atopic disease.  Signs and symptoms include fever, dyspnea, cough, and weight loss.  Following treatment with corticosteroids, the eosinophilic infiltrates in the lungs disappear, resulting in dramatic clinical improve... |
| C34472 | "Inflammation of the ethmoid sinus that typically lasts beyond eight weeks. It is caused by infections, allergies, and the presence of sinus polyps or a deviated septum. Signs and symptoms include headache, nasal discharge, swelling in the face, dizziness, and breathing difficulties." |
| C34473 | "Inflammation of the frontal sinus that typically lasts beyond eight weeks. It is caused by infections, allergies, and the presence of sinus polyps or a deviated septum. Signs and symptoms include headache, nasal discharge, swelling in the face, dizziness, and breathing difficulties." |
| C34474 | Chronic painless inflammation of the gums.  It is characterized by erythema and edema of the gums and bleeding while brushing the teeth. |
| C34475 | A slowly progressive inflammation of the glomeruli characterized by immune complex deposits on the epithelial side of the glomerular basement membrane. |
| C34476 | "Uveitis that is usually insidious in onset, bilateral, and can be asymptomatic, most often affecting the anterior uveal tract, including the iris and ciliary body, and can result in long-term complications. It is most commonly associated with certain forms of juvenile idiopathic arthritis, but may occur independent of arthritis." |
| C34477 | "Inflammation of the maxillary sinus that typically lasts beyond eight weeks. It is caused by infections, allergies, and the presence of sinus polyps or a deviated septum. Signs and symptoms include headache, nasal discharge, swelling in the face, dizziness, and breathing difficulties." |
| C34478 | Heart disease which occurs as a result of a primary pulmonary disease. Cor pulmonale most often manifests as right ventricular hypertrophy; it can also lead to right ventricular failure. |
| C34479 | Chronic inflammation of the nasal cavity mucosa.  It may lead to post-nasal drip resulting in chronic sore throat and chronic cough. |
| C3447 | "A rare, autosomal recessive syndrome caused by mutations in the WRN gene. It is characterized by the appearance of accelerated aging following puberty. It is associated with the development of diabetes mellitus, atherosclerosis, cataracts, and cancer." |
| C34480 | "Inflammation of the sphenoid sinus that typically lasts beyond eight weeks. It is caused by infections, allergies, and the presence of sinus polyps or a deviated septum. Signs and symptoms include headache, nasal discharge, swelling in the face, dizziness, and breathing difficulties." |
| C34481 | An autoimmune necrotizing vasculitis with the formation of granulomas. It is a pulmonary and systemic vasculitis associated with eosinophilia. |
| C3448 | "A rare, X-linked immunodeficiency syndrome characterized by eczema, thrombocytopenia, and recurrent pyogenic infection. It is seen exclusively in young boys. Typically, IgM levels are low and IgA and IgE levels are elevated. Lymphoreticular malignancies are common." |
| C34492 | "A psychologically and socially impaired state, with or without physiological changes, that develops as a result of using cocaine and which leads to compulsive behaviors to acquire the substance." |
| C34493 | "A parasitic infection caused by Coccidia. It affects livestock, birds and humans. In humans the parasite infests the intestinal tract and may cause watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, nausea and vomiting." |
| C34494 | Paroxysms of discomfort characterized by abrupt onset and remission. This typically occurs when a hollow organ or supporting structure is obstructed. |
| C34500 | "An acute inflammatory process that affects the nasopharynx.  It is caused by viruses.  Signs and symptoms include fever, coughing, sneezing, and sore throat." |
| C34501 | An abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricles of the brain that occurs as a consequence of impaired cerebrospinal fluid reabsorption by the arachnoid granulations. |
| C34502 | A defect in the pars interarticularis of the vertebral arch of a lumbar or sacral vertebra that is present at the time of birth. |
| C34503 | "Dryness of the eye due to inadequate production of tears. Causes include vitamin A deficiency, Sjogren syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and scleroderma." |
| C34504 | Inflammation of the conjunctiva of the eye. |
| C34505 | Acute conjunctivitis that is characterized by bleeding into the conjunctiva. |
| C34506 | Acute allergic conjunctivitis. |
| C34507 | "Conjunctivitis that is associated with contact lens wear, and which is characterized by giant papillae in the tarsal conjunctiva." |
| C34508 | Inflammation of the cornea that is seasonal in nature. |
| C34509 | Conjunctivitis resulting from viral infection. |
| C34510 | "An endocrine disorder characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. Causes include adrenal gland adenoma and adrenal gland hyperplasia. The overproduction of aldosterone results in sodium and water retention and hypokalemia. Patients present with high blood pressure, muscle weakness, and headache." |
| C34512 | "A family of inherited disorders characterized by the gradual, progressive accumulation of extraneous material on one or both corneas, which, without proper treatment, can impair vision." |
| C34513 |  |
| C34514 | "A thickening of the skin due to friction or pressure which results in the formation of a small, painful, raised bump associated with a conical mass pointing down into the dermis." |
| C34518 | "A genetic syndrome resulting from a partial deletion on the short arm of chromosome 5. It is characterized by a cat-like cry in infancy, microcephaly, mental retardation, growth failure, round face, hypertelorism, and cardiac failure." |
| C34519 | Benign endometrial hyperplasia characterized by the presence of cystically dilated glands. |
| C3451 | "A benign histiocytic tumor that usually arises from the skin and occurs during childhood; it is distinct from Langerhans cell histiocytosis. It is characterized by the presence of lipid-laden, foamy histiocytes and Touton-type giant cells in the dermis. The lesions usually develop during infancy. While the majority of cases arise from the skin, it can rarely also arise from extracutaneous sites including the eye, ocular adnexa, oral cavity, paranasal sinuses, and ear. It is sometimes associ... |
| C34520 | "A parasitic infection caused by the larval form of Taenia solium. It is a disseminated infection affecting the central nervous system, subcutaneous tissues, lungs, heart and liver. The most serious complications result from infection of the brain parenchyma. Patients may develop seizures, hydrocephalus, encephalopathy and meningoencephalitis." |
| C34521 | Inflammation of the lacrimal sac. |
| C34522 | A common form of dementia caused by multiple cortical or subcortical cerebral infarctions. |
| C34523 | The presence of dementia in an individual younger than age sixty five. |
| C34524 | "Loss of intellectual abilities in an elderly person, interfering with this person's activities." |
| C34525 | A degenerative vascular disorder affecting the brain. It is caused by the blockage of the blood supply to the brain. It is manifested with decline of memory and cognitive functions. |
| C34526 | Any condition in which there is degeneration of the myelin sheath that covers the nerves of the central nervous system. |
| C34527 | "A broad group of disorders that affect the myelin sheaths that cover the neurons. Myelin sheathes cover neuronal axons in the central and peripheral nervous system and function to increase travelling impulse speeds. Disruption of this sheath impairs neuronal transmission and can result in disorders such as multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre syndrome, among others." |
| C34528 | "An acute infection caused by Dengue virus. Signs and symptoms include sudden onset of fever, headache, rash, arthralgia, and myalgia. It is transmitted through mosquitoes." |
| C34529 | "Deficiency in the enamel tissue that results in the formation of grooves, pits, or dents on the surface of the affected teeth." |
| C3452 | "An inherited skin disorder characterized by photosensitivity with severe sunburn in infancy, the development of numerous pigmented spots resembling freckles, larger atrophic lesions associated with telangiectasis, and multiple solar keratoses. Transmitted in an autosomal recessive manner, xeroderma pigmentosa involves a defect in nucleotide excision repair (NER), leading to deficient repair of DNA damaged by UV radiation and chromosome breakage. Individuals with this disease develop multipl... |
| C34530 | "A disorder that affects the dental pulp tissue.  Examples include inflammation, calcification, and dental pulp exposure." |
| C34532 | Depression which is considered strictly biological. |
| C34533 | Depression precipitated by events in a person's life. |
| C34534 | Dermatitis caused by an allergic reaction to ingested food. |
| C34535 | Dermatophytosis involving the stratum corneum of the skin of the groin and perianal area. |
| C34536 | Dermatophytosis involving the stratum corneum of the skin of the scalp and beard area. |
| C34537 | "A rare syndrome characterized by almost complete absence of body fat, accentuated muscularity, insulin-resistant diabetes, hyperlipidemia, hepatomegaly, and hypermetabolism." |
| C34538 | "A chronic, pathological complication associated with diabetes mellitus, where retinal damages are incurred due to microaneurysms in the vasculature of the retina, progressively leading to abnormal blood vessel growth, and swelling and leaking of fluid from blood vessels, resulting in vision loss or blindness." |
| C3453 | "A syndrome characterized by the presence of a gastrin-secreting tumor, usually in the pancreas or duodenum, resulting in increased gastric acidity and formation of gastric ulcers. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain and diarrhea. It may be sporadic or a manifestation of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1." |
| C34540 | A parasitic infection caused by genus of filarial worms called Dipetalonema. It produces microfilariae in the blood and body fluids. |
| C34541 | "A Gram-positive bacterial infection caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. It usually involves the oral cavity, pharynx, and nasal cavity. Patients develop pseudomembranes in the affected areas and manifest signs and symptoms of an upper respiratory infection. The diphtheria toxin may cause myocarditis, polyneuritis, and other systemic effects." |
| C34542 | Infection of the anterior nasal structures by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. |
| C34543 | Pseudomembranous colitis resulting from infection by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. |
| C34544 | "A usually mild form of diphtheria characterized by infection of the skin by corynebacterium diphtheria and the resulting formation of a chronic, shallow ulcer that is sometimes bordered or followed by a bulla." |
| C34545 | Infection of the fauces by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. |
| C34546 | Infection of the larynx by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. |
| C34547 | Infection of the nasopharynx by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. |
| C34553 | A syndrome characterized by dryness of the cornea and conjunctiva. It is usually caused by a deficiency in tear production. Symptoms include a feeling of burning eyes and a possible foreign body presence in the eye. |
| C34557 | A disorder of the skin characterized by loss or reduction of the skin color. It is caused by loss of melanocytes or abnormalities in melanin production. |
| C34558 | Colitis resulting from amebic infection. |
| C34559 | Abnormally painful abdominal cramps during menstruation. |
| C34560 | A defect in ossification of bone. |
| C34562 | "A chronic mood disorder in which the symptoms are similar to, though milder than, those diagnosed in depression." |
| C34563 | "A movement disorder characterized by sustained or intermittent muscle contractions, resulting in abnormal movements and/or postures." |
| C34564 | Torsion dystonia for which no underlying cause has been identified. |
| C34565 | A non-neoplastic lesion that affects the vulva and is characterized by thinning or thickening of the skin and dryness. |
| C34566 | Displacement of the lens of the eye secondary to defective zonule formation that is present at the time of birth. |
| C34567 | A congenital defect characterized by the absence or hypoplasia of one or more extremities. |
| C34568 | An inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by loose and fragile skin and joint hypermobility. |
| C3456 | "A benign myofibroblastic neoplasm that affects young children and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle cells and intracytoplasmic eosinophilic spherical inclusions. It arises from the soft tissues of the digits or extradigital areas including the extremities, breasts, and tongue." |
| C34570 | "An extreme loss of muscle and subcutaneous fat that is caused by malnutrition, and which results in a severely thin (emaciated) appearance." |
| C34571 | "Pathologic accumulation of air in the interstitium of the lungs, which is caused by the rupture of alveoli and terminal bronchioles, and is most often seen in premature infants that need mechanical ventilation for respiratory distress syndrome." |
| C34572 | An accumulation of pus in the pleural space. |
| C34573 | An empyema with a fistula. |
| C34575 | An empyema resulting from infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. |
| C34576 | "A term that may be used to describe encephalitis characterized by sleepiness, which is likely due to a viral cause." |
| C34577 | "Viral encephalitis caused by the mosquito-born Japanese encephalitis virus. Signs and symptoms include an initial period of fever, headaches, and malaise, followed by neck rigidity, hemiparesis, and convulsions. It may lead to coma." |
| C34578 | "An inflammatory process affecting the central nervous system. It is characterized by perivascular demyelination. Symptoms usually follow an acute viral infection or immunization and include fever, confusion, somnolence and involuntary movements. It may lead to coma and death." |
| C34579 | Viral encephalitis that is transmitted by ticks. |
| C3457 | "The most common type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma.  It includes the most frequently seen morphologic variants which are: diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, follicular lymphoma, small lymphocytic lymphoma and marginal zone B-cell lymphoma." |
| C34580 | Inflammation of the brain and the spinal cord. |
| C34581 | Inflammation of the arterial intima. |
| C34582 | Inflammation of the endocardium. |
| C34583 | "Subacute inflammation of the endocardium. Streptococcus viridans is the usual etiologic agent of subacute bacterial endocarditis. The distinction between ""acute"" and ""subacute"" endocarditis has traditionally been made based on the pathogenic organism and clinical presentation." |
| C34584 | A polyp that arises from the endocervix. It is characterized by the presence of endocervical glands and a fibrovascular stroma. |
| C34586 | An infectious process affecting the internal structures of the eye. |
| C34587 | "Infection of the interior of the eye, especially the aqueous and/or vitreous humor, by a parasite." |
| C34588 | "An elimination disorder characterized by urinary incontinence, whether involuntary or intentional, which is not due to a medical condition and which occurs at or beyond an age at which continence is expected (usually 5 years)." |
| C34589 | Inflammation of the epicondyles. |
| C3458 |  |
| C34590 | Keratoconjunctivitis resulting from infection by adenoviruses. |
| C34591 | "A skin condition that primarily affects the scalp and face and presents as scaly inflammation. Examples include itchy, dry skin and dandruff." |
| C34593 | "A rare disorder characterized by periodic inflammation and blockage of the vessels of the extremities, resulting in skin redness, swelling, and burning pain in the affected sites. It may manifest as a primary disorder caused by mutations of the SCN9A gene or as a secondary disorder due to hematologic disorders or medication side effects." |
| C34594 | Infection with the organism Escherichia Coli. |
| C34596 | A form of strabismus in which one or both eyes are deviated medially. |
| C34597 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the ethmoid sinus. |
| C3459 | An antiquated term that refers to a non-Hodgkin lymphoma with intermediate grade histologic features. |
| C34600 | Sudden contraction of the smooth muscles of the bronchial wall that occurs during or following exercise. |
| C34601 | A form of strabismus in which the eyes are deviated laterally. |
| C34605 | "Hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by the repeated exposure and inhalation of biological dust (such as hay dust, mold spores, or other agricultural products).  It is considered a type II hypersensitivity inflammatory reaction.  In the acute phase, signs and symptoms include fever, chills, cough, dyspnea, headache, and chest tightness.  The subacute phase manifests as chronic cough, dyspnea, anorexia, and weight loss.  The chronic phase results from the prolonged exposure to the antigen and... |
| C34607 | "A condition associated with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, which is characterized by hemolysis." |
| C34609 | "A benign medullary neoplasm characterized by the presence of poorly organized and inadequately mineralized bone and intervening fibrous tissue, in varying proportions. It can be monostotic or polyostotic. The skull, femur, tibia, and humerus are the most frequently affected bones. It manifests with pain, deformities, and fractures. GNAS activating mutations are detected in the majority of cases." |
| C3460 | A follicular lymphoma which contains more than 15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field. |
| C34610 | "Fibrous dysplasia affecting more than one bone. When it is associated with café-au-lait skin pigmentation and endocrine disorders, it is known as McCune-Albright syndrome." |
| C34611 | Infection by filarial worms. |
| C34612 | An infection that is caused by the organism Mansonella ozzardi. |
| C34614 | "An abnormal connection between the intestine and another epithelial-lined structure, but that does not include the rectum or anus." |
| C34616 | "An anatomic deformity in which the arch of the foot collapses, resulting in the entire sole of the foot coming into complete or near-complete contact with the ground." |
| C34619 | "A persistent opening in the atrial septum after birth. While a normal part of fetal circulation, the foramen ovale should close once the newborn begins breathing and the pressure in the left atrium exceeds that of the right atrium. While a PFO is generally asymptomatic, it can lead to the passage of clots from the venous circulation into the artierial circulation, resulting in paradoxical emboli, and possible strokes." |
| C3461 | "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of immunoblasts with uniformly round-to-oval nuclei, a prominent nucleolus, and abundant cytoplasm." |
| C34625 | "A rare acquired endocrine disorder more commonly affecting males. It is caused by lesions in the hypothalamus. Clinical signs include obesity, short stature, pubertal delay, hypogonadism, visual impairment, polydipsia and polyuria." |
| C34626 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the frontal sinus. |
| C34628 | Involuntary urine release that cannot be attributed to an anatomic or physiologic etiology. |
| C34629 | "A skin condition that is characterized by recurring furuncles, lesions primarily caused by staphylococcus aureus infection of the hair follicles and surrounding skin. Furunculosis occurs more frequently in persons with immune systems disorders than in the general population." |
| C3462 | An antiquated term that refers to a non-Hodgkin lymphoma with low grade histologic features. |
| C34631 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the gallbladder. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include acute and chronic cholecystitis, often associated with the presence of gallstones. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include adenoma, carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C34632 | "An inflammatory disorder that affects the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract. Most commonly, this is attributed to viruses; however bacteria, parasites or adverse reactions can also be the culprit. Symptoms include acute diarrhea and vomiting." |
| C34633 | A dysfunction in gastrointestinal function that is due to a psychological process. |
| C34634 | "An abnormality of leukocytes, the cause of which is present from birth." |
| C34636 | A disorder involving inflammation of the gums; may affect surrounding and supporting structures of the teeth. |
| C34637 | "A bacterial infectious process affecting the gums. It is characterized by the development of necrotic, ulcerated, and painful lesions with creation of pseudomembranes extending along the gingival margins." |
| C34638 | "A condition resulting from infection by Burkholderia mallei, which mainly affects horses." |
| C34639 | "The sudden increase of intraocular pressure, resulting in pain and an abrupt decrease in visual acuity." |
| C3463 | An antiquated term referring to non-Hodgkin lymphomas with a mixed cellular composition. This term applies to both B- and T- cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C34641 | Chronic outflow obstruction of the eye's drainage canals that can lead to increased internal eye pressure and optic nerve damage. |
| C34643 | A chronic autoimmune glomerulonephritis characterized by the deposition of immunoglobulin A in the mesangium of the glomeruli. It is manifested with hematuria and mild proteinuria. |
| C34644 | "Inflammation of the glomeruli characterized by deposits at the intraglomerular mesangium, resulting in thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, activation of complement, and impaired kidney function secondary to damaged glomeruli." |
| C34645 | "A slowly progressive inflammation of the glomeruli characterized by immune complex deposits at the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in a thickened membrane, and nephrotic syndrome." |
| C34646 | The inability to regulate blood glucose levels resulting in hyperglycemia. |
| C34647 | Sporadic nodular enlargement of the thyroid gland that is not associated with changes in thyroid function or malignancy. |
| C34648 | A gonococcal infection of the lower urinary tract that is rapid in onset. |
| C34649 | An autoimmune disorder characterized by pulmonary hemorrhage and glomerulonephritis. It is a hypersensitivity reaction resulting in the formation of antibodies against the pulmonary alveoli and the basement membrane of the glomeruli. |
| C3464 | "An antiquated term for a diffuse B-or T-cell lymphoma composed of small cleaved lymphocytes, occurring in adults." |
| C34650 | "A condition characterized by painful swelling of the joints, which is caused by deposition of urate crystals." |
| C34651 | A stromal corneal dystrophy that is caused by mutation(s) in the TGFBI gene. |
| C34653 | Inflammation of the arteries that is characterized by the presence of granulomas. |
| C34654 | An infection that is caused by the organism Hemophilus. |
| C34655 | An infection that is caused by the organism Hemophilus influenza. |
| C34656 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder involving the hair.  Representative examples include folliculitis, alopecia, tricholemmoma, and pilomatrical carcinoma." |
| C34657 | A drug dependence for a hallucinogenic substance. |
| C34658 | A deformity characterized by lateral deviation of the great toe. |
| C3465 | A follicular lymphoma which contains up to 5 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field. |
| C34662 | Hearing loss resulting from disorders of the central nervous system auditory pathways. |
| C34663 | A condition in which a person loses the ability to hear high frequency sounds.  It is typically associated with impairment of the inner ear. |
| C34664 | A condition in which a person loses the ability to hear due to exposure to high intensity sound. |
| C34666 | An anatomical defect of a gross structure of the heart. |
| C3466 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma of T-cell lineage. It includes the T lymphoblastic lymphoma and the mature T- and NK-cell lymphomas. |
| C34671 | "Osteophytes that most commonly develop on the distal interphalangeal joints, often in the setting of osteoarthritis." |
| C34674 | A congenital malformation characterized by the partial or total absence of the distal half of a limb. |
| C34675 | "An autosomal recessive hemoglobinopathy with a mild clinical course. Most patients are asymptomatic. When symptoms appear, they include mild hemolytic anemia and occasionally jaundice." |
| C34676 | A hemoglobinopathy that is considered a hybrid of sickle cell disease and hemoglobin C disease. Patients present with the symptoms of sickle cell disease but the latter are less frequent and severe compared to sickle cell disease. |
| C3467 | A T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising from the skin. Representative examples include mycosis fungoides and primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma. |
| C34682 | A tick borne hemorrhagic fever resulting from infection by Nairovirus. |
| C34683 | "A serious condition caused by Dengue virus infection. Patients present with an acute febrile illness followed by restlessness, irritability, and bleeding. It may lead to hemorrhagic shock and death." |
| C34684 | Inflammation of the liver resulting from ingestion of alcohol. |
| C34685 | The protrusion of part of an organ or fibroadipose tissue through an abnormal opening. |
| C34686 | "The protrusion of an organ, or the fascia of an organ, through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it, without mention of obstruction or necrosis of the herniated contents." |
| C34687 | A congenital or acquired weakness or opening in the diaphragm which allows abdominal contents to protrude into the chest cavity; congenital diaphragmatic hernias are caused when the embryonic diaphragm fails to fuse. |
| C34688 | "The protrusion of abdominal cavity contents into the thoracic cavity via a hole in the diaphragm, which was acquired via a traumatic etiology." |
| C34689 | "The protrusion of contents of the abdominal cavity, into the weak area at the posterior wall of the femoral canal, just inferior to the inguinal ligament." |
| C3468 | "This type of lymphoma is not frequently seen in the western hemisphere. Clinically, with the exception of anaplastic large cell lymphoma, mature T- and NK-cell lymphomas are among the most aggressive of all hematopoietic neoplasms. Representative disease entities include mycosis fungoides, angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma, hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma, and anaplastic large cell lymphoma." |
| C34690 | The protrusion of a sac-like structure containing fibroadipose tissue through an abnormal opening in the inguinal region. |
| C34691 | A protrusion of the abdominal cavity contents into the inguinal canal through the superficial inguinal ring. |
| C34692 | A protrusion of the abdominal cavity contents into the inguinal canal through the deep and superficial inguinal rings. |
| C34693 | The protrusion of abdominal cavity contents into the scrotal sac. |
| C34694 | Physical and psychological dependence on the drug heroin. |
| C34695 | "A lesion caused by type 1 or type 2 herpes simplex virus, involving the oralfacial region." |
| C34696 | A form of herpes zoster infection characterized by dermatitis of the skin of the eyelid due to reactivation of latent virus associated with the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. |
| C34697 | Infection of the vulva and the vagina caused by herpes simplex virus. |
| C3469 | "A superficial fibromatosis arising from the soft tissue of the palm. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts, and an infiltrative growth pattern. It predominantly affects adult males." |
| C34700 | A congenital disorder characterized by the absence of myenteric ganglion cells in the distal colon. It results in a functional stenosis of the distal colon and a massive distention of the proximal colon. |
| C34702 | An infection that is caused by hookworms. |
| C34704 | "An inheritable form of hyperlipidemia, in which there are excess lipids in the blood." |
| C34709 | An elevated concentration of lipoproteins. |
| C3470 | A localized or generalized inflammatory skin disorder characterized by the formation of papules and ring-shaped plaques in the skin. Morphologically these lesions are granulomatous inflammatory processes with central necrosis surrounded by palisading histiocytes. |
| C34712 | Excessive thickening of bone. |
| C34713 | Hyperostosis of the bones of the skull. |
| C34714 | "Overactive functioning of the spleen, resulting in excessive destruction of blood cells." |
| C34715 | "A condition in which there is an abnormally increased distance between two organs or bodily parts; most often, this term is referring to an increased distance between the orbits (orbital hypertelorism)." |
| C34716 | Vertical strabismus in which there is permanent upward deviation of the visual axis of one eye. |
| C34719 | Decreased menstrual blood flow. |
| C3471 | "An aggressive lymphoma that develops in HIV-positive patients.  There is a significant increase in the incidence of lymphomas associated with the AIDS epidemic.  These lymphomas are usually extranodal, most often express a B-cell phenotype and morphologically are classified as Burkitt, diffuse large B-cell, and Hodgkin lymphomas.  The prognosis is closely related to the severity of immunodeficiency." |
| C34720 | "A congenital condition, usually due to genetic aberrations, that is characterized by a lack of hair growth on the head and/or body." |
| C34723 | A category of behaviors that can be loosely defined as the failure to resist an impulsive act or behavior that may be harmful to self or others. |
| C34726 | "A clinical syndrome of fever, sore throat, fatigue, and lymphadenopathy caused by infection with the Epstein-Barr virus. Subsequent physical findings may include hepatomegaly, palatal petechiae, jaundice, uvular edema, and splenomegaly." |
| C34728 | "The protrusion of abdominal cavity contents through the inguinal canal, without mention of obstruction or necrosis of the herniated contents." |
| C3472 | "X-linked or autosomal recessive disorder characterized by defects of both humoral and cell mediated immunity, resulting in low or absent antibody levels, leukopenia, marked susceptibility to infections, and early death.--2004" |
| C34731 | "A classification of inherited or acquired disorders of sugar metabolism. Deficiencies of lactase, maltase or sucrase-isomaltase usually occur irreversibly and independent of one another. Congenital deficiencies are rare whereas acquired deficiencies are more common and may be seen following intestinal mucosal brush-border injury. Clinical signs include abdominal cramping, bloating, flatulence and diarrhea following dietary intake of lactose, maltose or sucrose. The clinical course leads to ... |
| C34732 | An abnormal communication between the small or large intestine and another organ or cavity. |
| C34733 | Ileus of the intestine in which there is no mechanical obstruction. |
| C34734 | An abscess that is located in the intracranial space. |
| C34736 | Inflammation of the iris and the ciliary body. |
| C34737 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the iris. |
| C3473 | "An intraventricular neoplasm that originates from the choroid plexus.  The vast majority of choroid plexus neoplasms originate from the epithelial layer and include the choroid plexus papilloma, atypical choroid plexus papilloma, and choroid plexus carcinoma." |
| C34741 | An inherited autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the presence of mild jaundice due to abnormalities in the bilirubin transportation from the liver parenchyma to the biliary system. |
| C34743 | "Infection of the cornea with herpes simplex virus, resulting in branching ulcers of the corneal tissue." |
| C34744 | Inflammation of both the cornea and the conjunctiva. |
| C34745 | A skin disorder consisting of hypertrophy of the stratum corneum of the skin. |
| C34746 | "Focal or diffuse thickening of the skin not inherited as a primary genetic disorder. Causes include inflammatory skin disorders, infectious disorders, lymphedema, and medications." |
| C34748 | "A group of autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked inherited or acquired disorders characterized by the thickening of the palms and soles due to hyperkeratosis." |
| C34749 | "Acute renal failure caused by the cell death of the renal tubules. Causes include nephrotoxins, cytotoxic drugs, and antibiotics." |
| C3474 | "An unusual benign or malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic large polygonal cells with granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm which contains abundant lysosomes. It was originally thought to be a tumor originating from muscle cells and was named granular cell myoblastoma. Subsequent studies have suggested a derivation from Schwann cells. It affects females more often than males and it usually presents as a solitary mass. A minority of patients have multiple tumors. It can a... |
| C34750 | A congenital or acquired kidney disorder characterized by the presence of renal cysts. |
| C34751 | "A developmental disorder of the kidney characterized by cystic dilatation of the medullary collecting ducts, resulting in a spongy gross appearance of the kidney. It may be asymptomatic or complicated by hematuria, infections, or renal stones." |
| C34752 | A sex chromosome disorder caused by the presence of an extra X chromosome in the male karyotype. Affected individuals are infertile and have a small penis and testes. They tend to have tall stature and long legs and may have difficulties with speech and language development. Gynecomastia may be present. |
| C34754 | Abnormally increased curvature of the thoracic portion of the spine. |
| C34755 | "Kyphosis, the cause of which is not present at birth." |
| C34756 | "Postural kyphosis, the cause of which is not present at birth." |
| C34758 | "A parasitic infection caused by worms found in domestic animals. In humans nematode larvae enter the portal system from the small intestine and disseminate in visceral organs causing inflammatory reactions. Signs and symptoms include eosinophilia, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and lung infections." |
| C34759 |  |
| C34760 | "A rare genetic syndrome with an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. Mutations in the BBS5 and MKKS genes of chromosome 11 have been observed in some cases which has lead to comparisons with Bardet-Biedl syndrome and McKusick-Kaufman syndrome. These syndromes have similar etiologies and presentations but are considered separate entities. Clinical signs of Laurence-Moon syndrome include ataxia, intellectual delay, retinitis pigmentosa and hypogonadism. The clinical course follows a pr... |
| C34766 | A very rare disorder of unknown etiology affecting children. It is characterized by avascular necrosis of the femoral head. |
| C34767 | "A parasitic infection caused by protozoa of the genus Leishmania. It is transmitted to humans via the bite of sandflies. There are three main forms of the disease: cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral leishmaniasis. Cutaneous leishmaniasis causes skin ulcers; mucocutaneous leishmaniasis causes destructive lesions of the mucous membranes of the nose, mouth, and throat; visceral leishmaniasis is the most severe form of the disease and is manifested with anemia, weight loss, hepatomegaly and... |
| C34768 | "Leishmaniasis affecting the skin. It is the most common form of leishmaniasis. It presents with erythematous macules and papules, and nodules which may eventually ulcerate. The lesions appear in the bite site in the exposed skin areas." |
| C34769 | The most common form of leishmaniasis that is transmitted through the bite of female phlebotomine sand flies or after exposure to leishmania parasites. It is characterized by skin lesions at the site of insect bite which typically develop within weeks or months after exposure. The lesions typically progress from small papules to open sores with raised borders and central ulcers which can be covered with scales or crust. |
| C3476 | "An autosomal dominant cancer predisposition syndrome caused by germline mutations of the TP53 gene. It is associated with breast carcinoma, choroid plexus carcinoma, adrenal cortex carcinoma, astrocytic tumors, medulloblastoma, soft tissue sarcoma, osteosarcoma, and leukemia." |
| C34770 | An acute necrotizing form of cutaneous leishmaniasis caused by Infection with leishmania tropica major. |
| C34771 | "A chronic parasitic infection affecting the viscera and caused by Leishmania donovani. Signs and symptoms include fever, anorexia, fatigue, lymphadenopathy, anemia, and hepatosplenomegaly. If left untreated it may lead to death." |
| C34772 | A partial dislocation of the lens of the eye. |
| C34773 | "An atherosclerotic disorder of the peripheral vascular system affecting mostly males in their later decades. It is caused by thrombotic occlusion of the abdominal aorta just above the level of the bifurcation. Clinical signs include impotence, intermittent claudication, diminished femoral pulses and cold, pallid lower extremities. Prognosis is favorable with surgical or endovascular intervention." |
| C34774 |  |
| C34777 | "A rare form of lichen planus that is characterized by well-demarcated, white-bluish papules or plaques with central atrophy." |
| C34778 | A rare form of lichen planus that is characterized by the formation of vesico-bullous lesions on top of preexisting lichen planus papules or on normal skin. |
| C34779 | A form of lichen planus that is characterized by plaques of markedly thickened skin that is often extremely pruritic and localized to the lower legs. It can result in permanent pigmentation and scarring. |
| C3477 | "A condition that is caused by infection with Bartonella, and which is characterized by vascular proliferation, usually in immunocompromised individuals." |
| C34781 | "A type of cerebral palsy characterized by spasticity and hypertonia of the lower extremities bilaterally, particularly the legs, hips, and pelvis; this is the most common (70%) form of cerebral palsy." |
| C34782 | A disorder of the liver characterized by the presence of fibrotic scar tissue instead of healthy liver tissue. This condition is attributed to excessive consumption of alcoholic beverages. |
| C34783 | "A disorder caused by damage to the liver parenchyma due to alcohol consumption. It may present with an acute onset or follow a chronic course, leading to cirrhosis." |
| C34784 | "Infection by the African eye worm, Loa loa." |
| C34786 | "A ventricular arrhythmia characterized by a long QT interval, and accompanied by syncopal episodes sometimes leading to sudden death due to paroxysmal ventricular arrhythmia. This arrhythmia is associated with a prolongation of repolarization following depolarization of the cardiac ventricles. The prolongation of the Q-T interval combined with torsades de pointes manifests as several different forms; some may be acquired or congenital; some may lead to serious arrhythmia and sudden cardiac ... |
| C34787 | Abnormally increased curvature of the lumbar portion of the spinal column. |
| C34789 | Glomerulonephritis in the context of systemic lupus erythematosus. |
| C34790 | Inflammation of the lymphatic vessels. |
| C34792 | "A rare, but potentially life-threatening disorder, characterized by the proliferation of histiocytes and macrophages, and phagocytosis of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It may be inherited or secondary due to infections, autoimmune disorders, or underlying malignancies. Signs and symptoms include fever, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and pancytopenia." |
| C34793 | "A stromal corneal dystrophy, with autosomal recessive inheritance, that is caused by lack of or abnormal keratan sulfate." |
| C34794 | "An accumulation of fluid in the outer plexiform layer, secondary to an increase in permeability of perifoveal retinal capillaries." |
| C34795 | A hole in the macula of the retina. |
| C34797 | "A protozoan infection caused by the genus Plasmodium. There are four species of Plasmodium that can infect humans: Plasmodium falciparum, vivax, ovale, and malariae. It is transmitted to humans by infected mosquitoes. Signs and symptoms include paroxysmal high fever, sweating, chills, and anemia." |
| C34798 | Malaria resulting from infection by Plasmodium falciparum. |
| C34799 | Malaria resulting from infection by Plasmodium malariae. |
| C3479 | Physical and/or psychological dependence to any substance. |
| C34800 | Malaria resulting from infection by Plasmodium vivax. |
| C34803 | "An epithelial or non-epithelial malignant neoplasm that arises from the liver. Representative examples include hepatocellular carcinoma, intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C34804 | Any anatomical misplacement of the heart and cardiac apex such that the organ occupies an unusual location within the body. |
| C34805 | The manic phase of bipolar disorder. |
| C34806 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the BCKDHA, BCKDHB, DBT, and DLD genes. It is characterized by a deficiency of branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex, leading to accumulation of metabolites in the body fluids. The name of the disease derives from the sweet odor of the urine in infants, reminiscent of maple syrup. Signs and symptoms usually appear in infancy and include lethargy and developmental delays. If untreated, it may lead to seizures, co... |
| C34807 | "A genetic syndrome inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. It is caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene. It is characterized by tall stature, elongated extremities, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dilatation, aortic dissection, and subluxation of the lens." |
| C34809 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the maxillary sinus. |
| C3480 | "A friable, benign vascular neoplasm with lobular capillary architecture that presents as a raised red skin growth." |
| C34810 | An abnormal dilation of the colon not due to obstruction. |
| C34811 | An abnormal dilation of the esophagus not due to obstruction. |
| C34812 | "A subtype of depression characterized by the inability to find pleasure in positive things combined with physical agitation, insomnia, or decreased appetite." |
| C34813 | "Inflammation of the meninges and brain, generally secondary to an infectious cause. Pathogens may be bacterial, viral, fungal, or protozoan." |
| C34814 | "A grouping of variable physical, vasomotor and psychological symptoms in climacteric females. Physical symptoms include: cessation of menses, headaches, fatigue, weight gain and vaginal dryness. Vasomotor symptoms typically include: palpitations, hot flashes and night sweats. Psychological symptoms may include: decrease in libido, emotional lability, difficulty concentrating and insomnia." |
| C34815 | A category of conditions related to menses. |
| C34816 | "A group of disorders present at birth that involve genetic defects leading to disturbances in carbohydrate, lipid, lysosomal storage or amino acid metabolism in the body." |
| C34817 | An inherited or acquired condition characterized by abnormally increased levels of methemoglobin in the blood. |
| C34819 | "A rare, persistent and bilateral enlargement of the lacrimal and salivary glands associated with lymphocytic infiltration of the affected glands. It is not associated with other systemic diseases." |
| C3481 | "A type of telangiectasia comprising a central red spot with red, radiating extensions." |
| C34823 | Viral encephalitis that is transmitted by mosquitos. |
| C34825 | "A vasculitis characterized by inflammation of the arteries, particularly the coronary arteries. The vasculitis may lead to aneurysm formation and possibly, heart attacks. It affects young children who usually present with persistent high fever, redness of the mucous membranes of the mouth, redness of the palms and soles, skin rashes, lymphadenitis, and joint pain and swelling." |
| C34826 | A polypoid lesion that arises from the cervix and contains mucus. |
| C34829 | Degeneration of myocardial tissue. |
| C3482 | Carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites. |
| C34830 | "A disease of the heart muscle or myocardium proper. Cardiomyopathies may be classified as either primary or secondary, on the basis of etiology, or on the pathophysiology of the lesion: hypertrophic, dilated, or restrictive." |
| C34831 | Inflammation of the muscle tissue of the heart. |
| C34833 | A cataract occurring as a sequela of myotonic dystrophy. |
| C34834 | "A condition characterized by severe hypothyroidism that is caused by autoimmune thyroid gland disorders, surgical reduction of thyroid tissue, radiation exposure, and viral infections.  Signs and symptoms include generalized fatigue, lethargy, increased body weight, pale, edematous and thickened skin, low blood pressure, constipation and cold intolerance." |
| C34836 | "A condition in which the nail grows into the nailbed secondary to downward pressure, generally caused by ill-fitting shoes. Symptoms include pain, erythema, and edema, and may result in infection if it remains untreated." |
| C34837 | An inflammatory process that affects the nasopharynx. |
| C34838 | "A disorder caused by an infection with hookworms of the genus Necator, which settle in the host's small intestine, and cause abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, and anemia." |
| C3483 | "A slowly progressing leukemia characterized by a clonal (malignant) proliferation of maturing and mature myeloid cells or mature lymphocytes.  When the clonal cellular population is composed of myeloid cells, the process is called chronic myelogenous leukemia.  When the clonal cellular population is composed of lymphocytes, it is classified as chronic lymphocytic leukemia, hairy cell leukemia, or T-cell large granular lymphocyte leukemia." |
| C34840 | "An uncommon inflammatory skin condition, often associated with diabetes mellitus, that is characterized by the formation of multiple shiny atrophic lesions thought to be due to collagen degeneration with a granulomatous response, thickening of blood vessel walls, and fat deposition. The lesions are usually found on the leg." |
| C34841 | "Necrotic changes in the bone tissue due to interruption of blood supply. Most often affecting the epiphysis of the long bones, the necrotic changes result in the collapse and the destruction of the bone structure." |
| C34842 | "A genetic syndrome usually inherited as an X-link trait. It is caused by abnormalities in the COL4A5 gene. It affects males more often than females and is characterized by hematuria, progressive renal insufficiency, hearing loss, and ocular abnormalities." |
| C34843 | A term referring to any disease affecting the kidneys. |
| C34844 | A glomerular disorder characterized by the electron microscopic finding of loss of podocyte foot processes. Light microscopic examination does not show glomerular changes. Patients present with proteinuria and nephrotic syndrome. |
| C34845 | "A collection of symptoms that include severe edema, proteinuria, and hypoalbuminemia; it is indicative of renal dysfunction." |
| C34847 |  |
| C34848 | "A form of functional mental illness that manifests in distressed emotional reactions such as anxiety, obsessive thoughts, compulsive behaviors, or irrational fears." |
| C34849 | "A condition caused by infection by the Newcastle disease virus, which may be characterized by conjunctivitis, respiratory illness, and diarrhea." |
| C3484 | A non-neoplastic disorder characterized by epithelial and/or myoepithelial tissue growth in the breast lobules.  It may be associated with apocrine changes or sclerosis. |
| C34852 | Gangrene of the mucous membranes of the mouth leading to ulcers and destruction of the soft tissues of the face and bones. It usually occurs in malnourished children in areas of poor sanitation and immunocompromised patients. |
| C34853 | Hemolytic anemia that is not mediated by immune mechanisms. |
| C34854 | "A genetic syndrome caused by mutations in the PTPN11 gene (over 50% of the cases) or less frequently mutations in the SOS1, RAF1, or KRAS genes. It is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, hypertelorism, low-set ears, deafness, and thrombocytopenia or abnormal platelet function." |
| C34855 | "A rare, severe form of scabies that is associated with immunosuppression. It is characterized by an immense number of mites and hyperkeratotic crusted lesions, and is usually accompanied by lymphadenopathy and eosinophilia." |
| C34856 | A non-congenital malformation of the nose. |
| C34859 | Contact dermatitis associated with allergens or irritants found in the workplace. |
| C3485 |  |
| C34861 | A disease caused by infection with Onchocerca volvulus; symptoms may include pruritis and blindness. |
| C34862 | Onchocerciasis affecting the eye. |
| C34863 | "A disorder characterized by loss of optic nerve fibers. It may be inherited or acquired. Acquired causes include ischemia, optic nerve neuropathy, glaucoma, trauma, radiation, brain tumors, and multiple sclerosis. It leads to vision disturbances." |
| C34864 | A family of inherited disorders characterized by progressive loss of vision secondary to death of the retinal ganglion cell axons that comprise the optic nerve. |
| C34865 | The visual perception of an image that differs from the reality of the image. |
| C34866 | "Chronic, progressive, debilitating and non-reversible fibrosis of the submucosal tissues of the mouth.  It is associated with chewing betel quid, a habit practiced in Southeast Asia and India.  It is a precancerous condition and results in rigidity of the jaws and inability of the affected individual to open the mouth." |
| C34867 | An anxiety disorder in which the symptoms of anxiety have been determined to be the direct physiological consequence of a general medical condition. |
| C34868 | "A mental disorder caused by intrinsic disease which is characterized by acute or chronic impairment of intellectual functioning, behavior, mood or judgment. It is attributable to a medical etiology and excludes a primary psychiatric cause. A chronic course usually correlates to a poorer prognosis." |
| C34869 | A mental disorder caused by intrinsic disease which is characterized by persistent or recurrent irrational beliefs. Consciousness and memory are not affected. It may be broadly classified as a psychotic disorder due to a general medical condition. |
| C3486 | A benign or malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumor with epithelioid morphology. |
| C34870 | "Any decrease in mental functioning in which the cause is not attributable to psychiatric illness, which includes damage from physical trauma, anoxic injury, damage from chemicals or toxins, infection, cancer, and degenerative diseases, including Alzheimer's disease, Huntington's disease, Parkinson's disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease." |
| C34871 | A mental disorder caused by intrinsic disease which is characterized by persistent alterations in mood that are directly attributable to the disease itself rather than a response to knowledge of the disease or other co-morbidity. It may be broadly classified as a depressive or bipolar disorder due to a general medical condition. |
| C34872 | "A mental disorder caused by intrinsic disease which is characterized by persistent alteration of a known behavioral pattern. Changes in emotional stability, motivation, judgment or impulse control are usually noted. It is broadly classified as a personality change due to a general medical condition." |
| C34873 | "Disease caused by the Chlamydophila psittaci bacteria, usually transmitted from birds to humans." |
| C34874 | Osteochondrosis of the growth plate near the tibial tuberosity. |
| C34875 | "A disorder that is characterized by bone cysts and fractures, resulting from hyperparathyroidism." |
| C34876 | Osteoarthritis of the hip joint. |
| C34877 | Inflammation of the bone and cartilage. |
| C34878 | Osteochondritis that is characterized by fragmentation of cartilage and bone. |
| C34879 | A condition that is characterized by defective bone growth that affects the growth centers of bone. |
| C3487 | "The development of a neoplasm in response to medical or surgical treatment, induced by the treatment itself." |
| C34880 | Death of bone tissue due to traumatic or nontraumatic causes. |
| C34881 | Any anatomic abnormality of the hip that is present at the time of birth. |
| C34882 | "An autoinflammatory condition following an infection with Group A Beta Hemolytic Streptococcus (GABHS), in which the heart is attacked by antibodies formed in reaction to a recent GABHS infection. Chief anatomic changes of the valve include leaflet thickening, commissural fusion, and shortening and thickening of the tendinous cords, all of which can result in valvular dysfunction." |
| C34885 | "Inflammation of the anatomical structures of the middle ear, which is most often caused by an infectious process. Symptoms include erythema and edema of the tympanic membrane, pain, and possibly fever." |
| C34886 | Otitis media associated with accumulation of fluid in the middle ear. |
| C34888 | "A chronic inflammatory disorder that generally occurs in adulthood and is characterized by sterile pustules intermingled with scaly erythemas, vesicles and hyperkeratosis occurring at distinct sites on the palms and soles. It is thought to be an autoimmune disorder precipitated by several factors, including local infection, and smoking." |
| C3488 | "A rare syndrome characterized by severe watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria. It is caused by the oversecretion of vasoactive intestinal peptide from the pancreatic islet cells." |
| C34890 | An anxiety disorder characterized by multiple unexpected panic attacks with persistent concern of recurring attacks. Panic disorder may or may not be accompanied by agoraphobia. |
| C34891 | "A systemic fungal infection caused by Paracoccidioides brasiliensis that is most often seen in immunocompromised patients. It affects the mucous membranes, lymph nodes, lungs and bones." |
| C34893 | "A condition in which the foreskin of an uncircumcised male is retracted and cannot be pulled back over the glans penis.  It results in painful swelling of the glans penis and, if is not corrected, may lead to gangrene." |
| C34894 | "Paratyphoid fever that is caused by infection with Salmonella enterica, serovar Paratyphi A." |
| C34895 | "Paratyphoid fever that is caused by infection with Salmonella enterica, serovar Paratyphi B." |
| C34896 | "Paratyphoid fever that is caused by infection with Salmonella enterica, serovar Paratyphi C." |
| C34897 | A condition resembling typhoid fever that is caused by infection by Salmonella enterica serovar Parathyphi. |
| C34898 | Parkinsonism resulting from encephalitis. |
| C34899 | "A condition with a clinical picture similar to that of Parkinson disease, but which is caused by external factors, including medication." |
| C3489 | "A neoplasm that arises from the penis and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C34900 | A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of episodic atrial tachycardia with abrupt onset and termination. |
| C34903 | "An inflammatory disorder of the cilliary body in the uvea that affects healthy, younger individuals who are often asymptomatic. It has a long clinical course with relapses and remissions. Symptoms include mildly decreased vision and floaters. It may be associated with autoimmune disorders." |
| C34904 | "A disorder characterized by a pattern of indirect expression of hostility, including negativistic attitudes and passive resistance to demands for adequate performance in social and occupational situations." |
| C34907 | "A chronic autoimmune disorder characterized by the development of blisters and ulcers in mucous membranes. It affects most often the gums, eyelids and genital mucosa sites." |
| C34908 | A rare autoimmune blistering skin disorder that resembles pemphigus but is histologically and clinically distinguishable by lack of evidence of acantholysis and a generally benign course. |
| C34909 | A blistering skin disorder. Morphologically it is characterized by acantholysis and intraepidermal blister formation. |
| C3490 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm arising from the lips. |
| C34910 | An autoimmune blistering disorder. It is characterized by the presence of painful blisters and erosions in the skin and mucous membranes. |
| C34911 | An allergy to Penicillin. |
| C34912 | An incorrect understanding or interpretation of sensory input. |
| C34913 | Localized collection of pus in the tissues that enclose the root of a tooth. |
| C34914 | Localized collection of pus in the tissues that enclose the root of a tooth and is associated with the presence of a sinus tract. |
| C34915 | An inflammatory process affecting the pericardium. |
| C34916 | Inflammation of the tissue surrounding the biliary ducts. |
| C34917 | An acute purulent bacterial infection that arises from the tissues that surround and support the teeth. |
| C34918 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process that affects the tissues that surround and support the teeth. |
| C34919 | Degeneration of the peripheral retina. |
| C3491 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the cecum and invades through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa.  The vast majority are adenocarcinomas. |
| C34921 | "A congenital defect in the atrial septum at the level of the atrioventricular valves, resulting in abnormalities in the mitral and/or tricuspid valve; this defect is most commonly seen in those with Trisomy 21." |
| C34922 | A diverse category of psychiatric disorders characterized by behavior that deviates markedly from the expectations of the individual's culture; this pattern of deviation is pervasive and inflexible and is stable over time. The behavioral pattern negatively interferes with relationships and work. |
| C34923 | The sensation of the continued presence of an amputated limb. |
| C34924 | "A condition characterized by fever, conjunctivitis, and pharyngitis resulting from infection by adenovirus." |
| C34926 | "An overwhelming, irrational, and persistent fear of attending school." |
| C34927 | "An anxiety disorder characterized by an intense, irrational fear of one or more social or performance situations in which the individual believes that he or she will be scrutinized by others. Exposure to social situations immediately provokes an anxiety response. In adults, the social phobia is recognized as excessive or unreasonable." |
| C34928 | A congenital malformation in which the upper portion of a limb is either shortened or absent. |
| C34932 | Inflammation of the lungs due to the inhalation of solid or liquid material. |
| C34934 | A radiculopathy that is present in more than one nerve. |
| C34936 | "A cutaneous form of leishmaniasis which sometimes occurs after visceral leishmaniasis treatment.  It is characterized by hypo-pigmented macules, papules, plaques, nodules, or facial erythema; and is considered to be a durable infection reservoir for visceral leishmaniasis." |
| C34939 | "Any disorder caused by an insufficient amount or availability of potassium, which generally manifests with myalgia, tetany, hypotension, polyuria, and polydipsia." |
| C3493 | "A carcinoma arising from squamous bronchial epithelial cells. It may be keratinizing or non-keratinizing. Keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma is characterized by the presence of keratinization, pearl formation, and/or intercellular bridges. Non-keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma is characterized by the absence of keratinization, pearl formation, and intercellular bridges. Cigarette smoking and arsenic exposure are strongly associated with squamous cell lung carcinoma." |
| C34940 | An electrocardiographic finding characterized by a premature activation of the whole or some part of the ventricle. The PR interval is usually shortened and delta waves are frequently present. (CDISC) |
| C34942 | Carbohydrate intolerance first diagnosed during pregnancy. |
| C34943 | "A pregnancy induced hypertensive state that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation characterized by an increase in blood pressure, along with body swelling and proteinuria." |
| C34945 | An abnormal pregnancy in which the conception is implanted outside the endometrial cavity. |
| C34949 | "A sleep disorder characterized by difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep; this difficulty does not occur in the context of another sleep disorder and is not etiologically linked to a mental disorder, substance use, or a general medical condition." |
| C3494 | A benign lung neoplasm characterized by the presence of a fibrovascular stroma lined by cuboidal to columnar cells. Patients are usually asymptomatic and it is incidentally discovered as a pulmonary nodule during chest X-ray examination. Surgical excision is curative. |
| C34950 | Inflammation of the sigmoid colon and rectum. |
| C34951 | "A very rare genetic disorder caused by mutations in the LMNA gene. It is characterized by premature aging. Signs and symptoms include failure to thrive, limited growth, alopecia, wrinkled skin, small face, development of atherosclerosis, and heart disease. There is no cure for this condition. Individuals do not usually survive beyond their early twenties. Death usually occurs as a result of complications from atherosclerosis." |
| C34952 | A nutritional deficit that is caused by inadequate protein or calorie intake. |
| C34953 | An infection that is caused by protozoans. |
| C34955 | "An acute episode of pain, swelling, and redness, sometimes associated with fever. It is caused by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joints." |
| C34956 | A category of psychiatric disorders which are characterized by the presence of physical symptoms that suggest a medical condition but are not fully explained by any known medical reasons. |
| C34957 | "A psychotic disorder characterized by prominent hallucinations or delusions that have been determined to be etiologically linked to substance use, intoxication or withdrawal." |
| C34958 | A sexual disorder in which a woman fails to achieve orgasm during sexual intercourse. |
| C34959 | Persistent delay or absence in orgasm not accounted for by a medical reason. |
| C3495 | A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the colonic mucosa. It is characterized by a villous architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C34961 | "The obstruction of the right ventricular outflow tract that originates within the body of the right ventricle, that exists at the time of birth; it often occurs in association with other intracardiac anomalies." |
| C34963 | "A systemic, usually self-limited immune complex vasculitis, characterized by immunoglobulin A deposition in the small vessels and kidneys. It is manifested with small hemorrhages in the skin, gastrointestinal symptoms, arthritis, and nephropathy." |
| C34964 | Inflammation of the renal pelvis. |
| C34965 | "An inflammatory process affecting the kidney. The cause is most often bacterial, but may also be fungal in nature. Signs and symptoms may include fever, chills, flank pain, painful and frequent urination, cloudy or bloody urine, and confusion." |
| C34966 | Narrowing of the pyloric lumen caused either by hypertrophy of the surrounding muscles or tissue scarring due to a chronic peptic ulcer. |
| C34967 | "A skin hemangioma characterized by the proliferation of capillaries with a lobular architecture. It most often affects the fingers and manifests as a rapidly growing, polypoid, hemorrhagic, red or blue nodule that is frequently ulcerated." |
| C34968 | "The presence of pus in the fallopian tube.  It is usually caused by acute salpingitis.  The fallopian tube is distended and filled with pus.  Histologic examination reveals edema and acute and chronic inflammation.  Symptoms include fever, vaginal discharge, and pelvic pain." |
| C34970 | "A bacterial infection caused by Coxiella burnetii. It is transmitted to humans by the inhalation of infected air particles or contact with fluids and feces of infected animals. Signs and symptoms include the abrupt onset of fever, headache, myalgias, and weakness." |
| C34971 | An infectious disease that is caused transmitted by the bite of a rat. Two species of bacteria can cause the infection: Streptobacillus moniliformis and Spirillum minus. |
| C34973 | Protrusion of the rectum through the anus. |
| C34974 | "A disease characterized by normocytic, normochromic anemia, low hematocrit, reticulocytopenia, and selective erythroid hypoplasia." |
| C34975 | "A rare, reactive inflammatory disorder seen following bacterial infection. It predominantly affects males aged 20-40. Individuals with HLA-B27 antigen are estimated to have a 50 % increased risk. The disorder is characterized by arthritis, conjunctivitis, uveitis, iritis and ulceration of the oral cavity, genitals and volar surfaces of the hands and feet. The clinical course is self-limited with resolution of clinical disease usually within six months of onset." |
| C34976 | "An infection that is caused by certain species of Rickettsia or Borrelia, which are transmitted to humans from infected ticks; it is characterized by sudden fever, chills, headaches, myalgia, arthralgia, nausea, and possibly a rash. Symptoms usually persist for two to nine days, then disappear, with recurrence after several weeks if the patient remains untreated." |
| C34977 | A greater than normal number of blood cells in the reticuloendothelial system. |
| C34978 | An occlusion of the retinal artery. |
| C34979 | Degeneration of the retina. |
| C3497 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the lung.  It is characterized by the presence of mesenchymal tissues admixed with entrapped respiratory epithelium.  The majority of cases are peripheral and asymptomatic.  A minority of cases arise endobronchially and present with signs and symptoms of bronchial obstruction.  Wedge resection or bronchoplastic resection is usually curative.  Recurrence is very rare. |
| C34980 | An occlusion of the retinal vasculature. |
| C34981 | An occlusion of the retinal vein. |
| C34982 | "A bilateral retinopathy characterized by neovascularization, scarring, retinal detachment, and eventually blindness. It may be mild or severe. It occurs in babies born prematurely. Causes include oxygen toxicity and hypoxia." |
| C34983 | "An acute and potentially fatal metabolic disorder characterized by cerebral edema, fatty liver and hypoglycemia. It occurs primarily in children and has been associated with the use of aspirin for the treatment of viral infections. However, it can also occur in the absence of aspirin use." |
| C34984 | "An inflammatory disorder that follows infection with group A streptococcus. It affects the heart, joints, and subcutaneous tissues. It manifests with pericarditis, heart murmur, congestive heart failure, polyarthritis, subcutaneous nodules, and erythema marginatum. It is characterized by the formation of granulomatous lesions called Aschoff bodies usually in the heart tissue." |
| C34985 | "Pancarditis, involving inflammation of the endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium. It results from an autoimmune reaction following an infection with Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococci)." |
| C34986 | "An inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the nose, usually associated with nasal discharge." |
| C34987 | Allergic rhinitis with a positive skin prick test (SPT equal or greater than 3 mm) to any allergen. |
| C34988 | "Inflammation in the nasal cavity mucosa that results from the abnormal regulation of the blood flow in the nose. It may be caused by temperature fluctuations, air pollution, strong odors, and tobacco smoke.  It results in chronic nasal congestion, sneezing, and running nose." |
| C34989 | Progressive enlargement of the nose due to hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands of the tip of the nose and fibrosis.  It usually affects older men and is associated with long-standing acne rosacea. It presents as a pink lobulated mass with dilated vessels in the nose. |
| C3498 | A benign neoplasm arising from soft tissue of the ovary.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts. |
| C34991 | A group of infectious diseases that is caused by Rickettsia. |
| C34992 | "A condition, whose clinical manifestations include intrauterine growth restriction, petechial rash, jaundice, generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, peripheral pulmonary stenosis, cataracts, and sensorineural deafness, that is caused by fetal exposure to the rubella virus during the first trimester of pregnancy." |
| C34995 | "An idiopathic inflammatory disorder characterized by the formation of non-necrotizing epithelioid granulomas which contain giant cells. It usually affects the lungs, lymph nodes, liver, and skin. Cardiac involvement is also possible." |
| C34996 | Formation of non-necrotizing granulomas in the skin. It may be a manifestation of systemic sarcoidosis or may also arise in isolation. |
| C34997 | "Sarcoidosis affecting the lung parenchyma. It is characterized by the presence of non-necrotizing granulomas in the lung tissues. It is manifested with dyspnea, cough, fever, night sweats, fatigue, and weight loss." |
| C34998 | "A contagious skin infection that is caused by the burrowing parasitic mite, Sarcoptes scabiei, and is characterized by intense itching and small, raised red spots in the area of the mite burrows." |
| C34999 | A disorder characterized by osteochondrosis of the vertebral epiphyses in childhood. |
| C3499 | A cardiac myxoma arising from the atrium. |
| C35000 | "A parasitic infection caused by flukes of the genus Schistosoma. Signs and symptoms include fever, abdominal pain, eosinophilia and hepatosplenomegaly. If left untreated it may eventually cause liver damage leading to cirrhosis, bladder cancer and kidney failure." |
| C35001 | An infection that is caused by Schistosoma japonicum. |
| C35002 | An infection that is caused by Schistosoma mansoni. |
| C35003 | "A subtype of schizophrenia characterized by a psychomotor disturbance that may involve motoric immobility, excessive motor activity, extreme negativism or mutism, peculiarities of voluntary movement, echolalia, and/or echopraxia." |
| C35004 | Schizophrenia occurring in childhood. |
| C35005 | "A subtype of schizophrenia characterized by disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, and a flat or inappropriate affect; associated features include grimacing, mannerisms, and other oddities of behavior. Criteria for the catatonic type of schizophrenia are not met." |
| C35006 | A subtype of schizophrenia characterized by prominent delusions (typically persecutory or grandiose) or hallucinations in the context of a relative preservation of cognitive functioning and affect. |
| C35007 | "A subtype of schizophrenia in which the individual has suffered an episode of schizophrenia but there are no longer any delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech or behavior. Residual symptoms are seen in the form of negative symptoms (such as flat affect or avolition) or attenuated positive symptoms (such as odd beliefs)." |
| C35008 | "A classification for rare genetic syndromes with an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. Clinical features include muscle stiffness and weakness, facial and skeletal abnormalities with joint contractures and short stature. Two types have been characterized: Schwartz-Jampel Syndrome type I (SJSI) and Schwartz-Jampel Syndrome type II (SJSII). SJSI is associated with a mutation of the HSPG2 gene on chromosome 1 and has been further characterized into two subtypes IA and IB. SJSIA is mor... |
| C35009 | "A diffuse hardening of skin and subcutaneous adipose tissue, associated with minimal inflammation without fat necrosis, that typically affects critically ill preterm neonates during the first week of life." |
| C3500 | Inflammation or degeneration of the peripheral motor nerves. |
| C35010 | Abnormally low concentrations of vitamin C in the blood. |
| C35012 | "An age-related, anatomical abnormality that is caused by thickening of the lens of the eye." |
| C35014 | "An anxiety disorder characterized by recurrent excessive distress due to fear of separation from the home or from major attachment figures; the distress is developmentally inappropriate and causes impairment in social, academic, or other areas of functioning." |
| C3501 | Inflammation or degeneration of the sensory nerves. |
| C35023 | Thyroid gland enlargement caused by inadequate dietary iodine intake.  It occurs in areas in which the soil lacks iodine compounds or there is low seafood consumption. |
| C35024 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process affecting the mucous membranes of any sinus cavity. |
| C35025 | "An inflammatory process affecting the skin, caused by bacteria, viruses, parasites, or fungi. Examples of bacterial infection include carbuncles, furuncles, impetigo, erysipelas, and abscesses. Examples of viral infection include shingles, warts, molluscum contagiosum, and pityriasis rosea. Examples of parasitic infection include scabies and lice. Examples of fungal infection include athlete's foot, yeast infection, and ringworm." |
| C35027 | "A condition that is caused by infection with Variola, and that is characterized by small, raised bumps." |
| C35028 | Smallpox that occurs in an individual who has been vaccinated. |
| C35029 |  |
| C3502 | "A benign, encapsulated neoplasm arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. It may be associated with thyroid hormone secretion but it does not have malignant characteristics." |
| C35030 | A condition resulting from infection with the second stage larvae of the parasite Spirometra. |
| C35031 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the sphenoid sinus. |
| C35033 | A condition in which there is forward displacement of a vertebral bone over the on below it. |
| C35034 | A defect in the pars interarticularis of a vertebral bone. |
| C35036 | Gastroenteritis resulting from an infection with Staphylococcus aureus. |
| C35037 | Food poisoning that is caused by Staphylococcal infection. |
| C35038 | infection by Staphylococcus. |
| C35039 | Inflammation of the mouth mucosa associated with the presence of ulcers. |
| C3503 | Encephalopathy resulting from hypertension. |
| C35040 | "Strabismus is the intermittent or constant misalignment of an eye so that its line of vision is not pointed at the same object as the other eye. Strabismus is caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles which control the positioning of the eyes. Strabismus is normal in newborns but should resolve by the time the baby is 6 months old. In older children with strabismus, the brain may learn to ignore the input from one eye, and this may lead to amblyopia, a potentially permanent decrease... |
| C35042 | "The involuntary loss of urine in females secondary to insufficient strength of the pelvic floor muscles; this can result from physical changes following pregnancy and childbirth, or as a response to a decrease in estrogen during menopause." |
| C35043 | "A speech disorder characterized by frequent sound or syllable repetitions, sound prolongations, or other dysfluencies that are inappropriate for the individual's age." |
| C35044 | "An uncommon neurovascular condition seen with exertion of the upper extremity. It is usually caused by atherosclerotic stenosis or occlusion of the subclavian artery proximal to the origin of the vertebral artery. In order to maintain adequate perfusion of the arm during exercise on the affected side, the narrowed subclavian artery siphons off retrograde blood flow from the ipsilateral vertebral artery. This is possible due to lower blood pressure distal to the site of narrowing and collate... |
| C35046 | "A substance-specific organic brain syndrome that follows the discontinuation of administration or use, or reduction in intake of an addictive substance, e.g. opioids, barbiturates and alcohol; amphetamines or similarly acting sympathomimetics; cocaine; nicotine; sedatives, hypnotics, or anxiolytics. Syndrome manifests with diverse, often painful physical and psychological symptoms, which include but not limited to intense drug craving, anxiety, depression, insomnia, nausea, perspiration, bo... |
| C3504 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the endometrium. Representative examples include endometritis, endometrial hyperplasia, and endometrial carcinoma." |
| C35050 | Infection of a surgical incision. |
| C35055 | "A contagious bacterial infection caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. It is a sexually transmitted disorder, although it can also be transmitted from the mother to the fetus in utero. Typically, it is initially manifested with a single sore which heals without treatment. If the infection is left untreated, the initial stage is followed by skin rash and mucous membrane lesions. A late stage follows, which is characterized by damage of the internal organs, including the nervous system." |
| C35056 | A stage of syphilis characterized by the serologic evidence of infection by Treponema pallidum without evidence of accompanying signs or symptoms related to the disease. |
| C35057 | "A form of neurosyphilis characterized by slowly progressive degeneration of the spinal cord. Signs and symptoms include pain, ataxia, loss of coordination, personality changes, blindness, urinary incontinence, dementia, and degeneration of the joints." |
| C3505 | "An inflammatory reaction of the skin to various organic and inorganic antigens. It is characterized by tumor-like masses or nodules of granulomatous tissue comprised of activated histiocytes, epitheliod cells, and multinucleated giant cells." |
| C35061 | "A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of a tachycardia which does not originate in the ventricles or His Purkinje system. There is an abnormally high heart rate and QRS complexes are typically narrow, but aberration or preexcitation may be present. (CDISC)" |
| C35062 | "A large vessel vasculitis affecting the aorta and its branches. It usually affects young females. It causes vascular obstruction, resulting in asymmetric pulses." |
| C35063 | "An expected condition experienced by children during the emergence of deciduous teeth. Though a full set of 20 primary teeth takes more than two years to emerge, teething syndrome may be variably noted from the first paired eruption (usually at the sixth month) until the last. Characteristically, irritability, inflamed gingivae, drooling and chewing on solid objects may be seen several days prior to the eruption with rapid resolution. Typically, the lower central incisors appear first follo... |
| C35064 | "An autosomal dominant hereditary disorder caused by mutations in the ACVRL1, ENG, and SMAD4 genes. It is characterized by the presence of telangiectasias in the skin, mucous membranes, lungs, brain, liver, and gastrointestinal tract. It results in hemorrhages from the affected areas." |
| C35065 | "An autoimmune, systemic, giant cell granulomatous arteritis predominantly involving the arteries that supply blood to the central nervous system, head and eyes. Superficial arteries of the scalp that are involved tend to be enlarged and tender. Signs and symptoms include headaches, myalgias, visual disturbances, and skin necrosis." |
| C35066 | "A common disorder noted with jaw movement. It may be caused by malocclusion, repetitive use injury, trauma or arthritis. It is more prevalent among females between their second and fourth decades. Clinical signs include preauricular pain, temporomandibular joint clicking (as the mandibular condyle slips from the articulation made with the capsular disc and temporal bone) and restriction of jaw motion. Clinical course is typically benign but may progress to associated headaches, ear and neck... |
| C35067 | inflammation of the lateral epicondyle. |
| C35068 | A cataract resulting from hypocalcemia. |
| C35069 | An inherited blood disorder characterized by a decreased synthesis of one of the polypeptide chains that form hemoglobin. Anemia results from this abnormal hemoglobin formation. |
| C3506 | Congenital or acquired hyperplasia of the cells of the adrenal cortex. |
| C35070 | An inflammatory vascular disorder that affects small and medium-sized arteries and veins in the extremities. The inflammatory process is initiated in the tunica intima and results in thrombosis and vascular obstruction with subsequent ischemia and ulceration of the limbs and digits. It affects males more often than females and usually occurs at age 20-45 years.  It is strongly associated with heavy tobacco use. |
| C35071 | "Self-limited inflammation of the thyroid gland.  The clinical course includes an initial phase of hyperthyroidism, followed by a phase of hypothyroidism, and eventually a return to normal thyroid function.  This category includes the subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis and subacute granulomatous thyroiditis." |
| C35072 | "A severe, chronic fungal skin infection, usually of the scalp, characterized by the development of thick, yellow cup-shaped crusts and scarring over hair follicles." |
| C35073 | "A deep folliculitis due to a cutaneous dermatophyte infection, usually on the legs. It is most commonly caused by trichophyton rubrum and is characterized by the formation of spongy granulomas which persist for three to four months and leaves deep scars." |
| C35074 | Any disease or disorder that is caused by the use of tobacco. |
| C35075 | A benign condition affecting the dorsum of the tongue. It is characterized by defective desquamation resulting in elongation of the filiform papillae. The dorsum of the tongue has a furry appearance and is usually stained black. |
| C35077 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic (benign or malignant) disorder affecting the teeth. |
| C35078 | A neurologic disorder caused by defective metabolism of the neurotransmitters in the brain. It is characterized by repeated involuntary movements (motor tics) and uncontrollable vocal sounds (vocal tics). The symptoms are usually manifested before the age of eighteen. |
| C35079 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the trachea. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include congenital malformations and infection. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include carcinoma and lymphoma. |
| C3507 | A disorder resulting from an abnormality in the immune system. |
| C35080 | A congenital or acquired abnormal communication between the trachea and the esophagus. |
| C35081 | Myositis Ossificans resulting from trauma. |
| C35083 | "A sexually transmitted parasitic infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis.  Symptoms include vaginal discharge, vaginal odor, vaginal itching, and discomfort during intercourse." |
| C35084 | Trypanosomiasis caused by infection by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense. |
| C35085 | An infection with Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense. |
| C35086 | "Clinical disease resulting from hematogenous dissemination of Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacilli. Originally described by the appearance of millet seed-like granulomas in the lungs, its progression from sustained bacteremia to extrapulmonary involvement is suggestive of a poor prognosis." |
| C35087 | Tuberculosis of the vertebrae. |
| C35088 | Scarring of the lung parenchyma caused by pulmonary tuberculosis. |
| C35089 | A bacterial infectious disorder contracted by consumption of food or drink contaminated with Salmonella typhi. This disorder is common in developing countries and can be treated with antibiotics. |
| C35090 | "The protrusion of contents of the abdominal cavity through the abdominal wall, at the site of the umbilicus, without mention of obstruction or necrosis of the herniated contents." |
| C35091 |  |
| C35092 | "A mental disorder characterized by inattention, easy distraction, careless mistakes and avoidance of tasks that require sustained mental focus. These behaviors can lead to maladaptive consequences in the affected individual's life." |
| C35094 | "A mood disorder having a clinical course involving one or more episodes of serious psychological depression that last two or more weeks each, do not have intervening episodes of mania or hypomania, and are characterized by a loss of interest or pleasure in almost all activities and by some or all of disturbances of appetite, sleep, or psychomotor functioning, a decrease in energy, difficulties in thinking or making decisions, loss of self-esteem or feelings of guilt, and suicidal thoughts o... |
| C35095 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder occurring during the period from about five months before birth to one month after birth. |
| C35096 | Any anatomic abnormality of the arm located between the elbow and the wrist. |
| C35098 | "Neuropathy, the cause of which is not known." |
| C35099 | An infection involving the surface of the skin and subcutaneous tissues in a defined area of the body. |
| C3509 | A clinical term used to describe hyperkeratotic epithelial white patches of the genital mucous membranes.--2004 |
| C35100 | "Any mental disorder that occurs secondary to organic brain damage, and that is not associated with psychosis." |
| C35101 | A skin disorder characterized by an intense itching sensation. |
| C35102 | An organic mental disorder that is temporary in nature. |
| C35106 | An abnormal connection between the urinary system and the genitals in a female. |
| C35107 | An abnormality of the genitourinary system that is present at birth or detected in the neonatal period. |
| C35108 | "The sliding of the uterus into the vaginal canal. It results from the weakening of the pelvic floor muscles and ligaments and is usually seen in postmenopausal women with several vaginal deliveries. Clinical manifestations include sensation of heaviness in the pelvis, urinary difficulties, and tissue protrusion from the vagina." |
| C35109 | Inflammation of the iris and anterior chamber of the eye. |
| C3510 | "A primary melanoma arising from atypical melanocytes in the skin.  Precursor lesions include acquired and congenital melanocytic nevi, and dysplastic nevi.  Several histologic variants have been recognized, including superficial spreading melanoma, acral lentiginous melanoma, nodular melanoma, and lentigo maligna melanoma." |
| C35110 | Inflammation of the pars plana. |
| C35111 | An inflammatory process that affects the choroid. |
| C35116 | A disorder of the vasculature of the conjunctiva. |
| C35117 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the arteries, veins, or lymphatic vessels. Examples include vasculitis, thrombophlebitis, arteriosclerosis, lymphedema, hemangioma, and angiosarcoma." |
| C35119 | Inflammation of the small vessels of the skin that is mediated by the immune system. |
| C3511 | "A morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by the presence of hyalinized or myxoid stroma, edema, cystic changes, hemorrhage, and calcifications." |
| C35121 | "A condition caused by infection by the Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus, which is characterized by headache, fever, myalgia, nausea, and vomiting." |
| C35122 | "The protrusion of contents of the abdominal cavity through the abdominal wall, at the site of the linea alba, without mention of obstruction or necrosis of the herniated contents." |
| C35123 | "A syndrome which occurs as a result of the occlusion of one of the vertebral arteries. It may be caused by atherosclerosis, embolism or hemorrhage. Collateral circulation through the circle of Willis is usually comprised as well. Clinical signs may include vertigo, nystagmus, dysarthria, ataxia and sensorimotor deficits. Clinical course may lead to persistence of neurologic deficits. Prognosis is variable with a substantial risk for recurrent infarction." |
| C35124 | "An acute or chronic inflammation of the liver parenchyma caused by viruses. Representative examples include hepatitis A, B, and C, cytomegalovirus hepatitis, and herpes simplex hepatitis." |
| C35126 | Any impairment to the vision. |
| C35129 | Abnormally low concentrations of vitamin B in the blood. |
| C3512 | "A carcinoma that arises from the lung and is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells.  There is a male predilection with a male to female ratio of 2:1.  Usually lung adenocarcinoma is asymptomatic and is identified through screening studies or as an incidental radiologic finding.  If clinical symptoms are present they include shortness of breath, cough, hemoptysis, chest pain, and fever.  Tobacco smoke is a known risk factor." |
| C35130 | An ischemic contracture of the forearm that most often occurs secondary to trauma. |
| C35131 | An inflammatory pathologic process that affects the vulva and the vagina. |
| C35132 | "A cardiac conduction disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of ventricular pre-excitation, which is a short PR interval and a long QRS interval with a delta wave. Most individuals are asymptomatic; however they can experience periods of palpitations, shortness of breath or syncope during tachycardic episodes." |
| C35133 | "A rare inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the WFS1 and CISD2 genes. It is characterized by diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, optic atrophy, and deafness." |
| C35134 | "A non-neoplastic disorder characterized by abnormally dry skin.  Causes include vitamin A deficiency, sunlight exposure, medications, metabolic disorders, autoimmune disorders, and hereditary genetic disorders." |
| C35136 | Any disorder affecting blood flow through the veins or arteries outside of the heart. |
| C35139 | "An autosomal dominant genetic syndrome caused by mutations in the JAG1 gene. It is characterized by cholestatic jaundice in infancy, hepatosplenomegaly, distinctive facial features (prominent forehead, elongated nose, and pointed chin), cardiac murmurs, bone malformations, and sometimes mild mental retardation." |
| C3513 | A malignant epithelial tumor arising from the esophageal mucosa. Two major histologic types of esophageal carcinoma have been described: squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. This type of cancer is associated with excessive ethanol and cigarette usage. |
| C35140 | "A persistent, irrational fear of treatment, whether preventative or therapeutic, by a dentist, coupled with compulsive desire to avoid any such situation." |
| C35141 | Anemia in which the red blood cell volume is decreased. |
| C35142 | Anemia in which the red blood cell volume is normal. |
| C35145 | Acute inflammation of the vermiform appendix. |
| C35146 | Cholecystitis that is persistent and long-standing. |
| C35149 | Inflammation of the skin characterized by the presence of bullae which are filled with fluid. |
| C3514 | Retinopathy due to hypertension. |
| C35150 | "An inflammatory lung disorder characterized by an increased number of eosinophils in the lungs.  The majority of cases are idiopathic, without identifiable cause.  In a minority of cases, medications, fungal infections, and environmental triggers have been implicated.  It manifests as acute or chronic.  Acute eosinophilic pneumonia is a severe and rapidly progressing pneumonia that may lead to respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation.  Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia follows a sl... |
| C35151 | "Inflammation of the paranasal sinuses that typically lasts beyond eight weeks. It is caused by infections, allergies, and the presence of sinus polyps or deviated septum. Signs and symptoms include headache, nasal discharge, swelling in the face, dizziness, and breathing difficulties." |
| C35152 | Acute inflammation of the gallbladder. |
| C35158 | "An acute or chronic, viral or bacterial infectious process that affects the lower respiratory tract." |
| C3515 | "Single or multiple, milk-containing nodules in the breast.  It is caused by obstruction of the breast ducts during lactation.  Needle aspiration of the milk is the treatment of choice." |
| C35162 | Gastroenteritis resulting from an infection with Campylobacter. |
| C35163 | The degeneration and thinning of the epidermis and dermis. It is usually a manifestation of aging. |
| C35166 | "The manifestation of psychotic symptoms, such as hallucinations or delusions, in the presence of mania." |
| C35169 | "A disorder that is related to pregnancy. Representative examples include ectopic pregnancy, toxemia of pregnancy, and gestational trophoblastic tumor." |
| C3516 | "A locally aggressive and destructive benign cystic neoplasm of the bone. It is characterized by the formation of multiloculated hemorrhagic cystic spaces which are separated by fibrous septa. It can arise from any bone, but usually affects the metaphysis of long bones.  It manifests with pain and swelling and may recur following curettage." |
| C35170 | "Retinal damage resulting from diminished blood flow/oxygenation due to abnormalities of the retinal vessels.  Causes include hypertension, diabetes, thrombosis, embolism, and hemorrhage." |
| C35171 | Nodular enlargement of the thyroid gland associated with hyperthyroidism. |
| C35172 | The absence of the lens of the eye that is present at the time of birth. |
| C35173 | "A chronic, persistent inflammation of the glomeruli, which is slowly progressive, leading to impaired kidney function." |
| C35174 | "A group of viral illnesses that are vectored by mosquitoes, and that are characterized by increased susceptibility to bleeding diatheses." |
| C35175 | Infection by Ancylostoma braziliense. |
| C35176 | Infection of the prostate gland caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. |
| C35177 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the uvula. |
| C35178 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the mandible. |
| C3517 | "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma with scattered Reed-Sternberg and Hodgkin cells in a diffuse or vaguely nodular mixed inflammatory background without nodular sclerosing fibrosis. (WHO, 2008)" |
| C35180 | An intraepithelial carcinoma arising from any part of the digestive system without evidence of invasion. |
| C35181 |  |
| C35182 |  |
| C35183 |  |
| C35184 |  |
| C35185 |  |
| C35186 | A dysfunction in biological function that is due to a psychological process. |
| C35188 | A skin disorder for which mental factors play a causative role. |
| C35189 | A dysfunction in genitourinary function that is due to a psychological process. |
| C3518 | "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by collagen bands that surround at least one nodule, and Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells with lacunar type morphology. (WHO, 2008)" |
| C35190 | An endocrine disorder that is caused by abnormal mental function. |
| C35191 | Temporary but prolonged and maladaptive depressive signs and symptoms associated with a life event. |
| C35192 | A partial occlusion of the retinal artery. |
| C35193 | "A partial, temporary occlusion of the retinal artery." |
| C35194 | An inherited form of retinal dystrophy. |
| C35195 | Acute inflammation of the conjunctiva. |
| C35196 | Conjunctivitis that is characterized by formation of a pseudomembrane. |
| C35197 | Conjunctivitis that is persistent and long-standing. |
| C35198 | "Any non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the arteries, veins, or lymphatic vessels of the eyelid." |
| C3519 | "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the presence of leukocytosis with increased numbers of neutrophils, promyelocytes, myelocytes, and metamyelocytes; blasts less than 20% in bone marrow and peripheral blood; dysgranulopoiesis; minimal or absent monocytosis; absence of eosinophilia; and presence of bone marrow hypercellularity with granulocytic proliferation and granulocytic dysplasia. Dysplasia in the erythroid and megakaryocytic lineages may be present or absent... |
| C35200 | Inflammation of the pericardium in acute rheumatic heart disease. |
| C35201 | Inflammation of the endocardium in acute rheumatic heart disease. |
| C35202 | Inflammation of the myocardium in acute rheumatic heart disease. |
| C35204 | "Necrosis of the myocardium, as a result of interruption of the blood supply to the area. It is characterized by a severe and rapid onset of symptoms that may include chest pain, often radiating to the left arm and left side of the neck, dyspnea, sweating, and palpitations." |
| C35205 | "Documented history of previous myocardial infarction (MI), typically with objective evidence via positive biomarkers of myocardial necrosis." |
| C35206 | "The sudden onset of inflammation of heart muscle with myocellular necrosis; this is generally secondary to an infectious cause, and patients often have a recent history of a flu-like illness." |
| C35209 | "The protrusion of contents of the abdominal cavity, into the femoral canal, which results in obstruction of intestinal peristalsis." |
| C3520 | "A tumor mass composed of myeloblasts or immature myeloid cells.  It occurs in extramedullary sites or the bone.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C35210 | Crohn's disease affecting the small intestine. |
| C35211 | Crohn's disease affecting the colon. |
| C35212 | Disease of the large or small intestine that is caused by inadequate blood supply. |
| C35213 | "An acute inflammation of the glomeruli, generally secondary to infection or injury." |
| C35214 | "A renal functional disorder characterized by proteinuria, edema, hyperlipidemia and hypoalbuminemia. It results from damage to the renal vascular filtration apparatus. It is further characterized by an inflammatory reaction of the glomerular capillaries due to the proliferation of mesangial cells and expansion of the mesangial matrix. Sequelae may include hypertension, atherosclerosis, infection, hypercoagulablity and renal failure." |
| C35215 | "A renal functional disorder characterized by proteinuria, edema, hyperlipidemia and hypoalbuminemia. It results from damage to the renal vascular filtration apparatus. It is further characterized by an inflammatory reaction in the glomerular capillaries due to the deposition of immune complexes and subsequent thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Sequelae may include hypertension, atherosclerosis, infection, hypercoagulablity and renal failure." |
| C35216 | "A renal functional disorder characterized by proteinuria, edema, hyperlipidemia and hypoalbuminemia. It results from damage to the renal vascular filtration apparatus. It is further characterized by an inflammatory reaction of the glomerular capillaries due to the proliferation of mesangial cells, expansion of the mesangial matrix and deposition of immune complexes causing subsequent thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Sequelae may include hypertension, atherosclerosis, infectio... |
| C35217 | A slowly progressive inflammation of the glomeruli occurring status post infection with streptococcus. |
| C35218 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the blood vessels of the penis.  Representative examples include atherosclerosis, venous leak, and hemangioma." |
| C35219 | "Deviations from the normal process; e.g. delayed, difficult, profuse, scanty, unusual bleeding, etc." |
| C3521 | A polyp in the uterine cavity that is formed by placenta remnants. |
| C35224 | Dermatitis caused by an allergic reaction to an unspecified ingested substance. |
| C35225 | Arthropathy resulting from Behcet's syndrome. |
| C35226 | Aseptic necrosis involving the head of the humerus. |
| C35227 | A non-congenital deformity characterized by lateral deviation of the great toe. |
| C35228 | "Anemia, the cause of which is present at birth." |
| C3522 | Dilatation of the lumen of the mammary ducts without evidence of epithelial atypia. |
| C3523 | "A chronic and progressive inflammatory process that affects the glans penis and the foreskin. It presents with white atrophic patches in the glans of penis and foreskin and it is often associated with the development of a sclerotic, whitish ring in the tip of the foreskin that may lead to phimosis. It is also known as lichen sclerosus of the penis." |
| C3524 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the base of the tongue. |
| C35254 | A disorder of the vasculature of the skin. |
| C35255 | "An autosomal dominant genetic disorder caused by mutations in the GLI3 gene. It is characterized by physical abnormalities of the fingers and/or toes (extra fingers and/ or toes, fusion of the fingers and/or toes), large size head with prominent forehead and hypertelorism." |
| C35256 | "A sporadic genetic syndrome characterized by agenesis of the corpus callosum, infantile spasms, and chorioretinal lacunae.  It is associated with the presence of choroid plexus neoplasms in the brain." |
| C35257 | "A rare genetic syndrome with an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the gene for the mitochondrial DNA polymerase POLG. Clinical signs are usually not present at birth but develop within the first two years of life and include hypoglycemia from underlying liver dysfunction, failure to thrive, spasticity, myoclonus and seizures. The clinical course follows a progression of neurologic disability and hepatic failure. The prognosis is poor with survival out... |
| C35259 | A multifocal benign neoplasm arising from bone or soft tissue.  It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes and is composed of hyaline cartilage. |
| C3525 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the parotid gland.  Representative examples include carcinoma, malignant mixed tumor, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma." |
| C35261 | "A rare genetic disorder that affects the adrenal gland.  It usually presents in infancy with signs and symptoms of adrenal insufficiency.  If it is not recognized and treated promptly, it may be lethal." |
| C35262 | An inherited form of sideroblastic anemia. |
| C35263 | An ulcer due to stress. |
| C35264 | "Inflammation of the glomeruli that is characterized by a rapid loss in renal function with glomerular crescent formation observed on biopsy; it is often seen in patients with concomitant autoimmune disease, like Goodpasture's syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus." |
| C35268 | "An abnormal increase in head circumference, which can have a variety of causes, including hydrocephalus, enlarged brain, and cranial hyperostosis." |
| C35269 |  |
| C3526 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the submandibular gland.  The majority are carcinomas. |
| C35270 |  |
| C35271 | Sporadic enlargement of the thyroid gland that is not associated with changes in thyroid function or malignancy. |
| C35273 | "An overwhelming, irrational, and persistent fear of animals." |
| C35274 | A misperception of sensory stimuli. |
| C35275 | A vision disorder that results from damage of the part of the cerebral cortex that is involved in the processing of visual information. |
| C35276 | An inability to recognize or interpret objects by sight. |
| C35277 | "Cutaneous eruptions resembling acne, characterized by the presence of papulonodules, pustules, comedones, or cysts in the face, trunk, and extremities. Causes include infections and the use of certain medications (e.g., antibiotics and steroids)." |
| C35279 | Any disorder of the veins. |
| C3527 | A rare malignant neoplasm that arises from the sublingual gland.  The majority are carcinomas. |
| C35280 | Inflammation of a specific segment of glomeruli within the kidney. |
| C35281 | "A constellation of renal disorders characterized by an increase number of cells in the glomerulus; these disorders generally present with nephrotic syndrome, and generally progress to end stage renal failure over a matter of weeks to years, depending on the etiology. Examples include IgA nephropathy, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis." |
| C35284 | "An anxiety disorder characterized by an intense, irrational fear cued by the presence or anticipation of a specific object or situation. Exposure to the phobic stimulus immediately provokes an anxiety response. In adults, the specific phobia is recognized as excessive or unreasonable." |
| C35286 | "A bacterial infection of the colon secondary to infection with Clostridium difficile bacteria. This infection generally results from the loss of normal gut flora secondary to recent antibiotic use, and manifests as copious watery stools, with associated abdominal pain and myalgia. C. difficile is the most common cause of pseudomembranous colitis, and can progress to toxic megacolon if left untreated." |
| C35287 | "A condition characterized by the presence of a variant of normal hemoglobin (hemoglobin E), which is caused by mutation(s) in the gene encoding the beta subunit of the hemoglobin molecule." |
| C35288 | A rare idiopathic interstitial pneumonia characterized by accumulation of macrophages in alveolar spaces and interstitial inflammation.  It usually occurs in smokers.  Some patients develop progressive interstitial lung fibrosis. |
| C3528 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the hard palate. |
| C35296 | "Any structural change to the nose that results in a defect, which may be cosmetic, functional, or both. The deformity may be congenital, as in the cases of cleft palate, a mass, or defective cartilage, or acquired, as in a fracture, a hematoma, mass, or scarring from a previous surgery." |
| C35298 | Blockage of the lumen of the inferior vena cava. |
| C3529 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the soft palate. |
| C35300 | "An uncommon cause of hypopituitarism seen after severe postpartum hemorrhaging. Prolonged hypovolemia leads to ischemic necrosis of the pituitary. Clinical signs typically present in the puerperium and include failure to begin lactation, fatigue, hypotension and eventual amenorrhea. Clinical course is usually mild, however extreme cases may progress to adrenal failure. Prognosis is most favorable when hormone replacement is initiated soon after symptom onset." |
| C35301 | "A transient inflammatory pulmonary disorder characterized by eosinophilia. Eosinophilic infiltration of the lungs may be secondary to parasitic infection or drug hypersensitivity. Clinical signs include dry cough, fever and dyspnea. Prognosis is favorable as the disorder follows a self-limited course." |
| C35302 | Encephalitis resulting from viral infection. |
| C35307 | A collection of pus that has formed in the axilla. |
| C35308 | Dermatitis caused by an allergic reaction to arnica. |
| C35309 | Contact dermatitis caused by exposure to acids. |
| C3530 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the hard palate, soft palate, or uvula." |
| C35310 | Contact dermatitis caused by exposure to alkalis. |
| C35311 | Allergic contact dermatitis caused by exposure to dichromate. |
| C35312 | Inflammation of the skin resulting from exposure to the sun. |
| C35313 | Defective bone growth that affects the growth centers of bone in children. |
| C35315 | Pneumoconiosis caused by inhalation of kaolin dust. |
| C35316 | Inflammation of the lungs caused by the inhalation or aspiration of chemicals. |
| C35317 | An impairment of the structure or function of the blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart. |
| C35318 | Complete closure of the normally patent lumen of the blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart. |
| C35319 | A hemorrhoid which originates above the dentate line. |
| C3531 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the pyriform sinus. |
| C35320 | A hemorrhoid which originates below the dentate line. |
| C35321 | "A rare genetic disorder with an undetermined pattern of inheritance affecting mostly females. Clinical signs at birth include recurrent respiratory infections, poor feeding, hypotonia, joint laxity and characteristic shortened fifth digits with hypoplastic or absent nails and craniofacial appearance: microcephaly, wide nose and lips, sparse scalp hair but thick eyebrows and eyelashes. The clinical course includes developmental delays in motor skills and speech with associated moderate menta... |
| C35322 |  |
| C35323 |  |
| C35324 |  |
| C35325 | An abnormally increased curvature of the thoracic portion of the spine that is present at the time of birth. |
| C35326 | A chronic inflammatory process that affects the tissues that surround and support the teeth. |
| C35327 | An abnormal connection between a bronchus and the esophagus. |
| C35329 | Crohn's disease affecting the ileum. |
| C3532 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the thoracic region of the esophagus. |
| C35330 | Gastroenteritis that is characterized by eosinophilic infiltration. |
| C35331 | Acute inflammation of the liver. |
| C35332 | An acute or chronic inflammation of the gallbladder associated with the presence of gallstones. |
| C35334 | Cholangitis that is both sudden in onset and of a relatively short duration. |
| C35335 | Cholangitis that is persistent and long-standing. |
| C35336 | Cholangitis that is characterized by pyogenic organisms. |
| C35337 | A rare autosomal recessive inherited nephrotic syndrome that is present in the first week of life. It manifests with edema and proteinuria and usually has a poor prognosis. |
| C35338 | A non-neoplastic kidney disorder that results from the damage of the renal arteries or veins. It may lead to renal dysfunction and/or hypertension. |
| C35339 | The uterus has descended above the hymen. |
| C3533 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the upper third segment of the esophagus. |
| C35340 | The uterus has descended to the level of the hymen. |
| C35341 |  |
| C35342 | A disorder of the neural pathway from the optic nerve to the visual cortex. |
| C35343 | "A state of bone marrow suppression and failure that is caused by a cytotoxic or adverse immunologic response to a drug treatment, leading to a failure of production of red blood cells, white cells and platelets." |
| C35344 | "A condition characterized by the presence of a variant of normal hemoglobin (hemoglobin D), which is caused by mutation(s) in the gene encoding the beta subunit of the hemoglobin molecule." |
| C35345 | An acquired coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor VIII activity in the blood. |
| C35346 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the lymph nodes. |
| C35347 | An abscess that is located in the spleen. |
| C3534 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the middle third segment of the esophagus. |
| C3535 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the lower third segment of the esophagus. |
| C35360 | "Pneumonia caused by cytomegalovirus.  Most humans are exposed to cytomegalovirus.  Healthy individuals do not develop signs and symptoms of infection.  Patients with weakened immune system (e.g., AIDS patients, cancer patients who are being treated with chemotherapy, and patients who have received bone marrow or solid organ transplants) develop signs and symptoms of infection.  They include cough, shortness of breath, fatigue, malaise, fever, muscle and joint pain, and excessive sweating." |
| C35361 | "Fungal pneumonia caused by inhalation of particles of Cryptococcus.  It usually occurs in immunocompromised patients such as persons with AIDS, transplant recipients, patients receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy, and patients with hematologic malignancies.  It is rare in immunocompetent individuals.  Signs and symptoms include fever, cough, and dyspnea." |
| C35362 | A bladder infection that occurs as a manifetation of a systemic infection with one or more species of the parasitic worms of the Schistosoma type; this can progress to bladder cancer in time. |
| C35363 |  |
| C35364 |  |
| C35365 |  |
| C35366 | Infection by Ancylostoma ceylanicum. |
| C35369 | A term used for any state of depression that is not psychotic. |
| C3536 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the ampulla of Vater. |
| C35370 | "A neoplasm that affects the bone marrow. It may arise in the bone marrow (e.g., myeloid leukemia) or may involve the bone marrow as a secondary, metastatic tumor (e.g., metastatic carcinoma to the bone marrow)." |
| C35372 | Acute infection of the bile ducts caused by bacteria ascending from the small intestine. |
| C35373 | A bacterial infection that is transmitted from animals to people. |
| C35374 | Gastroenteritis resulting from a viral infection. |
| C35376 | Congenital absence of the trachea. |
| C35377 | "An abnormal, epithelial-lined connection between an artery and vein that is present at the time of birth." |
| C3537 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the retroperitoneum.  The vast majority of cases are carcinomas, lymphomas, or sarcomas." |
| C35382 | An antiquated term referring to large cell lymphomas. |
| C35383 |  |
| C35384 | "Physical and psychological dependence on hallucinogenics, which is associated with a pattern of continuous use." |
| C35385 | "Physical and psychological dependence on hallucinogenics, which is associated with a pattern of episodic use." |
| C35386 | "Physical and psychological dependence on the drug cannabis, which is associated with a pattern of continuous use." |
| C35387 | "Physical and psychological dependence on the drug cannabis, which is associated with a pattern of episodic use." |
| C35388 | Physical or psychological dependence on the drug cocaine which is associated with a pattern of continuous use. |
| C35389 | "Physical and psychological dependence on the drug cocaine, which is associated with a pattern of episodic use." |
| C3538 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the peritoneum. Representative examples include carcinoma and malignant mesothelioma. |
| C35390 | A respiratory malfunction for which mental factors play a causative role. |
| C35393 | Any anatomic abnormality or physiologic dysfunction of the lens of the eye that is present at the time of birth. |
| C35394 | A form of glaucoma in which there is no visible abnormality in the trabecular meshwork. |
| C35396 | "Pneumonia caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii.  It usually presents as an opportunistic infection in immunocompromised patients, especially patients with AIDS.  It is rare in immunocompetent individuals.  Signs and symptoms include cough, fever, and dyspnea." |
| C35397 | Pneumoconiosis caused by exposure to slate dust. |
| C3539 | "A malignant neoplasm affecting the spleen. Representative examples include leukemias, lymphomas, and sarcomas." |
| C35400 | A history of myocardial infarction in the absence of clinical symptoms and positive electrocardiographic findings. |
| C35402 | Inflammation of the colon that is caused by Cytomegalovirus. |
| C35405 |  |
| C35406 |  |
| C35407 | A non-neoplastic proliferation of morphologically bland C-cells with a diffuse growth pattern in the thyroid gland. |
| C35408 | A congenital or acquired hyperplasia of the cells of the adrenal cortex or medulla. |
| C3540 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the maxillary sinus. |
| C35410 |  |
| C35411 |  |
| C35412 |  |
| C35413 | "An overwhelming, irrational, and persistent fear of traveling in an aircraft." |
| C35415 | A congenital defect in which the vagina is underdeveloped. |
| C35416 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the parotid gland.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelial and mesenchymal elements.  This category includes pleomorphic adenoma, carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, and carcinosarcoma." |
| C35417 | "A carcinoma that arises from the intrahepatic bile duct epithelium in any site of the intrahepatic biliary tree.  Grossly, the malignant lesions are solid, nodular, and grayish.  Morphologically, the vast majority of cases are adenocarcinomas.  Signs and symptoms include malaise, weight loss, right upper quadrant abdominal pain, and night sweats.  Early detection is difficult and the prognosis is generally poor." |
| C35419 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the axilla. |
| C3541 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the ethmoid sinus. |
| C35420 | "An anxiety disorder characterized by an intense, irrational fear of an object, activity, or situation. The individual seeks to avoid the object, activity, or situation. In adults, the individual recognizes that the fear is excessive or unreasonable." |
| C35421 | Insomnia as a result of an extrinsic cause. |
| C35423 | "A hyperplasia characterized by excessive proliferation of endometrial cells, resulting in the formation of complex epithelial structures.  Epithelial atypia may be present or absent." |
| C35424 | "Transformation of chronic lymphocytic leukemia into aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma, usually diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (immunoblastic or centroblastic variant).  Occasional cases of transformation to Hodgkin lymphoma have also been described, particularly in patients treated with purine nucleotide analogues.  Molecular genetic studies suggest that in approximately half of the cases, the lymphoma is clonally related to the underlying chronic lymphocytic leukemia, whereas in the remaining... |
| C35426 | "An overwhelming, irrational, and persistent fear of taking and failing tests." |
| C35427 | A malignant neoplasm arising in multiple primary sites. |
| C3542 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the frontal sinus. |
| C35431 | A gonococcal infection of the upper urinary tract that is rapid in onset. |
| C35432 | "Acute inflammation of the endocardium. Bacteria is the usual etiologic agent, and the distinction between ""acute"" and ""subacute"" has traditionally been made based on the pathogenic organism and clinical presentation." |
| C35434 | Polycythemia that is caused by excess erythropoietin. |
| C35436 | "A rare neurologic disorder caused by impingement of the nerve roots of the cauda equina secondary to disc herniation, spinal stenosis, vertebral fracture, neoplasm or infection. Clinical signs may include bladder or bowel dysfunction, paresthesia and weakness of the lower extremities. The clinical course rapidly deteriorates and necessitates emergent surgical decompression to minimize risk of incontinence, sexual dysfunction and permanent paralysis." |
| C35437 |  |
| C35438 | Evidence of non-familial idiopathic dystonia. |
| C3543 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the sphenoid sinus. |
| C35440 | An acquired coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of factor IX activity in the blood. |
| C35441 | Sarcoidosis of the cerebrum. |
| C35442 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic vascular disorder that affects the liver. Representative examples include veno-occlusive disease, hemangioma, lymphangioma, and angiosarcoma." |
| C35443 | "Inflammation of the glomeruli status post infection with nephritogenic streptococci, most often group A beta hemolytic streptococcus." |
| C35444 | "A histopathologic term for a pattern of diseases characterized by extensive crescent formation in the glomeruli; patients present clinically with rapid deterioration of renal function, and possible progression to end-stage renal failure within weeks or months." |
| C35445 | A focal inflammation of glomeruli secondary to mesangial cell proliferation and matrix deposition within the mesangium. |
| C35447 | Necrotic changes in the bone tissue of the femoral head due to interruption of blood supply. |
| C3544 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the glottic area of the larynx.  The vast majority of cases represent squamous cell carcinomas. |
| C35452 | A narrowing of the opening of the urethra at the external meatus. |
| C35458 | The psychological or physiological need to take a substance in order to experience its effects or to avoid the effects of its absence. |
| C3545 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the supraglottic area of the larynx.  The vast majority of cases are squamous cell carcinomas. |
| C35463 | A proliferation of endometrial cells resulting in glandular enlargement and budding without changes in the basic structure of the endometrium. Epithelial atypia may be present or absent. |
| C35464 | "A rare variant of mycosis fungoides, characterized by the development of folds of lax skin in the axillae or groins.  It has been reported in association with Hodgkin lymphoma.  Morphologically, there is a dense granulomatous dermal atypical lymphocytic infiltrate, often associated with multinucleated giant cells.  Destruction of elastic tissue is present.  Most cases have an indolent clinical course." |
| C35465 | Aplastic anemia caused by excessive absorption of radiation by the bone marrow. |
| C35466 | Aplastic anemia caused by an infection. |
| C35467 | "A rare disorder which affects the volar surfaces of fingers. Clinical signs include recurrent, spontaneous or post-traumatic bruising of fingers. The clinical course of the resultant hematoma usually follows a pattern of resolution within days." |
| C35468 | "Accumulation of intraretinal fluid and protein in the macula, which may result in swelling and decreased central vision." |
| C35469 | A group of hemolytic anemias that result from either the deficiency or overproduction of several enzymes involved in metabolizing nucleotides. |
| C3546 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the subglottic area of the larynx.  The vast majority of cases are squamous cell carcinomas. |
| C35470 | A specific behavioral problem that occurs in persistent patterns and characteristic clusters and that causes clinically significant impairment. |
| C35472 | "Any form of anemia that results from the absence of, or the defective action of, any enzyme." |
| C35473 | "Sudden and sustained deterioration of the kidney function with decreased glomerular filtration rate, and concommittant necrosis of the renal papillae; representative causes include sickle cell disease, heave analgesic use, diabetes mellitus, and pyelonephritis." |
| C35475 | An infectious process that affects a tooth.  It is characterized by localized periapical or periodontal collection of pus.  It presents with pain and swelling of the gums and/or cheek. |
| C35476 | Necrosis of bone due to an inadequate blood supply. |
| C35477 | A benign vascular lesion characterized by the presence of a complex network of communicating arterial and venous vascular structures in the kidney. |
| C35478 |  |
| C35479 | A vascular malformation of the retina that consists of arteriovenous communications and shunts. It occurs as an isolated lesion or as a component of the Wyburn-Mason syndrome. |
| C3547 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the pleura.  A representative example of primary malignant pleural neoplasm is the malignant pleural mesothelioma.  A representative example of metastatic malignant neoplasm to the pleura is metastatic carcinoma that has spread to the pleura from another anatomic site. |
| C35480 |  |
| C35481 | "A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of an organized, regular atrial rhythm with atrial rate between 101 and 240 beats per minute. The P wave morphology must be distinct from the sinus P wave morphology. (CDISC)" |
| C35482 | Inflammation of the alveoli of the lung. |
| C35483 | Gastroenteritis resulting from a bacterial infection. |
| C35489 |  |
| C3548 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the heart. |
| C35492 | "An overwhelming, irrational, and persistent fear of being diagnosed with cancer." |
| C35497 | A benign or malignant (primary or metastatic) neoplasm that affects the lymph nodes. |
| C35498 | "A rare acute life-threatening systemic bacterial noncontagious illness caused by any of several related staphylococcal exotoxins. It is characterized by high fever, hypotension, rash, multi-organ dysfunction, and cutaneous desquamation during the early convalescent period. The toxins affect the host immune system, causing an exuberant and pathological host inflammatory response. Laboratory findings include leukocytosis, elevated prothrombin time, hypoalbuminemia, hypocalcemia, and pyuria." |
| C3549 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the mediastinum.  Representative examples of primary malignant mediastinal neoplasms include malignant germ cell tumors, malignant mesenchymal tumors, lymphomas, and malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors.  A representative example of metastatic malignant neoplasm to the mediastinum is the metastatic carcinoma to the mediastinum from another anatomic site." |
| C35501 | Malignant neoplasms that either originate from the bone marrow (e.g. myeloid leukemias) or involve the bone marrow as secondary-metastatic tumors (e.g. metastatic carcinomas to the bone marrow). |
| C35503 | "A viral, bacterial, fungal, or parasitic infectious process that affects the digestive system." |
| C35505 | Atherosclerosis of the coronary vasculature. |
| C35506 | "Carcinoma, predominantly squamous cell, arising from epithelial cells of the larynx or pharynx." |
| C3550 | "A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the skin.  It presents with patches, plaques, or nodules." |
| C35513 |  |
| C35515 | A benign vascular lesion characterized by the presence of a complex network of communicating arterial and venous vascular structures in the gastrointestinal tract. |
| C35516 | "A polypoid tumor that arises from any part of the gastrointestinal tract and protrudes into the lumen.  Representative examples include adenomatous polyps, hyperplastic polyps, and hamartomatous polyps." |
| C35517 |  |
| C35518 |  |
| C3551 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the lung. |
| C35522 | An infectious process affecting the tissues that surround and support the teeth. |
| C35523 | An abscess that is located in the vagina. |
| C35525 |  |
| C35526 | Insomnia that has persisted at least one month. |
| C35527 |  |
| C35528 | "A genetic syndrome resulting from a partial deletion on the short arm of chromosome 4 (4p deletion syndrome). It is characterized by mental retardation, microcephaly, seizures, muscle hypotonia, a distinctive facial appearance with prominent forehead and wide set eyes, growth failure with malformations of the spine, hands, and feet, congenital heart defects, and genitourinary malformations." |
| C3552 | Primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the uterine corpus and/or the cervix. |
| C35531 | "A category of non-neoplastic disorders that affect the blood vessels in the lungs.  Representative examples include pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, and arteriovenous malformations." |
| C35532 | A nutritional cirrhosis that is characterized by an increase in connective tissue surrounding the portal spaces. |
| C35533 | "A renal functional disorder characterized by proteinuria, edema, hyperlipidemia and hypoalbuminemia. It results from damage to the renal vascular filtration apparatus. It is further characterized by scarring of some of the glomerular capillaries. Sequelae may include hypertension, atherosclerosis, infection, hypercoagulablity and renal failure." |
| C35534 | "A renal functional disorder characterized by proteinuria, edema, hyperlipidemia and hypoalbuminemia. It results from damage to the renal vascular filtration apparatus. It is further characterized by an inflammatory reaction in the filtering capillaries and the deposition of plasma components between the endothelium and glomerular basement membrane. Sequelae may include hypertension, atherosclerosis, infection, hypercoagulablity and renal failure." |
| C35535 | "A renal functional disorder characterized by proteinuria, edema, hyperlipidemia and hypoalbuminemia. It results from damage to the renal vascular filtration apparatus. It is further characterized by an inflammatory reaction in the endovascular lining of the glomerular capillaries. Sequelae may include hypertension, atherosclerosis, infection, hypercoagulablity and renal failure." |
| C35536 | "Nephrotic syndrome caused by glomerulonephritis associated with complement deficiency. It can result from an acute post-infectious glomerulonephritis, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis or lupus glomerulonephritis." |
| C35537 | "A renal functional disorder characterized by proteinuria, edema, hyperlipidemia and hypoalbuminemia. It results from damage to the renal vascular filtration apparatus. It is further characterized by a chronic inflammatory reaction in the glomerular capillaries. Sequelae may include hypertension, atherosclerosis, infection, hypercoagulablity and renal failure." |
| C3553 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the endocervix. |
| C35540 | "A renal functional disorder characterized by proteinuria, edema, hyperlipidemia and hypoalbuminemia. It results from damage to the renal vascular filtration apparatus. It is further characterized by an inflammatory reaction in the glomerular capillaries and the effacement of the surrounding epithelial cell foot processes worsening protein leakage. Sequelae may include hypertension, atherosclerosis, infection, hypercoagulablity and renal failure." |
| C35542 | Encephalopathy resulting from trauma. |
| C35543 | The thickening of the wall of the small arteries and arterioles. It is caused by deposition of hyaline material in the wall or concentric smooth muscle wall hypertrophy. It results in lumen narrowing and tissue ischemia. |
| C35544 | "A disorder that affects the muscle tissue of the heart. Representative examples include myocardial infarction, myocarditis, and cardiomyopathy." |
| C35545 | A condition that is characterized by degeneration of the distal phalanges. |
| C35547 | A viral infection caused by a flavivirus called yellow fever virus. It is transmitted to humans from infected mosquitoes. The signs and symptoms range from a mild febrile illness to liver damage with jaundice and hemorrhages. |
| C35549 | "Ischemic brain damage in which the entire brain is deprived of oxygen. It may be fatal or lead to long term disabilities including developmental delays, intellectual disability, and seizures." |
| C3554 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the exocervix. |
| C35550 | "An acute infectious disorder that affects the nervous system. It is caused by the poliovirus. The virus spreads by direct contact, and can be prevented by prophylaxis with the polio vaccine." |
| C35555 | "A rare, benign epithelial neoplasm composed of irregular proliferating nests and islands of epithelium, including solid and gland-like sebaceous elements, surrounded by lymphoid stroma. Most occur in the parotid gland. Symptoms include a progressively enlarging, painless mass.  Sebaceous lymphadenocarcinoma is the malignant counterpart." |
| C35556 | A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in female children.  The neoplasm arises from the vagina.  It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules with an abundant myxoid stroma. |
| C35558 | "A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the presence of tall malignant follicular cells, arranged in papillary and trabecular patterns.  Necrotic changes and high mitotic activity are present." |
| C3555 | A primary or metastatic neoplasm that affects the placenta. |
| C35560 | "A hyperplasia characterized by excessive proliferation of endometrial cells, resulting in the formation of complex epithelial structures.  It is associated with cytologic atypia and an increased risk of endometrial adenocarcinoma." |
| C35561 | A broad classification for uncommon disorders in which the development of neoplasms occur in association with a characteristic set of signs or symptoms. These disorders commonly have a genetic basis. The types of neoplasms themselves are not necessarily uncommon. |
| C35562 | A morphologic category that includes neoplasms arising from cells that form and support the nervous system.  Such neoplasms include neuroepithelial cell neoplasms and neoplasms that arise from the perineural sheaths (perineurial cell neoplasms and Schwann cell neoplasms). |
| C35568 |  |
| C35574 | A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in children.  The tumor arises from organs with a mucosal epithelial surface.  It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules within an abundant myxoid stroma. |
| C35576 | "A fungal infection of the skin, nails, oral and vaginal mucosal sites caused by species of the genus Candida. It manifests with white discoloration of the tongue and swelling, redness, and tenderness of the nails." |
| C35578 | Inflammation of the gallbladder in the absence of gallstones. |
| C35579 | Acute inflammation of the gallbladder in the absence of gallstones |
| C3557 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the clitoris. |
| C35581 | Difficulty falling asleep. |
| C35582 | Difficulty maintaining sleep. |
| C35583 | Sensorineural hearing loss in which a person loses the ability to hear sounds in low frequency. |
| C35587 | "An acute inflammation of the glomeruli, in which all glomeruli are affected, resulting in acute renal failure." |
| C35588 |  |
| C35589 | Sarcoidosis affecting the tissues of the heart. |
| C3558 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the epididymis.  Representative examples include primary epididymal adenocarcinoma and metastatic carcinoma to the epididymis arising from another anatomic site. |
| C35590 | Gastroenteritis resulting from an infection with cryptosporidium. |
| C35591 | Gastroenteritis that is caused by Cryptosporidium. |
| C35592 | Cholecystitis resulting from infection by gas producing organisms. |
| C35593 | "Spondylolysis, the cause of which is present from birth." |
| C35595 | A hemorrhagic disorder that is caused by pathologic changes in the vasculature. |
| C35596 | A disorder of the teeth arising during odontogenesis. |
| C35597 | A disorder that affects the surface of the tooth. |
| C35598 | A term that refers to disorders that result in pain and abnormal sensation in the teeth and/or periodontal tissues. |
| C35599 | A genetic disorder that affects the adrenal gland.  It includes adrenal gland hyperplasia and adrenal gland hypoplasia. |
| C3559 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the spermatic cord. |
| C35602 |  |
| C35603 |  |
| C35604 | "A sleep disorder (insomnia, hypersomnia, or parasomnia) for which there is strong physiological evidence that the disorder is etiologically linked to a general medical condition." |
| C35605 | A disorder that is caused by pathologic changes in the glomerular vasculature. |
| C35608 | Exacerbation of an underlying colitis. |
| C35609 | "Insomnia that is made worse by other factors, including pain, physiological or psychological disorders, external causes, or pharmacologic interventions." |
| C3560 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the scrotum. |
| C35610 | Vascular disorders resulting from diabetes mellitus. |
| C35611 | A benign vascular lesion characterized by the presence of a complex network of communicating arterial and venous vascular structures in the liver. |
| C35614 | "An overwhelming, irrational, and persistent fear of contracting Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome." |
| C35616 | Conjunctivitis that is characterized by the formation of papillae on the palpebral conjunctiva. |
| C35618 | A vascular disorder or the iris. |
| C35619 | "Painful, localized rash caused by reactivation of latent varicella zoster virus residing in nerve cell bodies, with resulting infection of the skin in the region supplied by the affected nerve." |
| C3561 | A malignant neoplasm involving the accessory urethral glands. |
| C35620 | Localized rash characterized by grouped vesicles or pustules on an erythematous base that is caused by herpes simplex virus infection. |
| C35621 | A genitourinary infection that is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. |
| C35624 | Gastroenteritis resulting from an infection with enterovirus. |
| C35625 | Chronic and progressive degeneration of the retina of the eye. |
| C35626 | A disorder that is caused by pathologic changes in the spinal vasculature. |
| C3562 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the orbit. |
| C35634 | Inflammation of the colon resulting from Clostridium Sordelli. |
| C35635 | Candidiasis that is persistent or long-standing in nature. |
| C35637 | A disorder of lipoprotein metabolism characterized by high levels of cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood. It is caused by elevation of low density and very low density lipoproteins. |
| C35639 | "The protrusion of contents of the abdominal cavity, into the femoral canal, which results in obstruction of intestinal peristalsis, with no mention of necrosis of the herniated contents." |
| C3563 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the lacrimal gland. |
| C35640 | "The protrusion of contents of the abdominal cavity through the abdominal wall, at the site of the umbilicus, which results in obstruction, without mention of necrosis of the herniated contents." |
| C35641 | "The protrusion of an organ, or the fascia of an organ, through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it, which results in obstruction, without mention of necrosis of the herniated contents." |
| C35642 | "The protrusion of contents of the abdominal cavity through the abdominal wall, at the site of the linea alba, which results in obstruction, without mention of necrosis of the herniated contents." |
| C35647 | Insomnia as a result of a physiological cause. |
| C35648 | A malignant liver neoplasm that is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C3564 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the conjunctiva. |
| C35650 | "An infectious process affecting the upper respiratory tract (nose, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, or trachea). Symptoms include congestion, sneezing, coughing, fever, and sore throat." |
| C35652 | "A non-congenital condition in which the head circumference is two standard deviations greater than the mean. Causes include infection, intraventricular hemorrhage, subdural hematoma, and arachnoid cysts." |
| C35653 | "An abnormal enlargement of the head, including the scalp, the cranial bone, and the contents of the cranium that is present at the time of birth; representative examples include tuberous sclerosis, neurofibromatosis, and various other genetic causes." |
| C35658 | A non-neoplastic dental disorder that is present at birth. |
| C35659 | Anemia due to a disorder that is persistent or long-standing in nature. |
| C3565 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the cornea. |
| C35660 | Gastroenteritis resulting from an infection with cytomegalovirus. |
| C35664 | A non-neoplastic disorder that is caused by pathologic changes in the ocular vasculature. |
| C35666 | An abscess that is located in the ureter. |
| C35668 | "An early stage of diabetic retinopathy that is characterized by retinal hemorrhage and exudate, but without proliferation of the blood vessels." |
| C35669 | "Infection in the abdominal cavity resulting from injury, acute intestinal inflammation (e.g., acute appendicitis), intestinal perforation, or complication of abdominal surgery." |
| C3566 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the choroid. |
| C35670 | "An overwhelming, irrational, and persistent fear of operating a motor vehicle." |
| C35674 |  |
| C35675 | The reemergence of a malignant salivary gland neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C35676 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder and it has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C3567 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the lacrimal duct. |
| C35685 | "A rare variant of mycosis fungoides, characterized by cerebriform lymphocytic infiltration of the hair follicles of the head and neck.  Most cases show mucinous degeneration of the hair follicles, and are designated as mycosis fungoides-associated follicular mucinosis.  Cases without mucinous degeneration have been reported as pilotropic mycosis fungoides.  There is no difference in clinical presentation or outcome between mycosis fungoides-associated follicular mucinosis and pilotropic myc... |
| C35686 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that develops in a patient with immunodeficiency. Representative examples include AIDS-related disorders and disorders that develop following organ transplantation. |
| C35687 | A low-grade extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue arising from the parotid gland. It is the most common type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in the parotid gland and is often associated with Sjogren syndrome. The prognosis is favorable. |
| C35688 | An extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosa associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the breast as a primary tumor. |
| C35689 | An extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the ocular adnexa. It is the most common type of primary ocular adnexal lymphoma. |
| C3568 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the brain. |
| C35690 | A lymphoma that arises from the eye. |
| C35691 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the salivary glands.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelial and mesenchymal elements.  This category includes pleomorphic adenoma, carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, and carcinosarcoma." |
| C35692 | A carcinoma that arises from the posterior wall of the pharynx. |
| C35693 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the posterior wall of the pharynx. |
| C35694 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Moderately advanced disease.  Tumor invades skin, mandible, ear canal, and/or facial nerve. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension.  Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not constitute extraparenchymal extension for classification purposes.  T2:... |
| C35695 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T4b: Very advanced disease.  Tumor invades skull base and/or pterygoid plates and/or encases carotid artery. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node, more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C35696 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C35697 | A carcinoma of the larynx that arises from the epiglottis. |
| C35698 | A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the uvula. |
| C35699 | This is usually an oligoclonal CD8+ lymphocytic infiltration of various organs. |
| C3569 | "Primary and secondary (metastatic) malignant tumors that occur in the cerebellum.  Histologic types include medulloblastomas, high grade (WHO Stage III or IV) cerebellar astrocytomas, lymphomas, gangliogliomas, gliosarcomas, and several other subtypes.  The most frequent malignant cerebellar neoplasm of childhood is medulloblastoma. In adults, metastases from other sites are relatively common. Clinical features include ataxia, headache, nausea, dizziness, nystagmus, diplopia, papilledema, e... |
| C35700 | "A locally aggressive carcinoma that arises from the salivary glands, predominantly the parotid gland. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate exhibiting myoepithelial differentiation. Patients usually present with a painless mass." |
| C35701 | "A carcinoma that arises from the salivary glands, most often the parotid gland.  It presents as a slow growing and painless mass.  It is characterized by the presence of duct-like structures lined by two layers of cells, an inner layer composed of epithelial-type cells and an outer layer composed of clear, myoepithelial-type cells." |
| C35702 | "A low grade malignant epithelial neoplasm arising from the salivary gland. It usually arises from the oral cavity, with approximately 60% of the cases involving the palate. The most common presenting sign is a painless mass in the palate. It is characterized by the presence of uniform, small to medium size malignant epithelial cells and an infiltrating pattern. There is a variety of morphologic patterns which may be present within an individual tumor, including lobular, papillary, papillary... |
| C35703 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the salivary gland and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C35704 | Acute inflammation of the conjunctiva characterized by pink or red color in the eyes. |
| C35706 | Inflammation of the glomeruli with infiltration by polymorphonuclear leukocytes. |
| C35707 | "Inflammation of a specific segment of glomeruli, which is associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis, and frequently produces microscopic hematuria without azotemia." |
| C35709 | "A rare genetic syndrome which occurs primarily among individuals of Norwegian descent with an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. It is caused, in some cases, by the inheritance of a mutation of the LSC1 gene on chromosome 15. Clinical signs include lymphedema of the lower extremities and cholestasis. The clinical course includes giant-cell hepatitis and progression to cirrhosis." |
| C3570 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the brain stem. |
| C35710 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the AAAS gene encoding the protein ALADIN, and characterized by primary adrenal insufficiency, esophageal dysmotility, and absence of tear production." |
| C35711 | "A testicular teratoma associated with a distinct secondary component that resembles a somatic-type malignant neoplasm (e.g., carcinoma or sarcoma)." |
| C35712 | A non-neoplastic disorder characterized by the formation of reactive lymphoid follicles adjacent to distal bronchi and bronchioles.  It presents with mild shortness of breath and is associated with immunodeficiency syndromes and collagen vascular disorders. |
| C35713 | "A rare, reactive lesion in the lung parenchyma. It is characterized by the formation of a single or several nodules that are composed of lymphocytic infiltrates with reactive germinal centers." |
| C35714 | "Non-infectious inflammation of the interstitial lung tissue of unknown etiology. This category includes desquamative interstitial pneumonia, usual interstitial pneumonia, lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia, acute interstitial pneumonia, and nonspecific interstitial pneumonia." |
| C35715 | "Interstitial pneumonia characterized by the presence of fibrosis in the interstitial lung tissue.  The pathologic diagnosis is based on the identification of fibrotic lesions at different stages of development within a lung biopsy specimen.  Typically there are foci of normal lung parenchyma alternating with interstitial inflammation and honeycombing. The term usual interstitial pneumonia sometimes is used interchangeably with idiopathic interstitial fibrosis.  The two terms are not entirel... |
| C35716 | Chronic and progressive fibrosis of the lung parenchyma of unknown cause. |
| C35717 | Idiopathic interstitial pneumonia characterized by chronic inflammation and fibrosis in the interstitial lung tissue.  It includes cases that cannot be classified into one of the other types of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia. |
| C35718 | "A rare primary thymus carcinoma characterized by an undifferentiated solid tumor growth, without associated sarcomatoid features." |
| C35719 | An acute or chronic infectious process affecting any part of the genitourinary system. |
| C3571 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects a cranial nerve. |
| C35720 | An infection that is caused by Trichomonas. |
| C35721 | "A chronic psychotic disorder characterized by a strong delusional component with preservation of thought and personality. It is associated with paranoid dementia and paranoia, but with less personality deterioration than schizophrenia and without fulfilling the clinical features of a delusional disorder." |
| C35722 | The uterus has descended below the level of the hymen and protrudes through the opening of the vagina. |
| C35723 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the nasopharynx.  Representative examples include nasopharyngitis, angiofibroma, and carcinoma." |
| C35725 |  |
| C35726 |  |
| C35727 |  |
| C35729 | A heart or vascular abnormality which is inborn or present at birth. |
| C3572 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the spinal cord.  Representative examples include lymphoma, melanoma, and sarcoma." |
| C35730 | An infection that is caused by Gonococcus. |
| C35731 | "A partial or complete loss of hearing in one or both ears. It is classified as conductive, sensory, or central." |
| C35733 |  |
| C35735 | "A rare, highly aggressive carcinoma that arises from the salivary gland, predominantly the parotid gland.  It is characterized by the presence of large pleomorphic malignant cells with or without neuroendocrine differentiation. Patients usually present with a rapidly growing mass." |
| C35736 | "A rare carcinoma that arises from the salivary glands, most often the parotid gland.  It is characterized by the presence of an undifferentiated carcinomatous component associated with a prominent reactive lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate." |
| C35737 | "A rare, aggressive carcinoma that arises from the salivary glands.  It is characterized by the presence of a squamous and a glandular epithelial component." |
| C35738 | "A rare, benign, encapsulated epithelial tumor composed of cells that form solid, variably shaped islands and cysts, both showing focal sebaceous differentiation. The mean age of patients is reported to be 58 years, and most tumors occur in the parotid gland. There is a male predominance. Most patients are asymptomatic." |
| C3573 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the pineal region. |
| C35740 | A term that includes all non-neoplastic vascular disorders. |
| C35741 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the heart and/or the pericardium.  Representative examples include congestive heart disease, endocarditis, and constrictive pericarditis." |
| C35742 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the thorax and/or the organs of the thoracic cavity.  Representative examples include pleural infection, mediastinitis, thymoma, mediastinal lymphoma, and pleural mesothelioma." |
| C35743 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the thorax and/or the organs of the thoracic cavity.  Representative examples include pleural infection, mediastinitis, pneumonia, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease." |
| C35744 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the sternum. |
| C35745 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the structures of the chest wall.  Representative examples include infection, chest wall lipoma, and chest wall lymphoma." |
| C35746 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the structures of the axilla.  Representative examples include axillary lymphadenitis, axillary lipoma, and metastatic carcinoma to the axillary lymph nodes." |
| C35747 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the structures of the axilla.  Representative examples include axillary lymphadenitis and axillary abscess. |
| C35748 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the structures of the axilla from another anatomic site. |
| C35749 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the structures of the axilla.  Representative examples include axillary lipoma, axillary lymph node lymphoma, and metastatic carcinoma to the axillary lymph nodes." |
| C3574 | A carotid body paraganglioma that metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C35750 | "A neoplasm that arises from the axilla and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C35751 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the sternum. |
| C35752 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the structures of the chest wall. |
| C35753 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the trachea.  Representative examples include tracheitis, tracheal agenesis, and tracheal atresia." |
| C35754 | "A rare, fatal congenital malformation in which the trachea is severely underdeveloped." |
| C35755 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the respiratory system.  Representative examples include pneumonia, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pulmonary failure, tracheitis, and tracheal agenesis." |
| C35756 | Stage IIIB small cell lung carcinoma that has spread to the pleural fluid. |
| C35757 | Stage IIIB small cell lung carcinoma that has not spread to the pleural fluid. |
| C35758 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C35759 | "A very rare pleomorphic adenoma of the salivary glands that metastasizes inexplicably, despite the benign histopathologic features.  The most common sites of metastasis are bone, lung, and head and neck." |
| C3575 | "A malignant neoplasm affecting the endocrine glands.  Representative examples include thyroid gland carcinoma, parathyroid gland carcinoma, pituitary gland carcinoma, and adrenal cortex carcinoma." |
| C35760 | Any disorder of the joints. |
| C35761 | Arthropathy that is not permanent. |
| C35762 | Any arthropathy that is caused by trauma. |
| C35763 |  |
| C35764 | "A syndrome caused by thiamine deficiency. It usually occurs in alcoholics and is characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia." |
| C35765 | A mesenchymal tumor composed of fibroblastic and histiocytic cells. |
| C35767 | Atherosclerosis that is not localized. |
| C35768 | Build-up of fatty material and calcium deposition in the arterial wall resulting in partial or complete occlusion of the arterial lumen. |
| C35769 | Arteriosclerosis that is not localized. |
| C3576 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the tissues of the thorax. |
| C35770 | A type of arteriosclerosis in which calcification of the tunica media is the predominant feature. |
| C35771 | Cardiovascular disease resulting from atherosclerosis. |
| C35772 | "A disorder that is caused by the deficiency of a vitamin. The deficiency may result from either suboptimal vitamin intake or conditions that prevent the vitamin's use or absorption in the body. Representative examples include beriberi caused by thiamine deficiency, scurvy caused by vitamin C deficiency, and rickets caused by vitamin D deficiency." |
| C35774 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. Representative examples include cholangitis and biliary atresia. |
| C35775 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the ciliary body. |
| C35776 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the uvea. |
| C35777 | "Infestation of the pubic hair by the pthirus pubis parasite which results in mild to intense itching and macular lesions. The parasite, also known as crab lice, is transmitted through skin to skin contact with an infected person or through direct contact with infested objects." |
| C35778 | "A stromal tumor that originates from the interstitial cells of Cajal. It may involve any part of the gastrointestinal tract. The majority of cases occur in the stomach. Morphologic variants include the epithelioid cell type, spindle cell type, and mixed cell type. Most cases contain KIT- or PDGFRA-activating mutations. Lesions with a diameter greater than 10cm and more than 5 mitotic figures per 50HPF tend to have a more aggressive clinical course. Until recently, surgery has been the only ... |
| C35779 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the teeth and/or the periodontal tissues.  Representative examples include odontoma, enamel hypoplasia, and periodontitis." |
| C3577 | "The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the lung. This may be from a primary lung malignant neoplasm, or from a malignant neoplasm at a distant site." |
| C35780 | A uveal melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes. |
| C35781 | "A melanoma arising from the choroid, ciliary body, or the iris. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of spindle A melanoma cells, spindle B melanoma cells, and epithelioid melanoma cells." |
| C35782 | "A melanoma arising from the choroid. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of spindle A melanoma cells, spindle B melanoma cells, and epithelioid melanoma cells." |
| C35783 | "A melanoma arising from the ciliary body. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of spindle A melanoma cells, spindle B melanoma cells, and epithelioid melanoma cells." |
| C35784 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the hair. Representative examples may include alopecia, male pattern baldness, hirsutism, and hair shaft disorders." |
| C35786 | "Inflammation of the heart characterized by infiltration of the interstitial tissues by inflammatory cells, histiocytes, and the formation of granulomas. Giant cells are often present." |
| C3578 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the mediastinum from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C35790 | "A congenital condition characterized by the absence of hair on the scalp or entire body. The lack of hair is rarely absolute and is usually accompanied by incompletely grown, lanugo-like hair.  It affects males twice as much as females and a familial tendency is common." |
| C35791 |  |
| C35792 | Cholecystitis that is characterized by nodules containing lipid. |
| C35793 | An occlusive disease of the femoropopliteal vascular system. |
| C35794 | "A variant of mycosis fungoides, characterized by an exclusively intraepidermal atypical (cerebriform) lymphocytic infiltrate.  Patients present with a localized psoriasiform or hyperkeratotic patch or plaque, usually in the extremities.  Extracutaneous dissemination of the disease has never been reported." |
| C35795 |  |
| C35796 | Acute encephalitis that is characterized by bleeding. |
| C35797 |  |
| C35798 | "Inflammation of the glomeruli secondary to presence of autoantibodies directed at specific antigenic targets within the glomerular basement membrane, causing hematuria, proteinuria, and impaired renal function." |
| C35799 | "Inflammation of the glomeruli, in which all glomeruli are affected, resulting in renal failure." |
| C3579 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the pleura from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C35800 | "Inflammation of the glomeruli characterized by the accumulation of antibody-antigen immune complexes, resulting in glomerular damage and impaired kidney function." |
| C35801 | "A term that refers to glomerular damage resulting in hematuria, proteinuria, and azotemia. The histopathologic changes include rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis." |
| C35803 | Infection by an etiologic agent that can be passed between animals and humans. |
| C35804 | Insomnia that results from a developed tendency to not sleep well under particular conditions. |
| C35805 | Infection by hookworms of the genus Ancylostoma. |
| C35806 | "A rare, rapidly progressing interstitial lung disorder characterized by diffuse and bilateral alveolar damage.  Patients present with sudden onset of dyspnea and rapid development of respiratory failure.  Management is supportive and hospitalization and mechanical ventilation are usually required." |
| C35807 |  |
| C35808 | "A syndrome which occurs following withdrawal of an abused substance. Clinical signs vary depending on the substance that was abused and may include irritability, trembling and vomiting. The clinical course depends on the ability to manage the withdrawal symptoms." |
| C35809 | "A rare genetic syndrome featuring connective tissue abnormalities. Clinical signs include brachycephaly, arachnodactyly, receding mandible and joint laxity at the hands and feet." |
| C3580 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the bone from another anatomic site. |
| C35810 | A disorder which affects sensation in the hands. Clinical signs usually include tingling or numbness with onset in middle-age. There is a female predominance among those affected. |
| C35811 | A disorder which limits movement of the eye following ocular surgery. It is caused by the inadvertent scarring down of the middle portion of the inferior oblique muscle at or near the insertion of the inferior rectus muscle. Clinical signs include hypotropia and excyclotropia. Surgical release of the incarcerated segment will usually correct the deviation of the affected eye. |
| C35812 | A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the lymph node.  Lymphomas and metastatic carcinomas are representative examples. |
| C35813 | A benign or malignant (primary or metastatic) neoplasm that affects the hematopoietic and lymphatic system. |
| C35814 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the hematopoietic and lymphatic system. |
| C35815 | "A tumor mass composed of myeloblasts, neutrophils and neutrophil precursors.  Granulocytic sarcoma is the most common type of myeloid sarcoma.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C35816 | A less common form of myeloid sarcoma composed of monoblasts.  Monoblastic sarcoma may precede or occur simultaneously with acute monoblastic leukemia. (WHO 2001) |
| C35817 | A granulocytic sarcoma composed primarily of myeloblasts (WHO 2001). |
| C35818 | A granulocytic sarcoma composed of myeloblasts and promyelocytes (WHO 2001). |
| C35819 | A granulocytic sarcoma composed of promyelocytes and more mature neutrophils (WHO 2001). |
| C3581 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C35823 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the spleen. Examples include infection, hemangioma, lymphoma, leukemia and angiosarcoma." |
| C35824 | A neuroma that occurs at the site of an amputation. |
| C35826 | A hyperplasia of the gastric foveolar epithelium. |
| C35827 | An inflammatory disorder of unknown etiology that affects the thyroid gland. It is characterized by extensive fibrosis of the thyroid parenchyma. The fibrosis extends beyond the thyroid gland capsule to the adjacent structures. |
| C35828 | "Self-limited inflammation of the thyroid gland characterized by the presence of multinucleated giant cells. Patients present with neck pain, often associated with fever and dysphagia. The clinical course includes an initial phase of hyperthyroidism, followed by a phase of hypothyroidism, and eventually a return to normal thyroid function." |
| C35829 | Thyroiditis associated with painless enlargement of the thyroid gland.  It occurs more frequently in females and is characterized by alterations between hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism and the eventual return to normal thyroid gland function. |
| C3582 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C35830 | A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the presence of pseudostratified malignant follicular cells. |
| C35831 | "An aggressive, high grade malignant tumor that arises from the salivary gland. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant epithelial and a sarcomatous component." |
| C35832 | "An aggressive, high grade malignant tumor that arises from the parotid gland. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant epithelial and a sarcomatous component." |
| C35833 | "An uncommon benign epithelial tumor, characterized by predominantly unicystic or multicystic growth; there is focal intraluminal papillary proliferation of the lining epithelium. Nearly half occur in the parotid gland.  In the minor salivary glands, women are affected more than men. In the major salivary glands, cystadenomas present as slowly enlarging, asymptomatic masses that may be slightly compressible. Cystadenocarcinoma is the malignant counterpart." |
| C35834 | "An intraluminal papillary proliferation that causes unicystic dilatation of the duct and may have features in common with papillary cystadenoma. It is quite rare, and involves almost exclusively the excretory ducts of intraoral minor salivary glands. It presents as an asymptomatic submucosal swelling." |
| C35835 | "A very rare benign tumor of the minor salivary glands, characterized by a luminal papillary proliferation that arises at the junction of the salivary gland duct and the oral mucosal surface epithelium and expands as a nodular mass into the lamina propria.  It presents as an asymptomatic mucosal swelling." |
| C35836 | "An uncommon exophytic papillary proliferation that involves mucosal surface epithelium and salivary duct epithelium. It is exceptional among salivary gland neoplasms because it manifests as an exophytic papillary excrescence of the mucosa, rather than as a submucosal or intraglandular mass. It most often affects the hard or soft palate.  It is generally asymptomatic." |
| C35837 | "A rare, malignant primitive neoplasm that occurs in the salivary glands. Most tumors arise from the parotid gland, followed by the submandibular gland, and rarely the minor salivary glands. It is usually diagnosed during the neonatal period and presents with painless face swelling." |
| C35838 |  |
| C35839 | "A benign papillary neoplasm that arises from the salivary glands.  This category includes intraductal papilloma, inverted ductal papilloma, and sialadenoma papilliferum." |
| C3583 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C35840 | A hyperplasia of the intraepithelial melanocytes. |
| C35844 | A vascular disease caused by radiation. |
| C35845 | A pathologic hyperplastic process characterized by the proliferation of the cells of the epithelial layer that resemble the basal cells of the lower part of the epidermis. |
| C3584 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C35850 | "A carcinoma that arises from the head and neck region.  Representative examples include oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma, laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma, and salivary gland carcinoma." |
| C35851 | A clear cell renal cell carcinoma characterized by absent or inconspicuous and basophilic nucleoli at x 400 magnification. (WHO 1982 /ISUP 2014) |
| C35852 | "A clear cell renal cell carcinoma characterized by nucleoli conspicuous and eosinophilic at x 400 magnification, and visible but not prominent at x 100 magnification. (WHO 1982 /ISUP 2014)" |
| C35853 | A clear cell renal cell carcinoma characterized by nucleoli conspicuous and eosinophilic at x 100 magnification. (WHO 1982 /ISUP 2014) |
| C35854 | "A clear cell renal cell carcinoma characterized by extreme nuclear pleomorphism and/or sarcomatoid and/or rhabdoid differentiation and/or tumor giant cells. (WHO, 1982 /ISUP 2014)" |
| C35855 | A hyperplasia of the squamous epithelial cells. |
| C35856 | A hyperplasia of the mesonephric cells. |
| C35857 |  |
| C35861 | A hyperplasia of the mesothelial cells. |
| C35868 | "A rare, progressive, non-neoplastic pathologic process that arises from the maxillary sinus mucosal epithelium.  It is characterized by the proliferation of keratinizing squamous epithelium and the formation of keratin sheets.  It may lead to bone erosion and infections.  Surgical removal is the appropriate treatment." |
| C35870 | "A high grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm producing osteoid. The tumor arises from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and most commonly, the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most common clinical presentation. It usually has an aggressive growth and may metastasize through the hematogenous route. The lung is the most frequent site of metastasis." |
| C35871 | "A spectrum of malignant tumors arising from the bone and characterized morphologically by the presence of small round cells.  Ewing sarcoma and peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor represent the ends of a spectrum, with Ewing sarcoma lacking evidence of neural differentiation and the markers that characterize the peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor.  Ewing sarcoma and peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor may share cytogenetic abnormalities, proto-oncogene expression, cell... |
| C35873 | A Kaposi sarcoma that develops after organ transplantation or immunosuppressive treatment. |
| C35874 | A Kaposi sarcoma that occurs in adults and children in Equatorial Africa. |
| C35875 | A lung carcinoma arising from the bronchial epithelium. |
| C35876 | A neoplasm that arises within the skull and occurs during childhood. |
| C35882 | An inherited blood disorder in which a large number of red blood cells have an elliptical morphology. |
| C3591 | "A neoplasm that arises from the lip and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3592 | "A neoplasm that arises from the tongue and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C35933 | A malignant tumor that has spread from its original (primary) site of growth to another site distant from the primary site. |
| C3593 | "A neoplasm that arises from the floor of the mouth and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3594 | "A neoplasm that arises from the tonsil and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3595 | "A neoplasm that arises from the nasopharynx and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is a representative example." |
| C3596 | "A neoplasm that arises from the hypopharynx and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3597 | "A neoplasm that arises from the pharynx and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3598 | "A neoplasm that arises from the esophageal wall and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3599 | "A neoplasm that arises from the stomach and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3600 | "A neoplasm that arises from the small intestine and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36012 | A benign or malignant neoplasm characterized by the formation of nodules by the proliferating neoplastic cells. |
| C3601 | "A neoplasm that arises from the larynx and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36025 | "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of poorly differentiated, often large neoplastic cells with bizarre morphologic characteristics, associated with high mitotic activity and necrotic changes." |
| C36028 | A malignant neoplasm that has minimal stromal invasion. |
| C36029 | A neoplasm characterized by focal or diffuse tumor cell necrosis. |
| C3602 | "A neoplasm that arises from the trachea and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36030 | A neoplasm that involves bone destruction. |
| C36031 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm characterized by the formation of papillary structures." |
| C36032 | A neoplasm that is composed of dysplastic cells and there is no morphologic evidence of infiltration of the surrounding tissues. |
| C36033 | A benign or malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of a tubular architecture. This category includes tubular adenomas and tubular carcinomas. |
| C36035 | A neoplasm surrounded by a fibrous capsule. |
| C36036 | A neoplasm that is non-capsulated. |
| C36037 | A neoplasm that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C36039 |  |
| C3603 | "A neoplasm that arises from the pleura and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36040 |  |
| C36041 | A term that refers to the categorization of malignant neoplasm by histologic grade. |
| C36042 |  |
| C36043 |  |
| C36044 |  |
| C36045 |  |
| C36046 |  |
| C36047 |  |
| C36048 |  |
| C36049 | A neoplasm whose histologic characteristics are intermediate between poorly differentiated and well differentiated. |
| C3604 | "A neoplasm that arises from the mediastinum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include lipoma, leiomyoma, and schwannoma." |
| C36050 | A neoplasm whose histologic characteristics have regressed and are more similar to stem cells. |
| C36051 | A neoplasm that has minimal to no differentiating features. |
| C36052 | A malignant neoplasm with morphological features reminiscent of the tissue from which it arose. |
| C36053 | "A non-encapsulated, well defined pulmonary blastoma, composed of irregular tubular structures.  It affects mostly middle-aged adults and it is rare in children.  The prognosis is better compared to the biphasic pulmonary blastoma." |
| C36054 | A pulmonary blastoma composed of a mixture of irregular tubular structures and mesenchymal elements. |
| C36055 | "A term that refers to acute promyelocytic leukemias that show variant translocations involving the RARA gene. The variant fusion partners include NUMA1, ZBTB16, STAT5B, and NPM1." |
| C36056 | Acute promyelocytic leukemia with a variant RARA rearrangement associated with t(11;17)(q23;q21) that results in the expression of ZBTB16-RARA fusion protein. It lacks differentiation response to retinoids treatment. |
| C36057 | Acute promyelocytic leukemia with a variant RARA rearrangement associated with t(5;17)(q35;q21) that results in the expression of NPM1-RARA fusion protein. |
| C36058 | Acute promyelocytic leukemia with a variant RARA rearrangement associated with t(11;17)(q13;q21) that results in the expression of NUMA1-RARA fusion protein. |
| C3605 | "A neoplasm that arises from the heart and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include atrial myxoma, cardiac lipoma, and cardiac fibroma." |
| C36060 | "A chronic myelomonocytic leukemia characterized by a peripheral blood eosinophil count of equal or greater than 1.5x10E9/L, and absence of PDGFRA or PDGFRB gene abnormalities." |
| C36061 | A chronic myelomonocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of less than 10 percent blasts in the bone marrow and less than 5 percent blasts in the peripheral blood. |
| C36062 | A chronic myelomonocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of 10-19 percent blasts in the bone marrow and 5-19 percent blasts in the peripheral blood or by the presence of Auer rods regardless of the blasts count. |
| C36065 | Blockage of the lumen of the superior vena cava. |
| C36066 | An infection that is caused by Orbivirus. |
| C36067 | "An acute inflammatory disorder of the colon secondary to infection with any species of the bacterial genus Clostridium. Symptoms include acute diarrhea, abdominal pain, and myalgia." |
| C36069 | An infectious process that affects the teeth and/or the periodontal tissues. |
| C3606 | A lipoma that arises from the spermatic cord. |
| C36070 | An infection that affects the gastrointestinal system and the abdomen. |
| C36071 | Polyneuropathy that is persistent or long-standing in nature. |
| C36074 | A small round cell tumor of the bone with neural differentiation that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C36075 | "A rare histiocytic disorder of unknown etiology, characterized by distention of the lymph node sinuses and sinusoidal histiocytic infiltration. The histiocytes characteristically contain ingested lymphocytes and are S100 and CD68 positive, and CD1a negative. Patients present with cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, leukocytosis, and hypergammaglobulinemia. It can affect extranodal sites, including skin, bones, and the respiratory tract. It occurs in isolation or may be associated with autoimmu... |
| C36076 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the male or female reproductive system.  Representative examples include prostate carcinoma, penile carcinoma, testicular seminoma, testicular embryonal carcinoma, endometrial carcinoma, cervical carcinoma, ovarian carcinoma, and uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma." |
| C36077 | "A carcinoma that arises from the junction, or adjacent to the junction, of the right and left hepatic ducts." |
| C36078 | Anemia characterized by the production of ringed sideroblasts instead of healthy red blood cells. |
| C36079 | A glomus tumor that arises from the subungual space of the digits. It is usually associated with pain. |
| C3607 | "A neoplasm that arises from the cervix and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include squamous papilloma, endocervical polyp, and rhabdomyoma." |
| C36080 | "A biologic subset of diffuse large B-cell lymphomas with a unique molecular signature or expression profile.  It represents approximately 50% of diffuse large B-cell lymphomas, and is characterized by the expression of CD10, BCL-6, A-myb, and LMO2 genes, BCL-2 translocation, and c-REL amplification.  Morphologically, the vast majority of these lymphomas are centroblastic and a small minority are immunoblastic (ratio20:1).  Patients with this type of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma have a more... |
| C36081 | "A biologic subset of diffuse large B-cell lymphomas with a unique molecular signature or expression profile.  It represents approximately 30% of diffuse large B-cell lymphomas, and is characterized by the expression of CD44, PKCbeta1, Cyclin D2, BCL-2, and IRF4/MUM1 genes.  Morphologically, these lymphomas are either centroblastic or immunoblastic (ratio 2:1).  Patients with this type of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma are reported to have a less favorable outcome compared to those with a ger... |
| C36082 | "A carcinoma that has spread to the bone from another anatomic site. Bone is one of the most frequent sites of metastatic carcinoma. Common sites of origin include lung, breast, and prostate." |
| C36083 | "A benign or malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises anywhere in the ductal system of the breast.  This category includes intraductal papilloma, intraductal papillary carcinoma, ductal hyperplasia with or without atypia, and ductal carcinoma in situ." |
| C36084 | An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of clusters of malignant cells located within artifactual clear stromal spaces that resemble vascular spaces. |
| C36085 | An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of papillary structures. |
| C36086 | "A breast lesion characterized by the presence of dilated terminal ductal lobular units in which the epithelial lining has been replaced by a single layer of mildly atypical cells, or there is atypical, monotonous epithelial hyperplasia of three to five layers.  This lesion relates to columnar cell change with atypia and columnar cell hyperplasia with atypia." |
| C36087 | A benign papillary neoplasm that arises in a large duct of the breast. It is characterized by the presence of a fibrovascular core that is lined by benign epithelial and myoepithelial proliferations. Patients usually present with nipple discharge. |
| C36088 | A benign papillary neoplasm that arises in a terminal ductal lobular unit. It is characterized by the presence of a fibrovascular core that is lined by benign epithelial and myoepithelial proliferations. Peripheral breast papillomas are often multiple and are usually found microscopically. Patients are often asymptomatic. |
| C36089 | An intraductal papilloma of the breast characterized by the presence of focal epithelial atypia. |
| C3608 | "A neoplasm that arises from the uterine corpus and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include leiomyoma, adenomyoma, endometrial stromal nodule, and endometrial polyp." |
| C36090 | A benign or malignant papillary neoplasm that arises anywhere in the ductal system of the breast. It is characterized by the presence of fibrovascular structures lined by epithelial proliferations. This category includes intraductal papilloma and papillary ductal carcinoma in situ. |
| C36092 | A mature teratoma that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of one or more cysts.  The cysts are lined by squamous epithelium and contain skin appendages.  Other teratomatous components may or may not be present. |
| C36094 | A cervical squamous cell carcinoma with minimal stromal invasion. The risk of lymph node metastasis is low. |
| C36095 | "A mucinous adenocarcinoma arising from the endocervical glandular epithelium. It is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells that contain significant amount of intracytoplasmic mucin. Histologic variants include intestinal-type, signet ring-type, gastric-type, cervical invasive stratified mucinous adenocarcinoma, and mucinous adenocarcinoma, not otherwise specified. All histologic variants except gastric-type adenocarcinoma are associated with human papillomavirus infectio... |
| C36096 | A cervical adenocarcinoma with minimal stromal invasion. The risk of local lymph node metastasis is insignificant and the prognosis is excellent. |
| C36097 | An aggressive malignant mixed epithelial and mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial elements and malignant mesenchymal elements. |
| C36098 | A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in female children.  The neoplasm arises from the vulva.  It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules with an abundant myxoid stroma. |
| C36099 | A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in adults.  The neoplasm arises from organs containing a mucosal epithelial surface.  It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules with an abundant myxoid stroma. |
| C3609 | "A neoplasm that arises from the uterine corpus or cervix and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include leiomyoma, adenomyoma, and endocervical polyp." |
| C36100 | "An autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by deleterious mutations in the BRCA1 gene. Patients are at high risk of developing breast cancer, ovarian cancer, and other cancers including cervical, endometrial, fallopian tube, and colon cancer." |
| C36101 | "An autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by deleterious mutations in the BRCA2 gene. Patients are at high risk of developing female and male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, and other cancers including prostatic cancer, pancreatic cancer, gastric cancer, and melanoma." |
| C36102 | Ovarian carcinoma that has developed in relatives of patients that have a history of ovarian carcinoma. |
| C36106 | Breast carcinoma that has developed in male relatives of patients with history of breast carcinoma. |
| C36107 | Breast carcinoma that has developed in female relatives of patients with history of breast carcinoma. |
| C3610 | "A neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3611 | "A neoplasm that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include cellular angiofibroma, melanocytic nevus, nodular hidradenoma, and Bartholin gland adenoma." |
| C3612 | "A neoplasm that arises from the testis and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3613 | "A neoplasm that arises from the prostate and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include benign phyllodes tumor, leiomyoma, and fibroma." |
| C3614 | "A neoplasm that arises from the epididymis and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include adenomatoid tumor and leiomyoma." |
| C3615 | "A neoplasm that arises from the scrotum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3616 | "A neoplasm that arises from the renal pelvis and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36170 | A group of viral illnesses that are characterized by increased susceptibility to bleeding diatheses. |
| C36171 | "A viral hemorrhagic fever that is caused by the Ebola virus, which is transmitted by contact with infected animals or humans; it is characterized by high fever, unexplained bleeding, and a high mortality rate." |
| C36173 | A condition in which an organ or body tissue drops or bulges out of place. |
| C3617 | "A neoplasm that arises from the ureter and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3618 | "A neoplasm that arises from the bladder and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36192 | An unintended connection between an artery and vein. |
| C36193 | Partial or total inability to hear sounds in both ears. |
| C36194 | Total inability to hear sounds in one or both ears. |
| C36196 |  |
| C36197 | An infection that is caused by Mycobacterium avium. |
| C36198 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N1, M0); IIIB (T3-T4, N1, M0); IIIC (Any T, N2, M0). N1: Metastasis in 1 to 3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 4 or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C36199 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N1, M0); IIIB (T3-T4, N1, M0); IIIC (Any T, N2, M0). N1: Metastasis in 1 to 3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 4 or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C3619 | "A neoplasm that arises from the urethra and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36200 |  |
| C36201 |  |
| C36202 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0) and (T2, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C36203 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0) and (T2, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C36204 |  |
| C36205 | "A non-neoplastic polyp that arises from the stomach and is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle branching bands, and hyperplasia with cystic dilatation of the foveolar epithelium." |
| C36206 | "A non-neoplastic, hamartomatous polyp that arises from the small intestine.  It includes the juvenile polyp and Peutz-Jeghers polyp." |
| C36207 | "A sporadic or less frequently familial neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract and liver. In the gastrointestinal tract, it manifests as a polypoid or flat circumscribed lesion. Morphologically, it is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic glandular cells and is associated with dysplasia. Based on the growth pattern, it may be classified as tubular, villous, or tubulovillous. The dysplasia is classified as mild, moderate, or severe. The frequ... |
| C3620 | "A neoplasm that arises from the orbit and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3621 | "A neoplasm that arises from the lacrimal gland and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3622 | "A neoplasm that arises from the conjunctiva and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3623 | "A neoplasm that arises from the cornea and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3624 | "A neoplasm that arises from the retina and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36255 | "A neoplasm that arises from a pre-existing lower grade lesion, or as a result of a primary lesion that has spread to secondary sites, or due to a complication of a cancer treatment." |
| C3625 | "A neoplasm that arises from the choroid and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36260 | Clear cell renal cell carcinoma that has developed in relatives of patients with a history of clear cell renal cell carcinoma. A representative example is clear cell renal cell carcinoma associated with biallelic loss/inactivation of the von Hippel Lindau tumor suppressor gene. |
| C36261 | "The most common type of renal cell carcinoma, characterized by a loss of genetic material of the short arm of chromosome 3.  The most common symptom at the time of diagnosis is hematuria.  The tumor has a golden-yellow color because of the abundance of intracytoplasmic lipid.  This is a clinically aggressive type of renal cell carcinoma.  The tumor usually metastasizes to unusual sites and late metastasis is common." |
| C36262 | "A white patch or plaque on the oral cavity mucosa that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease. The diagnosis of leukoplakia is one of exclusion; other conditions such as candidiasis, lichen planus, leukoedema, etc., must be ruled out before a diagnosis of leukoplakia can be made. Leukoplakia may be a premalignant condition." |
| C36263 | A malignant tumor that has spread from its original (primary) site of growth to another site close to or distant from the primary site. |
| C36264 | A very rare benign neoplasm that metastasizes inexplicably. This category includes metastasizing pleomorphic adenoma of the salivary gland and uterine corpus metastasizing leiomyoma. |
| C36265 | "The most common variant of adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma.  It is characterized by systemic disease with a leukemic phase, generalized lymphadenopathy, and skin lesions.  Hypercalcemia is commonly seen." |
| C36266 | "An adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma characterized by generalized lymphadenopathy without peripheral blood involvement.  Most patients have advanced disease, however hypercalcemia is not frequently present." |
| C36268 | A rare morphologic variant of adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma characterized by the presence of Hodgkin-like and Reed-Sternberg-like cells. |
| C3626 | "A neoplasm that arises from the lacrimal duct and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36270 | A T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of small neoplastic prolymphocytes often with invisible nucleolus by light microscopy. |
| C36271 | A T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of neoplastic prolymphocytes with irregular or cerebriform nuclear outline. |
| C36272 | A chronic lymphocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of neoplastic lymphocytes with plasmacytoid morphology. |
| C36273 | A small lymphocytic lymphoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic lymphocytes with plasmacytoid morphology. |
| C36276 |  |
| C36277 |  |
| C3627 | "A neoplasm that arises from the spinal cord and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36287 | An anatomic abnormality that is either present at birth or appears later in life. |
| C3628 | "A neoplasm that arises from the thyroid gland and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3629 | "A neoplasm that arises from the adrenal gland and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36300 | A carcinoma that arises from the breast and has metastasized to the lung. |
| C36301 | "A carcinoma that has spread to the brain from its original site in the breast, through the hematogenous route." |
| C36302 | A carcinoma that originates from the breast and has spread to the liver. |
| C36303 | A carcinoma that arises from the breast and has metastasized to the bone. |
| C36304 | "A carcinoma that has spread to the brain from its original site in the lung, through the hematogenous route." |
| C36305 | A carcinoma that arises from the lung and has metastasized to the bone. |
| C36306 | A carcinoma that originates from the lung and has spread to the liver. |
| C36307 | A carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland and has spread to the lungs. |
| C36308 | A carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland and has spread to the bone. |
| C36309 | A carcinoma that originates from the colonic wall and has spread to the liver. |
| C3630 | "A neoplasm that arises from the parathyroid glands and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C36310 | "A carcinoma that arises from a pre-existing lower grade epithelial lesion, or as a result of a primary carcinoma that has spread to secondary sites, or due to a complication of a cancer treatment." |
| C36312 | A B-cell acute leukemia characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts that carry a translocation between the BCR gene on chromosome 22 and the ABL1 gene on chromosome 9. It results in the production of the p190 kd or p210 kd fusion protein. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome. |
| C3631 | "A neoplasm that arises from the pineal region and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3633 | A hemangioma arising from the brain and meninges. |
| C3634 | A hemangioma arising from the retina. |
| C3635 | A hemangioma arising from organs within the abdominal cavity. |
| C3636 | "A neoplasm that arises from the lymph nodes and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3637 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C3638 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial or invasion of lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C3639 | A carcinoma that arises from the tracheal mucosa and is confined to the epithelial layer without evidence of further tissue invasion. |
| C3640 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C3641 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C3642 | High grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of severe architectural and cytologic abnormalities. |
| C3643 | "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0) and (Ta, N0, M0).  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  Ta: Non-invasive verrucous carcinoma.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C3644 | "Stage 0is includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: ""flat tumor"".  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C3646 | "A neoplasm displaying morphologic, phenotypic, or genotypic characteristics that are clearly not benign but do not permit the establishment of a definitive diagnosis of malignancy.  Such neoplasms may or may not eventually have a more aggressive clinical course.  Representative examples include lymphoproliferations of uncertain malignant potential (e.g., lymphomatoid granulomatosis and lymphomatoid papulosis), borderline ovarian epithelial neoplasms (e.g., borderline ovarian endometrioid tu... |
| C3651 | "A condition characterized by the formation of fatty deposits under the skin in the area of the eyelids. These well-demarcated growths, more common in women than men and sometimes hereditary, may indicate elevated cholesterol levels in the blood or the fatty degeneration of the superficial fibers of the orbicularis muscle." |
| C3654 | "A non-neoplastic lesion characterized by the proliferation of keratinizing squamous epithelium in the middle ear that results in the accumulation of keratin and cells.  It is usually caused by repeated infections.  If left untreated, it may increase in size and destroy the adjacent delicate bones of the middle ear." |
| C3660 | Breast fibrocystic change characterized by the prominence of fibrotic changes in the parenchyma. |
| C3661 | "Localized necrosis of the adipose tissue in the breast.  Clinically, it may present as a mass.  Causes include injury, surgical procedures, and radiation treatment." |
| C3662 | A benign protruding lesion arising either from the endometrial cavity (endometrial polyp) or the endocervix (endocervical polyp).  It may occasionally recur following complete resection. |
| C3663 | Leukoplakia of the vagina. |
| C3664 | A benign polypoid lesion arising from the vaginal wall. |
| C3666 | "A non-neoplastic proliferation of a nerve caused by injury to the nerve due to trauma or surgery. It presents as a firm nodule that may be associated with pain or tenderness. It most often occurs in the lower extremity following amputation, or in the head and neck region." |
| C3668 | "Contact hypersensitivity is an inflammatory response induced by antigen-reactive T cells that are exposed to antigen on the skin surface (epidermis).  Poison ivy is a frequent cause of such reactivity, due to the urushiol from the plant, as are a variety of antigens derived from industrial exposure (e.g. rubber, chromate, nickel).  These antigens induce the appearance of Th1-like T cells, which presumably produce IFN to activate macrophages." |
| C3669 | "Inadequate nutrition resulting from poor diet, malabsorption, or abnormal nutrient distribution." |
| C3670 | A variant of parapsoriasis in which the plaques are large. |
| C3674 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm affecting the male and female reproductive system." |
| C3675 | Uropathy that is caused by an impediment to flow in the urinary tract. |
| C3677 | "A neoplasm characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C3678 | "A rare adenocarcinoma of the major and minor salivary glands, originating from basaloid, myoepithelial, and ductal cells. While morphologically it resembles basal cell carcinoma, it is a distinct entity. The tumor is not encapsulated, may invade locally, and less frequently may metastasize. It usually occurs in older patients." |
| C3679 | "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of large malignant epithelial cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm (oncocytes). Representative examples include thyroid gland oncocytic follicular carcinoma, oncocytic breast carcinoma, and salivary gland oncocytic carcinoma." |
| C3680 | A carcinoma characterized by the presence of a cribriform architectural pattern. Representative examples include the intraductal cribriform breast carcinoma and invasive cribriform breast carcinoma. |
| C3681 | An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with granular cytoplasm. |
| C3682 |  |
| C3685 | A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by a microcystic pattern. The cystic spaces are lined by small cuboidal cells without evidence of significant cytologic atypia. |
| C3686 | A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the salivary glands. It is characterized by the presence of a monomorphic cellular infiltrate. |
| C3687 | "A low grade, unencapsulated neoplasm with papillary, tubular, or tubulopapillary architecture, less than 15 mm in size." |
| C3689 | A rare adenocarcinoma of the appendix that exhibits neuroendocrine differentiation and is associated with the presence of neoplastic signet-ring cells resembling goblet cells of the intestine. |
| C3692 | "A usually aggressive malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of atypical cells which do not display evidence of glandular, squamous, or transitional cell differentiation." |
| C3693 | Carcinoma that has spread diffusely to an anatomic site or throughout the body. |
| C3694 | "Solitary or multiple, slightly raised pigmented melanocytic skin lesions with irregular borders, usually measuring more than 0.6cm in greatest dimension. Morphologically, there is melanocytic atypia and the differential diagnosis from melanoma may be difficult. Patients are at an increased risk for the development of melanoma." |
| C3695 | A rare benign neoplasm of the endocardium.  The vast majority of cases arise in the heart valves.  Histopathologic examination reveals a papilloma lined by endothelial cells with a central avascular core which contains fibroblasts and elastic fibers. Patients may be asymptomatic or present with ischemic or embolic events. |
| C3696 | "A benign, slowly growing tumor (WHO grade I) typically arising in the wall of the lateral ventricles and composed of large ganglioid astrocytes. It is the most common CNS neoplasm in patients with tuberous sclerosis complex and typically occurs during the first two decades of life. (WHO)" |
| C3697 | "A slow growing, WHO grade I glioma which generally occurs in young adults.  It arises almost exclusively in the conus medullaris, cauda equina, and filum terminale of the spinal cord. It generally has a favorable prognosis and is characterized histologically by tumor cells arranged in a papillary manner around vascularized mucoid stromal cores. (Adapted from WHO)." |
| C3698 | "A benign, slow growing tumor which may cause symptoms by blocking cerebrospinal fluid pathways.  It is characterized by the presence of delicate fibrovascular connective tissue fronds covered by a single layer of epithelial cells.  Mitotic activity is extremely low.  Surgical resection is usually curative. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C3699 | A hemangioma arising from skeletal muscle. |
| C3700 | A morphologic variant of leiomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of epithelioid round cells with eosinophilic to clear cytoplasm. |
| C3701 | "A morphologic variant of leiomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of cellular pleomorphism, malignant cells with large nuclei, and a myxoid stroma." |
| C3702 | "A rare benign slow growing adipose tissue tumor, characterized by the presence of polygonal brown fat cells with multivacuolated and/or granular cytoplasm.  The tumor is usually painless and is most often seen in young adults." |
| C3703 | "A benign circumscribed tumor characterized by small spindle cells, rounded hyperchromatic cells and multinucleated giant cells with radially arranged nuclei." |
| C3704 | "An atypical lipomatous tumor/well differentiated liposarcoma that shows progression to a usually non-lipomatous, high grade sarcoma.  The non-lipomatous sarcoma component may be present in the primary lesion or at the site of recurrence." |
| C3705 | "A rare, aggressive liposarcoma characterized by the presence of varying proportions of pleomorphic lipoblasts in a background that resembles undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma." |
| C3706 | A rare malignant embryonal neoplasm arising from the cerebellum.  It is characterized by the morphologic features of a medulloblastoma and the presence of a striated muscle component.  Its clinical behavior is similar to medulloblastoma. |
| C3707 | The presence of multiple meningiomas in the leptomeninges. |
| C3708 | "A benign or malignant, gonadal or extragonadal neoplasm that originates from germ cells. Representative examples include teratoma, seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, and yolk sac tumor." |
| C3709 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm that arises from and is composed of epithelial cells. Representative examples include adenomas and carcinomas." |
| C3710 | "A rare benign neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It is characterized by the presence of a fibromyxoid stroma, epithelial component, dentin, and enamel. Recurrences are rare." |
| C3711 | "A benign, slow growing, and painless hamartomatous tumor occurring in tooth-bearing areas of the jaws. It usually affects children and adolescents. It is characterized by the presence of tooth-like structures. Treatment consists of local excision. Recurrences have not been reported." |
| C3712 | "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern and a proliferation of neoplastic squamous cells without morphologic evidence of malignancy. Most frequently it arises in the oral cavity, nasopharynx, larynx, esophagus, vagina, and vulva." |
| C3713 | Glandular or squamous cell neoplastic proliferations characterized by the formation of multiple papillary structures diffusely involving a specific anatomic site. |
| C3714 | "An aggressive malignant neoplasm of uncertain differentiation, characterized by the presence of epithelioid cells forming nodular patterns.  The nodules often undergo central necrosis, resulting in a pseudogranulomatous growth pattern.  It usually occurs in young adults.  The most common sites of involvement are the extremities (distal-type epithelioid sarcoma), and less frequently the pelvis, perineum, and genital organs (proximal-type epithelioid sarcoma)." |
| C3715 | Encephalopathy that is associated with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. |
| C3716 | A malignant neoplasm that originates in the neuroectoderm. The neuroectoderm constitutes the portion of the ectoderm of the early embryo that gives rise to the central and peripheral nervous systems and includes some glial cell precursors. |
| C3717 | "A rare neoplasm usually occurring in infants.  It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of melanin-containing epithelial cells and smaller neuroblast-like cells.  It may involve the skull and facial bones, or the epididymis.  It usually has a benign clinical course." |
| C3718 | "A syndrome characterized by a predisposition for Wilms tumor, aniridia, genitourinary anomalies, and developmental delay. This is a contiguous gene syndrome due to deletion in the vicinity of chromosome 11p13 in a region containing the WT1 and PAX6 genes." |
| C37193 | "A T-cell peripheral lymphoma composed of usually large, pleomorphic, CD30 positive T-lymphocytes with abundant cytoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of a translocation involving the ALK gene and expression of ALK fusion protein. Most patients present with peripheral and/or abdominal lymphadenopathy, and often have advanced disease and extranodal involvement." |
| C37194 | "A T-cell peripheral lymphoma morphologically indistinguishable from anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK-positive.  It is characterized by the absence of the translocation involving the ALK gene and lacks expression of ALK fusion protein." |
| C37195 | "A T-cell peripheral lymphoma affecting multiple anatomic sites. It is composed of usually large, pleomorphic, CD30 positive T-lymphocytes with abundant cytoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of a translocation involving the ALK gene and expression of ALK fusion protein." |
| C37196 | "Anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK-negative affecting multiple anatomic sites." |
| C37201 | "A recently recognized variant of chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma (CLL/SLL) expressing somatic hypermutations of the Immunoglobulin heavy chain (IGH) genes.  The recognition of this variant alters the belief that CLL/SLL is always derived from a naive, pregerminal center B-cell.  The presence of somatic hypermutations of IGH genes occurs in approximately 50% of CLL/SLL cases and implies a postgerminal center, memory origin.  Patients with this variant of CLL/SLL have ... |
| C37202 | Chronic lymphocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of somatic hypermutation within the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region of neoplastic clones. Patients have a better prognosis as compared to those with unmutated immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region rearrangements. |
| C37203 | Small lymphocytic lymphoma characterized by the presence of somatic hypermutation within the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region of neoplastic clones. Patients have a better prognosis as compared to those with unmutated immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region rearrangements. |
| C37204 | "A recently recognized variant of chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma (CLL/SLL) that lacks somatic hypermutations of the Immunoglobulin heavy chain (IGH) genes, implying pregerminal center B-cell origin.  Microarray gene expression profiling studies have demonstrated the expression of ZAP-70 gene (Syk family tyrosine kinase) in this subset of CLL/CLL.  Patients with this variant of CLL/SLL have an unfavorable prognosis compared to those with somatic hypermutations of the ... |
| C37205 | Chronic lymphocytic leukemia characterized by the absence of somatic hypermutation within the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region of neoplastic clones. Patients have a significantly worse prognosis as compared to those with mutated immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region rearrangements. |
| C37206 | Small lymphocytic lymphoma characterized by the absence of somatic hypermutation within the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region of neoplastic clones. Patients have a significantly worse prognosis as compared to those with mutated immunoglobulin heavy chain gene variable region rearrangements. |
| C37209 | "A high-grade B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of medium-size neoplastic lymphocytes with a scant amount of cytoplasm and inconspicuous nucleoli, resembling lymphoblasts." |
| C3720 | "A peripheral (mature) T-cell lymphoma, consisting of usually large anaplastic, CD30 positive cells. The majority of cases are positive for the anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALK) protein. The most frequently seen genetic alteration is a t(2;5) translocation. Majority of patients present with advanced disease. The most important prognostic indicator is ALK positivity, which has been associated with a favorable prognosis. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C37210 | "A rare renal cell carcinoma affecting young patients. It is characterized by the presence of the chromosomal translocation t(6;11) which fuses the TFEB transcription factor gene, located on chromosome 6, with the MALAT1 gene, located on chromosome 11." |
| C37212 | "A low-grade malignant neoplasm that arises from the exocrine pancreas. It is characterized by the presence of uniform cells that form solid and pseudopapillary patterns, cystic changes, and hemorrhage. Perineural invasion, vascular invasion, and invasion into surrounding tissues may be present. It usually presents as an encapsulated, solitary, and lobulated pancreatic mass. It is usually found incidentally during physical examination or it may present with abdominal discomfort and pain. It ... |
| C37214 | "An infiltrating pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, characterized by the presence of malignant cells floating in pools of mucin.  It has a more favorable prognosis than the conventional infiltrating ductal adenocarcinoma.  It often arises in association with intraductal pancreatic mucinous neoplasms and in some cases it may result in the development of pseudomyxoma peritonei." |
| C3721 | "A chronic, recurrent cutaneous disorder characterized by the presence of spontaneously regressing papules.  The papules are composed of an atypical lymphocytic infiltrate that contains anaplastic CD30-positive T-cells, which are found in type A and diffuse large cell type (type C) lymphomatoid papulosis.  In a small number of cases, of type B, the lymphocytic infiltrate is composed of small, cerebriform-like lymphocytes that are often negative for CD30.  The majority of cases follow a benig... |
| C3722 | An epithelial hyperplasia of the oral cavity mucosa associated with Epstein-Barr virus and found almost exclusively in persons with HIV infection. The lesion consists of a white patch that is often corrugated or hairy. |
| C3723 | A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from the lymphatic vessels. |
| C3724 | A congenital lymphatic malformation that usually arises from the neck and is characterized by cystic dilation of the lymphatic vessels. |
| C37256 | A pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of adenocarcinoma cells with foamy cytoplasm. |
| C37257 | "A melanoma of the skin characterized by a proliferation of atypical spindled melanocytes in the dermis, in a background of abundant collagen. It usually presents as an amelanotic raised nodular lesion." |
| C37258 | "A benign primary melanocytic tumor of the skin that presents as a dermal nodule. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of paraganglioma-like features that include a nested growth pattern of the tumor cells. The nests are composed of epithelioid cells and are separated by delicate fibrous strands. Cytoplasmic melanin is not present; however immunohistochemical studies have confirmed the melanocytic lineage of the tumor cells." |
| C3725 | "A multifocal neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation affecting almost exclusively females of child-bearing age. It is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle and epithelioid cells and by the proliferation of lymphatic vessels. Sites of involvement include the lungs, mediastinum, and the retroperitoneum. It usually presents with chylous pleural effusion or ascites." |
| C37260 |  |
| C37261 | "A group of autosomal recessive inherited disorders characterized by albinism, bleeding tendency, and lung disorders such as pulmonary fibrosis." |
| C37262 | Inflammation of the colon that is characterized by the presence of granulomas. |
| C37263 | "A rare, usually benign tumor that arises from the kidney. It belongs to the spectrum of mixed epithelial and stromal tumor family. It usually affects females. It is characterized by the presence of a biphasic pattern with tubular and cystic structures in a spindle cell stroma. Patients usually present with flank pain and hematuria." |
| C37264 | "A rare, benign neoplasm that most often manifests as a multiloculated cystic renal mass. It is characterized by the presence of solid and cystic components. The solid components contain a mixture of epithelial and stromal elements." |
| C37265 | A mixed epithelial stromal tumor of the kidney with malignant stromal features. |
| C37266 | "A flat urothelial lesion of variable thickness in the bladder, devoid of papillary structures containing cytologically malignant cells. (WHO 2016)" |
| C37268 | Focal proliferation of small acinar glandular cells in the prostate gland with cytologic changes ranging from atypia to highly suggestive of malignancy. |
| C3726 | "A benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of a glandular and a mesenchymal (fibromyomatous) component. It occurs in the uterine corpus, cervix, and uterine ligaments. A variant of adenomyoma associated with glandular architectural complexity is called atypical polypoid adenomyoma. Simple polypectomy is usually curative. Atypical polypoid adenomyoma may recur following polypectomy." |
| C37272 | "HPV-negative vulvar squamous intraepithelial proliferation characterized by atypia of the basal and parabasal keratinocytes in an otherwise well-differentiated epithelium. Despite its subtle appearance, it has a high risk of malignant transformation. (WHO 2020)" |
| C3727 | An invasive carcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells and malignant squamous cells. |
| C3728 | "A malignant embryonal neoplasm that arises from the liver. It occurs almost exclusively in infants, although isolated cases in older children and adults have been reported. Microscopically,  it consists of either epithelial or epithelial and mesenchymal components." |
| C37290 | "A high-grade, aggressive variant of squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the head and neck region.  The most common sites of origin are pyriform sinus, epiglottis, and base of tongue.  It is characterized by the presence of small malignant cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and scant amount of cytoplasm forming lobules with peripheral palisading.  Comedonecrosis may be present." |
| C3729 | A malignant neoplasm composed of a carcinomatous epithelial component and a sarcomatous mesenchymal component. Representative examples include malignant mixed mesodermal (Mullerian) tumor of the female reproductive system and carcinosarcoma of the salivary gland and the lung. |
| C37304 | A papillary carcinoma arising in the thyroid gland from multiple foci. |
| C37308 | "A renal disorder characterized by sclerotic lesions in the glomeruli. Causes include drugs, viruses, and malignancies (lymphomas), or it may be idiopathic. It presents with asymptomatic proteinuria or nephritic syndrome and it may lead to renal failure." |
| C3730 | "A group of tumors affecting the female reproductive system, characterized by the presence of epithelial and stromal elements. It includes the following clinicopathological entities: adenofibroma, adenomyoma, Mullerian adenosarcoma, and malignant mixed mesodermal (Mullerian) tumor." |
| C3732 | "A biphasic tumor that consists of fetal adenocarcinoma (typically low-grade) and primitive mesenchymal stroma. Foci of specific mesenchymal differentiation (osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, or rhabdomyosarcoma) may also be present, but are not required for the diagnosis. Most patients are smokers.  The prognosis is very poor. (WHO 2015)" |
| C3733 | "A lipoma with prominent vascularity. The vascular tissue is more abundant at the periphery of the tumor and contains fibrin thrombi. It occurs more frequently in younger individuals as a painful subcutaneous nodule, often on the arms." |
| C3734 | "A neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation often associated with tuberous sclerosis.  It is characterized by a mixture of epithelioid cells, smooth muscle, vessels, and mature adipose tissue.  The kidney is the most common site of involvement.  Other sites of involvement include the liver, lung, lymph nodes, and retroperitoneum.  The vast majority of cases follow a benign clinical course.  However, cases of metastatic angiomyolipomas with sarcomatoid features have been de... |
| C3736 | A benign soft tissue lesion that arises from the adrenal gland and is composed of mature adipose and hematopoietic/lymphoid tissues. |
| C3737 | "A morphologic variant of chondrosarcoma arising from bone and soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of malignant small round cells, biphasic growth pattern, and well differentiated hyaline cartilage. Clinical presentation includes pain and swelling. The clinical course is aggressive, with local recurrences and distant metastases." |
| C3738 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant bone tumor characterized by the presence of osteoclast-like giant cells. Clinical presentation includes pain, edema, and decreased range of motion in the affected joint." |
| C3739 | "A benign neoplasm composed of fibroblastic spindle cells in a whorled storiform pattern.  It is characterized by the presence of foam cells, inflammatory cells, hemosiderin deposition and stromal hemorrhage." |
| C3740 | "A rare, benign, locally aggressive osteolytic neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of a rich collagenous stroma and spindle cells with minimal cellular atypia." |
| C3741 | "An insidious poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues of the abdomen. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern." |
| C3742 | "A benign, multifocal, nodular and well-circumscribed neoplasm usually seen as a congenital neoplasm or in the first year of life. It is characterized by a biphasic growth pattern and is composed of small, undifferentiated mesenchymal cells associated with branching thin-walled vessels and more mature neoplastic spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm in a collagenous stroma." |
| C3743 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of an epithelial and a fibrous component.  Representative examples are fibroadenoma and phyllodes tumor." |
| C3744 | "A benign tumor of the breast characterized by the presence of stromal and epithelial elements. It presents as a painless, solitary, slow growing, firm, and mobile mass. It is the most common benign breast lesion. It usually occurs in women of childbearing age. The majority of fibroadenomas do not recur after complete excision. A slightly increased risk of developing cancer within fibroadenomas or in the breast tissue of patients previously treated for fibroadenomas has been reported." |
| C3745 | A rare malignant neoplasm with melanocytic differentiation characterized by the presence of polygonal or spindle shaped clear cells. This sarcoma usually affects the tendons and aponeuroses and is associated with a poor prognosis due to recurrences and metastases. |
| C3746 | A sarcoma characterized by the presence of small round or elongated malignant cells with a small amount of cytoplasm. |
| C3747 | "A benign, slow-growing neoplasm that arises from the dermis or subcutaneous tissue. It is characterized by the presence of well-differentiated smooth muscle cells which are arranged around numerous vessels." |
| C3748 | A condition characterized by the presence of numerous small benign smooth muscle neoplasms located throughout the body. |
| C3749 | A rapidly growing malignant mesenchymal neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of round cells with myoblastic differentiation and a fibrovascular stroma resembling an alveolar growth pattern. The tumor usually presents in the extremities. |
| C3750 | "A rare malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of large epithelioid cells with abundant cytoplasm forming nests and pseudoalveolar structures. The groups of the epithelioid cells are separated by thin-walled sinusoidal spaces. It occurs most often in adolescents and young adults. In adults the most common sites of involvement are the extremities, and in infants and children, the head and neck. It usually presents as a slowly growing mass and it frequently metastasizes to other anat... |
| C3751 | A benign or malignant myomatous neoplasm arising from smooth muscle. |
| C3752 | "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of large germ cells with abundant cytoplasm resembling epithelial cells, geographic necrosis, high mitotic activity, and pseudoglandular and pseudopapillary structures formation. It can arise from the testis, ovary, and extragonadal sites (central nervous system and mediastinum)." |
| C3754 | A mixed germ cell/sex cord-stromal tumor characterized by the presence of large germ cells which resemble seminoma cells and small cells which resemble Sertoli or granulosa cells. It occurs in the testis and the ovary and is identified in children and adults. It is often associated with gonadal dysgenesis and abnormal karyotype. |
| C3756 | A germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of an embryonal carcinoma component and a teratoma component. |
| C3757 | A rare gestational trophoblastic tumor characterized by the presence of a diffuse cellular infiltrate composed of intermediate trophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts and by the absense of a significant population of syncytiotrophoblasts. |
| C3758 | "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the hepatocytes. Grossly, it appears as a soft, round mass which often contains areas of hemorrhage and necrosis. Morphologically, the neoplastic cells resemble normal hepatocytes and form plates separated by sinusoids. Most patients have a history of contraceptive or anabolic steroids use." |
| C3759 | "A benign neoplasm composed of large cells with abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm.  Representative examples include oncocytic adenomas of the thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, and pituitary gland." |
| C3760 | "A benign cystic proliferation of the sweat glands with apocrine or eccrine differentiation. It usually presents as a dome-shaped, cystic papular or nodular lesion usually in the face and neck. It is a unilocular or mutlilocular lesion lined by an inner and an outer layer of epithelium. Complete excision is usually curative." |
| C3761 | "A benign sweat gland neoplasm usually affecting the lower eyelids and upper cheeks. The lesions are papular and are usually numerous. Morphologically, there are nests, cords, and tubules of epithelial cells present, surrounded by a dense stroma in the reticular dermis." |
| C3762 | "A benign, well-circumscribed neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the formation of glandular and tubular patterns. It usually involves the paratesticular region, uterus, and fallopian tube. Rare cases involving the pleura, peritoneum, adrenal gland, and liver have also been reported." |
| C3763 | This is a non-human neoplastic process described in sheep. |
| C3764 | A polypoid neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract. There is a proliferation of glandular cells that may display dysplastic cytologic features. Representative examples include the adenomatous polyps of the colon and rectum. |
| C3765 | A mesothelial neoplasm that arises from the peritoneum and rarely the pleura. It is characterized by the presence of multiple cysts lined by flattened or cuboidal mesothelial cells. There is no evidence of significant cytologic atypia or increased mitotic activity. It may reoccur. Rare cases of transformation to malignant mesothelioma have been reported. |
| C3766 | "A malignant neoplasm composed of glandular epithelial clear cells.  Various architectural patterns may be seen, including papillary, tubulocystic, and solid." |
| C3768 | A malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns. Representative examples include the acinar cell carcinoma of the pancreas and the acinar adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland. |
| C3769 | "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. It can arise from the uterine body, ovary, fallopian tube, cervix, vagina, and uterine ligament." |
| C3770 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the islet cells of the pancreas. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C3771 | "An adenocarcinoma of the breast arising from the lobules.  This is a relatively uncommon carcinoma, represents approximately 10% of the breast adenocarcinomas and is often bilateral or multifocal." |
| C3772 | "A carcinoma morphologically characterized the presence of cuboidal mucous cells, goblet-like mucous cells, squamoid cells, cystic changes, and a fibrotic stromal formation. It can occur in several anatomic sites, including parotid gland, oral cavity, paranasal sinus, skin, breast, lung, larynx, and lacrimal ducts. It is classified as low or high grade." |
| C3773 | An aggressive carcinoma composed of malignant cells that exhibit neuroendocrine differentiation. It is classified as small cell or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma. |
| C3774 | "A usually aggressive, poorly differentiated invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells in which the nucleus is pressed to one side by the presence of intracytoplasmic mucus. It may arise from the stomach, small and large intestine, ampulla of Vater, appendix, gallbladder, pancreas, lung, bladder, breast, and prostate gland." |
| C3775 | "A carcinoma arising from the sebaceous glands, sweat glands, or the hair follicles. Representative examples include sebaceous carcinoma, apocrine carcinoma, eccrine carcinoma, and pilomatrical carcinoma." |
| C3776 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by cystic changes and the presence of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung." |
| C3777 | A malignant cystic serous or mucinous epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures. Stromal invasion is present. |
| C3778 | A malignant serous cystic neoplasm usually involving the ovary or the pancreas. It is characterized by the presence of invasive malignant glandular epithelial cells which often form papillary structures. |
| C3779 | "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of giant, pleomorphic cells." |
| C3780 | "A carcinoma that is composed of malignant large epithelial cells. This category includes large cell undifferentiated carcinomas, large cell differentiated carcinomas including large cell neuroendocrine carcinomas, and giant cell carcinomas." |
| C3781 | "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern, acanthosis, mild cytologic atypia, and pushing tumor margins. The most commonly affected anatomic sites are the oral cavity, nasal cavity, larynx, esophagus, anus, vagina, vulva, and the plantar region of the foot." |
| C3782 | "Squamous or glandular intraepithelial neoplasia that affects the cervical mucosal epithelium. There is no evidence of stromal invasion. According to the degree of cellular atypia and the associated architectural changes, it is classified as low or high grade." |
| C3783 | "A serous neoplasm in which the cysts and papillae are lined by a single layer of cells without atypia, architectural complexity or invasion." |
| C3784 | "A neoplastic proliferation of basal cells in the epidermis (part of the skin) or other anatomic sites (most frequently the salivary glands).  The basal cell neoplastic proliferation in the epidermis results in basal cell carcinomas.  The basal cell neoplastic proliferation in the salivary glands can be benign, resulting in basal cell adenomas or malignant, resulting in basal cell adenocarcinomas." |
| C3785 | An intraluminal papillary epithelial neoplasm arising within the ducts. Representative examples are the intraductal breast papilloma and the salivary gland intraductal papilloma. |
| C37864 | "An autoimmune hematologic disorder characterized by autoimmune hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. Patients are at an increased risk of developing Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas." |
| C37869 | "A group of lymphomas displaying molecular, morphologic, immunophenotypic, and clinical overlap between classic Hodgkin lymphoma and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.  This term particularly applies to mediastinal lymphomas with overlapping features of mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma and classic Hodgkin lymphoma." |
| C3786 | "A neoplasm characterized by the proliferation of neoplastic mesothelial cells. It usually arises from the pleura or peritoneum. This category includes malignant mesothelioma, adenomatoid tumor (benign mesothelioma), well differentiated papillary mesothelial tumor, and multicystic mesothelioma." |
| C37870 | "A mediastinal lymphoma with molecular, morphologic, immunophenotypic, and clinical features of both mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma and classic Hodgkin lymphoma.  The identification of this group of lymphomas, along with recent gene expression profiling results (PDL2 gene expression in both mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma tissues and Hodgkin lymphoma cell lines), further supports the hypothesis that mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphomas and classic Hodgkin lympho... |
| C37871 | "A rare skin disorder of unknown etiology that is considered to be a more severe form of pityriasis lichenoides. It is characterized by itchy, burning papular lesions which form open sores with red-brown crusts. Low grade fever, headache, malaise, and arthralgias may occasionally precede or accompany the skin findings." |
| C37872 | A renal cell carcinoma with papillary architecture comprised of clear cells. It is characterized by the t(X;1)(p11.2;q21) resulting in fusion of the PRCC and TFE3 genes. |
| C37874 | A renal cell carcinoma with papillary architecture comprised of clear cells. It is characterized by the t(X;1)(p11.2;p34) resulting in fusion of the PSF and TFE3 genes. |
| C37876 | A renal cell carcinoma with papillary architecture comprised of clear cells. It is characterized by the t(X;1)(p11.2;q25) resulting in fusion of the ASPL and TFE3 genes. |
| C3787 | "A neoplasm of the nervous system that arises from the neuroepithelial tissues.  Representative examples include astrocytic tumors, oligodendroglial tumors, ependymal tumors, and primitive neuroectodermal tumors." |
| C3788 | "A well differentiated, slow growing neuroepithelial neoplasm composed of neoplastic, mature ganglion cells and neoplastic glial cells. Some gangliogliomas show anaplastic features in their glial component and are considered to be WHO grade III. Rare cases of newly diagnosed gangliogliomas with grade IV (glioblastoma) changes in the glial component have also been reported. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C3789 | "A rare neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the sinonasal tract. In rare cases, it can be ectopic and originate from other sites such as the sellar region. Microscopically, it is characterized by neuroblastic differentiation with occasional formation of rosettes. If the tumor is not resected at an early stage, the prognosis is usually poor." |
| C3790 | "A malignant neuroblastic tumor characterized by the presence of neuroblastic cells, ganglion cells, and a stroma with Schwannian differentiation constituting more than fifty-percent of the tumor volume.  There are two histologic subtypes identified: ganglioneuroblastoma, intermixed and ganglioneuroblastoma, nodular." |
| C37913 | Inflammation of the arachnoid membrane and adjacent subarachnoid space. |
| C3791 | An intraventricular neuronal neoplasm composed of uniform round cells with neuronal differentiation. It is typically located in the lateral ventricles in the region of the foramen of Monro. It generally affects young adults and has a favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO) |
| C37920 | "An abnormally slow heart rate. Thresholds for different age, sex, and patient populations exist." |
| C3792 | A neoplasm that is composed of squamous epithelial cells.  Squamous cell carcinoma is a representative example. |
| C3793 | An endophytic benign papillary epithelial neoplasm that results from the invagination and proliferation of epithelial cells in the underlying stroma.  Representative examples are the inverted urothelial papilloma that arises from the urinary tract and inverted Schneiderian papilloma that arises from the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. |
| C3794 | "A neoplasm arising in the ovary or testis. It is composed of granulosa cells, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, and fibroblasts. Each of these cell types may constitute the only cellular component that is present in the neoplasm or it may be mixed with other cell types in various combinations. The prognosis can not always be predicted on histologic grounds alone. Approximately, 10% of these tumors may metastasize. Representative examples include granulosa cell tumor, Leydig cell tumor, Sertoli c... |
| C3795 | "A benign, slow growing neoplasm which is typically attached to a ventricular wall. It is composed of glial tumor cell clusters embedded in an abundant fibrillary matrix with frequent microcystic change. Some lesions have the histological features of both subependymoma and ependymoma. It is often detected incidentally and has a very favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO.)" |
| C3796 | A rare histological variant of glioblastoma (WHO grade IV) characterized by a biphasic tissue pattern with alternating areas displaying glial and mesenchymal differentiation (WHO). |
| C37979 | Decrease in peristalsis in the absence of a mechanical bowel obstruction. |
| C3797 | "An elongated and multinodular neurofibroma, formed when the tumor involves either multiple trunks of a plexus or multiple fascicles of a large nerve, such as the sciatic. Some plexiform neurofibromas resemble a bag of worms, others produce a massive ropy enlargement of the nerve. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C3798 | "An uncommon, highly aggressive malignant tumor, arising from the peripheral nerves and affecting mostly adults in their third to sixth decades of life.  It usually occurs in medium-sized and large nerves of the buttock, thigh, upper arm, or the paraspinal region.  It may be associated with neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1)." |
| C3799 | A morphologic variant of fibroma characterized by the presence of numerous dilated vascular channels. |
| C38003 | Inflammation of a vein. |
| C38006 | Abnormal presence of air in the pleural cavity. |
| C3800 | "A low-grade malignant blood vessel neoplasm.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells.  The neoplastic cells are arranged in cords and nests, which are embedded in a myxoid to hyalinized stroma." |
| C38011 | An inflammatory process affecting the anus. It is usually caused by sexually transmitted infectious agents and/or inflammatory bowel disease. |
| C3801 | "A rare, highly vascular tumor that is composed of abundant capillaries and stromal cells. It arises from the central nervous system and infrequently other sites. It is a slow growing tumor with a low risk of metastasis, despite its benign histological features." |
| C38029 | "An abnormally rapid heart rate. Thresholds for different age, sex, and patient populations exist." |
| C3802 | A melanoma characterized by the complete absence of melanin pigment in the melanoma cells. It occurs more frequently on the face and it is often associated with desmoplastic reaction. |
| C3803 | "A nevus characterized by the presence of benign pigmented dendritic spindle-shaped melanocytes. It most frequently occurs in the skin of the distal upper extremities, followed by the lower extremities, scalp, face, and buttocks. Extracutaneous presentations including in the conjunctiva, may also occur, but they are rare." |
| C38043 | "Inflammation of the cecum, usually accompanied by neutropenia." |
| C3804 | A nevus characterized by the proliferation of nevus cells in the dermis without involvement of the dermal-epidermal junction. |
| C3808 | "An aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm usually occurring during childhood.  It is characterized by the presence of large cells with abundant cytoplasm, large eccentric nucleus, and a prominent nucleolus and it is associated with abnormalities of chromosome 22.  It can arise from the central nervous system, kidney, and the soft tissues.  The prognosis is poor." |
| C3809 | "An epithelial neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation. This category includes neuroendocrine tumors, neuroendocrine carcinomas, and paragangliomas." |
| C38105 | A morphologic variant of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans characterized by the presence of areas of myofibroblastic differentiation. |
| C38106 | A morphologic variant of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans characterized by the presence of multinodular growth with more than 50% of the tumor exhibiting myxoid change. |
| C38109 | A basal cell carcinoma of the skin that is characterized by adnexal differentiation. |
| C3810 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm that affects the connective and soft tissue." |
| C38110 | A rare type of basal cell carcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of mucin containing signet ring cells. |
| C38111 | A basal cell carcinoma of the skin characterized by the presence of sarcomatoid features. |
| C3811 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the major or minor salivary glands.  Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C3812 | A carcinoma that has spread to other regions from an unknown primary anatomic site. |
| C3813 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the brain from another anatomic site or system. The majority are carcinomas (usually lung or breast carcinomas). |
| C38145 | "Gradual loss of donor kidney function occurring months to years after transplantation. It is characterized by renal tubular atrophy, interstitial fibrosis, and arterial wall thickening." |
| C38146 |  |
| C3814 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to the leptomeninges. |
| C38150 | "A soft tissue mesenchymal tumor with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation. Representative examples include angiomyolipoma, clear cell-sugar-tumor of the lung, and lymphangioleiomyomatosis." |
| C38151 | An angiomyolipoma composed exclusively or predominantly of epithelioid cells. It is often associated with cytologic atypia and may recur or metastasize. |
| C38152 | A rare benign lung tumor with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation.  It is composed of round or oval cells with abundant clear or eosinophilic cytoplasm and distinct cell borders.  The vast majority of patients are asymptomatic and the tumors are discovered incidentally.  Excision is curative. |
| C38153 | Lymphangiomyomatosis involving the lungs and local lymph nodes.  Patients usually present with chylous pleural effusion.  The clinical course is variable.  Patients with resectable lesions usually have a favorable clinical outcome.  Patients with diffuse lesions usually have a progressive clinical course. |
| C38154 | "A very rare, usually benign neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation characterized by the presence of clear spindle cells arranged in fascicles and nests that usually affects young girls.  Patients usually present with a painful abdominal mass." |
| C38156 | "A malignant tumor that arises at a site separate from another, primary malignant tumor in the same anatomic system.  It is not clear if metachronous malignant neoplasms represent new primary tumors or metastatic disease.  Examples include metachronous osteosarcoma of the bones that develops in patients with known primary bone osteosarcoma, and metachronous Wilms' tumor that affects the opposite kidney in patients with a history of Wilms' tumor." |
| C38157 | A bone osteosarcoma that has metastasized to skeletal or extraskeletal sites. |
| C38158 | Wilms tumor arising in the remaining kidney following treatment of the original Wilms tumor. |
| C38159 | A plasmablastic lymphoma that arises from a mucosal site. |
| C38160 | A plasmablastic mucosal site lymphoma in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. |
| C38161 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from any part of the digestive system, with the bulk of the disease localized to that site." |
| C38162 | "A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from any part of the digestive system, with the bulk of the disease localized to that site." |
| C38163 | "A Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from any part of the digestive system, with the bulk of the disease localized to that site." |
| C38164 | "A pathologic process that arises from the male reproductive system and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. Representative examples include prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia, giant condyloma acuminatum of the penis, and penile intraepithelial neoplasia." |
| C3816 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the COL2A1 gene, encoding collagen alpha-1(II) chain. It is the most severe of a spectrum of disorders caused by mutations in the COL2A1 gene, characterized by short limbs, small chest and lungs, and abnormal ossification of the spine and pelvis. Often, infants die at birth or shortly thereafter." |
| C3817 | "A rare degenerative genetic disorder with an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance that primarily affects the central nervous system. It is caused in some cases by mutations in the Cockayne syndrome group B gene, CSB/ERCC6, or the xeroderma pigmentosum genes: XPD/ERCC2, XPG/ERCC5, XPF/ERCC1, which are all involved in the transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair pathway of DNA repair. It is currently thought to be part of the spectrum of disorders within Cockayne syndrome. Clini... |
| C3818 | "Amyloidosis caused by inflammatory processes, infections, and malignant neoplasms." |
| C3819 | "Amyloidosis caused by monoclonal deposition of immunoglobulin light chain and, rarely, heavy chain fragments in organs and tissues. It is associated with plasma cell or B-cell lymphoproliferative disorders." |
| C3820 | A hematologic disorder caused by a mutation in the ELANE (ELA2) gene; clinical manifestations include recurrent neutropenia with resultant susceptibility to infection leading to fever. |
| C3821 | "A cavernous angiomatosis associated with the destruction of platelets, resulting in thrombocytopenia." |
| C3822 | "An X-linked recessive inherited immunodeficiency disorder caused by mutation of the BTK gene, which is located on the X chromosome. It almost always affects males. Individuals with this disorder have low numbers of B-cells and extremely low levels of all types of immunoglobulins. This results in susceptibility to recurrent infections, leading to organ damage." |
| C3825 | "A neoplastic process that resembles a malignant lymphoma, but has a benign course." |
| C3826 | "A non-neoplastic hamartomatous polyp that arises from the stomach and intestinal tract.  It is characterized by the presence of tortuous and cystically dilated glands, edematous changes, and inflammation." |
| C3827 | "A self-limiting, rapidly growing, non-encapsulated benign neoplasm that arises from the soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of plump spindle-shaped fibroblasts, multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, chronic inflammatory infiltrate, red blood cell extravasation, and high mitotic activity." |
| C3828 | A rare tumor containing unequivocal elements of both hepatocellular and cholangiocarcinoma that are intimately admixed.  This tumor should be distinguished from separate hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma arising in the same liver.  The prognosis of this tumor is poor. |
| C3829 | A benign neoplasm arising from the synovial membrane.  Examples include the diffuse giant cell tumor of tendon sheath and localized giant cell tumor of tendon sheath. |
| C3830 | "An uncommon benign cartilaginous neoplasm arising from the bone. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped or stellate chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, myxoid stroma formation, and sometimes multinucleated giant cells. It has been associated with chromosomal rearrangement of 6q13 and 6q25 bands. The most common clinical symptom is mild, localized pain." |
| C38342 | "A usually slow-growing epithelial neoplasm with ductal differentiation that arises from the exocrine pancreas and grows mostly within the pancreatic ducts. Grossly, it is characterized by the presence of intraductal masses. Morphologically, there is proliferation of mucin-producing cells within the pancreatic ducts, intraductal accumulation of mucin, and a papillary growth pattern. It may be associated with the presence of an invasive carcinoma. It usually occurs in older patients. Signs an... |
| C38377 | Acute promyelocytic leukemia with a variant RARA rearrangement and expression of STAT5B-RARA fusion protein. |
| C38383 | Oral leukoplakia associated with advanced dysplasia in which genetic studies show aneuploidy.  The vast majority of patients develop aggressive invasive squamous cell carcinomas.  Complete resection of the lesion does not reduce the risk of developing invasive squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C3840 | A congenital vascular malformation in the skin (birthmark) characterized by the presence of dilated capillaries. The affected area of the skin is flat and reddish-purplish in color. |
| C3841 | A hemangioma present at birth. |
| C3842 | A rare benign neoplasm that arises from the urinary tract and is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth with a central fibrovascular core. The latter is lined by normal urothelium. |
| C3843 | A cystic cancerous tumor arising from the ovary. |
| C3844 | "A malignant tumor arising from the epithelium of the gallbladder. It is usually associated with the presence of gallstones. Clinical symptoms are not specific and usually present late in the course. Morphologically, most gallbladder carcinomas are adenocarcinomas; squamous cell carcinomas, adenosquamous carcinomas, signet ring carcinomas, and undifferentiated carcinomas can also occur." |
| C38458 | An adenoma that arises from the large intestine and the appendix.  It is characterized by prominent serration of the glands. |
| C3845 | Leukemia that occurs during the neonatal period. |
| C3846 | A condition causing exacerbation of the clinical features of neurofibromatosis. |
| C3848 | "A neoplasm that arises from the breast in females and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C38504 | Inflammation of the colon that is only apparent by microscopic examination. |
| C3850 | "A carcinoma that arises from the exocrine pancreas. The vast majority of exocrine pancreas carcinomas are adenocarcinomas. The main subtype of pancreatic adenocarcinoma is ductal adenocarcinoma, which is the most frequently seen type of pancreatic carcinoma." |
| C3851 | A malignant neoplasm that shows clinical and/or pathologic progression. |
| C3853 | Inflammation of the mucous membranes lining the gastrointestinal tract. |
| C3856 | A cystic teratoma that arises from the ovary.  It presents as a cystic mass that contains sebaceous material admixed with hairs.  In a minority of cases it is bilateral. |
| C3860 | A carcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  The majority are adenocarcinomas. |
| C3862 | "A rare malignant tumor of the breast, affecting mostly older men.  It accounts for less than 1% of all malignancies in men.  The most common histologic type is invasive ductal carcinoma.  Most patients are treated with mastectomy." |
| C3863 | "A benign papillary neoplasm that arises anywhere in the ductal system of the breast. It is characterized by the presence of fibrovascular structures lined by benign epithelial and myoepithelial proliferations.  Intraductal breast papillomas are classified as central, when they arise in large ducts, or peripheral, when they arise in the terminal ductal lobular units." |
| C3864 | "An adenoma that arises from the colon.  The group of colonic adenomas includes tubular, villous, and tubulovillous adenomas, traditional serrated adenomas, sessile serrated adenomas/polyps, and familial adenomatous polyposis." |
| C38661 | Coexistence of Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma in the same anatomic site. |
| C3866 | A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the lower part of the esophagus.  It is the most common mesenchymal neoplasm of the esophagus. Dysphagia is a frequent clinical symptom. |
| C3867 | "A carcinoma arising from the fallopian tube. Most patients are postmenopausal, and postmenopausal bleeding is the most frequently seen symptom. Morphologically, the majority of fallopian tube carcinomas are serous or endometrioid adenocarcinomas." |
| C3868 | "A stromal tumor most commonly seen in the gastrointestinal tract. Rare cases of solitary masses in the omentum or the mesentery have also been reported (extragastrointestinal gastrointestinal stromal tumor).  It is a tumor that differentiates along the lines of interstitial cells of Cajal.  Most cases contain KIT- or PDGFRA-activating mutations. Until recently, surgery has been the only effective therapy for this tumor.  However, many patients still experience recurrence.  Conventional chem... |
| C3869 | A hemangioma arising from the liver. |
| C3870 | "Extensive infiltration of the lymphatic vessels by cancer cells, resulting in widespread cancer dissemination.  The lymphatic vessels appear as palpable, cord-like structures, especially in skin areas overlying the carcinoma." |
| C3871 | "A carcinoma arising from the nasopharyngeal epithelium.  It includes the following types: keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma, nonkeratinizing carcinoma (differentiated and undifferentiated), basaloid squamous cell carcinoma, and papillary adenocarcinoma." |
| C3872 | "A neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed of nests of neoplastic urothelial-type cells in a fibrotic stroma. It includes benign Brenner tumor, borderline Brenner tumor, and malignant Brenner tumor." |
| C3873 | "A neoplasm that arises from the ovary and originates from germ cells. Representative examples include teratoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, and dysgerminoma." |
| C3874 | "A cystic adenocarcinoma that arises from the exocrine pancreas. This category includes acinar cell cystadenocarcinomas, serous cystadenocarcinomas, and pancreatic mucinous-cystic neoplasms with an associated invasive carcinoma." |
| C38759 | An infection that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus. |
| C3875 | An ependymoma that arises from the spinal cord. It is characterized by the absence of MYCN gene amplification and frequent loss of chromosome 22q and mutations of NF2. |
| C38760 | An adenocarcinoma of the colon that has invaded into the submucosa. |
| C38762 | "A primary, low grade carcinoma of the thyroid gland composed of groups of squamoid and mucous cells, surrounded by fibrous tissue.  Prominent cystic structures may be present.  The clinical course is usually indolent." |
| C38763 | "A rare type of mucoepidermoid carcinoma of the thyroid gland, usually associated with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis.  It exhibits a unique morphologic appearance consisting of a squamoid, nested growth pattern, dense fibrosis, and mucinous differentiation.  The histogenesis of this unusual carcinoma has been debated, and it is unclear if it arises from remnants of the ultimobranchial body or from the follicular epithelial cells." |
| C38766 | An inflammatory disorder that affects the thyroid gland.  It is characterized by the infiltration of the thyroid parenchyma by lymphocytes.  It includes Hashimoto thyroiditis and subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis. |
| C3876 | "A rare benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the wall of the stomach. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern.  Unlike gastrointestinal stromal tumors, gastric leiomyomas are by definition negative for CD34 and CD117 (C-KIT)." |
| C3877 | "A non-seminomatous germ cell tumor arising from the testis. It is characterized by the presence of various tissues which correspond to the different germinal layers (endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm). Testicular teratomas in children follow a benign clinical course whereas in postpubertal patients may metastasize to other anatomic sites." |
| C3878 | "A primary carcinoma of the thyroid gland composed of undifferentiated cells.  The malignant cells demonstrate evidence of epithelial differentiation, either by immunohistochemistry or electron microscopic studies. Microscopically, in the majority of cases there is a mixture of spindle, epithelioid, and giant cells. The vast majority of the patients present with a rapidly enlarging neck mass. The clinical course is usually aggressive." |
| C3879 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from the C-cells of the thyroid gland. It is closely associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. Approximately 10% to 20% of medullary thyroid carcinomas are familial. Patients usually present with a thyroid nodule that is painless and firm. In the majority of cases nodal involvement is present at diagnosis. Surgery is the preferred treatment for both primary lesions and recurrences. This carcinoma is generally not very sensitive to radiation and... |
| C3880 | A nevus that arises from the eyelid. |
| C3881 | A clinical term that indicates the presence of a white patch on the surface of the gum which cannot be characterized as any other disease.  It may be a precancerous condition and in most cases histologic examination reveals keratosis. |
| C3886 | A clinical term that indicates the presence of a white patch on the surface of the tongue which cannot be characterized as any other disease.  It may be a precancerous condition and in most cases histologic examination reveals keratosis. |
| C3888 | An angiomyolipoma arising from the kidney. |
| C3889 | "Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an acute or chronic inflammation in the pelvic cavity. It is most commonly caused by sexually transmitted diseases, including chlamydia and gonorrhea that have ascended into the uterus, fallopian tubes, or ovaries as a result of intercourse or childbirth, or of surgical procedures, including insertion of IUDs or abortion. PID may be either symptomatic or asymptomatic. It may cause infertility and it may raise the risk of ectopic pregnancy. PID is a disea... |
| C3891 | The absence of or defect in the perception of colors. |
| C3892 | "A clonal disorder characterized by the secretion of a mu heavy chain that lacks a variable region. Most patients present with slowly progressive chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). In contrast to most cases of CLL, Mu heavy chain disease is associated with hepatosplenomegaly and absence of lymphadenopathy." |
| C38936 | "A slow-growing, low-grade meningioma with favorable prognosis. This category includes angiomatous meningiomas, fibrous meningiomas, lymphoplasmacyte-rich meningiomas, meningothelial meningiomas, metaplastic meningiomas, microcystic meningiomas, psammomatous meningiomas, secretory meningiomas, and transitional meningiomas. It may recur in a small minority of cases following resection." |
| C38937 | "An atypical meningioma which may recur in approximately 29-40% of the cases.  This category includes the atypical meningioma, chordoid meningioma, and clear cell meningioma." |
| C38938 | "A malignant meningioma with aggressive clinical course. It recurs in approximately 50-78% of the cases. This category includes the anaplastic (malignant) meningioma, papillary meningioma, and rhabdoid meningioma." |
| C3894 | "Drug dependence - replaced the term ""drug addiction"" and is defined as a state, psychic and sometimes also physical, resulting from the interaction between a living organism and a drug, characterized by behavioral and other responses that always include a compulsion to take the drug on a continuous or periodic basis in order to experience its psychic effects, and sometimes to avoid the discomfort of its absence. Tolerance may or may not be present. A person may be dependent on more th... |
| C3895 | "A hereditary immunodeficiency disorder caused by the lack of expression of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins. Signs include upper and lower respiratory tract bacterial infections, malabsorption, diarrhea, and mucocutaneous candidiasis." |
| C3898 | "An indolent, extranodal type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small B-lymphocytes (centrocyte-like cells).  The gastrointestinal tract is the most common site of involvement.  Other common sites of involvement include lung, head and neck, ocular adnexae, skin, thyroid, and breast.  Gastric involvement is associated with the presence of H. pylori infection. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C3899 | "Any infection caused by a virus of the genus Hantavirus, which is transmitted by aerosolized rodent excreta or rodent bites, that can result in a variety of clinical manifestations from hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome to a pulmonary syndrome." |
| C3901 | A cutaneous nevus composed of neoplastic melanocytes that infiltrate both the epidermis and the dermis. |
| C3902 | An osteosarcoma usually arising from the metaphysis of long bones. It is characterized by the presence of a cystic architecture with blood-filled spaces. The prognosis is similar to that of conventional osteosarcoma. |
| C3903 | "A tumor composed of two or more glial cell types (astrocytes, ependymal cells, and oligodendrocytes)." |
| C3904 | A WHO grade 3 meningioma characterized by the predominance of a perivascular pseudopapillary pattern. |
| C3905 | Inflammation of the small intestine caused by radiation exposure. |
| C3908 | "A carcinoma arising from the ampulla of Vater.  The vast majority of cases are adenocarcinomas.  Signs and symptoms include jaundice, abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss." |
| C3909 | A polypoid tumor that arises from the gallbladder and projects into the lumen.  This category includes adenomas and hyperplastic polyps. |
| C3911 |  |
| C3912 |  |
| C3913 |  |
| C3914 |  |
| C3915 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation composed of malignant small cells. |
| C3917 | A carcinoma arising from the vaginal epithelium. The majority of vaginal carcinomas are squamous cell carcinomas. |
| C3918 | "A germ cell tumor arising in an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary (e.g., central nervous system, lung, mediastinum, and retroperitoneum)." |
| C3920 | A rare condition that stimulated chronic radiodermatitis.  It is considered a variant of mycosis fungoides. |
| C3921 | A variant of parapsoriasis in which the plaques are small. |
| C3923 | "A pink-blue mottled or marbled appearance of the skin secondary to exposure to cold temperatures, which is generally alleviated by rewarming." |
| C3924 | "A benign lesion that is sometimes congenital and consists of an overgrowth of the epidermis and the presence of melanin-containing cells.  It is found mostly in males and typically develops during childhood or adolescence, becoming darker and more hairy after puberty." |
| C3926 | "A reddish, punctate macular cutaneous lesion that consists of dilated capillaries in the papillary dermis and manifests during childhood. It grows in a serpiginous pattern." |
| C3927 | An angiokeratoma that affects the dorsum of fingers and toes. |
| C39291 | An infectious process caused by the human herpesvirus 8. This infection is associated with Kaposi sarcoma. |
| C39292 | An infection that is caused by HTLV-1. |
| C39293 | "A bacterial infection of the stomach, caused by Helicobacter pylori.  It is associated with the development of peptic ulcer and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma." |
| C39294 |  |
| C39295 | "An infection caused by the parasite Opisthorchis viverrini. It results from the ingestion of raw or undercooked food. The clinical features vary from mild to severe and include gastrointestinal symptoms, anorexia, weight loss, hepatomegaly, and cholangitis. Patients are at an increased risk of developing cholangiocarcinoma." |
| C3931 | "A polyp that arises from the maxillary sinus mucosa.  It is characterized by the presence of edematous tissue infiltrated by inflammatory cells, including eosinophils.  Causes include allergic rhinitis, chronic sinusitis, and cystic fibrosis." |
| C3932 | "A polyp that arises from the ethmoid sinus mucosa. It is characterized by the presence of edematous tissue infiltrated by inflammatory cells, including eosinophils. Causes include allergic rhinitis, chronic sinusitis, and cystic fibrosis." |
| C3933 | "A polyp that arises from the sphenoid sinus mucosa.  It is characterized by the presence of edematous tissue infiltrated by inflammatory cells, including eosinophils.  Causes include allergic rhinitis, chronic sinusitis, and cystic fibrosis." |
| C3935 | A clinical term that indicates the presence of a white patch on the mucosal surface of the vocal cords.  In most cases histologic examination reveals keratosis. |
| C3937 | "A abnormal, congenital formation or mark on the skin or neighboring mucosa that does not show neoplastic growth." |
| C3938 | "An autosomal dominant hereditary neoplastic syndrome caused by mutations in the PMS2, MLH1, MSH2, or APC genes. There are two types described, type 1, characterized by the presence of glioblastoma and often associated with hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal carcinoma, and type 2, characterized by the presence of medulloblastoma and familiar adenomatous polyposis." |
| C3939 | A genetic syndrome caused by mutations in the PTEN gene. It is characterized by macrocephaly and the presence of hamartomas. |
| C3940 | A rare autosomal dominant disorder with high penetrance that affects the limbal conjunctiva or oral mucosa. It is almost exclusively encountered in Native Americans belonging to the Haliwa-Saponi tribe of northeastern North Carolina and is caused by a duplication in chromosome 4q35. It is characterized by the presence of elevated epithelial dyskeratotic plaques in the limbal conjunctiva or oral cavity. Epithelial dysplasia is absent. |
| C3942 | "A poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the soft tissues in infants. It is characterized by the presence of bland fibroblastic spindle cells, collagenous stroma formation, primitive mesenchymal round cells, and mature fat cells. These components combined form a distinct organoid pattern." |
| C3943 | A capillary vascular anomaly that is characterized by hypopigmented macules. |
| C3944 | "A cutaneous nevus that is present at birth. It may present as a small macular, papular, or plaque-like lesion or as a large brown to black hairy skin lesion." |
| C3945 | "A congenital mark on the skin near the base of the spine, consisting of scattered ectopic melanocytes in the dermis, that enlarges for a short time after birth and disappears during childhood." |
| C3946 | "A rare developmental skin condition consisting of abnormal pilosebaceous follicle development. It is characterized by linear or band-like distributions of groups of comedones, usually on the face, neck, upper arm, chest, and abdomen, that appear at birth or in childhood." |
| C3948 | A non-neoplastic nodular lesion that arises from the gingiva. |
| C3949 | "A benign lesion that involves the salivary glands, usually the parotid gland.  It affects females more often than males and it may be a manifestation of autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren syndrome.  There is an increased incidence of benign lymphoepithelial lesions in HIV-positive patients.  It is characterized by the presence of a marked lymphocytic infiltrate and epi-myoepithelial islands in the affected salivary gland.  Patients usually present with firm and painless swelling of the aff... |
| C3950 | A lobular hemangioma arising from the oral mucosa. |
| C3951 | A clinical term that indicates the presence of a white patch on the surface of the lip which cannot be characterized as any other disease.  It may be a precancerous condition and in most cases histologic examination reveals keratosis. |
| C3952 | An epithelial hyperplasia on the surface of the tongue associated with Epstein-Barr virus and found almost exclusively in persons with HIV infection. The lesion consists of a white patch that is often corrugated or hairy. |
| C3953 | "A rare condition that usually affects the middle-to-distal esophagus in middle-aged and elderly people. There is usually a history of tobacco smoking or alcohol intake.  Dysphagia is the presenting symptom.  Morphologically, the lesions are well-demarcated and are characterized by epithelial hyperplasia, thickened basal layer, prominent granular cell layer, and hyperorthokeratosis.  In a minority of patients this condition is associated with adjacent high-grade squamous dysplasia and/or squ... |
| C3954 | "A polyp that arises from the stomach.  This category includes neoplastic polyps (intestinal-type adenomatous polyps, gastric-type adenomas, and fundic gland polyps), and non-neoplastic polyps (hyperplastic polyps and hamartomatous polyps)." |
| C3955 | "A intraepithelial neoplasia (dysplasia) that arises in either the native gastric mucosa or in metaplastic gastric epithelium.  It has a flat, polypoid or slightly depressed growth pattern.  It is graded as low grade (mild dysplasia) or high grade (moderate dysplasia and carcinoma in situ).  (WHO, 2000)" |
| C39574 | "A rare, primary immunodeficiency with an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance but variable penetrance. It is the most common subtype of autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS). It is usually caused by a germline mutation in the Fas gene that leads to defective Fas-induced apoptosis but in a minority of cases, it also may be attributed to a somatic Fas mutation. Disruption of Fas-induced apoptosis impairs lymphocyte homeostasis and immune tolerance. Characteristic laboratory find... |
| C39575 | Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome characterized by the presence of germline FASLG mutation. |
| C39576 | Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome characterized by the presence of germline CASP10 mutation. |
| C39577 | "A rare, primary immunodeficiency. It is caused by a currently undetermined defect in the Fas-induced apoptosis pathway. No mutations in Fas, FASLG or CASP10 are detectable.  Disruption of Fas-induced apoptosis impairs lymphocyte homeostasis and immune tolerance. Characteristic laboratory findings include an increase in circulating, double-negative (CD4-/CD8-) T cells in the setting of immune-mediated anemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia. Clinical signs present in childhood include fatig... |
| C39578 | A lymphoma that arises in the context of autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome. |
| C3957 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic polypoid lesion that arises from the anus.  Representative examples include the fibroepithelial polyp and squamous papilloma. |
| C39584 | "T-cell large granular lymphocyte leukemia defined by the presence of CD3-positive, CD8-positive, and T-cell receptor alpha-beta-positive cytotoxic T-cells." |
| C39586 | An uncommon variant of T-cell large granular lymphocyte leukemia expressing the gamma-delta T-cell receptor. Approximately 60% of these cases are CD8-positive and the remainder are CD4/CD8-negative. |
| C3958 | "A rare, benign process that affects the peritoneal cavity and is characterized by the formation of multiple small nodules that are composed of well differentiated smooth muscle. It usually affects adults in their late reproductive years. Most patients are asymptomatic. The tumor nodules may regress spontaneously." |
| C39591 | An Epstein-Barr virus negative disorder with a chronic clinical course affecting predominantly adults and characterized by the proliferation of large granular lymphocytes with natural killer cell immunophenotype.  The T-cell receptor genes are not rearranged. |
| C3959 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the liver, bile ducts, and gallbladder. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include hepatitis, cirrhosis, cholangitis, and cholecystitis. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include hepatocellular adenoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cholangiocarcinoma." |
| C39610 | "An enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma arising from the small intestine, most commonly the jejunum or ileum.  Patients usually present with abdominal pain, often associated with intestinal perforation. It is associated with celiac disease.  The lymphoma cells are usually medium-sized to large and form an ulcerating mucosal lesion with invasion of the small intestinal wall.  Villous atrophy is present in the adjacent small intestinal mucosa.  In a minority of cases the lymphoma cells are ... |
| C3962 | "An autosomal recessive deficiency of the purine salvage enzyme adenosine deaminase which results in Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID).  The most common form of SCID, accounting for about 50% of autosomal recessive cases.  The first disease for which gene therapy was applied." |
| C39644 | "A header term that includes the rare following variants of mycosis fungoides: folliculotropic mycosis fungoides, granulomatous slack skin disease, and pagetoid reticulosis." |
| C39646 | A generalized inflammatory cutaneous disorder characterized by erythema and desquamation. |
| C39658 | "Inflammation of the bronchioles characterized by swelling of the bronchioles and mucus accumulation. It is usually caused by the respiratory syncytial virus and affects children. Signs and symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath." |
| C39659 | Acute inflammation of the bronchioles usually caused by the respiratory syncytial virus. |
| C3965 | Xeroderma pigmentosum caused by bi-allelic mutations in XPA gene. |
| C3966 | Xeroderma pigmentosum caused by bi-allelic mutations in ERCC3 gene. |
| C39674 | An anaplastic large cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of numerous giant cells. |
| C39675 | A are variant of anaplastic large cell lymphoma. It is characterized by presence of large spindle shaped cells resembling a soft tissue sarcoma. |
| C39676 | "An anaplastic large cell lymphoma, characterized by lymphoid cells with signet ring nuclei." |
| C3967 | Xeroderma pigmentosum caused by bi-allelic mutations in ERCC2 gene. |
| C3968 | Xeroderma pigmentosum caused by bi-allelic mutations in ERCC4 gene. |
| C3969 | Xeroderma pigmentosum caused by bi-allelic mutations in ERCC5 gene. |
| C3972 | A benign neoplasm arising from soft tissue of the prostate.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts. |
| C39740 | "An intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the lung.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells." |
| C39741 | "A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the retroperitoneum.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells." |
| C39747 | An aggressive mantle cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of pleomorphic neoplastic B-lymphocytes. |
| C39749 | "A classification of primary endometrial adenocarcinomas that refers to clear cell adenocarcinoma, serous adenocarcinoma, and serous endometrial intraepithelial carcinoma." |
| C39750 | A glioblastoma that arises de novo. It is more commonly seen in older patients. Mutations in IDH1 or IDH2 genes are not present. |
| C39751 | A glioblastoma arising from a lower grade astrocytoma. |
| C39753 | A histologic variant of conventional ameloblastoma characterized by the presence of basal cells forming anastomosing strands and cords in a delicate stroma. |
| C39754 | A conventional ameloblastoma with follicular pattern in which the central cells in the odontogenic epithelial islands show squamous differentiation. |
| C39755 | "An intraosseous ameloblastoma that arises from the jaw, usually the mandible.  It grows slowly, invades locally, and recurs frequently.  It presents with swelling of the jaw." |
| C39756 | An ameloblastoma that presents as a unilocular cyst.  It usually arises from the mandible. |
| C39757 | A conventional ameloblastoma with follicular pattern in which the odontogenic epithelial islands are composed of uniform basaloid cells. |
| C39758 | A conventional ameloblastoma characterized by the presence of prominent desmoplastic stroma resulting in compression of the neoplastic epithelial islands. |
| C3976 | "The presence of whitish patches on the mucosal surface of the cervix.  Histologic examination reveals hyperkeratosis.  In a minority of cases, underlying dysplasia or carcinoma in situ is present." |
| C39783 | A hemangioblastoma that arises from the retina. It can occur sporadically or as part of von Hippel- Lindau syndrome. |
| C39784 | A rare neoplasm that affects the inner ear. |
| C39789 | Renal cell carcinoma that has developed in relatives of patients with a history of renal cell carcinoma. |
| C3978 | A benign polypoid lesion that arises from the vulva. |
| C39790 | A renal cell carcinoma with constitutional chromosome 3 translocations. |
| C39800 | An individual who is heterozygous for the mutation that causes sickle cell anemia. |
| C39802 | A renal cell carcinoma with papillary architecture comprised of clear cells. It is characterized by the inv(X)(p11;q12) resulting in fusion of the NONO (p54nrb) and TFE3 genes. |
| C39807 | A low grade carcinoma of the kidney characterized by the presence of tubules which are separated by mucinous stroma. Often the tubular structures have a spindle cell appearance.  Patients are usually asymptomatic and occasionally they may present with hematuria or flank pain. |
| C39809 | A renal papillary adenoma which is characterized by basophilic cells with scant amount of cytoplasm. |
| C3980 |  |
| C39810 | A renal papillary adenoma which is characterized by eosinophilic cells. |
| C39812 | "A benign, solitary, and partially cystic neoplasm arising from the kidney. It occurs in children and adults. Presenting symptoms include hematuria and polycythemia. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial nodules embedded in a stroma containing spindle cells." |
| C39814 | "A congenital mesoblastic nephroma characterized by the presence of interlacing fascicles of fibroblastic cells, low mitotic activity, and collagen formation." |
| C39815 | "A congenital mesoblastic nephroma characterized by increased cellularity, sheet-like proliferation of fibroblastic cells, and increased mitotic activity.  Necrotic changes are commonly present." |
| C39816 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder that exhibits squamous differentiation. |
| C39817 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder that exhibits glandular differentiation. |
| C39818 | An invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of trophoblastic differentiation. |
| C39819 | Invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma characterized by a nested growth pattern. |
| C3981 | "A diffuse or multifocal peripheral neuropathy caused by the effects of a distant neoplasm. It may be attributed, in part, to the immune response to neoplasm-elaborated proteins. The neuropathy may be sensory, motor, mixed or autonomic. It may be the initial presentation of an occult neoplasm. Detection and resection of the neoplasm may result in cure." |
| C39820 | Invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma characterized by microcysts formation. |
| C39821 | Invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma with lymphoepithelioma-like features. |
| C39823 | Invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with plasmacytoid features. |
| C39824 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder that exhibits spindle cell sarcomatoid features. |
| C39825 | Invasive bladder sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of heterologous elements. |
| C39826 | Invasive bladder sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma characterized by the absence of heterologous elements. |
| C39827 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder characterized by the presence of clear (glycogen-rich) cells. |
| C39828 | Invasive bladder urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of lipid laden tumor cells. |
| C39829 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder with giant cells. |
| C39831 | A non-invasive papillary neoplasm of the bladder urothelium. |
| C39832 | "A rare variant of well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma, usually associated with bladder schistosomiasis." |
| C39833 | A verrucous squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder that is caused by Schistosoma hematobium. |
| C39834 | "A rare, benign neoplasm of bladder that is composed of papillary cores with overlying histologically benign squamous epithelium." |
| C39835 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises in the bladder. It is characterized by intestinal type glands and resembles colonic adenocarcinoma. |
| C39836 | "An adenocarcinoma, not otherwise specified, arising from the bladder." |
| C39837 | A rare primary adenocarcinoma of the bladder. Histologically it is characterized by malignant cells floating in pools of mucin. |
| C39838 | A rare variant of bladder adenocarcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of polygonal hepatoid cells and glandular adenocarcinoma cells. |
| C39839 | "A variant of bladder adenocarcinoma that histologically consists of more than one growth pattern such as enteric, mucinous or signet ring types." |
| C39840 | A pathologic process that arises from the urinary system and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. |
| C39842 | A rare variant of carcinoma of the urachal remnant of bladder. |
| C39843 | A rare bladder adenocarcinoma that develops from the urachal remnant. |
| C39844 | A urothelial carcinoma of the urinary bladder that arises from the urachal epithelium. |
| C39845 | A rare variant of bladder urachal carcinoma with squamous cell features. |
| C39847 | A rare morphologic variant of bladder carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells and clear cells forming a tubulo-cystic pattern. |
| C39848 | A rare morphologic variant of bladder adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells and clear cells forming a papillary pattern. |
| C39849 | A rare morphologic variant of bladder adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells and clear cells forming a diffuse pattern. |
| C39850 | "Stage 0 includes: 0a (Ta, N0, M0); 0is (Tis, N0, M0).  Ta: Papillary noninvasive carcinoma. Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C39851 | A carcinoma that arises from the urothelial lining of the bladder.  It is the most common morphologic type of urinary bladder carcinoma. It usually affects males in their sixth and seventh decades of life.  Hematuria is the most common symptom at presentation. Pathologic stage is the strongest predictor of survival. |
| C39852 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the urothelial lining of the urinary tract (bladder, renal pelvis, ureter, or urethra)." |
| C39853 | Urothelial carcinoma that invades into surrounding tissue. |
| C39854 | A non-invasive neoplasm affecting the urothelium. |
| C39855 | "A syndrome characterized by multiple, benign nodular smooth muscle neoplasms of the esophagus, tracheobronchial tree and the genitourinary tract. Clinical signs include dysphagia with retrosternal pain, dyspnea and genital hypertrophy. There is a strong association with Alport Syndrome in patients with deletions in the type IV collagen alpha chain genes COL4A5 and COL4A6." |
| C39857 | A neoplasm with papillary architectural pattern arising from the bladder urothelial cells. |
| C39858 | A rare benign neoplasm that arises from the bladder and is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth with a central fibrovascular core. The latter is lined by normal urothelium. |
| C39859 | An endophytic urothelial neoplasm arising from the bladder. It shares several morphologic features with urothelial papilloma. |
| C39860 | A reactive inflammatory disorder affecting the bladder.  It is characterized by the development of small cysts in the bladder wall.  The cysts are lined by metaplastic glandular cells. |
| C39862 | A rare urethral squamous cell carcinoma that is related to human papilloma virus (HPV) infection of the urinary tract. |
| C39863 | A rare adenocarcinoma arising from the Skene gland. It presents as a periurethral or anterior vaginal submucosal mass. It is characterized by morphological features similar to prostate adenocarcinoma. |
| C39864 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the Cowper glands. |
| C39865 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the Littre glands. |
| C39866 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the female urethra. |
| C39867 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the male urethra. |
| C39868 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the penile urethra. |
| C39869 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the bulbomembranous part of the urethra. |
| C39870 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the prostatic urethra. |
| C39871 | "A benign, granulomatous lesion that results from the eversion of a portion of the distal urethra, most often at the posterior edge." |
| C39872 | "An epithelial neoplasm of the urethra, which is morphologically characterized by the presence of a villous architectural pattern." |
| C39874 | A verrucous carcinoma arising from the urethra. |
| C39878 | A rare mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma affecting the bladder. |
| C39879 | Invasive urothelial carcinoma that affects the renal pelvis and ureter. |
| C39880 | An unusual variant of acinar prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic small atrophic glands that contain malignant cells with scant cytoplasm. |
| C39881 | "Acinar prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic large glands that resemble the benign, non-neoplastic prostate glands." |
| C39882 | Acinar prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with abundant xanthomatous appearing cytoplasm. |
| C39884 | An exceptionally rare acinar prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant large cells with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C39885 | Acinar prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells forming syncytial patterns and dense lymphocytic infiltrates. |
| C39887 | High grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of signet ring cells in the affected glands. |
| C39888 | High grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of masses of mucin within the affected distended glands. |
| C39889 | High grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of large glands with papillary infoldings that contain cells with xanthomatous cytoplasm. |
| C3988 | A syndrome characterized by abnormal secretion of antidiuretic hormone in conjunction with neoplastic growth occurring anywhere in the body. |
| C39890 | High grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of secretory cells with their nuclei polarized towards the lumen of the glands. |
| C39891 | High grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of small neuroendocrine cells in the affected glands. |
| C39895 | A prostate ductal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic large back-to-back glands with slit-like lumens. |
| C39896 | A prostate ductal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a papillary growth pattern. |
| C39897 | A prostate ductal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of cribriform and/or papillary patterns and areas of solid nests of malignant cells. |
| C39898 | An urothelial carcinoma that arises from the urothelial lining of the prostatic ducts or the prostatic urethra. |
| C39899 | A bladder urothelial carcinoma that has spread to the prostate gland. |
| C3989 | Non-neoplastic proliferation of the parathyroid parenchymal cells in multiple parathyroid glands. |
| C39900 | An urothelial carcinoma that arises from the urothelial lining of the prostatic urethra. |
| C39901 | An urothelial carcinoma that arises from the urothelial lining of the prostatic ducts. |
| C39902 | An invasive prostate carcinoma composed of prostatic basal cells. |
| C39903 | An invasive prostate adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells that exhibit neuroendocrine differentiation. |
| C39904 | A rare neoplasm arising from specialized prostatic stroma.  This category includes prostatic stromal proliferations of uncertain malignant potential and prostatic stromal sarcomas. |
| C39905 | "A neoplastic lesion that arises from the prostate gland stroma.  Morphologic characteristics include hypercellular stroma with scattered atypical cells, prominent overgrowth of the prostatic stroma, or changes resembling benign phyllodes tumor.  The majority of cases do not have an aggressive clinical course.  A minority of cases however, may progress to stromal sarcoma." |
| C39906 | An extremely rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the seminal vesicle. |
| C39907 | A rare benign cystadenoma that arises from the seminal vesicle. |
| C39908 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the seminal vesicle.  Representative examples include cystadenoma and adenocarcinoma. |
| C3990 | "An immunodeficiency state characterized by very low serum IgG and IgA but either a normal or, more frequently, a markedly elevated concentration of polyclonal IgM." |
| C39911 | A testicular mixed germ cell-sex cord-stromal tumor.  It is usually associated with mixed gonadal dysgenesis and ambiguous genitalia.  It is characterized by the presence of nests of large neoplastic germ cells and immature cells that resemble Sertoli cells. |
| C39912 | A testicular mixed germ cell-sex cord-stromal tumor in which the neoplastic germ cells and the neoplastic sex cord-stromal cells do not form nests and are instead arranged in a diffuse pattern. |
| C39915 | "A germ cell tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of one histologic component.  This category includes seminoma, teratoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, and choriocarcinoma." |
| C39919 | A testicular seminoma characterized by the presence of syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells. |
| C3991 | Thrombocytopenia that results from immune destruction of platelets. |
| C39920 | "A seminoma of the testis characterized by increased cellular pleomorphism, high mitotic activity, and a non-prominent stromal lymphocytic infiltrate." |
| C39921 | "A testicular germ cell tumor derived from postpubertal-type germ cells. It is characterized by the presence of three cell types: round cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm, small cells with dark nucleus and a small amount of cytoplasm, and mono-or multinucleated giant cells. The neoplastic cells are not cohesive. There is an edematous stroma present; lymphocytic infiltrates are rarely seen. Most patients are older males." |
| C39922 | A malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of a spermatocytic tumor component that is contiguous with an undifferentiated or differentiated sarcomatous component.  It usually presents as a slowly growing mass that enlarges very rapidly soon after the initial diagnosis. |
| C39923 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of a meshwork of small vacuolated cells resulting in a honeycomb appearance. |
| C39924 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of collections of thin-walled spaces. |
| C39925 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of aggregates of polygonal malignant cells with clear cytoplasm and prominent nucleoli. |
| C39926 | "A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of gland-like spaces, irregular alveoli, and tubular structures." |
| C39927 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of connective tissue stalks that contain a blood vessel and are lined by cells with clear cytoplasm and prominent nucleoli. |
| C39928 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of numerous papillary structures that are lined by cells with prominent nucleoli. |
| C39929 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of myxomatous tissue that contains collections of malignant cells with prominent nucleoli. |
| C3992 | The most aggressive form of Kaposi sarcoma. It presents in patients who are infected with the human immunodeficiency virus. It can affect the skin and internal organs. |
| C39930 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of collections of vesicles that are surrounded by connective tissue. |
| C39931 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of hepatoid cells collections. |
| C39932 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of immature glands. |
| C39934 | A tumor that arises from the testis and is composed of neoplastic trophoblastic cells.  The vast majority of cases are choriocarcinomas. |
| C39935 | A choriocarcinoma that arises from the testis and is characterized by the predominance of cytotrophoblastic and intermediate trophoblastic cells.  Syncytiotrophoblastic cells are absent or not prominent. |
| C39936 | "A teratoma that arises from the testis.  It is composed exclusively of one of the following tissue types: endoderm, ectoderm, or mesoderm." |
| C3993 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T3, N0, M0); IIB (T4, N0, M0).  T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria or into non-peritonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues.  T4: Tumor directly invades other organs or structures, and/or perforates visceral peritoneum.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C39942 | "A Leydig cell tumor characterized by a large size, cellular atypia, high mitotic activity, vascular invasion and necrotic changes.  The prognosis is usually poor." |
| C39943 | A testicular Sertoli cell tumor in which the neoplastic cells have clear and vacuolated cytoplasm due to accumulation of intracytoplasmic lipids. |
| C39944 | A testicular Sertoli cell tumor characterized by the presence of large polygonal cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm in a myxoid and hyalinized stroma. Calcifications may be present in the stroma. Malignant behavior is uncommon. |
| C39945 | A rare testicular Sertoli cell tumor characterized by the presence of neoplastic tubules that are surrounded by a dense fibrotic stroma. |
| C39946 | "A rare, low-grade malignant sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the testis in adults. It is composed of granulosa cells in an often fibrothecomatous stroma. Several morphologic patterns have been identified and include insular, gyriform, trabecular, pseudosarcomatous, and solid. Gynecomastia is present in approximately a quarter of the patients. Metastases have been reported in a minority of patients." |
| C39947 | "A rare, benign sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the testis. It is the most frequent congenital testicular neoplasm and is usually diagnosed during the perinatal period. It usually presents as an asymptomatic scrotal or abdominal mass. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of cysts that are lined by cells resembling granulosa and theca cells." |
| C39948 | "A malignant sex cord-gonadal stromal tumor that arises from the testis.  It is characterized by cellular pleomorphism, anaplastic features, increased mitotic activity, and vascular invasion." |
| C39949 | "A group of rare, slow-growing stromal tumors that arise from the testis.  This category includes thecoma and fibroma." |
| C3994 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C39950 | "A sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the ovary or the testis. Representative examples include fibroma, fibrosarcoma, and thecoma." |
| C39951 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of fusiform cells and collagenization. |
| C39952 | A rare benign tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of lipid-rich neoplastic spindle cells. |
| C39953 | "A very rare, usually benign neoplasm that arises from the paratesticular structures. It is characterized by the presence of solid and cystic nests of neoplastic urothelial-type cells in a fibrotic stroma." |
| C39954 | "A tumor composed of solid and cystic nests of neoplastic urothelial-type cells in an abundant stromal component that is dense and fibroblastic in nature. It arises from the ovary and very rarely the paratesticular structures. It includes benign Brenner tumor, borderline Brenner tumor, and malignant Brenner tumor." |
| C39955 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the rete testis.  Representative examples include adenoma and adenocarcinoma. |
| C39956 | "A benign, circumscribed, cystic or mixed cystic and solid epithelial neoplasm arising from the rete testis." |
| C39957 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the epididymis. It usually presents as a scrotal mass and may be associated with testicular pain. |
| C39958 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the epididymis.  Representative examples include epididymal adenomatoid tumor and epididymal adenocarcinoma. |
| C39959 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the penis and is characterized by a mixture of morphologic patterns (e.g., high grade squamous cell carcinoma and verrucous carcinoma or warty-basaloid carcinoma)." |
| C3995 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C39961 | A basal cell carcinoma of the penis with an indolent clinical course. It is usually superficial and arises from the shaft and rarely the glans. |
| C39963 | "A cutaneous, usually multifocal lesion in the penis characterized by the presence of verrucous papules.  It is caused by human papillomavirus infection.  Morphologically there is bowenoid dysplasia present.  Progression to invasive carcinoma is infrequent." |
| C39964 | "An ovarian thecoma characterized by the presence of cells with uniform nuclei and abundant vacuolated cytoplasm.  Mitoses are not present or, when present, are rare." |
| C39965 | "A rare, benign sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of round cells with a single cytoplasmic vacuole and an eccentric nucleus resembling signet ring cells. Mucin stains are negative." |
| C39966 | "A sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the ovary and is composed entirely of, or in various combinations of, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, and fibroblast-like cells." |
| C39968 | "A Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor of the ovary characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped gonadal stromal cells and Sertoli cells, some of which are atypical. Leydig cells are also present forming clusters at the periphery of the cellular aggregates. Metastases have been reported in a minority of patients." |
| C3996 | A condition in which an abnormal amount of a single immunoglobulin is present in the serum. This category includes IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance and non-IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Up to 25% of cases of monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance  progress to a B-cell malignancy or myeloma. |
| C39970 | A Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial and/or mesenchymal components and neoplasms that arise from these components. |
| C39971 | "A Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor of the ovary in which anastomosing, slit-like spaces resembling rete testis constitute at least 90% of the tumor elements. It may present with estrogenic and less often androgenic manifestations. It usually follows a benign clinical course." |
| C39972 | "An ovarian Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor of intermediate differentiation, characterized by the presence of a heterologous component, usually consisting of cartilage, skeletal muscle, or rhabdomyosarcoma." |
| C39973 | "An ovarian poorly differentiated Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor. It is characterized by the presence of a heterologous component, usually consisting of cartilage, skeletal muscle, or rhabdomyosarcoma." |
| C39974 | "A Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor characterized by the presence of spaces that resemble rete testis (retiform elements).  These spaces form anastomosing patterns and comprise at least ten percent but less than ninety percent of the tumor.  When the retiform elements comprise ninety percent or more of the tumor, the term retiform Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor is used.  A minority of patients may have an aggressive clinical course." |
| C39976 | "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming tubules. Leydig cells are rare or absent. It may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. In males, the presenting symptom is a slow growing testicular mass. Most cases follow a benign clinical course. In females it may present with estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course." |
| C39977 | "A rare, benign and well circumscribed stromal tumor of the ovary.  It is characterized by the presence of a fibrotic stroma with clusters of Leydig cells.  The Leydig cells contain crystals of Reinke.  Patients may present with virilization." |
| C39978 | "A sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the ovary and lacks the morphologic features that belong to the categories of granulosa-stromal tumors, Sertoli-stromal tumors, or steroid cell tumors." |
| C39979 | "A steroid cell tumor that arises from the ovary and is defined by morphologic features that do not fit into the categories of Leydig cell tumor and stromal luteoma.  These features include solid proliferations of polygonal neoplastic cells with eosinophilic and granular cytoplasm.  Grossly, these tumors usually present as large and well circumscribed masses and are usually associated with androgenic manifestations.  Approximately one third of the cases have a malignant clinical course." |
| C3997 | A medulloblastoma occurring in children. |
| C39980 | "An ovarian steroid cell tumor not otherwise specified, and characterized by the absence of nuclear atypia, mitotic figures, necrosis, and hemorrhage." |
| C39981 | "A steroid tumor of the ovary which has an aggressive clinical course and metastasizes to other anatomic sites. It is usually of large size and is characterized by nuclear atypia, increased mitotic activity, hemorrhage, and necrosis. Sometimes, patients have abdominal metastases at presentation." |
| C39983 | A Leydig cell tumor that arises from the ovarian stroma. |
| C39984 | An ovarian Leydig cell tumor for which the site of origin (ovarian hilus or ovarian stroma) cannot be determined. |
| C39985 | "A neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed of tissues that resemble dysgerminoma or seminoma and are admixed with sex cord tissues.  It is found in children or young adults and usually is associated with secondary sex organs abnormalities.  The majority of patients present as phenotypic females with virilization.  The minority of patients present as phenotypic males with feminization.  It typically affects both gonads.  If a malignant germ cell component is present, it may metast... |
| C39986 | A malignant tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of malignant germ cell components but lacks a teratoma component. |
| C39987 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of multiple dilated spaces lined by cells that resemble mesothelial cells.  The dilated spaces coexist with columnar epithelial tissues. |
| C39988 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of extensive differentiation into endodermal type glandular structures. |
| C39989 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of extensive differentiation into hepatic tissue. |
| C3998 | The reemergence of colon carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C39990 | "A rare, malignant germ cell tumor arising from the ovary.  It is characterized by the presence of embryoid bodies which resemble early embryos." |
| C39991 | "A malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the ovary and is composed of cytotrophoblasts, syncytiotrophoblasts, and extravillous trophoblasts.  The prognosis is less favorable than gestational choriocarcinoma." |
| C39992 | "A germ cell tumor that arises from the ovary and is composed of tissues that originate from two or three of the following germ layers, endoderm, ectoderm, or mesoderm." |
| C39993 | A teratoma that arises from the ovary. It contains mature tissue elements and a limited amount of immature tissue elements. |
| C39995 | A teratoma that arises from the ovary and is composed exclusively of immature tissue elements. |
| C39996 | A rare type of teratoma that arises from the ovary and resembles a malformed fetus. |
| C39997 | "A secondary carcinoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst.  In the majority of cases, the secondary carcinoma is a squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C39998 | A secondary squamous cell carcinoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst. |
| C39999 | A secondary adenocarcinoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst. |
| C3999 | An esophageal carcinoma which has reappeared after a period of remission or after presumed treatment. |
| C40000 | A secondary melanoma or melanocytic nevus that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst. |
| C40001 | A secondary melanoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst. |
| C40002 | A secondary melanocytic nevus that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst. |
| C40003 | A secondary sebaceous adenoma or sebaceous carcinoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst. |
| C40004 | A secondary sebaceous carcinoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst. |
| C40005 | A secondary sebaceous adenoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst. |
| C40006 | A secondary corticotropin secreting adenoma or prolactin secreting adenoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst.  The clinical course is benign. |
| C40007 | A corticotropin secreting adenoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst.  It may present with Cushing syndrome.  The clinical course is benign. |
| C40008 | A prolactin secreting adenoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst.  It may present with hyperprolactinemia and amenorrhea.  The clinical course is benign. |
| C40009 | "A secondary sarcoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst.  Representative examples of secondary sarcomas include leiomyosarcoma, fibrosarcoma, and angiosarcoma." |
| C4000 | "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0). Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C40010 | A secondary leiomyosarcoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst. |
| C40011 | A secondary angiosarcoma that has developed in an ovarian dermoid cyst. |
| C40013 | A carcinoid tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of round cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm forming cribriform patterns.  Clinical manifestations of carcinoid syndrome occur in approximately thirty percent of patients.  The prognosis is favorable. |
| C40014 | A carcinoid tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of columnar cells with abundant cytoplasm forming ribbons.  The prognosis is excellent. |
| C40015 | "A rare carcinoid tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of glands that are lined by cells that contain intracytoplasmic mucin or resemble goblet cells.  Pools of mucin, containing glands, may also be present.  It may have an aggressive clinical course and it can metastasize to other anatomic sites." |
| C40016 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the rete ovarii which is located in the ovarian hilus.  It includes adenoma, cystadenoma, cystadenofibroma, and adenocarcinoma." |
| C40017 | An exceptionally rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the rete ovarii. |
| C40018 | An adenoma that arises from the rete ovarii.  It is composed of elongated tubules.  The clinical course is benign. |
| C40019 | An exceptionally rare cystadenoma that arises from the rete ovarii. |
| C4001 | "An advanced, invasive breast adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of distinct changes in the overlying skin. These changes include diffuse erythema, edema, peau d'orange (skin of an orange) appearance, tenderness, induration, warmth, enlargement, and in some cases a palpable mass. The skin changes are the consequence of lymphatic obstruction from the underlying invasive breast adenocarcinoma. Microscopically, the dermal lymphatics show prominent infiltration by malignant cells. The ... |
| C40020 | An exceptionally rare cystadenofibroma that arises from the rete ovarii. |
| C40021 | A rare lymphoma that arises from the ovary. |
| C40022 | "A rare carcinoma that arises from the peritoneum and resembles the malignant surface epithelial-stromal tumors that arise from the ovary.  Serous adenocarcinoma is the most common histologic variant. It affects women almost exclusively.  The diagnosis of primary peritoneal carcinoma can be made only if both ovaries are not involved by tumor, or, if the ovaries are involved, the tumor is confined to the ovarian surface without invasion of the ovarian stroma and the peritoneal involvement is ... |
| C40023 | "A rare, serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the lining of the peritoneum. It affects females. The clinical behavior and pathologic characteristics are similar to the serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary." |
| C40024 | A serous epithelial tumor that arises from the peritoneum and histologically resembles the serous borderline tumors that arise from the ovary. |
| C40025 | "An invasive malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells that, in well differentiated tumors, resemble the epithelium of the fallopian tube or, in poorly differentiated tumors, show anaplastic features and marked nuclear atypia.  It includes serous adenocarcinoma and serous adenocarcinofibroma." |
| C40026 | "An invasive malignant tumor that originates from the surface epithelium of the ovary.  It is composed of malignant epithelial cells and stroma.  Representative examples include serous adenocarcinoma, mucinous adenocarcinoma, endometrioid adenocarcinoma, clear cell adenocarcinoma, and malignant Brenner tumor." |
| C40027 | "A low grade ovarian epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic serous epithelial cells, atypia, and microinvasion of the ovarian stroma." |
| C40028 | A low malignant potential adenofibroma arising from the ovary. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial hyperplasia. The epithelial cells are of serous type. There is no evidence of stromal destructive invasion. |
| C40029 | A neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of cystic spaces which are lined by atypical serous epithelial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C4002 | "A localized malignant neoplasm arising in an extraosseous site. It is composed of clonal (malignant) plasma cells forming a tumor mass. It most frequently involves the oropharynx, nasopharynx, sinuses, and larynx." |
| C40031 | A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of glands with serous epithelial cells in a fibrotic stroma. |
| C40032 | A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by serous epithelial cells in a fibrotic stroma. |
| C40033 | An invasive malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells that contain intracytoplasmic mucin and may resemble the epithelial cells of the endocervix or gastrointestinal tract.  It includes mucinous adenocarcinoma and mucinous adenocarcinofibroma. |
| C40034 | A malignant neoplasm of the ovary with an invasive epithelial component and a fibrotic stroma. The epithelial component is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with intracytoplasmic mucin. Cystic spaces are also present which contain mucoid material. |
| C40035 | "A malignant neoplasm of the ovary with an invasive epithelial component and a fibrotic stroma. Histologic variants include clear cell, serous, and mucinous adenocarcinofibroma." |
| C40036 | A low grade mucinous epithelial neoplasm arising from the ovary.  It is characterized by an atypical proliferation of mucinous-type epithelial cells without evidence of stromal invasion.  The mucinous epithelial cells may be of intestinal or endocervical type. |
| C40037 | A neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the ovary.  It is characterized by the proliferation of neoplastic mucinous epithelial cells that resemble intestinal epithelial cells.  There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C40038 | A neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the ovary.  It is characterized by the proliferation of neoplastic epithelial cells that resemble endocervical epithelial cells.  There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C40039 | "A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelium that resembles the epithelium of the endocervix or gastrointestinal tract. There is no evidence of atypia. It includes mucinous adenofibroma, mucinous cystadenofibroma, and mucinous cystadenoma." |
| C4003 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Tumor invades beyond Gerota's fascia.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  N1: Metastasis in a single regional lymph node.  N2: Metastasis in more than one regional lymph node.  M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C40040 | A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of glands with mucinous columnar epithelial cells in a fibrotic stroma. |
| C40041 | A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by mucinous columnar epithelial cells in a fibrotic stroma. |
| C40042 | "A mucinous cystic tumor of the ovary characterized by the presence of one or more well circumscribed solid nodules in the wall of the cysts (mural nodules) that protrude into the lumen.  The mural nodules may be benign (sarcoma-like) or malignant.  The malignant mural nodules histologically are anaplastic carcinomas, carcinosarcomas, or sarcomas.  The clinical course depends on the histology of the mural nodules.  The prognosis of mucinous cystic tumors with benign mural nodules is the same... |
| C40043 | "The presence of abundant mucoid or gelatinous, cellular or acellular material in the pelvis and abdominal cavity (pseudomyxoma peritonei) that is associated with the presence of an ovarian mucinous cystic tumor.  In the vast majority of cases, the presence of pseudomyxoma peritonei is the result of metastasis from a primary appendiceal or gastrointestinal tumor site, and the ovarian mucinous tumor is metastatic rather than primary." |
| C4004 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the stomach glandular epithelium. Gastric adenocarcinoma is primarily a disease of older individuals.  It most commonly develops after a long period of atrophic gastritis and is strongly associated with Helicobacter pylori infection. The lack of early symptoms often delays the diagnosis of gastric cancer. The majority of patients present with advanced tumors which have poor rates of curability. Microscopically, two important histologic types of gastric adenoca... |
| C40051 | "An invasive malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of malignant, endometrial-type cells.  It includes endometrioid adenocarcinoma and carcinosarcoma." |
| C4005 | "A malignant neoplasm that occurs during childhood. Representative examples include acute leukemias, malignant brain neoplasms, and sarcomas." |
| C40060 | A malignant neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells resembling endometrial cells in a fibrotic stroma. |
| C40061 | An endometrioid adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary and exhibits squamous differentiation.  The squamous cell component often has a cytologically benign appearance. |
| C40063 | A rare invasive mesenchymal tumor that arises from the ovary.  It is characterized by the absence of marked pleomorphism and nuclear atypia in the neoplastic mesenchymal cells.  It may have a favorable clinical outcome. |
| C40065 | A category of rare neoplasms that arise from the ovary.  It includes low grade endometrioid stromal sarcoma and undifferentiated sarcoma. |
| C40066 | An aggressive high grade sarcoma that arises from the ovary.  It is characterized by the presence of marked pleomorphism and nuclear atypia in the neoplastic mesenchymal cells.  The prognosis is poor. |
| C40069 | An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C4006 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4, Any N, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Tumor invades bladder mucosa and/or bowel mucosa (bullous edema is not sufficient to classify a tumor as T4).  M1: Distant metastasis (includes metastasis to abdominal lymph nodes other than para-aortic, and/or inguinal lymph nodes: excludes metastasis to vagina, pelvic serosa, or adnexa). (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C40072 | "A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of glands or cysts lined by benign endometrial-type cells. It includes endometrioid adenofibroma, endometrioid cystadenofibroma, and endometrioid cystadenoma." |
| C40075 | A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by endometrial-type well-differentiated cells. |
| C40076 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant epithelial tumor of the ovary that is characterized by a predominance of clear and hobnail cells." |
| C40077 | An invasive malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by a predominance of clear and hobnail malignant epithelial cells. |
| C40078 | "A malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of clear and hobnail cells. It is highly associated with ovarian endometriosis, pelvic endometriosis and paraendocrine hypercalcemia." |
| C40079 | A malignant neoplasm of the ovary with an invasive epithelial component and a fibrotic stroma. The epithelial component is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm. |
| C4007 | A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the small intestine. |
| C40080 | "An epithelial neoplasm with low malignant potential affecting the ovary.  It is characterized by the presence of clear or hobnail cells.  In some cases, the cells may display nuclear atypia and prominent nucleoli.  When such cells are present, they remain confined to the glands.  There is no evidence of stromal invasion." |
| C40081 | An epithelial neoplasm with low malignant potential affecting the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of atypical glands and/or cystic spaces lined with clear or hobnail cells. |
| C40082 | A non-invasive clear cell adenofibromatous neoplasm that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of atypical neoplastic clear or hobnail epithelial cells and intraepithelial carcinoma. |
| C40083 | An epithelial neoplasm with low malignant potential affecting the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of prominent cystic spaces lined with atypical clear or hobnail cells. There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C40084 | A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by a predominance of clear and hobnail benign epithelial cells. |
| C40085 | An uncommon benign neoplasm of glandular epithelium characterized by the presence of clear or hobnail cells within a dense fibrous stroma. |
| C40086 | A benign neoplasm of glandular epithelium characterized by the presence of clear or hobnail cells within a dense fibrous stroma and cystic structures. |
| C4008 | The reemergence of gallbladder carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C40090 | A malignant mixed epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed predominantly of serous and endocervical-type mucinous cells. |
| C40093 | A usually high grade squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the ovary and is not associated with a germ cell tumor.  The prognosis is poor. |
| C40099 | A serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the fallopian tube. It is usually a high grade invasive adenocarcinoma. |
| C40101 | "An adenocarcinoma that is characterized by the presence of papillary patterns and cellular budding. Psammoma bodies may be present.  Representative examples include cervical serous adenocarcinoma, endometrial serous adenocarcinoma, ovarian serous adenocarcinoma, and primary peritoneal serous adenocarcinoma." |
| C40102 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant epithelial tumor of the fallopian tube characterized by the presence of neoplastic serous epithelial cells." |
| C40103 | An extremely rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the fallopian tube.  It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that contain intracytoplasmic mucin.  The cases that have been reported are predominantly in situ mucinous adenocarcinomas. |
| C40104 | A rare transitional cell carcinoma that arises from the fallopian tube. |
| C40105 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ (limited to tubal mucosa). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. FIGO no longer includes stage 0. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C40106 | A rare epithelial tumor arising from the fallopian tube without definitive morphologic characteristics of malignancy.  This category includes borderline mucinous and serous neoplasms and borderline endometrioid tumor. |
| C40107 | A neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the fallopian tube. It is characterized by an atypical proliferation of serous-type epithelial cells without evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C40108 | A neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the fallopian tube. It is characterized by an atypical proliferation of mucinous-type epithelial cells without evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C40109 | A rare borderline or malignant epithelial tumor of the fallopian tube characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that contain intracytoplasmic mucin and may resemble the epithelial cells of the endocervix or gastrointestinal tract. |
| C4010 | A craniopharyngioma that occurs during adulthood.  It can be either adamantinomatous or papillary.  The papillary histologic variant occurs virtually exclusively in adults.  Clinical signs and symptoms include visual disturbances and endocrine deficiencies. |
| C40110 | A neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the fallopian tube. It is characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells.  There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C40111 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant epithelial tumor of the fallopian tube that is characterized by the presence of glands and/or cysts lined by neoplastic cells that resemble endometrial cells." |
| C40112 | A benign epithelial neoplasm that arises from the fallopian tube.  It is characterized by the presence of fibrovascular stalks lined by serous epithelial cells. |
| C40113 | "A rare, benign, asymptomatic neoplasm that arises from the fallopian tube.  The majority of cases are incidental findings during operation for an unrelated gynecologic disorder.  The tumors are round and solitary and contain connective tissue and papillary or tubular structures lined by serous-type epithelium." |
| C40114 | "A rare, benign, asymptomatic neoplasm that arises from the fallopian tube. The tumors are round and solitary and contain connective tissue and cystic structures lined by serous-type epithelium. The majority of cases are incidental findings during operation for an unrelated gynecologic disorder." |
| C40115 | An adenomatous polyp that arises from the interstitial portion of the fallopian tube and is characterized by the presence of endometrial epithelium.  It may obstruct the lumen of the fallopian tube and result in infertility or tubal pregnancy. |
| C40116 | "A rare metaplastic lesion that arises from the fallopian tube. It is characterized by the presence of an intraluminal papillary proliferation composed of atypical epithelial cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. In the vast majority of cases, it is an incidental finding during microscopic examination of a fallopian tube in the postpartum period." |
| C40118 | Chronic inflammation of the fallopian tube.  It usually follows an acute inflammatory attack. |
| C40119 | Formation of nodules in the isthmus of the fallopian tube due to fallopian tube diverticulosis.  It may cause infertility or ectopic pregnancy. |
| C4011 | A medulloblastoma occurring in adults. |
| C40120 | "Acute inflammation of the fallopian tube. It is most often caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis infections. The infections usually originate in the vagina and ascend to the fallopian tube. Symptoms include abdominal, pelvic, and lower back pain, pain during ovulation and sexual intercourse, fever, nausea, and vomiting. Complications include infertility and ectopic pregnancy." |
| C40124 | "A carcinosarcoma that arises from the fallopian tube.  It usually affects postmenopausal women and presents with abdominal pain, abdominal distension or genital bleeding.  The prognosis is usually poor." |
| C40125 | An extremely rare malignant neoplasm that arises from the fallopian tube and is characterized by the presence of a benign epithelial component and a sarcomatous component. |
| C40126 | A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the fallopian tube.  Representative examples include leiomyoma and leiomyosarcoma. |
| C40127 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the fallopian tube. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C40128 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the fallopian tube.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C40129 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the fallopian tube and originates from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of gland-like structures that are lined by flat or cuboidal cells. It is usually discovered as an incidental finding. |
| C4012 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Lung cancer with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural nodules or malignant pleural (or pericardial) effusion.  M1b: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C40130 | A rare germ cell tumor that affects the fallopian tube.  The vast majority of cases are teratomas. |
| C40131 | "A teratoma that arises from the fallopian tube.  It is a rare tumor, often found incidentally." |
| C40133 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm that affects the broad or other uterine ligaments." |
| C40135 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the broad ligament. |
| C40136 | A rare serous adenocarcinoma that arises from the broad or other uterine ligaments. |
| C40137 | A rare mucinous adenocarcinoma that arises from the broad ligament. |
| C40138 | A rare endometrioid adenocarcinoma that arises from the broad ligament. Some of the reported cases were associated with endometriosis. |
| C40139 | A rare clear cell adenocarcinoma that arises from the broad ligament. |
| C4013 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the head and neck.  Representative examples include oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma, laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma, and salivary gland carcinoma." |
| C40140 | A rare borderline tumor that arises from the broad or other uterine ligaments. The majority of the reported cases are serous cystic tumors. |
| C40141 | An adnexal epithelial neoplasm of Wolffian (mesonephric) origin. It predominantly affects the broad ligament and presents as a unilateral adnexal mass. Most tumors behave in a benign fashion. |
| C40142 | A benign mesonephric neoplasm that arises from the broad or other uterine ligaments and occurs in women with Von Hippel Lindau syndrome.  It is a cystic lesion characterized by the presence of multiple papillary excrescences. |
| C40144 | "A primary, usually low grade adenocarcinoma of the endometrium in which the majority of the malignant epithelial cells contain abundant intracytoplasmic mucin." |
| C40145 | A classification of primary endometrial adenocarcinomas that refers to endometrioid adenocarcinoma and mucinous adenocarcinoma. |
| C40146 | "Endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting 5% or less solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C40147 | "Endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting 6-50% solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C40148 | "Endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma exhibiting more than 50% solid non-glandular, non-squamous growth." |
| C40149 | A primary mucinous adenocarcinoma of the endometrium that contains equal to or less than 5% non-squamous solid areas. |
| C4014 | An oligodendroglioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C40150 | A primary mucinous adenocarcinoma of the endometrium that contains 6-50% non-squamous solid areas. |
| C40151 | A primary mucinous adenocarcinoma of the endometrium that contains more than 50% non-squamous solid areas. |
| C40152 | "A precursor of endometrial serous adenocarcinoma characterized by the replacement of the normal endometrial cells by malignant glandular cells that resemble the malignant cells of invasive serous adenocarcinoma. The endometrial neoplastic process is non-invasive. It may coexist with invasive endometrial adenocarcinoma or can be associated with metastases outside the uterus, in the absence of invasive endometrial carcinoma." |
| C40153 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the endometrium and is characterized by the presence of both type I and type II endometrial adenocarcinoma components.  The minor component constitutes at least 5% of the entire tumor. |
| C40154 | A rare primary carcinoma of the endometrium characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells resembling urothelial transitional cells. The malignant transitional cells constitute at least 90% of the tumor cells. |
| C40155 | "An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the endometrium. It is characterized by the presence of small malignant cells, necrotic changes, and an increased mitotic rate." |
| C40156 | A primary carcinoma of the endometrium characterized by the presence of malignant cells that lack evidence of differentiation. |
| C40157 | Simple or complex endometrial hyperplasia characterized by the absence of epithelial atypia. |
| C40159 | "A spectrum of endometrial abnormalities that occur in women who use tamoxifen to treat or prevent the development of breast cancer. These abnormalities include endometrial polyps, endometrial hyperplasia, and endometrial carcinoma." |
| C4015 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the central nervous system from another anatomic site or system. The majority are carcinomas (usually lung or breast carcinomas). |
| C40162 | A morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by an increased number of mitoses (up to 19 mitoses per 10 high-powered fields). |
| C40163 | A morphologic variant of leiomyoma arising from the uterine corpus. It is characterized by a dense cellular infiltrate composed of spindle or round cells with scant cytoplasm and a less obvious interlacing fascicle pattern. |
| C40164 | A morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by the presence of round or polygonal epithelioid smooth muscle cells forming clusters. |
| C40165 | "A morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by zones of hemorrhagic infarction surrounded by hypercellular areas. It usually develops in women of childbearing years, particularly those that are pregnant, post-partum, or taking oral contraceptives." |
| C40166 | A morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by extensive myxoid degeneration of the neoplasm connective tissue stroma. |
| C40167 | A morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by significant cytologic atypia. The atypical cells are large with pleomophic hyperchromatic nuclei. |
| C40168 | A rare morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma characterized by the presence of scattered islands of mature adipocytes within the smooth muscle neoplasm. |
| C4016 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the bone or articular cartilage. |
| C40170 | An unusual condition characterized by the presence of numerous small benign smooth muscle neoplasms located throughout the body of the uterus. |
| C40172 | "A rare morphologic variant of uterine corpus leiomyoma.  Macroscopically, it is characterized by large, fungating, and multinodular neoplasm masses arising from the uterine corpus, and extending into the broad ligament or the peritoneal cavity.  Microscopically, it shows neoplastic smooth muscle cells infiltrating the myometrium.  The neoplastic cells are arranged in a micronodular pattern.  Hydropic changes and increased vascularity are also present." |
| C40173 | "A cytologically benign smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from the uterine corpus and has metastasized to the lungs, abdomen, or lymph nodes. It usually presents in women with a history of benign uterine leiomyomas that have been surgically removed years before the extrauterine neoplasm spread." |
| C40174 | A morphologic variant of leiomyosarcoma arising from the uterine corpus.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid round cells with eosinophilic to clear cytoplasm. |
| C40175 | "A morphologic variant of leiomyosarcoma arising from the uterus corpus.  It is characterized by the presence of cellular pleomorphism, malignant cells with large nuclei, and a myxoid stroma." |
| C40176 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm that arises from the uterine corpus and is composed of neoplastic cells with smooth muscle differentiation." |
| C40177 | A smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from the uterine corpus and cannot be reliably diagnosed as benign or malignant because of the presence of ambiguous morphologic findings. |
| C40178 | A rare primary neoplasm of the uterine corpus characterized by the presence of endometrial stromal and smooth muscle components. |
| C40179 | "A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the uterine corpus.  Representative examples include leiomyoma, leiomyosarcoma, and endometrial stromal sarcoma." |
| C4017 | "A breast carcinoma arising from the ducts.  While ductal carcinomas can arise at other sites, this term is universally used to refer to carcinomas of the breast. Ductal carcinomas account for about two thirds of all breast cancers. Two types of ductal carcinomas have been described: ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) and invasive breast carcinoma of no special type. The latter often spreads to the axillary lymph nodes and other anatomic sites. The two forms of ductal carcinoma often coexist." |
| C40180 | A neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation arising from the uterine corpus wall. |
| C40181 | "A primary, benign or malignant neoplasm of the uterine corpus characterized by the presence of an epithelial and a mesenchymal component. Representative examples include adenomyoma, adenosarcoma, and carcinosarcoma." |
| C40182 | An uncommon malignant neoplasm arising from the uterine corpus. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant epithelial component and a benign mesenchymal (usually fibrous) component. |
| C40183 | A non-neoplastic trophoblastic disorder characterized by the presence of remnants of intermediate trophoblasts in the uterine cavity and infrequently the fallopian tube from a previous pregnancy. |
| C40184 | A category of non-neoplastic gestational trophoblastic disorders that includes the exaggerated placental site reaction and placental site nodule or plaque. It does not include hydatidiform mole. |
| C40187 | A variant of cervical squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of keratin pearls. Intercellular bridges and cytoplasmic keratinization are usually present. |
| C40188 | "A variant of cervical squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of polygonal squamous cells. Intercellular bridges and cytoplasmic keratinization may be present, but keratin pearls are absent." |
| C40189 | An aggressive variant of cervical squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of nests of malignant basaloid squamous cells with scant amount of cytoplasm. |
| C4018 | A non-invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by a proliferation of monomorphic cells completely filling the lumina.  The overall lobular architecture is preserved.  It is frequently multifocal (90% in some series) and bilateral.  It seldom becomes invasive; however there is an increased risk of infiltrating ductal adenocarcinoma. |
| C40190 | A highly differentiated variant of cervical squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of a warty surface and stromal invasion with pushing borders. The malignant cells have abundant cytoplasm and minimal nuclear atypia. Koilocytosis is not present. |
| C40191 | A human papillomavirus-related cervical squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of a warty surface and koilocytotic atypia. |
| C40192 | A human papillomavirus-related cervical squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of papillary structures covered with epithelial cells which show features of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. The malignant cellular component below the papillary structures is a squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C40193 | "A variant of cervical squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of islands of cells with uniform, vesicular nuclei and prominent nucleoli and a dense lymphocytic infiltrate." |
| C40194 | A human papillomavirus-related cervical squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of papillary structures with fibrovascular cores. It is covered with multiple layers of atypical cells that resemble cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 3. |
| C40195 | "A benign, precancerous, or malignant neoplasm that arises from the squamous epithelium of the cervix. Representative examples include condyloma acuminatum, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, and squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C40196 | A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the cervical squamous epithelium without evidence of invasion. It is usually associated with human papillomavirus infection. It is characterized by the presence of mild atypia in the superficial epithelial layer that may be associated with koilocytosis. Maturation is present in the upper two thirds of the epithelium. Mitotic figures are not numerous and are present in the basal third of the epithelium. |
| C40197 | "A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the cervical squamous epithelium. It is usually associated with human papillomavirus infection. It is classified as cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia 2 when there is nuclear atypia in both the upper and lower epithelial layers, mitotic figures are confined to the basal two-thirds of the epithelium, and maturation is present in the upper half of the epithelium. It is classified as cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia 3 when ther... |
| C40198 | Cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of maturation in the upper half of the squamous epithelium and conspicuous nuclear atypia which is present in all epithelial layers.  Mitotic figures are present in the basal two thirds of the epithelium. |
| C40199 | Cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of maturation in the upper two-thirds of the squamous epithelium and mild nuclear atypia which is present in all epithelial layers.  Mitotic figures are present in the basal third of the epithelium. |
| C4019 | Paget disease of the breast associated with the presence of a usually high grade ductal carcinoma in situ in the lactiferous glands. |
| C40200 | A usually solitary polypoid lesion that arises from the cervix. It usually affects women in their reproductive years. It is characterized by the presence of a connective tissue core and overlying epithelium. |
| C40201 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of papillary patterns and cellular budding. Psammoma bodies are often seen. |
| C40203 | A cervical mucinous adenocarcinoma that resembles a large intestinal adenocarcinoma. |
| C40205 | A rare cervical mucinous adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of signet ring cells. |
| C40206 | Cervical adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of gastric differentiation. It is not associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C40208 | A cervical adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a prominent villoglandular pattern. |
| C4020 | A conventional osteosarcoma characterized by the presence of spindle shaped cells. |
| C40210 | "A benign, malignant, or precancerous neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the cervix. Representative examples include endocervical polyp, cervical adenocarcinoma, and cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia." |
| C40212 | A poorly differentiated variant of adenosquamous carcinoma that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells with ground glass cytoplasm and stromal eosinophilic infiltrates. |
| C40213 | A rare low grade carcinoma that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of nests of basaloid cells with focal glandular formations. |
| C40214 | "A rare aggressive neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the cervix and is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with abundant cytoplasm, large nuclei, and prominent nucleoli." |
| C40215 | "A rare, benign, papillary neoplasm that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of a fibrovascular core covered by mucinous epithelial cells." |
| C40216 | "A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the cervix.  Representative examples include rhabdomyoma, alveolar soft part sarcoma, and AIDS-related Kaposi sarcoma." |
| C40217 | "A category of benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasms that arises from the uterine corpus. This category includes the endometrial stromal nodule which is benign and non-invasive, the endometrial stromal sarcoma, and the undifferentiated uterine sarcoma. The endometrial stromal sarcoma is an invasive malignant neoplasm, further subdivided into low grade and high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma. Undifferentiated uterine sarcoma was previously also known as high grade endometrial stromal s... |
| C40218 | A category of rare neoplasms that arise from the cervix.  It includes low grade endometrioid stromal sarcoma and undifferentiated endocervical sarcoma. |
| C40219 | A uterine corpus sarcoma originating from the endometrial stroma. It is further subdivided into low grade and high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma. |
| C4021 | An osteosarcoma characterised by the presence of atypical cartilage of variable cellularity.  It may or may not be associated with the presence of myxoid areas or focal bone formation. |
| C40220 | A rare sarcoma that arises from the cervix.  This category includes low grade endometrioid stromal sarcoma and undifferentiated endocervical sarcoma. |
| C40222 | A very rare sarcoma that arises from the cervix and is characterized by the presence of cells that resemble endometrial stromal cells. |
| C40223 | "A rare, indolent, invasive mesenchymal tumor that arises from the endometrial stroma. It is characterized by the presence of a plexiform vasculature, infrequent mitoses, and insignificant cytologic atypia. Late recurrences may occur." |
| C40224 | A high grade undifferentiated sarcoma that arises from the endocervix. |
| C40225 | An alveolar soft part sarcoma arising from the cervix. |
| C40226 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the cervix and is characterized by the presence of epithelial and mesenchymal elements. This category includes adenofibroma, adenomyoma, adenosarcoma, and carcinosarcoma." |
| C40227 | A neoplasm that arises from the cervix and is characterized by the presence of benign epithelial and benign mesenchymal elements. This category includes adenofibroma and adenomyoma. |
| C40228 | A mixed epithelial and mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of malignant mesenchymal elements and benign or malignant epithelial elements. This category includes adenosarcoma and carcinosarcoma. |
| C40229 | A rare malignant mixed epithelial and mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of malignant mesenchymal elements and benign epithelial elements. |
| C4022 | "A form of melanoma occurring most often on the plantar, palmar, subungual, and periungual skin.  It presents as a pigmented macular lesion with irregular borders.  Morphologically, it consists of atypical spindled and dendritic melanocytes.  The epidermis is often hyperplastic and there is pagetoid infiltration of the epidermis by anaplastic cells." |
| C40230 | "A rare, benign, polypoid neoplasm that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial and mesenchymal elements." |
| C40231 | "A rare, benign, usually polypoid neoplasm that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of a glandular component and a smooth muscle cell component. Variants include the endocervical-type, mesonephric-type, and atypical polypoid adenomyoma." |
| C40232 | An adenomyoma that arises from the cervix and is characterized by the presence of endocervical mucinous glands and a smooth muscle cell component. There is no atypia or significant mitotic activity present. |
| C40233 | An adenomyoma that arises from the cervix and is characterized by the presence of glands showing mesonephric differentiation and a smooth muscle cell component. There is no atypia or significant mitotic activity present. |
| C40234 | An adenomyoma that arises from the cervix and is characterized by the presence of a glandular component exhibiting architectural complexity. |
| C40235 | An adenomyoma that arises from the uterine corpus and is characterized by the presence of marked glandular architectural complexity. It may recur following excision. |
| C40236 | An embryonal neoplasm arising from the cervix with morphologic features resembling Wilms tumor of the kidney. |
| C40239 | An aggressive malignant tumor of melanocytic origin that arises from the cervix. |
| C4023 | An osteosarcoma usually arising from the metaphysis of long bones. It is characterized by the presence of small cells and osteoid production. The prognosis is usually unfavorable. |
| C40240 | "A nevus that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of benign, heavily pigmented dendritic melanocytes." |
| C40241 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the cervix. Representative examples include cervicitis, endocervical polyp, and carcinoma." |
| C40242 | "A benign, precancerous, or malignant neoplasm that arises from the squamous epithelium of the vagina." |
| C40243 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of keratin pearls. Intercellular bridges and cytoplasmic keratinization are usually present. |
| C40244 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of polygonal squamous cells. Intercellular bridges and cytoplasmic keratinization may be present, but keratin pearls are absent." |
| C40245 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of nests of malignant basaloid squamous cells with scant amounts of cytoplasm. |
| C40248 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vagina and is characterized by a papillary growth pattern, hyperkeratosis, and koilocytosis." |
| C4024 | "A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the esophagus.  It is associated with a long history of tobacco and alcohol abuse and is exceedingly rare before the age of 30.  The median age is around 65 in both males and females.  It is located mostly in the middle and lower third of the esophagus.  Grossly, polypoid, ulcerated, plaque-like and occult lesions have been described.  The microscopic features are the same as in other squamous cell carcinomas.  Any degree of differentiation may occur, ... |
| C40250 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic glandular epithelial cells.  Representative examples include adenoma, endometrioid adenocarcinoma, and clear cell adenocarcinoma." |
| C40251 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the vagina with histologic features resembling the endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium. |
| C40252 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the vagina with histologic features resembling cervical mucinous adenocarcinoma. |
| C40253 | Vaginal adenocarcinoma that derives from Wolffian duct remnants and shows mesonephric differentiation. |
| C40254 | Cervical adenocarcinoma that derives from Wolffian duct remnants and shows mesonephric differentiation. It is not associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C40255 | A benign papilloma that arises from the vagina in infants and young women. |
| C40256 | A glandular epithelial neoplasm that arises from the vagina and shows intestinal differentiation. |
| C40258 | An adenoma that arises from the vagina and is characterized by a tubulovillous architectural pattern. |
| C40259 | An adenoma that arises from the vagina and is characterized by a villous architectural pattern. |
| C4025 | "A malignant tumor with glandular differentiation arising predominantly from Barrett mucosa in the lower third of the esophagus.  Rare examples of esophageal adenocarcinoma deriving from ectopic gastric mucosa in the upper esophagus have also been reported.  Grossly, esophageal adenocarcinomas are similar to esophageal squamous cell carcinomas.  Microscopically, adenocarcinomas arising in the setting of Barrett esophagus are typically papillary and/or tubular.  The prognosis is poor." |
| C40260 | A carcinoma that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular and malignant squamous epithelial components. |
| C40261 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the vagina. Myoepithelial cells are usually not present. |
| C40262 | A carcinoma that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of nests of basaloid cells with focal glandular formations. |
| C40263 | A rare small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the vagina. |
| C40264 | A carcinoma that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the lack of specific cellular differentiation. |
| C40265 | "A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the vagina.  Representative examples include leiomyoma, rhabdomyoma, leiomyosarcoma, endometrioid stromal sarcoma, and botryoid-type embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma." |
| C40266 | A rare benign skeletal muscle neoplasm arising from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of small nucleated rhabdomyoblasts within a fibrous and myxoid stroma. |
| C40267 | A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the vagina.  It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules with an abundant myxoid stroma. It occurs in female adults. |
| C40268 | A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the vagina.  It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules within an abundant myxoid stroma. |
| C40269 | A category of rare neoplasms that arise from the vagina. It includes low grade endometrioid stromal sarcoma and undifferentiated sarcoma. |
| C4026 | An invasive cystic adenocarcinoma arising from the ovary.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin.  The malignant cells invade the ovarian stroma and the cystic spaces contain mucoid material.  In a minority of cases both ovaries are involved by the tumor.  The prognosis for stage I tumors is excellent.  Patients with metastases usually have a poor prognosis. |
| C40270 | A rare sarcoma that arises from the vagina. This category includes low grade endometrioid stromal sarcoma and undifferentiated vaginal sarcoma. |
| C40271 | An infiltrating sarcoma that arises from the vagina.  It is characterized by the presence of cells that resemble endometrial stromal cells. |
| C40272 | A high grade infiltrating sarcoma that arises from the vagina. It is characterized by the presence of malignant small spindle cells with scant cytoplasm. |
| C40273 | "A locally infiltrating, non-metastasizing vaginal angiomyxoma.  It may recur following resection." |
| C40274 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of epithelial and mesenchymal elements.  This category includes benign mixed tumor, adenosarcoma, carcinosarcoma, and malignant mixed tumor resembling synovial sarcoma." |
| C40275 | A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of benign epithelial and benign mesenchymal elements. |
| C40276 | "A malignant neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of an epithelial and a mesenchymal component.  This category includes adenosarcoma, carcinosarcoma, and malignant mixed tumor resembling synovial sarcoma." |
| C40277 | A malignant mixed epithelial and mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of a malignant mesenchymal component and a benign or atypical mullerian-type epithelial component. |
| C40278 | An aggressive mixed epithelial and mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of a malignant epithelial component and a malignant mesenchymal component. |
| C40279 | A very rare malignant mixed epithelial and mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the vagina and resembles synovial sarcoma.  It is characterized by a biphasic pattern and is composed of gland-like structures that are lined by epithelial cells and a cellular mesenchymal component. |
| C4027 | "An uncommon intraepithelial malignant neoplasm of eccrine or apocrine origin, arising from the vulva.  It usually affects post-menopausal women.  In approximately 10-20% of the cases there is an associated anorectal, or urothelial carcinoma or a skin appendage adenocarcinoma identified.  It presents as a red, eczematous lesion.  Microscopically, it is characterized by the presence of the typical Paget cells which are large, round cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and large nuclei with prom... |
| C40280 | "A non-metastasizing, well circumscribed neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of a predominant benign mesenchymal component and benign glandular or squamous epithelial cells." |
| C40281 | A neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the proliferation of nests of benign melanocytes. |
| C40282 | A neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the proliferation of subepithelial benign dendritic melanocytes. |
| C40283 | "A benign, precancerous, or malignant neoplasm that arises from the squamous epithelium of the vulva. Representative examples include vestibular papilloma, intraepithelial neoplasia, and squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C40284 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the presence of keratin pearls. |
| C40285 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the absence of keratin pearls. |
| C40286 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the presence of nests of malignant basaloid cells with a scant amount of cytoplasm. |
| C40287 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the presence of a warty surface and cellular changes that are caused by human papillomavirus infection. |
| C40289 | An aggressive squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the prominence of malignant giant cells. |
| C4028 | A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the cervical epithelium. It usually evolves from a precancerous cervical lesion. Increased numbers of sexual partners and human papillomavirus (HPV) infection are risk factors for cervical squamous cell carcinoma. Survival is most closely related to the stage of disease at the time of diagnosis. |
| C40290 | A benign neoplastic process characterized by the presence of multiple vestibular papillomas in the vulva. |
| C40291 | Seborrheic keratosis that arises from follicular structures in the vulva. It is characterized by the presence of prominent squamous eddies. |
| C40292 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the vulva and is composed of glandular epithelial cells. Representative examples include adenoma of the minor vestibular glands, Bartholin gland adenoma, and Bartholin gland adenocarcinoma." |
| C40293 | A carcinoma that arises from the Bartholin gland and is characterized by the presence of malignant squamous epithelial cells. |
| C40295 | A carcinoma that arises from the Bartholin gland and is characterized by the presence of islands of uniform malignant cells forming cribriform patterns. |
| C40296 | A carcinoma that arises from the Bartholin gland and is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells and malignant squamous epithelial cells. |
| C40297 | A rare carcinoma that arises from the Bartholin gland and is characterized by the presence of malignant urothelial-type epithelial cells. |
| C40298 | A rare small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the Bartholin gland. |
| C40299 | "A rare, benign neoplasm that arises from the Bartholin gland and is characterized by the presence of clustered glands and tubules lined by mucin-secreting epithelial cells." |
| C4029 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the endocervical glandular epithelium. It is classified as either human papillomavirus-related or human papillomavirus-independent adenocarcinoma. Histologic variants include usual-type, mucinous, mesonephric, serous, clear cell, and endometrioid adenocarcinoma." |
| C40300 | "A rare, benign neoplasm that arises from the Bartholin gland and is characterized by the presence of a fibromuscular stroma and glands lined by mucin-secreting epithelial cells, arranged in a lobular architecture." |
| C40301 | "A rare, benign neoplasm that arises from the vulva It is characterized by the presence of clusters of small glands lined by mucinous epithelial cells. Bartholin duct structures are not present." |
| C40302 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the presence of epithelial cells forming nests and tubules in a fibrotic stroma. It may recur locally and complete excision is recommended. |
| C40303 | "A benign or malignant vulvar neoplasm with differentiating characteristics towards sweat or sebaceous glands or hair follicles.  Representative examples include trichoepithelioma, syringoma, and eccrine adenocarcinoma." |
| C40304 | "A malignant neoplasm that arises from sweat glands in the vulva. Representative examples include eccrine adenocarcinoma, apocrine adenocarcinoma, and Paget disease." |
| C40305 | An eccrine adenocarcinoma that arises from the sweat glands in the vulva. |
| C40306 | A porocarcinoma that arises from the sweat glands in the vulva. |
| C40307 | A vulvar sweat gland carcinoma characterized by the presence of clear cells. |
| C40308 | An apocrine adenocarcinoma that arises from the sweat glands in the vulva. |
| C40309 | A carcinoma that arises from the vulva. It is characterized by the presence of malignant basaloid glandular epithelial cells that resemble sebaceous epithelium and are arranged in cords and nests. |
| C4030 | "A carcinoma that arises from the urothelial lining of the urinary tract (bladder, renal pelvis, ureter, or urethra)." |
| C40310 | "An adenocarcinoma with sebaceous differentiation. It presents as a painless mass and it may be multifocal. It grows in the ocular adnexae and in the skin of head and neck, trunk, genitals, and extremities. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with multivesicular and clear cytoplasm. It may recur and metastasize." |
| C40311 | A benign neoplasm that arises from eccrine ducts in the vulva and is characterized by the presence of tubules and cysts which are lined by epithelial cells in the densely fibrotic dermis. |
| C40312 | A nodular hidradenoma that arises from the vulva. |
| C40314 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the presence of nests of monomorphic basaloid cells forming small cysts that contain keratin. |
| C40315 | "An astrocytic tumor of uncertain relation to pilocytic astrocytoma.  It occurs predominantly in infants and young children.  It is characterized by a monomorphic architectural pattern, usually associated with the absence of Rosenthal fibers and eosinophilic granular bodies.  The clinical course is usually aggressive." |
| C40316 | "A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the vulva.  Representative examples include leiomyoma, cellular angiofibroma, angiomyxoma, leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, and childhood botryoid-type embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma." |
| C40317 | "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the vulva. Representative examples include childhood botryoid-type embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, alveolar soft part sarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma." |
| C40318 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the vulva.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C40319 | An epithelioid sarcoma of the proximal type that arises from the vulva. |
| C4031 | "A squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder arising from metaplastic epithelium.  It represents less than 10% of bladder carcinomas.  The exception is the Middle East along the Nile Valley, where it represents the most common form of carcinoma because of the endemic nature of schistosomiasis.  Bladder squamous cell carcinoma is often associated with long-standing chronic inflammation of the bladder and usually has a poor prognosis.  The diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder shoul... |
| C40320 | An alveolar soft part sarcoma arising from the vulva. |
| C40321 | A rare liposarcoma that arises from the vulva. |
| C40322 | "A locally infiltrating, non-metastasizing vulvar angiomyxoma.  It may recur following resection." |
| C40324 | A vulvar myxoma arising from the dermis or subcutaneous tissues. It may recur following resection. |
| C40326 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the vulva. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C40327 | "A benign neoplasm arising from the fibrous tissue of the vulva. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts, numerous dilated vascular channels, and increased cellularity." |
| C40328 | A usually benign granular cell tumor that arises from the vulva. |
| C40329 | "A usually pigmented, nodular or polypoid malignant neoplasm that originates from melanocytes and arises from the vulva. It presents with bleeding and dysuria." |
| C4032 | A rare adenocarcinoma arising from metaplastic bladder epithelium. It is frequently associated with long-standing local irritation. The majority of cases originate from the trigone and the posterior wall of the bladder. This group does not include clear cell and endometrioid adenocarcinomas. |
| C40330 | A benign nevus that arises from the vulva and is present at birth. |
| C40331 | A benign nevus that arises from the vulva during childhood and grows with increasing age. |
| C40332 | A benign nevus that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the presence of heavily pigmented dendritic melanocytes exclusively in the dermis. |
| C40333 | "A small, well circumscribed melanocytic neoplasm that arises from the vulva and affects women in their reproductive years. It is characterized by the presence of junctional nests of melanocytes. Some of the superficial melanocytes show atypia. During pregnancy the atypical melanocytic changes may appear more prominent. This neoplasm is not associated with the presence of dysplastic nevi in other anatomic areas." |
| C40334 | "A rare, elevated and pigmented, compound or junctional nevus that arises from the vulva. It affects women in their reproductive years and may be associated with the presence of dysplastic nevi in other anatomic areas. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid or spindle-shaped melanocytes exhibiting nuclear pleomorphism and prominent nucleoli." |
| C40335 | "A neoplasm that originates from melanocytes and arises from the vulva. This category includes congenital and acquired melanocytic nevus, blue nevus, dysplastic melanocytic nevus, atypical melanocytic nevus of genital type, and melanoma." |
| C40337 | "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that arises from the retroperitoneum. This is an extragastrointestinal tumor, meaning that it does not arise directly from the gastrointestinal tract." |
| C40338 | "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that arises from the peritoneum. This is an extragastrointestinal tumor, meaning that it does not arise directly from the gastrointestinal tract." |
| C40339 | "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that arises from the mesentery. This is an extragastrointestinal tumor, meaning that it does not arise directly from the gastrointestinal tract." |
| C4033 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the kidney characterized by the presence of lipid-containing clear cells within a vascular network.  The tumor may metastasize to unusual sites and late metastasis is common. |
| C40340 | "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that arises from the omentum. This is an extragastrointestinal tumor, meaning that it does not arise directly from the gastrointestinal tract." |
| C40341 | A congenital abnormality in which the external urethral orifice is on the underside of the penis. In a minority of cases it is associated with other genitourinary abnormalities. |
| C40345 | "A non-invasive lesion of the testis, characterized by the presence of malignant large germ cells with abundant cytoplasm in the seminiferous tubules. It may be associated with undescended or atrophic testis and infertility. The vast majority of cases progress to invasive germ cell tumors." |
| C40347 | An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of more than one malignant epithelial histologic pattern. |
| C40349 | "An invasive breast adenocarcinoma characterised by the presence of non-neoplastic stromal osteoclastic giant cells.  The carcinomatous component is usually an invasive ductal carcinoma, although all other breast adenocarcinoma subtypes have also been described.  The prognosis depends on the characteristics of the adenocarcinomatous component, and is not related to the presence of the giant cells." |
| C4034 | The reemergence of laryngeal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C40350 | "An invasive ductal breast carcinoma, not otherwise specified, characterized by increased levels of human beta-chorionic gonadotropin in the serum.  Morphologic evidence of choriocarcinomatous differentiation is rare." |
| C40351 | "A very rare primary malignant tumor of the breast, characterized by an invasive breast carcinoma that co-exists with a melanoma component.  The vast majority of melanotic tumors that affect the breast are metastatic melanomas that originate in extra-mammary sites." |
| C40354 | "An invasive breast adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of tall columnar neoplastic cells that contain intracytoplasmic mucin.  Grossly, cystic changes are identified." |
| C40355 | "An invasive breast adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of tall columnar neoplastic cells that contain intracytoplasmic mucin.  Grossly, cystic changes are not identified." |
| C40356 | A poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the breast.  It is characterized by the presence of large neuroendocrine cells and high mitotic activity. |
| C40357 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the breast parenchyma and is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells that exhibit keratinization. |
| C40358 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the breast parenchyma and is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped malignant cells. |
| C40359 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the breast parenchyma and is characterized by cellular discohesion resulting in a pseudoangiosarcomatous pattern. |
| C4035 | "A differentiated adenocarcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland.  Radiation exposure is a risk factor and it is the most common malignant thyroid lesion, comprising 75% to 80% of all thyroid cancers in iodine sufficient countries.  Diagnostic procedures include thyroid ultrasound and fine needle biopsy.  Microscopically, the diagnosis is based on the distinct characteristics of the malignant cells, which include enlargement, oval shape, elongation, and overlapping of ... |
| C40360 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast usually affecting post-menopausal women, characterized by extensive spindle cell metaplasia of the neoplastic glandular cells." |
| C40361 | "An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of tubular and glandular neoplastic cell structures, admixed with islands of neoplastic cells showing squamous differentiation." |
| C40362 | A low grade metaplastic carcinoma of the breast with morphologic features similar to the adenosquamous carcinoma of the skin.  In the majority of cases the prognosis is excellent. |
| C40363 | "An invasive, non-metastasizing neoplasm with sweat duct differentiation that arises in the area of the nipple.  Local recurrences have been reported." |
| C40364 | "An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of a mesenchymal cellular component.  The mesenchymal cellular component ranges from cartilaginous and osseous, to purely sarcomatous." |
| C40365 | An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of cytoplasmic neutral lipids in the vast majority of the malignant cells. |
| C40366 | A rare breast adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant oncocytic cells. The oncocytic cells comprise more than 70 percent of the malignant cellular population. |
| C40367 | A breast adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of serous (acinic cell) differentiation. |
| C40368 | "An uncommon, usually aggressive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by the presence of clear cells that contain glycogen." |
| C40369 | A very rare breast adenocarcinoma with sebaceous differentiation. |
| C4036 | "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by an anemia in which 15% or more of the erythroid precursors are ring sideroblasts.  The ring sideroblast is an erythroid precursor in which one third or more of the nucleus is encircled by granules which are positive for iron stain. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C40370 | Carcinoma that is detected in one breast within two months from the diagnosis of carcinoma in the other breast. |
| C40374 | Invasive breast carcinoma measuring 1 mm or less in size. |
| C40375 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the breast.  It is the most common type of primary breast lymphoma. |
| C40376 | A Burkitt lymphoma that arises from the breast.  It usually affects pregnant or lactating women and presents with bilateral breast involvement and breast swelling. |
| C40377 | A follicular lymphoma that arises from the breast as a primary tumor. |
| C40378 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the skin of the breast secondary to radiation treatment for breast cancer. |
| C40379 | An angiosarcoma arising from the skin of the arm following radical mastectomy and resulting lymphedema. |
| C4037 | An acute myeloid leukemia that develops in patients with a prior history of myelodysplastic syndrome. |
| C40381 | A benign diffuse vascular proliferation in the breast.  It is characterized by the formation of capillary-sized and cavernous vascular spaces. |
| C40382 | "A benign, well circumscribed neoplasm that arises from the breast. Representative examples include tubular adenoma and ductal adenoma." |
| C40383 | "A rare, benign and well circumscribed neoplasm that arises from the breast.  It is characterized by the proliferation of epithelial cells with extensive apocrine metaplasia." |
| C40384 | "A benign, well circumscribed neoplasm that is located within the lumen of a duct in the breast parenchyma.  It is characterized by the presence of glandular structures at the periphery and fibrous tissue at the center of the tumor." |
| C40385 | A multifocal neoplastic process characterized by the proliferation of spindle to cuboidal myoepithelial cells within and/or around small breast ducts. |
| C40386 | A neoplastic process characterized by the proliferation of spindle to cuboidal myoepithelial cells in and around small breast ducts exhibiting cytologic atypia and mitotic activity. |
| C40387 | A neoplastic process characterized by the proliferation of spindle to cuboidal myoepithelial cells within small breast ducts. |
| C40388 | A neoplastic process characterized by the proliferation of spindle to cuboidal myoepithelial cells around small breast ducts. |
| C40389 | "A benign or malignant tumor that arises from the breast and originates from or is composed of myoepithelial cells.  Representative examples include adenomyoepithelioma, myoepitheliosis, and malignant myoepithelioma." |
| C4038 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the lung. It is characterized by the presence of uniform polygonal cells with small or moderate amount of cytoplasm and inconspicuous nucleoli. The cells are usually arranged in organoid and trabecular patterns. It is classified as grade 1 (G1-typical carcinoid tumor) or grade 2 (G2-atypical carcinoid tumor) based on the number of mitotic figures and the absence or presence of necrosis. Grade 2 neuroendocrine tumors have a worse p... |
| C40391 | "An uncommon variant of breast adenosis characterized by the presence of irregularly shaped glands, epithelial cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm, and prominent myopepithelial cells.  Mild atypia may be present." |
| C40392 | "A benign or malignant tumor characterized by the presence of cells that show myoepithelial differentiation. Based on its morphologic features, it is classified as benign or malignant. A representative example of benign myoepithelioma is benign salivary gland myoepithelioma. Representative examples of malignant myoepithelioma or myoepithelial carcinoma are malignant breast myoepithelioma and salivary gland myoepithelial carcinoma." |
| C40393 | A benign or malignant tumor that arises from the salivary glands.  It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with myoepithelial differentiation.  This category includes benign myoepithelioma and myoepithelial carcinoma. |
| C40395 | "An invasive malignant tumor that arises from the breast.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped myoepithelial cells.  Mitoses are present.  Rarely, local recurrences and distant metastases have been reported." |
| C40396 | A hemangiopericytoma arising from the breast. |
| C40397 | A myofibroblastoma occurring in the breast of both women and men.  It presents as a slowly growing mass. |
| C40398 | "A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the breast.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes, and plasma cells." |
| C40399 | "A well-circumscribed benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the breast. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C4039 | An adenocarcinoma that has spread to other regions from an unknown primary anatomic site. |
| C40400 | "A usually benign neoplasm that arises from the breast.  It presents as a single, firm, and painless mass.  It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with eosinophilic granular cytoplasm." |
| C40401 | "A benign, circumscribed and usually encapsulated lesion of the breast.  It contains all the components of the breast tissue." |
| C40402 | A breast hamartoma characterized by the presence of adipose tissue that contains entrapped glands. |
| C40403 | A breast hamartoma characterized by the presence of brown fat that contains entrapped glands. |
| C40404 | A breast hamartoma characterized by the predominance of a smooth muscle component. |
| C40405 | "A benign, malignant, or borderline biphasic neoplasm that arises from the breast parenchyma. It is characterized by the presence of an epithelial and a mesenchymal (stromal) component. The typical examples are fibroadenoma and phyllodes tumor." |
| C40406 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the breast." |
| C40407 | "An embryonal pediatric tumor of the kidney which may also be seen rarely in adults. The peak incidence of Wilms tumor is between the second and fifth year of life. Microscopically, it is composed of a mixture of cellular elements (blastemal, stromal, and epithelial). The most common sites of metastasis include the regional lymph nodes, lungs, and liver." |
| C40408 | "A rare, benign and well circumscribed neoplasm that arises from the breast.  It is characterized by the proliferation of epithelial and myoepithelial cells surrounded by chondroid stroma." |
| C40409 | "A benign, slow-growing tumor composed of cells that demonstrate both epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation. It is the most common neoplasm of salivary gland origin, and mostly occurs in the parotid gland. The average age of patients has been reported to be 43 years; women are more often affected than men. The malignant change rate has been estimated to be 6%. The malignant counterpart is carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma." |
| C4040 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the buccal mucosa. |
| C40410 | "A carcinoma that arises from a pleomorphic adenoma in the salivary glands.  It usually originates in the parotid gland.  Patients usually present with a history of a long-standing tumor mass which grew rapidly in the past few months.  Patients with non-invasive or minimally invasive carcinoma have an excellent prognosis.  In cases where there is invasion of the surrounding tissues, the clinical course is aggressive." |
| C4041 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the floor of the mouth. |
| C40423 | A hamartoma that occurs in the brain. |
| C40424 | A hamartoma characterized by the presence of cartilaginous elements. |
| C40425 | A hamartomatous lesion which is present at birth. |
| C40426 | A benign hamartomatous lesion composed predominantly of adipose tissue. |
| C40427 | A hamartoma characterized by the presence of mesenchymal elements. |
| C4042 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the lip.  It affects males more often than females and it usually involves the lower lip.  Risk factors include UV exposure, alcohol consumption, smoking, and immunosuppression." |
| C40434 | A juvenile granulosa cell tumor that involves both ovaries. |
| C40435 | "A rare, lethal congenital malformation characterized by bilateral renal agenesis and the absence or decreased volume of amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios). The presence of oligohydramnios gives rise to congenital anomalies that include hypoplastic lungs, lower extremities abnormalities, and characteristic facial features (low-set ears, widely separated eyes, nose flattening, and receding chin). Newborn infants usually die of respiratory failure." |
| C40436 | A sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the ovary in a patient diagnosed with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. |
| C40439 | "An undifferentiated small cell carcinoma that arises from the ovary and is associated with hypercalcemia.  Electron microscopic studies show neurosecretory granules are either absent or, when present, are in small numbers." |
| C4043 | "A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the hypopharynx.  Signs and symptoms include dysphagia, hemoptysis, and the presence of a neck mass." |
| C40440 | "An aggressive small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the ovary.  Morphologically, it resembles the small cell carcinoma that arises from the lung." |
| C40442 | A rare malignant trophoblastic tumor that arises from the ovary as a result of ectopic ovarian pregnancy.  There is no germ cell component present. |
| C40443 | An embryonal neoplasm arising from the ovary with morphologic features resembling Wilms tumor of the kidney.  It occurs during the reproductive age and may present as a rapidly growing adnexal mass. |
| C40444 | A rare malignant mesothelial neoplasm that usually involves both the ovarian surface and the ovarian stroma.  In most cases there is bilateral ovarian involvement. |
| C40445 | A non-neoplastic and self-limited condition that occurs during pregnancy. It is characterized by proliferation of luteinized stromal cells that replace the normal ovarian stromal cells. It is usually manifested with bilateral multinodular ovarian masses. Treatment is not required. |
| C40446 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that usually affects postmenopausal women.  It is characterized by the leuteinization of ovarian stromal cells.  The ovaries are bilaterally involved and enlarged.  When it affects women in reproductive age, it causes virilization, high blood pressure, and increased insulin levels." |
| C40447 | A non-neoplastic disorder that usually affects postmenopausal women.  It is characterized by proliferation of ovarian stromal cells without evidence of atypia.  There is usually bilateral ovarian involvement.  The ovaries may or may not be enlarged. |
| C4044 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the larynx.  It is the most common histologic type of laryngeal carcinoma.  It can arise from the glottis, supraglottic area, or it can be transglottic.  Glottic squamous cell carcinoma is the most frequent laryngeal carcinoma in the United States.  The symptoms, clinical behavior and the prognosis depend on the site of origin within the larynx." |
| C40455 | Fallopian tube carcinoma that has developed in relatives of patients that have a history of fallopian tube carcinoma. |
| C4045 | An oligodendroglioma that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C40463 | "An autosomal dominant hereditary neoplastic syndrome caused by mutations in the PMS2, MLH1, or MSH2 genes. It is characterized by the presence of glioblastoma and the absence of familiar adenomatous polyposis. Patients often develop hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal carcinoma." |
| C40464 | An autosomal dominant hereditary neoplastic syndrome caused by mutations in the APC gene. It is characterized by the presence of medulloblastoma and familiar adenomatous polyposis. |
| C4046 | "Malignant neoplasms that develop in HIV infected patients.  The most common AIDS-related malignant neoplasms are Kaposi sarcoma, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, anal carcinoma, cervical carcinoma, and Hodgkin lymphoma." |
| C4047 | "A WHO grade 1, relatively circumscribed, slowly growing, often cystic astrocytoma occurring in children and young adults.  Histologically it is characterized by a biphasic pattern with compacted bipolar cells associated with Rosenthal fibers and multipolar cells associated with microcysts and eosinophilic bodies/hyaline droplets. (WHO)" |
| C4048 | A pilocytic astrocytoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C4049 | "A WHO grade 3 malignant glioma of ependymal origin with accelerated growth and an unfavorable clinical outcome, particularly in children. It is characterized by high mitotic activity, often accompanied by microvascular proliferation and pseudo-palisading necrosis. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C4050 | A WHO grade 2 tumor composed of a conspicuous mixture of two distinct neoplastic cell types morphologically resembling the tumor cells in oligodendroglioma and diffuse astrocytoma. (WHO) |
| C4051 | "A WHO grade 3 meningioma characterized by the presence of malignant morphologic features, including malignant cytology and a very high mitotic index (20 or more mitoses per ten high power fields)." |
| C4052 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vulva. It is classified as human papillomavirus-related or human papillomavirus-independent. When p16 immunohistochemistry or HPV testing is not available, the morphological diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma, not otherwise specified is acceptable." |
| C4054 | "A human papillomavirus-related neoplasm arising from the anus. Morphologically, it is characterized by an exophytic papillary proliferation of squamous cells and acanthosis." |
| C40553 | "A rare genetic disorder with an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is associated with mutations in the MSX-1 gene on chromosome 4 which alter ectodermal morphogenesis. Characteristic clinical signs include absent or poorly-formed dentition and brittle, spoon-shaped finger and toenails. Clinical course features an increased incidence of dental caries but is essentially benign." |
| C4057 | A benign intraluminal polypoid neoplasm of the esophagus.  It includes the squamous papilloma and the giant fibrovascular polyp. |
| C4058 |  |
| C4059 |  |
| C4060 | "A benign ovarian surface epithelial-stromal tumor characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by serous epithelial cells, mucinous columnar epithelial cells, or endometrial-type well-differentiated cells." |
| C4061 | A papillomatous lesion that arises from the eyelid. |
| C4063 | "A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from smooth, skeletal, or cardiac muscle." |
| C4064 | "A neoplastic proliferation of the epithelial cells that line the acini and the ducts of the prostate gland.  The neoplastic epithelial cells are confined within the acini and the ducts and they do not invade the surrounding prostatic stroma.  Morphologically, it is classified as low or high grade." |
| C4065 | Abnormal secretion of hormones in conjunction with neoplastic growth occurring anywhere in the body. |
| C4068 | An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a trabecular glandular architectural pattern. |
| C4070 | "The most common form of the skin disorder lentigo, characterized by a single or multiple benign, pigmented macules of unknown etiology that are present at birth or develop in early childhood." |
| C4071 | "A non-neoplastic disorder characterized by a localized collection of histiocytes containing lipid.  Xanthomas usually occur in the skin and subcutaneous tissues, but occasionally they may involve the deep soft tissues.  -- 2003" |
| C4072 | An adenocarcinoma of the cervix or the vagina that derives from Wolffian duct remnants and shows mesonephric differentiation. |
| C4073 | A rare sarcoma arising from the meninges. |
| C4074 | A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of large noncleaved cells. This is a subtype of diffuse large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma. |
| C4075 | "Swelling and inflammation of the nerve between the ends of the metatarsal bones at the base of the toes.  It is caused by compression of the nerve, usually between the third and fourth toes.  It results in a burning, sharp pain and numbness on the bottom of the foot in the area involved.  Symptoms may resolve by resting the foot, taking anti-inflammatory drugs, applying ice packs, or injecting cortisone at the site.  Persistent symptoms require surgical excision of the affected nerve." |
| C4076 | An intestinal infection with Isospora belli. |
| C4083 | "A polyp found mainly in the stomach and colon.  Microscopically, it is characterized by elongated, serrated crypts lined by proliferative epithelium.  Hyperplastic polyps are traditionally considered non-neoplastic, but ras mutation is common, clonality has been demonstrated and biochemical abnormalities and epidemiological associations that occur in colorectal adenomas and carcinomas have been found (WHO Tumors of the Digestive System, 2000)." |
| C4087 | "A rare, usually solitary, benign epithelial tumor of the skin that appears to arise from a hair follicle. It usually develops in the head and neck region as a nodular lesion with a central keratotic plug." |
| C4088 | "A benign, pigmented skin growth caused by an overgrowth of the epidermis. It is typically seen at birth, but can develop in early childhood or later in life. Most cases are sporadic, but familial patterns of inheritance have been observed." |
| C4089 | A condition characterized by the presence of numerous polyps. |
| C4090 | A malignant neoplasm characterized by then presence of atypical giant cells. |
| C4092 | "A neoplasm that arises from epithelial cells and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4094 | A usually aggressive malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of cells with significant cytologic atypia and nuclear pleomorphism. |
| C40957 | A morphologic variant of testicular seminoma characterized by the presence of seminoma cells arranged in cribriform patterns and few lymphocytes. |
| C40958 | A morphologic variant of testicular seminoma characterized by the presence of seminoma cells arranged in pseudoglandular patterns and few lymphocytes. |
| C40959 | A morphologic variant of testicular seminoma characterized by the presence of seminoma cells arranged in tubular patterns and few lymphocytes. |
| C40962 | A rare malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of embryoid bodies. |
| C40970 | A neoplastic lymphoproliferative process characterized by an angiocentric arrangement of tumor cells and associated angiodestruction. It includes lymphomatoid granulomatosis which is a lymphoproliferative lesion derived from mature B-lymphocytes and cases of extranodal NK/T-cell lymphomas of nasal type. |
| C4099 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of malignant small cells of intermediate shape. |
| C4101 | "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern, lack of significant cytologic atypia, and a wart-like appearance." |
| C4102 | "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary, exophytic growth pattern and hyperkeratosis. The most commonly affected anatomic sites are the larynx, penis, cervix, vagina, and vulva." |
| C4104 | A carcinoma that arises from squamous cells and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C4105 | Squamous cell carcinomas with morphologically prominent production of keratin. |
| C4106 | A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by cellular discohesion of the tumor cells that results in the formation of pseudolumina resembling glandular structures. |
| C4107 | "A nonkeratinizing carcinoma which occurs predominantly in the nasopharynx but also in the tonsils and rarely in other anatomic sites.  It is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, syncytial growth pattern, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate." |
| C4108 | A superficial basal cell carcinoma of the skin characterized by the presence of lobules of basaloid cells which are separated by large distances and represent multifocal discrete tumors. |
| C4109 | "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as an elevated or erythematous nodular lesion usually in the back. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of cords of basaloid cells extending from the epidermis into the dermis, creating a fenestrating pattern. It follows an indolent course." |
| C4110 | "A rare cutaneous lesion presenting as a scaly verrucous plaque. Morphologically, the plaque contains nests of basaloid cells." |
| C4112 | "A hair follicle lesion that presents as a solitary, colored, dome-shaped small papule. It consists of a central cystic follicular infundibulum from which numerous smaller hair follicles emanate into the surrounding dermis. The clinical course is benign." |
| C4113 | "A benign neoplasm arising from the outer hair sheath and infundibulum. It occurs in the head and neck, usually on the face. It usually presents as an exophytic wart-like lesion or a dome-shaped lesion with a smooth surface. Morphologically, it is characterized by the proliferation of cuboidal cells with clear or eosinophilic cytoplasm in the dermis with connection to the epidermis/hair follicle. There is peripheral cellular palisading, and the lesion is surrounded by a hyaline band." |
| C4114 | "A very rare, locally aggressive, malignant neoplasm of the hair follicle. The majority of the cases arise de novo, however malignant transformation from a pre-existing pilomatricoma has been reported. It usually presents as a solitary nodule in the head and neck, upper extremities, or buttocks. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of aggregates of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Masses of ghost cells are present in the cellular aggregates. Complete surgical excision ... |
| C4115 | A benign papillary neoplasm composed of transitional cells which show preservation of the nuclear polarity. |
| C4116 | A lesion in which the surface epithelium of the bladder or the renal pelvis and ureter contains transitional cells which display malignant cytologic characteristics.  There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C4117 | "A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses.  It is classified as inverted papilloma, oncocytic papilloma, and exophytic papilloma. Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and anosmia." |
| C4118 | A benign papillary neoplasm composed of transitional cells and characterized by an endophytic growth pattern. |
| C4120 | A poorly differentiated transitional cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with spindle cell morphologic features. |
| C4121 | "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with hyperchromatic nuclei, small amount of cytoplasm, and peripheral nuclear palisading." |
| C41232 | "Polycythemia vera characterized by the proliferation of the erythroid, granulocytic, and megakaryocytic lineages. The peripheral blood shows excess of red blood cells, neutrophilia, and thrombocytosis. The bone marrow is hypercellular for the patient's age." |
| C41233 | "Progression of polycythemia vera characterized by decreased erythropoiesis and granulopoiesis, reticulin and collagen fibrosis of the bone marrow, leucoerythroblastic reaction in the peripheral blood, poikilocytosis, tear-drop shaped red blood cells, and splenomegaly." |
| C41237 | Primary myelofibrosis characterized by bone marrow hypercellularity and the presence of atypical megakaryocytes. There is no increase in the percentage of myeloblasts and no significant increase in reticulin or collagen fibrosis in the bone marrow. |
| C41238 | Primary myelofibrosis characterized by reticulin or collagen fibrosis in the bone marrow. The bone marrow is usually normocellular or hypocellular. Myeloblasts account for less than 10% of the bone marrow cells. Atypical megakaryocytes are present. |
| C4123 | A lesion in which the normally situated glands are partially or completely replaced by atypical cells with malignant characteristics. |
| C41245 | "A non-invasive malignant cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the exocrine pancreas. It occurs almost exclusively in women. Small tumors are usually found incidentally. Larger tumors usually produce symptoms related to compression of the adjacent structures. It is characterized by the presence of columnar, mucin-producing epithelial cells which often form papillary projections with irregular branching and budding. There is cellular stratification, severe dysplasia, and high mitotic activ... |
| C41246 | "A cystic epithelial neoplasm that arises from the exocrine pancreas and is characterized by the presence of columnar mucin-producing epithelial cells, ovarian-type stroma formation, and a focal or extensive invasive carcinomatous component." |
| C41247 | A cystic epithelial neoplasm that arises from the exocrine pancreas and affects almost exclusively females. It is characterized by the presence of columnar mucin-producing epithelial cells and ovarian-type stroma formation. This category includes non-invasive pancreatic mucinous-cystic neoplasms (low-or high-grade) and pancreatic mucinous-cystic neoplasms with an associated invasive carcinoma. |
| C41248 | A benign or malignant epithelial neoplasm that is usually cystic and arises from the exocrine pancreas.  It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that produce fluid similar to serum.  Representative examples include serous cystadenoma and serous cystadenocarcinoma. |
| C41249 | "A non-invasive pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that form a single layer and are well polarized.  The neoplastic cells exhibit small and uniform nuclei, mild pleomorphism, and rare mitotic figures." |
| C4124 | An adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C41251 | "A non-invasive pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that exhibit loss of polarity, nuclear stratification, hyperchromasia, and pleomorphism.  There is severe architectural atypia and frequent mitotic figures present." |
| C4125 | An adenocarcinoma which has spread within the mucosa without further invasion of the underlying tissues. |
| C4126 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from epithelium which has undergone intestinal metaplasia. Representative examples include gastric, gallbladder, and ampulla of Vater intestinal type adenocarcinomas." |
| C4127 | An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a diffuse cellular infiltrate which is composed of poorly cohesive cells with minimal or no glandular formations. Representative example is the gastric diffuse adenocarcinoma. |
| C4129 | "An epithelial, usually multiloculated neoplasm arising from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. It occurs predominantly in females. Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, abdominal pain, and jaundice. Morphologically, the cystic spaces are lined by columnar epithelium and contain mucinous or serous fluid." |
| C4130 | A mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts and it is associated with an invasive carcinomatous component. |
| C4131 | "A distinctive type of liver cell carcinoma that arises in non-cirrhotic livers and is seen predominantly in young patients.  The tumor cells are polygonal and deeply eosinophilic, and are embedded in a fibrous stroma.  The prognosis is similar to classical hepatocellular carcinoma that arises in non-cirrhotic livers, and better than hepatocellular carcinoma that arises in cirrhotic livers." |
| C4133 | "An adenoma arising from the glandular epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of a tubular architectural pattern. Most often it occurs in the large intestine, small intestine, and the stomach. The neoplastic epithelial cells show dysplastic features." |
| C41341 | "A social or emotional detachment, pathological retreat from objective reality, interpersonal contact and social involvement, as in some forms of schizophrenia, depression, or schizoid, avoidant, or schizotypal personality disorders." |
| C4134 | Adenocarcinomas that develop in colorectal adenomas in patients with a history of adenomatous polyposis coli. The mean age of development of adenocarcinoma is about 40 years. |
| C41352 | "Early yaws includes primary and secondary stages of yaws, endemic tropical treponemal nonvenereal infection: development of initial lesion at inoculation site followed by widespread dissemination of treponemes and generalized secondary granulomatous lesions that may relapse repeatedly." |
| C41353 | "An endemic, infectious, nonvenereal disease in humans that presents mainly in children younger than 15 years. The disease occurs primarily in warm, humid, tropical areas of Africa, Asia, South America, and Oceania, among poor rural populations where conditions of overcrowding and poor sanitation prevail. Infection with Treponema pertenue, a subspecies of Treponema pallidum, causes the disease." |
| C41354 | "Late yaws is the tertiary, non-contagious stage of yaws, endemic tropical treponemal nonvenereal infection. Late yaws is characterized by destructive and deforming lesions of the skin, bones, and joints." |
| C4135 | A condition in which multiple adenomas develop in the gastrointestinal tract. |
| C4136 | Adenocarcinomas that develop in gastrointestinal tract adenomas in patients with multiple adenomatous polyps. |
| C4137 | A carcinoma morphologically characterized by the presence of solid sheets of malignant epithelial cells in tissues. |
| C4138 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the appendix. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C4139 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of a mixture of neuroendocrine cells with morphologic and immunohistochemical characteristics of carcinoid tumor and malignant glandular cells. |
| C4140 | "A benign, well circumscribed lung neoplasm morphologically characterized by the presence of cystic spaces resembling alveoli, lined by a simple cuboidal epithelium. The cystic spaces are surrounded by a spindle cell stroma which may show myxoid changes. It is a solitary, usually peripheral lung lesion. Patients are usually asymptomatic and its discovery is an incidental finding during chest X-ray examination. Surgical excision is curative." |
| C4141 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from a villous adenoma. |
| C41426 | A neurofibroma characterized by the presence of scattered atypical or bizarre nuclei and smudgy chromatin in the absence of other worrisome features. (WHO 2020) |
| C41427 | A neurofibroma characterized by the presence of areas with increased cellularity. |
| C4142 | An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a villous architectural pattern. It may arise from a villous adenoma. |
| C41430 | "A benign, usually encapsulated slow growing tumor of the peripheral nervous system composed of Schwann cells.  It recurs infrequently and only rare cases associated with malignant transformation have been reported." |
| C4143 | "An adenoma arising from the glandular epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of a tubular and a villous architectural pattern. Most often it occurs in the large intestine, small intestine, and the stomach. The neoplastic epithelial cells show dysplastic features." |
| C4144 | An intramucosal adenocarcinoma that arises from a tubulovillous adenoma. |
| C4145 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from a tubulovillous adenoma. |
| C4146 | "A type of carcinoma that comprises a minority of renal cell carcinomas.  It is characterized by loss of chromosomes 1 and Y.  Based on the cytoplasmic characteristics of the neoplastic cells, this type of carcinoma is classified as classic (typical), eosinophilic, or oncocytic.  It has a much better prognosis than other renal cell carcinomas." |
| C4147 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic dyes. |
| C4148 | An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic and basic dyes. |
| C4149 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic and basic dyes. |
| C4150 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with basic dyes. |
| C4151 | A benign neoplasm composed of glands containing epithelial clear cells. |
| C4152 | A carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm which contains neutral lipids. A representative example is the lipid-rich breast carcinoma. |
| C4153 | "A carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with abundant clear cytoplasm which contains glycogen. A representative example is the glycogen-rich, clear cell breast carcinoma." |
| C4154 | "A parathyroid gland adenoma composed predominantly of neoplastic chief cells.  These cells have either slightly eosinophilic or vacuolated cytoplasm, and round nuclei." |
| C4155 | "A rare parathyroid gland adenoma composed of neoplastic cells with abundant cytoplasm.  The cytoplasm of the neoplastic cells is usually not entirely clear, and is often variably vacuolated, foamy, and granular." |
| C4156 | "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear, often vacuolated or foamy cytoplasm." |
| C4157 | An adenoma characterized by the presence of a mixed epithelial cell population. |
| C4158 | An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a mixed malignant glandular cell population. |
| C4159 | An adenoma in which the neoplastic epithelial cells are admixed with adipose tissue cells. |
| C4160 | A thyroid gland adenoma composed of microfollicular structures. |
| C41617 | An intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that arises from the canals of Hering. |
| C41618 | An intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that produces abundant mucin. |
| C41619 | An intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma characterized by the presence of signet ring adenocarcinoma cells. |
| C4161 | A thyroid gland adenoma composed of large size follicles. |
| C41620 | "A rare, aggressive variant of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma.  It is characterized by the presence of adenocarcinoma cells that are intermingled with malignant pleomorphic spindle cells." |
| C4162 | "A benign, well circumscribed neoplasm arising from the cortex of the kidney. It secrets renin and the patients usually present with severe hypertension and marked hypokalemia. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of sheets of polygonal or spindle-shaped neoplastic cells forming a hemangiopericytic pattern." |
| C4163 | An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of neoplastic compact cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C4164 | "A usually functioning adenoma of the adrenal cortex. Grossly, it has a dark brown appearance and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells containing abundant intracytoplasmic lipofuscin. It may be associated with Cushing syndrome." |
| C4165 | An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of neoplastic clear cells containing intracytoplasmic lipid droplets. |
| C4166 | An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of neoplastic cells with cytologic features of glomerulosa cells. |
| C4167 | "An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of a mixed neoplastic cellular population, including varying numbers of neoplastic clear and compact cells." |
| C4168 | A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the apocrine sweat glands. Representative examples include tubular apocrine adenoma and external auditory canal ceruminous adenoma. |
| C4169 | A carcinoma with apocrine differentiation arising from the sweat glands. It presents as single or multiple nodular lesions which may be ulcerated or hemorrhagic and is usually in the axilla and less often in the anogenital region. It grows in the dermis and infiltrates subcutaneous tissues. It is characterized by the presence of large cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and large often vesicular nuclei. Most cases are slow growing tumors and have a prolonged course. |
| C4170 | "A benign epithelial neoplasm with eccrine or apocrine differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It usually presents as a solitary, well circumscribed, firm nodule in the face and upper trunk. It is characterized by the presence of basaloid cells forming nodules in the dermis. Cases of carcinoma arising from long standing spiradenomas have been reported." |
| C4171 | A benign neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. It presents as a slow growing cystic nodular lesion most often in the skin of the vulva and the perianal region. It is characterized by the presence of cystic and large papillary structures. The papillary structures contain connective tissue and are covered by two layers of epithelium. Complete excision is curative. |
| C4172 | "A benign adnexal neoplasm occurring during childhood or adolescence. It usually presents as a papular lesion or a plaque on the head and neck. It may arise in an organoid nevus such as sebaceous. It is characterized by an endophytic invagination of the epithelium into the dermis. There are dermal cystic spaces present, containing villous projections. Complete excision is curative." |
| C4174 | "A benign, well circumscribed neoplasm arising from the sebaceous glands. It usually presents as a small yellowish tumor in the sun exposed skin of head and neck. It is characterized by the presence of sebaceous cells aggregates with a peripheral rim of basaloid cells." |
| C4176 | An infiltrating adenocarcinoma derived from ceruminous glands in the external auditory canal. |
| C4177 | A serous cystic glandular epithelial neoplasm of low malignant potential. It is characterized by the presence of atypical or malignant glandular epithelial cells with an absence of stromal invasion. |
| C4178 | A serous or mucinous cystic glandular epithelial neoplasm of low malignant potential. It is characterized by the presence of atypical or malignant glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures with an absence of stromal invasion. |
| C4179 | "A benign, malignant, or borderline epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of papillary mucinous, serous, or clear cell structures and cystic structures." |
| C4180 | A serous benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures. |
| C4181 | A non-invasive papillary serous epithelial neoplasm usually arising from the ovary. |
| C4182 | "An invasive serous adenocarcinoma arising from the ovary and rarely the peritoneum. Morphologically, it may be a well, moderately, or poorly differentiated neoplasm. It is characterized by a papillary growth pattern often associated with the presence of psammoma bodies." |
| C4183 | A low malignant potential cystic serous epithelial neoplasm arising from the ovary. Cases with identical morphology have been described arising from the peritoneum as well. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial proliferation and a papillary growth pattern. There is no evidence of destructive stromal invasion. |
| C41842 | A classic form of gliomatosis cerebri. It is characterized by diffuse growth of neoplastic glial tissue without any focal mass. |
| C41843 | A classic form of gliomatosis cerebri. It is characterized by diffuse growth of neoplastic glial tissue without any focal mass. |
| C4184 | A usually benign and less often low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm composed of cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures. |
| C4186 | A low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm usually arising from the ovary. It is composed of glandular cells with intracytoplasmic mucin. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial proliferation and a papillary growth pattern. There is no evidence of destructive stromal invasion. |
| C4188 | A high grade carcinoma characterized by the presence of comedo-type tumor cell necrosis in which the necrotic areas are surrounded by a solid proliferation of malignant pleomorphic cells. |
| C4189 | "A rare, low grade invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by the presence of cells that secrete milk-like material. Morphologically, it usually appears as a circumscribed lesion, composed of cystic spaces, tubular structures, and solid areas." |
| C4190 | Breast ductal carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of filiform arborizing fibrovascular cores lined by neoplastic ductal epithelium. (WHO 2019) |
| C4192 | A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the nipple. Signs and symptoms include serous or sanguineous nipple discharge and nipple erosion. It is characterized by the presence of aggregates of small tubules replacing the nipple stroma. The tubules are lined by epithelial and myoepithelial cells. |
| C4193 | A medullary thyroid gland carcinoma characterized by the presence of amyloid stroma.  The majority of medullary carcinomas of the thyroid gland are associated with amyloid deposits.  The latter are highlighted with Congo red staining method. |
| C4194 | A term that refers to a large and heterogeneous group of invasive breast carcinomas that cannot be classified morphologically as any of the special histological types. (WHO 2019) |
| C4195 | "The co-existence of ductal and lobular carcinoma in situ in the breast, without evidence of stromal invasion." |
| C4196 | A benign glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns. |
| C4197 | A benign or malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns. It includes the acinar cell adenoma and acinar cell carcinoma. |
| C4198 |  |
| C4199 | "A malignant neoplasm which occurs mostly in the major salivary glands (most frequently in the parotid gland), but also in the minor salivary glands of the oral mucosa and the tracheobronchial tree. It is characterized by the presence of ductal structures which are lined by an inner layer of cuboidal epithelial-type cells and an outer layer of myoepithelial cells with clear or eosinophilic cytoplasm." |
| C4200 | An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of focal or extensive transformation of malignant glandular cells to squamous epithelial cells. |
| C4201 | An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by focal or extensive transformation of the malignant glandular cells to spindle-shaped cells. |
| C4202 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by focal or extensive transformation of the malignant glandular cells to cells with abundant, usually granular eosinophilic cytoplasm." |
| C4203 | A variant of ovarian thecoma characterized by the presence of lutein cells. It is associated with a lower frequency of estrogenic manifestations compared to typical thecomas. In a minority of cases androgenic manifestations are present. |
| C42046 | A neuroblastoma characterized by the absence of differentiating neuroblasts. |
| C42047 | A neuroblastoma in which the differentiating neuroblasts constitute less than five-percent of the tumor cells. |
| C42048 | A neuroblastoma in which the differentiating neuroblasts constitute more than five-percent of the tumor cells. |
| C4204 | A benign ovarian stromal tumor characterized by the presence of cellular areas which contain fibroblasts and round cells. The cellular areas are separated by sclerotic or edematous hypocellular tissue. Symptoms include abdominal discomfort and menstrual abnormalities. |
| C42057 | "A ganglioneuroblastoma characterized by the presence of neuroblastic cells in a Schwannian stroma, without the presence of hemorrhagic neuroblastic nodules." |
| C42058 | "A ganglioneuroblastoma characterized by the presence of neuroblastic cells in a Schwannian stroma, and the formation of hemorrhagic neuroblastic nodules." |
| C42059 | A neuroblastic tumor characterized by the presence of a ganglioneuroblastoma component and the formation of Schwannian stroma which constitutes more than fifty-percent of the tumor volume. |
| C4205 | A granulosa cell tumor which has an aggressive clinical course and metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C42060 | A neuroblastic tumor characterized by the presence of a ganglioneuroblastoma component and the formation of Schwannian stroma which is the predominant component of the tumor volume. |
| C42064 | "A ganglioneuroma characterized by the presence of differentiating neuroblasts, maturing and mature ganglion cells." |
| C42065 | A ganglioneuroma characterized by the presence of mature ganglion cells and a mature Schwannian stroma. |
| C4207 | "A sex cord-stromal tumor occurring in the ovary and testis. In females it occurs predominantly in the first three decades of life and presents unilaterally as stage I disease in the vast majority of cases. It is characterized by the presence of granulosa cells forming macrofollicular structures. The majority of cases have a good prognosis. In males it represents the most frequent congenital testicular neoplasm, and the vast majority of cases occur in the perinatal period. It presents as a s... |
| C42080 | A neoplasm that arises from the choroid plexus in the brain and occurs during childhood. |
| C42086 | Vertical strabismus in which there is permanent downward deviation of the visual axis of one eye. |
| C4208 | An ovarian sex cord-stromal tumor characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming annular tubules. It may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. Cases associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have followed a benign clinical course. Cases which are not associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have been reported having a clinically malignant course. |
| C4209 | A Sertoli-Leydig tumor of the ovary characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells in tubules without evidence of significant nuclear atypia or mitotic activity. Primitive gonadal stromal cells are not present. It usually follows a benign clinical course. |
| C4210 | A Sertoli-Leydig tumor of the ovary characterized by the presence of a sarcomatoid stroma which contains primitive gonadal stromal cells. It may behave in a malignant fashion and metastasize to other anatomic sites. |
| C4211 | A Sertoli cell tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of cells that are distended by the presence of intracytoplasmic lipid. |
| C4212 | "A Leydig cell tumor which does not recur or metastasize. Morphologically, there is no evidence of cellular atypia, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, or vascular invasion." |
| C4213 | "A Leydig cell tumor characterized by large tumor size, the presence of cytologic atypia, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, and vascular invasion. Approximately 10% of the testicular Leydig cell tumors show malignant characteristics and metastasize. Leydig cell tumors of the ovary follow a benign clinical course." |
| C4214 | A benign Leydig cell tumor which arises in the hilar area of the ovary. |
| C4215 | An ovarian tumor in which the vast majority of the cells (more than 90% of the tumor cells) resemble steroid hormone-secreting cells. It usually presents with androgenic manifestations. Approximately one-third of the cases follow a malignant clinical course. |
| C4216 | "A paraganglioma arising from the chromaffin cells of the paraganglia that are located along the sympathetic nerves.  It includes extra-adrenal paragangliomas and paragangliomas that arise from the adrenal medulla.  The latter are commonly referred to as pheochromocytomas.  Representative examples of extra-adrenal sympathetic paragangliomas include the bladder, and superior and inferior paraaortic paragangliomas.  Clinical signs are related to the secretion of catecholamines resulting in hyp... |
| C4217 | "An extra-adrenal paraganglioma that arises from paraganglia located along the parasympathetic nerves.  Representative examples include aorticopulmonary, carotid body, jugulotympanic, and mediastinal paragangliomas." |
| C4218 | An extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma that arises from paraganglia adjacent to the base of the heart and great vessels. |
| C4219 | "An extra-adrenal paraganglioma that metastasizes to regional or distant anatomic sites.  Common sites of metastasis include the lymph nodes, lungs, bones, and liver." |
| C4220 | "A pheochromocytoma that metastasizes to other anatomic sites.  Common sites of metastasis include lymph nodes, bones, liver, and lung.  Morphologic features associated with malignant pheochromocytomas include: atypical mitotic figures, capsular and vascular invasion, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic activity." |
| C4221 | "A very rare morphologic variant of glomus tumor with a size greater than 2 cm.  The tumor arises in subfascial or visceral tissues. It is characterized by the presence of atypical mitotic figures, or marked nuclear atypia, or the combination of both.  It has an aggressive clinical course." |
| C4222 | "A glomus tumor characterized by the presence of dilated veins, surrounded by small clusters of glomus cells." |
| C4223 | A morphologic variant of the glomus tumor with architectural features similar to solid glomus tumor.  It is characterized by the presence of elongated glomus cells which resemble mature smooth muscle. |
| C4225 | Nodular melanoma that arises from the skin. It may or may not arise from a pre-existing nevus. |
| C4226 | "A nevus that arises from the skin and is characterized by the presence of large melanocytes with clear, foamy, or finely vacuolated cytoplasm. It may recur if it is not completely excised." |
| C4227 | "A rare variant of melanoma with a vertical growth phase. It presents as a nodular or polypoid skin lesion. It is characterized by the presence of nodules which contain large melanoma cells with clear, foamy or finely vacuolated cytoplasm. The prognosis is similar to that of other melanomas matched for depth of invasion." |
| C4228 | "A skin lesion characterized by the disappearance of the melanoma cells from the primary melanoma site. The disappearance of the malignant cells is associated with fibroplasia of the papillary dermis. According to some authors, complete regression of the primary melanoma may occur in 4-8% of patients." |
| C4229 | An intradermal nevus characterized by the presence of nests of atrophic nevus cells which are hyalinized and resemble nerve bundles. |
| C4230 | "A benign neoplastic melanocytic proliferation within or adjacent to the optic disk. It presents as a pigmented, intraocular tumor." |
| C4231 | "A cutaneous nevus characterized by the presence of an intraepidermal proliferation of nevus cells. The nevus cells form multiple nests in the dermal-epidermal junction. It presents as a small, slightly raised, pigmented skin lesion." |
| C4232 | A melanoma arising from a melanocytic nevus which involves the dermal-epidermal junction of the skin. |
| C4233 |  |
| C4234 | "A cutaneous congenital nevus that measures more than 200 mm or is unresectable. It usually presents as a dark brown to black hairy lesion. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of a compound or intradermal nevus. There is an increased risk of malignant transformation to melanoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and poorly differentiated malignant tumors." |
| C4235 | A melanoma arising in a giant congenital melanocytic nevus. The risk of developing a melanoma in a giant congenital melanocytic nevus has been reported to be between 5% and 50%. The incidence of developing melanoma is higher before the age of 10 and in adult life. |
| C4236 | A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes. |
| C4237 | A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes. |
| C4238 | A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with slender nuclei and no visible nucleoli. Representative example is the type A spindle cell uveal melanoma. |
| C4239 | A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with larger nuclei and distinct nucleoli. Representative example is the type B spindle cell uveal melanoma. |
| C4240 | "A rare melanoma which develops in a pre-existing blue nevus. It occurs more frequently on the scalp, face, orbit, back, buttocks, extremities, hands, and feet." |
| C4241 | "A blue nevus characterized by a multinodular cellular infiltrate with a dumb-bell architecture occupying the reticular dermis. The cellular infiltrate often extends into the subcutaneous tissue. The cellular infiltrate is composed of spindle-shaped melanocytes with pale cytoplasm alternating with bundles of pigmented spindle-shaped melanocytes. In occasional cases an increased mitotic activity, focal necrosis, and nuclear pleomorphism may be seen. Such cases with atypical features may have ... |
| C4242 | "A neoplasm that arises from soft tissue and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4243 | The occurrence of several sarcomas in different anatomic locations. |
| C4244 | "A fibrosarcoma that occurs in infants.  It shares identical morphologic features with adult fibrosarcoma but carries the t(12;15)(p13;q25) translocation that results in ETV6-NTRK3 gene fusion.  It usually affects the superficial and deep soft tissues of the extremities.  The prognosis is generally much more favorable than for adult fibrosarcoma, and it rarely metastasizes." |
| C4245 | "A benign, slow-growing tumor arising from the soft tissues usually in the mid-thoracic region of the elderly. It is characterized by the presence of paucicellular collagenous tissue, adipocytes and a predominance of large coarse elastic fibers arranged in globules." |
| C4246 | "An intermediate cutaneous mesenchymal neoplasm of uncertain differentiation, usually affecting the actinic-damaged skin of the elderly.  The tumor presents as a single cutaneous nodule which is often ulcerated.  Microscopically, it is characterized by the presence of highly atypical cytologic features, pleomorphism and abundant mitotic figures. The vast majority of patients have an excellent prognosis following conservative therapy. Recurrences are infrequent, and metastasis is rare." |
| C4247 | An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma characterized by the presence of a pleomorphic malignant cellular infiltrate.  It is also known as malignant fibrous histiocytoma. |
| C4248 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm composed of adipose (fatty) tissue." |
| C4249 | "A benign well-circumscribed tumor composed of mature adipocytes, characterized by areas of abundant fibrous tissue." |
| C4251 | "A benign well-circumscribed tumor composed of mature adipocytes, characterized by areas of abundant fibrous tissue and extensive myxoid change." |
| C4252 | "A poorly differentiated liposarcoma, characterized by the presence of solid sheets of primitive round mesenchymal cells and the absence of myxoid stroma." |
| C4253 | A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of a combination of liposarcomatous morphologic subtypes: myxoid/round cell and well differentiated/dedifferentiated liposarcoma or myxoid/round cell and pleomorphic liposarcoma. |
| C4254 | "A benign circumscribed tumor composed of spindled cells, adipocytes, and collagen bundles.  There is no evidence of nuclear hyperchromasia or mitotic activity." |
| C4255 | A neoplastic process characterized by the presence of multiple lipoblastomas. |
| C4256 | A morphologic variant of classic leiomyoma characterized by a dense cellular infiltrate composed of spindle or round cells with scant cytoplasm and a less obvious interlacing fascicle pattern. |
| C4257 | A morphologic variant of leiomyoma characterized by the presence of pleomorphic muscle cells with bizarre hyperchromatic nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C42589 | A hamartoma that is characterized by the presence of chondroid elements. |
| C4258 | "An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation, occurring in adults and rarely in children.  The tumor is characterized by the presence of bizarre round, spindle, and polygonal cells.  Clinical presentation includes a rapidly enlarging painful mass usually of the lower extremities." |
| C42596 | A retinoblastoma that occurs in a patient without a family history of the disease. |
| C42598 | A well differentiated mucinous neoplasm that arises from the appendix.  It is characterized by slow growth and it is associated with the development of pseudomyxoma peritonei. |
| C4259 | "A rhabdomyosarcoma composed of embryonic and alveolar components. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with myoblastic differentiation, a myxoid stroma, and fibrous septa.  These tumors were previously considered variants of alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.  The lack of PAX3-FOXO1 fusions in most of these tumors suggests that are biologically and clinically related to embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma." |
| C4260 | A rare benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle. It is characterized by the presence of immature spindle and polygonal cells within a scant myxoid stroma. It usually develops in the head and neck region of young children. |
| C4261 | A benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle and occurring in adults. |
| C4262 | "A non-infiltrating, benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the uterine corpus. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells that resemble the cells of the proliferative phase of endometrial stroma and numerous thin-walled small vessels. It usually presents with abnormal uterine bleeding and menorrhagia." |
| C4263 | "An infiltrating mesenchymal tumor arising from the uterine corpus, cervix, vagina, and the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of oval to spindle-shape cells that resemble the cells of the endometrial stroma, without evidence of significant atypia and pleomorphism. Numerous small vessels are also present. It is usually characterized by indolent growth and late recurrences." |
| C4264 | "A rare pediatric sarcoma affecting the kidney. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid or spindle cells forming cords or nests, separated by fibrovascular septa. It metastasizes to lung, bone, brain and soft tissue." |
| C4265 | "A rare malignant epithelial neoplasm arising from the pancreas. The vast majority of cases occur during childhood. It is characterized by acinar differentiation, the formation of squamoid corpuscles, and the formation of stromal bands. Patients may present with an abdominal mass. Symptoms include pain, weight loss, and diarrhea. It may metastasize to lymph nodes, liver, and distant anatomic sites. Children who do not have metastatic disease at the time of diagnosis usually have a favorable ... |
| C4267 | "A term describing a benign soft tissue tumor which consists of two or more mesenchymal lines of differentiation, excluding a fibroblastic line of differentiation." |
| C4268 | "A term describing a malignant soft tissue tumor which consists of two or more mesenchymal lines of differentiation, excluding a fibroblastic line of differentiation." |
| C42690 | "A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the lip or the oral cavity.  The oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma usually arises from the buccal mucosa, tongue, or gums.  It occurs predominantly in adults who use tobacco and alcohol and has a tendency to metastasize early to lymph nodes." |
| C42700 | "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the uterine corpus and less often the cervix.  It is characterized by the presence of two components: a malignant epithelial component and a sarcomatous component.  In the uterine corpus the epithelial component is usually glandular whereas in the cervix is usually non-glandular.  Carcinosarcoma of the cervix, although it is aggressive, it may have a better prognosis compared to the uterine corpus carcinosarcoma." |
| C4270 | "A malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of an invasive malignant urothelial-type cellular component and nests of benign urothelial-type cells in a fibrotic stroma. When the neoplasm is confined to the ovary, the prognosis is good." |
| C4271 | A morphologic variant of breast fibroadenoma without clinical significance. It is characterized by distortion and compression of the ducts by proliferating stromal cells. |
| C4272 | A morphologic variant of breast fibroadenoma without clinical significance. It is characterized by circumferential proliferation of stromal cells around the ducts. This results in the formation of rounded ductal-epithelial structures. |
| C4273 | A breast fibroadenoma characterized by a very large size. This term has also been used as a synonym for juvenile fibroadenoma by some authors. The latter is characterized by epithelial hyperplasia and an increased stromal cellularity. |
| C4274 | "A benign, circumscribed fibroepithelial neoplasm arising from the breast and rarely the prostate gland. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial structures which are arranged in clefts and by a hypercellular mesenchymal stroma which is organized in leaf-like structures. There is no evidence of cellular atypia or sarcomatous features." |
| C4275 | "A phyllodes tumor with sarcomatous stroma. The sarcomatous component is usually of the fibrosarcomatous type. Liposarcomatous, chondrosarcomatous, osteosarcomatous, or rhabdomyosarcomatous differentiation may also occur in the stroma. It may recur and metastasize following surgical resection. The lung and skeleton are the anatomic sites most frequently involved by metastases." |
| C4276 | A breast fibroadenoma that usually occurs in young women. It is characterized by epithelial hyperplasia and an increased stromal cellularity. |
| C42779 | Acute myelomonocytic leukemia without an abnormal eosinophilic component in the bone marrow. |
| C4277 | A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of a spindle cell component only. |
| C4278 | A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of an epithelial cell component only. The epithelial cells are arranged in glandular or papillary structures. |
| C4279 | A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of both an epithelial and a spindle cell component. |
| C4281 | "A localized neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation, that arises from the pericardium. It is characterized by the presence of round to spindle-shaped cells, hylanized stroma formation, thin-walled branching blood vessels, and thin bands of collagen." |
| C4282 | "A malignant mesothelioma characterized by the presence of epithelioid and sarcomatoid components, with each component representing at least 10% of the tumor." |
| C4286 | "A teratoma characterized by the presence of an extensive component of immature, fetal-type tissues." |
| C4287 | A teratoma composed exclusively of immature tissues. |
| C4288 | An immature teratoma characterized by the presence of an intermediate amount of undifferentiated tissues. |
| C4289 | A teratoma which is characterized by morphologic transformation to malignancy and an aggressive clinical course. The malignant component most often is sarcomatous or carcinomatous. |
| C4290 | "A malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of at least two different germ cell tumor components. The different germ cell tumor components include choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, and seminoma. It occurs in the ovary, testis, and extragonadal sites including central nervous system and mediastinum." |
| C4291 | "A carcinoma with histological features identical to thyroid carcinoma, arising in ovarian mature teratoma with aberrant thyroid tissue (struma ovarii)." |
| C4292 | An ovarian neoplasm characterized by the presence of aberrant thyroid tissue and a carcinoid tumor. A minority of patients develop symptoms of functioning thyroid tissue. The neuroendocrine carcinoid cells infiltrate the aberrant thyroid tissue and progressively replace the follicular lining cells. |
| C4293 | A gestational trophoblastic disorder characterized by the presence of an abnormal fetus and two populations of chorionic villi: one population which is unremarkable and a second one which shows hydropic changes. |
| C4296 | A hemangioma composed of veins. |
| C4298 | A hemangioma characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells. |
| C4299 | "A rare skin vascular malformation characterized by the proliferation of numerous dilated and congested capillaries and venules in the papillary dermis. It is associated with overlying epidermal acanthosis, hyperkeratosis, parakeratosis, and papillomatosis. It most often affects the distal extremities and manifests with red-to-purple plaques." |
| C4300 | A hemangiopericytoma without malignant morphologic or clinical characteristics. |
| C4301 | An uncommon malignant neoplasm arising from pericytes.  Distinction between benign and malignant hemangiopericytoma may be difficult or even impossible on morphologic grounds alone. |
| C4302 | "A benign neoplasm of bone surface composed of hyaline cartilage.  It arises beneath the periosteum and is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, and calcification." |
| C4304 | "A malignant tumor that arises from the bone.  It is characterized by the presence of an area of high grade sarcoma in an otherwise typical giant cell tumor (primary malignancy in giant cell tumor), or the presence of sarcoma in which the pre-existing giant cell tumor may or may not be apparent (secondary malignancy in giant cell tumor)." |
| C4306 | "A benign, slow growing neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Representative examples include adenomatoid odontogenic tumor, calcifying cystic odontogenic tumor, and squamous odontogenic tumor." |
| C4308 | A rare benign bone-forming neoplasm usually arising from the jaw. It is a well-circumscribed lytic tumor that varies in size. The cell of origin is the cementoblast. |
| C4309 | "A benign, slow growing, and painless hamartomatous tumor occurring in tooth-bearing areas of the jaws. It is one of the most common odontogenic tumors and it usually affects children, adolescents, and young adults. It is characterized by the presence of enamel and dentin and the absence of tooth-like structures. It is treated with local excision. If it is incompletely removed, it may recur." |
| C4310 | "A benign, slow growing neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. The vast majority of cases are intraosseous and most often grow in the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium which is embedded in a connective tissue stroma. Local excision is curative and recurrences are very rare." |
| C4311 | A carcinoma usually arising from the maxilla and less often the mandible.  Symptoms include swelling and paresthesia.  It is characterized by the presence of rounded islands of malignant epithelial cells in a fibrous stroma and the benign features of calcifying cystic odontogenic tumor.  The clinical course varies from slow growing and locally invasive to rapidly growing and highly aggressive with metastases. |
| C4313 | "The most common odontogenic tumor, arising from the epithelial component of the embryonic tooth and usually affecting the molar-ramus region of the mandible or maxilla.  Although most ameloblastomas are morphologically and clinically benign, they may cause extensive local destruction, recur, or metastasize." |
| C4314 | "A rare, benign neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues in the mandible and maxilla (central odontogenic fibroma); and rarely from extraosseous tissues, usually in the gingiva (peripheral odontogenic fibroma). It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium that is embedded in a fibrous stroma. Local enucleation of the tumor is curative." |
| C4315 | "A rare, benign, extraosseous neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually presents as a slow growing exophytic mass in the gingiva. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium that is embedded in a fibrous stroma." |
| C4316 | A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually arises from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of an epithelial component and fibromyxoid stroma. It may recur and rarely shows malignant transformation to ameloblastic fibrosarcoma. It is treated with enucleation and curettage. |
| C4317 | A locally aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from odontogenic tissue. It occurs in the mandible and less often in the maxilla.  It is characterized by the presence of a malignant connective tissue component and a benign epithelial component.  The frequency of distal metastases is low. |
| C4318 | "A diffuse glial tumor which infiltrates the brain extensively, involving more than two lobes. It is frequently bilateral and often extends to the infratentorial structures, even to the spinal cord. It is probably of astrocytic origin, although GFAP expression may be scant or absent. (Adapted from WHO.)" |
| C4319 | "A rare variant of ependymoma characterized by well formed papillae. Tumor cell processes abutting capillaries are usually GFAP-positive. Differential diagnoses include choroid plexus papilloma, papillary meningioma and metastatic papillary carcinoma. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C4320 | "A rare variant of diffuse astrocytoma. It is predominantly composed of neoplastic astrocytes showing a small cell body with few, flaccid processes with a low content of glial filaments and scant GFAP expression. This lesion is not well defined and is considered by some authors as an occasional histopathological feature rather than a reproducibly identifiable variant. When occurring in children, this neoplasm may be difficult to separate from pilocytic juvenile astrocytoma. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C4321 | "A rare variant of diffuse astrocytoma. It is characterized by the presence of a conspicuous, though variable, fraction of gemistocytic neoplastic astrocytes. Gemistocytes are round to oval astrocytes with abundant, glassy, non-fibrillary cytoplasm which appears to displace the dark, angulated nucleus to the periphery of the cell. To make the diagnosis of gemistocytic astrocytoma, gemistocytes should amount to more than approximately 20% of all tumor cells. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C43223 | "Acute myeloid leukemia or myelodysplastic syndrome occurring in children with Down syndrome.  The acute myeloid leukemia is usually an acute megakaryoblastic leukemia, and is associated with GATA1 gene mutation." |
| C4322 | "The most frequent histological variant of diffuse astrocytoma. It is predominantly composed of fibrillary neoplastic astrocytes. Nuclear atypia is a diagnostic criterion but mitotic activity, necrosis and microvascular proliferation are absent.  The occasional or regional occurrence of gemistocytic neoplastic cells is compatible with the diagnosis of fibrillary astrocytoma. (WHO)" |
| C4323 | A WHO grade 2 astrocytic tumor with a relatively favorable prognosis.  It is characterized by pleomorphic and lipidized cells expressing GFAP often surrounded by a reticulin network and eosinophilic granular bodies. It presents in the superficial cerebral hemispheres and involves the meninges. It typically affects children and young adults. |
| C43245 | "Dysfunction of the corticospinal (pyramidal) tracts of the spinal cord. Symptoms include increased muscle tone in the lower extremities, hyperreflexia, positive Babinski, and decreased fine motor coordination." |
| C4324 | "A rare glial neoplasm characterized by structural rearrangements of the MN1 gene at chromosome band 22q12.1. It is usually found in the cerebral hemispheres of young adults and children and predominantly affects females. Morphologically, it consists of elongated glial cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and GFAP-positive processes, arranged perivascularly." |
| C4325 | "A rare histological variant of glioblastoma with a predominance of bizarre, multinucleated giant cells, an occasionally abundant stromal reticulin network, and a high frequency of TP53 mutations. (WHO)" |
| C43263 | "A disorder characterized by excretion of large amounts of urine, accompanied by excessive thirst. Causes include deficiency of antidiuretic hormone or failure of the kidneys to respond to antidiuretic hormone. It may also be drug-related." |
| C4326 | "A WHO grade 3 oligodendroglioma with focal or diffuse malignant morphologic features (prominent nuclear pleomorphism, mitoses, and increased cellularity)." |
| C43277 | Mastocytosis that manifests with pure cutaneous involvement. |
| C4327 | "A rare, usually aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm of the central nervous system occurring in children. It is characterized by the presence of neuroepithelial cells which form papillary, trabecular, or tubular structures and absence of C19MC amplification. Symptoms include headache, nausea, and vomiting." |
| C4328 | A neurofibroma characterized by the presence of structures which resemble Vater-Pacini corpuscles. |
| C43295 | An autosomal dominant inherited adenocarcinoma that arises from the gastric mucosa and is characterized by the presence of poorly cohesive malignant cells and absence of glandular formations. |
| C43298 | "A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas in a patient with a family history of pancreatic cancer.  In the minority of cases, patients have recognized genetic syndromes (e.g., FAMMM syndrome, BRCA2 syndrome, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome) however, in the majority of cases the genetic cause has not been identified." |
| C4329 | A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of tumor cells that form lobules. The tumor cells are generally uniform. Whorls and psammoma bodies are usually not present. |
| C43300 | An infection that is caused by Campylobacter jejuni. |
| C4330 | A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of spindle cells that form bundles in a collagen matrix. |
| C43310 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the hair follicle of the skin. |
| C43312 | "A trichoblastoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cell forming nodules. There are palisaded basaloid cells present at the periphery and pale larger cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and abundant cytoplasm present at the center of the nodules. The epithelial cells are admixed with numerous small lymphocytes and occasional large multinucleated cells that resemble Reed-Sternberg cells." |
| C43313 |  |
| C43315 | "A neoplasm that arises from the outer hair sheath and infundibulum. It is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C43316 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the outer hair sheath and infundibulum. |
| C4331 | A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of psammoma bodies that predominate over the meningeal cells. |
| C43322 | A trichoblastoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells forming cribriform patterns. |
| C43323 |  |
| C43324 | A neoplasm involving the outer hair sheath and infundibulum. |
| C43325 | "A rare, benign, slowly growing tumor of the hair follicle occurring usually in the face or buttocks.  Morphologically, it is a well-defined dermal tumor that contains numerous cysts and epithelial islands. The cysts are lined by infundibulum-like squamous epithelial cells." |
| C43326 | A rare malignant tumor arising from the outer hair sheath and infundibulum on the face. It is considered the malignant counterpart of tricholemmoma. Complete surgical excision is required. |
| C43327 | A rare proliferating trichilemmal tumor with malignant morphological characteristics and the potential for distant metastases. |
| C43328 |  |
| C43329 |  |
| C4332 | A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of small and medium sized vessels that predominate over the meningioma cells. |
| C43331 | "A rare hamartomatous papular lesion that arises from the hair follicle. It is characterized by the presence of a central dilated infundibulum from which epithelial strands and sebaceous glands emerge. The stroma is composed of collagen, spindle-shaped fibrocytes, and mucin. Patients with Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome may develop multiple follicular fibromas." |
| C43332 | A cutaneous leiomyoma arising from the erector muscle of the hair. |
| C43333 | A trichodiscoma characterized by the presence of abundant mucinous stroma and spindle-cell fibrocytic proliferation. |
| C43334 | A rare benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of a superficial and multilobular proliferation of neoplastic epithelial cells in the upper dermis with broad attachments to the basal layer of the epidermis. The tumor has well-defined borders. Sebaceous differentiation is present with mature sebocytes arranged in clusters or single cells at the periphery of the tumor. |
| C43336 | A benign neoplasm characterized by sebaceous cell differentiation. It arises from the dermis and typically affects the face and neck. |
| C4333 | A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the coexistence of meningothelial cells and fibrous architectural patterns. |
| C43340 | A carcinoma that arises from the sebaceous glands of the ocular adnexa and sebaceous glands of the eyelid and caruncle. |
| C43341 | A rare variant of sebaceous carcinoma that does not affect the ocular region. |
| C43342 | "A slow-growing, usually solitary, dome-shaped benign sweat gland adenoma, most frequently located on the eyelid.  It is characterized by a cystic proliferation of apocrine glands. Surgical excision is curative." |
| C43344 | A carcinoma that arises from a cylindroma. |
| C43345 | A very rare eccrine adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of prominent ductal differentiation. |
| C43346 | A variant of ductal eccrine carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle cells. |
| C43347 | A variant of ductal eccrine carcinoma characterized by the presence of two components: a squamous cell carcinoma component that is usually in the superficial to mid dermis and a ductal carcinoma component in the mid to deep dermis. |
| C43349 | A variant of ductal eccrine carcinoma characterized by the presence of abundant fibromyxoid stroma. |
| C4334 | "A rare condition characterized by diffuse spread of sarcoma cells throughout the meninges. The neoplastic cells are derived from meningeal connective tissue. Clinically, this disorder may present as a fulminant pachymeningitis and/or encephalitis." |
| C43351 | A cylindroma occurring as a solitary sporadic lesion. |
| C43352 | "A rare autosomal dominant genodermatosis associated with germline mutations of the CYLD tumor suppressor gene. It is characterized by the development of multiple adnexal tumors (usually cylindromas and trichoepitheliomas), typically in the skin of the scalp. It manifests with numerous papules and/or large dome-shaped nodules on the scalp, resembling a turban." |
| C43353 | A poroma characterized by the presence of cords and aggregates of neoplastic cells in the superficial dermis in connection with the epidermis. |
| C43354 | A porocarcinoma that is confined to the epidermis without evidence of dermal invasion. Approximately 10% of porocarcinomas are in situ lesions. |
| C43355 |  |
| C43356 | A rare benign eccrine lesion usually arising on acral areas as a solitary papule or nodule. Multiple lesions are referred as syringofibroadenomatosis. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial cuboidal cells forming anastomosing cords in a fibrovascular stroma. |
| C4335 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor which shows rhabdomyosarcomatous differentiation. More than half of the patients have neurofibromatosis type 1. The prognosis is usually poor. |
| C4336 | "An uncommon granular cell tumor that may metastasize to other anatomic sites. Morphologic characteristics include the presence of spindling neoplastic cells, necrosis, extensive pleomorphism, prominent nucleoli, and increased mitiotic activity." |
| C43372 | "An atypical proliferation of atypical melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction, without infiltration of the papillary or reticular dermis. The melanocytic proliferation is associated with actinic damage and epidermal atrophy.  It usually occurs in the sun-exposed skin of elderly people.  It is a form of melanoma in situ." |
| C4337 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small to medium sized B-lymphocytes (centrocytes). Most patients present with advanced stage disease with lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and bone marrow involvement. The gastrointestinal tract is the most commonly affected extranodal site by this type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The vast majority of cases express the t(11;14)(q13;q32) resulting in the rearrangement of the BCL-1 gene and the overexpression of cyclin D1 mRNA." |
| C4338 |  |
| C4339 | "A clinico-pathological entity reflecting the multiple polyps throughout the gastrointestinal tract created as a result of involvement by a non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Typically, mantle cell lymphomas involving the gastrointestinal tract give rise to multifocal lymphomatous polyposis. Importantly, other histologic subtypes of non-Hodgkin lymphoma can also produce this clinico-pathological entity.  (WHO, 2000)" |
| C4340 | A group of peripheral T-cell lymphomas that do not meet the criteria for any other category of specifically defined entities of peripheral T-cell lymphoma. |
| C4341 | "A usually indolent mature B-cell lymphoma, arising from the marginal zone of lymphoid tissues.  It is characterized by the presence of small to medium sized atypical lymphocytes.  It comprises three entities, according to the anatomic sites involved: extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, which affects extranodal sites (most often stomach, lung, skin, and ocular adnexa); nodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma, which affects lymph nodes without evidence o... |
| C4342 | "A rare extranodal B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, characterized by the presence of lymphoma cells exclusively in the lumina of small vessels, particularly capillaries.  This is an extremely aggressive lymphoma which responds poorly to chemotherapy.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C4343 |  |
| C4344 | An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by bone marrow fibrosis without preexisting primary myelofibrosis. |
| C4345 | "A group of myeloid neoplasms that includes the following: chronic myeloid leukemia, BCR-ABL1 positive; polycythemia vera; essential thrombocythemia;  primary myelofibrosis; chronic neutrophilic leukemia; chronic eosinophilic leukemia, not otherwise specified; and myeloproliferative neoplasm, unclassifiable." |
| C4346 | A basal cell carcinoma of the skin that is characterized by sebaceous differentiation. |
| C4347 | "An astrocytoma, without designation of benign or malignant, that is found in the supratentorial region. The infratentorial location is more common in children." |
| C4348 | A hormone producing or non-producing pituitary neuroendocrine tumor not associated with a hormonal syndrome. |
| C4349 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the colon.  It is more frequently seen in populations with a Western type diet and in patients with a history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease.  Signs and symptoms include intestinal bleeding, anemia, and change in bowel habits.  According to the degree of cellular differentiation, colonic adenocarcinomas are divided into well, moderately, and poorly differentiated.  Histologic variants include mucinous adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell carcinoma, medullar... |
| C4350 | "A rare disorder characterized by degenerative changes in the limbic area of the brain. Causes include infections and autoimmune conditions; it may also manifest as a paraneoplastic syndrome, most often caused by small cell lung carcinoma. Signs and symptoms include behavioral changes, hallucinations and dementia." |
| C43526 | "A rare neoplastic polyp that arises from the stomach.  It is characterized by the presence of gastric epithelial differentiation and pyloric gland-type tubular structures, which are closely packed." |
| C43527 | A primary adenocarcinoma of the stomach in a patient with no family history of gastric cancer or inherited high risk mutations. |
| C43529 | A sporadic adenocarcinoma that arises from the gastric mucosa and is characterized by the presence of poorly cohesive malignant cells and absence of glandular formations. |
| C43534 | A carcinoma that arises from the small intestine.  It is composed of malignant squamous cells. |
| C43535 | A carcinoma that arises from the small intestine.  It is composed of malignant glandular cells and malignant squamous cells. |
| C43536 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from the small intestine.  It is composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation." |
| C43537 | "A carcinoma that arises from the small intestine.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with vesicular nucleus, distinct nucleolus, and abundant pink cytoplasm." |
| C43538 | "A carcinoma that arises from the small intestine.  It is composed of malignant epithelial cells which do not display evidence of glandular, squamous, or transitional cell differentiation." |
| C43541 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor with a diameter equal or less than 10 mm. |
| C43542 | "A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor with a diameter greater than 10 mm. Clinical manifestations include headache, visual field disturbances, pituitary insufficiency, and mild hyperprolactinemia." |
| C43543 | An invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from the small intestine.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells in which the nucleus is pressed to one side by the presence of intracytoplasmic mucus. |
| C43546 | An adenoma arising from the appendix.  It is characterized by the presence of tubular epithelial structures and it is associated with dysplasia. |
| C43547 | An adenoma arising from the appendix.  It is characterized by the presence of tubular and villous epithelial structures and it is associated with dysplasia. |
| C43549 | An adenoma that arises from the appendix.  It is characterized by prominent serration of the glands. |
| C4354 | "A neoplasm that arises from the upper or lower eyelid and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C43550 | "A circumscribed neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium of the appendix.  Morphologically, it is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic glandular cells and it is associated with dysplasia.  According to the growth pattern, it may be classified as tubular, villous, or tubulovillous.  The dysplasia is classified as mild, moderate, or severe." |
| C43551 | A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the small intestine. It is characterized by a villous architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C43552 | A usually polypoid neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the small intestine. It is characterized by a tubular architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C43553 | A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the small intestine. It is characterized by tubular and villous architectural patterns. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C43554 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the appendix, characterized by the presence of signet-ring, mucin-producing malignant cells.  The signet-ring cells constitute more than fifty-percent of the malignant cells." |
| C43555 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the appendix and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C43556 | "A high grade carcinoma arising from the appendix, characterized by the absence of glandular or squamous differentiation." |
| C43558 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the appendix, characterized by the presence of mucinous stroma formation." |
| C4355 | A papilloma that arises from the eyelid. It is composed of squamous cells and is characterized by the presence of an acanthotic epithelium with hyperkeratosis and papillary projections with an inner fibrovascular core. It is the most common benign epithelial tumor of eyelid. It usually affects middle-aged or older adults. |
| C43564 | A carcinoma that arises from the appendix.  It is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component.  At least 30 percent of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C43565 | "A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the appendix.  It does not show the morphologic characteristics of typical carcinoid tumors (neoplastic cells forming solid nests). In contrast, the tumor cells form small discrete tubules." |
| C4356 | "A benign skin neoplasm that arises from the eyelid. It is characterized by the intraepidermal proliferation of basaloid keratinocytes, acanthosis, hyperkeratosis, and cysts formation." |
| C43576 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm involving the wall of the appendix. |
| C43577 | An adenoma that arises from the colon.  It is characterized by prominent serration of the glands. |
| C4357 | A capillary hemangioma arising from the eyelid. |
| C43584 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the rectosigmoid area.  It is more frequently seen in populations with a Western type diet and in patients with a history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease.  Signs and symptoms include intestinal bleeding, anemia, and change in bowel habits.  According to the degree of cellular differentiation, rectosigmoid adenocarcinomas are divided into well, moderately, and poorly differentiated.  Histologic variants include mucinous adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell ca... |
| C43585 | An invasive colorectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of extracellular mucin pools that contain malignant glandular epithelial structures.  The extracellular mucin pools occupy more than 50% of the malignant lesion. |
| C43586 | An invasive colorectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells with prominent intracytoplasmic mucin resulting in the displacement of the nuclei.  The malignant glandular cells with intracytoplasmic mucin constitute more than 50% of the malignant cellular infiltrate. |
| C43587 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the colon or rectum and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C43588 | A very rare colorectal carcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant squamous cell infiltrate. |
| C43589 | "An unusual colorectal carcinoma characterized by the presence of glandular and squamous carcinomatous components.  The two carcinomatous components may be admixed within the tumor, or the two may appear separately in different areas." |
| C4358 | A melanoma that arises from the upper or lower eyelid. |
| C43590 | "A rare, invasive colorectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of sheets of malignant epithelial cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm.  It usually has a favorable prognosis." |
| C43591 | "An invasive malignant epithelial tumor that arises from the colon or rectum.  There is no morphologic, immunophenotypic, or molecular biological evidence of glandular or squamous differentiation." |
| C43592 | An invasive adenocarcinoma of the rectosigmoid area characterized by the presence of pools of extracellular mucin.  Malignant glandular epithelial cells are present in the mucin collections.  Mucin constitutes more than 50% of the lesion. |
| C43593 | An infiltrating adenocarcinoma arising from the rectosigmoid area.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells with prominent intracytoplasmic mucin.  These cells constitute more than 50% of the malignant cellular population. |
| C43594 | "An unusual rectal carcinoma characterized by the presence of glandular and squamous carcinomatous components.  The two carcinomatous components may be admixed within the tumor, or the two may appear separately in different areas." |
| C43598 | "A precancerous neoplastic intraepithelial process involving the squamous epithelium of the perianal skin. Clinically, it usually presents as a white or red area in the perianal skin. Morphologically, it is characterized by full thickness dysplasia of the squamous epithelium and sometimes of the pilosebaceous epithelium. Human papillomavirus DNA sometimes may be identified in the dysplastic epithelium. It may recur after treatment, however only a small percentage of cases progress to squamou... |
| C43601 | An adenoma that arises from the gallbladder.  It is characterized by the presence of a tubular growth pattern. |
| C43602 | An adenoma that arises from the gallbladder.  It is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth pattern. |
| C43603 | An adenoma that arises from the gallbladder.  It is characterized by the presence of tubular and papillary growth patterns. |
| C43604 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the gallbladder.  It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic tubular glands lined by columnar cells or neoplastic glands lined by goblet cells. |
| C43605 | A rare morphologic variant of gallbladder adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular epithelium with a predominance of glycogen rich clear cells.  The cells display hyperchromic nuclei and well-defined cytoplasmic borders. |
| C43606 | "A neoplastic, non-invasive lesion that affects the gallbladder epithelium.  It is characterized by the presence of atypical epithelial cells with an increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio, nuclear hyperchromasia, and loss of nuclear polarity." |
| C43607 | Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia that affects the gallbladder epithelium.  It is characterized by the absence of intraluminal micropapillary projections. |
| C43609 | Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia that affects the gallbladder epithelium.  It is characterized by the presence of intraluminal micropapillary projections. |
| C4360 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the lacrimal gland. |
| C4361 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the cornea. |
| C43625 | "A morphologic variant of hepatocellular carcinoma, characterized by the presence of malignant cells which show marked variation in their size and shape. Bizarre mononuclear or multinucleated giant cells are often present." |
| C43627 | A morphologic variant of hepatocellular carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle cells or atypical giant cells. |
| C4364 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the ciliary body. |
| C4365 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising from the retina. |
| C4366 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic polypoid growth in the external ear. |
| C4367 | "A polyp that arises from the frontal sinus mucosa.  It is characterized by the presence of edematous tissue infiltrated by inflammatory cells, including eosinophils.  Causes include allergic rhinitis, chronic sinusitis, and cystic fibrosis." |
| C4369 | A benign exophytic squamous cell neoplasm with papillary growth that arises from the nasal vestibule. |
| C4370 | Lymphangiomyomatosis involving the dermis. |
| C4372 | A capillary hemangioma arising from the lip and presenting as a papular lesion. |
| C4373 | A non-neoplastic polyp that arises from the stomach and is characterized by the presence of connective tissue stroma overgrowth and cystic formations. |
| C4375 | A sporadic or inherited disorder characterized by the focal or diffuse proliferation of the cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It results in hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycemia. |
| C4376 | An acute or chronic condition that is characterized by the inability of the kidneys to adequately filter the blood. |
| C4377 | "Probably related to a recessive gene, this is Fanconi Syndrome, characterized by adult onset." |
| C4378 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm affecting the accessory urethral gland." |
| C4380 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the scrotum. |
| C4381 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant tumor that originates from the surface epithelium of the ovary.  It is composed of epithelial cells and stroma.  Representative examples of benign tumors include serous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenoma, and benign Brenner tumor.  Representative examples of borderline tumors include serous surface papillary tumor, mucinous adenofibroma, and borderline Brenner tumor.  Representative examples of malignant tumors include serous adenocarcinoma, mucinous adenoc... |
| C4382 | A benign human papillomavirus-related neoplasm that arises from the vulva. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures with fibrovascular cores covered by stratified squamous epithelium showing koilocytotic changes. |
| C43848 | "A morphologic variant of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular epithelium, an abundant fibrous stroma, and the presence of clear cells. Clinical symptoms include abdominal pain, weight loss and malaise." |
| C4385 | "A benign, disorganized mass of various mature cells, located heterotopically in the hypothalamus; it is often associated with endocrine and neurological conditions, such as precocious puberty and gelastic seizures." |
| C4387 | "A syndrome characterized by abnormal secretion of adrenocorticotrophic hormone in conjunction with neoplastic growth occurring anywhere in the body. The most common associations are tumors of the bronchus (oat cell or carcinoid), thymic tumors (epithelial or carcinoid), and pancreatic endocrine tumor. (DeVita et al. Cancer, p 1364. 4th edition. Lippincott)" |
| C4390 | A capillary hemangioma of the skin that has a lobular architecture and affects middle-aged and older adults. It manifests with multiple tiny red papules that increase in number with age. |
| C4391 | "A reactive, well-circumscribed vascular lesion. It is characterized by the formation of thin papillae projecting within the lumen of blood vessels. The papillae are lined by plump endothelial cells. Blood clots are also present." |
| C4392 | A neoplastic process characterized by a symmetric poorly circumscribed overgrowth of adipose tissue in the neck.  It predominantly affects middle age men of Mediterranean origin. |
| C4393 | "A benign skin lesion consisting of a cluster of capillaries at the surface of the skin, forming a red papular lesion." |
| C4394 |  |
| C4396 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the adrenal medulla. |
| C4397 | A carcinoma arising in a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma. It most often occurs in the parotid gland and less often in the submandibular gland and minor salivary gland. Patients usually present with a history of a long-standing mass which recently had undergone rapid growth. The prognosis depends on the invasiveness of the malignant component. Patients with non-invasive or minimally invasive tumors usually have a good prognosis following surgical resection. Invasive tumors are usually aggress... |
| C4400 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the base of the tongue. |
| C4401 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the floor of the mouth. |
| C4402 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the hard palate, soft palate, or uvula." |
| C4403 | "A neoplasm that arises from the hard palate and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4404 | A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the soft palate or uvula. |
| C4405 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the buccal mucosa. |
| C4406 | "A neoplasm that arises from the buccal mucosa and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4407 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the major salivary glands.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include Warthin tumor, monomorphic adenoma, and pleomorphic adenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C4408 | "A neoplasm that arises from the base of tongue and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4409 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the minor salivary glands. |
| C4410 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the minor salivary glands.  Representative examples include carcinoma and malignant mixed tumor. |
| C4411 | "A neoplasm that arises from the minor salivary glands and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4412 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the middle ear.  Representative examples include adenoma, paraganglioma, and carcinoma." |
| C4413 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the nasal cavity.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include Schneiderian papilloma and salivary gland-type adenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma and lymphoma. |
| C4414 | "A neoplasm that arises from the maxillary sinus and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4416 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the ethmoid sinus.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include Schneiderian papilloma and salivary gland-type adenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma and lymphoma. |
| C4417 | "A neoplasm that arises from the ethmoid sinus and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4419 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the frontal sinus.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include Schneiderian papilloma and salivary gland-type adenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma and lymphoma. |
| C4420 | "A neoplasm that arises from the frontal sinus and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4422 | "A neoplasm that arises from the sphenoid sinus and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4424 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the pyriform sinus. |
| C4425 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the glottic area of the larynx. |
| C4426 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the subglottic area of the larynx. |
| C4427 | "A neoplasm that arises from the subglottis and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4428 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial tumor without invasion of the lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C4429 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial tumor without invasion of the lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C4430 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial tumor without invasion of the lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C4431 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial tumor without invasion of the lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C4432 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the small intestine.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include lipoma and leiomyoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C4433 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the cecum.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include lipoma and leiomyoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma.  Cecal adenomas always exhibit epithelial dysplasia and are considered premalignant neoplasms." |
| C4434 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving the appendix. |
| C4435 | A non-neoplastic polypoid lesion that arises from the anal canal or perianal skin.  It is composed of dense fibrous stroma and it is covered by squamous epithelium. |
| C4436 | "A carcinoma that arises from the intrahepatic bile ducts, the hepatic ducts, or the common bile duct distal to the insertion of the cystic duct. The vast majority of tumors are adenocarcinomas." |
| C4437 | "A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the liver.  Representative examples include angiosarcoma, undifferentiated (embryonal) sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma." |
| C4438 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the liver. |
| C4439 | "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0).  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C4440 | "A neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4441 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the extrahepatic bile ducts.  Representative examples include adenoma and adenocarcinoma. |
| C4442 | "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0).  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C4443 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving the ampulla of Vater. |
| C4444 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C4445 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the epithelial cells of the exocrine pancreatic tissue. |
| C4446 | "A pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor that secretes serotonin. When it metastasizes to the liver or retroperitoneum, it produces the carcinoid syndrome. Most cases are graded G1 or G2." |
| C4447 | "A neoplasm that arises from the retroperitoneum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4448 | "A rare squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the mucosal lining of the trachea.  It usually grows as an intraluminal mass and later invades extraluminal structures.  The majority of patients present with hemoptysis, coughing, dyspnea, or stridor." |
| C4450 | "An undifferentiated non-small cell lung carcinoma composed of large polygonal cells without evidence of glandular, squamous, or neuroendocrine differentiation." |
| C4451 | A large cell lung carcinoma characterized by a predominance of clear cells that may or may not contain glycogen. |
| C4452 | A morphologic variant of lung sarcomatoid carcinoma characterized by the presence of mononuclear and multinucleated pleomorphic neoplastic giant cells that lack cohesion. |
| C4453 | "A low-grade malignant blood vessel neoplasm arising from the lung.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells.  The neoplastic cells are arranged in cords and nests, which are embedded in a myxoid to hyalinized stroma." |
| C4454 | "A neoplasm that arises from the lung and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4455 | "A benign, well circumscribed epithelial neoplasm that arises from the bronchus or the lung parenchyma.  Representative examples include alveolar adenoma, papillary adenoma, and mucus gland adenoma." |
| C4456 | "A malignant neoplasm that arises from mesothelial cells, usually in the pleura or peritoneum. It is associated with exposure to asbestos." |
| C4457 | "A localized neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation, that arises from the pleura. It is characterized by the presence of round to spindle-shaped cells, hylanized stroma formation, thin-walled branching blood vessels, and thin bands of collagen." |
| C4458 | A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the thymus. |
| C4459 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the skin with a prominent clear cell component. |
| C4460 | A skin squamous cell carcinoma characterized by cellular discohesion of the tumor cells that results in the formation of pseudolumina resembling glandular structures. |
| C4461 | "A rare genetic neoplastic disorder with an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance characterized by multiple, recurrent skin cancers that spontaneously resolve. It has been described almost exclusively in families of Scottish origin. It is caused by a mutation in the tumor-suppressing gene, TGFBR1, on chromosome 9. Clinical presentation is usually rapidly growing squamous cell carcinomas or keratoacanthomas that primarily localize to sun-exposed areas. Appearance of the neoplasms occurs o... |
| C4463 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the hair follicles, sebaceous glands, or sweat glands." |
| C4468 | "A benign, small, papular or nodular skin neoplasm that usually arises above the upper lip. It is characterized by an epithelial proliferation with a central cavity. The cavity wall is lined with keratinocytes." |
| C4469 | "A rare benign adnexal tumor that exhibits differentiation towards the follicular isthmus epithelium. It arises from the skin of the face and neck, and presents as multiple and, less often, solitary papules that are arranged in plaques. Morphologically, it is composed of anastomosing cords of pale epithelial cells. The cords are arranged horizontally in a fibrovascular stroma. At the periphery of the cords, small infundibular cysts are present." |
| C4470 | A rare cutaneous hamartoma that arises from the connective tissue sheath of the hair follicle. It is characterized by the presence of fibroblasts surrounding the hair follicle. |
| C4471 | A rare adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the skin. It is very aggressive in nature with a high risk of local recurrence. |
| C4472 | A rare carcinoma of the skin. It is characterized by epidermoid cells interspersed with glandular cells. |
| C4473 | A poroma characterized by the presence of small nodules of neoplastic cells in the superficial dermis without connection to the epidermis. |
| C4474 | "A rare, benign, slow-growing and painless neoplasm of sweat glands. It usually arises in the head and neck. It is characterized by the presence of a mesenchymal chondroid stroma, fibrosis, and epithelial structures." |
| C4475 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm that arises from the dermis." |
| C4478 | "A rare, benign wart-like skin lesion of unknown etiology that is usually found in the genital or perianal area and consists of hyperkeratosis and aggregates of foam cell macrophages." |
| C4479 | A peripheral nervous system neoplasm that arises from the dermis. |
| C4480 | A smooth muscle neoplasm arising in the skin. |
| C4481 | A ganglioneuroma arising from the skin. |
| C4482 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the dermal arrector pili muscle or dartos muscle of the genitalia. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C4483 | A cutaneous leiomyoma arising from the dartos muscle of the scrotum or labia majora. |
| C4484 | "A rare, mitotically active spindle cell neoplasm arising from the smooth muscle in the dermis. It has an excellent prognosis, as compared to the deep soft tissue leiomyosarcomas." |
| C4485 | "A rare congenital but non-hereditary disorder characterized by angiomas or arteriovenous malformations of the spinal cord. Clinical signs include sudden onset of radicular pain localizable to a dermatome with overlying cutaneous vascular lesions. Untreated, the clinical course follows a progression of sensory loss, weakness to paralysis and incontinence. However, clinical prognosis improves with endovascular embolization and/or surgical excision of the spinal lesion." |
| C4486 | "A rare congenital disorder that is caused by somatic TEK gene mutations and presents with multifocal venous malformations (blebs) on the skin, gastrointestinal tract, and soft tissues. Patients develop anemia due to chronic gastrointestinal bleeding that requires lifelong treatment with iron and blood transfusions." |
| C4487 | "A rare cutaneous hemangioma characterized by the presence of multiple scattered and tightly packed lobules of capillaries in the dermis and rarely the subcutaneous tissue. It usually affects infants and children and manifests with macules, papules, nodules, or plaques." |
| C4488 | A vascular lesion in the papillary dermis that results from ectasia of pre-existing vessels. It is associated with secondary proliferative changes in the overlying epidermis. It can present with widespread lesions or as a localized lesion. |
| C4489 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the skin. |
| C4490 | A malignant vascular neoplasm of the skin arising from the lymphatic vessels. |
| C4491 | A glomus tumor arising from the skin. It usually presents as a small red-blue nodule and it often associated with pain at the site. |
| C4492 | A benign or malignant hemangiopericytoma arising in the skin. |
| C4493 | A malignant hemangiopericytoma arising in the skin. |
| C4494 | A vascular proliferation arising from the skin.  It is characterized by the presence of prominent endothelial cells and formation of vascular channels. |
| C44959 | "A bacterial infection caused by Chlamydophila psittaci. Humans are infected by handling sick birds. The Chlamydiae cause respiratory infection manifests with fever, malaise, cough, dyspnea, sore throat, photophobia and headaches." |
| C4495 | A rare cutaneous speckled nevus with concentric pattern of pigmentation and central papule surrounded by clear zone. |
| C44960 | Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma that arises from the ocular adnexa and caused by stimulation of lymphoid tissue due to Chlamydia psittaci bacterial infection. |
| C4496 | A blue nevus that is not associated with increased cellularity. |
| C4497 | A cutaneous nevus characterized by the presence of desmoplastic stroma. |
| C4498 | A cutaneous nevus that contains a variable number of darkly pigmented macules and papules. |
| C4499 | A rare benign neoplasm that arises from the mesothelial cells of the pleura.  It is characterized by a proliferation of epithelioid cells forming glandular and tubular patterns in a fibrous stroma. |
| C4502 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm composed of adipose (fatty) tissue. There is no evidence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, invasive features, or metastases." |
| C4503 | Breast carcinoma that has developed in relatives of patients with history of breast carcinoma. |
| C4504 | "A phyllodes tumor of the breast characterized by infiltrative margins and a sarcomatous stromal component.  The sarcomatous stroma usually displays features of fibrosarcoma.  Liposarcomatous, osteosarcomatous, or rhabdomyosarcomatous elements may also be present." |
| C4505 | "A neoplasm that arises from the breast and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4508 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant mixed epithelial tumor of the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of more than one epithelial cell type, most often serous and endocervical-type mucinous." |
| C4509 | "An aggressive carcinoma arising from the ovary.  Most patients present with advanced disease.  Microscopically, it is characterized by significant cytologic atypia, increased mitotic activity, and necrosis.  The prognosis is usually poor." |
| C4510 | "A neoplasm that arises from the surface epithelium of the ovary and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include serous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenoma, clear cell adenofibroma, and benign Brenner tumor." |
| C4511 | "A benign, usually bilateral neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of cystic structures that contain watery fluid and are lined by serous epithelial cells.  Signs and symptoms include abdominal enlargement, pain, and vaginal bleeding." |
| C4512 | A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by mucinous columnar epithelial cells. |
| C4514 | "An invasive malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary and originates from primordial germ cells.  Representative examples include embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, dysgerminoma, and non-gestational choriocarcinoma." |
| C4515 | A choriocarcinoma arising from the ovary.  When it appears before puberty is of germ cell origin.  In children and young adults signs and symptoms include precocious pseudopuberty and vaginal bleeding.  Serum human chorionic gonadotropin is elevated.  Germ cell derived ovarian choriocarcinoma should be differentiated from primary or metastatic gestational choriocarcinoma affecting the ovary.  The prognosis of germ cell derived choriocarcinoma is less favorable and requires more aggressive che... |
| C45161 | "An infectious disease caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Early manifestations of infection may include fever, headache, fatigue, depression, and a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans. Left untreated, late manifestations involving the joints, heart, and nervous system can occur." |
| C45163 | Primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from chronically stimulated lymphoid tissue in the skin in response to Borrelia burgdoferi infection. |
| C45166 | A mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma that arises from the small intestine and it is associated with Campylobacter jejuni infection. |
| C4516 | A germ cell tumor that arises from the ovary. There is no evidence of atypia or metastases. The vast majority of cases are benign dermoid cysts. |
| C4517 | "A neoplasm that arises from the fallopian tube and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential.  Representative examples include papilloma, adenofibroma, and leiomyoma." |
| C4518 | A rare benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of smooth muscle cells growing within veins. |
| C45193 | "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the skin. Representative examples include primary cutaneous intravascular large B-cell lymphoma, primary cutaneous T-cell/histiocyte-rich large B-cell lymphoma, and primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type." |
| C45194 | "An aggressive primary cutaneous B-cell lymphoma, usually involving the lower leg.  It is composed of a generally monotonous proliferation of immunoblasts, or less frequently centroblasts, with few admixed reactive cells.  This type of lymphoma occurs most often in elderly women who present with rapidly growing tumors, usually on one or both legs.  Dissemination to extracutaneous sites is frequent.  Treatment with combination chemotherapy is usually required." |
| C4519 | An uncommon carcinoma arising from the cervix.  It is composed of malignant glandular epithelial cells and malignant squamous epithelial cells. |
| C45202 | "A low-grade, late-metastasizing variant of fibrosarcoma characterized by alternating fibrous and myxoid areas and a whorling growth pattern.  The neoplastic cells have a spindle morphology, and lack hyperchromasia or significant nuclear atypia.  Approximately 40% of cases show the focal presence of collagen rosettes.  A t(7;16)(q33;p11) translocation has been identified in the majority of cases, associated with the presence of FUS-CREB3L2 fusion protein.  Rare cases carry the t(11;16)(p11;p... |
| C45203 | A low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma characterized by the presence of prominent collagen rosettes. |
| C4520 | "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0). Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. FIGO no longer includes stage 0. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C45210 | "A low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma that may have poorly formed collagen rosettes, but lacks prominent, well formed collagen rosettes." |
| C45213 | "A rare type of primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that does not belong in the group of primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphomas, leg type, or the group of primary cutaneous follicle center lymphomas.  It includes subtypes/entities of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (e.g. intravascular large B-cell lymphoma, plasmablastic lymphoma, T-cell/histiocyte rich lymphoma) that can involve the skin as the primary anatomic site.  Such cases, unlike their nodal counterparts, usually ... |
| C45214 | Intravascular large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the skin. |
| C45215 | T-Cell/histiocyte-rich large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the skin. |
| C45216 | Plasmablastic lymphoma that arises from the skin. |
| C45219 | "A header term that includes the following diffuse large B-cell lymphoma subtypes by gene expression profiling: activated B-cell-like diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, germinal center B-cell-like diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, and type 3 diffuse large B-cell lymphoma." |
| C4521 | A superficial neoplastic process involving exclusively the vaginal squamous epithelium without extension to underlying tissue.  It is classified as low- or high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia. |
| C4522 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ (preinvasive carcinoma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C45230 | A neoplasm that is categorized using nomenclature that is no longer in use or diagnostic criteria that are outdated. |
| C45231 | "A biologic subset of diffuse large B-cell lymphomas (DLBCL) that do not overexpress the genes whose overexpression characterizes the germinal center B-cell-like and activated B-cell-like DLBCL.  Morphologically, these lymphomas are either immunoblastic or centroblastic.  Patients with this type of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma are reported to have a less favorable outcome, similar to those with an activated B-cell-like gene expression profile." |
| C45238 | A precursor lymphoid neoplasm that affects the skin. |
| C4523 | "Stage 0 includes: pTis, N0, M0, S0.  pTis: Intratubular germ cell neoplasia (carcinoma in situ).  N0: regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C45240 | A neoplasm of hematopoietic and lymphoid cell origin that affects the skin. |
| C45241 | B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma that affects the skin. |
| C45242 | T lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma that affects the skin. |
| C45249 | A mature B-cell neoplasm that affects the skin. |
| C4524 | A rare kidney neoplasm of low malignant potential.  It is a well-circumscribed multicystic mass without solid areas.  The inner lining of the cystic structures is composed of clear cells. It usually presents as a unilateral solitary mass. |
| C45250 | A group of neoplasms composed of T-lymphocytes with a mature (peripheral/post-thymic) immunophenotypic profile and/or NK-cells affecting the skin. |
| C45256 | Any disease affecting the vitreous body of the eye. |
| C4525 | A sarcoma that arises from the kidney. |
| C45264 | A chronic lymphocytic leukemia that affects the skin. |
| C45266 | Mantle cell lymphoma that affects the skin. |
| C45267 | Lymphomatoid granulomatosis that affects the skin. |
| C45268 | Nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma affecting the skin. |
| C4526 | "A benign tumor of the kidney, characterized by the presence of large cells with abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm.  The majority of these tumors are discovered incidentally, during work-up of other conditions." |
| C45271 | "Follicular helper T-cell lymphoma, angioimmunoblastic-type affecting the skin." |
| C45272 | Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma affecting the skin. |
| C4527 | A hemangiopericytoma arising from the kidney. |
| C4528 | A rare benign neoplasm that arises from the renal pelvis and is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth with a central fibrovascular core. The latter is lined by normal urothelium. |
| C4529 | "Stage 0is includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C4530 | An exophytic and polypoid lesion attached to the ureter by a broad base or a thin stalk. |
| C4531 | "Stage 0is includes: (Tis, N0, M0); (Tis pu, N0, M0); (Tis pd, N0, M0).  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  Tis pu: Carcinoma in situ, involvement of the prostatic urethra.  Tis pd: Carcinoma in situ, involvement of the prostatic ducts.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C45327 | "A rare, EBV-positive cutaneous T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder, composed of CD8 positive cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.  It affects children, almost exclusively in Latin America and Asia. Patients present with papulovesicular skin lesions, clinically resembling hydroa vacciniforme, in areas of sun-exposed skin." |
| C4532 | "A neoplasm that arises from the accessory urethral glands and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C45332 | "A rare, mature T-cell lymphoma arising from the skin." |
| C45339 | "An aggressive, epidermotropic primary cutaneous T-cell lymphoma composed of small to medium-sized, or medium-sized to large, CD8-positive T-lymphocytes with pleomorphic or blastic nuclei. Epidermotropism is often pronounced, and angiocentricity and angioinvasion may be present. It manifests with localized or disseminated eruptive papules and nodules or tumors." |
| C4533 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the choroid plexus. The vast majority are carcinomas. |
| C45340 | "An aggressive cutaneous lymphoma of mature, activated gamma/delta T-lymphocytes.  It usually presents with disseminated plaques and nodules.  Involvement of mucosal sites is frequent.  However, involvement of lymph nodes, spleen, or bone marrow is uncommon.  Morphologically, there are three patterns of cutaneous involvement: epidermotropic, dermal, and subcutaneous.  Often, more than one pattern may co-exist in a single biopsy specimen, or may be present in different biopsy specimens from t... |
| C4534 | "A neoplasm that arises from glial cells in the spinal cord.  Representative examples include astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, and ependymoma." |
| C4535 |  |
| C45366 | "A primary cutaneous T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder composed of small to medium-sized CD4-positive, CD8-negative, and CD30-negative pleomorphic T-lymphocytes in the dermis. A small number of large pleomorphic T-lymphocytes, focal epidermotropism, and subcutaneous involvement may be seen. It usually presents with a solitary plaque or tumor on the face, neck, or upper trunk. The clinical behavior is almost always indolent, and most patients present with localized disease." |
| C4536 | Pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C45372 | "An infectious process affecting any part of the eye. Causes include viruses and bacteria. Symptoms include itching and discomfort in the eye, watery eyes, eye pain and discharge, and blurring vision. Representative examples include pink eye, blepharitis, and trachoma." |
| C4537 | A glioma that affects the optic nerve. This condition can be seen in association with neurofibromatosis 1. It is most commonly seen in the pediatric age group. |
| C45380 | "A low-grade extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that affects the thymus.  It is characterized by the presence of centrocyte-like or monocytoid lymphocytes that surround reactive lymphoid follicles.  There is infiltration of the thymic epithelium by lymphocytes and formation of lymphoepithelial lesions.  It is associated with the presence of autoimmune disease, most frequently Sjogren syndrome. Patients are usually asymptomatic and the tumor is detected inc... |
| C4538 | A meningioma that arises from the sheath of the optic nerve. |
| C4539 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the eighth cranial nerve, also referred to as the vestibulocochlear nerve." |
| C4540 | "A carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal gland. It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells that form cribriform, tubular, and solid patterns." |
| C4541 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the lacrimal gland. |
| C45425 | "Diagnosis of celiac disease at a later age despite an asymptomatic clinical course. Serologic evidence with minimal histological changes in the intestinal mucosa are noted. The presence of human tissue transglutaminase, endomysial and gliadin antibodies without substantial villous changes follow many years of a seemingly gluten-tolerant diet. Despite an unremarkable clinical course, continued unrestricted gluten intake may predispose to the same sequelae as overt disease." |
| C45426 | "A rare disorder affecting the digestive tract. Its cause is unclear but may be attributed, in part, to increased collagen synthesis without adequate fibrolysis. It is characterized histologically by atrophy of mucosal villi and crypts with extensive subepithelial collagen deposition. Clinical signs include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and weight loss. Unlike celiac sprue (celiac disease), a gluten-free diet does not predict a certain regression of the disease. The clinical course follows a pr... |
| C45428 | "A rare disorder of the digestive tract characterized by malabsorption and anemia. It is likely caused by infection leading to small intestinal mucosal injury, bacterial overgrowth and inflammatory changes. It is most prevalent in residents and visitors to tropical and subtropical climates. Clinical signs include anorexia, abdominal bloating, diarrhea and weight loss. Clinical course may progress to deficiencies of folate, vitamin B12 and iron. Prognosis is favorable with nutrient replacemen... |
| C45429 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the colonic glandular epithelium and invades the lamina propria or muscularis mucosa but not the submucosa. |
| C4542 | "A benign, usually encapsulated neoplasm of the lacrimal gland composed of epithelial and mesenchymal cells.  Pleomorphic adenomas are neoplasms that develop in the salivary glands or heterotopic salivary gland tissues.  It has been suggested that myoepithelial cells play a major role in the histogenesis of these tumors.  In the lacrimal gland, pleomorphic adenomas presumably develop from metaplastic myoepithelial cells." |
| C45434 | "Focal scarring of the glomerulus, which may result in isolated proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome, which affects only part of the glomerulus and only some of the glomeruli. The condition is considered primary in cases for which no underlying cause has been identified." |
| C45435 | Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis due to another medical condition. |
| C4543 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation that arises from the orbit. |
| C45445 | An angiomyofibroblastoma arising from the vagina. |
| C45446 | An angiomyofibroblastoma arising from the vulva. |
| C4544 | A malignant hemangiopericytoma arising in the orbit. |
| C4545 | A capillary hemangioma arising from the orbit. |
| C4546 | A cavernous hemangioma arising from the orbit. |
| C45473 | A borderline blood vessel neoplasm that has locally aggressive behavior. |
| C45474 | A borderline blood vessel neoplasm that may metastasize on rare occasions. |
| C45475 | "An intermediate, locally aggressive and rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm that predominantly involves the skin and superficial soft tissues, with rare cases reported in the kidney, lymph nodes, and spleen. It is characterized by the presence of spindle, plump, and epithelioid endothelial cells and cellular atypia." |
| C45476 | "An intermediate, rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of a polymorphic cellular infiltrate." |
| C45479 | A non-neoplastic proliferation of vessels in reaction to a process. |
| C4547 | A benign or malignant hemangiopericytoma arising from the orbit. |
| C45481 |  |
| C45483 | "A condition that is characterized by venous dilation, which presents as soft, compressible lesions." |
| C45485 | A localized lymphangioma characterized by microcystic changes. |
| C4548 | A benign congenital tumor that affects the orbit.  It is one of the most common orbital tumors.  It is characterized by the presence of a cystic structure that is lined by keratinizing epithelium and contains adnexal structures.  Complete surgical excision is curative. |
| C4549 | "A carcinoma that arises from the conjunctiva and shows squamous differentiation. It is the most common primary malignant tumor that arises from the conjunctiva. It usually affects older white males. Excessive exposure to sunlight is a risk factor. Patients may present with a mass, red eye, or pain." |
| C45502 | A morphologic variant of squamous cell lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of papillary structures. |
| C45503 | A morphologic variant of squamous cell lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of clear cells. |
| C45504 | A poorly differentiated morphologic variant of squamous cell lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of small tumor cells with focal squamous differentiation. |
| C45507 | A morphologic variant of squamous cell lung carcinoma characterized by nuclear palisading. |
| C45508 | "The most frequently seen morphologic variant of lung adenocarcinoma characterized by a mixture of architectural patterns, including acinar, papillary, bronchioloalveolar, and solid pattern." |
| C45509 | A rare morphologic variant of lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of glandular structures containing glycogen-rich cells forming tubules that resemble fetal lung tubules. |
| C4550 | A melanoma that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C45512 | A morphologic variant of lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of mucin pools containing islands of well differentiated adenocarcinoma cells. |
| C45514 | A morphologic variant of lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of signet ring cells. |
| C45516 | A well differentiated morphologic variant of lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the predominance of clear cells. |
| C45519 | "A rare and distinctive type of lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of a syncytial growth pattern, large vesicular nuclei with eosinophilic nucleoli, and dense lymphoplasmacytic infiltration." |
| C4551 | A benign melanocytic nevus that arises from the conjunctiva. |
| C45525 | Any heart disorder characterized by a defect in valve structure or function. |
| C4552 | A rare squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the cornea. |
| C4553 | A melanoma that arises from the cornea. |
| C45540 | "A rare, aggressive, poorly differentiated, non-small cell lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of a sarcomatoid component often associated with giant cell differentiation. There is a male to female ratio of 4:1.  Clinical symptoms include cough, hemoptysis, chest pain, progressive dyspnea and fever secondary to recurrent pneumonia. Cigarette smoking is a major risk factor." |
| C45541 | "A morphologic variant of sarcomatoid carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle cells and focal lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates.  Adenocarcinoma cells, malignant squamous cells, and giant cells are not present." |
| C45542 | A morphologic variant of sarcomatoid carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular or squamous cells associated with malignant giant and spindle cells. |
| C45543 | A morphologic variant of lung sarcomatoid carcinoma composed of a mixture of non-small cell lung carcinoma and a sarcomatous component. |
| C45544 | "A lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant non-keratinizing squamoid cells, mucin-producing cells and intermediate type cells." |
| C45545 | "A lung carcinoma arising within the bronchi or bronchial tubes.  It is characterized by the presence of myoepithelial cells, spindle cells, clear cells, and duct-forming epithelial cells.  Surgical resection may be curative." |
| C4554 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the iris. This category includes primary iris melanoma and metastatic malignant neoplasms in the iris. |
| C45550 | A neuroendocrine tumor of the lung characterized by the absence of necrosis and the presence of less than 2 mitoses per 2 mm2. |
| C45551 | A neuroendocrine tumor of the lung characterized by the presence of 2-10 mitoses per 2 mm2 and/or necrosis (usually punctate). |
| C4555 | "A neoplasm that arises from the iris and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C45567 | A low grade malignant neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the lung.  This category includes typical carcinoid tumor. |
| C45568 | An intermediate grade malignant neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the lung.  This category includes atypical carcinoid tumor. |
| C45569 | "An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the lung. It is classified as small cell lung carcinoma, large cell lung neuroendocrine carcinoma, or combined lung carcinoma." |
| C4556 | A benign nevus that arises from the iris.  Only a small percentage of cases progress to iris melanoma. |
| C45573 | "A papillary neoplasm that arises endobronchially.  It is characterized by the presence of a delicate fibrovascular core lined by stratified squamous epithelium.  Squamous cell papillomas can be solitary or multiple.  Patients usually present with signs and symptoms of bronchial obstruction.  Because of the possibility of recurrence and reported cases of squamous cell carcinomas arising at the excision site of squamous cell papillomas, complete excision is indicated." |
| C4557 | "A rare, unilateral, malignant embryonal neoplasm typically presenting as a ciliary body mass during childhood. It arises from primitive medullary epithelium." |
| C4558 | "A rare uveal melanoma that arises from the ciliary body.  Patients may present with blurred vision, visual field loss, floaters, and ocular pain.  The prognosis is usually poor." |
| C4559 | A benign proliferation of the pars plicata epithelium of the ciliary body. It is associated with aging.. |
| C45601 | "A benign papillary neoplasm that arises endobronchially.  It is characterized by the presence of fibrovascular cores lined by columnar, cuboidal, and goblet cells.  Patients usually present with signs and symptoms of bronchial obstruction.  Complete resection is curative." |
| C45602 | An exceedingly rare benign endobronchial neoplasm characterized by the presence of fibrovascular cores which are lined by both squamous and glandular epithelium. Patients present with obstructive symptoms. Complete resection is curative. |
| C45603 | "A very rare, well circumscribed, benign epithelial neoplasm that arises from the bronchus.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelial cells, myoepithelial cells, and fibromyxoid stroma." |
| C45604 | "A very rare, well circumscribed, benign cystic neoplasm that arises from the lung.  It is characterized by the presence of cysts which are lined by tall mucinous epithelium and filled with mucin." |
| C45605 | "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that is localized to the lungs at the time of presentation.  Signs and symptoms include cough, dyspnea, and hemoptysis." |
| C45607 | "A rare lymphoproliferative disorder that affects the lungs.  It is characterized by the presence of an angiocentric and angiodestructive polymorphic cellular infiltrate composed of EBV-positive neoplastic B-lymphocytes and reactive T-lymphocytes.  The majority of patients present with bilateral nodular lesions in the lungs.  The prognosis depends on the histologic grade of the lesions. One third of patients with grade 1 lesions and two thirds of patients with grade 2 lesions progress to non... |
| C4560 | "A well-circumscribed benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the ciliary body of the eye. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C45612 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the lung." |
| C4561 | "A uveal melanoma that arises from the choroid.  It is the most common primary malignant intraocular tumor.  It usually affects Caucasians of northern European descent.  It usually remains asymptomatic for a long period.  When signs and symptoms occur, they include blurred vision, visual field loss, floaters, and ocular pain.  Tumor size is the most important factor that relates to prognosis." |
| C45625 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the lung and pleura. |
| C45626 | A subtype of pleuropulmonary blastoma characterized by the presence of cysts with a microscopic population of primitive malignant small cells. There is no evidence of a malignant solid mesenchymal component. It usually has a good prognosis compared to types II and III pleuropulmonary blastoma. |
| C45627 | A subtype of pleuropulmonary blastoma characterized by the presence of cysts with a microscopic population of primitive malignant small cells and a malignant solid mesenchymal component. It may have an aggressive clinical course. |
| C45628 | A subtype of pleuropulmonary blastoma characterized by the presence of a malignant solid mesenchymal component and the absence of a cystic component. It is usually aggressive and metastasizes to other sites. |
| C45629 | "A benign neoplasm composed of hyaline cartilage arising from the lung.  It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, and calcification." |
| C4562 | A hemangioma arising from the choroid. |
| C45630 | Lymphangiomatosis diffusely involving the lung parenchyma. |
| C45631 | A synovial sarcoma arising from the lungs. |
| C45632 | A biphasic synovial sarcoma arising from the lungs. |
| C45633 | A monophasic synovial sarcoma arising from the lungs. |
| C45636 | A germ cell tumor that arises from the lung. |
| C45637 | A teratoma that arises from the lung. |
| C45638 | "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from ectopic thymic tissue in the lung.  Histologically it is identical to the thymomas that arise from the mediastinum.  Signs and symptoms include cough, dyspnea, fever, and weight loss.  Surgical excision is the recommended treatment." |
| C45639 | An invasive or non-invasive thymoma that arises from the mediastinum.  Thymomas are the most common anterior mediastinal tumors. |
| C4563 | "A rare myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by a clonal proliferation of eosinophilic precursors resulting in persistently increased numbers of eosinophils in the blood, marrow and peripheral tissues.  Since acute eosinophilic leukemia is at best exceedingly rare, the term eosinophilic leukemia is normally used as a synonym for chronic eosinophilic leukemia.  In cases in which it is impossible to prove clonality and there is no increase in blast cells, the diagnosis of ""idiopathic h... |
| C4564 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the spleen. |
| C45652 | A rare malignant neoplasm that derives from melanocytes and arises from the lung in a patient with no history of previous melanoma and no evidence of melanoma in another site at the time of diagnosis.  It usually presents as a solitary lesion and the prognosis is poor. |
| C45655 | A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells. Anaplastic morphologic features and multinucleated malignant cells may also be seen. |
| C4565 | "A neoplasm that arises from any of the organs in the thoracic cavity and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C45660 | "A rare, non-invasive, localized or multifocal mesothelial neoplasm that arises from the pleura. It is characterized by the presence of papillae with myxoid fibrovascular cores, lined by a single layer of mesothelial cells.  The clinical course is usually indolent." |
| C45661 | "A localized or multifocal mesothelial neoplasm arising from the peritoneum. It predominantly occurs in women. It is characterized by the formation of papillae, covered by a single layer of blunt mesothelial cells. Mitotic figures are not present. There is no evidence of severe cytologic atypia. It has a relatively favorable clinical outcome, compared to diffuse malignant mesothelioma." |
| C45662 | "Malignant mesothelioma that arises from the pleura. It is characterized by the presence of cells with epithelioid morphology. The epithelioid cells usually have eosinophilic cytoplasm, bland nuclei, and form tubulopapillary, microglandular, or sheet-like patterns." |
| C45663 | Malignant mesothelioma that arises from the pleura. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells. Anaplastic morphologic features and multinucleated malignant cells may also be seen. |
| C45664 | Malignant mesothelioma that arises from the pleura. It is characterized by the presence of dense collagenized stroma occupying at least 50% of the tumor. The malignant cells are arranged in a vague storiform pattern. |
| C45665 | "Malignant mesothelioma that arises from the pleura. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid and sarcomatoid components, with each component representing at least 10% of the tumor." |
| C45666 | "A mesothelioma that arises from the pleura with the gross appearance of a circumscribed lesion and the microscopic appearance of diffuse malignant mesothelioma, without evidence of diffuse spread." |
| C45667 | An atypical hyperplasia of the mesothelial cells. |
| C4566 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the hilar region of the lung. |
| C4567 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the pericardium. |
| C45687 | "A rare extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the pleura with no evidence of involvement of other sites at the time of diagnosis. This category includes primary effusion lymphoma, pyothorax-associated lymphoma, and exceedingly rare cases of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma." |
| C4568 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the inner layer of the pericardium. |
| C45691 | "An aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma arising in the pleural cavity of patients with a history of long standing pyothorax.  Patients present with chest and back pain, fever, productive cough, dyspnea, and hemoptysis." |
| C45692 | "The presence of pus in the thoracic cavity, between the visceral and parietal pleura." |
| C45695 | "A low-grade malignant blood vessel neoplasm arising from the pleura. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells.  The neoplastic cells are arranged in cords and nests, which are embedded in a myxoid to hyalinized stroma." |
| C45696 | A synovial sarcoma arising in the pleural cavity. |
| C45697 | A monophasic synovial sarcoma arising in the pleural cavity. |
| C45698 | A biphasic synovial sarcoma arising in the pleural cavity. |
| C45699 | "A thymoma that focally infiltrates the surrounding capsule and invades the mediastinal fat.  This type of thymoma is usually recognized only after microscopic examination.  Grossly, it appears indistinguishable from encapsulated thymoma." |
| C4569 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the myocardium. |
| C45700 | "A thymoma that spreads by direct extension into adjacent tissues (lung, pericardium, or large vessels).  This type of thymoma usually appears invasive at the time of excision." |
| C45706 | "A rare type of thymoma characterized by the presence of multiple, well formed epithelial nodules separated by a lymphocytic stroma that usually contains germinal centers.  Reported cases have not been associated with recurrences or metastases." |
| C45707 | "A rare type of well circumscribed or encapsulated thymoma with a biphasic architecture, consisting of epithelial cell islands and bundles of spindle cells.  The vast majority of reported cases had a benign clinical course." |
| C45708 | "A rare type of thymoma, composed of multifocal epithelial proliferations less than 1 mm in diameter.  This type of thymoma usually occurs in myasthenia gravis patients without any macroscopic (gross) evidence of tumor." |
| C45709 | "A rare type of thymoma, characterized by an exuberant amount of collagen-rich stroma." |
| C4570 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the endocardium. |
| C45710 | A benign thymic tumor morphologically resembling fibroadenoma of the breast. |
| C45716 | "A rare, highly aggressive and lethal carcinoma that affects children and young adults.  It arises from midline epithelial structures, most commonly the head, neck, and mediastinum.  It is a poorly differentiated carcinoma and is characterized by mutations and rearrangement of the NUT gene.  A balanced translocation t(15;19) is present that results in the creation of a fusion gene involving the NUT gene, most commonly BRD4-NUT fusion gene." |
| C45719 | A neuroendocrine tumor of the thymus characterized by the presence of 2-10 mitoses per 2 mm2 and/or necrosis (usually punctate). |
| C4571 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the lung parenchyma, bronchial tree, or trachea.  Representative examples include lung carcinoma, carcinoid tumor, lung lymphoma, lung sarcoma, and tracheal carcinoma." |
| C45720 | A neuroendocrine tumor of the thymus characterized by the absence of necrosis and the presence of less than 2 mitoses per 2 mm2. |
| C45722 | A primary thymus epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of at least two distinct areas representing thymoma and carcinoma. The most aggressive component usually determines the clinical outcome. |
| C4572 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the small intestine, large intestine, or both.  Representative examples are carcinomas, lymphomas, and sarcomas." |
| C45732 | "A rare extragonadal germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum and is associated with the presence of a somatic-type malignant component.  The somatic malignancy is usually a sarcoma (e.g., embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, angiosarcoma, or leiomyosarcoma), adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, adenosquamous carcinoma, or primitive neuroectodermal tumor.  The prognosis is poor." |
| C45733 | "An extragonadal non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum and is associated with a hematologic malignancy.  The hematologic malignancies are clonally related to the malignant germ cell tumor and include acute leukemias, myelodysplastic syndromes, myeloproliferative neoplasms, and mastocytosis." |
| C45738 | A precursor T-cell lymphoid neoplasm composed of small to medium-sized lymphoblasts that affects the mediastinum. |
| C45739 | A precursor T-cell lymphoblastic leukemia that involves the mediastinum.  It usually affects adolescent and young adult males.  It is treated with aggressive chemotherapy and radiation. |
| C4573 | "A malignant neoplasm that arises from the hair follicles, sebaceous glands, or sweat glands." |
| C45740 | A precursor T lymphoblastic lymphoma that arises from the mediastinum.  It usually presents with an anterior mediastinal mass and respiratory distress.  It may present acutely with superior vena cava syndrome.  It usually affects adolescent and young adult males.  It is treated with aggressive chemotherapy and radiation.  The prognosis is better in the pediatric patients. |
| C45741 | "A mass-forming malignant neoplasm that arises from the mediastinum and is characterized by the proliferation of myeloblasts or immature myeloid cells. It may present in association with or precede acute myeloid leukemia, or it may be the first manifestation of relapse of acute myeloid leukemia." |
| C45743 | "An extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma that arises from paraganglia in the mediastinum.  Clinical signs and symptoms include chest pain, cough, hoarseness, and dysphagia." |
| C45744 | "A localized neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation, that arises from the mediastinum.  It is characterized by the presence of round to spindle-shaped cells, hylanized stroma formation, thin-walled branching blood vessels, and thin bands of collagen." |
| C45745 | "A hamartomatous lesion of the sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, and Purkinje fibers of the cardiac conducting system. It occurs predominantly in the first two years of life. Most patients present with arrhythmias and electrical disturbances. It is characterized by the presence of multifocal, poorly defined islands of large polygonal cells with a granular eosinophilic cytoplasm, a small round to oval-shaped nucleus, and occasional nucleoli. The cytoplasmic appearance is due to extensiv... |
| C45746 | "A non-malignant, focal growth in the heart, composed of unencapsulated nodules of enlarged, hypertrophic, mature cardiac myocytes with a variable amount of collagen and fat." |
| C45747 | A rare cardiac rhabdomyoma occurring in adults.  It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic striated muscle cells with eosinophilic granular cytoplasm and increased cellularity. |
| C45748 | A cardiac myxoma arising from the ventricle. |
| C45749 | A hemangioma arising from the heart. |
| C4574 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the dermis. |
| C45750 | A hemangioma that arises from the heart and is characterized by the presence of cavernous vascular spaces. |
| C45751 | A capillary hemangioma arising from the heart. |
| C45752 | A hemangioma arising from the myocardium. |
| C45753 | "An intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the heart.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes, and plasma cells." |
| C45754 | "A multicystic tumor arising in the inferior interatrial septum in the region of the atrioventricular node. The vast majority of patients present with complete heart block and a minority with partial heart block. Sudden death is reported in approximately 10% of the cases. It is a morphologically benign tumor composed of cuboidal, transitional, or squamoid cells. The cells may also show sebaceous differentiation and originate from the endoderm." |
| C45755 | "An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma usually arising from the left atrium of the heart.  It is characterized by the presence of fibrohistiocytic cells, giant cells, and spindle cells arrranged iin a storiform pattern.  Clinical presentation includes signs and symptoms associated with left atrial hemodynamic changes." |
| C45756 | A synovial sarcoma arising from the heart. |
| C45757 | A biphasic synovial sarcoma arising from the heart. |
| C45758 | A monophasic synovial sarcoma arising from the heart. |
| C45759 | A rare malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation arising within the myocardium.  It is characterized by the presence of small round spindle cells.  Most cardiac rhabodomyosarcomas are of embryonal type and usually present in children and young adults. |
| C4575 | A malignant neoplasm arising from the great vessels. |
| C45761 | A rare benign or malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the pericardium. The reported cases have been teratomas and yolk sac tumors. |
| C45762 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the pericardium from another primary anatomic site. |
| C4576 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the thalamus. |
| C4577 | A malignant neoplasm involving the cerebrum. |
| C4578 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the conjunctiva. |
| C4579 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the cornea. |
| C4580 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the structures of the chest wall.  Representative examples include lymphoma and chondrosarcoma. |
| C4581 | "The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the large intestine.  This may be from a primary large intestine malignant neoplasm, or from a malignant neoplasm at a distant site." |
| C4582 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm from its original site of growth to the bone marrow. |
| C45834 | A non-functioning pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter. |
| C45835 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the pancreas. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C45837 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the pancreas.  It is characterized by the absence of a hormone-related clinical syndrome." |
| C45838 | A pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor G2 characterized by the absence of a hormone-related clinical syndrome. |
| C4583 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the peritoneum from another primary anatomic site. |
| C45840 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the pancreas. It is characterized by the presence of a clinical syndrome that results from hormone hypersecretion." |
| C45841 | A pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor G2 characterized by the presence of a clinical syndrome that results from hormone hypersecretion. |
| C45843 | "A rare carcinoma with a poor prognosis, characterized by the presence of a mixture of exocrine and neuroendocrine malignant epithelial cells in both the pancreas and metastatic sites.  Symptoms include jaundice, abdominal pain, and weight loss." |
| C4584 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the testis from another anatomic site. |
| C4585 | "A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the spinal cord from another anatomic site or system.  Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, and melanoma." |
| C4586 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the eye from another anatomic site. |
| C4587 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C4588 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C4589 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C4590 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C45915 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that produces gonadotropic hormones (FSH and/or LH). |
| C45916 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that expresses adenohypophyseal hormones and belongs to more than one adenohypophysial cell lineage. |
| C45917 | A tumor that arises in the sellar region and is characterized by the presence of mature ganglion cells and neuronal differentiation. It is often associated with the presence of pituitary neuroendocrine tumors/adenomas. |
| C45918 | "A tumor characterized by the presence of mature ganglion cells and neuronal differentiation, arising in the hypothalamus. It is often associated with the presence of pituitary gland adenomas. Symptoms include acromegaly and precocious puberty." |
| C45921 | A neoplasm arising from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. The vast majority are pituitary neuroendocrine tumors (formerly pituitary adenomas). |
| C45922 |  |
| C45924 | A non-functioning pituitary neuroendocrine tumor without hormonal immunoreactivity or evidence of specific adenohypophyseal cell derivation. |
| C45925 | A growth hormone-producing pituitary neuroendocrine tumor composed of medium-sized acidophilic cells with granular cytoplasm and abundant secretory granules. |
| C45926 | "A growth hormone-producing pituitary neuroendocrine tumor composed of small, round cells containing fibrous bodies and scarce, small secretory granules." |
| C45927 | "A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor composed of an admixture of acidophilic and chromophobic cells that produce growth hormone and prolactin, respectively.  Unlike mammosomatotroph pituitary neuroendocrine tumors, these two hormones are not localized in the same cell by immunohistochemistry." |
| C45928 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor composed of acidophilic cells that produce both growth hormone and prolactin. Immunohistochemical studies reveal the presence of these two hormones localized in the same cell. |
| C45929 | "An infrequent pituitary neuroendocrine tumor composed of cells showing immunoreactivity for prolactin and less often growth hormone. Electron microscopic studies reveal giant mitochondria, a finding not present in any other type of pituitary gland adenomas." |
| C4592 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C45931 | A rare prolactin-producing pituitary neuroendocrine tumor composed of acidophilic cells with many large secretory granules.  The endoplasmic reticulum is not as abundant as in the sparsely granulated subtype. |
| C45932 | "A prolactin-producing pituitary neuroendocrine tumor composed of relatively large, chromophobic or slightly acidophilic cells with well developed, abundant endoplasmic reticulum, and many immature secretory granules.  Mature secretory granules are sparse." |
| C4593 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial or invasion of lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C4594 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial or invasion of lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C4595 | A precancerous neoplastic intraepithelial process involving either the squamous and transitional zones of the anal canal or the perianal skin (anal margin). |
| C4596 | A precancerous neoplastic lesion that arises from the penis. It is characterized by dysplastic changes of the squamous epithelium with an intact basement membrane. |
| C4597 | "Stage 0is includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C4598 | "A neoplasm that arises from the upper or lower gingiva and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4599 | "A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the hard palate, soft palate, or uvula." |
| C46004 | A papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland measuring 10mm or less in diameter.  The survival rates of patients with this type of carcinoma are the same with those of the normal population. |
| C46008 | Thyroid gland anaplastic carcinoma with focal or complete squamous differentiation. Primary thyroid gland squamous cell carcinomas have similar poor overall survival rates as compared to conventional anaplastic thyroid gland carcinomas and are now considered a subtype of the latter. |
| C4600 | "A neoplasm that arises from the major or minor salivary glands and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include Warthin tumor, monomorphic adenoma, and pleomorphic adenoma." |
| C4601 | "A neoplasm that arises from the sublingual gland and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4602 | "A neoplasm that arises from the middle ear and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4603 | "A neoplasm that arises from the nasal cavity and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include Schneiderian papilloma and salivary gland-type adenoma." |
| C4604 | "A neoplasm that arises from the oropharynx and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4605 | "A neoplasm that arises from the glottis and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C46068 | An adenoma or carcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland.  It is composed of large oncocytic cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C4606 | "A neoplasm that arises from the epiglottis and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C46073 | "Breast carcinoma of one breast, or one side of the breast." |
| C4607 | "A neoplasm that arises from the myocardium and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C46080 | Cancer that is not dependent upon the presence of estrogen for metastasis or growth. 2005 |
| C46083 | Interference or disruption of cognitive processes.  This term encompasses a large number of problems and issues associated with intellectual functioning and information processing. 2005 |
| C46084 | Interference or disruption of memory processes. Memory dysfunction refers to the inability to store and retrieve information. This term encompasses a large number of problems and issues associated with intellectual functioning. 2005 |
| C4608 | "A neoplasm that arises from the endocardium and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C46092 | A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the predominance or the exclusive presence of macrofollicles.  Some of the malignant follicular cells display the nuclear features that characterize the papillary adenocarcinomas of the thyroid gland. |
| C46093 | "A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the presence of papillary or follicular structures, containing malignant follicular cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. These cells have the nuclear features that characterize the papillary carcinomas of the thyroid gland." |
| C46094 | A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the predominance of malignant follicular clear cells.  These cells have the nuclear features that characterize the papillary carcinomas of the thyroid gland. |
| C46095 | A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland that predominantly affects children.  It is characterized by the presence of a solid growth pattern.  The malignant cells have nuclear features that are characteristic of papillary carcinomas of the thyroid gland. |
| C46096 | A morphologic variant of follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the predominance of malignant follicular clear cells.  These cells lack the nuclear features that characterize the papillary carcinomas of the thyroid gland. |
| C46098 | A non-hereditary medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland not associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia.  The majority of thyroid gland medullary carcinomas are sporadic. |
| C46099 | A medullary thyroid gland carcinoma inherited through an autosomal dominant mode.  It is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type II (2a) or III (2b). |
| C4609 | "A neoplasm that arises from the small or large intestine and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C46100 | "Neoplastic or reactive proliferation of the C-cells in the thyroid gland. The neoplastic C-cell hyperplasia is associated with familial medullary thyroid gland carcinoma and multiple endocrine neoplasia type II and IIB. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of clusters of intrafollicular C-cells with atypical cytologic features. The reactive C-cell hyperplasia is also known as physiological or secondary C-cell hyperplasia and it is associated with conditions that cause hyperc... |
| C46101 | "A neoplastic process arising from the C-cells of the thyroid gland.  It is considered a precursor of hereditary medullary thyroid gland carcinoma, and it is associated with mutations of the RET gene." |
| C46102 | A non-neoplastic proliferation of C-cells in the thyroid gland caused by external stimuli such as hypercalcemia and chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis. |
| C46103 | A sporadic thyroid gland medullary carcinoma measuring less than 10mm in diameter. |
| C46104 | "A primary carcinoma of the thyroid gland containing a medullary carcinoma component that is immunohistochemically positive for calcitonin, and follicular cell-derived carcinoma component that is immunohistochemically positive for thyroglobulin." |
| C46105 | "A rare, slow growing malignant tumor of the thyroid gland arising from intrathyroidal thymic tissue. It is characterized by a lobulated architectural pattern and the presence of a biphasic cellular population composed of spindle epithelial cells and glandular cells.  A small number of cases are composed exclusively of spindle epithelial cells or glandular cells." |
| C46106 | "A rare primary carcinoma of the thyroid gland, composed of groups of carcinoma cells with thymic epithelial differentiation." |
| C4610 | "A neoplasm that arises from the colon or rectum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C46115 | A thyroid gland adenoma characterized by the presence of signet ring cells that stain positive for thyroglobulin. |
| C46116 | A thyroid gland adenoma composed of follicles and characterized by the presence of abundant extracellular mucin. |
| C46118 | A thyroid gland adenoma composed of follicular structures and mature adipocytes. |
| C46119 | A thyroid gland adenoma composed of follicular cells with cytoplasmic clearing. |
| C4611 | "A neoplasm that arises from the anus and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C46122 | A thyroid gland adenoma producing thyroxin.  It is associated with hyperthyroidism.  Radioactive iodine scan reveals a hot nodule. |
| C46123 | A thyroid gland adenoma containing follicular cells with large hyperchromatic nuclei.  The clinical course is benign. |
| C46124 | A teratoma that arises from the thyroid gland. Thyroid gland teratomas with high grade/malignant histological features carry DICER1 gene mutations and have been reclassified as thyroblastomas. They are no longer considered true teratomas. |
| C46125 | "A rare, circumscribed or encapsulated neuroendocrine tumor arising from the thyroid gland. Microscopically, it is characterized by the presence of tumor cells arranged in a nesting (Zellballen) growth pattern. The reported cases have followed a benign clinical course." |
| C4612 | "A neoplasm that arises from the pancreas and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4614 | "A benign papillary neoplastic growth on the skin composed of epithelial cells and a fibrous stalk.  It usually develops in the eyelid, axilla, neck, upper chest, and groin." |
| C4615 | "A neoplasm that arises from the hair follicles, sebaceous glands, or sweat glands. It is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include cylindroma, hidrocystoma, hidradenoma, and sebaceoma." |
| C4616 | A lipoma arising from the skin. |
| C4618 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the external ear. |
| C4619 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the spinal cord. It is usually associated with dysraphism in which the intraspinal component communicates with a subcutaneous lipoma through a defect in the posterior elements of the spine. Non-dysraphic intramedullary spinal cord lipomas are very rare. |
| C4620 | "A neoplasm that arises from the breast in males and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4621 | "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from an endocrine organ and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include thyroid gland follicular adenoma and parathyroid gland adenoma." |
| C4623 | A jugulotympanic paraganglioma that metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C4624 |  |
| C4627 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the brain or spinal cord.  Representative examples include anaplastic astrocytoma, glioblastoma, anaplastic (malignant) meningioma, lymphoma, and metastatic carcinoma from another anatomic site." |
| C4628 | "A primary or metastatic malignant tumor occurring in the meninges, which surround the brain and spinal cord.  The most common are meningiomas." |
| C4630 | Squamous or glandular cervical intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of mild dysplastic changes. |
| C4632 | A benign tumor that possesses various epidermal derivatives and is due to sequestration of skin along the lines of embryonic closure. |
| C4633 | "A rare cutaneous melanoma where most of the melanoma tumor cells are devoid of melanin pigment. Amelanotic melanomas are more likely to present at a more advanced stage of disease, compared with pigmented melanomas." |
| C4634 | A neoplasm that arises from the dermis and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic fibroblasts. |
| C4635 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the stomach. Most cases arise from the corpus-fundus region. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%. It may be associated with autoimmune chronic atrophic gastritis, multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, or it may be sporadic." |
| C4636 | An extranodal lymphoma that arises from the stomach with the bulk of the mass located in the stomach.  The vast majority of cases are diffuse large B-cell lymphomas and B-cell lymphomas of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. |
| C4637 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the small or large intestine. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C4638 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the small intestine. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C4639 | "A melanoma arising from the anus.  Clinical presentation includes rectal bleeding, tenesmus, pain, and change in bowel habit.  The prognosis is usually poor." |
| C4640 | An aggressive malignant melanocytic neoplasm that arises from the rectum. |
| C4641 | A low or high grade astrocytoma that arises in the spinal cord. |
| C4642 | "A glioblastoma that arises from the brain, usually the cerebral hemispheres." |
| C4643 | A rare squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the scrotum.  It has been associated with exposure to environmental and industrial carcinogens.  The prognosis depends on the extent of lymph node involvement. |
| C4644 | Vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of koilocytosis and disorganization and thickening of the basal layer. |
| C4645 | Vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of nuclear intraepithelial neoplastic changes in the lower two-thirds of the epithelium and parakeratosis. |
| C4646 | "A rare, highly malignant epithelial tumor that develops from a hydatidiform mole (50%), following abortion (25%), or during normal pregnancy (22%). It is characterized by the presence of invasive and anaplastic trophoblastic tissue composed of intermediate trophoblastic cells, cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts, abundant vascularity, and secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin. Because of rapid growth and a high propensity for hemorrhage, this neoplasm often constitutes a medical e... |
| C4647 | "A benign, mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the breast. It is surrounded by a thin capsule and composed of mature adipose tissue cells. Atypia is absent." |
| C4648 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the tongue.  It usually presents as a painful ulcerated or nodular lesion.  The size of the tumor and the status of the lymph nodes are the most important factors that determine prognosis. |
| C4649 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the hard or soft palate. |
| C4650 | "A benign, slow-growing tumor that arises from the parotid gland.  It is composed of cells that demonstrate both epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation. It is the most common neoplasm of salivary gland origin and women are more often affected than men." |
| C4651 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the pericardium. |
| C4652 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the external ear.  Representative examples include ceruminous adenoma, polyp, and carcinoma." |
| C4653 | "A malignant neoplasm that affects the external ear.  Representative examples include squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, and ceruminous adenocarcinoma." |
| C4655 | A benign schwannoma occurring in the trigeminal nerve. |
| C4656 | A meningioma that arises within the cranial cavity. |
| C4659 | "A germ cell tumor that arises in the pineal region.  Representative examples include teratoma, germinoma, and choriocarcinoma." |
| C4660 | A solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the meninges. |
| C4661 | A melanocytic neoplasm that arises from the leptomeninges. This category includes diffuse proliferative processes (melanocytosis and melanomatosis) and circumscribed processes (melanocytoma and melanoma). |
| C4662 | "A usually well differentiated melanocytic neoplasm arising from the meninges. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid, fusiform, polyhedral, and spindle melanocytes without evidence of hemorrhage, necrosis, or high mitotic activity. Presenting symptoms include headache, vomiting, and neurological manifestations. Complete excision is usually curative." |
| C4663 | "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small lymphocytes which surround and replace the splenic white pulp germinal centers.  It involves the spleen and splenic hilar lymph nodes, bone marrow, and often the peripheral blood.  When lymphoma cells are present in the peripheral blood, they are usually, but not always, characterized by the presence of short polar villi. (WHO)" |
| C4664 | "A T-cell peripheral neoplasm characterized by a persistent (>6 months) increase in the number of peripheral blood large granular lymphocytes, without a clearly identified cause. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C4665 | "A clonal proliferation of immunoglobulin-secreting plasma cells. This category includes multiple myeloma, plasma cell leukemia, plasmacytoma, and plasma cell post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder." |
| C4666 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the skin with a prominent spindle cell component. |
| C4668 | An extragonadal immature teratoma that arises from the mediastinum. |
| C4669 | A malignant mesenchymal cell neoplasm that affects the urinary bladder. |
| C4670 | "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the breast.  Representative examples include angiosarcoma, liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and extraskeletal osteosarcoma." |
| C4671 | "A lymphoma that arises from the breast.  There is no history of extramammary breast lymphoma and ipsilateral axillary lymph node involvement does not exclude the diagnosis of primary breast lymphoma.  Most patients present with a painless breast lump.  The vast majority of cases are B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas.  Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, follicular lymphoma, and extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosa associated lymphoid tissue are the most common types of primary non-Hodgk... |
| C4672 | A sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with features of Sertoli cells.  It usually presents as a slow growing testicular mass.  The vast majority of cases follow a benign clinical course. |
| C4673 | "An acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage characterized by blasts which coexpress myeloid and T or B lineage antigens or concurrent B and T lineage antigens.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C4674 | "A benign wart-like, pigmented skin lesion appearing on various parts of the body at birth or early in childhood, usually in linear groupings." |
| C4675 | "A congenital gingival tumor that occurs along the alveolar ridge of the maxilla. It usually affects female infants. The histogenesis is unknown. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of large cells with eosinophilic granular cytoplasm. Complete surgical resection is curative." |
| C4676 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the skull base. |
| C4678 | A hamartomatous skin lesion containing sebaceous glands. It is usually located in the scalp. |
| C4679 | A premalignant pathologic process that affects the mucosal epithelium of the larynx.  It appears as a localized or diffuse white patch on the laryngeal mucosa.  Morphologically it is characterized by the pathologic production of keratin in the mucosal epithelial surface with or without epithelial atypia.  It may progress to or co-exist with invasive squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C4680 | "A superficial fibromatosis arising from soft tissue of the plantar regions. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts, hypercellularity, and an infiltrative growth pattern." |
| C4681 | A rare genetic syndrome with an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the ESCO2 gene. Clinical signs at birth include multiple limb and facial abnormalities. It is considered to be a mild variant of Roberts syndrome. |
| C4682 | "An X-linked form of severe combined immunodeficiency characterized as T-cell negative, B-cell positive, NK cell negative, and with mutations in the IL2RG gene, resulting in an impairment of both humoral and cell-mediated immunity, leukopenia, and low or absent antibody levels." |
| C4683 | "A low grade fibroblastic neoplasm presenting as a nodular cutaneous mass, most often on the trunk and the proximal extremities.  The tumor diffusely infiltrates the dermis and the subcutaneous tissues.  It is considered a locally aggressive neoplasm, which often recurs but rarely metastasizes." |
| C4684 | "An aggressive, predominantly extranodal, mature T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma. It is characterized by an often angiocentric and angiodestructive cellular infiltrate composed of EBV positive NK/T cells. The nasal cavity is the most common site of involvement. Patients often present with midfacial destructive lesions (lethal midline granuloma). The disease may disseminate rapidly to various anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal tract, skin, testis, and cervical lymph nodes. It is also k... |
| C4685 | "A rare, immune-mediated disorder characterized by cerebellar degeneration due to the presence of an often undetected malignancy (usually carcinoma or lymphoma) in an anatomic site other than the cerebellum. Signs and symptoms include progressive ataxia, dysarthria, and nystagmus." |
| C4686 | A combination of opsoclonus (involuntary conjugate eye movements of large amplitude) and myoclonic jerks. This can be a paraneoplastic syndrome (a result of brain metastasis) or post-infectious (viral encephalitis). |
| C4687 |  |
| C4689 | "A rare immunodeficiency with an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. It is caused by mutation in the ITGB2 gene on chromosome 21 which codes for the beta subunit of beta-2 integrin (CD18). The mutation results in significantly reduced or absent expression of CD18 on the surface of leukocytes which impairs their ability to migrate and interact with antigens. Initial clinical signs include omphalitis and delayed separation of the umbilical cord. The clinical course is marked by recurre... |
| C4690 | "Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency, Type II.  An inherited disease affecting the metabolism of fucose, which affects the expression of the sialyl Lewis X antigen, the fucose-containing ligand for E- and P-selectins, resulting in a deficiency in neutrophil adhesion.  SYN Sialyl-Lewis X defect." |
| C4691 | "A broad classification for rare genetic disorders with mostly autosomal recessive patterns of inheritance. They are caused by the ineffective or decreased biosynthesis of complement components. Complement deficiencies may also be acquired acutely post-infection or chronically from co-morbid autoimmune disorders. If complement components are adequately synthesized, their rapid depletion may result in functional deficiencies. Clinical signs of inherited deficiencies present within the first d... |
| C4692 | "A disorder, wherein unstable chromosomes have a tendency to break and become rearranged, characterized by microcephaly, stunted growth, subnormal mental development, cafe-au-lait spots, and immunodeficiency. The syndrome is named after the University of Nijmegen in the Netherlands. (JABL99)" |
| C4693 | A non-neoplastic nodular lesion that arises from the gingiva.  It is composed of epithelial cells lining connective tissue stroma. |
| C4694 |  |
| C4695 | Non-homogenous leukoplakia on the oral mucosa.  It is associated with a high risk for malignant transformation. |
| C4696 | Warty leukoplakia on the oral mucosa.  It is associated with a high risk for malignant transformation. |
| C4697 | A premalignant pathologic process that affects the oral mucosa.  It is associated with the use of smoked tobacco.  It appears as white lesions on the oral mucosa.  Morphologically it is characterized by the pathologic production of keratin in the mucosal epithelial surface with or without epithelial atypia.  It may reverse with the cessation of tobacco use. |
| C4699 | "A diverse group of pregnancy-related tumors characterized by excessive proliferation of trophoblasts. It includes gestational choriocarcinoma, epithelioid trophoblastic tumor, placental site trophoblastic tumor, and mixed trophoblastic tumor." |
| C4700 | "A morphologic variant of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans that is most often seen in childhood and is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblastic cells, a storiform growth pattern, numerous multinucleated giant cells, wide vessel-like spaces, and extensive myxoid change." |
| C4701 | "A rare neoplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of unilateral lipomas of the cranium, face and neck, and ipsilateral cerebral malformations." |
| C4702 | "A hereditary syndrome this is characterized by palmoplantar keratoderma accompanied by leukoplakia and may be associated with a high lifetime risk of esophageal cancer, as seen in Howel-Evans Syndrome." |
| C4703 | "A rare, congenital skin lesion consisting of a proliferation of eccrine glands with a vascular stroma. It presents as a flesh-colored, hyperhidrotic, painful papule or plaque appearing at birth or during childhood." |
| C4704 | "A type of pilosebaceous hamartoma characterized by the development of a linear, flesh colored, fine papular eruption on the head, neck and upper chest after puberty." |
| C4705 | "An autosomal dominant disorder most often caused by mutations in the PRKAR1A gene. It is characterized by the presence of myxomas in the heart and skin, skin hyperpigmentation, increased endocrine activity and melanotic schwannomas." |
| C4706 | "A benign skin tumor characterized as a small, dome-shaped dermal nodule composed of fibroblasts in a dense collagenous background with storiform organization.  Rarely, multiple lesions can occur in connection with Cowden's disease." |
| C4707 | "An acquired form of collagenoma that appears in childhood. It is characterized by discrete, firm, skin-colored, and slightly elevated cutaneous papules, nodules or plaques that may be generalized, or found on the trunk and the extremities." |
| C4709 | A clinical term that indicates the presence of a white mucosal patch in the interarytenoid area.  In most cases histologic examination reveals keratosis. |
| C4711 |  |
| C4712 | An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of metaplasia. |
| C4713 | An ependymoma which shows conspicuous cellularity without a significant increase in mitotic rate. (Adapted from WHO) |
| C4714 | "An ependymoma, often supratentorial in location, characterized by the presence of ependymal cells with a perinuclear halo." |
| C4715 | A malignant neoplasm arising from the choroid plexus.  It shows anaplastic features and usually invades neighboring brain structures. Cerebrospinal fluid metastases are frequent. (Adapted from WHO) |
| C4716 | "An exceedingly rare, aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm characterized by the presence of a sarcomatous component and a ganglionic or a neuroectodermal component." |
| C4717 | "A WHO grade III neuroepithelial neoplasm composed of neoplastic, mature ganglion cells and anaplastic glial cells. The anaplastic changes in the glial component and high MIB-1 and TP53 labeling indices may indicate aggressive behavior. However, the correlation of histological anaplasia with clinical outcome is inconsistent. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C4718 | A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of epithelial differentiation and numerous intracellular PAS positive bodies that are rich in glycogen. |
| C4719 | A meningioma that affects the choroid plexus. |
| C4720 | A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of prominent chronic inflammatory infiltrates that predominate over the meningioma cells. |
| C4721 | A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of intercellular microcystic spaces that contain mucinous fluid. |
| C4722 | A WHO grade II morphologic variant of meningioma characterized by the presence of clear glycogen-rich polygonal cells. |
| C4723 | "A WHO grade II meningioma characterized by the presence of brain invasion and an increased mitotic activity, or at least three of the following morphologic features: small cells, high cellularity, prominent nucleoli, lack of architectural pattern, and necrosis." |
| C4724 | "A morphologic variant of schwannoma characterized by hypercellularity, Antoni A pattern, and the absence of well-formed Verocay bodies." |
| C4725 | "A craniopharyngioma composed of sheets of squamous epithelium which separate to form pseudopapillae. This variant typically lacks nuclear palisading, wet keratin, calcification, and cholesterol deposits. Clinically, endocrine deficiencies are more often associated with papillary craniopharyngioma than with the adamantinomatous type. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C4726 | "A craniopharyngioma consisting of broad strands, cords and bridges of a multistratified squamous epithelium with peripheral palisading of nuclei. Diagnostic features include nodules of compact 'wet' keratin and dystrophic calcification. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C4727 | "Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) is a polyclonal (benign) or clonal (malignant) proliferation of lymphoid cells that develops as a consequence of immunosuppression in a recipient of a solid organ or bone marrow allograft. PTLDs comprise a spectrum ranging from early, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-driven polyclonal lymphoid proliferations to EBV-positive or EBV- negative lymphomas of predominantly B-cell or less often T-cell type. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C4728 | "A rapidly growing, poorly circumscribed, mass-forming proliferation that arises from the subcutaneous tissues. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts, round ganglion-like cells, myxoid to collagenous stroma formation, and high mitotic activity. It recurs only rarely following local excision and does not metastasize." |
| C4729 | "A rare self-limiting, rapidly growing, non-encapsulated benign neoplasm that arises from the vessels. It is characterized by the presence of plump spindle-shaped fibroblasts, multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, chronic inflammatory infiltrate, red blood cell extravasation, and high mitotic activity." |
| C4730 | Lobular neoplasia characterized by lobular epithelial proliferation that does not completely fill the lobular unit of the breast. |
| C4731 | "A disorder affecting the cranial nerves or the peripheral nervous system. It manifests with pain, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. It may be the result of physical injury, toxic substances, viral diseases, diabetes, renal failure, cancer, and drugs." |
| C4733 | "A hamartomatous polyp that occurs in the stomach, small and large intestines, and rarely within the esophagus, nasopharynx and the urinary tract.  The Peutz-Jeghers polyps are grossly lobulated and dark.  Microscopically, they have a central core of smooth muscle covered by mucosa.  The smooth muscle shows tree-like branching.  The question of whether or not the Peutz-Jeghers polyp is precancerous is a matter of controversy.  The loss of heterozygosity on chromosome 19p (where the responsib... |
| C4734 | "A rare type of multiple myeloma in which the plasma cells synthesize but do not secrete immunoglobulins.  As a result, none of the immunoglobulins appear out of the normal range.  The symptoms are generally the same with those of immunoglobulin-secreting myeloma; however, the incidence of renal insufficiency is lower in non-secretory myeloma.  The diagnosis can be missed because of the absence of monoclonal immunoglobulin in the serum or urine." |
| C4735 |  |
| C4736 |  |
| C4737 | "A mature T-cell and NK-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma of intraepithelial T-lymphocytes. It usually arises from the small intestine, most commonly the jejunum or ileum.  Other less frequent primary anatomic sites include the duodenum, stomach, colon, or outside the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of pleomorphic medium-sized to large T-lymphocytes with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and moderate to abundant pale cytoplasm. It is associated with celiac disease." |
| C4738 | "A WHO grade I large cystic tumor that occurs almost exclusively in infants, with a prominent desmoplastic stroma having a neuroepithelial population of neoplastic astrocytes together with a variable neuronal component. It involves the superficial cerebral cortex and leptomeninges, and often attaches to the dura. Although clinically it presents as a large tumor, it generally has a good prognosis following surgical resection. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C4740 | "A rare, congenital disorder of the eccrine sweat ducts that presents as grouped keratotic papules and plaques with a linear distribution and/or multiple punctate pits filled with tiny keratotic plugs resembling comedones. The lesion are usually located on the acral portion of a limb." |
| C4741 | A classification system grouping neoplasms according to their cellular characteristics. |
| C4742 | A non-metastasizing neoplasm composed of squamous cells. The neoplastic cells do not display malignant features. |
| C4744 |  |
| C4746 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed of nests of neoplastic urothelial-type cells in a fibrotic stroma. There is no evidence of atypia or invasion. |
| C4747 | "A group of central nervous system neoplasms with a variable amount of neuronal and, less consistently, glial differentiation. They occur at a low frequency and usually carry a favorable prognosis.  Representative examples include dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma, desmoplastic infantile ganglioglioma, desmoplastic infantile astrocytoma, and dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C4748 | A rare variant of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells that contain melanin. |
| C4749 | "A type of pilosebaceous hamartoma characterized by basal cell epitheliomata, epidermoid cysts and comedones, and epidermal atrophy." |
| C4750 | A cavernous hemangioma arising from the skin. |
| C4751 | A subtype of cutaneous Spitz nevus characterized by the presence of heavily pigmented spindle-shaped melanocytes that proliferate in the epidermis or in the epidermis and superficial dermis. It presents as a small and slightly elevated brown or black skin lesion with usually well-demarcated borders. Sometimes the clinical and morphologic features may be difficult to distinguish from melanoma. |
| C4752 | "An aggressive T-cell leukemia, characterized by the proliferation of small to medium sized prolymphocytes with a mature T-cell phenotype, involving the blood, bone marrow, lymph nodes, liver, spleen, and skin.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C4753 | "A malignant B-cell lymphoproliferative process affecting the blood, bone marrow, and spleen.  The B-prolymphocytes are medium-sized, round lymphoid cells with prominent nucleoli.  The B-prolymphocytes must exceed 55% of lymphoid cells in the blood.  Cases of transformed chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and CLL with increased prolymphocytes are excluded.  The prognosis is poor.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C4754 | A hemangioma characterized by the presence of spindle endothelial cells in the dermis with frequent extension in the subcutaneous tissue. It manifests with multiple asymptomatic bluish nodules and usually affects the distal extremities. |
| C4755 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant cartilaginous matrix-producing neoplasm.  Representative examples include osteochondroma, chondroblastoma, and chondrosarcoma." |
| C4756 | "Intraepithelial neoplasia of the vulvar squamous epithelium. There is no evidence of invasion. It includes vulvar squamous intraepithelial lesion, HPV-associated and vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia, HPV-independent." |
| C4757 | Kidney damage that results from chronically elevated blood pressure; complications include glomerular damage resulting in proteinuria and hematuria. |
| C4758 | "A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the liver from another (primary) anatomic site. Representative examples include carcinomas, lymphomas, melanomas, or sarcomas." |
| C4760 | An intraepithelial lesion of the vulvar squamous epithelium associated with HPV infection. It is characterized by mild cytologic atypia. |
| C4761 | "An intraepithelial lesion of the vulvar squamous epithelium associated with HPV infection. It is characterized by loss of maturation, nuclear hyperchromasia, high nuclear:cytoplasmic ratios, cytological and architectural atypia, and mitoses. Two morphological patterns have been described: basaloid (undifferentiated) and warty (condylomatous, bowenoid). It carries a significant but relatively low risk of progression to squamous cell carcinoma if untreated. (WHO 2020)" |
| C4762 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the major salivary glands.  Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C4763 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the cervical region of the esophagus. |
| C4764 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the abdominal region of the esophagus. |
| C4765 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the middle ear.  Representative examples include adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C4766 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the ciliary body. Representative examples include melanoma and malignant medulloepithelioma. |
| C4767 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the structures of the eye (conjunctiva, cornea, uvea, retina), the lacrimal system, and the eyelid. Representative examples include melanoma, carcinoma, lymphoma, and retinoblastoma." |
| C4768 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the olfactory nerve. |
| C4769 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the pituitary gland. |
| C4770 | "A neoplasm that arises from the parotid gland and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include Warthin tumor, monomorphic adenoma, pleomorphic adenoma, and lipoma." |
| C4771 | "A neoplasm that arises from the major salivary glands and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include Warthin tumor, monomorphic adenoma, and pleomorphic adenoma." |
| C4772 | "A neoplasm that arises from the cecum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4773 | "A neoplasm that arises from the appendix and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4774 | "A neoplasm that arises from the rectum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4775 | "A neoplasm that arises from the duodenum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential.." |
| C4776 | "A neoplasm that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4777 | "A neoplasm that arises from the male reproductive system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include benign prostate phyllodes tumor, benign Sertoli cell tumor, seminal vesicle cystadenoma, and epididymal adenomatoid tumor." |
| C4778 | "A neoplasm that arises from the kidney and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4779 | "A neoplasm that arises from the ciliary body and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4780 | "A neoplasm that arises from the eye and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C47814 | "Paralysis of the muscles of one or both vocal cords. Signs and symptoms include hoarseness, weak voice, dyspnea, and coughing. Affected individuals are at risk for aspiration pneumonia." |
| C4781 | "A neoplasm that arises from the brain and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4782 | "A neoplasm that arises from the anterior or posterior lobe of pituitary gland and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4783 | A low grade epithelial tumor arising from the ovary. It is characterized by an atypical proliferation of epithelial cells. There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C47847 | An invasive carcinoma of the breast showing differentiation towards cartilaginous structures. |
| C47848 | An invasive breast carcinoma showing differentiation towards bone structures. |
| C4784 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the heart and/or vessels.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include atrial myxoma, hemangioma, and lymphangioma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include pericardial malignant mesothelioma and angiosarcoma." |
| C47857 | "A malignant neoplasm in which there is infiltration of the skin overlying the breast by neoplastic large cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and large nuclei with prominent nucleoli (Paget cells). It is almost always associated with an intraductal or invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast. The clinical features include focal skin reddening, and eczema. Retraction of the nipple may sometimes occur." |
| C47858 | "Paget disease involving the skin overlying the mammary gland, without accompanying invasive ductal or lobular breast carcinoma." |
| C4786 | "Loss of intellectual abilities interfering with an individual's social and occupational functions. Causes include Alzheimer's disease, brain injuries, brain tumors, and vascular disorders." |
| C4787 | "A neoplasm that arises from the digestive system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4788 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the nervous system. |
| C4789 | "A neoplasm that arises from the nervous system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4791 | A cardiac myxoma arising from the left atrium. |
| C4792 | A cardiac myxoma arising from the right atrium. |
| C4793 | An extranodal lymphoma that arises from the colon.  The majority are B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C4794 | A rare non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that arises in and is confined to the lung at the time of diagnosis. |
| C4796 | An episode of elevated blood pressure. |
| C4798 | The reemergence of a neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C4799 | A broad classification of disorders where circulating numbers of B lymphocytes are decreased or ineffective. Complement components and the production of antibodies may also be deficient. |
| C4800 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the retina. Representative examples of benign neoplasms include retinocytoma and hemangioma. Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include retinoblastoma, lymphoma and melanoma." |
| C4801 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the optic nerve. Clinical features may include visual loss, proptosis, and local pain. The majority of optic nerve neoplasms are gliomas." |
| C4802 | A disorder of the central nervous system characterized by gradual and progressive loss of neural tissue and neurologic function. |
| C4803 | A carcinoma that arises from the duodenum.  The vast majority of cases are adenocarcinomas. |
| C4804 | "A general term that refers to hyperplastic proliferations of the epithelial cells in the breast parenchyma.  Examples include atypical ductal hyperplasia, usual ductal hyperplasia, columnar cell hyperplasia, and atypical lobular hyperplasia." |
| C4805 | "A non-congenital, benign vascular lesion with a central punctum (arteriole) that is surrounded by thin-walled capillaries in a radial pattern. It occurs as the result of the dilatation of pre-existing vessels and is most often an incidental finding. The lesion may also be found in association with hypermetabolic states or chronic disease." |
| C4806 | "A type of telangiectasia, comprised of a central red spot with radiating, red extensions, that is present at the time of birth." |
| C4807 | A meningioma that affects the cerebral hemispheres. |
| C4810 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the sweat glands. |
| C4811 | "A congenital benign lesion that occurs in the distal sternocleidomastoid muscle of infants. It is characterized by the presence of plump spindle cells, and collagenous stroma formation." |
| C4812 | "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Symptoms include swelling, pain, bleeding, mobility of affected teeth, and oral mucosa ulcerations. It may metastasize to lymph nodes and distant anatomic sites early." |
| C4813 | The reemergence of a malignant neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C4815 | "A carcinoma arising from the thyroid gland. It includes the following main subtypes: follicular, papillary, medullary, poorly differentiated, and anaplastic carcinoma." |
| C4816 | "Dermatitis caused or precipitated by exposure to ultraviolet sunlight, or by mediating phototoxic or photoallergic material in response to ultraviolet sunlight." |
| C4817 | "A small round cell tumor that lacks morphologic, immunohistochemical, and electron microscopic evidence of neuroectodermal differentiation. It represents one of the two ends of the spectrum called Ewing sarcoma/peripheral neuroectodermal tumor. It affects mostly males under age 20, and it can occur in soft tissue or bone. Pain and the presence of a mass are the most common clinical symptoms." |
| C4818 | "A rare slow-growing benign neoplasm arising from the soft tissues in children. It is a poorly circumscribed tumor characterized by the presence of chondrocyte-like cells, nodular calcification, nuclear palisading, and in some cases osteoclastic giant cells." |
| C4819 | A carcinoma arising from the squamous cells of the epidermis.  Skin squamous cell carcinoma is most commonly found on sun-exposed areas.  The majority of the tumors are well-differentiated. |
| C4820 |  |
| C4822 | "A grade 3 or grade 4 glioma arising from the central nervous system. This category includes glioblastoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic ependymoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, and anaplastic oligoastrocytoma." |
| C4824 | A malignant tumor arising from the epithelium that covers the tongue.  The vast majority of tongue carcinomas are moderately or poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinomas. |
| C48259 | "Hyperfunction of the parathyroid glands resulting in the overproduction of parathyroid hormone. It may be primary or secondary; primary hyperparathyroidism is caused by parathyroid adenoma, parathyroid hyperplasia, parathyroid carcinoma, and multiple endocrine neoplasia. It is associated with hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia. Signs and symptoms include weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, constipation, depression, bone pain, osteoporosis, cystic bone lesions, and kidney stones. Secondary ... |
| C4825 | A carcinoma arising from the tonsilar epithelium. |
| C4827 | A neuroblastoma arising from the adrenal gland. |
| C48280 | "Hyperfunction of the parathyroid glands resulting in the overproduction of parathyroid hormone. It is caused by parathyroid adenoma, parathyroid hyperplasia, parathyroid carcinoma, and multiple endocrine neoplasia. It is associated with hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia. Signs and symptoms include weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, constipation, depression, bone pain, osteoporosis, cystic bone lesions, and kidney stones." |
| C48283 | A parathyroid gland adenoma that contains mature adipocytes. |
| C48285 | "A parathyroid gland tumor that shares certain morphologic characteristics with parathyroid gland carcinomas (e.g. broad fibrous bands formation with or without hemosiderin deposition, presence of mitotic figures) but lacks unequivocal evidence of capsular or vascular invasion. It is considered a tumor of uncertain malignant potential. (WHO)" |
| C48287 | "An autosomal dominant inherited syndrome characterized by the development of parathyroid adenoma or carcinoma, ossifying fibroma of the mandible and maxilla, renal neoplasms, and renal cysts." |
| C4828 | "A chronic, autoimmune inflammatory liver disorder characterized by narrowing and scarring of the lumen of the bile ducts. It is often seen in patients with ulcerative colitis. Signs and symptoms include jaundice, fatigue, and malabsorption. It may lead to cirrhosis and liver failure." |
| C4829 |  |
| C48300 | "An autosomal dominant hereditary neoplastic syndrome caused by mutations in the SDHA,SDHB, SDHC, SDHD, and SDHAF2 genes. It is characterized by the development of paragangliomas and pheochromocytomas, gastrointestinal stromal tumors, and SDH-deficient renal cell carcinomas." |
| C48305 | A sporadic or familial pheochromocytoma that is confined to the adrenal gland. |
| C48306 | "A neoplasm that arises from the adrenal medulla and combines morphologic characteristics of pheochromocytoma and neuroectodermal tumors such as neuroblastoma, ganglioneuroma, ganglioneuroblastoma, or peripheral nerve sheath tumor." |
| C4830 | A carcinoma that arises from the urothelial lining of the ureter. |
| C48314 | A paraganglioma that is confined to the site of origin. |
| C48316 | An extra-adrenal paraganglioma arising from the nasopharynx and nose.  Epistaxis or nasal obstruction are common presenting symptoms. |
| C48317 | "An extra-adrenal sympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia located along the aorta, including suprarenal, infrarenal, and renal hilar sites.  In functional tumors, the hypersecretion of catecholamines results in hypertension." |
| C48318 | An extra-adrenal paraganglioma arising from the cerebellum. |
| C48319 | A benign adrenal cortical neoplasm deriving from mesothelial cells. |
| C4831 | A hemangioma arising from the gums. |
| C48320 | A rare malignant soft tissue neoplasm arising from the vascular endothelium of the adrenal gland. |
| C4832 | A sarcoma that occurs in the retroperitoneal region. |
| C4833 | "A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the oral cavity. It affects predominantly adults in their fifth and sixth decades of life and is associated with alcohol and tobacco use. Human papillomavirus is present in approximately half of the cases. It is characterized by a tendency to metastasize early to the lymph nodes. When the tumor is small, patients are often asymptomatic. Physical examination may reveal erythematous or white lesions or plaques. The majority of patients present with signs... |
| C4834 | "A usually aggressive malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the bone. It usually involves the long bones and predominantly affects adolescents and young adults. Pain and a palpable mass are the most frequent clinical sign and symptom. It may spread to other anatomic sites, particularly the lungs." |
| C4835 | "A small round cell bone tumor that lacks morphologic, immunohistochemical, and electron microscopic evidence of neuroectodermal differentiation.  It represents one of the two ends of the spectrum called Ewing sarcoma/peripheral neuroectodermal tumor.  It often affects the diaphysis or metaphyseal-diaphyseal portion of long bones.  Clinical findings include pain and a mass in the involved area.  Fever, anemia, leukocytosis, and an increased sedimentation rate are often seen.  X-ray examinati... |
| C4836 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the epiglottis.  The vast majority of cases are squamous cell carcinomas. |
| C4837 |  |
| C4839 | "A lesion that is characterized by architectural and cytologic abnormalities of the esophageal epithelium, and carries a predisposition for progression to invasive carcinoma.  Intraepithelial neoplasia (dysplasia) of the esophagus is graded as low or high grade.  In this two-tier system, severe dysplasia and carcinoma in situ are included under the rubric of high grade intraepithelial neoplasia and may have the same clinical implications.  (WHO, 2000)" |
| C4840 | "A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities are confined to the lower half of the esophageal epithelium.  (WHO, 2000)" |
| C4843 | "A neoplastic, non-invasive lesion that affects the biliary epithelium.  It is characterized by the presence of atypical epithelial cells with an increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio, nuclear hyperchromasia, and loss of nuclear polarity." |
| C48447 | "A usually non-functioning variant of adrenal cortex adenoma, composed of large cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm." |
| C48449 | "An adenoma of the adrenal cortex that produces cortisol. It may be associated with Cushing syndrome. Clinical presentation includes weight gain, round face, easy bruising, muscle weakness, emotional changes, hirsutism, and hypertension." |
| C48451 | "An adenoma of the adrenal cortex that produces aldosterone. It may be associated with Conn syndrome. Clinical presentation includes hypertension, hypokalemia, and muscle weakness." |
| C48452 | A rare adenoma of the adrenal cortex that produces androgens or estrogens. |
| C48454 | A rare adenoma of the adrenal cortex that produces androgens.  Female patients usually have symptoms related to virilism. |
| C48456 | A rare adenoma of the adrenal cortex that produces estrogens.  Male patients may develop gynecomastia and impotence. |
| C48458 | An adenoma of the adrenal cortex characterized by the absence of a hormonal syndrome or symptoms suggestive of adrenal disease. |
| C4845 | "A pre-cancerous, non-invasive pancreatic epithelial neoplasm that arises from and is confined to the pancreatic ducts.  It is a papillary or flat neoplasm that usually measures less than 5 mm in diameter." |
| C4846 | "A pancreatic mucinous intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of papillary and less often flat architectural patterns.  Moderate cytological atypia is present with some loss of nuclear polarity, nuclear crowding or hyperchromatism." |
| C4853 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial or invasion of the lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C4855 | "Carcinoma that arises from the laryngeal epithelium. More than 90% of laryngeal carcinomas are squamous cell carcinomas. The remainder are adenoid cystic carcinomas, mucoepidermoid carcinomas and carcinomas with neuroendocrine differentiation." |
| C4856 | A benign or malignant (primary or metastatic) neoplasm affecting the adrenal medulla. |
| C48576 | A sympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia outside the adrenal gland. Clinical symptoms are related to secretion of catecholamines. Representative examples include the superior and inferior paraaortic and bladder paragangliomas. |
| C4858 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the placenta. Representative examples include hemangioma and choriocarcinoma. |
| C48596 | A carcinoma that is not confined to the prostatic epithelium but has spread to the surrounding stroma of the prostate gland.  The vast majority of invasive prostate carcinomas are adenocarcinomas. |
| C4859 |  |
| C48607 | "A melanoma of the skin that is not confined to the dermal-epidermal junction, and has infiltrated the dermis." |
| C4860 | "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the lung.  Representative examples include Kaposi sarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and synovial sarcoma." |
| C48612 | "A melanocytic neoplasm displaying morphologic features that are intermediate between those of benign nevus and melanoma.  It is characterized by a nodular architectural growth resembling a melanoma, and a loss of nevus cell maturation.  The melanocytic cells forming the nodular growth are uniform, and they may display a high mitotic rate, but they do not show cytologic atypia." |
| C48613 | A melanoma of the skin arising in a congenital melanocytic nevus. |
| C48614 | A desmoplastic melanoma characterized by the presence of nerve infiltration by atypical spindled melanocytes. |
| C4861 | "An acute myeloid leukemia in which the majority of monocytic cells are promonocytes.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C48622 | A lentiginous melanoma affecting mucosal surfaces. |
| C48627 | "A syndrome characterized by the presence of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait skin lesions, and sexual precocity.  It is caused by mutations within the GNAS genetic locus." |
| C4862 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed of granulosa cells, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, theca cells, and fibroblasts.  Representative examples include thecoma, fibroma, Sertoli cell tumor, and granulosa cell tumor." |
| C4863 | "One of the most common malignant tumors afflicting men.  The majority of carcinomas arise in the peripheral zone and a minority occur in the central or the transitional zone of the prostate gland.  Grossly, prostatic carcinomas appear as ill-defined yellow areas of discoloration in the prostate gland lobes.  Adenocarcinomas represent the overwhelming majority of prostatic carcinomas.  Prostatic-specific antigen (PSA) serum test is widely used as a screening test for the early detection of p... |
| C4866 | "A carcinoma arising from the vulva.  It usually affects elderly women but has been observed in premenopausal women as well.  The most frequently seen histologic type is squamous cell carcinoma. The most common site of involvement is the labia majora.  In many cases, the development of vulvar cancer is preceded by condyloma or squamous dysplasia." |
| C4867 | A malignant neoplasm arising exclusively from the soft tissues. |
| C4868 | A hemangioma arising from the fetal blood vessels in the placental villi. |
| C4869 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the brain stem. |
| C4871 | A gestational trophoblastic disorder in which there is no embryo or normal placental tissue and the chorionic villi are hydropic. |
| C4872 | "A carcinoma arising from the breast, most commonly the terminal ductal-lobular unit. It is the most common malignant tumor in females. Risk factors include country of birth, family history, menstrual and reproductive history, fibrocystic disease and epithelial hyperplasia, exogenous estrogens, contraceptive agents, and ionizing radiation. The vast majority of breast carcinomas are adenocarcinomas (ductal or lobular). Breast carcinoma spreads by direct invasion, by the lymphatic route, and b... |
| C4873 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that is uncommon. |
| C4874 | A primary or metastatic neoplasm that affects the cerebral hemispheres. |
| C4875 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the male or female genital system. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include infection, testicular torsion, endometriosis, and adenomyosis. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include germ cell tumors, carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C4877 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the rectosigmoid region.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include lipoma and leiomyoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma.  Rectosigmoid adenomas always exhibit epithelial dysplasia and are considered premalignant neoplasms." |
| C4878 | "A carcinoma originating in the lung. Lung carcinomas usually arise from the epithelium that lines the bronchial tree (bronchogenic carcinomas), and are classified as small cell or non-small cell carcinomas. Non-small cell lung carcinomas are usually adenocarcinomas, squamous cell carcinomas, or large cell carcinomas. Metastatic carcinomas to the lung are also common, and can be difficult to distinguish from primary tumors." |
| C4879 | "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the sweat gland and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C48801 | "A condition characterized by excessive fatigue and lack of energy, increasing irritability, and feelings of demoralization. Persons who experience this condition are not at an increased risk for cancer." |
| C4880 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from bone or articular cartilage and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4881 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the spine from another anatomic site. |
| C48829 | "A congenital condition that results in swelling in the arms or legs, and can occur during adolescence or adulthood. Loss of motion and pain may also accompany the swelling. Protein-rich lymphatic fluid accumulates in tissues, engorging and enlarging vessels and often causing visible swelling, tenderness, and pain. Left untreated, the affected tissues may continue to swell, and can become hardened or fibrotic and susceptible to infection." |
| C4882 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from smooth, skeletal, or cardiac muscle and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C48830 | "A condition that is caused by trauma to the lymph system, which disrupts the normal flow of lymph fluid. This is most often due to surgery that requires lymph node removal or a large amount of lymph tissue. This disruption is especially apparent if the lymph nodes under the arm and arm and around the breast are compromised due to breast cancer surgery, diagnostic dissection, mastectomy, or radiation." |
| C4883 | A malignant neoplasm affecting the skeletal or smooth muscles.  Malignant neoplasms arising from the skeletal muscles are called rhabdomyosarcomas.  Malignant neoplasms arising from the smooth muscles are called leiomyosarcomas. |
| C4884 | "A neoplasm that arises from the neck region and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4886 | "A neoplasm that arises from the pyriform sinus and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C48873 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma or rarely Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the spleen. |
| C48876 | "A high-grade malignant bone tumor arising from the remnants of the notochord. It is characterized by a lobulated growth pattern, myxoid stroma formation, the presence of physaliphorous cells, and a sarcomatous component." |
| C4887 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the trachea from another anatomic site. |
| C4888 | "A neoplasm that arises from the hilar region of lung and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C48899 | "A neoplastic process characterized by a diffuse poorly circumscribed overgrowth of adipose tissue in the breast and cervical areas, and an accumulation of visceral fat.  It is associated with antiretroviral therapy.  Clinical presentation includes hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance, and fat atrophy of the face and limbs." |
| C4889 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the heart from another primary anatomic site. |
| C48900 | A condition in which a finger or toe is larger than normal size secondary to excessive growth of the anatomical structures or abnormal accumulation of substances. |
| C4890 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving any part of the digestive system. |
| C4891 | "A neoplasm that arises from the submandibular gland and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4892 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C4893 | "A neoplasm that arises from the organs that comprise the urinary system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4894 | A neoplastic endometrial proliferation that is confined to the endometrium and does not have metastatic potential. |
| C4895 | "A neoplasm that arises from the adrenal medulla and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C48961 | "A self-limiting, rapidly growing, non-encapsulated benign neoplasm arising from the subcutaneous tissues. It is characterized by the growth of plump spindle-shaped fibroblasts in a storiform pattern, multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, red blood cell extravasation, chronic inflammatory cells, and high mitotic activity." |
| C49012 | "A benign, well circumscribed soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle shaped myofibroblasts and mast cells in a collagenous stroma." |
| C49016 | "A benign myofibroblastic neoplasm, usually arising in the pelviperineal region. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle to round cells, dilated thin walled vessels, and stromal edema.  Most patients present with painless circumscribed masses." |
| C49017 | "An uncommon, poorly circumscribed, benign neoplasm arising in the soft tissues of infants, children and adolescents. It is characterized by the presence of haphazardly arranged spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and plaque-like growth pattern. There is a strong genetic component associating the neoplasm with Gardner syndrome and deep fibromatosis/desmoid tumor." |
| C49024 | A low-grade malignant neoplasm arising from the soft tissue and rarely bone. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped myofibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a storiform growth pattern. Metastasis is very rare. |
| C49025 | "A low grade, locally aggressive, fibroblastic neoplasm that occurs primarily in the distal extremities.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts, multivacuolated lipoblast-like cells, bizarre ganglion-like cells with inclusion-like nuclei, myxoid stroma formation, and a mixture of acute and chronic inflammatory cells.  Distant metastases are very rare." |
| C49027 | A well-circumscribed malignant fibroblastic neoplasm that usually arises from the soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of nests of malignant epithelioid fibroblasts and sclerotic collagen stroma formation. |
| C4902 | "A neoplasm that arises from the spleen and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4903 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the thymus from another anatomic site. |
| C4904 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the lymph nodes. |
| C4905 | A hemangioma arising from the skin. |
| C4906 | "A malignant tumor arising from the parenchymal cells of the parathyroid gland. It is associated with the symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism, resulting from the excessive production of parathyroid hormone. Morphologically, the differential diagnosis from parathyroid gland adenoma may be difficult. A definitive diagnosis of carcinoma is made only in the presence of capsular invasion, vascular invasion, and/or perineural invasion." |
| C49076 | A variant of fibrous histiocytoma of the skin characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibrohistiocytic cells and associated acanthosis. |
| C49077 | "A variant of fibrous histiocytoma of the skin characterized by the presence of xanthomatous fibrohistiocytic cells, giant cells, and hemosiderin deposition." |
| C49078 | A variant of fibrous histiocytoma of the skin characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibrohistiocytic cells and increased cellularity. |
| C49079 | A benign primary cutaneous neoplasm of unknown histogenesis that presents as an exophytic nodule and is characterized by the presence of epithelioid neoplastic cells. It is probably biologically distinct from conventional fibrous histiocytoma of the skin and its subtypes. ALK gene rearrangement is present in most cases. |
| C4907 | Abnormal enlargement of the heart resulting from long-standing hypertension. |
| C4908 | "An invasive carcinoma that arises from the surface ovarian epithelium. The vast majority of cases are adenocarcinomas. The most common sites of involvement are the contralateral ovary, peritoneal cavity, para-aortic and pelvic lymph nodes, and liver.  Lung and pleura are the most common sites of extra-abdominal spread. The primary form of therapy is surgical.  The overall prognosis of ovarian carcinoma remains poor, a direct result of its rapid growth rate and the lack of early symptoms." |
| C49104 | "A morphologic variant of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblastic cells, histiocytic cells, and a storiform growth pattern." |
| C49107 | "A painless, well circumscribed tumor arising in soft tissue, usually of the upper and lower extremities. Morphologically, it is characterized by a multinodular growth pattern. The cellular infiltrate is composed of mononuclear round or oval cells and multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, in a rich vascular stroma.  It rarely metastasizes." |
| C4910 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the colon and invades through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa.  The vast majority are adenocarcinomas. |
| C49110 | "A morphologic variant of angioleiomyoma characterized by the presence of numerous small, slit-like vascular channels." |
| C49111 | A morphologic variant of angioleiomyoma characterized by the presence of thick-walled veins. |
| C49115 | A morphologic variant of angioleiomyoma characterized by the presence of markedly dilated vascular channels. |
| C4911 | "A malignant epithelial tumor of the stomach mucosa. The vast majority of gastric carcinomas are adenocarcinomas, arising from the gastric glandular epithelium." |
| C4912 | "A carcinoma arising from the bladder epithelium.  Approximately 90% of the bladder carcinomas are transitional cell carcinomas.  The remainder are squamous cell carcinomas, adenocarcinomas and small cell neuroendocrine carcinomas." |
| C4913 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the female reproductive system.  Representative examples include endometrial carcinoma, cervical carcinoma, ovarian carcinoma, uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma, adenosarcoma, malignant mixed mesodermal (mullerian) tumor, and gestational choriocarcinoma." |
| C4914 | A carcinoma that arises from the skin.  Representative examples are basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C4915 | An aggressive embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes characterized by the presence of amplification of the C19MC region on chromosome 19 (19q13.42). |
| C49166 | A benign mesenchymal neoplasm that shows mature skeletal muscle differentiation. |
| C4916 | "A non-neoplastic, regenerating hepatocellular hyperplasia, secondary to the presence of focal vascular abnormalities in the liver." |
| C49179 | A cardiac rhabdomyoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic large striated muscle cells with clear cytoplasm and spider cells. |
| C4917 | A highly aggressive carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the lung. It is characterized by the presence of malignant small cells and more than 10 mitoses per 2 mm2. Necrosis is frequently seen. Metastatic disease is usually present at the time of diagnosis. |
| C4918 | A malignant neoplasm affecting the nasal cavity.  Representative examples include carcinoma and lymphoma. |
| C4919 | A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the rectal mucosa. It is characterized by a villous architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C49204 | A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.  It is characterized by the presence of large hyperchromatic and anaplastic cells. |
| C4921 | A cavernous hemangioma arising from the retina. |
| C4923 | A carcinoma of the larynx that arises from the glottic area. |
| C4924 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited syndrome characterized by brittle hair, mental and physical retardation, and decreased fertility." |
| C4925 | "A gonadal or extragonadal malignant neoplasm that arises from germ cells. Representative examples include embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, and seminoma." |
| C4926 | An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma that has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C4929 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the structures of the chest wall.  Representative examples include chest wall lipoma and chest wall lymphoma. |
| C4930 | "A serrated polypoid lesion that arises in the colon.  It is usually found in the distant colon and it rarely produces symptoms.  This group includes goblet cell rich, mucin poor, and microvesicular hyperplastic polyps." |
| C4932 | "A circumscribed neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the duodenum. Morphologically, it is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic glandular cells and it is associated with dysplasia. According to the growth pattern, it may be classified as tubular, villous, or tubulovillous." |
| C4933 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the epiglottis. |
| C49343 | "A blood clot in a deep vein, predominantly in the lower extremity, but may include the pelvis or upper extremity." |
| C4934 | "A neoplasm that arises from the female reproductive system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4935 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the ileum. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C4937 | The reemergence of Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C4938 | A lymphoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C4939 | "A non-neoplastic proliferation of lymphocytes seen in infections, hypersensitivity reactions, or autoimmune diseases." |
| C4940 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the anatomic structures of the neck region. |
| C4941 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the soft palate.  It usually presents as an ulcerated or fungating mass. |
| C4942 | "Stage 0 carcinoma of the pharynx according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C4943 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the pyriform sinus.  Patients usually present with advanced stage disease and the prognosis is poor. |
| C4944 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that occurs in the sellar region.  Representative examples include craniopharyngioma and pituitary gland adenoma. |
| C4945 | "A squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx that arises from the supraglottic area.  Signs and symptoms include dysphagia, a sensation of foreign body in the throat, and hemoptysis.  It spreads to the space anterior to the epiglottis, pyriform sinus, and base of the tongue." |
| C4946 | "A follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland, characterized by the presence of large cells with eosinophilic granular cytoplasm and pleomorphic nuclei with prominent, eosinophilic nucleoli.  The nuclear features that characterize the papillary carcinomas of the thyroid gland are absent." |
| C4947 | "A human papillomavirus-related neoplasm that arises from the vagina. It is characterized by papillomatosis, acanthotic changes, and hyperkeratosis. Koilocytosis is usually present." |
| C4948 | "A superficial polypoid lesion that arises from the vagina.  It is characterized by the presence of a fibroblastic stroma which is often myxoid, covered by squamous epithelial cells." |
| C4949 | A rare lymphoma that arises from the liver and the bulk of the tumor is located in the liver.  The most frequent types of lymphoma that arise from the liver are diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma. |
| C4950 | An extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the colon.  The majority are B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C4951 | An astrocytoma that arises from the cerebral hemispheres. |
| C4952 | A brain neoplasm that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C4953 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from or metastasizes to structures within the cranium.  This includes meningeal and other tumors that occur in the spaces that surround the brain, and neoplasms of the brain." |
| C4954 | A malignant brain neoplasm that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C4955 | "A neoplasm that arises from the cerebellum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4956 | "A medulloblastoma characterized by the presence of nodular, collagenous areas which do not contain reticulin, surrounded by hypercellular areas which contain an intercellular reticulin fiber network." |
| C4958 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site to the two innermost layers of tissue that cover the brain and spinal cord. |
| C4959 | A meningioma that affects the cerebral sulcus. |
| C4960 | A meningioma that affects the superior sagittal sinus and invades the parasagittal angle. |
| C4961 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the peripheral nervous system. |
| C4962 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the thymus. This category includes malignant thymomas, thymic lymphomas, primary thymic carcinomas, and metastatic carcinomas from other anatomic sites." |
| C4963 | "A neoplasm that arises from above the cerebellar tentorium and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4964 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the various anatomic sites of the supratentorial brain. |
| C4965 | "A neoplasm that arises from the infratentorial region and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C4966 | Malignant neoplasms which arise or occur within the intracranial cavity below the tentorium cerebelli.  This includes neoplasms within the brain and/or surrounding spaces. |
| C4967 | An acute lymphoblastic leukemia occurring during adulthood. |
| C4968 | "A malignant neoplasm that arises from a pre-existing lower grade lesion, or as a result of a primary lesion that has spread to secondary sites, or due to a complication of a cancer treatment." |
| C4969 | "The development of a malignant neoplasm in response to medical or surgical treatment, induced by the treatment itself." |
| C4970 | "A central nervous system embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified arising from the cerebral hemispheres." |
| C4972 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from the perineural cells in the sheaths surrounding the nerves. Representative examples include neurofibroma, schwannoma, and malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor." |
| C4973 | "A rare, usually benign tumor composed entirely of neoplastic perineurial cells. It may occur in the soft tissues, intraneurally, or in mucosal sites." |
| C4975 | A neoplasm that originates from the brain stem. |
| C4976 | "A congenital abnormality of the arteries and veins that is located in the brain or spina cord, and which may increase the risk of bleeding, possibly resulting in impaired mental or physical function." |
| C4978 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the colon or rectum.  Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C4979 | Carcinoma in which the site of involvement is not specified. |
| C4980 | "A syndrome of immunologically mediated tissue damage that may occur following an allogeneic transplant, usually affecting the skin, liver, and GI tract. The onset is usually within one hundred days of transplantation or immunologic manipulation." |
| C4981 | "A syndrome of immunologically mediated tissue damage that may occur following an allogeneic transplant, and may affect multiple organs with manifestations similar to autoimmune diseases. The onset is usually within three years of transplantation or immunologic manipulation." |
| C4982 | A leukemia characterized by the absence of leukemic cells in the peripheral blood. |
| C4983 | "Infiltration of the skin and subcutaneous tissue by leukemic cells without evidence of leukemia in the bone marrow and peripheral blood.  It results in clinically identifiable skin lesions.  It may be the first manifestation of acute leukemia, preceding the involvement of the bone marrow and peripheral blood by the leukemic process." |
| C4984 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm involving the ovary." |
| C4985 | "Infection of the oropharynx with, or disease caused by, Candida, especially C. albicans. This disease usually results from debilitation (as in immunosuppression and especially AIDS), physiologic change, prolonged administration of antibiotics, and iatrogenic and barrier breakage. SYN candidosis, moniliasis." |
| C4988 |  |
| C4989 | An acute or chronic leukemia that occurs during childhood. |
| C4991 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder arising as a result of the immunologic defects caused by Autoimmune Deficiency Syndrome. |
| C4992 | Cancers caused by exposure to carcinogens in the general environment |
| C4993 | Malignant neoplasm secondary to occupational exposure to carcinogens. |
| C4994 | "Stage II includes: (T2a, N0, M0); (T2b, N0, M0).  T2a: Tumor invades superficial muscle (inner half).  T2b: Tumor invades deep muscle (outer half).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C4995 | A recurrence of adenocarcinoma of the bladder after a period of remission. |
| C4996 |  |
| C4997 | Nodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma resistant to treatment. |
| C4998 | The reemergence of nodal marginal zone lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C4999 | Stage IV NHL means disseminated (multifocal) involvement of one or more extralymphatic sites with or without associated lymph node involvement or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement with distant (nonregional) nodal involvement. (from PDQ) |
| C5000 | "Stage III NHL means involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) that may also be accompanied by localized involvement of an extralymphatic organ or site (IIIE), by involvement of the spleen (IIIS), or both (IIIS+E). (from PDQ)" |
| C5001 | "Stage II NHL means involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C5002 | Stage I NHL means involvement of a single lymph node region (I) or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site (IE). (from PDQ) |
| C5003 | High grade B-cell lymphoma Burkitt-like lymphoma resistant to treatment. |
| C5004 | The reemergence of high grade B-cell lymphoma Burkitt-like lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C5005 | A high grade B-cell lymphoma showing greater pleomorphism in nuclear size and shape than the classical Burkitt lymphoma. |
| C5006 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C5007 | The reemergence of follicular lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C5008 | The reemergence of Burkitt lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C5009 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the superior side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph node(s) with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript. |
| C5010 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the inferior side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph node(s) with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript. |
| C5011 |  |
| C5012 | Stage I Hodgkin lymphoma involving the subdiaphragmatic region. |
| C5014 | The reemergence of lung squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C5015 | "Stage II includes IIA (T3, N0, M0) and IIB (T4, N0, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa, or into nonperitonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues. T4: Tumor directly invades other organs or structures, and/or perforates the visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5016 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5017 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial or invasion of the lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5018 | Carcinoma of the pancreas that is not amenable to surgical removal. |
| C5019 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1, Any G, Tumor location: Any.  M1: Distant metastasis.  Tumor location: Location of the primary cancer site is defined by the position of the upper (proximal) edge of the tumor in the esophagus.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5020 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-2, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T3, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4a, N0, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); IIIB (T3, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); IIIC (T4a, N1-2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4b, Any N, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any).  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Resectable... |
| C5021 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T2-3, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Upper, middle); (T2-3, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Lower, X); IIB (T2-3, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Upper, middle); (T1-2, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any).  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differen... |
| C5022 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Any); IB (T1, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Any); (T2-3, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Lower, X). T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1.  G2: Moderately differentiated.  G3: Poorly differentia... |
| C5023 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis (HGD), N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Any.  Tis: High-grade dysplasia.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1.  Tumor location: Location of the primary cancer site is defined by the position of the upper (proximal) edge of the tumor in the esophagus.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5024 | "An extremely rare, slow-growing well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that affects the prostate gland." |
| C5026 | The reemergence of nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C5027 | "A classification of testicular cancers that arise in specialized sex cells called germ cells. Nonseminomas include embryonal carcinoma, teratoma, choriocarcinoma, and yolk sac tumor." |
| C5028 | A papillomavirus related epithelial overgrowth. It can be located anywhere on the body though when it involves the perineal region it is generally referred to as condyloma acuminatum. |
| C5029 | "A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  Representative examples include Kaposi sarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and rhabdomyosarcoma." |
| C50401 | "A usually slow growing, subcutaneous nodular neoplasm arising from myopericytes.  It is composed of myoid cells arranged in a perivascular growth pattern.  The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course." |
| C5041 | "A term referring to disorders characterized by the disruption of normal speech. It includes stuttering, lisps, dysarthria and voice disorders." |
| C50450 | "Keratitis due to infection by acanthamoeba; it is usually associated with soft contact lens wear, particularly overnight wear." |
| C50454 | Toxoplasmosis acquired in adulthood. |
| C50455 | The presence of bubbles of air in the vascular system; occurrence is related to the entry of air into the venous circulation following trauma or surgery. |
| C50459 | Inflammation of the amnion. |
| C50461 | "A progressive tear in the tissue lining the aorta, characterized by the passage of blood from the tunica intima into, and partially through, the tunica media." |
| C50466 | "A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of a supraventricular arrhythmia characterized by the replacement of consistent P waves by rapid oscillations or fibrillatory waves that vary in size, shape and timing and are accompanied by an irregular ventricular response. (CDISC)" |
| C5047 | A malignant neoplasm arising from the anus and occurring in HIV-positive patients.  Representative examples include squamous cell carcinoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma.  Homosexual HIV-positive men have an increased risk of developing such malignancies in comparison to the general male population. |
| C50481 | "Acute compression of the heart caused by increased intrapericardial pressure due to the collection of blood or fluid in the pericardium from rupture of the heart, penetrating trauma, or progressive effusion." |
| C50486 | "An ischemic condition of the brain, producing a persistent focal neurological deficit in the area of distribution of the cerebral arteries." |
| C50501 | A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of complete failure of atrial electrical impulse conduction to the ventricles. This is manifested on the ECG by disassociation of atrial and ventricular rhythms. The atrial rate must be faster than the ventricular rate. (CDISC) |
| C50503 | Toxoplasma infection that is present from birth. |
| C50504 | "Ocular pain which may be very intense, accompanied by corneal epithelium damage, conjunctival injection, lacrimation, blepharospasm, photophobia and hazy vision following corneal edema caused by overwear of contact lenses, principally the PMMA type." |
| C50507 | "Endothelial decompensation that is manifested by opacity of the cornea. The condition often occurs as a nonspecific response to mechanical injury from incidental corneal contact by intraocular instruments during surgery; chemical injury from the improper use of intraocular drugs, drugs containing preservatives, or from residues from inadequate rinsing of detergents or other residues from surgical instruments. The most common causes of corneal endothelial decompensation in the adult populati... |
| C50515 | Area of epithelial tissue loss from corneal surface; associated with inflammatory cells in the cornea and anterior chamber. |
| C50517 | "A split located on a leaflet of a heart valve that prevents its complete closing, which can result in valvular dysfunction." |
| C50519 | Inflammation of the ciliary body. |
| C5051 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that develops in a patient with AIDS. |
| C50521 | Inflammation of the retina due to cytomegalovirus. |
| C50527 | "A splitting open of an anatomical structure, zone, or organ with the exposure or discharge of its content." |
| C5052 | "A malignant neoplasm that arises from the cervix in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. This category includes cervical carcinoma, Kaposi sarcoma, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma." |
| C50531 | "A severe, often fatal encephalopathy which has been attributed to accumulation in the brain of aluminum from dialysate prepared with inadequately purified water." |
| C50532 | "A symptom complex characterized by nervousness, chest pain, back pain, palpations, pruritus, and other usually mild symptoms occurring minutes following the initiation of dialysis with a new dialyzer." |
| C50534 | Infection produced by direct contact with another person. |
| C5053 | A neoplasm that affects the testis during childhood. |
| C5054 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the cerebrum. |
| C50559 | Inflammation process in fascia. |
| C5055 | A Hodgkin lymphoma that affects the cerebrum. |
| C50563 | "Signs or symptoms which may be indicative of distress to a fetus, which may include repetitive variable decelerations, fetal tachycardia or bradycardia, late decelerations, or low biophysical profile." |
| C50566 | Inflammation and fibrous degeneration of a muscle. |
| C50575 | "Hair loss usually from the scalp. It may result in bald spots or spread to the entire scalp or the entire epidermis. It may be androgenetic or caused by chemotherapeutic agents, compulsive hair pulling, autoimmune disorders or congenital conditions." |
| C50576 | "Partial or complete loss of the ability to detect or understand sounds resulting from damage to the outer, middle, or inner ear structures. Causes include exposure to loud noise, ear infections, injuries to the ear, genetic, and congenital disorders." |
| C50577 | "Inability of the heart to pump blood at an adequate rate to meet tissue metabolic requirements. Clinical symptoms of heart failure include: unusual dyspnea on light exertion, recurrent dyspnea occurring in the supine position, fluid retention or rales, jugular venous distension, pulmonary edema on physical exam, or pulmonary edema on chest x-ray presumed to be cardiac dysfunction." |
| C5057 | A Hodgkin lymphoma that has spread to the cerebrum following the initial presentation in another nodal or extranodal site. |
| C50587 | "Inflammatory intraocular reaction with clouding and cells in vitreous; often accompanies inflammation of ciliary body, iris, choroid, or retina." |
| C50592 | Hemorrhage within the anterior chamber of the eye; bloodshot. |
| C50593 | An accumulation of pus in the anterior chamber of the eye. |
| C5059 | The reemergence of epithelioid sarcoma after a period of remission |
| C5060 | Fibrosarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C50612 | "Infection transmitted by water, food or other means of conveyance." |
| C50614 | "A cataract that has been produced artificially or by induction, e.g. as a result of device use, medication, trauma, tears, falls, accidental injury, etc." |
| C50616 | A dissection of an artery that occurs though a tear in the inner lining of the blood vessel. |
| C50617 | Infection within the eye. |
| C5061 | A rare benign neoplasm that arises from the urethra and is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth with a central fibrovascular core. The latter is lined by normal urothelium. |
| C50621 | Inflammation of the iris. |
| C50625 | "A disorder of cardiac function caused by insufficient blood flow to the muscle tissue of the heart. The decreased blood flow may be due to narrowing of the coronary arteries, to obstruction by a thrombus, or less commonly, to diffuse narrowing of arterioles and other small vessels within the heart. Severe interruption of the blood supply to the myocardial tissue may result in necrosis of cardiac muscle (myocardial infarction)." |
| C50628 | "The disturbance of a cusp of a heart valve, often resutling in dysfunction of the valve." |
| C50630 | "Failure of adequate output by the left ventricle despite an increase in distending pressure and in end-diastolic volume, with dyspnea, orthopnea, and other signs and symptoms of pulmonary congestion and edema." |
| C5063 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm located within the lumen of a bronchus. It is predominantly found in males and usually originates within the fatty tissue between bronchial cartilage. May cause irreversible pulmonary damage distally. Two-thirds of the tumors occur on the right side and most are located on the first three subdivisions of the tracheobronchial tree. |
| C50648 | "Glaucoma, the cause of which is present at birth." |
| C5064 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE) (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). |
| C50655 | "A fairly common and often benign valvular heart disorder characterized by redundancy or hooding of mitral valve leaflets so that they prolapse into the left atrium, often causing mitral regurgitation. It is often a symptomless condition but may be marked by varied symptoms (e.g. chest pain, fatigue, dizziness, dyspnea, or palpitations) leading in some cases to endocarditis or ventricular tachycardia." |
| C5065 |  |
| C50666 | A congenital anatomic abnormality manifested during the neonatal period. |
| C50667 | An abnormality that affects hearing within the first month after birth. It may or may not result in hearing loss. |
| C50668 | Partial or complete loss of the ability to detect or understand sounds present in an infant within its first month after birth. |
| C5066 |  |
| C50674 | Ulcer that develops in the nipple.  Causes include trauma and Paget disease. |
| C5067 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C50687 | "Complete paralysis of the lower half of the body including both legs, often caused by damage to the spinal cord." |
| C5068 |  |
| C5069 |  |
| C50704 | Infection of a surgical skin incision. |
| C50705 | Infection of a break in the skin or other tissue. |
| C50709 | "The formation of a blood clot that is attached to or near an artificial heart valve; this can cause dysfunction of the valve, and possibly lead to an embolic event should the thrombus become dislodged." |
| C5070 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C50713 | "The obstruction of the pulmonary artery or one of its branches by an embolus, sometimes associated with infarction of the lung." |
| C50714 | "Localized necrosis of lung tissue caused by obstruction of the arterial blood supply, most often due to pulmonary embolism." |
| C50719 | An infection caused by pus-producing organisms. |
| C5071 |  |
| C50721 | Paralysis of all four limbs. |
| C50723 | "The complex of symptoms characterizing the disease known as radiation injury, resulting from excessive exposure (greater than 200 rads or 2 gray) of the whole body (or large part) to ionizing radiation. The earliest of these symptoms are nausea, fatigue, vomiting, and diarrhea, which may be followed by epilation, hemorrhage, inflammation of the mouth and throat, and general loss of energy. In severe cases, where the radiation exposure has been approximately 1000 Rad (10 gray) or more, death... |
| C50724 | "An episodic vasoconstriction resulting in discoloration of the skin and pain in the affected areas, often involving fingers or toes. Classically associated with triphasic color changes (white, blue, red) but may be biphasic. Often occurs in response to cold temperatures or emotional stress. May be primary or secondary to an underlying autoimmune disease." |
| C5072 |  |
| C50737 | Formation of new tissue formed in the healing of a wound. |
| C5073 |  |
| C50749 | "A chronic adhesive arachnoiditis in the spinal arachnoid, with root and spinal cord symptoms similar to those caused by pressure from a tumor." |
| C5074 |  |
| C50758 | "Infection associated with no detectable symptoms but caused by microorganisms capable of producing easily recognizable diseases, such a poliomyelitis or mumps." |
| C5075 |  |
| C50763 | "Decentration, or malposition of intraocular lens; zonular dehiscence or lens malposition caused by zonular or parsplana fixation." |
| C50766 | Inflammation of a synovial membrane. |
| C5076 |  |
| C5077 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C50780 | The condition resulting from the spread of bacterial products (toxins) by the bloodstream. |
| C50781 | "A brief attack (from a few minutes to an hour) of cerebral dysfunction of vascular origin, with no persistent neurological deficit." |
| C50784 | "Dislodgement, breakdown, or other malfunction of an artificial cardiac pacemaker, chemotherapy port, drip infusion valve, or similar implanted diagnostic or therapeutic device as a result of unconscious or habitual manipulation by the patient." |
| C5078 |  |
| C50791 | "A bacterial infectious process affecting any part of the urinary tract, most commonly the bladder and the urethra. Symptoms include urinary urgency and frequency, burning sensation during urination, lower abdominal discomfort, and cloudy urine." |
| C50794 | "Clinical triad of uveitis, glaucoma, and hyphema (UGH), especially associated with the early anterior chamber intraocular lens (IOL). Glaucoma is believed to be caused by movement of the IOL against the iris causing release of inflammatory and red blood cell debris, which obstruct the trabecular meshwork. The haptic also may cause direct damage to the trabecular meshwork contributing to the glaucoma. Incidence of UGH is dependent on both surgical methodology applied in the cataract populati... |
| C50796 | Dysfunction of one of the cardiac valves characterized by incomplete valve closure. |
| C50797 | "Regurgitation of the blood of the heart valves owning to imperfect closing, insufficiency or incompetency of the valves." |
| C50799 | "A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of a rapid grossly irregular ventricular rhythm with marked variability in QRS cycle length, morphology, and amplitude. The rate is typically greater than 300 bpm. (CDISC)" |
| C5079 |  |
| C50800 | A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of a high ventricular rate (180 to 250 beats per minute) with a regular rhythm and large oscillating sine wave-like complexes occurring as a result of QRS complexes and T waves being merged. The P wave is not visible. |
| C50802 | A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of three or more consecutive complexes of ventricular origin with a rate greater than a certain threshold (100 or 120 beats per minute are commonly used). The QRS complexes are wide and have an abnormal morphology. (CDISC) |
| C50803 | Abnormal enlargement of the cerebral ventricles. |
| C50807 | The separation of the vitreous from the retina. |
| C5080 |  |
| C5081 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C5082 |  |
| C5083 |  |
| C50842 | Dysfunction of the pulmonary valve characterized by incomplete valve closure. |
| C50843 | "The backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium, owning to imperfect functioning/insufficiency of the tricuspid valve." |
| C50848 | "The backflow of blood from the pulmonary artery into the right ventricle, owing to insufficiency of the pulmonic semilunar valve." |
| C5084 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C50852 | "The backward flow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium, owing to insufficiency of the mitral valve; it may be acute or chronic, usually due to mitral valve prolapse, rheumatic heart disease or a complication of cardiac dilatation." |
| C5085 | Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue presenting as stage I disease. |
| C50861 | "The backward flow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle, owing to insufficiency of the aortic semilunar valve; it may be chronic or acute." |
| C50863 | "Splitting of the sutured margins of a surgical wound. Risk factors include diabetes mellitus, obesity, and advanced age." |
| C50864 | The disturbance of a cusp of a heart valve secondary to the accumulation of calcium on the valve tissue. This most often results in stenosis of the valve. |
| C50866 | "The disturbance of a cusp of a heart valve secondary to infection affecting the valve tissue, which can result in valvular dysfunction." |
| C5086 | Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue presenting as stage II disease. |
| C5087 | Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue presenting as stage III disease. |
| C50888 | Dysfunction of the mitral valve characterized by incomplete valve closure. |
| C5088 | Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue presenting as stage IV disease. |
| C5089 | The reemergence of extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue after a period of remission. |
| C50906 | "The disturbance of a cusp of a heart valve secondary to an increase in tissue mass at the valve site, which can lead to valve dysfunction. This often happens as a result of fibrosis of tissue surrounding the suture line of a prosthetic valve." |
| C50907 | The disturbance of a cusp of a heart valve without an identifiable cause. |
| C50908 | "The disturbance of a cusp of a heart valve secondary to irritation by surgical sutures, which can result in valvular dysfunction." |
| C5090 | Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that is resistant to treatment. |
| C5091 |  |
| C5092 |  |
| C5093 |  |
| C5094 |  |
| C5095 | The reemergence of splenic marginal zone lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C5096 | Splenic marginal zone lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C5097 | A glioblastoma that arises from the brain stem. |
| C5098 | An ependymoma that arises from the brain stem. |
| C5099 | Carcinoma of the pancreas amenable to surgical removal. |
| C5100 | "A benign, asymptomatic kidney tumor arising from renomedullary interstitial cells. It is often found incidentally at the time of nephrectomy in adults. These tumors are either single or multiple and usually measure 1-10 mm in diameter. Microscopically the tumor cells are small, stellate, or spindled cells, embedded in a faintly basophilic stroma reminiscent of renal medullary stroma. (WHO 2016)" |
| C5101 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the kidney. It predominantly affects middle-aged females. It may originate from renal parenchymal fat or fat cells within the renal capsule. Clinical presentation includes hematuria and pain. |
| C5102 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the lacrimal gland or the lacrimal drainage system. |
| C5103 | The reemergence of carcinoma of the pharynx after a period of remission. |
| C5104 |  |
| C5105 | "The most common type of colorectal carcinoma.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells invading through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa.  Histologic variants include mucinous adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, serrated adenocarcinoma, cribriform comedo-type adenocarcinoma, and micropapillary adenocarcinoma." |
| C5106 |  |
| C5110 | Kidney dysfunction resulting from complications of bone marrow transplantation. |
| C5111 | "A neoplasm that involves the intracranial area and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5112 | Benign and malignant neoplasms which arise from or directly involve the central or peripheral elements of the autonomic nervous system. |
| C51133 | The most common morphologic variant of glomus tumor.  It is characterized by the presence of a nest of glomus cells surrounding capillary sized vessels. |
| C5114 | A malignant neoplasm involving the intracranial space. |
| C5115 | A malignant brain neoplasm occurring in adults. |
| C5116 | A benign neoplasm of the brain occurring in adults. |
| C5117 | "A very rare, aggressive carcinoma of the sweat glands arising from malignant transformation of a long standing spiradenoma. It usually grows in the upper extremities, lower extremities, trunk, and head and neck. It has the tendency to recur and metastasize most often to the lymph nodes, bones, and lungs." |
| C5119 | "Benign and malignant neoplasms arising from one or more of the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, or coccygeal nerve roots.  The majority of these tumors are benign.  Clinical manifestations may include pain, weakness and loss of sensation along the course of the involved nerve root.  Large tumors may cause spinal cord compression." |
| C5120 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the eighth cranial nerve, also referred to as the vestibulocochlear nerve. Clinical features may include hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus, headache and involvement of the trigeminal or facial nerves." |
| C5121 | A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the olfactory or first cranial nerve. Clinical features may include facial pain and impairments of taste or smell. |
| C51223 | Dysfunction of the aortic valve characterized by incomplete valve closure. |
| C51224 | "A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of an organized, regular atrial rhythm with atrial rate of 240-340 beats per minute. Multiple P waves typically appear in the inferior leads in a saw tooth-like pattern between the QRS complexes. (CDISC)" |
| C51225 | Cirrhosis of the liver caused either by destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts (primary biliary cirrhosis) or blockage of the extrahepatic bile ducts (secondary biliary cirrhosis). |
| C5122 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the trigeminal or fifth cranial nerve. Clinical features may include facial pain, sensory loss, and weakness of jaw closure." |
| C5123 | An anaplastic astrocytoma that arises from the cerebral hemispheres. |
| C5124 | An anaplastic astrocytoma that occurs in the diencephalon. |
| C5125 |  |
| C5126 | A malignant neoplasm that occurs in the diencephalon. |
| C5127 | "A neoplasm that arises from the diencephalon and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5128 |  |
| C5129 | A glioblastoma that occurs in the diencephalon. |
| C51302 | "An autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by germline mutations in the FH gene. It is characterized by predisposition to renal cell carcinoma, leiomyomas of the skin and uterus, and leiomyosarcoma of the uterus." |
| C5130 | "An adenoid cystic carcinoma primarily involving the breast.  Three morphologic patterns are seen: cribriform, trabecular, and solid.  The prognosis is excellent." |
| C5131 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm of the brain, spinal cord, or meninges occurring in adults.  Representative examples of primary neoplasms include astrocytoma, meningioma, pituitary adenoma, and neurilemoma.  Representative examples of tumor metastases from other organs to the central nervous system include lung and breast carcinoma." |
| C5132 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm of the brain, spinal cord, or meninges occurring in children.  Representative examples include posterior fossa astrocytoma, optic pathway glioma, medulloblastoma, ependymoma, and craniopharyngioma." |
| C5133 | "A grade I, slowly growing meningioma within the cranial cavity." |
| C5135 | "A neoplasm that occurs within the spinal canal in the space between the spinal cord and the dura mater. Representative examples include meningioma, neurofibroma, and sarcoma. Signs and symptoms include local and radicular pain, weakness and spinal cord compression." |
| C5136 | A glioblastoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C5137 | Breast ductal carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of sheets of tumor cells without evidence of central necrosis or cell death. |
| C5138 | Breast ductal carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of a cribriform architectural pattern. |
| C5139 | Breast ductal carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells arranged in micropapillary patterns. |
| C5140 | "A ductal breast carcinoma in situ, characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells with apocrine differentiation." |
| C5141 | "An adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by the presence of two intermingled cellular components: cells with abundant granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm, and cells with abundant cytoplasm containing fine empty vacuoles." |
| C5142 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast with a favorable clinical outcome, characterized by the presence of a sieve-like or cribriform infiltrating pattern." |
| C5143 | "An adenomyoepithelioma of the breast in which the epithelial, myoepithelial, or both components have undergone malignant transformation.  Such cases may follow an aggressive clinical course, including recurrences and local and distant metastases." |
| C51447 | "Impairment of gas exchange within the lungs secondary to a disease process, neoplasm, or trauma, possibly resulting in hypoxia, hypercarbia, or both, but not requiring intubation or mechanical ventilation. Patients are normally managed with pharmaceutical therapy, supplemental oxygen, or both." |
| C5144 | "A benign, nodular tumor that arises from the breast parenchyma.  It is characterized by the proliferation of myoepithelial cells around spaces that are lined by epithelial cells.  Occasionally, adenomyoepitheliomas may undergo malignant transformation." |
| C5145 | A neurofibroma that arises from the spinal cord. |
| C5146 | A hemangioblastoma that arises from the cerebellum. |
| C5147 | A hemangioblastoma arising from the brain stem. |
| C5148 | A glioblastoma that occurs in the infratentorial region. |
| C5149 | A glioblastoma that occurs in the supratentorial region. |
| C5150 | A glioblastoma that occurs in the cerebellum. |
| C5151 | A glioblastoma that occurs in the cerebrum. |
| C5152 | A sarcoma that arises from the spinal cord. |
| C5153 | A sarcoma that arises from the central nervous system. |
| C5154 | A sarcoma arising from the brain. |
| C5155 | A neuroblastoma that has spread to the spinal canal. It may result in spinal cord compression. |
| C5156 | A chordoma that arises from the spine. |
| C5157 | A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that affects the spinal cord. |
| C5158 | A melanoma that arises from the leptomeninges in the spinal cord. |
| C5160 | A breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of a lobular and a ductal component. The ductal component comprises less than 50 percent of the tumor. |
| C5161 | "A rare, aggressive, high grade invasive ductal carcinoma, not otherwise specified.  It is characterized by the presence of pleomorphic and bizarre malignant cells that constitute more than 50 percent of the malignant cellular infiltrate." |
| C5163 | An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of a predominant squamous cell component that is admixed with the adenocarcinoma component. |
| C5164 | "A group of invasive breast carcinomas characterized by the presence of an adenocarcinomatous component which is admixed with a dominant component that is composed of squamous cells, spindle cells, or mesenchymal cells." |
| C5165 | A Hodgkin or non-Hodgkin lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C5166 | A carcinoma of the breast characterized by pools of mucin and islands of malignant squamous cells.  Mucoepidermoid carcinomas of the breast are extremely rare. |
| C5167 | An aggressive mucoepidermoid carcinoma that arises from the breast. It is characterized by the presence of focal necrosis and high mitotic activity. Lymph node and distant metastases are common. The prognosis is usually poor. |
| C5168 | A slow growing mucoepidermoid carcinoma that arises from the breast. It is characterized by the presence of keratinization in the neoplastic squamous cells and lumina formation by glandular neoplastic cells. Complete excision may be curative. |
| C5169 | A neoplasm that arises from the breast and is composed of cells exhibiting neuroendocrine differentiation. It is classified as neuroendocrine carcinoma or neuroendocrine tumor G1 and neuroendocrine tumor G2. Most cases are neuroendocrine carcinomas.  Primary neuroendocrine tumors in the breast are very rare. |
| C5170 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm arising from the breast." |
| C5171 | A neuroendocrine tumor G1 that arises from the breast and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C5175 | An invasive breast adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with signet ring appearance. |
| C5176 | A signet ring cell carcinoma that arises from the breast and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C5177 | A rare carcinoma that arises from the breast parenchyma and is entirely composed of squamous cells. |
| C5178 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the breast parenchyma and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C5180 | A rare carcinoma that arises from a breast spiradenoma. |
| C5181 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the breast.  There is no history of extramammary breast non-Hodgkin lymphoma and ipsilateral axillary lymph node involvement does not exclude the diagnosis of primary breast non-Hodgkin lymphoma.  Most patients present with a painless breast lump.  The vast majority of cases are B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas.  Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, follicular lymphoma, and extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosa associated lymphoid tissue are the mo... |
| C5182 | A T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the breast as a primary tumor.  Primary T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas of the breast are rare. |
| C5183 | "Hereditary disorder transmitted by autosomal dominant genes (EXT1-3) and characterized by multiple exostoses (multiple osteochondromas) near the ends of long bones.  The genetic abnormality results in a defect in the osteoclastic activity at the metaphyseal ends of the bone during the remodeling process in childhood or early adolescence.  The metaphyses develop benign, bony outgrowths often capped by cartilage. A small number undergo neoplastic transformation." |
| C5184 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the breast. |
| C5185 | A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the breast.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a herringbone growth pattern. |
| C5186 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the breast.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5187 | A liposarcoma that arises from the breast parenchyma. |
| C5189 | An osteosarcoma arising from the breast tissue. |
| C5190 | A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the breast. |
| C5193 | "A very rare, benign sweat gland neoplasm that affects the breast.  It is characterized by the proliferation of basaloid epithelial cells." |
| C5194 | "A breast fibroadenoma that displays fibrocystic changes including apocrine metaplasia, sclerosing adenosis, and cyst formation." |
| C5195 | "A general term that refers to atypical hyperplastic proliferations of the epithelial cells in the breast parenchyma.  Examples include atypical ductal hyperplasia, atypical lobular hyperplasia, and columnar cell hyperplasia with atypia." |
| C5196 | "A usually unilateral, benign and well circumscribed biphasic neoplasm that arises from the breast.  It usually affects middle-aged women.  It is characterized by the presence of a double layer of epithelial cells that are arranged in clefts, surrounded by a cellular, monomorphic spindle cell mesenchymal component.  Mitoses are rare.  Necrotic changes may be present in large tumors." |
| C5197 | "A neoplasm that arises from the nipple and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5198 | Breast adenosis characterized by the presence of extensive apocrine metaplasia. |
| C5199 | A rare variant of breast adenosis characterized by the proliferation of small round glands in a collagenous stroma.  The epithelial cells are cuboidal and there are no myopepithelial cells present.  There is no evidence of atypia. |
| C5200 | Benign papillary proliferation within the ductal system of the breast parenchyma. |
| C5201 | A benign breast neoplasm characterized by the presence of multiple intraductal papillomas. |
| C5204 | Breast fibrocystic change characterized by the presence of epithelial cell hyperplasia.  There is no evidence of epithelial atypia. |
| C5205 | "Breast adenosis characterized by the proliferation of acini, a lobulated architectural pattern, and stromal sclerosis.  The luminal epithelial and myopepithelial cells are preserved.  Microcalcifications and foci of apocrine metaplasia may be present." |
| C5206 | A benign or malignant papillary neoplasm that arises from the breast.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelial proliferations that are supported by fibrovascular cores.  Representative examples are intraductal papilloma and papillary carcinoma. |
| C5209 | A benign or malignant vascular neoplasm that arises from the breast. |
| C5210 | A capillary hemangioma arising from the breast. |
| C5211 | A hemangioma that arises from the breast and is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells. |
| C5212 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises in the area of the nipple. |
| C5213 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the area of the nipple. |
| C5214 | "The most common histologic type of breast carcinoma.  Representative examples include invasive ductal carcinoma not otherwise specified, ductal carcinoma in situ, inflammatory carcinoma, secretory carcinoma, signet ring cell carcinoma, tubular carcinoma, invasive lobular carcinoma, and lobular carcinoma in situ." |
| C5219 | A thecoma of the ovary that does not metastasize to other anatomic sites. |
| C5220 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0.  T1a: Tumor limited to one ovary; capsule intact, no tumor on ovarian surface.  No malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5221 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Tumor limited to both ovaries; capsules intact, no tumor on ovarian surface.  No malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5222 | "Stage IC includes: T1c, N0, M0. T1c: Tumor limited to one or both ovaries with any of the following: capsule ruptured, tumor on ovarian surface, malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5223 | "Stage IIA includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Extension and/or implants on uterus and/or tube(s). No malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5224 | "Stage IIB includes: T2b N0, M0.  T2b: Extension and/or implants on other pelvic tissues.  No malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5225 | "Stage IIC includes: T2c, N0, M0.  T2c: Pelvic extension and/or implants (T2a or T2b) with malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washing.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5226 | A low grade serous epithelial neoplasm arising from the ovary.  It is characterized by an atypical proliferation of serous-type epithelial cells without evidence of stromal invasion.  It is often asymptomatic but rarely it may present with abdominal pain or abdominal enlargement due to rupture or torsion. |
| C5228 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of cystic structures.  It includes the serous cystadenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, and clear cell cystadenocarcinoma." |
| C5229 | "A rare, well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the ovary." |
| C5231 | "A rare, benign steroid tumor that arises from the ovary and is composed of Leydig cells that contain Reinke crystals.  It usually affects postmenopausal women and in most cases, is associated with androgenic manifestations." |
| C5232 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the ovary. |
| C5233 | A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the ovary.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a herringbone growth pattern. |
| C5234 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the ovary.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5235 | "A liposarcoma that arises from the ovary and is composed of round to oval mesenchymal cells, small signet ring lipoblasts, and a rich network of capillaries in a myxoid stroma." |
| C5236 | A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the ovaries. |
| C5237 | An epithelial neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the ovary. This category includes neuroendocrine tumors and neuroendocrine carcinomas. |
| C5238 | A carcinoma that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells exhibiting neuroendocrine differentiation.  The prognosis is poor. |
| C5240 | A carcinoma that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells that resemble malignant urothelial cells. |
| C5241 | "A biphasic neoplasm that arises from the ovary or the testis. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic germ cells and neoplastic sex cord-stromal cells. It includes the gonadoblastoma and mixed germ cell-sex cord stromal tumor, unclassifiable." |
| C5242 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant epithelial tumor of the ovary characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that contain intracytoplasmic mucin and may resemble the epithelial cells of the endocervix or gastrointestinal tract." |
| C5243 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells that contain intracytoplasmic mucin.  There is cellular atypia, increased layering of cells, complexity of glands, and papillary formations." |
| C5244 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the ovary. Representative examples include leiomyoma, myxoma, and sarcoma." |
| C5245 | A myxoma arising from the ovary. |
| C5246 |  |
| C5247 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the gastric cardia.  The majority of cases have been reclassified as gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinomas. |
| C5248 | A variant of gastric adenocarcinoma with more than half of the tumor containing extracellular mucinous pools. |
| C5250 | A poorly cohesive gastric adenocarcinoma characterized by malignant cells containing intracytoplasmic mucin. |
| C5251 | An extranodal Burkitt lymphoma that arises from the stomach with the bulk of the mass located in the stomach. |
| C5253 | An extranodal diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the stomach with the bulk of the mass located in the stomach. |
| C5254 | "A rare, extranodal T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the stomach with the bulk of the mass located in the stomach." |
| C5256 | An immature teratoma that arises from the stomach. |
| C5258 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the stomach. Clinical presentation includes obstruction and gastrointestinal bleeding. Gastric lipomas occur as solitary lesions most frequently in the antrum. |
| C5259 | A mature or immature teratoma that arises from the stomach. |
| C5260 | A benign teratoma that arises from the stomach. It contains mature tissue elements only. |
| C5264 | "An extranodal marginal zone lymphoma that arises from the lung.  It is characterized by the neoplastic proliferation of small B-lymphocytes, monocytoid cells and cells with plasma cell differentiation in the marginal zones of reactive lymphoid follicles.  The neoplastic cells infiltrate the interfollicular areas and the bronchial epithelium forming lymphoepithelial lesions.  The neoplasm is usually discovered as a mass in a chest x-ray in asymptomatic patients.  When symptoms occur, they in... |
| C5265 | A lymphoma primarily involving the thyroid gland. The vast majority of cases are B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas. Hodgkin lymphomas involving the thyroid gland are exceedingly rare. |
| C5266 | "A low grade, indolent B-cell lymphoma, usually associated with Helicobacter pylori infection. Morphologically it is characterized by a dense mucosal atypical lymphocytic (centrocyte-like cell) infiltrate with often prominent lymphoepithelial lesions and plasmacytic differentiation. Approximately 40% of gastric MALT lymphomas carry the t(11;18)(q21;q21). Such cases are resistant to Helicobacter pylori therapy." |
| C5267 | A meningioma that affects the falx cerebri. |
| C5268 | A meningioma that affects the cavernous sinus. |
| C5269 | A cystic meningioma that grows within the cerebral hemispheres. |
| C5270 | A papillary meningioma that affects the cerebellum. |
| C5271 | A meningioma that affects the petrous apex. |
| C5272 | A meningioma that arises from the skull base. |
| C5273 | A meningioma that affects the ventricles of the brain. |
| C5274 | A meningioma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C5275 | Multiple meningiomas that arises from the spinal cord meninges. |
| C5276 | A rare meningioma that is present in the lung without clinical or radiologic evidence of central nervous system involvement. |
| C5277 | A rare extracranial meningioma that arises from the skin. |
| C5278 | A meningioma that affects the petroclival region. |
| C5279 | Multiple meningiomas that affect the skull base. |
| C5280 | A meningioma that affects the foramen magnum. |
| C5281 | A meningioma that affects the anterior foramen magnum. |
| C5282 | A meningioma that affects the posterior foramen magnum. |
| C5283 | A meningioma that arises from the diaphragma sellae. |
| C5284 | A meningioma that arises from the tuberculum sellae. |
| C5285 | A meningioma that affects the sphenoorbital region. |
| C5286 | A meningioma that affects the anterior cranial fossa. |
| C5287 | "A clear cell meningioma that arises from multiple areas of the spinal cord and is characterized by the presence of clear, glycogen-rich polygonal cells." |
| C5288 | A meningioma that affects the lower clivus. |
| C5289 | A meningioma that affects the clivus. |
| C5290 | A meningioma that affects the upper clivus. |
| C5291 | A meningioma that arises within the cranial cavity and results from exposure to radiation. |
| C5292 | A meningioma that affects the frontal sulcus. |
| C5293 | A meningioma that affects the jugular foramen. |
| C5294 | A meningioma that is associated with deletion of chromosomal arm 1p. |
| C5295 | A morphologic variant of meningioma arising from the brain stem.  It is characterized by the presence of clear glycogen-rich polygonal cells. |
| C5296 | A meningioma that arises from the meninges of the cervical region of the spinal cord. |
| C5297 | A meningioma that arises from the meninges of the thoracic region of the spinal cord. |
| C5298 | A meningioma that arises from the meninges of the lumbar region of the spinal cord. |
| C5299 | A meningioma that arises from the meninges of the sacral region of the spinal cord. |
| C5300 | A meningioma that affects the cerebellopontine angle. |
| C5301 | A meningioma that is transmitted from the parents to an offspring. |
| C5302 | A meningioma that affects the lateral ventricle of the brain. |
| C5303 | An ectopic meningioma that arises from the parapharyngeal space. |
| C5304 | Meningiomas that affects both optic nerves. |
| C5305 | A meningioma that is associated with deletion of chromosome 22.  This abnormality is the most consistent cytogenetic finding that is detected in meningiomas. |
| C5306 | A meningioma that is associated with deletion of chromosomal arm 3p. |
| C5307 | A meningioma that affects the internal auditory canal. |
| C5308 | A meningothelial neoplasm that arises from an anatomic site outside the intracranial and intraspinal compartments. |
| C5309 | An extremely rare meningioma that arises as a primary ectopic tumor in the ethmoid sinus. |
| C5310 | A meningioma that arises in the spinal epidural space. |
| C5311 | A meningioma that affects the pituitary stalk. |
| C5312 | The reemergence of a meningioma after a period of remission. |
| C5313 | A meningioma that affects the sphenocavernous region. |
| C5314 |  |
| C5316 | A phyllodes tumor of the breast characterized by the presence of intermediate features and a stroma which usually resembles low grade fibrosarcoma. |
| C5317 | A melanoma that arises from leptomeningeal melanocytes. |
| C5318 | A melanoma that arises from leptomeningeal melanocytes and occurs during childhood. |
| C5319 | A melanoma that arises from leptomeningeal melanocytes and occurs during adulthood. |
| C5320 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the peripheral nerves. |
| C5321 | The rarest histopathologic subtype of Schwannoma.  The reported cases have been located in the gastrointestinal submucosa or subcutaneous tissue.  Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of a microcyst-rich network of spindle cells with minimal amount of cytoplasm and Antoni A tissue. |
| C5322 | "An anaplastic large cell lymphoma that arises from the brain, meninges, or spinal cord." |
| C5323 | A rare intracranial schwannoma that affects the jugular foramen. |
| C5324 | "A slow-growing, well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm arising from the cauda equina." |
| C5325 | "A usually indolent neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises in the intestine. Patients may present with gastrointestinal hemorrhage. It is a triphasic tumor consisting of a mixture of epithelioid neuroendocrine cells, Schwann-like cells, and ganglion cells." |
| C5326 | An extra-adrenal paraganglioma arising from the abdominal cavity. |
| C5327 | A paraganglioma arising from paraganglia in the head and neck.  Representative examples include the carotid body and jugulotympanic paragangliomas. |
| C53280 | "A clinical stage I or II non-Hodgkin lymphoma without any of the following risk factors: large mediastinal mass, extranodal spread, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, involvement of at least three lymph node areas, and B symptoms." |
| C53282 | "A clinical stage I or II non-Hodgkin lymphoma with at least one of the following risk factors: large mediastinal mass, extranodal spread, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, involvement of at least three lymph node areas, and B symptoms." |
| C53283 | "A clinical stage II or IV non-Hodgkin lymphoma with up to three of the following risk factors: albumin level less than 4.0 g/dl, hemoglobin level of less than 10.5 g/dl, male sex, forty-five years of age or older, stage IV disease, white cell count of at least 15,000 per cubic millimeter, absolute lymphocytic count of less than 600 per cubic millimeter or a lymphocytic count of less than 8% of the total white cell count." |
| C53284 | "A clinical stage II or IV non-Hodgkin lymphoma with at least four of the following risk factors: albumin level less than 4.0 g/dl, hemoglobin level of less than 10.5 g/dl, male sex, forty-five years of age or older, stage IV disease, white cell count of at least 15,000 per cubic millimeter, absolute lymphocytic count of less than 600 per cubic millimeter or a lymphocytic count of less than 8% of the total white cell count." |
| C5328 | "A sympathetic paraganglioma arising from the retroperitoneum, outside the adrenal gland." |
| C53296 | A hyperplasia of the epidermis. |
| C5329 | "A hereditary neoplasm arising from paraganglia. The majority of cases (up to 80%) are multifocal. It is caused by mutations in SDHA, SDHB, SDHC, SDHD, and SDHAF2 genes." |
| C53316 | A lymphangioma characterized by the presence of thin-walled cavernous lymphatic spaces. |
| C5332 |  |
| C5334 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the esophagus.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5335 | "A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the small intestine.  Representative examples include leiomyosarcoma, angiosarcoma, and Kaposi sarcoma." |
| C5336 | A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the small intestine.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a herringbone growth pattern. |
| C5337 | A rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the small intestine. |
| C5338 | A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the duodenum. It is characterized by a villous architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C5339 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the small intestine.  It usually arises from the submucosa and occasionally protrudes into the lumen. |
| C5340 | "A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the small intestine.  It is a polypoid or flat circumscribed lesion. Morphologically, it is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic glandular cells and it is associated with dysplasia. According to the growth pattern, it may be classified as tubular, villous, or tubulovillous." |
| C5341 | "A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the esophagus.  Representative examples include Kaposi sarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and synovial sarcoma." |
| C5342 | An infrequent esophageal carcinoma arising from esophageal glands.  (WHO) |
| C53439 | "An acute or chronic disorder, affecting the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system.  It can be primary, the result of central nervous system degeneration, or secondary due to diabetes or alcoholism.  Patients with the chronic form of this disorder usually have a progressive clinical course and a poor prognosis." |
| C5343 | "A rare carcinoma of the esophagus which contains squamous cells, mucus secreting cells, and cells of an intermediate type.  (WHO)" |
| C5344 | "A rare neoplasm arising from the distal third of the esophagus.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of fibrovascular cores covered by mature stratified squamous epithelium.  Progression to squamous cell carcinoma is extremely rare." |
| C53455 | An osteochondroma affecting a single anatomical site. |
| C53457 | "An autosomal dominant neoplastic chondrogenic process affecting multiple sites. It is caused by mutations in the EXT1 or EXT2 genes.  Grossly and microscopically, the lesions resemble an osteochondroma." |
| C53459 | A benign well circumscribed neoplasm of hyaline cartilage arising from bone or soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes. |
| C5345 | A skin glomuvenous malformation that is characterized by huge vascular channel formations and manifests as a telangiectatic plaque. |
| C5346 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the endocardium. |
| C5347 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the inner layer of the pericardium. |
| C53482 | "An acute viral infection of the respiratory tract, occurring in isolated cases, in epidemics, or in pandemics; it is caused by serologically different strains of viruses (influenzaviruses) designated A, B, and C, has a 3-day incubation period, and usually lasts for 3 to 10 days. It is marked by inflammation of the nasal mucosa, pharynx, and conjunctiva; headache; myalgia; often fever, chills, and prostration; and occasionally involvement of the myocardium or central nervous system." |
| C5348 | A neoplasm involving a great vessel. |
| C53493 | "A morphologic variant of chondrosarcoma arising from the bone.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant small round cells, biphasic growth pattern, and well differentiated hyaline cartilage. Clinical presentation includes pain and swelling.  The clinical course is aggressive, with local recurrences and distant metastases." |
| C53494 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the anus. Representative examples include hemorrhoids, ulcers, and infections." |
| C53497 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the esophagus. Representative examples include infections, ulcers, and gastroesophageal reflux disease." |
| C5349 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the myocardium. |
| C53500 | "A disorder that affects the small or large intestine and is non-neoplastic in nature. Representative examples include acute appendicitis, colitis, and inflammatory bowel disease." |
| C53501 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the stomach. Representative examples include gastritis and ulcer. |
| C53505 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the pancreas. Representative examples include pancreatitis and pancreatic insufficiency. |
| C53506 | Abnormally dilated veins of the esophagus. |
| C5350 | Glomuvenous malformation inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and caused by mutations in the GLMN gene encoding glomulin. |
| C53529 | Any disorder other than abnormal tissue growth resulting from uncontrolled cell proliferation. |
| C5352 | A benign hemangiopericytoma arising from the orbit. |
| C53531 |  |
| C53534 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that causes a disturbance in normal vision. Representative examples include amblyopia, astigmatism, myopia, and cataracts." |
| C53539 | A non-neoplastic disorder arising in an anatomic site exposed to radiation. |
| C5353 | A capillary or cavernous hemangioma arising from the breast. |
| C53543 | A non-neoplastic disorder that is uncommon. |
| C53547 |  |
| C5354 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant vascular neoplasm that arises from the skin." |
| C53550 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the liver parenchyma and the intrahepatic bile ducts. Representative examples include hepatitis, cirrhosis, and cholangitis." |
| C53553 | "A header term that includes the following breast carcinoma subtypes determined by gene expression profiling: luminal A breast carcinoma, luminal B breast carcinoma, HER2 positive breast carcinoma, basal-like breast carcinoma, triple-negative breast carcinoma, and normal breast-like subtype of breast carcinoma." |
| C53554 | "A biologic subset of breast carcinoma defined by high expression of genes characteristic of luminal epithelial cells, including estrogen receptor (ER), estrogen regulated protein LIV-1, and the transcription factors hepatocyte nuclear factor 3, HNF3A, XBP1, and GATA 3.  This subtype of breast cancer is associated with a good prognosis." |
| C53555 | "A biologic subset of breast carcinoma defined by low to moderate expression of genes characteristic of luminal epithelial cells including estrogen receptor (ER), and high expression of GGH, LAPTM4B, and CCNE1.  This subtype of breast cancer is associated with a good prognosis, although not as favorable as the luminal A subtype." |
| C53556 | "A biologic subset of breast carcinoma defined by high expression of HER2, GRB7, and TRAP100, and by lack of expression of estrogen receptor (ER)." |
| C53557 | A biologic subset of breast carcinoma defined by high expression of many genes expressed by adipose and other non-epithelial tissues. |
| C53558 | "A biologic subset of breast carcinoma defined by high expression of genes characteristic of basal epithelial cells, including KRT5 and KRT17, annexin 8, CX3CL1, and TRIM29, and usually by lack of expression of the estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). It is the most common subtype of breast cancer associated with BRCA1 mutations, and is associated with a poor prognosis." |
| C5355 | A morphologic variant of angioleiomyoma characterized by the adherence of neoplastic smooth muscle cells to the walls of vascular channels. |
| C5356 | A rare benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of smooth muscle cells growing within the veins of the uterine corpus. The intravascular neoplasm growth occurs outside the confines of an adjacent leiomyoma. |
| C5357 | A germ cell tumor that arises within the myocardium or cardiac chambers. There is no evidence of atypia or metastases. |
| C53589 | An intramuscular myxoma with increased cellularity and increased numbers of collagen fibers and blood vessels. |
| C5358 | A benign peripheral nervous system neoplasm that is composed of well-differentiated Schwann cells and affects the heart. |
| C53594 | "A non-metastasizing soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of a neoplastic stroma containing spindle cells, dilated thin-walled vessels lined by fibrin, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate.  The majority of cases develop in the subcutaneous tissues usually in the lower extremities and present as slow growing masses.  Recurrences occur in approximately half of the cases." |
| C53595 | "A rare, benign, well-circumscribed or encapsulated tumor that arises from the neck and occurs in adults. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells, epithelial islands, and adipose tissue." |
| C5359 | A rare neurofibroma that affects the heart. |
| C5360 | A very rare granular cell tumor that arises from the heart. |
| C5361 | A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the heart.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a herringbone growth pattern. |
| C5362 | "A low-grade malignant blood vessel neoplasm, arising from the heart.  IIt is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells.  The neoplastic cells are arranged in cords and nests, which are embedded in a myxoid to hyalinized stroma." |
| C5363 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the heart. |
| C53646 |  |
| C53647 |  |
| C53649 | "A herpesvirus infection caused by Cytomegalovirus. Healthy individuals generally do not produce symptoms. However, the infection may be life-threatening in affected immunocompromised patients. The virus may cause retinitis, esophagitis, gastritis, and colitis. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of intranuclear inclusion bodies." |
| C5364 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the heart.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C53652 | Signs and symptoms related to acute ischemia of the myocardium secondary to coronary artery disease. The clinical presentation covers a spectrum of heart diseases from unstable angina to myocardial infarction. |
| C53653 | A dilated cardiomyopathy which is associated with consumption of large amounts of alcohol over a period of years. |
| C53654 | A disease of the heart muscle or myocardium proper whose cause is unknown. |
| C53655 | A metabolic disorder characterized by abnormal blood glucose levels. |
| C53656 | Inflammation of the conjunctiva caused by a variety of bacterial agents. |
| C53657 |  |
| C53658 | "Inflammation of the lining of the ocular cavities, which results from a fungal infection." |
| C5365 | A malignant hemangiopericytoma arising in the heart. |
| C53662 | Inflammation of breast tissue during lactation or postpartum due to an obstructed duct or infection. |
| C53677 | A malignant neoplasm arising from the large blood vessels.  It is characterized by the presence of tumor cells that grow within the lumen of the blood vessels.  The intraluminal tumor growth may result in vascular obstruction and spread of tumor emboli to peripheral organs.  The prognosis is usually poor. |
| C5367 | A very rare malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that arises from the heart. |
| C53684 | "A neoplasm that arises from connective and soft tissue and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include lipoma, leiomyoma, fibroma, and osteoma." |
| C53686 | A choroid plexus papilloma characterized by increased mitotic activity. |
| C5368 | "An extranodal lymphoma that arises from the heart. The majority of the cases are diffuse large B-cell lymphomas. Patients may present with chest pain, heart failure, pericardial effusion, arrhythmia, or syncope." |
| C5369 | A lymphoma that has spread to the heart from another primary anatomic site. |
| C53704 | "An osteosarcoma arising from a pre-existing lesion of the bone, usually Paget disease, or due to radiation therapy." |
| C53706 | A high grade osteosarcoma arising in an irradiated bone. |
| C53707 | "A usually aggressive malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the bone.  It may arise de novo or from a pre-existing lesion of the bone.  Pain and a palpable mass are the most frequent clinical sign and symptom. It may spread to other anatomic sites, particularly the lungs." |
| C5370 | A rare extramedullary myeloid tumor that arises from the heart.  It may present in association with or as a site of relapse of acute myeloid leukemia. Rare cases of myeloid sarcoma of the heart preceding acute myeloid leukemia have also been reported. |
| C5371 | A rare malignant germ cell tumor that arises within the myocardium or cardiac chambers. |
| C5372 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the inferior vena cava.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5373 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the pulmonary artery It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5374 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the pulmonary vein.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5375 | A malignant neoplasm involving the aorta. |
| C5376 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the aorta. |
| C5377 | A malignant neoplasm involving the inferior vena cava. |
| C5378 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the superior vena cava. |
| C5379 | A malignant neoplasm involving the superior vena cava. |
| C5380 | A malignant neoplasm involving the pulmonary artery. |
| C5381 | A rare choriocarcinoma that arises from a pulmonary artery. |
| C5383 | A malignant neoplasm involving the pulmonary vein. |
| C5384 | The reemergence of angiosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C5385 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the uterus. |
| C5386 | A benign or malignant hemangiopericytoma arising from the retroperitoneum. |
| C5387 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the walls of the vascular system.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5388 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the renal vein.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5389 | "A neoplasm that arises from the right or left atrium and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5390 | An extra-adrenal paraganglioma arising from paraganglia located in the cardiac atrium. |
| C5392 | A paraganglioma of the heart that metastasizes to regional or distant anatomic sites. |
| C5393 | A lymphangioma arising from the parotid gland. |
| C5394 | A solitary benign neoplasm arising from the fibrous soft tissues. The tumor is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts. |
| C53953 | A conventional osteosarcoma characterized by the predominance of osteoid matrix. |
| C53958 | A usually aggressive high grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the surface of the bone. |
| C5395 | A cavernous hemangioma arising from the colon. |
| C53963 | "A rare, benign neoplasm usually arising from the non-metaphyseal regions of long bones or pelvis. It is characterized by the presence of fibroblastic spindle cells arranged in a whorled storiform pattern, osteoclast-like giant cells, foam cells, inflammatory cells, hemosiderin deposition and stromal hemorrhage." |
| C53964 | A rare leiomyoma affecting the bone. |
| C5396 | A locally aggressive hemangioma that arises from the bone and is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells. |
| C53970 | "A benign, usually self-limited fibro-osseous lesion of the bone that affects infants and children.  It usually arises from the cortical bone of the anterior mid-shaft of the tibia.  Patients usually present with swelling or painless bowing of the tibia.  Progression to adamantinoma has been reported in some cases." |
| C53971 | Fibrous dysplasia presenting as a single bone lesion. |
| C53972 | "A very rare, multisystem non-Langerhans cell histiocytosis that predominantly affects adults.  It is characterized by the proliferation in the tissues of lipid-laden macrophages and the presence of multinucleated giant cells.  It results in sclerosis of the long bones and failure of the affected organs.  Patients may present with bone pain, exophthalmos, ataxia, liver failure, kidney failure, and hypopituitarism." |
| C53973 | "A rare benign lesion that arises from the rib cage and affects infants.  It results in the formation of a mass which is composed of spindle cells, cartilage, and hemorrhagic cysts.  Surgical resection is usually curative." |
| C53975 | "A localized skin condition commonly associated with sun exposure that is characterized by variegated discoloration, telangiectasia and atrophy." |
| C53976 |  |
| C5397 | A hemangioma arising from the parotid gland. |
| C5398 | A term that refers to central nervous system embryonal tumors which are not fully characterized. |
| C53994 | "An infiltrating high-grade malignant mesenchymal tumor arising from the uterine corpus, cervix, vagina, and ovary." |
| C53998 | "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that is characterized by a maximum diameter equal or less than 5 cm (gastric localization), or equal or less than 2 cm (intestinal localization) and no more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields." |
| C53999 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that is characterized by large size (diameter greater than 10 cm for gastric localization and greater than 5 cm for intestinal localization) or more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields. |
| C5399 | A medulloblastoma which has spread from its original site to the leptomeninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord. |
| C54000 | "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that is characterized by a maximum diameter greater than 5 cm and equal or less than 10 cm (gastric localization), or greater than 2 cm and equal or less than 5 cm (intestinal localization) and no more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields." |
| C5400 | "A central nervous system embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified which has spread from its original site to the leptomeninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord." |
| C5401 | A medulloblastoma arising from the vermis of the cerebellum. |
| C5402 | A medulloblastoma characterized by the loss of one of the p13 regions of chromosome 17.  Loss of genetic material of chromosome arm 17p is the most common molecular genetic abnormality found in medulloblastomas. |
| C54039 | A medulloblastoma composed of malignant cells with hyperchromatic nucleus and scanty cytoplasm.  Homer Wright rosettes may be present. |
| C5403 | A malignant germ cell tumor that affects the structures within the cranium. |
| C5405 | A medulloblastoma developing in patients with multiple basal cell carcinomas.  It is observed in patients with nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome and it is associated with PTCH gene inactivation. |
| C5406 | "A central nervous system embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified arising from the spinal cord." |
| C5407 | A medulloblastoma characterized by nodularity and neuronal differentiation. |
| C5408 | An astrocytoma that arises from the cauda equina. |
| C54094 | A benign or malignant granular cell tumor that arises from the stomach. |
| C54099 | "A germ cell tumor that affects the central nervous system, characterized by the presence of malignant morphologic characteristics.  Representative examples include choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma, and germinoma." |
| C5409 | A T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the central nervous system. |
| C54102 | "A rare syndrome affecting conjugate vertical eye movement. It is often caused by a dorsal midbrain neoplasm, commonly a pinealoma, but may also be attributable to demyelinating diseases or stroke. Clinical signs include limitation of upward gaze, light-near dissociation of the pupillary response, eyelid retraction (Collier's sign) and convergence-retraction nystagmus. Clinical course is dependent on effective treatment of underlying cause." |
| C5411 | "A central nervous system embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified that occurs in adults." |
| C5412 | A chordoma that arises from the clivus. |
| C5413 | A schwannoma occurring in the cerebellopontine angle. |
| C5414 | A neoplasm that affects the cerebellopontine angle. Representative examples include vestibular schwannoma and meningioma. |
| C5416 | An anaplastic astrocytoma occurring in the supratentorial area secondary to a preexisting tumor. |
| C54180 | "A morphologic spectrum of lesions that arise in the terminal ductal lobular units of the breast parenchyma.  These lesions are characterized by the presence of columnar epithelial cells that line dilated terminal ductal lobular units.  Cytological and architectural atypia may be absent or minimal, or significant enough to raise the possibility of atypical ductal hyperplasia or ductal carcinoma in situ.  Columnar cell lesions are frequently found in breast biopsies but their biologic signifi... |
| C54181 | "A columnar cell lesion characterized by the presence of enlarged terminal ductal lobular units with dilated acini.  The acini are lined by one or two layers of columnar epithelial cells.  Apical cytoplasmic snouts may be present, but they are not prominent.  Secretions may be present in the lumina of the dilated acini." |
| C54182 | A columnar cell lesion characterized by the presence of enlarged terminal ductal lobular units with dilated acini.  The acini are lined by one or two layers of columnar epithelial cells.  Cytologic atypia is present. |
| C54183 | A columnar cell lesion characterized by the presence of enlarged terminal ductal lobular units with dilated acini.  The acini are lined by more than two layers of columnar epithelial cells. Prominent apical cytoplasmic snouts are present.  Secretions are often present in the lumina of the dilated acini. |
| C54184 | A columnar cell lesion characterized by the presence of enlarged terminal ductal lobular units with dilated acini.  The acini are lined by more than two layers of columnar epithelial cells.  Cytologic atypia is present.  Prominent apical cytoplasmic snouts and intraluminal secretions are also present. |
| C5418 | A benign schwannoma occurring in the pleura. |
| C5419 | "An astrocytic tumor affecting young people.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of collagenous tissue surrounding neoplastic astrocytes.  In some cases the collagen is produced by the tumor cells (desmoplastic astrocytoma), whereas in others it is produced by mesenchymal cells (mixed glioma/fibroma)." |
| C54203 | Physical and psychological dependence on nicotine. |
| C5420 | "A sensory neuropathy caused by the effects of a distant neoplasm (usually a small cell carcinoma). It is usually caused by the production of anti-neuronal autoantibodies: anti-Hu (ANNA-1) or anti-CV2 (CRMP-5), which result in cytotoxic T-cell mediated destruction of dorsal root ganglia. It is the most common clinical presentation of paraneoplastic encephalomyelitis. Clinical signs include asymmetric paresthesia of the face, trunk and proximal extremities followed by lancinating pain, vibrio... |
| C5421 | "A benign tumor derived from schwann cells of the peripheral sympathetic nervous system, including the sympathetic plexus." |
| C5423 |  |
| C54244 | "A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of cells with hyperchromatic nuclei, scant amount of cytoplasm, and peripheral nuclear palisading." |
| C5424 | An uncommon lipoma that arises in the epidural space of the spinal canal and is characterized by prominent vascularity. |
| C54250 | An uncommon carcinoma that arises from the skin. It is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular and malignant squamous cellular components. |
| C54262 | A carcinoma that arises from the ear.  Representative examples include ceruminous adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma of the external ear and adenocarcinoma of the middle ear. |
| C5426 | A chondroid chordoma that arises from the clivus. |
| C5427 | A ganglioneuroma arising from the retroperitoneum. |
| C54283 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the head and neck region and is characterized by prominent production of keratin. |
| C54284 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the paranasal sinuses and is characterized by prominent production of keratin. |
| C54285 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity and is characterized by prominent production of keratin. |
| C54287 | "A squamous cell carcinoma of the sinonasal tract characterized by a plexiform or ribbon-like growth pattern, cytological atypia, and lack of histological evidence of keratinization." |
| C5428 |  |
| C54293 | A carcinoma arising from the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. |
| C54294 | "A rare, highly aggressive carcinoma that arises from the sinonasal tract.  It is characterized by the presence of small to medium size malignant cells.  The prognosis is poor." |
| C54295 | "A rare carcinoma that arises centrally from the jaw and cannot be categorized as any other type of carcinoma. It derives from odontogenic cysts, odontogenic epithelial remnants, or other benign precursors." |
| C54297 | "A rare, well differentiated, cytologically benign ameloblastoma which paradoxically metastasizes." |
| C54298 | A very rare ameloblastic carcinoma that originates from a pre-existing intraosseous benign ameloblastoma. |
| C54299 | A very rare ameloblastic carcinoma that originates from a pre-existing extraosseous benign ameloblastoma. |
| C5429 | A peripheral nervous system neoplasm that arises in the mediastinum during childhood. |
| C54300 | "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It more often affects older females and more frequently occurs in the mandible. It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm and a fibrotic stroma formation. It may recur and metastasize. Metastases may occur in the lymph nodes, lungs, and bones. Treatment of choice is resection with clean margins." |
| C54301 | "A slow growing, locally invasive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It most often grows intraosseously in the mandible and less frequently in the maxilla. In a minority of cases it grows extraosseously in the gingiva. It is characterized by the presence of a fibrous stroma, epithelial cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm, and amyloid material which is often calcified. Small tumors may be successfully treated with enucleation. Local resection is usually required for larger tu... |
| C54303 | "A rare primary intraosseous carcinoma, not otherwise specified, that arises from the lining of an odontogenic keratocyst." |
| C5430 |  |
| C54317 | "A rare, locally aggressive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the mandible and maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium and adjacent myxoid tissue, fibrous stroma, and mineralized dental tissues." |
| C54319 | "A benign, intraosseous or extraosseous cystic neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It is characterized by the presence of a cyst lined by an ameloblastoma-like epithelium and ghost cells formation. The ghost cells may undergo calcification. It is treated with enucleation. Few recurrences have been reported for intraosseous neoplasms whereas no recurrences have been reported for extraosseous neoplasms." |
| C5431 | A tumor composed of mature adipocytes and fibrous tissue infiltrating the epineurium and peripheral nerves.  It is often seen at birth or during childhood and may be associated with macrodactyly. |
| C54323 | "A benign but locally infiltrating neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It is more often intraosseous and less frequently extraosseous and occurs in the jaw. It is characterized by the presence of ameloblastoma-like epithelium, connective tissue stroma, ghost cells, and dysplastic dentin. Wide local resection is recommended for intraosseous neoplasms and enucleation for extraosseous neoplasms." |
| C5432 | A cavernous hemangioma arising from the brain and meninges. |
| C54334 | "An aggressive variant of squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the pyriform sinus or supraglottic area.  It is characterized by the presence of small malignant cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and scant amount of cytoplasm forming lobules with peripheral palisading.  Comedonecrosis may be present.  An in situ or invasive keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma component is always present.  Signs and symptoms include hoarseness, dysphagia, pain, and neck mass." |
| C54335 | A variant of squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the larynx. It is characterized by exophytic and papillary growth usually in the supraglottic area. The papillae are covered by a malignant stratified squamous epithelium. |
| C54336 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the larynx. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant spindle cell cellular component. In some cases, there is a biphasic morphology due to the presence of a well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma component. The latter is either in situ or invasive squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C54337 | A rare variant of squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the larynx. It is characterized by acantholysis of the tumor cells that results in the formation of pseudolumina resembling glandular structures. |
| C54338 | "A rare, aggressive carcinoma that arises from the larynx.  It is characterized by the presence of squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma components.  Hoarseness, sore throat, and dysphagia are the presenting symptoms." |
| C54339 | An undifferentiated carcinoma that arises from the larynx.  This category includes lymphoepithelial carcinoma and giant cell carcinoma. |
| C5433 | A hemangioma arising from the cerebral hemisphere. |
| C54341 | A rare and aggressive carcinoma that arises from the larynx.  It is characterized by the presence of an undifferentiated carcinoma accompanied by a prominent reactive lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate. |
| C54342 | A rare undifferentiated carcinoma that arises from the larynx.  It is characterized by the presence of multiple bizarre multinucleated giant cells.  The prognosis is poor. |
| C54345 | "A benign neoplasm with exophytic and endophytic growth arising from the lateral nasal wall or the paranasal sinuses. It is characterized by the proliferation of columnar cells with oncocytic features. Microcysts containing mucin and neutrophils are present in the epithelium. Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction and epistaxis. Occasionally, it is associated with the development or presence of a carcinoma, usually squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C54347 | "A benign nasal cavity exophytic papillary neoplasm with fibrovascular cores lined by epithelial cells. It arises from the lower anterior nasal septum. Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and the presence of a mass." |
| C5434 | A benign schwannoma occurring in the twelfth cranial nerve. |
| C5435 | An olfactory neuroblastoma that extends beyond the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C54360 | An aggressive variant of squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx.  It is characterized by the presence of small malignant cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and scant amount of cytoplasm forming lobules with peripheral palisading.  Comedonecrosis may be present. |
| C5436 | "A central nervous system embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified arising from the cerebellopontine angle of the infratentorial brain." |
| C5437 | A neuroblastoma arising from an anatomic site other than the brain. |
| C54389 | "A nonkeratinizing nasopharyngeal carcinoma characterized by the presence of cells without prominent nucleoli, cellular stratification, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate." |
| C5438 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the corpus callosum. |
| C5439 | An intradural extramedullary spinal metastasis from an intracranial tumor through the cerebrospinal fluid. |
| C54400 | "A low-grade exophytic adenocarcinoma with papillary growth that arises from the epithelium of the nasopharynx. If it is completely removed, the prognosis is excellent." |
| C5440 | Leukemia infiltrating the central nervous system structures. |
| C5441 | A mature or immature teratoma that affects the central nervous system. |
| C5442 | A melanoma that arises from the leptomeninges within the cranium. |
| C5443 |  |
| C5444 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm located in the intracranial region. It is a congenital hamartomatous malformation derived from the embryologic meninx primitiva. |
| C5446 | Diffuse or multifocal infiltration of the meninges by malignant glioma. |
| C5447 | An anaplastic oligodendroglioma that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C5448 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the central nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C5449 | "A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm originating in the central nervous system or the meninges and showing fibrous, fibrohistiocytic, adipose, myoid, endothelial, chondroid or osseous, but not meningothelial differentiation. Depending on the histological features and clinical behavior of these neoplasms, their grade ranges from benign (WHO grade I) to highly malignant (WHO grade IV). (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C5450 | "A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the brain, spinal cord or meninges." |
| C5451 | "A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the central nervous system frequently found in midline locations such as the corpus callosum, the quadrigeminal plate, the hypothalamus, the spinal canal or the cauda equina. Some contain Schwann cells, bone, cartilage or hamartomatous blood vessels." |
| C5452 | "A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the internal auditory canal, often presenting as an acoustic tumor. It may be intermixed with the vestibulocochlear nerve and may adhere to adjacent structures." |
| C5453 | A chordoma that arises from the base of the skull. |
| C5454 | "Stage IIA includes: (T0, N1, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0).  T0: No evidence of primary tumor.  T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension.  T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor more than 20 mm but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension.  N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis.  M0 includes M0(i+).  (AJCC 6t... |
| C5455 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2: Tumor more than 20 mm but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 50 mm in greatest dimension.  N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis.  M0 includes M0(i+).  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C5457 | An invasive breast adenocarcinoma with cytological and immunophenotypic characteristics of apocrine differentiation in more than 90 percent of the malignant cells. |
| C5461 | "A unique group of rare tumors of the central nervous system that affect mainly children and adolescents. Their morphologic and biologic profile corresponds to that of homologous germ cell tumors that arise in the gonads and in other extragonadal sites. Representative examples include: germinoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, and teratoma." |
| C5462 | An extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma arising from the brain. |
| C5464 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the central nervous system. |
| C54658 | A nevus that arises from the breast skin. |
| C54659 | "A nevus that arises from the palms, soles, and nails." |
| C5465 | A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the central nervous system. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a herringbone growth pattern. |
| C54660 | A nevus that arises from the flexural skin. |
| C54661 | A nevus that arises from the skin in the head and neck region. |
| C54662 | A rare variant of cutaneous melanoma occurring mostly in adults in their fifth decade. Morphologically it resembles an ordinary compound or dermal nevus. |
| C54663 | "A rare variant of cutaneous melanoma, characterized by the presence of malignant cells with signet-ring morphology." |
| C54664 | "A carcinoma with apocrine and less often eccrine differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It usually presents as a solitary slow growing nodule in the dermis or subcutaneous tissues. It is characterized by a nodular growth pattern and it is often associated with necrotic changes." |
| C54665 | A variant of basal cell carcinoma with the architectural features of a nodular basal cell carcinoma.  It is characterized by the formation of keratin (horn cysts) in the center of the tumor islands.  Dystrophic calcification is frequently present. |
| C5466 | An extra-adrenal paraganglioma arising from the central nervous system. |
| C5468 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C54691 | An invasive lobular carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with large intracytoplasmic lumina that cause displacement of the nuclei towards one pole of the cells. |
| C5469 | "Stage IB includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C54705 | A broad classification for disorders in which the development of neoplasms typically occur in association with a characteristic set of signs or symptoms. These disorders may be inherited or acquired. |
| C5470 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T4b, N0, M0); (T4b, N1, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); (T3, N3, M0).  T3: Tumor penetrates subserosal connective tissue without invasion of visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures.  T4a: Tumor invades serosa (visceral peritoneum).  T4b: Tumor invades adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  N3: Metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis... |
| C5471 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T4a, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T2, N3, M0).  T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates subserosal connective tissue without invasion of visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures.  T4a: Tumor invades serosa (visceral peritoneum).  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  N3: Metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5472 | A variant of gastric adenocarcinoma with exophytic growth and elongated finger-like processes lined by cylindrical or cuboidal cells supported by fibrovascular connective tissue cores. |
| C5473 | A variant of gastric adenocarcinoma characterized by prominent dilated or slit-like tubules. |
| C5474 | A carcinoma that arises from the stomach and is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with glandular and squamous differentiation. |
| C5475 | A rare carcinoma of the stomach resembling squamous cell carcinomas arising elsewhere in the body. |
| C5476 | A carcinoma that arises from the stomach and is characterized by the absence of microscopic features of glandular or squamous differentiation. |
| C5478 |  |
| C5479 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm that affects the cauda equina." |
| C5481 | A hemangioma arising from the stomach. |
| C5482 | A lymphangioma arising from the stomach. |
| C5483 | "A granular cell tumor that arises from the stomach and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5484 | A metastasizing granular cell tumor that arises from the stomach. |
| C5486 | A malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the stomach.  It includes choriocarcinoma and immature teratoma. |
| C5487 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the stomach." |
| C5488 | A liposarcoma that arises from the stomach. |
| C5489 | A xanthoma located in the stomach. |
| C5490 | A very rare colon carcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant squamous cell infiltrate. |
| C5491 | "An unusual colon carcinoma characterized by the presence of glandular and squamous carcinomatous components.  The two carcinomatous components may be admixed within the tumor, or the two may appear separately in different areas." |
| C5492 | "A well-circumscribed benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the colon. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5493 | "A benign adipose tissue neoplasm originating in the colon. It is the second most common benign lesion of the colon after benign adenomatous polyps. Older patients are more likely to be affected, and most lesions are located at the right side of large bowel. Colon lipomas may lead to intestinal obstruction." |
| C5494 | An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from the colon.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells. |
| C5495 | "A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the colon.  Representative examples include angiosarcoma, Kaposi sarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma." |
| C5496 | A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the colonic mucosa. It is characterized by tubular and villous architectural patterns. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C5497 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the colon. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C5498 | An extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the colon. |
| C5499 | A rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the colon. |
| C5500 | A lymphangioma arising from the colon. |
| C5501 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the cecum. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C5502 | "A granular cell tumor that arises from a peripheral nerve and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5503 | "A neoplasm of hematopoietic and lymphoid cell origin that affects  the brain, meninges, or spinal cord." |
| C5508 | A dermoid cyst arising in the central nervous system. |
| C5509 | A hamartoma that occurs in the central nervous system. |
| C5510 | A cystically dilated epithelial neoplasm arising from the appendix.  It is characterized by the presence of a cystic structure that is filled with mucus. |
| C5511 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the appendix, characterized by the presence of mucinous stroma formation and cystic structures." |
| C5512 | An adenoma arising from the appendix.  It is characterized by the presence of villous epithelial structures and it is associated with dysplasia. |
| C5513 | A lymphoma arising from the appendix. The majority of lymphomas affecting the appendix represent disease extension from the intestinal wall; primary lymphomas of the appendix are rare. |
| C5514 | "A well-circumscribed benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the appendix. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5515 | An extranodal lymphoma that arises from the cecum.  The majority are B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C5516 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the colon. |
| C5517 | "A non-neoplastic polypoid lesion in the colon.  It may arise in a background of inflammatory bowel disease or colitis.  It is characterized by the presence of a distorted epithelium, inflammation, and fibrosis." |
| C5518 | "A non-neoplastic hamartomatous polyp that arises from the colon.  It is characterized by the presence of tortuous and cystically dilated glands, edematous changes, and inflammation." |
| C5519 | "A non-neoplastic hamartomatous polyp that arises from the colon and rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle branching bands, and cystic mucosal changes." |
| C5520 | A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the cecal mucosa. It is characterized by a villous architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C5521 | An extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the cecum.  The majority are B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C5522 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the prostate. |
| C5523 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the prostate. |
| C5524 | "A rare malignant neoplasm arising from specialized prostatic stroma.  It is characterized by the presence of stromal overgrowth and hypercellularity, increased number of mitotic figures, and pleomorphism." |
| C5525 | An embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the prostate gland. |
| C5526 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the prostate.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5527 | Myeloid sarcoma that affects the prostate gland.  It may present in association with or as a site of relapse of acute myeloid leukemia.  Cases of myeloid sarcoma of the prostate gland preceding acute myeloid leukemia have also been reported. |
| C5528 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the prostate. |
| C5529 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the stomach. |
| C5530 | "A rare acinar adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland with unfavorable prognosis. It is composed of both malignant glandular and sarcomatous components. The sarcomatous component contains a malignant spindle cell proliferation or specific mesenchymal elements including osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma." |
| C5531 | An unusual malignant tumor that arises from the prostate gland.  It is characterized by the presence of glandular elements and a cellular stroma that exhibits mitotic activity and nuclear atypia. |
| C5532 | A rare benign neoplasm that arises from the prostate gland and is characterized by the presence of hyperplastic glands and stroma that contains spindle-shaped cells. |
| C5533 | A rare non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C5534 | A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C5535 | Acinar adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland characterized by the presence of malignant cells with intracytoplasmic vacuoles that displace the nucleus to the periphery of the cell. |
| C5536 | An invasive prostate carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with squamous differentiation. There is no evidence of glandular differentiation. |
| C5537 | Acinar adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland characterized by the presence of lakes of extracellular mucin. This diagnosis applies when at least 25% of the resected tumor contains extracellular mucin. |
| C5538 | An infrequent invasive carcinoma of the prostate gland characterized by the presence of both glandular and squamous neoplastic components.  It is more often located in the transitional zone of the prostate gland and it tends to rapidly metastasize to the bones. |
| C5539 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C5541 | "Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of morphologically malignant cells lining the acini and ducts.  The malignant cells are enlarged, contain prominent nucleoli, and have increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio.  The malignant cells may grow within the ducts and acini in four architectural patterns: flat, tufting, micropapillary, and cribriform.  The presence of high grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia in needle biopsy is a risk factor for the subsequent dete... |
| C5542 | "Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the proliferation of secretory cells with irregular spacing in the ducts and acini.  Although some proliferating epithelial cells may contain prominent nucleoli, the cytologic atypia and architectural growth patterns that are seen in the high grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia are absent.  The presence of low grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia in needle biopsy is not a risk factor for the subsequent detection of carcinoma on... |
| C5543 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the cecum.  It is more frequently seen in populations with a Western type diet and in patients with a history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease.  Histologic variants include mucinous adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, serrated adenocarcinoma, cribriform comedo-type adenocarcinoma, and micropapillary adenocarcinoma." |
| C5544 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the prostate. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5545 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C5546 | "An adenoma that arises from the rectum.  The group of rectal adenomas includes tubular, villous, and tubulovillous adenomas, traditional serrated adenomas, sessile serrated adenomas/polyps, and familial adenomatous polyposis." |
| C5547 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the rectum. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C5548 | "A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the rectum.  Representative examples include angiosarcoma, Kaposi sarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma." |
| C5549 | An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from the rectum.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells. |
| C5550 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the rectum. |
| C5551 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the rectum. |
| C5552 | "A well-circumscribed benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the rectum. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5553 | An extranodal lymphoma that arises from the rectum.  The majority are B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C5554 | A very rare rectal carcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant squamous cell infiltrate. |
| C5555 | A carcinoma that arises from the transitional zone at the junction of the rectum and anus. |
| C5556 | A biphasic rectal carcinoma with a spindle cell sarcomatoid component. |
| C5558 | An adenoma or carcinoma that arises from the ceruminous glands in the external auditory canal. |
| C5559 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the eccrine glands. |
| C5560 | "A carcinoma with eccrine differentiation arising from the sweat glands. It may arise de novo or as a malignant transformation of a pre-existing poroma. It usually grows in the legs, buttocks, feet, and trunk and usually presents as an ulcerative plaque. It is characterized by the presence of intraepidermal and dermal nests of malignant epithelial cells. It may recur after excision and metastasize to the lymph nodes and less frequently to distal anatomic sites." |
| C5562 | "A hamartoma characterized by localized malformation of one or more of the skin appendages; including sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and hair follicles." |
| C5563 | A hamartoma characterized by localized apocrine sweat gland malformation. |
| C5564 | A hamartoma characterized by localized eccrine sweat gland malformation. |
| C5565 | A hamartoma characterized by localized pilosebaceous apparatus malformation. |
| C5566 | An adipose tissue neoplasm arising from the skin. |
| C5567 |  |
| C5568 | A type of basal cell carcinoma of the skin.  It appears as a flesh-colored papule with telangiectatic vessels on its surface.  It grows slowly; as it enlarges it becomes necrotic forming a central ulcer with raised borders. |
| C5569 | A benign schwannoma occurring in the skin. |
| C5572 |  |
| C5573 |  |
| C5574 |  |
| C5576 | "A rare undifferentiated sarcoma with overlapping features of atypical fibroxanthoma. It occurs in severely sun-damaged skin of elderly patients and usually affects the head and neck region. It manifests with rapidly growing nodules and plaques. Morphologically, it is characterized by dermal proliferation of pleomorphic spindle cells. Epithelioid and multinucleated giant cells may by present. The tumor grows in a fascicular or storiform pattern and invades subcutaneous adipose tissue, skelet... |
| C5577 | "Stage I includes: T1a, N0, M0.  T1a: Iris: Tumor limited to the iris not more than 3 clock hours in size.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5578 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1b-d, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0); IIB (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0).  T1b: Iris: Tumor limited to the iris more than 3 clock hours in size.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement.  T1c: Iris: Tumor limited to the iris with secondary glaucoma.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  T1d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor s... |
| C5579 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T2c-d, N0, M0); (T3b-c, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); IIIB (T3d, N0, M0); (T4b-c, N0, M0); IIIC (T4d-e, N0, M0).  T2c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T2d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T3b: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 wi... |
| C5580 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1a-c).  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M1a: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 3 cm or less.  M1b: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 3.1-8.0 cm.  M1c: Distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 8.0 cm or more.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C55815 | "A rare neoplastic syndrome characterized by obstruction of the thoracic outlet leading to compression of the brachial plexus and vessels within. It is usually caused by a malignant neoplasm in the superior pulmonary sulcus. The most commonly involved neoplasms are non-small cell lung carcinomas. Clinical signs include Horner's syndrome, shoulder pain radiating down the arm in the ulnar distribution followed by edema and atrophy of the affected extremity. Clinical course usually leads to ear... |
| C5581 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension with less than two high-risk features.  High-risk features for the primary tumor staging are defined as follows: depth/invasion of more than 2 mm thickness, Clark level equal or greater than IV, and perineural invasion.  Anatomic location: primary site ear and primary site non-hair-bearing lip.  Differentiation: poorly differentiated or undifferentiated.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No clinical or ra... |
| C5582 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor size greater than 2 cm in greatest dimension or tumor of any size with two or more high-risk features.  High-risk features for the primary tumor staging are defined as follows: depth/invasion of more than 2 mm thickness; Clark level equal or greater than IV; and perineural invasion.  Anatomic location: primary site ear and primary site non-hair-bearing lip.  Differentiation: poorly differentiated or undifferentiated.  N0: No regional lymph node meta... |
| C5583 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor with invasion of maxilla, mandible, orbit, or temporal bone.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension with less than two high-risk features.  T2: Tumor size greater than 2 cm in greatest dimension or tumor of any size with two or more high-risk features.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension.  M0: No clinical or ... |
| C5584 | "Stage IV includes: (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T Any, N3, M0); (T4, N Any, M0); (T Any, N Any, M1).  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension with less than two high-risk features.  T2: Tumor size greater than 2 cm in greatest dimension or tumor of any size with two or more high-risk features.  T3: Tumor with invasion of maxilla, mandible, orbit, or temporal bone.  T4: Tumor with invasion of skeleton or perineural invasion of skull base.  N0: No regional lymph node metast... |
| C5585 | "A sarcoma that arises from the skin.  Representative examples include Kaposi sarcoma, angiosarcoma, lymphangiosarcoma, liposarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma." |
| C5586 | A meningioma that affects the middle cranial fossa. |
| C5587 | A meningioma that arises from the visual pathway. |
| C5588 | The reemergence of medulloblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C5589 | "A neoplasm that affects the jugular foramen.  Representative examples include paraganglioma, schwannoma, and meningioma." |
| C5591 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the central nervous system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5592 | "A rare, slow-growing neuroepithelial neoplasm of uncertain origin affecting adults. It is located in the third ventricle. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid cells which express GFAP, and mucinous stroma which contains lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates." |
| C5593 | A type of prostatic hyperplasia.  It is characterized by the presence of nodules of dark basal cells around residual prostatic secretory cells. |
| C5594 | A rare type of prostatic hyperplasia. It is characterized by hyperplastic glandular cells with clear cytoplasm. |
| C5595 | A prostatic hyperplasia characterized by the presence of crowded adenomatous epithelial nodules. |
| C5596 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland composed of secretory cells.  It is the most common histologic type of prostate adenocarcinoma.  Several morphologic variants exist, including atrophic, pseudohyperplastic, foamy gland, and oncocytic variants." |
| C5597 | An invasive prostate carcinoma characterized by the presence of undifferentiated malignant cells. |
| C5598 | "A slowly spreading, erythematous eczematoid plaque in the anal region.  Histologically, the basal part or whole thickness of the squamous epithelium is infiltrated by large cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and large nuclei.  Half of the cases are associated with an internal malignancy, most often a colorectal adenocarcinoma.  The other half of the cases, have a high local recurrence rate and they may become invasive (WHO)." |
| C5599 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the anus.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5600 | "An adenocarcinoma arising in the anal canal epithelium, including the mucosal surface, the anal glands, and the lining of fistulous tracts.  The prognosis is related to the stage at diagnosis." |
| C5601 | "A usually large cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma of B-cell phenotype, arising from the anus.  Lymphomas originating from the anal region are rare in the general population, but they are seen with a higher frequency in HIV-positive patients, particularly homosexual men." |
| C5602 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the anus.  HIV-positive patients have an increased risk of developing Kaposi sarcoma in the perianal region. |
| C5603 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the anal canal.  It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C5606 | An anal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of mucoid stroma formation. |
| C5607 | "A granular cell tumor that arises from the anus and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5608 | "A well-circumscribed benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the anus. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5609 | An anal adenocarcinoma arising from the epithelium of the anal glands.  The overlying anal mucosa does not show evidence of neoplastic changes. |
| C5610 | A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the anus. |
| C5611 | "A malignant soft tissue neoplasm arising from the anus.  Representative examples include leiomyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and Kaposi sarcoma." |
| C5612 | An anal canal carcinoma which has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C5614 | A malignant granular cell tumor that arises from the skin. |
| C5615 | A liposarcoma that arises from the skin. |
| C5616 | "A basal cell carcinoma often presenting as elevated skin nodules which may become ulcerated or cystic. In cases which present as endophytic nodules, the overlying skin surface shows indurated flat lesions. It occurs most frequently on the head. Morphologically, the neoplastic basaloid cells form lobules with peripheral nuclear palisading." |
| C5617 | A benign or malignant granular cell tumor that arises from the skin. |
| C5618 | "A non-neoplastic hamartomatous polyp that arises from the rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of tortuous and cystically dilated glands, edematous changes, and inflammation." |
| C5619 | "A serrated polypoid lesion that arises in the rectum.  It rarely produces symptoms.  This group includes goblet cell rich, mucin poor, and microvesicular hyperplastic polyps." |
| C5620 | A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the rectal mucosa. It is characterized by tubular and villous architectural patterns. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C5621 | An adenoma that arises from the rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of severe epithelial dysplasia. |
| C5624 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the stomach in patients who are infected with the human immunodeficiency virus. |
| C5627 | A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the rectum. |
| C5628 | A carcinoma that has spread to the skin from its original site of growth. |
| C5629 | "The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the skin.  This may be from a primary skin malignant neoplasm, or from a malignant neoplasm at a distant site." |
| C5630 | Aleukemic leukemia cutis where the skin in infiltrated by neoplastic monocytes. |
| C5631 | Aleukemic acute lymphoblastic leukemia that manifests with cutaneous involvement. |
| C5632 |  |
| C5633 |  |
| C5634 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE) (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). |
| C5635 | "A mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma (MALT) that arises from the small intestine. The morphologic characteristics are similar to those seen in gastric MALT lymphomas, with the exception of the lymphoepithelial lesions that are less prominent in the small intestine." |
| C5636 | An anaplastic large cell lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C5637 | A mature T- and NK-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C5638 | An extremely rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the stomach. |
| C5640 | T lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C5641 | "A lung carcinoma detectable by sputum cytology or bronchial washings only.  The primary tumor is undetectable radiographically or during bronchoscopy; therefore, it can not be assessed." |
| C5642 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size m... |
| C5643 | "Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5644 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronch... |
| C5645 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associ... |
| C5646 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmo... |
| C5647 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to ... |
| C5649 | A morphologic variant of lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of acinar structures composed of columnar or cuboidal cells. (NCI05) |
| C5650 | A morphologic variant of lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of papillary structures. |
| C5651 | "A morphologic variant of lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of polygonal malignant cells forming sheets. Acinar, papillary, micropapillary, or lepidic growth patterns are absent.  If the tumor is 100 percent solid, intracellular mucin should be present in at least five tumor cells in each of two high-power fields and confirmed with mucin immunohistochemical stains. Tumors formerly classified as large cell carcinomas expressing pneumocyte immunohistochemical markers, even if i... |
| C5652 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size m... |
| C5653 | "Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5654 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associ... |
| C5655 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronch... |
| C5656 | "A benign tumor that arises from the lung.  It is characterized by the presence of sclerotic, papillary, solid, and hemorrhagic patterns and hyperplastic type II pneumocytes.  Cholesterol clefts, hemosiderin deposition, chronic inflammation, and calcifications may be present.  In the majority of cases, it is a solitary and peripheral tumor.  Patients are usually asymptomatic." |
| C5657 | A benign tumor of the lung composed of mature adipocytes and smooth muscle cells. |
| C5658 | A benign neoplasm arising from the lung.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts. |
| C5660 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the lung. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5661 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising endobronchially. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5662 | A benign neoplasm that arises endobronchially.  It is characterized by the presence of mesenchymal tissues admixed with entrapped respiratory epithelium.  It presents with signs and symptoms of bronchial obstruction.  Bronchoplastic resection is usually curative.  Recurrence is very rare. |
| C5663 | The presence of multiple hamartomas in the lungs.  Hamartomas are usually solitary lesions on chest-x-rays.  Multiple lung hamartomas are rare. |
| C5664 | A benign adenomatous neoplasm that arises from the mucous glands in the bronchus. |
| C5665 | "A preinvasive lesion in the lung. It is characterized by the presence of a small, localized proliferation of mildly to moderately atypical type II pneumocytes and/or Clara cells lining alveolar walls and sometimes respiratory bronchioles." |
| C5666 | "A rare usually indolent lung carcinoma characterized by a cribiform and tubular pattern and the presence of glandular epithelial cells.  Clinical symptoms include shortness of breath, cough, wheeze, hemopytsis and chest pain." |
| C5667 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the lung.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5668 | A primary or metastatic meningioma that is present in the lung.  The lung is the most frequent site of metastasis of meningiomas. |
| C5669 | "A malignant neoplasm affecting the lungs and/or the pleura. Pleuropulmonary blastoma is seen in children. Microscopically, the tumor may show features of chondrosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, or undifferentiated sarcoma. In approximately 25% of patients with pleuropulmonary blastoma, there are other lesions or neoplasms that may affect patients or their families, including lung or kidney cysts, and ovarian or testicular neoplasms. Heterozygous germline mutations in ... |
| C5670 | "A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the lung.  This category includes typical carcinoid tumor, atypical carcinoid tumor, small cell carcinoma, large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma, and combined carcinoma." |
| C5671 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the hilar region of the lung. |
| C5672 | "A carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the lung. It is characterized by the presence of malignant large cells, more than 10 mitoses per 2 mm2, and necrosis. It usually has an aggressive clinical course." |
| C5673 | "An adenoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  The group of colorectal adenomas includes tubular, villous, and tubulovillous adenomas, traditional serrated adenomas, sessile serrated adenomas/polyps, and familial adenomatous polyposis." |
| C5674 | An adenoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  It is characterized by prominent serration of the glands. |
| C5675 | A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the colonic and rectal mucosa. It is characterized by tubular and villous architectural patterns. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C5676 | A neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the colonic and rectal mucosa. It is characterized by a villous architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C5677 | "A well-circumscribed benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the colorectal area. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5678 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm arising from the wall of the colon and rectum. |
| C5679 | "A polypoid lesion that arises from the colon or rectum and protrudes into the lumen.  This group includes adenomatous polyps, serrated polyps, and hamartomatous polyps." |
| C5680 | "A non-neoplastic polypoid lesion in the colon and rectum.  It may arise in a background of inflammatory bowel disease or colitis.  It is characterized by the presence of a distorted epithelium, inflammation, and fibrosis." |
| C5681 | "A non-neoplastic hamartomatous polyp that arises from the colon and rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of tortuous and cystically dilated glands, edematous changes, and inflammation." |
| C5682 | "A serrated polypoid lesion that arises in the colon and rectum.  It is usually found in the distant colon and it rarely produces symptoms.  This group includes goblet cell rich, mucin poor, and microvesicular hyperplastic polyps." |
| C5684 | A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises in and is confined to the lung at the time of diagnosis.  Representative examples include  mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. |
| C5685 | An adenoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of severe epithelial dysplasia. |
| C5687 | An extranodal lymphoma that arises from the esophagus with the bulk of the mass located in the esophagus.  Dysphagia may be the presenting symptom.  The vast majority of cases are diffuse large B-cell lymphomas and B-cell lymphomas of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. |
| C5688 | An extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the esophagus with the bulk of the mass located in the esophagus.  Dysphagia may be the presenting symptom.  The vast majority of cases are diffuse large B-cell lymphomas and B-cell lymphomas of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. |
| C5689 | A very rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the esophagus. |
| C5691 | "Stage IIA includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: (T2-3, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Upper, middle); (T2-3, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Lower, X).  For adenocarcinoma: (T2, N0, M0, G3).  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1.  G2: Moderately differentiated.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  Tumor location: Location of ... |
| C5692 | "Stage IIB includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: (T2-3, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Upper, middle); (T1-2, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any).  For adenocarcinoma: (T3, N0, M0, Any G); (T1-2, N1, M0, Any G).  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  GX: Gra... |
| C5693 |  |
| C5694 |  |
| C5695 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the small or large intestine. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C5696 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the stomach. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C5697 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the colon. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C5698 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the rectum. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C5699 | "A benign, elongated intraluminal polypoid neoplasm of the esophagus.  It is characterized by the presence of adipose tissue lobules separated by dense fibrous tissue bands and dilated blood vessels.  The polyp is covered by normal squamous epithelium." |
| C5700 | "A tumor that usually presents with small nodules or small sessile polyps, predominantly in the distal esophagus.  Histologically, it is composed of sheets of oval to polygonal cells with a small central nucleus and abundant granular cytoplasm.  This is usually a benign tumor.  (WHO, 2000)" |
| C5701 | "A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the esophagus. Clinical presentation includes obstruction, dysphagia, regurgitation, vomiting and reflux. It may be associated with aspiration and consecutive respiratory infections." |
| C5702 | A benign neoplasm arising from the fibrous soft tissue of the esophagus. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts. |
| C5703 | "A slowly growing, benign, usually encapsulated neoplasm arising from the esophagus.  Morphologically, it is composed of neoplastic differentiated Schwann cells." |
| C5704 | "A non-metastasizing encapsulated neoplasm arising from nerves in the esophagus.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of fibroblasts and Schwann cells." |
| C5705 | "A malignant adipose tissue neoplasm of the esophagus, characterized by multivacuolated lipoblasts with hyperchromatic nuclei, a solid pattern of growth, and a rich vascular network. It arises from the mucosal and submucosal layers of the lower esophagus.  Clinical presentation includes progressive dysphagia, nausea, throat discomfort, and foreign body sensation." |
| C5706 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the esophagus. |
| C5707 | "A melanoma affecting the esophageal wall.  Melanoma in the esophagus is more commonly metastatic than primary.  Primary melanomas of the esophagus are polypoid and clinically aggressive.  (WHO, 2000)" |
| C5708 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3a, N0, M0); IIIB: (T3b, N0, M0); IIIC: (T4, N0, M0). T3a: Multiple tumors more than 5 cm. T3b: Single tumor or multiple tumors of any size involving a major branch of the portal vein or hepatic vein.  T4: Tumors(s) with direct invasion of adjacent organs other than the gallbladder or with perforation of visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5709 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Solitary tumor with vascular invasion or multiple tumors none more than 5 cm.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5710 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Solitary tumor without vascular invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5711 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C5712 | "A benign, non-metastasizing cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the exocrine pancreas. It is composed of glycogen-rich epithelial cells that produce a watery fluid. Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss." |
| C5714 | "A lymphoma that arises from the pancreas with the bulk of the tumor localized to this organ.  The vast majority of cases are non-Hodgkin lymphomas of B-cell phenotype and include mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphomas, follicular lymphomas, and diffuse large B-cell lymphomas." |
| C5715 | A rare malignant soft tissue neoplasm that occurs primarily in the pancreas. |
| C5716 | "A group of epithelial neoplasms that arise from the exocrine pancreatic tissue and have the potential to evolve into invasive malignant neoplasms.  This group includes the pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasias, non-invasive pancreatic mucinous-cystic neoplasms, pancreatic intraductal papillary-mucinous neoplasms, and pancreatic intraductal tubulopapillary neoplasms." |
| C5717 |  |
| C5719 | "A non-invasive pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that exhibit nuclear stratification, loss of polarity, and crowding.  There is moderate nuclear hyperchromasia." |
| C5720 | A rare pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma with poor prognosis.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant signet ring cells infiltrating the pancreatic parenchyma in an individual cell pattern. |
| C5721 | A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas showing both ductal and squamous differentiation.  The squamous component should represent at least 30% of the malignant cellular infiltrate.  The prognosis is usually worse than that of ductal adenocarcinoma. |
| C5722 | A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas and is characterized by the presence of malignant cells that do not show differentiation. The prognosis is poor. |
| C5723 | A rare variant of undifferentiated pancreatic carcinoma characterized by the presence of non-neoplastic osteoclast-like giant cells. |
| C5724 | "A metastasizing, slow-growing malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the exocrine pancreas.  It is characterized by the presence of cysts and is composed of glycogen-rich malignant epithelial cells which produce a watery fluid.  Signs and symptoms include upper gastrointestinal bleeding, weight loss, jaundice, and abdominal pain." |
| C5725 | "A malignant glandular neoplasm arising from the exocrine pancreas. Microscopically it is characterized by the presence of mucoid stroma formation, papillary patterns, and cystic changes. It has been associated with KRAS and Tp53 gene mutations." |
| C5726 | A pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of a focal or multifocal invasive carcinomatous component.  The invasive carcinoma is either colloid or ductal adenocarcinoma. |
| C5727 | "A cystic adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of relatively uniform neoplastic cells which produce pancreatic enzymes and are arranged in acinar patterns. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, and diarrhea. It usually has an aggressive clinical course." |
| C5728 | "A malignant neoplasm arising from the exocrine pancreas. It occurs predominantly in young women. It is characterized by the presence of extensive necrosis and hemorrhage and is composed of polyhedral cells forming solid and pseudopapillary patterns. There is morphologic evidence of perineural invasion, vascular invasion, or extensive invasion into the surrounding tissues." |
| C5729 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C5730 |  |
| C5731 | A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the duodenum.  It is characterized by the presence of uniform cells that form pseudorosettes.  The neoplastic cells have uniform nuclei and small amount of eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C5734 | "A lymphoma that arises from the gallbladder, with the bulk of the tumor located at this site." |
| C5735 | A melanoma that arises from the gallbladder. |
| C5736 | "A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder.  Representative examples include Kaposi sarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and rhabdomyosarcoma." |
| C5737 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, N0, M0); IB: (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades lamina propria or muscle layer.  T1a: Tumor invades lamina propria.  T1b: Tumor invades muscle layer.  N0: No regional metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5738 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T3, N0, M0); IIB: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2: Tumor perforates the serosa (visceral peritoneum) and/or directly invades the liver and/or one other adjacent organ or structure, such as the stomach, duodenum, colon, or pancreas, omentum or extrahepatic bile ducts. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5739 | "Stage III includes: (T4, Any N, M0).  T4: Tumor invades main portal vein or hepatic artery or invades multiple extrahepatic organs or structures. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5740 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5741 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, N0-1, M0. T4: Tumor invades the main portal vein or hepatic artery, or invades two or more extrahepatic organs or structures.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastases to nodes along the cystic duct, common bile duct, hepatic artery, and/or portal vein. M0: No distant metastasis.  (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C5742 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  N2: Metastases to periaortic, pericaval, superior mesenteric artery, and/or celiac artery lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C5743 | "An intracholecystic papillary neoplasm, usually with high grade intraepithelial neoplasia, that arises from the gallbladder. It is associated with the presence of an invasive carcinoma. The carcinomatous component is an adenocarcinoma." |
| C5744 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the gallbladder.  It is characterized by the presence of extracellular mucin that constitutes more than fifty-percent of the tumor. |
| C5745 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the gallbladder.  It is characterized by the presence of signet ring malignant epithelial cells. |
| C5746 | "A non-metastasizing encapsulated neoplasm arising from nerves in the gallbladder.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of fibroblasts and Schwann cells." |
| C5747 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the gallbladder. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5749 | "A non-epithelial neoplasm that arises from the liver and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include hemangioma, angiomyolipoma, and solitary fibrous tumor." |
| C5750 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the liver. |
| C5751 | "A multicystic mesenchymal tumor that arises from the liver during fetal development. It is the third most common pediatric liver tumor following hepatoblastoma and infantile hemangioma. Cytogenetic and molecular studies have revealed the presence of chromosomal rearrangements involving chromosome 19q13.4 or androgenetic-biparental mosaicism. These findings support the evidence that it is a neoplastic process and not only a developmental process. Clinically, it usually presents as an abdomin... |
| C5752 | A solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the liver.  It affects females more frequently than males.  Signs and symptoms include the presence of an abdominal mass and abdominal discomfort. |
| C5753 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the liver.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5754 | A morphologic variant of hepatocellular carcinoma characterized by the presence of clear cells. |
| C5756 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the liver.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5758 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Solitary tumor without vascular invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5759 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Solitary tumor with vascular invasion or multiple tumors none more than 5 cm.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5760 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3, N0, M0); IIIB: (T4, N0, M0); IIIC: (Any T, Any N, M0).  IIIA: T3: Multiple tumors more than 5 cm or tumor involving a major branch of the portal or hepatic vein(s).  T4: Tumors(s) with direct invasion of adjacent organs other than the gallbladder or with perforation of visceral peritoneum.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5761 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0.  T3a: Multiple tumors more than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5762 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0. T3b: Single tumor or multiple tumors of any size involving a major branch of the portal vein or hepatic vein.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5763 | "Stage IV includes (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5764 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, N1, M0.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5765 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5766 | A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the liver and the bulk of the tumor is located in the liver.  The most frequent types of non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arise from the liver are diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma. |
| C5768 | A rare mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma that arises from the liver.  It is characterized by the presence of centrocyte-like cells surrounding germinal centers.  Lymphoepithelial lesions involving the bile duct epithelium may also be present. |
| C5769 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, N0, M0); IB: (T2, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor confined to the bile duct histologically.  T2: Tumor invades beyond the wall of the bile duct.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5770 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T3, N0, M0); IIB: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor invades the liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and/or unilateral branches or the portal vein (right or left) or hepatic artery (right or left).  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5771 | "Stage III includes: T4, Any N, M0.  T4: Tumor invades any of the following main portal vein or its branches bilaterally, common hepatic artery, or other adjacent structures, such as the colon, stomach, duodenum, or abdominal wall.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5772 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5773 |  |
| C5774 |  |
| C5775 | A morphologic variant of extrahepatic bile duct adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelium composed of clear cells. |
| C5776 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of signet ring malignant epithelial cells. |
| C5777 | A carcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is composed entirely by malignant squamous epithelial cells. |
| C5778 | A carcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of glandular and squamous malignant epithelial components. |
| C5780 | A carcinoma without evidence of differentiation arising from the extrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C5783 | "An extremely rare, well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm arising from the liver. The neoplastic cells express immunohistochemical evidence of neuroendocrine differentiation." |
| C5787 | A somatostatin-producing neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the jejunum. |
| C5789 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the pancreas with the bulk of the tumor localized to this organ.  The vast majority of cases are of B-cell phenotype and include mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphomas, follicular lymphomas, and diffuse large B-cell lymphomas." |
| C5790 |  |
| C5792 |  |
| C5793 | A choriocarcinoma affecting the central nervous system and occurring in adulthood. |
| C5794 | A mature or immature teratoma affecting the central nervous system and occurring in adults. |
| C5795 | A germ cell tumor arising from brain during childhood. |
| C5796 | A benign neoplasm of the cerebellum occurring in adults. |
| C5797 | A benign neoplasm of the brain stem occurring in adults. |
| C5798 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the brain and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5799 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the supratentorial region and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5800 | A choroid plexus papilloma that arises in the brain during childhood. |
| C5802 | A neoplasm that affects the infratentorial region of the brain and occurs during childhood. |
| C5803 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the small intestine. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C5806 | "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that arises from the stomach.  It covers a spectrum of benign to malignant soft tissue neoplasms and includes most gastric smooth muscle tumors, leiomyoblastomas, and tumors formerly called gastrointestinal autonomic nerve tumors." |
| C5807 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades lamina propria or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5808 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T3, N0, M0); IIB (T4, N0, M0).  T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or into the nonperitonealized perimuscular tissue (mesentery or retroperitoneum) with extension 2 cm or less.  T4: Tumor perforates the visceral peritoneum or directly invades other organs or structures (including other loops of small intestine, mesentery, or retroperitoneum more than 2 cm, and abdominal wall by way of serosa; for duodenum only, invasion of pancreas or... |
| C5809 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (Any T, N1, M0); IIIB (Any T, N2, M0); N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5810 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5811 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that arises from the small intestine.  It usually affects adults over fifty years of age.  The majority of cases have spindle cell morphology.  The prognosis depends on the tumor size and the mitotic activity. |
| C5816 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to the brain in an adult patient. |
| C5817 | "A central nervous system embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified arising from the brain." |
| C5818 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the pharynx. |
| C5819 | "A benign, exophytic and polypoid growth that arises from the buccal mucosa. It is covered by hyperplastic epithelium. Some cases are caused by human papillomavirus infection." |
| C5820 | "A rare, well-differentiated, low-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the esophagus. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%. Most cases have a polypoid appearance, are small lesions, and found incidentally." |
| C5821 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the esophagus. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C5822 |  |
| C5823 |  |
| C5824 |  |
| C5825 | A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the trochlear nerve (IVth cranial nerve). |
| C5826 |  |
| C5827 |  |
| C5828 |  |
| C5829 |  |
| C5830 |  |
| C5831 | A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the vagus nerve (tenth cranial nerve). |
| C5832 | A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the liver.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a herringbone growth pattern. |
| C5833 | An osteosarcoma arising from the liver. |
| C5834 | A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the liver. |
| C5835 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm involving the gallbladder wall. |
| C5838 | A rare aggressive carcinoma that arises from the gallbladder. It is characterized by the presence of poorly differentiated pleomorphic carcinoma cells admixed with malignant spindle-shaped cells that express epithelial immunohistochemical markers. |
| C5839 | A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the gallbladder. |
| C5840 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the gallbladder. |
| C5841 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the gallbladder.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5842 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the gallbladder. |
| C5845 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C5846 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of extracellular mucin that constitutes more than fifty-percent of the tumor. |
| C5847 | An embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C5848 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from an extrahepatic bile duct.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C5849 | An adenoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth pattern. |
| C5850 | An adenoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of a tubular pattern. |
| C5851 | A mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C5852 | "A granular cell tumor that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5853 | A benign neoplasm arising from the extra hepatic bile duct. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts. |
| C5854 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the extrahepatic bile duct. |
| C5855 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from an extrahepatic bile duct. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5856 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C5857 | "An adenoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is classified as papillary, tubular, or tubulopapillary." |
| C5858 | "A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the liver.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells." |
| C5860 | "A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation, arising from the extrahepatic bile ducts." |
| C5861 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C5862 | A mucoepidermoid carcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C5863 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Oral cavity cancer with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades adjacent structures only (e.g., through cortical bone [mandible or maxilla] into deep [extrinsic] muscle of tongue [genioglossus, hyoglossus, palatoglossus, and styloglossus], maxillary sinus, skin of face). T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in gre... |
| C5864 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0). T4b: Oral cavity cancer with very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases internal carotid artery. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5865 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5866 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5867 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0). T4b: Oral cavity cancer with very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases internal carotid artery. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5868 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Oral cavity cancer with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades adjacent structures only (e.g., through cortical bone [mandible or maxilla] into deep [extrinsic] muscle of tongue [genioglossus, hyoglossus, palatoglossus, and styloglossus], maxillary sinus, skin of face). T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in gre... |
| C5869 |  |
| C5870 |  |
| C5871 |  |
| C5872 |  |
| C5873 |  |
| C5874 |  |
| C5876 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5877 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5878 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5879 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0);. IVB (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a (lip): Tumor invades through cortical bone, inferior alveolar nerve, floor of mouth, or skin of face, i.e., chin or nose.  T4b: Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases internal carotid artery. N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more than 3 cm but not more than 6... |
| C5880 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Lip cancer with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades through cortical bone, inferior alveolar nerve, floor of mouth, or skin of face, i.e., chin or nose.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metas... |
| C5881 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0). T4b: Lip cancer with very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases internal carotid artery. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5882 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5883 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5884 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5885 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C5886 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0);. IVB (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: (oral cavity) Tumor invades adjacent structures (e.g., through cortical bone, into deep [extrinsic] muscles of tongue, maxillary sinus, skin of face).  T4b: Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases internal carotid artery. N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more... |
| C5887 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Oral cavity cancer with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades adjacent structures only (e.g., through cortical bone [mandible or maxilla] into deep [extrinsic] muscle of tongue [genioglossus, hyoglossus, palatoglossus, and styloglossus], maxillary sinus, skin of face). T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in gre... |
| C5888 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0). T4b: Oral cavity cancer with very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases internal carotid artery. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5889 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5892 |  |
| C5893 |  |
| C5895 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not constitute extraparenchymal extension for classification purposes.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5896 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor measuring more than 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not constitute extraparenchymal extension for classification purposes.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5897 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, and/or tumor having extraparenchymal extension.  Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not constitute extraparenchymal extension for classification purposes.  T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension. T2: Tumor measuring more... |
| C5898 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Moderately advanced disease.  Tumor invades skin, mandible, ear canal, and/or facial nerve. T1: Tumor measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension without extraparenchymal extension.  Extraparenchymal extension is clinical or macroscopic evidence of invasion of soft tissues. Microscopic evidence alone does not const... |
| C5899 | Stage IV carcinoma of the major salivary glands with regional lymph nodes and/or distant metastases. |
| C5900 | Stage IV carcinoma of the major salivary glands without regional lymph nodes or distant metastases. |
| C5901 | An adenocarcinoma with serous acinar cell differentiation that arises from the major salivary glands.  The vast majority of cases occur in the parotid gland.  Patients usually present with a slow growing mass in the parotid area. |
| C5902 | "A malignant tumor arising from the parotid gland, submandibular gland, or sublingual gland.  It includes carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, a malignant epithelial tumor arising from a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma and carcinosarcoma which is characterized by a mixture of malignant epithelial and sarcomatous elements." |
| C5903 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the parotid gland, submandibular gland, or sublingual gland." |
| C5904 | "An aggressive, high grade adenocarcinoma that arises from the salivary glands. It usually affects elderly males and presents as a rapidly enlarging mass. It metastasizes to regional lymph nodes and distant anatomic sites." |
| C5905 | "An aggressive carcinoma that arises from the major salivary glands.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial and myoepithelial cells forming cribriform, tubular, and solid patterns.  It usually presents as a slow growing mass.  Patients develop pain because of the tendency of these carcinomas to invade perineural tissues." |
| C5906 | "A carcinoma that arises from the major salivary glands.  It usually arises from the parotid gland.  It is the most common primary carcinoma of the salivary glands and usually presents as a firm and painless mass.  It is characterized by the presence of epidermoid cells, mucus producing cells, and cells of intermediate type.  The majority of cases have a favorable outcome." |
| C5907 | "A carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland, submandibular gland, or sublingual gland." |
| C5908 | "A carcinoma that arises from the salivary glands. It is the most common primary carcinoma of the salivary glands and usually presents as a firm and painless mass. It is characterized by the presence of squamous cells, mucus producing cells, and cells of intermediate type. The majority of cases have a favorable outcome." |
| C5909 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the oral cavity. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C5910 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the oral cavity. It usually occurs within the lingual and buccal mucosa. |
| C5912 | "A rare neoplasm that arises from the oral cavity, usually the tongue.  It is characterized by the presence of plump eosinophilic cells with abundant granular cytoplasm.  The neoplastic cells extend into the surrounding tissues, usually skeletal muscle.  The vast majority of cases follow a benign clinical course.  Recurrences are rare after removal of the tumor." |
| C5913 | A lipoma that arises from the floor of the mouth. |
| C5914 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the oral cavity. |
| C5915 | A rare melanoma that arises from the oral cavity. It is associated with a poor prognosis. |
| C5916 | A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the oral cavity.  Representative examples include Kaposi sarcoma and angiosarcoma. |
| C5917 | A verrucous carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the upper gingiva. |
| C5918 | A primary lymphoma that affects the tonsil and the bulk of the tumor is in this anatomic area.  The majority of cases are B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C5919 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N1, M0); IIIB (T3-T4, N1, M0); IIIC (Any T, N2, M0). N1: Metastasis in 1 to 3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 4 or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5920 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N0, M0); IIIB (T3-T4, N1, M0); IIIC (Any T, N2, M0).  N1: Metastasis in 1 to 3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 4 or more regional lymph nodes. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5921 |  |
| C5922 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N0, M0); IIIB (T3-T4, N1, M0); IIIC (Any T, N2, M0).  N1: Metastasis in 1 to 3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 4 or more regional lymph nodes. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5923 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N0, M0); IIIB (T3-T4, N1, M0); IIIC (Any T, N2, M0).  N1: Metastasis in 1 to 3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 4 or more regional lymph nodes. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5924 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0) and (T2, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C5925 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0). T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T4: Tumor of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).  N1: Metastasis in perirectal lymph node(s).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C5926 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T4, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T4: Tumor of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).  N1: Metastasis in perirectal lymph node(s).  N2: Metastasis in unilateral internal iliac and/or inguinal lymph node(s).  N3: Metastasis in perirectal and inguinal lymph nodes and/or bilateral internal iliac and/or inguinal lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C5927 |  |
| C5928 |  |
| C5929 |  |
| C5930 |  |
| C5931 |  |
| C5932 | "A rare benign epithelial neoplasm composed of oncocytes, which are large cells with a large amount of granular eosinophilic cytoplasm containing numerous tightly-packed mitochondria.  Approximately 85% to 90% occur in the parotid gland; most of the remainder occur in the submandibular gland. The peak incidence is in the seventh through ninth decades of life. In almost all cases, swelling is the only complaint of the patient." |
| C5933 | An adenocarcinoma with serous acinar cell differentiation that arises from the parotid gland.  Patients usually present with a slow growing mass in the parotid area. |
| C5934 | An adenocarcinoma with serous acinar cell differentiation that arises from the submandibular gland. |
| C5935 | "An aggressive carcinoma that arises from the submandibular gland.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial and myoepithelial cells forming cribriform, tubular, and solid patterns.  It usually presents as a slow growing mass.  Patients develop pain because of the tendency of these carcinomas to invade perineural tissues." |
| C5936 | "An aggressive carcinoma that arises from the minor salivary glands.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial and myoepithelial cells forming cribriform, tubular, and solid patterns.  It usually presents as a slow growing mass." |
| C5937 | "An aggressive carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial and myoepithelial cells forming cribriform, tubular, and solid patterns.  It usually presents as a slow growing mass.  Patients develop pain because of the tendency of these carcinomas to invade perineural tissues." |
| C5938 | "A carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland.  It usually presents as a firm and painless mass.  It is characterized by the presence of epidermoid cells, mucus producing cells, and cells of intermediate type.  It usually spreads to pre-auricular lymph nodes.  The majority of cases have a favorable outcome." |
| C5939 | "A carcinoma that arises from the submandibular gland.  It usually presents as a firm and painless mass.  It is characterized by the presence of epidermoid cells, mucus producing cells, and cells of intermediate type.  The majority of cases have a favorable outcome." |
| C5940 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the submandibular gland. Representative examples include polymorphic low-grade adenocarcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma. |
| C5941 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the parotid gland.  Representative examples include acinic cell carcinoma, basal cell adenocarcinoma, cystadenocarcinoma, and oncocytic carcinoma." |
| C5942 | "An invasive squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland.  It usually affects elderly patients and presents as a rapidly enlarging tumor mass, often associated with pain." |
| C5943 | "An invasive squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the submandibular gland.  It usually affects elderly patients and presents as a rapidly enlarging tumor mass, often associated with pain." |
| C5944 | "A malignant tumor arising from the submandibular gland.  It includes carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, a malignant epithelial tumor arising from a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma and carcinosarcoma which is characterized by a mixture of malignant epithelial and sarcomatous elements." |
| C5945 | "A malignant tumor arising from the parotid gland.  It includes carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, a malignant epithelial tumor arising from a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma and carcinosarcoma which is characterized by a mixture of malignant epithelial and sarcomatous elements." |
| C5946 | "A carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland and is characterized by the presence of undifferentiated, anaplastic malignant epithelial cells." |
| C5947 | "A carcinoma that arises from the submandibular gland and is characterized by the presence of undifferentiated, anaplastic malignant epithelial cells." |
| C5948 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the minor salivary glands. |
| C5949 | "A rare, benign epithelial neoplasm that arises from the parotid gland.  It is composed of irregular proliferating nests and islands of epithelium, including solid and gland-like sebaceous elements, surrounded by lymphoid stroma. Patients present with a progressively enlarging and painless mass." |
| C5950 | "A salivary gland benign epithelial neoplasm with a uniform, monomorphic appearance that is dominated by basal cells forming trabecular structures. It is rare and occurs mostly on the parotid gland. The average age of patients has been reported to be 58 years. Swelling is the most constant clinical finding." |
| C5951 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the parotid gland.  Representative examples include mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. |
| C5952 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the parotid gland. |
| C5953 | "A carcinoma that arises from the minor salivary glands.  It usually presents as a firm and painless mass.  It is characterized by the presence of epidermoid cells, mucus producing cells, and cells of intermediate type.  The majority of cases have a favorable outcome." |
| C5954 | "A carcinoma that affects the minor salivary glands and is characterized by the presence of undifferentiated, anaplastic malignant epithelial cells." |
| C5955 | "A malignant tumor arising from the minor salivary glands.  It includes carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, a malignant epithelial tumor arising from a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma and carcinosarcoma which is characterized by a mixture of malignant epithelial and sarcomatous elements." |
| C5956 | A rare neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the minor salivary glands and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C5957 | "A carcinoma that arises from the minor salivary glands.  Representative examples include adenoid cystic carcinoma, acinic cell carcinoma, polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma, and mucinous adenocarcinoma." |
| C5958 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the sublingual gland. |
| C5959 | A squamous cell carcinoma that affects the minor salivary glands. |
| C5960 | A neoplasm that affects the supratentorial region of the brain and occurs during childhood. |
| C5961 | "A central nervous system embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified that occurs in childhood." |
| C5962 | Prolactin-producing pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C5963 | Growth hormone-producing pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C5964 | ACTH-producing pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C5965 | TSH-producing pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C5966 | An anaplastic astrocytoma that arises from the brain stem. |
| C5967 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm of the brain stem occurring in adults." |
| C5968 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm of the cerebellum occurring in adults." |
| C5969 | A neoplasm that affects the brain stem and occurs during childhood. |
| C5970 | A neoplasm that affects the cerebellum and occurs during childhood. |
| C5971 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic polypoid growth in the external or middle ear. |
| C5972 | A carcinoma of the larynx that arises from the subglottic area. |
| C5973 | A carcinoma of the larynx that arises from the supraglottic area. |
| C5974 | "A carcinoma that arises from a pleomorphic adenoma in the parotid gland.  Patients usually present with a history of a long-standing tumor mass which grew rapidly in the past few months.  Patients with non-invasive or minimally invasive carcinoma have an excellent prognosis.  In cases where there is invasion of the surrounding tissues, the clinical course is aggressive." |
| C5975 | "A carcinoma that arises from a pleomorphic adenoma in the major salivary glands.  It usually originates in the parotid gland.  Patients usually present with a history of a long-standing tumor mass which grew rapidly in the past few months.  Patients with non-invasive or minimally invasive carcinoma have an excellent prognosis.  In cases where there is invasion of the surrounding tissues, the clinical course is aggressive." |
| C5976 | "A carcinoma that arises from a pleomorphic adenoma in the minor salivary glands.  Patients usually present with a history of a long-standing tumor mass which grew rapidly in the past few months.  Patients with non-invasive or minimally invasive carcinoma have an excellent prognosis.  In cases where there is invasion of the surrounding tissues, the clinical course is aggressive." |
| C5977 | "A carcinoma that arises from a pleomorphic adenoma in the submandibular gland.  Patients usually present with a history of a long-standing tumor mass which grew rapidly in the past few months.  Patients with non-invasive or minimally invasive carcinoma have an excellent prognosis.  In cases where there is invasion of the surrounding tissues, the clinical course is aggressive." |
| C5978 | "A rare benign tumor composed of sheets and islands of spindle, plasmacytoid, epithelioid, and clear cells that exhibit myoepithelial but not ductal differentiation. The average age of patients has been reported as 44 years. Clinically, these tumors present as asymptomatic masses. Discrimination between myoepithelioma and myoepithelial carcinoma is based primarily on the infiltrative growth of the latter." |
| C5979 | "A benign epithelial neoplasm primarily composed of branching and interconnecting cords of single and double-cell thick rows of columnar epithelium in a very loose stroma. It often occurs in the upper lip, where only pleomorphic adenoma is more frequent. Asymptomatic swelling of the upper lip is the most common clinical finding. It may present clinically and histologically as a multifocal lesion, a feature not generally seen with other intraoral salivary gland tumors." |
| C5980 | "A rare, low-grade adenocarcinoma that arises from the salivary glands.  It presents as a slow growing asymptomatic mass and is characterized by the presence of multiple cystic spaces." |
| C5981 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the parotid gland, submandibular gland, or sublingual gland.  Representative examples include mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma." |
| C5982 | A lipoma that arises from the parotid gland. |
| C5983 | "A rare malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the parotid gland, submandibular gland, or sublingual gland.  Representative examples include fibrosarcoma, angiosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and Kaposi sarcoma." |
| C5985 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Tumor with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades the larynx, extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, or mandible.  Mucosal extension to lingual surface of epiglottis from primary tumors of the base of the tongue and vallecula does not constitute invasion of larynx. T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more t... |
| C5986 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T4b: Tumor with very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades lateral pterygoid muscle, pterygoid plates, lateral nasopharynx, or skull base or encases carotid artery. N3: Tumor with metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5987 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5988 | A benign exophytic growth that arises from the oropharynx. |
| C5989 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the tonsils. |
| C5990 | A mucoepidermoid carcinoma arising from the minor salivary glands in the base of the tongue. |
| C5991 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma arising from the minor salivary glands in the base of the tongue. |
| C5992 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Tumor with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades the thyroid/cricoid cartilage, hyoid bone, thyroid gland, or central compartment soft tissue.  Central compartment soft tissue includes prelaryngeal strap muscles and subcutaneous fat.  T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor invades more than one subsite of t... |
| C5993 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T4b: Tumor with very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral fascia, encases carotid artery, or involves mediastinal structures.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5994 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5995 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C5996 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, N3, M0.  N3: Nasopharyngeal cancer with metastasis in a lymph node (s) more than 6 cm in greatest dimension and/or to supraclavicular fossa.  Supraclavicular zone or fossa is relevant to the staging of nasopharyngeal carcinoma and is the triangular region originally described by Ho.  It is defined by three points: (1) the superior margin of the sternal end of the clavicle, (2) the superior margin of the lateral end of the clavicle, (3) the point where the neck mee... |
| C5997 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0). T4: Nasopharyngeal cancer with intracranial extension and/or involvement of cranial nerves, hypopharynx, orbit, or with extension to the infratemporal fossa/masticator space.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with unilateral metastasis in cervical lymph node(s), 6 cm or less in greatest dimension, above the supraclavicular fossa, and/or unilateral or bilateral, retropharyngeal lymph nodes, 6 cm or ... |
| C5998 |  |
| C5999 |  |
| C6000 | "Stage IVA carcinoma of the pharynx according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C6001 | "Stage IVB carcinoma of the pharynx according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C6002 | "Stage IVC carcinoma of the pharynx according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C6003 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6004 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T4b: Supraglottis: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures. Glottis: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures. Subglottis: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph nod... |
| C6005 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); T4a: Supraglottis: Moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades through the thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissues beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of neck including deep extrinsic muscle of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid, or esophagus). Glottis: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades through the outer cortex of the thyroid cartilage and/or invades ti... |
| C6006 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Maxillary sinus: Tumor limited to the maxillary sinus mucosa with no erosion or destruction of bone.  Ethmoid sinus: Tumor restricted to any one subsite, with or without bony invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6007 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Maxillary sinus: Tumor causing bone erosion or destruction including extension into the hard palate and/or middle nasal meatus, except extension to posterior wall of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plates.  Ethmoid sinus: Tumor invading two subsites in a single region or extending to involve an adjacent region within the nasoethmoidal complex, with or without bony invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7t... |
| C6008 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Maxillary sinus: Tumor invading any of the following: bone of the posterior wall of maxillary sinus, subcutaneous tissues, floor or medial wall of orbit, pterygoid fossa, or ethmoid sinuses. Ethmoid sinus: Tumor invading the medial wall or floor of the orbit, maxillary sinus, palate, or cribriform plate.  T1: Maxillary sinus: Tumor limited to the maxillary sinus mucosa with no erosion or destruction of bone.  E... |
| C6009 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4a: Maxillary sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades anterior orbital contents, skin of cheek, pterygoid plates, infratemporal fossa, cribriform plate, sphenoid or frontal sinuses.  Ethmoid sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades any of the following: anterior orbital contents, skin ... |
| C6010 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4a: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades any of the following: anterior orbital contents, skin of nose or cheek, minimal extension to anterior cranial fossa, pterygoid plates, sphenoid or frontal sinuses.  T4b: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades any of the following: orbital apex, dura, brain, m... |
| C6011 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor invading the medial wall or floor of the orbit, maxillary sinus, palate, or cribriform plate.  T1: Tumor restricted to any one subsite, with or without bony invasion.  T2: Tumor invading two subsites in a single region or extending to involve an adjacent region within the nasoethmoidal complex, with or without bony invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral l... |
| C6012 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor invading two subsites in a single region or extending to involve an adjacent region within the nasoethmoidal complex, with or without bony invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6013 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1:Tumor restricted to any one subsite, with or without bony invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6014 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm arising in the paranasal sinus. |
| C6015 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity. |
| C6016 | An olfactory neuroblastoma arising in the paranasal sinus. |
| C6017 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the paranasal sinuses. |
| C6018 | "A rare carcinoma that arises from the paranasal sinus.  It is characterized by the presence of epidermoid cells, mucus producing cells, and cells of intermediate type." |
| C6019 | A rare adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the paranasal sinuses.  It usually has an aggressive clinical course characterized by high recurrence rates and distant metastases. |
| C6020 | A rare sarcoma that arises from soft tissue or hyaline cartilage of the larynx. |
| C6021 | "A rare malignant adipose tissue neoplasm of the larynx. It predominantly affects males. Clinical presentation includes dysphonia, dysphagia and respiratory symptoms. The supraglottis is the most common site of involvement." |
| C6022 | A leiomyosarcoma that arises from the  larynx. |
| C6023 | "A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the larynx. This category includes neuroendocrine tumors, neuroendocrine carcinomas, and paragangliomas." |
| C6024 | "A rare, well differentiated, low grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the larynx." |
| C6025 | A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the larynx and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 10 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C6026 | A hemangioma arising from the subglottic area. |
| C6027 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the larynx. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C6028 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the hypopharynx from another anatomic site. |
| C6029 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the oropharynx from another anatomic site. |
| C6030 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the nasopharynx from another anatomic site. |
| C60310 | "A neoplasm that arises from mature B-lymphocytes or plasma cells in the lung.  Representative examples include mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, lymphomatoid granulomatosis, and primary pulmonary plasmacytoma." |
| C6031 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the larynx from another anatomic site. |
| C6032 | A hyperplasia of the chief cells of the parathyroid gland. |
| C6033 | A hyperplasia of the clear cells of the parathyroid gland. |
| C6034 | A benign exophytic growth that arises from the nasopharynx. |
| C6035 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C6036 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C6037 | A benign exophytic neoplasm that arises from the nasopharynx.  It is characterized by the presence of a connective tissue core covered by stratified squamous epithelium. |
| C6038 | A benign exophytic neoplasm that arises from the oropharynx.  It is characterized by the presence of a connective tissue core covered by stratified squamous epithelium. |
| C6039 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6040 | A follicular-derived thyroid gland carcinoma that is histologically poorly differentiated and has high-grade features. |
| C6041 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm primarily involving the thyroid gland. |
| C6042 | A thyroid gland adenoma composed of large cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm and large nuclei with prominent nucleoli. |
| C6043 | A usually aggressive malignant vascular tumor primarily involving the thyroid gland.  It is often associated with longstanding nodular goiter. |
| C6044 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma primarily involving the thyroid gland.  The vast majority of cases are either diffuse large B-cell lymphomas or extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphomas of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. Hashimoto (chronic lymphocytic) thyroiditis is almost always present. |
| C6046 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma primarily involving the thyroid gland. |
| C6048 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C6049 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the trachea. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C6050 | A rare malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the trachea. |
| C6051 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the trachea. It spreads to the submucosal tracheal tissue and to regional lymph nodes. |
| C6052 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6053 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6054 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6055 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6056 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0);. IVB (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: (oral cavity) Tumor invades adjacent structures (e.g., through cortical bone, into deep [extrinsic] muscles of tongue, maxillary sinus, skin of face).  T4b: Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases internal carotid artery. N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more... |
| C6057 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Oral cavity cancer with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades adjacent structures only (e.g., through cortical bone [mandible or maxilla] into deep [extrinsic] muscle of tongue [genioglossus, hyoglossus, palatoglossus, and styloglossus], maxillary sinus, skin of face). T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in gre... |
| C6058 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0). T4b: Oral cavity cancer with very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases internal carotid artery. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6059 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6060 | Reemergence of squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity after a period of remission. |
| C6061 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the anterior portion of the tongue. |
| C6062 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the anterior portion of the tongue. |
| C60639 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the rectum and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C6063 | "A neoplasm that arises from the anterior portion of tongue and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C60640 | "A rare, invasive rectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of sheets of malignant epithelial cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm.  It usually has a favorable prognosis." |
| C60641 | "A rare, invasive colon adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of sheets of malignant epithelial cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm.  It usually has a favorable prognosis." |
| C6064 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the mucosal epithelial surface of the maxillary sinus.  Patients may present with nasal fullness, obstruction, and/or epistaxis." |
| C6065 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the mucosal epithelial surface of the ethmoid sinus.  Patients may present with nasal fullness, obstruction, and/or epistaxis." |
| C6066 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the mucosal epithelial surface of the sphenoid sinus.  Patients may present with nasal fullness, obstruction, and/or epistaxis." |
| C6067 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the mucosal epithelial surface of the frontal sinus.  Patients may present with nasal fullness, obstruction, and/or epistaxis." |
| C6068 | "A lymphoma that arises from the paranasal sinus.  Representative examples include diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal type." |
| C6069 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the paranasal sinus.  Representative examples include diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal type." |
| C60709 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the appendix. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C6070 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); T4a: Maxillary sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades anterior orbital contents, skin of cheek, pterygoid plates, infratemporal fossa, cribriform plate, sphenoid or frontal sinuses.  Ethmoid sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades any of the following: anterior orbital contents, skin of nose or cheek, minimal extension to anterior cranial fossa, pterygo... |
| C6071 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T4b: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades any of the following: orbital apex, dura, brain, middle cranial fossa, cranial nerves other than maxillary division of trigeminal nerve, nasopharynx, or clivus.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph node, more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6072 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6073 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the paranasal sinus. |
| C6074 | A primary lymphoma that affects the nasal cavity and the bulk of the tumor is in this anatomic area. |
| C6075 | A primary non-Hodgkin lymphoma that affects the nasal cavity and the bulk of the tumor is in this anatomic area.  The majority of the cases are nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphomas and diffuse large B-cell lymphomas. |
| C6076 | The reemergence of carcinoma in the oral cavity after a period of remission. |
| C6077 | A carcinoma that arises from the anatomic structures of the neck region. |
| C60780 | An astrocytoma that occurs in the brain. |
| C60781 | "A tumor of the brain or spinal cord showing astrocytic differentiation. It includes the following clinicopathological entities: pilocytic astrocytoma, diffuse astrocytoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, and subependymal giant cell astrocytoma." |
| C60785 | A pathologic tract that connects an opening in the anal canal to the perianal skin. In the vast majority of cases there is a history of perianal abscess. |
| C6078 | A carcinoma that arises from the eyelid. Examples include basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C6079 | A carcinoma that arises from any of the structures of the eye. |
| C6080 | Actinic keratosis that develops in the skin of the external ear. |
| C6081 | "A carcinoma that arises from the external ear. This category includes squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, and ceruminous adenocarcinoma." |
| C60825 | "A rare disorder resulting from neoplastic exocrine excess. It is typically seen in 10-15 % of patients with pancreatic acinar cell carcinoma. Clinical signs include subcutaneous fat necrosis, polyarthralgia and osteolytic lesions. Clinical course may proceed to non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis. Clinical prognosis is poor due to its usual onset with advanced disease." |
| C6082 | A basal cell carcinoma that arises from the skin of the external ear. |
| C6083 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the external ear. |
| C6085 | A jugulotympanic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia in the middle ear. |
| C6086 | A rare squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the middle ear. |
| C6088 | A benign epithelial neoplasm derived from ceruminous glands in the external auditory canal. It presents as a grey mass covered by skin. It is characterized by a proliferation of glands composed of cells with abundant eosinophilic and granular cytoplasm. |
| C6089 | A carcinoma that arises from the middle ear.  This category includes adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C6091 | An extremely rare carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal gland.  It is characterized by the presence of infiltrating nests of epidermoid cells and mucus producing cells. |
| C6092 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal sac and/or canaliculi. |
| C6093 | A precancerous neoplastic intraepithelial process involving the corneal epithelium. |
| C6094 | A precancerous neoplastic intraepithelial process with low-grade dysplastic features involving the corneal epithelium. |
| C6095 | A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the structures of the orbit.  The majority of the cases are rhabdomyosarcomas. |
| C6097 | A conjunctival squamous intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of dysplasia that involves the lower third of epithelial thickness. |
| C60989 | A chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disorder characterized by skeletal muscle weakness. It is caused by the blockage of the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. |
| C6098 | A melanoma that arises from the iris. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped melanocytes. |
| C6099 | A melanoma that arises from the choroid. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped melanocytes. |
| C6100 | Choroid melanoma characterized by the presence of intermediate cells which are similar to but smaller than epithelioid cells. |
| C6101 | Iris melanoma characterized by the presence of intermediate cells which are similar to but smaller than epithelioid cells. |
| C6102 | A choroid melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes. |
| C6103 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the iris from another anatomic site. |
| C6104 | "A neoplasm that arises from the uvea and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential.." |
| C6105 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the choroid, ciliary body, or iris." |
| C6106 |  |
| C6107 |  |
| C6108 |  |
| C6109 |  |
| C6110 |  |
| C6111 |  |
| C6112 |  |
| C6113 |  |
| C6114 |  |
| C6115 |  |
| C6116 |  |
| C6117 | A melanoma that arises from the ciliary body. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped melanocytes. |
| C6118 | Ciliary body melanoma characterized by the presence of intermediate cells which are similar to but smaller than epithelioid cells. |
| C6119 | A ciliary body melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes. |
| C6120 | "A precancerous neoplastic process involving the conjunctival squamous epithelium. It is characterized by the presence of dysplastic squamous cells within the epithelium and is classified as grade 1 (mild dysplasia), grade 2 (moderate dysplasia), and grade 3 (severe dysplasia)." |
| C6121 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C61229 | Life-threatening anemia associated with a high risk of infection or bleeding. |
| C6122 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); T4a: Supraglottis: Moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades through the thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissues beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of neck including deep extrinsic muscle of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid, or esophagus). Glottis: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades through the outer cortex of the thyroid cartilage and/or invades ti... |
| C61230 | Aplastic anemia without a known cause. |
| C61231 | "Bone marrow failure defined as pancytopenia, secondary to hepatitis." |
| C61232 | An acquired non-neoplastic disorder characterized by marked reduction or absence of megakaryocytes and thrombocytopenia. |
| C61233 | "A rare acquired hematologic disorder characterized by hemolytic anemia, dark-colored urine due to the release of hemoglobin in the blood, and thrombosis. The episodes of hemolysis tend to occur at night. It is caused by a somatic mutation in the glycosylphosphatidylinositol biosynthesis gene." |
| C61234 | "Inherited disorders involving abnormalities of red blood cell function, structure, or production. Some diseases in this group may be associated with bone marrow failure, neutropenia, and/or thrombocytopenia." |
| C61235 | "A rare, autosomal recessive disorder characterized by exocrine pancreas insufficiency, skeletal abnormalities, bone marrow dysfunction, and an increased incidence of leukemia." |
| C61236 | An inherited condition characterized by aplasia of the erythroid series only. The white cells and platelets are not affected. Patients develop anemia usually in infancy. |
| C61237 | "Hemolytic anemia, in which patients are heterozygous for both the sickle cell gene and a thalassemia gene." |
| C61238 | "An inherited, severe immunodeficiency disorder characterized by abnormalities in the development and function of T and B cell immunity. The peripheral T and B lymphocytes are absent or in very low counts." |
| C61239 | "An inherited, severe immunodeficiency disorder characterized by abnormalities in the development and function of T cell immunity. The peripheral T lymphocytes are absent or in very low counts. The B lymphocyte counts are normal." |
| C6123 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T4b: Supraglottis: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures. Glottis: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures. Subglottis: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph nod... |
| C61240 | "A genetically heterogenous autosomal recessive severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome. caused by mutation(s) in the RAG-1, RAG-2, and DCLRE1C genes. It is characterized by the presence of alopecia, erythroderma, desquamation, lymphadenopathy, and chronic diarrhea." |
| C61242 | A rare congenital disorder characterized by mild or severe reduction of neutrophils in the peripheral blood and recurrent infantile infections. |
| C61243 | "A genetic disorder characterized by defective polymorphonuclear cell actin function, resulting in impaired granulocyte motility." |
| C61244 | "Patients with the X-linked hyper IgM syndrome have a deficiency of a protein, CD40 ligand that is found on the surface of T-lymphocytes. As a consequence of the deficiency of this protein, their T-lymphocytes are unable to instruct B-lymphocytes to switch their production of gamma globulins from IgM to IgG and IgA. As a result, patients have decreased levels of IgG and IgA and normal or elevated levels of IgM. In addition, since CD40 ligand is important to other functions of T-lymphocytes, ... |
| C61245 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutation in the gene for RNAase RMRP. It is characterized by short-limb dwarfism, presence of fine sparse hair, and T-and B-cell immunodeficiency." |
| C61246 | "An X-linked immunodeficiency syndrome that exclusively affects males, although females can be carriers. It is caused by mutation(s) in SH2D1A and/or XIAP genes and is characterized by life-threatening episodes of infectious mononucleosis, hypogammaglobulinemia, and subsequent development of lymphomas (usually B-cell lymphomas) and other lymphoproliferative disorders." |
| C61247 | A group of rare inherited platelet disorders that involve abnormalities of platelet function or platelet production and that usually cause moderate to severe bleeding problems. |
| C61248 | "A non-neoplastic, congenital or non-congenital disorder charcaterized by marked reduction or absence of megakaryocytes and thrombocytopenia." |
| C61249 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited and less frequently acquired platelet disorder. It is characterized by deficient or dysfunctional glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex. It leads to defective platelet aggregation, resulting in bleeding." |
| C6124 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C61250 | "A group of autosomal recessive or X-linked inherited metabolic disorders caused by defects in the function of the lysosomes. Signs and symptoms include hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, nervous system manifestations, skeletal abnormalities, and mental deterioration. Representative examples include Gaucher disease, Niemann-Pick disease, Wolman disease, and Fabry disease." |
| C61251 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder characterized by abnormalities in the development of the myelin sheaths. It is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme arylsulfatase A. There are three forms of this disease: late infantile, juvenile, and adult. In the late infantile form symptoms include muscle weakness and rigidity, gait disturbances, developmental delays, and seizures. In the juvenile form symptoms include gait disturbances, mental deterioration and seizures. The adult form is chara... |
| C61252 | "A rare metabolic disorder characterized by damage of the myelin sheaths in the nervous system and degeneration of the adrenal glands. It leads to progressive neurologic disorders, adrenal insufficiency and death." |
| C61253 | "A group of rare genetic neurodegenerative disorders that affect infants and children. These disorders are characterized by metabolic abnormalities in the development of the myelin sheaths in the white matter. Clinical signs and symptoms include developmental delays, mental retardation, dementia, seizures, loss of motor skills, and muscle weakness. Representative examples include metachromatic leukodystrophy, Krabbe disease, Canavan disease, and Alexander disease." |
| C61254 | "A rare inherited neurodegenerative disorder that belongs to the group of leukodystrophies. It is characterized by myelin destruction, gliosis in the brain, and the presence of multinucleated globoid cells. Signs and symptoms include irritability, mental and motor developmental disturbances, muscle weakness, seizures, blindness, and deafness." |
| C61255 | "An X-linked inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the enzyme hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase, resulting in accumulation of uric acid in the body. It affects males and is characterized by neurologic defects, moderate mental retardation, muscle hypotonia, and a tendency for self-mutilation (self-biting of lips, tongue, and fingertips)." |
| C61257 | "A group of mostly autosomal recessive inherited neurodegenerative disorders characterized by accumulation of lipofuscin in the neuronal cells and in other tissues including liver, spleen, kidneys, and myocardium. Signs and symptoms include motor disturbances and cognitive decline." |
| C61258 | "A condition associated with mutation(s) in the CLN3 gene, encoding battenin. The condition is one of a group of genetically heterogeneous neurodegenerative disorders, characterized by accumulation of intracellular lipopigments." |
| C61259 | "A group of autosomal recessive or X-linked inherited lysosomal storage disorders affecting the metabolism of mucopolysaccharides, resulting in the accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in the body. Signs and symptoms include organomegaly, intellectual disabilities, abnormal skeletal development, heart disorders, hearing loss, and central nervous system deficiencies." |
| C6125 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C61260 | "An X-linked, inherited lysosomal storage disease caused by the deficiency of the enzyme iduronate sulfatase that is responsible for the degradation of mucopolysaccharides.  It nearly always affects males and is characterized by the accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in various organs, resulting in mental dysfunction, enlarged abdomen, hearing loss, obstructive airway disease, heart disease, and hepatosplenomegaly." |
| C61261 | An autosomal recessive inherited disorder of mucopolysaccharide metabolism. It is the most severe form of mucopolysaccharidosis type I. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme alpha-L-iduronidase resulting in the accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in the tissues. |
| C61262 | "A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease affecting the metabolism of mucopolysaccharides. Signs and symptoms include behavioral changes, sleep disorders, mental developmental delays, and seizures." |
| C61263 | "A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease characterized by abnormal skeletal developments, dwarfism, heart disorders, and central nervous system deficits." |
| C61264 | "A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by deficiency of the enzyme N-acetylgalactosamine-4-sulfatase. It is characterized by organomegaly, short stature, joint stiffness, otitis media, and respiratory illnesses." |
| C61265 | "An autosomal recessive disorder representing the milder form of mucopolysaccharidosis type I. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme alpha-L-iduronidase. Signs and symptoms include broad mouth with full lips, cloudy cornea which may lead to blindness, stiff joints, and hirsutism." |
| C61267 | "A group of inherited lysosomal storage diseases characterized by accumulation of lipids and carbohydrates in the tissues, resulting in mental disabilities and skeletal malformations." |
| C61268 | "An inherited lysosomal storage disease caused by deficiency of the enzyme glucocerebrosidase. It results in the accumulation of a fatty substance called glucocerebroside in mononuclear cells in the bone marrow, liver, spleen, brain, and kidneys. Signs and symptoms include hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, neurologic disorders, lymphadenopathy, skeletal disorders, anemia and thrombocytopenia." |
| C61269 | "An autosomal recessive inherited lysosomal storage disease characterized by deficiency of sphingomyelinase. It results in the accumulation of sphingomyelin in the liver, spleen, brain, lungs, and bone marrow. Signs and symptoms include hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, ataxia, dystonia, and dementia." |
| C6126 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T4b: Supraglottis: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures. Glottis: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures. Subglottis: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph nod... |
| C61270 | "An inherited lysosomal storage disease characterized by the presence of dense intracytoplasmic inclusions in mesenchymal cells, especially fibroblasts. Signs and symptoms include developmental delay, psychomotor deterioration, and growth failure." |
| C61271 | "A very rare, autosomal recessive inherited lysosomal storage disease caused by mutations in the LIPA gene. Signs and symptoms appear in infancy and include developmental delay, vomiting, abdominal distention, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, anemia, steatorrhea, and calcification of the adrenal glands." |
| C61272 | An inherited metabolic disorder characterized either by defects in glycogen synthesis or defects in the breaking down of glycogen. It results either in the creation of abnormal forms of glycogen or accumulation of glycogen in the tissues. |
| C61273 | A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal disorder characterized by deficiency of N-aspartyl-beta-glucosaminidase. It is characterized by developmental delays during childhood. |
| C61274 | "An autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease characterized by a defective alpha-L-fucosidase. It results in accumulation of fucose in the tissues. Signs and symptoms include psychomotor retardation, dysostosis multiplex, and neural disturbances." |
| C61275 | "A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease characterized by a deficient activity of the enzymes alpha-D-mannosidase or beta-mannosidase. Clinical signs and symptoms include hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, hearing loss, mental retardation, skeletal abnormalities, and recurrent respiratory infections." |
| C61276 | "A rare, life-threatening disorder usually appearing during the first few months of life. It is caused by abnormalities in the PRF1, UNC13D, and STX11 genes. It is characterized by histiocytic proliferation and phagocytosis. Patients present with fever, lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly." |
| C61277 | Joint inflammation associated with psoriasis. |
| C61278 | "An inflammatory disorder most often affecting children. It is characterized by the presence of arthritis, salmon-colored rash, spiking fevers, fatigue, and sore throats." |
| C61279 | "Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis affecting four or fewer joints, usually asymmetrically. The most commonly affected joints are the knee, elbow, wrist, and ankle." |
| C6127 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); T4a: Supraglottis: Moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades through the thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissues beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of neck including deep extrinsic muscle of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid, or esophagus). Glottis: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades through the outer cortex of the thyroid cartilage and/or invades ti... |
| C61280 | "Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis affecting multiple joints, usually symmetrically. It may be associated with low grade fever, anemia, and weight loss. Patients usually test negative for rheumatoid factor." |
| C61281 | An arteritis characterized by the presence of inflammation and necrosis in the arterial wall. |
| C61282 | A necrotizing arteritis that exhibits characteristic features of several distinct vascular disorders. |
| C61283 | "A disorder caused by the presence of autoantibodies directed against phospholipids, causing a hypercoaguable state, which may result in blood clots, stroke, heart attack, and in women, significant pregnancy-related complications, including miscarriage and still birth. The syndrome is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, most commonly lupus erythematosus, and infections, including syphilis and Lyme disease." |
| C61284 | "A rare, chronic and relapsing autoimmune disorder of unknown etiology, characterized by the presence of immune thrombocytopenia and autoimmune hemolytic anemia." |
| C6128 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C6129 | "A carcinoma that arises from the lacrimal glands. Representative examples include adenocarcinoma, carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, squamous cell carcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, and mucoepidermoid carcinoma." |
| C6130 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6131 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T4b: Tumor with very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral fascia, encases carotid artery, or involves mediastinal structures.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6132 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Tumor with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades the thyroid/cricoid cartilage, hyoid bone, thyroid gland, or central compartment soft tissue.  Central compartment soft tissue includes prelaryngeal strap muscles and subcutaneous fat.  T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor invades more than one subsite of t... |
| C6133 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6134 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension and limited to the thyroid gland, or tumor of any size with minimal extrathyroid extension (e.g., extension to sternothyroid muscle or perithyroid soft tissues).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6135 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1a, M0); (T2, N1a, M0); (T3, N1a, M0). T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension and limited to the thyroid gland, or tumor of any size with minimal extrathyroid extension (e.g., extension to sternothyroid muscle or perithyroid soft tissues).  N1a: Metastasis to pretracheal, para... |
| C6136 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1a, M0); (T1, N1b, M0); (T2, N1b, M0); (T3, N1b, M0); (T4a, N1b, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor of any size extending beyond the thyroid gland capsule to invade subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus, or recurrent laryngeal nerve.  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in gre... |
| C61374 | "Excitement of psychotic proportions manifested by mental and physical hyperactivity, disorganisation of behaviour and elevation of mood." |
| C6137 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0). T4: Nasopharyngeal cancer with intracranial extension and/or involvement of cranial nerves, hypopharynx, orbit, or with extension to the infratemporal fossa/masticator space.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with unilateral metastasis in cervical lymph node(s), 6 cm or less in greatest dimension, above the supraclavicular fossa, and/or unilateral or bilateral, retropharyngeal lymph nodes, 6 cm or ... |
| C61383 | "A testicular seminoma characterized by the presence of uniform round germ cells with glycogen-rich cytoplasm and large nuclei, and a lymphocytic infiltrate." |
| C6138 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, N3, M0.  N3: Nasopharyngeal cancer with metastasis in a lymph node (s) more than 6 cm in greatest dimension and/or to supraclavicular fossa.  Supraclavicular zone or fossa is relevant to the staging of nasopharyngeal carcinoma and is the triangular region originally described by Ho.  It is defined by three points: (1) the superior margin of the sternal end of the clavicle, (2) the superior margin of the lateral end of the clavicle, (3) the point where the neck mee... |
| C6139 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0). T4b: Tumor with very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades lateral pterygoid muscle, pterygoid plates, lateral nasopharynx, or skull base or encases carotid artery. N3: Tumor with metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6140 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6141 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Tumor with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades the larynx, extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, or mandible.  Mucosal extension to lingual surface of epiglottis from primary tumors of the base of the tongue and vallecula does not constitute invasion of larynx. T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more t... |
| C61420 | A congenital disorder characterized by the presence of extremely hypoplastic gonads preventing the development of secondary sex characteristics. |
| C61429 | A rare peritoneal cavity disorder that is characterized by the development of dense fibrous tissue in the peritoneum and the creation of severe adhesions in the abdomen that result in partial or complete small bowel obstruction. It may be idiopathic or develop in patients who receive peritoneal dialysis treatment. Patients present with abdominal distention and pain. |
| C6142 | A carcinoma arising in the renal pelvis.  The majority of renal pelvis carcinomas are transitional cell and less frequently squamous cell carcinomas. |
| C6143 | Adenocarcinoma that affects the renal pelvis. |
| C61443 | The absence of menses in a woman who has achieved reproductive age. |
| C6144 | "Stage I includes: T1, M0, M0.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C61453 | Abnormal enlargement of the heart. |
| C6145 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C61469 | "A hypermetabolic syndrome caused by the elevation of thyroid hormone levels in the serum. Signs and symptoms include tachycardia, palpitations, tremor, weight loss, warm weather intolerance, and moist skin. Causes include Graves disease, toxic nodular goiter, toxic thyroid nodule, and lymphocytic thyroiditis." |
| C6146 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0.  T3: Tumor invades beyond muscularis into peripelvic fat or the renal parenchyma.  N0: No lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6147 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Tumor invades adjacent organs, or through the kidney into perinephric fat.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single lymph node, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis in a single lymph node, more than 2 cm but not more than 5cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph ... |
| C6148 | A papillary urothelial carcinoma that arises from the renal pelvis. |
| C6149 | "Stage 0 includes: 0a (Ta, N0, M0); 0is (Tis, N0, M0).  Ta: Papillary noninvasive carcinoma. Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6150 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6151 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor invades the muscularis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6152 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades beyond muscularis into periureteric fat.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6153 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Tumor invades adjacent organs, or through the kidney into the perinephric fat.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single lymph node, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis in a single lymph node, more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis in a l... |
| C6154 | A rare squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the ureter. |
| C6155 | Adenocarcinoma that affects the ureter. |
| C6156 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma of the ureter that exhibits squamous differentiation. |
| C61574 | "A malignant neoplasm that affects the uterine corpus. Representative examples include endometrial carcinoma, carcinosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and adenosarcoma." |
| C6157 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma of the ureter that exhibits glandular differentiation. |
| C6158 |  |
| C6159 | Undifferentiated carcinoma that affects the ureter. |
| C6160 | A rare benign neoplasm that arises from the ureter and is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth with a central fibrovascular core. The latter is lined by normal urothelium. |
| C6161 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the ureter. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C6162 | "A benign nerve sheath tumor composed of Schwann cells, occurring in the ureter." |
| C6163 | A variant of bladder adenocarcinoma with mucin containing signet ring cells. |
| C6164 | A lymphoma involving the bladder. |
| C6165 | "A well differentiated, moderately differentiated, or poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the male or female urethra." |
| C6166 | A urothelial carcinoma that arises from the male or female urethra. |
| C6167 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the male or female urethra. |
| C6168 | An undifferentiated carcinoma arising from the urethra. |
| C6169 | "A sexually transmitted papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelial surface of the urethra, and caused by the human papillomavirus." |
| C6170 | A benign polypoid lesion of mesodermal origin that arises from the urethra. |
| C6171 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the urethra. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C6172 | A morphologic variant of urethral adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of tubulocystic or papillary structures lined with clear cuboidal or hobnail cells. |
| C6173 | An endophytic urothelial neoplasm arising from the urethra. It shares several morphologic features with urothelial papilloma. |
| C6174 | An endophytic urothelial neoplasm arising from the ureter. It shares several morphologic features with urothelial papilloma. |
| C6175 | A lymphoma involving the ureter. |
| C6176 | A rare small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the ureter. |
| C6177 | "A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the bladder.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells." |
| C6178 | "A leiomyoma that arises from the bladder. Although it is an uncommon tumor in the bladder, it is the most common mesenchymal neoplasm affecting the bladder." |
| C6179 | "A bladder adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells and clear cells distributed in a tubulo-cystic, papillary, or diffuse pattern. There is a female predilection. Clinical presentation includes hematuria and dysuria." |
| C6180 | Wilms tumor of the kidney which occurs in adults. |
| C6181 | An osteosarcoma arising from the kidney. |
| C6182 | "A benign, mesodermal tumor located in the renal pelvis." |
| C6183 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the kidney.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C6185 | "A rare malignant adipose tissue neoplasm of the fat cells surrounding the kidney, usually of the well-differentiated or myxoid type. It may be associated with tuberous sclerosis." |
| C6186 | An invasive urothelial carcinoma that arises from the renal pelvis and exhibits sarcomatoid features. |
| C6187 | An endophytic urothelial neoplasm arising from the renal pelvis. It shares several morphologic features with urothelial papilloma. |
| C6188 | "Stage 0 includes: 0a (Ta, N0, M0); 0is (Tis, N0, M0).  Ta: Noninvasive papillary carcinoma. Tis: Carcinoma in situ: ""flat tumor"".  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6191 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6192 | An endophytic urothelial neoplasm arising from the urinary tract. It shares several morphologic features with urothelial papilloma. |
| C6193 | "Stage 0 includes: 0a (Ta, N0, M0); 0is (Tis, N0, M0).  Ta: Papillary noninvasive carcinoma. Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6194 | "Also known as collecting duct carcinoma, this is a rare type of renal carcinoma. It arises from the collecting ducts of the renal medulla, and most authors suggest that this is an aggressive tumor." |
| C6195 | "Stage 0 includes: 0a (Ta, N0, M0); 0is (Tis, N0, M0); (Tis pu, N0, M0); (Tis pd, N0, M0).  Ta: Noninvasive papillary, polypoid, or verrucous carcinoma.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  Tis pu: Carcinoma in situ, involvement of the prostatic urethra.  Tis pd: Carcinoma in situ, involvement of the prostatic ducts.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6196 | "Stage 0a includes: Ta, N0, M0.  Ta: Noninvasive papillary, polypoid, or verrucous carcinoma.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6197 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6198 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor invades any of the following: corpus spongiosum, prostate, periurethral muscle.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6199 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0), (T3, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue.  T2: Tumor invades any of the following: corpus spongiosum, prostate, periurethral muscle.  T3: Tumor invades any of the following: corpus cavernosum, beyond prostatic capsule, anterior vagina, bladder neck.  N1: Metastasis in a single lymph node 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6200 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0), (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Tumor invades other adjacent organs.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single lymph node 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis in a single lymph node more than 2 cm in greatest dimension, or in multiple lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C62015 | A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of prolonged PR interval for a specific population. For adults one common threshold is a PR interval greater than 0.20 seconds. |
| C62017 | "A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of intermittent failure of atrial electrical impulse conduction to the ventricles, characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval prior to the block of an atrial impulse. (CDISC)" |
| C62018 | "A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of intermittent failure of atrial electrical impulse conduction to the ventricles, characterized by a relatively constant PR interval prior to the block of an atrial impulse. (CDISC)" |
| C6202 | "Stage 0a includes: Ta, N0, M0. Ta: Papillary noninvasive carcinoma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6203 | "Stage 0a includes: Ta, N0, M0. Ta: Papillary noninvasive carcinoma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6204 | A mature or immature teratoma affecting the central nervous system and occurring in children. |
| C6205 | A germ cell tumor of the central nervous system occurring in children. |
| C6206 | A choriocarcinoma that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C6207 | A germinoma arising from the brain during childhood. |
| C6208 | An embryonal carcinoma that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C6209 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C6210 | "A granular cell tumor that arises from the soft palate and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C6211 | "A benign, slow-growing and painless neoplasm that arises from the minor salivary glands in the soft palate.  It is composed of cells that demonstrate both epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation." |
| C6212 | "A benign, slow-growing and painless neoplasm that arises from the minor salivary glands in the hard palate.  It is composed of cells that demonstrate both epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation." |
| C6213 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma arising from the minor salivary glands in the hard palate. |
| C6214 | A mucoepidermoid carcinoma arising from the minor salivary glands in the hard palate. |
| C6215 | An anaplastic astrocytoma that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C6216 | An astrocytoma that arises from the brain stem and occurs during childhood. |
| C6217 | The reemergence of brain stem astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C6218 | A benign neoplasm of the cerebrum occurring in adults. |
| C62191 | "A rare, low-grade carcinoma that arises from the salivary glands, most often the minor salivary glands. It is characterized by the presence of a monomorphic population of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm and the absence of morphologic features that define other primary neoplasms of the salivary glands. It usually has an indolent clinical course." |
| C62192 | "A rare, low-grade adenocarcinoma that arises from the salivary glands.  It is characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by ductal cells which are arranged in cribriform patterns.  Adjacent ducts show intraductal proliferation." |
| C62193 | "A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the salivary glands, most frequently the soft palate and the sublingual gland.  It is characterized by the presence of large pools of extracellular mucin in which clusters of malignant epithelial cells are found.  Patients usually present with a slow growing mass. It tends to recur locally and metastasize to regional lymph nodes." |
| C62194 | A high grade adenocarcinoma that arises from the salivary glands. The vast majority of cases have been described in the parotid gland.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant oncocytes.  It recurs and metastasizes to regional or distant anatomic sites. |
| C62196 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the salivary glands.  It exhibits ductal differentiation but lacks any of the morphologic features that characterize the other well-defined primary adenocarcinomas of the salivary glands. |
| C6219 | "A childhood neoplasm that arises from the cerebrum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C6220 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm within the cerebral hemisphere often associated with partial or complete agenesis of the corpus callosum. |
| C62210 | "A benign, well circumscribed neoplasm that arises from the breast.  It is composed entirely of tubular structures that contain epithelial and myoepithelial cells." |
| C6221 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the thalamus. |
| C6222 | "A neoplasm that arises from the thalamus and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C62241 | An epithelial neoplasm that is categorized using nomenclature that is no longer in use or diagnostic criteria that are outdated. |
| C62244 | "A constellation of signs and symptoms which may include syncope, fatigue, dizziness, and alternating periods of bradycardia and atrial tachycardia, which is caused by sinoatrial node dysfunction." |
| C6224 | A papilloma that arises from the conjunctival squamous epithelium. It is usually associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C62277 | A connective and soft tissue neoplasm that is categorized using nomenclature that is no longer in use or diagnostic criteria that are outdated. |
| C62279 | A germ cell tumor that is categorized using nomenclature that is no longer in use or diagnostic criteria that are outdated. |
| C62282 | A basal cell carcinoma of the skin that often appears as elevated nodules which may become ulcerated. |
| C62284 | "A variant of basal cell carcinoma of the skin presenting as erythematous, often multiple patches.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of superficial lobules of basaloid cells projecting into the dermis.  The basaloid cell lobules are surrounded by myxoid stroma and are usually confined to the papillary dermis." |
| C62332 | A malignant tumor arising in the epithelial cells of the brain or spinal cord. |
| C6236 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6237 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the ethmoid sinus. |
| C6238 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma that affects the ethmoid sinus. |
| C6239 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the maxillary sinus.  It usually has an aggressive clinical course. |
| C6240 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the maxillary sinus. |
| C62410 | A disease occurring chiefly in the connective-tissue framework of an organ. |
| C6241 | A rare adenoid cystic carcinoma that arises from the oropharynx. |
| C6242 | "A benign, slow-growing and painless neoplasm that arises from the salivary glands in the oral cavity.  It is composed of cells that demonstrate both epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation." |
| C62436 | Dysfunction of the pulmonary valve characterized by incomplete valve closure. |
| C6243 | An adenocarcinoma with serous acinar cell differentiation that arises from the minor salivary glands. |
| C6244 | "A lymphoma that arises from the structures of the orbit.  Representative examples include mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, follicular lymphoma, and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma." |
| C6245 | A hemangioma arising from the orbit. |
| C6246 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the orbit.  It is characterized by the presence of skeletal muscle tissue exhibiting embryonic features. |
| C6247 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises in the orbit.  It is characterized by the presence of round cells with myoblastic differentiation and a fibrovascular stroma. |
| C6248 | "A rare lymphoma that arises from the trachea.  Signs and symptoms include dyspnea, cough, wheezing, and stridor." |
| C6249 | "A carcinoma that arises from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.  Representative examples include squamous cell carcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, and mucoepidermoid carcinoma." |
| C62505 | "An autosomal recessive genetic disorder characterized by bone marrow failure, skeletal abnormalities, and an increased incidence of the development of neoplasias." |
| C6250 | A mucoepidermoid carcinoma arising from the minor salivary glands in the anterior tongue. |
| C6251 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma arising from the minor salivary glands in the anterior tongue. |
| C6252 | An anaplastic astrocytoma that arises from the brain and occurs during childhood. |
| C6253 | An intracranial meningioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C62545 | "A condition characterized by a burning or tingling sensation on the lips, tongue, or entire mouth." |
| C62546 | "A recurrent disease of the oral mucosa of unknown etiology. It is characterized by small white ulcerative lesions, single or multiple, round or oval, lasting for 7-14 days and healing without scarring." |
| C6254 |  |
| C6255 |  |
| C62569 | "An autosomal dominant inherited skin disorder caused by mutations in the KRT1 and KRT10 genes. It is manifested at birth and is characterized by generalized erythema, skin blisters and skin fragility." |
| C62571 | "A form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ. It is a distinct clinicopathological entity and arises from the skin or the mucocutaneous junction. It affects predominantly white males in their 6-8th decades of life. Exposed and non-exposed skin sites are equally affected. UV damage and ingestion of inorganic arsenic may play a role in the development of the disease. On the skin surface, it presents as a single or multiple erythematous, scaly, keratotic patches or plaques. The clinical entity of... |
| C62578 | "A syndrome characterized by leakage of intravascular fluids into the extravascular space. This syndrome is observed in patients who demonstrate a state of generalized leaky capillaries following shock syndromes, low-flow states, ischemia-reperfusion injuries, toxemias, medications, or poisoning. It can lead to generalized edema and multiple organ failure." |
| C6257 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant epithelial tumor of the ovary characterized by the presence of glands and/or cysts lined by neoplastic cells that resemble endometrial cells." |
| C62580 | Inflammation of the bronchioles with obstruction by fibrous granulation tissue or bronchial exudate. It may follow inhalation of irritating gases or foreign bodies and it complicates pneumonia. |
| C62586 | "A form of organizing pneumonia with a non-infectious etiology. Excessive proliferation of granulation tissue occurs in alveolar ducts and alveoli and primarily causes injury to alveolar walls, but bronchioles may be affected." |
| C6258 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0.  T3a: Microscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond pelvis (no macroscopic tumor). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C62590 | An inflammatory lung disease characterized by diffuse interstitial pneumonitis and alveolitis leading to interstitial fibrosis in the absence of an identifiable infectious agent. |
| C62591 | "A condition of diminution or cessation of secretion of one or more hormones from the anterior pituitary gland. This may result from surgical or radiation ablation, non-secretory pituitary neoplasms, metastatic tumors, infarction, pituitary apoplexy, infiltrative or granulomatous processes, and other conditions." |
| C62592 | A change in disposition or state of mind. |
| C6259 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0.  T3b: Macroscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond pelvis 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C62601 | "Any non-neoplastic pathologic conditions of the retina, including non-neoplastic structural anomalies." |
| C62602 | A hormonal disorder that occurs when lack of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) secretion from the hypothalamus or adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secretion from the pituitary is responsible for hypofunction of the adrenal cortex. |
| C62605 | "A microvascular coagulopathy that may result from systemic vascular endothelial injury triggering the development of a procoagulant state, activation of the complement cascade, and microthrombi formation. Signs may include hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, hypertension and renal dysfunction." |
| C6260 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T3c, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T3c: Peritoneal metastasis beyond pelvis more than 2cm in greatest dimension and/or regional lymph node metastasis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6261 | "A granulosa-stromal cell tumor that arises from the ovary.  It is characterized by the presence of granulosa cells that comprise at least ten percent of the cellular population.  The granulosa cells are often found in a background that contains theca and fibrous cells.  There are two major subtypes recognized, adult and juvenile granulosa cell tumor.  Clinically, patients may present with an abdominal mass.  Symptoms depend on the patient's age.  The most important indicator of prognosis is... |
| C6262 | A neoplasm that affects the visual pathway. |
| C6263 | A thecoma of the ovary that contains lutein cells and may metastasize to other anatomic sites. It is usually characterized by nuclear atypia and mitotic activity. |
| C6264 | A non-metastasizing thecoma of the ovary that is characterized by the presence of lutein cells. |
| C6265 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the fallopian tube.  Histologic subtypes include clear cell, endometrioid, serous, and mucinous adenocarcinoma.  It spreads to adjacent organs, regional lymph nodes, and peritoneum." |
| C6267 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the fallopian tube and is characterized by a papillary architectural pattern. |
| C6268 | "An ependymoma, not otherwise specified that arises from the cerebral hemispheres and occurs during childhood." |
| C6269 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor limited to one tube, without penetrating the serosal surface; no ascites.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6270 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0.  T1b: Tumor limited to both tubes, without penetrating the serosal surface; no ascites.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6271 | "Stage IC includes: T1c, N0, M0.  T1c: Tumor limited to one or both tubes with extension onto or through the tubal serosa, or with malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6272 | "Stage IIA includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Extension and/or metastasis to the uterus and/or ovaries.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6273 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0.  T3a: Microscopic peritoneal metastasis outside the pelvis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6274 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0.  T3b: Macroscopic peritoneal metastasis outside the pelvis 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6275 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T3c, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0).  T3c: Peritoneal metastasis outside the pelvis and more than 2 cm in diameter.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6276 | "Stage IIC includes: T2c, N0, M0.  T2c: Pelvic extension with malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C62776 | A dense cutaneous non-neoplastic lymphocytic proliferation composed of B-or T-cells with histological and clinical characteristics resembling cutaneous lymphoma. |
| C6277 | "Stage IIB includes: T2b, N0, M0.  T2b: Extension to other pelvic structures.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6278 | A malignant trophoblastic tumor that arises from the fallopian tube during pregnancy. |
| C62798 | "A type of heart disorder referring to the inability of the ventricles to fill with blood because the myocardium (heart muscle) stiffens and looses its flexibility. Causes include replacement of the myocardium with scar tissue, abnormal cellular infiltration of the myocardium, or deposition of a substance (e.g., amyloid) in the myocardium." |
| C6279 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the fallopian tube and resembles the endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the uterus.  It usually has a favorable prognosis. |
| C6280 | A rare adenocarcinoma of the fallopian tube composed of malignant glandular epithelium containing clear cells. |
| C6281 | An invasive carcinoma arising from the fallopian tube. It is characterized by the presence of a diffuse malignant infiltrate that is composed of epithelial cells without evidence of glandular or squamous differentiation. |
| C6282 | A rare squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the fallopian tube. |
| C6283 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that occurs during childhood. |
| C6284 | A germinoma that occurs in the brain. |
| C6285 | A germ cell tumor of the central nervous system occurring in adults. |
| C6286 | Benign and malignant astrocytomas that arise from astrocytes in the cerebellum.  More than 80% of childhood cerebellar astrocytomas are pilocytic astrocytomas which have a favorable prognosis. The remainder are composed of diffuse or fibrillary subtypes with malignant astrocytomas occurring only rarely in the cerebellum during childhood. |
| C6287 | A primary endometrial adenocarcinoma composed of neoplastic cells that form complex glandular patterns associated with budding and branching of the neoplastic glands.  The neoplastic glands resemble those of the normal endometrium and may or may not be associated with sheet-like proliferation of malignant cells.  Endometrioid adenocarcinoma is the most commonly seen morphologic variant of endometrial adenocarcinoma. |
| C6290 | An endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium showing squamous differentiation. |
| C6291 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0). T1a: Tumor limited to one ovary; capsule intact, no tumor on ovarian surface.  No malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C6292 | "Stage IB includes: (T1b, N0, M0). T1b: Tumor limited to both ovaries; capsules intact, no tumor on ovarian surface.  No malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C6293 | "Stage IC includes: (T1c, N0, M0).  T1c: Tumor limited to one or both ovaries with any of the following: capsule ruptured, tumor on ovarian surface, malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C6294 | "Stage IIC includes: T2c, N0, M0. T2c: Pelvic extension and/or implants (T2a or T2b) with malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washing. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6295 | "Stage IIB includes: T2b N0, M0. T2b: Extension and/or implants on other pelvic tissues. No malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6296 | "Stage IIA includes: T2a, N0, M0. T2a: Extension and/or implants on uterus and/or tube(s). No malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6297 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0. T3a: Microscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond pelvis (no macroscopic tumor). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6298 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0. T3b: Macroscopic peritoneal metastasis beyond pelvis 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6299 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T3c, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T3c: Peritoneal metastasis beyond pelvis more than 2cm in greatest dimension and/or regional lymph node metastasis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6300 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the uterine corpus. Representative examples of benign neoplasms include leiomyoma, adenomyoma, endometrial stromal nodule, and endometrial polyp. Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include endometrial carcinoma, adenosarcoma, carcinosarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma." |
| C6301 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0.  T1a: Tumor limited to the endometrium or invades less than one-half of the myometrium. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6302 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0.  T1b: Tumor invades one-half or more of the myometrium. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6303 |  |
| C6304 |  |
| C6305 |  |
| C6306 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0.  T3a: Tumor involves serosa and/or adnexa (direct extension or metastasis). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6307 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0.  T3b: Tumor involves vagina (direct extension or metastasis) or parametrial tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6308 | "Stage IIIC includes: IIIC1 (T1-T3, N1, M0); IIIC2 (T1-T3, N2, M0). T1: Tumor confined to corpus uteri.  T2: Tumor invades stromal connective tissue of the cervix but does not extend beyond uterus.  Endocervical glandular involvement only should be considered as Stage I and not as Stage II. T3: Tumor involves serosa and/or adnexa, vagina, or parametrial tissue. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis to pelvic lymph nodes. N2: Regional lymph node metastasis to para-aortic lymph nodes, with or wit... |
| C6309 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Tumor invades bladder mucosa and/or bowel mucosa (bullous edema is not sufficient to classify a tumor as T4).  M0: No distant metastasis.  This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6310 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis (includes metastasis to inguinal lymph nodes, intraperitoneal disease, or lung, liver, or bone.  It excludes metastasis to para-aortic lymph nodes, vagina, pelvic serosa, or adnexa). This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6311 | "A primary malignant neoplasm of the uterine corpus characterized by the presence of an epithelial and a mesenchymal component. This category includes carcinosarcoma, carcinofibroma, and adenosarcoma." |
| C6313 | "Stage IA includes: IA (T1a, N0, M0); IA1 (T1a1, N0, M0); IA2 (T1a2, N0, M0).  T1a: Invasive carcinoma diagnosed only by microscopy. Stromal invasion with a maximum depth of 5.0 mm measured from the base of the epithelium and a horizontal spread of 7.0 mm or less. Vascular space involvement, venous or lymphatic, does not affect classification. T1a1: Measured stromal invasion 3.0 mm or less in depth and 7.0 or less horizontal spread.  T1a2: Measured stromal invasion more than 3.0 mm and not m... |
| C6314 | "Stage IA1 includes: T1a1, N0, M0.  T1a1: Measured stromal invasion 3.0 mm or less in depth and 7.0 mm or less in horizontal spread.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6315 | "Stage IA2 includes: T1a2, N0, M0.  T1a2: Measured stromal invasion more than 3.0 mm and not more than 5.0 mm with a horizontal spread 7.0 mm or less.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6316 | "Stage IB includes: IB (T1b, N0, M0); IB1(T1b1, N0, M0); IB2 (T1b2, N0, M0). T1b: Clinically visible lesion confined to the cervix or microscopic lesion greater than T1a/IA2. T1b1: Clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension. T1b2: Clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6317 | "Stage IB1 includes: T1b1, N0, M0.  T1b1: Clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6318 | "Stage IB2 includes: T1b2, N0, M0.  T1b2: Clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6319 | Tumor without parametrial invasion. |
| C6320 | "Stage IIB includes: T2b, N0, M0.  T2b: Tumor with parametrial invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6321 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3b, Any N, M0); (T1-3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor extends to pelvic wall and/or involves lower third of vagina, and/or causes hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney. T3b: Tumor extends to pelvic wall and/or causes hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6322 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0.  T3a: Tumor involves lower third of vagina, no extension to pelvic wall.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6323 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, Any N, M0). T4: Tumor invades mucosa of bladder or rectum, and/or extends beyond true pelvis (bullous edema is not sufficient to classify a tumor as T4). M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6324 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, MI. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6325 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vagina and is characterized by a papillary growth pattern, acanthotic epithelium with minimal or absent atypia, and pushing borders." |
| C6326 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the vagina.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C6328 | "Stage IA includes: Tia, N0, M0.  T1a: Tumor confined to the vulva or vulva and perineum, 2cm or less in greatest dimension, and with stromal invasion no greater than 1mm.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C6329 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0.  T1ab Tumor confined to the vulva or vulva and perineum, 2cm or less in greatest dimension, and with stromal invasion greater than 1mm.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C6330 | "Stage IVA includes: IVA (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, Any N, M0).  N2: Bilateral regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C63324 | "A toxicity of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation that manifests as fever, rash and pulmonary deterioration which becomes evident at marrow engraftment. It occurs unexpectedly and is occasionally fatal. It can occur after an autogeneic or an allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation." |
| C6332 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the vulva from another anatomic site. |
| C6333 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the vagina from another anatomic site. |
| C6334 | A carcinoma that has spread to the cervix from another anatomic site. |
| C6335 | A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the uterine corpus and is composed of epithelial and mesenchymal elements. Representative examples include adenomyoma and adenofibroma. |
| C6336 | A primary polypoid malignant neoplasm of the uterine corpus characterized by the presence of a sarcomatous mesenchymal component and a benign epithelial component. Patients usually present with abnormal vaginal bleeding. It is considered a low grade malignant neoplasm and may recur following resection. |
| C6337 | "A usually polypoid, benign neoplasm that arises from the endometrial cavity.  It is characterized by the presence of a mesenchymal core component and an epithelial component that forms a lining on the mesenchymal core." |
| C6338 | "A usually polypoid, benign neoplasm that arises from the uterine corpus.  It is characterized by the presence of benign epithelial glands embedded in benign fibromyomatous tissue." |
| C6339 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the wall of the uterine corpus (uterine body).  The most representative examples are leiomyosarcoma and endometrial stromal sarcoma. |
| C6340 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the uterine corpus.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C6341 | "A malignant germ cell neoplasm arising from the testis.  It is composed of primitive epithelial cells arranged in solid, papillary, and glandular configurations.  Most patients present with a testicular mass, which may be associated with pain.  More than half of the patients have metastatic disease at diagnosis.  The form of treatment following radical orchiectomy is stage dependent." |
| C6342 | A papilloma that arises from the squamous epithelium of the cervix. |
| C6343 | A cervical adenocarcinoma with the histologic characteristics of the endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium. It is not associated with human papillomavirus infection. |
| C6344 | Cervical adenocarcinoma not associated with human papillomavirus infection and characterized by the presence of clear and hobnail cells. It is associated with in utero exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES). |
| C6345 | A rare carcinoma that arises from the cervix and is characterized by the lack of specific cellular differentiation. |
| C6346 | "A rare carcinoma that arises from the cervix. It is characterized by the presence of cystic spaces surrounded by palisaded epithelial cells. The cystic spaces contain eosinophilic hyaline material or mucin. Nuclear pleomorphism, necrotic changes, and a high mitotic rate are also present." |
| C6347 | "A malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of more than one histologic component.  Representative examples include mixed choriocarcinoma and embryonal carcinoma, mixed embryonal carcinoma and seminoma, and mixed yolk sac tumor and teratoma." |
| C6348 | A malignant mixed germ cell tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of choriocarcinoma and embryonal carcinoma morphologic components. |
| C6349 | A malignant mixed germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It is characterized by the presence of a teratomatous component and malignant syncytiotrophoblastic cells. |
| C6350 | A malignant mixed germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of embryonal carcinoma and a seminomatous component. |
| C6351 | "A malignant mixed germ cell tumor arising from the testis, characterized by the presence of an embryonal carcinomatous component and a teratomatous component." |
| C6352 | "A malignant mixed germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of embryonal carcinoma, a teratomatous component, and a seminomatous component." |
| C63532 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the kidney with no evidence of involvement of other sites at the time of diagnosis. |
| C63533 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that affects the kidney. |
| C6353 | An immature teratoma that arises from the testis. |
| C6355 | "A teratoma that arises from the testis and is composed of well differentiated, adult-type tissues." |
| C6356 | "A sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of cells that resemble the successive stages of development of Leydig cells.  It usually presents as a painless testicular mass.  Gynecomastia is present in approximately thirty percent of the cases.  Libido may be decreased.  In children, precocious puberty may be present.  A minority of cases exhibit malignant characteristics." |
| C6357 | "A rare sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the testis.  It is characterized by the presence of granulosa-like cells and Call-Exner bodies.  There are two variants described, the adult and the juvenile." |
| C6358 | "A benign or malignant tumor that arises from the testis.  It is composed of granulosa cells, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, and fibroblasts. Each of these cell types may constitute the only cellular component that is present in the tumor or it may be mixed with other cell types in various combinations. The prognosis can not always be predicted on histologic grounds alone. Approximately, ten percent of these tumors may metastasize. Representative examples include granulosa cell tumor, Leydig c... |
| C6359 | A sarcoma that arises from the testis.  The majority of cases arise from teratomas or spermatocytic seminomas. |
| C6360 | "A rare, usually well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the testis. It usually affects adults, and a minority of patients have carcinoid syndrome. It may occur in isolation or, less frequently, be associated with testicular teratoma. The majority of cases are not associated with isochromosome 12p or germ cell neoplasia in situ. The clinical course is usually benign." |
| C6361 | "Stage IA includes: pT1, N0, M0, S0.  pT1: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis without vascular/lymphatic invasion; tumor may invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C63622 | "A usually aggressive carcinoma composed of malignant cells that do not display evidence of glandular or squamous differentiation, and giant cells resembling osteoclasts." |
| C6362 | "Stage IB includes: (pT2, N0, M0, S0); (pT3, N0, M0, S0); (pT4, N0, M0, S0).  pT2: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis with vascular/lymphatic invasion, or tumor extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis.  pT3: Tumor invades the spermatic cord with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.  pT4: Tumor invades the scrotum with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  S0: Marker study... |
| C6363 | "Stage IS includes: Any pT/TX, N0, M0, S1-3.  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  S1: LDH less than 1.5 x N (N indicates the upper limit of normal for the LDH assay) and hCG less than 5,000 and AFP less than 1,000.  S2: LDH 1.5-10 x N or hCG 5,000-50,000 or AFP 1,000-10,000.  S3: LDH more than 10 x N or hCG more than 50,000 or AFP more than 10,000. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6364 | "Stage IIA includes: (Any pT/TX, N1, M0, S0); (Any pT/TX, N1, M0, S1).  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N1: Metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or less in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  M0: No distant metastasis. S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. S1: LDH less than 1.5 x N (N indicates the upper limit of normal for the LDH assay) and hCG less than 5,000 and AFP less than 1,000. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6365 | "Stage IIB includes: (Any pT/TX, N2, M0, S0); (Any pT/TX, N2, M0, S1).  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N2: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  M0: No distant metastasis. S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. S1: LDH less than 1.5 x N (N indicates the upper limit of normal for the LDH assay) and hCG less than 5,000 a... |
| C6366 | "Stage IIC includes: (Any pT/TX, N3, M0, S0); (Any pT/TX, N3, M0, S1).  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N3: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. S1: LDH less than 1.5 x N (N indicates the upper limit of normal for the LDH assay) and hCG less than 5,000 and AFP less than 1,000.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C6367 | "Stage IIIC includes: (Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, S3); (Any pT/TX, Any N, M1a, S3); (Any pT/TX, Any N, M1b, Any S).  N1: Metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or less in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis with a lymph node mass mor... |
| C6368 | "Stage IIIB includes: (Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, S2); (Any pT/TX, Any N, M1a, S2).  N1: Metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or less in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 5 cm in greatest dimensio... |
| C6369 | "Stage IIIA includes: (Any pT/TX, Any N, M1a, S0); (Any pT/TX, Any N, M1a, S1).  M1a: Non-regional nodal or pulmonary metastasis. S0: Marker study levels within normal limits. S1: LDH less than 1.5 x N (N indicates the upper limit of normal for the LDH assay) and hCG less than 5,000 and AFP less than 1,000.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C63707 | Necrosis of bone following exposure to a source of radiation. |
| C63709 | A disorder that affects the masticatory muscles and temporomandibular joint. |
| C63711 | An interruption or alteration in the sensory activity or functions of the nervous system. |
| C6371 | "A slow-growing, locally destructive, cauliflower-like condyloma of the anogenital region. It most often appears on the penis." |
| C6372 | "A rare benign polypoid skeletal muscle neoplasm arising from the vagina.  It is characterized by the presence of round striated muscle cells and strap-like skeletal muscle cells, and vascular space formations within a fibrous and myxoid stroma." |
| C6373 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the vagina. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C63743 | "An inflammatory process of the gingival tissues and/or periodontal membrane of the teeth, resulting in an abnormally deep gingival sulcus, possibly producing periodontal pockets and loss of alveolar bone support." |
| C6374 | A benign papillary neoplasm that arises from the vagina and is characterized by the presence of a fibrovascular stalk lined by normal squamous epithelium.  There is no evidence of atypia or relation to human papillomavirus. |
| C6375 | "A benign squamous neoplasm that arises from the vulva. It is characterized by the proliferation of the basal cells in the squamous epithelium, acanthosis, hyperkeratosis, and cysts formation." |
| C6376 | A benign papillary neoplasm that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the presence of a delicate fibrovascular stalk lined by squamous epithelium. There is no evidence of epithelial atypia. |
| C6377 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the penis. |
| C6378 | A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the testis. |
| C63796 | "A benign microacinar proliferation occurring exclusively in the verumontanum and adjacent posterior urethra where the ejaculatory ducts and utricle empty into the urethra. Crystalloids and intraluminal mucin are usually absent, but; intraluminal corpora amylacea are often present. The lining epithelium typically consists of bland cuboidal to columnar luminal cells with underlying basal cells." |
| C6379 | A rare yolk sac tumor that arises from the vagina. |
| C6380 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the vulva. Representative examples include Bartholin gland adenocarcinoma, eccrine adenocarcinoma, apocrine adenocarcinoma, and sebaceous carcinoma." |
| C6381 | "A slow growing, locally infiltrating carcinoma that arises from the vulva. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells that resemble the basal cells that are present in the epidermis." |
| C6382 | "A benign, usually asymptomatic small mesothelial tumor that arises from the epididymis." |
| C6383 | "A highly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the vulva. It is characterized by the presence of a warty and hyperkeratinized surface, malignant cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm, minimal cytologic atypia, and absence or rarity of mitotic figures. The tumor infiltrates the underlying stroma with a pushing border." |
| C6384 | A lipoma that arises from the paratesticular region. It is the most common paratesticular mesenchymal neoplasm. |
| C6385 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the cervix from another anatomic site. |
| C6386 | A basal cell carcinoma that arises from the scrotum. |
| C6387 | A hemangioma arising from the skin of the scrotum. |
| C6389 | A carcinoma that arises from the scrotum. |
| C6390 |  |
| C6391 | Lesion is confined to the uterus. |
| C63924 | An area of necrotic bone in the mandible or maxilla. |
| C63929 | A benign microacinar proliferation occurring exclusively in the area of the utricle. |
| C6392 |  |
| C6393 | An invasive ductal breast carcinoma associated with an invasive lobular carcinomatous component. |
| C6394 |  |
| C6395 |  |
| C6396 | "Lesion invades outside of the uterus, but it is limited to the genital structures." |
| C6397 |  |
| C6398 |  |
| C6399 |  |
| C6400 | "Lesion affects the lungs, with or without known genital structures invasion." |
| C6401 |  |
| C6402 |  |
| C6403 |  |
| C6404 | Gestational trophoblastic tumor in all other metastatic sites. |
| C6405 |  |
| C6406 |  |
| C6407 |  |
| C6408 | An extra-adrenal paraganglioma arising from the orbit.  Patients may present with visual disturbances or proptosis. |
| C6409 | An extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia adjacent to the larynx.  Patients may present with hoarseness and dysphagia. |
| C6410 | An extra-adrenal paraganglioma arising from paraganglia located in the heart. |
| C6411 | "An intrathoracic sympathetic paraganglioma arising from paravertebral paraganglia.  In functional tumors, the hypersecretion of catecholamines results in hypertension." |
| C6413 | An intrathoracic paravertebral paraganglioma that metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C6414 | An extra-adrenal sympathetic paraganglioma arising from the urinary bladder.  Clinical signs include hypertension and hematuria. |
| C6416 | An extra-adrenal sympathetic paraganglioma of the bladder that metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C6417 | The reemergence of adrenal cortical carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C6419 | A liposarcoma that arises from the ovary. |
| C6421 | "A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum." |
| C6422 | "A neuroendocrine tumor grade 1 that arises from the jejunum, ileum, proximal colon, or appendix." |
| C6423 | "A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the sigmoid colon, descending colon, or rectum." |
| C6424 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises in a Meckel diverticulum. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C6425 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the duodenum. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C6426 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the transverse colon. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C6427 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the ascending colon. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C6428 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the descending colon. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C6429 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the jejunum. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C6430 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the thymus and is often associated with Cushing syndrome. Two morphologic subtypes are recognized: grade 1 (G1-typical carcinoid tumor) and grade 2 (G2-atypical carcinoid tumor).  Grade 2 neuroendocrine tumors have a more aggressive clinical course. |
| C6432 | "An autosomal dominant inherited neoplastic syndrome characterized by the development of various endocrine neoplasms and abnormalities in various anatomic sites. There are four types recognized: type 1 (MEN 1), caused by inactivation of the tumor suppressor gene MEN-1, type 2A (MEN 2A), caused by mutation of the RET gene, type 2B (MEN 2B) also caused by mutation of the RET gene, and type 4 (MEN 4) caused by mutation of the CDKN1B gene. Patients with MEN 1 may develop hyperparathyroidism and ... |
| C6433 | A benign nodular lesion protruding above the surface of the endometrium. It is composed of a fibrous stroma that contains thick-walled blood vessels and dilated endometrial glands. Polypectomy is the treatment of choice. Only few cases with recurrence have been reported. |
| C6434 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the Bartholin gland. Representative examples include adenoma, adenomyoma, adenocarcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma." |
| C6437 | "A germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum.  Representative examples include seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, and mixed germ cell tumor." |
| C6438 | "An extragonadal germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum.  It is characterized by the presence of somatic tissues derived from two or three of the germ layers (ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm)." |
| C6439 | "An extragonadal nongerminomatous malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum.  This category includes embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, and mixed germ cell tumors." |
| C6440 | "An extragonadal malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum and is composed of syncytiotrophoblasts, cytotrophoblasts, and intermediate trophoblasts.  The prognosis is usually poor." |
| C6441 | "An extragonadal malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum and is composed of primitive large cells with clear or granular cytoplasm forming solid, glandular, or papillary patterns.  It usually affects young males.  It manifests with respiratory distress, thoracic or shoulder pain, fever, cough, superior vena cava syndrome, or hoarseness." |
| C6442 | An extragonadal non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum and contains teratoma and embryonal carcinoma components. |
| C6443 | "An extragonadal non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum. It is characterized by the presence of small pale cells with small amount of cytoplasm and round to oval nuclei with small nucleoli forming a variety of patterns, including microcystic, macrocystic, pseudopapillary, myxomatous, hepatoid, polyvesicular vitelline, and solid.  It manifests with respiratory distress, thoracic pain, fever, and superior vena cava syndrome." |
| C6444 | "An extragonadal nongerminomatous malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum and is composed of two or more germ cell tumor types.  It manifests with respiratory distress, thoracic pain, cough, superior vena cava syndrome, or hoarseness." |
| C6445 | A germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum. There is no evidence of atypia or metastases. |
| C6446 | "An extragonadal malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum.  This category includes seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, mixed germ cell tumors, and immature malignant teratoma." |
| C6447 |  |
| C6448 | A benign or malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the stomach.  Representative examples include teratoma and choriocarcinoma. |
| C6449 | A germ cell tumor without evidence of atypia and metastatic potential. |
| C6450 | "An epithelial neoplasm that affects the thymus gland. This category includes thymomas, carcinomas, and neuroendocrine neoplasms." |
| C6451 | A lymphoma that arises from the thymus.  Representative examples include mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma. |
| C6452 | A well-circumscribed tumor of the thymus composed of islands of normal thymic parenchyma and mature adipose tissue.  It is not clear if thymolipoma is a neoplastic or non-neoplastic lesion. |
| C6453 | A thymoma of any morphologic type that extends beyond the capsule and infiltrates the surrounding tissues. |
| C6454 | A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle and/or oval neoplastic epithelial cells. Lymphocytic infiltration is minimal or absent. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis or pure red cell aplasia. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. Approximately 20% of the cases occur as stage II or stage III tumors. Type A thymoma generally behaves as a benign tumor and the overall survival is reported to be 100% at 5 and 10 years. |
| C6455 | A rare primary thymus carcinoma characterized by the presence of keratinizing or non-keratinizing malignant squamous cells. Approximately 10-20% of cases occur in combination with thymoma. The prognosis depends on the tumor stage and the degree of cellular differentiation. |
| C6456 | A rare primary thymus carcinoma characterized by the presence of tumor cell lobules with peripheral palisading and a basophilic staining pattern. More than half of reported cases were associated with the presence of a multilocular thymic cyst. Metastases to lung and liver have been reported in approximately 30% of cases. |
| C6457 | "A rare primary thymus carcinoma characterized by the presence of squamous cells, intermediate-type cells, and mucus-producing cells. The prognosis depends on histologic grade and stage." |
| C6458 | A rare carcinoma that arises from the thymus and is characterized by the presence of glandular and squamous carcinomatous components. |
| C6459 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the thymus. |
| C6460 | A carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the thymus. It is characterized by the presence of malignant small cells and more than 10 mitoses per 2 mm2. The prognosis is poor. |
| C6461 | "A carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the thymus. It is characterized by the presence of malignant large cells, more than 10 mitoses per 2 mm2, and necrosis. It usually has an aggressive clinical course." |
| C6462 | "A rare, usually aggressive primary thymus carcinoma characterized by the presence of carcinoma cells with clear cytoplasm." |
| C6463 | "A rare, usually aggressive primary thymus carcinoma characterized by the presence of tumor cells morphologically resembling soft tissue sarcoma." |
| C6464 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX.  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well differentiated-low grade.  G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6465 | "Stage IB includes: (T2, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); (T3, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX).  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated-low grade.  G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6466 | "Stage IIB includes: T2, N0, M0, G3, G4.  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6467 | "Stage IIA includes: T1, N0, M0, G3, G4.  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6468 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0, G3, G4. T3: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6469 | A sarcomatous transformation of pre-existing Paget disease of the bone. Osteosarcomas arising from Paget disease of the bone are high grade lesions and usually have a poor prognosis. |
| C6470 | A primary bone osteosarcoma affecting multiple bone sites. |
| C6471 | "A bone osteosarcoma affecting multiple skeletal sites, with multifocal lesions discovered within 6 months of the appearance of the initial tumor.  It has a poor prognosis." |
| C6472 | "A bone osteosarcoma affecting multiple skeletal sites, with multifocal lesions discovered between 6 and 24 months after the appearance of the initial tumor.  Patients with asynchronous tumors have a better prognosis than those with synchronous osteosarcomas." |
| C6474 | A low grade osteosarcoma arising from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and is characterized by the presence of fibroblastic stroma and osteoid production. Pain and swelling are the usual sign and symptom. The prognosis is more favorable than conventional osteosarcoma. |
| C6475 | "A rare, usually low grade chondrosarcoma characterized by the presence of tumor cells with clear cytoplasm. It usually arises in the epiphyseal ends of long bones." |
| C6476 | "An aggressive morphologic variant of chondrosarcoma. It is composed of a low grade chondrosarcoma and a high grade non-cartilagenous sarcomatous component. Due to the aggressive nature of the disease, its prognosis is poor." |
| C6477 | A hemangioma arising in the bone. |
| C6478 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant vascular neoplasm that arises from the bone." |
| C6479 | A high-grade malignant vascular neoplasm that arises from the bone.  It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with endothelial differentiation. |
| C6480 | A benign or malignant glomus tumor arising from the bone. |
| C6481 | "A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm that arises from soft tissue or viscera, in children and young adults.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes, and plasma cells." |
| C6483 | "A reactive, painless lesion which is characterized by a pseudosarcomatous proliferation of fibroblasts and myofibroblasts usually in the deep subcutaneous tissue. It occurs mainly around the limb girdles, sacral region, and greater trochanter.  It affects mainly elderly patients and sometimes is associated with physical immobility. Local excision is usually curative." |
| C6484 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the dermis and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle-shaped fibroblasts. |
| C6485 | "A small, slow growing, benign neoplasm arising from the tendon sheaths. The tumor is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation." |
| C6486 | A rare non-encapsulated and poorly circumscribed tumor that usually arises from the posterior neck and is characterized by the presence of thick collagen fibers. It is seen more frequently in men. It may recur but does not metastasize. |
| C6488 | "A benign well-circumscribed lesion arising from the soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of fibroblasts, lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates, collagenous stroma formation, psammoma bodies, and dystrophic calcifications." |
| C6489 | "An insidious poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the soft tissues outside the abdomen. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, vascular collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern." |
| C6490 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm composed of fibrohistiocytic cells, spindle fibroblastic cells, and histiocytes, in a storiform pattern. There is no evidence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, invasive features, or metastases." |
| C6491 | A fibrohistiocytic neoplasm usually affecting younger patients.  It is characterized by an increased risk of local recurrence and a low risk of metastasis. |
| C6492 | "A rare, well-circumscribed, pseudo-encapsulated benign fibrous histiocytoma that arises entirely within the subcutaneous tissue or deep soft tissue.  It usually affects the extremities or the head and neck region.  It recurs locally in a minority of cases." |
| C6493 | "An intermediate fibrohistiocytic neoplasm of the skin that usually affects children and young adults. It is a multinodular, poorly circumscribed tumor characterized by the presence of multinucleated giant cells, mononuclear histiocyte-like cells, and spindle fibroblast-like cells arranged in a plexiform pattern." |
| C6494 | "A low malignant potential soft tissue neoplasm of uncertain differentiation.  It typically affects young patients, presenting as a slowly growing nodular or cystic tumor mass, most often in the subcutaneous tissues of the extremities.  Occasionally, patients have systemic symptoms (anemia, fever, and weight loss).  This tumor has a relatively good prognosis.  A minority of patients develop local recurrences.  Metastases are rare." |
| C6496 | "A malignant fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped cells, cellular pleomorphism, thin-walled blood vessels, fibrous septa, and myxoid stroma." |
| C6497 | An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma characterized by the presence of numerous inflammatory cells. |
| C6498 | "A benign well-circumscribed tumor, composed of mature adipocytes, that arises within deep soft tissues." |
| C6499 | "A benign tumor, composed of mature adipocytes, that arises within the tendon sheath." |
| C6500 | A lipoma that arises from the lumbosacral region of the spine. |
| C6503 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm characterized by nests and cord of abundant univacuolated and multivacuolated lipoblasts and mature adipocytes in a prominent myxoid to hyalinized chondroid matrix admix. It predominantly affects females. |
| C6504 | "A neoplastic process characterized by a diffuse poorly circumscribed overgrowth of adipose tissue.  It has been associated with several genetic disorders and different clinical conditions such as liver disease, excessive alcohol intake, adrenocortical steroid therapy, and antiretroviral therapy." |
| C6505 | "A locally aggressive mesenchymal neoplasm composed either entirely or partly of an adipocytic proliferation showing at least focal nuclear atypia in both adipocytes and stromal cells. ""Atypical lipomatous tumor"" and ""well-differentiated liposarcoma"" are synonyms describing lesions that are morphologically and genetically identical. Amplification of MDM2 and/or CDK4 is almost always present. (WHO 2020)" |
| C6507 | An atypical lipomatous tumor/well differentiated liposarcoma characterized by the presence of bizarre hyperchromatic stromal cells and rare multivacuolated lipoblasts within a fibrous stroma. |
| C6508 | A rare morphologic variant of atypical lipomatous tumor/well differentiated liposarcoma occurring most often in the retroperitoneum. It is characterized by the presence of a predominant chronic inflammatory infiltrate. |
| C6509 | A liposarcoma characterized by the presence of a fibroblastic component. |
| C6510 | A benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from smooth muscle tissue. |
| C6511 | A malignant neoplasm arising from smooth muscle. |
| C6512 | "A rare benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from deep tissue. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C6514 | A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle. |
| C65151 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the absence of neoplastic small epithelial cells. A representative example is the lung non-small cell carcinoma. |
| C65153 | A malignant neoplasm in which the examined tissue can not be determined with certainty if it represents the primary site of tumor growth or tumor spread from another anatomic site. |
| C65154 | A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of small atypical cells. |
| C65156 | A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical cells with clear cytoplasm. |
| C65157 | "A neoplasm which, on morphologic grounds, can not be classified with certainty as benign or malignant." |
| C65159 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of atypical cells with glassy cytoplasm. |
| C6515 | A benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle tissue. |
| C65160 | "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of giant, pleomorphic cells and spindle cells." |
| C65161 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of atypical polygonal cells with a large amount of eosinophilic cytoplasm. A representative example is the fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma. |
| C65163 | "An epithelial neoplasm with a papillary growth pattern in which the malignant cells are confined to the epithelium, without evidence of invasion." |
| C65164 | "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary, exophytic growth pattern, hyperkeratosis, and absence of invasion of adjacent tissues." |
| C65165 | "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by an endophytic growth, papillary pattern, and proliferation of neoplastic squamous cells without morphologic evidence of malignancy." |
| C6516 | A malignant neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle. |
| C65173 | A squamous cell carcinoma composed of large atypical cells without morphologic evidence of keratin production. |
| C65175 | A squamous cell carcinoma composed of small atypical cells without morphologic evidence of keratin production. |
| C65176 | "A malignant epithelial neoplasm involving all the layers of the squamous epithelium, but it is not certain if it is confined to the squamous epithelium or it has invaded the basement membrane and the underlying stroma." |
| C65178 | A squamous cell carcinoma with minimal stromal invasion. |
| C65179 | A keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of horn pearls. Representative examples include squamous cell carcinomas of the face presenting as a cutaneous horn. |
| C6517 | A rare benign skeletal muscle neoplasm arising from the female genital tract. It is characterized by the presence of small nucleated rhabdomyoblasts within a fibrous and myxoid stroma. |
| C65180 | A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with clear cytoplasm. |
| C65181 | A urothelial carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern and lack of stromal invasion. |
| C65184 | "A benign endocrine neoplasm arising from the pancreas. It is separated from the normal pancreatic tissues by a thin collagenous capsule. It may secrete a hormone (e.g. insulin, gastrin) or it may be non-functional." |
| C65186 | An insulin-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the beta cells of the pancreas.  Patients exhibit symptoms related to hypoglycemia due to inappropriate secretion of insulin. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C65187 | "A glucagon-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the alpha cells of the pancreas.  It may be associated with necrolytic erythema migrans, diarrhea, diabetes, glossitis, weight loss, malabsorption, and anemia.  It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites." |
| C65188 | A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor.  It is characterized by inappropriate secretion of gastrin and associated with Zollinger Ellison syndrome.  It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C65189 | "An aggressive neuroendocrine tumor located in the pancreas or small intestine. It is composed of cells containing vasoactive intestinal peptide.  It is associated with watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and hypochlorhydria or achlorhydria. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites." |
| C6518 | A morphologic variant of fetal rhabdomyoma characterized by the presence of spindle cell myoblasts and strap-like skeletal muscle cells. |
| C65190 | A neuroendocrine tumor arising from delta cells which produce somatostatin. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C65191 | A glucagon-producing malignant endocrine neoplasm. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C65192 | An infiltrating adenocarcinoma in which the malignant cells form tubular structures. Representative examples include the tubular breast carcinoma and the gastric tubular adenocarcinoma. |
| C65193 | An adenoma of the gastrointestinal tract mucosa which grossly and morphologically does not appear as an elevated or polypoid lesion. |
| C65194 | "An adenocarcinoma of the stomach arising from the parietal cells. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with eosinophilic, finely granular cytoplasm." |
| C65195 | An undifferentiated malignant epithelial neoplasm which tends to infiltrate the surrounding tissues and spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C65196 | A carcinoid tumor that shows atypical characteristics and has borderline malignant potential. |
| C65197 | A lung adenocarcinoma consisting of a bronchioloalveolar component and an invasive adenocarcinomatous component. |
| C65198 | Multifocal neoplastic proliferations of the glandular epithelium displaying a papillary pattern. |
| C6519 | An uncommon variant of rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of whorls of spindle cells forming a storiform pattern. In children it usually arises in the paratesticular region. In adults it usually arises from the deep soft tissues in the head and neck. |
| C65200 | A follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland showing capsular invasion only. |
| C65203 | A benign cystic glandular epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic clear or hobnail cells which form papillary structures. There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C65204 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by cystic changes, papillary growth pattern, and the presence of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin." |
| C6522 | "A non-metastasizing sex cord-stromal tumor that arises from the testis. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming tubules. Leydig cells are rare or absent." |
| C6523 | "A Sertoli cell tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by nuclear pleomorphism, increased mitotic activity and necrotic changes.  Metastases may be present at diagnosis." |
| C6524 | A benign neoplasm arising from the lymphatic vessels. |
| C6525 | A rare hemangioma arising from synovium lining surfaces. |
| C6526 | A hemangioma arising from perineural tissues. |
| C6528 | A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the perivascular cells of the connective and soft tissues.  It is characterized by the presence of pericytes that grow in a circumferential pattern around vessels. |
| C6529 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the perivascular cells of connective and soft tissue.  It is characterized by the presence of pericytes that grow in a circumferential pattern around vessels. There is no evidence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, invasive features, or metastases." |
| C6530 | "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the perivascular cells of the connective and soft tissues.  It is characterized by the presence of pericytes that grow in a circumferential pattern around vessels, and cytologic atypia." |
| C6531 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the synovium. |
| C6532 | "A well-circumscribed, lobulated tumor, completely or partially covered by a fibrous capsule. It usually arises in the fingers.  It is characterized by the presence of mononuclear cells, multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, hemosiderin-laden macrophages, foam cells, and an inflammatory infiltrate. The tumor is slow-growing, usually developing over several years. Clinical presentation includes painless edema of the affected site." |
| C6533 |  |
| C6534 | A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of an epithelial or a spindle cell component only. |
| C6535 | "An uncommon malignant tumor arising from the tendon sheath. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of a cellular infiltrate reminiscent of a giant cell tumor with prominent malignant characteristics. Recurrent giant cell tumors with a sarcomatous dedifferentiation are included in this category as well." |
| C6536 | "A mesothelial neoplasm that arises from the peritoneum and usually affects young to middle aged females. Grossly, it presents as a large multiloculated tumor mass, usually in the pelvic peritoneum. Histologically it is characterized by the presence of multiple cysts that are lined by one or more layers of mesothelial cells that do not show atypia. Patients usually present with abdominal or pelvic mass and pain. The clinical course is indolent. The tumor may reoccur, but transformation to ma... |
| C6537 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1a, N0, M0, G1, GX); (T1b, N0, M0, G1, GX); IB (T2a, N0, M0, G1, GX); (T2b, N0, M0, G1, GX).  T1a: Superficial tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1b: Deep tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2a: Superficial tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T2b: Deep tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Grade 1.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6538 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1a, N0, M0, G2, G3); (T1b, N0, M0, G2, G3); IIB (T2a, N0, M0, G2); (T2b, N0, M0, G2).  T1a: Superficial tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1b: Deep tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2a: Superficial tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T2b: Deep tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G2: Grade 2.  G3: Grade 3. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6539 | A malignant testicular mixed germ cell neoplasm that occurs during childhood.  It is characterized by the presence of embryonal carcinoma and teratoma components. |
| C6540 | A teratoma that arises from the testis during childhood. |
| C6541 | A malignant germ cell tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C6542 | A malignant mixed germ cell neoplasm that arises from the testis during childhood. |
| C6543 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the testis during childhood. |
| C6544 | A choriocarcinoma that arises from the testis during childhood. |
| C6545 | An embryonal carcinoma that arises from the testis during childhood. |
| C6546 | An embryonal carcinoma that arises from the ovary and occurs in children. |
| C6547 | An immature teratoma that arises from the ovary and occurs in children. |
| C6548 | A mature teratoma that arises from the ovary and occurs in children. |
| C6549 | A non-gestational choriocarcinoma that arises from the ovary and occurs in children. |
| C6550 | A dysgerminoma that arises from the ovary and occurs in children. |
| C6551 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the ovary and occurs in children. |
| C6552 | A germ cell tumor that arises from the testis during childhood. |
| C6553 | A germ cell tumor that occurs during childhood and is characterized by the absence of atypia and metastatic potential. |
| C6554 | A teratoma that arises from the ovary and occurs in children. |
| C6555 | A hemangioma arising from the deep soft tissues. |
| C6556 | "A schwannoma that is characterized by degenerative changes such as hyalinization, hemorrhage, calcification and cystic change." |
| C6557 | Rare genetic disorder caused by mutations in the SMARCB1 and LZTR1 genes. It is characterized by the presence of multiple Schwannomas. |
| C6558 | A rare neurofibroma with epithelioid morphology. |
| C6559 | "A neuroma that develops on the tongue, lips, and gastrointestinal tract. Mucosal neuromas are associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B (MEN2B)." |
| C6560 | A variant of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor characterized by the presence of glandular epithelium. |
| C6561 | A rare variant of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor composed predominantly or exclusively of epithelioid cells. |
| C6563 | A kidney neoplasm that occurs in children. |
| C6565 | An angiomyolipoma that arises from the kidney and occurs during childhood. |
| C6566 | A cystic neoplasm which arises from the kidney and occurs in children.  It includes the cystic partially differentiated nephroblastoma and cases in which nephroblastomatous elements are not present. |
| C6568 | A renal cell carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C6569 | A low grade childhood congenital malignant neoplasm arising from the kidney. It is characterized by the presence of fibroblastic cells. The majority of cases occur in the first year of life. Complete excision is usually associated with an excellent prognosis. |
| C6570 | "A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with cartilaginous or osseous differentiation arising from the soft tissues exclusively.  Representative examples include chondroma, osteoma, and osteosarcoma." |
| C6571 | A benign mesenchymal neoplasm with cartilaginous or osseous differentiation arising from the soft tissues exclusively.  Representative examples include chondroma and osteoma. |
| C6572 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with cartilaginous or osseous differentiation arising from the soft tissues exclusively. Extraskeletal osteosarcoma is a representative example. |
| C6573 | "A self-limited benign neoplasm composed of spindle cells and osteoblasts. It usually occurs in the subcutaneous tissue of the proximal phalanx. Less frequently, it involves the toe. It presents with swelling and pain of the affected area. The prognosis is excellent. However, incomplete excision may lead to the re-growth of the lesion." |
| C6575 | A rare benign overgrowth of bone arising from extraskeletal sites. |
| C6577 | "A benign soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle and stellate cells, lobulated growth pattern, and myxoid stroma formation." |
| C6578 | A well-circumscribed multilobular lesion of the skin characterized by the presence of a prominent vascular network in a myxoid stroma with spindle and stellate cells. |
| C6579 | "A benign, painless soft tissue tumor that arises in a muscle, usually in a large muscle of the thigh, buttocks, shoulder, or upper arm.  It is associated with point mutations of the GNAS gene.  Grossly it is characterized by a gelatinous and lobulated cut surface.  Morphologically it is composed of uniform spindled and stellate-shaped cells without atypia.  The cells are separated by myxoid stroma.  No recurrences have been reported." |
| C6580 | "A rare myxoma that usually arises in an area close to a large joint.  Morphologically it resembles a cellular myxoma.  In contrast to an intramuscular myxoma, it is not associated with mutations of the GNAS gene." |
| C6581 | "A rare, usually benign myoepithelial tumor characterized by the presence of epithelioid, often vacuolated neoplastic cells. Most patients present with painless swelling in the subcutaneous or subfascial soft tissues of the extremities." |
| C6582 | A rare soft tissue tumor of uncertain lineage characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle to round cells forming cords in a fibromyxoid stroma.  The lesions are associated with the formation of metaplastic bone.  Most patients present with painless subcutaneous masses.  Recurrences have been reported in a minority of patients. |
| C6583 | A rare soft tissue tumor of uncertain lineage characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle to round cells forming cords in a fibromyxoid stroma.  Metaplastic bone formation is not present. |
| C6584 | A myofibroblastoma arising from the inguinal lymph nodes.  It is characterized by the presence of nuclear palisading. |
| C6585 | An osteosarcoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C6586 | "A rhabdoid tumor which arises in the soft tissues.  It occurs in infants and children and may be associated with loss of chromosome 22.  It is characterized by the presence of cells with a large eccentric nucleus, prominent nucleolus, and abundant cytoplasm." |
| C6587 | A benign soft tissue neoplasm in which the line of differentiation is uncertain. |
| C6588 | A malignant soft tissue neoplasm in which the line of differentiation is uncertain. |
| C6589 | "A low grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the surface of the bone.  It occurs in childhood and usually affects the distal posterior femur, the proximal tibia, and proximal humerus.  Painless swelling is the usual clinical sign. The prognosis is usually excellent." |
| C6590 | "A high grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm that produces osteoid and occurs in childhood.  It arises from the medullary portion of the bone.  It affects the long bones, and most commonly, the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus.  Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most common clinical presentation.  It usually has an aggressive growth and may metastasize through the hematogenous route.  The lung is the most frequent site of metastasis." |
| C6591 | A neuroblastoma arising from the peripheral nervous system. |
| C6592 | A condition characterized by subcutaneous fat necrosis with heterotopic calcification. It often occurs as a result of injury to the area. |
| C6593 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the mediastinum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include lipoma, leiomyoma, and rhabdomyoma." |
| C6594 | A ganglioneuroblastoma arising from the peripheral nervous system. |
| C6595 | A lymphangioma arising from the mediastinum. |
| C6596 | "A benign neoplasm composed of hyaline cartilage arising from the mediastinum.  It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, and calcification." |
| C6597 | A benign hemangiopericytoma arising from the mediastinum. |
| C6598 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the mediastium. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C6599 | "A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the anterior, middle or posterior mediastinum." |
| C6600 | A rare benign skeletal muscle neoplasm arising from the mediastinum. |
| C6601 | "An exceptionally rare, generally benign, granular cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum.  All the reported cases were located in the posterior mediastinum." |
| C6602 | "A mesenchymal bone-forming neoplasm characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. This category includes osteoma, osteoid osteoma, and osteoblastoma." |
| C6603 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant bone-forming neoplasm. Representative examples include osteoma, osteoblastoma, and osteosarcoma." |
| C6604 | A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the bone. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a herringbone growth pattern. |
| C6605 | A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the soft tissue.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a herringbone growth pattern. |
| C6606 | "A rare sarcoma that arises from the mediastinum.  Examples include liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and angiosarcoma." |
| C6607 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX.  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well differentiated-low grade.  G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6608 | A malignant hemangiopericytoma arising in the mediastinum. |
| C6609 | "Stage IB includes: (T2, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); (T3, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX).  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated-low grade.  G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6610 | "Stage IIA includes: T1, N0, M0, G3, G4.  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6611 | "Stage IIB includes: T2, N0, M0, G3, G4.  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6612 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0, G3, G4. T3: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6613 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the mediastinum. |
| C6614 | A liposarcoma that arises from the mediastinum. |
| C6615 | An osteosarcoma arising from the mediastinum. |
| C6617 | A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the mediastinum. |
| C6618 | A synovial sarcoma arising from the mediastinum. |
| C6619 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the mediastinum.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C6620 | "A rare non-Hodgkin lymphoma or, even more rarely, Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the bone, without lymph node or other extranodal involvement. The femur, spine, and pelvic bones are the most commonly affected sites. The majority of patients present with bone pain in the affected area. A single bone or multiple skeletal sites may be involved. The prognosis is related to the cell type and the stage of the disease." |
| C6621 | An Ewing sarcoma of the bone which has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C6622 | The reemergence of Ewing sarcoma of the bone after a period of remission. |
| C6623 | Ewing sarcoma that is confined to a specific area of the bone and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C6624 | "A neurogenic tumor that arises from the mediastinum.  Neural tumors are the most common tumors that arise from the posterior mediastinum.  Representative examples include Schwannoma, neurofibroma, and neuroblastoma." |
| C6626 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that arises from the mediastinum.  It may be associated with neurofibromatosis.  It often spreads to the lungs or pleura. |
| C6627 | A ganglioneuroblastoma arising from the mediastinum. |
| C6628 | A neuroblastoma arising from the mediastinum. |
| C6630 | A rare variant of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that arises from the mediastinum.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells that contain melanin. |
| C6631 | A neurofibroma that arises from the posterior mediastinum.  Excision is usually curative. |
| C6632 | A ganglioneuroma arising from the mediastinum. |
| C6633 | A lymphoma that arises from the mediastinum.  Representative examples include mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma. |
| C6634 | "A Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the mediastinum.  It usually involves mediastinal lymph nodes and/or the thymus.  Signs and symptoms include fever, weight loss, fatigue, and night sweats." |
| C6635 | A melanotic schwannoma that affects the mediastinum. |
| C6636 | A schwannoma that arises from the posterior mediastinum.  It is characterized by the presence of psammoma bodies. |
| C6637 | "A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the mediastinum. Representative examples of benign mediastinal soft tissue neoplasms include chondroma, leiomyoma, lipoma, and rhabdomyoma.  Representative examples of malignant mediastinal soft tissue neoplasms include angiosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, osteosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and synovial sarcoma." |
| C6638 | "Localized tumor with complete gross excision, with or without microscopic residual disease; representative ipsilateral lymph nodes negative for tumor microscopically. (cancer.gov)" |
| C6639 | "Stage 2 includes stage 2A and stage 2B.  Stage 2A: Localized tumor with incomplete gross excision; representative ipsilateral nonadherent lymph nodes negative for tumor microscopically. Stage 2B: Localized tumor with or without complete gross excision, with ipsilateral nonadherent lymph nodes positive for tumor. Enlarged contralateral lymph nodes must be negative microscopically. (cancer.gov)" |
| C6640 | "Unresectable unilateral tumor infiltrating across the midline, with or without regional lymph node involvement; or localized unilateral tumor with contralateral regional lymph node involvement; or midline tumor with bilateral extension by infiltration (unresectable) or by lymph node involvement. The midline is defined as the vertebral column. Tumors originating on one side and crossing the midline must infiltrate to or beyond the opposite side of the vertebral column. (cancer.gov)" |
| C6641 | "Any primary tumor with dissemination to distant lymph nodes, bone, bone marrow, liver, skin, and/or other organs, except as defined for stage 4S. (cancer.gov)" |
| C6642 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the mediastinum. |
| C6643 | A schwannoma that arises from the posterior mediastinum.  It is the most common neurogenic tumor of the mediastinum.  Excision is usually curative. |
| C6644 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the pleural cavity. It may be purely intra-thoracic or extend to the chest wall. |
| C6645 | A hemangioma that is characterized by the proliferation of lobules of capillaries. It occurs in infants and children and may regress spontaneously. |
| C6646 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); IA: (T1a, N0, M0); IB: (T1b, N0, M0).  T1: Pleural mesothelioma with a tumor limited to the ipsilateral parietal pleura with or without mediastinal pleura and with or without diaphragmatic pleural involvement. T1a: Pleural mesothelioma with no involvement of the visceral pleura. T1b: Pleural mesothelioma with a tumor also involving the visceral pleura N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6647 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Pleural mesothelioma with a tumor involving each of the ipsilateral pleural surfaces (parietal, mediastinal, diaphragmatic, and visceral pleura) with at least one of the following: involvement of diaphragmatic muscle; extension of tumor from visceral pleura into the underlying pulmonary parenchyma.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6648 | "Stage III includes: (T1, T2, N1, M0); (T1, T2, N2, M0); (T3, N0, N1, N2, M0).  T1: Pleural mesothelioma with a tumor limited to the ipsilateral parietal pleura with or without mediastinal pleura and with or without diaphragmatic pleural involvement. T2: Pleural mesothelioma with a tumor involving each of the ipsilateral pleural surfaces (parietal, mediastinal, diaphragmatic, and visceral pleura) with at least one of the following: involvement of diaphragmatic muscle; extension of tumor from... |
| C6649 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Pleural mesothelioma with a locally advanced technically unresectable tumor.  Tumor involving all the ipsilateral pleural surfaces (parietal, mediastinal, diaphragmatic, and visceral pleura) with at least one of the following: diffuse extension or multifocal masses of tumor in the chest wall, with or without associated rib destruction; direct transdiaphragmatic extension of tumor to the peritoneum; direct extensio... |
| C6650 | "An invasive carcinoma with glandular differentiation arising from the ampulla of Vater.  Signs and symptoms include jaundice, abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss." |
| C6651 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1, N0, M0); IB (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor limited to ampulla of Vater or sphincter of Oddi.  T2: Tumor invades duodenal wall.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C6652 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T3, N0, M0); IIB (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor invades the pancreas.  T1: Tumor limited to ampulla of Vater or sphincter of Oddi.  T2: Tumor invades the duodenal wall.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C6653 | "Stage III includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Tumor invades peripancreatic soft tissues or other adjacent organs or structures other than the pancreas.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C6654 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis.  (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C6655 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the ampulla of Vater and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C6656 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the ampulla of Vater.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of mucin-containing signet-ring cells." |
| C6657 | "An adenoma that arises from the ampulla of Vater and resembles the adenomas of the small and large intestines.  Morphologically, according to the growth pattern, it may be classified as tubular, tubulovillous, or villous.  Dysplasia is always present.  Jaundice may be an early symptom." |
| C6658 | An intestinal-type adenoma arising from the ampulla of Vater.  It is characterized by the presence of villous epithelial structures and it is associated with dysplasia. |
| C6659 | An intestinal-type adenoma arising from the ampulla of Vater.  It is characterized by the presence of tubular epithelial structures and it is associated with dysplasia. |
| C6660 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0) and IIB (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its i... |
| C6661 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size m... |
| C6662 | "Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6663 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associ... |
| C6664 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to ... |
| C6665 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmo... |
| C6666 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronch... |
| C6667 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronch... |
| C6668 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size m... |
| C6669 | "Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6670 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associ... |
| C66717 | A signet ring cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C66718 | "A term referring to medullary carcinomas which can develop in various anatomic sites such as the thyroid gland, breast, colon, rectum, and small intestine." |
| C66719 | "An invasive ductal breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of a predominantly syncytial architectural pattern. It may have some, but not all the strictly defined additional morphologic criteria which are necessary for the diagnosis of medullary breast carcinoma (presence of a diffuse lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate, neoplastic round cells with abundant cytoplasm and vesicular nuclei, complete histological circumscription, and absence of glandular or tubular structures). It does not have... |
| C6671 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0) and IB: (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less n greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung ca... |
| C6673 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0) and IB: (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less n greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung ca... |
| C66745 | An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of focal or extensive neuroendocrine differentiation. |
| C66746 | "A thymoma that is completely surrounded by a capsule, without evidence of capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues, and metastases." |
| C66748 | A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis in which the neoplastic cells do not show specific differentiation. |
| C66749 | "A rare, benign sex cord-stromal tumor of the ovary characterized by the presence of a fibrothecomatous stroma and scattered sex cord elements. Although it is usually hormonally inactive, cases associated with endometrial hyperplasia or adenocarcinoma have been reported." |
| C6674 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size m... |
| C66750 | "A low-grade malignant sex cord-stromal tumor occurring in the ovary and rarely in the testis. It is composed of granulosa cells in an often fibrothecomatous stroma. The neoplastic cells may form various patterns including the microfollicular, which is characterized by the presence of Call-Exner bodies, macrofollicular, insular, trabecular, and diffuse pattern. In females, it affects middle aged to post-menopausal women. Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, hemoperitoneum, and ascites.... |
| C66751 | A general term used to describe sex cord-stromal tumors characterized by the presence of granulosa cells in a thecomatous/fibrothecomatous background. |
| C66752 | "A purely morphologic term that describes a neoplasm in which all or the majority of the neoplastic cells have a clear cytoplasm, when examined under light microscopy, using the conventional staining method (H-E). This term does not provide any information about the nature of the neoplasm (benign or malignant), cell of origin (e.g. epithelial versus mesenchymal versus hematopoietic), or prognosis. Further examination using special stains and/or immunohistochemistry is required to appropriate... |
| C66753 | A melanoma arising from an atypical intraepithelial melanocytic hyperplasia. |
| C66754 | "A cutaneous congenital nevus of small size, with a diameter smaller than 15 mm. It presents as a macular, papular, or plaque-like lesion." |
| C66755 | A benign cutaneous proliferation of epithelioid or spindled melanocytes usually in the upper or mid dermis in a background of congenital nevus. It presents as a dark plaque or nodule above a giant congenital nevus. |
| C66756 | A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes and malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes. |
| C66757 | A Spitz nevus characterized by the presence of large epithelioid melanocytes. |
| C66758 | A Spitz nevus characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped melanocytes. |
| C66759 | "A sarcoma characterized by the presence of large, anaplastic malignant cells." |
| C6675 | "Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C66760 | A soft tissue tumor of uncertain lineage characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle-shaped to round cells in a fibromyxoid stroma. Metaplastic bone formation may or may not be present. |
| C66761 | A benign fibrous neoplasm arising from the periosteal connective tissue that surrounds a bone. |
| C66763 | A malignant fibroblastic tumor arising from the periosteal connective tissue that surrounds a bone. |
| C66764 | A benign fibrous tumor arising from the fascial connective tissue. |
| C66765 | A malignant fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the fascial connective tissue. |
| C6676 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associ... |
| C66771 | A malignant smooth muscle neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical spindle cells and formation of vascular channels. |
| C66772 | A benign neoplasm composed of mesenchymal stromal cells without evidence of cellular atypia. |
| C66774 | "A benign neoplasm of the kidney occurring in infants. It develops as an intracalyceal mass and is characterized by the presence of osteoid formation, osteoblast-like cells, and spindle cells." |
| C66775 | A low malignant potential adenofibroma of the ovary It is characterized by an atypical epithelial hyperplasia. The epithelial cells contain intracytoplasmic mucin. There is no evidence of stromal destructive invasion. |
| C66776 | A rare malignant germ cell tumor arising from the testis and less often from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of embryoid bodies which resemble early embryos. |
| C66777 | "A malignant mixed germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of a choriocarcinomatous component admixed with another germ cell component (e.g. embryonal carcinoma, teratoma, or seminoma)." |
| C66778 | A malignant germ cell tumor which metastasizes widely and produces high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin. |
| C66779 | A benign vascular proliferation characterized by the presence of prominent endothelial cells and the formation of vascular channels. |
| C6677 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronch... |
| C6678 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0) and IIB (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its i... |
| C66792 | "A hemorrhagic lymphatic lesion characterized by the presence of dilated lymphatic spaces, extravasation of red blood cells, hemosiderin deposition, and fibrosis." |
| C66796 | An osteoblastoma characterized by the presence of prominent epithelioid osteoblasts and recurrences. |
| C66799 | A rare chondroblastoma that has metastasized to another anatomic site. |
| C6679 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0) and IIIB (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.... |
| C66800 | "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually arises from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of an epithelial component, fibromyxoid stroma, and dentin formation. It is treated with enucleation and curettage. Recurrences may occur." |
| C66801 | A lesion characterized by the presence of neoplastic neuroepithelial cells with palisading nuclei. This lesion implies a morphologic growth pattern and it is not considered a clinicopathological entity. |
| C66802 | An obsolete term referring to neoplasms arising from oligodendrocytes. |
| C66803 | An obsolete term referring to desmoplastic medulloblastoma. |
| C66804 | Extensive and diffuse infiltration of tissues by ganglioneuroma. |
| C66806 | "A rare, unilateral, benign or malignant embryonal neoplasm typically presenting as a ciliary body mass during childhood. It arises from primitive medullary epithelium." |
| C66807 | "A rare, unilateral, benign embryonal neoplasm typically presenting as a ciliary body mass during childhood. It arises from primitive medullary epithelium." |
| C66808 | "A rare, unilateral, benign or malignant embryonic neoplasm typically presenting as a cilliary body mass during childhood. It is composed of medullary epithelial cells." |
| C66809 | "A rare, unilateral, benign embryonal neoplasm typically presenting as a ciliary body mass during childhood. It arises from primitive medullary epithelium and contains heterologous elements, particularly cartilage, skeletal muscle, and brain tissue." |
| C6680 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmo... |
| C66810 | "A rare, unilateral, benign or malignant embryonal neoplasm typically presenting as a ciliary body mass during childhood. It arises from primitive medullary epithelium and contains heterologous elements, particularly cartilage, skeletal muscle, and brain tissue." |
| C66811 | A neuroectodermal tumor composed of neoplastic neural elements. |
| C66812 | "A rare, unilateral or bilateral benign neoplasm that arises from the retina. There is an increased risk of malignant transformation to retinoblastoma; therefore, patients with a diagnosis of retinocytoma should be closely observed." |
| C66813 | A retinoblastoma with well differentiated features. It often produces Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes or Homer-Wright rosettes. In some cases the tumor cells form fleurettes. |
| C66814 | "A retinoblastoma composed of small, undifferentiated cells. It is often associated with necrotic changes." |
| C66815 | "A retinoblastoma characterized by the absence of a distinct retinal mass and the presence of malignant cells diffusely infiltrating the retina. It is often confused with uveitis and endophthalmitis, resulting in delayed diagnosis of the malignancy." |
| C66816 | "An archaic term that refers to benign, non-progressive retinal lesions in patients with mutation of the RB1 gene." |
| C66817 | An obsolete term referring to hemangiopericytoma of the central nervous system. |
| C66818 | A nervous system neoplasm that is categorized using nomenclature that is no longer in use or diagnostic criteria that are outdated. |
| C6681 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to ... |
| C6682 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Lung cancer with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural nodules or malignant pleural (or pericardial) effusion.  M1b: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6683 | "A small cell lung carcinoma detectable by sputum cytology only.  The primary tumor is undetectable radiographically or during bronchoscopy; therefore, it can not be assessed." |
| C66841 | A rare neurofibroma characterized by the presence of melanin-laden cells and the absence of atypia. |
| C66846 | A lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by the presence of diffuse fibrosis and a few Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells. |
| C66847 | A lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by the presence of reticular fibrosis. |
| C6684 | "An adenosquamous lung carcinoma detectable by sputum cytology only.  The primary tumor is undetectable radiographically or during bronchoscopy; therefore, it can not be assessed." |
| C66850 | A papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland which is encapsulated and resembles an encapsulated follicular neoplasm. Capsular invasion is present. The malignant follicular cells display the nuclear features that characterize the papillary adenocarcinomas of the thyroid gland. |
| C66851 |  |
| C6685 | "A large cell lung carcinoma detectable by sputum cytology only.  The primary tumor is undetectable radiographically or during bronchoscopy; therefore, it can not be assessed." |
| C66865 | "An adenoma that arises from the parotid gland. It is characterized by an oncocytic, often papillary, epithelial component, dense lymphoid stroma, and cystic spaces. A strong association with smoking has been reported. It typically presents as a painless swelling in the lower portion of the parotid gland." |
| C6686 | "A squamous cell lung carcinoma detectable by sputum cytology only.  The primary tumor is undetectable radiographically or during bronchoscopy; therefore, it can not be assessed." |
| C6687 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size m... |
| C6688 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronch... |
| C6689 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmo... |
| C6690 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to ... |
| C6691 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associ... |
| C66925 | An endocrine neoplasm producing glucagon. |
| C6692 | "Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C66933 | Breast ductal carcinoma in situ in which the tumor cells fill the ductal spaces as solid sheets. |
| C6693 | "Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 3 cm but 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6694 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung cancer with a tumor size m... |
| C66950 | "An adenocarcinoma with morphologic characteristics similar to hepatocellular carcinoma, arising from an anatomic site other than the liver." |
| C6695 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronch... |
| C6696 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: parietal pleural (PL3) chest wall (including superior sulcus tumors), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium; or tumor in the main bronchus (less than 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina); or associ... |
| C6697 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to ... |
| C66989 | A stromal tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of cells that contain lipid and resemble theca cells.  The vast majority of cases are benign. |
| C6698 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmo... |
| C66991 | "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis which may contain any combination of cell types, for example Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, and granulosa cells. Symptoms include testicular swelling and gynecomastia." |
| C6699 | "A lung adenocarcinoma detectable by sputum cytology only. The primary tumor is undetectable radiographically or during bronchoscopy; therefore, it can not be assessed." |
| C67006 | "A Sertoli cell tumor that arises from the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by nuclear pleomorphism, increased mitotic activity and necrotic changes. Metastases may be present at diagnosis." |
| C6700 | A carcinoma that arises from the pyriform sinus.  Patients usually present with advanced stage disease and the prognosis is poor. |
| C67012 | A Sertoli cell tumor of the testis or the ovary which remains localized and does not metastasize to another anatomic site. |
| C6701 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (Any T, N0, M1a, Any G); IVB (Any T, N1, Any M, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, Any G).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M1a: Distant metastasis to lung.  M1b: Metastasis to other distant sites. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6702 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, N0, M1a, Any G.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M1a: Distant metastasis to lung. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6703 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N1, Any M, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, Any G).  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M1b: Metastasis to other distant sites. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6704 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); IB (T2, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); (T3, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX).  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated-low grade.  G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6705 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1, N0, M0, G3, G4); IIB (T2, N0, M0, G3, G4).  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6706 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (Any T, N0, M1a, Any G); IVB (Any T, N1, Any M, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, Any G).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M1a: Distant metastasis to lung.  M1b: Metastasis to other distant sites. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6707 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, N0, M1a, Any G.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M1a: Distant metastasis to lung. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6708 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N1, Any M, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, Any G).  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M1b: Metastasis to other distant sites. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C67090 | A benign or borderline adenofibroma characterized by the presence of serous secretory cells and minute cystic spaces filled with watery fluid. A representative example is the ovarian serous adenofibroma. |
| C67092 | "A malignant neoplasm of the ovary with an invasive epithelial component and a fibrotic stroma. The epithelial component is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells of serous type, forming glandular, papillary, and solid patterns." |
| C6709 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); IB (T2, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); (T3, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX).  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated-low grade.  G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C67107 | A teratoma that contains only mature tissue elements (mature teratoma or grade 0 teratoma) or a limited amount of immature tissue elements (grade 1 teratoma). |
| C6710 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1, N0, M0, G3, G4); IIB (T2, N0, M0, G3, G4).  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6711 | A solitary plasmacytoma that arises in the chest wall. |
| C6712 | A lymphoma that affects the structures of the chest wall.  The majority of cases are diffuse large B-cell lymphomas. |
| C6713 | "An extraabdominal fibromatosis arising from the soft tissue of the chest wall. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern." |
| C6714 | "An uncommon benign cartilaginous neoplasm arising from the sternum. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped or stellate chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, myxoid stroma formation, and sometimes multinucleated giant cells." |
| C67155 | "A rare, benign (olfactory neurocytoma) or malignant (olfactory neuroblastoma) neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity." |
| C67156 | "A rare benign neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity. Microscopically, it is characterized by the absence of malignant characteristics and the absence of rosettes formation." |
| C6716 | A rare lymphoma that arises from the bone or soft tissue of the sternum. |
| C67171 | "A nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by the presence of lacunar cells, nodular growth, and the absence of fibrosis." |
| C6717 | Paget disease that affects the sternum. |
| C6718 | A rare schwannoma that arises from the sternum. |
| C6719 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the chest wall. |
| C6720 | A parachordoma arising from the chest wall. |
| C67214 | A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation arising from the kidney. |
| C6721 | "An intermediate fibrohistiocytic neoplasm arising from the skin in the chest wall. It is a multinodular poorly circumscribed tumor, characterized by the presence of multinucleated giant cells, mononuclear histiocyte-like cells, and spindle fibroblast-like cells arranged in a plexiform pattern." |
| C67235 | "A paraneoplastic disorder affecting the skeletal system. It associated with one of four tumor types: phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor, mixed connective tissue type; osteoblastoma-like tumor; ossifying fibroma-like tumor or non-ossifying fibroma-like tumor. These neoplasms secrete fibroblast growth factor 23, which in addition to causing decreased renal phosphate reabsorption also affects the expression of 25-hydroxy-1-alpha-hydroxylase resulting in poor bone mineralization. Clinical signs inc... |
| C67237 | "An extremely rare, benign or malignant mesenchymal tumor arising from soft tissue or bone. It is a distinctive tumor, usually displaying the following morphologic characteristics: low cellularity, myxoid changes, presence of spindled cells and osteoclasts, hemangiopericytoma-like vessels, hemorrhage, and osteoid-like matrix. It is associated with the presence of a paraneoplastic syndrome called oncogenic osteomalacia. This syndrome usually precedes the appearance of the tumor, and it is cha... |
| C6723 | A Hodgkin lymphoma that affects the structures of the chest wall. |
| C6724 | "An uncommon malignant neoplasm that arises from the chest wall bones.  Representative examples include chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma, and Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor." |
| C6725 | "A rare genetic neoplastic syndrome with an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance but incomplete penetrance. It is associated with a greater than 70 % risk of developing colorectal carcinoma. It is caused by a mutation in one of the mismatch repair genes: MSH2, MLH1, MSH6 or PMS2. It usually manifests at age 50 or younger with multiple synchronous or metachronous colorectal carcinomas. Clinical course is rapidly progressive. Prognosis is variable with a high risk for the development of a... |
| C6726 | "A rare genetic neoplastic syndrome with an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance but incomplete penetrance. It is associated with an inherited risk for malignancy, in particular, colorectal, endometrial or gastric carcinoma. It is caused by mutations in one of the mismatch repair genes: MSH2, MLH1, MSH6 or PMS2. It usually manifests at age 50 or younger with multiple synchronous or metachronous proximal colonic or extracolonic cancers. Clinical course is rapidly progressive. Prognosis i... |
| C67277 | "Gastritis characterized by hypertrophy of the gastric mucosa with creation of giant gastric folds. It is associated with hypoalbuminemia due to albumin loss from the stomach. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, edema, and weight loss." |
| C6727 | "An autosomal dominant hereditary neoplastic syndrome. Two distinct clinicopathological entities are recognized: neurofibromatosis type 1 and neurofibromatosis type 2. Neurofibromatosis type 1 is associated with the presence of cafe-au-lait cutaneous lesions, multiple neurofibromas, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors, optic nerve gliomas, and bone lesions. Neurofibromatosis type 2 is associated with the presence of schwannomas, meningiomas, and gliomas." |
| C6728 | "A variant of familial adenomatous polyposis. It is an autosomal dominant syndrome characterized by multiple colonic polyps predisposing to carcinoma of the colon, osteomas of the skull, epidermoid cysts, and fibromas. It is associated with mutation of the APC gene." |
| C6729 | "A rare genetic syndrome with an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It was formerly called hereditary flat adenoma syndrome (HFAS) but is now recognized as an attenuated variant of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). It is most commonly associated with mutations in the APC gene specifically: exons 1-5, exon 9 and in the distal 3' terminus. Clinical presentation occurs in the middle decades and is characterized by the proximal development of multiple (but less than 100), non-polypoi... |
| C6730 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the sternum. |
| C6731 | "Stage IIA includes: T2, N0, M0, G3.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. G3: Poorly differentiated.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6732 | "Stage IIB includes: (T3, N0, M0, Any G); (T1-2, N1, M0, Any G).  T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C6733 |  |
| C6734 |  |
| C6735 |  |
| C67369 | "A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the delta cells of the pancreas. It is characterized by inappropriate secretion of somatostatin and associated with diabetes mellitus, hypochlorhydria, gallbladder disease, diarrhea, steatorrhea, anemia, and weight loss. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites." |
| C6736 |  |
| C6737 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2-3, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Upper, middle); (T1-2, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any).  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G2: Moderately differentiated.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  Tumor location: Location of the primary cancer site is defined by t... |
| C67383 | "An autosomal recessive inherited skin disorder caused by mutations in the genes encoding keratins 5 and 14, collagen VII or laminin 5. It is characterized by skin fragility and the formation of blisters. The blisters may become large and ulcerated, resulting in skin infections and loss of body fluids." |
| C6738 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2-3, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Upper, middle); (T2-3, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Lower, X). T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1.  G2: Moderately differentiated.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  Tumor location: Location of the primary cancer site is defined by the position of the upper (proxi... |
| C6739 | "A well circumscribed benign tumor arising from cardiac muscle.  It usually affects children and may be present in the fetus.  Depending on tumor location and size, cardiac, respiratory, and hemodynamic parameters may be affected.  There is an association between cardiac rhabdomyoma and tuberous sclerosis." |
| C6740 | A condition in which deposits of fat accumulate within the interatrial septum. |
| C6741 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the heart usually originating in the epicardial or pericardial fatty tissue. |
| C6742 | A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the epicardium of the heart. |
| C6743 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the pericardium. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C6744 | A mature teratoma that arises from the pericardium. |
| C67453 | A benign or malignant neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the pancreas and secretes pancreatic polypeptide. |
| C67455 | A benign endocrine neoplasm arising from the alpha cells of the pancreas.  It produces glucagon. |
| C67457 | An adenoma arising from the beta cells of the pancreas.  It produces insulin. |
| C67458 | A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the pancreas.  It is characterized by inappropriate secretion of gastrin and associated with Zollinger Ellison syndrome.  It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C67459 |  |
| C6745 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the superior vena cava.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C67460 | An endocrine neoplasm arising from the delta cells of the pancreas which produce somatostatin. It does not show evidence of vascular invasion or metastasis to other anatomic sites. |
| C67461 | "A pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor producing vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP).  It is associated with watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and hypochlorhydria or achlorhydria.  It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.  One third of cases are metastatic at the time of diagnosis." |
| C6746 | A malignant vascular neoplasm arising from the pulmonary artery. |
| C6747 | "A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of a dense collagenous tissue and atypical neoplastic cells. Sarcomatoid features, collagenous necrosis, and infiltration of muscle and adipose tissue may be present. It occurs in the pleura and less commonly in the peritoneum." |
| C6748 | A glomus tumor of small size characterized by the absence of nuclear atypia and mitotic activity. |
| C67491 | Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of low grade epithelial atypia. |
| C67492 | Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of moderate epithelial atypia. |
| C67493 | Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of high grade epithelial dysplasia. |
| C6749 | Kaposi sarcoma arising from the palate. |
| C6750 | A glomus tumor that arises from the skin and is characterized by the presence of dilated veins surrounded by glomus cells. |
| C67519 |  |
| C6751 | A germ cell tumor that arises from an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary. There is no evidence of atypia or metastases. |
| C67526 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the gastric mucosa and is characterized by the presence of both glandular and poorly cohesive malignant cellular components. |
| C6752 |  |
| C6753 | A mature or immature teratoma that arises in the pineal region. |
| C67548 | A malignant germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It is characterized by a mixture of choriocarcinoma and yolk sac tumor morphologic elements.  Patients may present with painless or painful testicular swelling. |
| C6754 | A mature teratoma that arises from the pineal region. |
| C67554 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Maxillary sinus: Tumor limited to the maxillary sinus mucosa with no erosion or destruction of bone.  Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Tumor restricted to any one subsite, with or without bony invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C67555 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Maxillary sinus: Tumor causing bone erosion or destruction including extension into the hard palate and/or middle nasal meatus, except extension to posterior wall of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plates.  Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Tumor invading two subsites in a single region or extending to involve an adjacent region within the nasoethmoidal complex, with or without bony invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.... |
| C67556 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Maxillary sinus: Tumor invading any of the following: bone of the posterior wall of maxillary sinus, subcutaneous tissues, floor or medial wall of orbit, pterygoid fossa, or ethmoid sinuses. Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Tumor invading the medial wall or floor of the orbit, maxillary sinus, palate, or cribriform plate.  T1: Maxillary sinus: Tumor limited to the maxillary sinus mucosa with no erosion or destru... |
| C67557 | "Stage IV maxillary sinus cancer: Stage IV is divided into stages IVA, IVB, and IVC.  Stage IVA: cancer has spread to either one lymph node on the same side of the neck as the cancer and the lymph node is larger than 3 centimeters but smaller than 6 centimeters; or, cancer has spread to more than one lymph node anywhere in the neck, and all are 6 centimeters or smaller; cancer is also found in any of the following areas: the maxillary sinus, bones around the maxillary sinus, tissues under th... |
| C67558 | The reemergence of nasal cavity or paranasal sinus carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C67559 | A central nervous system neoplasm arising from the fourth ventricle. It is characterized by the presence of neurocytes forming pseudorosettes and astrocytes which contain Rosenthal fibers. Cytologic atypia is minimal. |
| C6755 |  |
| C67560 | "A rare, low-grade malignant epithelial tumor arising from the endolymphatic sac in the temporal bone. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of papillary and cystic structures. As tumors grow, they may destroy petrous temporal bone and extend into the middle ear and the middle and posterior cranial fossae and into the cerebellopontine angle. (WHO 2017)" |
| C67561 | "A gonadal sex cord-stromal tumor with malignant characteristics.  It includes the poorly differentiated ovarian Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, malignant ovarian granulosa cell tumor, malignant ovarian steroid cell tumor, and malignant ovarian thecoma." |
| C67563 | A leiomyoma characterized by the presence of abundant myxoid matrix. |
| C6756 | A meningioma that affects the pineal gland. |
| C6757 | "A mesenchymal, non-meningothelial neoplasm that arises from the central nervous system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C6758 | "A metastasizing mesenchymal, non-meningothelial neoplasm that arises from the central nervous system." |
| C6759 |  |
| C6760 | A poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the breast.  It is characterized by the presence of small neuroendocrine cells and high mitotic activity. |
| C6761 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the colon and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C6762 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the esophagus and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C6763 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the gallbladder and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C6764 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the stomach and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C6766 | A rare small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland. |
| C6767 | "A malignant germ cell tumor that arises in the pineal region.  Representative examples include germinoma, immature teratoma, choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma and yolk sac tumor." |
| C6769 | An astrocytoma occurring in the optic nerve. |
| C6770 | "A group of neoplasms which arise from the ependymal lining of the cerebral ventricles and from the remnants of the central canal of the spinal cord.  Ependymal tumors occur predominantly in children and young adults with varied morphological features and biological behavior.  There are 4 types: ependymoma, anaplastic ependymoma, myxopapillary ependymoma and subependymoma. (WHO)" |
| C6771 | A meningioma that affects the olfactory sulcus. |
| C6772 | "An embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes, C19MC-altered that arises from the supratentorial brain and occurs in children." |
| C6773 | "An embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes, C19MC-altered that arises from the infratentorial region and occurs in children." |
| C6774 | The reemergence of childhood medulloblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C6775 | A meningioma that affects the posterior cranial fossa. |
| C6776 | A meningioma that arises from the suprasellar region. |
| C6778 | A meningioma that arises from the intraorbital structures. |
| C6779 | A meningioma that affects the trigeminal ganglion. |
| C6780 | An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic dyes. |
| C6781 | "A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm composed of stromal cells.  Representative examples include gastrointestinal stromal tumor, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and prostate stromal sarcoma." |
| C6783 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm affecting the transitional cells." |
| C6784 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that contains a single or multiple cystic spaces.  Examples include cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, and serous cystadenocarcinoma." |
| C6786 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the eyelid. |
| C6790 | A syndrome characterized by abnormal secretion of parathyroid hormone in conjunction with neoplastic growth occurring anywhere in the body. |
| C6791 | "A carcinoma that arises from the parotid gland.  Representative examples include mucoepidermoid carcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, and carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma." |
| C6792 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the sphenoid sinus.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include Schneiderian papilloma and salivary gland-type adenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma and lymphoma. |
| C6793 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the supraglottic area of the larynx. |
| C6794 | A carcinoma that arises from the gastric cardia. |
| C6795 | A carcinoma that arises from the pylorus. |
| C6796 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the eccrine glands. |
| C6797 | "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the eccrine glands and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include hidrocystoma, syringoma, and syringofibroadenoma." |
| C6798 | "A benign or malignant sweat gland neoplasm with apocrine differentiation. Representative examples include apocrine adenoma, ceruminous adenocarcinoma, and apocrine breast carcinoma." |
| C6799 | "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the apocrine glands and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C6800 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the apocrine glands. |
| C6801 | "A solitary, slowly growing, nodular tumor most often affecting the extremities. It is composed of fibrous and histiocytic cells which infiltrate the dermis and occasionally the underlying subcutaneous tissue.  Usually local excision is curative. Recurrences are reported only in a small minority of cases." |
| C6803 | "A sex cord-stromal tumor arising from the ovary, without metastatic potential." |
| C6804 | A carcinoma arising in a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma in the lacrimal gland. |
| C6805 | "A malignant neoplasm metastasizing to the pituitary gland from another anatomic site.  The vast majority are carcinomas usually arising from the breast, lung, and gastrointestinal tract." |
| C6806 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the dermis and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic fibroblasts without malignant characteristics. |
| C6807 | "A neoplasm that arises from the external ear and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include ceruminous adenoma, polyp, and lipoma." |
| C6808 | A dermoid cyst that arises from the spinal cord. |
| C6809 | A WHO Grade 1 astrocytoma which arises in the cerebellum.  The tumor is composed of spindle shaped cells with numerous collections of reddish astrocytic fibers called Rosenthal fibers. Over 80% or the cerebellar astrocytomas of childhood are pilocytic. Pilocytic astrocytomas may rarely occur in adults. They are usually treated by surgical resection and in most cases have a favorable prognosis. |
| C6810 | A lymphoma that arises from the testis and is not associated with lymphoma in another anatomic site. |
| C6811 | A verrucous carcinoma that arises from the plantar aspect of the foot. |
| C6812 | "An extragonadal malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum. It is characterized by the presence of uniform cells with clear or eosinophilic cytoplasm, round nucleus with one or more nucleoli, and distinct cellular borders.  It usually arises from the anterior mediastinum.  It may present with respiratory distress, chest pain, or superior vena cava syndrome or it may be asymptomatic, with the tumor detected on routine chest x-ray.  The prognosis of mediastinal pure seminomas ... |
| C6813 | A usually aggressive invasive adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland composed of large glands containing tall columnar cells.  The columnar cells have abundant cytoplasm and are reminiscent of endometrial carcinoma.  This type of adenocarcinoma has a tendency to metastasize to the lung and penis. |
| C6814 | "A poorly circumscribed, intermediate fibrocytic neoplasm arising from the superficial soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts, and an infiltrative growth pattern." |
| C6815 | A hamartoma that occurs in the spinal cord. |
| C6816 |  |
| C6817 |  |
| C6819 |  |
| C6820 | "A pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of tall columnar cells that form flat or papillary, micropapillary, and basally pseudostratified architectural patterns.  Mild cytological atypia is present." |
| C6834 | A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the mucosa of the middle ear. Recurrences have been reported in a minority of cases and metastasis is very rare. |
| C6835 | A papilloma that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the paranasal sinuses. |
| C6836 | A papilloma that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the ethmoid sinus. |
| C6837 | A papilloma that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the frontal sinus. |
| C6838 | A papilloma that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the sphenoid sinus. |
| C6839 | A papilloma that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the maxillary sinus. |
| C6840 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the maxillary sinus.  It results from the invagination and proliferation of epithelial cells in the underlying stroma. |
| C6841 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the sphenoid sinus.  It results from the invagination and proliferation of epithelial cells in the underlying stroma. |
| C6842 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the frontal sinus.  It results from the invagination and proliferation of epithelial cells in the underlying stroma. |
| C6843 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the ethmoid sinus.  It results from the invagination and proliferation of epithelial cells in the underlying stroma. |
| C6844 | A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the minor salivary glands in the hard palate. It is characterized by the presence of a monomorphic cellular infiltrate. |
| C6845 | A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the salivary glands in the oral cavity. It is characterized by the presence of a monomorphic cellular infiltrate. |
| C6846 | "A rare, circumscribed or encapsulated tumor arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland.  It is characterized by a trabecular growth pattern and hyalinized stroma formation.  The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course." |
| C6847 | A benign epithelial neoplasm that arises from the parotid gland. It is characterized by the presence of a monomorphic cellular infiltrate. |
| C6848 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the middle ear. |
| C6849 | A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the paranasal sinus. |
| C6850 | An aggressive malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the paranasal sinus.  It is characterized by the presence of high-grade histologic features. |
| C6851 | A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the paranasal sinus.  It is characterized by the presence of low-grade histologic features. |
| C6852 | An atypical meningioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C6853 | An olfactory neuroblastoma that is confined to the nasal cavity |
| C6854 | An olfactory neuroblastoma that involves the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. |
| C6856 | A benign endocervical polypoid epithelial hyperplasia characterized by the presence of tightly packed glandular structures. It is usually seen in women on oral contraceptive therapy and during pregnancy. |
| C6857 | A polypoid lesion that arises from the vulva and is characterized by the presence of fibrovascular stroma lined by squamous epithelium. There is no evidence of epithelial atypia. |
| C6858 | "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the skin. Representative examples include primary cutaneous follicle center lymphoma, primary cutaneous intravascular large B-cell lymphoma, and primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type." |
| C6859 | A cutaneous lymphoma which contains more than 15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field. |
| C6860 | "An anaplastic large cell lymphoma limited to the skin at the time of diagnosis.  Most patients present with solitary or localized skin lesions, which may be tumors, nodules or papules.  The t(2;5) translocation that is present in many cases of systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma, is not found in this disease. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C68610 | "A non-keratinizing carcinoma arising from the oropharynx.  It is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, syncytial growth pattern, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate." |
| C68611 | "A rare, keratinizing or non-keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma arising from the mucosal epithelium of the nasal cavity or the paranasal sinuses.  It affects most often the maxillary sinus.  Less frequently, it arises from the nasal cavity, ethmoid sinus, sphenoid sinus, and frontal sinus.  Symptoms include nasal fullness, epistaxis, rhinorhea, pain, and paresthesia.  Patients with nasal squamous cell carcinoma usually present earlier than patients with maxillary sinus carcinoma and have a... |
| C6861 | A choroid melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with slender nuclei and no visible nucleoli. |
| C68626 | A mature or immature teratoma occurring in children. |
| C68627 | A childhood benign or malignant germ cell tumor arising from an anatomic site other than the brain. |
| C68628 | "A malignant germ cell tumor in children arising from the testis.  It includes the embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, and mixed germ cell tumors." |
| C68629 | "A malignant germ cell tumor in children arising from the ovary.  It includes the dysgerminoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma and immature teratoma." |
| C6862 | A choroid melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with larger nuclei and distinct nucleoli. |
| C68632 | A malignant germ cell tumor in children arising from an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary. |
| C68634 | An atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor occurring in children. |
| C68635 | A carcinoma that arises from the adrenal cortex and is characterized by the presence of twenty or less mitoses per ten square millimeters. |
| C6863 | A ciliary body melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with larger nuclei and distinct nucleoli. |
| C68644 | A carcinoma that arises from the adrenal cortex and is characterized by the partial or complete loss of adrenal cortical differentiation. |
| C6864 | A ciliary body melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with slender nuclei and no visible nucleoli. |
| C68659 | A B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during childhood. It is characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts that carry a translocation between the BCR gene on chromosome 22 and the ABL1 gene on chromosome 9. It results in the production of the p190 kd or p210 kd fusion protein. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome. |
| C6865 | A choroid melanoma characterized by the presence of tumor cell necrosis. |
| C68660 | A Hodgkin lymphoma with favorable prognosis. |
| C68661 | An early Hodgkin lymphoma with favorable prognosis. |
| C68662 | An advanced Hodgkin lymphoma with favorable prognosis. |
| C68663 | A Hodgkin lymphoma with unfavorable prognosis. |
| C68664 | An early Hodgkin lymphoma with unfavorable prognosis. |
| C68665 | An advanced Hodgkin lymphoma with unfavorable prognosis. |
| C68666 |  |
| C68677 | "Hereditary or acquired coagulation disorder characterized by a qualitative or quantitative deficiency of the von Willebrand factor. The latter plays an important role in platelet adhesion. Signs and symptoms include bruises, nose bleeding, gum bleeding following a dental procedure, heavy menstrual bleeding, and gastrointestinal bleeding." |
| C68678 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C68679 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (PDQ)" |
| C6867 | "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by a deletion between bands q31 and 33 on chromosome 5.  The number of blasts in the bone marrow and blood is <5%.  The bone marrow is usually hypercellular or normocellular with increased number of often hypolobated megakaryocytes.  The peripheral blood shows macrocytic anemia.  This syndrome occurs predominantly but not exclusively in middle age to older women.  The prognosis is good and transformation to acute leukemia is rare.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C68682 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C68683 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C68684 | The reemergence of marginal zone lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C68686 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C68688 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C68689 |  |
| C6868 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: (Supraglottis) T4a: Tumor invades through the thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissues beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of neck including deep extrinsic muscle of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid, or esophagus). T4b: Tumor invades prevertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal ... |
| C68690 | An ependymal tumor of the central nervous system occurring in adults. |
| C68691 | An oligodendroglial tumor of the central nervous system occurring in adults. |
| C68692 | A nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma occurring in childhood. |
| C68693 | A pure erythroid leukemia that occurs in adults. |
| C68694 | An erythroleukemia that occurs in adults. |
| C68696 | An acute myeloid leukemia with t(9;11)(p21.3;q23.3); MLLT3-KMT2A occurring in adults. |
| C68697 | An acute myeloid leukemia with inv(16)(p13.1q22); CBFB-MYH11 occurring in adults. |
| C68698 | An acute myeloid leukemia with t(16;16)(p13.1;q22); CBFB-MYH11 occurring in adults. |
| C68699 | An acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22; q22.1); RUNX1-RUNX1T1 occurring in adults. |
| C68700 | An acute myeloid leukemia with recurrent genetic abnormalities occurring in adults. |
| C68701 | A gliosarcoma occurring in adults. |
| C68702 | A giant cell glioblastoma occurring in adults. |
| C68703 | "A supratentorial embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified that occurs in adults." |
| C6870 | "A well circumscribed, low grade neoplasm that arises from the breast.  It is characterized by the presence of sheets of malignant epithelial cells that are supported by fibrovascular structures.  When there is an invasive component present, it is usually a mucinous carcinoma." |
| C6871 | "A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses.  It results from the invagination and proliferation of epithelial cells in the underlying stroma.  Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and anosmia. It has the tendency to recur and extend to adjacent structures.  Inverted papillomas are occasionally associated with the development or presence of carcinomas, usually squamous cell carcinomas." |
| C6873 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C68744 | "An uncommon hematologic malignancy occurring during childhood. Many of the morphologic, immunophenotypic, and genetic changes seen in adult myelodysplastic syndromes are also observed in the childhood variants of the disease. Children present with neutropenia and thrombocytopenia more often than adults, and bone marrow hypocellularity is more often seen in children than adults." |
| C6875 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation composed of malignant large cells. |
| C6876 | A large cell lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of rhabdoid cells. |
| C6877 | "A high grade intraepithelial neoplasia in which there is marked architectural distortion and crowding of the glands, associated with severe cellular atypia. The neoplastic cells display pleomorphic and hyperchromatic nuclei." |
| C6878 | A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas and is composed of acinar carcinoma and neuroendocrine carcinoma components in both the primary tumor and the metastatic sites. |
| C6879 | A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas and is composed of ductal adenocarcinoma and neuroendocrine carcinoma components in both the primary tumor and the metastatic sites. |
| C6880 |  |
| C6881 | An intraductal papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C6882 | An adenocarcinoma that usually arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of complex micropapillary structures covered by round and cuboidal cells with a high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio. |
| C68837 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma with favorable prognosis. |
| C68838 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma with unfavorable prognosis. |
| C6883 | A non-invasive mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the pancreas and is characterized by the presence of moderate dysplasia.  The neoplastic columnar mucin-producing epithelial cells form papillary projections or crypt-like invaginations. There is cellular pseudostratification and mitotic activity present. |
| C6885 | A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of a lymphocyte-poor component similar to that seen in type A thymoma and a lymphocyte-rich component which contains neoplastic small polygonal epithelial cells. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis and pure red cell aplasia. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. A minority of the cases occur as stage II or stage III tumors. The overall survival is reported to be 80-100% at 5 and 10 ... |
| C6886 | "A type AB thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize." |
| C6887 | "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of expanded areas which resemble the normal thymic cortex. The neoplastic epithelial cells are small and scant and there is a dense T-lymphocytic component present. Areas of medullary differentiation with or without Hassall's corpuscles are also present. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia. It has a low grade malignant potential. The majority of cases occur in the anterior me... |
| C6888 | "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic large, polygonal epithelial cells with large vesicular nuclei and prominent nucleoli. The neoplastic cells are arranged around perivascular spaces and along septa. Immature T-lymphocytes are also present. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia. It is a tumor of moderate malignancy. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I, stage II... |
| C6889 | "A type B2 thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize." |
| C6890 | A diffuse or multifocal proliferation of uniform nevoid polygonal cells in the leptomeninges. Cells may spread into the Virchow-Robin spaces without frank invasion of the brain. Diffuse melanocytosis carries a poor prognosis even in the absence of histologic malignancy. (WHO) |
| C6891 | A rare condition in patients with leptomeningeal melanoma characterized by diffuse or multifocal proliferation of melanoma cells in the leptomeninges. It is often associated with invasion of the central nervous system. |
| C6892 | A morphologic variant of fibroma characterized by increased cellularity. |
| C6894 | "A malignant neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation characterized by the presence of atypical round to spindle-shaped cells, increased cellularity, necrotic change, and high mitotic activity." |
| C6895 | An adenomyoma characterized by the presence of marked glandular architectural complexity. |
| C6897 | "A variant of Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the presence of cystic spaces separated by septa.  The septa contain immature epithelial cells, immature stromal cells, and blastema cells.  Surgical resection is usually curative." |
| C6899 | "A usually benign tumor arising from the breast. It is characterized by the proliferation of cells with myoepithelial differentiation around spaces which are lined by epithelial cells. Rarely, the epithelial and/or myoepithelial cells may undergo malignant transformation. Cases with malignant transformation may follow an aggressive clinical course, including recurrences and local and distant metastases." |
| C6900 | A gestational trophoblastic tumor characterized by the presence of a monomorphous cellular population of intermediate trophoblastic cells infiltrating in a nodular pattern. |
| C6902 | "A slow-growing malignant bone tumor arising from the remnants of the notochord and occurring in the base of the skull. The tumor is characterized by a lobulated growth pattern, myxoid stroma formation, and the presence of physaliphorous cells and cartilage." |
| C6903 | "A variant of ependymoma, often found in the spinal cord, with tumor cells arranged in fascicles of variable width and cell density. Ependymal rosettes are generally absent, so this lesion must be distinguished from astrocytic neoplasms, but its EM characteristics are ependymal. (Adapted from WHO.)" |
| C6904 | A medulloblastoma composed of large cells with prominent nucleoli and a larger amount of cytoplasm in contrast with the cells of the classic medulloblastoma. |
| C6905 | "A rare, WHO grade II cerebellar neoplasm which shows consistent neuronal, variable astrocytic and focal lipomatous differentiation. It occurs in adults, has a low proliferative potential and usually has a favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C6906 | "An aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm arising from the central nervous system. It is composed of cells with a large eccentric nucleus, prominent nucleolus, and abundant cytoplasm. Mutations of the SMARCB1 gene or very rarely SMARCA4 (BRG1) gene are present. The vast majority of cases occur in childhood. Symptoms include lethargy, vomiting, cranial nerve palsy, headache, and hemiplegia." |
| C6907 | "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of a prominent mesenchymal component. The mesenchymal component may be osseous, cartilaginous, myxoid, lipomatous, or a mixture of mesenchymal elements." |
| C6908 | "A WHO grade II, usually recurring meningioma characterized by the predominance of tissues that are histologically similar to chordoma." |
| C6909 | A WHO grade 3 meningioma characterized by the predominant presence of rhabdoid cells forming sheets. |
| C6910 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor characterized by the presence of malignant cells that contain melanin and formation of psammoma bodies. |
| C6911 | A WHO grade I perineurioma that arises within the endoneurium.  It is characterized by the formation of pseudo-onion bulbs by the proliferating perineural cells. |
| C6912 | "A perineurioma not associated with a nerve, arising from the soft tissues." |
| C69138 | Classic Hodgkin lymphoma that occurs in adults. |
| C6913 | "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma with scattered Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells and a nodular or less often diffuse cellular background consisting of small lymphocytes and with an absence of neutrophils and eosinophils. (WHO, 2008)" |
| C69142 | Classic Hodgkin lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C69144 |  |
| C6914 | An obsolete term that refers to cases of Hodgkin lymphoma excluding cases that were classified as Hodgkin's paragranuloma and Hodgkin's sarcoma. |
| C6915 | "A large B-cell lymphoma usually presenting as a serous effusion without detectable tumor masses. It is universally associated with human herpes virus 8 (HHV8), also called Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus.  It mostly occurs in the setting of immunodeficiency. The most common sites of involvement are the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities. Rare HHV8-positive lymphomas indistinguishable from primary effusion lymphomas (PEL) present as solid tumor masses, and have been termed e... |
| C6916 | "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma variant characterized by the presence of large round, oval, or polygonal cells with bizarre pleomorphic nuclei resembling Hodgkin or Reed-Sternberg cells. It is unrelated to anaplastic large cell lymphoma which is a T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma." |
| C6917 | "A morphologic variant of Burkitt lymphoma characterized by marked nuclear pleomorphism, abundant apoptotic debris, and the presence of tangible body macrophages." |
| C6918 | "A cytotoxic primary cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. Recent studies suggest there are at least two groups of subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphomas, each with distinct histologic features, immunophenotypic profile, and prognosis. One group has an alpha/beta, CD8 positive phenotype, involves only subcutaneous tissues, and usually has an indolent clinical course. The second group has a gamma/delta phenotype, is CD8 negative, often co-expresses CD56, is not confined to the subcutaneous tiss... |
| C6919 | "The most frequent type of lymphoblastic lymphoma.  It comprises approximately 85-90% of cases.  It is more frequently seen in adolescent males.  It frequently presents with a mass lesion in the mediastinum.  Pleural effusions are common.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C6920 | "A multifocal, unisystem form of Langerhans-cell histiocytosis. There is involvement of multiple sites in one organ system, most frequently the bone. Patients are usually young children presenting with multiple destructive bone lesions." |
| C6921 | "A neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells with overtly malignant cytologic features.  It can be considered a higher grade variant of Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH) and it can present de novo or progress from antecedent LCH. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C6923 | "An acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage in which there is a dual population of blasts with each population expressing markers of a distinct lineage (myeloid and lymphoid or B-and T-lymphocyte).  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C6924 | A term referring to acute myeloid leukemias with rearrangement of the KMT2A gene that results in translocations with various genes other than the MLLT3 (AF9) gene. |
| C6925 | A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the perianal skin. |
| C6926 | A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical mesenchymal-stromal cells. Representative examples include endometrial stromal sarcoma and prostate stromal sarcoma. |
| C6929 | A thecoma of the ovary which may metastasize to another anatomic site. It is usually characterized by nuclear atypia and mitotic activity. Malignant thecomas are rare. |
| C6930 | A neoplasm composed of at least two distinct cellular populations. |
| C6932 | A localized malignant neoplasm that arises in the bony skeleton or soft tissue. It is composed of clonal (malignant) plasma cells forming a tumor mass. |
| C6933 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic polypoid growth in the middle ear. |
| C6934 | "A well differentiated, slow growing neuroepithelial neoplasm composed of neoplastic, mature ganglion cells." |
| C6935 | A meningioma that arises from the spinal cord meninges. |
| C6936 | "A locally infiltrating, non-metastasizing angiomyxoma arising from the pelviperineal region.  It may recur following resection" |
| C6938 | "A carcinoma that arises from the sweat glands. Representative examples include porocarcinoma, hidradenocarcinoma, microcystic adnexal carcinoma, skin adenoid cystic carcinoma, apocrine carcinoma, and digital papillary adenocarcinoma." |
| C6939 | A breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of a ductal carcinoma in situ component and an invasive lobular carcinomatous component. |
| C6940 | Breast fibrocystic change characterized by the presence of epithelial cell hyperplasia.  Epithelial atypia may be present or absent. |
| C6943 | Breast fibrocystic change characterized by the absence of epithelial cell hyperplasia. |
| C6947 | "A rare benign heart neoplasm usually occurring in young children. It is characterized by the presence of bland spindle cells and collagenous stroma formation. Clinical presentation may include cardiac arrhythmia, cyanosis, heart failure or sudden death." |
| C6948 | "A benign, reactive lesion occurring status post instrumentation; histologic examination demonstrates a fascicular growth pattern of plump or elongated spindle cells infiltrating the wall of an organ without atypia or necrosis." |
| C6949 | "A benign, reactive lesion of the bladder, occurring status post bladder instrumentation; histologic exam demonstrates a fascicular growth pattern of plump or elongated spindle cells infiltrating the bladder wall without atypia or necrosis." |
| C6950 | A benign hemangiopericytoma arising from the kidney. |
| C6951 | Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the absence of nuclear anaplasia. |
| C6952 | "Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the presence of nuclear anaplasia.  Anaplasia is defined by the presence of all of the following: multipolar polyploid mitotic figures, marked nuclear enlargement, and hyperchromasia.  When anaplasia is diffuse, it is associated with an unfavorable clinical outcome." |
| C6954 | An astrocytoma of the brain stem that occurs during adulthood. |
| C6956 | A neuroblastoma arising from the retina. |
| C6957 | "An embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes, C19MC-altered that arises from the cerebral hemispheres and occurs in children." |
| C6958 | "A glial tumor of the brain or spinal cord showing astrocytic differentiation.  It includes the following clinicopathological entities: pilocytic astrocytoma, diffuse astrocytoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, and glioblastoma." |
| C6959 | "An oligoastrocytoma characterized by the presence of increased cellularity, nuclear atypia, pleomorphism, and high mitotic activity." |
| C6960 | A neoplasm of the central nervous system composed predominantly of cells morphologically resembling oligodendroglia.  Oligodendroglial tumors histologically comprise a continuous spectrum ranging from well-differentiated neoplasms to frankly malignant tumors. WHO grading system recognizes two malignancy grades: WHO grade 2 for well-differentiated tumors (oligodendroglioma) and WHO grade 3 for anaplastic oligodendroglioma. (Adapted from WHO) |
| C6963 | A group of nervous system tumors which display neuronal differentiation.  It includes tumors that are composed of immature round cells and tumors that display advanced differentiation and the formation of ganglion cells. |
| C6964 | A common pediatric extracranial tumor arising from neural crest cells.  It involves the adrenal medulla and the sympathetic nervous system. |
| C6965 | "A neoplasm that arises from pinealocytes in the pineal gland. This category includes pineocytomas, pineal parenchymal tumors of intermediate differentiation, and pineoblastomas." |
| C6966 | "A WHO grade 1 slow growing tumor, more frequently affecting young adults. It is composed of small, uniform, mature cells resembling pineocytes with occasional large pineocytomatous rosettes. It may show a wide range of divergent phenotypes, including neuronal, glial, melanocytic, photoreceptor and mesenchymal differentiation. Pineocytoma generally has a relatively favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C6967 | "A WHO grade 2 or 3 pineal parenchymal neoplasm of intermediate-grade malignancy, affecting all ages.  It is composed of diffuse sheets or large lobules of uniform cells with mild to moderate nuclear atypia and low to moderate level mitotic activity.  (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C6968 | "A central nervous system embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified arising from the supratentorial region." |
| C6969 | "A schwannoma characterized by a plexiform or multinodular growth pattern.  It usually arises from the skin or subcutaneous tissues in the extremities, trunk, and head and neck." |
| C6970 | "A rare circumscribed, non-encapsulated and grossly pigmented nerve sheath tumor. It is composed of cells with the immunophenotypic and electron microscopic features of Schwann cells which contain melanosomes and are positive for melanoma markers. It usually involves spinal nerve roots but may occur in other locations. It may be associated with PRKAR1A gene mutation and Carney complex. Malignant behavior has been reported in a significant number of patients." |
| C6971 | A neoplasm that arises from meningothelial cells. This category refers to meningiomas. |
| C6973 | A liposarcoma arising from the brain. |
| C6974 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm with uncertain histogenesis." |
| C6975 | "Also known as chromophil carcinoma, it represents a minority of renal cell carcinomas.  It can be hereditary or sporadic.  The sporadic papillary renal cell carcinoma is characterized by trisomy of chromosomes 7, 16, and 17, and loss of chromosome Y.  The peak incidence is in the sixth and seven decades.  It is classified as type 1 or 2, based on the cytoplasmic volume and the thickness of the lining neoplastic cells. The prognosis is more favorable than for conventional (clear cell) renal ... |
| C6979 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the penis and cannot be classified according to other morphologic subtypes. |
| C6980 | "An aggressive, human papillomavirus-related squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the penis.  It is characterized by the presence of nests of small malignant cells.  The malignant cells tend to invade deeply into the adjacent tissues.  Comedo-type necrosis is often present." |
| C6981 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the penis.  It is characterized by a papillary growth pattern, hyperkeratosis and parakeratosis.  Koilocytotic atypia is present.  Human papillomavirus types 16 and 6 have been identified in some cases." |
| C6982 | "A slow growing, locally recurring, very well differentiated papillary squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the penis.  It is characterized by the presence of acanthosis and hyperkeratosis.  The neoplastic infiltrate extends into the underlying stroma with a pushing border.  Koilocytotic atypia is not present." |
| C6983 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the penis and is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth pattern. |
| C6984 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the penis and is characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped cells. |
| C6985 | A complete hydatidiform mole or very rarely a partial mole that invades the myometrium. |
| C6987 | An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of a predominant squamous cell component that is admixed with the ductal carcinomatous component. |
| C6990 | "A malignant neoplasm of embryonal origin, arising from the central nervous system.  It usually affects children.  Representative examples include ependymoblastoma, medulloblastoma, and atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor." |
| C6991 | A proliferation of endometrial cells resulting in glandular enlargement and budding without changes in the basic structure of the endometrium. Epithelial atypia is present. |
| C6992 | A proliferation of endometrial cells resulting in glandular enlargement and budding without changes in the basic structure of the endometrium. Epithelial atypia is absent. |
| C6993 | "A hyperplasia characterized by excessive proliferation of endometrial cells, resulting in the formation of complex epithelial structures. Epithelial atypia is absent." |
| C6994 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving the oculomotor nerve. |
| C6995 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the oculomotor nerve. |
| C6996 | "The growth of endometrial tissue inside the muscular wall of the uterine corpus. Clinical manifestations include pain, dysmenorrhea, and menorrhagia." |
| C6997 | A central nervous system benign and slow growing adipose tissue tumor characterized by the presence of polygonal brown fat cells with abundant cytoplasm. |
| C6998 | A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the central nervous system.  It is characterized by the presence of intersecting fascicles composed of spindle cells that often lack mitotic activity. |
| C6999 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the central nervous system.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C7000 | A benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the central nervous system.  It consists of mature skeletal muscle tissue. |
| C7001 | An extraskeletal chondroma usually arising from the dura. |
| C7002 | An osteosarcoma arising from the brain or spinal cord. |
| C7004 | A hemangioma arising from the brain and spinal cord. |
| C7006 | "A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the brain, spinal cord, or meninges." |
| C7007 | "A rare, highly vascular, WHO grade I tumor that arises from the central nervous system and is composed of abundant capillaries and stromal cells. It can occur sporadically or as part of von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. It is a slow growing tumor with a low risk of metastasis, despite its benign histological features." |
| C7008 | A myeloid sarcoma that affects the meninges or the cerebral hemispheres. |
| C7009 | "A malignant germ cell tumor arising from the central nervous system.  It is composed of uniform cells resembling primitive germ cells.  These cells have large, vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli and a clear, glycogen-rich cytoplasm.  Additional features are lymphoid or lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates and, less frequently, scattered syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells.  (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C7010 | "A malignant germ cell tumor of the central nervous system composed of large cells that proliferate in cohesive nests and sheets.  In rare occasions, tumor cells may replicate the structure of the early embryo, forming ""embryoid bodies"" replete with germ discs and miniature amniotic cavities. Additional morphologic characteristics include enlarged nucleoli, abundant clear to somewhat violet-hued cytoplasm, a high mitotic rate and zones of coagulative necrosis.  (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C7011 | "A malignant germ cell tumor of the central nervous system composed of primitive-appearing epithelial cells - putatively representing yolk sac endoderm - set in a loose, variably cellular, and often conspicuously myxoid matrix, resembling extra-embryonic mesoblast. Eosinophilic hyaline globules immunoreactive for AFP are a diagnostic feature. (WHO)" |
| C7012 | "A malignant germ cell tumor of the central nervous system characterized by extra-embryonic differentiation along trophoblastic lines. The diagnosis requires the identification of cytotrophoblastic elements, as well as syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells. (WHO)" |
| C7013 | A mature teratoma arising in the central nervous system. |
| C7014 | "A teratoma involving the central nervous system and characterized by the presence of an extensive component of immature, fetal-type tissues." |
| C7015 | A central nervous system teratoma characterized by the presence of a malignant component. The malignant component most often is sarcomatous (rhabdomyosarcoma or undifferentiated sarcoma) or carcinomatous (squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma). |
| C7016 | A malignant germ cell tumor of the central nervous system characterized by the presence of at least two types of germ cell neoplasia. |
| C7017 | "A generally benign intrasellar and/or suprasellar mass arising from the neurohypophysis or infundibulum.  It is composed of nests of large cells with granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm due to abundant intracytoplasmic lysosomes. It generally has a slow progression and lacks invasive growth. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C7018 | A benign neoplasm with nerve sheath features that usually arises from the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. It is composed of spindle and epithelioid cells in a myxoid stroma. |
| C7019 | "Trilateral retinoblastoma refers to bilateral (or less often unilateral) retinoblastoma associated with an intracranial primitive neuroectodermal tumor in the pineal or suprasellar region. This syndrome is often associated with a increased familial incidence of retinoblastoma. (From Cancer 86(1): 135-141, 1999)." |
| C7020 | "A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm affecting the central nervous system.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells." |
| C7022 | "A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the stomach.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells." |
| C7024 | Multiple myeloma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C7025 | The reemergence of multiple myeloma after a period of remission. |
| C7027 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from Barrett metaplastic epithelium in the esophagus.  There is evidence supporting the idea that the Barrett adenocarcinomas develop through a stepwise progression through intestinal metaplastic epithelium to epithelial dysplasia to malignancy.  Adenocarcinomas arising in the setting of Barrett esophagus are typically papillary and/or tubular.  In terms of grading, they are well or moderately differentiated adenocarcinomas." |
| C7032 | "A rare morphologic variant of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma.  Histologically, it is composed of closely packed cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and scant basophilic cytoplasm. It has a similar prognosis to the conventional squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus.  (WHO)" |
| C7033 | "A non-neoplastic polyp that arises from the stomach and is characterized by the presence of dilated gastric foveoli, edematous changes, and inflammation." |
| C7034 | "A non-neoplastic polyp that arises from the stomach and is characterized by the presence of elongated, tortuous, and cystic foveolar zones, edematous changes, and inflammation.  It may be associated with juvenile polyposis in other parts of the gastrointestinal tract." |
| C7035 | "Non-neoplastic polyps that arise from the stomach and are often indistinguishable from hyperplastic polyps.  They may be associated with the presence of polyps in other parts of the gastrointestinal tract.  Associated clinical signs and symptoms are nail atrophy, alopecia, and hyperpigmentation." |
| C7036 | An intestinal-type adenoma that arises from the stomach. It is characterized by the presence of a tubular architectural pattern. |
| C7037 | An intestinal-type adenoma that arises from the stomach. It is characterized by the presence of a tubulovillous architectural pattern. |
| C7038 | An intestinal-type adenoma that arises from the stomach. It is characterized by the presence of a villous architectural pattern. |
| C7041 | A usually polypoid neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the colonic mucosa. It is characterized by a tubular architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C70428 | Inflammation of a serous membrane. |
| C7042 | A ganglioneuroma that arises from the colon.  It usually presents as a small mucosal polyp. |
| C7046 | An extra-adrenal paraganglioma that arises from the urinary system. |
| C7048 | A meningioma that affects the supratentorial brain. |
| C7049 | "An astrocytic tumor occurring during adulthood.  Representative examples include diffuse astrocytoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, and glioblastoma." |
| C7051 |  |
| C7052 | "A benign, localized, nodular and well-circumscribed neoplasm usually seen as a congenital neoplasm or in the first year of life. It is characterized by a biphasic growth pattern and is composed of small, undifferentiated mesenchymal cells associated with branching thin-walled vessels and more mature neoplastic spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm in a collagenous stroma." |
| C7053 | A cavernous hemangioma arising from the face. |
| C70548 | "A disease characterized by normocytic, normochromic anemia, low hematocrit, reticulocytopenia and selective erythroid hypoplasia. It can occur as a chronic or acute form; the former is predominantly seen in adults and the latter in children. Pathogenesis involves immune dysfunction with antibodies directed against erythroid precursor cells or erythropoietin, or due to T-cell mediated suppression of erythropoiesis." |
| C70549 | "A systemic necrotizing vasculitis that typically affects the small and medium-sized muscular arteries. In some cases, however, microscopic vessels are also affected (e.g., in the kidneys), a condition that has been called microscopic polyarteritis or polyangiitis; this disorder is felt to be more closely associated with Wegener granulomatosis than to classic polyarteritis nodosa." |
| C7054 | Lymphocyte-rich classic Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in childhood. |
| C7055 | A neoplasm of immature malignant lymphocytes (lymphoblasts) committed to the B-cell or T-cell lineage.  Neoplasms involving the bone marrow and the peripheral blood are called precursor lymphoblastic leukemias or acute lymphoblastic leukemias.  Neoplasms involving primarily lymph nodes or extranodal sites are called lymphoblastic lymphomas. |
| C7056 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that originates from mature B lymphocytes. Representative examples include diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, follicular lymphoma, marginal zone lymphoma, mantle cell lymphoma, and small lymphocytic lymphoma." |
| C70588 | The reemergence of adult diffuse small cleaved cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C7058 | "A benign, atypical, or malignant neoplasm that arises from and is composed of melanocytes. This category includes melanocytic nevi, melanocytomas, and melanomas." |
| C7059 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm that arises from the mesenchyma-derived cells of the soft tissue or bone. Representative examples include lipoma, leiomyoma, leiomyosarcoma and osteosarcoma." |
| C70613 | "Bone marrow failure defined as pancytopenia, due to exposure to a known toxin or drug." |
| C7061 | A neoplasm arising from the neural retina. This category includes retinoblastoma and retinocytoma. |
| C7062 | "A neoplasm defined by its unique characteristic as they apply to clinical presentation and course, morphologic patterns, frequency, and/or age distribution." |
| C70634 | Arthritis associated with the destruction of the cartilage and the articular surface of the bone of the joint. This process severely interferes with movement in the joint. |
| C70635 | A rare condition that involves inflammation and necrosis of the walls of the blood vessels; may occur in rheumatoid arthritis. |
| C7063 | A bone tumor arising from the remnants of the fetal notochord.  This category includes the chordoma and benign notochordal cell tumor. |
| C70646 | "A variant of systemic sclerosis characterized by calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, esophageal motility disorders, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia." |
| C70647 | "A constellation of symptoms that include abnormal dryness of the mouth, eyes and other mucous membranes. The condition is seen in patients with Sjogren syndrome, sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, and deficiencies of vitamins A and C." |
| C70649 | A slow-growing type of leukemia (blood cancer) in which too many lymphocytes are found in the bone marrow and/or blood.  The T-cell is specified as the defective cell line. |
| C7064 | A neoplasm affecting cells of the erythroid lineage. |
| C70658 | Multiple myeloma with beta-2-microglobulin less than 3.5 and albumin greater than or equal to 3.5 (median survival of 62 months).  Note that the older Durie/Salmon staging system defines stage I quite differently. (PDQ) |
| C70659 | Multiple myeloma with blood levels of beta-2-microglobulin between 3.5 and 5.5 mg/L. |
| C7065 | "A neoplasm composed of a lymphocytic cell population which is usually malignant (clonal) by molecular genetic and/or immunophenotypic analysis.  Lymphocytic neoplasms include Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, acute and chronic lymphocytic leukemias, and plasma cell neoplasms." |
| C70660 | Multiple myeloma with beta-2-microglobulin greater than or equal to 5.5 (median survival of 29 months).  Note that the older Durie/Salmon staging system defines stage III quite differently. (PDQ) |
| C7066 | A neoplasm affecting cells of the megakaryocytic lineage. |
| C7068 | A term that includes all polypoid growth from the inner lining of the mucous membrane. |
| C7069 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic giant cells." |
| C7070 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant neoplasm characterized by the proliferation of neoplastic cells that contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may be associated with the presence of extracellular mucin." |
| C7072 | A usually benign neoplasm composed of large cells with abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm. |
| C7073 | "A malignant neoplasm composed of large cells with large nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and abundant pale cytoplasm (Paget cells).  Paget cell neoplasms include Paget disease of the nipple and extramammary Paget disease which may affect the vulva, penis, anus, skin and scrotum." |
| C7074 |  |
| C7075 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic fibroblasts." |
| C7076 | A term that refers to vascular neoplasms with a prominent hemangiopericytic growth pattern. |
| C7079 | A term that refers to the staging of prostate carcinoma according to the Whitmore-Jewett staging system. |
| C7080 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the prostate gland from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C7081 |  |
| C7082 |  |
| C7083 |  |
| C7085 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the small intestine.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C7087 | The reemergence of a melanoma after a period of remission. |
| C7088 | The reemergence of non-cutaneous melanoma after a period of remission. |
| C7089 | Cutaneous melanoma characterized by the disappearance of the melanoma cells from the primary tumor. |
| C7090 | The disappearance of the melanoma cells from the primary non-cutaneous melanoma site. |
| C7091 | A melanoma that arises from any part of the digestive system. |
| C7092 | A non-cutaneous melanoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C70938 | "A painful asymmetric asynchronous sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy involving isolated damage to at least 2 separate nerve areas; associated with (but not limited to) systemic disorders such as diabetes, vasculitis, amyloidosis, direct tumor involvement, polyarteritis nodosa, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and paraneoplastic syndromes. It also may be associated with Lyme disease, Wegener's granulomatosis, Sjogren syndrome, cryoglobulinemia, hypereosinophilia, temp... |
| C7093 | "A hepatoblastoma composed of small cells resembling the fetal hepatocytes, forming thin trabeculae." |
| C7094 | A hepatoblastoma composed of cells resembling fetal epithelial cells and small round cells resembling blastema cells. |
| C7095 | An epithelial hepatoblastoma characterized by the presence of broad trabeculae. |
| C7096 | A hepatoblastoma composed exclusively of noncohesive sheets of small undifferentiated cells. Cases showing loss of INI1 nuclear staining should be classified as rhabdoid tumors. |
| C7097 | A subtype of hepatoblastoma characterized by the presence of epithelial and mesenchymal components. |
| C7098 | "A mixed epithelial and mesenchymal hepatoblastoma characterized by the presence of heterologous elements. The latter include neuroectoderm, endoderm, or melanin-holding cells. Muscle, cartilage and osteoid may or may not be present." |
| C7099 | Metastatic disease. |
| C7100 | "An invasive malignant epithelial tumor that arises from the colon.  There is no morphologic, immunophenotypic, or molecular biological evidence of glandular or squamous differentiation." |
| C71016 | A pilocytic astrocytoma occurring in adults. |
| C71017 | A subependymal giant cell astrocytoma occurring in adults. |
| C71024 |  |
| C7103 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the liver parenchyma or intrahepatic bile ducts.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include hepatocellular adenoma, and bile duct adenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include hepatocellular carcinoma, intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, and lymphoma." |
| C7104 | "An extragonadal mature teratoma that arises from the mediastinum.  It is usually encapsulated and characterized by the presence of unilocular or multilocular cysts. The cysts can contain clear fluid, mucoid material, sebaceous debris, fat, hair, cartilage, and rarely teeth or bone." |
| C7105 | A non-neoplastic trophoblastic disorder characterized by the presence of an increased number of implantation-site intermediate trophoblasts infiltrating the endometrium and myometrium extensively. It is associated with pregnancy or abortion. |
| C71060 | Ventricular tachyarrhythmias occurring in association with short QT syndrome. |
| C7106 | A benign or malignant epithelial neoplasm that affects the liver. |
| C71079 | "A common dermal and neurologic disorder caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus that has remained dormant within dorsal root ganglia, often for decades, after the patient's initial exposure to the virus in the form of varicella (chickenpox). It is characterized by severe neuralgic pain along the distribution of the affected nerve and crops of clustered vesicles over the area." |
| C7107 | A benign or malignant non-epithelial neoplasm that affects the liver. |
| C7109 | A carcinoma that arises from the common bile duct distal to the insertion of the cystic duct. |
| C7110 | The reemergence of liver carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7111 | An ameloblastoma that does not recur or metastasize. |
| C7112 | "A rare, locally invasive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually grows intraosseously in the mandible. The maxilla is less frequently involved. It is characterized by the presence of well differentiated squamous cells which form islands. Recurrences may rarely occur and probably are related to incomplete excision of the tumor." |
| C7113 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant epithelial tumor characterized by the presence of glands and/or cysts lined by neoplastic cells that resemble endometrial cells. It can arise from the uterine body, ovary, fallopian tube, cervix, vagina, and uterine ligament." |
| C7114 | "An epithelial neoplasm arising from the thymus.  It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia.  It includes thymoma type B1 which is a thymoma of low grade malignant potential, thymoma type B2 which is a thymoma of moderate malignancy, and thymoma type B3 which is also known as well differentiated thymic carcinoma." |
| C7115 | A primary or metastatic malignant non-epithelial neoplasm that affects the liver. |
| C7116 | "Stage I carcinoma of the liver according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C7117 | "Stage II carcinoma of the liver according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C7118 | "Stage III carcinoma of the liver according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C7121 | "Stage IV carcinoma of the liver according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C7122 | "Stage IVA carcinoma of the liver according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th and 8th editions." |
| C7123 | "Stage IVB carcinoma of the liver according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th and 8th editions." |
| C7124 | An intraductal papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the extrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C7125 | An intraductal papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the intrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C7126 | A rare adenoma that arises from the intrahepatic biliary tree. |
| C7127 | An adenoma that arises from the intrahepatic bile ducts and it is characterized by the presence of microcystic changes. |
| C7128 | "A neoplasm that arises from the non-epithelial tissues of the extrahepatic bile ducts and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C71299 | A grade 1 meningioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C7129 | "A non-epithelial neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include leiomyoma, lipoma, and neurofibroma." |
| C71300 | A grade 1 meningioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C71301 | A grade 2 meningioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C71303 | A grade 3 meningioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C71304 | A grade 2 meningioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C71305 | A grade 3 meningioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C7130 | An intracholecystic papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the gallbladder. Intraepithelial neoplasia is present. |
| C7131 | "A granular cell tumor that arises from the gallbladder and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C7132 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic epithelial neoplasm affecting the glandular cells." |
| C7133 | "A rare, typically benign ovarian neoplasm composed of Sertoli cells. Patients may present with pseudoprecocity, menometrorrhagia, amenorrhea, hirsutism, and hoarseness.  Rarely it may invade the ovarian stroma and extend beyond the ovary." |
| C7134 | A usually aggressive malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the surface of the bone. |
| C7135 | "A rare malignant neoplasm of the soft tissues. It is typically a disease of children and young adults. Most commonly occurs in the paravertebral region, chest wall, pelvis and lower extremities. Treatment includes local excision with consideration for post-operative chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy." |
| C7136 | A localized mast cell neoplasm involving extracutaneous sites. |
| C7137 | Mastocytosis that affects the skin. It may manifest as pure cutaneous mastocytosis without extracutaneous involvement or as the result of cutaneous involvement in systemic mastocytosis. |
| C7138 | "A benign, solitary, well-demarcated, yellow-brown or reddish-brown mast cell neoplasm that arises from the skin, most commonly in infants and children. The lesions are typically 2-5 cm in size, are characterized by infiltration of the dermis by neoplastic mast cells, and occasionally resolve spontaneously." |
| C7139 | An internationally developed presurgical anatomic staging system using imaging techniques: Tumor involves only 1 quadrant; 3 adjoining liver quadrants are free of tumor. (from PDQ 2004) |
| C7140 | An internationally developed presurgical anatomic staging system using imaging techniques: Tumor involves 2 adjoining quadrants; 2 adjoining quadrants are free of tumor. (from PDQ 2004) |
| C7141 | An internationally developed presurgical anatomic staging system using imaging techniques: Tumor involves 3 adjoining quadrants or 2 nonadjoining quadrants; 1 quadrant or 2 nonadjoining quadrants are free of tumor. (from PDQ 2004) |
| C7142 | An internationally developed presurgical anatomic staging system using imaging techniques: Tumor involves all 4 quadrants; there is no quadrant free of tumor. (from PDQ 2004) |
| C7143 | "Distant metastases, regardless of the extent of liver involvement. (from PDQ 2004)" |
| C7144 | "No distant metastases, tumor unresectable or resected with gross residual tumor, or positive lymph nodes. (from PDQ 2004)" |
| C7145 | "No metastases, tumor grossly resected with microscopic residual disease (i.e., positive margins); or tumor rupture, or tumor spill at the time of surgery. (from PDQ 2004)" |
| C7146 | "No metastases, tumor completely resected. (from PDQ 2004)" |
| C7147 | A benign mesenchymal neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic fibroblasts without malignant characteristics. |
| C7148 | "A benign,intermediate, or malignant soft tissue neoplasm in which the line of differentiation is uncertain. Representative examples include neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation, alveolar soft part sarcoma, desmoplastic small round cell tumor, epithelioid sarcoma, extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma, and synovial sarcoma." |
| C7149 | Multiple myeloma lacking clinical manifestations and organ impairment. |
| C7151 | "A mature B-cell neoplasm characterized by the deposition of immunoglobulin in tissues, resulting in impaired organ function. It includes the following entities: primary amyloidosis, heavy chain deposition disease, and light chain deposition disease." |
| C7152 | Acute erythroid leukemia characterised by the presence of at least 50% erythroid precursors and at least 20% myeloblasts in the bone marrow. |
| C7153 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the thyroid gland and shows extensive evidence of follicular cell differentiation.  According to the nuclear features of the malignant follicular cells, it is classified either as papillary or follicular carcinoma." |
| C7154 | "A rare aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, arising from the bone.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C7155 | A chondrosarcoma arising from the central portion of bone without a benign precursor. |
| C7157 | "A low-grade neoplasm that arises from the neurohypophysis. It includes pituicytoma, granular cell tumor of the sellar region, spindle cell oncocytoma, and ependymal pituicytoma." |
| C7158 | "A neoplasm that arises from the dermis and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C7159 |  |
| C7161 | "A neoplasm that arises from melanocytes in the skin. This category includes nevi, melanocytomas, and melanomas." |
| C7162 |  |
| C7164 | "A category of Hodgkin lymphomas that includes the following four histologic subtypes: lymphocyte-rich, nodular sclerosis, mixed cellularity, and lymphocyte-depleted classic Hodgkin lymphoma. The vast majority of Hodgkin lymphomas belong to this category." |
| C7165 | "Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma in which at least 75% of the tumor nodules contain scattered Reed-Sternberg cells. The background cellular infiltrate is lymphocytic, mixed, or fibrohistiocytic." |
| C7166 | Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma in which at least 25% of the tumor nodules contain increased numbers of Reed-Sternberg cells. |
| C7168 | A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of dysplasia in one or more hematopoietic cell lineages and 10-19% blasts in bone marrow or peripheral blood. |
| C71698 | The reemergence of a brain neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C71699 | The reemergence of a spinal cord neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C7169 |  |
| C71700 | The reemergence of a primary central nervous system neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C71701 | A primary central nervous system neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C71702 | Brain neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C71703 | Spinal cord neoplasm resistant to treatment. |
| C71712 | The reemergence of a spinal cord neoplasm in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C71713 | The reemergence of a spinal cord neoplasm in adulthood after a period of remission. |
| C71714 | Spinal cord neoplasm in childhood which is resistant to treatment. |
| C71715 | Spinal cord neoplasm in adulthood which is resistant to treatment. |
| C71719 | "A benign and self-limited localized disorder characterized by histiocytic proliferation and necrotic changes in the lymph nodes. It is rarely associated with lupus erythematosus. Signs and symptoms include localized lymphadenitis, fever, and leucopenia." |
| C7171 | "An acute myeloid leukemia in which the monoblasts represent 80% or more of the total cellular population.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C71720 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma arising from the central nervous system. |
| C7172 |  |
| C71732 | "An invasive breast carcinoma which is negative for expression of estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)." |
| C7173 | "A low-grade (WHO grade 2) astrocytic neoplasm. It is characterized by diffuse infiltration of neighboring central nervous system structures. These lesions typically affect young adults and have a tendency for progression to anaplastic astrocytoma and glioblastoma. Based on the IDH genes mutation status, diffuse astrocytomas are classified as IDH-mutant, IDH-wildtype, and not otherwise specified." |
| C7174 | "A low grade (WHO grade II) astrocytoma occurring during adulthood.  It is characterized by a high degree of cellular differentiation, slow growth, and diffuse infiltration of neighboring brain structures." |
| C7175 | "A group of acute myeloid leukemias characterized by recurrent genetic abnormalities, mainly balanced translocations.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C7176 |  |
| C7177 |  |
| C7178 | "An adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma characterized by less than 5% neoplastic lymphocytes in the peripheral blood, absence of lymphadenopathy and hypercalcemia, and occasional skin or pulmonary lesions." |
| C7179 | An adult T-cell leukemia/ lymphoma associated with skin lesions and mild lymphadenopathy.  Neoplastic lymphocytes are not numerous in the peripheral blood.  Hypercalcemia is absent. |
| C7180 | A benign lipomatous neoplasm characterized by the presence of an admixture of mature adipose tissue and bland spindle cells.  The pleomorphic variant contains in addition multinucleated giant cells.  It usually arises in the neck and upper trunk in older males. |
| C7182 | A B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder with uncertain malignant potential. The representative example of this category is lymphomatoid granulomatosis. |
| C7183 | "A clonal B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder arising as a result of post-transplant immunosuppression therapy. It is characterized by destructive infiltration of lymph nodes and extranodal sites by a polymorphic B-cell infiltrate composed of small and medium sized lymphocytes, immunoblasts, and plasma cells. In some cases, reduction of the immunosuppression therapy may lead to regression of the lesions. In other cases the lesions may progress to lymphoma." |
| C7184 | "A lymphoproliferative disorder that develops in patients who are immunosuppressed with methotrexate. This disorder is often Epstein-Barr virus positive, and morphologically it may resemble large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, or a polymorphous post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C7185 | A header term comprising lymphomas classified based on anatomic location. |
| C7186 |  |
| C7187 |  |
| C7188 | "A Burkitt lymphoma characterized by the presence of a uniform malignant lymphocytic infiltrate that is composed of medium-sized cells with round nuclei and multiple basophilic nucleoli, abundant mitotic figures, and a starry-sky pattern due to the presence of multiple tangible body macrophages." |
| C7189 | Burkitt lymphoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with eccentric basophilic cytoplasm. The nucleoli of these cells are often single and central. This morphologic variant of Burkitt lymphoma is more often seen in patients with immunodeficiency. |
| C7190 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the hypopharynx. |
| C7191 | A grade 3 follicular lymphoma in which centrocytes are present. |
| C7192 | A grade 3 follicular lymphoma composed of solid sheets of centroblasts. |
| C7194 | A follicular lymphoma with diffuse pattern characterized by the presence of 6-15 centroblasts per 40 high-power fields. |
| C7195 | A spectrum of lymphoproliferative disorders characterized by CD30 (Ki-1)-positive cutaneous T-cell infiltrates. The two ends of the spectrum include lymphomatoid papulosis and primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma. |
| C7196 | A CD30-positive T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the skin and is characterized by overlapping morphological features between anaplastic large cell lymphoma and lymphomatoid papulosis. |
| C7197 | "A variant of lymphomatoid papulosis characterized by the presence of scattered anaplastic large lymphocytes, often resembling Reed-Sternberg cells, admixed with acute and chronic inflammatory cells." |
| C7198 | A variant of lymphomatoid papulosis characterized by an epidermotropic infiltrate composed of small atypical cerebriform-like lymphocytes. |
| C7199 | "A variant of lymphomatoid papulosis characterized clinically by regressing skin papules, and morphologically by features resembling anaplastic large cell lymphoma." |
| C7200 | An anaplastic large cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of histopathologic features reminiscent of lymphomatoid papulosis. These features include the presence of Hodgkin-like cells in a background of acute and chronic inflammation. |
| C7201 | A neoplasm that is uncommon. |
| C7202 | "An antiquated term referring to cases of systemic non-Hodgkin lymphomas which are composed of large, atypical neoplastic lymphoid cells and cases of hemophagocytic syndromes. In the past, cases of anaplastic large cells lymphoma were called malignant histiocytosis." |
| C7203 | "A clinically aggressive neoplasm derived from the precursors of plasmacytoid dendritic cells (also called professional type I interferon-producing cells or plasmacytoid monocytes), with a high frequency of cutaneous and bone marrow involvement and leukemic dissemination. (WHO 2017)" |
| C7204 | "An obsolete variant of peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified included in the 2008 WHO classification. These lymphomas usually have a T follicular helper (TFH) cell phenotype and have been moved to the category of angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma and other nodal lymphomas of T follicular helper cell origin in the 2017 WHO update. (WHO 2017)" |
| C7205 | "A variant of peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic small lymphocytes infiltrating the lymph nodes in a diffuse and less frequently interfollicular pattern. There is an associated proliferation of epithelioid histiocytes forming confluent clusters." |
| C72069 | "A chronic disorder, possibly autoimmune, marked by excessive production of collagen which results in hardening and thickening of body tissues. Localized scleroderma typically affects the skin, with formation of patches or lines of thick and unyielding tissue; there can be muscle and underlying tissue involvement as well as occasional joint complications. The affected areas of skin can be restrictive and disfiguring. The shape, depth and location of the affected area is used to classify one ... |
| C7206 | "An anaplastic large cell lymphoma, characterized by CD30 positive lymphoid cells." |
| C72070 | "A chronic disorder, possibly autoimmune, marked by excessive production of collagen which results in hardening and thickening of body tissues. The two types of systemic scleroderma, limited cutaneous and diffuse cutaneous are classified with focus on the extent of affected skin. A relationship exists between the extent of skin area affected and degree of internal organ/system involvement. Systemic scleroderma can manifest itself in pulmonary fibrosis, Raynaud's syndrome, digestive system te... |
| C72074 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade epithelial neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation. It usually arises from the digestive system, lung, and head and neck." |
| C7207 | A histologic variant of anaplastic large cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of a large number of histiocytes admixed with the anaplastic lymphoma cells. |
| C7208 | A histologic variant of anaplastic large cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of a predominant population of small to medium size malignant cells with irregular nuclei. |
| C7209 | A B lymphoblastic lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C7210 | A T lymphoblastic lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C7211 | An anaplastic large cell lymphoma that occurs during childhood and is limited to the skin at the time of diagnosis. |
| C7212 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma occurring in HIV-positive patients. |
| C7213 | A diffuse large cell lymphoma developing in an HIV positive patient. |
| C7215 |  |
| C7216 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma with variable clinical course. |
| C7217 | "A primary lymphoma of the skin composed of various numbers of small and large irregular neoplastic follicle center cells.  Its morphologic pattern can be nodular, diffuse, or nodular and diffuse.  It presents with solitary or grouped plaques and tumors, and it usually involves the scalp, forehead, or trunk.  It rarely involves the legs.  This type of cutaneous lymphoma tends to remain localized to the skin." |
| C7218 | A follicular lymphoma involving the skin.  A cutaneous follicular lymphoma may be metastatic to the skin from the lymph nodes or other anatomic sites or primary (cutaneous follicle center lymphoma). |
| C7219 | A cutaneous lymphoma which contains 6-15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field. |
| C7220 | A cutaneous lymphoma which contains up to 5 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field. |
| C7221 | "Hodgkin lymphoma primarily involving the skin.  This diagnosis can only be made when there is no evidence of Hodgkin lymphoma in the lymph nodes or other anatomic sites.  Patients usually present with papules or nodular lesions.  Morphologically, primary cutaneous Hodgkin lymphoma may resemble lymphomatoid papulosis or anaplastic large cell lymphoma.  Immunohistochemical tissue evaluation is essential in establishing the diagnosis." |
| C7223 | Lymphocyte-rich classic Hodgkin lymphoma that occurs in adults. |
| C7224 | "An aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma frequently arising in the setting of HIV infection and characterized by the presence of large neoplastic cells resembling B-immunoblasts which have the immunophenotypic profile of plasma cells.  Sites of involvement include the oral cavity, sinonasal cavity, skin, soft tissues, gastrointestinal tract, and bone." |
| C7225 | A usually aggressive large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of monomorphic immunoblast-like neoplastic B-lymphocytes in a sinusoidal growth pattern.  The neoplastic B-lymphocytes express the ALK kinase but they lack the 2;5 translocation. |
| C7226 | T lymphoblastic lymphoma occurring in adults. |
| C7227 | T lymphoblastic lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C7228 | Mature B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C7229 | An aggressive mantle cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of neoplastic B-lymphocytes resembling lymphoblasts. |
| C7230 | A B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder that arises from the skin. It was previously known as primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. Two subtypes are recognized: heavy chain class-switched primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoproliferative disorder and IgM-positive primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoproliferative disorder. The majority of cases are class-switched and predominantly IgG-positive. |
| C7231 | "A B-cell or T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the small intestine.  Representative examples of B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma include diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, MALT lymphoma, alpha heavy chain disease/immunoproliferative small intestinal disease, Burkitt lymphoma, follicular lymphoma, and mantle cell lymphoma.  The T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas are the enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma and the monomorphic CD56 positive intestinal T-cell lymphoma." |
| C7232 | "A lymphoproliferative disorder arising as a result of post-transplant immunosuppression therapy.  It is characterized by the presence of tissue destruction and effacement of the architecture of the involved tissues. It includes the following variants: polymorphic, monomorphic, and classical Hodgkin lymphoma post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders." |
| C7233 | A clonal lymphoproliferative disorder arising as a result of post-transplant immunosuppression therapy. It is characterized by destructive infiltration of lymph nodes and extranodal sites by a monotonous population of transformed lymphocytes or plasma cells.  It includes two variants: monomorphic B-cell and monomorphic T/NK cell post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders. |
| C7234 | A lymphoproliferative disorder arising as a result of post-transplant immunosuppression therapy. It is characterized by the lack of tissue destruction and the architectural preservation of the involved tissues.  It includes two morphologic variants: plasmacytic hyperplasia and infectious mononucleosis-like lymphoproliferative disorders. |
| C7235 | "An early post-transplant lymphoproliferative lesion characterized by plasmacytic proliferation and architectural preservation of the involved tissues.  It often regresses either spontaneously or after reduction in immunosuppression.  The immunoglobulin genes are not rearranged.  In some cases, a polymorphic or monomorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder may follow this early lesion." |
| C7236 | "An early post-transplant lymphoproliferative lesion characterized by immunoblastic proliferation and paracortical expansion as seen in infectious mononucleosis.  There is architectural preservation of the involved tissues.  Oligoclonal or monoclonal cellular populations have been detected in a small number of cases.  In some cases, a polymorphic or monomorphic post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder may follow this early lesion." |
| C7237 | "A clonal B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder arising as a result of post-transplant immunosuppression therapy. It is characterized by destructive infiltration of lymph nodes and extranodal sites by a monotonous population of transformed B-lymphocytes or plasma cells. The clonal cellular infiltrates fulfill the criteria for a diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma, or a plasma cell neoplasm." |
| C7238 | A clonal T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder arising as a result of post-transplant immunosuppression therapy. It is characterized by destructive infiltration of lymph nodes and extranodal sites by a monotonous population of transformed T-lymphocytes/NK-cells.  The clonal cellular infiltrates fulfill the criteria for any of the T-cell or natural killer cell lymphomas. |
| C7240 | A plasma cell neoplasm that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C7241 | A plasmacytoma-like hematologic malignancy that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C7242 | A lymphoproliferative disorder that develops following an organ transplantation and exhibits multiple myeloma features. |
| C7243 | A lymphoproliferative disorder that fulfills the criteria for classic Hodgkin lymphoma and arises as a result of post-transplant immunosuppression therapy. It is most often seen in renal transplant patients. |
| C7244 | A Burkitt lymphoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C7245 | A Burkitt-like lymphoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C7246 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C7247 | An anaplastic lymphoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C7248 | A centroblastic lymphoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C7249 | An immunoblastic lymphoma that arises in a patient with a history of organ transplantation. |
| C7251 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the testis. Representative examples include malignant germ cell tumors, sarcomas, leukemias, and lymphomas." |
| C7252 | A peripheral T-cell lymphoma that develops in patients who are immunosuppressed with methotrexate. |
| C7253 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that develops in patients who are immunosuppressed with methotrexate. |
| C7254 | A follicular lymphoma that develops in patients who are immunosuppressed with methotrexate. |
| C7255 | A Burkitt lymphoma that develops in patients who are immunosuppressed with methotrexate. |
| C7256 | A Hodgkin lymphoma that develops in patients who are immunosuppressed with methotrexate. |
| C7258 | "A B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of scattered clonal cells known as lymphocyte predominant cells (LP cells) in a background of reactive lymphocytes and histiocytes, and formation of a nodular or nodular and diffuse growth pattern." |
| C7259 | The reemergence of nodular lymphocyte predominant B-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C7260 | Nodular lymphocyte predominant B-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C7261 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C7262 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C7263 | "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma variant, primarily involving the thyroid gland.  It is composed predominantly of immunoblasts." |
| C7264 | A lymphoma with the morphologic and immunophenotypic features of a follicular lymphoma characterized by the presence of a diffuse growth pattern with only focal and usually small micronodular foci. |
| C7266 | "A large cell lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of a solid nodular or anastomotic trabecular growth pattern, peripheral palisading, and comedo type necrosis." |
| C7267 | "A subtype of large cell neuroendocrine lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of large neuroendocrine cells in combination with adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, giant cell carcinoma and/ or spindle cell carcinoma." |
| C7268 | A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by tall columnar cells and mucin production. |
| C7269 | A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung  adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of Clara cells and/or type II cells. |
| C7270 | "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of Clara cells and/or type II cells, tall columnar cells, and mucin production." |
| C7271 | A neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of papillary proliferations of atypical serous epithelial cells and a cystic component.  There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C7278 | A serous cystadenoma of the ovary characterized by the presence of small papillary projections in the inner surface of the cysts. |
| C7279 | A benign serous neoplasm characterized by the presence of papillary proliferations on the surface of the ovary. |
| C7281 | "A low grade, non-invasive ovarian epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical neoplastic serous and mucinous cells." |
| C7282 | "A non-metastasizing mixed epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of more than one epithelial cell type, most often serous and endocervical-type mucinous. There is no evidence of atypia. This category includes seromucinous cystadenoma and seromucinous adenofibroma." |
| C7283 | A teratoma that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of cystic structures.  Representative example is the dermoid cyst. |
| C7284 | "An adult-type tumor that has derived from an ovarian dermoid cyst.  Representative examples include dermoid cyst with secondary carcinoma, dermoid cyst with secondary sarcoma, and dermoid cyst with pituitary-type tumor." |
| C7285 | A mature teratoma that arises from the ovary and presents as a large solid mass.  It contains multiple cysts that vary in size.  Small foci of hemorrhage are also present. |
| C7286 | A teratoma that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of tissues derived exclusively from one embryonic germ cell layer. |
| C7287 | "A group of sex cord-stromal tumors that arise from the ovary.  These tumors are characterized by the presence of granulosa cells, stromal cells, and/or theca cells.  This group includes granulosa cell tumor and tumors of the thecoma/fibroma group." |
| C7288 | "A low-grade malignant sex cord-stromal tumor that occurs in the ovary and affects middle aged to post-menopausal women. It is composed of granulosa cells in an often fibrothecomatous stroma. The neoplastic cells may form various patterns including the microfollicular, which is characterized by the presence of Call-Exner bodies, macrofollicular, insular, trabecular, and diffuse pattern. Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, hemoperitoneum, and ascites. Estrogenic and rarely androgenic m... |
| C72898 | Rupture of the fibrous strands connecting the ciliary body and the crystalline lens of the eye. |
| C7289 | An ovarian granulosa cell tumor that affects females in the first three decades of life. It presents unilaterally as stage I disease in the vast majority of cases. The prognosis is usually good. |
| C7290 | A group of neoplasms that arise from the ovary and represent a spectrum of tumors ranging from neoplasms that are composed entirely of fibroblasts to those that are composed predominantly of theca cells. |
| C7291 | A benign neoplasm arising from soft tissue of the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and increased cellularity. |
| C7292 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the spleen. |
| C7294 | Non-Hodgkin lymphoma involving the spleen. |
| C7295 | A rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the spleen. |
| C7296 | Infiltration and expansion of the white and/or red pulp and sinusoids of the spleen by leukemic cells. |
| C7297 | Infiltration and expansion of the white and red pulp of the spleen by prolymphocytic leukemia. |
| C7298 | Infiltration and expansion of the white and red pulp of the spleen by T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia. |
| C7299 | Infiltration and expansion of the white and red pulp of the spleen by B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia. |
| C7300 | Infiltration of the spleen by chronic lymphocytic leukemia. It primarily involves the white pulp. |
| C7301 | Infiltration and expansion of the red pulp of the spleen by hairy cell leukemia. |
| C7302 | Infiltration and expansion of the red pulp cords and sinusoids of the spleen by T-cell large granular lymphocyte leukemia. The white pulp of the spleen is not involved and is often hyperplastic. |
| C7303 | "Infiltration and expansion of the red pulp and sinusoids of the spleen by chronic myeloid leukemia, BCR-ABL1 positive." |
| C7304 | Small lymphocytic lymphoma occurring in the spleen. |
| C7305 | A lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma  occurring in the spleen. |
| C7306 | A mantle cell lymphoma occurring in the spleen. |
| C7307 | A follicular lymphoma occurring in the spleen. |
| C7308 | A rare diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the spleen. |
| C7309 | Burkitt lymphoma that involves the spleen. |
| C7310 | B lymphoblastic lymphoma that involves the spleen. |
| C7311 | T lymphoblastic lymphoma that affects the spleen. |
| C7312 | Lymphoblastic lymphoma that affects the spleen. |
| C7313 | "A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelium that resembles the epithelium of the fallopian tube. There is no evidence of atypia.  It includes serous cystadenoma, serous adenofibroma, serous cystadenofibroma, and surface papilloma." |
| C7315 | A neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of papillary proliferations that contain atypical serous epithelial cells in the outer surface of the ovary.  There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C7317 | A biphasic neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of mullerian-type epithelial tissue in a mesenchymal sarcomatous stroma.  The presence of a high grade sarcomatous component is associated with recurrences and metastases. |
| C7318 | "Acute myeloid leukemia in which 80% or more of the leukemic cells are of monocytic lineage, including monoblasts, promonocytes, and monocytes. Bleeding disorders are common presenting features." |
| C7319 | An acute monoblastic and monocytic leukemia that occurs in adults. |
| C7320 | "A chronic myeloid leukemia, BCR-ABL1 positive occurring during childhood." |
| C7321 | "A neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of germ cell and sex cord-stromal tissues that are intimately admixed.  If there is no malignant germ cell component present, the clinical course is benign." |
| C7322 | A tumor that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of a neoplastic germ cell component and a neoplastic sex cord-stromal component. |
| C7325 | Intratubular germ cell neoplasia characterized by the filling of the seminiferous tubules by non-seminomatous malignant germ cells. The non-seminomatous malignant germ cells  are usually of embryonal carcinoma type. |
| C7326 | "A malignant neoplasm that arises from the testis and is characterized by the presence of large germ cells with abundant cytoplasm in the seminiferous tubules, associated with an invasive germ cell tumor in the adjacent tissues." |
| C7327 |  |
| C7328 | "A malignant germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It is believed that it is derived from the sexually undifferentiated embryonic gonad.  Treatment with radiotherapy is highly successful when the tumor is diagnosed in localized stages, which represents the majority of presentations of seminoma." |
| C7329 | Intratubular germ cell neoplasia characterized by the complete filling of the seminiferous tubules by seminoma cells. |
| C7333 | A locally aggressive or rarely metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the soft tissues.  It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle-shaped fibroblasts. |
| C7334 | A vascular neoplasm with borderline malignant potential. |
| C7335 | A benign or malignant endocrine neoplasm that arises from the testis or the ovary. |
| C7336 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include Schneiderian papilloma and salivary gland-type adenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma and lymphoma. |
| C7337 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm that affects the peritoneum and/or retroperitoneum." |
| C7338 | B lymphoblastic lymphoma that occurs in adults. |
| C7339 | A subtype of monoclonal immunoglobulin deposition disease in which heavy chain deposition results in non-amyloid tissue deposits which may cause organ dysfunction. |
| C7340 | A hematopoietic and lymphoid neoplasm that is categorized using nomenclature that is no longer in use or diagnostic criteria that are outdated. |
| C7341 | "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the skin and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C7342 | "A benign, premalignant, or malignant neoplasm that arises from epithelial cells and involves the skin." |
| C7346 | "A neoplastic process that affects the squamous epithelium of the cervix.  It is classified as cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia 1, 2, or 3, according to the degree of squamous cell maturation and cellular atypia, and the number of mitotic figures." |
| C7347 | "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0). Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. FIGO no longer includes stage 0. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C7348 | "A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the squamous, glandular, or transitional cell epithelium without evidence of invasion. According to the degree of nuclear atypia, number of mitotic figures, and presence of architectural distortion, it is classified as grade II (moderate dysplasia) or grade III (severe dysplasia)." |
| C7351 |  |
| C7352 | A rare carcinoma that arises from the retroperitoneal space. |
| C7353 | A rare lymphoma that arises from the retroperitoneum. |
| C7354 | A rare benign neoplasm that arises from the mesothelial cells of the peritoneum. It is characterized by the presence of gland-like structures. Cytologic atypia is absent. |
| C7355 | A carcinoma that arises from the urothelial lining of the renal pelvis. It is associated with tobacco use and usually presents with gross or microscopic hematuria.  Urothelial carcinomas of the renal pelvis are usually of higher grade and higher stage compared to bladder urothelial carcinomas. |
| C7356 | A carcinoma that arises from the gallbladder.  It is characterized by the presence of glandular and squamous malignant epithelial components. |
| C7357 | "A chondrosarcoma arising from the surface of bone. It is characterized by a lobulated growth pattern, high mitotic activity, myxoid stroma formation, and necrotic changes. It occurs in adults. Clinical presentation includes pain, and sometimes swelling." |
| C7359 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the uterine body cavity.  This is the most frequent malignant tumor affecting the uterine body, and is linked to estrogen therapy.  Most patients present with uterine bleeding and are over age 40 at the time of diagnosis.  The prognosis depends on the stage of the tumor, the depth of the uterine wall invasion, and the histologic subtype.  Endometrioid adenocarcinoma is the most frequently seen morphologic variant of endometrial adenocarcinoma." |
| C7360 | High grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of moderate architectural and cytologic abnormalities. |
| C7361 | A melanoma arising from the scrotum. |
| C7362 | An infiltrating ductal breast carcinoma associated with stromal fibrosis. |
| C7363 | A neoplastic process characterized by the presence of multiple intraductal papillomas. |
| C7364 |  |
| C7365 |  |
| C7367 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the hair follicle of the skin. |
| C7368 | "A benign adnexal neoplasm arising from hair-bearing skin surfaces, usually the head and neck and upper extremities. It usually presents as a solitary, slow-growing nodular mass. Morphologically, it displays differentiation towards the matrix and inner sheath of the normal hair follicle and the hair cortex. Complete surgical excision is usually curative. Occasionally, it may recur." |
| C7371 | An adenocarcinoma arising in the accessory urethral glands. |
| C7372 | Glioneuronal and neuronal tumors occurring in the cerebellum. |
| C7373 | "A nasopharyngeal carcinoma characterized by the lack of keratinization and the presence of a dense lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate. The vast majority of cases are associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection. It is subdivided into differentiated and undifferentiated types, based on the cytologic features of the malignant cells. The differentiated type (type II) is characterized by the presence of smaller cells and cellular stratification reminiscent of transitional cell carcinoma. The undiffer... |
| C7376 | "A malignant neoplasm that arises from mesothelial cells in the pleura and shows a diffuse growth pattern. It arises on the parietal and sometimes visceral pleura as multiple small nodules that later become confluent and invade the chest wall adipose tissue and muscle. Asbestos exposure is the main cause for the development of pleural malignant mesothelioma. It usually affects patients over sixty years of age. The latency period is long.  Patients usually present with pleural effusion, dyspn... |
| C7377 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the lung. |
| C7378 | A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the prostate gland.  The vast majority are carcinomas. |
| C7379 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the anal canal or perianal skin.  Representative examples include carcinomas, lymphomas, and melanomas." |
| C7380 |  |
| C7381 | "A nonencapsulated, infiltrating papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the predominance of follicular structures. The malignant follicular cells display the nuclear features that characterize the papillary adenocarcinomas of the thyroid gland." |
| C7383 | An invasive or non-invasive papillary urothelial carcinoma of the urinary bladder. It is classified as low or high-grade. |
| C7386 | A thymoma that is confined within the capsule and may display benign or malignant morphologic characteristics. |
| C7387 | A neoplasm arising from arteries or veins. |
| C7388 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm arising from vascular tissue including arteries, veins, venous sinuses, lymphatic vessels, arterioles and capillaries. It may occur in essentially any body location and is characterized by the presence of vascular channel formation and endothelial cells." |
| C7389 | "A mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from vascular tissue usually of the skin. It is characterized by the presence of vascular channel formation and endothelial cells. There is no evidence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, invasive features, or metastases." |
| C7390 | A malignant neoplasm arising from the vascular tissue.  It is characterized by vascular channel formation and malignant endothelial cells. |
| C7391 | "A borderline blood vessel neoplasm that can be locally aggressive, and may metastasize on rare occasions." |
| C7393 | A hemangioma that arises from the skin and is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells. |
| C7395 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the nasopharynx. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7396 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0).  T3: Tumor involves bony structures and/or paranasal sinuses. N2: Bilateral metastasis in lymph node(s), 6 cm or less in greatest dimension, above the supraclavicular fossa. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7397 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0); IVB (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Tumor with intracranial extension and/or involvement of cranial nerves, infratemporal fossa, hypopharynx, orbit, or masticator space.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph node(s).  N3a: greater than 6 cm in dimension.  N3b: extension to the supraclavicular fossa.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7398 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the oropharynx. |
| C7399 | "An adenoma arising from the glandular epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of a villous architectural pattern. Most often it occurs in the large intestine, small intestine, and the stomach. The neoplastic epithelial cells show dysplastic features." |
| C7400 | The leukemic counterpart of Burkitt's lymphoma. The characteristic Burkitt cells are seen in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. This is an aggressive leukemia. |
| C7401 | "An indolent chronic B-cell leukemia resembling classic hairy cell leukemia but shows variant cytologic, hematologic, and immunophenotypic features and is resistant to the conventional therapy applied to hairy cell leukemia.  Biologically, it is not related to hairy cell leukemia." |
| C7402 | "A neoplasm of small B-lymphocytes with ""hairy"" projections in bone marrow, spleen, and peripheral blood.  Most patients present with splenomegaly and pancytopenia. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C7404 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the tonsil. |
| C7405 | Atrophic gastritis that is persistent and long-standing. |
| C7406 | "A chronic, autoimmune inflammatory condition of the mucous membranes in the oral cavity that affects approximately two percent of the population and is most often seen in middle aged women. It is characterized by white, lacy patches; red, swollen tissue; papules and plaques; or open sores. The lesions are typically bilateral." |
| C7407 | A pathologic process that arises from the anus and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. |
| C7410 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the vagina. Representative examples include carcinomas and sarcomas. |
| C7411 | A premalignant pathologic process that affects the epithelial cells of the laryngeal mucosa. |
| C7412 | A pathologic process that arises from the pancreas and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. |
| C7413 | So-called nephrogenic adenoma is a distinct metaplastic lesion of the urothelium characterized by aggregates of cuboidal or hobnail cells.  These cells line thin papillary fronds on the surface or form tubular structures within the lamina propria. |
| C7414 | "An exophytic glandular neoplasm of the bladder, morphologically similar to its intestinal counterpart.  It often coexists with in situ or infiltrating bladder adenocarcinoma." |
| C7415 | "A metaplastic lesion of the urothelium found in the urinary bladder. It is characterized by the presence of aggregates of cuboidal or hobnail cells and represents a reaction of the urothelium to injury caused by instrumentation, surgery or calculi." |
| C7416 | "A metaplastic lesion of the urothelium found in the urethra. It is characterized by the presence of aggregates of cuboidal or hobnail cells and represents a reaction of the urothelium to injury caused by instrumentation, surgery or calculi." |
| C7417 | "A polypoid tumor that arises from the gallbladder.  It is characterized by the presence of elongated, serrated crypts lined by proliferative epithelium." |
| C7418 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the rectum.  Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C7419 | A benign skin neoplasm composed of epithelial cells. |
| C7420 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the rectosigmoid area.  Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C7421 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the rectosigmoid area and invades through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa.  The vast majority are adenocarcinomas.  About 50% of colorectal carcinomas occur in the rectosigmoid area. |
| C7422 |  |
| C7423 | A pathologic process that arises from the esophagus and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. |
| C7424 | A pathologic process that arises from the stomach and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. |
| C7425 | "A premalignant pathologic process that affects the mucosa surface of the oral cavity or lip.  It includes leukoplakia, erythroplakia, and smoker's keratosis." |
| C7426 | "The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the rectum.  This may be from a primary large intestine malignant neoplasm, or from a malignant neoplasm at a distant site." |
| C7427 | "A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland that more often affects young patients and commonly metastasizing to the lungs.  It is characterized by a diffuse infiltration of the thyroid gland by malignant follicular cells, squamous metaplasia, stromal fibrosis, and lymphocytic infiltration." |
| C7430 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from the epithelial cells of the exocrine pancreatic tissue. |
| C7431 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the ovary. Most primary malignant ovarian neoplasms are either carcinomas (serous, mucinous, or endometrioid adenocarcinomas) or malignant germ cell tumors. Metastatic malignant neoplasms to the ovary include carcinomas, lymphomas, and melanomas." |
| C7432 | A carcinoma that arises from the cervix in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. |
| C7433 | A Kaposi sarcoma arising from the cervix in patients who are infected with the human immunodeficiency virus. |
| C7434 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the cervix in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. |
| C7435 | A pathologic process that arises from the lung and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. This category includes bronchial intraepithelial neoplasia and atypical adenomatous hyperplasia. |
| C7436 | A term referring to neoplastic changes in the bronchial epithelium manifested as dysplasia. |
| C7437 | A very rare condition characterized by generalized proliferation of pulmonary neuroendocrine cells.  It manifests as progressive cough and dyspnea.  It is considered a precursor for pulmonary carcinoid tumor. |
| C7438 | A carcinoma that has papillary growth and invades the wall and/or the surrounding tissues of the organ it originates from. |
| C7439 | A breast adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of intraductal and invasive papillary carcinomatous components. |
| C7440 | A benign epithelial neoplasm that projects above the surrounding epithelial surface and consists of villous or arborescent outgrowths of fibrovascular stroma. |
| C7442 | A tumor with myoepithelial differentiation that lacks an infiltrative growth pattern and does not metastasize. |
| C74440 | "A condition in which the production of red blood cells, white blood cells, and/or platelets by bone marrow stem cells is inhibited, usually as a side effect of treatment with various anti-cancer agents, radiation, or tumor development within the bone marrow." |
| C7445 | An astrocytoma that arises from the brain stem. |
| C7446 | An anaplastic glioma that arises from the brain stem. |
| C7447 |  |
| C7448 |  |
| C7449 | An uncommon lipoma characterized by prominent vascularity that invades the surrounding deep tissue. |
| C7450 | "A benign tumor, composed of mature adipocytes, that arises within skeletal muscle fibers." |
| C7451 | "A benign tumor, composed of lobules of mature adipocytes, that penetrates the surrounding tissue from which it arises. There is usually a higher local recurrence rate when compared with non-infiltrating lipomas." |
| C7452 | "An intraosseous odontogenic neoplasm with good prognosis, arising from the mandible and less frequently from the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of stellate cells, myxoid stroma formation, and prominent collagen. Small tumors may be cured with enucleation. Complete excision may be required for larger tumors." |
| C7453 | A carcinoma that arises from the squamous epithelium of the exocervix. |
| C7454 | A lung carcinoma arising from the hilum of the lung. |
| C7456 | "The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the ovary.  This may be from a primary ovarian malignant neoplasm involving the opposite ovary, or from a malignant neoplasm at a distant site." |
| C7457 | A common hemangioma characterized by the presence of capillary-sized vascular channels without prominent epithelioid endothelial cells. |
| C7460 | An epithelial or non-epithelial malignant neoplasm that has spread to the anus from another anatomic site. |
| C7461 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that produces growth hormone. |
| C7462 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that produces adrenocorticotropic hormone. |
| C7463 | "An acute leukemia characterized by the proliferation of both neutrophil and monocyte precursors.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C7464 | "An acute leukemia in which the blasts lack sufficient evidence to classify as myeloid or lymphoid or they have morphologic and/or immunophenotypic characteristics of both myeloid and lymphoid cells. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C7465 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising from the anus and occurring in HIV-positive patients.  Homosexual HIV-positive men have an increased risk of developing anal non-Hodgkin lymphoma in comparison to the general male population.  The majority of the cases are large cell lymphomas of B-cell phenotype. |
| C7467 | "Acute erythroid leukemia characterized by the presence of immature erythroid cells in the bone marrow (at least 80% of the cellular component), without evidence of a significant myeloblastic cell population present." |
| C7468 | An ovarian mature teratoma characterized by the presence of aberrant thyroid tissue. |
| C7469 | A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the mucosa of the anal canal. |
| C7470 | "A large, well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma with a cauliflower-like appearance, characterized by the presence of an exophytic and endophytic growth pattern.  Morphologically, there is papillomatosis and acanthosis present, however cytologically the neoplastic squamous cells have a benign appearance.  Dysplastic changes are minimal. It does not respond to conservative treatment and it is regarded by many authors as an intermediate lesion between condyloma acuminatum and squamous cel... |
| C7471 | "An anal adenocarcinoma arising from the anal canal mucosa.  Morphologically, it resembles the adenocarcinoma which arises from the colorectal glandular epithelium.  Symptoms include anal pruritus, discomfort when sitting, pain, change in bowel habit, and bleeding." |
| C7472 | "A carcinoma arising in the anal margin or perianal skin (below the anal verge and involving the perianal hair-bearing skin).  It includes basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma. Anal margin carcinoma is staged as a skin carcinoma, separately from anal canal carcinoma." |
| C7473 | A basal cell carcinoma arising from the perianal skin.  Local excision is the treatment of choice.  Metastases are extremely rare. |
| C7474 | An anal adenocarcinoma arising from the lining of an anorectal fistulous tract or the anal glands.  The overlying anal mucosa does not show evidence of neoplastic changes.  It usually presents as a submucosal tumor. |
| C7475 | An anal adenocarcinoma arising from the lining of an anorectal fistulous tract.  The overlying anal mucosa does not show evidence of neoplastic changes.  Some cases are associated with Crohn disease. |
| C7476 | Paget disease involving the perianal skin. |
| C7477 | Paget disease involving the squamous epithelium of the anal canal. |
| C7478 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the esophagus. |
| C7479 | "A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the esophagus from another organ or system, or from another primary esophageal tumor. The primary esophageal tumor is not in continuity with the metastatic lesion. Representative examples of metastatic cancers to the esophagus include breast and lung metastatic carcinomas and melanomas." |
| C7480 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the fallopian tube.  Representative examples include carcinoma, carcinosarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma." |
| C7481 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the gallbladder.  Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, melanoma, and sarcoma." |
| C7482 | "A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the gallbladder from another anatomic site.  Representative examples include metastatic melanoma, and metastatic carcinomas from the breast and the stomach." |
| C7483 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the extrahepatic bile ducts.  Representative examples include carcinoma and sarcoma. |
| C7484 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the larynx.  The majority are carcinomas. |
| C7485 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the lip. |
| C7486 | "A polyp that arises from the paranasal sinus mucosa. Causes include allergic rhinitis, chronic sinusitis, and cystic fibrosis. It is characterized by the presence of edematous tissue infiltrated by inflammatory cells, including eosinophils." |
| C7487 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the paranasal sinuses. |
| C7488 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the paranasal sinuses.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include Schneiderian papilloma and salivary gland-type adenoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include carcinoma and lymphoma. |
| C7489 | "A squamous cell carcinoma or less frequently an adenocarcinoma, often associated with human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. Homosexual men are at particular risk. The most important prognostic factors are tumor stage and nodal status." |
| C7490 | "A precancerous neoplastic intraepithelial process involving the anal canal.  When it is clinically noticeable, it may appear as an eczematous or papillary lesion, plaques, or papules.  Morphologically, it is characterized by loss of epithelial stratification and nuclear polarity, cytologic atypia, and the presence of mitotic figures.  It may be classified as low or high grade." |
| C7491 | "A non-keratinizing or keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma that arises centrally from the jaw.  It is characterized by a solid pattern, infiltration of the marrow spaces, and osseous resorption." |
| C7492 | "A rare, cytologically malignant ameloblastoma that may metastasize." |
| C7493 | "A rare, aggressive odontogenic malignant tumor that arises usually from the mandible and less frequently from the maxilla.  It combines the histologic features of an ameloblastoma and carcinoma." |
| C7496 | A very rare ameloblastic carcinoma that originates from a pre-existing benign ameloblastoma. |
| C7497 | "A rare, aggressive malignant tumor that originates from an odontogenic cyst in the maxillomandibular region.  It combines the histologic features of an ameloblastoma and carcinoma." |
| C74983 | "A rare syndrome caused by the deletion of the distal band on the short arm of chromosome 1.  It is characterized by a distinctive facial appearance (microcephaly, deep set eyes, flat nose, and pointed chin), developmental abnormalities, mental retardation, seizures, hypotonia, hearing loss, and heart defects." |
| C74984 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the COL11A1, COL11A2, and COL2A1 genes which affect the production of type II and XI collagen. It is characterized by a range of signs and symptoms including cleft palate, large tongue, small lower jaw, hearing loss, myopia, glaucoma, retinal detachment, skeletal, and joint abnormalities." |
| C74985 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the COL11A1 gene.  It is characterized by an abnormal ocular vitreous architecture (beaded vitreous phenotype).  Other signs and symptoms include retinal detachment, joint hypermobility, hearing loss, and midline clefting." |
| C74986 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the IRF6 gene. It is characterized by a cleft palate and/or pits on the lower lip. Other signs and symptoms include absent teeth, palate and tongue deformities." |
| C74987 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the MYCN oncogene. It is characterized by microcephaly, limb abnormalities, esophageal and/or duodenal atresia." |
| C74988 | "A rare disorder characterized by the failure of the forebrain to divide into distinct hemispheres. It is associated with craniofacial abnormalities, developmental abnormalities, and seizures." |
| C7498 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises centrally from the jaw.  It is characterized by a solid pattern, keratin production, infiltration of the marrow spaces, and osseous resorption." |
| C74995 | A rare disorder characterized by the partial separation of the cerebral hemispheres.  It is associated with mutations in the SIX3 gene. |
| C74996 | "A rare genetic syndrome characterized by the hypoplasia or absence of the cerebellar vermis. Signs and symptoms include rapid breathing (hyperpnea), sleep apnea, abnormal eye movements, mental retardation, and ataxia." |
| C74997 | "A rare genetic syndrome caused by mutations in the NPHP1 gene. It is characterized by the hypoplasia or absence of the cerebellar vermis. Signs and symptoms include rapid breathing (hyperpnea), sleep apnea, abnormal eye movements, mental retardation, and ataxia." |
| C74998 | "Progressive tubulointerstitial nephritis inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.  It is caused by mutations in the NPHP1 gene.  Patients present with anemia, polyuria, and polydipsia during childhood.  The progressive bilateral kidney damage results in renal failure." |
| C74999 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the ZEB2 gene. It is characterized by mental retardation, and a distinctive facial appearance (wide set eyes, uplifted earlobes, broad nasal bridge, prominent chin, and a smiling expression). The majority of patients have Hirschsprung disease (colonic enlargement and constipation due to intestinal blockage)." |
| C7499 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises centrally from the jaw.  It is characterized by a solid pattern, lack of prominent keratinization, infiltration of the marrow spaces, and osseous resorption." |
| C75000 | "A rare genetic disorder often inherited in an autosomal manner characterized by limb malformations including syndactyly, median clefts of the hands and/or feet, and partial or complete absence of fingers or toes. It may be associated with other skeletal and extraskeletal abnormalities." |
| C75002 | Split-hand/foot malformation mapped to chromosome 2q31. |
| C75003 | A rare genetic disorder characterized by malformations in the hands and feet.  The abnormalities include increased number of fingers and toes and fusion of digits into one large digit. |
| C75005 | Synpolydactyly caused by mutations in the HOXD13 gene. |
| C75006 | "A genetically heterogenous syndrome characterized by vascular abnormalities including aortic and arterial aneurysms, aortic dissection, and tortuosity of the arteries. Other findings include scoliosis, long fingers, and joint hypermobility. Patients with TGFBR1 gene mutations also exhibit hypertelorism, bifid uvula, and early fusion of the skull bones." |
| C75008 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the PAX3 gene. It is characterized by hearing loss, dystopia canthorum (widely spaced inner corners of the eyes), and changes in the color of the skin, hair, and eyes." |
| C75009 | A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the MITF and SNAI2 genes. It has all of the features of Waardenburg syndrome Type 1 except dystopia canthorum. |
| C7500 | "A rare primary intraosseous carcinoma, not otherwise specified, that arises from the lining of an odontogenic cyst." |
| C75011 | Waardenburg syndrome Type 2 caused by mutations in the MITF gene. |
| C75012 | "A rare congenital brain malformation disorder characterized by agenesis or hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis, cystic dilatation of the fourth ventricle, and enlargement of the posterior fossa." |
| C75015 | A rare autosomal dominant syndrome linked to mutations in the PITX2 gene.  It is characterized by abnormalities in the anterior chamber of the eye and underdevelopment of the teeth. |
| C75016 | "A rare syndrome characterized by low birth weight, delayed growth, mental retardation, behavioral problems, and a distinctive facial appearance (thin, arched eyebrows, low set ears, small teeth, and small nose). The majority of cases are caused by mutations in the NIPBL gene. Less severe forms of the syndrome are caused by mutations in the SMC1A and SMC3 genes." |
| C75018 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the TCOF1 gene. Its characteristics include underdevelopment of the facial bones, small jaw and chin, absent or small ears, defects in the middle ear resulting in hearing loss, and downward sloping palpebral fissures." |
| C75019 | "An autosomal dominant overgrowth syndrome caused by mutation(s) of the NSD1 or the NFIX gene, encoding H3 lysine-36 and H4 lysine-20 specific histone-lysine N-methyltransferase, and nuclear factor 1 X-type, respectively. The condition is characterized by a disproportionately large and long head with a slightly prominent forehead and pointed chin, hypertelorism, down-slanting eyes, large hands and feet, overgrowth in childhood, and developmental delay." |
| C7501 | "An intraosseous odontogenic neoplasm with good prognosis, arising from the mandible and less frequently from the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of stellate cells and abundant myxoid stroma formation. Small tumors may be cured with enucleation. Complete excision may be required for larger tumors." |
| C75020 | "A rare autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the RUNX2 gene.  It is characterized by developmental abnormalities in the bones and teeth, including the complete or partial absence of the clavicles, delayed closure of the fontanels, protruding mandible, hypertelorism, scoliosis, and short stature." |
| C7502 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the vulva. |
| C75034 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the TWIST1 gene. It is characterized by premature closure of skull bones resulting in abnormally shaped head, high forehead, hypertelorism, and facial asymmetry. It may be associated with fusion of certain fingers or toes." |
| C7503 | A phyllodes tumor with morphologic characteristics which are intermediate between a benign and a malignant phyllodes tumor. The stromal sarcomatous changes are of low grade and are often reminiscent of low grade fibrosarcomas. |
| C75045 | Split-hand/foot malformation mapped to chromosome 7q21.3 |
| C7504 | "A localized, well-circumscribed multilocular tumor lined by hobnail epithelium. It was previously classified along with pediatric cystic nephroma, as a separate entity from mixed epithelial and stromal tumors. Now it is classified within the spectrum of the mixed epithelial and stromal tumor family. Most of these tumors are benign. (WHO 2016)." |
| C7506 | Myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of 5-9% blasts in bone marrow and 2-9% blasts in peripheral blood. |
| C7507 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the urethra. |
| C7508 | The reemergence of urethral carcinoma after a period of remission |
| C7509 | "A malignant neoplasm either directly extending to the thyroid gland from adjacent structures (e.g. pharynx, larynx, esophagus, cervical lymph nodes), or spreading to the thyroid gland from distant anatomic sites, most frequently kidney, lung, uterus, breast, and skin.  The majority of cases are carcinomas, lymphomas, and melanomas." |
| C75100 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome usually caused by mutations in the CHD7 gene. The term CHARGE is an acronym for the following unusual congenital abnormalities that are associated with this syndrome: coloboma of the eye, heart defects, choanal atresia, growth and developmental retardation, genital, and ear abnormalities." |
| C75109 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the TRPS1 gene. It is characterized by distinctive facial appearance (sparse hair, pear-shaped nose, and elongated philtrum), skeletal abnormalities (cone-shaped epiphyses, hip malformation), short stature, and mild growth retardation." |
| C7510 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the thyroid gland. |
| C75118 | "A rare, usually sporadic and less frequently familiar syndrome caused by deletions on the long arm of chromosome 8. It is characterized by distinctive facial appearance (sparse hair, pear-shaped nose, and large ears), multiple exostoses, redundant skin, and mental retardation." |
| C75119 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the TGFBR1 gene. It is characterized by vascular abnormalities (aortic and arterial aneurysms, aortic dissection, and tortuosity of the arteries), hypertelorism, bifid uvula, and early fusion of the skull bones." |
| C7511 | "The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the breast. This may be from a primary breast malignant neoplasm on the opposite side, or from a malignant neoplasm at a distant site." |
| C75120 | "A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the LMX1B gene. It is characterized by fingernail deformities, absence or hypoplasia of the patellae, iliac horns, deformities of the radial heads, nephropathy, and glaucoma." |
| C75121 | Split-hand/foot malformation mapped to chromosome 10q24. |
| C75122 | Tuberous sclerosis mapped to chromosome 9q34 (TSC1 gene). |
| C7512 |  |
| C7513 | "Esophageal segments used primarily in pathology, and distinct from the anatomic segments used for clinical purposes." |
| C7514 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm affecting the kidney and ureter." |
| C7515 | Carcinoma that affects the renal pelvis and ureter. |
| C7517 | "Stage 0a includes: Ta, N0, M0. Ta: Papillary noninvasive carcinoma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C7518 | "Stage 0is includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C7519 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C7520 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor invades the muscularis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C7521 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: For renal pelvis only: tumor invades beyond muscularis into peripelvic fat or the renal parenchyma.  For ureter only: tumor invades beyond muscularis into periureteric fat.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C7522 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Tumor invades adjacent organs, or through the kidney into the perinephric fat.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single lymph node, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis in a single lymph node, more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis in a l... |
| C7523 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the small intestine. |
| C7524 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the small intestine from another anatomic site. |
| C7525 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the renal pelvis. |
| C7526 | "A rare, intermediate and rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm that most often affects the skin and soft tissue of the extremities and manifests as a slow-growing induration, nodule, or plaque. Rare cases have been described in the spleen, tongue, and testis as well. It is characterized by the presence of lymphatic-like vascular channels and papillary endothelial proliferation." |
| C7527 | A malignant neoplasm originating from the apical lung. Most malignant superior sulcus neoplasms are bronchogenic carcinomas. This tumor may be associated with Pancoast syndrome. It is also known as Pancoast tumor. |
| C7528 | An aggressive follicular helper T-cell lymphoma affecting lymph nodes and other sites. It is characterized by a polymorphous infiltrate and prominent proliferation of high endothelial venules and follicular dendritic cells. It is associated with EBV infection and affects mainly older adults. |
| C7529 | The reemergence of visual pathway glioma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C7530 | The reemergence of visual pathway astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C7531 | The reemergence of optic nerve glioma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C7532 | The reemergence of optic nerve astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C75331 | Tuberous sclerosis mapped to chromosome 16p13.3 (TSC2 gene). |
| C7533 | An astrocytoma that affects the visual pathway. This condition can be seen in association with neurofibromatosis 1. It is most commonly seen in the pediatric age group. |
| C7534 | An astrocytoma that arises from the visual pathway and occurs during childhood. |
| C7535 | A glioma that arises from the visual pathway and occurs during childhood. |
| C7538 | A meningioma that arises from the anterior visual pathway. |
| C7539 | A malignant lymphocytic neoplasm of B-cell or T-cell lineage involving primarily the bone marrow and the peripheral blood.  This category includes precursor or acute lymphoblastic leukemias and chronic leukemias. |
| C7540 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of monomorphic small, round B-lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.  When the lymphoid process predominantly involves the bone marrow and the peripheral blood it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C7541 | "A malignant tumor that originates in the nuclear layer of the retina. As the most common primary tumor of the eye in children, retinoblastoma is still relatively uncommon, accounting for only 1% of all malignant tumors in pediatric patients. Approximately 95% of cases are diagnosed before age 5. These tumors may be multifocal, bilateral, congenital, inherited, or acquired. Seventy-five percent of retinoblastomas are unilateral; 60% occur sporadically. A predisposition to retinoblastoma has ... |
| C7542 | "A primitive neuroectodermal tumor (small round blue cell tumor) of the thorax which can involve the periosteum, thoracic wall and/or pleura though it spares the lung parenchyma." |
| C7543 | A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the ureter.  The majority are carcinomas. |
| C7544 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the ureter from another anatomic site. |
| C75456 | A very rare genetic syndrome caused by deletions on the proximal short arm of chromosome 11.  It is characterized by the presence of multiple exostoses and enlarged parietal foramina. |
| C75457 | "A very rare genetic syndrome caused by deletion of the terminal band of chromosome 11. It is characterized by the presence of growth and psychomotor retardation, broad nasal bridge, low set ears, strabismus, trigonocephaly, and thrombocytopenia." |
| C75458 | "A very rare chromosomal disorder caused by tetrasomy of chromosome 12p. It is characterized by severe mental retardation, prominent forehead, sparse temporofrontal hair, hypertelorism, short nose, and streaks of hypopigmented skin." |
| C75459 | Noonan syndrome caused by mutations in the PTPN11 gene. |
| C7545 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the pharynx. |
| C75460 | Holoprosencephaly associated with mutations in the ZIC2 gene. |
| C75462 | "A genetic syndrome characterized by mental retardation, speech impairment, microcephaly, ataxia, and seizures. The majority of cases result from deletions on the long arm of chromosome 15. A minority of cases result from mutations in the UBE3A gene." |
| C75463 | "A genetic syndrome caused by deletions or disruptions of chromosome 15. It is characterized by reduced fetal activity, mental retardation, hypotonia, short stature, and hypogonadism." |
| C75464 | "A usually autosomal dominant and less frequently autosomal recessive genetic disorder characterized by the presence of numerous cysts in the kidneys leading to end-stage renal failure. The autosomal dominant trait is associated with abnormalities on the short arm of chromosome 16. Symptoms in patients with the autosomal dominant trait usually appear at middle age and include abdominal pain, hematuria, and high blood pressure. Patients may develop brain aneurysms and liver cysts. Patients wi... |
| C75466 | "A rare genetic syndrome mapped to chromosome 16p13.3 and associated with mutations in the CREBBP gene. It is characterized by mental and growth retardation, distinctive facial features (prominent nose, low-set ears, microcephaly, and small mouth), and broad thumbs and great toes. Patients are at an increased risk of developing benign and malignant neoplasms, including nervous system neoplasms and malignant lymphoproliferative disorders." |
| C75467 | "An inherited degenerative disorder involving the peripheral nerves. It is caused by mutations in the genes that are responsible for the production of proteins necessary for the function and structure of the peripheral nerves. It is characterized by muscle atrophy and weakness in the feet, legs, hands, and arms and loss of sensation in the limbs." |
| C75468 | "Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease caused by mutations in the PMP22 gene (mapped to chromosome 17), resulting in peripheral nerve demyelination." |
| C75469 | "A genetic syndrome caused by an interstitial deletion in chromosome 17p11.2.  It is characterized by mild to moderate mental retardation, distinctive facial features (flat head, square face, and deep set-eyes), sleep disturbances, attention deficit disorders, and temper tantrums." |
| C7546 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the pharynx from another anatomic site. |
| C75470 | "A genetic syndrome caused by microdeletions in chromosome 17q21. The microdeletions encompass the MAPT and CRHR1 genes. It is characterized by mental retardation, hypotonia, distinctive facial features (long face, low-set ears, and pear-shaped nose), friendly behavior, and heart defects." |
| C75471 | "A group of connective tissue disorder caused by mutations in the COL1A1 gene mapped to chromosome 17q21. It includes the Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, osteogenesis imperfecta, and osteoporosis." |
| C75475 | "A rare disorder caused by mutations in the TGIF gene mapped to chromosome 18p11.3.  It is characterized by semilobar holoprosencephaly, hypotelorism, and ptosis." |
| C75476 | The most severe form of holoprosencephaly in which there is a complete absence of midline forebrain division resulting in the presence of fused hemispheres and a single ventricle (alobar holoprosencephaly).  It is mapped to chromosome 21q22. |
| C75477 | "A rare genetic syndrome caused by abnormalities of chromosome 22. It is characterized by anal atresia with fistula formation, coloboma of the iris, down slanting palpebral fissures, and heart and kidney malformations." |
| C75478 | A genetic syndrome caused by terminal 22q13 microdeletions. It is characterized by developmental delay and delayed or absent speech. |
| C75479 | An X-linked or autosomal dominant genetic syndrome characterized by hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia. |
| C7547 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the penis.  Representative examples include penile carcinoma and penile sarcoma. |
| C75480 | The X-linked inherited form of Kallmann syndrome caused by mutation of the KAL1 gene mapped to chromosome Xp22.3. |
| C75481 | "An X-linked inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the OFD1 gene mapped to chromosome Xp22.2.  It is characterized by malformations of the face, oral cavity, and fingers." |
| C75482 | An X-linked inherited disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene found on the X chromosome. It is characterized by rapidly progressing muscle weakness and muscle atrophy initially involving the lower extremities and eventually affecting the whole body. It affects males whereas females can be carriers. The symptoms start before the age of six and may appear at infancy. |
| C75483 | "A genetic disorder affecting primarily males.  It is caused by mutations of the XLRS1 gene mapped to chromosome Xp22.  It affects the cells of the retina, resulting in retinal degeneration and poor eyesight." |
| C75485 | An X-linked inherited form of Cornelia De Lange syndrome caused by mutations in the SMC1A gene mapped to chromosome Xp11.22. Patients have a milder form of the syndrome compared to patients with the NIPBL gene mutation. |
| C75486 | "An X-linked disorder caused by mutations in the ATP7A gene resulting in the abnormal transport and metabolism of copper. It affects primarily male infants. It is characterized by hypotonia, seizures, failure to thrive, and peculiar colorless or steel-colored brittle hair." |
| C75487 | "An X-linked inherited disorder caused by mutations in the PLP1 gene on chromosome X.  The signs and symptoms are the result of defective myelination of the central nervous system and include nystagmus, hypotonia, tremor, ataxia, spastic quadriparesis, and diffuse leukoencephalopathy." |
| C75488 | "A progressive neurologic disorder caused by mutations in the MECP2 gene on chromosome X. It almost exclusively affects girls. It is characterized by language and learning difficulties, poor communication skills, and repetitive hand motions. Other signs and symptoms include microcephaly, scoliosis, breathing abnormalities, and sleep disturbances." |
| C7548 | Primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the kidney. |
| C7549 | "The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the kidney.  This may be from a primary kidney malignant neoplasm involving the opposite kidney, or from a malignant neoplasm at a distant site." |
| C7550 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells that, in well differentiated tumors, resemble the epithelium of the fallopian tube or, in poorly differentiated tumors, show anaplastic features and marked nuclear atypia." |
| C7551 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0, Any G. T3: Tumor extends through the prostatic capsule.  T3a: Extracapsular extension (unilateral or bilateral).  T3b: Tumor invades seminal vesicle(s). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7552 | "Tumor is clinically localized to the periprostatic area, but extends through the prostatic capsule; the seminal vesicles may be involved." |
| C7553 | "Stage II includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G2, 3-4); (T1b, N0, M0, Any G); (T1c, N0, M0, Any G); (T1, N0, M0, Any G); (T2, N0, M0, Any G).  T1: Clinically inapparent tumor neither palpable nor visible by imaging.  T1a: Tumor incidental histologic finding in 5% of tissue resected.  T1c: Tumor identified by needle biopsy (e.g. because of elevated PSA).  T2: Tumor confined with in the prostate.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. G2: Moderately differentiated (moderate an... |
| C75545 | Acute kidney injury associated with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. |
| C7554 | Tumor is clinically palpable but confined to the prostate. |
| C7555 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0, G1.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue.  N0: No regional metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well differentiated (slight anaplasia) (Gleason 2-4).  (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7556 | "A clinically undetectable tumor confined to the prostate gland, normally an incidental finding during surgery." |
| C7558 | "A malignant tumor arising from the epithelium that lines the cavity of the uterine body.  The vast majority of endometrial carcinomas are adenocarcinomas; squamous cell and adenosquamous carcinomas represent a minority of the cases.  Endometrioid adenocarcinoma is the most frequently seen variant of endometrial adenocarcinoma.  Uterine bleeding is an initial clinical sign.  The prognosis depends on the stage of the tumor, the depth of myometrial wall invasion, and the degree of differentiat... |
| C7559 | An adenoma characterized by increased cellularity and nuclear atypia without evidence of vascular or capsular invasion. A representative example is thyroid gland atypical follicular adenoma. |
| C7560 | "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. Representative examples include tubular apocrine adenoma, syringofibroadenoma, and hidradenoma." |
| C7563 | "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. Variants include the clear cell, nodular, and solid cystic hidradenoma." |
| C7565 | A benign sweat gland cystic lesion that arises from the dermis. It is lined by a thin epithelial layer of cells with a slightly eosinophilic cytoplasm. |
| C7566 | A carcinoma that arises from the breast and is not caused by inherited genetic mutations. |
| C7567 | A hidradenoma with apocrine differentiation. It is characterized by the presence of cells with vesicular nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm and cells with clear cytoplasm and often eccentrically located nuclei. |
| C7568 | "A hidradenoma characterized by a nodular growth pattern. It presents as a nodular lesion usually in the scalp, trunk, and proximal extremities. Complete excision is curative." |
| C7569 | "A diverse group of carcinomas of the thymus gland, previously known as thymoma type C.  It includes morphologic variants derived from purely epithelial cells, as well as from cells with neuroendocrine differentiation." |
| C7570 | A neoplasm composed of melanocytes that usually appears as a dark spot on the skin. |
| C7571 | "A circumscribed proliferation of melanocytes in the skin. It is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Variants include the Spitz nevus, halo nevus, blue nevus, and balloon cell nevus." |
| C7572 | "A type of renal carcinoma affecting mostly young African-Americans.  It is located in the medulla of the kidney, and follows an aggressive clinical course.  Most reported cases have shown metastatic disease at the time of diagnosis." |
| C7573 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the urethra from another anatomic site. |
| C7574 | "An unusual, biphasic benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the prostate gland.  It is characterized by the presence of an epithelial glandular component and a proliferating stroma." |
| C7575 | "A benign, malignant, or borderline circumscribed biphasic neoplasm that arises from the breast.  It usually affects middle-aged women.  It is characterized by the presence of a double layer of epithelial cells that are arranged in clefts, surrounded by a spindle cell mesenchymal (stromal) component." |
| C7576 | A WNT-activated deep penetrating/plexiform melanocytoma (nevus) characterized by a wedge-shaped pattern and extension of the neoplastic melanocytic proliferation into the deep reticular dermis or subcutis. |
| C7577 | "A cutaneous nevus that recurs following incomplete surgical removal, biopsy, or trauma. (WHO 2018)" |
| C7578 | "A nevus that arises from the female genital organs. This category includes congenital nevus, acquired nevus, dysplastic nevus, blue nevus, and atypical melanocytic nevus of the genital type." |
| C7580 | "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sebaceous or sweat glands. Representative examples include sebaceous adenoma, tubular apocrine adenoma, and hidradenoma." |
| C7581 | "A low grade adenocarcinoma with ductal differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It presents as a scar usually in the face. It is characterized by the formation of small ducts and it frequently involves nerves and perineural spaces." |
| C7582 | "A large brown, blue, or gray hamartoma of dermal melanocytes, usually on the shoulder and upper arm that is most commonly found in Asian populations and in females. It is sometimes associated with sensory changes in the involved skin area, but very rarely becomes cancerous." |
| C7583 | "A brown, blue, or gray hamartoma of dermal melanocytes, usually on the skin of the face along the distribution of the ophthalmic and maxillary branches of the trigeminal nerve that is most commonly found in Asian populations and in females and is usually benign. It may also involve the oral or ocular mucosal surfaces, and periosteum." |
| C7584 | An autosomal dominant disorder defined by the presence of multiple dysplastic nevi and a history of melanoma in two family members.  Patients are at an increased risk for the development of melanoma. |
| C7585 | A rare but aggressive type of basal skin carcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of a meshwork of stellate tumor cells. It occurs most commonly in the nose and ears. |
| C7587 | A lymphoma that occurs in adults. |
| C7591 | A lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of large or small neuroendocrine carcinoma cells in combination with malignant glandular or squamous epithelial cells. |
| C7596 | An infiltrating malignant tumor characterized by the presence of atypical cells with myoepithelial differentiation. Representative examples include malignant breast myoepithelioma and salivary gland myoepithelial carcinoma. |
| C7597 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4, Any N, M0) and IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Tumor invades mucosa of the bladder or rectum and/or extends beyond the true pelvis (bullous edema is not sufficient evidence to classify tumor as T4).  M0: No distant metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C7598 | A very rare liposarcoma that arises from the bone. |
| C7600 | "An acute myeloid leukemia with at least 20% blasts in the bone marrow or blood, and either a previous history of myelodysplastic syndrome, multilineage dysplasia or myelodysplastic syndrome-related cytogenetic abnormalities.  There is no history of prior cytotoxic therapy for an unrelated disorder, and there is absence of the molecular abnormalities that are present in acute myeloid leukemia with recurrent genetic abnormalities." |
| C7601 | An extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma arising from mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue in the thyroid gland.  The vast majority of cases are associated with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis. |
| C7602 | A nevus characterized by circumferential depigmentation. It is usually associated with a brisk lymphocytic infiltrate. |
| C7603 | A cutaneous nevus associated with focal regression-like changes. |
| C7604 | An olfactory neuroblastoma arising in the nasal cavity. |
| C7605 | "A granular cell tumor that arises from the oral cavity and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C7606 | A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the oral cavity. |
| C7607 | "A neoplasm that arises from the oral cavity and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include hemangioma, tongue lipoma, and buccal mucosa papilloma." |
| C7608 | "A neoplasm that arises from the oral cavity or the lips and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C7609 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that affects the cerebrum. |
| C7611 | A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that affects the cerebrum. |
| C7612 | "A thymoma that has an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.  Although any morphologic subtype of thymoma may eventually have a malignant clinical course, this term is most often associated with thymoma types B3 and C." |
| C7614 | A lymphoproliferative disorder that affects the skin. |
| C7615 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma occurring in adults. |
| C7616 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C7617 | "A neoplasm that arises from the male or female reproductive system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C7619 | The reemergence of a carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7620 | The reemergence of female reproductive system carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7621 | The reemergence of a carcinoma that affects the male reproductive system after a period of remission. |
| C7622 | The reemergence of carcinoma in any part of the digestive system after a period of remission. |
| C7623 | Reemergence of a urinary system carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7624 | The reemergence of carcinoma in the head and neck region after a period of remission. |
| C7625 | A carcinoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C7626 | The reemergence of pancreatic carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7627 | A malignant neoplasm that affects both sides of an organ in a simultaneous or non-simultaneous manner. |
| C7628 | A neoplasm that does not respond to treatment. |
| C7630 | A lipomatous neoplasm characterized by a high risk of local recurrence and no risk of metastasis. |
| C7631 | "A rare malignant mesothelioma that arises from the pericardium. Clinical presentation includes pericardial effusion, congestive heart failure, a mass or cardiac tamponade.  Surgical resection is the treatment of choice. Adjunct treatments of chemotherapy or radiation have not improved outcomes. The prognosis is extremely poor due to its late presentation and difficulty obtaining complete surgical excision. In most cases the diagnosis is made at autopsy or postoperatively." |
| C76326 | A ductal breast carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C76328 | A lobular breast carcinoma that has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C7633 | "A mesothelial neoplasm that arises from the peritoneum. It includes adenomatoid tumor, well differentiated papillary mesothelial tumor, multicystic mesothelioma, and malignant mesothelioma." |
| C7634 | "A localized neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation. It is characterized by the presence of round to spindle-shaped cells, hylanized stroma formation, thin-walled branching blood vessels, and thin bands of collagen." |
| C7635 | "A localized or multifocal mesothelial neoplasm arising from the peritoneum and less often the pleura and paratesticular region. Cases arising from the peritoneum predominantly occur in women. It is characterized by the formation of papillae, covered by a single layer of blunt mesothelial cells. Mitotic figures are not present. There is no evidence of severe cytologic atypia. It has a relatively favorable clinical outcome, compared to malignant mesothelioma." |
| C7636 | A rare group of disorders characterized by the development of myoclonic and tonic-clonic epileptic seizures associated with progressive degeneration of the nervous system. |
| C7637 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the labia minora. |
| C7638 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the labia majora. |
| C7639 | A urethral carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C7640 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the portion of the urethra that is close to the bladder. |
| C7641 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the anterior portion of the urethra. |
| C7642 | "A disorder seen following cancer chemotherapy. It typically manifests a few years after initiation of epipodophyllotoxin chemotherapy. Mutagenic potential of these non-intercalating DNA topoisomerase II inhibitors is believed to be increased with concurrent use of asparaginase or granulocyte colony-stimulating factor. Balanced translocations involving chromosomal bands 11q23 and 21q22 are commonly associated with this disorder. Clinical signs may include fatigue, dyspnea, bruising and frequ... |
| C7643 | "A disorder seen following cancer chemotherapy. It is the most common cause of therapy-related myelodysplastic syndromes. It typically manifests several years after initiation of single or multi-agent chemotherapy with alkylators. Mutagenic potential of alkylating agents is believed to be age and cumulative dose-dependent. Deletions in chromosomes 5 and 7 are associated with susceptibility to this disorder. Clinical signs may include fatigue, dyspnea, bruising and frequent infections. Clinic... |
| C7644 | "A low grade malignant neoplasm arising from the long bones. The tibia is the most frequently affected bone site. Patients present with swelling which may or may not be associated with pain. Morphologically, it is characterized by a biphasic pattern consisting of an epithelial and an osteofibrous component. The vast majority of cases recur if they are not treated with radical surgery. In a minority of cases the tumor may metastasize to other anatomic sites including lymph nodes, lungs, liver... |
| C7645 | An intraductal breast carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth within a large cystic duct. There is no evidence of invasion of the breast parenchyma. |
| C7646 | A ganglioneuroblastoma arising from the adrenal gland. |
| C7649 | A carcinoma that arises from the gallbladder and it has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C7650 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the urinary bladder wall from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C7653 | A soft tissue neoplasm characterized by an increased risk of local recurrence and/or a low risk of metastasis. |
| C7655 | A pathologic process that arises from the hepatobiliary system and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. |
| C7656 | "A premalignant neoplastic nodular lesion of the liver that usually measures less than 15 mm.  It is found during microscopic examination of liver tissues, usually in cirrhotic livers.  Based on the degree of atypia, it is classified as low or high grade." |
| C7657 | A pathologic process that arises from the small or large intestine and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. |
| C7658 | A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the small or large intestine.  It is characterized by low or high grade dysplasia of the mucosal epithelium.  There is no evidence of invasion. |
| C7659 | A pathologic process that arises from the digestive system and has the potential to evolve into a malignant neoplasm. |
| C7660 |  |
| C7661 |  |
| C7662 | "This lesion shows moderate or marked architectural distortion with glandular crowding and prominent cellular atypia.  It includes moderate dysplasia and severe dysplasia.  (WHO, 2000)" |
| C7663 | Vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of moderate or severe dysplastic changes. |
| C7665 | Penile intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the proliferation of transformed basaloid cells that occupy the lower two thirds of the epithelial thickness. |
| C7666 | Penile intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the proliferation of transformed basaloid cells that occupy the lower one third of the epithelial thickness. |
| C7667 | "Penile intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the proliferation of transformed basaloid cells that occupy either the lower two thirds of the epithelial thickness (grade II) or the entire thickness of the epithelium (grade III, Bowen atypia, or squamous cell carcinoma in situ)." |
| C7668 | A conjunctival squamous intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of dysplasia that involves more than two-thirds of epithelial thickness. Surface epithelial maturation is still present. |
| C7669 | A precancerous neoplastic intraepithelial process with high-grade dysplastic features involving the corneal epithelium. |
| C7670 | Squamous or glandular cervical intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of moderate or severe dysplastic changes. |
| C7673 | A neoplastic process that affects the glandular epithelial cells of the cervix.  There is no evidence of invasion.  It is classified as low or high grade. |
| C7674 | Cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of mild dysplastic changes. |
| C7675 | Cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of severe dysplastic changes. |
| C7676 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from an adenomatous polyp. |
| C7677 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from a tubular adenoma. |
| C7678 | An intramucosal adenocarcinoma that arises from an adenomatous polyp. |
| C7679 | An intramucosal adenocarcinoma that arises from a tubular adenoma. |
| C7682 | Carcinoma arising in a polyp. |
| C7683 | An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by focal or extensive cartilage and/or bone formation. |
| C7684 | An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of osseous metaplasia. |
| C7685 | An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of cartilaginous metaplasia. |
| C7688 | An invasive ductal breast carcinoma associated with a lobular carcinomatous component. The lobular carcinomatous component may be in situ or invasive. |
| C7689 | An invasive ductal breast carcinoma associated with an in situ lobular carcinomatous component. |
| C7690 | A breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of a ductal carcinoma in situ component and an in situ or invasive lobular carcinomatous component. |
| C7691 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C7692 | A malignant liver neoplasm that is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C7695 | A rare serous papillary adenocarcinoma that arises from the lining of the peritoneum. It affects females. |
| C7696 | An inflammatory carcinoma of the breast that has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C7698 | "A condition which occurs following suspension of nicotine use. Clinical features may include nicotine craving, irritability, anxiety, depression and increased appetite. The onset of symptoms may be rapid with severity proportional to length and amount of nicotine use. Unsuccessful management of symptoms may prompt a return to nicotine use." |
| C7699 | "A neoplastic polyp that arises from the stomach.  This category includes intestinal-type adenomatous polyps, gastric-type adenomas, and fundic gland polyps." |
| C7700 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary.  It is the most common type of ovarian carcinoma.  It includes the serous adenocarcinoma, mucinous adenocarcinoma, clear cell adenocarcinoma, and endometrioid adenocarcinoma." |
| C7702 | Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in adults. |
| C7703 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm of the brain occurring in children." |
| C7704 | Non-Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in adults. |
| C7705 | An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle in children.  Only a small percentage of tumors arise in the skeletal muscle of the extremities. The majority arise in other anatomic sites. |
| C7706 | Non-Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in childhood. |
| C7707 | Soft tissue sarcoma occurring in adults. |
| C7708 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the liver and occurs during childhood. |
| C7709 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the digestive system. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%. The tumor can occur anywhere in the digestive system; approximately 90% arise in the appendix." |
| C7710 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm of the brain occurring in adults." |
| C7711 | A hepatocellular carcinoma or intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C7712 | "A melanoma derived from melanocytes of the uveal tract.  It is the most common primary intraocular tumor in the United States and Western Europe.  Similar to melanoma of the skin, it is rare in Africa and Asia.  Diagnostic procedures include ophthalmoscopic exam, fluorescein angiography and ultrasound.  Treatment includes: surgical excision of the eye, iridocyclectomy and tumor resection.  Recent treatments also include radiotherapy or photo coagulation.  Classification of uveal melanomas r... |
| C7713 | A squamous cell carcinoma that has metastasized to the neck lymph nodes from an unknown primary anatomic site. |
| C7714 | Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in childhood. |
| C7715 | Soft tissue sarcoma occurring in childhood. |
| C7716 | A urothelial carcinoma that arises from the renal pelvis and ureter. |
| C7718 | "A malignant neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium of the appendix with invasion of the appendiceal wall beyond the muscularis mucosa.  The majority of cases are well differentiated adenocarcinomas with mucinous stroma formation.  Clinically, it may present as an abdominal mass or with symptoms of acute appendicitis.  Patients with chronic ulcerative colitis are at a higher risk in developing appendiceal adenocarcinomas compared to the general population." |
| C7719 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the Bartholin gland. Subtypes include papillary and mucinous adenocarcinoma. |
| C77201 | A disease caused by the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. It primarily affects the lungs but can also occur as a disseminated disease that affects additional organs. The acute respiratory disease has symptoms similar to those of a cold or flu and it usually resolves without treatment in healthy individuals. The disseminated form is generally fatal if untreated. |
| C7720 | "A polypoid epithelial neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder.  According to the neoplastic growth pattern, it is classified as tubular, tubulopapillary, or papillary." |
| C77212 | "Any infection due to a fungus of the Zygomycota phylum. The disease typically involves the rhino-facial-cranial area, lungs, gastrointestinal tract, skin, or less commonly other organ systems. The infecting fungi have a predilection for invading vessels of the arterial system, causing embolization and subsequent necrosis of surrounding tissue." |
| C7721 | A carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the upper or lower gingiva. |
| C7723 | A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the heart.  The majority of cases are angiosarcomas. |
| C7724 | "A carcinoma arising from the small intestine. The vast majority are adenocarcinomas. The remaining cases are adenosquamous, squamous, or undifferentiated carcinomas." |
| C7725 | "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the small intestine. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern." |
| C7726 | A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the kidney.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a herringbone growth pattern. |
| C7727 | "A condition in which plasma cells secrete immunoglobulin light chains of only one type, kappa or lambda. Light chain deposition disease is often associated with multiple myeloma or lymphoproliferative disease, but as many as 50% of patients have no evidence of neoplastic plasma cell proliferation. Light chains excreted in the urine are known as Bence Jones protein. Amyloidosis and severe renal failure occur more frequently than in multiple myeloma. Also known as Bence Jones myeloma. L-chain... |
| C7728 | "A rare form of Paget disease that arises from the scrotum. It is usually not associated with an underlying malignancy.  It presents as a red plaque or raised lesion. Microscopically, it is characterized by the presence of the typical Paget cells which are large, round cells with abundant cytoplasm and prominent nuclei." |
| C7729 | "A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the penis.  It occurs chiefly in the squamous epithelium of the glans, coronal sulcus, and foreskin.  Etiologic factors include phimosis, lichen sclerosus, smoking, ultraviolet irradiation, history of warts or condylomas, and lack of circumcision.  Human papilloma virus is present in a subset of penile squamous cell carcinomas.  Patients may present with an exophytic or flat ulcerative mass in the glans or a large primary tumor with inguinal nodal and ... |
| C7730 | "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the penis.  Representative examples include Kaposi sarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and angiosarcoma." |
| C7731 | "A rare malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the prostate gland.  Representative examples include leiomyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and stromal sarcoma." |
| C7732 | Squamous cell carcinoma that affects the renal pelvis. |
| C7733 | A malignant germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It represents the rarest of the testicular germ cell tumors. Histologically it is characterized by the presence of syncytiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts. |
| C7734 | A benign adipose tissue neoplasm of the tongue. |
| C7735 | A morphologic variant of adenocarcinoma that arises from the vagina. It is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelium and clear cells containing glycogen. |
| C7736 | Vaginal squamous cell carcinoma in which information on the p16 immunohistochemistry or HPV testing status is not available. |
| C7737 | "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the vagina. Representative examples include botryoid-type embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and endometrioid stromal sarcoma." |
| C7739 | A hemangioma arising from the brain. |
| C7741 | A hemangioma arising from any part of the digestive system. |
| C7742 | "A benign exophytic neoplasm that arises from the larynx, usually the true vocal cords.  It is related to human papillomavirus infection and may arise as a single or multiple lesions. It is characterized by the presence of a connective tissue core covered by stratified squamous epithelium. Hoarseness is the presenting symptom.  Transformation to carcinoma is rare." |
| C7743 | A clinical term that indicates the presence of a white patch on the mucous membrane in the mouth which cannot be characterized as any other disease.  It may be a precancerous condition and in most cases histologic examination reveals keratosis. |
| C7744 | A hemangioma arising from the mucous membranes. |
| C7745 |  |
| C7748 | A myxoma arising from the endocardium. |
| C7749 | "A skin neoplasm composed of fibrohistiocytic cells, spindle fibrous cells, and histiocytes in a storiform pattern." |
| C7751 | An angiokeratoma that usually affects the lower extremities and manifests as a solitary hyperkeratotic papule or nodule. |
| C7752 | An angiokeratoma that affects the scrotum and vulva and manifests with single or multiple small red keratotic papules. |
| C7753 | Pericarditis caused by the infiltration of the pericardium by a malignant neoplasm.  The diagnosis is based on the cytological examination of pericardial fluid or the histologic examination of pericardial tissue. |
| C7754 | An autosomal dominant hereditary neoplastic syndrome. Mutations in the SMAD4 or BMPR1A genes have been identified in some patients. It is characterized by the presence of multiple juvenile polyps in the gastrointestinal tract. |
| C7755 | "A non-neoplastic hamartomatous polyp that arises from the small intestine.  It is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle branching bands, and cystic mucosal changes." |
| C7757 |  |
| C7760 |  |
| C7764 | A lymphoproliferative disorder characterized by the presence of an atypical lymphocytic infiltrate. |
| C7765 | "Multiple myeloma associated with osteosclerotic and fibrotic changes in the bone trabeculae.  Often, the lymph nodes show changes resembling the plasma cell variant of Castleman disease.  It is often part of POEMS syndrome which is characterized by polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal gammopathy, and skin changes." |
| C7766 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N1, M0); IIIB (T3-T4, N1, M0); IIIC (Any T, N2, M0). N1: Metastasis in 1 to 3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 4 or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7767 | "Stage 1 includes T1, NO, MO.  T1: Tumor 2.0 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1mic: Microinvasion 0.1 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th Ed.)-2003" |
| C7768 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T0, N1, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0) and IIB: (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T0: No evidence of primary tumor.  T1: Tumor 2.0 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor more than 2.0 cm but not more than 5.0 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 5.0 cm in greatest dimension.  N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral axillary lymph node(s).  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C7769 | "Stage III is divided into two stages IIIA and IIIB.  Stage IIIA includes: (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0).  Stage IIIB includes: (T4, any N, M0).  T4: Tumor of any size with direct extension to (a) chest wall or (b) skin.  N2: Metastases in ipsilateral axillary lymph nodes fixed or matted, or in clinically apparent ipsilateral internal mammary nodes in the absence of clinically evident axillary lymph node metastasis.  N3: Metastasis in ipsilateral infrac... |
| C7770 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0).  T0: No evidence of primary tumor.  T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension.  T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 20 mm but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 50 mm in greatest dimension.  N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s).  N2: Metastases in ipsilateral level I, II axillary lym... |
| C7771 | The reemergence of carcinoma in the breast after a period of remission. |
| C7772 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, N0, M0) and IB: (T1, N1, M0); (Ta/b, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria or the subserosa.  T2a: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T2b: Tumor invades subserosa.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1 to 6 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 7 to 15 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7773 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N2, M0), (T2a/b, N1, M0), (T3, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria or submucosa. T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria or submucosa.  T2a: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  T2b: Tumor invades subserosa.  T3: Tumor penetrates serosa (visceral peritoneum) without invasion of adjacent structures. N1: Metastasis in 1 to 6 regional lymph nodes. Metastasis in 7 to 15 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7774 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T2a/b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0).  IIIB: (T3, N2, M0).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis in 1 to 6 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 7 to 15 regional lymph nodes. T2a: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  T2b: Tumor invades subserosa. T3: Tumor penetrates serosa (visceral peritoneum) without invasion of adjacent structures. T4: Tumor invades adjacent structures.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7775 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); (T3,N0, M0).  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C7776 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0); IIIB (T4, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T4: Tumor of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).  N1: Metastasis in perirectal lymph node(s).  N2: Metastasis in unilateral internal iliac and/or inguinal lymph node(s).  N3: Metastasis i... |
| C7777 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0) and IIB (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its i... |
| C7778 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0) and IIIB (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.... |
| C7779 | A carcinoma originating from the apical lung. Most superior sulcus lung carcinomas are bronchogenic carcinomas. This carcinoma may be associated with Pancoast syndrome. lt is also known as Pancoast tumor. |
| C7780 | An osteosarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C7781 | An osteosarcoma which has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C7782 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0).  T4: Tumor of any size with direct extension to the chest wall and/or to the skin (ulceration or skin nodules).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s).  N2: Metastases in ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph nodes that are clinically fixed or matted; or in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary nodes in the absence of clinically evident axilla... |
| C7783 | The reemergence of non-small cell lung carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7784 | The reemergence of acute lymphoblastic leukemia in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C7785 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1, N0, M0); IB (T2, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor limited to the pancreas 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor limited to the pancreas, more than 2 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C7786 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T3, N0, M0); IIB (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor limited to the pancreas 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor limited to the pancreas, more than 2 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor extends beyond the pancreas but without involvement of the celiac axis or the superior mesenteric artery.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C7787 | "Stage III includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Tumor involves the celiac axis or the superior mesenteric artery.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C7788 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial tumor without invasion of the lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C7789 | The reemergence of Hodgkin lymphoma in adulthood after a period of remission. |
| C7790 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C7791 | "Stage II includes IIA (T3, N0, M0) and IIB (T4, N0, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa, or into nonperitonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues. T4: Tumor directly invades other organs or structures, and/or perforates the visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7792 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N0, M0); IIIB (T3-T4, N1, M0); IIIC (Any T, N2, M0).  N1: Metastasis in 1 to 3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 4 or more regional lymph nodes. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7793 | The reemergence of anal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7794 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C77952 | Inflammation of the rectum and colon. |
| C7795 |  |
| C7796 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1, N0, M0, B0-1); IB (T2, N0, M0, B0-1). T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T1a (patch only) vs. T1b (plaque +/- patch).  T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T2a (patch only) vs. T2b (plaque +/- patch).  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required.  M0: No visceral organ involvement.  B0: Absence ... |
| C7797 |  |
| C7798 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1-2, N1-2, M0, B0-1); IIB (T3, N0-2, M0, B0-1). T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T1a (patch only) vs. T1b (plaque +/- patch).  T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T2a (patch only) vs. T2b (plaque +/- patch).  T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm diameter).  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes... |
| C7799 |  |
| C7800 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0-2, M0, B0-1); IIIA (T4, N0-2, M0, B0); IIIB (T4, N0-2, M0, B1). T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area.  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required.  N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or NCI LN0-2.  N2: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 2 or NCI LN3.  M0: No visceral organ involvement.  B0: Absence of significant blood involvem... |
| C7801 |  |
| C7802 | "Stage IV includes: IVA1 (T1-4, N0-2, M0, B2); IVA2 (T1-4, N3, M0, B0-2); IVB (T1-4, N0-3, M1, B0-2). T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T1a (patch only) vs. T1b (plaque +/- patch).  T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T2a (patch only) vs. T2b (plaque +/- patch).  T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm diameter).  T4: Confluence of ery... |
| C7803 | "Stage II includes: II (T2, N0, M0); IIA (T2a, N0, M0); IIB (T2b, N0, M0). T2: Cervical carcinoma invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina. T2a: Tumor without parametrial invasion. T2b: Tumor with parametrial invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7804 | The reemergence of cervical carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7805 | The reemergence of primary cutaneous T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C7806 | Ewing sarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C7807 | Ewing sarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C7808 | "Ewing sarcoma which has recurred after treatment and/or remission. While initial complete responses are not uncommon, there is a fair chance of relapse as late as one to two decades after initial therapy." |
| C7809 | "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm composed of fibroblasts.  It is characterized by collagen production and a herringbone architectural pattern.  It is more commonly seen in middle-aged and older adults.  It usually affects the deep soft tissues of extremities, trunk, head and neck.  Adult fibrosarcomas may recur and metastasize to the lungs and bones." |
| C7810 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, occurring in adults.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C7811 | A liposarcoma occurring during adulthood. |
| C7812 | "A localized malignant neoplasm that arises in the bone. It is composed of clonal (malignant) plasma cells forming a tumor mass. The most commonly affected bones are the vertebrae, ribs, skull, pelvis, and femur." |
| C7813 | A plasma cell neoplasm that is resistant to treatment. |
| C7814 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor occurring during adulthood. |
| C7815 | The reemergence of childhood rhabdomyosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C78167 | "Increased sensitivity to the adverse effects of alcohol, which can include nasal congestion, skin flushes, heart dysrhythmias, nausea, vomiting, indigestion and headaches." |
| C78169 | An infectious process affecting the anal area. |
| C7816 | A craniopharyngioma that occurs during childhood.  The vast majority of cases are adamantinomatous craniopharyngiomas.  Clinical signs and symptoms include endocrine deficiencies and visual disturbances. |
| C78170 | An inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the anus. |
| C78174 | An infectious process affecting the anal area and the rectum. |
| C78178 | Acute appendicitis with gangrenous changes resulting in the rupture of the appendiceal wall. The appendiceal wall rupture causes the release of inflammatory and bacterial contents from the appendiceal lumen into the abdominal cavity. |
| C7817 | A synovial sarcoma occurring in adults. |
| C7818 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1a, N0, M0, G1, GX); (T1b, N0, M0, G1, GX); IB (T2a, N0, M0, G1, GX); (T2b, N0, M0, G1, GX).  T1a: Superficial tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1b: Deep tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2a: Superficial tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T2b: Deep tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Grade 1.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C7819 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1a, N0, M0, G2, G3); (T1b, N0, M0, G2, G3); IIB (T2a, N0, M0, G2); (T2b, N0, M0, G2).  T1a: Superficial tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1b: Deep tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2a: Superficial tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T2b: Deep tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G2: Grade 2.  G3: Grade 3. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C7820 |  |
| C7821 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1, Any G.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C78222 | Underdevelopment of the breast. |
| C7822 | A soft tissue sarcoma occurring in adults that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C78232 | An infection that arises secondary to catheter use. |
| C78235 | An infectious process affecting the cecum. |
| C78239 | An abnormal communication between the large intestine and another organ or cavity. |
| C7823 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Lesions have been divided into T1a and T1b.  T1a is defined as tumor 4 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the kidney.  T1b is defined as tumor greater than 4 cm but not more than 7 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the kidney.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C78244 | A circumscribed inflammatory and necrotic erosive lesion in the mucosa surface of the colon. |
| C78245 | A disorder affecting the conduction system that sends electrical signals in the myocardium. |
| C78246 | "A heart disorder in which the pericardial sac becomes thickened and fibrotic, tightening the myocardium and impeding the normal myocardial function." |
| C78248 | An infectious process affecting a cranial nerve. |
| C7824 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor more than 7 cm in greatest dimension limited to the kidney.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th Ed.)" |
| C78250 | An inflammation of the bladder which is not caused by an infection of the urinary tract. Representative examples include interstitial cystitis and radiation-induced cystitis. |
| C78251 | "A syndrome that occurs after therapeutic infusion of antibodies into the blood and is characterized by nausea, headache, tachycardia, hypotension, rash, and shortness of breath. It is caused by the release of cytokines from the cells that are targeted by the antibodies. Most patients experience a mild to moderate reaction; however, the reaction may be severe and life-threatening." |
| C78255 | Infection local to an implanted or invasive medical device. |
| C78256 | An abnormal communication between the duodenum and another organ or cavity. |
| C78258 | An infectious process affecting the duodenum. |
| C7825 | A reemergence of renal cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C78264 | "A disorder referring to problems related to ejaculation. This category includes premature, delayed, retrograde, and painful ejaculation." |
| C78265 | An infectious process involving the endocardial layer of the heart. |
| C78266 | An abnormal communication between the urinary bladder and the intestine. |
| C7826 | A parathyroid gland carcinoma that has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C78277 | An infectious process affecting the esophagus. |
| C78288 | A disorder characterized by impaired eyelid function. |
| C7828 | The reemergence of parathyroid gland carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C78296 | Fanconi Syndrome caused by exposure to noxious agents. |
| C78297 | Shrinking of adipose tissue. |
| C78298 | An abnormal communication between a female reproductive system organ and another organ or cavity. |
| C78299 | The development of secondary female sex characteristics in males due to extrinsic factors. |
| C7829 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor limited to ovaries (one or both).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C78305 | An abnormal communication between the gallbladder and another organ or cavity. |
| C78306 | An acute or chronic infectious process affecting the gallbladder. |
| C7830 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with pelvic extension and/or implants.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C78312 | An acute or chronic infectious process affecting the stomach. |
| C78313 | An inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the stomach. |
| C78319 | An abnormal communication between any part of the digestive system and another organ or cavity. |
| C7831 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0.  T3: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with microscopically confirmed peritoneal metastasis outside pelvis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C78329 | An acute or chronic infectious process affecting the gums. |
| C7832 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis (excludes peritoneal metastasis). (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C78339 | An acute or chronic infectious process affecting the liver. |
| C7833 | The reemergence of ovarian carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C78346 | A sleep disorder characterized by excessive sleepiness. |
| C7834 | The reemergence of brain neoplasm in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C78350 | "An endocrine disorder characterized by decreased production of parathyroid hormone by the parathyroid glands. It is usually caused by damage of the parathyroid glands during head and neck surgery. Signs and symptoms include muscle cramps, abdominal pain, dry skin, brittle nails, cataracts, tetany, and convulsions." |
| C78352 | An abnormal communication between the ileum and another organ or cavity. |
| C78357 | A circumscribed inflammatory and necrotic erosive lesion in the mucosa surface of the ileum. |
| C78358 | An infectious process involving an implanted medical device and the surrounding tissues. |
| C78359 | A viral or bacterial infectious process affecting the large intestine. |
| C7835 | Neuroblastoma that is confined to a specific site and is amenable to surgical removal. |
| C78360 | "An infectious process affecting the uterine cervix. Causative agents include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, human papillomavirus, and herpes simplex virus. Physical examination reveals an erythematous, raised lesion in the cervix and mucopurulent discharge." |
| C7836 | A neuroblastoma confined to a specific anatomic region without evidence of dissemination. |
| C7837 | The reemergence of neuroblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C7838 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, N1, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C78394 | Diminished or absent blood supply to the brain caused by obstruction (thrombosis or embolism) of an artery resulting in neurologic damage. |
| C78395 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the trochlear nerve (IVth cranial nerve). |
| C78396 | An abnormal communication between the jejunum and another organ or cavity. |
| C7839 | A malignant neoplasm of the liver that occurs during childhood and has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C78401 | A circumscribed inflammatory and necrotic erosive lesion in the mucosa surface of the jejunum. |
| C78402 | "An infectious process affecting a joint. Causative agents include bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites." |
| C78409 | An inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the large intestine. |
| C7840 | Wilms tumor that is found in one kidney and can be completely removed with surgery. (National Wilms Tumor Study Group Staging System) |
| C78410 | An abnormal communication between the larynx and another organ or cavity. |
| C78412 | An inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the larynx. |
| C7841 | "Wilms tumor that is found in the kidney and in the fat, soft tissue, or blood vessels near the kidney. It may have spread to the renal sinus. The renal sinus is the part of the kidney where blood and fluid enter and exit the organ. The tumor can be completely removed with surgery. (National Wilms Tumor Study Group Staging System)" |
| C7842 | "Wilms tumor that is found in areas near the kidney and cannot be completely removed with surgery. The tumor may have spread to nearby organs and blood vessels or throughout the abdomen and to nearby lymph nodes. Lymph nodes are tiny, bean-shaped organs that help fight infection. Stage III cancer has not spread outside the abdomen. (National Wilms Tumor Study Group Staging System)" |
| C78434 | An acute or chronic infectious process affecting the lips. |
| C7843 | "Wilms tumor that has spread to other more distant organs, such as the lungs, liver, bones, and brain, or to lymph nodes outside the abdomen (National Wilms Tumor Study Group Staging System)" |
| C78444 | Deterioration in memory function. |
| C78446 | A heart disorder characterized by a defect in mitral valve structure or function. |
| C7844 | Wilms tumor that affects both kidneys at the same time. The tumor in each kidney is staged separately (National Wilms Tumor Study Group Staging System) |
| C78454 | An acute or chronic infectious process affecting a mucosal surface. |
| C7845 | The reemergence of Wilms tumor of the kidney after a period of remission. |
| C7846 | Retinoblastoma restricted to local involvement. |
| C7847 | Risk: Low; Findings: Lymphocytosis only; Survival (months): more than 120. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C78488 | Congenital or acquired deformity of the musculoskeletal system. |
| C7848 | "Retinoblastoma that has spread beyond the eye e.g. to brain, soft tissue/bone, bone marrow." |
| C78493 | An infectious process affecting the nail. |
| C7849 | The reemergence of retinoblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C78503 | A congenital or acquired deformity of the nipple. |
| C78506 | An abnormal communication between the oral cavity and the adjacent tissues. |
| C7850 | "Multiple myeloma with all of the following: 1. Hemoglobin greater than 10 g/Dl, 2. Normal serum calcium, 3. Normal bone structure, 4. Low monoclonal (or myeloma) protein (M protein) production as shown by: a. IgG less than 5.0 g/dL, b. IgA less than 3.0 g/dL, c. Urinary kappa or lamda less than 4 g/24 hours. Estimated myeloma cell mass: less than 0.6 trillion (1012)/m2 (low burden). The following subclassification of stages is used: a. Creatinine less than 2.0 mg/dL, b. Creatinine greater t... |
| C78512 | An infectious process affecting the ovary. |
| C78517 | An infectious process affecting the pancreas. |
| C7851 | "Multiple myeloma that fits in neither stage I nor stage III.  Estimated myeloma cell mass: 0.6 to 1.2 trillion (1012)/m2 (intermediate burden).  The following subclassification of stages is used: a. Creatinine less than 2.0 mg/dL, b. Creatinine greater than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL.  Impaired renal function worsens prognosis regardless of stage.  Note that the newer International Staging System defines stage II quite differently: Beta-2-microglobulin less than 3.5 and albumin less than 3.5 or ... |
| C78526 | An infectious process affecting the penis. |
| C7852 | "Multiple myeloma with one or more of the following: 1. Hemoglobin less than 8.5 g/dL. 2. Serum calcium greater than 12.0 mg/dL. 3. More than three lytic bone lesions. 4. High M protein production as shown by: a. IgG greater than 7.0 g/dL. b. IgA greater than 5.0 g/dL. c. Urinary kappa or lamda greater than 12.0 g/24 hours. Estimated myeloma cell mass: greater than 1.2 trillion (1012)/m2 (high burden). The following subclassification of stages is used: a. Creatinine less than 2.0 mg/dL. b. C... |
| C78531 | An infectious process affecting the tissues around the orbit. |
| C78533 | "Disorder caused by the occlusion of the lumen of the peripheral arteries. Causes include atherosclerosis, inflammatory processes, thrombosis, and embolism. The arterial occlusion results in chronic or acute pain usually in the lower limbs due to muscle ischemia." |
| C7853 | Small cell lung carcinoma which is confined to one hemi-thorax and the regional lymph nodes. |
| C78540 | An infectious process affecting the peritoneum. |
| C7854 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the vulva or vulva and perineum, 2cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)." |
| C78551 | An abnormal communication between the pharynx and another organ or anatomic site. |
| C78552 |  |
| C78553 | An inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the pharynx. |
| C78558 | "Infection at the site of needle puncture or intravenous catheter placement due to poor aseptic techniques. It is characterized by erythema, pain, swelling, and induration at the catheter insertion site." |
| C7855 | "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0).  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C78560 | An abnormal communication between the pleural cavity and another anatomic site. |
| C78563 | An infectious process affecting the pleura. |
| C78565 | The formation of a blood clot (thrombus) in the portal vein. |
| C7856 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor confined to vagina.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C78570 | An intestinal stoma complication characterized by protrusion of the intestine above the abdominal surface. |
| C78571 | Displacement of the urostomy. |
| C78576 | "A mental disorder characterized by personality change, impaired functioning, and loss of touch with reality." |
| C78577 | An abnormal communication between the lung and another organ or anatomic site. |
| C78579 | A heart disorder characterized by a defect in pulmonary valve structure or function. |
| C7857 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades paravaginal tissues but not to pelvic wall.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C78580 | "Acute skin inflammatory reaction caused by drugs, especially chemotherapeutic agents, weeks or months following radiotherapy. The inflammatory reaction is confined to the previously irradiated skin and the symptoms disappear after the removal of the pharmacologic agent." |
| C78581 | An inflammatory process affecting a nerve root. Patients experience pain radiating along a nerve path because of spinal pressure on the nerve root that connects to the nerve path. |
| C78584 | An inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the rectum. |
| C7858 | "Stage III includes: (T1-3, N1, M0) and (T3, N0, M0). T1: Tumor confined to vagina.  T2: Tumor invades paravaginal tissues but not to pelvic wall.  T3: Tumor extends to pelvic wall.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Pelvic or inguinal lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C78590 | A circumscribed inflammatory and necrotic erosive lesion in the mucosa surface of the rectum. |
| C78591 | Damage to the laryngeal nerve that results in paralysis of the layrnx. |
| C78592 | "Paralysis of the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Causes include surgical and non-surgical traumas, neoplasms (e.g., lung carcinoma), and inflammatory neuritis." |
| C78593 | Paroxysmal and severe flank pain radiating to the inguinal area. It is caused by the passage of a kidney stone through the ureter. |
| C78595 | An abnormal communication between the renal pelvis and another anatomic site. |
| C78597 | "A syndrome observed in patients with acute promyelocytic leukemia treated with all-trans retinoic acid. It is characterized by weight gain, dyspnea, pleural and pericardial effusions, leukocytosis, and renal failure." |
| C78598 | "An acute or subacute reversible condition characterized by headaches, mental status changes, visual disturbances, and seizures associated with imaging findings of posterior leukoencephalopathy. It has been observed in association with hypertensive encephalopathy, eclampsia, and immunosuppressive and cytotoxic drug treatment." |
| C78599 | "An inflammatory process affecting the nasal mucosa, usually caused by viruses (e.g., rhinovirus, adenovirus, parainfluenza virus, and coronavirus). It is characterized by chills, headaches, mucopurulent nasal discharge, coughing, and facial pain." |
| C7859 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Tumor invades mucosa of the bladder or rectum and/or extends beyond the true pelvis (bullous edema is not sufficient evidence to classify a tumor as T4).  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C78600 | An inflammatory process affecting the salivary duct. |
| C78601 | A viral (such as mumps) or bacterial infectious process affecting the salivary gland. The salivary gland becomes enlarged and is often painful. |
| C78602 | "An acute or chronic infectious process affecting the fallopian tube. Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhea, Mycoplasma, Staphylococcus, and Streptococcus are the most common causative agents." |
| C78603 | A congenital or acquired spinal deformity characterized by lateral curvature of the spine. |
| C78606 | "A bacterial, fungal or viral infectious process affecting the scrotum." |
| C7860 | The reemergence of vaginal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C78613 | An inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the small intestine. |
| C78618 | An infectious process affecting the small intestine. |
| C78619 | A circumscribed inflammatory and necrotic erosive lesion in the mucosa surface of the small intestine. |
| C7861 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G1 that is restricted to the site of origin without evidence of metastasis. |
| C78627 | "An infectious process affecting the spleen. Predisposing factors include immunosuppression, diabetes mellitus, and sickle cell anemia. Infectious agents include bacteria (e.g., staphylococcus and streptococcus) and fungi." |
| C78629 | An infectious process affecting a surgically created opening in the surface of the body. |
| C7862 | Digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G1 that has not spread to other regions. |
| C78634 | Thrombosis and inflammation of a superficial vein of the extremities. Symptoms include red discoloration and warmth of the skin and pain along the affected vein. |
| C78639 | An infectious process affecting a tooth. |
| C78641 | An abnormal communication between the trachea and another organ or anatomic site. |
| C78643 | An inflammatory process affecting the wall of the trachea. |
| C78644 | An inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the trachea. |
| C78647 | "Bacterial infectious process with formation of mucopurulent membranes affecting the trachea. Causative agents include Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas, and Klebsiella." |
| C78649 | A heart disorder characterized by a defect in tricuspid valve structure or function. |
| C7864 | The reemergence of digestive system neuroendocrine tumor G1 after a period of remission. |
| C78650 | A heart disorder characterized by a defect in aortic valve structure or function. |
| C78658 | "An infectious process affecting the oral cavity, pharynx, and/or larynx." |
| C7865 | A malignant mesothelioma that has spread beyond its original site of growth. |
| C78663 | An abnormal communication between the ureter and another organ or anatomic site. |
| C78666 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process affecting the ureter. |
| C78668 | An abnormal communication between the urethra and another organ or anatomic site. |
| C7866 | The reemergence of malignant mesothelioma after a period of remission |
| C78671 | "A bacterial, viral, or fungal infectious process affecting the urethra." |
| C7867 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C78685 | An abnormal communication between the uterus and another organ. |
| C7868 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0); (T2, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single superficial, inguinal lymph node.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7869 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0).  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue.  T2: Tumor invades corpus spongiosum or cavernosum.  T3: Tumor invades urethra or prostate.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in single superficial, inguinal lymph node. N2: Metastasis in multiple or bilateral superficial inguinal lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7870 | The reemergence of penile carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C78710 | An infectious process originating from an implanted vascular device. |
| C78716 | "An infectious process affecting the vulva. Causative agents include human papillomavirus, herpes virus, Trichomonas, and Candida. Symptoms include itching and pain in the genital area and discharge." |
| C7871 | A B-or T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of a mixed-sized lymphocytic population occurring in adults. |
| C7872 | A B-or T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of a diffuse large cell lymphocytic infiltrate occurring in adults. |
| C7873 | A morphologic variant of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma occurring in adults.  It is characterized by the presence of large lymphoid cells with abundant cytoplasm and prominent nucleoli. |
| C7874 | Risk: Intermediate; Findings: Lymphocytosis and adenopathy; Survival (months): 95. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C7875 | "Risk: Intermediate; Findings: Lymphocytosis, adenopathy, and enlarged spleen and/or liver; Survival (months): 72. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C7876 | Risk: High; Findings: Lymphocytosis and hemoglobin less than 11 g/dL; Survival (months): 30. (from AJCC 8th Ed.) |
| C7877 | A localized hepatocellular carcinoma or intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that occurs during adulthood and it is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C7878 | A localized hepatocellular carcinoma or intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that occurs during adulthood and it is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C78797 | "A coagulation disorder characterized by extensive formation of thrombi in small blood vessels throughout the body due to low levels of ADAMTS13 protein, and resulting in consumption of circulating platelets, which is characterized by thrombocytopenia, anemia, neurologic changes, and sometimes fever and renal dysfunction." |
| C7880 | A hepatocellular carcinoma or intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that occurs during adulthood and has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C7881 | The reemergence of osteosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C7882 | The reemergence of acute myeloid leukemia in adults after a period of remission. |
| C7883 | The reemergence of acute lymphoblastic leukemia in adults after a period of remission. |
| C7884 | The reemergence of brain neoplasm in adulthood after a period of remission. |
| C7885 | "Chronic myeloid leukemia, BCR-ABL1 positive that is resistant to treatment." |
| C7886 | Chronic lymphocytic leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C7887 | The reemergence of gestational trophoblastic tumor after a period of remission. |
| C7888 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the small intestine.  Histologic variants include mucinous adenocarcinoma and signet ring cell carcinoma. |
| C7889 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the duodenum.  Histologic variants include mucinous adenocarcinoma and signet ring cell carcinoma. |
| C7890 | A carcinoma that arises from the gallbladder and it is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C7891 | A carcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts and it has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C7892 | Extrahepatic bile duct carcinoma that is not amenable to surgical removal. |
| C7893 | The reemergence of an extrahepatic bile duct carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7894 | The reemergence of small intestine carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7895 | "Stage 0 includes: 0a (Ta, N0, M0); 0is (Tis, N0, M0).  Ta: Noninvasive papillary carcinoma. Tis: Carcinoma in situ: ""flat tumor"".  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C7896 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C7897 | "Stage II includes: (T2a, N0, M0); (T2b, N0, M0).  T2a: Tumor invades superficial muscle (inner half).  T2b: Tumor invades deep muscle (outer half).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C7898 | "Stage III includes: (T3a, N0, M0); (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0).  T3a: Tumor microscopically invades perivesical tissue.  T3b: Tumor macroscopically invades perivesical tissue (extravesical mass).  T4a: Tumor invades prostatic stroma, uterus, vagina.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C7899 | The reemergence of bladder carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7900 | "Stage IV includes the following: T4b, N0, M0; Any T, N1, M0; Any T, N2 M0; Any T, N3 M0; Any T, Any N, M1.  T4b: Tumor invades the pelvic wall, abdominal wall.  N1: Metastasis in a single lymph node, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis in a single lymph node, more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  M1: Distant metasta... |
| C7901 | "Stage I includes: pT1-4, N0, M0, SX.  pT1: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis without vascular/lymphatic invasion; tumor may invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis.  pT2: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis with vascular/lymphatic invasion, or tumor extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis.  pT3: Tumor invades the spermatic cord with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.  pT4: Tumor invades the scrotum with or wi... |
| C7902 | The reemergence of prostate carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7903 | A carcinoma of the skin that has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C7904 | A malignant thymoma that extends beyond the capsule and infiltrates the surrounding tissues. |
| C7905 | Reemergence of malignant thymoma after a period of remission. |
| C7906 | "An extremely rare morphologic variant of anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid gland, characterized by the presence of large numbers of non-neoplastic, osteoclast-like giant cells." |
| C7907 |  |
| C7908 | The reemergence of thyroid gland carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7912 | The reemergence of a pituitary gland neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C7913 | A melanoma arising from and extending beyond the structures of the eye. |
| C7914 | The reemergence of uveal melanoma after a period of remission. |
| C7915 | A pituitary neuroendocrine tumor that produces thyroid-stimulating hormone. |
| C7916 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1a, N0, M0); IB (T1b, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Melanoma is less than or equal to 1.0mm in thickness with or without ulceration.  T1b: Melanoma is less than or equal to 1.0mm in thickness and level IV or V with ulceration. T2a: Melanoma 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, no ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.-2003" |
| C7917 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0); IIB: (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); IIC: (T4b, N0, M0).  T2b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T3a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  T3b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T4a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  T4b: Cutan... |
| C7918 | "Stage III includes: (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  N1: Metastasis in one lymph node.  N2: Metastasis in two to three regional lymph nodes or intralymphatic regional metastasis without nodal metastases.  N3: Metastasis in four or more regional nodes, or matted metastatic nodes, or in-transit metastasis or satellite(s) with metastasis in regional node(s)." |
| C7920 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T2a, N0, M0); IIB (T1, N1, M0), (T2, N1, M0), (T2a, N1, M0); (T2b, N0, M0); (T2b, N0, M0); (T2b, N1, M0).  T2: Tumor extends to soft tissues.  T2a: Tumor extends to the oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal extension.  T2b: Any tumor with parapharyngeal extension.  N1: Unilateral metastasis in lymph node(s), 6 cm or less in greatest dimension, above the supraclavicular fossa.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C7923 |  |
| C7924 | An extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma occurring in adults. |
| C7925 | "An osteosarcoma arising from the soft tissue, and occurring in adults." |
| C7926 | The reemergence of salivary gland carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C7927 | A carcinoma that arises from the hepatocytes or intrahepatic bile ducts.  The main subtypes are hepatocellular carcinoma (hepatoma) and cholangiocarcinoma. |
| C7928 | A germ cell tumor that occurs during childhood. |
| C7930 | "An angiocentric and angiodestructive lymphoproliferative disease involving extranodal sites, comprised of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-positive B-cells admixed with reactive T-cells.  Incidence is higher among adult males; patients with a history of immunodeficiency are at increased risk.  The most common site of involvement is the lung; other common sites include brain, kidney, liver, and skin.  Morphologically, three grades are recognized: grade I, II, and III.  Grade III lymphomatoid granulo... |
| C7931 | "Lymphomatoid granulomatosis characterized by the presence of a polymorphous lymphoid infiltrate without cytologic atypia. Large lymphocytes are absent or rare. By in situ hybridization, EBV-positive cells are infrequently seen." |
| C7932 | "Lymphomatoid granulomatosis characterized by the presence of occasional large lymphoid cells or immunoblasts in a polymorphous background. Necrosis is more commonly seen as compared to grade I lymphomatoid granulomatosis. By in situ hybridization, EBV-positive cells are readily seen." |
| C7933 | "Lymphomatoid granulomatosis characterized by the presence of aggregates of neoplastic large B-lymphocytes, usually admixed with pleomorphic and Hodgkin-like cells, in a background of chronic inflammation.  Necrotic changes are present and are usually extensive.  Grade III lymphomatoid granulomatosis should be approached clinically as a subtype of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma." |
| C7934 | The reemergence of lymphomatoid granulomatosis after a period of remission. |
| C7935 | The reemergence of Kaposi sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C7939 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C7940 | An acute monoblastic and monocytic leukemia that occurs in children. |
| C7942 | A nodular lymphocyte predominant B-cell lymphoma occurring in adults. |
| C7943 | "An alveolar soft part sarcoma occurring in adults.  The most common site of involvement is the extremity, particularly the deep soft tissues of the thigh." |
| C7944 | An epithelioid sarcoma occurring in adults. |
| C7946 | A malignant hemangiopericytoma occurring in the adult population. |
| C7947 | A malignant mesenchymoma occurring in adults. |
| C79484 | "A systemic, serious, and life-threatening disorder characterized by lesions in the skin and mucous membranes that may lead to necrosis. The lesions may appear anywhere in the body but they occur more commonly in the palms, soles, dorsum of the hands, and extensor surfaces. The lesions are vesicular or necrotic in the center, surrounded by an erythematous zone and occupy less than 10% of the body surfaces. The appearance of the mucocutaneous lesions is preceded by an upper respiratory tract ... |
| C7949 | "Breast ductal carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with severe dysplasia and the formation of micropapillary, cribriform, or solid patterns. The nuclei show marked pleomorphism and have prominent nucleoli. Mitotic activity is usually present. There is comedo-type of necrosis present in the ducts. The necrotic debris is surrounded by pleomorphic malignant cells." |
| C7950 | "An infiltrating lobular adenocarcinoma of the breast.  The malignant cells lack cohesion and are arranged individually or in a linear manner (Indian files), or as narrow trabeculae within the stroma.  The malignant cells are usually smaller than those of ductal carcinoma, are less pleomorphic, and have fewer mitotic figures." |
| C7951 | "Paget disease involving the skin overlying the mammary gland, accompanied by invasive ductal breast carcinoma." |
| C7952 | The leukemic counterpart of Burkitt lymphoma occurring in children.  The characteristic Burkitt cells are seen in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood.  This is an aggressive leukemia. |
| C79532 | "Inflammation of the nasal mucous membranes caused by an IgE-mediated response to external allergens. The inflammation may also involve the mucous membranes of the sinuses, eyes, middle ear, and pharynx. Symptoms include sneezing, nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and itching. It may lead to fatigue, drowsiness, and malaise thus causing impairment of the quality of life." |
| C79536 | "A painful tear in the lining of the anal canal, often accompanied by bleeding on defecation. It is usually the result of a traumatic bowel movement or anal sexual penetration." |
| C7953 | An acute lymphoblastic leukemia of T-cell origin occurring in children. |
| C79540 | An abnormal communication between the bile ducts and another organ or cavity. |
| C79543 | An abnormal communication between the bronchus and another organ or anatomic site. |
| C79544 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the lips.  Representative examples include inflammation and cleft lip. |
| C79545 | An inflammatory process affecting the lip. |
| C79549 | "Slow and slurred speech resulting from inability to coordinate the muscles that are used in speech. Causes include brain damage, Parkinson disease, and developmental causes." |
| C7954 | The leukemic counterpart of Burkitt lymphoma occurring in adults.  The characteristic Burkitt cells are seen in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood.  This is an aggressive leukemia. |
| C79550 | "An acute infectious process that affects the brain tissue. It is usually caused by viruses and less often by bacteria, parasites, and fungi." |
| C79551 | An infectious process that affects the brain and spinal cord tissues. It is usually caused by viruses. |
| C7955 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C7956 | A hepatocellular carcinoma occurring in adults. |
| C79573 | "An inflammatory process affecting the small intestine and colon. Causes include viruses, bacteria, radiation, and antibiotics use." |
| C79574 | An abnormal communication between the esophagus and another organ or anatomic site. |
| C79575 | An inflammatory process affecting the mucous membrane of the esophagus. |
| C7957 | A poorly circumscribed morphologic variant of rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in children.  The neoplasm is characterized by the presence of primitive skeletal muscle in any stage of myogenesis. |
| C7958 | "An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm occurring in children.  It is characterized by the presence of round cells with myoblastic differentiation, and a fibrovascular stroma resembling an alveolar growth pattern." |
| C79593 | "A movement disorder caused by defects in the basal ganglia. The clinical manifestations include changes in the muscle tone, dyskinesia, and akinesia. Causes include vascular disorders, degenerative disorders, and antipsychotic drugs." |
| C79595 | An abnormal communication between the stomach and another organ or anatomic site. |
| C79596 | "A constellation of signs and symptoms characterized by changes in personality, consciousness, and reflexes, resulting from neuropsychiatric abnormalities secondary to liver failure without evidence of other brain disease." |
| C79598 | "Inflammation of the meninges of the brain and/or spinal cord caused by an infectious agent (viral, bacterial, or fungal). Symptoms include headache, fever, vomiting, neck stiffness, photophobia, confusion, and seizures." |
| C7959 | "A rare aggressive rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in children.  The neoplasm is characterized by the presence of bizarre round, spindle, and polygonal cells." |
| C79601 | "Inflammation of the anatomical structures of the outer ear and ear canal, which is most often caused by an infectious process. Symptoms include erythema, edema, and pain." |
| C79606 | "A disorder not necessarily related to pregnancy that is observed in females and males. It is characterized by disturbances of milk secretion. Causes include damage to the breast parenchyma due to inflammation, medications, pituitary tumors, and hypothyroidism." |
| C7960 | A mixed rhabdomyosarcoma that occurs in children. The neoplasm is composed of embryonic and alveolar components.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with myoblastic differentiation and a myxoid and a fibrous stroma. |
| C7961 | An acute myeloid leukemia with maturation that occurs in adults. |
| C7962 | An acute myelomonocytic leukemia that occurs in adults. |
| C7963 | An acute eosinophilic leukemia occurring in adults. |
| C7964 | An acute basophilic leukemia that occurs in adults. |
| C7965 | An acute megakaryoblastic leukemia that occurs in adults. |
| C7966 | An invasive adenocarcinoma of the colon characterized by the presence of pools of extracellular mucin.  Malignant glandular epithelial cells are present in the mucin collections.  Mucin constitutes more than 50% of the lesion. |
| C7967 | An invasive adenocarcinoma of the colon characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells which contain prominent intracytoplasmic mucin (signet ring cells).  The signet ring cells constitute more than 50% of the malignant cells. |
| C7968 | An acute promyelocytic leukemia with t(15;17)(q24.1;q21.2); PML-RARA that occurs in children. |
| C79698 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the optic nerve (second cranial nerve). |
| C79701 | An abnormal communication between the pancreas and another organ or cavity. |
| C79702 | "An acute or chronic infection of the soft tissues around the nail. Symptoms include pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling around the nail. Acute infection results from minor trauma to the fingertip and Staphylococcus aureus is usually the causative agent. Chronic infection is usually caused by Candida albicans." |
| C79705 | A bacterial infection related to a device used to replace a missing body part. The infection may occur during the operation from direct contamination or post-operatively through hematogenous spread. |
| C7970 | An acute myelomonocytic leukemia that occurs in children. |
| C79713 | An abnormal communication between the rectum and another organ or cavity. |
| C79715 | An abnormal communication between a salivary gland and another organ or anatomic site. |
| C79717 | "A disorder affecting the sclera. Examples include inflammatory processes (e.g., scleritis and episcleritis), and degenerative processes. Primary tumors of the sclera are extremely rare." |
| C79718 | "Delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction to foreign proteins derived from an animal serum. It occurs approximately six to twenty one days following the administration of the foreign antigen. Symptoms include fever, arthralgias, myalgias, skin eruptions, lymphadenopathy, chest pain, and dyspnea. Certain drugs (e.g., antibiotics, anticancer agents, and anti-inflammatory medications) and infectious disorders (e.g., hepatitis B) may also cause serum sickness-like reaction." |
| C7971 | An acute basophilic leukemia that occurs in children. |
| C7972 | An acute megakaryoblastic leukemia that occurs in children. |
| C7973 | An invasive adenocarcinoma of the rectum characterized by the presence of pools of extracellular mucin.  Malignant glandular epithelial cells are present in the mucin collections.  Mucin constitutes more than 50% of the lesion. |
| C79745 | "A bacterial infectious process affecting the soft tissues. A severe form caused by anaerobic or aerobic bacteria is associated with soft tissues necrosis and affects the subcutaneous adipose tissue, muscles, fascia, and the skin." |
| C7974 | "An invasive malignant epithelial tumor that arises from the rectum.  There is no morphologic, immunophenotypic, or molecular biological evidence of glandular or squamous differentiation." |
| C7975 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the epithelium of the extrahepatic bile ducts.  Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, anorexia, jaundice, pruritus, nausea and vomiting, and weight loss." |
| C79765 | "An episode of sudden and transient loss of consciousness sometimes associated with seizures. It is caused by a sudden decrease of the cardiac output that results from a sudden cardiac dysrhythmia. Typically patients develop an initial pallor, followed by facial flush during recovery." |
| C7976 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the common bile duct distal to the insertion of the cystic duct. |
| C79777 | "A systemic, serious, and life-threatening disorder characterized by erythematous and necrotic lesions in the skin and mucous membranes that are associated with bullous detachment of the epidermis. The epidermal and mucous membranes detachment leads to sepsis and may be fatal. The lesions appear throughout the body and occupy more than 30% of the body surfaces. It is a hypersensitivity reaction usually caused by drugs (e.g., sulfonamides, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, anticonvulsants... |
| C7977 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the pancreas.  It is characterized by the presence of relatively uniform malignant cells which form acinar patterns.  It usually occurs during adulthood.  Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, and diarrhea.  It may metastasize to regional lymph nodes and the liver.  A minority of patients develop lipase hypersecretion syndrome.  This syndrome may be seen in patients with liver metastases and it is characterized by excessive secretion ... |
| C7978 | "A malignant serous cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the ovary.  It is characterized by the presence of glandular, papillary, or solid structures.  Psammoma bodies may be present.  In well differentiated cases the malignant epithelial cells resemble the cells of fallopian tube epithelium.  In poorly differentiated cases the malignant epithelial cells show anaplastic features." |
| C7979 | "An endometrioid adenocarcinoma arising from the ovary.  It comprises 10% to 25% of all primary ovarian carcinomas.  Grossly, endometrioid carcinoma may present as a cystic or solid mass.  Microscopically, the tumor greatly resembles the appearance of the ordinary type of endometrial adenocarcinoma.  As a group, endometrioid carcinoma has a prognosis twice as good as that of serous or mucinous carcinoma." |
| C7980 | A malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm arising from the ovary.  It is characterized by the presence of clear and hobnail cells and cystic structures. |
| C7981 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the vagina.  Morphologic variants include the clear cell, endometrioid, mesonephric, and mucinous adenocarcinoma." |
| C7982 | A small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from the cervix. |
| C7983 | An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is often fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion. |
| C79847 | An abnormal communication between the vagina and another organ or cavity. |
| C79849 | An abnormal communication between the urinary bladder and another organ or anatomic site. |
| C79850 | An abnormal communication between any part of the urinary system and another organ or cavity. |
| C79851 |  |
| C7985 | "A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of cells with epithelioid morphology. The epithelioid cells usually have eosinophilic cytoplasm, bland nuclei, and form tubulopapillary, microglandular, or sheet-like patterns." |
| C7986 | "A melanoma arising from the choroid, ciliary body, or the iris.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped melanocytes." |
| C7987 | A uveal melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with slender nuclei and no visible nucleoli. |
| C7988 | A uveal melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with larger nuclei and distinct nucleoli. |
| C7989 | Uveal melanoma characterized by the presence of intermediate cells which are similar to but smaller than epithelioid cells. |
| C7990 | A uveal melanoma characterized by the presence of tumor cell necrosis. |
| C7991 | "A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the salivary glands.  The majority of patients are in their sixth through eight decades.  It usually presents as a rapidly enlarging mass, which may be painful.  It usually has an aggressive clinical course." |
| C7992 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the nasopharynx and is characterized by prominent production of keratin. A small minority of cases are associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection. |
| C7993 | A parathyroid gland adenoma composed predominantly of neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm. |
| C79948 | A solitary fibrous tumor characterized by the presence of areas of abrupt transition to high grade sarcoma. |
| C79949 | A rare condition characterized by the development of a carcinoma in a pre-existing craniopharyngioma. |
| C7994 | "A parathyroid gland adenoma that contains a mixture of neoplastic cells (chief cells, oncocytes, and clear cells)." |
| C79950 | A paraganglioma that arises from and is confined to the carotid body. |
| C79951 | An adenoma characterized by the presence of papillary epithelial patterns. |
| C7995 | "A renal cell carcinoma with eosinophilic cytoplasm and high nuclear grade.  Granular cells can be seen in any subtype of renal cell carcinoma, including conventional clear cell carcinoma.  This term does not represent a specific subtype of renal cell carcinoma and should no longer be used." |
| C7996 | "A type B1 thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize." |
| C7997 | "Also known as well-differentiated thymic carcinoma, atypical thymoma, or epithelial thymoma, this type of thymoma displays morphologic characteristics of a well-differentiated carcinoma.  The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage II or stage III tumors.  It is almost always invasive, it recurs frequently, and metastasizes in approximately 20% of the cases." |
| C7998 | "A rare, usually aggressive primary thymus carcinoma characterized by a syncytial growth of undifferentiated carcinoma cells and the presence of a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate. More than 40% of cases are associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection." |
| C7999 | "A type A thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize." |
| C8000 | "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It affects infants, young children, and postpubertal males.  It is the most frequently seen testicular neoplasm during childhood.  The vast majority of patients present with an asymptomatic scrotal mass.  The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).  It metastasizes to distant anatomic sites.  Prognostic factors relate to the clinical stage and the degree of AFP elevation." |
| C8001 | A malignant non-seminomatous germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It is characterized by a mixture of embryonal carcinoma and yolk sac morphologic elements.  Patients may present with painless or painful testicular swelling. |
| C8002 | A malignant non-seminomatous germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It is characterized by a mixture of yolk sac and teratomatous morphologic elements.  Patients may present with painless or painful testicular swelling. |
| C8003 | "A malignant germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It is characterized by a mixture of yolk sac, teratomatous, and seminomatous morphologic elements.  Patients may present with painless or painful testicular swelling." |
| C8006 | "A usually malignant, somatostatin producing neuroendocrine tumor, arising from the delta cells of the pancreas.  It may or may not be associated with inappropriate secretion of somatostatin and an associated clinical syndrome." |
| C80078 | Impairment of the renal function secondary to chronic kidney damage persisting for three or more months. |
| C80099 | "Cessation of menstruation before the age of 40. Symptoms include hot flashes, night sweats, mood swings, and decreased sex drive." |
| C80127 |  |
| C8012 | "A salivary gland carcinoma with low-grade histopathologic features.  It includes the salivary gland polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma, salivary gland low grade cribriform cystadenocarcinoma, and low grade salivary gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma.  It usually follows a non-aggressive clinical course." |
| C8013 | A carcinoma of the salivary gland characterized by serous acinar cell differentiation.  The vast majority of cases occur in the parotid gland.  It usually presents as a slowly enlarging mass.  A minority of patients experience pain.  It may recur or metastasize.  Multiple recurrences and metastasis to cervical lymph nodes are usually associated with a poor prognosis. |
| C8014 | A basal cell carcinoma arising from the lip. |
| C8015 | A salivary gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma with low-grade histopathologic features. It usually follows a non-aggressive clinical course. |
| C8017 | A salivary gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma with intermediate-grade histopathologic features. |
| C8018 | "A usually aggressive salivary gland carcinoma with high-grade histopathologic features.  It includes the salivary duct carcinoma, salivary gland oncocytic carcinoma, and high grade salivary gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma." |
| C8019 | A salivary gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma with high-grade histopathologic features. It usually follows an aggressive clinical course. |
| C8021 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the salivary gland.  It includes the salivary gland polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma, salivary gland oncocytic carcinoma, salivary gland mucinous adenocarcinoma, salivary gland low grade cribriform cystadenocarcinoma, salivary gland cystadenocarcinoma, salivary gland basal cell adenocarcinoma, salivary gland acinic cell carcinoma, salivary duct carcinoma, and salivary gland adenocarcinoma not otherwise specified." |
| C8022 | A poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma arising from the salivary gland. |
| C8023 | "A nonkeratinizing nasopharyngeal carcinoma characterized by the presence of large cells with vesicular nuclei and prominent nucleoli, a syncytial growth pattern, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate." |
| C8024 | "A salivary gland carcinoma characterized by the presence of undifferentiated, anaplastic malignant epithelial cells." |
| C8025 | "A malignant tumor arising from the salivary gland.  It includes carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, a malignant epithelial tumor arising from a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma and carcinosarcoma which is characterized by a mixture of malignant epithelial and sarcomatous elements." |
| C8026 | "An adenoid cystic carcinoma arising from the salivary gland.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelial and myoepithelial cells forming tubular, cribriform, and solid patterns.  It usually presents as a slow growing mass.  Patients may experience pain because of the tumor propensity for perineural invasion.  The tumor may follow an aggressive clinical course with recurrences and mestastases to distant sites including lungs, bones, brain, and liver." |
| C80280 | "A term referring to a group of diffuse large B-cell lymphomas which are biologically heterogeneous. These lymphomas have a centroblastic, immunoblastic, or anaplastic morphology." |
| C80281 | "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma originally described in patients older than 50 years, but it has been increasingly recognized in younger patients. Epstein-Barr virus is present in all cases. There is no known history of immunodeficiency or prior lymphoma." |
| C80289 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma arising in body cavities or narrow spaces of long standing chronic inflammation.  The classic example is the pyothorax-associated lymphoma that arises in the pleural cavity of patients with a history of long standing pyothorax. |
| C8028 | "A high-grade endometrial adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of large neoplastic cells that display at least focal cytoplasmic clearing.  The neoplastic cells form papillary, glandular, or sheet-like structures." |
| C80290 | A plasmablastic lymphoma that arises from the oral mucosa. It is usually associated with HIV infection. |
| C80291 | "High-grade B-cell lymphoma with blastoid features or features between diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and Burkitt lymphoma that lacks MYC, BCL2, and BCL6 gene rearrangements." |
| C80297 | A nodal follicular lymphoma with favorable prognosis. It lacks BCL-2 rearrangement and 14;18 translocation. Nearly all cases are localized. It is usually seen in the pediatric population but similar lymphomas may occur in adults. |
| C80298 | "A follicular lymphoma arising from the intestine.  The majority of cases occur in the small intestine, particularly the duodenum.  Usually the patients have localized disease and a favorable clinical outcome." |
| C80299 | "A nodal marginal zone lymphoma affecting the pediatric population, predominantly males.  It presents with asymptomatic and localized (mainly head and neck) disease in the vast majority of cases.  Morphologically there is often progressive transformation of the germinal centers.  The prognosis is excellent." |
| C8029 | "A hairy cell leukemia requiring initial treatment because of the presence of signs of progression.  Signs of progression include cytopenia (especially if symptomatic), increasing splenomegaly, and infectious complications.  Therapy is not necessary if the patients are asymptomatic and the blood counts are maintained in an acceptable range." |
| C80303 | "A syndrome characterized by polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal gammopathy, and skin changes. It is associated with plasma cell dyscrasia." |
| C80307 | Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma associated with bone marrow involvement and IgM monoclonal gammopathy. |
| C80308 | A small B-cell clonal lymphoproliferative disorder of the spleen that does not fall into any of the other categories of mature B-cell neoplasms. |
| C80309 | "An uncommon, indolent B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small B-lymphocytes involving the red pulp of the spleen, bone marrow, and peripheral blood.  Patients often have massive splenomegaly.  The peripheral blood examination reveals villous lymphocytes." |
| C8030 | Hairy cell leukemia that is resistant to treatment. |
| C80310 | A monoclonal expansion of B-lymphocytes with or without the characteristic immunophenotype of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. It precedes virtually all cases of chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma. |
| C80326 | B lymphoblastic leukemias/lymphomas characterized by the absence of recurrent genetic abnormalities. |
| C80328 | B lymphoblastic leukemias/lymphomas characterized by the presence of recurring cytogenetic and/or molecular abnormalities. |
| C80331 | A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the BCR gene on chromosome 22 and the ABL1 gene on chromosome 9. It results in the production of the p190 kd or p210 kd fusion protein. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome. |
| C80332 | A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the KMT2A gene at 11q23.3 and another gene partner resulting in the production of an KMT2A related fusion protein. |
| C80334 | "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the TEL gene on chromosome 12 and the AML1 gene on chromosome 21, (p13.2;q22.1). It results in the production of the TEL-AML1 (ETV6-RUNX1) fusion protein. It has a favorable clinical outcome." |
| C80335 | A precursor lymphoid neoplasm composed of B lymphoblasts which contain more than 50 and usually less than 66 chromosomes. It has a favorable clinical outcome. |
| C80338 | A precursor lymphoid neoplasm composed of B lymphoblasts which contain less than 46 chromosomes. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome. |
| C8033 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C80340 | "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the IL3 gene on chromosome 5 and the IGH locus on chromosome 14, (q31.1;q32.3). It results in eosinophilia." |
| C80341 | A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the E2A gene on chromosome 19 and the PBX1 gene on chromosome 1. |
| C80342 | A B-cell acute leukemia characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts that carry a translocation between the KMT2A gene at 11q23.3 and another gene partner resulting in the production of an KMT2A related fusion protein. It is the most commonly seen leukemia in the pediatric population under the age of one year. The prognosis is unfavorable. |
| C80343 | "A B-cell acute leukemia characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts that carry a translocation between the TEL gene on chromosome 12 and the AML1 gene on chromosome 21, (p13.2;q22.1). It results in the production of the TEL-AML1 (ETV6-RUNX1) fusion protein. It is commonly seen in children and rarely in adults. It has a favorable clinical outcome." |
| C80344 | A B-cell acute leukemia characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts which contain more than 50 and usually less than 66 chromosomes. It is commonly seen in children and rarely in adults. It has a favorable clinical outcome. |
| C80345 | A B-cell acute leukemia characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts which contain less than 46 chromosomes. It occurs in both children and adults. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome. |
| C80346 | "A rare B-cell acute leukemia characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts that carry a translocation between the IL3 gene on chromosome 5 and the IGH locus on chromosome 14, (q31.1;q32.3). It results in eosinophilia." |
| C80347 | A B-cell acute leukemia characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts that carry a translocation between the E2A gene on chromosome 19 and the PBX1 gene on chromosome 1. It occurs in children and less often in adults. |
| C8034 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8035 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8036 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a (lip): Tumor invades through cortical bone, inferior alveolar nerve, floor of mouth, or skin of face, i.e., chin or nose.  T4a (oral cavity): Tumor invades adjacent structures (e.g., through cortical bone, into deep [extrinsic] muscles of tongue, maxillary sinus, skin of face).  T4b: Tumor invades masticator space, p... |
| C80373 | An Epstein-Barr virus-associated mature T-cell/NK-cell lymphoproliferative group of disorders affecting children.  It occurs with increased frequency in Asians and Native Americans.  It includes the systemic EBV-positive T-cell lymphoma of childhood and the hydroa vacciniforme lymphoproliferative disorder. |
| C80374 | "An aggressive and life-threatening, EBV-positive T-cell lymphoma affecting children.  It is more prevalent in Taiwan and Japan.  Clinically, it presents with acute onset of fever and generalized malaise, followed by hepatosplenomegaly and liver failure.  Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of infiltrating T-lymphocytes which are usually small and erythrophagocytosis.  Most patients have a fulminant clinical course." |
| C80375 | Follicular helper T-cell lymphoma with a predominantly follicular growth pattern. |
| C8037 | The reemergence of lip and/or oral cavity carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C80386 | Long-standing and persistent renal disease without kidney damage. |
| C80387 | Long-standing and persistent renal disease with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) greater than 90 ml/min. |
| C80388 | Long-standing and persistent renal disease with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) between 60-89 ml/min. |
| C80389 | Long-standing and persistent renal disease with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) between 30-59 ml/min. |
| C8038 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of the hypopharynx and 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C80390 | Long-standing and persistent renal disease with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) between 15-29 ml/min. |
| C80391 | A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of episodic atrial fibrillation with abrupt onset and termination. |
| C80392 | "A disorder characterized by a long standing and persistent uncoordinated atrial myocardium activation due to multiple reentry circuits with consequent deterioration of atrial mechanical function. Instead of intermittently contracting, the atria quiver continuously in a chaotic pattern, causing a totally irregular, often tachycardia ventricular rate. On the ECG it is characterized by the replacement of consistent P waves by rapid oscillations or fibrillatory waves that vary in size, shape, a... |
| C8039 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades more than one subsite of the hypopharynx or an adjacent site, or measures more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest diameter without fixation of hemilarynx.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8040 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension or with fixation of hemilarynx.  N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more than 3 cm but not more than 6cm in greatest dimension, or in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C8041 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: (Supraglottis) Tumor limited to one subsite of supraglottis with normal vocal cord mobility. (Glottis) Tumor limited to the vocal cord(s) (may involve anterior or posterior commissure) with normal mobility.  (Subglottis) Tumor limited to the subglottis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8042 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: (Supraglottis) Tumor invades mucosa of more than one adjacent subsite of supraglottis or glottis or region outside the supraglottis (e.g., mucosa of base of tongue, vallecula, medial wall of pyriform sinus) without fixation of the larynx.  (Glottis) Tumor extends to supraglottis and/or subglottis, and/or with impaired vocal cord mobility.  (Subglottis) Tumor extends to vocal cord(s) with normal or impaired mobility. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  ... |
| C8043 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T1: Supraglottis: Tumor limited to one subsite of supraglottis with normal vocal cord mobility. Glottis: Tumor limited to the vocal cord(s) (may involve anterior or posterior commissure) with normal mobility.  Subglottis: Tumor limited to the subglottis.  T2: Supraglottis: Tumor invades mucosa of more than one adjacent subsite of supraglottis or glottis or region outside the supraglottis (e.g., mucosa of base of to... |
| C80444 | "An acute viral respiratory infection caused by a strain of influenza virus which is endemic in swine (pigs). Rarely reported in humans prior to 2009, the disease is caused by a mutated strain of swine influenza A (H1N1) virus. It is highly contagious and spreads mainly through coughing and sneezing. Signs and symptoms include fever, chills, coughing, sore throat headache, muscle ache, and generalized weakness. Antiviral medications are most effective in the first two days of the illness." |
| C8045 | A pheochromocytoma that has not spread to other regions. |
| C8047 | The reemergence of pheochromocytoma following surgical removal. |
| C8048 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8049 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8050 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0).  T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more than 3 cm but not more than 6 cm in greatest dimension, or in multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes, none more than 6cm in greatest dimension, or in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes, none more than 6cm in greatest dimension. ... |
| C80513 | "An infectious process affecting the small and large intestines. Symptoms include diarrhea, cramping abdominal pain, and fever." |
| C8051 | The reemergence of oropharyngeal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C8053 | "A malignant neoplasm arising from the ovary.  This category includes the poorly differentiated ovarian Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, malignant ovarian granulosa cell tumor, malignant ovarian steroid cell tumor, and malignant ovarian thecoma." |
| C8054 | "A differentiated adenocarcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland.  The nuclear features which characterize the thyroid gland papillary carcinoma are absent.  Radiation exposure is a risk factor and it comprises approximately 10% to 15% of thyroid cancers.  Clinically, it usually presents as a solitary mass in the thyroid gland.  It is generally unifocal and thickly encapsulated and shows invasion of the capsule or the vessels.  Diagnostic procedures include thyroid ult... |
| C8055 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8056 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE) (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). |
| C8057 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8058 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8059 | The reemergence of Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission during childhood. |
| C8060 | A nodular lymphocyte predominant B-cell lymphoma occurring in children. |
| C8061 | Lymphocyte-depleted classic Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in childhood. |
| C8062 | Nodular sclerosis classic Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in childhood. |
| C8063 | Mixed cellularity classic Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in childhood. |
| C8064 | A urothelial carcinoma of the renal pelvis and ureter that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C8065 | Rhabdomyosarcoma that occurs during childhood and is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C8066 | A sarcoma that arises from the soft tissues during childhood and has spread from the original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C8067 | The reemergence of soft tissue sarcoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C80683 | A leukemia arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of chemotherapy agents that are used for the treatment of a malignant tumor or exposure to ionizing radiation. |
| C8068 |  |
| C80691 | A leukemia arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of chemotherapy agents that are used for the treatment of a malignant tumor. |
| C80693 | The inability of the bone marrow to produce hematopoietic elements. |
| C80694 | An abnormal communication between a bronchus and the pleural cavity. |
| C8069 |  |
| C8070 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8071 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8072 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8073 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8074 |  |
| C8075 | Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I) or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site (IE). (from PDQ) |
| C8076 | Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I) or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site (IE). (from PDQ) |
| C8077 | Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I) or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site (IE). (from PDQ) |
| C8078 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8079 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8080 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8081 |  |
| C8082 |  |
| C8083 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0). T1: Tumor limited to ovaries (one or both).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8084 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with pelvic extension and/or implants. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8085 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor involves one or both both ovaries with microscopically confirmed peritoneal metastasis outside pelvis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8086 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis (excludes peritoneal metastasis). (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8087 | The reemergence of ovarian germ cell tumor after a period of remission. |
| C8088 | A malignant neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues in children. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a herringbone growth pattern. |
| C8089 | A synovial sarcoma occurring in childhood. |
| C8090 | A malignant hemangiopericytoma occurring in childhood. |
| C8091 | A liposarcoma occurring during childhood. |
| C8092 | "An alveolar soft part sarcoma occurring in children.  The most common site of involvement is the head and neck, particularly the orbit and tongue." |
| C8093 | "An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, occurring in children.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells." |
| C8094 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor occurring in children. |
| C8095 | An epithelioid sarcoma occurring in childhood. |
| C8097 | A malignant mesenchymoma occurring in children. |
| C8098 | The reemergence of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in adults after a period of remission. |
| C8099 | A squamous cell carcinoma which has metastasized to another anatomic site and the original site of growth has not been identified. |
| C8100 | An undifferentiated carcinoma which has metastasized to another anatomic site and the original site of growth has not been identified. |
| C8101 | "A solid neoplasm (e.g., carcinoma, sarcoma) occurring in adults." |
| C8102 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8103 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). The number of regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3)." |
| C8104 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8105 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8106 | "A malignant germ cell tumor arising from the ovary.  Morphologically, it is identical to seminoma and consists of a monotonous population of germ cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and uniform nuclei.  The stroma invariably contains chronic inflammatory cells, mostly T-lymphocytes. It responds to chemotherapy or radiotherapy and the prognosis relates to the tumor stage." |
| C8107 | "A usually rapidly growing malignant germ cell tumor arising from the ovary.  It usually occurs in children and adolescents.  Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain and a large abdominal or pelvic mass.  The serum alpha-fetoprotein is almost always elevated preoperatively.  Morphologically, there is marked heterogeneity due to numerous patterns of differentiation coexisting in the same tumor.  The most common pattern is reticular." |
| C8108 | An embryonal carcinoma arising from the ovary.  Signs and symptoms include the presence of an abdominal mass and abdominal pain. |
| C8110 | "A benign, immature, or malignant teratoma arising from the ovary." |
| C8111 | An immature teratoma arising from the ovary.  It usually affects females in their first two decades of life. |
| C8112 | "An ovarian teratoma which may be cystic, composed entirely of well differentiated, adult-type tissues, without evidence of fetal-type tissues." |
| C8113 | A teratoma of the ovary composed exclusively or predominantly of a single type of tissue derived from the ectoderm or endoderm.  A representative example is struma ovarii which is a teratoma composed exclusively or predominantly of thyroid tissue. |
| C8114 | An ovarian malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of at least two different germ cell tumor components. The most common combination of germ cell tumors is dysgerminoma and yolk sac tumor. |
| C8115 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8116 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8117 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8118 |  |
| C8119 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8120 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C8121 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C8122 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C8123 |  |
| C8124 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). The number of regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3)." |
| C8125 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C8126 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8127 |  |
| C81288 | "A disorder characterized by the body's inability to synthesize beta-globin chains, leading to the formation of abnormal hemoglobin and anemia. This inherited autosomal recessive blood disorder is caused by germline mutation of the HBB gene." |
| C8128 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8129 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8130 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C81315 | "An autonomic recessive genetic disorder characterized by the body's inability to metabolize and utilize the amino acid phenylalanine, resulting in mental retardation, behavioral and movement problems, seizures, and developmental delays." |
| C8131 |  |
| C81325 | A disorder characterized by the body's inability to metabolize galactose. This type of galactosemia is caused by germline mutations in the GALT gene which leads to the inhibition in the activity of the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase. |
| C8132 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8133 | "Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) that may also be accompanied by localized involvement of an extralymphatic organ or site (IIIE), by involvement of the spleen (IIIS), or both (IIIS+E). (from PDQ)" |
| C8134 | "Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) that may also be accompanied by localized involvement of an extralymphatic organ or site (IIIE), by involvement of the spleen (IIIS), or both (IIIS+E). (from PDQ)" |
| C8135 | "Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) that may also be accompanied by localized involvement of an extralymphatic organ or site (IIIE), by involvement of the spleen (IIIS), or both (IIIS+E). (from PDQ)" |
| C8136 |  |
| C8137 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8138 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8139 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8140 |  |
| C8141 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8142 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8143 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8144 |  |
| C8145 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8146 | Stage IV: Disseminated (multifocal) involvement of one or more extralymphatic sites with or without associated lymph node involvement or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement with distant (nonregional) nodal involvement. (PDQ) |
| C8147 | Stage IV: Disseminated (multifocal) involvement of one or more extralymphatic sites with or without associated lymph node involvement or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement with distant (nonregional) nodal involvement. (PDQ) |
| C8148 | Stage IV: Disseminated (multifocal) involvement of one or more extralymphatic sites with or without associated lymph node involvement or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement with distant (nonregional) nodal involvement. (PDQ) |
| C8149 |  |
| C8150 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8151 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8152 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8153 |  |
| C8154 | The reemergence of small lymphocytic lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8155 | The reemergence of grade 1 follicular lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8156 | The reemergence of grade 2 follicular lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8157 |  |
| C8158 | The reemergence of grade 3 follicular lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8159 | The reemergence of adult Burkitt lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8160 | The reemergence of adult diffuse mixed cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8161 | The reemergence of adult diffuse large cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8162 |  |
| C8163 | The reemergence of adult immunoblastic lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8164 | The reemergence of adult lymphoblastic lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8166 |  |
| C8167 | "Urothelial carcinoma of the renal pelvis or ureter that has not spread to adjacent tissues, regional lymph nodes, or distant anatomic sites." |
| C8168 | Urothelial carcinoma of the renal pelvis or ureter that has spread to adjacent tissues and/or regional lymph nodes but not to distant anatomic sites. |
| C8169 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.  It usually presents as a painful ulcerated or nodular lesion. |
| C8170 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the hard palate.  It usually presents as a papillary or exophytic mass. |
| C8171 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the lower gingiva. |
| C8172 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the retromolar trigone. Pain, often radiating to the ear, is the presenting symptom. The prognosis is poor." |
| C8173 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the upper gingiva. |
| C8174 | "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma arising from the oral cavity.  It is an exophytic, warty, slow growing tumor, usually affecting older males.  Chronic use of smokeless tobacco is associated with the development of verrucous carcinoma in the oral cavity.  Five year disease-free survival rates between 80% and 90% have been reported in patients who underwent extensive surgical removal of the tumor." |
| C81758 | "A very rare dendritic cell sarcoma affecting the lymph nodes, spleen, and soft tissues. Morphologically it is similar to the interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma or follicular dendritic cell sarcoma. The tumor cells are positive for cytokeratin and CD68." |
| C8175 | A verrucous carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the buccal mucosa. |
| C81767 | "A very rare dendritic cell tumor composed of spindle to ovoid cells with a phenotype that is similar to the Langerhans cells.  Patients usually present with cutaneous papules, nodules, and plaques.  Systemic symptoms are usually absent.  The clinical course is variable." |
| C8176 | A verrucous carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the lower gingiva. |
| C81772 | "Juvenile xanthogranuloma disseminated to extracutaneous sites including mucosal surfaces, lung, central nervous system, pituitary, lymph nodes, eye, liver, and bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of lipid-laden, foamy histiocytes and Touton-type giant cells forming nodules in the affected anatomic sites." |
| C8177 | A mucoepidermoid carcinoma arising from the minor salivary glands in the oral cavity.  It is often asymptomatic and detected during a routine dental examination. |
| C8178 | A mucoepidermoid carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the floor of the mouth. |
| C8179 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma arising from the minor salivary glands in the oral cavity. |
| C8180 | An adenoid cystic carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the floor of the mouth. |
| C8181 | "A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the oropharynx. It predominantly affects adults in their fifth and sixth decades of life and is associated with alcohol and tobacco use. Human papillomavirus is present in approximately half of the cases. It is characterized by a tendency to metastasize early to the lymph nodes. When the tumor is small, patients are often asymptomatic. Physical examination may reveal erythematous or white lesions or plaques. The majority of patients present with locall... |
| C8182 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the base of the tongue.  It usually presents as a painful ulcerated lesion. |
| C8183 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the mucosal lining of the tonsil and tends to metastasize early to the lymph nodes.  It predominantly affects middle aged and elderly patients who have a history of alcohol and tobacco use.  Patients may present with tonsillar swelling, sore throat, pain radiating to the ipsilateral ear, or a neck mass." |
| C8184 | "A non-keratinizing carcinoma arising from the tonsil.  It is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, syncytial growth pattern, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate." |
| C81854 | An epithelioid cell type gastrointestinal stromal tumor with an indolent clinical course. |
| C81855 | An epithelioid cell type gastrointestinal stromal tumor with an aggressive clinical course. |
| C8185 | A squamous cell carcinoma of the hypopharynx that arises from the postcricoid region. |
| C8186 | "A squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx that arises from the glottic area.  It may remain localized for a long period then in late disease stage, it may spread to the opposite true vocal cord, supraglottic and subglottic areas, and the soft tissues of the neck. Hoarseness is the presenting symptom." |
| C8187 | "A squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx that arises from the subglottic area.  Symptoms include dyspnea and stridor. It spreads to the hypopharynx, trachea, and thyroid gland." |
| C8188 | "A well differentiated, non-metastasizing squamous cell carcinoma arising from the larynx. It is an exophytic, warty, and slow growing tumor affecting predominantly older men. It is associated with tobacco smoking. Symptoms include hoarseness, airway obstruction, weight loss, dysphagia, and throat pain. If left untreated, it may cause extensive local destruction." |
| C8189 | "An exophytic, slow growing, well differentiated and non-metastasizing squamous cell carcinoma with pushing margins that arises from the glottic area of the larynx.  It usually presents with hoarseness." |
| C8190 | "An exophytic, slow growing, well differentiated and non-metastasizing squamous cell carcinoma with pushing margins that arises from the subglottic area of the larynx." |
| C8191 | "An exophytic, slow growing, well differentiated and non-metastasizing squamous cell carcinoma with pushing margins that arises from the supraglottic area of the larynx." |
| C8192 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the nasal cavity mucosa.  Signs and symptoms include nasal fullness and obstruction, pain, epistaxis, and the presence of a nasal mass." |
| C8193 | "A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the mucosal epithelial surface of the ethmoid, frontal, maxillary, or sphenoid sinus.  Patients may present with nasal fullness, obstruction, and/or epistaxis." |
| C8194 | "A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the nasal cavity.  It results from the invagination and proliferation of epithelial cells in the underlying stroma.  Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and anosmia. It has the tendency to recur and extend to adjacent structures.  Inverted papillomas are occasionally associated with the development or presence of carcinomas, usually squamous cell carcinomas." |
| C8195 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the paranasal sinuses.  It results from the invagination and proliferation of epithelial cells in the underlying stroma. |
| C8197 |  |
| C8198 |  |
| C8199 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8200 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8201 |  |
| C8202 |  |
| C8203 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8204 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8205 |  |
| C8206 |  |
| C8207 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8208 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor more than 4 cm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8209 |  |
| C8210 |  |
| C8211 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0);. IVB (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: (oral cavity) Tumor invades adjacent structures (e.g., through cortical bone, into deep [extrinsic] muscles of tongue, maxillary sinus, skin of face).  T4b: Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases internal carotid artery. N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more... |
| C8212 |  |
| C8213 | Reemergence of basal cell carcinoma of the lip after a period of remission. |
| C8214 | Reemergence of verrucous carcinoma of the oral cavity after a period of remission. |
| C8215 | The reemergence of mucoepidermoid carcinoma in the oral cavity after a period of remission. |
| C8216 | The reemergence of adenoid cystic carcinoma in the oral cavity after a period of remission. |
| C82179 | "An acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage.  It is characterized by the presence of either separate populations of blasts of more than one lineage, or one population of blasts co-expressing markers of more than one lineage." |
| C8217 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8218 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C82192 | A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts carry the chromosomal translocation t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2) that results in BCR-ABL1 gene fusion. The prognosis is usually unfavorable. |
| C8219 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 centimeters in greatest dimension or extension to lingual surface of epiglottis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C82203 | A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts carry a translocation between the KMT2A gene at 11q23.3 and another gene partner. The prognosis is usually unfavorable. |
| C8220 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Tumor with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades the larynx, extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, or mandible.  Mucosal extension to lingual surface of epiglottis from primary tumors of the base of the tongue and vallecula does not constitute invasion of larynx. T1: Tumor 2 cm or le... |
| C82212 | A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts express B-lymphoid and myeloid lineage markers but are negative for KMT2A rearrangement and t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation. The prognosis is usually unfavorable. |
| C82213 | A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts express T-lymphoid and myeloid lineage markers but are negative for KMT2A rearrangement and t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation. The prognosis is usually unfavorable. |
| C82217 | "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm that expresses CD56 and immature T-cell markers, lacks B-lymphoid and myeloid markers, and has immunoglobulin and T-cell receptor genes in the germline configuration." |
| C8221 | Reemergence of squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx after a period of remission. |
| C8222 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8223 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8224 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0); (T2, N1, M0).  T1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor. T2: Nasopharyngeal cancer with parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with unilater... |
| C8225 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0); (T2, N1, M0).  T1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor. T2: Nasopharyngeal cancer with parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with unilater... |
| C8226 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0). T1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor. T2: Nasopharyngeal cancer with parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor.  T3: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor involving bon... |
| C8227 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0). T1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor. T2: Nasopharyngeal cancer with parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor.  T3: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor involving bon... |
| C8228 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0); IVB (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Nasopharyngeal cancer with intracranial extension and/or involvement of cranial nerves, hypopharynx, orbit, or with extension to the infratemporal fossa/masticator space.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with unilateral metastasis in cervical lymph node(s), 6 cm or less in greatest dimension, above the supraclavicular fossa, and/or unilateral or... |
| C8229 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0); IVB (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Nasopharyngeal cancer with intracranial extension and/or involvement of cranial nerves, hypopharynx, orbit, or with extension to the infratemporal fossa/masticator space.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with unilateral metastasis in cervical lymph node(s), 6 cm or less in greatest dimension, above the supraclavicular fossa, and/or unilateral or... |
| C8230 | The reemergence of keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx after a period of remission. |
| C8231 | The reemergence of undifferentiated carcinoma of the nasopharynx after a period of remission. |
| C8232 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C82338 | "Hematologic neoplasms occurring in individuals with Down syndrome.  There is an increased risk of acute leukemias in both children and adults with Down syndrome.  In particular, the incidence of acute myeloid leukemia in Down syndrome children of less than five years of age is particularly high, it is usually an acute megakaryoblastic leukemia, and is associated with GATA1 gene mutation.  This group of disorders also includes the entity transient abnormal myelopoiesis which occurs in neonat... |
| C82339 | A myeloid proliferation occurring in newborns with Down syndrome.  It is clinically and morphologically indistinguishable from acute myeloid leukemia and is associated with GATA1 mutations.  The blasts display morphologic and immunophenotypic features of megakaryocytic lineage.  In the majority of patients the myeloid proliferation undergoes spontaneous remission. |
| C8233 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades more than one subsite of the hypopharynx or an adjacent site, or measures more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest diameter without fixation of hemilarynx.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C82341 | "An inherited disorder characterized by degeneration of the spinal cord and the cerebellum.  Symptoms may appear at any age and include progressive loss of coordination of gait, hands, speech, and eye movements." |
| C82342 | "A progressive hereditary neurodegenerative disorder inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. Symptoms may appear at any age and include uncontrolled movements, clumsiness, balance problems, difficulty walking, talking, or swallowing. The disease has a progressive course with a decline in mental abilities, and the development of psychiatric problems." |
| C82343 | Gastrointestinal symptoms characterized by chronic abdominal pain and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause. |
| C8234 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension or with fixation of hemilarynx or extension to esophagus.  T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor invades more than one subsite of the hypopharynx or an adjacent site, or measures more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest diameter without fixation of hemilarynx.  N0: No regional lymph node... |
| C8235 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4a: Tumor with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades the thyroid/cricoid cartilage, hyoid bone, thyroid gland, or central compartment soft tissue.  Central compartment soft tissue includes prelaryngeal strap muscles and subcutaneous fat.  T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or les... |
| C8236 | Reemergence of squamous cell carcinoma of the hypopharynx after a period of remission. |
| C8237 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: (Supraglottis) Tumor limited to one subsite of supraglottis with normal vocal cord mobility. (Glottis) Tumor limited to the vocal cord(s) (may involve anterior or posterior commissure) with normal mobility.  (Subglottis) Tumor limited to the subglottis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8238 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: (Supraglottis) Tumor limited to one subsite of supraglottis with normal vocal cord mobility. (Glottis) Tumor limited to the vocal cord(s) (may involve anterior or posterior commissure) with normal mobility.  (Subglottis) Tumor limited to the subglottis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C82397 | A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of chemotherapy agents and/or radiation that are used for the treatment of neoplastic or non-neoplastic disorders. |
| C8239 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: (Supraglottis) Tumor invades mucosa of more than one adjacent subsite of supraglottis or glottis or region outside the supraglottis (e.g., mucosa of base of tongue, vallecula, medial wall of pyriform sinus) without fixation of the larynx.  (Glottis) Tumor extends to supraglottis and/or subglottis, and/or with impaired vocal cord mobility.  (Subglottis) Tumor extends to vocal cord(s) with normal or impaired mobility. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  ... |
| C82403 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(9;11)(p21.3;q23.3) and MLLT3-KMT2A fusion protein expression. Morphologically it usually has monocytic features. It may present at any age but it is more commonly seen in children. Patients may present with disseminated intravascular coagulation. |
| C8240 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: (Supraglottis) Tumor invades mucosa of more than one adjacent subsite of supraglottis or glottis or region outside the supraglottis (e.g., mucosa of base of tongue, vallecula, medial wall of pyriform sinus) without fixation of the larynx.  (Glottis) Tumor extends to supraglottis and/or subglottis, and/or with impaired vocal cord mobility.  (Subglottis) Tumor extends to vocal cord(s) with normal or impaired mobility. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  ... |
| C8241 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T1: Supraglottis: Tumor limited to one subsite of supraglottis with normal vocal cord mobility. Glottis: Tumor limited to the vocal cord(s) (may involve anterior or posterior commissure) with normal mobility.  Subglottis: Tumor limited to the subglottis.  T2: Supraglottis: Tumor invades mucosa of more than one adjacent subsite of supraglottis or glottis or region outside the supraglottis (e.g., mucosa of base of to... |
| C82423 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(6;9)(p22.3;q34.1) resulting in DEK-NUP214(CAN) fusion protein expression. It is often associated with multilineage dysplasia and basophilia. It affects both children and adults and it usually has an unfavorable clinical outcome. |
| C82426 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with inv(3)(q21.3q26.2) or t(3;3)(q21.3;q26.2) resulting in the reposition of a distal GATA2 enhancer to activate MECOM expression. It may present de novo or follow a myelodysplastic syndrome. The clinical course is aggressive. |
| C82427 | An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(1;22)(p13.3;q13.1) resulting in the expression of RBM15-MKL1 fusion protein. It affects infants and children and usually shows megakaryocytic maturation. |
| C8242 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T1: Supraglottis: Tumor limited to one subsite of supraglottis with normal vocal cord mobility. Glottis: Tumor limited to the vocal cord(s) (may involve anterior or posterior commissure) with normal mobility.  Subglottis: Tumor limited to the subglottis.  T2: Supraglottis: Tumor invades mucosa of more than one adjacent subsite of supraglottis or glottis or region outside the supraglottis (e.g., mucosa of base of to... |
| C82430 | A group of acute myeloid leukemias characterized by the presence of gene mutations that are associated with myelodysplasia. |
| C82431 | An acute myeloid leukemia with mutation of the nucleophosmin gene. It is usually associated with normal karyotype and frequently has myelomonocytic or monocytic features. It usually responds to induction therapy. |
| C82433 | An acute myeloid leukemia with non-germline mutations of the CEBPA gene. |
| C8243 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4a: Supraglottis: Moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades through the thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissues beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of neck including deep extrinsic muscle of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid, or esophagus).  Glottis: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor inva... |
| C8244 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4a: Supraglottis: Moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades through the thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissues beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of neck including deep extrinsic muscle of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid, or esophagus).  Glottis: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor inva... |
| C8245 | The reemergence of squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx after a period of remission. |
| C8246 | The reemergence of verrucous carcinoma of the larynx after a period of remission. |
| C8247 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8248 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8249 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8250 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8251 | The reemergence of adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma after a period of remission |
| C8252 | "An acute myeloid leukemia arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of chemotherapy agents and/or ionizing radiation.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C8253 | A primary myelodysplastic syndrome that is not associated with prior radiation or chemotherapy treatment. |
| C8254 | The reemergence of renal pelvis and ureter urothelial carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C8255 | An anal carcinoma arising from the transitional zone of the anal canal. |
| C8256 | An anal squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and peripheral nuclear palisading. |
| C8257 | "An astrocytoma occurring in adults that is characterized by the presence of high mitotic activity, cytologic atypia, and architectural distortion." |
| C8258 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor limited to the uterus.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  This staging applies to leiomyosarcoma, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and adenosarcoma. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C82591 | A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by dysplastic changes involving only one myeloid cell lineage in the bone marrow. |
| C82593 | A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of at least 10% dysplastic neutrophils in the bone marrow or the peripheral blood. |
| C82594 | "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of at least 10% dysplastic megakaryocytes, found within at least 30 megakaryocytes examined in the bone marrow." |
| C82595 | Myelodysplastic syndrome with excess blasts associated with significant reticulin fibrosis of the bone marrow. |
| C82596 | "A myeloid disorder that occurs in childhood and is characterized by persistent cytopenia, dysplastic changes in at least two hematopoietic lineages or in 10% or more of cells in one hematopoietic lineage, less than 5% blasts in bone marrow, and less than 2% blasts in peripheral blood, absence of bone marrow fibrosis, and absence of history of prior cytotoxic chemotherapy or radiation therapy. In a subset of cases, somatic mutations or cytogenetic abnormalities can be identified. Other cases... |
| C8259 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor extends beyond the uterus, within the pelvis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  This staging applies to leiomyosarcoma, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and adenosarcoma. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8260 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T3a, N0, M0); IIIB (T3b, N0, M0); IIIC (T1-T3, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor limited to the uterus. T2: Tumor extends beyond the uterus, within the pelvis.  T3: Tumor infiltrates abdominal tissues.  T3a: Tumor infiltrates abdominal tissues, one side. T3b: Tumor infiltrates abdominal tissues, more than one side.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  This staging applies to leiomyosarcoma, endometrial stromal s... |
| C82616 | "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by marked thrombocytosis, anemia, erythroid lineage dysplasia, presence or absence of multilineage dysplasia, 15% or more ring sideroblasts, blasts less than 5% in bone marrow and less than 1% in peripheral blood, absence of BCR/ABL fusion, absence of SF3B1 mutation, absence of genetic abnormalities associated with myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with eosinophilia and tyrosine kinase gene fusions, and no history of other myelodysplastic... |
| C8261 | The reemergence of uterine corpus sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C8263 | An acute monocytic leukemia that occurs in adults. |
| C8264 | A meningioma that occurs during childhood. |
| C8265 | A cholangiocarcinoma occurring in adults. |
| C8267 | "A rare, aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the ovary.  The prognosis is poor." |
| C8269 | An anaplastic ependymoma occurring in adults. |
| C8270 |  |
| C8271 | A tumor of mixed cell type with astrocytic components as well as ependymoma components. |
| C8272 | "A mixed glioma characterized by the presence of astrocytic, ependymal, and oligodendroglial neoplastic components." |
| C8273 | A pineal parenchymal cell neoplasm (pineocytoma or pineoblastoma) occurring in adults. |
| C8274 |  |
| C8275 | An anaplastic (malignant) meningioma occurring in adults. |
| C8277 | Neuroblastoma that is confined to a specific site and is not amenable to surgical removal. |
| C8278 | "A disorder either associated with an increased risk for malignant transformation (e.g., intraepithelial neoplasia, leukoplakia, dysplastic nevus, myelodysplastic syndrome) or that develops as a result of the presence of an existing malignant neoplasm (e.g., paraneoplastic syndrome)." |
| C82833 | A usually asymptomatic hereditary disorder which is often associated with polycystic kidney disease. It is characterized by the presence of fluid-filled biliary cysts throughout the liver. |
| C8284 | A lymphoma (non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin) arising from the central nervous system and occurring in HIV-positive patients. |
| C82859 | "A rare dermatologic disorder characterized by the accumulation of mucinous material in the hair follicles. In some cases it is associated with lymphoproliferative disorders, most often mycosis fungoides and Hodgkin lymphoma." |
| C8285 | A morphologic variant of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma occurring in HIV-positive patients. |
| C82862 | A nevus surrounded by eczematous changes. |
| C82863 | "A small vessel vasculitis affecting the skin and/or internal organs. It is characterized by the presence of neutrophils and fibrinoid necrosis in small arteries and venules. It may be idiopathic or the result of drug treatment, infections, food intake, collagen vascular disorders, inflammatory bowel disease, or cancer." |
| C82864 | A cutaneous Spitz nevus associated with fibrous stroma formation. |
| C82865 | An autosomal dominant disorder characterized by a history of multiple relapses and remissions of pemphigus lesions. |
| C8286 | A Burkitt lymphoma occurring in HIV-positive patients. |
| C8287 | Carcinoma that affects both breasts in a simultaneous or non-simultaneous manner. |
| C82884 | "A condition primarily affecting the subcutaneous adipose tissues, showing firm nodules that often resolve with lipoatrophy. There can be overlying changes of discoid lupus erythematosus. A skin biopsy showing lobular panniculitis with typical changes of lupus is needed to rule out other causes of panniculitis, including subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma." |
| C82887 | "A chronic fibrotic inflammatory process affecting the salivary gland. Signs and symptoms include firm and painful swelling of the salivary gland, often associated with the presence of salivary gland stones." |
| C82890 | An oncocytoma with cystic degenerative changes. |
| C82891 | "A premalignant neoplastic lesion of the liver.  It is characterized by the presence of hepatocytes with enlarged nuclei and cytoplasm, nuclear pleomorphism, multinucleation, and hyperchromasia." |
| C82892 | Accumulation of iron in internal organs. |
| C8289 | An infiltrating astrocytic tumor of the brain occurring in adults. |
| C82902 | Accumulation of polymorphonuclear neutrophils in the mucosal crypts of the colon. It occurs in ulcerative colitis. |
| C82909 | "Anemia not associated with symptoms of fatigue, headaches, palpitations, or shortness of breath. In asymptomatic anemia the hematocrit levels usually range from 32 to 35%." |
| C8290 | "An embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes, C19MC-altered, occurring in adults." |
| C8291 | A pineocytoma occurring in adults. |
| C8292 | A pineoblastoma occurring in adults. |
| C82938 | Gastritis caused by injury to the gastric mucosa by chemicals. The injury occurs due to reflux of bile and pancreatic enzymes. |
| C8293 | A papillary meningioma occurring in adults. |
| C8294 | An adenocarcinoma which arises from the exocrine pancreas.  Ductal adenocarcinoma and its variants are the most common types of pancreatic adenocarcinoma. |
| C82954 | Chronic colitis with superimposed neutrophilic mucosal infiltrates. It is usually seen during exacerbations of inflammatory bowel disease. |
| C8295 | "A benign papillary neoplasm that arises endobronchially.  It is classified as squamous cell, glandular, or mixed squamous cell and glandular papilloma.  Patients usually present with signs and symptoms of bronchial obstruction." |
| C8296 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in HIV-positive patients.  It is composed of a mixture of lymphocytes of various sizes. |
| C82970 | Localized widening of the lumen of the mammary ducts. |
| C82972 | An extraskeletal osteosarcoma affecting the duodenum. |
| C82978 | "An active inflammatory process affecting the liver for more than six months. Causes include viral infections, autoimmune disorders, drugs, and metabolic disorders." |
| C82979 | "Chronic hepatitis caused by viruses, most commonly hepatitis viruses B and C." |
| C8297 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in HIV-positive patients.  It is composed of small cleaved lymphocytes. |
| C82981 | A yeast infection usually manifested as a superficial skin infection. It may also present as a systemic infection in patients who are receiving total parenteral nutrition. |
| C8298 | A lymphoblastic lymphoma occurring in HIV-positive patients. |
| C82991 | A term referring to cases of small lymphocytic lymphomas with an increased number of paraimmunoblasts or with signet-ring-like lymphocytes. |
| C82994 | "A bacterial infection caused by Listeria monocytogenes. It occurs in newborns, elderly, and immunocompromised patients. The bacteria are transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food. Clinical manifestations include fever, muscle pain, respiratory distress, nausea, diarrhea, neck stiffness, irritability, seizures, and lethargy." |
| C82995 | Proliferation of the glandular epithelial cells. |
| C8299 | "A plasma cell neoplasm that secretes an abnormal immunoglobulin, which deposits in various tissues and forms a beta-pleated sheet structure that binds Congo red dye with characteristic birefringence.  The sites of involvement include heart, liver, kidney, gut, tongue, nerves, and bone. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C83009 | An inherited or sporadic disorder affecting the skeletal muscles. |
| C8300 | "An aggressive malignant soft tissue neoplasm of uncertain differentiation.  It is characterized by a recurrent chromosomal translocation t(11;22)(p13;q12) and the presence of small round cells in a desmoplastic stroma.  It usually affects children and young adults.  The most common site of involvement is the abdomen.  Patients usually present with abdominal distention, pain, ascites, and a palpable abdominal mass.  The prognosis is usually poor." |
| C83010 | "An autosomal dominant congenital disorder affecting the skeletal muscles. Microscopically, it is characterized by disorganized areas, which are called cores, seen usually in the center of the muscle fibers. Clinically it presents as mild to severe muscle weakness. It may be associated with skeletal abnormalities including scoliosis, joint deformities, and hip dislocation." |
| C8301 | Disorder in which veins are partially or completely obstructed or the blood flow through the veins is suboptimal.--2004 |
| C8303 | An acute myeloid leukemia with minimal differentiation that occurs in adults. |
| C8304 | An acute myeloid leukemia with minimal differentiation that occurs in children. |
| C8305 | Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I) or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site (IE). (from PDQ) |
| C8306 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C8307 | "Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) that may also be accompanied by localized involvement of an extralymphatic organ or site (IIIE), by involvement of the spleen (IIIS), or both (IIIS+E). (from PDQ)" |
| C8308 | Stage IV: Disseminated (multifocal) involvement of one or more extralymphatic sites with or without associated lymph node involvement or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement with distant (nonregional) nodal involvement. (from PDQ) |
| C8309 | The reemergence of childhood large cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8310 | A large cell lymphoma occurring in childhood. |
| C8311 | A polyp with a fibrous core. |
| C8312 | A sarcoma arising from the leptomeninges. |
| C83170 | Breast classic lobular carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with uniform nuclei. |
| C83171 | Breast classic lobular carcinoma in situ  characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with nuclei of various sizes and shapes. |
| C83174 | A pleomorphic adenoma with increased cellularity. |
| C83176 | Polyps that arises from the colon or rectum. They are characterized by the presence of serrated glands and the absence of generalized dysplasia. |
| C8318 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE) (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). |
| C8319 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8320 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8321 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8323 | A rare tumor composed of acellular amyloid material. It rarely progresses to systemic amyloidosis. |
| C8334 | A precancerous neoplastic intraepithelial process involving the squamous epithelium. |
| C8335 | "A precancerous neoplastic process characterized by the presence of mild dysplastic cytological changes which are usually present in the lower part of the squamous epithelium.  Representative examples include the low grade esophageal squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia, and low grade vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia." |
| C8336 | "A precancerous neoplastic process characterized by the presence of moderate or severe dysplastic cytological changes which extend to the upper part of the squamous epithelium.  Maturation at the surface of the squamous epithelium may or may not be present.  Representative examples include the high grade esophageal squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, high grade cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, high grade vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia, and high grade vulvar intraepithelial neo... |
| C83494 | Involution of the breast parenchyma. |
| C83506 | A bacterial or viral infectious process affecting an artery. |
| C83508 | An infectious process affecting the conjunctiva. |
| C8355 |  |
| C8356 | Proliferation of glandular epithelial cells associated with the presence of cytologic atypia and architectural growth pattern changes. |
| C8365 | Breast fibrocystic change characterized by the presence of epithelial cell hyperplasia.  Epithelial atypia is present. |
| C8366 | "A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the squamous, glandular, or transitional cell epithelium without evidence of invasion. According to the degree of nuclear atypia, number of mitotic figures, and presence of architectural distortion, it is classified as low grade (mild dysplasia) or high grade (moderate or severe dysplasia)." |
| C8367 | "A precancerous neoplastic process that affects the squamous, glandular, or transitional cell epithelium without evidence of invasion. It is characterized by the presence of mild epithelial dysplasia." |
| C8368 |  |
| C8371 | "A hamartoma characterized by localized malformation of one or more of the components of the dermis; presenting as clustered, slightly raised, pea-sized lesions distributed over the abdomen, back, buttocks, arms, or thighs. It may be an isolated lesion or a component of one of a number of inherited disorders, such as tuberous sclerosis." |
| C8372 | A polyp characterized by an overgrowth of mature cells and tissues that normally occur in the affected area. |
| C8373 | A lymphangioma affecting several anatomic sites. |
| C8374 | "Dysplastic papular lesions presenting on the genitalia of either sex. The lesions are associated with human papillomavirus infection. The majority of cases have a benign clinical course, although, a small number of cases with malignant transformation have been reported." |
| C8376 | An intramucosal adenocarcinoma that arises from a villous adenoma. |
| C8377 | A malignant cystic serous epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures. Stromal invasion is present. |
| C8380 | An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma characterized by the presence of osteoclast-like giant cells and cellular pleomorphism. |
| C83813 | "A viral or bacterial infectious process affecting the cornea. Symptoms include pain and redness in the eye, photophobia and eye watering." |
| C83815 | An acute or chronic infectious process affecting the mediastinum. |
| C83816 | An infectious process affecting the urinary bladder. |
| C8381 | Cemento-osseous dysplasia with multifocal (multiquadrant) involvement. (WHO 2017) |
| C8383 | An adenoma arising from the renal cortex. |
| C8384 | "A category of mesenchymal gynecologic neoplasms. It includes endometrial stromal nodule, endometrioid stromal sarcoma, and undifferentiated sarcoma. Endometrial stromal nodule has been described in the uterine corpus only. Histologically, it is characterized by the lack of infiltration of the surrounding tissues. Endometrioid stromal sarcoma affects the uterine corpus, and rarely, the ovaries, cervix, vagina, peritoneum, and retroperitoneum. In the uterine corpus it is classified as low gra... |
| C8387 | A diffuse astrocytoma that arises from the cerebral hemispheres and occurs during childhood. |
| C8388 | A hormone producing pituitary neuroendocrine tumor associated with a hormonal syndrome. |
| C8389 | The reemergence of cerebellar astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C8390 | The presence of a painless whitish patch on the anal mucosa.  Histologic examination reveals hyperkeratosis and acanthosis. |
| C8392 | A carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the upper gingiva. |
| C8393 | A carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the lower gingiva. |
| C8394 | "A carcinoma that arises from the hard palate.  Representative examples include squamous cell carcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, and mucoepidermoid carcinoma." |
| C8395 | A carcinoma that arises from the soft palate.  The majority are squamous cell carcinomas. |
| C8396 | "A carcinoma that arises from the submandibular gland.  Representative examples include mucoepidermoid carcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, and carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma." |
| C8397 | A carcinoma that arises from the sublingual gland.  Representative examples include cystadenocarcinoma and mucoepidermoid carcinoma. |
| C8398 | A carcinoma that arises from the fundus of the stomach. |
| C8399 | A carcinoma that arises from the body of the stomach. |
| C8400 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial tumor without invasion of the lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8401 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the wall of the jejunum.  Representative examples include adenoma, carcinoma, and lymphoma." |
| C8402 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm composed of fibrohistiocytic cells, spindle fibroblastic cells, and histiocytes, in a storiform pattern." |
| C8403 | An aggressive granulosa cell tumor that arises from the ovary and metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C8404 | A neoplasm involving the renal pelvis. |
| C8405 | "A neoplasm that arises from the choroid plexus and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8407 | "A carcinoma that arises from the base of the tongue.  Representative examples include squamous cell carcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, and mucoepidermoid carcinoma." |
| C8408 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the sternum. |
| C8409 | A rare malignant neoplasm that arises from the sebaceous glands. |
| C8410 | A melanoma that arises usually from the breast skin and less often from the breast glandular tissue.  Primary breast melanomas are rare. |
| C8411 | "The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the colon.  This may be from a primary large intestine malignant neoplasm, or from a malignant neoplasm at a distant site." |
| C8412 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C8414 | "A neoplasm that arises from the supraglottis and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8416 | "A neoplasm that arises from the sternum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8417 | "A neoplasm that arises from the ear and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8418 | A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the Bartholin gland. Representative examples include adenoma and adenomyoma. |
| C8419 | "A benign, WHO grade I cerebellar mass, which occurs in young adults and is composed of dysplastic ganglion cells.  It is the major CNS manifestation of Cowden disease, an autosomal dominant condition that causes a variety of hamartomas and neoplasms." |
| C8420 | "A diffuse malignant neoplasm that arises from mesothelial cells, usually in the pleura or peritoneum. Histologic variants include biphasic, epithelioid, sarcomatoid, and desmoplastic mesothelioma." |
| C8421 | A benign neoplasm that arises from the cervix. It is associated with human papillomavirus infection and is characterized by the presence of papillary structures with fibrovascular cores. The papillary structures are covered with stratified squamous epithelium. Koilocytosis is usually present. |
| C8422 | "A well circumscribed lesion of the bone, most frequently arising from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of fibrous tissue and a mineralized component which may be woven bone, lamellar bone, or cementum-like material. Complete removal is recommended, since it continues to enlarge if left untreated." |
| C8423 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Melanoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No detectable evidence of distant metastases. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C84256 | A benign mesenchymoma arising from the kidney. |
| C8425 | A clinical term that indicates the presence of a white patch on the buccal mucosa in the mouth which cannot be characterized as any other disease.  It may be a precancerous condition and in most cases histologic examination reveals keratosis. |
| C84269 | "A clonal myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the proliferation and accumulation of neoplastic mast cells in one or multiple organs or organ systems. It is a heterogeneous group of neoplasms, ranging from cutaneous proliferations which may regress spontaneously, to aggressive neoplasms associated with organ failure and short survival." |
| C8426 | A rare neurofibroma with an infiltrative growth pattern.  It involves the skin and subcutaneous tissue and grows in a plaque-like fashion.  Malignant transformation is rare. |
| C84270 | "A group of rare myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms characterized by rearrangement of the PDGFRA, PDGFRB, FGFR1, or JAK2 genes, resulting in the formation of tyrosine kinase fusion transcripts. Eosinophilia is a characteristic finding but it is not always present." |
| C84275 | "Hematologic neoplasms characterized by the rearrangement of the PDGFRA gene, most often resulting in the formation of FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion transcripts. Patients usually present with chronic eosinophilic leukemia, and less often with acute myeloid leukemia or T-lymphoblastic leukemia." |
| C84276 | "Myeloid and rarely lymphoid neoplasms characterized by the rearrangement of the PDGFRB gene, most often resulting in the formation of ETV6-PDGFRB fusion transcripts. Patients usually present with chronic myelomonocytic leukemia and less often with atypical chronic myeloid leukemia, or chronic eosinophilic leukemia." |
| C84277 | "Hematologic neoplasms characterized by the rearrangement of the FGFR1 gene, resulting in translocations with an 8p11 breakpoint. Patients present with a myeloproliferative neoplasm, acute myeloid leukemia, lymphoblastic lymphoma/leukemia of T or B-cell lineage, or acute leukemia of mixed phenotype." |
| C8427 | "An extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia in the vagus nerve. Patients may present with a slow growing painless mass in the neck, hoarseness, vocal cord paralysis, and dysphagia." |
| C8428 | "A middle ear paraganglioma arising from paraganglia around the tympanum.  Signs and symptoms include a mass behind the tympanum, tinnitus, and conductive hearing loss." |
| C8429 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of papillae lined by epithelial cells." |
| C8430 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant epithelial tumor that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of papillary proliferations.  Representative examples include surface papilloma, borderline serous surface papillary tumor, and serous surface papillary adenocarcinoma." |
| C84316 | "Inability of the exocrine pancreas to produce and secrete an adequate amount of digestive enzymes into the small intestine.  Patients present with symptoms of malabsorption syndrome, abdominal discomfort, and bloating.  Causes include chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and autoimmune disorders." |
| C8431 | "A benign, borderline, or malignant epithelial tumor of the ovary characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that, in well differentiated tumors, resemble the epithelial cells of the fallopian tube and, in poorly differentiated tumors, show anaplastic features.  Approximately thirty to fifty percent of the tumors are bilateral.  Grossly, the better differentiated tumors consist of cystic masses, usually unilocular, containing a clear but sometimes viscous fluid.  Papillary ... |
| C84347 | "An astroblastoma, MN1-altered, characterized by the presence of high mitotic activity, cytologic atypia, and architectural distortion." |
| C84348 | "One of the hereditary syndromes that are associated with lesions of the nervous system, skin, and retina. This group includes neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and Sturge-Weber syndrome." |
| C84353 | An infectious process affecting the vagina. Symptoms include pain and purulent discharge. |
| C84354 | "Inflammation of the anatomical structures of the middle ear secondary to an infectious process. Bacterial etiology is most common, but both viral and fungal pathogens are also possible. Symptoms include erythema and edema of the tympanic membrane, pain, and possibly fever. In severe infections, inflammation and edema of the structures of the middle ear can lead to perforation of the tympanic membrane secondary to the buildup of pressure in the narrow space." |
| C8436 | "A neoplastic process that arises from the terminal ductal lobular unit of the breast parenchyma.  It is usually solitary and confined to a single lobular unit.  It is characterized by the presence of a monomorphic epithelial proliferation in a cribriform, micropapillary, or solid growth pattern.  Focal architectural features of low grade ductal carcinoma in situ are present.  There is an increased risk for development of invasive breast carcinoma." |
| C84389 | An autoimmune chronic skin disorder characterized by the presence of large blisters. It usually affects elderly people and tends to subside spontaneously. |
| C84390 | "A syndrome characterized by the reversal of a septal defect-associated left-to-right shunt due to the resulting secondary pulmonary hypertension. The presence of the pulmonary hypertension causes increased pressure in the right heart chambers resulting in the reversal of the shunt into a right-to-left shunt. Signs and symptoms include cyanosis, pulmonary hypertension, heart failure, and high red blood cell count." |
| C84391 | "Age-related loss of vision in the central portion of the retina (macula), secondary to retinal degeneration." |
| C84392 | A developmental disorder characterized by less than average intelligence and significant limitations in adaptive behavior with onset before the age of 18. |
| C84396 | Rapid deterioration of liver function causing encephalopathy and coagulopathy. It results from damage to the liver parenchyma usually secondary to acetaminophen overdose or viral infections. |
| C84397 | "A genetic disorder characterized by decreased alpha-1 antitrypsin activity in the lungs and blood and deposition of alpha-1 antitrypsin protein in the hepatocytes. These abnormalities result from defective production of alpha-1 antitrypsin and lead to the development of emphysema, cirrhosis, and liver failure." |
| C8439 | A syndrome characterized by abnormal secretion of renin in conjunction with neoplastic growth occurring anywhere in the body. |
| C84403 | "A congenital or acquired defect in the bile acid biosynthesis, resulting in progressive liver disease." |
| C8440 | A syndrome characterized by abnormal secretion of growth hormone in conjunction with neoplastic growth occurring anywhere in the body. |
| C84411 | Cirrhosis in which no causative agent can be identified. |
| C84412 | "A spectrum of liver disorders that develop in patients with cystic fibrosis. It includes asymptomatic elevation of the liver function tests, steatosis, cholecystitis with cholelithiasis, sclerosing cholangitis, biliary cirrhosis, and cholangiocarcinoma." |
| C84417 | "Progressive kidney disorder caused by vascular damage to the glomerular capillaries, in patients with diabetes mellitus. It is usually manifested with nephritic syndrome and glomerulosclerosis." |
| C8441 | A syndrome characterized by abnormal secretion of prolactin in conjunction with neoplastic growth occurring anywhere in the body. |
| C84420 | "A group of disorders affecting the eye in patients with diabetes mellitus. It includes cataract, glaucoma, retinopathy, and blindness." |
| C84428 | "A disorder characterized by irreversible damage to the liver tissue, leading to complete liver failure. Causes include cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, metastases to the liver, genetic disorders, toxins, and drugs." |
| C8442 | A syndrome characterized by abnormal secretion of aldosterone in conjunction with neoplastic growth occurring anywhere in the body. |
| C84433 | Diabetes mellitus that develops during childhood. |
| C8443 | A syndrome characterized by abnormal secretion of calcitonin in conjunction with neoplastic growth occurring anywhere in the body. |
| C84442 | "A combination of medical conditions that when present, increase the risk of heart attack, stroke, and diabetes mellitus. It includes the following medical conditions: increased blood pressure, central obesity, dyslipidemia, impaired glucose tolerance, and insulin resistance." |
| C84443 | A liver disorder caused by primary or secondary defects in the function of the mitochondria in the hepatocytes. |
| C84444 | A term referring to fatty replacement of the hepatic parenchyma which is not related to alcohol use. |
| C84445 | Fatty replacement and damage to the hepatocytes not related to alcohol use. It may lead to cirrhosis and liver failure. |
| C84446 | Hepatitis developing during the neonatal period. |
| C84448 | A kidney disorder that appears during childhood. |
| C8444 | A syndrome characterized by abnormal secretion of chorionic gonadotropin in conjunction with neoplastic growth occurring anywhere in the body. |
| C84453 | A genetic syndrome affecting infants and children. It is characterized by chronic intrahepatic cholestasis usually progressing to cirrhosis within the first ten years of life. |
| C84457 | "Advanced retinopathy due to diabetes mellitus characterized by the formation of new vessels in the retina. The new vessels are abnormal and fragile. If hemorrhage occurs due to the vascular fragility, there is increased risk of vision loss or blindness." |
| C84472 | A disorder affecting the lungs due to asbestos exposure. Examples include asbestosis and lung carcinoma. |
| C84473 | The presence of a defect (opening) in the septum that separates the two atria of the heart. It can be congenital or acquired. |
| C84475 | "Segmental, irreversible dilation of the bronchial tree resulting in the accumulation of secretions which leads to obstruction. The most common cause is bacterial infection." |
| C84476 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the carotid artery. |
| C84477 | A congenital condition referring to defects of the course and structure of the coronary arteries. |
| C84478 | A disorder affecting the smallest coronary arteries. Causes include atherosclerosis and arterial spasm. Chest pain is a frequently observed symptom. |
| C84479 | "A condition characterized by an abnormally high level of thrombi. Causes include thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, disseminated intravascular coagulation, bone marrow disorders, and antiphospholipid antibody syndrome." |
| C84481 | An inherited metabolic disorder characterized by iron accumulation in the tissues. |
| C84482 | A congenital disorder characterized by the presence of an abnormal communication between the atria or the ventricles of the heart due to defects in the cardiac septum. |
| C84484 | "Anemia caused by low iron intake, inefficient iron absorption in the gastrointestinal tract, or chronic blood loss." |
| C84489 | A sleep disorder characterized by a tendency for excessive sleepiness during the day which occurs even after adequate sleep in the nighttime. The persons who suffer from this condition experience fatigue and may fall asleep at inappropriate times during the day. |
| C84492 | "A congenital defect characterized by the failure of the ductus arteriosus to close soon after birth. As a consequence, blood from the aorta mixes with blood from the pulmonary artery. If untreated, it may lead to congestive heart failure." |
| C84496 | "A disorder of the arteries supplying the upper and lower extremity and the visceral organs. This includes the mesenteric arteries, the renal arteries and the aorta and excludes cerebrovascular arterial disease. Patients experience cramping and pain usually in the calves and thighs while walking. The symptoms subside with rest." |
| C84501 | A condition that occurs while resting or lying in bed; it is characterized by an irresistible urgency to move the legs to obtain relief from a strange and uncomfortable sensation in the legs. |
| C84505 | "A congenital heart disorder characterized by the presence of the following four abnormalities: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy." |
| C84506 | The presence of a defect (opening) in the septum that separates the two ventricles of the heart. It can be congenital or acquired. |
| C84509 | A malignant tumor at the original site of growth. |
| C84521 | "A rare genetic syndrome characterized by the deletion of the short arm of chromosome 18. It is associated with mental and growth retardation, prominent ears and ptosis." |
| C84522 | "A condition in which some or all of the cells of the body contain extra genetic material from chromosome 18. Clinical features of this condition may include the following: spina bifida, hearing loss, cleft lip, cleft palate, undescended testes, rocker bottom feet, micrognathia, low set ears, cardiac anomalies (ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot), intellectual disability, holoprosencephaly, pituitary dysplasia, seizures, autoimmune ... |
| C84523 | "A rare genetic inherited disorder characterized by inability of the body to process the amino acid leucine. Signs and symptoms include vomiting, dehydration, lethargy, convulsions, and coma." |
| C84524 | "A rare disorder associated with mental retardation, spasticity, and early death." |
| C84525 | "An autosomal recessive disorder characterized by defective absorption of dietary fat, cholesterol and fat-soluble vitamins. It results in multiple vitamin deficiencies. Signs and symptoms include failure to thrive, diarrhea, steatorrhea, acanthocytosis and ataxia." |
| C84526 | A rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by deficiency of catalase in the peripheral blood. It is usually manifested with periodontal infections. |
| C84527 | A rare group of disorders characterized by defective development of bones and cartilage. |
| C84528 | "An autosomal recessive genetic disorder affecting the cone cells of the eye. It may be complete, in which the individual can only perceive black, white, or shades or gray, or incomplete, in which the individual has a residual amount of color vision." |
| C84530 | "A chronic inflammatory disorder characterized by hyperostosis, osteitis, synovitis and palmoplantar pustulosis. The most common site of involvement is the anterior chest wall." |
| C84531 | "A rare genetic syndrome characterized by agenesis of the corpus callosum, polydactyly, mental and motor retardation." |
| C84532 | "An inflammatory skin condition affecting children. It is often associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection, hepatitis B infection or cytomegalovirus infection. It is characterized by the presence of cutaneous rashes and patches on the palms and soles. The trunk is not affected." |
| C84533 | "A syndrome characterized by enlargement of the hands, feet, ears, nose, lips, and tongue, skin thickening and swelling of internal organs. It is caused by overproduction of growth hormone in the pituitary gland, usually by a pituitary adenoma." |
| C84534 | An infectious process caused by actinomycetales which is an order of Actinobacteria. |
| C84535 | "A degenerative brain disorder presenting with acute neurological manifestations. It usually associated with an acute infection or vaccination. It is characterized by brain hemorrhage, vascular necrosis and demyelination. Signs and symptoms include fever, headache, vomiting, convulsions and loss of consciousness." |
| C84536 | "A genetic metabolic disorder inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme porphobilinogen deaminase, which is involved in heme biosynthesis. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, severe abdominal pain and distension, urinary retention, port-wine urine discoloration, hypertension, tachycardia, muscle weakness, loss of sensation, anxiety, depression, and arm, leg and back pain." |
| C84537 | "A genetic disorder characterized by deficiency of the enzyme long-chain acyl-coenzyme A dehydrogenase that metabolizes long-chain fatty acids. Signs and symptoms appear in infancy or childhood and may be triggered during fasting, illness or exercise. They include hypoglycemia, muscle weakness and lethargy." |
| C84538 | "A genetic disorder characterized by deficiency of the enzyme medium-chain acyl-coenzyme A dehydrogenase that metabolizes medium-chain fatty acids. Signs and symptoms appear in infancy or childhood and may be triggered during fasting or illness. They include vomiting, hypoglycemia and lethargy." |
| C84539 | "A genetic disorder characterized by deficiency of the enzyme short-chain acyl-coenzyme A dehydrogenase that metabolizes short-chain fatty acids. Signs and symptoms appear in infancy or childhood and may be triggered during fasting or illness. They include vomiting, hypoglycemia, lethargy, hypotonia and failure to thrive." |
| C84540 | "A rare genetic disorder characterized by the development of painful lipomas during adulthood, especially in menopausal women. Associated symptoms include fatigue, obesity, confusion and depression." |
| C84541 | "A parasitic disorder caused by protozoa of the Trypanosoma brucei species. It is transmitted by flies and is endemic in various regions of Sub-Saharan Africa. Signs and symptoms include fever, joint pain, headache, and significant swelling of the lymph nodes. If left untreated, the parasitic infection causes anemia, heart, kidney, and endocrine failure, and neurologic damage. Subsequently patients develop confusion, disruption of the sleep cycle, and mental deterioration. The infection may ... |
| C84542 | "A rare disorder characterized by the lack of ability to recognize individuals, objects, shapes, sounds, or smells. There is no loss of memory. It is caused by neurological damage in the brain, specifically in the occipital or parietal lobes." |
| C84543 | "A congenital disorder characterized by partial or complete absence of melanin pigment in the eyes, hair and skin." |
| C84544 | "Spontaneous autoamputation of a digit, usually the fifth toe. It results from the formation of a fibrotic band which constricts the full radius of the digit and eventually causes the spontaneous autoamputation." |
| C84545 | "A rare genetic neurodegenerative disorder which belongs to the group of leukodystrophies. It has a slow and progressive clinical course and is characterized by developmental delay, macrocephaly, seizures, dementia and spasticity." |
| C84546 | "A rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by abnormalities in the metabolism of phenylalanine and tyrosine. It results in the accumulation in the blood of homogentisic acid which is excreted in the urine. The presence of homogentisic acid in the urine causes its color to turn black. The excessive amount of homogentisic acid in the blood may cause damage to cartilage and heart valves, and may result in the formation of kidney stones." |
| C84547 | An immune reaction to aspergillus in patients usually suffering from asthma or cystic fibrosis. |
| C84548 | "An autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease characterized by deficient activity of the enzyme alpha-D-mannosidase. There is a wide range of signs and symptoms including hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, hearing loss, respiratory infections, mental retardation, skeletal abnormalities, leveled nasal bridge and protruding forehead." |
| C84549 | "A rare autosomal recessive syndrome caused by mutations in the gene ALMS1. Signs and symptoms include blindness, obesity, hearing loss, endocrine abnormalities, cardiomyopathy and congestive heart failure, hepatic and renal failure." |
| C84551 | "A parasitic infectious disorder caused by amoebas. The parasite may cause colitis which is manifested with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea and fever. In rare cases it may spread to the liver, brain and lungs." |
| C84552 | "A rare congenital disorder which is caused by entrapment of anatomic parts of the fetus in fibrous amniotic bands during pregnancy. It may result in the formation of constriction rings around the digits and upper and lower extremities, swelling of the extremities and congenital amputations." |
| C84553 | Neuropathy caused by amyloid deposition in the peripheral nerves. |
| C84554 | A rare inherited neuropathy characterized by deposition of amyloid in the peripheral nerves. |
| C84555 | An autosomal dominant inherited form of amyloidosis. |
| C84559 | "A subtype of long QT syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the KCNJ2 gene, encoding inward rectifier potassium channel 2. It is characterized by ventricular arrhythmia, muscle weakness, and developmental abnormalities which include micrognathia, low-set ears and deformities of the fingers." |
| C84560 | "A rare neural tube defect during pregnancy, resulting in the absence of a large portion of the brain and skull in the fetus." |
| C84561 | Autosomal aneuploidy not associated with trisomy. It results in developmental malformations. |
| C84562 | A rare genetic disorder characterized by mutations in the gene encoding ectodysplasin A. It results in abnormalities in the morphogenesis of the structures originating from the ectoderm. |
| C84563 | A rare genetic inherited abnormality characterized by the partial or complete absence of the iris of the eye. |
| C84564 | An autoimmune chronic inflammatory disorder characterized by inflammation in the vertebral joints of the spine and sacroiliac joints. It predominantly affects young males. Patients present with stiffness and pain in the spine. |
| C84565 | "An infection caused by Bacillus anthracis bacteria. It may affect the lungs, gastrointestinal tract, or skin. Patients with lung infection present with fever, headaches, cough, chest pain and shortness of breath. Patients with gastrointestinal infection present with nausea, vomiting and bloody diarrhea. Patients with skin infection develop blisters and ulcers." |
| C84566 | An autoimmune disorder characterized by the production of autoantibodies against type IV collagen of the glomerular basement membrane of the kidney. In the majority of patients the immune reaction also extends to the alveolar capillary membrane of the lungs. The latter cases are referred to as Goodpasture Syndrome. |
| C84567 | "Congenital narrowing of a segment of the aorta. Signs and symptoms include hypertension, muscle weakness, shortness of breath, headaches and leg cramps." |
| C84568 | "A rare autosomal recessive metabolic disorder characterized by a deficiency of the enzyme arginase resulting in accumulation of arginine and urea in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid. Signs and symptoms include developmental delays, spasticity, ataxia, seizures and mental retardation." |
| C84569 | "A genetic inherited disorder caused by mutations in the ASL gene. It is characterized by accumulation of ammonia in the blood. It presents with lethargy in the first few days of life, accompanied by developmental delay and mental retardation." |
| C84570 | A rare genetic brain malformation characterized by displacement of the brain stem and cerebellum through the foramen magnum. It may result in hydrocephalus. |
| C84571 | A rare genetic disorder characterized by cardiomyopathy affecting the right ventricle. The heart tissue is replaced by fibrous and adipose tissues. It is characterized by ventricular arrhythmia and right ventricular dysfunction. It is a cause of sudden death. |
| C84572 | "A rare, non-progressive congenital disorder characterized by multiple joint contractures which are present at birth." |
| C84573 | "A lung disorder caused by inhalation of asbestos fibers. It results in fibrosis of the lung parenchyma. Signs and symptoms include coughing, shortness of breath and chest pain." |
| C84574 | A group of primary or secondary disorders affecting the muscles. It is characterized by an abnormal reduction in the muscle volume and atrophy. The atrophy may be caused by diseases of the muscle tissues or diseases of the peripheral nerves. |
| C84575 | A disorder characterized by the inability of the brain to properly interpret or process the auditory signals it receives from the anatomic structures of the ear. |
| C84576 | "A rare genetic syndrome characterized by autoantibodies production against more than one endocrine organ. The range of endocrinopathies includes hypoparathyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, hypogonadism, type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypothyroidism." |
| C84577 | An autosomal dominant hereditary condition characterized by optic atrophy and progressive visual loss. |
| C84578 | "Polycystic kidney disease inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Symptoms usually appear at middle age and include abdominal pain, hematuria and high blood pressure. Patients may develop brain aneurysms and liver cysts." |
| C84579 | Polycystic kidney disease inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Patients present with progressive renal failure early in life. The autosomal recessive trait is associated with abnormalities of chromosome 6. |
| C84580 | "A rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by developmental abnormalities of the skin, sweat glands, hair and nails. Patients have a reduced ability to sweat. Other signs and symptoms include hypotrichosis and teeth malformations." |
| C84581 | "A parasitic infection caused by Babesia. It is transmitted by ticks and infects the red blood cells. Signs and symptoms include fever, fatigue and hemolytic anemia." |
| C84583 | "A parasitic protozoal infection caused by Balantidium coli that involves the large intestinal mucosa. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, headache and weight loss." |
| C84585 | "A rare X-linked syndrome caused by mutations in TAZ1 gene. Signs and symptoms include cardiomyopathy, neutropenia, muscle weakness and atrophy, growth delay, cardiolipin deficiency and 3-methylglutaconic aciduria." |
| C84586 | "A gram-negative bacterial infection caused by bacteria of the genus Bartonella. It is transmitted by ticks, flies and mosquitoes. Signs and symptoms include fever, headache, muscle pain, enlargement of the lymph nodes and anemia." |
| C84587 | An X-linked inherited disorder characterized by slowly progressing weakness in the muscles of the legs and pelvis. |
| C84588 | A benign condition characterized by the development of irregular patches in the surface of the tongue resulting in a map-like appearance. The patches migrate from day to day and usually resolve without treatment. |
| C84593 | An inherited or sporadic disorder characterized by epileptic seizures in the first four to six weeks of life. The seizures tend to subside after the fifteenth week of life. |
| C84594 | "A genetic disorder caused by mutations in the AGPAT2 and BSCL2 genes. It is characterized by lipoatrophy in the trunk, face, and extremities, hypertriglyceridemia, muscle hypertrophy, cardiomyopathy and hepatomegaly. Patients develop insulin resistance, leading to diabetes mellitus." |
| C84595 | "A rare, autosomal recessive bleeding disorder characterized by deficiency or absence of the Ib/IX/V complex on the surface of platelets. It results in thrombocytopenia, prolonged bleeding time and the presence of giant platelets." |
| C84596 | "An autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease characterized by a deficient activity of the enzyme beta-mannosidase. It is caused by mutations in the MANBA gene. Common features of this disorder are mental retardation, developmental delays and recurrent respiratory infections." |
| C84597 | A very rare metabolic disorder characterized by an inborn error in the leucine degradation pathway. Patients excrete large amounts of beta-methyl-crotonylglycine in the urine. |
| C84598 | "A genetic disorder caused by mutations in the BTD gene. It is characterized by reduced or absent activity of the enzyme biotinidase which is responsible for the recycling of the vitamin biotin. Signs and symptoms appear in childhood and include seizures, hypotonia and developmental delays. If left untreated, it leads to vision and hearing loss, infections, alopecia and ataxia." |
| C84599 | A serious bacterial infection caused by botulinum toxin which is produced by Clostridium botulinum. Patients are infected usually by ingestion of contaminated food or wound contamination. It leads to muscle paralysis which may result in respiratory failure. |
| C8459 | "An extranodal, mature T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that originates from cytotoxic T-cells, usually of gamma/delta T-cell type.  It is characterized by the presence of medium-size neoplastic lymphocytes infiltrating the hepatic sinusoids.  A similar infiltrating pattern is also present in the spleen and bone marrow that are usually involved at the time of the diagnosis." |
| C84600 | "An inflammatory process affecting the brachial plexus. It results in severe pain in the upper extremity and shoulder, upper arm weakness and loss of sensation in the upper arm." |
| C84601 | "A disorder caused by a spinal injury leading to an incomplete spinal lesion. Patients develop paralysis, ataxia and loss of sensation. Causes include spinal cord tumors, spinal traumas, ischemia, and inflammatory processes affecting the spine." |
| C84602 | "A gram negative bacterial infection caused by bacteria of the genus Brucella. Humans are infected by ingesting unpasteurized milk or meat from infected animals. Signs and symptoms include fevers, sweating, weakness, headache, muscle pain, arthritis and anemia." |
| C84604 | "A cutaneous infection caused by Mycobacterium ulcerans. It presents with painless nodular swelling of the skin, leading to the formation of necrotizing ulcers." |
| C84605 | "An occupational lung disorder caused by exposure to cotton dust. It occurs more commonly in workers in the textile industry. Signs and symptoms include chest tightness, cough and wheezing. The symptoms tend to get worse at the beginning of the week and subside by the end of the week." |
| C84606 | "A hereditary cerebrovascular disorder caused by mutations in the Notch 3 gene. It is characterized by alterations of the muscular wall of the small vessels in the brain, resulting in transient ischemic attacks. It may lead to cognitive problems and dementia." |
| C84607 | A rare syndrome characterized by vascular calcification and skin necrosis. It seen in patients with end stage renal disease. |
| C84609 | A genetic congenital disorder characterized by bowing and angulation of the long bones. It may be associated with other skeletal and extraskeletal defects. |
| C8460 | "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in which the blasts do not show evidence of myeloid differentiation by morphology and conventional cytochemistry. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C84610 | "An autosomal dominant skeletal disorder caused by mutations in the TGFB1 gene. It is characterized by thickening of the bones, particularly the long bones of the extremities. It is associated with muscle weakness and tiredness." |
| C84611 | "A disorder that belongs in the group of leukodystrophies. It is caused by mutations in the ASPA gene which is responsible for the production of the enzyme aspartoacylase. It is characterized by spongy degeneration of the white matter of the brain. Signs and symptoms appear in infancy and include mental retardation, loss of motor skills, abnormal muscle tone, feeding difficulties and a very large head." |
| C84612 | "A congenital disorder caused by mutations in the CPS1 gene. It is characterized by accumulation of ammonia in the blood. Signs and symptoms appear in infancy and include lethargy, seizures, developmental delay and mental disability." |
| C84615 | "An genetically heterogeneous group of autosomal recessive disorders of carbohydrate metabolism characterized by psychomotor retardation, growth retardation, ataxia, seizures, hepatomegaly with steatosis and hypothyroidism." |
| C84617 | "A rare genetic syndrome most often caused by BRAF gene mutations. It is characterized by a distinctive facial appearance (high forehead, short nose, and widely spaced eyes), sparse and brittle hair, skin disorders, heart malformations, mental retardation and developmental delay." |
| C84618 | A rare disorder characterized by sudden and transient episodes of loss of muscle tone. It often follows an experience of intense emotions. It is seen in patients with narcolepsy. |
| C84619 | A rare congenital disorder characterized by cystic dilatation of the intrahepatic bile ducts. It is associated with cholangitis and the formation of stones. |
| C8461 | An adamantinoma arising from the tibia.  The tibia is the site which is more frequently involved by adamantinoma (80-90% of cases). |
| C84620 | "A bacterial infection caused by Bartonella henselae. It is transmitted to humans from a scratch, bite, or lick from a cat. A blister or a bump appears on the skin following the scratch or bite. Subsequently, there is lymph node enlargement around the scratch or bite site. The lymph node enlargement most often occurs under the arm or the neck. Some patients experience fever, fatigue, headaches or sore throat as well." |
| C84621 | A cavernous hemangioma arising from the central nervous system. |
| C84622 | Vasculitis affecting the blood vessels of the brain and/or spinal cord. |
| C84623 | "A central nervous system disorder caused by demyelination within the central basis pontis of the brain. It is characterized by spastic quadriplegia, pseudobulbar palsy and encephalopathy. It is observed in patients with severe hyponatremia, particularly when the hyponatremia is corrected too rapidly." |
| C84624 | "Degeneration of the cerebellum. It may be an inherited condition, a paraneoplastic syndrome, or secondary to autoimmune disorders." |
| C84625 | A disorder characterized by the deposition of amyloid in the wall of the vessels in the brain. |
| C84626 | "A disorder characterized by malformations in the structure of the capillaries in the brain. It is caused by mutations in the CCM2, KRIT1 and PDCD10 genes. The capillaries fill with blood and stretch, thereby creating cavernous spaces. Some patients experience headaches, seizures, or visual and hearing disturbances. Cerebral hemorrhage may also occur." |
| C84628 | "A rare inherited lipid-storage disorder caused by defects in the CYP27A1 gene. It is characterized by progressive neurologic dysfunction, premature atherosclerosis and development of cataracts." |
| C84629 | "A parasitic infection caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. It is transmitted by insect bites. It is characterized by an acute and chronic phase; in the acute phase patients may have fever, malaise, and swelling at the site of the insect bite. In the chronic phase patients develop hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, cardiomyopathy and arrhythmias." |
| C84630 | "A rare autosomal dominant inherited disorder usually caused by mutations in the SH3BP2 gene. It is characterized by a prominent lower part of the face due to bilateral replacement of the mandibular or maxillary bones by lesions. The lesions contain osteoclast-like cells admixed with spindle-shaped mononuclear stromal cells.  With time, the lesions become more fibrotic and less osteoclast-rich." |
| C84631 | "A rare condition characterized by skin inflammation, blister formation, swelling and ulcerations in the extremities. It occurs in persons exposed to cold temperatures." |
| C84632 | "A rare congenital developmental disorder characterized by the presence of stippled foci of calcification in the hyaline cartilage, joint contractions, mental retardation and ichthyosis." |
| C84633 | "A neurological condition affecting the involuntary movements. It is characterized by brief, non-repetitive irregular muscle contractions. It is seen in patients with Huntington's disease." |
| C84636 | An immunologic inflammatory disorder characterized by loss of myelin in the peripheral nerves. Patients present with progressive weakness and loss of sensory function in the legs and arms. |
| C84637 | "A chronic inflammatory process causing damage and fibrosis of the pancreatic parenchyma. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, malabsorption and diabetes mellitus." |
| C84638 | "Defective movements of the cilia. It includes abnormal movements of the cilia in the nose and paranasal sinuses, the respiratory tract and spermatozoa." |
| C84639 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the ASS1 and SLC25A13 genes. It is characterized by a defective urea cycle, resulting in the accumulation of ammonia and other toxic substances in the blood." |
| C8463 | "A carcinoma that arises from the hard or soft palate.  Representative examples include squamous cell carcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, and mucoepidermoid carcinoma." |
| C84640 | "A genetic disorder caused by mutations in the LIS1, XLIS, or TUBA1A genes. It results in brain malformation characterized by the underdevelopment or absence of gyri or ridges in the cerebral cortex. Signs and symptoms include epilepsy and mental retardation." |
| C84641 | "The most common congenital deformation of the foot, occurring in 1 of 1,000 live births. The most common form is talipes equinovarus, where the deformed foot is turned downward and inward sharply." |
| C84642 | "A fungal infection caused by Coccidioides immitis. Affected individuals usually have mild flu-like symptoms. However, pneumonia and systemic involvement with the formation of abscesses may develop as complications of the disease." |
| C84643 | "An inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the RPS6KA3 gene. It is characterized by mental retardation, developmental delay, microcephaly, short stature and kyphoscoliosis." |
| C84644 | "A very rare syndrome characterized by eye abnormalities that lead to vision impairment. These abnormalities include iris atrophy, decreased corneal endothelium, iris nodules, adhesion of the iris to the lens and glaucoma." |
| C84645 | A rare congenital disorder characterized by thickening or expansion of the bones. |
| C84646 | "A rare group of disorders that result in anemia that is caused by ineffective erythropoiesis, which is associated with multinuclear erythroblasts, and which may present in childhood. The most common mutations are in the CDAN1 and SEC23B genes." |
| C84647 | "A group of rare genetic neuromuscular disorders characterized by neuromuscular junction defects. The defects are classified as presynaptic, synaptic, or postsynaptic. Signs and symptoms include muscle weakness, easy fatigability, feeding and respiratory difficulties, and scoliosis." |
| C84648 | "A group of rare genetic muscle disorders characterized by hypotonia, muscle weakness, and delayed development of motor skills." |
| C84649 | "A life-threatening bacterial infection of the newborn caused by Treponema pallidum. It is transmitted to the infant from a mother with syphilis through the placenta during pregnancy. Signs and symptoms include irritability, fever, failure to thrive, saddle nose, cutaneous rash, and pneumonia." |
| C8464 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C84650 | Congenital deafness caused by mutations in the gene GJB2 (deafness gene). |
| C84651 | A rare congenital abnormality of the heart characterized by the presence of three atria. The right or left atrium is divided into two parts by fibromuscular tissue or a membrane. It may be associated with other heart congenital abnormalities. |
| C84652 | "A genetic syndrome caused by mutations in the HRAS gene. It is characterized by developmental delay, mental retardation, loose skin folds, cardiomyopathy, tachycardia, and structural heart defects. Patients are at an increased risk of developing benign or malignant neoplasms." |
| C84653 | "A syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterized by early fusion of the bones of the skull and face. Patients have a distinctive facial appearance which includes low-set ears, brachycephaly, hypertelorism, exophthalmos, and mandibular prognathism." |
| C84654 | A disorder that affects the muscles of head and neck and temporomandibular joint. |
| C84655 | A congenital disorder characterized by earlier than normal closure of some or all sutures of the infant skull. |
| C84656 | A rare autosomal recessive inherited syndrome characterized by abnormalities in the metabolism of bilirubin. It results in the development of jaundice. It may cause brain damage in infancy. |
| C84657 | "A group of autoinflammatory syndromes caused by mutations in the NLRP3 gene. Signs and symptoms include rash, fever, headache, joint pain, conjunctivitis, and weakness. The symptoms may exacerbate with exposure to cold weather." |
| C8465 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C84663 | A congenital or acquired disorder affecting the elastic fibers of the skin. It is characterized by loss of elasticity resulting in loosening and folding of the skin. |
| C84664 | "An autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the SLC3A1 and SLC7A9 genes. It is characterized by deficient re-absorption of cystine in the proximal tubules of the kidney. It results in the formation of stones in the kidney, ureter, and urinary bladder." |
| C84665 | "An autosomal dominant inherited chronic skin disorder caused by mutations in the ATP2A2 gene. It is characterized by the development of yellow-brown keratotic skin papules in the neck, ears, forehead, chest, back and groin. It is associated with fragility of the free margins of the nails." |
| C84666 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited syndrome. It is characterized by xeroderma pigmentosum, mental retardation, dwarfism, hypogonadism, and neurologic abnormalities." |
| C84667 | "A congenital tooth development disorder caused by mutations in the DSPP gene. The teeth are weak, discolored, and translucent." |
| C84668 | "A rare congenital syndrome caused by mutations in the WT1 gene. It is characterized by the presence of congenital nephropathy (diffuse mesangial sclerosis), Wilms tumor, and intersex disorders." |
| C84669 | A rare congenital abnormality in which the heart is located in the right side of the chest. It is associated with other congenital heart defects. |
| C8466 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C84670 | "A rare congenital demyelinating disorder affecting the central nervous system. It is characterized by a demyelinating destructive lesion affecting an entire brain lobe or hemisphere. Signs and symptoms include dementia, cortical deafness and blindness, pseudobulbar palsy, and hemiplegia." |
| C84671 | A rare degenerative disorder that affects the spine. It is characterized by ossification of ligaments resulting in calcifications along the sides of the spinal vertebrae. |
| C84672 | A rare disorder characterized by an inborn error in pyrimidine metabolism. It results in the deficiency or complete absence of the enzyme dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase. Individuals with this disorder may develop a severe toxicity reaction if they are exposed to the chemotherapeutic agent 5-fluorouracil. |
| C84673 | "Cardiomyopathy which is characterized by dilation and contractile dysfunction of the left and right ventricles. It may be idiopathic, or it may result from a myocardial infarction, myocardial infection, or alcohol abuse. It is a cause of congestive heart failure." |
| C84675 | "A group of genetic degenerative muscle disorders affecting the muscles of the lower arms, hands, lower legs, and feet." |
| C84676 | "A rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder caused by mutations in the insulin receptor gene. Signs and symptoms include a characteristic facial appearance (protuberant and low-set ears, thick lips, and flaring nostrils), intrauterine growth retardation, insulin resistance, and enlarged genitalia." |
| C84677 | "A parasitic infection caused by Dracunculus medinensis. It is caused by drinking water contaminated with water fleas. The larvae enter the body through the intestine. Signs and symptoms include pain, edema, blisters, and ulcers." |
| C84678 | A rare disorder affecting the muscles of the eye. It is characterized by an abnormal contraction of some eye muscles and failure of contraction of other eye muscles. It leads to limited abduction and adduction of the affected eye. |
| C84679 | "A rare autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the DMPK gene. It is characterized by myotonia, muscular dystrophy, hypogonadism, heart conduction defects and cataracts." |
| C8467 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C84680 | "A rare autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the CNBP gene. It is characterized by muscle pain, fatigue, and weakness of the proximal muscles of the lower extremities." |
| C84681 | "A rare congenital heart malformation characterized by apical displacement of the opening of the tricuspid valve. The defect involves both the right ventricle and the tricuspid valve, and can lead to cardiomyopathy and tachyarrhythmias." |
| C84682 | "A parasitic infection caused by tapeworm larvae of Echinococcus. It affects livestock and humans. It is characterized by the formation of hydatid cysts mainly in the liver, lungs, spleen, and kidneys. Rupture of the cysts may lead to shock." |
| C84683 | "A group of inherited disorders characterized by malformations of the structures that derive from the ectoderm, such as hair, teeth, nails and sweat glands." |
| C84684 | "A rare autosomal recessive syndrome caused by mutations in the EVC gene. It is characterized by dwarfism, small chest, ectodermal dysplasia, and postaxial polydactyly. There is an increased frequency of congenital heart malformations." |
| C84685 | "An X-linked or autosomal dominant inherited muscular dystrophy. It is characterized by slowly progressive muscle weakness, atrial conduction defects, cardiomyopathy, and early contractures of the elbow, ankle and neck." |
| C84686 | "A syndrome characterized by flattening or regression of the pituitary gland within the sella turcica cavity, resulting in an MRI image of an empty sella turcica. Signs and symptoms are secondary to pituitary gland hypofunction." |
| C84687 | "A congenital neural tube closure defect resulting in the protrusion of the brain through a skull opening. When the protrusion includes the meninges, the term encephalomeningocele is used." |
| C84688 | "A bacterial infection caused by Rickettsia typhi or Rickettsia felis. It is transmitted to humans from infected rat fleas. Symptoms include fever, headache, joint and muscle pain, and weakness." |
| C84689 | "A gram-negative bacterial infection caused by Rickettsia prowazekii. It is spread by lice infected with the bacteria. Signs and symptoms include sudden headache, generalized muscle pain, malaise, and macular skin lesions. The infection may affect the central nervous system causing encephalitis." |
| C8468 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C84690 | A chronic autoimmune inflammatory disorder characterized by the formation of subepidermal blisters in the skin and the mucous membranes. |
| C84691 | A genetic skin disorder caused by mutations in the type VII collagen gene (COL7A1). It is characterized by the formation of blisters and scarring in the skin and mucous membranes. |
| C84692 | A genetic skin disorder caused by mutations in the KRT5 and KRT14 genes. It is characterized by the formation of blisters and increased fragility of the skin. |
| C84693 | A genetic skin disorder caused by mutations in the KRT9 gene. It is characterized by hyperkeratosis in the palms and soles resulting in abnormal thickening of the skin in these areas. |
| C84695 | A self-limited viral infectious disorder caused by the human parvovirus B19. It affects predominantly children and is characterized by the development of a bright red skin eruption in the cheeks. It is followed by a maculopapular skin eruption in the extremities which eventually fades into a lacey pattern. |
| C84696 | A rare genetic chronic skin disorder characterized by hyperkeratosis and transient erythema. Mutations in GJB3 and GJB4 genes have been identified as causative agents. |
| C84697 | A rare congenital metabolic disorder characterized by an inborn error of porphyrin-heme biosynthesis. It is caused by deficiency of the enzyme uroporphyrinogen III cosynthetase. It results in cutaneous photosensitivity leading to blistering and scarring of the exposed skin areas. |
| C84698 | "A rare congenital metabolic disorder characterized by an inborn error of porphyrin-heme biosynthesis. It is caused by deficiency of the enzyme ferrochelatase. Signs and symptoms include painful cutaneous photosensitivity leading to blistering and scarring of the exposed skin areas, erythrodontia, red discoloration of urine, hemolytic anemia, and splenomegaly." |
| C8469 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C84701 | "A rare X-linked inherited lysosomal storage disorder characterized by deficiency of the enzyme alpha-galactosidase A. It results in the accumulation of glycolipids in the blood vessels and tissues. Signs and symptoms include hypertension, cardiomyopathy, angiokeratomas, neuropathy, hypohidrosis, keratopathy, proteinuria, and renal failure." |
| C84704 | "An autosomal dominant disorder affecting the skeletal muscles of the face, scapula, and upper arm. Patients present with muscle weakness in these anatomic areas. The muscle weakness eventually spreads to other skeletal muscles as well." |
| C84705 | A rare inherited bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of coagulation factor XI. It may be asymptomatic or manifest with bleeding. |
| C84706 | A congenital disorder caused by mutations in the IKBKAP gene. It is characterized by damage of the sympathetic and parasympathetic and sensory nervous system. |
| C84707 | "A usually autosomal recessive inherited inflammatory disorder caused by mutations in the MEFV gene. It is characterized by recurrent painful inflammatory attacks in the abdomen, joints, and chest. The inflammatory attacks are associated with fever." |
| C84708 | An autosomal dominant inherited disorder that appears in childhood or adolescence. It is characterized by loss of adipose tissue in the extremities and accumulation of adipose tissue in the face and neck. |
| C84709 | A group of genetic neurological disorders caused by mutations in genes involved in the sodium and calcium channels in nerve cells. It is characterized by episodes of muscle paralysis in which the affected muscles become flaccid and the deep tendon reflexes disappear. Between the episodes the affected muscles usually work normally. |
| C8470 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C84710 | "A very rare autosomal recessive metabolic disorder affecting lipid metabolism. It is caused by mutations in the ASAH1 gene and is characterized by fatty accumulation in the body tissues. Patients develop lipogranulomas in the skin and internal organs, edema and pain in the joints and a hoarse voice. It may be associated with intellectual disability." |
| C84711 | "A very rare autosomal dominant inherited sleep disorder caused by a mutation in the gene responsible for the prion protein. It affects individuals usually in their fourth decade. Its initial manifestation is difficulty in falling asleep. It is followed by complete inability to sleep. Patients develop deterioration of their mental and motor functions and die soon after the first symptoms appear, because of the total absence of sleep." |
| C84712 | "A syndrome characterized by the presence of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, and granulocytopenia. Patients are at an increased risk of infection because of the low white cell counts." |
| C84713 | "A teratogenic disorder observed in a newborn or child of a mother who consumed alcohol during pregnancy. Manifestations of the syndrome include low birth weight, atypical facies, microcephaly, failure to thrive, developmental defects, organ dysfunction, mental deficiencies, poor motor coordination and behavioral problems." |
| C84714 | A disorder characterized by fibrous thickening of the arterial wall resulting in narrowing of the arterial lumen. It most often affects the renal artery and less often the carotid artery and abdominal arteries. It can cause hypertension and aneurysm formation. |
| C84715 | "A genetic multisystem disorder caused by mutations in the PORCN gene. It is characterized by atrophy and hypoplasia of skin, eye defects, face defects, skeletal abnormalities, and limb malformations." |
| C84716 | A chronic inflammatory skin disorder characterized by pruritic papular eruptions in areas with apocrine glands. It usually affects the axillae bilaterally. There is rupture of the apocrine ducts resulting in inflammation and formation of the papular skin lesions. |
| C84717 | "A genetic syndrome caused by mutations in the FMR1 gene which is responsible for the expression of the fragile X mental retardation 1 protein. This protein participates in neural development. This syndrome is manifested with mental, emotional, behavioral, physical, and learning disabilities." |
| C84718 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the FXN gene. It is characterized by progressive degeneration of the nerve tissues of the spinal cord. The main symptoms include gait and balance disturbances, lack of limb coordination, and speech disturbances." |
| C84719 | A syndrome caused by progressive degeneration of the frontal or temporal lobes of the brain. It is manifested with personality changes and deterioration of the language skills. |
| C8471 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)." |
| C84720 | "A genetic disorder characterized by the absence of the enzyme aldolase-B from the liver. This enzyme is essential for the metabolism of fructose. Signs and symptoms from fructose ingestion are evident in infancy and include vomiting, abdominal pain and hypoglycemia. Long term complications include hepatic and renal failure." |
| C84721 | "An autosomal dominant, bilateral, slowly progressive degeneration of corneal endothelial cells with thickening of Descemet's membrane and accumulation of excrescences. It results in corneal edema and loss of vision." |
| C84722 | Infection with anaerobic gram-negative bacteria of the genus Fusobacterium. It results in abscess formation and tissue damage. |
| C84723 | "An autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the GALE, GALK1, and GALT genes. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzymes responsible for the metabolism of galactose. Signs and symptoms include intellectual disability, hepatomegaly, hepatic failure, and renal failure." |
| C84724 | "Dilatation of the vessels in the antrum of the stomach. It is associated with portal hypertension, scleroderma, and chronic renal failure. It may cause gastric bleeding." |
| C84725 | A congenital birth defect characterized by the exposure of the fetal intestines outside the abdominal wall through an abdominal wall opening. |
| C84726 | "A deformity of the legs characterized by medial angulation, resulting in a bow appearance." |
| C84727 | "A very rare and fatal disorder of spongiform encephalopathy usually caused by mutations of the prion protein (PRNP) gene. It is characterized by the accumulation of amyloid in the brain. Signs and symptoms include lack of motor coordination, unsteady gait, and difficulty walking. As the disease progresses, patients develop speech difficulties and dementia." |
| C84728 | "A rare inherited disorder affecting the neurofilaments. It is caused by mutations in the GAN gene. It is characterized by the presence of abnormally large nerve cell axons. Signs and symptoms include difficulty walking, sensory disturbances, lack of motor coordination and abnormal reflexes in the limbs." |
| C84729 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder characterized by unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, resulting in harmless intermittent jaundice." |
| C8472 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C84730 | "An inherited disorder caused by mutations in the SLC12A3 gene. It is characterized by deficient reabsorption of electrolytes in the distal convoluted tubules of the kidneys. It results in hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, hypocalciuria, and hypomagnesemia." |
| C84733 | "An autosomal recessive inherited type of glycogen storage disease. It is characterized by a deficiency of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase, resulting in the inability of the liver to produce free glucose causing severe hypoglycemia. There is abnormal accumulation of glycogen in the liver and kidneys." |
| C84734 | "An autosomal recessive inherited type of glycogen storage disease caused by deficiency of the enzyme acid alpha-glucosidase. It results in the abnormal accumulation of glycogen in the heart, skeletal muscles, liver, and nervous system." |
| C84735 | A genetic metabolic disorder causing hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Mutations of the LAMP2 gene have been reported in association with this disease. |
| C84736 | "An autosomal recessive inherited type of glycogen storage disease caused by deficiency of the glycogen debranching enzyme. It results in the accumulation of structurally abnormal glycogen in the heart, skeletal muscles, and/or liver." |
| C84737 | "A rare inherited type of glycogen storage disease caused by deficiency of amylo-1,4-1,6 transglucosidase." |
| C84738 | "An autosomal recessive inherited type of glycogen storage disease caused by deficiency of myophosphorylase. It results in myalgias, muscle cramping and stiffness, and exercise intolerance." |
| C84739 | "An autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease characterized by deficiency of the enzyme acid beta-galactosidase, resulting in the accumulation of acid lipids in the nervous system. Signs and symptoms include neurologic disturbances, muscle atrophy, dystonia, eye abnormalities, and formation of angiokeratomas." |
| C8473 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C84740 | "A congenital birth defect characterized by incomplete development or absence of face structures, usually affecting one side of the face. The defects include partially formed or absent ear, nose, lip, mandible, and/or soft palate." |
| C84741 | A rare inherited bleeding disorder characterized by the decrease or absence of the platelet alpha-granules and their proteins in the peripheral blood platelets. |
| C84742 | A congenital cardiac defect in which two heart vessels are reversed (transposed). |
| C84743 | A congenital or acquired occlusion of an opening in any part of the female genital tract. |
| C84744 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the OAT gene. It is characterized by progressive atrophy of the retina and choroid, leading to loss of vision and blindness." |
| C84745 | "A very rare inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by osteoporosis, skull deformities, short stature, and bone flexibility." |
| C84746 | "A very rare syndrome characterized by multiple congenital abnormalities including abnormally shaped head, mandibular hypoplasia, parrot nose, bilateral congenital cataracts, microphthalmia, dwarfism and hypotrichosis." |
| C84747 | An infection caused by Hantaviruses. It manifests with flu-like symptoms but it rapidly progresses to life-threatening respiratory problems. |
| C84748 | "An autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the SLC6A19 gene. It is characterized by defective absorption of neutral amino acids. Signs and symptoms include skin eruptions reminiscent of pellagra, aminoaciduria, and cerebellar ataxia." |
| C8474 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C84750 | "Severe preeclampsia associated with any of the following findings: thrombocytopenia (platelets less than 100,000 per microliter), impaired liver function (twice normal elevation of hepatic transaminases; severe, persistent right upper quadrant or epigastric pain), progressive renal insufficiency (serum creatinine greater than 1.1 mg/dL or doubling of baseline in the absence of other renal disease), pulmonary edema, or new-onset cerebral or visual disturbances." |
| C84751 | "A parasitic infection characterized by the infestation with worms, mainly in the intestine." |
| C84753 | "A disorder caused by hantaviruses of the family Bunyaviridae. It is transmitted by rodents and is manifested with fever, hemorrhage, and renal failure. Other symptoms include headaches, abdominal and back pain, and blurred vision." |
| C84754 | A very rare form of porphyria cutanea tarda. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase. Signs and symptoms appear early in childhood and include extreme photosensitivity in the sun exposed areas of the skin with blistering and scar formation. |
| C84756 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the ATP7B gene. It is characterized by copper accumulation in the tissues, particularly brain and liver. It results in liver failure, neurologic, and psychotic manifestations." |
| C84757 | "Autosomal dominant inherited disorders characterized by abnormalities of C1 inhibitor. Patients present with swelling of the skin, subcutaneous tissues, and mucosa sites. In type I hereditary angioedema, the plasma levels of C1 inhibitor are decreased. In type II hereditary angioedema, the C1 inhibitor is dysfunctional and its plasma levels may be normal or elevated." |
| C84758 | "Autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by abnormalities of C1 inhibitor. Patients present with swelling of the skin, subcutaneous tissues, and mucosa sites." |
| C84759 | "An autosomal dominant inherited disorder of porphyrin metabolism caused by deficiency of the enzyme coproporphyrinogen oxidase. It results in neurologic damage and can include abdominal pain, constipation and psychiatric manifestations." |
| C8475 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C84760 | An autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by thickened and spongy oral mucosa with a white tint. It may affect other anatomic sites as well. |
| C84761 | An inherited disorder affecting the metabolism of bilirubin. It results in increased levels of bilirubin in the blood. Representative examples of this condition include Gilbert syndrome and Crigler-Najjar syndrome. |
| C84762 | "A serious viral disorder characterized by infection of the brain by herpes simplex virus type 1 or 2. Herpes simplex virus type 1 affects adults, whereas herpes simplex virus type 2 affects newborns. Signs and symptoms include fever, headaches, vomiting, seizures and psychiatric manifestations." |
| C84763 | A viral ear infection caused by the spread of varicella-zoster virus to the facial nerves. It is characterized by intense otalgia and a cutaneous vesicular eruption. |
| C84764 | "A hereditary disorder of iron metabolism caused by mutations in the HFE gene. It is characterized by increased absorption of iron in the gastrointestinal mucosa. It results in abnormal iron accumulation in the liver, pancreas, skin, joints, heart, and testes. It may lead to skin pigmentation, liver failure, heart failure, and hypogonadism." |
| C84765 | "An autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the CBS, MTHFR, MTR, and MTRR genes. It is characterized by abnormalities in the methionine metabolism and is associated with deficiency of cystathionine synthase. It results in the accumulation of homocysteine in the serum. It may affect the cardiovascular, musculoskeletal and the central nervous systems." |
| C84766 | "A rare skin disorder of unknown etiology affecting children. It is a photodermatitis, characterized by the formation of vesicles and scarring on sun exposed areas." |
| C84767 | A condition characterized by fluid accumulation in two or more anatomic compartments in the fetus. |
| C84768 | "A parasitic infection caused by tapeworms. Most infected individuals do not have symptoms. When symptoms appear, they include diarrhea, abdominal pain, restlessness, and irritability." |
| C8476 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C84770 | "A serious metabolic condition caused by mutations in the MTHFR gene, medications, or nutritional deficiency. It results in increased levels of homocysteine in the blood. Patients with this condition are at an increased risk for recurrent blood clots formation and cardiovascular accidents." |
| C84771 | A genetic disorder of lipoprotein metabolism caused by mutations in the LPL and apolipoprotein (apo) C-II genes. It is characterized by increased levels of chylomicrons and triglycerides in the blood. |
| C84772 | A condition of unknown etiology characterized by thickening of the inner table of the frontal bone of the skull. It is seen more often in females and is usually bilateral. |
| C84773 | "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy caused by mutations in the genes encoding components of the sarcomere, in the absence of predisposing conditions." |
| C84774 | A metabolic disorder characterized by deficiency of high density (alpha) lipoprotein in the blood. |
| C84775 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by irregular episodes of muscle weakness or paralysis which are always accompanied by low levels of potassium in the blood." |
| C84776 | "A group of inherited or acquired skin disorders characterized by a dry, thickened, and scaly skin. The skin changes range from mild to severe." |
| C84777 | "A rare autosomal dominant inherited form of ichthyosis. It is characterized by the presence of an erythematous skin with blisters at birth. The skin subsequently becomes dry, flaky and hyperkeratotic." |
| C84778 | The most common form of ichthyosis. It is an autosomal dominant inherited or acquired disorder characterized by scaling and desquamation of the skin. |
| C84779 | The second most common form of ichthyosis. It is an X-linked inherited disorder with mild skin manifestations. The skin changes appear at birth and include keratinization and scaling. |
| C8477 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C84780 | A rare immunodeficiency syndrome characterized by the decrease of the CD4-positive lymphocytes below 300 per cubic millimeter in the absence of identifiable immunodeficiency causes. Patients with this syndrome are at an increased risk of opportunistic infections. |
| C84781 | A rare sleep disorder characterized by prolonged sleep at night and extreme sleepiness during the day. There are no apparent causes. This disorder affects the ability to function. |
| C84782 | Inflammation of the ileum. |
| C84783 | "A genetically heterogenous group of conditions characterized by decreased levels of IgG, IgA, and IgE, and normal or increased levels of IgM. Patients are at an increased risk of infections and development of malignancies." |
| C84784 | A congenital birth defect characterized by the absence of a normal anal opening. It may be associated with other congenital abnormalities. |
| C84785 | A genetic inborn error of metabolism characterized by the deficiency of one of the enzymes necessary for the urea cycle. It results in accumulation of ammonia in the body. |
| C84786 | An acquired or hereditary chronic inflammatory disorder of the muscles characterized by the morphologic finding of vacuoles and filamentous inclusions in the muscle tissues. |
| C84787 | "A rare disorder caused by mutations in the IKBKG gene. It is characterized by skin abnormalities, alopecia, dystrophic nails, and abnormal tooth shape. The skin changes evolve from an initial blistering rash, to wart-like lesions, and eventually to hypopigmentation." |
| C84788 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited neurodegenerative disorder caused by mutations in the PLA2G6 gene. It is characterized by the development of swellings called spheroids along the axons of the central nervous system. Signs and symptoms appear early in life and include movement difficulties, muscle hypotonia and spasticity, and cognitive dysfunction." |
| C84789 | "A genetic disorder characterized by abnormalities in the breakdown of phytanic acid. It results in accumulation of phytanic acid in the blood, brain and other tissues. Signs and symptoms include retinitis pigmentosa which may lead to blindness, hearing problems and deafness, hypotonia, ataxia, nystagmus, facial deformities, and mental and growth retardation." |
| C8478 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C84790 | A congenital malformation characterized by the absence of a normal opening in a part of the intestine. It can occur either in the small or the large intestine. |
| C84792 | "A group of disorders characterized by the presence of an abnormal inner layer of the cornea. This abnormality results in iris distortion, corneal swelling, pupil distortion, and glaucoma. It usually affects only one eye." |
| C84793 | An autosomal recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the KCNE1 and KCNQ1 genes. It is characterized by congenital hearing loss and arrhythmia. It is a form of long QT syndrome. |
| C84794 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited syndrome characterized by a narrow thorax, micromelia, and respiratory disturbances which may lead to asphyxiation. It may be associated with bilateral microcystic renal disease which may lead to renal failure." |
| C84795 | "An autosomal dominant inherited corneal disorder caused by mutations in the KRT3 and KRT12 genes. It is characterized by the formation of multiple tiny cysts in the epithelial layer of the cornea. The cysts may rupture, causing pain, redness and light sensitivity. Vision usually is not affected." |
| C84796 | "An epilepsy characterized by myoclonic jerks, generalized tonic-clonic seizures, and sometimes absence seizures. It appears during adolescence." |
| C84797 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited syndrome characterized by situs inversus, bronchiectasis, and chronic sinusitis. There is a defect in the function of the cilia that line the respiratory tract." |
| C84798 | "A rare mitochondrial myopathy characterized by a progressive limitation of eye movements, leading to immobility and eye drop. It may be associated with muscle weakness, heart block, hearing loss, ataxia and short stature." |
| C84799 | A rare neurologic disorder occurring in infants with jaundice. It results from brain damage by existing high levels of unconjugated-indirect bilirubin. |
| C8479 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C84800 | A rare disorder characterized by episodes of excessive sleep and behavioral alterations while awake. It affects predominantly males. The individuals exhibit normal behavior between episodes. |
| C84801 | "A rare syndrome characterized by the presence of port-wine stain (a vascular malformation), varicose veins, and hypertrophy of the soft tissues and bones in an extremity. It usually affects one extremity, most commonly a leg." |
| C84802 | "A rare syndrome resulting from damage to both temporal lobes of the brain. Signs and symptoms include oral exploratory behavior, docility, altered sexuality, dietary changes, and visual agnosia." |
| C84803 | "A psychotic syndrome caused by damage to the brain by lack of thiamine (vitamin B1). Signs and symptoms include anterograde and retrograde amnesia, confabulation, apathy, ataxia, and coma." |
| C84804 | "A rare, fatal autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the genes EPM2A and EPM2b. It is characterized by the presence of cytoplasmic inclusion bodies called Lafora bodies in many cells of the body including neurons, muscle cells, and liver cells. The Lafora bodies contain mucopolysaccharides. Signs and symptoms include seizures, myoclonus, ataxia, and dementia." |
| C84805 | "A very rare, autosomal recessive inherited skin disorder present at birth. It is characterized by the presence of a transparent membrane encasing the newborn. This membrane sheds in about two weeks after birth to reveal generalized scaling and skin erythema." |
| C84806 | A rare childhood syndrome characterized by the progressive or sudden inability to understand and use spoken language (aphasia) and paroxysmal electrical brain waves. Patients develop epileptic seizures and behavioral changes. |
| C84807 | A syndrome caused by an infarct in the vertebral or posterior inferior cerebellar artery. It is characterized by sensory defects affecting the same side of the face as the infarct and the opposite side of the trunk as the infarct. Patients experience difficulty swallowing and/or speaking. |
| C84808 | "A hereditary disorder caused by mitochondrial mutations, resulting in the degeneration of the retinal ganglion cells and optic atrophy. It is characterized by an acute or subacute loss of central vision. It may initially affect one eye only, but eventually the central loss of vision becomes bilateral." |
| C8480 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C84813 | "A disorder of lipoprotein metabolism caused by mutations in the LCAT gene. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase. It is manifested with corneal opacity, hemolytic anemia, and proteinuria." |
| C84814 | "An inherited disorder affecting the nervous system, caused by genetic mutations in the mitochondrial DNA or deficiency of pyruvate dehydrogenase. Signs and symptoms appear in infancy and include loss of the motor abilities, poor sucking abilities, irritability, lack of muscle tone, and seizures." |
| C84816 | "A syndrome characterized by frequent episodes of epilepsy during childhood. The epileptic episodes may be tonic, atonic, myoclonic, or absence seizures. It may be accompanied by mental retardation and behavioral problems." |
| C8481 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C84820 | "A genetic syndrome caused by mutations in the PTPN11 and RAF1 genes. It is characterized by the following abnormalities: multiple lentigines, electrocardiographic conduction abnormalities, ocular hypertelorism, pulmonary stenosis, abnormalities in genitalia, growth retardation, and deafness." |
| C84824 | "A bacterial granulomatous infection caused by Mycobacterium leprae. It is a progressive disease affecting the skin, peripheral nerves, and limbs. If untreated, it causes permanent tissue damage leading to autoamputations." |
| C84825 | "A contagious bacterial infection caused by spirochetes of the genus Leptospira. Humans are infected by contact with water and soil which have been contaminated with animal waste products. The signs and symptoms include an initial flu-like phase, followed by a second phase in which patients may develop meningitis, liver failure and renal failure." |
| C84826 | "A progressive form of dementia characterized by the presence of protein deposits called Lewy bodies in the midbrain and cerebral cortex, and loss of cholinergic and dopaminergic neurons. The signs and symptoms overlap with Alzheimer and Parkinson disease." |
| C84827 | "An autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by dysregulation of the amiloride-sensitive sodium channel. It is characterized by early onset hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, low plasma renin and hypoaldosteronism." |
| C84828 | A group of autosomal recessive and less frequently autosomal dominant muscular dystrophies affecting the muscles of the hips and shoulders. |
| C84829 | "A rare, autosomal recessive metabolic disorder characterized by hoarseness of voice, eyelid beading, skin lesions, and seizures." |
| C8482 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C84830 | "A very rare, autosomal dominant inherited neurodegenerative disorder. Signs and symptoms include ataxia, spasticity, and abnormalities in the ocular movements." |
| C84833 | "An inflammatory reaction characterized by the presence of papules or nodules usually in the genitourinary tract. It is usually a reaction to an infection. Morphologically, it consists of foamy histiocytes and characteristic basophilic inclusion bodies called Michaelis-Gutmann bodies." |
| C84834 | A group of neural cortical developmental malformations of diverse genetic causes. Clinical manifestations include epilepsy and developmental delays. |
| C84835 | "A rare disorder of unknown etiology. It may present as a cutaneous disorder with a benign clinical course or a systemic disorder with a grim prognosis. Both the cutaneous and systemic variants are characterized by the presence of papular skin lesions. The systemic variant, in addition to the skin papules, is characterized by gastrointestinal manifestations including abdominal pain and distention, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, intestinal infarction, and intestinal perforation. The central and ... |
| C8483 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8484 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8485 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C84869 | "A rare disorder characterized by rapid rise of the body temperature, accompanied by rhabdomyolysis and, if untreated, by collapse and death. It occurs in susceptible individuals who receive certain drugs for general anesthesia, gas anesthetics, or succinylcholine. It may be inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern." |
| C8486 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8487 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C84881 | A disorder characterized by upper gastrointestinal tract bleeding caused by longitudinal mucosal tears in the gastroesophageal junction. The tears result from retching or forceful coughing. It was initially described in alcoholics. |
| C84882 | "A parasitic infection caused by the nematode Mansonella. Signs and symptoms include pruritus, headache, fever, arthralgias, and eosinophilia." |
| C84883 | "A viral infectious disorder caused by Marburg virus. Signs and symptoms include fever, headache, myalgias, chest and abdominal pain, jaundice, liver failure, massive hemorrhaging, and multiple organ failure." |
| C84885 | "A rare progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and stroke-like episodes." |
| C84886 | "A rare syndrome characterized by recurrent facial nerve paralysis, edema of the lips and face, and furrowed tongue." |
| C84887 | "A very rare bone disorder characterized by thickening of the cortex in a linear pattern. Signs and symptoms include joint pain, joint swelling, limb deformity, and changes in the skin covering the bone lesion." |
| C84888 | A bacterial infection of the membranes covering the brain and the spinal cord caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. |
| C84889 | A condition that can be caused by mutation(s) in more than one mitochondrial gene. It is characterized by myoclonic epilepsy and ragged-red fibers present on muscle biopsy. |
| C8488 | The reemergence of indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma in adults after a period of remission. |
| C84890 | "A very rare autosomal recessive disorder of cholesterol biosynthesis. It is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme mevalonate kinase, resulting in the accumulation of mevalonic acid in the urine. Signs and symptoms include psychomotor retardation, ataxia, recurrent fevers, skin rash, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy." |
| C84891 | "A fungal infection caused by Microsporidia. It occurs in immunocompromised patients, causing diarrhea and wasting." |
| C84892 | "An autoimmune overlap syndrome characterized by the presence of symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus, systemic scleroderma, and polymyositis." |
| C84893 | A very rare congenital syndrome affecting the sixth and seventh cranial nerves. It is characterized by facial paralysis leading to lack of facial expression and the inability to move the eyes laterally. |
| C84894 | "A rare autosomal dominant inherited hair shaft disorder caused by mutations in certain cuticular type II keratin genes. It is characterized by the presence of thin, fragile hairs that appear beaded." |
| C84895 | "A rare inherited vascular disorder characterized by constriction of arteries at the base of the brain, resulting in the formation of collateral circulation in order to compensate for the constriction. The name ""moyamoya"" in Japanese means ""puff of smoke"" and derives from the characteristic radiographic appearance of the collateral vessels." |
| C84896 | An autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by mutations in the MCOLN1 gene. It is characterized by psychomotor developmental delays and ophthalmologic abnormalities. |
| C84897 | "A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by deficiency of the enzyme heparan sulfate sulfatase. It is characterized by behavioral changes, sleep disturbances, mental developmental delays and seizures." |
| C84898 | "A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by deficiency of the enzyme N-acetyl-alpha-D-glucosaminidase. It is characterized by behavioral changes, sleep disturbances, and mental developmental delays." |
| C84899 | "A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by deficiency of the enzyme acetyl-CoA:alpha-glucosaminide acetyltransferase. It is characterized by behavioral changes, sleep disturbances, and mental developmental delays." |
| C8489 | The reemergence of a mantle cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C84900 | "A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by deficiency of the enzyme N-acetylglucosamine-6-sulfatase. It is characterized by behavioral changes, sleep disturbances and mental developmental delays." |
| C84901 | A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by deficiency of the enzyme galactosamine-6-sulfatase. It is characterized by skeletal and central nervous system deficits. |
| C84902 | A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by deficiency of the enzyme beta galactosidase. It is characterized by skeletal dysplasia and short stature. |
| C84903 | "A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by deficiency of the enzyme beta-glucuronidase. It is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal deformities, enlarged head, and mental retardation." |
| C84904 | "A rare autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the FGFR3 gene. It is characterized by premature fusion of cranial bones, resulting in head shape abnormalities, flattened cheekbones, and wide-set eyes." |
| C84905 | "A usually autosomal dominant inherited neoplastic syndrome caused by mutations in the hMSH-2 and hMLH-1 genes. It is characterized by the presence of sebaceous skin tumors (adenoma or carcinoma), and internal organ malignant tumors, usually of the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract." |
| C84906 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the TRIM37 gene. It is characterized by marked growth retardation and abnormalities in multiple organs including heart, liver, muscle, eyes, and brain." |
| C84907 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the ETFA, ETFB, or ETFDH genes. It is characterized by deficiency of either electron transfer flavoprotein (ETF) or electron transfer flavoprotein dehydrogenase (ETFDH). Clinical presentations include congenital abnormalities (brain and facial malformations), hypotonia, dilated cardiomyopathy, hepatomegaly, metabolic acidosis, hypoglycemia, and behavioral changes." |
| C84908 | "A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by mutations in SUMF1 gene. It is characterized by deficiency of all sulfatase enzymes. Signs and symptoms include neurologic damage, mental retardation, skeletal abnormalities, hepatosplenomegaly, and ichthyosis." |
| C84909 | "A rare neurodegenerative disorder characterized by loss of autonomic nervous system functions and disturbances of motor, balance and muscle coordination." |
| C8490 | The reemergence of an aggressive adult non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C84910 | "A group of inherited progressive muscle disorders characterized by muscle weakness and eventual death of the muscle tissues. Examples include Duchenne muscular dystrophy, Becker's muscular dystrophy, Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy, facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy, and limb-girdle muscular dystrophy." |
| C84911 | A disorder characterized by involuntary and irregular muscle contractions not associated with muscle weakness or atrophy. It most often affects facial muscles. It may be localized or generalized. |
| C84912 | "A genetic congenital neuromuscular disorder affecting the skeletal muscles. It is caused by mutations in the chloride channel gene (CLCN1 gene). It is characterized by muscle stiffness, hypertrophy, pain, and cramping." |
| C84913 | "An inherited or acquired, localized or generalized disorder affecting the muscles. It may be associated with abnormalities in the chloride or sodium channels of the muscles. It is characterized by delayed muscle relaxation following stimulation or contraction. Representative examples include myotonia congenita and myotonic dystrophy." |
| C84914 | "An inherited progressive disorder affecting the muscles. It is characterized by muscle wasting and hypotonia, cataracts, heart conduction defects and endocrinopathies." |
| C84915 | "A fulminating disease of neonates in which there is extensive mucosal ulceration, pseudomembrane formation, submucosal hemorrhage, and necrosis usually of the right colon, cecum, terminal ileum, and appendix, possibly due to perinatal intestinal ischemia and bacterial invasion. Progression can lead to necrosis, perforation and/or scarring of the intestinal tract." |
| C84916 | "Infection of the deep skin and subcutaneous tissues and necrosis of the fascia. It is caused by bacteria including group A streptococcus, Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium perfringens. It may develop following trauma and invasive procedures." |
| C84917 | "A syndrome that develops following bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing syndrome. The signs and symptoms result from the presence of an adenocorticotropin-secreting pituitary gland adenoma, and include enlargement of the sella turcica and pressure on the adjacent structures, and skin hyperpigmentation." |
| C84918 | "Deposition of calcium in the renal parenchyma, resulting from high levels of calcium in the blood and/or urine." |
| C84919 | Diabetes insipidus caused by insensitivity of the kidneys to antidiuretic hormone. |
| C8491 | "An indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in adults.  Representative examples include small lymphocytic lymphoma, lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma/Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia, marginal zone B-cell lymphoma, and grade 1 and 2 follicular lymphoma." |
| C84920 | A rare disorder characterized by fibrosis of the skin and internal organs. It occurs in patients with renal failure who had imaging studies performed using gadolinium. |
| C84922 | A rare autosomal recessive form of ichthyosis caused by mutations in the SPINK5 gene. Patients have spiky and fragile hair. |
| C84923 | A congenital defect characterized by failure of the neural tube to close completely; this results in the presence of openings in the brain or spinal cord. Examples of neural tube defects include encephalocele and spina bifida. |
| C84926 | "A group of neurologic disorders associated with acanthocytosis on the peripheral blood smear. The neurologic disorders include movement disorders, ataxia, cognitive disturbances, personality changes, and seizures." |
| C84927 | "A rare autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disorder caused by mutations in the PLA2G6 gene. It is characterized by the development of swellings called spehroids along the axons of the central nervous system. Signs and symptoms appear early in life and include movement difficulties, muscle hypotonia and spasticity, and dementia." |
| C8492 | "An aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in adults.  Representative examples include Burkitt lymphoma, precursor B-lymphoblastic lymphoma, precursor T-lymphoblastic lymphoma, and adult T-cell lymphoma/leukemia." |
| C84932 | A parasitic infection with tapeworms of the genus Taenia affecting the brain. It is manifested with seizures and headaches. |
| C84933 | Diabetes insipidus caused by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone from the pituitary gland. |
| C84934 | "An autoimmune inflammatory syndrome characterized by optic neuritis and myelitis. Signs and symptoms include loss of vision, weakness and paralysis of the extremities, and loss of sensation." |
| C84935 | "Infection of the brain or spinal cord by Treponema pallidum. It occurs many years following the original infection which remained untreated. Signs and symptoms include abnormal gait, blindness, depression, paralysis, seizures and dementia." |
| C84937 | "An autosomal recessive metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the AMT and GLDC genes. It is characterized by abnormal accumulation of glycine in the brain and other tissues. Signs and symptoms include lethargy, feeding difficulties, hypotonia, intellectual deformities, and seizures." |
| C84938 | "A disorder characterized by bluish-black discoloration of the cartilaginous tissues due to accumulation of homogentisic acid. It is associated with alkaptonuria. Signs and symptoms include dark urine, skin pigmentation, and arthritis." |
| C84939 | A chronic autoimmune disorder that belongs to the mucous membrane pemphigoid disorders. It is characterized by bilateral scarring and opacification of the conjunctivae. It presents with pain and burning sensation in the eyes and photophobia. It leads to blindness. |
| C8493 | "An autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by deleterious mutations in the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes. Patients are at high risk of developing breast cancer, particularly before the age of fifty, high risk of developing a second primary breast cancer, and high risk of developing both breast and ovarian cancer." |
| C84940 | "An X-linked inherited multisystem metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the OCRL1 gene. The main manifestations of this disorder result from involvement of the eyes, nervous system and kidneys. Signs and symptoms include congenital cataracts, infantile glaucoma, intellectual disability, hypotonia, aminoaciduria and renal tubular dysfunction." |
| C84941 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations of the OCA2, SLC45A2, TYR and TYRP1 genes. It is characterized by hypopigmentation of the skin, hair, and eyes, resulting in very fair skin, white colored hair, and reduced pigmentation in the iris and retina. Individuals may have vision disturbances and photophobia." |
| C84942 | "An autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the PABPN1 gene, encoding polyadenylate-binding protein 2. The condition is characterized by progressive ptosis, dysphagia and weakness of the muscles of the face, neck, and extraocular muscles." |
| C84947 | "A group of sporadic and inherited neurodegenerative disorders affecting the cerebellum, pons, and inferior olives." |
| C8494 | "An autosomal dominant hereditary neoplastic syndrome characterized by the development of colorectal carcinoma and a high risk of developing endometrial carcinoma, gastric carcinoma, ovarian carcinoma, renal pelvis carcinoma, and small intestinal carcinoma. Patients often develop colorectal carcinomas at an early age (mean, 45 years). In the majority of the cases the lesions arise from the proximal colon. At the molecular level, high-frequency microsatellite instability is present." |
| C84950 | "A disorder characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve. Causes include autoimmune disorders, infections, toxins, drugs, and multiple sclerosis. It may manifest with acute loss of vision and pain." |
| C84957 | "An X-linked urea cycle metabolic disorder characterized by deficiency of ornithine carbamoyltransferase, resulting in the accumulation of amino acids and ammonia in the serum. Signs and symptoms include seizures, delayed growth, behavioral changes, ataxia, lethargy, and coma." |
| C8495 | "An inherited malignant tumor that originates in the nuclear layer of the retina. A predisposition to retinoblastoma has been associated with 13q14 cytogenetic abnormalities affecting the RB1 gene. Patients with the inherited form appear to be at increased risk for secondary non-ocular malignancies such as osteosarcoma, malignant fibrous histiocytoma, and fibrosarcoma." |
| C8496 | "Familial embryonal neoplasm derived from nephrogenic blastemal cells.  Several lines of differentiation, including blastemal, stromal and epithelial, are usually expressed.  Comprises approximately 1% of Wilms tumors.  (AFIP fascicle version 2.0)" |
| C84975 | "A disorder characterized by benign depositions of calcium in the posterior longitudinal ligament. Signs and symptoms result from the compression of nerve roots and include motor and sensory disturbances in the lower and upper extremities, and pain in the neck and arms." |
| C84978 | A term referring to disorders characterized by abnormalities in the development of bones and cartilage. |
| C8497 |  |
| C84985 | A rare autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the presence of small areas of increased density throughout the bones. |
| C84986 | "A rare genetic disorder caused by mutations in the KRT6A, KRT6B, KRT16, and KRT17 genes. It is characterized by hypertrophy and abnormalities in the shape of the fingernails and toe nails." |
| C84987 | "A very rare autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the GLI3 gene. It is characterized by a spectrum of abnormalities which include polydactyly, cutaneous syndactyly, bifid epiglottis, hypothalamic hamartoma, and laryngotracheal cleft." |
| C84988 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the PANK2 gene. It is characterized by abnormal accumulation of iron in the basal ganglia. Signs and symptoms include progressive motor disturbances, muscle spasm and rigidity, dysarthria, mental deterioration, and behavioral changes." |
| C84989 | "A disorder characterized by inflammation of the entire uvea which includes the iris, ciliary body, and choroid. Causes include systemic infections, sarcoidosis, and cancers." |
| C8498 | "A melanoma defined by the presence of multiple cases of cutaneous melanoma among blood-relatives on the same side of the family.  It is caused by germline mutations in the CDKN2A or CDK4 genes.  It is associated with an increased risk of pancreatic cancer in a subset of CDKN2A families (WHO, 2006)." |
| C84992 | A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the cathepsin C gene. It is manifested with periodontitis resulting in the premature loss of teeth and palmoplantar keratoderma. |
| C84995 | A parasitic infection caused by trematodes of the Paragonimus genus. Humans are infected from ingestion of raw or undercooked food. It results in chronic lung infection and eosinophilia. |
| C85002 | "An autosomal dominant inherited condition caused by mutations in the lamin B receptor gene. It is characterized by defects in the neutrophil lobulation, resulting in the presence of dumbbell-shaped neutrophils with bilobed nuclei in the peripheral blood smear." |
| C85003 | "An autoimmune bullous dermatitis that develops during pregnancy, most often during the second and third trimesters." |
| C85004 | A disorder characterized by chronic inflammation and fibrosis of the adipose tissues in the peritoneal cavity. |
| C85005 | "A group of congenital disorders of lipid metabolism, caused by loss of the normal peroxisomes. Signs and symptoms include developmental delays, mental retardation, facial abnormalities, hepatomegaly, and hypotonia." |
| C85006 | A cardiopulmonary disorder characterized by systemic arterial hypoxemia secondary to pulmonary hypertension and extrapulmonary right to left shunting across the foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus. |
| C85008 | A rare neurodegenerative disorder leading to dementia. It is characterized by frontotemporal lobar degeneration with accumulation of tau proteins which form Pick bodies. |
| C85009 | "A rare, autosomal dominant disorder caused usually by mutations in the KIT gene. It is characterized by abnormalities in the development of melanocytes. It presents with multiple symmetrical hypopigmented or depigmented patches of skin and a midline patch of white hair." |
| C8500 | A carcinoma that affects both sides of an organ in a simultaneous or non-simultaneous manner. |
| C85010 | "A rare congenital malformation characterized by micrognathia, posterior retraction of the tongue, and cleft palate." |
| C85011 | "An endemic bacterial infection caused by Treponema carateum. It is manifested with chronic cutaneous lesions. The early lesions consist of papules and erythematous plaques. The late lesions consist of hypochromic, achromic, hyperpigmented and atrophic lesions. The late skin lesions may cause destruction of bones and cartilage and produce disfiguring changes." |
| C85012 | "A condition referring to irritation or compression of the proximal sciatic nerve, secondary to contraction of the piriformis muscle. It results in pain in the hip or the back of the leg mimicking disk-related sciatica." |
| C85013 | "A rare cutaneous disorder of unknown etiology that can present either as an acute condition, with multiple papular lesions which become vesicular and necrotic (pityriasis lichenoides et varioliformis acuta) or chronic, with small, scaling papules (pityriasis lichenoides chronica)." |
| C85014 | "A rare cutaneous disorder of unknown etiology characterized by the presence of reddish-orange scaly plaques, palmoplantar keratoderma, keratotic follicular papules, and confluent erythematous areas with areas of normal skin between the lesions." |
| C85015 | "A Gram-negative bacterial infection caused by Yersinia pestis. It is usually transmitted to humans from bites of infected rodent fleas. It is manifested as a bubonic, septicemic, or pneumonic plague. In bubonic plague, the lymph nodes adjacent to the site of the skin bite are infected and enlarged. In septicemic plague, the infection spreads directly through the bloodstream. In pneumonic plague, the infection spreads to the lungs either following bubonic plague, or by inhalation of infectiv... |
| C85016 | "A syndrome characterized by dysphagia, upper esophageal webs, iron deficiency anemia, and glossitis." |
| C85017 | "A rare developmental disorder characterized by underdevelopment or absence of the pectoralis muscle in one side of the chest, usually associated with ipsilateral cutaneous syndactyly, and ipsilateral breast and nipple hypoplasia." |
| C85018 | "A syndrome characterized by pain, stiffness, and tenderness of the proximal muscle groups including the shoulder, pelvic girdle and the neck. There is no muscle atrophy and muscle biopsies do not reveal pathologic changes. Additional signs and symptoms include low grade fever, fatigue and depression." |
| C85019 | A clonal proliferation of abnormal keratinocytes characterized by the development of localized or multiple atrophic skin patches surrounded by an annular keratotic ring called cornoid lamella. |
| C8501 | A glioma that arises from the brain stem. |
| C85020 | "A syndrome characterized by orthostatic intolerance resulting in tachycardia, often accompanied by a decrease in the blood pressure. It occurs when individuals change from the supine position to an upright position. Other signs and symptoms include lightheadedness, fainting, fatigue and muscle weakness." |
| C85021 | "A systolic blood pressure of 140 mmHg or higher, or a diastolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hours apart (or greater than or equal to 160/110 mmHg within a short interval) after 20 weeks of gestation in a woman with previously normal blood pressure. It may present with proteinuria but if not, it may be associated with thrombocytopenia, impaired liver function, progressive renal insufficiency, pulmonary edema, or new-onset cerebral or visual disturbances." |
| C85023 | "A rare disorder characterized by hypertrophy of the bones of the distal extremities, periostosis of the tubular bones, digital clubbing, and skin changes including coarse facial features, acne, and hyperhydrosis." |
| C85024 | A rare neurologic progressive disorder characterized by impairment of the language and speech abilities. |
| C85025 | A rare neurologic progressive disorder characterized by impairment of the production of speech. |
| C85026 | "A progressive motor neuron disorder affecting the muscles which are innervated by cranial nerves of the lower brain stem. Signs and symptoms include difficulties in chewing and swallowing, dysarthria, and weakness of the facial muscles and tongue." |
| C85027 | "A rare, milder form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. It is characterized by a slowly progressive clinical course. Signs and symptoms include muscle weakness, atrophy, and fasciculation." |
| C85028 | A rare neurodegenerative disorder characterized by gait and balance difficulties and loss of coordination of eye movements. |
| C85029 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited inborn error of metabolism caused by mutations in the PEPD gene. Signs and symptoms include facial abnormalities, mental retardation, skin ulcers, susceptibility to infections, and skeletal abnormalities." |
| C8502 | "This is an invalid term; lymphoblastic lymphomas are not chronic processes, but counterparts of acute lymphoblastic leukemias." |
| C85030 | "A rare autosomal inherited organic acid disorder caused by mutations in the PCCA and PCCB genes. It results in the accumulation of harmful organic acids in the blood and urine. Signs and symptoms appear in infancy and include vomiting, poor feeding, loss of appetite, hypotonia, and lethargy." |
| C85031 | Impaired ability to recognize other human faces in the absence of a vision disorder. It may be a congenital disorder or the result of brain injury. |
| C85032 | "A very rare congenital disorder characterized by the development of multiple cutaneous and subcutaneous lesions including lipomas, nevi, and vascular malformations, associated with partial gigantism or digital overgrowth." |
| C85033 | "A rare congenital syndrome occurring almost exclusively in males. It is characterized by partial or complete lack of the abdominal wall muscles, enlarged bladder, dilated ureters, hydronephrosis, and undescended testes." |
| C85034 | "An inherited or acquired disorder of electrolyte metabolism, characterized by the inability of the renal tubules to respond to aldosterone. It is manifested by hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis, urinary salt wasting, normal or increased aldosterone secretion and normal glomerular filtration rate." |
| C85035 | An idiopathic disorder characterized by chronic increase in the intracranial pressure. It occurs predominantly in obese females of childbearing age. It is associated with papilledema. |
| C85036 | "A rare, progressive, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the ABCC6 gene. It is characterized by calcification and fragmentation of the elastic fibers of the skin, retina, and cardiovascular system. Signs and symptoms include skin plaques and bumps, thickened skin, retinal hemorrhage and obstruction of the blood vessels." |
| C85037 | "A rare lung disorder characterized by the filling of the pulmonary alveoli with proteinaceous material which stains positive with periodic acid-Schiff stain. It may be idiopathic or secondary due to hematologic malignancies or the inhalation of mineral dusts. Signs and symptoms include dyspnea, cough and low grade fever." |
| C85039 | "A disorder characterized by pulmonary venous constriction or occlusion, resulting in pulmonary hypertension." |
| C85040 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the PC gene. It results in the accumulation of lactic acid and other toxic substances in the blood. Signs and symptoms appear early in life and include failure to thrive, mental and growth retardation, motor disturbances, seizures, and lactic acidosis." |
| C85041 | Epilepsy triggered by an external stimulus or an internal mental process. Photosensitive epilepsy is the most common form of reflex epilepsy. |
| C85042 | "A neurologic condition characterized by burning pain, tenderness, swelling, and changes in the skin color and temperature of a body part or extremity that has no identifiable nerve injury; most pediatric patients present with this form." |
| C85043 | "A rare autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the PHYH gene, encoding phytanoyl-CoA dioxygenase, peroxisomal. It is characterized by abnormalities in the breakdown of phytanic acid and impaired growth of myelin sheaths. Signs and symptoms include neurologic damage, cerebellar degeneration, and neuropathy." |
| C85045 | "A rare inherited retinal dystrophy disorder characterized by spots of black bone-spicule pigmentation of the retinal pigment epithelium. It is manifested with decreased vision in low light or in the night, followed by decreased peripheral vision, and, eventual decreased central vision. It may lead to blindness." |
| C85046 | An inherited or acquired disorder characterized by splitting of the retina into two layers. It results in loss of vision. |
| C85047 | "An autosomal recessive inherited peroxisomal disorder caused by mutations in the PEX7, DHAPAT, and AGP genes. It is characterized by short limbs, bones and cartilage abnormalities, congenital cataracts, and severe mental retardation." |
| C85048 | "A rare autosomal recessive or dominant inherited disorder. The autosomal recessive form is caused by mutations in the ROR2 gene. There is no causative mutation identified for the autosomal dominant form. It is manifested with short limbs, abnormal facial features, underdeveloped genitalia, and wedge-shaped vertebrae." |
| C85049 | "An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the KCNQ1 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily KQT member 1. It is characterized by a prolonged QT interval that may result in torsade de pointes, ventricular fibrillation and/or sudden cardiac death." |
| C8504 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma with an indolent clinical course. |
| C85051 | "A viral infection caused by the rubella virus. It is initially manifested with flu-like symptoms that last one or two days, followed by the development of a characteristic red rash which lasts from one to five days. The rash first appears in the neck and face. It subsequently spreads to the rest of the body." |
| C85052 | "An autosomal recessive inherited lysosomal storage disorder caused by mutations in the HEXB gene. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase, resulting in the accumulation of gangliosides in the central nervous system and other body tissues. Signs and symptoms include progressive motor and mental deterioration, early blindness, macrocephaly, seizures, and hepatosplenomegaly." |
| C85053 | The most common type of mucopolysaccharidosis. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. It comprises a group of lysosomal storage diseases which includes the most severe form (Hurler syndrome) and the mildest form (Scheie syndrome). |
| C85055 | An inherited or acquired dental abnormality characterized by improper alignment of the teeth. |
| C85056 | A rare congenital cardiopulmonary defect characterized by abnormal right-sided pulmonary venous drainage and right lung malformations. |
| C85057 | "A usually benign and self-limited skin disorder of unknown etiology, characterized by induration of the skin. It may be associated with infection, diabetes mellitus, and hematologic malignancies. Morphologically, there is deposition of mucin in the dermis." |
| C85059 | "A condition that results from excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development, resulting in tooth discoloration ranging from white streaks to brown stains and cracks or pits in the tooth enamel." |
| C8505 | "Cancer that has spread beyond the layer of tissue in which it developed and is growing into surrounding, healthy tissues." |
| C85061 | "A rare chronic and progressive skin disorder characterized by mucin deposition in the skin, resulting in the thickening and hardening of the skin, predominantly in the face, fingers, and extremities." |
| C85062 | "A rare, inherited or acquired syndrome characterized by the presence of histiocytes in the bone marrow which contain granules stained blue with hematoxylin-eosin stain, mild thrombocytopenia and purpura, and splenomegaly." |
| C85063 | "A very rare congenital syndrome characterized by hypoplasia of the optic nerve, impaired vision, absence of the septum pellucidum and hypopituitarism." |
| C85064 | "A viral respiratory infection caused by the SARS coronavirus. It is transmitted through close person-to-person contact. It is manifested with high fever, headache, dry cough and myalgias. It may progress to pneumonia and cause death." |
| C85065 | "A rare congenital lethal syndrome characterized by the presence of extra fingers and toes and short ribs, the latter resulting in inability of the lungs to expand. The newborn dies shortly after birth." |
| C85067 | "A rare, autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by mutations in the SLC17A5 gene. It primarily affects the nervous system. Signs and symptoms include developmental delay, intellectual disability, hypotonia, failure to thrive, seizures, and ataxia." |
| C85068 | "A rare inherited growth disorder characterized by growth retardation, feeding difficulties, failure to thrive, facial abnormalities and asymmetry of limbs. Camptodactyly or clinodactyly may be present." |
| C8506 | A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the leptomeninges. |
| C85070 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ALDH3A2 gene, encoding fatty aldehyde dehydrogenase. It is a characterized by dry and scaly skin, neurological dysfunction and mild to moderate intellectual disability." |
| C85071 | "A rare, autosomal recessive syndrome caused by mutations in the DHCR7 gene. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme 3 beta-hydroxysterol-delta 7-reductase resulting in defects in the cholesterol synthesis. It is manifested with multiple congenital malformations, including facial abnormalities, microcephaly, and syndactyly. Behavioral abnormalities may also be present." |
| C85072 | "A rare movement disorder of unknown etiology, characterized by painful, involuntary turns of the head to the right, left, upwards, or downwards." |
| C85073 | A rare syndrome characterized by deficiency of specific antibodies to polysaccharide antigens while the specific antibodies to protein antigens are normal. |
| C85074 | "A hereditary or acquired blood disorder characterized by the presence of smaller than normal, sphere-shaped erythrocytes. It results in hemolytic anemia and splenomegaly." |
| C85075 | "An inherited disorder characterized by degeneration of the spinal cord and the cerebellum. Symptoms may appear at any age and include progressive loss of coordination of gait, hands, speech, and eye movements." |
| C85076 | "A group of congenital neurodegenerative disorders affecting motor neurons, resulting in muscle weakness and atrophy in childhood. Signs and symptoms include hypotonia, difficulty breathing, poor feeding, and flaccid quadriplegia." |
| C85077 | "A blistering skin disorder caused by exfoliative toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus infection. The toxins cause the formation of bullae and diffuse skin desquamation. The lesions may be localized or generalized, far away from the initial site of infection." |
| C85078 | An autosomal recessive and rarely autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the ABCA4 or ELOVL4 genes respectively. It is characterized by macular degeneration that begins in late childhood resulting in progressive loss of vision. |
| C85079 | A life-threatening situation in which the brain is in a continuous state of seizure. |
| C8509 | A tumor at the original site of origin. |
| C8511 | A carcinoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C8513 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8514 | "Stage Group II is subdivided into IIA and IIB on the basis of whether the primary tumor is T3 or T4, respectively.  T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa, or into non-peritonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues.  T4: Tumor directly invades other organs or structures, and/or perforates visceral peritoneum. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C8515 | "Stage Group III is subdivided into IIIA (T1-2, N1, M0), IIIB (T3-4, N1, M0) or IIIC (any T, N2 M0).  T1: Tumor invades the submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or into non-peritonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues.  T4: Tumor directly invades other organs or structures, and/or perforates visceral peritoneum.  N1: Metastasis in 1 to 3 regional lymph nodes N2: Metastasis in 4 or more regional lymph nodes.  ... |
| C8516 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C85170 | A rare neurologic disorder characterized by muscle rigidity. It usually affects the axial muscles and eventually extends to the proximal limb muscles. It is associated with muscle spasms which may lead to muscle damage and fractures. |
| C85171 | "A rare, slowly progressive post-infectious neurological disorder affecting the central nervous system. It is characterized by seizures, ataxia, myoclonus, personality changes, spasticity, and coma. The symptoms appear several years following measles infection at an early age." |
| C85174 | "A rare disorder characterized by episodes of short-lasting pain in one eye or one side of the head. The pain attacks are associated with watery eyes, swelling of the eyelids, sweaty forehead, and nasal congestion." |
| C85175 | "A very rare syndrome characterized by compression of the third portion of the duodenum against the aorta. The compression is caused by the superior mesenteric artery. It results in complete or partial duodenal obstruction. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and distention, failure to gain weight, and weight loss." |
| C85177 | "A rare syndrome characterized by fever, skin papules and plaques, and leukocytosis. Morphologically, the skin lesions show neutrophilic infiltrates and dermal edema. It may occur in the absence of underlying conditions. It may also be associated with the presence of cancer or may be a side effect of medications." |
| C85178 | A rare syndrome characterized by the presence of a small lung as a result of unilateral post-infectious bronchiolitis obliterans. |
| C85179 | "A rare disorder characterized by the formation of a cyst in the spinal cord. It results in weakness, pain, and stiffness in the shoulders, arms, legs, or back. It may be associated with Chiari malformation. Other causes include spinal cord injury, inflammation, or tumor." |
| C8517 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE) (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). |
| C85180 | "A parasitic infection caused by tapeworms of the genus Taenia. Humans are infected by eating undercooked or raw meat of infected animals. It is usually an asymptomatic infection and patients may become aware of the infection by noticing segments of the tapeworm in their feces. If symptoms are present, they include nausea, abdominal pain, indigestion, constipation, or diarrhea." |
| C85181 | "A rare disorder characterized by transient left ventricular wall systolic dysfunction, resulting in apical ballooning appearance, chest pain, and ST segment elevation." |
| C85182 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder of cholesterol transport, resulting in severe reduction of the amount of high density lipoprotein in the plasma and accumulation of cholesterol esters in the tissues. Signs and symptoms include large tonsils, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and hypocholesterolemia." |
| C85183 | "A syndrome resulting from the entrapment and compression of the tibial nerve. Signs and symptoms include burning sensation, tingling, and pain in the foot sole." |
| C85184 | "A rare, fatal, autosomal recessive lipid storage disorder caused by mutations in the HEXA gene. It is characterized by deficiency of beta-hexosaminidase A, resulting in accumulation of gangliosides in the neurons of the brain and spinal cord. Signs and symptoms include progressive deterioration of the mental and physical abilities early in life, accompanied by blindness, deafness, muscle atrophy, and paralysis." |
| C85185 | "A serious infectious disorder that follows wound contamination by the Gram-positive bacterium Clostridium tetani. The bacteria produce a neurotoxin called tetanospasmin, which causes muscle spasm in the jaw and other anatomic sites." |
| C85186 | "A disorder of the thalamus. Causes include brain neoplasms, cerebrovascular disorders, brain trauma, brain hypoxia, infections, and brain hemorrhage. Signs and symptoms include movement and sensory abnormalities, visual abnormalities, ataxia, and coma." |
| C85187 | "A severe autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the FGFR3 gene. It is characterized by multiple skeletal abnormalities, including extremely short limbs. It results in the death of the neonate." |
| C85188 | "A syndrome resulting from the compression of the blood vessels or nerves in the space between the clavicle and first rib (thoracic outlet). It is caused by car accident injuries or repetitive job or sport-related injuries. Signs and symptoms include pain in the shoulders and neck, numbness in the fingers, and weakening grip." |
| C8518 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C85190 | "A congenital condition characterized by hypoplasia, absence, or ectopic position of the thyroid gland. It is manifested with congenital hypoparathyroidism." |
| C85191 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder usually caused by mutations in the THRB gene. It is characterized by a defective physiological resistance to thyroid hormones, resulting in the elevation of thyroxin and triiodothyronine in the serum." |
| C85192 | "A viral infection caused by any of the arboviruses of the Togaviridae family. It is transmitted by arthropods. Signs and symptoms include fever, headache, nausea, vomiting, rash, confusion, and seizures." |
| C85193 | A disorder characterized by unilateral acute orbital pain associated with muscle weakness or paralysis of the orbital muscles. It is caused by non-specific inflammation of the cavernous sinus or superior orbital fissure. |
| C85194 | "A parasitic infection caused by Toxocara. Humans are infected by the larvae of Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati from dogs and cats respectively. Most cases remain asymptomatic. The parasites may affect the eye, causing diminished vision, or other major organs, causing hepatomegaly, eosinophilia, wheezing, and coughing." |
| C85195 | A rare congenital or acquired disorder characterized by excessive collapsibility of the trachea and major bronchi resulting in breathing problems. It is caused by damage to the tracheobronchial cartilage. |
| C85196 | "A rare syndrome of unknown etiology, characterized by marked dilatation of the lumen of the trachea and the main bronchi. It results in bronchiectasis and recurrent lung infections." |
| C85197 | A sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative spirochete Treponema pallidum. It is manifested as syphilis. |
| C85198 | "A condition characterized by sudden, temporary, usually short-lived memory loss, not associated with a neurologic disorder. Affected individuals lose memory function for recent events and have a decreased ability to retain new information. It is usually a solitary event." |
| C85199 | "A parasitic infection caused by larvae of worms of the genus Trichinella. It is transmitted to humans by ingesting raw or undercooked meat from infected animals. Signs and symptoms include abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting, fever, diarrhea, headache, coughing, myalgias, arthralgias, and eye swelling." |
| C8519 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C85202 | A congenital heart defect characterized by the complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve. Cyanosis is the predominant clinical symptom. |
| C85203 | "A painful hand deformity affecting the fingers. It is due to damage of the finger flexor tendons, causing the finger to remain in a locked position." |
| C85204 | A very rare congenital syndrome characterized by the presence of three haploid sets of chromosomes. The surviving infants have multiple severe birth defects. |
| C85207 | A rare condition characterized by the unequivocal presence of both testicular and ovarian tissues in an individual. It is usually manifested with ambiguous external genitalia. |
| C85208 | "A serious Gram-negative bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. It is transmitted to humans through bites from infected insects, inhaling airborne bacteria, handling infected animals, or consuming contaminated food or water. Signs and symptoms include skin ulcers, mouth sores, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, fever and pneumonia." |
| C8520 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C85210 | "A gonadal dysgenesis syndrome occurring in phenotypic females, characterized by the complete absence of one of the sex chromosomes. Signs and symptoms include short stature and hypogonadism." |
| C85213 | "The most severe form of von Willebrand disease, inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. It is characterized by marked deficiency or absence of von Willebrand factor in the plasma and platelets, and low plasma levels of factor VIII. It may cause severe bleeding." |
| C85214 | "An autosomal recessive inherited lysosomal storage disease caused by mutations in the NPC1 and NPC2 genes. It is characterized by progressive neurologic deterioration manifested with ataxia, dementia, seizures, and dystonia. Other signs and symptoms include hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, and respiratory failure." |
| C85215 | A condition characterized by the inheritance of a chromosome pair from one parent and no chromosomal copies from the other parent. It results in developmental abnormalities or rare recessive disorders. Examples of uniparental disomy include the Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome. |
| C85217 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the CDH23, CLRN1, GPR98, MYO7A, PCDH15, USH1C, USH1G, and USH2A genes. It is characterized by hearing loss or deafness and progressive loss of vision. The loss of vision is the result of retinitis pigmentosa." |
| C85218 | "A systemic inflammatory process affecting the inner ear, eyes, skin, and meninges. It is manifested with hearing disorders, panuveitis, alopecia, poliosis, vitiligo, neck stiffness, headaches, and focal neurologic signs." |
| C85219 | "An autosomal dominant disorder of porphyria-heme metabolism. It is manifested with acute attacks including abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, seizures, anxiety, and confusion. Patients may experience skin sensitivity to sunlight." |
| C8521 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). The number of regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3)." |
| C85220 | "Deficiency of vitamin A due to malnutrition, malabsorption, or dietary lack. It is manifested with reduced night vision, night blindness, and xerophthalmia." |
| C85221 | "Deficiency of vitamin B6. It is usually caused by alcoholism, malabsorption, or as a side effect of medications. Signs and symptoms include stomatitis, glossitis, dermatitis, peripheral neuropathy, irritability, seizures, and anemia." |
| C85222 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the PAX3, MITF, and SNAI2 genes. Signs and symptoms include hearing loss, dystopia canthorum (widely spaced inner corners of the eyes), and changes in the color of the skin, hair, and eyes." |
| C85224 | "A condition characterized by an abnormal spleen position due to loss, weakness, or malformation of one or more of the ligaments that hold the spleen in its normal position in the left upper abdomen. It may present as a birth defect or follow injuries or pregnancy. Signs and symptoms include abdominal discomfort and splenomegaly." |
| C85225 | "A serious disorder characterized by massive adrenal gland hemorrhage secondary to a bacterial infection, most often Neisseria meningitidis infection. It is manifested with decreased blood pressure, shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and adrenocortical insufficiency." |
| C85226 | "A rare, autosomal recessive or dominant inherited connective tissue disorder. The autosomal recessive variant is caused by mutations in the ADAMTS10 gene. It is characterized by abnormalities in the lens of the eye, short stature, brachydactyly, and joint stiffness." |
| C85227 | "A mosquito-born viral infection caused by the Western equine encephalitis virus. The signs and symptoms range from flu-like illness to permanent central nervous system damage, coma, and death." |
| C85228 | "A systemic infection caused by the Gram-positive bacterium Tropheryma whipplei. It affects the small intestine resulting in malabsorption. Other sites or systems affected by the infection are the joints, central nervous system, and the cardiovascular system." |
| C8522 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C85231 | "A contagious bacterial respiratory infection caused by Bordetella pertussis. It is characterized by severe and uncontrollable cough, resulting in a whooping sound during breathing following the cough." |
| C85232 | "A rare syndrome caused by multiple gene deletions from a region of chromosome 7, including the deletion of CLIP2, ELN, GTF2I, GTF2IRD1 and LIMK1 genes. It is characterized by distinctive facial appearance (elfin facies), mild-to-moderate mental retardation, cheerfulness, cardiovascular abnormalities and infantile hypercalcemia." |
| C85233 | "A rare, slowly progressive degenerative disorder affecting males. It is caused by mutations in the androgen receptor (AR) gene. It is characterized by bulbar and limb muscle weakness and atrophy, and gynecomastia." |
| C85234 | "An X-linked dominant disorder caused by mutations in the PHEX gene. It is characterized by growth retardation, osteomalacia, hypophosphatemia, and defects in the renal reabsorption of phosphorus." |
| C85236 | "Rare syndromes caused by chromosomal defects and characterized by the presence of multiple X chromosomes and one Y chromosome. Signs and symptoms include short stature, mental retardation, hypogonadism, undescended testes, gynecomastia, and hypotonia." |
| C85237 | "A condition caused by the presence of an extra Y chromosome resulting in 47,XYY karyotype in an individual with male phenotype. The condition is characterized by tall stature, increased risk of learning disabilities, and delayed development of speech and language. Testicular function and size are normal." |
| C85238 | "A rare syndrome characterized by the presence of thickened yellow nails, lymphedema, and respiratory abnormalities, including pleural effusion, bronchiectasis, chronic sinusitis, and persistent cough. Some cases are associated with mutations in the FOXC2 gene." |
| C85239 | "A rare group of autosomal recessive inherited disorders characterized by the reduction or absence of peroxisomes in the tissues. Signs and symptoms include increased levels of iron and copper in the blood and tissues, hepatomegaly, facial abnormalities, mental retardation, seizures, and hypotonia." |
| C8523 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8524 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C8525 | "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the sebaceous gland and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8527 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the sternum from another anatomic site. |
| C8528 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the neck region from a malignancy in a local or distant anatomic site. |
| C8529 | "A neoplasm that arises from the chest wall and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8530 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the structures of the chest wall from another primary anatomic site. |
| C8531 | "A neoplasm that arises from the respiratory system and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8532 | "A neoplasm that arises from the paranasal sinuses and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include Schneiderian papilloma and salivary gland-type adenoma." |
| C8533 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4a: Tumor invades thyroid/cricoid cartilage, hyoid bone, thyroid gland, esophagus, or central compartment soft tissue.  T4b: Tumor invades prevertebral fascia, encases carotid artery, or involves mediastinal structures.  N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more than 3cm but not more than 6cm in greatest ... |
| C8535 | "A neoplasm that arises from the inner layer of pericardium and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8536 | "A neoplasm that arises from the pericardium and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8537 | A benign neoplasm arising from arteries or veins. |
| C8538 | A malignant neoplasm arising from the blood vessels. |
| C8539 | "A neoplasm that arises from the great vessels and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8540 | A hemangioma arising from the subcutaneous tissues. |
| C8541 | A hemangioma arising from the spleen. |
| C8542 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the lip from another anatomic site. |
| C8543 | "A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the pancreas from another anatomic site.  Representative examples include metastatic carcinomas from the gastrointestinal tract, metastatic melanomas, and renal cell carcinomas." |
| C8544 | A malignant neoplasm that has metastasized to the epididymis from another anatomic site. |
| C8545 | "A neoplasm that arises from the placenta and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8546 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the placenta from another anatomic site. |
| C8547 | "The spread of a malignant neoplasm to the nervous system.  This may be from a primary nervous system malignant neoplasm, or from a malignant neoplasm at a distant site." |
| C8548 | "A neoplasm that arises from the cerebrum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C85490 | An irrational fear of being in a confined space. |
| C8549 | "A neoplasm that arises from the brain stem and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C85505 | A chronic granulomatous inflammation involving the deep dermis and the subcutaneous tissues. It is caused by fungi and actinomycetes. |
| C8550 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread from its original site of growth to the brain stem. |
| C8553 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the ciliary body from another anatomic site. |
| C8554 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the choroid from another anatomic site. |
| C8555 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the retina from another anatomic site. |
| C8556 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the orbit from another anatomic site. |
| C8557 | "A malignant neoplasm either directly extending to the parathyroid glands from adjacent anatomic structures, or spreading to the parathyroid glands from distant anatomic sites, most frequently breast, lung, kidney, soft tissues, and skin." |
| C8559 | "A paraganglioma that metastasizes to regional or distant anatomic sites.  Extraadrenal paragangliomas have a higher tendency to metastasize, as compared to pheochromocytomas.  Common sites of metastasis include the lymph nodes, lungs, bones, and liver." |
| C8561 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the male reproductive system.  Representative examples include prostate carcinoma, penile carcinoma, testicular seminoma, and testicular embryonal carcinoma." |
| C8562 | A melanoma that arises from the structures of the eye or ocular adnexa. |
| C8563 | "A rare, high-grade pleomorphic malignant neoplasm arising from the bone.  It usually presents with pain which may or may not be associated with swelling in the affected area.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped cells, polygonal or epithelioid cells, multinucleated giant cells, and inflammatory cells.  The neoplastic cells exhibit nuclear pleomorphism and high mitotic activity.  It metastasizes frequently, most often in the lungs." |
| C8564 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C8565 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C8566 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to other regions from an unknown primary anatomic site. |
| C8567 | A glioma that arises from the visual pathway. This condition can be seen in association with neurofibromatosis 1. It is most commonly seen in the pediatric age group. |
| C8568 | A neoplasm of the choroid plexus occurring in adults. |
| C8569 |  |
| C8570 |  |
| C8571 |  |
| C8572 |  |
| C8573 |  |
| C8574 | "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by bi-cytopenia or pancytopenia and dysplastic changes in 10% or more of the cells in two or more of the myeloid cell lines. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C8575 |  |
| C8576 | A malignant neoplasm that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C8577 | A carcinoma that arises from the cervix and invades into the stromal tissue. |
| C8578 | An ependymoma that arises from the central nervous system and occurs during childhood. |
| C8579 | The reemergence of ependymoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C8580 | "Stage IB includes: (T2a, N0, M0, G1, GX); (T2b, N0, M0, G1, GX).  T2a: Superficial tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T2b: Deep tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Grade 1.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8581 | "Stage IIA includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G2, G3); (T1b, N0, M0, G2, G3).  T1a: Superficial tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1b: Deep tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G2: Grade 2.  G3: Grade 3. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8582 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2a, N0, M0, G2); (T2b, N0, M0, G2).  T2a: Superficial tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T2b: Deep tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G2: Grade 2.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C85835 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension.  T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis.  M0 includes M0(i+).  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C85836 | "Stage IB includes: (T0, N1mi, M0); (T1, N1mi, M0).  T0: No evidence of primary tumor.  T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension.  T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension.  N1mi: Nodal micrometastases.  M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis.  M0 includes M0(i+).  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C8583 | "Stage IA includes: (T1a, N0, M0, G1, GX); (T1b, N0, M0, G1, GX).  T1a: Superficial tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1b: Deep tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Grade 1.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8584 |  |
| C8585 | "Stage III includes: (T2a, T2b, N0, M0, G3); (Any T, N1, M0, Any G).  T2a: Superficial tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  T2b: Deep tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Grade 3.  There is no T2a for the pathologic group. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C85861 | "A condition associated with mutation(s) in the PPT1 gene, encoding palmitoyl-protein thioesterase 1. The condition is one of a group of genetically heterogeneous neurodegenerative disorders, characterized by accumulation of intracellular lipopigments." |
| C85864 | "A condition associated with mutation(s) in the TPP1 gene, encoding tripeptidyl-peptidase- 1. The condition is one of a group of genetically heterogeneous neurodegenerative disorders, characterized by accumulation of intracellular lipopigments." |
| C85865 | An inherited disorder affecting mostly males. It results from defective genes that are present on the X chromosome. |
| C85866 | An inherited disorder manifested only when two copies of a mutated gene are present. |
| C8586 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1, Any G.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C85874 | A congenital or acquired developmental disorder in which the circumference of the head is smaller than normal for the person's age and sex. |
| C8587 | A polyp with severe dysplastic features. |
| C85887 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: In situ primary tumor.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C85889 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1, pN0, M0) and IB: (T1, cN0, M0).  T1: Primary tumor equal or less than 2 cm in size.  pN0: No regional lymph node metastasis by pathologic examination.  cN0: No regional lymph node metastasis by clinical examination.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C8588 | A germ cell tumor that arises from the ovary and occurs in children. |
| C85890 | "Stage IA includes: T1, pN0, M0.  T1: Primary tumor equal or less than 2 cm in size.  pN0: No regional lymph node metastasis by pathologic examination.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C85892 | "Stage IB includes: T1, cN0, M0.  T1: Primary tumor equal or less than 2 cm in size.  cN0: No regional lymph node metastasis by clinical examination.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C85893 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2/T3, pN0, M0), IIB: (T2/T3, cN0, M0), and IIC: (T4, N0, M0).  T2: Primary tumor greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in maximum dimension.  T3: Primary tumor over 5 cm in maximum dimension.  T4: Primary tumor invades bone, muscle, fascia, or cartilage.  pN0: No regional lymph node metastasis by pathologic examination.  cN0: No regional lymph node metastasis by clinical examination.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ... |
| C85894 | "Stage IIA includes: T2/T3, pN0, M0.  T2: Primary tumor greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in maximum dimension.  T3: Primary tumor over 5 cm in maximum dimension.  pN0: No regional lymph node metastasis by pathologic examination.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C85895 | "Stage IIB includes: T2/T3, cN0, M0.  T2: Primary tumor greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in maximum dimension.  T3: Primary tumor over 5 cm in maximum dimension.  cN0: No regional lymph node metastasis by clinical examination.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C85896 | "Stage IIC includes: T4, N0, M0.  T4: Primary tumor invades bone, muscle, fascia, or cartilage.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C85897 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (Any T, N1a, M0) and IIIB: (Any T, N1b/N2, M0).  N1a: Micrometastasis in regional lymph nodes.  N1b: Macrometastasis in regional lymph nodes.  N2: In transit metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C85898 | "Stage IIIA includes: Any T, N1a, M0.  N1a: Micrometastasis in regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C85899 | "Stage IIIB includes: Any T, N1b/N2, M0.  N1b: Macrometastasis in regional lymph nodes.  N2: In transit metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C85900 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Metastasis beyond regional lymph nodes. (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C8590 | An antiquated term that refers either to nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma or to lymphocyte-rich classical Hodgkin lymphoma. |
| C8591 | "A germ cell tumor arising from the testis. Representative examples include teratoma, seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, and yolk sac tumor." |
| C8592 | "A cartilaginous matrix-producing neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic chondrocytes. There is no evidence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, invasive features, or metastases. Representative examples include osteochondroma and chondroma." |
| C8594 | The presence of malignant lymphocytes in the peripheral blood in a patient with non-Hodgkin lymphoma. It is usually a terminal event in the clinical course of non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C8595 | A carcinoma of the hypopharynx that arises from the postcricoid region. |
| C8596 | "An uncommon benign lesion in the vulva. It manifests with multiple papular lesions which are purple in color.  They are usually asymptomatic.  Histologically, there is hyperkeratosis, papillomatosis, and dilated blood vessels in the papillary dermis." |
| C8597 |  |
| C8598 | An increase in the duration or intensity of epileptic symptoms in the setting of chronic epilepsy. |
| C8600 |  |
| C8601 | A melanoma affecting the retinal portion of the eye. |
| C86026 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0.  T1a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.0 mm or less in thickness, without ulceration and with mitosis less than 1/mm2.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No detectable evidence of distant metastases. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C8602 | "A neoplasm characterized by the presence of benign epithelial and myoepithelial cells and a mesenchymal component that may contain mucoid, myxoid, cartilaginous, or osseous areas. It may be completely or partially encapsulated. It occurs in the parotid gland, submandibular gland, minor salivary glands in the oral cavity, upper respiratory tract, and nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It usually presents as a slow growing painless mass. Infrequently, patients may present with pain and facia... |
| C86030 | "Stage IB includes: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0).  T1b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.0 mm or less in thickness, with ulceration or mitoses equal or more than 1/mm2. T2a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No detectable evidence of distant metastases. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C86033 | "Stage IIA includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0).  T2b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T3a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No detectable evidence of distant metastases. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C86034 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0.  T4b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No detectable evidence of distant metastases. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8603 | A neoplasm with papillary architectural pattern arising from the renal pelvis urothelial cells. |
| C86049 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1-4a, N1a, M0); (T1-4a, N2a, M0).  T1-4a: Non-ulcerated cutaneous melanoma of any thickness.  N1a: Cutaneous melanoma with micrometastasis in one regional lymph node.  N2a: Cutaneous melanoma with micrometastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No detectable evidence of distant metastases. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C8604 | The reemergence of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C86051 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1-4b, N1a, M0); (T1-4b, N2a, M0); (T1-4a, N1b, M0); (T1-4a, N2b, M0); (T1-4a, N2c, M0).  T1-4b: Ulcerated cutaneous melanoma of any thickness.  T1-4a: Non-ulcerated cutaneous melanoma of any thickness.  N1a: Cutaneous melanoma with micrometastasis in one regional lymph node.  N2a: Cutaneous melanoma with micrometastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes.  N1b: Cutaneous melanoma with macrometastasis in one regional lymph node.  N2b: Cutaneous melanoma with macrometastases i... |
| C86053 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T1-4b, N1b, M0); (T1-4b, N2b, M0); (T1-4b, N2c, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T1-4b: Ulcerated cutaneous melanoma of any thickness.  N1b: Cutaneous melanoma with macrometastasis in one regional lymph node.  N2b: Cutaneous melanoma with macrometastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes.  N2c: Cutaneous melanoma with intralymphatic metastases (in transit or satellite metastases) without metastatic nodes.  N3: Cutaneous melanoma with 4 or more metastatic nodes, or matted nodes, or in ... |
| C8605 | An anaplastic (malignant) meningioma that arises from the spinal cord meninges. |
| C8606 | "Stage II includes: Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, SX.  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N1: Metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or less in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 5 cm in greatest d... |
| C8607 | The reemergence of inflammatory carcinoma of the breast after a period of remission |
| C8608 | A seizure disorder that is present at the time of birth. |
| C8609 | "A malignant neoplasm that affects the liver parenchyma, bile ducts, and gallbladder.  Representative examples include hepatocellular carcinoma, intrahepatic and extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, and gallbladder carcinoma." |
| C8610 | "A malignant tumor that has spread to the adrenal gland from an adjacent or distant anatomic site.  The majority of cases are metastatic carcinomas, and less frequently lymphomas." |
| C8612 | "A neoplasm that arises from the peritoneum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C8614 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the liver parenchyma, bile ducts, and gallbladder.  Representative examples of benign neoplasms include hepatocellular adenoma, bile duct adenoma, and gallbladder lipoma.  Representative examples of malignant neoplasms include hepatocellular carcinoma, intrahepatic and extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, and gallbladder carcinoma." |
| C8615 | The spread of a malignant neoplasm from a primary site to an unspecified organ in the abdominal cavity. |
| C8625 | The reemergence of colorectal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C8626 | "T4,N2,MO (from PDQ)" |
| C8627 | An esophageal adenocarcinoma which has reappeared after a period of remission or after presumed treatment. |
| C8628 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T2, N0, M0, G3); IIB (T3, N0, M0, Any G); (T1-2, N1, M0, Any G).  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. G3: Poorly differentiated.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8629 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis (HGD), N0, M0, G1,GX.  Tis: High-grade dysplasia.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8630 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1, N0, M0, G1-2, X); IB (T1, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, G1-2, GX).  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  G2: Moderately differentiated.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8631 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-2, N2, M0, Any G); (T3, N1, M0, Any G); (T4a, N0, M0, Any G); IIIB (T3, N2, M0, Any G); IIIC (T4a, N1-2, M0, Any G); (T4b, Any N, M0, Any G); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G).  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Resectable tumor invading pleura, pericardium, or diaphragm. T4b: Unresectable tumor invading other adjacent structures, such as aorta, vertebral body, trach... |
| C8632 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1, Any G.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8633 | An esophageal squamous cell carcinoma which has reappeared after a period of remission or after presumed treatment. |
| C8634 | The reemergence of rectosigmoid carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C8635 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N1, M0); IIIB (T3-T4, N1, M0); IIIC (Any T, N2, M0). N1: Metastasis in 1 to 3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 4 or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C8636 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C8637 | A carcinoma that arises from the small intestine and it has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C8638 | Carcinoma of the small intestine not amendable to resection. |
| C8639 | Carcinoma of the small intestine amendable to resection. |
| C8640 | Extrahepatic bile duct carcinoma that is amenable to surgical removal. |
| C8641 | Hepatoblastoma not amenable to surgical removal. |
| C8642 | Hepatoblastoma amenable to surgical removal. |
| C8643 | The reemergence of hepatoblastoma after a period of remission. |
| C8644 | "The most frequent type of acute lymphoblastic leukemia.  Approximately 75% of cases occur in children under six years of age.  This is a good prognosis leukemia.  In the pediatric age group the complete remission rate is approximately 95% and the disease free survival rate is 70%.  Approximately 80% of children appear to be cured.  In the adult age group the complete remission rate is 60-85%.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C8645 | The reemergence of chronic lymphocytic leukemia after a period of remission. |
| C8646 | "Risk: High; Findings: Lymphocytosis and platelets less than 100,000/microliter; Survival (months): 30. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)" |
| C8647 | "A rare, highly aggressive, Epstein-Barr virus-associated leukemia, also known as aggressive NK-cell leukemia/lymphoma; it may represent the leukemic counterpart of nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphomas. It affects primarily teenagers and young adults. It is characterized by the systemic proliferation of NK cells in the peripheral blood, bone marrow, liver, and spleen." |
| C8648 | "A subtype of myelodysplastic syndrome which initially lacks findings appropriate for classification into any other myelodysplastic category.  There are no specific morphologic findings.  The diagnosis can be made in the following instances: 1. in cases of refractory cytopenia with unilineage dysplasia or refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia but with 1% blasts in the peripheral blood; 2: in cases of myelodysplastic syndrome with unilineage dysplasia which are associated with panc... |
| C8649 | The reemergence of lymphocyte-depleted classic Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8650 | Lymphocyte-depleted classic Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8651 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8652 | Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma resistant to treatment. |
| C8653 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8654 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8655 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8656 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8657 | Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8658 | Anaplastic large cell lymphoma resistant to treatment. |
| C8659 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8660 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8661 | "Ann Arbor Classification. Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8662 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8663 | The reemergence of T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8664 | T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8665 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8666 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). The number of regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3)." |
| C8667 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8668 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8669 | Nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C8670 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8671 | "Follicular helper T-cell lymphoma, angioimmunoblastic-type that is resistant to treatment." |
| C8672 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8673 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8674 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8675 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8676 | "The reemergence of follicular helper T-cell lymphoma, angioimmunoblastic-type after a period of remission" |
| C8677 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8678 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8679 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8680 | The reemergence of enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8681 | Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8682 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8683 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8684 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8685 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8686 | The reemergence of mycosis fungoides after a period of remission. |
| C8687 | Mycosis fungoides resistant to treatment. |
| C8688 | The reemergence of mature T-cell and NK-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8689 | Mature T-cell and NK-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8690 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8691 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). The number of regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3)." |
| C8692 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8693 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8694 | "A neoplasm of lymphoblasts committed to the T-cell lineage, typically composed of small to medium-sized blast cells.  When the neoplasm involves predominantly the bone marrow and the peripheral blood, it is called T acute lymphoblastic leukemia.  When it involves nodal or extranodal sites it is called T lymphoblastic lymphoma. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C86950 | A speech disorder resulting in impaired utterance of sounds by the vocal folds. |
| C8695 | The reemergence of T lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C86969 | "An often asymptomatic developmental abnormality of the cervical spine. It is characterized by the hypoplasia of the odontoid which appears as a stubby peg of an odontoid process. Symptoms may develop after minor trauma and include localized neck pain, atlantoaxial instability, and transient or permanent neurologic manifestations." |
| C8696 | T lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma that is resistant to treatment |
| C8697 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE) (Rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). |
| C8698 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in a with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8699 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C87003 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1/T2, N1a/N1b, M0). T1: Invasive vulvar cancer confined to the vulva or perineum.  T2: Vulvar cancer with tumor of any size with extension to adjacent perineal structures (lower/distal 1/3 urethra, lower/distal 1/3 vagina, anal involvement).  N1a: Vulvar cancer with one or two lymph node metastasis each measuring 5 mm or less.  N1b: Vulvar cancer with one lymph node metastasis measuring 5 mm or greater.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87004 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1/T2, N2a/N2b, M0).  T1: Invasive vulvar cancer confined to the vulva or perineum.  T2: Vulvar cancer with tumor of any size with extension to adjacent perineal structures (lower/distal 1/3 urethra, lower/distal 1/3 vagina, anal involvement).  N2a: Vulvar cancer with three or more lymph node metastases each measuring 5 mm or less.  N2b: Vulvar cancer with two or more lymph node metastases measuring 5 mm or greater.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87005 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T1/T2, N2c, M0).  T1: Invasive vulvar cancer confined to the vulva or perineum.  T2: Vulvar cancer with tumor of any size with extension to adjacent perineal structures (lower/distal 1/3 urethra, lower/distal 1/3 vagina, anal involvement).  N2c: Vulvar cancer with lymph node metastasis with extracapsular spread.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8700 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, or nodular involvement of the lungs(s)." |
| C8701 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma which does not respond to treatment. |
| C8702 | The reemergence of non-Hodgkin lymphoma transformed after a period of remission. |
| C8703 | A malignant mesothelioma extensively involving the pericardium. |
| C8704 | A malignant mesothelioma that arises from the peritoneum and has spread in the abdominal cavity.  It may result in bowel obstruction. |
| C87055 | A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the oropharynx and is associated with human papillomavirus type 16 infection. |
| C8705 | The reemergence of malignant peritoneal mesothelioma after a period of remission. |
| C87062 | "Any of the several infectious disorders caused by members of streptococcus, a genus of gram positive bacteria belonging to the family Streptococcaceae. Streptococcal infections are classified into Groups A, B, C, D and G." |
| C87069 | A congenital abnormality consisting of a fissure in the midline of the hard and/or soft palate; it is the result of the failure of the two sides of the palate to fuse during embryonic development. |
| C8706 | "Malignant mesothelioma that arises from the pleura and is classified as stage II, stage III, or stage IV." |
| C87072 | "A congenital abnormality of the esophagus in which the upper esophagus ends as a blind pouch and does not connect with the lower esophagus; it is often accompanied by a tracheoesophageal fistula. Signs and symptoms in a newborn with this abnormality include excessive salivation, choking, coughing, and the development of cyanosis and respiratory distress when fed." |
| C87077 | A congenital abnormality in which the margins of the upper and lower eyelids are fused together by bands of tissue. |
| C8707 | The reemergence of pleural malignant mesothelioma after a period of remission. |
| C87083 | "The abnormal arrangement or position of thoracic and/or abdominal organs in relation to each other, often occurring in a right/left transposition." |
| C8708 | An angiosarcoma that has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C87093 | "A serious condition in which a newborn breathes a mixture of meconium (the first intestinal discharge) and amniotic fluid into the lungs around the time of delivery. Meconium aspiration syndrome occurs in 5-10 percent of births and typically occurs when the infant is stressed, as when the infant is past its due date." |
| C87094 | "A congenital abnormality of the jaws (particularly the mandible) in which they are unusually small. This condition is not always pathological and may correct itself as the patient matures; however, it may also present as a birth defect in multiple syndromes." |
| C8709 | A malignant hemangiopericytoma which has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C87101 | "A constellation of neurobehavioral features observed in a neonate following antenatal exposure to drugs including opioids, benzodiazepines, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors." |
| C8710 | A rare malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that is believed to have its origin in smooth muscle derived pericytes without evidence of metastases. |
| C87110 | A congenital abnormality characterized by more than 5 digits on a hand or foot. |
| C87115 | "A disorder caused when there is a Rh-factor blood-type incompatibility between the mother and fetus, and the mother's immune system forms antibodies that attack the red blood cells of her unborn child. This disorder can only occur if the mother is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive." |
| C87118 | "A small hollow area or sinus present at birth and located just above the crease of the buttocks. In most cases, pilonidal dimples are benign and may just be accompanied by increased hair growth in the area." |
| C8711 | A melanoma that arises from a site other than skin. |
| C87120 | "A single transverse palmar crease is found in 5% of newborns and is frequently inherited as a familial trait. However, single palmar creases can be associated with Down's syndrome and other genetic disorders, or with fetal alcohol syndrome." |
| C87121 | "A congenital condition in which there is complete right-to-left reversal of the position of the major thoracic and abdominal organs (that is, they are arranged in a mirror image of the normal positioning)." |
| C87125 | "A congenital condition characterized by webbing between the fingers and/or toes, joining the digits together. In rare cases, the joining of the fingers or toes may involve bony fusion between the digits. Common causes include Down Syndrome and hereditary syndactyly." |
| C8712 | A germinoma that arises from the pineal gland. |
| C87130 | "A congenital, usually bilateral, thick web-like fold of skin that extends from the acromion to the mastoid process. This deformity is associated with Turner Syndrome and Noonan Syndrome." |
| C87132 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0.  T1a: For leiomyosarcoma and endometrial stromal sarcoma: tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension.  For adenosarcoma: tumor limited to endometrium/endocervix.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87133 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0.  T1b: For leiomyosarcoma and endometrial stromal sarcoma: tumor more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  For adenosarcoma: tumor invades to less than half of the myometrium.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87134 | "Stage IC includes: T1c, N0, M0.  T1c: For adenosarcoma: tumor invades more than half of the myometrium.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  Stage IC does not apply for leiomyosarcoma and endometrial stromal sarcoma.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87135 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0.  T3a: Tumor infiltrates abdominal tissues, one side. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  This staging applies to leiomyosarcoma, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and adenosarcoma. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87137 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0. T3b: Tumor infiltrates abdominal tissues, more than one side.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  This staging applies to leiomyosarcoma, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and adenosarcoma. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87138 | "Stage IIIC includes: T1-T3, N1, M0.  T1: Tumor limited to the uterus. T2: Tumor extends beyond the uterus, within the pelvis.  T3: Tumor infiltrates abdominal tissues.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  This staging applies to leiomyosarcoma, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and adenosarcoma. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8713 | Retinoblastoma involving both eyes. This occurs in the majority of patients with the inherited variant. A minority of patient with bilateral retinoblastoma were found to have involvement of the pineal gland as well. |
| C87140 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Tumor involves bladder or rectum.  M0: No distant metastasis.  This staging applies to leiomyosarcoma, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and adenosarcoma. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87144 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distal metastasis (excluding adnexa, pelvic and abdominal tissues).  This staging applies to leiomyosarcoma, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and adenosarcoma. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8714 | A retinoblastoma that only involves a single eye. |
| C87150 | "Stage I includes: (T1, M0, Risk factors: unknown); IA (T1, M0, Risk factors: low risk); IB (T1, M0, Risk factors: high risk).  T1: Tumor confined to uterus.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87151 | "Stage IA includes: T1, M0, Risk factors: low risk.  T1: Tumor confined to uterus.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87152 | "Stage IB includes: T1, M0, Risk factors: high risk.  T1: Tumor confined to uterus.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87153 | "Stage II includes: (T2, M0, Risk factors: unknown); IIA (T2, M0, Risk factors: low risk); IIB (T2, M0, Risk factors: high risk).  T2: Tumor extends to other genital structures (ovary, tube, vagina, broad ligaments) by metastasis or direct extension.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87154 | "Stage IIA includes: T2, M0, Risk factors: low risk.  T2: Tumor extends to other genital structures (ovary, tube, vagina, broad ligaments) by metastasis or direct extension.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87155 | "Stage IIB includes: T2, M0, Risk factors: high risk.  T2: Tumor extends to other genital structures (ovary, tube, vagina, broad ligaments) by metastasis or direct extension.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87156 | "Stage III includes: (Any T, M1a, Risk factors: unknown); IIIA (Any T, M1a, Risk factors: low risk); IIIB (Any T, M1a, Risk factors: high risk).  M1a: Lung metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87157 | "Stage IIIA includes: Any T, M1a, Risk factors: low risk.  M1a: Lung metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87158 | "Stage IIIB includes: Any T, M1a, Risk factors: high risk.  M1a: Lung metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87159 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, M1b, Risk factors: unknown); IVA (Any T, M1b, Risk factors: low risk); IVB (Any T, M1b, Risk factors: high risk).  M1b: All other distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8715 | "A rhabdoid tumor that arises from the kidney.  It occurs in children and it is associated with abnormalities of chromosome 22. It is characterized by the presence of cells with a large eccentric nucleus, prominent nucleolus, and abundant cytoplasm.  The prognosis is poor." |
| C87160 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, M1b, Risk factors: low risk.  M1b: All other distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87161 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, M1b, Risk factors: high risk.  M1b: All other distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87167 | A potentially life-threatening pregnancy-related disorder characterized by tonic-clonic seizures in association with hypertension after the twentieth week of gestation and up to six weeks postpartum and in the absence of other potential causes of seizures. |
| C87168 | "Group B Streptococcus, also known as Streptococcus agalactiae, colonizes the vaginal and gastrointestinal tracts of up to 45% of healthy women and may infect neonates in utero or during delivery, causing neonatal sepsis in 1-2% of colonized neonates. GBS infection may also occur in nonpregnant (particularly elderly) adults with underlying medical conditions, presenting as urinary tract infection, pneumonia, or soft-tissue infection." |
| C8716 | A ureter carcinoma that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C87175 | "A congenital abnormality consisting of one or more clefts (splits) in the upper lip, which may be accompanied by a cleft palate; it is the result of the failure of the embryonic parts of the lip to fuse." |
| C87178 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); IB (T2, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); (T3, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX).  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated-low grade.  G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87179 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX.  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well differentiated-low grade.  G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8717 |  |
| C87180 | "Stage IB includes: (T2, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); (T3, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX).  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated-low grade.  G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87181 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1, N0, M0, G3, G4); IIB (T2, N0, M0, G3, G4).  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87182 | "Stage IIA includes: T1, N0, M0, G3, G4.  T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87183 | "Stage IIB includes: T2, N0, M0, G3, G4.  T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87184 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0, G3, G4. T3: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  G4: Undifferentiated. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87185 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (Any T, N0, M1a, Any G); IVB (Any T, N1, Any M, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, Any G).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M1a: Distant metastasis to lung.  M1b: Metastasis to other distant sites. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87186 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, N0, M1a, Any G.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M1a: Distant metastasis to lung. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87187 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N1, Any M, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, Any G).  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M1b: Metastasis to other distant sites. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87195 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0.  T1a: Pleural mesothelioma with no involvement of the visceral pleura. N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87196 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0.  T1b: Pleural mesothelioma with a tumor also involving the visceral pleura N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8719 | A primary carcinoma of the endometrium characterized by the presence of malignant squamous cells. |
| C8720 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); IA (T1a, N0, M0); IB (T1b, N0, M0); IC (T1c, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor limited to the fallopian tube(s).  T1a: Tumor limited to one tube, without penetrating the serosal surface; no ascites.  T1b: Tumor limited to both tubes, without penetrating the serosal surface; no ascites.  T1c: Tumor limited to one or both tubes with extension onto or through the tubal serosa, or with malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  ... |
| C8721 | "Stage II includes: (T2, N0, M0); IIA: (T2a, N0, M0); IIB (T2b, N0, M0); IIC (T2c, N0, M0).  T2: Tumor involves one or both fallopian tubes with pelvic extension.  T2a: Extension and/or metastasis to the uterus and/or ovaries.  T2b: Extension to other pelvic structures.  T2c: Pelvic extension with malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8722 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); IIIA (T3a, N0, M0); IIIB (T3b, N0, M0); IIIC (T3c, N0, M0).  T3: Tumor involves one or both fallopian tubes, with peritoneal implants outside the pelvis.  T3a: Microscopic peritoneal metastasis outside the pelvis.  T3b: Macroscopic peritoneal metastasis outside the pelvis 2cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3c: Peritoneal metastasis more than 2cm in diameter. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C8723 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0). T1: Tumor limited to ovaries (one or both).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8724 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with pelvic extension and/or implants. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8725 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with pelvic extension and/or implants. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8726 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor involves one or both both ovaries with microscopically confirmed peritoneal metastasis outside pelvis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8727 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis (excludes peritoneal metastasis). (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8728 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor involves one or both both ovaries with microscopically confirmed peritoneal metastasis outside pelvis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8729 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis (excludes peritoneal metastasis). (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C87301 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0). T4a: Lip and oral cavity cancer with moderately advanced local disease.  Lip: Tumor invades through cortical bone, inferior alveolar nerve, floor of mouth, or skin of face, i.e., chin or nose.  Oral cavity: Tumor invades adjacent structures only (e.g., through cortical bone [mandible or maxilla] into deep [extrinsic] muscle of tongue [genioglossus, hyoglossus, palatoglossus, and stylog... |
| C87302 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N3, M0); (T4b, Any N, M0). T4b: Lip and oral cavity cancer with very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plates, or skull base and/or encases internal carotid artery. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87303 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8730 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor limited to ovaries (one or both). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8731 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with pelvic extension and/or implants. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8732 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor involves one or both both ovaries with microscopically confirmed peritoneal metastasis outside pelvis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8733 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis (excludes peritoneal metastasis). (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8734 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0). T1: Tumor limited to ovaries (one or both).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8735 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0). T1: Tumor limited to ovaries (one or both).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8736 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with pelvic extension and/or implants. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8737 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor involves one or both both ovaries with microscopically confirmed peritoneal metastasis outside pelvis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8738 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis (excludes peritoneal metastasis). (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8739 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0). T1: Tumor limited to ovaries (one or both).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8740 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with pelvic extension and/or implants. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8741 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor involves one or both both ovaries with microscopically confirmed peritoneal metastasis outside pelvis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8742 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis (excludes peritoneal metastasis). (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8743 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0). T1: Tumor limited to ovaries (one or both).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8744 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with pelvic extension and/or implants. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8745 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor involves one or both both ovaries with microscopically confirmed peritoneal metastasis outside pelvis. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8746 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis (excludes peritoneal metastasis). (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8747 | The reemergence of adenosquamous lung carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C8748 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C87497 | "A chronic disorder of unknown etiology characterized by pain, stiffness, and tenderness in the muscles of neck, shoulders, back, hips, arms, and legs. Other signs and symptoms include headaches, fatigue, sleep disturbances, and painful menstruation." |
| C87498 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C8749 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0) and IB: (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less n greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung ca... |
| C87501 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); T4a: Maxillary sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades anterior orbital contents, skin of cheek, pterygoid plates, infratemporal fossa, cribriform plate, sphenoid or frontal sinuses.  Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades any of the following: anterior orbital contents, skin of nose or cheek, minimal extension to anterior crani... |
| C87502 | "Stage IVB includes: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0).  T4b: Very advanced local disease.  Tumor invades any of the following: orbital apex, dura, brain, middle cranial fossa, cranial nerves other than maxillary division of trigeminal nerve, nasopharynx, or clivus.  N3: Metastasis in a lymph node, more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87503 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8750 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0) and IIB (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its i... |
| C8751 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0) and IIIB (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.... |
| C8752 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Lung cancer with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural nodules or malignant pleural (or pericardial) effusion.  M1b: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87532 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0.  T3: Mucosal disease N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87533 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T3-T4a, N1, M0).  T4a: Moderately advanced disease.  Tumor involves deep soft tissue, cartilage, bone, or overlying skin.  T3: Mucosal disease.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  N1: Tumor with regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87534 | "Stage IVB includes: T4b, Any N, M0.  T4b: Very advanced disease.  Tumor involves brain, dura, skull base, lower cranial nerves (IX, X, XI, XII), masticator space, carotid artery, prevertebral space, or mediastinal structures.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87535 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8753 | The reemergence of large cell lung carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C87543 | "Stage I includes: Under 45 years: Any T, Any N, M0.  45 years and older: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C87544 | "Stage II includes: Under 45 years: Any T, Any N, M1.  45 years and older: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis.  M0: No evidence of distant metastasis.  (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C87545 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1a, M0); (T2, N1a, M0); (T3, N1a, M0). T3: Tumor greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension and limited to the thyroid gland, or tumor of any size with minimal extrathyroid extension (e.g., extension to sternothyroid muscle or perithyroid soft tissues).  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lym... |
| C87546 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1a, M0); (T1, N1b, M0); (T2, N1b, M0); (T3, N1b, M0); (T4a, N1b, M0). T4a: Moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor of any size extending beyond the thyroid gland capsule to invade subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus, or recurrent laryngeal nerve.  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T... |
| C87547 | "Stage IVB includes: T4b, Any N, M0. T4b: Very advanced disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral fascia or encases carotid artery or mediastinal vessels.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87548 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87549 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1a, M0); (T1, N1b, M0); (T2, N1b, M0); (T3, N1b, M0); (T4a, N1b, M0).  T4a: Moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor of any size extending beyond the thyroid gland capsule to invade subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus, or recurrent laryngeal nerve.  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  ... |
| C87550 | "Stage IVB includes: T4b, Any N, M0.  T4b: Very advanced disease.  Tumor invades prevertebral fascia or encases carotid artery or mediastinal vessels.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87551 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87552 | "Stage IVA includes: T4a, Any N, M0.  T4a: Intrathyroidal anaplastic carcinoma. M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87553 | "Stage IVB includes: T4b, Any N, M0.  T4b: Anaplastic carcinoma with gross extrathyroid extension.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87554 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8755 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0) and IB: (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less n greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung ca... |
| C8756 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Lung cancer with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural nodules or malignant pleural (or pericardial) effusion.  M1b: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8757 | The reemergence of lung adenocarcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C8758 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8759 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0) and IB: (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less n greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung ca... |
| C8760 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0) and IIB (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its i... |
| C8761 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0) and IIIB (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.... |
| C8762 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Lung cancer with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural nodules or malignant pleural (or pericardial) effusion.  M1b: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8763 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8764 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0) and IB: (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less n greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung ca... |
| C8765 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0) and IIB (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its i... |
| C8766 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0) and IIIB (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.... |
| C8767 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Lung cancer with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural nodules or malignant pleural (or pericardial) effusion.  M1b: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8768 | "Stage I carcinoma of the pharynx according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C8769 | "Stage II carcinoma of the pharynx according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C8770 | "Stage III carcinoma of the pharynx according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C8771 | "Stage IV carcinoma of the pharynx according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th, 7th, and 8th editions." |
| C8772 | "Stage I includes: IA: (TI, N0, M0) and IB: (T2, N0, M0).  TI: Tumor 3 cm or less in greatest dimension surrounded by lung or visceral pleura, without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus.  T2: Tumor with any of the following features of size or extent: More than 3cm in greatest dimension.  Involves main bronchus, 2cm or more distal to the carina.  Invades the visceral pleura.  N0: No regional lymph metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C8773 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N1,M0); (T3, N2, M0) or IIIB (Any T, N3, M0); (T4, Any N, M0).  N1: Metastasis to ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes, and intrapulmonary nodes including involvement by direct extension of the primary tumor.  N2: Metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph node(s).  N3: Metastasis to contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular ly... |
| C8774 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis present. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C8776 | A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation arising from the bone.  It may be associated with pain. |
| C87775 | "Stage IIA includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0). T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates subserosal connective tissue without invasion of visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87776 | "Stage IIB includes: (T4a, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T1, N3, M0).  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates subserosal connective tissue without invasion of visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures.  T4a: Tumor invades serosa (visceral peritoneum).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  N3: Metasta... |
| C87777 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T4b, N2, M0); (T4b, N3, M0); (T4a, N3, M0).  T4a: Tumor invades serosa (visceral peritoneum).  T4b: Tumor invades adjacent structures. N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  N3: Metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87778 |  |
| C87780 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Any. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1.  Tumor location: Location of the primary cancer site is defined by the position of the upper (proximal) edge of the tumor in the esophagus.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87781 | "Stage IB includes: (T1, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Any); (T2-3, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Lower, X). T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1.  G2: Moderately differentiated.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  Tumor location: Location of the primary ca... |
| C87782 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0, G1-2, X. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  G2: Moderately differentiated. GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87783 | "Stage IB includes: (T1, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, G1-2, GX).  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  G2: Moderately differentiated.  G3: Poorly differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87784 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1-2, N2, M0, Any G); (T3, N1, M0, Any G); (T4a, N0, M0, Any G). T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Resectable tumor invading pleura, pericardium, or diaphragm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87785 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3, N2, M0, Any G. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87786 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T4a, N1-2, M0, Any G); (T4b, Any N, M0, Any G); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G).  T4a: Resectable tumor invading pleura, pericardium, or diaphragm. T4b: Unresectable tumor invading other adjacent structures, such as aorta, vertebral body, trachea, etc.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  N3: Metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87787 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1-2, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T3, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4a, N0, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any). T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4a: Resectable tumor invading pleura, pericardium, or diaphragm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No dista... |
| C87788 | "Stage IIIB includes: T3, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  Tumor location: Location of the primary cancer site is defined by the position of the upper (proximal) edge of the tumor in the esophagus.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87789 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T4a, N1-2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4b, Any N, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any).  T4a: Resectable tumor invading pleura, pericardium, or diaphragm. T4b: Unresectable tumor invading other adjacent structures, such as aorta, vertebral body, trachea, etc. N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in 3-6 regional lymph nodes.  N3: Metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metast... |
| C8778 | A non-disseminated skeletal or extraskeletal chondrosarcoma. |
| C87791 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or into the nonperitonealized perimuscular tissue (mesentery or retroperitoneum) with extension 2 cm or less.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87792 | "Stage IIB includes: T4, N0, M0. T4: Tumor perforates the visceral peritoneum or directly invades other organs or structures (including other loops of small intestine, mesentery, or retroperitoneum more than 2 cm, and abdominal wall by way of serosa; for duodenum only, invasion of pancreas or bile duct). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87793 | "Stage IIIA includes: Any T, N1, M0. N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87795 | "Stage IIIB includes: Any T, N2, M0. N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87797 | A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that has spread to the central nervous system following the initial presentation in another nodal or extranodal site. |
| C87798 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87799 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosa or into mesoappendix.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8779 | A chondrosarcoma that has spread to a secondary anatomical site. |
| C87800 | "Stage IIB includes: T4a, N0, M0. T4a: Tumor penetrates visceral peritoneum including mucinous peritoneal tumor within the right lower quadrant.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87801 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0. T4b: Tumor directly invades other organs or structures.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87803 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0). T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87804 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N1, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosa or into mesoappendix.  T4: Tumor penetrates visceral peritoneum including mucinous peritoneal tumor within the right lower quadrant and/or directly invades other organs or structures.  N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87805 | "Stage IIIC includes: Any T, N2, M0. N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87806 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, N0, M1a, G1.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M1a: Intraperitoneal metastasis beyond the right lower quadrant, including pseudomyxoma peritonei.  G1: Well differentiated tumor.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87807 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N0, M1a, G2, G3); (Any T, N1, M1a, Any G); (Any T, N2, M1a, Any G).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes.  M1a: Intraperitoneal metastasis beyond the right lower quadrant, including pseudomyxoma peritonei.  G2: Moderately differentiated tumor. G3: Poorly differentiated tumor.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87808 | "Stage IVC includes: Any T, Any N, M1b, Any G.  M1b: Nonperitoneal metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87809 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8780 | The reemergence of chondrosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C87810 | "Stage II includes: T2, T3, N0, M0. T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm or with extension to the cecum. T3: Tumor more than 4 cm or with extension to the ileum.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87811 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor directly invades other adjacent organs or structures, e.g., abdominal wall and skeletal muscle.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87812 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87813 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87814 | "Stage IIB includes: T4a, N0, M0.  T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87815 | "Stage IIC includes: T4b, N0, M0. T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87816 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0). T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes.  N1c: Tumor deposit(s) in the subserosa, mesentery, or nonperitonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues without regional lymph node metastasis. N2a: Metastasis in 4-6 regional lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87817 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0). T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues.  T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.  N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes.  N1c: Tumor deposit(s) in the subserosa, mesentery, or nonperitonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues without regional lymph node metastasis.  N2a: Metasta... |
| C87818 | "Stage IIIC includes: (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0).  T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues.  T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.  T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N1: Metastasis in 1-3 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes.  N2a: Metastasis in 4-6 regional lymph nodes.  N2b: Metastasis in seven or more regional lymph nodes.  ... |
| C87819 | "Stage IVA includes: Any T, Any N, M1a.  M1a: Metastasis confined to one organ or site (e.g., liver, lung, ovary, nonregional node).  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8781 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); IB: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.0 mm or less in thickness, without ulceration and mitosis less than 1/mm2.  T1b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.0 mm or less in thickness, with ulceration or mitoses equal to or more than 1/mm2. T2a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No detectable evidence of di... |
| C87820 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1b.  M1b: Metastases in more than one organ/site or the peritoneum. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87825 | "Stage IA includes: T1 or T2, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: Low.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm, but not more than 5 cm, in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87826 | "Stage IB includes: T3, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: Low.  T3: Tumor more than 5 cm, but not more than 10 cm, in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87827 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: High); (T2, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: High); (T4, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: Low). T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm, but not more than 5 cm, in greatest dimension.  T4: Tumor more than 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87828 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: High. T3: Tumor more than 5 cm, but not more than 10 cm, in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87829 | "Stage IIIB includes: T4, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: High. T4: Tumor more than 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8782 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0); IIB: (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); IIC: (T4b, N0, M0).  T2b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T3a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  T3b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T4a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  T4b: Cutan... |
| C87830 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, N1, M0, Mitotic rate: Any rate); (Any T, Any N, M1, Mitotic rate: Any rate). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87831 | "Stage I includes: T1 or T2, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: Low.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm, but not more than 5 cm, in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87832 | "Stage II includes: T3, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: Low.  T3: Tumor more than 5 cm, but not more than 10 cm, in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87833 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: High); (T4, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: Low).  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T4: Tumor more than 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87834 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T2, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: High); (T3, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: High); (T4, N0, M0, Mitotic rate: High).  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm, but not more than 5 cm, in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor more than 5 cm, but not more than 10 cm, in greatest dimension. T4: Tumor more than 10 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C87835 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, N1, M0, Mitotic rate: Any rate); (Any T, Any N, M1, Mitotic rate: Any rate).  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8783 | "Stage III includes: Any T, N1-3, M0.  Stage III is divided into three pathologic subgroups: IIIA, IIIB, and IIIC.  There are no clinical subgroups for stage III.  N1: Cutaneous melanoma with metastasis in one regional lymph node.  N2: Cutaneous melanoma with metastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes or in transit met(s)/satellite(s) without metastatic nodes.  N3: Cutaneous melanoma with 4 or more metastatic nodes, or matted nodes, or in transit met(s)/satellite(s) with metastatic node(s).  M0:... |
| C8784 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8785 | The reemergence of lentigo maligna after a period of remission |
| C8786 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); IB: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.0 mm or less in thickness, without ulceration and mitosis less than 1/mm2.  T1b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.0 mm or less in thickness, with ulceration or mitoses equal to or more than 1/mm2. T2a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No detectable evidence of di... |
| C8787 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0); IIB: (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); IIC: (T4b, N0, M0).  T2b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T3a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  T3b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T4a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  T4b: Cutan... |
| C8788 | "Stage III includes: Any T, N1-3, M0.  Stage III is divided into three pathologic subgroups: IIIA, IIIB, and IIIC.  There are no clinical subgroups for stage III.  N1: Cutaneous melanoma with metastasis in one regional lymph node.  N2: Cutaneous melanoma with metastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes or in transit met(s)/satellite(s) without metastatic nodes.  N3: Cutaneous melanoma with 4 or more metastatic nodes, or matted nodes, or in transit met(s)/satellite(s) with metastatic node(s).  M0:... |
| C8789 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8790 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); IB: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.0 mm or less in thickness, without ulceration and mitosis less than 1/mm2.  T1b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.0 mm or less in thickness, with ulceration or mitoses equal to or more than 1/mm2. T2a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No detectable evidence of di... |
| C8791 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0); IIB: (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0); IIC: (T4b, N0, M0).  T2b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T3a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  T3b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 2.01-4.0 mm in thickness, with ulceration.  T4a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  T4b: Cutan... |
| C8792 | "Stage III includes: Any T, N1-3, M0.  Stage III is divided into three pathologic subgroups: IIIA, IIIB, and IIIC.  There are no clinical subgroups for stage III.  N1: Cutaneous melanoma with metastasis in one regional lymph node.  N2: Cutaneous melanoma with metastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes or in transit met(s)/satellite(s) without metastatic nodes.  N3: Cutaneous melanoma with 4 or more metastatic nodes, or matted nodes, or in transit met(s)/satellite(s) with metastatic node(s).  M0:... |
| C8793 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8795 | Reemergence of undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C8796 | An alveolar soft part sarcoma which has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C8797 | Alveolar soft part sarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C8798 | The reemergence of alveolar soft part sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C8799 | An epithelioid sarcoma which has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C8800 | Epithelioid sarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C8801 | An Ewing sarcoma of the soft tissues which has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C88027 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis (applies only to stomach): Carcinoma in situ/dysplasia (tumor size less than 0.5 mm), confined to mucosa. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88028 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Stomach: tumor invades lamina propria or submucosa and is 1 cm or less in size; duodenum /jejunum/ileum: tumor invades lamina propria or submucosa and is 1 cm or less in size; ampulla: tumor 1 cm or less; colon or rectum: tumor invades lamina propria or submucosa and is 2 cm or less.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88029 | "Stage IIA includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Stomach/ duodenum /jejunum/ileum: tumor invades muscularis propria or is more than 1 cm in size; ampulla: tumor is more than 1 cm in size; colon or rectum: tumor invades muscularis propria or is more than 2 cm in size with invasion of lamina propria or submucosa.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8802 | Ewing sarcoma that arises from the soft tissue and is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C88030 | "Stage IIB includes: T3, N0, M0.  T3: Stomach: tumor penetrates subserosa; jejunum/ileum: tumor invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa or invades into non-peritonealized tissues; ampulla/duodenum: tumor invades pancreas or retroperitoneum or into non-peritonealized tissues; colon or rectum: tumor invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa, or into non-peritonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues. N0: No regional ... |
| C88031 | "Stage IIIA includes: T4, N0, M0.  T4: Stomach/duodenum/ampulla/jejunum/ileum: tumor invades visceral peritoneum (serosa) or invades other organs or adjacent structures; colon or rectum: tumor invades peritoneum or other organs.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88032 | "Stage IIIB includes: Any T, N1, M0. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88033 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8803 | Reemergence of extraskeletal Ewing sarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C88044 | "Stage IIIC includes: T4, N0, M0.  T4: Tumors(s) with direct invasion of adjacent organs other than the gallbladder or with perforation of visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88049 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ (intraductal tumor).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C8804 | An extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma which has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C88050 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Solitary tumor without vascular invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88051 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Solitary tumor with vascular invasion or multiple tumors, with or without vascular invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88052 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor perforating the visceral peritoneum or involving the local extra hepatic structures by direct invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88053 | "Stage IVA includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor with periductal invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88054 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88056 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor perforates the serosa (visceral peritoneum) and/or directly invades the liver and/or one other adjacent organ or structure, such as the stomach, duodenum, colon, pancreas, omentum, or extrahepatic bile ducts.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88057 | "Stage IIIB includes: T1-3, N1, M0. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria or muscular layer.  T2: Tumor invades perimuscular connective tissue; no extension beyond serosa or into liver. T3: Tumor perforates the serosa (visceral peritoneum) and/or directly invades the liver and/or one other adjacent organ or structure, such as the stomach, duodenum, colon, pancreas, omentum, or extrahepatic bile ducts.  N1: Metastases to nodes along the cystic duct, common bile duct, hepatic artery, and/or portal ... |
| C88058 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88059 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the bile duct, with extension up to the muscle layer or fibrous tissue.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88060 | "Stage II includes: T2a-b, N0, M0.  T2a: Tumor invades beyond the wall of the bile duct to surrounding adipose tissue.  T2b: Tumor invades adjacent hepatic parenchyma.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88061 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3, N0, M0. T3: Tumor invades unilateral branches of the portal vein or hepatic artery.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88062 | "Stage IIIB includes: T1-3, N1, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the bile duct, with extension up to the muscle layer or fibrous tissue.  T2a: Tumor invades beyond the wall of the bile duct to surrounding adipose tissue.  T2b: Tumor invades adjacent hepatic parenchyma.  T3: Tumor invades unilateral branches of the portal vein or hepatic artery.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis (including nodes along the cystic duct, common bile duct, hepatic artery, and portal vein).  M0: No distant metastasis. ... |
| C88063 | "Stage IVA includes: T4, N0-1, M0. T4: Tumor invades the main portal vein or its branches bilaterally; or the common hepatic artery; or the second-order biliary radicals bilaterally; or unilateral second-order biliary radicals with contralateral portal vein or hepatic artery involvement.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis (including nodes along the cystic duct, common bile duct, hepatic artery, and portal vein).  M0: No distant metastasis.  (from AJCC... |
| C88064 | "Stage IVB includes: (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  N2: MetastasIs to periaortic, pericaval, superior mesenteric artery, and/or celiac artery lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C8807 | Reemergence of extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma after a period of remission |
| C88089 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C8808 | A soft tissue osteosarcoma which has spread to another anatomical site. |
| C88090 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor confined to the bile duct histologically.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88091 | "Stage IB includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades beyond the wall of the bile duct.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88092 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0.  T3: Tumor invades the gallbladder, pancreas, duodenum, or other adjacent organs without involvement of the celiac axis or the superior mesenteric artery.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88093 | "Stage IIB includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor confined to the bile duct histologically.  T2: Tumor invades beyond the wall of the bile duct. T3: Tumor invades the gallbladder, pancreas, duodenum, or other adjacent organs without involvement of the celiac axis or the superior mesenteric artery.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88094 | "Stage III includes: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Tumor involves the celiac axis or the superior mesenteric artery.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88095 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis.  (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88096 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor limited to ampulla of Vater or sphincter of Oddi.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88097 | "Stage IB includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor invades the duodenal wall.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88098 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0.  T3: Tumor invades the pancreas.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88099 | "Stage IIB includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor limited to ampulla of Vater or sphincter of Oddi.  T2: Tumor invades the duodenal wall.  T3: Tumor invades the pancreas.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C8809 | An osteosarcoma that arises from the soft tissue and is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C88100 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor limited to the pancreas, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88101 | "Stage IB includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Tumor limited to the pancreas, more than 2 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88102 | "Stage IIA includes: T3, N0, M0.  T3: Tumor extends beyond the pancreas but without involvement of the celiac axis or the superior mesenteric artery.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88103 | "Stage IIB includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor limited to the pancreas, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor limited to the pancreas, more than 2 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor extends beyond the pancreas but without involvement of the celiac axis or the superior mesenteric artery.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88104 | "Stage IIIa includes: T1-3, N1, M0.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue without lymph vascular invasion and is not poorly differentiated (i.e., grade 3-4) or tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue with lymph vascular invasion or is poorly differentiated.  T2: Tumor invades corpus spongiosum or cavernosum.  T3: Tumor invades urethra.  cN1: Palpable mobile unilateral inguinal lymph node.  pN1: Metastasis in a single inguinal lymph node.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7... |
| C88105 | "Stage IIIb includes: T1-3, N2, M0.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue without lymph vascular invasion and is not poorly differentiated (i.e., grade 3-4) or tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue with lymph vascular invasion or is poorly differentiated.  T2: Tumor invades corpus spongiosum or cavernosum.  T3: Tumor invades urethra.  cN2: Palpable mobile multiple or bilateral inguinal lymph nodes. pN2: Metastasis in multiple or bilateral superficial inguinal lymph nodes... |
| C88106 | "Stage IIA includes: (T1a-c, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Gleason 7); (T1a-c, N0, M0, PSA equal or more than 10 and less than 20, Gleason equal or less than 6); (T2a, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Gleason equal or less than 7); (T2b, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Gleason equal or less than 7); (T2b, N0, M0, PSA X, Gleason X). T1a: Tumor incidental histologic finding in 5% or less of tissue resected.  T1b: Tumor incidental histologic finding in more than 5% of tissue resected.  T1c: Tumor identified by ... |
| C88107 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2c, N0, M0, Any PSA, Any Gleason); (T1-2, N0, M0, PSA equal or more than 20, Any Gleason); (T1-2, N0, M0, Any PSA, Gleason equal or more than 8).  T2c: Tumor involves both lobes.  T1a: Tumor incidental histologic finding in 5% or less of tissue resected.  T1b: Tumor incidental histologic finding in more than 5% of tissue resected.  T1c: Tumor identified by needle biopsy (e.g., because of elevated PSA).  T2a: Tumor involves one-half of one lobe or less.  T2b: Tumor invo... |
| C8810 | An osteosarcoma arising from the soft tissue. |
| C8811 | The reemergence of extraskeletal osteosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C88120 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88121 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 5 mm or less in greatest dimension.  No invasion of the tarsal plate or eyelid margin.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88122 | "Stage IB includes: T2a, N0, M0.  T2a: Tumor more than 5 mm, but not more than 10 mm in greatest dimension.  Or, any tumor that invades the tarsal plate or eyelid margin.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88125 | "Stage IC includes: T2b, N0, M0.  T2b: Tumor more than 10 mm, but not more than 20 mm in greatest dimension.  Or, tumor involves full thickness of the eyelid.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88127 | "Stage II includes: T3a, N0, M0.  T3a: Tumor more than 20 mm in greatest dimension.  Or, any tumor that invades adjacent ocular or orbital structures.  Or, any T with perineural tumor invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88129 | "Stage IIIA includes: T3b, N0, M0.  T3b: Complete tumor resection requires enucleation, exenteration, or bone resection.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8812 | Fibrosarcoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C88131 | "Stage IIIB includes: Any T, N1, M0.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88132 | "Stage IIIC includes: T4, Any N, M0.  T4: Tumor is not resectable due to extensive invasion of ocular, orbital, craniofacial structures, or brain.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88133 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88134 | A non-neoplastic disorder affecting the skeletal muscles. It is caused by damage to muscle fibers either by excessive intake of corticosteroids (steroid treatment) or high levels of endogenous corticosteroids due to hormonal abnormalities. Patients usually present with weakness mainly in the proximal muscles of the upper and lower extremities and the neck flexors. |
| C88135 | "Stage IIA includes: (T1b-d, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0). T1b: Iris: Tumor limited to the iris more than 3 clock hours in size.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body involvement.  T1c: Iris: Tumor limited to the iris with secondary glaucoma.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  T1d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 1 with ciliary body invol... |
| C88136 | "Stage IIB includes: (T2b, N0, M0); (T3a, N0, M0).  T2b: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement.  T3a: Iris: Tumor confluent with or extending into the ciliary body, choroid, or both, with sclera extension and secondary glaucoma. Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 without ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88137 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T2c-d, N0, M0); (T3b-c, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0).  T2c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T2d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter. T3b: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement. T3c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tum... |
| C88138 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T3d, N0, M0); (T4b-c, N0, M0).  T3d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  T4b: Iris: Tumor with extrascleral extension more than 5 mm in diameter.  Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement.  T4c: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 without ciliary body involvement but with extraocular extension less than or equal t... |
| C88139 | "Stage IIIC includes: T4d-e, N0, M0.  T4d: Ciliary body and choroid: Tumor size category 4 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension less than or equal to 5 mm in diameter.  T4e: Ciliary body and choroid: Any tumor size category with extraocular extension more than 5 mm in diameter.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8813 | A leiomyosarcoma that has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C88145 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising from the conjunctiva, lacrimal gland, lacrimal drainage apparatus, eyelids, or other orbital tissues around the eye.  The vast majority of cases are extranodal marginal zone lymphomas of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, however, other histologic types of lymphomas can originate from ocular adnexal tissues, including rare cases of NK/T-cell lymphomas of nasal type." |
| C8814 | Leiomyosarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C88150 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1, N0, M0, B0-1); IB (T2, N0, M0, B0-1). T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T1a (patch only) vs. T1b (plaque +/- patch).  T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T2a (patch only) vs. T2b (plaque +/- patch).  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required.  M0: No visceral organ involvement.  B0: Absence ... |
| C88151 | "Stage IA includes: T1, N0, M0, B0-1.  T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T1a (patch only) vs. T1b (plaque +/- patch).  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required.  M0: No visceral organ involvement.  B0: Absence of significant blood involvement: 5% or less of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypical (Sezary cells).  B1: Low blood tumor burden: more than 5% of peripheral blood lympho... |
| C88152 | "Stage IB includes: T2, N0, M0, B0-1. T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T2a (patch only) vs. T2b (plaque +/- patch).  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required.  M0: No visceral organ involvement.  B0: Absence of significant blood involvement: 5% or less of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypical (Sezary cells).  B1: Low blood tumor burden: more than 5% of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypi... |
| C88153 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1-2, N1-2, M0, B0-1); IIB (T3, N0-2, M0, B0-1). T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T1a (patch only) vs. T1b (plaque +/- patch).  T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T2a (patch only) vs. T2b (plaque +/- patch).  T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm diameter).  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes... |
| C88154 | "Stage IIA includes: T1-2, N1-2, M0, B0-1.  T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T1a (patch only) vs. T1b (plaque +/- patch).  T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T2a (patch only) vs. T2b (plaque +/- patch).  N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or NCI LN0-2.  N2: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; hi... |
| C88155 | "Stage IIB includes: T3, N0-2, M0, B0-1.  T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm diameter).  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required.  N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or NCI LN0-2.  N2: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 2 or NCI LN3.  M0: No visceral organ involvement.  B0: Absence of significant blood involvement: 5% or less of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypica... |
| C88156 | Cutaneous involvement by an acute or chronic leukemia. |
| C88157 | "Stage III includes: (T4, N0-2, M0, B0-1); IIIA (T4, N0-2, M0, B0); IIIB (T4, N0-2, M0, B1). T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area.  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required.  N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or NCI LN0-2.  N2: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 2 or NCI LN3.  M0: No visceral organ involvement.  B0: Absence of significant blood involvem... |
| C88158 | "Stage IIIA includes: T4, N0-2, M0, B0.  T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area.  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required.  N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or NCI LN0-2.  N2: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 2 or NCI LN3.  M0: No visceral organ involvement.  B0: Absence of significant blood involvement: 5% or less of peripheral blood lymphocytes are ... |
| C88159 | "Stage IIIB includes: T4, N0-2, M0, B1. T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area.  N0: No clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; biopsy not required.  N1: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 1 or NCI LN0-2.  N2: Clinically abnormal peripheral lymph nodes; histopathology Dutch grade 2 or NCI LN3.  M0: No visceral organ involvement.  B1: Low blood tumor burden: more than 5% of peripheral blood lymphocytes are atypical (Sezary ... |
| C8815 | The reemergence of leiomyosarcoma after a period of remission |
| C88160 | "Stage IV includes: IVA1 (T1-4, N0-2, M0, B2); IVA2 (T1-4, N3, M0, B0-2); IVB (T1-4, N0-3, M1, B0-2). T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T1a (patch only) vs. T1b (plaque +/- patch).  T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T2a (patch only) vs. T2b (plaque +/- patch).  T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm diameter).  T4: Confluence of ery... |
| C88161 | "Stage IVA includes: IVA1 (T1-4, N0-2, M0, B2); IVA2 (T1-4, N3, M0, B0-2). T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T1a (patch only) vs. T1b (plaque +/- patch).  T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T2a (patch only) vs. T2b (plaque +/- patch).  T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm diameter).  T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more ... |
| C88162 | "Stage IVB includes: T1-4, N0-3, M1, B0-2. T1: Limited patches, papules, and/or plaques covering less than 10% of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T1a (patch only) vs. T1b (plaque +/- patch).  T2: Patches, papules, or plaques covering 10% or more of the skin surface.  May further stratify into T2a (patch only) vs. T2b (plaque +/- patch).  T3: One or more tumors (equal or greater than 1 cm diameter).  T4: Confluence of erythema covering 80% or more of body surface area.  N0: No cl... |
| C8816 | A liposarcoma that has metastasized to a secondary site. |
| C8817 | Liposarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C8818 | The reemergence of liposarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C8822 | The presence of malignant Schwann cell growth (benign variant is known as neurofibroma) at a site removed from the primary site of tumor growth. |
| C8823 | The reemergence of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor after a period of remission. |
| C8824 | The reemergence of rhabdomyosarcoma after a period of remission. |
| C8825 | A synovial sarcoma that has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C8826 | Synovial sarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C8827 | The reemergence of synovial sarcoma after a period of remission |
| C8828 | An antiquated term that refers to the reemergence of either nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma or lymphocyte-rich classical Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8829 | An antiquated term that refers either to nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma or to lymphocyte-rich classical Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8830 | "Stage III adult Hodgkin disease means the involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which may also be accompanied by localized involvement of an associated extralymphatic organ or site (IIIE), by involvement of the spleen (IIIS), or by involvement of both (IIIE + S). Stage III disease may be subdivided by anatomic distribution of abdominal involvement or by extent of splenic involvement. Stage III(1) indicates involvement that is limited to the upper abdomen ab... |
| C8831 | "Stage IV adult Hodgkin disease means there is disseminated (multifocal) involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement, or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement with distant (nonregional) nodal involvement. (from PDQ)" |
| C8832 | The reemergence of mixed cellularity classic Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8833 | Mixed cellularity classic Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8834 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE) (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). |
| C8835 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8836 | Hodgkin lymphoma resistant to treatment |
| C88375 | "Stage I includes: IA: T1, N0, M0 and IB: (T0, N1mi, M0); (T1, N1mi, M0).  T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension.  T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension.  T0: No evidence of primary tumor.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1mi: Nodal micrometastases.  M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis.  M0 includes M0(i+).  (AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C88376 | "Stage III includes: IIIA : (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0), IIIB: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0), and IIIC: (any T, N3, M0).  T4: Tumor of any size with direct extension to the chest wall and/or to the skin (ulceration or skin nodules).  N2: Metastases in ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph nodes that are clinically fixed or matted; or in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary nodes in the absence of clinically evident axillary lym... |
| C88377 | "Stage IIIC includes: Any T, N3, M0.  N3: Metastases in ipsilateral infraclavicular (level III) axillary lymph nodes(s) with or without level I, II axillary lymph node involvement; or in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary lymph node(s) with clinically evident level I, II axillary lymph node metastases; or metastases in ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph node(s) with or without axillary or internal mammary lymph node involvement.  M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of dista... |
| C8837 | The reemergence of nodular sclerosis classic Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8838 | Nodular sclerosis classic Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8839 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE) (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). |
| C8840 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C88411 | "A disorder characterized by the presence of persistent and recurrent irrational thoughts (obsessions), resulting in marked anxiety and repetitive excessive behaviors (compulsions) as a way to try to decrease that anxiety." |
| C88412 | "A spectrum of developmental disorders that includes autism, Asperger syndrome, and Rett syndrome. Signs and symptoms include poor communication skills, defective social interactions, and repetitive behaviors." |
| C88413 | A disorder characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that is manifested in childhood or early adolescence. (adapted from DSM-IV) |
| C88414 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); IB: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.0 mm or less in thickness, without ulceration and mitosis less than 1/mm2.  T1b: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.0 mm or less in thickness, with ulceration or mitoses equal to or more than 1/mm2. T2a: Cutaneous melanoma with a tumor measuring 1.01-2.0 mm in thickness, without ulceration.  N0: No regional lymph node metastases.  M0: No detectable evidence of di... |
| C88415 | "Stage III includes: Any T, N1-3, M0.  Stage III is divided into three pathologic subgroups: IIIA, IIIB, and IIIC.  There are no clinical subgroups for stage III.  N1: Cutaneous melanoma with metastasis in one regional lymph node.  N2: Cutaneous melanoma with metastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes or in transit met(s)/satellite(s) without metastatic nodes.  N3: Cutaneous melanoma with 4 or more metastatic nodes, or matted nodes, or in transit met(s)/satellite(s) with metastatic node(s).  M0:... |
| C8841 | The reemergence of B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8842 | B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8843 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). The number of regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3)." |
| C8844 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8845 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8846 | B-cell small lymphocytic lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8847 | Burkitt lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8848 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8849 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8850 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8851 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by a diffuse proliferation of predominantly large neoplastic B lymphocytes.  It is the most frequently seen type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, representing 30%-40% of the cases.  Morphologic variants include centroblastic lymphoma, immunoblastic lymphoma, and anaplastic lymphoma.  Subtypes/entities include T-cell/histiocyte rich large B-cell lymphoma, primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system, plasmablastic lymphoma, primary cutaneou... |
| C8852 | The reemergence of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8853 | Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8854 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8855 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8856 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8857 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8858 | "Follicular lymphoma grade I, II, III that is resistant to treatment." |
| C8859 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8860 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8861 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8862 | Mantle cell lymphoma resistant to treatment. |
| C8863 | "A primary nodal B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma which morphologically resembles lymph nodes involved by marginal zone lymphomas of extranodal or splenic types, but without evidence of extranodal or splenic disease.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C8864 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8865 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8866 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8867 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8868 | "An uncommon type of lymphoma.  It constitutes approximately 10% of cases of lymphoblastic lymphoma.  Approximately 75% of cases reported in a literature review involved patients who were less than 18 years of age.  The most commonly affected sites are the skin, bone, soft tissue, and lymph nodes.  It has a high remission rate with a median survival of approximately 60 months.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C8869 | The reemergence of B lymphoblastic lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8870 | B lymphoblastic lymphoma that does not respond to treatment. |
| C8871 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8872 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8873 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8874 | The reemergence of primary mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8875 | Primary mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma that is resistant to treatment. |
| C8876 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8877 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8878 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8879 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C8880 | An embryonal carcinoma that develops as a primary tumor in an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary. |
| C8881 | A malignant germ cell tumor that develops as a primary tumor in an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary. |
| C8882 |  |
| C8883 |  |
| C8884 | An immature teratoma that develops as a primary tumor in an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary. |
| C8885 | A malignant nongerminomatous germ cell tumor that develops as a primary tumor in an anatomic site other than the testis or ovary. |
| C8886 |  |
| C8887 |  |
| C88888 | "Stage I includes: IA: (T1a, N0, M0); (T1b, N0, M0) and IB: (T2a, N0, M0).  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less n greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its invasive component limited to the bronchial wall, which may extend proximal to the main bronchus, is also classified as T1a.  T1b: Lung ca... |
| C88889 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T2b, N0, M0); (T1a, N1, M0); (T1b, N1, M0); (T2a, N1, M0) and IIB (T2b, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T2b: Lung cancer with a tumor size more than 5 cm but 7 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T1a: Lung cancer with a tumor size of 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus). The uncommon superficial tumor of any size with its i... |
| C8888 |  |
| C88890 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0) and IIIB (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.... |
| C88891 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1a); (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Lung cancer with separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural nodules or malignant pleural (or pericardial) effusion.  M1b: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8889 |  |
| C8890 |  |
| C8891 |  |
| C8892 |  |
| C8893 | Choriocarcinoma that develops in the placenta. It is the rarest form of gestational choriocarcinoma. Metastases to the mother and infant may occur. |
| C8894 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8895 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8896 | "Stage II includes: (T2a, N0, M0); (T2b, N0, M0).  T2a: Tumor invades superficial muscle (inner half).  T2b: Tumor invades deep muscle (outer half).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8897 | "Stage III includes: (T3a, N0, M0); (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0).  T3a: Tumor microscopically invades perivesical tissue.  T3b: Tumor macroscopically invades perivesical tissue (extravesical mass).  T4a: Tumor invades prostatic stroma, uterus, vagina.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C88981 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C88982 | "Stage II includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0); (T2, N1, M0).  T1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor. T2: Nasopharyngeal cancer with parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with unilater... |
| C88983 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0). T1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor confined to the nasopharynx, or tumor extending to oropharynx and/or nasal cavity without parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor. T2: Nasopharyngeal cancer with parapharyngeal extension.  Parapharyngeal extension denotes posterolateral infiltration of tumor.  T3: Nasopharyngeal cancer with tumor involving bon... |
| C88984 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0); IVB (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Nasopharyngeal cancer with intracranial extension and/or involvement of cranial nerves, hypopharynx, orbit, or with extension to the infratemporal fossa/masticator space.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Nasopharyngeal cancer with unilateral metastasis in cervical lymph node(s), 6 cm or less in greatest dimension, above the supraclavicular fossa, and/or unilateral or... |
| C8898 | "Stage IV includes: (T4b, N0, M0); (Any T, N1-3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4b: Tumor invades pelvic wall, abdominal wall.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Single regional lymph node metastasis in the true pelvis (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac, or presacral lymph node).  N2: Multiple regional lymph node metastases in the true pelvis (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac, or presacral lymph node metastasis).  N3: Metastasis to the common iliac lymph nodes.  M0: No dista... |
| C8899 | Stage I bladder carcinoma associated with the presence of bladder carcinoma in situ. |
| C8900 | "Stage III includes: Any pT/TX, Any N, M1, SX.  M1: Distant metastasis. SX: Marker studies not available or not performed.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8901 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C89021 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.  T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 centimeters in greatest dimension or extension to lingual surface of epiglottis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, 3 cm or less in greatest dimension. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89023 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Tumor with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades the larynx, extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, or mandible.  Mucosal extension to lingual surface of epiglottis from primary tumors of the base of the tongue and vallecula does not constitute invasion of larynx. T1: Tumor 2 cm or le... |
| C8902 | The reemergence of bladder squamous cell carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C8903 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C89045 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89046 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor measuring more than 4 cm in greatest dimension or with fixation of hemilarynx or extension to esophagus.  T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2: Tumor invades more than one subsite of the hypopharynx or an adjacent site, or measures more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest diameter without fixation of hemilarynx.  N0: No regional lymph node... |
| C89047 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4a: Tumor with moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades the thyroid/cricoid cartilage, hyoid bone, thyroid gland, or central compartment soft tissue.  Central compartment soft tissue includes prelaryngeal strap muscles and subcutaneous fat.  T1: Tumor limited to one subsite of hypopharynx and/or 2 cm or les... |
| C8904 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8905 | "Stage III includes: (T3a, N0, M0); (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0).  T3a: Tumor microscopically invades perivesical tissue.  T3b: Tumor macroscopically invades perivesical tissue (extravesical mass).  T4a: Tumor invades prostatic stroma, uterus, vagina.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8906 | "Stage IV includes: (T4b, N0, M0); (Any T, N1-3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4b: Tumor invades pelvic wall, abdominal wall.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Single regional lymph node metastasis in the true pelvis (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac, or presacral lymph node).  N2: Multiple regional lymph node metastases in the true pelvis (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac, or presacral lymph node metastasis).  N3: Metastasis to the common iliac lymph nodes.  M0: No dista... |
| C8907 | "Stage I includes: pT1-4, N0, M0, SX.  pT1: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis without vascular/lymphatic invasion; tumor may invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis.  pT2: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis with vascular/lymphatic invasion, or tumor extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis.  pT3: Tumor invades the spermatic cord with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.  pT4: Tumor invades the scrotum with or wi... |
| C8908 | "Stage I includes: pT1-4, N0, M0, SX.  pT1: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis without vascular/lymphatic invasion; tumor may invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis.  pT2: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis with vascular/lymphatic invasion, or tumor extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis.  pT3: Tumor invades the spermatic cord with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.  pT4: Tumor invades the scrotum with or wi... |
| C89091 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4a: Supraglottis: Moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor invades through the thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissues beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of neck including deep extrinsic muscle of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid, or esophagus).  Glottis: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor inva... |
| C8909 | "Stage II includes: Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, SX.  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N1: Metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or less in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 5 cm in greatest d... |
| C8910 | "Stage III includes: Any pT/TX, Any N, M1, SX.  M1: Distant metastasis. SX: Marker studies not available or not performed.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C89117 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB: (T4b, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); IVC: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4a: Maxillary sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades anterior orbital contents, skin of cheek, pterygoid plates, infratemporal fossa, cribriform plate, sphenoid or frontal sinuses.  Nasal cavity and ethmoid sinus: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades any of the following: anterior orbita... |
| C8911 | "Stage II includes: Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, SX.  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N1: Metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or less in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 5 cm in greatest d... |
| C8912 | "Stage I includes: pT1-4, N0, M0, SX.  pT1: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis without vascular/lymphatic invasion; tumor may invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis.  pT2: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis with vascular/lymphatic invasion, or tumor extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis.  pT3: Tumor invades the spermatic cord with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.  pT4: Tumor invades the scrotum with or wi... |
| C8913 | "Stage III includes: Any pT/TX, Any N, M1, SX.  M1: Distant metastasis. SX: Marker studies not available or not performed.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8914 | "Stage I includes: pT1-4, N0, M0, SX.  pT1: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis without vascular/lymphatic invasion; tumor may invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis.  pT2: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis with vascular/lymphatic invasion, or tumor extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis.  pT3: Tumor invades the spermatic cord with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.  pT4: Tumor invades the scrotum with or wi... |
| C8915 | "Stage II includes: Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, SX.  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N1: Metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or less in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 5 cm in greatest d... |
| C89161 | A rare disorder of infancy characterized by marked reduction or absence of megakaryocytes and thrombocytopenia. |
| C8916 | "Stage III includes: Any pT/TX, Any N, M1, SX.  M1: Distant metastasis. SX: Marker studies not available or not performed.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8917 | "Stage I includes: pT1-4, N0, M0, SX.  pT1: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis without vascular/lymphatic invasion; tumor may invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis.  pT2: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis with vascular/lymphatic invasion, or tumor extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis.  pT3: Tumor invades the spermatic cord with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.  pT4: Tumor invades the scrotum with or wi... |
| C8918 | "Stage II includes: Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, SX.  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N1: Metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or less in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 5 cm in greatest d... |
| C89194 | "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0); (Ta, N0, M0).  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  Ta: Non-invasive verrucous carcinoma.  cN0: No palpable or visibly enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.  pN0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89195 | "Stage I includes: T1a, N0, M0.  T1a: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue without lymph vascular invasion and is not poorly differentiated (i.e., grade 3-4).  cN0: No palpable or visibly enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.  pN0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89196 | "Stage II includes: (T1b, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T1b: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue with lymph vascular invasion or is poorly differentiated.  T2: Tumor invades corpus spongiosum or cavernosum.  T3: Tumor invades urethra.  cN0: No palpable or visibly enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.  pN0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89197 | "Stage III includes: IIIa (T1-3, N1, M0); IIIb (T1-3, N2, M0).  T1: Tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue without lymph vascular invasion and is not poorly differentiated (i.e., grade 3-4) or tumor invades subepithelial connective tissue with lymph vascular invasion or is poorly differentiated.  T2: Tumor invades corpus spongiosum or cavernosum.  T3: Tumor invades urethra.  cN1: Palpable mobile unilateral inguinal lymph node.  pN1: Metastasis in a single inguinal lymph node.  cN2: Pa... |
| C89198 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Tumor invades other adjacent structures.  cN3: Palpable fixed inguinal nodal mass or pelvic lymphadenopathy unilateral or bilateral.  pN3: Extranodal extension of lymph node metastasis or pelvic lymph node(s) unilateral or bilateral.  M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis (lymph node metastasis outside of the true pelvis in addition to visceral or bone sites).  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8919 | "Stage III includes: Any pT/TX, Any N, M1, SX.  M1: Distant metastasis. SX: Marker studies not available or not performed.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8920 | "Stage I includes: pT1-4, N0, M0, SX.  pT1: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis without vascular/lymphatic invasion; tumor may invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis.  pT2: Tumor limited to the testis and epididymis with vascular/lymphatic invasion, or tumor extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis.  pT3: Tumor invades the spermatic cord with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.  pT4: Tumor invades the scrotum with or wi... |
| C8921 | "Stage II includes: Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, SX.  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N1: Metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or less in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 5 cm in greatest d... |
| C8922 | "Stage III includes: Any pT/TX, Any N, M1, SX.  M1: Distant metastasis. SX: Marker studies not available or not performed.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C89232 | "Stage I includes: (T1a-c, N0, M0, PSA less than 10, Gleason equal or less than 6); (T2a, N0, M0, PSA less than 10, Gleason equal or less than 6); (T1-2a, N0, M0, PSA X, Gleason X).  T1a: Tumor incidental histologic finding in 5% or less of tissue resected.  T1b: Tumor incidental histologic finding in more than 5% of tissue resected.  T1c: Tumor identified by needle biopsy (e.g., because of elevated PSA).  T2a: Tumor involves one-half of one lobe or less. cN0: No regional lymph node metastas... |
| C89233 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1a-c, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Gleason 7); (T1a-c, N0, M0, PSA equal or more than 10 and less than 20, Gleason equal or less than 6); (T2a, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Gleason equal or less than 7); (T2b, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Gleason equal or less than 7); (T2b, N0, M0, PSA X, Gleason X); IIB (T2c, N0, M0, Any PSA, Any Gleason); (T1-2, N0, M0, PSA equal or more than 20, Any Gleason); (T1-2, N0, M0, Any PSA, Gleason equal or more than 8).  T1a: Tumor incidental h... |
| C89234 | "Stage III includes: T3a-b, N0, M0, Any PSA, Any Gleason.  cT3a: Tumor with extracapsular extension (unilateral or bilateral).  pT3a: Tumor with extraprostatic extension or microscopic invasion of bladder neck.  T3b: Tumor invades seminal vesicle(s).  cN0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  pN0: No positive regional nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89235 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0, Any PSA, Any Gleason); (Any T, N1, M0, Any PSA, Any Gleason); (Any T, Any N, M1, Any PSA, Any Gleason). cT4: Tumor is fixed or invades adjacent structures other than seminal vesicles such as external sphincter, rectum, bladder, levator muscles, and/or pelvic wall.  pT4: Invasion of rectum, levator muscles, and/or pelvic wall.  N1: Metastasis in regional lymph node(s).  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8923 | "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by a predominant immature erythroid population.  There are two subtypes recognized: erythroleukemia and pure erythroid leukemia. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C8924 | Self-limiting form of erythema multiforme. |
| C8925 | "A melanoma that has spread from its primary site to another anatomic site.  Melanomas frequently metastasize to lymph nodes, liver, lungs, and brain." |
| C8926 | The reemergence of centroblastic lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C8927 | "Centroblastic lymphoma, resistant to treatment." |
| C8928 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C8929 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). The number of regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3)." |
| C89301 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Lesions have been divided into T2a and T2b.  T2a is defined as tumor more than 7 cm but less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the kidney.  T2b is defined as tumor greater than 10 cm, limited to the kidney.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89302 | "Stage III includes: (T1 or T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0 or N1, M0).  T1: Lesions have been divided into T1a and T1b.  T1a is defined as tumor 4 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the kidney.  T1b is defined as tumor greater than 4 cm but not more than 7 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the kidney. T2: Lesions have been divided into T2a and T2b.  T2a is defined as tumor more than 7 cm but less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the kidney.  T2b is defined as tumor... |
| C89303 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, Any N, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Tumor invades beyond Gerota's fascia (including contiguous extension into the ipsilateral adrenal gland).  M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8930 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C8931 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C89328 | "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder which occurs during infancy, childhood, or adolescence." |
| C89329 | "A disorder diagnosed in childhood or adolescence age group characterized by aggressive behavior, deceitfulness, destruction of property or violation of rules that is persistent and repetitive, and within a one year period." |
| C8932 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ: intraepithelial or invasion of the lamina propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C89330 | "A disorder diagnosed in childhood that is marked by either physical or mental impairment or both, which in turn affects the child from achieving age related developmental milestones." |
| C89332 | A broad group of psychological disorders with abnormal eating behaviors leading to physiological effects from overeating or insufficient food intake. |
| C89334 | A group of disorders that affect a person's ability to learn or process specific types of information which is in contrast to his/her apparent level of intellect. |
| C89337 | An abnormality of the musculoskeletal system that is present at birth or detected in the neonatal period. |
| C89338 | A childhood disorder that has a neurological basis and manifests as a developmental disability. |
| C8933 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the exocrine pancreatic tissue and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C8934 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the small intestine and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C89366 | "Stage IV includes: (T4b, N0, M0); (Any T, N1-3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4b: Tumor invades pelvic wall, abdominal wall.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Single regional lymph node metastasis in the true pelvis (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac, or presacral lymph node).  N2: Multiple regional lymph node metastases in the true pelvis (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac, or presacral lymph node metastasis).  N3: Metastasis to the common iliac lymph nodes.  M0: No dista... |
| C8936 | "A neoplasm of lymphoblasts committed to the B-cell lineage, typically composed of small to medium-sized blast cells.  When the neoplasm involves predominantly the bone marrow and the peripheral blood, it is called B acute lymphoblastic leukemia.  When it involves nodal or extranodal sites, it is called B lymphoblastic lymphoma. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C8937 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C8938 | A T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the skin and does not respond to treatment. |
| C8939 | "Stage II includes: (T2a, N0, M0); (T2b, N0, M0).  T2a: Tumor invades superficial muscle (inner half).  T2b: Tumor invades deep muscle (outer half).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C8940 | "Stage III includes: (T3a, N0, M0); (T3b, N0, M0); (T4a, N0, M0).  T3a: Tumor microscopically invades perivesical tissue.  T3b: Tumor macroscopically invades perivesical tissue (extravesical mass).  T4a: Tumor invades prostatic stroma, uterus, vagina.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8941 | "Stage IV includes: (T4b, N0, M0); (Any T, N1-3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4b: Tumor invades pelvic wall, abdominal wall.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Single regional lymph node metastasis in the true pelvis (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac, or presacral lymph node).  N2: Multiple regional lymph node metastases in the true pelvis (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac, or presacral lymph node metastasis).  N3: Metastasis to the common iliac lymph nodes.  M0: No dista... |
| C8942 | An adenocarcinoma which originated in the endometrium and has spread to another anatomic site. |
| C8943 | An endometrioid adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site. |
| C89445 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ (preinvasive carcinoma). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. FIGO no longer includes stage 0. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89447 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Invasive vulvar cancer confined to the vulva or perineum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89448 | "Stage IA includes: T1a, N0, M0. T1a: Tumor confined to the vulva and perineum, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, and with stromal invasion no greater than 1 mm.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89449 | "Stage IB includes: T1b, N0, M0.  T1b: Vulvar cancer with tumor size greater than 2 cm, or any size with stromal invasion more than 1.0 mm, confined to the vulva or perineum.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8944 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the vagina and has metastasized to other anatomic sites. |
| C89451 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Vulvar cancer with tumor of any size with extension to adjacent perineal structures (lower/distal 1/3 urethra, lower/distal 1/3 vagina, anal involvement).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89452 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T1/T2, N1a/N1b, M0); IIIB: (T1/T2, N2a/N2b, M0); IIIC: (T1/T2, N2c, M0).  T1: Invasive vulvar cancer confined to the vulva or perineum.  T2: Vulvar cancer with tumor of any size with extension to adjacent perineal structures (lower/distal 1/3 urethra, lower/distal 1/3 vagina, anal involvement).  N1a: Vulvar cancer with one or two lymph node metastasis each measuring 5 mm or less.  N1b: Vulvar cancer with one lymph node metastasis measuring 5 mm or greater.  N2a: V... |
| C89453 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T1/T2, N3, M0); (T3, Any N, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1).  T1: Invasive vulvar cancer confined to the vulva or perineum.  T2: Vulvar cancer with tumor of any size with extension to adjacent perineal structures (lower/distal 1/3 urethra, lower/distal 1/3 vagina, anal involvement).  T3: Vulvar cancer with tumor of any size with extension to any of the following: upper/proximal 2/3 urethra, upper/proximal 2/3 vagina, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa, or fixed to pelvic bo... |
| C89454 | "Stage IVA includes: (T1/T2, N3, M0); (T3, Any N, M0).  T1: Invasive vulvar cancer confined to the vulva or perineum.  T2: Vulvar cancer with tumor of any size with extension to adjacent perineal structures (lower/distal 1/3 urethra, lower/distal 1/3 vagina, anal involvement).  T3: Vulvar cancer with tumor of any size with extension to any of the following: upper/proximal 2/3 urethra, upper/proximal 2/3 vagina, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa, or fixed to pelvic bone.  N3: Vulvar cancer with f... |
| C8945 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the prostate gland and has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C8946 | A carcinoma that arises from the prostate gland and has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C89476 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ (preinvasive carcinoma). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  FIGO no longer includes stage 0. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8947 | "Stage I includes: (T1a-c, N0, M0, PSA less than 10, Gleason equal or less than 6); (T2a, N0, M0, PSA less than 10, Gleason equal or less than 6); (T1-2a, N0, M0, PSA X, Gleason X).  T1a: Tumor incidental histologic finding in 5% or less of tissue resected.  T1b: Tumor incidental histologic finding in more than 5% of tissue resected.  T1c: Tumor identified by needle biopsy (e.g., because of elevated PSA).  T2a: Tumor involves one-half of one lobe or less. cN0: No regional lymph node metastas... |
| C8948 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1a-c, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Gleason 7); (T1a-c, N0, M0, PSA equal or more than 10 and less than 20, Gleason equal or less than 6); (T2a, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Gleason equal or less than 7); (T2b, N0, M0, PSA less than 20, Gleason equal or less than 7); (T2b, N0, M0, PSA X, Gleason X); IIB (T2c, N0, M0, Any PSA, Any Gleason); (T1-2, N0, M0, PSA equal or more than 20, Any Gleason); (T1-2, N0, M0, Any PSA, Gleason equal or more than 8).  T1a: Tumor incidental h... |
| C8949 | "Stage III includes: T3a-b, N0, M0, Any PSA, Any Gleason.  cT3a: Tumor with extracapsular extension (unilateral or bilateral).  pT3a: Tumor with extraprostatic extension or microscopic invasion of bladder neck.  T3b: Tumor invades seminal vesicle(s).  cN0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  pN0: No positive regional nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8950 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0, Any PSA, Any Gleason); (Any T, N1, M0, Any PSA, Any Gleason); (Any T, Any N, M1, Any PSA, Any Gleason). cT4: Tumor is fixed or invades adjacent structures other than seminal vesicles such as external sphincter, rectum, bladder, levator muscles, and/or pelvic wall.  pT4: Invasion of rectum, levator muscles, and/or pelvic wall.  N1: Metastasis in regional lymph node(s).  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8951 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmo... |
| C8952 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to ... |
| C8953 | The reemergence of lung carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C8954 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T1, N1, M0) and IIB (T2, N1, M0) or (T3, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor is 3 cm or less in greatest dimension, surrounded by lung or visceral pleura, and without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus.  T2: Tumor has any of the following features of size or extent: more than 3 cm in greatest dimension; involves the main bronchus, 2 cm or more distal to the carina; invades the visceral pleura; associated with atelectasis or obstructive pneumonit... |
| C89550 | "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0). Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. FIGO no longer includes stage 0. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89551 | "Stage II includes: II (T2, N0, M0); IIA (T2a, N0, M0); IIA1 (T2a1, N0, M0); IIA2 (T2a2, N0, M0); IIB (T2b, N0, M0); T2: Cervical carcinoma invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina. T2a: Tumor without parametrial invasion.  T2a1: Clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2a2: Clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension.  T2b: Tumor with parametrial invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant me... |
| C89552 | "Stage IIA includes: IIA (T2a, N0, M0); IIA1 (T2a1, N0, M0); IIA2 (T2a2, N0, M0).  T2a: Tumor without parametrial invasion.  T2a1: Clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T2a2: Clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8955 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the rete testis.  It  usually presents with a scrotal mass or lumbar pain. |
| C8956 | "T4,N2,MO (from PDQ)" |
| C8957 |  |
| C8959 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, Any N, M0); (Any T, N3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Tumor invades other adjacent structures.  N3: Metastasis in deep inguinal or pelvic lymph node(s) unilateral or bilateral.  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C8960 | An inherited condition characterized by the development of kidney oncocytomas which are often bilateral and multifocal.  This condition may be connected to Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome. |
| C8961 | "The most common gastric polyp in the Western hemisphere.  The lesion consists of a localized hyperplasia of the deep epithelial compartment of the oxyntic mucosa, with variable degrees of cystic dilatation.  Malignant transformation is the exception.  (WHO, 2000)" |
| C8962 | "A non-invasive neoplastic process that affects the epithelium of any part of the digestive system.  It is characterized by the presence of morphologic features of dysplasia (e.g., architectural and cytological epithelial alterations) or, in a minority of cases, lack of such morphologic features, as in colonic sessile serrated adenomas/polyps." |
| C89632 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas.  FIGO no longer includes Stage 0 (Tis). (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89633 | "Stage I includes: I (T1, N0, M0); IA: (T1a, N0, M0); IB (T1b, N0, M0). T1: Tumor confined to corpus uteri. T1a: Tumor limited to the endometrium or invades less than one-half of the myometrium. T1b: Tumor invades one-half or more of the myometrium. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89634 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor invades stromal connective tissue of the cervix but does not extend beyond uterus.  Endocervical glandular involvement only should be considered as Stage I and not as Stage II.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89635 | "Stage III includes: III (T3, N0, M0); IIIA (T3a, N0, M0); IIIB (T3b, N0, M0); IIIC (T1-T3, N1/N2, M0); IIIC1 (T1-T3, N1, M0); IIIC2 (T1-T3, N2, M0). T3: Tumor involves serosa and/or adnexa, vagina, or parametrial tissue. T3a: Tumor involves serosa and/or adnexa (direct extension or metastasis). T3b: Tumor involves vagina (direct extension or metastasis) or parametrial tissue. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis to pelvic lymph nodes. N2: Regional lymph ... |
| C89636 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4, Any N, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). T4: Tumor invades bladder mucosa and/or bowel mucosa (bullous edema is not sufficient to classify a tumor as T4).  M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis (includes metastasis to inguinal lymph nodes, intraperitoneal disease, or lung, liver, or bone.  It excludes metastasis to para-aortic lymph nodes, vagina, pelvic serosa, or adnexa). This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8963 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis (excludes metastasis within the peritoneal cavity). (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C8964 | "A benign or malignant soft tissue neoplasm arising exclusively from the synovial membrane.  Examples include the diffuse giant cell tumor of tendon sheath, localized giant cell tumor of tendon sheath, and malignant giant cell tumor of tendon sheath." |
| C8965 | A benign lesion composed of dilated lymphatic channels. Painless swelling is the usual clinical manifestation. |
| C8966 | Ataxia associated with chaotic multidirectional conjugate eye movements secondary to metastatic tumors to cerebellum.  The most common malignant tumor associated with this paraneoplastic syndrome is lung carcinoma. (NCI) |
| C8967 | "A rare neuroaxonal dystrophy, histologically characterized by axonal spheroids, iron deposition, Lewy body (LB)-like intraneuronal inclusions and neurofibrillary tangles." |
| C8968 | A follicular lymphoma which contains 6-15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field. |
| C89692 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); IIIA (T3a, N0, M0); IIIB (T3b, N0, M0); IIIC (T3c, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor involves one or both fallopian tubes, with peritoneal implants outside the pelvis.  T3a: Microscopic peritoneal metastasis outside the pelvis.  T3b: Macroscopic peritoneal metastasis outside the pelvis 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  T3c: Peritoneal metastasis outside the pelvis and more than 2 cm in diameter.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Regional ly... |
| C8969 | "A low grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the surface of the bone. It usually affects the distal posterior femur, the proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. Painless swelling is the usual clinical sign. Most patients are young adults and the prognosis is usually excellent." |
| C8970 | An intermediate grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm with chondroblastic differentiation.  It arises from the surface of the bone and affects the diaphysis or diaphyseal- metaphyseal portion of the long bones.  A painless mass or swelling is the most common clinical sign.  It is associated with a better prognosis than conventional osteosarcoma. |
| C89715 | "A common, severe type of vascular headache often associated with increased sympathetic activity, resulting in nausea, vomiting, and light sensitivity." |
| C8971 | A poorly circumscribed morphologic variant of rhabdomyosarcoma.  It is characterized by the presence of primitive skeletal muscle differentiation in any stage of myogenesis. |
| C8972 | "A rare, high grade sarcoma that arises from the endometrial stroma or myometrium without a specific type of differentiation. It was previously also known as high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma. In 2014, high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma was reclassified and is currently considered a distinct and rare neoplasm. Undifferentiated uterine sarcoma has a worse prognosis." |
| C8973 | "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that affects the uterine corpus, and rarely, the ovaries, cervix, and vagina. In the uterine corpus it is classified as low grade or high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma. In the remainder of the anatomic sites it is classified as low grade endometrioid stromal sarcoma." |
| C8975 | "An aggressive malignant tumor of the female reproductive system, affecting predominantly elderly menopausal women.  The endometrium and ovary are the most common sites of tumor origin.  Morphologically, it is a high grade tumor, composed of carcinomatous and sarcomatous elements." |
| C89771 | "Stage 0 includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: Tis (HGD), N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Any.  For adenocarcinoma: Tis (HGD), N0, M0, G1, GX.  Tis: High-grade dysplasia.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well differentiated.  GX: Grade cannot be assessed-stage grouping as G1.  Tumor location: Location of the primary cancer site is defined by the position of the upper (proximal) edge of the tumor in the esophagus.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89782 | A form of liver inflammation caused by the hepatitis G virus. |
| C8978 | A benign or borderline adenofibroma characterized by the presence of epithelial cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin and a fibrotic stroma. A representative example is the ovarian mucinous adenofibroma. |
| C89793 | "Stage I includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: IA (T1, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Any); IB (T1, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Any); (T2-3, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Lower, X).  For adenocarcinoma: IA (T1, N0, M0, G1-2, X); IB (T1, N0, M0, G3); (T2, N0, M0, G1-2, GX).  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  G1: Well d... |
| C89794 | "Stage II includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: IIA (T2-3, N0, M0, G1, GX, Tumor location: Upper, middle); (T2-3, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Lower, X); IIB (T2-3, N0, M0, G2-3, Tumor location: Upper, middle); (T1-2, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any).  For adenocarcinoma: IIA (T2, N0, M0, G3); IIB (T3, N0, M0, Any G); (T1-2, N1, M0, Any G).  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria. T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  N0: No reg... |
| C89795 | "Stage III includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: IIIA (T1-2, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T3, N1, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4a, N0, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); IIIB (T3, N2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); IIIC (T4a, N1-2, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (T4b, Any N, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any); (Any T, N3, M0, Any G, Tumor location: Any).  For adenocarcinoma: IIIA (T1-2, N2, M0, Any G); (T3, N1, M0, Any G); (T4a, N0, M0, Any G); IIIB (T3, N2, M0, Any G); IIIC (... |
| C89799 | A rare sex chromosome abnormality in which a male child has 2 extra X chromosomes. |
| C8979 | A benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by mucinous columnar epithelial cells in a fibrotic stroma. |
| C89801 | A rare sex chromosome abnormality in which a male child has an extra X and Y chromosome. |
| C89802 | A rare sex chromosome abnormality in which a female child has 3 extra X chromosomes. |
| C89804 | "Stage IV includes: For squamous cell carcinoma: Any T, Any N, M1, Any G, Tumor location: Any.  For adenocarcinoma: Any T, Any N, M1, Any G. M1: Distant metastasis.  Tumor location: Location of the primary cancer site is defined by the position of the upper (proximal) edge of the tumor in the esophagus.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89815 | A carcinoma that originates from the colonic wall and has spread to the lungs. |
| C8984 | "A benign or borderline neoplasm characterized by the presence of connective tissue stroma and epithelial structures. It occurs in the ovary, fallopian tube, uterine corpus, and cervix." |
| C89856 | "Stage I includes: IA (T1, N0, M0); IB (T2, N0, M0); (T1, N1, M0).  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89859 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T3, N0, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); IIB (T4a, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T1, N3, M0).  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates subserosal connective tissue without invasion of visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures.  T4a: Tumor invades serosa (visceral peritoneum).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 regional lymph nodes.  N2: Met... |
| C8985 | A benign or borderline neoplasm that arises from the ovaries and the fallopian tubes. It is characterized by the presence of cystic glandular structures and fibrous tissue. |
| C89860 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T4a, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T2, N3, M0); IIIB (T4b, N0, M0); (T4b, N1, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); (T3, N3, M0); IIIC (T4b, N2, M0); (T4b, N3, M0); (T4a, N3, M0).  T2: Tumor invades the muscularis propria. T3: Tumor penetrates subserosal connective tissue without invasion of visceral peritoneum or adjacent structures.  T4a: Tumor invades serosa (visceral peritoneum).  T4b: Tumor invades adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastasis in 1-2 reg... |
| C89861 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C8986 | A biphasic polypoid neoplasm characterized by the presence of papillary projections that are lined by epithelial cells and fibrotic stroma. |
| C8987 | A benign or borderline neoplasm characterized by the presence of glandular structures which contain clear cells and a fibrotic stroma. |
| C8988 | A benign or borderline neoplasm characterized by the presence of cystic glandular and fibrous tissues and clear cells. |
| C8989 | A benign or malignant neoplasm involving the oral cavity and/or the lips. |
| C8990 | "A carcinoma arising in the oral cavity.  Most oral cavity carcinomas are squamous cell carcinomas of the tongue, buccal mucosa, or gums.  Less frequent morphologic variants include mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenocarcinoma." |
| C8991 | "A group of malignant mast cell disorders including aggressive systemic mastocytosis, mast cell leukemia, mast cell sarcoma, and systemic mastocytosis with an associated myeloid neoplasm. Individuals with advanced systemic mastocytosis have a reduced life expectancy, with median survival measured in months to years." |
| C8993 | A carcinoma of the ureter.  The majority of ureter carcinomas are transitional cell and less frequently squamous cell carcinomas or adenocarcinomas. |
| C8994 | An antiquated term that refers to a follicular non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed predominantly of large B-lymphocytes. |
| C8995 |  |
| C8996 |  |
| C8997 | A rare embryonal neoplasm affecting children. It is associated with DICER1 gene mutation. This category includes pituitary gland blastoma and pleuropulmonary blastoma. |
| C89989 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T3, N0, M0); IIB (T4a, N0, M0); IIC (T4b, N0, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues.  T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.  T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89990 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T3, N0, M0); IIB (T4a, N0, M0); IIC (T4b, N0, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues.  T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.  T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89991 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T3, N0, M0); IIB (T4a, N0, M0); IIC (T4b, N0, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues.  T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.  T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89992 | "Stage II includes: IIA (T3, N0, M0); IIB (T4a, N0, M0); IIC (T4b, N0, M0). T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues.  T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.  T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89994 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0); IIIB (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0); IIIC (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0).  T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues.  T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.  T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph no... |
| C89995 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0); IIIB (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0); IIIC (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0).  T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues.  T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.  T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph no... |
| C89996 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0); IIIB (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0); IIIC (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0).  T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues.  T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.  T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N0: No regional lymph no... |
| C89997 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1-T2, N1/N1c, M0); (T1, N2a, M0); IIIB (T3-T4a, N1/N1c, M0); (T2-T3, N2a, M0); (T1-T2, N2b, M0); IIIC (T4a, N2a, M0); (T3-T4a, N2b, M0); (T4b, N1-N2, M0).  T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  T3: Tumor invades through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues.  T4a: Tumor penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.  T4b: Tumor directly invades or is adherent to other organs or structures. N1: Metastasis in 1-3 re... |
| C89998 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, Any N, M1a); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Metastasis confined to one organ or site (e.g., liver, lung, ovary, nonregional node).  M1b: Metastases in more than one organ/site or the peritoneum. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C89999 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, Any N, M1a); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Metastasis confined to one organ or site (e.g., liver, lung, ovary, nonregional node).  M1b: Metastases in more than one organ/site or the peritoneum. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C90016 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, Any N, M1a); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Metastasis confined to one organ or site (e.g., liver, lung, ovary, nonregional node).  M1b: Metastases in more than one organ/site or the peritoneum. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C90019 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, Any N, M1a); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1b).  M1a: Metastasis confined to one organ or site (e.g., liver, lung, ovary, nonregional node).  M1b: Metastases in more than one organ/site or the peritoneum. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C9003 | "A benign neoplasm that can arise from any of the adrenal cortical layers.  It can be associated with the overproduction of glucocorticoids (Cushing's syndrome), androgenic or estrogenic steroids (adrenogenital syndrome), or mineralocorticoids (Conn's syndrome). (Sternberg Diagnostic Surgical Pathology, 3rd ed.)" |
| C9004 | "A neoplasm that arises from the adrenal cortex and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C9005 | A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the pancreas.  Representative examples include carcinoma and lymphoma. |
| C9006 | "A common benign neoplasm usually affecting older individuals. The lesions usually arise in the trunk, head and neck, but they can occur on any skin surface other than the palms, soles, and mucosal surfaces. They appear as flat-based papules or plaques. Histologically, there is intraepidermal proliferation of basaloid keratinocytes, acanthosis, hyperkeratosis, and cysts formation." |
| C9007 | Seborrheic keratosis that arises from follicular structures in the skin. It presents as a solitary nodule in the skin and is characterized by the presence of prominent squamous eddies. |
| C9009 | "A benign squamous neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern, diffusely involving a specific anatomic site." |
| C9010 |  |
| C9011 | "A mature teratoma characterized by the presence of a cyst which is lined by mature tissue resembling the epidermis and the epidermal appendages. It occurs in the ovary, testis, and extragonadal sites including central nervous system and skin." |
| C9012 |  |
| C9013 |  |
| C9014 |  |
| C9015 | "A teratoma which may be cystic; it is composed entirely of well differentiated, adult-type mature tissues, without evidence of fetal-type immature tissues (grade 0 teratoma)." |
| C9016 | A plasmablastic oral mucosa lymphoma in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. |
| C9017 | Primary effusion lymphoma occurring in HIV-positive patients. |
| C90180 | "Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3a, N0, M0); IIIB: (T3b, N0, M0); IIIC: (T4, N0, M0). T3a: Multiple tumors more than 5 cm. T3b: Single tumor or multiple tumors of any size involving a major branch of the portal vein or hepatic vein.  T4: Tumors(s) with direct invasion of adjacent organs other than the gallbladder or with perforation of visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C90181 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, N1, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C9018 | Acute myeloid leukemia characterized by the presence of abnormal bone marrow eosinophils and the characteristic cytogenetic abnormality inv(16)(p13.1q22) which results in the expression of the fusion protein CBFB-MYH11. |
| C9019 | Acute myeloid leukemia characterized by the presence of abnormal bone marrow eosinophils and the characteristic cytogenetic abnormality t(16;16)(p13.1;q22) which results in the expression of the fusion protein CBFB-MYH11. |
| C9020 | Acute myelomonocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of abnormal bone marrow eosinophils. It is associated with inv(16)(p13.1;q22) or t(16;16)(p13.1;q22). It has a favorable prognosis. |
| C90216 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor invades lamina propria or muscular layer.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C90217 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor invades perimuscular connective tissue; no extension beyond serosa or into liver.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C90218 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T3, N0, M0); IIIB (T1-3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor perforates the serosa (visceral peritoneum) and/or directly invades the liver and/or one other adjacent organ or structure, such as the stomach, duodenum, colon, pancreas, omentum, or extrahepatic bile ducts.  T1: Tumor invades lamina propria or muscular layer.  T2: Tumor invades perimuscular connective tissue; no extension beyond serosa or into liver. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastases to nodes along ... |
| C90219 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4, N0-1, M0); IVB (Any T, N2, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Tumor invades the main portal vein or hepatic artery, or invades two or more extrahepatic organs or structures.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  N1: Metastases to nodes along the cystic duct, common bile duct, hepatic artery, and/or portal vein. N2: Metastases to periaortic, pericaval, superior mesenteric artery, and/or celiac artery lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis. ... |
| C9022 | An astrocytic tumor appearing before the age of twenty one without designation of benign or malignant nor designated location. |
| C9023 | "Grading of sarcomas according to the French Federation of Cancer Centers Sarcoma Group (FNCLCC). This sarcoma grading system is based on three factors: differentiation, mitotic count, and tumor necrosis. The scores for each factor are added to determine the grade (1 to 3) for the sarcoma." |
| C9024 | A sarcoma with a total score of 2 or 3 according to the FNCLCC guidelines. |
| C9025 | A well-differentiated malignant neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a herringbone growth pattern. |
| C9026 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that is low-grade. |
| C9027 | "A low-grade chondrosarcoma characterized by the presence of moderate cellularity, hyperchromatic and plump nuclei of uniform size, and occasional binucleated cells.  Mitotic figures are absent." |
| C9028 | A sarcoma with a total score of 4 or 5 according to the FNCLCC guidelines. |
| C9029 | A sarcoma with a total score of 6 or higher according to the FNCLCC guidelines. |
| C9030 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that is high-grade. |
| C9031 | "An angiosarcoma characterized by the presence of significant cytologic atypia, necrosis and high mitotic activity." |
| C9032 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE) (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). |
| C9033 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C90343 | "A term that refers to the staging of renal cell cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90344 | "A term that refers to the staging of bladder cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90345 | "A term that refers to the staging of vulvar carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90347 | "A term that refers to the staging of vaginal cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C9034 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C9035 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C9036 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N1-3, M0); (T1-3, N3, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1:Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C9037 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C9038 | "A non-small cell lung carcinoma detectable by sputum cytology only.  The primary tumor is undetectable radiographically or during bronchoscopy; therefore, it can not be assessed." |
| C9039 | A carcinoma arising from either the exocervical squamous epithelium or the endocervical glandular epithelium. The major histologic types of cervical carcinoma are squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. |
| C9040 | An angiosarcoma occurring in the adult population. |
| C9041 | An ependymoma that arises from the infratentorial region of the brain and occurs during childhood. |
| C9042 | A glioma that arises from the brain stem and occurs during childhood. |
| C9043 | "An ependymoma, not otherwise specified that arises from the supratentorial region of the brain and occurs during childhood." |
| C9044 | A parathyroid gland carcinoma that has spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C9045 | The reemergence of central nervous system neoplasm in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C9046 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that occurs during childhood and has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C9047 | Retinoblastoma during childhood that has not spread beyond the eye. |
| C9048 | Retinoblastoma during childhood that has spread beyond the eye. |
| C90493 | "A term that refers to the staging of cervical cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90494 | "A term that refers to the staging of uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90499 | "A term that refers to the staging of fallopian tube carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C9049 | Small cell lung carcinoma which has spread beyond one hemi-thorax and the regional lymph nodes. |
| C90500 | "A term that refers to the staging of esophageal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90503 |  |
| C90506 | "A term that refers to the staging of colorectal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90507 | "A term that refers to the staging of colon carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90508 | "A term that refers to the staging of rectal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90509 | "A term that refers to the staging of rectosigmoid carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C9050 | The reemergence of small cell carcinoma of the lung after a period of remission. |
| C90510 | "A term that refers to the staging of hepatocellular carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90512 | "A term that refers to the staging of gallbladder cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90513 | "A term that refers to the staging of breast cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90514 | "A term that refers to the staging of cutaneous melanoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v6 classification system." |
| C90519 | "A term that refers to the staging of lung carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C9051 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor confined to the vulva or vulva and perineum, more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C90520 | "A term that refers to the staging of penile carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90521 | "A term that refers to the staging of prostate carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90522 | "A term that refers to the staging of nasopharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90523 | "A term that refers to the staging of oropharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90524 | "A term that refers to the staging of hypopharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90525 | "A term that refers to the staging of pharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90527 | "A term that refers to the staging of laryngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C90528 | "A term that refers to the staging of nasal cavity and paranasal sinus carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 6th edition." |
| C9052 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Tumor of any size with contiguous spread to the lower urethra and/or vagina or anus. N1: Unilateral regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C9053 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, Any N, M0); IVB (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Tumor invades any of the following: upper urethra bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa, or is fixed to the pubic bone.  N2: Bilateral regional lymph node metastasis.  M1: distant metastasis (including pelvic lymph node metastasis).  (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C9054 | The reemergence of vulvar carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C9055 | "A carcinoma that arises from the Bartholin gland. It usually affects women over fifty and presents with enlargement of the Bartholin gland. Various histologic subtypes have been identified and include adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, adenosquamous carcinoma, transitional cell carcinoma, and small cell carcinoma." |
| C9056 | "Stage I: A single tumor or nodal area is involved, excluding the abdomen and mediastinum (from PDQ)." |
| C9057 | "Stage II: Disease extent is limited to a single tumor with regional node involvement, 2 or more tumors or nodal areas involved on one side of the diaphragm, or a primary gastrointestinal tract tumor (completely resected) with or without regional node involvement (from PDQ)." |
| C9058 | "Stage III: Tumors or involved lymph node areas occur on both sides of the diaphragm. Stage III also includes any primary intrathoracic (mediastinal, pleural, or thymic) disease, extensive primary intra-abdominal disease, or any paraspinal or epidural tumors (from PDQ)." |
| C90598 | Epidermolysis bullosa characterized by separation of the skin through the lamina lucida resulting in blister formation. It includes lethal and non-lethal variants. |
| C90599 | "Chronic lung disease requiring treatment with oxygen for at least 28 days and with a spectrum of severity from mild to severe, that predominantly affects premature infants. While the radiologic pattern is typical in the closer to term patient, the pattern in the small preterm infant is very non-discrete and variable." |
| C9059 | Stage IV: Tumors involve bone marrow and/or central nervous system (CNS) regardless of other sites of involvement (from PDQ). |
| C9060 | The reemergence of lymphoblastic lymphoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C9061 | A carcinoma that arises from the penis. Risk factors include phimosis and human papillomavirus infection. The majority of penile carcinomas are squamous cell carcinomas. The most frequent clinical presentation is an irregular mass in the glans of the penis. Treatment includes surgical management and radiation therapy. |
| C9062 | A Burkitt lymphoma occurring in adults. |
| C9063 | "A malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the testis. It predominantly affects young men. Seminoma is the most frequently seen malignant testicular germ cell tumor, followed by embryonal carcinoma and yolk sac tumor." |
| C9064 | An adult hepatocellular carcinoma that is confined to the liver and is amenable to surgical resection. |
| C9065 | An adult hepatocellular carcinoma that is confined to the liver and is not amenable to surgical resection. |
| C9067 | A hepatocellular carcinoma that occurs during adulthood and has recurred after a period of remission. |
| C9068 | The reemergence of acute myeloid leukemia in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C9069 | A usually malignant gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the pancreas.  It may or may not be associated with inappropriate secretion of gastrin and an associated clinical syndrome. |
| C9070 | "The reemergence of chronic myeloid leukemia, BCR-ABL1 positive after a period of remission." |
| C9071 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C9072 | The reemergence of a malignant uterine corpus neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C9073 | "Stage II includes: Any pT/TX, N1-3, M0, SX.  pTX: Primary tumor cannot be assessed.  N1: Metastasis with a lymph node mass 2 cm or less in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 2cm in greatest dimension.  N2: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, any one mass greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.  N3: Metastasis with a lymph node mass more than 5 cm in greatest d... |
| C9074 | "Stage III includes: Any pT/TX, Any N, M1, SX.  M1: Distant metastasis. SX: Marker studies not available or not performed.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C9075 | "Stage IV includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1) (Any G).  T4: Tumor is fixed or invades adjacent structures other than seminal vesicles: bladder neck, external sphincter, rectum, levator muscles, and/or pelvic wall.  N1: Metastasis in regional lymph node(s).  M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C9076 | A diffuse large cell lymphoma occurring in children. |
| C9077 | Malignant testicular germ cell tumor that is resistant to treatment. |
| C9079 | An immunoblastic lymphoma (a variant of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma) occurring in children. |
| C9080 | A morphologically malignant thymoma that is entirely confined within the capsule. |
| C9081 | "Stage I includes: Under 45 years: Any T, Any N, M0.  45 years and older: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C9082 | "Stage II includes: Under 45 years: Any T, Any N, M1.  45 years and older: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis.  M0: No evidence of distant metastasis.  (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C9083 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1a, M0); (T1, N1b, M0); (T2, N1b, M0); (T3, N1b, M0); (T4a, N1b, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor of any size extending beyond the thyroid gland capsule to invade subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus, or recurrent laryngeal nerve.  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in gre... |
| C9084 | "Stage I includes: Under 45 years: Any T, Any N, M0.  45 years and older: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C9085 | "Stage II includes: Under 45 years: Any T, Any N, M1.  45 years and older: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M1: Distant metastasis.  M0: No evidence of distant metastasis.  (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C9086 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1a, M0); (T1, N1b, M0); (T2, N1b, M0); (T3, N1b, M0); (T4a, N1b, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Moderately advanced local disease.  Tumor of any size extending beyond the thyroid gland capsule to invade subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus, or recurrent laryngeal nerve. T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in grea... |
| C9087 | A malignant neoplasm characterized by a vascular proliferation which usually contains blunt endothelial cells. Erythrocyte extravasation and hemosiderin deposition are frequently present. The most frequent site of involvement is the skin; however it may also occur internally. It generally develops in people with compromised immune systems including those with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). |
| C9088 | A uveal melanoma that arises from the iris.  It is the most common primary malignant neoplasm of the iris.  The majority arise in preexisting nevi. |
| C9089 | Ciliary body and choroid melanoma measuring less than 10 mm in greatest diameter. |
| C9090 | Ciliary body and choroid melanoma measuring between 2.5 mm and 10 mm in height and 16 mm or less in basal diameter (medium-sized) or more than 10 mm in height or more than 2 mm in height and more than 16 mm in basal diameter or more than 8 mm in height with optic nerve involvement (large-sized). (Collaborative Ocular Melanoma Study) |
| C9091 | A brain stem glioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C9092 | An ependymoma occurring in adults. |
| C9093 | A meningioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C9094 | A glioblastoma occurring in adults. |
| C9095 | A Burkitt lymphoma occurring in children. |
| C9096 | "Stage IV includes: (Any T, Any N, M1).  M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)" |
| C9097 | Reemergence of a melanoma of the skin after a period of remission. |
| C9098 |  |
| C9099 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C9100 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C9101 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C9102 | "Stage IIIA includes: (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N1: Lung cancer with metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmo... |
| C9103 | "Stage IIIB includes: (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.  N2: Lung cancer with metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.  N3: Lung cancer with metastasis to ... |
| C9104 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C9105 | "Carcinoma, predominantly squamous cell, arising from the epithelial cells of the oropharynx." |
| C9106 | "A carcinoma that arises from the urethra. Morphologically, the tumors are similar to those described in the bladder." |
| C9107 | "A solid neoplasm (e.g., carcinoma, sarcoma) occurring in children." |
| C9108 |  |
| C9109 |  |
| C9110 | "An advanced phase of chronic myeloid leukemia.  It is characterized by: 1.  the presence of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow that are at least 20% of the peripheral blood white cells or of the nucleated cells in the bone marrow respectively, or 2. an extramedullary proliferation of blasts, and/or 3. when there are large aggregates and clusters of blasts in the bone marrow biopsy specimen (adapted from WHO, 2001)." |
| C9111 | "Infiltration of the meninges by chronic myeloid leukemia, BCR-ABL1 positive." |
| C9112 | "A vascular sarcoma that commonly occurs in the lower extremities. It occurs predominantly in elderly male patients of southern European ancestry. It is characterized by the presence of purple, red-blue, or dark brown macular lesions, plaques and nodules.  This disease is usually slow growing, although it can spread to the lungs and the gastrointestinal tract. If necessary, cutaneous lesions can be treated with radiation." |
| C9113 | A Kaposi sarcoma that develops after immunosuppressive treatment. |
| C9117 | The reemergence of metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of unknown primary in the neck region after a period of remission. |
| C9118 | "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm of the soft tissue or bone. It arises from muscle, fat, fibrous tissue, bone, cartilage, and blood vessels. Sarcomas occur in both children and adults. The prognosis depends largely on the degree of differentiation (grade) of the neoplasm. Representative subtypes are liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, osteosarcoma, and chondrosarcoma." |
| C9119 | "An infiltrating breast carcinoma with a relatively favorable prognosis.  It is an uncommon carcinoma, accounting for less than 1% of all infiltrating breast carcinomas.  It is well circumscribed, with soft cut surface and often of considerable size.  Microscopically, the predominant growth pattern is syncytial with broad anastomosing bands or sheets of malignant cells.  The malignant cells are round with abundant cytoplasm and vesicular nuclei.  The sheets of malignant cells are associated ... |
| C91201 | "A term that refers to the staging of renal cell cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91202 | "A term that refers to the staging of bladder cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91203 | "A term that refers to the staging of vulvar carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91204 | "A term that refers to the staging of vaginal cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91208 | "A term that refers to the staging of cervical cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C9120 | "An infiltrating adenocarcinoma that arises from the epithelial cells of the pancreas.  It affects males more often than females and the patients are usually over 50 years of age.  Microscopically it is characterized by the presence of glandular (ductal) differentiation and desmoplastic stroma formation.  Signs and symptoms include pain, loss of weight, and jaundice.  It grows rapidly and is usually detected after it has metastasized to other anatomic sites.  The prognosis is usually poor." |
| C91218 | "A term that refers to the staging of uterine corpus carcinoma or carcinosarcoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91219 | "A term that refers to the staging of fallopian tube carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C9121 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1a, M0); (T2, N1a, M0); (T3, N1a, M0). T3: Tumor greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension and limited to the thyroid gland, or tumor of any size with minimal extrathyroid extension (e.g., extension to sternothyroid muscle or perithyroid soft tissues).  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lym... |
| C91221 | "A term that refers to the staging of esophageal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91222 | "A term that refers to the staging of gastric carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91223 | "A term that refers to the staging of colorectal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91224 | "A term that refers to the staging of colon carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91225 | "A term that refers to the staging of rectal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91226 | "A term that refers to the staging of rectosigmoid carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91228 | "A term that refers to the staging of hepatocellular carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91229 | "A term that refers to the staging of gallbladder cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C9122 | "Stage III includes: (T3, N0, M0); (T1, N1a, M0); (T2, N1a, M0); (T3, N1a, M0). T3: Tumor greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension and limited to the thyroid gland, or tumor of any size with minimal extrathyroid extension (e.g., extension to sternothyroid muscle or perithyroid soft tissues).  T1: Tumor size 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  T2: Tumor more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the thyroid gland.  N0: No regional lym... |
| C91230 | "A term that refers to the staging of breast cancer according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91231 | "A term that refers to the staging of cutaneous melanoma, following the rules of the TNM AJCC v7 classification system." |
| C91232 | "A term that refers to the staging of lung carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91233 | "A term that refers to the staging of prostate carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91234 | "A term that refers to the staging of penile carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91244 | "A term that refers to the staging of nasopharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91248 | "A term that refers to the staging of oropharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C9124 | A lymphoblastic lymphoma occurring in children. |
| C91251 | "A term that refers to the staging of hypopharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91252 | "A term that refers to the staging of pharyngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91255 | "A term that refers to the staging of nasal cavity and paranasal sinus carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C91256 | "A term that refers to the staging of laryngeal carcinoma according to the American Joint Committee on Cancer, 7th edition." |
| C9125 | Lymphocyte-depleted classic Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in adults. |
| C9126 | Nodular sclerosis classic Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in adults. |
| C9127 | Mixed cellularity classic Hodgkin lymphoma occurring in adults. |
| C9128 | "A chronic myeloid leukemia characterized by the t(9;22)(q34;q11) chromosomal translocation, resulting in the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome and the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene." |
| C9129 | "A chronic myeloid leukemia that does not have the characteristic t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation but it has either a variant translocation or a cryptic translocation that cannot be detected by conventional cytogenetic analysis.  In such cases the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene is always detected by RT-PCR, FISH, or Southern blot analysis." |
| C9130 | An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle in adults. |
| C9131 | "An invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by the presence of islands of small and uniform cells, surrounded by large amounts of mucin.  Pure mucinous breast carcinomas generally have a favorable prognosis." |
| C9132 | An invasive breast carcinoma of no special type characterized by the presence of a predominant ductal carcinoma in situ component and a minor component of invasive carcinoma. |
| C9133 | An aggressive carcinoma with a poor prognosis characterized by a presence of both malignant squamous cells and glandular cells. |
| C9134 | "A breast carcinoma characterized by the formation of irregular, finger-like projections of fibrous stroma covered with neoplastic epithelial cells." |
| C9135 | An invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast with a favorable prognosis.  It is composed of tubular structures lined by a single layer of epithelium. |
| C9136 | A breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of a predominant lobular carcinoma in situ component and a minor component of invasive carcinoma. |
| C9137 | A morphologic variant of small cell lung carcinoma in combination with a non-small cell carcinoma. |
| C9140 | A B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during childhood. |
| C9141 | "A non-T, non-B, acute lymphoblastic leukemia in which the lymphoblasts are positive for the common acute lymphoblastic leukemia antigen (CALLA) occurring in children." |
| C9142 | A T acute lymphoblastic leukemia occurring in adults. |
| C9143 | A B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that occurs during adulthood. |
| C9144 | "A non-T, non-B, acute lymphoblastic leukemia in which the lymphoblasts are positive for the common acute lymphoblastic leukemia antigen (CALLA) occurring in adults." |
| C9145 | "A usually aggressive malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm, predominantly affecting adolescents and young adults. It usually involves bones and less frequently extraosseous sites. It often involves the long bones (particularly distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus). Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most frequent clinical symptom. It may spread to other anatomic sites, particularly the lungs." |
| C9146 | Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the predominance of the epithelial component.  The epithelial cells may form papillary and tubular patterns and pseudorosettes. |
| C9147 | Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the predominance of the blastema component. |
| C9148 | Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the predominance of the mesenchymal component. |
| C9149 | "Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the presence of blastema, epithelial, and mesenchymal components (triphasic pattern) or a combination of two of them (biphasic pattern)." |
| C9150 | A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma arising from organs with a mucosal epithelial surface.  It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules within an abundant myxoid stroma. |
| C9151 | "A melanoma of the skin characterized by single cell infiltration of the papillary dermis by atypical melanocytes, in a background of lentigo maligna changes." |
| C9152 | "A cutaneous melanoma that develops on sun-exposed sites with low cumulative sun damage (CSD). It typically occurs in light-skinned individuals ranging in age from young adults to the elderly. It arises from any cutaneous site, except the palms and soles." |
| C9153 | An acute erythroid leukemia that occurs in adults. |
| C9154 | An acute myeloid leukemia that occurs in adults. |
| C9155 | An acute promyelocytic leukemia with t(15;17)(q24.1;q21.2); PML-RARA that occurs in adults. |
| C9156 | An acute monoblastic leukemia that occurs in adults. |
| C9157 | "An adenocarcinoma of the stomach arising on a background of intestinal metaplasia.  Microscopically, it is characterized by a glandular pattern and it closely resembles a colonic adenocarcinoma." |
| C9158 | An acute myeloid leukemia without maturation that occurs in children. |
| C9159 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the stomach.  Microscopically, it is characterized by the presence of a diffuse infiltrate, composed of individual adenocarcinoma cells or groups of adenocarcinoma cells in a fibrous or mucoid stroma.  Many cells contain mucin droplets, producing a signet-ring configuration." |
| C9160 | An acute myeloid leukemia that occurs in children. |
| C9161 | "A squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) arising from the anal canal or the anal margin (perianal skin). Human papillomavirus is detected in the majority of cases. Homosexual HIV-positive men have an increased risk of developing anal squamous cell carcinoma in comparison to the general male population. Symptoms include anal pruritus, discomfort when sitting, pain, change in bowel habit, and bleeding. The prognosis is generally better for anal margin SCC than for anal canal SCC." |
| C9162 | An acute monoblastic leukemia that occurs in children. |
| C9163 | An acute monocytic leukemia that occurs in children. |
| C9164 | An acute erythroid leukemia that occurs in children. |
| C9165 | An acute eosinophilic leukemia occurring in children. |
| C9166 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the gallbladder.  It is the most common malignant tumor of the gallbladder and it is usually well to moderately differentiated.  The incidence is higher in patients with gallstones than in patients without gallstones.  Signs and symptoms usually present late in the course of the disease and are reminiscent of those of chronic cholecystitis including right upper quadrant pain.  Histologic variants include adenocarcinoma of the intestinal type, clear cell adenoc... |
| C9167 | A carcinoma that arises from the gallbladder and shows no evidence of differentiation. |
| C9168 | An infiltrating adenocarcinoma arising from the rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells with prominent intracytoplasmic mucin.  These cells constitute more than 50% of the malignant cellular population. |
| C9169 | An infiltrating adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder characterized by the presence of metaplastic changes of the malignant glandular cells to squamous cells. |
| C9170 | A carcinoma that arises from the gallbladder.  It is composed entirely by malignant squamous epithelial cells. |
| C9172 | "A malignant germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It is characterized by a mixture of embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac, and seminomatous morphologic elements.  Patients may present with painless or painful testicular swelling." |
| C9173 | A malignant germ cell tumor arising from the testis.  It is characterized by a mixture of choriocarcinoma and seminomatous morphologic elements.  Patients may present with painless or painful testicular swelling. |
| C91741 | An intraepithelial squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the external auditory canal without evidence of invasion. |
| C9174 | An angiosarcoma occurring in childhood. |
| C91762 | "Decreased lung volume and inadequate ventilation due to parenchymal lung disorders (e.g., interstitial pulmonary fibrosis) or extrapulmonary disorders (e.g., scoliosis).  Patients present with shortness of breath and cough." |
| C9176 | Gestational trophoblastic tumor that is confined to the site in which it initially manifested. |
| C9177 | Metastatic gestational trophoblastic tumor in which risk factors are absent. |
| C91782 | "An acquired anemia resulting from immune-mediated destruction of the red blood cells. Causes include autoimmune disorders, blood transfusions, and drugs." |
| C9178 | Metastatic gestational trophoblastic tumor in which risk factors are present. |
| C9179 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4, Any N, M0); IVB (Any T, Any N, M1).  T4: Tumor involves bladder or rectum.  M0: No distant metastasis.  M1: Distal metastasis (excluding adnexa, pelvic and abdominal tissues).  This staging applies to leiomyosarcoma, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and adenosarcoma. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C9180 | An aggressive malignant mixed epithelial and mesenchymal tumor that arises from the uterine corpus. It usually affects elderly postmenopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant epithelial component that is usually glandular and a sarcomatous component. |
| C9181 | The reemergence of carcinoma from an unknown primary after a period of remission. |
| C9182 | "An insidious, locally aggressive, poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern. It lacks metastatic potential." |
| C9183 | "A solitary fibrous tumor, grade 3 that arises from the brain and occurs in adults." |
| C9184 | A non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises within the eyeball. |
| C9185 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C9186 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C9187 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C9188 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C9189 | The reemergence of Burkitt lymphoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C9190 | The reemergence of brain stem glioma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C9191 | The reemergence of cerebral astrocytoma in childhood after a period of remission. |
| C9192 | "A highly aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the ovary.  Morphologically, it is a high grade tumor, composed of carcinomatous and sarcomatous elements." |
| C9193 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C9194 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C9195 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C9196 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C9197 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C9198 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C9199 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C9200 | "Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or localized involvement of a single associated extralymphatic organ or site and its regional lymph nodes with or without other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). Note: The number of lymph node regions involved may be indicated by a subscript (e.g., II3). (from PDQ)" |
| C9202 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C9204 | "Stage I includes: I (T1, N0, M0); IA (T1a, N0, M0); IA1 (T1a1, N0, M0); IA2 (T1a2, N0, M0); IB (T1b, N0, M0); IB1(T1b1, N0, M0); IB2 (T1b2, N0, M0). T1: Cervical carcinoma confined to uterus (extension to corpus should be disregarded). T1a: Invasive carcinoma diagnosed only by microscopy. Stromal invasion with a maximum depth of 5.0 mm measured from the base of the epithelium and a horizontal spread of 7.0 mm or less. Vascular space involvement, venous or lymphatic, does not affect classifi... |
| C9205 | "Stage III includes: III (T3, N0, M0); IIIA (T3a, N0, M0); IIIB (T1, N1, M0), (T2, N1, M0), (T3a, N1, M0), (T3b, Any N, M0). T3: Tumor extends to pelvic wall and/or involves lower third of vagina, and/or causes hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney. T3a: Tumor involves lower third of vagina, no extension to pelvic wall.  T3b: Tumor extends to pelvic wall and/or causes hydronephrosis or non functioning kidney.  N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7t... |
| C9206 | "Stage IV includes: IVA: (T4, Any N, M0); IVB (Any T, Any N, MI). T4: Tumor invades mucosa of bladder or rectum, and/or extends beyond true pelvis (bullous edema is not sufficient to classify a tumor as T4). M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C9207 | "Stage I includes: I (T1, N0, M0); IA: (T1a, N0, M0); IB (T1b, N0, M0); IC (T1c, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor confined to corpus uteri. T1a: Tumor limited to the endometrium.  T1b: Tumor invades less than one-half of the myometrium.  T1c: Tumor invades one-half or more of the myometrium.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C9208 | "Stage II includes: II (T2, N0, M0); IIA (T2a, N0, M0); IIB (T2b, N0, M0).  T2: Tumor invades cervix but does not extend beyond uterus.  T2a: Tumor limited to the glandular epithelium of the endocervix.  There is no evidence of connective tissue stromal invasion.  T2b: Invasion of the stromal connective tissue of the cervix.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C9209 | "Stage III includes: III (T3, N0, M0); IIIA (T3a, N0, M0); IIIB (T3b, N0, M0); IIIC (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N1, M0).  T3: Local and/or regional spread as defined below.  T3a: Tumor invades serosa and/or adnexa (direct extension or metastasis) and/or cancer cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.  T3b Vaginal involvement (direct extension or metastasis). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis to pelvic and/or para-aortic nodes.  M0: No distant meta... |
| C9210 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  TI: Tumor invades lamina propria or submucosa.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.) -2003" |
| C9211 | "Stage II includes: IIA: (T2, N0, M0); (T3, N0, M0) and IIB: (TI, NI, M0); (T2, NI, M0).  TI: Tumor invades lamina propria or submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  T3: Tumor invades adventitia. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.) -2003" |
| C9212 | "Stage III includes: T3, N1, M0 and T4, Any N, M0) T3: Tumor invades adventitia. T4: Tumor invades adjacent structures. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.) -2003" |
| C9213 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. IVA: Any T, Any N, M1a. IVB: Any T, Any N, M1b.  M1: Distant Metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.) -2003" |
| C9214 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0.  T1: Tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension, no extra-adrenal invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C9215 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor greater than 5 cm, no extra-adrenal invasion.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C9216 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension, no extra-adrenal invasion.  T2: Tumor greater than 5 cm, no extra-adrenal invasion.  T3: Tumor of any size with local invasion, but not invading adjacent organs.  N1: Metastasis in regional lymph node(s).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C9217 | "Stage IV includes: (T3, N1, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (Any T, Any N, M1).  T3: Tumor of any size with local invasion, but not invading adjacent organs.  T4: Tumor of any size with invasion of adjacent organs.  N1: Metastasis in regional lymph node(s).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis.  (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C92181 | A composite pheochromocytoma that is confined to the adrenal gland. |
| C92182 | A benign schwannoma occurring in the eye. |
| C92184 | An adrenal gland composite pheochromocytoma that metastasizes to other anatomic sites. |
| C92185 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that affects the esophageal wall. |
| C92186 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor that occurs in the intraocular area. |
| C92187 |  |
| C92188 | Allergic rhinitis caused by outdoor allergens. |
| C92189 | Allergic rhinitis caused by indoor allergens and lasting year round. |
| C9218 | "Stage IV includes: IVA (T4a, N0, M0); (T4a, N1, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4a, N2, M0); IVB (T4b, Any N, M0); IVC (Any T, Any N, M1). T4a: Tumor invades the larynx, deep/extrinsic muscle of tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, or mandible. T4b: Tumor invades lateral pterygoid muscle, pterygoid plates lateral nasopharynx, or skull base or encases carotid artery. M1: Distant Metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)" |
| C92190 | "A category of psychiatric disorders which includes disorders most commonly identified in infancy, childhood, or adolescence." |
| C92191 | A category of psychiatric disorders which are characterized by emotional or behavioral symptoms that develop within 3 months of a stressor and do not persist for more than an additional 6 months after the stressor is no longer present. |
| C92196 | A category of psychiatric disorders which are characterized by a deficit in cognition or memory. |
| C92197 | "A category of psychiatric disorders which are characterized by a disruption in the usually integrated functions of consciousness, memory, identity, and/or perception of the environment." |
| C92198 | "A category of psychiatric disorders which are characterized by physical or psychological symptoms that are intentionally produced in order to assume the sick role; there is no external incentive for the behavior, such as economic gain or avoiding legal responsibility, and the person is unaware of any self-motivating factors." |
| C92199 | A category of psychiatric disorders which are the direct physiologic consequence of a general medical condition. |
| C92200 | A category of psychiatric disorders which have as their most predominant feature a disturbance in mood. |
| C92201 | A category of psychiatric disorders characterized by the presence of psychotic symptoms such as delusions or hallucinations or negative symptoms such as affective flattening. |
| C92203 | "A category of psychiatric disorders which include disorders related to the taking of a drug of abuse (including alcohol, prescribed medications and recreational drugs)." |
| C9220 | "Stage III includes: (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N1, M0); (T3, N0, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3a, N0, M0); (T3a, N1, M0); (T3b, N0, M0); (T3b, N1, M0); (T3c, N0, M0); (T3c, N1, M0). T3: Tumor extends into major veins or invades adrenal gland or perinephric tissues but not beyond Gerota's fascia.  T3a: Tumor directly invades adrenal gland or perirenal and/or renal sinus fat but not beyond Gerota's fascia.  T3b: Tumor grossly extends into the renal vein or its segmental (muscle containing) branches, or vena ... |
| C9221 | The reemergence of a malignant germ cell tumor in children after a period of remission. |
| C9222 | "A familial carcinoma inherited in an autosomal dominant trait.  It is characterized by the development of multiple, bilateral papillary renal cell carcinomas.  The carcinomas range from microscopic lesions to clinically symptomatic tumors.  It is associated with activating mutations of the MET oncogene." |
| C9224 | An acute or chronic inflammatory process affecting the esophageal wall. |
| C9226 | A malignant neoplasm that arises from a site other than the bone marrow and lymphoid tissue. |
| C9227 | "A disorder characterized by decreased function of the gonads. Clinical manifestations in both males and females include poor libido, infertility, and osteoporosis. Additional signs in males include erectile dysfunction, muscle atrophy, gynecomastia and increased abdominal fat. In females, additional signs include shrinking of the breasts and loss of, or failure to develop menstruation." |
| C9231 | "A rare aggressive neuroendocrine carcinoma that usually arises from the skin. Rarely, it arises from extracutaneous sites, including the oral cavity, salivary glands, breast, vulva, and vaginal wall. The tumor is composed of small round cells with scanty cytoplasm. Merkel cell polyomavirus is implicated in the majority of cases." |
| C9233 | "A clonal myeloid disorder of childhood previously classified as myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of monocytic proliferation in peripheral blood, less than 20% blasts in bone marrow and peripheral blood, splenomegaly, and the absence of BCR-ABL1 fusion. Almost all patients carry mutations of the RAS pathway." |
| C9234 | A benign or malignant neoplasm affecting the spinal cord during childhood. |
| C9235 | "Systemic infiltration of extracutaneous sites by clonal mast cells, with or without evidence of skin involvement." |
| C9237 | The reemergence of gastric carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C9238 | The reemergence of rectal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C9239 | "A malignant mesothelioma with the gross appearance of a circumscribed serosal lesion and the microscopic appearance of diffuse malignant mesothelioma, without evidence of diffuse spread." |
| C9240 | The reemergence of nasopharyngeal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C9241 | The reemergence of hypopharyngeal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C9242 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the colon.  Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C9243 | A hypertensive disorder that develops during pregnancy. |
| C9244 | "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma with an aggressive clinical course.  Representative examples include Burkitt lymphoma, mantle cell lymphoma, and angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma." |
| C9245 | "A carcinoma that infiltrates the breast parenchyma.  The vast majority are adenocarcinomas arising from the terminal ductal lobular unit (TDLU).  Often, the invasive adenocarcinoma co-exists with ductal or lobular carcinoma in situ.  It is the most common carcinoma affecting women." |
| C9246 | Inflammatory breast carcinoma is classified as AJCC Stage IIIB (T4d) unless other criteria indicate more advanced staging. |
| C9249 | The reemergence of anal canal carcinoma in HIV-positive patients after a period of remission. |
| C9250 | The reemergence of anaplastic large cell lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C9251 | The reemergence of non-Hodgkin lymphoma after a period of remission. |
| C9252 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C9253 | The reemergence of malignant mesothelioma in the pericardium after a period of remission. |
| C92549 | The occurrence of multiple and independent glioblastomas that are unrelated to inherited neoplastic syndromes. |
| C9254 | "A rare malignant mesenchymal neoplasm, believed to have its origin in smooth muscle derived pericytes, which has recurred after treatment." |
| C92550 | "A rare, WHO grade II or III infiltrating astrocytoma characterized by the presence of sharply demarcated foci, composed of a neuropil-like matrix." |
| C92552 | "A WHO grade 1, slow-growing brain neoplasm of children and young adults, associated with epilepsy.  Morphologically it is characterized by an angiocentric pattern, monomorphic cellular infiltrate, and ependymal differentiation." |
| C92554 | "A WHO grade 1, indolent and relatively circumscribed brain tumor.  Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of astrocytes that line vascular and hyalinized pseudopapillae.  In between the pseudopapillae aggregates of neurocytes, large neurons, and ganglioid cells are present." |
| C92555 | "A WHO grade 2 neoplasm that arises from the brain parenchyma. Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of neoplastic uniform, round cells with neuronal differentiation. Unlike central neurocytoma, it does not involve the lateral ventricles. It usually affects young adults and has a favorable prognosis." |
| C9255 | The reemergence of ureter carcinoma after a period of remission |
| C92561 | A disorder characterized by an impairment in the development of an individual's motor coordination skills; this impairment in motor development is not due to a medical condition. |
| C92562 | "A disorder characterized by an impairment in the development of an individual's expressive language which is in contrast to his/her nonverbal intellect and receptive language development. The impairment may be acquired (i.e., due to a brain lesion or head trauma) or developmental (i.e., no known neurological insult)." |
| C92563 | "A disorder characterized by an impairment in the development of an individual's expressive and receptive language capabilities which is in contrast to his/her nonverbal intellect. The impairment may be acquired (i.e., due to a brain lesion or head trauma) or developmental (i.e., no known neurological insult)." |
| C92564 | "A disorder characterized by the failure to use developmentally expected speech sounds that are appropriate for the individual's age (i.e., the individual makes errors in sound production or use or omits sounds such as final consonants)." |
| C92565 | "A behavior disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of defiant, disobedient, and hostile behavior towards authority figures, manifested by a frequent loss of temper, arguing, becoming angry or vindictive, or other negativistic behaviors." |
| C92566 | An eating disorder characterized by the persistent eating of nonnutritive substances such as clay or soil; this behavior must be inappropriate to the level of the individual's development. |
| C92567 | An eating disorder most commonly observed in infants characterized by the repeated regurgitation and rechewing of food for a period of at least one month; this behavior is not associated with a gastrointestinal or other medical reason. |
| C92568 | "An elimination disorder characterized by fecal incontinence, whether involuntary or intentional, which is not due to a medical condition and which occurs in someone who is toilet trained." |
| C92569 | "A persistent failure to speak in certain social situations (i.e., school) where speaking is expected, despite speaking in other situations." |
| C9257 | "Stage III includes: IIIA (T1a, N2, M0); (T1b, N2, M0); (T2a, N2, M0); (T2b, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0); (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0) and IIIB (T1a, N3, M0); (T1b, N3, M0); (T2a, N3, M0); (T2b, N3, M0); (T3, N3, M0); (T4, N2, M0); (T4, N3, M0).  T4: Lung cancer with a tumor of any size that invades any of the following: mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, carina, and separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe.... |
| C9259 | "A chronic, inflammatory skin condition characterized by raised, ring shaped eruptions occurring singly or in groups; often on the tops of the hands, feet, elbows, and knees. It is commonly seen in children and young adults, and in women twice as much as men." |
| C92620 | "An episode of intense fear accompanied by symptoms such as heart palpitations, sweating and chills or hot flushes, a sensation of dyspnea, chest pain, abdominal distress, depersonalization, fear of going crazy, and fear of dying." |
| C92621 | An anxiety disorder precipitated by an experience of intense fear or horror while exposed to a traumatic (especially life-threatening) event. The disorder is characterized by dissociative symptoms; vivid recollections of the traumatic event; avoidance of stimuli associated with the traumatic event; and a constant state of hyperarousal for no more than one month. |
| C92622 | "An anxiety disorder characterized by excessive and difficult-to-control worry about a number of life situations. The worry is accompanied by restlessness, fatigue, inability to concentrate, irritability, muscle tension, and/or sleep disturbance and lasts for at least 6 months." |
| C92623 | "An anxiety disorder in which the symptoms of anxiety have been determined to be etiologically related to the direct physiological effects of a substance (i.e., a drug of abuse, a medication, or toxin exposure)." |
| C92624 | A rare tumor that arises from the pineal region and affects adults.  It is characterized by the presence of neuroepithelial cells and a papillary architecture.  Electron microscopic studies suggest ependymal differentiation.  The clinical course is variable. |
| C92625 | "A medulloblastoma characterized by marked nuclear pleomorphism, and high mitotic activity." |
| C92629 | A malignant central nervous system neoplasm characterized by the presence of poorly differentiated or undifferentiated neuroepithelial cells and ganglion cells. |
| C9262 | Reemergence of a lip or oral cavity malignant neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C92630 | A disorder characterized by an enduring pattern of behavior based on the pervasive belief that the motives of others are malevolent and that they should not be trusted. |
| C92631 | "A disorder characterized by an enduring pattern of extreme social detachment and lack of involvement in interpersonal activities, coupled with emotional coldness." |
| C92632 | "A disorder characterized by an enduring pattern of inability to establish close relationships coupled with cognitive or perceptual distortions, odd beliefs and speech, and eccentric behavior and appearance." |
| C92633 | "A disorder characterized by an enduring pattern of unstable self-image and mood together with volatile interpersonal relationships, self-damaging impulsivity, recurrent suicidal threats or gestures and/or self-mutilating behavior." |
| C92634 | "A disorder characterized by an enduring pattern of excessively intense and superficial emotionality, attention seeking behavior, seductive appearance and speech, self dramatization and/or theatrical behavior." |
| C92635 | A disorder characterized by an enduring pattern of grandiose beliefs and arrogant behavior together with an overwhelming need for admiration and a lack of empathy for (and even exploitation of) others. |
| C92636 | A disorder characterized by an enduring pattern of avoidance of social situations and interpersonal contact due to overwhelming feelings of social inadequacy and a hypersensitivity to negative evaluation or rejection. |
| C92637 | A disorder characterized by an enduring pattern of an extreme need to be taken care of together with fear of separation that lead the individual to urgently seek out and submit to another person and allow that person to make decisions that impact all areas of the individual's life. |
| C92638 | "A disorder characterized by an enduring pattern of inflexibility, extreme orderliness, and perfectionism which interfere with efficiency and which may manifest in many different contexts, including work and leisure activities, financial matters, and issues of morality or ethics." |
| C92639 | "A disorder characterized by the acute and sudden development of changes in attention, memory, language and/or perception that can be etiologically linked to the direct physiological consequences of a general medical condition." |
| C9263 | The reemergence of a malignant duodenal neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C92640 | "A disorder characterized by the acute and sudden development of changes in attention, memory, language and/or perception that can be etiologically linked to the direct physiological consequences of substance intoxication." |
| C92641 | "A disorder characterized by the acute and sudden development of changes in attention, memory, language and/or perception that can be etiologically linked to the direct physiological consequences of substance withdrawal." |
| C92642 | A disorder involving memory impairment (either anterograde or retrograde) that is etiologically linked to the direct physiological consequence of a general medical condition. The memory impairment is not the result of a delirium or dementia. |
| C92643 | A disorder involving memory impairment (either anterograde or retrograde) that is etiologically linked to the persisting effects of substance use. The memory impairment persists beyond the usual duration of substance intoxication or withdrawal. |
| C92647 | A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor characterized by the presence of mesenchymal differentiation.  Representative example is the malignant Triton tumor which contains a rhabdomyosarcomatous component. |
| C9264 | The reemergence of hepatocellular carcinoma after a period of remission |
| C92652 | A solitary fibrous tumor that arises from the meninges. It most often corresponds to the tumor previously diagnosed as anaplastic hemangiopericytoma. |
| C9265 | "Mature T and NK neoplasms predominantly affecting the skin and the peripheral blood.  Peripheral blood involvement by abnormal T-cells (cerebriform cells) is a late manifestation of mycosis fungoides, whereas it is the presenting finding in Sezary syndrome." |
| C9266 | The reemergence of a malignant bladder neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C9267 | "Stage 0a includes: Ta, N0, M0. Ta: Papillary noninvasive carcinoma.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C9268 | The reemergence of a nasopharyngeal malignant neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C9269 | The reemergence of a malignant neoplasm of the endocervix after a period of remission. |
| C9270 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread extensively to other anatomic sites or is no longer responding to treatment. |
| C92719 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder which occurs in the fetus. |
| C92727 | A physical or cognitive mental abnormality caused by maternal alcohol consumption and its toxic effect on the developing embryo during pregnancy. |
| C92728 | "A cognitive and neurological disorder due to fetal intrauterine exposure to maternal alcohol consumption. Typically, this presents without facies or other growth abnormalities." |
| C9272 | "A carcinoma that arises from the major or minor salivary glands.  Representative examples include carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, adenocarcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, and mucoepidermoid carcinoma." |
| C9275 | Angiosarcoma that is confined to a specific site without evidence of spread to other anatomic sites. |
| C92761 | An abnormal pregnancy in which the conception is implanted and develops in the cornu of uterus. |
| C9276 | A carcinoma that has spread to the adrenal medulla from an adjacent or distant anatomic site. |
| C9277 | "An acute or chronic leukemia that affects the testis. Microscopically, there is interstitial infiltration of the testis by leukemic cells." |
| C92780 | "A group of disorders caused by a prenatal exposure to maternal consumption of alcohol leading to a range of behavioral, cognitive and neurological deficits in the offspring. It is characterized by physical growth problems, distinct facies, and varying psycho-neurological issues." |
| C9278 | A carcinoma arising from the anus and occurring in HIV-positive patients. Homosexual HIV-positive men have an increased risk of developing anal squamous cell carcinoma in comparison to the general male population. Sexually transmitted human papillomavirus is detected in the majority of the cases. |
| C9279 | Hodgkin lymphoma secondary to AIDS. An increased incidence of Hodgkin lymphomas has been observed in HIV positive patients. Most cases are morphologically classified as lymphocyte depleted or mixed cellularity Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C9280 | "A large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising in the mediastinum.  Morphologically it is characterized by a massive diffuse lymphocytic proliferation associated with compartmentalizing fibrosis.  Response to intensive chemotherapy, with or without radiotherapy, is usually good. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C9281 | "A neoplasm composed of spindle to ovoid cells which have morphologic and immunophenotypic characteristics of follicular dendritic cells. It affects lymph nodes and other sites including the tonsils, gastrointestinal tract, spleen, liver, soft tissues, skin, and oral cavity. It usually behaves as a low grade sarcoma. Treatment options include complete surgical removal of the tumor with or without adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy. Recurrences have been reported in up to half of the cases." |
| C9282 | "A neoplastic proliferation of spindle to ovoid cells which show phenotypic features similar to those of interdigitating dendritic cells.  The clinical course is generally aggressive. (WHO, 2008)" |
| C9283 | "A diffuse subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma which is rich in Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells and/or depleted in non-neoplastic lymphocytes. (WHO, 2008)" |
| C9284 | "A disorder characterized by systemic infiltration of internal organs by aggregates of clonal mast cells and the presence of a clonal non-mast cell myeloid neoplasm (e.g., myelodysplastic syndrome, myeloproliferative neoplasm, and acute myeloid leukemia)." |
| C9285 | "An aggressive and progressive mast cell neoplasm characterized by systemic infiltration of internal organs by aggregates of neoplastic mast cells. There is no evidence of mast cell leukemia or clonal hematologic malignancy. Clinical symptoms include hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, portal hypertension, malabsorption syndrome, and pathologic fractures." |
| C9286 | "An indolent mast cell neoplasm characterized by systemic infiltration of skin and internal organs by aggregates of neoplastic mast cells. There is no evidence of mast cell leukemia or clonal hematologic malignancy. Clinically, there is no evidence of palpable hepatomegaly and splenomegaly, malabsorption syndrome, or pathologic fractures." |
| C9287 | "An acute myeloid leukemia with monocytic and granulocytic differentiation and the presence of a characteristically abnormal eosinophil component in the bone marrow.  This type of acute myeloid leukemia has a favorable prognosis.  (WHO, 2001)" |
| C9288 | "An acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22; q22.1) giving rise to RUNX1/RUNX1T1 fusion transcript and showing maturation in the neutrophil lineage. The bone marrow and the peripheral blood show large myeloblasts with abundant basophilic cytoplasm, often containing azurophilic granules. This type of AML is associated with good response to chemotherapy and high complete remission rate." |
| C9289 | An acute myeloid leukemia arising de novo and not as a result of treatment. It is characterized by the presence of myelodysplastic features in at least 50% of the cells of at least two hematopoietic cell lines. Patients often present with severe cytopenia. |
| C9290 | Proliferation of myeloid cells originating from a primitive stem cell. |
| C9291 | A carcinoma that arises from the anal canal or perianal area (anal margin). Histologic types include squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. |
| C92921 | Ectopic pregnancy characterized by the implantation of the embryo in the peritoneal cavity or abdominal organs. |
| C9292 | "A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tissues that do not include fluid areas.  Representative examples include epithelial neoplasms (e.g. lung carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma), and neoplasms arising from the soft tissues and bones (e.g. leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma).  Neoplasms originating from the blood or bone marrow (leukemias and myeloproliferative disorders) are not considered solid tumors." |
| C92937 | The fluctuations in the mental and emotional state of an individual during pregnancy. |
| C9293 | "A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm that affects the brain, meninges, or spinal cord.  Representative examples of primary neoplasms include astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, ependymoma, and meningioma.  Representative examples of metastatic neoplasms include carcinoma and leukemia." |
| C92944 | "A neoplasm that originates from histiocytes and accessory cells and affects the central nervous system.  It is usually associated with the presence of identical tumors outside the central nervous system.  Representative examples include Langerhans cell histiocytosis, histiocytic sarcoma, and follicular dendritic cell sarcoma." |
| C92945 | An abnormal pregnancy in which the conception is implanted on the ovary. |
| C92946 | An abnormal pregnancy in which the conception is implanted in the fallopian tube. |
| C9294 | "A group of rare tumors that affect the hematopoietic and lymphoid tissues. The cells of origin are the histiocytes and accessory cells. This category includes the following: Langerhans cell histiocytosis, Langerhans cell sarcoma, indeterminate dendritic cell histiocytosis, interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma, histiocytic sarcoma, disseminated juvenile xanthogranuloma, Erdheim-Chester disease, Rosai-Dorfman-Destombes disease, ALK-positive histiocytosis, and follicular dendritic cell sarco... |
| C92950 | "A common sexually transmitted bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is transmitted through vaginal, oral, or anal intercourse. Infected individuals may be asymptomatic. Symptoms in males include burning sensation during urination, discharge from the penis, and painful swelling of the testes. Symptoms in females include painful urination, vaginal discharge, and vaginal bleeding between periods. If untreated, the infection may lead to pelvic inflammatory disease." |
| C92956 | "A chronic infection of the prostate gland caused by bacteria.  It is manifested with recurring urinary tract infections.  The culture of the prostatic fluid, semen, or post-massage urine specimen reveals the presence of bacteria." |
| C92957 | "An acute infection of the prostate gland caused by bacteria, most often Escherichia coli, Proteus mirabilis, Klebsiella, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Signs and symptoms include fever, lower back pain, urinary frequency, and painful urination.  The urinalysis reveals the presence of white cells.  Risk factors include intraprostatic ductal reflux, phimosis, urinary tract infections, and unprotected anal intercourse." |
| C9295 | "A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by the abnormal growth and accumulation of mast cells in one or more organ systems.  Recent data suggest that most variants of mast cell neoplasms are clonal disorders. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C9296 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from and straddles the junction of the stomach and esophagus. The category of adenocarcinomas of the gastroesophageal junction also includes the majority of adenocarcinomas previously called gastric cardia adenocarcinomas. Squamous cell carcinomas that affect or cross the junction of the stomach and esophagus are classified as carcinomas of the distal esophagus. Adenocarcinoma of the gastroesophageal junction occurs more often in Caucasian middle aged and elder... |
| C9297 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the urinary system. |
| C9298 | A rare acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage in which the blasts do not express markers specific to myeloid or lymphoid lineage. |
| C9300 | "A clonal (malignant) hematopoietic disorder with an acute onset, affecting the bone marrow and the peripheral blood.  The malignant cells show minimal differentiation and are called blasts, either myeloid blasts (myeloblasts) or lymphoid blasts (lymphoblasts)." |
| C9301 | A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the brain or spinal cord as a primary lesion. There is no evidence of lymphoma outside the central nervous system at the time of diagnosis. |
| C93024 | An occlusion of the hepatic artery. |
| C9303 | "A usually localized tumor composed of sheets of mast cells without atypia. It includes the cutaneous mastocytoma which involves the dermis and subcutaneous tissue, and the extracutaneous mastocytoma. Most cases of extracutaneous mastocytoma have been reported in the lung." |
| C93040 | Physical and psychological dependence on alcohol. |
| C93045 | "An ileus caused by abdominal or pelvic surgery, infections, disorders that affect the muscles and nerves, and medications.  Signs and symptoms include those of intestinal obstruction." |
| C9305 | "A neoplasm composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas." |
| C9306 | "A malignant neoplasm arising from muscle tissue, adipose tissue, blood vessels, fibrous tissue, or other supportive tissues excluding the bones." |
| C9308 | "A disorder characterized by proliferation of lymphocytes at various stages of differentiation. Lymphoproliferative disorders can be neoplastic (clonal, as in lymphomas and leukemias) or reactive (polyclonal, as in infectious mononucleosis)." |
| C9309 | "A radiosensitive malignant germ cell tumor found in the testis (especially undescended), and extragonadal sites (anterior mediastinum and pineal gland).  It is characterized by the presence of uniform cells with clear or dense cytoplasm which contains glycogen, and by a large nucleus which contains one or more nucleoli.  The neoplastic germ cells form aggregates separated by fibrous septa.  The fibrous septa contain chronic inflammatory cells, mainly lymphocytes." |
| C9311 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the cervix. |
| C93125 | A sarcoma that arises in the bones or soft tissues following exposure to ionizing or non-ionizing radiation. |
| C9312 | A sarcoma that arises from the bone.  Representative examples are osteosarcoma and chondrosarcoma. |
| C9313 | "A testicular germ cell tumor characterized by the absence of a seminomatous component. It includes embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, teratoma, and mixed forms." |
| C9314 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the oral cavity.  The majority are squamous cell carcinomas. |
| C9315 | "A carcinoma arising in the lip or oral cavity.  Most oral cavity carcinomas are squamous cell carcinomas of the tongue, buccal mucosa, or gums.  Less frequent morphologic variants include mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenocarcinoma.  Lip carcinomas are usually basal cell or squamous cell carcinomas." |
| C9316 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the lip and/or oral cavity.  The majority of cases are carcinomas. |
| C9317 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the gums. |
| C9318 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the floor of the mouth.  The majority of cases are carcinomas. |
| C9319 | "A carcinoma of the oral cavity that arises from the floor of the mouth.  Representative examples include squamous cell carcinoma, mucoepidermoid carcinoma, and adenoid cystic carcinoma." |
| C9320 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the buccal mucosa. |
| C93210 | "An infectious or non infectious disorder characterized by signs and symptoms derived from focal or extensive tissue infiltration by acute (e.g., polymorphonuclear) or chronic (e.g., lymphocytic-plasmacytic) inflammatory cells. Representative examples of infectious disorders include viral infections, bacterial infections, and parasitic infections. Representative examples of non-infectious inflammatory disorders include inflammatory bowel disease and inflammatory polyps." |
| C9321 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the nasopharynx. |
| C9322 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the parathyroid glands. |
| C9323 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the postcricoid region. |
| C9325 | "A rare, usually large (greater than 5cm), malignant epithelial tumor arising from the adrenal cortical cells.  Symptoms are usually related to the excessive production of hormones, and include Cushing's syndrome and virilism in women.  Common sites of metastasis include liver, lung, bone, and retroperitoneal lymph nodes.  Advanced radiologic procedures have enabled the detection of small tumors, resulting in the improvement of the 5-year survival." |
| C93268 | "An autosomal dominant-inherited neoplastic predisposition syndrome caused by mutation(s) in the SMARCB1 or SMARCA4 genes. It is characterized by the development of atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumors in infancy and early childhood. This highly aggressive tumor develops in the central nervous system as an isolated lesion or in combination with extrarenal or renal rhabdoid tumor. Patients may also develop other central nervous system malignancies including medulloblastoma, supratentorial primit... |
| C9327 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the adrenal cortex. |
| C9328 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the duodenum.  Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C9329 | "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the cecum.  Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma." |
| C9330 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm arising from the appendix.  The vast majority of the cases are adenocarcinomas. |
| C9331 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the stomach. |
| C9332 | "A carcinoma that arises from the maxillary sinus.  Representative examples include squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, and adenoid cystic carcinoma." |
| C9333 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the appendix.  Representative examples include carcinoma and lymphoma. |
| C9334 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the bladder. |
| C9335 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the breast.  The vast majority of cases are carcinomas arising from the breast parenchyma or the nipple.  Malignant breast neoplasms occur more frequently in females than in males. |
| C9336 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm arising in the nasal cavity. |
| C9337 | A malignant neoplasm that affects the ear.  Representative examples include ceruminous adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma of the external ear and adenocarcinoma of the middle ear. |
| C9338 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the adrenal gland. |
| C9339 | "Peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified that is resistant to treatment." |
| C9341 | A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation arising from the soft tissues or bone. |
| C9343 | "A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm involving the bone or articular cartilage." |
| C9344 | A poorly differentiated malignant embryonal neoplasm arising from the pineal region.  It usually occurs in children and it is characterized by the presence of small immature neuroepithelial cells.  It may follow an aggressive clinical course. |
| C9345 | A malignant neoplasm affecting the tongue.  The vast majority of cases are carcinomas. |
| C9346 | A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the trachea. |
| C9347 | Malignant epithelial neoplasm arising from the tracheal mucosa. |
| C9348 | "A rare malignant neoplasm characterized by localized but destructive growth of a tumor consisting of highly atypical, immature mast cells. (WHO, 2001)" |
| C9349 | A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of a monoclonal population of plasma cells forming a tumor mass. |
| C9350 | An aggressive malignant mesothelioma that arises from the peritoneum.  Patients usually present with abdominal pain and ascites. |
| C9351 | "A mesothelial neoplasm that arises from the pleura. It includes adenomatoid tumor, well differentiated papillary mesothelial tumor, and malignant mesothelioma." |
| C9352 | The reemergence of duodenal carcinoma after a period of remission. |
| C9353 | The reemergence of a hypopharyngeal malignant neoplasm after a period of remission. |
| C9354 | The reemergence of a malignant neoplasm of the stomach after a period of remission. |
| C9355 | "Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C9356 | A ureter carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to nearby tissues or lymph nodes. |
| C9357 | "A lymphoma characterized by the presence of relatively few malignant cells called Reed-Sternberg cells and mononuclear Hodgkin cells that are admixed with nonneoplastic inflammatory cells. The malignant cells have a distinctive immunophenotype; they are positive for CD30 and CD15 and negative for CD3, CD20, and CD45." |
| C9358 | "Stage I includes: (T1, N0, M0); (T2, N0, M0).  T1: Tumor invades submucosa.  T2: Tumor invades muscularis propria.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C9359 | A basal cell carcinoma that contains large amounts of melanin.  The melanin is produced by symbiotic nontumoral proliferating melanocytes. |
| C9360 | A lymphoma composed of immature small to medium-sized precursor lymphoid cells (lymphoblasts). It includes the B- and T-cell lymphoblastic lymphoma. |
| C9361 | A lymphoblastic lymphoma occurring in adults. |
| C9362 | A carcinoma that arises from the clitoris. |
| C9363 | A carcinoma that arises from the labia majora. |
| C9364 | A carcinoma that arises from the labia minora. |
| C9365 |  |
| C9366 |  |
| C9367 | "Stage IV includes T4b, NO,MO/any T NI, MO/ any T N2 MO,/ any T N3 MO/ any T any N M1 : T4b: Tumor invades the pelvic wall, abdominal wall. N1: Metastasis in a single lymph node, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N2: Metastasis in a single lymph node, more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. M1: Distant metastasis." |
| C9368 | "Stage IV includes T4b, NO,MO/any T NI, MO/ any T N2 MO,/ any T N3 MO/ any T any N M1 : T4b: Tumor invades the pelvic wall, abdominal wall. N1: Metastasis in a single lymph node, 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N2: Metastasis in a single lymph node, more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension; or multiple lymph nodes, none more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 5 cm in greatest dimension. M1: Distant metastasis." |
| C9369 | Malignant testicular germ cell tumor reemerging after a period of remission. |
| C9370 | A gliosarcoma of the brain stem that occurs during adulthood. |
| C9371 | A mixed glioma of the brain stem that occurs during adulthood. |
| C9372 | An ependymoma that arises from the brain and occurs in adults. |
| C9374 | An intracranial meningioma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C9375 | A brain glioblastoma that occurs during adulthood. |
| C9376 | An oligodendroglioma that arises from the brain and occurs during adulthood. |
| C9377 | An oligodendroglioma that arises from the brain. |
| C9379 | A lung carcinoma characterized by a combination of small cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. |
| C9380 | An acute myeloid leukemia without maturation that occurs in adults. |
| C9381 | An acute myeloid leukemia with maturation that occurs in children. |
| C9382 | A malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the rectum. The vast majority are adenocarcinomas. |
| C9383 | "An adenocarcinoma arising from the rectum.  It is more frequently seen in populations with a Western type diet and in patients with a history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease.  Signs and symptoms include intestinal bleeding, anemia, and change in bowel habits.  According to the degree of cellular differentiation, rectal adenocarcinomas are divided into well, moderately, and poorly differentiated.  Histologic variants include mucinous adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell carcinoma, medullar... |
| C9384 | "A carcinoma arising from the epithelium of the renal parenchyma or the renal pelvis.  The majority are renal cell carcinomas.  Kidney carcinomas usually affect middle aged and elderly adults.  Hematuria, abdominal pain, and a palpable mass are common symptoms." |
| C9385 | "A carcinoma arising from the renal parenchyma.  There is a strong correlation between cigarette smoking and the development of renal cell carcinoma.  The clinical presentation includes : hematuria, flank pain and a palpable lumbar mass.  A high percentage of renal cell carcinomas are diagnosed when an ultrasound is performed for other purposes.  Radical nephrectomy is the standard intervention procedure.  Renal cell carcinoma is generally considered to be resistant to radiation treatment an... |
| C9387 |  |
| C9388 |  |
| C9389 | Grade I malignant smooth muscle neoplasm.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells. |
| C9390 | A leiomyosarcoma with more than 15% necrosis. |
| C9391 | A leiomyosarcoma with less than 15% necrosis. |
| C9392 | A malignant hemangiopericytoma with well-differentiated morphological features. |
| C9393 |  |
| C9394 |  |
| C9395 |  |
| C9396 |  |
| C9397 |  |
| C9398 |  |
| C9399 |  |
| C9400 | A sarcoma with less than 15% necrosis. |
| C9401 |  |
| C9402 |  |
| C9403 |  |
| C9404 | "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissue.  It is characterized by the presence of poorly-differentiated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation and increased mitotic activity." |
| C9405 |  |
| C9406 |  |
| C9407 |  |
| C9408 |  |
| C9409 | An epithelioid sarcoma with less than 15% necrosis. |
| C9410 | An epithelioid sarcoma with more than 15% necrosis. |
| C9411 | An angiosarcoma with less than 15% necrosis. |
| C9412 | An angiosarcoma with more than 15% necrosis. |
| C9413 | A Kaposi sarcoma with less than 15% necrosis. |
| C9414 | A Kaposi sarcoma with more than 15% necrosis. |
| C9415 | A sarcoma with more than 15% necrosis. |
| C9417 | A sarcoma with the morphologic features of a low-grade tumor and presence of cellular differentiation. |
| C9418 | A sarcoma with the morphologic features of a high-grade tumor and lack of cellular differentiation. |
| C9422 |  |
| C9423 | A lung carcinoma characterized by a combination of small cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. |
| C9425 | A malignant hemangiopericytoma characterized by the presence of necrotic changes and in some cases high mitotic activity. |
| C9426 | An angiosarcoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle endothelial cells. |
| C9428 | "An uncommon, aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm.  It is characterized by the presence of atypical large spindle or round cells, nuclear palisading, tumor cell necrosis, mitotic figures and may be associated with vascular invasion." |
| C9429 | "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm composed of fibroblasts, and characterized by collagen production and usually a herringbone architectural pattern." |
| C9430 | A morphologic variant of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans characterized by the presence of melanin-pigmented dendritic cells. |
| C9431 | A neoplasm of hematopoietic and lymphoid cell origin that occurs during childhood. Representative examples include acute leukemias and lymphomas. |
| C94328 | "A disorder characterized by a retrospective gap in memory of important personal information, usually of a traumatic or stressful nature; the memory loss far exceeds ordinary forgetfulness and is not the result of substance use or the consequence of a medical condition." |
| C94329 | "A disorder characterized by sudden, unexpected travel away from one's home or place of work accompanied by an inability to recall one's past; the individual is confused about his or her personal identity and may assume a new identity." |
| C94330 | A disorder characterized by the presence of two or more identities with distinct patterns of perception and personality which recurrently take control of the person's behavior; this is accompanied by a retrospective gap in memory of important personal information that far exceeds ordinary forgetfulness. The changes in identity are not due to substance use or to a general medical condition. |
| C94331 | "A disorder characterized by persistent or recurrent episodes of feeling detached from one's self (either one's body or one's mental processes), although the sufferer remains aware that this is only a feeling and does not represent reality." |
| C94332 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of serious assaultive acts or destruction of property due to a failure to resist aggressive impulses; the degree of aggression during these episodes is grossly out of proportion to any psychosocial provocation. The aggressive episodes are not etiologically linked to another mental disorder, a general medical condition, or substance use." |
| C94333 | A disorder characterized by the recurrent failure to resist the impulse to steal items of little intrinsic value; the individual experiences a rising subjective sense of tension before the theft and a sense of gratification or relief during the theft. |
| C94334 | A disorder characterized by a fascination with fire and recurrent episodes of fire setting during which the individual experiences a rising subjective sense of tension before the fire setting and a sense of gratification or relief when setting the fire. There is no ulterior motive (such as monetary gain or the expression of political ideology) to the fire setting. |
| C94335 | "A disorder characterized by a preoccupation with gambling and the excitement that gambling with increasing risk provides. Pathological gamblers are unable to cut back on their gambling, despite the fact that it may lead them to lie, steal, or lose a significant relationship, job, or educational opportunity." |
| C94336 | A disorder characterized by repetitive pulling out of one's hair resulting in noticeable hair loss; the individual experiences a rising subjective sense of tension before pulling out the hair and a sense of gratification or relief when pulling out the hair. |
| C94337 | A disorder characterized by a recurrent or persistent lack of desire for sexual activity. The lack of sexual desire is not attributable to another psychiatric disorder or to the physiological effects of substance use or a general medical condition. |
| C94338 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent or persistent extreme aversion to, and avoidance of, all genital contact with a sexual partner. The aversion to sexual contact is not attributable to another psychiatric disorder." |
| C94339 | "A disorder characterized by a recurrent or persistent inability to attain or maintain until completion of sexual activity an adequate physical response of sexual excitement, consisting of vasocongestion in the pelvis, vaginal lubrication and expansion, and swelling of the external genitalia." |
| C94349 | A disorder characterized by persistent or recurrent ejaculation before or after penetration and before the person wishes it. |
| C94350 | "A disorder characterized by clinically significant sexual dysfunction (including impaired desire, impaired arousal, impaired orgasm, or sexual pain) that is fully explained by substance use." |
| C94352 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors involving the exposure of one's genitals to an unsuspecting stranger." |
| C94353 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors involving the use of nonliving objects such as women's wearing apparel (the ""fetish"")." |
| C94354 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors involving touching the genitals of or rubbing the genitals against a nonconsenting person." |
| C94355 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children." |
| C94356 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors involving the act (real, not simulated) of being humiliated, beaten, bound, or otherwise made to suffer." |
| C94358 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors involving acts (real, not simulated) in which the psychological or physical suffering of a victim is sexually exciting to the individual." |
| C94359 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors in a heterosexual male involving cross-dressing." |
| C94360 | "A disorder characterized by recurrent sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors involving observing an unsuspecting person who is naked, disrobing, or engaging in sexual activity." |
| C9436 | "The formation of scar tissue in the skin and subcutaneous tissues, lungs, genitourinary tract, gastrointestinal tract, and other organs, caused by radiation therapy." |
| C94370 | "A subtype of schizophrenia in which the individual exhibits the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia but the overall picture is not one of catatonic type, paranoid type, or disorganized type schizophrenia." |
| C94376 | A disorder that differs from schizophrenia specifically in total duration (schizophreniform disorder lasts at least 1 month but less than 6 months whereas schizophrenia lasts at least 6 months); schizophreniform disorder also typically causes less impairment in the individual's social and occupational functioning. |
| C94378 | "A disorder in which the individual suffers from both symptoms that qualify as schizophrenia and symptoms that qualify as a mood disorder (e.g., depression or bipolar disorder) for a substantial portion (but not all) of the active period of the illness; for the remainder of the active period of the illness, the individual suffers from delusions or hallucinations in the absence of prominent mood symptoms." |
| C94379 | "A disorder characterized by the presence of one or more nonbizarre delusions that persist for at least 1 month; the delusion(s) are not due to schizophrenia or a mood disorder, and do not impair psychosocial functioning apart from the ramifications of the delusion(s)." |
| C94382 | A subtype of delusional disorder characterized by the central delusional theme that another person (usually one of higher status) is in love with the individual. |
| C94383 | "A subtype of delusional disorder characterized by the central delusional theme that the individual has special worth, power, knowledge, or a special relationship to a famous person or deity." |
| C94385 | A subtype of delusional disorder characterized by the central delusional theme that the individual's spouse or lover is unfaithful. |
| C94386 | "A subtype of delusional disorder characterized by the central delusional theme that the individual is being malevolently treated (for example, maligned, harassed, conspired against, poisoned or drugged) by another person or group." |
| C94387 | A subtype of delusional disorder characterized by the central delusional theme that the individual has some physical defect or medical condition. |
| C94388 | "A subtype of delusional disorder applied when no one delusional theme (such as grandiose, jealous, persecutory) predominates." |
| C94389 | A subtype of delusional disorder applied when the dominant delusional theme cannot be clearly determined. |
| C9438 | Impairment of the renal function due to chronic kidney damage. |
| C94390 | "A disorder characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and/or grossly disorganized behavior that resolve within a month." |
| C94391 | "A disorder in which a delusion develops in an individual in the context of close relationship with another person who already has that established delusion, most likely as the consequence of schizophrenia or delusional disorder." |
| C94392 | A psychotic disorder characterized by prominent hallucinations or delusions that have been determined to be etiologically linked to a general medical condition. |
| C9439 | Long-standing and persistent renal disease with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 15 ml/min. |
| C94407 | "Painful inflammation of the bursa. It most often affects the hips, shoulders, and elbows." |
| C94408 | "Inflammation of the hair follicles. Causes include excessive perspiration, skin infections, and skin wounds." |
| C94409 | Acute or chronic inflammation of the duodenum. Causes include bacterial and viral infections and gastroesophageal reflux disease. Symptoms include vomiting and abdominal pain. |
| C94410 | Inflammation of the prostate gland that is not associated with any symptoms. It is characterized by the presence of inflammatory cells in the prostatic fluid. |
| C9446 | A colorectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate with more than 95% glandular formation. |
| C9447 | A colorectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate with 50-95% glandular formation. |
| C9448 | A colorectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate with less than 50% glandular formation. |
| C94497 | "Necrosis of the mandible or maxilla in patients receiving intravenous or oral bisphosphonate therapy.  It usually manifests with slow healing or failure to heal of a jaw bone following oral surgery.  In a minority of cases, the necrosis appears spontaneously.  Signs and symptoms include pain, swelling and infection of the affected area." |
| C9449 | A rectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate with less than 50% glandular formation. |
| C9450 | A rectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate with 50-95% glandular formation. |
| C9451 | A rectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate with more than 95% glandular formation. |
| C94524 | "An extremely rare, WHO grade 1, circumscribed and slow-growing tumor that arises from the neurohypophysis or infundibulum and described in adults.  It is characterized by the presence of elongated, spindle-shaped neoplastic glial cells that form storiform patterns or interlacing fascicular arrangements.  Signs and symptoms include visual disturbances, headache, amenorrhea, and decreased libido." |
| C9452 | A colon adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate with more than 95% glandular formation. |
| C94537 | "A very rare, WHO grade 1 neoplasm of the posterior pituitary. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm forming fascicles.  Electron microscopic studies demonstrate the accumulation of intracytoplasmic mitochondria and lack of secretory granules.  Immunohistochemical studies are negative for pituitary hormones.  Patients may present with pituitary hypofunction, visual disturbances, headache, nausea and vomiting.  The clinical course is usuall... |
| C9453 | A colon adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate with 50-95% glandular formation. |
| C9454 | A colon adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate with less than 50% glandular formation. |
| C94558 | "Long-term inflammation of the gingiva surrounding the crown of a tooth, usually of an incompletely erupted tooth." |
| C9456 | "Breast ductal carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of monomorphic neoplastic cells that form cribriform, micropapillary, or solid patterns. Intraluminal necrosis is present in some ducts. Ducts that contain neoplastic cells with occasional nucleoli and coarse chromatin may also be present." |
| C94575 | "A streptococcal infection, mainly occurring among children, that is characterized by a red skin rash, sore throat, and fever." |
| C9457 | "Breast ductal carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of small, monomorphic neoplastic cells that form cribriform, micropapillary, or solid patterns. The nuclei are uniform and mitotic figures are rare." |
| C9459 | A neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic atypical urothelial-type cells in a fibrotic stroma without evidence of invasion. |
| C9460 | "An autosomal recessive syndrome caused by mutations in the ERCC8 and ERCC6 genes. It is characterized by growth and developmental delay, vision and hearing impairment, and impairment of the peripheral nervous system function." |
| C9461 | A small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from the bladder. |
| C9462 | A rare adenoid cystic carcinoma of the larynx.  It usually arises from the supraglottic or subglottic area.  It is characterized by slow progression and late distant metastases. |
| C9463 | A rare mucoepidermoid carcinoma of the larynx.  It usually arises from the supraglottic area.  Hoarseness and dysphagia are the presenting symptoms. |
| C9464 | A follicular lymphoma with diffuse pattern characterized by the presence of 5 or less centroblasts per 40 high-power fields. |
| C9465 | "Carcinoma, predominantly squamous cell, arising from the epithelial cells of the hypopharynx." |
| C9466 | "Carcinoma, predominantly squamous cell, arising from the epithelial cells of the pharynx." |
| C94676 | A neoplastic process in the cervix characterized by morphologic features of both moderate and severe intraepithelial neoplasia. |
| C9468 | "A rare genetic disorder with an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. It is caused by the ineffective or decreased biosynthesis of the third complement component, C3. C3 deficiency may also be acquired acutely post-infection or chronically from co-morbid autoimmune disorders. If C3 is adequately synthesized, its rapid depletion may result in a functional deficiency. Clinical signs of the inherited deficiency present within the first decade of life and are consistent with the signs of ... |
| C94694 | A rare autoimmune disorder that usually affects children. It is associated with the presence of circulating autoantibodies that act against the gut epithelial cells. It is characterized by diarrhea and weight loss due to malabsorption. |
| C9469 | "A rare genetic disorder with an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. It is caused by the ineffective or decreased biosynthesis of the fifth complement component, C5. C5 deficiency may also be acquired acutely post-infection. If C5 is adequately synthesized, its rapid depletion may result in a functional deficiency. Clinical signs of the inherited deficiency present within the second decade of life and are consistent with the signs of recurrent systemic infection. Deficiency of serum ... |
| C9470 | An anaplastic large cell lymphoma that is not confined to a single anatomic site and involves multiple nodal and/or extranodal sites. |
| C9471 | A systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma that occurs during childhood. |
| C9472 | An atypical lymphoid hyperplasia involving the gastric mucosa. |
| C9473 | "A tubular type adenoma of the breast in which, during pregnancy and lactation, the epithelial cells show extensive secretory changes." |
| C9474 | "A low grade malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of a benign epithelial component (tubular and cleft-like glands) and a low grade sarcomatous component that contains varying amounts of fibrous and smooth muscle tissues. In a minority of cases, the sarcomatous component contains heterologous elements including striated muscle, cartilage, and fat. It occurs in the uterine corpus, ovary, fallopian tube, cervix, and vagina. It may recur and in a minority of cases may metastasize to ... |
| C94754 | Infiltration of the meninges by an acute or chronic leukemia. |
| C94756 | A lymphoma that affects the meninges. |
| C94759 | "A hormone producing endocrine neoplasm, associated with a hormonal syndrome." |
| C9475 | "Benign and malignant neoplasms of the cerebellum that arise from astrocytes.  During childhood the majority are benign pilocytic astrocytomas.  In adults both benign and relatively higher grade forms may occur. The most common presenting symptoms are headache, nausea, vomiting, ataxia of gait or limb, paresis, diplopia, and dizziness. Objective signs include weakness, long tract signs, dysmetria, gait ataxia, papilledema, and nystagmus.  Surgical resection is often curative." |
| C94760 | "A hormone producing or non-producing endocrine neoplasm, not associated with a hormonal syndrome." |
| C94764 | A glioma that grows diffusely in the pons. It usually affects children and has a poor prognosis. |
| C94768 | "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0.  Tis: Carcinoma in situ.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th, 7th, and 8th eds.)" |
| C9476 | "A WHO grade I large cystic tumor that occurs almost exclusively in infants, with a prominent desmoplastic stroma having a neuroepithelial population consisting mainly of neoplastic astrocytes. It involves the superficial cerebral cortex and leptomeninges, and often attaches to the dura. Although clinically it presents as large tumor, it generally has a good prognosis following surgical resection. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C94770 | A breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of multiple cancerous tumors that originate from the same clone and are usually located in the same quadrant of the breast. |
| C94772 | A breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of multiple cancerous tumors that originate from different clones and are usually located in different quadrants of the breast. |
| C94774 | Breast carcinoma that has not spread beyond the breast and the axillary lymph nodes. |
| C94775 | "For hepatocellular carcinoma: Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Solitary tumor without vascular invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  For intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma: Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Solitary tumor without vascular invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C94776 | "For hepatocellular carcinoma: Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Solitary tumor with vascular invasion or multiple tumors none more than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  For intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma: Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. T2: Solitary tumor with vascular invasion or multiple tumors, with or without vascular invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C94777 | "For hepatocellular carcinoma: Stage III includes: IIIA: (T3a, N0, M0); IIIB: (T3b, N0, M0); IIIC: (T4, N0, M0). T3a: Multiple tumors more than 5 cm. T3b: Single tumor or multiple tumors of any size involving a major branch of the portal vein or hepatic vein. T4: Tumors(s) with direct invasion of adjacent organs other than the gallbladder or with perforation of visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  For intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma: Stage I... |
| C94779 | "For hepatocellular carcinoma: Stage IIIA includes: T3a, N0, M0. T3a: Multiple tumors more than 5 cm. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C9477 | "A diffusely infiltrating, WHO grade 3 astrocytoma with focal or dispersed anaplasia, and a marked proliferative potential. It may arise from a low-grade astrocytoma, but it can also be diagnosed at first biopsy, without indication of a less malignant precursor lesion. It has an intrinsic tendency for malignant progression to glioblastoma. (WHO)" |
| C94780 | "For hepatocellular carcinoma: Stage IIIB includes: T3b, N0, M0. T3b: Single tumor or multiple tumors of any size involving a major branch of the portal vein or hepatic vein. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C94781 | "For hepatocellular carcinoma: Stage IIIC includes: T4, N0, M0.  T4: Tumors(s) with direct invasion of adjacent organs other than the gallbladder or with perforation of visceral peritoneum. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C94782 | "For hepatocellular carcinoma: Stage IV includes: IVA: (Any T, N1, M0); IVB: (Any T, Any N, M1). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. M1: Distant metastasis.  For intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma: Stage IVA includes: (T4, N0, M0); (Any T, N1, M0). T4: Tumor with periductal invasion. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis.  Stage IVB includes: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)" |
| C94791 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE). |
| C94792 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C94793 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C94794 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C94796 | The reemergence of a malignant neoplasm after a period of remission at the site of the original tumor or adjacent to it. |
| C94797 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage I: Involvement of a single lymph node region (I); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in the absence of any lymph node involvement (IE) (rare in Hodgkin lymphoma). |
| C94798 | Ann Arbor Classification: Stage II: Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (II); or localized involvement of a single extralymphatic organ or site in association with regional lymph node involvement with or without involvement of other lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm (IIE). |
| C94799 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage III: Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III), which also may be accompanied by extralymphatic extension in association with adjacent lymph node involvement (IIIE) or by involvement of the spleen (IIIS) or both (IIIE,S)." |
| C9479 | Malignant neoplasms occurring in families at a rate greater than that expected by chance and caused by germline mutations in a specific gene. |
| C94800 | "Ann Arbor Classification: Stage IV: Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, with or without associated lymph node involvement; or isolated extralymphatic organ involvement in the absence of adjacent regional lymph node involvement, but in conjunction with disease in distant site(s); or any involvement of the liver or bone marrow, lungs (other than by direct extension from another site), or cerebrospinal fluid." |
| C9480 | "A carcinoma that is not confined to the epithelium, and has spread to the surrounding stroma." |
| C94810 | "A group of inherited genetic hematopoietic stem cell disorders characterized by bone marrow failure that involves one or more cell lines. Representative examples include Fanconi anemia, Diamond-Blackfan anemia, and Shwachman-Diamond syndrome." |
| C94821 | "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor limited to ovaries (one or both).  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis.  (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C94822 | "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0.  T2: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with pelvic extension and/or implants.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C94824 | "Stage III includes: T3, N0, M0.  T3: Tumor involves one or both ovaries with microscopically confirmed peritoneal metastasis outside pelvis.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C94825 | "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1.  M1: Distant metastasis (excludes peritoneal metastasis). (AJCC 6th and 7th eds.)" |
| C94828 | "A group of syndromes caused by genetic birth defects that may lead to the development of malignancies. It is characterized by a large body size or large body parts at birth, or excessive body growth early in childhood. Representative examples include neurofibromatosis, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, and Sturge-Weber syndrome." |
| C94829 | "A rare, life-threatening disorder that is caused by neuroleptic medications. It is characterized by fever, muscular cramps and rigidity, autonomic nervous system dysfunction, and changes in the mental status that may lead to coma." |
| C9482 | "A benign neoplasm arising from the extraskeletal soft tissues near tendons and joints.  It is a well circumscribed tumor characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a lobulated hyaline cartilage growth pattern, and in some cases calcification." |
| C94830 | "A rare, autosomal dominant hereditary syndrome characterized by hypercalcemia, abnormally high levels of parathyroid hormone, and isolated hyperfunctioning parathyroid tumors." |
| C94831 | "A rare, autosomal dominant inherited neoplastic syndrome caused by mutations in the genes that code the succinate dehydrogenase protein complex. It is charcaterized by the presence of gastrointestinal stromal tumors and paragangliomas." |
| C94832 | "A generalized state of dysregulated inflammation induced by noninfectious processes. It is characterized by two or more of the following signs and symptoms: fever or hypothermia, increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, and abnormal white blood cell count." |
| C94833 | "An extremely rare syndrome characterized by the presence of gastrointestinal stromal tumors, pulmonary chondroma, and/or extra-adrenal paraganglioma. There is no evidence of familial inheritance." |
| C94836 | "A group of sleep disorders causing disruption of sleep. Representative examples include nightmare disorders, sleep terror disorders, sleepwalking, and restless leg syndrome." |
| C94837 | Leukoplakia of the oral mucosa that is clinically characterized by the presence of erythematous or red and white patches. |
| C94853 | "An autoimmune acute encephalitis caused by antibodies against the glutamate NMDA receptor.  It usually affects females and in the majority of cases it is associated with the presence of a tumor, most commonly an ovarian teratoma.  The presence of a tumor in patients with this form of encephalitis implies that the latter is a paraneoplastic syndrome.  It is manifested with psychiatric symptoms and epileptic seizures.  It is a potentially lethal disorder; however, it is usually reversible wit... |
| C9486 |  |
| C9487 | Epilepsy that is refractory to treatment. |
| C9489 | "An abnormal tract between the urinary system and the anterior surface of the gynecologic structures. These include vesico-vaginal, urethro-vaginal, uretero-vaginal, vesico-uterine, uretero-uterine, vesico-cervical, vesico-utero-vaginal fistulae." |
| C9492 | "Hyperplasia of the epithelial cells in the breast ducts. It includes the atypical ductal hyperplasia, papillary intraductal hyperplasia, intraductal myoepitheliosis, and ductal hyperplasia of the usual type." |
| C9494 | A period in which the infection is present in the host without producing overt symptoms.  (from Online Medical Dictionary) |
| C9495 | "A benign breast lesion characterized by the presence of fibrosis with stellate appearance in the parenchyma.  The lesions are often multiple and bilateral.  Grossly, the lesions are irregular and firm and resemble carcinoma.  Microscopically, the stellate lesions are composed of dense, hyalinized collagen.  Entrapped in the collagen are tubules.  There is no evidence of cytologic atypia." |
| C9496 | A large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of a limited number of scattered neoplastic large B-lymphocytes which are admixed with numerous non-neoplastic T-lymphocytes and frequently histiocytes. |
| C9497 | A rare malignant embryonal neoplasm characterized by the presence of small cells which resemble the cells of classic medulloblastoma and a minor population of melanin-forming neuroepithelial cells.  It usually has an unfavorable clinical course. |
| C9498 | "A usually benign neoplasm that arises from the sun-exposed skin, eye, and meninges. It is composed of spindle and/or epithelioid melanocytes and melanophages. It rarely progresses to melanoma." |
| C9502 | A benign extrauterine tumor composed of mature adipocytes and smooth muscle cells. |
| C95038 | A liposarcoma that arises from the thymus gland.  It is characterized by the presence of a liposarcomatous malignant infiltrate that entraps lobules of thymic tissue. |
| C9503 | "A benign, usually solitary, well circumscribed multicystic neoplasm that arises from the breast and typically affects young females.  The cysts are lined by papillary proliferations that contain epithelial and myoepithelial layers.  In a minority of cases, atypia may be present." |
| C95044 | A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the thymus gland.  It is characterized by the presence of spindle cell fibroblasts and collagen tissue. |
| C95048 | A thymoma that arises in the cervical region and is not connected with the thymus gland. |
| C9504 | "Localized primary tumor, as defined for stage 1, 2A, or 2B, with dissemination limited to skin, liver, and/or bone marrow (limited to infants younger than 1 year). Marrow involvement should be minimal (i.e., <10% of total nucleated cells identified as malignant by bone biopsy or by bone marrow aspirate). More extensive bone marrow involvement would be considered stage 4 disease. The results of the MIBG scan, if performed, should be negative for disease in the bone marrow. (cancer.gov)" |
| C95057 | A Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the thymus gland.  It is usually of the nodular sclerosis subtype and is often associated with cystic changes in the thymic epithelium. |
| C9505 | "A glial-neuronal neoplasm located in the cortex. It occurs in children and young adults with a long-standing history of partial seizures. A histologic hallmark of this tumor is the 'specific glioneuronal element', characterized by columns, made up of bundles of axons, oriented perpendicularly to the cortical surface. (Adapted from WHO)" |
| C95071 | A sleep disorder characterized by persistent sleep disruption (excessive sleepiness and/or insomnia) that is due to a conflict between the individual's internal sleep-wake system and the demands of his or her environment regarding the timing and duration of sleep. |
| C95073 | "A subtype of circadian rhythm sleep disorder in which the individual exhibits a persistent pattern of late sleep onset and late awakening, which results from an endogenous sleep-wake cycle that is delayed relative to the societal norm." |
| C95074 | A subtype of circadian rhythm sleep disorder in which the individual exhibits an endogenous pattern of sleep and wakefulness that comes into conflict with the pattern of sleep and wakefulness required by a new time zone. |
| C95075 | "A subtype of circadian rhythm sleep disorder in which the individual exhibits a normal endogenous pattern of sleep and wakefulness, but this pattern comes into conflict with the desired pattern of sleep and wakefulness required by shift work." |
| C95076 | "A sleep disorder characterized by the repeated occurrence of frightening dreams which precipitate awakenings from sleep; on awakening, the individual becomes fully alert and oriented and has detailed recall of the nightmare, which usually involves imminent danger or extreme embarrassment to the individual." |
| C95077 | "A sleep disorder characterized by abrupt awakenings from sleep with a panicky scream, accompanied by signs of autonomic arousal. There is no recall of a nightmare and the person has amnesia for the event in the morning." |
| C95078 | "Repeated episodes of rising from bed and walking about during sleep; while sleepwalking, the individual has a blank stare and can be awakened only with great difficulty. On awakening, the individual has amnesia for the episode." |
| C95079 | "A sleep disorder (insomnia, hypersomnia, or parasomnia) for which there is strong evidence that the disorder is etiologically linked to the direct physiological effects of a substance (i.e., a drug of abuse, a medication, or toxin exposure)." |
| C95172 | "Stage IIA1 includes: T2a1, N0, M0.  Tumor invades beyond uterus but no to pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina. No parametrial invasion.  T2a1: Clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C95173 | "Stage IIA2 includes: T2a2, N0, M0.  Tumor invades beyond uterus but no to pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina. No parametrial invasion.  T2a2: Clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension.  N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.  M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C95174 | "Stage IIIC1 includes: T1-T3, N1, M0.  T1: Tumor confined to corpus uteri.  T2: Tumor invades stromal connective tissue of the cervix but does not extend beyond uterus.  T3: Tumor involves serosa and/or adnexa, vagina, or parametrial tissue. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis to pelvic lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C95176 | "Stage IIIC2 includes: T1-T3, N2, M0. T1: Tumor confined to corpus uteri.  T2: Tumor invades stromal connective tissue of the cervix but does not extend beyond uterus.  T3: Tumor involves serosa and/or adnexa, vagina, or parametrial tissue.  N2: Regional lymph node metastasis to para-aortic lymph nodes, with or without positive pelvic lymph nodes.  M0: No distant metastasis. This staging applies to carcinomas and carcinosarcomas. (AJCC 7th ed.)" |
| C95397 | "A neoplastic lesion that shows morphologic evidence of invasion into the lamina propria or muscularis mucosa.  There is no evidence of invasion into the submucosa.  Evidence of invasion may refer to stromal invasion by single cells or clusters of cells, presence of atypical and complex glandular architectural patterns beyond those that are present in normal mucosa, desmoplasia, and/or vascular invasion." |
| C95404 | "A well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasm of low, intermediate, or high grade arising from the digestive system. It is characterized by the presence of cells with features similar to those of the normal endocrine cells of the digestive system. The neoplastic cells express immunohistochemical evidence of neuroendocrine differentiation and hormones." |
| C95405 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the digestive system. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20% (often more than 70%). |
| C95406 | A carcinoma that arises from the digestive system and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component. At least 30% of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C95426 | A pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of duct-like structures and medium-sized malignant glandular structures. |
| C95427 | A pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of medium-sized duct-like structures and small malignant tubular glandular structures. |
| C95428 | "A pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of small and irregular malignant glandular structures, solid sheets of malignant cells, and single malignant cells." |
| C95429 | A pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of tall columnar cells that form flat architectural patterns.  Mild cytological atypia is present. |
| C95430 | "A pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of tall columnar cells that form papillary, micropapillary, or basally pseudostratified architectural patterns.  Mild cytological atypia is present." |
| C95432 | A pancreatic epithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of papillary and rarely flat architectural patterns with formation of cribriform patterns and luminal necrosis.  Severe dysplasia is present. |
| C95436 | A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of pancreatitis that start at a young age.  It is caused by mutations in the PRSS1 or SPINK1 genes.  Patients are at a high risk of developing pancreatic carcinoma. |
| C95437 | "An acute inflammatory process that leads to necrosis of the pancreatic parenchyma. Signs and symptoms include severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, and shock. Causes include alcohol consumption, presence of gallstones, trauma, and drugs." |
| C95458 | A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas showing either extensive mucin accumulation and acinar neoplastic cells or a mixture of columnar or signet-ring cells and acinar neoplastic cells. |
| C95460 | "A very rare carcinoma that arises from the pancreas and is composed of ductal adenocarcinoma, acinar carcinoma, and neuroendocrine carcinoma components." |
| C95465 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the pancreas.  It is characterized by marked hepatocellular differentiation. |
| C95466 | A pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma characterized by poor differentiation and a prominent syncytial growth pattern.  The prognosis is more favorable compared to conventional pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma. |
| C95470 | "A benign, non-metastasizing, usually cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the exocrine pancreas.  It is composed of glycogen-rich epithelial cells which produce a watery fluid.  Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss." |
| C95471 | "A benign, non-metastasizing epithelial neoplasm arising from the exocrine pancreas.  It is characterized by the presence of a few large cysts and is composed of glycogen-rich epithelial cells which produce a watery fluid." |
| C95475 | "An extremely rare variant of serous microcystic adenoma that has a solid-like appearance, but microscopically exhibits very small cysts." |
| C95476 | A benign pancreatic serous neoplasm that develops in a patient with Von Hippel Lindau syndrome. Usually there are multiple serous adenomas present of the microcystic type. |
| C95483 | A non-invasive mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the exocrine pancreas and is characterized by the presence of mild dysplasia and absence of mitotic figures. |
| C95488 | "A cystic epithelial neoplasm that arises from the pancreas and is characterized by the presence of columnar mucin-producing epithelial cells and ovarian-type stroma formation, and the absence of an invasive carcinomatous component. It is classified as low-or high-grade." |
| C95493 | "A non-invasive mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the exocrine pancreas and is characterized by the presence of severe dysplasia. The neoplastic columnar mucin-producing epithelial cells form papillae with irregular branching and budding. There is nuclear stratification, prominent nucleoli, and cellular pleomorphism. Mitotic activity is present and the mitoses may be atypical." |
| C95504 | A form of alpha thalassemia that results from reduced protein production from three of the four alpha-globin genes. Clinically it is characterized by chronic hemolytic anemia. |
| C95505 | "A group of cystic or mass-forming epithelial neoplasms that arise from the exocrine pancreas, exhibit ductal differentiation, and grow mostly within the pancreatic ducts.  This group includes the pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms and the pancreatic intraductal tubulopapillary neoplasms." |
| C95506 | "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the exocrine pancreas characterized by the formation of tubular structures, high grade dysplasia, and ductal differentiation. Grossly, it is characterized by the presence of intraductal nodular masses. Morphologically, there are nodules of tubular glands and occasional papillary structures growing in dilated ducts.  There is no significant mucin production. Signs and symptoms include epigastric pain, weight loss, vomiting, steatorrhea, and diabetes me... |
| C95507 | A pancreatic intraductal tubulopapillary neoplasm characterized by the presence of an invasive carcinomatous component.  The invasive carcinoma has a tubular pattern. |
| C95508 | A pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that are similar to gastric foveolar epithelial cells. |
| C95510 | "A pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that form tall papillae, similar to those that are present in colonic villous adenomas." |
| C95512 | A pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that form thin-branching papillae and exhibit high grade dysplasia. |
| C95514 | A pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells with abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm. |
| C95534 | "A condition in which a person is heterozygous for a globin gene, with a one normal allele and one defective allele." |
| C95535 | A condition in which a person has reduced protein production from two of the four alpha-globin alleles. |
| C95536 | A condition in which a person has reduced protein production from one of the four alpha-globin alleles. |
| C95538 | "A heterozygous state in which a person has a mutation in a beta globin allele causing beta thalassemia, together with other structural variants in the other allele." |
| C95539 | A heterozygous state in which a person has a hemoglobin S allele along with a beta-thalassemia allele. The severity of the condition is determined to a large extent by the quantity of normal hemoglobin produced by the beta-thalassemia gene. |
| C95546 | A rare non-neoplastic cystic lesion that arises from the pancreas and is characterized by the presence of multiple cysts of varying sizes lined by benign acinar and ductal epithelium. It results from dilatation of the acinar and ductal epithelium. |
| C95558 | A teratoma that arises from the pancreas. |
| C95559 | A mature teratoma that arises from the pancreas. |
| C95582 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the pancreas and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C95583 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the pancreas and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C95584 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the pancreas. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C95585 | A pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor G1 characterized by the absence of a hormone-related clinical syndrome. |
| C95595 | "A neuroendocrine tumor arising from the delta cells of the pancreas.  It is characterized by inappropriate secretion of somatostatin and associated with diabetes mellitus, hypochlorhydria, gallbladder disease, diarrhea, steatorrhea, anemia, and weight loss." |
| C95596 | "A neuroendocrine tumor arising from the pancreas.  It is characterized by inappropriate secretion of gastrin and associated with Zollinger Ellison syndrome. The latter is characterized by the presence of peptic ulcer, gastroesophageal reflux disease, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and malabsorption." |
| C95597 | "A usually malignant, glucagon-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the pancreatic alpha cells. It may be associated with necrolytic erythema migrans, diarrhea, diabetes, glossitis, weight loss, malabsorption, and anemia. Almost 25% of patients experience thromboembolic complications, and 50% have liver metastases at the time of diagnosis." |
| C95598 | An insulin-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the beta cells of the pancreas. Patients exhibit symptoms related to hypoglycemia due to inappropriate secretion of insulin. |
| C95599 | "A usually malignant pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor producing vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP).  It is associated with watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and hypochlorhydria or achlorhydria.  One third of cases are metastatic at the time of diagnosis." |
| C95606 | A primary malignant neoplasm in a patient who has been already diagnosed with a primary malignant neoplasm in another anatomic site. |
| C95608 | An esophageal squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of a spindle-cell carcinomatous component.  Crossly it has a polypoid appearance and usually arises from the middle or lower third of the esophagus. |
| C95609 | A reactive (non-neoplastic) hyperplastic process affecting the esophageal squamous epithelium that is caused by inflammation.  Morphologically it involves more than 15% of the thickness of the esophageal squamous epithelium.  Its association with an increase risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma remains controversial. |
| C95610 | An esophageal squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of prominent keratinization and low mitotic activity. |
| C95611 | An esophageal squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of variable morphologic characteristics that include areas of prominent and poor keratinization. |
| C95612 | "An esophageal squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of basal-like malignant squamous cells that form nests, often associated with central necrosis." |
| C95613 | Glandular intraepithelial neoplasia arising in Barrett esophagus. |
| C95616 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the esophagus." |
| C95617 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the esophagus. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C95619 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the esophagus. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C95620 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the esophagus and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C95621 | A carcinoma that arises from the esophagus and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component.  At least 30 percent of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C95622 | A capillary or cavernous hemangioma that arises from the esophagus.  The majority of cases are polypoid intraluminal lesions. |
| C95623 | A rhabdomyosarcoma arising from the esophageal wall. |
| C95624 | A synovial sarcoma that affects the esophageal wall. |
| C95625 | An extranodal diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the esophagus with the bulk of the mass located in the esophagus. |
| C95626 | An extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the esophagus with the bulk of the mass located in the esophagus. |
| C95743 | "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the gastric mucosa and is characterized by the presence of isolated malignant cells or malignant cells that form small aggregates.  This category includes signet ring cell adenocarcinomas, adenocarcinomas that are composed of malignant cells resembling lymphocytes and histiocytes, and adenocarcinomas that are composed of malignant cells with deeply eosinophilic cytoplasm." |
| C95747 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the gastric mucosa and is characterized by the presence of large polygonal malignant cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm resembling hepatocytes. |
| C95748 | A rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the gastric mucosa and is characterized by the presence of prominent lymphocytic stromal infiltration and poorly formed tubular structures. |
| C95749 | A malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the stomach. It is characterized by the presence of syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast cellular components. It is often associated with lymph node and hematogenous metastases. |
| C95752 | Inflammation of the body fundic mucosa of the stomach.  It results from the development of autoantibodies against the parietal and chief cells.  It is associated with the presence of intestinal metaplasia and an increased risk of developing gastric carcinoma. |
| C95763 | "A neoplasm that arises from the gastric glandular epithelium and invades the lamina propria but not the submucosa.  There is marked glandular crowding, branching and budding, intraluminal necrosis, and prominent mitotic activity.  Desmoplastic changes may be present or absent." |
| C95767 | A non-neoplastic polyp that arises from the stomach.  This category includes hyperplastic polyps and hamartomatous polyps. |
| C95773 | A neoplastic polyp that arises from the stomach. It is associated with intestinal-type differentiation. The presence of high grade dysplasia and a size of more than 2 cm are factors that increase the risk of malignant transformation. |
| C95775 | A neoplastic polyp that arises from the stomach.  It is characterized by the presence of gastric epithelial differentiation.  It includes pyloric gland adenomas and foveolar-type adenomas. |
| C95779 | A rare neoplastic polyp that arises from the stomach.  It is characterized by the presence of foveolar-type epithelium.  It may be seen in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis. |
| C95802 | "An acute episode of focal cerebral, spinal, or retinal dysfunction caused by infarction of brain tissue." |
| C95803 | "An acute episode of focal or global cerebral or spinal dysfunction caused by intraparenchymal, intraventricular, or subarachnoid hemorrhage." |
| C95804 | A narrowing of the carotid artery lumen. It is usually caused by the formation of an atherosclerotic plaque. Symptoms are usually present when there is severe narrowing or obstruction of the arterial lumen and manifest as ischemic cerebrovascular accidents. |
| C95834 | "A heart disease that is present at birth. Representative examples include atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and patent foramen ovale." |
| C95871 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the stomach." |
| C95880 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the stomach. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C95884 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the stomach. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C95885 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the stomach and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C95886 | A carcinoma that arises from the stomach and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component.  At least 30 percent of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C95895 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor arising from the stomach.  It is characterized by a maximum diameter equal or less than 5 cm and no more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields. |
| C95897 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor arising from the stomach. It is characterized by large size (diameter greater than 10 cm) or more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields. |
| C95898 | A gastrointestinal stromal tumor arising from the stomach.  It is characterized by a maximum diameter greater than 5 cm and equal or less than 10 cm and no more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields. |
| C95899 | A rare synovial sarcoma that arises from the stomach. |
| C95900 | "A rare glomus tumor that arises from the stomach.  It is seen in adults, especially women.  The majority of cases follow a benign clinical course." |
| C95901 | A rare schwannoma that arises from the stomach.  It follows a benign clinical course. |
| C95902 | A rare soft tissue neoplasm arising from the stomach.  It occurs in the antrum and pyloric region and it may extend into the duodenum.  It occurs in all ages and affects men and women equally.  Morphologically it is characterized by a multinodular plexiform mass that involves the muscular layer.  The neoplastic cells are spindle-shaped and the mitotic activity is low.  It follows a benign clinical course. |
| C95903 | "A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the stomach from another organ or system, or from another primary gastric tumor. The primary gastric tumor is not in continuity with the metastatic lesion.  Representative examples of metastatic malignant neoplasms to the stomach include breast, lung, and esophageal metastatic carcinomas and melanomas." |
| C95909 | "A premalignant neoplastic and dysplastic lesion that arises from the ampulla of Vater.  It is characterized by the absence of invasion.  This category includes intestinal-type adenomas, noninvasive papillary neoplasms of pancreatobiliary type, and flat intraepithelial neoplasia." |
| C95913 | "An exophytic, preinvasive, papillary epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ampulla of Vater.  Histologically it resembles the papillary neoplasms of the biliary tree.  This category includes neoplasms with low grade dysplasia and high grade dysplasia." |
| C95914 | An ampullary noninvasive papillary neoplasm of the pancreatobiliary type characterized by the presence of low grade dysplasia. |
| C95915 | An ampullary noninvasive papillary neoplasm of the pancreatobiliary type characterized by the presence of high grade dysplasia. |
| C95918 | "A non-polypoid, preinvasive neoplasm that arises from the ampulla of Vater.  It is characterized by the presence of high grade dysplasia." |
| C95963 | An invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from the ampulla of Vater. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells that resemble the malignant cells of the pancreatic ductal or extrahepatic bile duct carcinomas. |
| C95965 | A rare variant of undifferentiated carcinoma that arises from the ampulla of Vater. It is characterized by the presence of non-neoplastic osteoclast-like multinucleated giant cells. |
| C95966 | A very rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the ampulla of Vater.  It is usually of the intestinal type and is characterized by the presence of malignant polygonal cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm resembling hepatocytes. |
| C95967 | An invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from an exophytic papillary neoplasm of the ampulla of Vater. |
| C95980 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the ampulla of Vater and periampullary region. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C95981 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the ampulla of Vater and periampullary region." |
| C95982 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the ampulla of Vater and the periampullary region. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C95983 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the ampulla of Vater and the periampullary region. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C95984 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the ampulla of Vater. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C95985 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the ampulla of Vater and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C95986 | A carcinoma that arises from the ampulla of Vater and the periampullary region. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component.  At least 30 percent of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C95987 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the ampulla of Vater and the periampullary region.  It produces serotonin. |
| C95988 | A well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the ampulla of Vater and the periampullary region.  It produces somatostatin. |
| C95989 | "A neoplasm that arises from the ampulla of Vater and the periampullary region. It consists of a mixture of neuroendocrine cells, Schwann-like cells, and ganglion cells. It was formerly known as gangliocytic paraganglioma." |
| C95991 | "A rare primary marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the meningeal dura. The majority of cases have been described in middle aged women. Radiologically, the lymphomatous dural infiltration mimics meningioma." |
| C95992 | "An uncommon, mass-forming lesion that affects single or multiple sites. It is characterized by the presence of a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate rich in IgG4-positive plasma cells and storiform tissue fibrosis, and increased serum IgG4 levels. It usually occurs in the pancreas, submandibular glands, lacrimal glands, lymph nodes, and hepatobiliary tract. Patients usually present with fatigue and weight loss. It responds to steroids treatment and follows a course of remissions and recurrences." |
| C95993 | "The progression of a myelodysplastic syndrome in which there is erythroid predominance into erythroleukemia (M6a or erythroleukemia, erythroid/myeloid)." |
| C96052 | "A non-neoplastic hamartomatous polyp that arises from the small intestine.  It is characterized by the presence of tortuous and cystically dilated glands, edematous changes, and inflammation." |
| C96053 | "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the small intestine.  Representative examples include diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, alpha heavy chain disease/immunoproliferative small intestinal disease, Burkitt lymphoma, follicular lymphoma, and mantle cell lymphoma." |
| C96054 | A T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the small intestine.  It includes the enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma and the monomorphic CD56 positive intestinal T-cell lymphoma. |
| C96055 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the small intestine. |
| C96056 | A follicular lymphoma that arises from the small intestine.  It most often affects the duodenum. |
| C96057 | "High-grade B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified, that arises from the small intestine." |
| C96058 | A mature T-cell and NK-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma of intraepithelial T-lymphocytes. It usually arises from the small intestine. A minority of cases arise from the large intestine or the stomach. It is characterized by the presence of a monomorphic cellular infiltrate of small to medium-sized T-lymphocytes that are cytotoxic and express CD56. It is not associated with celiac disease. |
| C96059 | A Kaposi sarcoma that arises from the small intestine. |
| C96060 | An angiosarcoma that arises from the small intestine. |
| C96061 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the small intestine." |
| C96062 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the small or large intestine." |
| C96063 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the small or large intestine. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96064 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the small intestine. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96065 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the small intestine and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96066 | A carcinoma that arises from the small intestine and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component.  At least 30 percent of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C96067 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the small intestine. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C96073 | "A usually indolent neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises in the small intestine. Patients may present with gastrointestinal hemorrhage. It is a triphasic tumor consisting of a mixture of epithelioid neuroendocrine cells, Schwann-like cells, and ganglion cells." |
| C96152 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the colon or rectum. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C96156 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the colon or rectum. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96157 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the colon or rectum and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96158 | A carcinoma that arises from the colon or rectum and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component.  At least 30 percent of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C96159 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the colon or rectum." |
| C96160 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the colon or rectum. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C96161 | "A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the colon or rectum and produces glucagon-like peptides.  Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells forming tubular or trabecular patterns." |
| C96162 | A well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the colon or rectum and produces serotonin. |
| C96163 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the colon or rectum. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C96165 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the small or large intestine. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C96166 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the digestive system. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C96169 | Chronic cholecystitis not associated with the presence of gallstones. |
| C96179 | The deposition of hyaline material in the wall of the efferent arterioles. |
| C96182 | Glomerulonephritis characterized by the presence of Congo-red negative microfibrils in the mesangium and capillary walls of the glomeruli. It is associated with marked proteinuria and leads to progressive renal failure. |
| C96186 | The deposition of hyaline material in the wall of the arterioles. |
| C96190 | A renal disorder characterized by glomerular damage due to ischemia. It leads to progressive deterioration of renal function. |
| C96220 | Hyperparakeratosis of the oral mucosa caused by chronic tobacco use.  It manifests as oral leukoplakia. |
| C96224 | A reactive inflammatory disorder affecting the urethra.  It is characterized by the development of small cysts in the urethral wall.  The cysts are lined by urothelial cells and metaplastic glandular cells. |
| C96225 | A reactive inflammatory disorder affecting the urethra.  It is characterized by the development of small cysts in the urethral wall.  The cysts are lined by urothelial cells. |
| C96226 | A reactive inflammatory disorder affecting the urethra.  It is characterized by the development of small cysts in the urethral wall.  The cysts are lined by metaplastic glandular cells. |
| C96228 | A reactive inflammatory disorder affecting the bladder.  It is characterized by the development of small cysts in the bladder wall.  The cysts are lined by urothelial cells and metaplastic glandular cells. |
| C96230 | A reactive inflammatory disorder affecting the bladder. It is characterized by the development of small cysts in the bladder wall. The cysts are lined by urothelial cells. |
| C96272 | "A very small, tiny abscess." |
| C96346 | "Intraluminal hyperplasia of endothelial cells, encircling the entire lumen." |
| C96406 | "A highly contagious viral infection caused by the measles virus. Symptoms appear 8-12 days after exposure and include a rash, cough, fever and muscle pains that can last 4-7 days. Measles vaccines are available to provide prophylaxis, usually combined with mumps and rubella vaccines (MMR)." |
| C96407 | "A highly contagious viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. Clinically, it may be manifested as shingles or chicken pox." |
| C96410 | "A learning disorder characterized by an impairment in processing written words. Reading difficulties can include distortions, omissions or substitutions of characters. Oral and silent reading difficulties can include faulty and slow comprehension." |
| C96411 | "A viral infection that occurs during infancy, childhood or adolescence." |
| C96412 | A group of congenital or acquired disorders that affect the normal development of the brain. |
| C96413 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the brain. |
| C96414 | Polyps that arises from the large intestine and the appendix. They are characterized by the presence of serrated glands and the absence of generalized dysplasia. |
| C96415 | Polyps that arises from the appendix. They are characterized by the presence of serrated glands and the absence of generalized dysplasia. |
| C96416 | A non-neoplastic polyp that arises from the appendix.  It is characterized by the presence of elongated serrated crypts and the absence of atypia or dysplasia. |
| C96418 | A precancerous intraepithelial neoplastic lesion that affects the appendix. It is characterized by low or high grade dysplasia of the mucosal epithelium.  There is no evidence of invasion. |
| C96419 | A precancerous intraepithelial neoplastic lesion that affects the appendix.  It is characterized by the presence of mild dysplasia and mild architectural alterations of the mucosal epithelium.  There is no evidence of invasion. |
| C96420 | A precancerous intraepithelial neoplastic lesion that affects the appendix.  It is characterized by the presence of moderate or severe dysplasia and complex architectural alterations of the mucosal epithelium.  There is no evidence of invasion. |
| C96421 | "A mucinous adenocarcinoma that arises from the appendix. The malignant cells are numerous and exhibit high grade dysplasia.  It may be associated with pseudomyxoma peritonei, but unlike the low grade mucinous neoplasm, it invades other organs and metastasizes to distant anatomic sites." |
| C96422 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the appendix." |
| C96423 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the appendix. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C96424 | "A well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor arising from the wall of the appendix.  It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells forming round solid nests and occasionally glandular structures.  The majority of the cases are asymptomatic, and they are found incidentally in appendectomy specimens.  The majority of the tumors are located in the distal end of the appendix and they are enterochromaffin-cell carcinoid tumors producing serotonin.  Most cases show morphologic evidence of... |
| C96425 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the appendix. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96426 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the appendix and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96434 | A rare Kaposi sarcoma that arises from the appendiceal wall. |
| C96435 | A rare leiomyosarcoma that arises from the appendiceal wall. |
| C96436 | A neuroma that arises from the appendix.  It is characterized by a neural spindle cell proliferation that replaces the appendiceal mucosa and lymphoid tissue.  It usually results in the obliteration of the appendiceal lumen. |
| C96463 | An adenoma that arises from the rectum.  It is characterized by prominent serration of the glands. |
| C96464 | "Polyps that arise from the colon, and are characterized by the presence of serrated glands and the absence of generalized dysplasia." |
| C96465 | Polyps that arises from the rectum. They are characterized by the presence of serrated glands and the absence of generalized dysplasia. |
| C96466 | A traditional serrated adenoma characterized by the presence of prominent villous projections of the neoplastic epithelium. |
| C96468 | A traditional serrated adenoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of prominent villous projections of the neoplastic epithelium. |
| C96469 | "A term that refers to a group of polypoid lesions in the colon and rectum that are characterized by the presence of serrated architecture of the epithelial component.  This group includes hyperplastic polyps, traditional serrated adenomas, and sessile serrated adenomas/polyps." |
| C96470 | "The presence of multiple serrated polyps in the colon. The polyps are predominantly sessile serrated adenomas/polyps. A minority of the polyps are microvesicular variants of hyperplastic polyps. According to some authors, the polyps are proximal to the sigmoid colon. According to others, the polyps are distributed throughout the entire colon." |
| C96471 | A serrated hyperplastic polyp that arises from the colon and rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of goblet cells and the absence of microvacuolated columnar cells.  There is no evidence of epithelial atypia or dysplasia. |
| C96472 | A serrated hyperplastic polyp that arises from the colon and rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of small cells in the crypts that do not contain mucin.  Reactive epithelial atypia may be present. |
| C96473 | A serrated hyperplastic polyp that arises from the colon and rectum.  It is characterized by the presence of microvacuolated columnar cells that are admixed with small numbers of goblet cells.  There is no evidence of epithelial atypia or dysplasia. |
| C96474 | "A non-neoplastic, hamartomatous polyp that arises from the colon and rectum.  This group includes the juvenile polyp, Peutz-Jeghers polyp, and Cowden-associated polyp." |
| C96475 | "A non-neoplastic, hamartomatous polyp that arises from the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.  This group includes the juvenile polyps and Peutz-Jeghers polyps." |
| C96476 | A hamartomatous polyp that arises from the colon and rectum and it is associated with the presence of Cowden syndrome. |
| C96477 | A usually polypoid neoplasm that arises from the glandular epithelium of the rectal mucosa. It is characterized by a tubular architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. |
| C96478 | "A polypoid adenoma that arises from and protrudes into the lumen of the colon or rectum.  Epithelial dysplasia is always present.  According to the architectural pattern it is classified as tubular, tubulovillous, or villous." |
| C96479 | "A polypoid adenoma that arises from and protrudes into the lumen of the colon.  Epithelial dysplasia is always present.  According to the architectural pattern it is classified as tubular, tubulovillous, or villous." |
| C96480 | "A polypoid adenoma that arises from and protrudes into the lumen of the rectum.  Epithelial dysplasia is always present.  According to the architectural pattern it is classified as tubular, tubulovillous, or villous." |
| C96485 | "A rare, invasive colorectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant infiltrate with serrated glandular architecture." |
| C96486 | "A rare, invasive colon adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant infiltrate with serrated glandular architecture." |
| C96487 | "A rare, invasive rectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a malignant infiltrate with serrated glandular architecture." |
| C96488 | "A rare, invasive colorectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cribriform glands with central necrotic changes." |
| C96489 | "A rare, invasive colon adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cribriform glands with central necrotic changes." |
| C96490 | "A rare, invasive rectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cribriform glands with central necrotic changes." |
| C96491 | "A rare, invasive colorectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of clusters of malignant glandular cells within stromal spaces." |
| C96492 | "A rare, invasive colon adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of clusters of malignant glandular cells within stromal spaces." |
| C96493 | "A rare, invasive rectal adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of clusters of malignant glandular cells within stromal spaces." |
| C96494 | A biphasic colorectal carcinoma with a spindle cell sarcomatoid component. |
| C96496 | "A colorectal adenocarcinoma that develops in patients with a history of ulcerative colitis.  Such carcinomas are usually multiple and flat.  Histologically, they are usually mucinous or signet-ring cell type." |
| C96497 | A colorectal adenocarcinoma that develops in patients with a history of Crohn disease. |
| C96498 | An extranodal lymphoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  The majority are B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C96499 | An extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  The majority are B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas. |
| C96500 | A rare Hodgkin lymphoma that arises from the colon or rectum. |
| C96501 | "High-grade B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified, that arises from the colorectal region." |
| C96502 | A rare Burkitt lymphoma that arises from the colon or rectum. |
| C96503 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the colon or rectum. |
| C96504 | A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the colon.  It is the most frequent type of lymphoma found in the colon. |
| C96505 | A mantle cell lymphoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  It often presents as a polypoid lesion. |
| C96506 | An extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the colon or rectum. |
| C96508 | "A malignant soft tissue neoplasm that arises from the colon or rectum.  Representative examples include angiosarcoma, Kaposi sarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma." |
| C96509 | An aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm that arises from the colon or rectum.  It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells. |
| C96510 | A Kaposi sarcoma that arises from the colon or rectum. |
| C96511 | An angiosarcoma that arises from the colon or rectum. |
| C96512 | A schwannoma that arises from the colon or rectum.  It may cause gastrointestinal bleeding and luminal obstruction. |
| C96513 | A perineurioma that arises from the colon or rectum.  It usually presents as a small sessile polyp. |
| C96514 | A ganglioneuroma that arises from the colon or rectum.  It usually presents as a small mucosal polyp. |
| C96516 | "A granular cell tumor that arises from the colon or rectum and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential." |
| C96520 | An autosomal recessive hereditary neoplastic syndrome caused by mutations in the MUTYH gene on chromosome 1p34.1.  It is characterized by the presence of multiple colorectal polyps that may progress to carcinoma.  Development of gastric and small intestinal polyps may also occur. |
| C96529 | A usually aggressive malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the anal canal.  It is composed of malignant cells which do not display evidence of glandular or squamous differentiation. |
| C96540 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the anal canal." |
| C96543 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the anal canal. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C96546 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the anal canal. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C96549 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the anal canal. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96550 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the anal canal and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96551 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the anal canal and is composed of malignant small cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96553 | A carcinoma that arises from the anal canal.  It is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component.  At least 30 percent of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C96554 | A benign epithelial neoplasm that arises from the anal canal.  It is characterized by a papillary growth pattern and a proliferation of neoplastic squamous cells without morphologic evidence of malignancy. |
| C96693 | A non-neoplastic polypoid lesion that arises from the anal transitional zone.  It is characterized by the presence of hyperplastic rectal mucosa that is partially covered by squamous or transitional epithelium. |
| C96699 | A benign neoplasm arising from the perianal sweat glands. It presents as a cystic nodular lesion and is characterized by the presence of cystic and papillary structures. The papillary structures contain connective tissue and are covered by two layers of epithelium. |
| C96716 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. Representative examples of non-neoplastic disorders include cholangitis and biliary atresia. Representative examples of neoplastic disorders include extrahepatic bile duct adenoma and cholangiocarcinoma. |
| C96717 | A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the gallbladder. Representative examples include cholecystitis and adenomyomatosis. |
| C96756 | "A neoplasm that arises from the hepatocytes or intrahepatic bile duct epithelial cells and is characterized by the absence of atypical or malignant cytological and architectural features, and absence of invasive features or metastatic potential. Representative examples include hepatocellular adenoma and bile duct adenoma." |
| C96758 | "A hepatocellular adenoma caused by inactivating mutations of the HNF1A gene.  It is characterized by the presence of lobulated contours, steatosis, and absence of inflammation or nuclear atypia." |
| C96759 | A hepatocellular adenoma caused by activating mutations of beta-catenin.  It is characterized by the presence of nuclear atypia and absence of inflammation or steatosis.  There is an increased risk of malignant transformation. |
| C96760 | A hepatocellular adenoma that occurs more often in women.  It is characterized by increased levels of inflammation-associated proteins.  It is usually associated with steatosis and obesity. |
| C96761 | A hepatocellular adenoma without distinguished morphologic characteristics or known molecular abnormalities. |
| C96765 | "A premalignant neoplastic lesion of the liver.  It is characterized by the presence of hepatocytes with decreased cell volume, increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio, basophilia, mild nuclear pleomorphism, and hyperchromasia." |
| C96767 | "A carcinoma that has spread to the liver from another primary anatomic site.  Representative examples include metastatic carcinomas from the colon, breast, and lung." |
| C96768 | A hepatic dysplastic nodule characterized by the presence of high grade atypical cellular changes. |
| C96770 | A hepatic dysplastic nodule characterized by the presence of low grade atypical cellular changes. |
| C96772 | "A low grade, well differentiated small hepatocellular carcinoma. It lacks obvious stromal invasion and significant atypia." |
| C96786 | An extremely rare neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the liver. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C96787 | An extremely rare carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the liver. |
| C96788 | A rare type of hepatocellular carcinoma characterized by the presence of pleomorphic malignant cells that are intermixed with lymphocytes. |
| C96789 | A hepatocellular carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with mild atypia and an increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio forming thin trabecular patterns.  It is usually associated with small tumors and an early stage. |
| C96790 | A hepatocellular carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm forming trabecular and pseudoglandular patterns.  It is usually associated with tumors that are larger than 3 cm in diameter. |
| C96791 | A hepatocellular carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant pleomorphic cells forming solid patterns. |
| C96792 | A rare carcinoma that arises from the liver.  The diagnosis is made by immunohistochemical studies.  Morphologic studies alone cannot establish the diagnosis of carcinoma or further subclassify the malignant tumor. |
| C96804 | An intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that arises from the intrahepatic large bile ducts. |
| C96805 | An intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma that arises from the small interlobular bile ducts. |
| C96807 | An intraductal papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. It is characterized by the presence of mild epithelial atypia. |
| C96808 | An intraductal papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. It is characterized by the presence of moderate epithelial atypia. |
| C96809 | An intraductal papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. It is characterized by the presence of severe epithelial atypia. |
| C96810 | An intraductal papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts and it is associated with an invasive carcinomatous component. |
| C96811 | An adenoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of tubular and papillary growth patterns. |
| C96826 | A rare benign neoplasm that arises from the intrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of biliary epithelial tissue and fibroblastic stroma. |
| C96830 | "A rare malignant tumor that arises from the liver and occurs in children.  It is characterized by the presence of nested epithelioid and spindle cells.  Desmoplasia, calcifications, and bone formation may also be present." |
| C96835 | A mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the intrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C96836 | A non-invasive mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of mild atypia. |
| C96837 | A non-invasive mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of moderate atypia. |
| C96838 | A non-invasive mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of severe atypia. |
| C96839 | A hemangioma with cavernous vascular spaces arising from the liver.  It is the most frequent benign tumor of the liver and usually affects young females. |
| C96840 | A capillary hemangioma that arises from the liver and occurs in infants and children. |
| C96841 | A rare lymphangioma that arises from the liver.  It usually occurs in children and adolescents. |
| C96842 | "Multiple lymphangiomas that affect the liver and other anatomic sites. Although histologically benign, diffuse lymphangiomatosis that affects the liver and multiple organs has a poor prognosis." |
| C96843 | A rare diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that arises from the liver and the bulk of the tumor is located in the liver. |
| C96844 | A Kaposi sarcoma that arises from the liver. |
| C96845 | A synovial sarcoma that affects the liver. |
| C96846 | "A low-grade malignant blood vessel neoplasm that arises from the liver.  It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells.  The neoplastic cells are arranged in cords and nests, which are embedded in a myxoid to hyalinized stroma.  Patients may be asymptomatic or present with an abdominal mass, ascites, and jaundice." |
| C96847 | "A rare, aggressive primary malignant tumor of the liver that occurs in childhood.  It is characterized by the presence of a diffuse infiltrate of undifferentiated cells with rhabdoid features." |
| C96848 | "An aggressive carcinoma with a sarcomatous component that arises from the liver.  The sarcomatous component is clonally related to the more differentiated, carcinomatous component.  The prognosis is usually poor." |
| C96849 | A benign or malignant extragonadal germ cell tumor that arises from the liver. Representative examples include teratoma and yolk sac tumor. |
| C96850 | A teratoma that arises from the liver. |
| C96851 | A yolk sac tumor that arises from the liver. |
| C96853 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the liver, bile ducts, and gallbladder. Representative examples include hepatitis, cirrhosis, cholangitis, and cholecystitis." |
| C96867 |  |
| C96869 |  |
| C96877 | An intracholecystic papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the gallbladder. It is characterized by the presence of mild epithelial atypia. |
| C96878 | An intracholecystic papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the gallbladder. It is characterized by the presence of moderate epithelial atypia. |
| C96879 | An intracholecystic papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the gallbladder. It is characterized by the presence of severe epithelial atypia. |
| C96881 | "An epithelial, usually multiloculated neoplasm arising from the gallbladder. It occurs predominantly in females. Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, abdominal pain, and jaundice. Morphologically, the cystic spaces are lined by columnar epithelium and contain mucinous or serous fluid." |
| C96883 | A non-invasive mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder epithelium.  It is characterized by the presence of mild atypia. |
| C96884 | A non-invasive mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder epithelium.  It is characterized by the presence of moderate atypia. |
| C96886 | A non-invasive mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder epithelium.  It is characterized by the presence of severe atypia. |
| C96887 | A mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder and it is associated with an invasive carcinomatous component. |
| C96888 | "A carcinoma that arises from the gallbladder and it is characterized by the presence of a sarcomatous component.  The sarcomatous component may contain osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, or rhabdomyosarcoma elements." |
| C96890 | A rare variant of gallbladder adenocarcinoma.  It is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial infiltrate that resembles hepatocellular carcinoma. |
| C96891 | A rare variant of gallbladder adenocarcinoma.  It is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial infiltrate with a cribriform growth pattern. |
| C96915 | A well or moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma that arises from the gallbladder.  It is the most common type of gallbladder carcinoma and is characterized by the presence of malignant tubular glands.  Intestinal differentiation may be present. |
| C96916 | "An unusual, well differentiated adenocarcinoma that arises from the gallbladder.  It is characterized by the presence of tall malignant columnar cells with mucin-containing cytoplasm and basally located nuclei." |
| C96917 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the gallbladder. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C96918 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the gallbladder." |
| C96919 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the gallbladder. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96921 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the gallbladder and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96924 | "A well-differentiated, low-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder. The mitotic count is less than 2 per 2 mm2 and the Ki-67 index is less than 3%." |
| C96925 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the gallbladder. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C96927 | A carcinoma that arises from the gallbladder and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component.  At least 30 percent of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C96928 | A rare adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder that exhibits neuroendocrine differentiation and is associated with the presence of neoplastic signet-ring cells resembling goblet cells of the intestine. |
| C96930 | "A neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the gallbladder.  It does not show the morphologic characteristics of typical carcinoid tumors (neoplastic cells forming solid nests). In contrast, the tumor cells form small discrete tubules." |
| C96936 | A well or moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of malignant tubular glands. |
| C96937 | "An unusual, well differentiated adenocarcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of tall malignant columnar cells with mucin-containing cytoplasm and basally located nuclei." |
| C96938 | An adenocarcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts.  It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic tubular glands lined by columnar cells or neoplastic glands lined by goblet cells. |
| C96939 | A carcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts and it is characterized by the presence of a sarcomatous component. |
| C96942 | "A neoplastic, non-invasive lesion that affects the extrahepatic bile duct epithelium.  It is characterized by the presence of atypical epithelial cells with an increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio, nuclear hyperchromasia, and loss of nuclear polarity." |
| C96943 | "A neoplastic, non-invasive lesion that affects the intrahepatic bile duct epithelium.  It is characterized by the presence of atypical epithelial cells with an increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio, nuclear hyperchromasia, and loss of nuclear polarity." |
| C96945 | "A neoplastic, non-invasive lesion that affects the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile duct epithelium.  It is characterized by the presence of atypical epithelial cells with an increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio, nuclear hyperchromasia, and loss of nuclear polarity." |
| C96946 | A mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts and it is associated with an invasive carcinomatous component. |
| C96947 | A mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the intrahepatic bile ducts and it is associated with an invasive carcinomatous component. |
| C96948 | A papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the extrahepatic bile ducts and it is associated with an invasive carcinomatous component.  The carcinomatous component is an adenocarcinoma. |
| C96949 | A papillary neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the intrahepatic bile ducts and it is associated with an invasive carcinomatous component.  The carcinomatous component is an intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma. |
| C96951 | A Kaposi sarcoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C96952 | "A lymphoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts, with the bulk of the disease located at this site." |
| C96953 | A malignant neoplasm that has spread to the extrahepatic bile ducts from another anatomic site.  Representative examples include metastatic melanoma and metastatic breast and gastric carcinomas. |
| C96954 | A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (poorly differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms). |
| C96955 | "A well-differentiated, low-, intermediate-, or high-grade neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts." |
| C96956 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts. It is composed of malignant small or large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96957 | "A well-differentiated, intermediate-grade neuroendocrine neoplasm that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts. The mitotic count is 2-20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is 3 to 20%." |
| C96958 | An aggressive high-grade carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts and is composed of malignant large cells. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 2 mm2 and/or the Ki-67 index is more than 20%. |
| C96959 | A carcinoma that arises from the extrahepatic bile ducts and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component.  At least 30 percent of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made. |
| C96963 | "A malignant neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of any part of the digestive system.  Representative examples include colorectal carcinoma, esophageal carcinoma, and pancreatic carcinoma." |
| C97041 | An acanthoma characterized by the presence of psoriasiform epidermal acanthosis and basal cells with pale cytoplasm. |
| C97045 | "A group of disorders that affect the bones secondary to increased levels of minerals or deficient levels of minerals such as calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, and vitamin D. Representative examples are osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and Paget disease." |
| C97046 | An adenosquamous carcinoma associated with the presence of human papillomavirus infection. |
| C97049 | "A grade I invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast, characterized by the presence of round groups of neoplastic cells." |
| C97051 | "A grade II invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast, characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with large and atypical nuclei." |
| C97052 | "A grade I invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast, characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells that form trabeculae and groups infiltrating collagen bundles." |
| C97053 | "An invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast, characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells forming small tubular structures." |
| C97055 | "An often fatal inflammatory disorder that affects the myocardium. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of an inflammatory infiltrate in the myocardial tissue that includes multinucleated giant cells. It is often associated with the presence of an autoimmune disorder. Patients present with arrhythmias and/or heart failure. Heart transplantation is the only treatment option available." |
| C97057 | Condyloma acuminatum that is associated with the presence of dysplastic epithelial changes. |
| C97058 | A congenital mesoblastic nephroma characterized by the presence of classic and cellular areas. |
| C97062 | A rare congenital malformation in the larynx. It is characterized by the presence of an air-filled sac within the laryngeal wall which may bulge on the neck. |
| C97065 | "A reactive, benign fibrous lesion that develops in the periosteum of the femur.  It usually affects boys and there is a history of trauma.  It is characterized by the formation of dense collagen tissue and reactive bone." |
| C97066 | An acute inflammatory process affecting the esophageal wall. |
| C97067 | A chronic inflammatory process affecting the esophageal wall. |
| C97069 | A congenital disorder characterized by blockage or absence of the extrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C97070 | A congenital disorder characterized by blockage or absence of the intrahepatic bile ducts. |
| C97071 | "A congenital disorder usually inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. It affects the hepatobiliary system and the kidneys. It is characterized by liver fibrosis, portal hypertension, and renal cysts." |
| C97072 | A congenital disorder of the intrahepatic bile ducts characterized by abnormal embryonal development of the ductal plates. |
| C97073 | An inherited disorder characterized by progressive degeneration and atrophy of the nervous system. |
| C97074 | "An autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the presence of smaller than normal, sphere-shaped erythrocytes. It results in hemolytic anemia and splenomegaly." |
| C97075 | An inherited genetic disorder that affects the connective tissues. Representative examples include Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and Marfan syndrome. |
| C97076 | "A rare, slow-growing, locally aggressive soft tissue tumor characterized by the presence of oval to spindle cells forming concentric aggregates around small vessels.  Giant multinucleated cells are also present." |
| C97077 | An acute inflammation of the umbilical cord. It is characterized by the presence of polymorphonuclear cells migrating from the fetal umbilical cord vessels through the umbilical cord towards the bacteria containing amniotic fluid. |
| C97078 | A non-neoplastic proliferation of lymphocytes in lymph nodes and/or extranodal sites. |
| C97079 | Hyperplasia of the bronchial epithelial cells.  It is often associated with squamous metaplasia. |
| C97080 | A benign fibrous hyperplasia in the oral mucosa caused by the prolonged wear of ill-fitting denture. |
| C97081 | Hyperplasia characterized by the presence of a diffuse cellular infiltrate. |
| C97082 | "Overgrowth of the gingival tissue caused by phenytoin, cyclosporine A, and calcium channel blockers." |
| C97083 | Hyperplasia characterized by the presence of a focal proliferation of epithelial cells. |
| C97084 | Hyperplasia of the germinal centers resulting in the enlargement of the lymph node. |
| C97085 | "Inflammation of the aorta. Causes include trauma, infectious disorders, and connective tissue disorders." |
| C97087 | Dilatation of the lymphatic vessels. |
| C97089 | "An inherited or acquired disorder that affects the metabolism of the carbohydrates. Representative examples include diabetes mellitus, glycogen storage disease, mucopolysaccharidoses, and lactose intolerance." |
| C97090 | "An inherited disorder that affects the metabolism of the amino acids. Representative examples include alkaptonuria, homocystinuria, tyrosinemia, and phenylketonuria." |
| C97091 | An inborn metabolic disorder affecting the intermediary metabolism process. It results in accumulation of substances in the body that can cause acute or chronic intoxication. |
| C97092 | "An inherited metabolic disorder caused by an enzyme deficiency, resulting in an inability to oxidize fatty acids for energy production." |
| C97093 | A congenital or acquired disorder characterized by abnormal loss or redistribution of the adipose tissue in the body. |
| C97095 | A metabolic disorder that affects the phosphate homeostasis. |
| C97096 | A group of genetic or acquired metabolic disorders characterized by defects in the enzymes that are involved in the heme synthesis. |
| C97099 | A genetic or acquired metabolic disorder that is associated with zinc deficiency in the tissues. |
| C97109 | The lack of vision. It is caused by neurological or physiological factors. |
| C97110 | A non neoplastic or neoplastic disorder that affects the spinal cord. |
| C97111 | "A very rare, slow growing, usually asymptomatic hamartomatous lesion that arises from ectopic notochordal tissue.  Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of typical physaliphorous cells in a myxoid background." |
| C97114 | "A lesion in the prostate gland characterized by glandular atrophy, chronic inflammation, and epithelial hyperplasia. It has been suggested that it is a precancerous lesion and it may lead to the development of prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia and prostatic carcinoma." |
| C97115 | A benign lesion characterized by epidermal and adnexal epithelial hyperplasia.  It is caused by chronic inflammation and infection.  It may be associated with cutaneous neoplasms as well. |
| C97118 | A necrotizing vasculitis caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. |
| C97124 | A rare congenital abnormality of the lungs. It consists of a mass of lung parenchyma that does not communicate with the bronchial tree and receives its blood supply from the systemic circulation instead of the pulmonary circulation. |
| C97132 | "A contagious childhood disorder caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is transmitted via respiratory secretions and contact with chickenpox blister contents. It presents with a vesicular skin rash, usually associated with fever, headache, and myalgias. The pruritic fluid-filled vesicles occur 10-21 days after exposure and last for 3-4 days. An additional 3-4 days of malaise follows before the affected individual feels better. An individual is contagious 1-2 days prior to the appearance o... |
| C97135 | "A rare, benign, well-circumscribed salivary gland neoplasm that predominantly affects females.  It is characterized by the presence of microcysts, ducts, and acini in a sclerotic stroma.  Focal lymphocytic infiltrates may also be present." |
| C97136 | "A chronic erythematous skin disorder that affects the face. It is characterized by the development of redness in the cheeks, nose, and/or forehead and telangiectasia. Sometimes, the erythematous changes may involve the eyelids." |
| C97140 | An acute inflammation of a synovial membrane. It is associated with swelling and pain in the affected area. |
| C97141 | "Inflammation of a tendon, usually resulting from an overuse injury.  It is characterized by swelling of the tendon, tenderness around the inflamed tendon, and pain while moving the affected area of the body." |
| C97142 | "An acute inflammation of the tonsils caused by viruses or bacteria. Signs and symptoms include fever, enlargement of the tonsils, difficulty swallowing, and enlargement of the regional lymph nodes." |
| C97143 | A non-neoplastic lesion of the ureter characterized by the presence of multiple submucosal small cysts in the ureteral wall.  It is caused by inflammation due to urinary tract stones or infection. |
| C97144 | Scarring and atrophy of the renal cortex that occurs in hypertensive patients and in old age. |
| C97145 | "Inflammation of one or both testes due to viral or bacterial infections. Signs and symptoms include enlargement or tenderness of the affected testis, inguinal lymphadenopathy, blood in the semen, and pain during urination, intercourse, or ejaculation." |
| C97151 | An inherited disorder that presents with systemic manifestations. |
| C97154 | "A non-neoplastic disorder that affects the brain. Representative examples include cerebrovascular disorder, hydrocephalus, and encephalitis." |
| C97155 | "A category of disorders characterized by an impairment in the development of an individual's language capabilities, which is in contrast to his/her non-verbal intellect." |
| C97159 | "A disorder most often diagnosed in the pediatric years in which the individual displays marked impairment in social interaction and a repetitive, stereotyped pattern of behavior. The individual, however, displays no delay in language or cognitive development, which differentiates Asperger Syndrome from autism." |
| C97160 | "A disorder characterized by a marked pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that is inconsistent with developmental level and clearly interferes with functioning in at least two settings (e.g. at home and at school). When present, the symptoms of hyperactivity are most often present before the age of 7 years. There are three recognized presentations or subtypes from most to least common: combined type, inattentive/distractible type, hyperactive/impulsive type." |
| C97161 | "A disorder characterized by marked impairments in social interaction and communication accompanied by a pattern of repetitive, stereotyped behaviors and activities. Developmental delays in social interaction and language surface prior to age 3 years." |
| C97162 | Recurrent episodes of over-eating. |
| C97163 | "Similar to depression in adults, childhood depression is characterized by a prolonged depressed or irritable mood accompanied by a significant loss of interest in activities, changes in appetite or sleep, decreased energy, feelings of worthlessness, and/or recurrent thoughts of death or suicide." |
| C97164 | "A pediatric disorder characterized by normal development for at least the first two years of life followed by a severe regression in language, social interaction, bowel or bladder control, and/or motor skills. The affected individual may also exhibit repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior similar to autism." |
| C97165 | A wide group of related learning disorders characterized by difficulties with mathematics and manipulating numbers; the difficulty with math may be caused or exacerbated by visuo-spatial or language processing difficulties. |
| C97167 | "A blood disorder characterized by low hemoglobin levels in premature neonates that usually spontaneously resolves within 3-6 months post birth. A combination of factors including the transition from the liver to the bone marrow for erythropoiesis in a neonate, blood loss experienced during delivery, the shortened life span of fetal blood cells, and an acclimation to a relatively hyperoxic environment outside the womb can predispose a neonate to this condition." |
| C97168 | "The least common subtype of cerebral palsy, in which the individual displays hypotonia, a loss of motor coordination, and an intention tremor. Individuals with ataxic cerebral palsy walk very unsteadily, with a wide-based gait." |
| C97169 | "A subtype of cerebral palsy characterized by involuntary, purposeless writhing movements which affect the hands, feet, arms, and legs; the face and tongue may be affected as well, leading to involuntary grimacing, drooling, dysarthria and difficulty eating." |
| C97170 | "A disorder characterized by impairment of the auditory processing, resulting in deficiencies in the recognition and interpretation of sounds by the brain. Causes include brain maturation delays and brain traumas or tumors." |
| C97171 | An abnormality of the digestive system that is present at birth or detected in the neonatal period. |
| C97172 | An abnormality of the nervous system that is present at birth or detected in the neonatal period. |
| C97173 | An abnormality of the respiratory system that is present at birth or detected in the neonatal period. |
| C97174 | A skin abnormality that is present at birth or detected in the neonatal period. |
| C97175 | Reduced ability to perceive visual stimuli. |
| C97177 | "A subtype of cerebral palsy characterized by both the tight muscle tone of spastic cerebral palsy and the writhing, involuntary muscle movements of athetoid cerebral palsy." |
| C97179 | A category of developmental disorders characterized by impaired communication and socialization skills. The impairments are incongruent with the individual's developmental level or mental age. These disorders can be associated with general medical or genetic conditions. |
| C97193 | "A disorder in which an individual experiences recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and persistent concern about having additional panic attacks. Agoraphobia is not a component of this disorder." |
| C97194 | "A disorder in which an individual experiences recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and persistent concern about having additional panic attacks. Agoraphobia is a component of this disorder." |
| C97250 | "A broad category of disorders characterized by an impairment to the intelligence an individual possesses. These impairments can result from trauma, birth, or disease and are not restricted to any particular age group." |
| C97310 | Myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of somatic mutations. |
| C97327 | A storage disorder that results from impaired metabolism of nickel. |
| C97965 | "A neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the breast.  It is characterized by the presence of cellular solid nests and trabeculae that contain spindle-shaped, plasmacytoid, and large neuroendocrine cells." |
| C98130 | "A blood coagulation disorder characterized by the complete absence of fibrinogen in the blood, resulting in bleeding." |
| C98291 | A teratoma that arises from the testis or ovary. |
| C98297 | "A non-neoplastic connective and soft tissue disorder that usually affects infants. It is characterized by the deposition of extracellular hyaline material in the skin, soft tissues and bones. This results in the development of tumor-like masses. Surgical excision is the treatment of choice, however, local recurrences are common." |
| C98541 | "A persistent non-neoplastic disorder of the lungs. Representative examples include: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, chronic bronchitis, emphysema, pulmonary fibrosis, pneumoconiosis, asbestosis, atelectasis, radiation induced pneumonitis, and radiation fibrosis." |
| C98573 | "An abnormality that refers to mutation of factor V Leiden, which is a variant of human factor V. It results in thrombophilia, deep vein thrombosis, and a slightly increased risk of miscarriage." |
| C98576 | A type of osteogenesis imperfecta that is characterized by fractures and hearing loss. It is more severe than type I and less severe than types II and III. |
| C98583 | Thanatophoric dysplasia characterized by a normally shaped skull and curved femurs. It is the most common type of thanatophoric dysplasia. |
| C98584 | Thanatophoric dysplasia characterized by a cloverleaf-like skull and straight femurs. |
| C98585 | "A rare congenital heart disorder in which all four pulmonary veins are not connected to the left atrium and drain into the systemic veins or the right atrium instead. Infants present with cyanosis, lethargy, tachypnea, respiratory infections, and poor growth." |
| C98590 | Total anomalous pulmonary venous return in which the pulmonary veins drain into the right atrium via the superior vena cava. |
| C98592 | Total anomalous pulmonary venous return in which the pulmonary veins drain into the right atrium via the coronary sinus. |
| C98597 | Total anomalous pulmonary venous return in which the common pulmonary vein connects to the portal venous system through the diaphragm. |
| C98598 | Total anomalous pulmonary venous return in which the right and left pulmonary arteries drain into different sites. |
| C98609 | "A syndrome that results from a group of infections that affect the fetus or the newborn. The group of infections includes Toxoplasma gondii, rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex virus, and other infections. The other infections include varicella-zoster virus, hepatitis B virus, human immunodeficiency virus, parvovirus B19, and syphilis. Signs and symptoms include fever, feeding difficulties, petechial rash, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, chorioretinitis, and microcephaly." |
| C98622 | "A rare congenital abnormality in the laryngo-tracheal wall. It results from the incomplete development of the tracheoesophageal septum. Signs and symptoms include coughing, cyanosis, repeated pulmonary infections, and failure to gain weight." |
| C98629 | "A rare congenital or acquired abnormality characterized by the presence of a web-like thin layer of tissue that narrows the lumen of the trachea. It may result in wheezing, dyspnea, and respiratory failure." |
| C98634 | "A congenital or acquired abnormality of the wall of the trachea. In congenital cases, there is lack of rigidity in the cartilage of the tracheal wall. In acquired cases, the cartilage of the tracheal wall is degenerated, secondary to tracheostomy or prolonged presence of a breathing tube, or as a complication of a tracheoesophageal fistula surgical repair. Symptoms include stridor, noisy breathing, and upper respiratory infections." |
| C98640 | "An autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder caused by mutations in the FAH, HPD, and TAT genes. It is characterized by deficiency of one of the enzymes that are involved in the metabolism of tyrosine. It results in elevated blood tyrosine levels and accumulation of tyrosine and its byproducts in the liver, kidney, nervous system and other organs." |
| C98641 | "Tyrosinemia caused by mutations in the FAH gene. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase. It is the most severe form of tyrosinemia. Signs and symptoms appear early in life and include failure to thrive, vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, and bleeding tendency. It may result in liver and kidney failure. Patients with this type of tyrosinemia may also have a predisposition for hepatocellular carcinoma." |
| C98642 | "An arteriovenous malformation in the vein of Galen that is located at the base of the brain. The malformation may result in developmental delays, hydrocephalus, seizures, and congestive heart failure." |
| C98647 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder characterized by a deficiency of the enzyme very long-chain acyl-coenzyme A dehydrogenase that metabolizes long-chain fatty acids. Signs and symptoms may appear in infancy, early childhood, or later in life. Clinical manifestations in infancy include cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias, hypotonia, and hepatomegaly. Early childhood manifestations include hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly. Later-onset manifestations include muscle pain, cramps, and rhabdomyolysis." |
| C98670 | "The most severe form of spinal muscular atrophy. It is manifested in the first year of life with muscle weakness, poor muscle tone, and lack of motor development. The motor neuron death affects the major organ systems, particularly the respiratory system. Most patients die before the age of two secondary to pneumonia." |
| C98674 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the MCCC1 or MCCC2 genes. It is characterized by a deficiency in an enzyme that is involved in the metabolism of proteins that contain leucine. Signs and symptoms range from mild to severe and include feeding difficulties, vomiting, diarrhea, developmental delays, lethargy, seizures and coma." |
| C98678 | "A group of five inherited disorders caused by mutations in the AUH, DNAJC19, OPA3, and TAZ genes. The disorders are characterized by impairment in the function of mitochondria, resulting in the accumulation and excretion of 3-methylglutaconic acid, and the presence of 3-methylglutaric acid in the urine." |
| C98683 | "3-methylglutaconic aciduria inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and caused by mutations in the AUH gene. Signs and symptoms include psychomotor developmental abnormalities, speech delay, weakness and spasm of the extremities, dystonia, and metabolic acidosis." |
| C98699 | An autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the SRD5A2 gene. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme steroid 5-alpha reductase 2 that catalyzes the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone. It results in disruption of the formation of male genitalia. Patients present with pseudohermaphroditism. |
| C98700 | The protrusion of abdominal contents through a congenital or acquired defect in the abdominal wall. |
| C98701 | Formation of blood clot in the lumen of the abdominal aorta. It may lead to severe abdominal pain and ischemic necrosis of the intestine. |
| C98802 | "Cataract that results from the aging process, an injury, or as a manifestation of a systemic disorder." |
| C98803 | "Hydrocephalus that results from head trauma, brain tumors, intracranial hemorrhage, or meningitis." |
| C98805 | Methemoglobinemia that is caused by exposure to certain drugs (xylocaine and benzene) and nitrate-rich foods. |
| C98806 | "Rickets that is caused by vitamin D deficiency, hypocalcemia, or renal failure." |
| C98809 | A rare lethal congenital abnormality that refers to the abnormal development of the capillaries around the alveoli in the lung parenchyma. It manifests as respiratory distress and persistent pulmonary hypertension in infancy. |
| C98813 | A rare congenital abnormality in which the duodenum is surrounded by a ring of pancreatic tissue. It may result in constriction of the duodenum and feeding intolerance. |
| C98814 | A rare congenital abnormality characterized by the complete absence of ocular tissue in the orbit. |
| C98815 | "A rare disorder characterized by the presence of low levels of antithrombin III which prohibits the formation of blood clots. It may be inherited, usually in an autosomal dominant pattern, or acquired. It may lead to venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism." |
| C98818 | "A rare congenital heart defect characterized by the complete failure of the aortic valve to open. It is manifested during infancy with cyanosis, dyspnea, and rapidly progressing heart failure." |
| C98822 | "Localized or widespread congenital absence of skin. The lesions most frequently occur in the scalp, are well demarcated, may be superficial or deep, and are not associated with inflammation." |
| C98824 | "A very rare congenital brain defect in which the cerebral cortex, striatum, globus pallidus, thalamus, hypothalamus, and eyes are absent or rudimentary." |
| C98826 | Formation of a blood clot in the lumen of an artery. |
| C98827 | A malformation characterized by the absence of a normal opening in a part of the large intestine. |
| C98828 | A congenital malformation characterized by the absence of a normal opening in a part of the small intestine. |
| C98829 | An inherited disorder that manifests when one copy of a mutated gene is present. |
| C98835 | A form of sickle cell thalassemia characterized by the absence of hemoglobin A. Patients usually have severe anemia identical to that seen in sickle cell disease. |
| C98837 | A mild form of sickle cell thalassemia characterized by the presence of hemoglobin S and a small amount of hemoglobin A in the red blood cells. It is characterized by the presence of small red blood cells and mild anemia. |
| C98841 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the ACAT1 gene. It is characterized by the reduction or elimination of the enzyme mitochondrial acetoacetyl-CoA thiolase which is responsible for the metabolism of the amino acid isoleucine and ketone-body metabolism. Signs and symptoms appear early in life and include vomiting, dehydration, breathing difficulties, seizures, lethargy, and coma." |
| C98842 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the HLCS gene. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme holocarboxylase synthetase which facilitates the effective use of the vitamin biotin in the body. Signs and symptoms appear early in life and include breathing difficulties, feeding difficulties, alopecia, skin rash, and lethargy. Lifelong administration of biotin supplements is required. If it is not treated properly, it may lead to developmental delays, seizu... |
| C98847 | "A congenital or acquired abnormality of the wall of the bronchi. In congenital cases, there is lack of rigidity in the cartilage of the bronchial wall. In acquired cases, the cartilage of the bronchial wall is degenerated, secondary to tracheostomy or presence of a breathing tube. Symptoms include noisy breathing and wheezing." |
| C98848 | A congenital disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of tachycardia that affects neonates and infants. It results from an increased automaticity in the atrioventricular node and His bundle. |
| C98863 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the ACADSB gene. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme 2-methylbutyryl-CoA dehydrogenase which is involved in the metabolism of isoleucine. Signs and symptoms include vomiting, lethargy, irritable mood, and developmental delays. It may also lead to breathing difficulties, seizures, and coma." |
| C98864 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the SLC22A5 gene. It is characterized by the presence of a defective protein called OCTN2 which is involved in the transportation of carnitine into the cells. This abnormality results in reduced energy production and accumulation of fatty acids in the tissues. Clinical manifestations of confusion, muscle weakness, hypoglycemia, encephalopathy and cardiomyopathy may be exacerbated during fasting." |
| C98871 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the CPT1A gene. It is characterized by the presence of defective carnitine palmitoyltransferase 1A which is involved in fatty acid oxidation. Signs and symptoms may be exacerbated during fasting and include hypoketotic hypoglycemia, increased levels of carnitine in the blood, hepatomegaly, seizures, and coma." |
| C98873 | "An extremely rare autosomal recessive syndrome characterized by premature closure of cranial sutures leading to cone-shaped head, fusion of the digits, and the presence of more digits than normal. It may be associated with heart defects, single horseshoe-shaped kidney, short stature, undescended testes, and mild mental retardation." |
| C98874 | Herniation of spinal cord tissue through a defect in a region of the vertebral column. The protrusion of the tissue is flush with the level of the skin surface. |
| C98875 | Herniation of spinal cord tissue and meninges through a defect in the cervical region of the vertebral column. The protrusion of the tissue is flush with the level of the skin surface. |
| C98876 | Hydrocephalus that is present at birth. |
| C98877 | An abnormality in which a part of a structure in one or both eyes is missing. |
| C98878 | A congenital abnormality in which a part of the upper or lower eyelid tissue is missing. |
| C98879 | A congenital or acquired defect characterized by the presence of a hole in or adjacent to the iris. |
| C98880 | "A rare congenital cardiovascular disorder characterized by the failure of the embryologic structure truncus arteriosus to divide into the aorta and pulmonary trunk. It results in the presence of a single vessel instead of two vessels leading out of the heart. Clinical signs and symptoms include cyanosis that is present at birth, poor growth, dyspnea, tachypnea, arrhythmia, cardiomegaly, and heart failure. If it is not surgically repaired, it leads to death." |
| C98881 | A malformation in any part of the large intestine that is present at birth. |
| C98882 | "A malformation in the lung that is present at birth. Representative examples include pulmonary hypoplasia, pulmonary agenesis, congenital lobar emphysema, and alveolar capillary dysplasia." |
| C98885 | "An abnormality of the kidney, ureter, bladder, or urethra that is present at birth. Representative examples include renal hypoplasia, renal agenesis, accessory kidney, absence of ureter, atresia of bladder neck, and atresia of urethra." |
| C98886 | "An abnormality of the superior or inferior vena cava that is present at birth. Representative examples include persistent left superior vena cava, absence of infrarenal inferior vena cava, or absence of the entire inferior vena cava." |
| C98887 | "A disorder of the eye that is present at birth. Representative examples include congenital cataract, congenital glaucoma, and astigmatism." |
| C98888 | Cataract that is present at birth. |
| C98889 | A disorder characterized by hypoventilation and hypoxemia. It appears early in life and is not associated with cardiopulmonary or neuromuscular abnormalities. |
| C98890 | "Hypoplasia of the cerebellum that is associated with inherited metabolic disorders and neurodegenerative disorders. Signs and symptoms include mental and developmental delays, walking and balance difficulties, floppy muscle tone, and seizures." |
| C98892 | "A congenital malformation that is present in the lungs of the newborn. It is characterized by a spectrum of lesions that range from single or multiple cysts to bulky overgrowth of bronchiole-like structures. Signs and symptoms include respiratory distress, recurrent pulmonary infections, dyspnea, and failure to thrive." |
| C98893 | Diaphragmatic hernia that is present at birth. |
| C98894 | "A rare congenital cardiovascular disorder characterized by severe underdevelopment of the left side of the heart. Signs and symptoms include tachypnea, cyanosis, dyspnea, and lethargy." |
| C98895 | "A rare abnormality in the lungs that is present at birth. It is characterized by hyperinflation of one or more lobes of the lungs. Signs and symptoms appear early in life and include dyspnea, wheezing, and cyanosis." |
| C98896 | "A malformation in the hand or foot that is present at birth. Representative examples include syndactyly, polydactyly, brachydactyly, and thumb hypoplasia." |
| C98897 | A congenital abnormality characterized by hypoplasia or absence of the thumb. It may be associated with other congenital abnormalities. |
| C98898 | Methemoglobinemia inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. It is caused by deficiency of the enzyme NADH methemoglobin reductase or the presence of abnormal hemoglobin M. It presents with cyanosis early in life. There is no evidence of cardiopulmonary disease present. |
| C98899 | Usually mild scoliosis that disappears when the person bends forward or sideways. The spine is structurally normal. |
| C98900 | Herniation of spinal cord tissue and meninges through a defect in the sacral region of the vertebral column. The protrusion of the tissue is flush with the level of the skin surface. |
| C98902 | An acyanotic congenital cardiovascular abnormality characterized by the transposition of the aorta and the pulmonary artery. |
| C98905 | "A congenital abnormality characterized by the complete absence of the corpus callosum. It may be an isolated abnormality or associated with other central nervous system abnormalities or syndromes. Clinical manifestations vary. In cases of isolated corpus callosum agenesis, symptoms may be absent or minimal. In cases that are associated with other central nervous system abnormalities or syndromes, symptoms include developmental delays, motor coordination difficulties, and vision impairment." |
| C98906 | "A teratogenic disorder observed in a newborn or child of a mother who was exposed to warfarin during pregnancy. Manifestations include nasal bridge depression, nasal bones hypoplasia, microcephaly, congenital heart disorders, and brachydactyly." |
| C98907 | A rare and severe form of neural tube defect in which there are open cranial and open spinal defects at birth. |
| C98908 | "A rare, genetically heterogenous syndrome, characterized by cryptophthalmos, craniofacial abnormalities, urogenital abnormalities, and syndactyly." |
| C98910 | "A very rare inherited metabolic disorder characterized by deficiency of the enzyme cytochrome-C oxidase. It may be manifested as an isolated myopathy or a systemic disorder. Signs and symptoms include myotonia, dysfunction of the heart, kidney, and brain, and lactic acidosis." |
| C98912 | A congenital or acquired abnormality characterized by elevation of the hemidiaphragm. |
| C98913 | A rare congenital abnormality in which the spinal cord is split in half by fibrous or bony tissue. It may present as an isolated phenomenon or in association with spina bifida. |
| C98914 | A rare congenital cardiovascular abnormality in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle. |
| C98915 | A congenital abnormality of the kidney characterized by the presence of two separate pelvicocaliceal systems with a single or duplex ureter. |
| C98916 | A rare congenital cardiovascular abnormality in which both the aorta and the pulmonary artery arise from the right ventricle. |
| C98917 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of two separate ureters draining a kidney. |
| C98918 | Partial or complete obstruction of the duodenal lumen due to the presence of a membranous web. |
| C98919 | A small preauricular skin tag. |
| C98920 | "Localized atrophy of the brain parenchyma due to aging, hemorrhage, infarct, or inflammation." |
| C98922 | A rare disorder characterized by diffuse thickening of the endocardium. It presents with unexplained heart failure. |
| C98923 | "A rare congenital abnormality that mostly affects males. In males, it is characterized by the presence of the urethral opening in the dorsal surface of the penis. In females, this abnormality is even rarer and is characterized by the presence of an elongated urethra that has developed too far anteriorly." |
| C98924 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of a duplicated segment of the esophagus. The duplicated segment may by tubular or cystic. |
| C98925 | A thin membrane that is present in the esophageal lumen. It is composed of mucosa and submucosa and it may be associated with Plummer-Vinson syndrome. |
| C98927 | "A teratogenic disorder observed in a newborn or child of a mother who was exposed to phenytoin during pregnancy. Manifestations include dysmorphic craniofacial features, hypoplastic distal phalanges and nails, growth delay and delayed psychomotor development." |
| C98928 | "A teratogenic disorder observed in a newborn or child of a mother who was exposed to methotrexate during pregnancy. Manifestations of the syndrome include craniofacial, digital, and skeletal malformations." |
| C98929 | "A teratogenic disorder observed in a newborn or child of a mother who was exposed to retinoids during pregnancy. Manifestations include growth delay, skull, facial, heart, and central nervous system malformations." |
| C98930 | "A teratogenic disorder observed in a newborn or child of a mother who was exposed to valproic acid during pregnancy. Manifestations include musculoskeletal abnormalities, intellectual disability, spina bifida, and distinctive facial features." |
| C98931 | "A rare syndrome that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive pattern and caused by mutations in the MYH3 gene. It is a severe form of arthrogryposis. It is characterized by the presence of distinctive facial features (small mouth, midface hypoplasia, short nose, drooping of the eyelids, deep folds in the area between the nose and the lips, and strabismus), joint deformities that lead to permanently bent fingers and toes, club foot, scoliosis, and walking difficulties." |
| C98932 | "A rare syndrome inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. It is characterized by the presence of diaphragmatic defects, distinctive facial features (hypertelorism, low-set ears, flat nasal bridge, and micrognathia), distal digital hypoplasia, lung hypoplasia, and brain, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular malformations." |
| C98933 | An X-linked recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the G6PD gene. It is characterized by the absence or presence of very low levels of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. Patients develop hemolytic anemia usually in response to infection or exposure to drugs. |
| C98934 | A very rare and usually lethal autosomal recessive inherited disorder of the skin caused by mutations in the ABCA12 gene. It is characterized by the presence of hard and thick skin. There are diamond-like plates formed in the skin which are separated by fissures. |
| C98937 | "An inherited blood coagulation disorder characterized by the partial or complete absence of fibrinogen in the blood, resulting in bleeding." |
| C98938 | "A very rare autosomal recessive inherited blood coagulation disorder characterized by deficiency of factor V, resulting in bleeding." |
| C98939 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited blood coagulation disorder characterized by deficiency of factor VII, resulting in bleeding." |
| C98940 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited blood coagulation disorder characterized by deficiency of factor X, resulting in bleeding." |
| C98941 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited blood coagulation disorder characterized by deficiency of factor XIII, resulting in bleeding." |
| C98942 | "An inherited blood coagulation disorder characterized by deficiency of one of the coagulation factors, resulting in bleeding." |
| C98943 | An autosomal recessive inherited severe hemolytic anemia. It is a subtype of hereditary elliptocytosis and is characterized by partial spectrin deficiency. |
| C98944 | "An extremely rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the UMPS gene. It is characterized by deficiency of the activity of the pyrimidine pathway enzyme uridine 5'-monophosphate (UMP) synthase. Clinical manifestations include growth retardation, anemia, and increased excretion of orotic acid in the urine." |
| C98945 | Herniation of the upper part of the stomach through the diaphragm. |
| C98946 | A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder characterized by prolonged partial thromboplastin time and absence of bleeding diathesis. |
| C98947 | A congenital abnormality in which the two kidneys fuse together during fetal development to create a horseshoe-shaped structure. |
| C98948 | Congenital tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia. |
| C98949 | "A rare congenital brain disorder in which the cerebral hemispheres are absent and replaced by sacs that contain cerebrospinal fluid. Signs and symptoms include irritability, increased muscle tone, seizures, and hydrocephalus. The prognosis is poor." |
| C98952 | An abnormality characterized by thickening of the muscle in the wall of the pylorus. It results in the narrowing of the pyloric channel. The overlying mucosa may appear hypertrophic as well. Clinical signs and symptoms appear early in life and include projectile vomiting and dehydration. |
| C98953 | The formation of tissue in the lumen of the ileum that results in partial obstruction. |
| C98956 | "A syndrome characterized by persistent jaundice, hemolytic anemia, and hepatomegaly in a newborn. It is characterized by the presence of inspissated bile plugs in the bile ducts." |
| C98957 | An abnormal communication between the skin and another organ or cavity. |
| C98958 | "A rare congenital cardiovascular disorder characterized by the presence of a gap between the ascending and descending portions of the thoracic aorta. This disorder is often associated with ventricular septal defect, ductus arteriosus, or truncus arteriosus." |
| C98960 | A rare congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of a duplicated segment of the intestine. The duplicated segment is cystic. |
| C98961 | A congenital abnormality in which the intestine is abnormally rotated (twisted). It may result in intestinal obstruction. |
| C98964 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the IVD gene. It is characterized by abnormalities in the metabolism of leucine. Signs and symptoms vary from very mild to life threatening and include vomiting, seizures, lethargy, and coma." |
| C98966 | The formation of tissue in the lumen of the jejunum that results in partial obstruction. |
| C98967 | "A rare congenital syndrome characterized by the fusion of the vertebrae in the cervical spine. Patients present with a short neck and restricted mobility of the upper spine. Other signs and symptoms include scoliosis, spina bifida, cleft palate, and rib malformations." |
| C98970 | Tissue that develops between the vocal cords. |
| C98971 | Increased collapsibility of the larynx. |
| C98972 | A congenital malformation of the larynx in which there is failure of recanalization of the laryngotracheal tube during gestation. |
| C98974 | "Congenital abnormalities, mainly cardiovascular malformations, which develop in a fetus when the mother uses lithium medication during pregnancy." |
| C98975 | "Congenital malformations in the anorectal region that include the perineal fistula, anteriorly placed anus, and anorecto-vestibular fistula." |
| C98976 | Herniation of spinal cord tissue and meninges through a defect in the lumbar region of the vertebral column. The protrusion of the tissue is flush with the level of the skin surface. |
| C98978 | "A rare, lethal, autosomal recessive inherited syndrome characterized by pulmonary hypoplasia, central nervous system malformations, and hepatic malformations." |
| C98979 | Small intestinal obstruction that results from the impaction of thick meconium in the distal small intestine. |
| C98980 | A transient colonic dysfunction in the newborn characterized by the delayed passage of meconium and associated intestinal dilatation. |
| C98982 | "A rare syndrome characterized by the presence of an enlarged and weak bladder (megacystis), a very small large intestine (microcolon), and weak small intestine that does not function properly (hypoperistalsis). It is caused by a disorder of the smooth muscles of the abdomen and gastrointestinal tract." |
| C98983 | "An autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the EYA1, SIX1, and SIX5 genes. It is characterized by the abnormal development of the second branchial arch, resulting in the formation of branchial cleft cysts and fistulae, hearing loss and ear malformations, and renal abnormalities." |
| C98985 | A group of rare inherited disorders characterized by a deficiency of enzymes that are involved in metabolic pathways that affect muscles. The disorders are characterized by muscle dysfunction. |
| C98986 | "A genetically heterogenous inherited disorder characterized by abnormalities in the metabolism of lipids and proteins. Signs and symptoms usually appear early in life and vary from mild to life threatening. They include vomiting, dehydration, hypotonia, developmental delays, hepatomegaly, lethargy, intellectual disabilities, and chronic kidney disease." |
| C98987 | A rare congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of an abnormally small colon. It is the result of intestinal underutilization during fetal development. |
| C98988 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of abnormally small convolutions in the brain. It results in mental retardation. |
| C98989 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the presence of an abnormally small eye globe. |
| C98990 | A diverse group of congenital brain developmental disorders characterized by defects in neuronal migration in the brain during early fetal development. The neuronal migration defects result in brain abnormalities that are usually manifested with mental retardation and epilepsy. |
| C98991 | "A rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by mutations in the HADHA and HADHB genes. It is characterized by the deficiency of an enzyme involved in the fatty acid oxidation process. Signs and symptoms may appear early or later in life and may be triggered by periods of fasting or illnesses. They include feeding difficulties, lethargy, hypoglycemia, hypotonia, liver abnormalities, heart abnormalities, peripheral neuropathy, coma, and sudden death." |
| C98992 | A congenital heart defect characterized by the complete atresia of the mitral valve. |
| C98993 | "A rare syndrome that is characterized by the partial deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13. Signs and symptoms include low birth weight, craniofacial malformations, hands and feet malformations, and mental and psychomotor retardation." |
| C98994 | "A rare metabolic disorder characterized by the deficiency of mitochondrial NADH dehydrogenase component of complex I. Signs and symptoms include cardiomyopathy, encephalopathy, enlarged head, and progressive leukodystrophy." |
| C98995 | A condition characterized by a decrease in the number of platelets in the blood below established reference ranges in a newborn. |
| C98996 | A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder which occurs during the neonatal period. |
| C98997 | A congenital defect in the muscles of the abdominal wall that results in the intestines and other abdominal organs developing outside the abdominal wall covered in a sac. |
| C98998 | "A syndrome that is defined by signs and symptoms related to abrupt or gradual stoppage of opioids use. They include strong cravings, sweating, nausea, vomiting, irritation, anxiety, muscle pain, dilated pupils and insomnia." |
| C98999 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the underdevelopment of the optic nerve. |
| C99000 | "Inflammation of the eye tissues posterior to the orbital septum, and generally secondary to an infection spread from adjacent sinuses. Signs and symptoms of the affected eye include sudden loss of vision, erythema, edema, decreased eye movement, and pain. Treatment is conducted via intravenous antibiotics, observation, and surgical intervention when necessary." |
| C99001 | "A severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta. It is characterized by bone deformities, multiple fractures, underdeveloped lungs, and often death during or after birth due to respiratory abnormalities." |
| C99002 | "A type of osteogenesis imperfecta characterized by bone fractures, bone deformities, short stature, poor muscle development, barrel-shaped chest, and triangular face." |
| C99003 | "The mildest and most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta. It is characterized by bone fractures, muscle weakness, and loose joints. Bone deformities are either absent or minimal." |
| C99004 | A congenital heart disorder in which one or two pulmonary veins are not connected to the left atrium and drain into the right atrium instead. It may lead to arrhythmias and pulmonary hypertension. |
| C99005 | A congenital abnormality that results from the failure of the lumen of urachus to be obliterated. It presents with leakage of urine from the bladder through the umbilicus. |
| C99006 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the failure of the kidney to ascend to its normal position and it remains in the pelvis. |
| C99008 | "An autosomal recessive inherited disorder. It is characterized by arthrogryposis, facial anomalies, polyhydramnios, camptodactyly, intrauterine growth retardation, and pulmonary hypoplasia. Pulmonary hypoplasia is present in the vast majority of cases and is often the fatal component of this syndrome." |
| C99009 | An extremely rare congenital abnormality characterized by the complete absence of the penis. It may be associated with other genitourinary abnormalities. |
| C99010 | "A rare congenital abnormality characterized by the partial or complete transposition of the penis and scrotum. In cases of complete penoscrotal transposition, the scrotum is positioned anteriorly and above the penis. It may be associated with other congenital abnormalities." |
| C99011 | "A rare syndrome characterized by the presence of omphalocele, anterior diaphragmatic hernia, sternal cleft, ectopia cordis, and ventricular septal defect or left ventricle diverticulum." |
| C99013 | Necrosis and softening of the white matter around the ventricles in the brain. It is usually seen in preterm infants and caused by lack of blood flow and oxygenation in the periventricular brain parenchyma. |
| C99014 | "A congenital abnormality in which the rectum, vagina, and urethra fuse and form a common channel." |
| C99015 | "A very rare, autosomal recessive inherited disorder caused by deficiency of the enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase, which is involved in gluconeogenesis. It presents with hypoglycemia, failure to thrive, metabolic acidosis, muscle weakness, and hepatomegaly." |
| C99017 | "Intermittent, incomplete or complete paralysis with or without tremors to any of the organs or body parts innervated by the phrenic nerve." |
| C99021 | A developmental abnormality characterized by the presence of an obstructing membrane in the posterior urethra of the male newborn. It results in bladder obstruction. |
| C99022 | "A condition characterized by the congenital or acquired deficiency of prekallikrein. This deficiency is usually not associated with bleeding. The congenital deficiency is very rare. Acquired deficiency may occur in diffuse intravascular coagulation, infections, and sickle cell disease." |
| C99024 | Closure of the ductus arteriosus prior to birth. |
| C99025 | A rare thrombophilia disorder characterized by deficiency of protein C. It results in venous thromboembolism. |
| C99026 | A rare thrombophilia disorder characterized by deficiency of protein S. It results in venous thromboembolism. |
| C99027 | "A condition characterized by the insensitivity of the tissues to respond to the activity of the parathyroid hormone. It results in increased levels of parathyroid hormone in the serum, hypocalcemia, and hyperphosphatemia." |
| C99028 | An uncommon congenital abnormality characterized by either lethal complete absence of the lungs or varying degrees of underdevelopment of the lung parenchyma. It may be associated with other congenital abnormalities. |
| C99029 | A congenital or acquired malformation characterized by abnormal communication between the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins in the lungs. |
| C99030 | "A congenital or acquired cardiovascular abnormality characterized by the narrowing of the lumen of the main pulmonary artery or its branches. Signs and symptoms include dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, fatigue, and edema." |
| C99031 | "A congenital heart defect characterized by complete atresia of the pulmonary valve. It is manifested during infancy with cyanosis, dyspnea, and tachypnea." |
| C99032 | Pulmonary valve atresia not associated with a ventricular septal defect. |
| C99033 | Pulmonary valve atresia associated with the presence of a large ventricular septal defect. It may be a severe form of tetralogy of Fallot. |
| C99034 | "A congenital abnormality in the lungs characterized by the presence of dilated lymphatic vessels in the interlobar, perivascular, and peribronchial areas of the lungs. Signs and symptoms appear at birth and include tachypnea, cyanosis, and respiratory distress." |
| C99035 | A congenital abnormality in which the lung parenchyma is not fully developed. It may be associated with other congenital abnormalities. |
| C99037 | An inherited metabolic disorder characterized by the deficiency of the erythrocyte enzyme pyruvate kinase. It results in the development of hemolytic anemia. |
| C99038 | A rare syndrome characterized by the presence of thrombocytopenia associated with bilateral absence of the radius bone. |
| C99040 | "An abnormal communication between the rectum, bladder, and vagina." |
| C99041 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the absence of one or both kidneys. |
| C99042 | The formation of a thrombus in the renal vein. |
| C99053 | A rare congenital cardiovascular disorder characterized by severe underdevelopment of the right side of the heart. The infants develop cyanosis shortly after birth. It is a condition that requires immediate emergency treatment. |
| C99054 | A rare congenital abnormality characterized by partial or complete absence of the lower portion of the spine. |
| C99055 | A teratoma that arises from the base of the coccyx. It is the most commonly seen tumor in newborns. |
| C99056 | "A rare developmental abnormality characterized by the presence of clefs in the cerebral hemispheres. The abnormality may involve one or both cerebral hemispheres. Signs and symptoms include developmental delays, mental retardation, paralysis, presence of a small head, and seizures." |
| C99057 | "Bronchopulmonary dysplasia that results in severe respiratory complications. The infants with severe symptoms are usually premature, have low birth weight, and the oxygen and ventilation support requirements are increased." |
| C99058 | "A congenital cardiovascular abnormality characterized by the presence of subvalvar left ventricular outflow tract obstruction, coarctation of the aorta, and mitral stenosis." |
| C99059 | "Malabsorption that results from the removal of a large segment of the small intestine or, less frequently, from the complete dysfunction of a large portion of the small intestine. Signs and symptoms include diarrhea, steatorrhea, and weight loss." |
| C99060 | "A diverse group of congenital cardiovascular abnormalities that share one characteristic, the presence of a single functional cardiac ventricle." |
| C99061 | A congenital condition in which there is complete right-to-left reversal of the position of the thoracic organs. |
| C99063 | "Ischemic necrosis of the spinal cord caused by occlusion of the arteries that supply blood to the spinal cord. Signs and symptoms include intermittent back pain, pain in the legs, paralysis, and incontinence." |
| C99064 | "A congenital or acquired deformity of the spine. Representative examples include scoliosis, kyphosis, and sagittal imbalance." |
| C99066 | Stenosis of the pulmonary artery that occurs above the valve. |
| C99067 | A congenital deficiency of one of the surfactant proteins. |
| C99068 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the SFTPB gene, encoding pulmonary surfactant-associated protein B. It is characterized by severe respiratory distress-like illness and responds poorly to exogenous administration of surfactant." |
| C99069 | Deficiency of surfactant protein C. It leads to progressive lung fibrosis. |
| C99070 | "An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the ABCA3 gene, encoding ATP-binding cassette sub-family A member 3. It is characterized by severe respiratory insufficiency or failure in neonates or infants." |
| C99071 | "Deficiency of surfactant protein D. When present in normal amounts, this protein offers protection against pulmonary infection and inflammation." |
| C99072 | "Deficiency of surfactant protein A. When present in normal amounts, this protein protects the lungs against a variety of bacteria, viruses, and fungi." |
| C99080 | "A progressive neurological disorder characterized by the limitation of movement of the spinal cord within the spine. It is caused by the presence of congenital or acquired tissue attachments in the spinal cord. Signs and symptoms include low back pain, scoliosis, weakness in the legs, and incontinence." |
| C99081 | "A rare autosomal dominant inherited metabolic disorder characterized by deficiency of the enzyme tetrahydrofolate-methyltransferase. It results in the abnormal metabolism of methylcobalamin. Signs and symptoms include mental retardation, megaloblastic anemia, hypotonia, epilepsy, and hepatosplenomegaly." |
| C99082 | "Fetal embryopathy associated with maternal thalidomide use during pregnancy characterized by phocomelia of one or all limbs, other limb defects such as thumb abnormalities, and other structural anomalies that may include facial hemangioma, esophageal and duodenal atresia, tetralogy of Fallot, renal agenesis, and anomalies of the external ear. Long term complications may include Moebius syndrome or autism." |
| C99084 | "Twisting of the ovary resulting in the cutoff of the blood supply to the ovary. It may develop in an enlarged or normal ovary and in the vast majority of cases is unilateral. Signs and symptoms include acute lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever." |
| C99085 | "An autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the SALL1 gene. Clinical manifestations include imperforate anus, malformations in the ears and hands, hearing loss, and kidney and heart abnormalities." |
| C99086 | "A rare infantile hemangioma in the airway, usually in the subglottic area or trachea. It may or may not be associated with cutaneous lesions. It is a potentially life-threatening condition and the infant should be closely monitored for signs of airway disease." |
| C99087 | "Bacterial infection of the hair follicle and the surrounding skin. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It presents as a painful, erythematous and swollen skin lesion." |
| C99088 | A contagious bacterial cutaneous infection that affects children and is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It usually presents in the face with honey colored scabs. |
| C99089 | "A bacterial, parasitic, or fungal abscess that develops in the liver. It is usually the result of an abdominal infection, trauma, or surgery in the right upper quadrant. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever." |
| C99090 | "A bacterial, fungal or parasitic abscess that develops in the lung parenchyma. Causes include aspiration pneumonia, necrotizing pneumonia, necrotizing malignant tumors, and Wegener's granulomatosis." |
| C99091 | An abscess that develops in a lymph node and the surrounding tissues as a result of an infectious process. The affected lymph node is palpable and tender. |
| C99092 | "An abscess that develops in the soft tissues surrounding the anal canal. Causes include bacterial and fungal infections, malignancies that involve the perianal region, and Crohn disease." |
| C99093 | "An abscess that develops in the skin and subcutaneous tissues. Causes include folliculitis, furuncle, skin injury, and bacterial infections. Signs and symptoms include the presence of a swollen, tender, and erythematous nodular lesion in the skin associated with fever and chills." |
| C99096 | A cyanotic congenital cardiovascular abnormality characterized by the transposition of the aorta and the pulmonary artery. |
| C99099 | "An autosomal dominant inherited type of acrocephalosyndactyly caused by mutations in the FGFR2 gene. It is characterized by early closure of the sutures between the skull bones, bulging eyes, low-set ears, fusion of the second, third, and forth fingers, and fusion of the toes." |
| C99100 | "An autosomal dominant inherited type of acrocephalosyndactyly caused by mutations in the FGFR1 or FGFR2 genes. It is characterized by early closure of the sutures between the skull bones, bulging and wide-set eyes, broad thumbs, big toes, and partial syndactyly in the hands and toes." |
| C99101 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited metabolic disorder caused by deficiency of the enzyme glutaryl-CoA dehydrogenase. It is characterized by abnormalities in the metabolism of lysine, hydroxylysine, and tryptophan that result in the accumulation and urinary excretion of glutaric acid. Patients present with brain atrophy, microcephaly, and acute dystonia." |
| C99103 | A congenital abnormality characterized by the complete absence of the uterus. |
| C99104 | "An inherited metabolic disorder characterized by increased levels of galactose in the blood. Clinical signs include failure to thrive, developmental delays, liver damage and jaundice, cataract, and ovarian failure." |
| C99105 | "An association of congenital birth defects that includes vertebral abnormalities, anal atresia, cardiac abnormalities, tracheo-esophageal fistula, renal abnormalities, and limb abnormalities." |
| C99106 | "An unusual congenital abnormality in which the aorta or aortic branches encircle the trachea and esophagus. Signs and symptoms include difficulty swallowing and eating, persistent cough, noisy breathing, and acid reflex." |
| C99107 | The formation of a blood clot (thrombus) in the lumen of a vein. |
| C99108 | "Deficiency of vitamin K. It may lead to bleeding, manifested with ecchymoses, petechiae, and hematomas. In infants it may cause hemorrhagic disease of newborn with intracranial and retroperitoneal bleeding." |
| C99109 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited muscular dystrophy. It presents with generalized hypotonia, muscle weakness, mental retardation, developmental delays, and brain and eye abnormalities." |
| C99110 | Thrombocytopenia caused by ingested or injected drugs. It may be the result of decreased platelet production due to bone marrow suppression or increased rate of platelet destruction. |
| C99111 | "A life-threatening complication of heparin therapy. It results in immune-mediated thrombocytopenia and, in 25-50 percent of the patients, thrombotic complications." |
| C99112 | Necrosis and softening of the white matter around the ventricles in the brain associated with cystic changes. |
| C99113 | A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of atrial tachycardia that does not originate from the sinoatrial node. |
| C99128 | Herniation of spinal cord tissue and meninges through a defect in the thoracic region of the vertebral column. The protrusion of the tissue is flush with the level of the skin surface. |
| C99137 | "A congenital vascular abnormality that affects the great vessels and/or aortic arch. Representative examples include double aortic arch, aortic coarctation, and absence of a pulmonary artery." |
| C99141 | A congenital deformity characterized by the presence of hypoplastic radius. It is usually associated with club hand deformity. |
| C99142 | "A rare combination of congenital abnormalities that includes omphalocele, cloacal exstrophy, imperforate anus, and spine abnormalities." |
| C99144 | Narrowing of the lumen of the right or left pulmonary artery branch. |
| C99180 | "A rare, slow-growing, painless tumor of infancy and early childhood that usually affects the distal extremities. It is characterized by the presence of alternating bands of mature adipose tissue and spindle-cell fibrous tissue, without destruction of the adipose tissue architecture. It does not metastasize, however the rate of local recurrences is high." |
| C99231 | "An infectious disorder that occurs during the neonatal period. Representative examples include streptococcal infection, E.coli infection, and bacterial meningitis." |
| C99232 | A respiratory system disorder that occurs during the neonatal period. A representative example is the respiratory distress syndrome. |
| C99233 | "Rickets that usually affects premature infants. Factors that contribute to the development of neonatal rickets include calcium, phosphorus, or calciferol deficiency. It manifests with spontaneous fractures, respiratory distress, and growth developmental delays." |
| C99236 | "A self-limited skin rash that appears in the neonatal period and usually resolves in four to six months after birth. It is caused by placental transfer of maternal autoantibodies, usually anti-Ro antibody. In a minority of cases, it is associated with congenital heart block, hepatitis, or thrombocytopenia. The mothers of the affected babies may be asymptomatic or suffer from systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjogren's syndrome, or rheumatoid arthritis." |
| C99247 | "A rare autosomal recessive inherited disorder that is manifested in the neonatal period and is caused by mutations in the HLCS gene. It is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme holocarboxylase synthetase which facilitates the effective use of the vitamin biotin in the body. Signs and symptoms include difficulties in feeding and breathing, skin rash, seizures, lethargy, and coma." |
| C99248 | Hyperglycemia in the newborn due to a defect in the secretion or function of insulin. |
| C99251 | "A rare metabolic disorder that affects neonates. It is characterized by damage of the white matter in the brain and degeneration of the adrenal glands. It manifests with hyperactivity, paralysis, muscular weakness, crossed eyes, hearing loss, seizures, and coma." |
| C99255 | A constellation of neurobehavioral features observed in a neonate following cessation or reduction of postnatal exposure to opioids. |
| C99258 | Withdrawal signs and symptoms that present during the perinatal period and are caused by drug use by the pregnant mother. |
| C99265 | A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of a complete atrioventricular block that manifests during fetal life or soon after birth. It may be isolated or associated with other congenital heart defects. Isolated congenital complete atrioventricular block may be associated with maternal connective tissue disorders. |
| C99267 | A syndrome characterized by the presence of congenital abnormalities that affect more than one organ or system. |
| C99383 | "A disorder characterized by the degeneration of the nervous system due to autoimmunity.  Representative examples include multiple sclerosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, and myasthenia gravis." |
| C99390 | Breast carcinoma that develops in the opposite breast of a patient with an already diagnosed primary breast carcinoma. |
| C99537 | Occlusion of the lumen of a vein by a thrombus that has migrated from a distal site via the blood stream. |
| C99538 | "An anatomic deformity of the heart, ventricles or great vessels." |
| C99542 | "An umbrella term used to describe several very different complex congenital heart defects that share the same problem: the heart has only one functional ventricle (anatomically right or left or indeterminate) supplying the systemic circulation. These defects include tricuspid atresia, hypoplastic left or right heart syndrome, double outlet right ventricle, double inlet left ventricle, and other forms of single ventricle defects." |
| C99544 | "An uncommon congenital abnormality where the left ventricular myocardium fails to compact during embryonic development, leading to cardiomyopathy with a variable degree of ventricular dysfunction. There is genetic heterogeneity and phenotypic variability. Characteristically, there are typically deep trabeculations in the noncompacted area, with varying proportions of the LV myocardium compacted. LV noncompaction is associated with rhythm abnormalities including Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrom... |
| C99545 | Heart disease that is primarily due to a valvular defect or abnormality. Valve disease that is felt to be significant but does not fulfill the definition for primary valvular heat disease is considered contributory valvular heart disease. |
| C99704 | A tear within the wall of the artery. |
| C99709 | "A dissection that impairs flow. This includes Type C (a persisting contrast medium extravasation) in the presence of ischemia, Type D (a spiral filling defect with delayed but complete distal flow), Type E (persistent filling defect with delayed antegrade flow) and Type F (filling defect with impaired flow and total occlusion)." |
| C99753 | "A classification of disorders in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) that are usually diagnosed in infancy, childhood or adolescence and are characterized by an individual's inability to behave in a cooperative manner." |
| C99897 | "A congenital cardiovascular abnormality characterized by the narrowing of the lumen of the main pulmonary artery or its branches. It may be associated with other congenital heart malformations. Signs and symptoms include dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, fatigue, and edema." |
| C99938 | "A longstanding, complete blockage of a vessel. (ACC)" |
| C99985 | Evidence of mild retrograde blood flow through the valve(s) of the heart. (ACC) |
| C99989 | Evidence of moderate retrograde blood flow through the valve(s) of the heart. (ACC) |
| C99991 | No evidence of any retrograde blood flow through the valve(s) in the heart. (ACC) |
| C99997 | There was greater than or equal to 50% stenosis (reduction in cross-sectional area) in one coronary artery. (ACC) |

### ProgressionOrRecurrenceEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Censored | Points of data for which only partial information is known. |
| No | The non-affirmative response to a question. |
| Not Allowed to Collect | An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted. |
| Not Applicable | Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Unknown | Not known, observed, recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |
| Yes | The affirmative response to a question. |

### ProgressionTypeEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Biochemical | An indication that biochemical markers of a disease are present. |
| Distant | A biological process that involves the transfer and growth of cancer cells from the site of the primary tumor. Relocation of malignant cells during metastasis can be restricted to movement within a specific tissue/organ or may entail migration to a distal locus within the body. This phenotype is a characteristic of all malignant tumors. |
| Local | A disease that is confined to a specific organ or tissue and has not spread to other anatomic sites. |
| Locoregional | A disease that occurs within a specific organ or tissue and extends into adjacent areas including lymph nodes. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Regional | A disease or condition that extends beyond the site and spreads into adjacent tissues and regional lymph nodes. |
| Unknown | Not known, observed, recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |

### RaceEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| American Indian or Alaska Native | A person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America (including Central America) and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment. (OMB) |
| Asian | A person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including for example, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam. (OMB) |
| Black or African American | A person having origins in any of the Black racial groups of Africa. Terms such as 'Haitian' or 'Negro' can be used in addition to 'Black or African American'. (OMB) |
| Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander | Denotes a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands. The term covers particularly people who identify themselves as part-Hawaiian, Native Hawaiian, Guamanian or Chamorro, Carolinian, Samoan, Chuukese (Trukese), Fijian, Kosraean, Melanesian, Micronesian, Northern Mariana Islander, Palauan, Papua New Guinean, Pohnpeian, Polynesian, Solomon Islander, Tahitian, Tokelauan, Tongan, Yapese, or Pacific Islander, not specified. |
| White | Denotes person with European, Middle Eastern, or North African ancestral origin who identifies, or is identified, as White. |
| Not Allowed To Collect | An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused |

### RegimenOrLineOfTherapyEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| 1 | The smallest natural number and quantity it denotes: a single entity, unit, or object. |
| 10 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one. |
| 2 | A natural number greater than 1 and less than 3 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of one and one. |
| 3 | A natural number greater than 2 and less than 4 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of two and one. |
| 4 | A natural number greater than 3 and less than 5 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of three and one. |
| 5 | A natural number greater than 4 and less than 6 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of four and one. |
| 6 | A natural number greater than 5 and less than 7 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of five and one. |
| 7 | A natural number greater than 6 and less than 8 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of six and one. |
| 8 | A natural number greater than 7 and less than 9 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of seven and one. |
| 9 | A natural number greater than 8 and less than 10 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Unknown | Not known, observed, recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |

### SexEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Female | Female |
| Male | Male |
| Other | Other |
| Unknown | Unknown |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available |

### SmokingHistoryEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Current Every-Day Smoker | Indicates a person that currently smokes every day. |
| Current Some-Day Smoker | Indicates a person who has smoked at least 100 cigarettes in his or her lifetime, who smokes now, but does not smoke every day. |
| Current smoker | An adult who has smoked 100 cigarettes in his or her lifetime and who currently smokes cigarettes. Includes daily smokers and non-daily smokers (also known as occasional smokers). |
| Former Smoker | A person who was not smoking at the time of the interview but has smoked at least 100 cigarettes in their life. |
| Never Smoker | A person who was not smoking at the time of the interview and has smoked less than 100 cigarettes in their life. |
| Non-smoker | indicates a person who has smoked for an undetermined length of time or number of cigarettes, but was not smoking at the time of the interview nor habitually at any point in the past (may be less than 100 cigarettes in a lifetime). |
| Not reported | Not provided or available. |
| Unknown | Not known, observed, recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |

### TestAnalyteTypeEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| DNA | A long linear double-stranded polymer formed from nucleotides attached to a deoxyribose backbone and found in the nucleus of a cell; associated with the transmission of genetic information. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Nucleic RNA | A biological specimen comprised of the RNA isolated from the nuclei of cells. |
| Protein | Any of a group of complex organic macromolecules that contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and usually sulfur and are composed of one or more chains of amino acids. Proteins are fundamental components of all living cells and include many substances, such as enzymes, hormones, and antibodies, that are necessary for the proper functioning of an organism. |
| RNA | A biospecimen created to contain an isolated or enriched RNA sample. |
| Total RNA | A biological sample comprised of all of the RNA collected from an experimental subject. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| cfDNA | DNA found in blood plasma and other bodily fluids that is not associated with cells. |
| ctDNA | Neoplasm-derived DNA found in blood plasma and other bodily fluids that is not associated with cells. |
| mRNA | A class of RNA molecule containing protein-coding information in its nucleotide sequence that can be translated into the amino acid sequence of a protein. |
| miRNA | A sequence of single-stranded RNA, that is 20-25 nucleotides in length, which is transcribed from DNA but is not translated into a protein. This nucleic acid may regulate the transcription or translation of other genes. |

### TestUnitsEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| % | A unit for expressing a number as a fraction of hundred (on the basis of a rate or proportion per hundred). |
| %/100 WBC | A unit for percentage measurement of fraction of any type of white blood cells in the total white blood cell count differential. |
| /100 WBC | Natural number unit for measurement of portion of a particular type of blood cells (such as any type of white blood cells or nucleated red blood cells) in the total white blood cell count expressed per count of 100. |
| /mm3 | Per millimeter cubed |
| /nL | A volume unit equal to one nanoliter used as a denominator to build a derived unit expressed as a ratio. |
| /pL | A volume unit equal to one picoliter used as a denominator to build a derived unit expressed as a ratio. |
| 10E-15L (fL) | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A function of the form f(x) = ab^x, characterized by the fact that the growth rate of such a function is directly proportional to the value of the function.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::15: The non-SI unit of volume accepted for use with the SI. One liter is equal to cubic decimeter, or one thousandth of cubic meter, or 1000 cubic centimeters, or approximately 61.023 744 cubic inches. |
| 10E10 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::10: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E11 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::11: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E12 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::12: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E12 Cells/L | A unit of cell concentration expressed as a number of cells in trillions per unit volume equal to one liter. |
| 10E13 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::13: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E14 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::14: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E15 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::15: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E16 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::16: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E17 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::17: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E18 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::18: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E19 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::19: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E2 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::2: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E20 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::20: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E3 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::3: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E3 Cells/microL | 10E3 Cells per microliter |
| 10E4 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::4: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E5 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::5: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E6 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::6: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E6 Cells | A unit of cell count expressed in millions. |
| 10E6 Cells/microL | 10E6 Cells per microLiter |
| 10E6 Cells/mm3 | 10E6 Cells per millimeter cubed |
| 10E6/L | 10E6 per Liter |
| 10E7 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::7: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E7 Cells/kg | 10E7 Cells per kilogram |
| 10E8 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::8: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E8 Cells | 10E8 Cells |
| 10E9 | A natural number greater than 9 and less than 11 and the quantity that it denotes: the sum of nine and one.: A mathematical expression that results when e(=2.71828) is raised to it argument's power.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::9: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| 10E9 Cells | 10E9 Cells |
| 10E9 Cells/L | 10E9 Cells per Liter |
| 10E9 Cells/microL | 10E9 Cells per microliter |
| 2X10E6 Cells | A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::2: An arithmetic operation by which the product of two numbers is computed; the inverse of division.: A natural number following 999999 and preceding 100001 and the quantity that it denotes: one thousand thousand.: The smallest units of living structure capable of independent existence, composed of a membrane-enclosed mass of protoplasm and containing a nucleus or nucleoid. |
| 2X10E7 Cells | Two times 10 exponential value 7 (ten million) cells |
| 2X10E8 Cells | Two times 10 exponential value 8 (one hundred million) cells |
| Arbitrary unit per milliliter | A single undivided thing (unit) based on or subject to individual judgment or preference, and not by necessity, reason, or principle._A volume unit equal to one milliliter used as a denominator to build a derived unit expressed as a ratio. (NCI) |
| Billion/L | Billion per Liter |
| CAE Unit | Complement activity enzyme unit |
| Cells/kg | Any small compartment.: For each, generally denoting a ratio.: A basic SI unit of mass. It is definied as the mass of an  international prototype in the form of a platinum-iridium cylinder kept at Sevres in france.   A kilogram is equal to 1,000 grams and 2.2046226 pounds.: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| Cells/microL | Cells per microliter |
| Copies | Copies |
| Copies per milliliter | A unit of concentration expressed as a number of copies per unit volume equal to one milliliter. |
| Copies/mL | A unit of concentration of RNA copies expressed as a number of copies per unit volume equal to one milliliter. |
| EU | The property used in conjunction with a nutrient or food component, typically expressed in gram (g), milligram (mg), microgram (mcg), joule, or kilojoule. |
| EU/dL | Enzyme Units per deciliter |
| EU/mL | Enzyme Units per milliliter |
| GPL | IgG anti-cardiolipin antibodies |
| HPF | Per High Power Field |
| Hours | In modern usage, an hour is defined as a unit of time 60 minutes, or 3600 seconds in length. It is approximately 1/24 of a median day. |
| IUnit/L | Unit of arbitrary substance concentration (biologic activity concentration) defined as the concentration of one international unit per one liter of the system volume. |
| IUnit/m2 | International unit per meter squared |
| IUnit/mL | A unit of arbitrary substance concentration (biologic activity concentration) defined as the concentration of one international unit per one milliliter of system volume. |
| Index value | Index value |
| Iunit | INTERNATIONAL UNIT |
| L | LITER |
| L/min | Liters per minute |
| L/sec | Liter per second |
| LPF | Per Low Power Field |
| Log | For a specified base b, a function such that its argument results when b is raised to the power given by this function's value. |
| Log copies per milliliter | A logarithmic-scale (base 10) unit for measuring copies per unit of volume equal to one milliliter. |
| Log10 IU/mL | A logarithmic-scale (base 10) unit for measuring international units per unit of volume equal to one milliliter. |
| MPL | IgM anti-cardiolipin antibodies |
| MU/mL | Million units per milliliter |
| Million | A natural number following 999999 and preceding 100001 and the quantity that it denotes: one thousand thousand. |
| Million/microL | Million per microliter |
| Million/mm3 | Million per millimeter cubed |
| Minutes | A unit measure of time equal to 60 seconds. |
| NA | Not applicable; no UOM required |
| No Srce | No Source Data |
| RNA copies/mL | RNA copies per milliliter |
| Ratio | ratio |
| Thousand | A natural number following 999 and preceding 1001 and the quantity that it denotes: ten times one hundred. |
| Thousand/microL | Thousand per microliter |
| Thousand/mm2 | Thousand per millimeter squared |
| Thousand/mm3 | Thousand per millimeter cubed |
| Threshold | The lowest limit at which something becomes detectable or relevant. |
| Titer | Titer |
| Trillion/L | Trillion per Liter |
| Unit | Any division of quantity accepted as a standard of measurement or exchange. |
| Unit/24hr | Unit per 24 hours |
| Unit/L | Unit per liter |
| Unit/m2 | A dose calculation unit expressed as a number of arbitrary units of substance per one square meter of a body surface area. |
| Unit/mL | Unit per millilliter |
| Unit/mm3 | Unit per millimeters cubed |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| cm H2O | A unit of pressure defined by a column of water with a height of one centimeter, frequently used to measure central venous pressure, intracranial pressure, and for pressures during mechanical ventilation. |
| copies/L | A secondary representation, reproduction, or replica.: A volume unit equal to one liter used as a denominator to build a derived unit expressed as a ratio. |
| cubic microns | Cubic microns |
| fL | The non-SI unit of volume accepted for use with the SI equal to one quadrillionth of a liter (10E-15 liter). |
| g | Grams (g) |
| g/24hr | Gram per 24 hours |
| g/L | Gram per liter |
| g/dL | Gram per deciliter |
| g/microL | Gram per microliter |
| kU/L | Kilounit per Liter |
| mEq | Milliequivalent |
| mEq/24hr | Milliequivalents per 24 hours |
| mEq/L | Milliequivalent per liter |
| mEq/dL | Milliequivalent per deciliter |
| mEq/kg | Milliequivalent per kilogram |
| mL | Milliter |
| mL/24hr | A measure of volume for a liquid.  A milliliter is approximately 950 times smaller than a quart and 30 times smaller than a fluid ounce.  A milliliter of liquid and a cubic centimeter (cc) of liquid are the same.: For each, generally denoting a ratio.: A number with no fractional part, including the negative and positive numbers as well as zero.::24: In modern usage, an hour is defined as a unit of time 60 minutes, or 3600 seconds in length. It is approximately 1/24 of a median day.: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| mL/min | Milliliter per minute |
| mL/min/1.73/BSA | Milliliter per minute times 1.73 times BSA |
| mL/min/kg | A dose calculation unit expressed in milliliter(s) per kilogram per period of time equal to sixty seconds. |
| mL/minute/mmHg | Milliter per minute per millimeters of Mercury |
| mL/minute/mmHg/L | Milliliter per minute per millimeter Hg per Liter |
| mU/mL | A quantity equivalent to the one thousandth unit (10E-3 unit).: For each, generally denoting a ratio.: A measure of volume for a liquid.  A milliliter is approximately 950 times smaller than a quart and 30 times smaller than a fluid ounce.  A milliliter of liquid and a cubic centimeter (cc) of liquid are the same.: A named quantity in terms of which other quantities are measured or specified, used as a standard measurement of like kinds. |
| mcg/24hr | Microgram per 24 hours |
| mcg/L | microgram per liter |
| mcg/dL | Microgram per deciliter |
| mcg/mL | Microgram per milliliter |
| mcg/spec | Microgram per specimen |
| mg | A measure of weight.  A milligram is approximately 450,000 times smaller than a pound and 28,000 times smaller than an ounce. |
| mg/24hr | A unit of mass flow rate equivalent to the rate at which one thousandth of a gram of matter crosses a given surface or is delivered to a given object or space over a period of time equal to twenty four hours. Milligram per twenty four hours is also a dose administration rate unit equal to the rate at which one thousandth of a gram of a product is administered per unit of time equal to twenty four hours. |
| mg/L | Milligram per liter |
| mg/dL | A unit of mass concentration defined as the concentration of one milligram of a substance in unit volume of the mixture equal to one cubic deciliter or 100 cubic centimeters. It is also a unit of mass density (volumic mass) defined as the density of substance which mass equal to one milligram occupies the volume one cubic deciliter or 100 cubic centimeters. |
| mg/g | A unit of a mass fraction expressed as a number of grams of substance per kilogram of mixture. Gram per kilogram is also used as a dose calculation unit to express a quantity of substance in grams per one kilogram of body mass. |
| mg/kg | A unit of a mass fraction expressed as a number of milligrams of substance per kilogram of mixture. The unit is also used as a dose calculation unit. |
| mg/mL | A SI derived unit of mass concentration defined as the concentration of one kilogram of a substance per unit volume of the mixture equal to one cubic meter, or the concentration of one milligram of a substance per unit volume of the mixture equal to one milliliter, or one gram of a substance per one liter of the mixture. It is also a unit of mass density (volumic mass) defined as the density of substance which mass equal to one milligram occupies the volume one milliliter. |
| mg/mL/min | Milligram per milliliter per minute |
| mg/mmol | Gram per Mole |
| microIU/mL | Micro International Unit per milliliter |
| microL | MICROLITER |
| microU/mL | Microunit per milliliter |
| micromol/24hr | Micromole per 24 hours |
| micromol/L | Micromole per liter |
| micromol/dL | Micromole per deciliter |
| mill PFU | A measure of viable infectious entities expressed in millions in the specimen or product defined as the smallest quantity that can produce a cytopathic effect in the host cell culture challenged with the defined inoculum, visible under the microscope or/and to the naked eye as a plaque. |
| miu | Milliinternational unit |
| miu/m2 | Milliinternational units per meter squared |
| miu/mL | Milliinternational unit per milliliter |
| ml CO/min/mm Hg | An odorless, tasteless, poisonous gas, CO, that results from the incomplete combustion of carbon. Inhalation causes central nervous system damage and asphyxiation.: A unit for measuring a pulmonary diffusing capacity expressed in units of gas flow rate (in milliliters per minute) per a unit of pressure (in torrs). |
| mm/hr | Millimeter per hour |
| mm3 | Millimeter cubed |
| mmHg | A unit of pressure equal to 0.001316 atmosphere and equal to the pressure indicated by one millimeter rise of mercury in a barometer at the Earth's surface. |
| mmol | MILLIMOLE |
| mmol CO/min/kPa | An odorless, tasteless, poisonous gas, CO, that results from the incomplete combustion of carbon. Inhalation causes central nervous system damage and asphyxiation.: A unit of gas diffusion capacity equal to one millimole per minute per kilopascal. |
| mmol/24hr | Millimole per 24 hours |
| mmol/L | millimole per liter |
| mmol/min/kPa/L | Millimole per minute per thousand Pascal per Liter |
| mosmol/kg | Milliosmole per kilogram |
| nMol/mg protein | Nanomole per milligram of protein |
| ng/dL | nanogram per deciliter |
| ng/mL | A unit of mass concentration defined as the concentration of one microgram of a substance per unit volume of the mixture equal to one liter. The concept also refers to the unit of mass density (volumetric mass) defined as the density of a substance which mass equal to one microgram occupies the volume of one liter. |
| ng/mL/hr | A dose calculation unit equal to mass concentration of a substance expressed in nanograms per unit volume of one milliliter per time period of one hour. |
| nmol/L | A unit of concentration (molarity unit) equal to one billionth of a mole (10E-9 mole) of solute in one liter of solution. |
| nmol/hr/mg protein | Nanomole per hour per milligram of protein |
| nmol/mL | Nanomole per milliliter |
| pg | The metric unit of mass equal to one trillionth of a gram (10E-12 gram). |
| pg/dL | Picogram per deciliter |
| pg/mL | Picrogram per milliliter |
| pgPGE2/mg protein | pgPGE2/mg protein |
| pmol/L | A unit of concentration (molarity unit) equal to one trillionth of a mole (10E-12 mole) in one liter of solution. |
| pmol/hr/mg protein | Picomole per hour per milligram of protein |
| sec | seconds |
| ug/mL FEU | A metric unit of mass concentration defined as the concentration of one gram of a substance per unit volume of the mixture equal to one cubic meter. The concept also refers to the metric unit of mass density (volumic mass) defined as the density of a substance which mass equal to one gram occupies the volume of one cubic meter.: A unit of measure for the concentration of fibrin degradation products in a sample, calculated based upon the mass of fibrinogen contained within that sample. |
| ukat/L | Unit of catalytic activity concentration defined as activity equal to one millionth of katal per one liter of the system volume. |

### TreatmentIntentTypeEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Adjuvant | (AD-joo-vant) Treatment given after the primary treatment to increase the chances of a cure. Adjuvant therapy may include chemotherapy, radiation therapy, hormone therapy, or biological therapy. |
| Curative | A therapy designed to cure a condition. |
| Maintenance | Continuation of treatment for an extended period of time to prevent relapse. |
| Neoadjuvant | Therapy administered prior to the primary treatment for the purpose of making the primary treatment more effective. |
| Palliative | The patient- and family-centered active holistic care of patients with advanced, progressive disease. Essential components of palliative care are: pain and symptom control, communication regarding treatment and alternatives, prognosis, and available services, rehabilitation services, care that addresses treatment and palliative concerns, intellectual, emotional, social, and spiritual needs, terminal care, support in bereavement. The goal of palliative care is an achievement of the best quality of life for patients and their families. |
| Prevention | An attempt to prevent disease. |
| Unknown | Not known, observed, recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |

### TreatmentTypeEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| 3-Dimensional Conformal Radiation Therapy | A process by which a dose of radiation is automatically shaped to closely conform to the entire volume of the tumor, so that surrounding normal tissue is spared and treatment toxicity is decreased. |
| Allogeneic Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation | A clinical treatment in which HSC capable of reconstituting the immune system and blood production (hematopoiesis) are transferred from one genetically dissimilar individual to another. The donor and recipient may or may not be related. 2005 |
| Autologous Stem Cell Transplantation | The transference of stem cells within the same individual. |
| Brachytherapy | A type of radiation therapy in which radioactive material sealed in needles, seeds, wires, or catheters is placed directly into or near a tumor. |
| Cellular Therapy | Utilization of specific cells, modified or not, for treatment of diseases. Donor lymphocyte infusion is a type of cellular therapy. |
| Chemotherapy | The use of synthetic or naturally-occurring chemicals for the treatment of diseases. |
| Concurrent Chemoradiation | Treatment in which radiation therapy is administered at the same time as chemotherapy. |
| Conventional Radiotherapy | A course of radiotherapy where minimal imaging support (i.e. X-rays films) is used to determine the positioning of radiotherapy. |
| Electron Beam Radiation Therapy | Radiation therapy using electron beam |
| External Beam Radiation Therapy | A type of radiation therapy that uses a machine to aim high-energy rays at the cancer from outside of the body. |
| High-Dose Rate Brachytherapy | Internal radiation treatment that targets a cancerous tissue with accurate, high doses of radiation through the use of inserted temporary implants. |
| Hormone Therapy | Various treatment modalities that produce the desired therapeutic effect by means of change of hormone/hormones level. |
| Immunotherapy | Therapy designed to induce changes in a patient's immune status in order to treat disease. |
| Intensity-Modulated Radiation Therapy | An advanced form of 3-Dimensional Conformal Radiation Therapy |
| Low-Dose Rate Brachytherapy | Internal radiation treatment that targets a cancerous tissue with low doses of radiation through the use of inserted temporary or permanent implants. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Organ Transplantation | The transfer of an organ, organ part, or tissue from one body to another, for the purpose of replacing the recipient's damaged or failing organ with a working one from the donor. Donors can be living, or cadaveric (dead). |
| Palliative Care | Palliative care is the patient-and family-centered active holistic care of patients with advanced, progressive disease. Traditional models reflect abandonment of proactive treatment and a simultaneous increase in symptom control and comfort-related services, as a disease progressed in linear fashion through its course. Essential components of palliative care are: pain and symptom control, communication regarding treatment and alternatives, prognosis, and available services, rehabilitation services, care that addresses treatment and palliative concerns, intellectual, emotional, social, and spiritual needs, terminal care, support in bereavement. The goal of palliative care is an achievement of the best quality of life for patients and their families. |
| Pharmacotherapy | Treatment of disease through the use of drugs. |
| Photon Beam Radiation Therapy | Radiation therapy using photon beam. |
| Proton Beam Radiation Therapy | A type of external beam radiation therapy using a beam of protons. It has the advantage of precisely localizing the radiation dose on the targeted tissue and avoiding damage to the healthy surrounding tissues. |
| Radiation Therapy | Treatment of a disease by means of exposure of the target or the whole body to radiation. Radiation therapy is often used as part of curative therapy and occasionally as a component of palliative treatment for cancer. Other uses include total body irradiation prior to transplantation. |
| Radiofrequency Ablation | A therapeutic procedure to eradicate or reduce small tumors using radiowaves to generate heat. The procedure is performed by the insertion of a thin needle through the skin and into a tumor, which is guided by computed tomography (CT) or ultrasound. Electrical energy delivered through this needle (electrode) heats and destroys the tumor. This therapeutic option is widely utilized by patients that have inoperable cancers, or are unsuitable chemotherapy candidates. |
| Radiopharmaceutical | Treatment with an agent that contains a radioactive pharmaceutical agent. |
| Stem Cell Transplant | A therapeutic procedure that involves the transplantation of hematopoietic stem cells, either with the patient as their own donor or from a donor to a patient. This can be used for treatment of malignant and non-malignant diseases. |
| Stereotactic Body Radiation Therapy | Stereotactic radiation therapy in which one or several maximum dose radiation treatments are delivered targeting cancers of the body, excluding the brain or spine. |
| Stereotactic Radiosurgery | A type of external radiation therapy that uses special equipment to position the patient and precisely give a single large dose of radiation to a tumor. It is used to treat brain tumors and other brain disorders that cannot be treated by regular surgery. It is also being studied in the treatment of other types of cancer. |
| Surgical Procedure | A diagnostic or treatment procedure performed by manual and/or instrumental means, often involving an incision and the removal or replacement of a diseased organ or tissue; of or relating to or involving or used in surgery or requiring or amenable to treatment by surgery. |
| Targeted Molecular Therapy | Cancer therapies designed to act upon specific molecules in metabolic pathways or processes involved in carcinogenesis, tumor growth, or tumor spread. |
| Unknown | Not known, observed, recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |

### TumorClassificationCategoryEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Metastatic | A tumor that has spread from its original (primary) site of growth to another site, close to or distant from the primary site. Metastasis is characteristic of advanced malignancies, but in rare instances can be seen in neoplasms lacking malignant morphology. -- 2004 |
| Not Applicable | Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Premalignant | A neoplasm that is composed of dysplastic cells and there is no morphologic evidence of infiltration of the surrounding tissues. |
| Primary | A tumor at the original site of origin. |
| Prior Primary | Recurrence of symptoms of a disease at the original site. |
| Progression | A clinical, pathologic, and/or molecular finding indicating that the course of a disease is worsening in terms of extent or severity. |
| Recurrent | The reemergence of neoplasm after a period of remission |
| Synchronous Primary | A malignant neoplasm arising in multiple primary sites. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| Xenograft | The transfer of cells, tissues, or organs from a donor into a recipient of another species. |

### TumorGradeEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| G1 Low Grade | A morphologic qualifier indicating that a cancerous lesion is well differentiated. |
| G2 Intermediate Grade | A morphologic qualifier indicating that a cancerous lesion is moderately differentiated. |
| G3 High Grade | A morphologic qualifier indicating that a cancerous lesion is poorly differentiated. |
| G4 Anaplastic | A morphologic qualifier indicating that a cancerous lesion is undifferentiated. |
| GB Borderline | A morphologic qualifier indicating that a neoplasm is of borderline malignancy. |
| GX Grade Cannot Be Assessed | A morphologic qualifier indicating that the grade of a neoplasm cannot be assessed. |
| Not Applicable | Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |

### TumorStageEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Stage I | Stage I |
| Stage IA | Stage IA |
| Stage IB | Stage IB |
| Stage II | Stage II |
| Stage IIA | Stage IIA |
| Stage IIB | Stage IIB |
| Stage III | Stage III |
| Stage IIIA | Stage IIIA |
| Stage IIIB | Stage IIIB |
| Stage IIIC | Stage IIIC |
| Stage IV | Stage IV |
| Stage IVA | Stage IVA |
| Stage IVB | Stage IVB |
| Stage IVC | Stage IVC |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused |

### TumorStagedEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| No | The non-affirmative response to a question. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| Yes | The affirmative response to a question. |

### VariantOriginEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Germline | The DNA in germ cells (egg and sperm cells that join to form an embryo). Germline DNA is the source of DNA for all other cells in the body. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Somatic | The genomic DNA found in the non-reproductive (non-germ) cells of an organism. |
| Somatic Mosaic | The presence of genetic mosaicism in non-germ cells. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |

### VariantTypeEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Alleles | Mutually exclusive alternative forms of the same gene occupying the same locus on homologous chromosomes, differing in nucleotide sequence and governing the same biochemical and developmental process. |
| Amplification | An increase in the copy number of a particular gene. This type of abnormality can be either inherited or somatic. |
| Chimerism | The occurrence in an individual of two or more cell populations of different chromosomal constitutions, derived from different individuals. This contrasts with mosaicism in which the different cell populations are derived from a single individual. |
| Chromosomal Gain | A cytogenetic abnormality that refers to gain of an entire chromosome, a chromosome arm or a chromosomal band. |
| Chromosomal Loss | Loss of an entire chromosome or chromosome arm. |
| Conversion | The act of changing the nature, form, function, or purpose of something to another.: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer. |
| Deletion | A loss of any genetic material on a chromosome, ranging from loss of a single nucleotide, to loss of part or all of a gene, to loss of a visible portion of the chromosome involving multiple genes. Deletions often disrupt gene or protein function and cell function as a result. |
| Deletion-insertion | Any rearrangement to the genomic content that results in the loss of one or more nucleotides of DNA. Deletions are generally irreversible rearrangements. They may alter the reading frame of a gene, or may result in loss of large chromosomal regions.: An article used to connect words, phrases, or clauses representing alternatives; used to connect alternative terms for the same thing; used in correlation; used to correct or rephrase what was previously said; otherwise.: Any rearrangement to the genomic content that adds one or more extra nucleotides into the DNA. Insertions may be reversible, particulary if caused by transposable elements. They may alter the reading frame of a gene, or may cause large scale additions of genomic DNA. |
| Duplication | Generation of an extra copy of a particular gene in the genome. A gene duplication abnormality may occur by gene amplification, random breakage and reunion, retrotransposition or unequal crossing-over at meiosis. A gene duplication abnormality can be either heritable or somatic. |
| Extension | To increase in length or duration.: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer. |
| Hypermethylation | Hypermethylation appears to be a controlled, epigenetic, heritable, and aberrant DNA methylation reaction on gene promoter regions and CpG islands associated with loss of (e.g., tumor-suppressor) gene function in diverse cellular pathways through transcriptional silencing by the formation of transcriptionally repressive chromatin. |
| Insertion | Mutations that result in the insertion of one or more nucleotides into a wild type DNA sequence. Can result in a frame shift in the coding sequence of a gene. |
| Inversion | A structural change in genomic DNA where the 5' to 3' order of a nucleotide sequence is completely reversed to the 3' to 5' order relative to its adjacent sequences. This inversion is termed either pericentric, if it includes the centromere of a chromosome, or pancentric, if it excludes the centromere. An inversion mutation abnormality may be heritable or occur somatically. |
| Methylation | The covalent chemical or biochemical addition of a methyl group(s) to a compound. (NCI) |
| Mosaicism | The presence of more than one genetically distinct cell line in germ and/or somatic cells. |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Other | Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned. |
| Partial methylation | Being or affecting only a part of something.: The covalent chemical or biochemical addition of a methyl group(s) to a compound. (NCI) |
| Rearrangement | Any process affecting a DNA sequence that results in the gain, loss or exchange of DNA between chromosomes and/or autonomous replicons. |
| Repeated sequences | Make or do or perform again.: The sequence of nucleotide residues along a DNA chain. |
| Splice | A mutation that alters or abolishes the specific sequence denoting the site at which the splicing of an intron takes place. Such mutations may result in one or more introns remaining in the mature messenger RNA or fusion of non-adjacent exons and can disrupt the generation of the protein product. |
| Substitution | The act of putting one thing or person in the place of another.: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer. |
| Translocation | The movement of a physical object from one place to another. (NCI): Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |

### VitalStatusEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| Alive | Showing characteristics of life; displaying signs of life. |
| Dead | The absence of life or state of being dead. |
| Not reported | Not provided or available. |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused. |
| Unspecified | Not stated explicitly or in detail. |

### YesNoUnknownNotReportedEnum

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| No | False |
| Yes | True |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available |
| Unknown | Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused |

### gene_symbol_enum

Valid gene symbols from HGNC approved symbol list downloaded from: https://www.genenames.org/cgi-bin/download/custom?col=gd_app_sym&status=Approved&hgnc_dbtag=on&order_by=gd_app_sym_sort&format=text&submit=submit

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| A1BG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| A1BG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| A1CF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| A2M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| A2M-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| A2ML1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| A2ML1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| A2ML1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| A3GALT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| A4GALT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| A4GNT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AAAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AACS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AACSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AADAC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AADACL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AADACL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AADACL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AADACL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AADACP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AADAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AAGAB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AAK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AAMDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AAMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AANAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AAR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AARD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AARS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AARSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AARSD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AASDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AASDH-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AASDHPPT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AASDHPPT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AASS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AATBC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AATF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AATK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AAVS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCA17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB10P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB10P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCB11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCD1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCD1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCD1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCE1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCE1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCF1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCF2-H2BK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABCG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD14A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD14A-ACY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD14B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD15-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD16A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD16B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD16B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD17A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD17AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD17AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD17AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD17AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD17AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD17AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD17AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD17AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD17B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD17C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABHD18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABI1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABI3BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABITRAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABITRAMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABLIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABLIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABLIM2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABLIM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABRACL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABRAXAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABRAXAS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABRAXAS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABRAXAS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABTB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABTB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ABTB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACACA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACACB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAD9-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACADL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACADM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACADS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACADSB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACADVL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAP2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACBD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACBD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACBD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACBD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACBD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACBD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACBD7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACCS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACCSL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACCSLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACE2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACE3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACER2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACER3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACER3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACHE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACKR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACKR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACKR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACKR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACKR4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACKR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACLY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACMSD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACNATP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACO2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACO2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT12-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOT13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOXL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACOXL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACRBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACRV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSBG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSBG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSL1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSL3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSL6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSL6-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSM2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSM2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSM5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACSS3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTBP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTE1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG1P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTL6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTL6A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTL6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTL7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTL7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTL11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTMAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTN1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTN4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTN4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTN4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3BP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3BP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTR10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTRT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTRT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTRT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACTRT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACVR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACVR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACVR1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACVR2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACVR2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACVR2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACVRL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACYP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ACYP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM7-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM20P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM20P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM21P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAM33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMDEC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS3-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS7P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS7P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS7P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS9-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS16-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS16-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS17-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS19-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTS20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTSL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTSL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTSL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTSL4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTSL4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAMTSL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADARB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADARB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADARB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCY10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCYAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADCYAP1R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADD1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGB-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRB3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRD1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRE4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRE5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRF2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRF5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRF5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRF5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRG6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRL3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRL3-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADGRV1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADH1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADH1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADH1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADH5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADH5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADH5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADH5P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADH7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADHFE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADI1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADI1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADI1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADIG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADIPINT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADIPOQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADIPOQ-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADIPOR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADIPOR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADIPOR1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADIPOR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADIRF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADIRF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADISSP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADISSPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADISSPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADM-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADNP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADNP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADNP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADORA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADORA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADORA1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADORA2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADORA2A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADORA2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADORA2BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADORA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADPGK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADPGK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADPRH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADPRH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADPRHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADPRM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADPRS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADRA1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADRA1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADRA1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADRA2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADRA2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADRA2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADRB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADSL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADSS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADSS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ADTRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AEBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AEBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AEN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFAP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFAP1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFAP1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFAP1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFDN-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFF2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFF4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFF4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFG1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFG2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFG2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFG3L1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFG3L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFG3L2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFMID | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFTPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AFTPH-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGAP14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGBL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGBL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGBL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGBL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGBL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGBL4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGBL4-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGBL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGBL5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGBL5-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGER | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGFG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGFG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGGF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGGF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGGF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGGF1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGGF1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGGF1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGGF1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGGF1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGGF1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGGF1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGGF1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGK-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGKP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGMAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGMO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGPAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGPAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGPAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGPAT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGPAT4-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGPAT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGPAT5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGTPBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGTR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGTR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGTRAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGXT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGXT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AGXT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCTF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCTF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCYL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCYL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCYP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCYP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCYP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCYP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCYP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCYP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCYP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHCYP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHI1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHNAK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHNAK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHSA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHSA2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHSG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AHSP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AICDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIDAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIDAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIDAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIF1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIFM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIFM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIFM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIFM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIMP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIMP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIRE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIRIM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AIRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AJAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AJM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AJUBA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AJUBA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK4P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AK9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAIN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP8L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP13-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP17A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP17BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKAP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKIRIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKIRIN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKIRIN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKIRIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKIRIN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKNA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKNAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1B15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1C4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1C5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1C6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1C7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1C8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1D1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR1E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR7A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR7A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR7A2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR7A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKR7L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKT1S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKT3-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKTIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKTIPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKTIPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AKTIPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALAS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALCAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH1A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH1A2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH1A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH1A3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH1L1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH1L1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH3A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH3A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH3B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH3B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH4A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH5A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH6A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH7A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH7A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH7A1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH7A1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH7A1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH8A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH9A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH16A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDH18A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDOA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDOAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDOAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDOB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDOC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALDOC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG1L15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG9-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG13-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALG14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALKAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALKAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALKBH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALKBH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALKBH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALKBH3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALKBH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALKBH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALKBH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALKBH7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALKBH8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALLC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALMS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALMS1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALMS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOX5AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOX12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOX12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOX12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOX12P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOX15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOX15B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOX15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOX15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOXE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALOXE3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALPG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALPI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALPK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALPK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALPK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALPK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALPPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALS2CL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ALYREF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMACR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMANZI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMBN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMBRA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMD1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMD1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMDHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMDHD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMELX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMELY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMER3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMHR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMIGO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMIGO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMIGO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMLCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMMECR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMMECR1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMMECR1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMMECR1LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMOT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMOTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMOTL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMPD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMPD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMY1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMY1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMY1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMY2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMY2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMYP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMZ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMZ2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMZ2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AMZ2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANAPC16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGEL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGEL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGPT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGPT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGPTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGPTL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGPTL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGPTL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGPTL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGPTL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGPTL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANGPTL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANHX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANK2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANK3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKDD1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKDD1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKFN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKFY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKH-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKHD1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKHD1-EIF4EBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKIB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKLE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKLE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKMY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKMY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD10-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD11P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD13A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD13C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD13C-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD13D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD17-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD17-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD18A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD18B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD18CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD18DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD18EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD18FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD20A21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD26P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD26P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD26P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD26P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD27-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD30A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD30B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD30BL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD30BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD30BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD30BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD30BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD30BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD30BP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD31-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33BP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33BP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33BP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33BP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD33BP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD34A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD34B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD34C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD34C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD35-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD36B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD36BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD36BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD36C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD36P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD36P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD39P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD40CL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD42-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD44-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD44-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD44-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD49P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD49P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD49P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD49P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD54P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD55-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD62P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD62P1-PARP4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD65-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKRD66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKS1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKS1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKS4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKUB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANKZF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO7L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANO10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANOS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANOS2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANP32A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANP32A-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANP32AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANP32B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANP32BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANP32BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANP32BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANP32CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANP32D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANP32E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANPEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANTKMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANTXR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANTXR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANTXRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANTXRLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA2R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA2R-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA2R-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA8L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ANXA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOAH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOAH-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOC4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOPEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOPEP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOX2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOX3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AOX3P-AOX2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1AR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1AR-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1B1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1B1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1G2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1M1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1M2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1M2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1S2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP1S3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP2A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP2B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP2B1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP2M1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP2S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP3B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP3B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP3D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP3M1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP3M2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP3S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP3S1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP3S1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP3S1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP3S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP4B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP4B1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP4E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP4M1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP4S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP5B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP5M1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP5S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AP5Z1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APBA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APBA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APBA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APBB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APBB1IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APBB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APBB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APBB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APCDD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APCDD1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APCDD1L-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APCS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APEH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APELA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APEX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APEX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APH1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APH1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| API5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| API5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| API5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APLF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APLNR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APMAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOA1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC3AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC3A_B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC3B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC3F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC3G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC3H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBEC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOBR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOC4-APOC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOLD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APONP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOOL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOOP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOOP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOOP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOOP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APOOP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APP-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APPAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APPBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APPBP2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| APTX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP7P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP7P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP7P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQP12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AQR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARAF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARAFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARAFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARAFP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARAP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARAP1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARAP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARB2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARB2A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARB2A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARB2A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARB2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AREG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AREL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARFGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARFGAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARFGAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARFGEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARFGEF1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARFGEF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARFGEF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARFIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARFIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARFRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARG2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARGFX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARGFXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARGFXP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARGLU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARGLU1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP11A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP11A-SCG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP11B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP15-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP19-SLIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP22-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP23P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP24-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP26-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP26-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP27P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP27P1-BPTFP1-KPNA2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP27P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP28-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP29-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP31-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP42-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP42P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP42P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP42P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP42P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP42P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP44-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGAP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGDIA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGDIB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGDIG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF7-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF7-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF9-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF10L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF17-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF18-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF25-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF26-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF28-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF28-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF28-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF28P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF34P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF35-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF38-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF38-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARHGEF40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID3BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARID5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARIH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARIH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARIH2OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARIH2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARK2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARK2N | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2-SNX15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2BPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2BPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2BPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2BPP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2BPP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2BPP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2BPP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2BPP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2BPP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL2BPP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL4AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL4AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL4AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL4AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL4AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL5AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL5AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL5AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL5AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL5AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL6IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL6IP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL6IP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL6IP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL6IP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL6IP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL6IP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL8BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL8BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL13A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL14EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL14EP-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL14EPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL14EPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL17A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARL17B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARLNC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMCX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMCX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMCX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMCX3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMCX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMCX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMCX5-GPRASP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMCX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMCX7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARMS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARNILA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARNT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARNT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARNT2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARNT2-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARNT2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC1AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC1AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC1AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC4-TTLL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPC5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPIN-AP3S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPP19P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPP19P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARPP21-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARRDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARRDC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARRDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARRDC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARRDC3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARRDC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARRDC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSJ-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARSLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ART1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ART2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ART2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ART3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ART4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ART5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARVCF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ARX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AS3MT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAH1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAH2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAP1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAP1-IT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAR1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAR6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAR6-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAR8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAR9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAR9-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASAR15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB15-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB16-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASB18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASCC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASCL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASCL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASCL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASDURF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASF1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASGR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASGR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASH1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASH1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASH1L-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASH2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASH2LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASH2LP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASH2LP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASH2LP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASIC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASIC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASIC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASIC2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASIC2-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASIC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASIC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASIC4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASIC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASMER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASMER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASMTL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASMTL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASNS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASNSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASNSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASNSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASNSP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASNSP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASNSP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASNSP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASPDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASPG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASPHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASPHD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASPM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASPRV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASPSCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASRGL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASS1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASTE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASTILCS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASTL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASTN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASTN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASXL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASXL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASXL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASXL3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ASZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATAD2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATAD3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATAD3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATAD3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATAD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATCAY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATE1OSP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF7-NPFF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF7IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATF7IP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG4AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG4C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG10-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG12P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG16L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG16L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATG101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATIC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATMIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATMINP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATMINP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATOH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATOH7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATOH8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATOSA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATOSB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATOSBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATOX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1B1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1B3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1B3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP1B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2B1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2B2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2B2-IT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP2C2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1EP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5F1EP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5IF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5IF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5ME | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MF-PTCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MFP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MFP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MFP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MFP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MFP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MGL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MGP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MGP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MGP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MGP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MGP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MGP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MGP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5MKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PBP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PBP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PBP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PDP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PDP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PDP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PFP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PFP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5PO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP5POP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6AP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6AP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1B1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1E1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1E1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1E1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1FP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1FP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1G1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1G1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1G1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1G1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1G1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1G1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1G1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1G2-DDX39B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1G3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V1H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0CP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0CP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0CP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0D1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0E1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0E1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0E1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0E1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP6V0E2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP7BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8A1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8A2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8A2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8B1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP8B5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP9B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP10A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP10D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP10D-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP11A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP11AUN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP11B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP11C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP13A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP13A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP13A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP13A3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP13A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP13A4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP13A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP13A5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATPAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATPAF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATPSCKMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATRAID | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATRIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATRNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATRX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN2-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN7L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN7L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN7L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN7L3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN7L3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN7L3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN8OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ATXN10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AUH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AUNIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AUP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AURKA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AURKAIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AURKAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AURKAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AURKB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AURKBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AURKC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AUTS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AVEN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AVIL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AVL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AVP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AVPI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AVPR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AVPR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AVPR1B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AVPR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AWAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AWAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AXDND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AXIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AXIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AXL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AZGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AZGP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AZGP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AZI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AZIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AZIN1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AZIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AZU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| AZU1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B2M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B2MR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALNT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALNT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALT5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GALT9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GAT1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GAT3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GLCT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GNT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GNT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GNT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GNT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GNT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GNT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GNT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GNT9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GNTL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B3GNTL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALNT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALNT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALNT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALT4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GALT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B4GAT1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B9D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| B9D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAALC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAALC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAALC-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BABAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BABAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BABAM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BABAM2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BACC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BACE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BACE1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BACE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BACE2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BACH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BACH1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BACH1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BACH1-IT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BACH1-IT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BACH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAG5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAG6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAGE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAGE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAGE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAGE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAGE5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAHCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAIAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAIAP2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAIAP2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAIAP2L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAIAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAK1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BALR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAMBI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BANCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BANF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BANF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BANF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BANF1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BANF1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BANF1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BANF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BANK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BANK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BANP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BARD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BARHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BARHL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BARX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BARX1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BARX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BASP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BASP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BASP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BATF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BATF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BATF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAZ1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAZ1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAZ1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAZ2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAZ2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BAZ2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBIP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBLNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBLNP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBOF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBOX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBS7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBS9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBS10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBS12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BBX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAN-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAP31P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAP31P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAR1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAR3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAS2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAS2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAS3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAT1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCCIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCDIN3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCDIN3D-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCHE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCKDHA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCKDHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCKDK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2L1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2L2-PABPN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2L10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2L11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2L12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2L12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2L13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2L14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL2L15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL7C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL9L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCL11B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCLAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCLAF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCLAF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCLAF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCORL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCORP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCRP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCRP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCRP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCRP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCRP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCRP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCS1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCYRN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCYRN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCYRN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BCYRN1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BDH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BDH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BDH2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BDKRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BDKRB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BDKRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BDNF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BDNF-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BDP1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEAN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEAN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BECN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BECN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BECN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEGAIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEGAIN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEND7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEST3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEST4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BET1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BET1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BET1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BET1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BETALINC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BEX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BFAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BFSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BFSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BFSP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BGLAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BGLT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BHLHA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BHLHA15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BHLHE22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BHLHE22-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BHLHE23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BHLHE40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BHLHE40-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BHLHE41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BHMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BHMT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICDL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICDL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICDL3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICRA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICRA-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BICRAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BID | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIN2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIN3-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIRC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIRC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIRC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIRC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIRC6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIRC6-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIRC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIRC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BISPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIVM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BIVM-ERCC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BKGD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLACAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLACE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLCAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLID | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLMH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLNK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLOC1S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLOC1S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLOC1S2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLOC1S3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLOC1S4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLOC1S5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLOC1S5-TXNDC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLOC1S6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLOC1S6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLTP3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLTP3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLTP3B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLVRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLVRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLVRBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLZF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BLZF2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMAL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMERB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMI1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMNCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP2K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP2K-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP2K-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP2KL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP8B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMPER | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMPR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMPR1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMPR1AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMPR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMPR1B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMPR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P4-AGAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMS1P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BMX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP3P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BNIPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOD1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOD1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA2-SMG1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLA3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOLL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BOP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BORA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BORCS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BORCS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BORCS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BORCS7-ASMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BORCS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BORCS8-MEF2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BORCS8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPESC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPGM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPHL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFA4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFB5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFB9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPIFC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPNT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPTF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPTFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPY2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPY2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BPY2DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRAF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRAFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRCA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRCA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRCA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRCC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRCC3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD3OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD7P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD7P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD7P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD7P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD7P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRDT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRDTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRI3BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRI3BPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRI3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRI3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRI3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRICD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRINP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRINP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRINP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRINP3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRIX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRIX1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRK1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRME1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRMS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRMS1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BROX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRPF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRPF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRPF3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRSK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRSK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRSK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRWD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRWD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRWD1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRWD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRWD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRWD1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BRWD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSN-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSND | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSNDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSNDP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSNDP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSNDP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSPRY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BST1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BSX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTBD19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3L4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3L4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3L4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3L4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTF3P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTG1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTG2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTG3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTG3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTG4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTLA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTN1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTN1A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTN2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTN2A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTN2A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTN3A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTN3A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTN3A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTNL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTNL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTNL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTNL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTNL10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTNL12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTRC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BTRCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUB1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUB1B-PAK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUB3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUD13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUD13-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUD13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUD23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUD31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUD31P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BUD31P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BVR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BYSL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BZW1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BZW1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BZW1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BZW1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| BZW2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1DP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1DP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1DP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1DP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1DP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1GALT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1GALT1C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1GALT1C1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1GALT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1GALT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1GALT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QBPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QBPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QBPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF3-AMACR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1QTNF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1RL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1RL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1S | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf21-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf94 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf105 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf146 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf159 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf162 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf167 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf167-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf174 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf185 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf198 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf202 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf216 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf220 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf226 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C1orf232 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2CD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2CD2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2CD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2CD4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2CD4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2CD4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2CD4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2CD4D-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2CD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2CD5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf49-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf69P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf69P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf69P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf69P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf69P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf74-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C2orf92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3AR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3CER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf49P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C3orf86P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4A_2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4BPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4BPAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4BPAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4BPAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4BPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4B_2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4orf17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4orf33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4orf36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4orf46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4orf46P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4orf46P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4orf46P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4orf46P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4orf50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4orf51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C4orf54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5AR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5AR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf15-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf34-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C5orf67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf47-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C6orf163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C7orf25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C7orf33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C7orf57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C7orf78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf34-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf44-SGK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C8orf90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf78P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf78P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf85P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf85P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf153 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C9orf163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf67-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf71-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf88B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf95-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf105 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C10orf143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf58P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf98 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf98P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf98P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C11orf98P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf42-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf71BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf75-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C12orf76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C13orf42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C13orf46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C14orf39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C14orf93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C14orf119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C14orf119P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C14orf132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C14orf180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C15orf32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C15orf39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C15orf40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C15orf61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C15orf62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf46-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf46-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf95-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C16orf96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C17orf50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C17orf58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C17orf67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C17orf75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C17orf78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C17orf99 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C17orf100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C17orf107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C17orf113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C17orf114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C18orf15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C18orf32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C18orf32P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C18orf32P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C18orf32P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C18orf32P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C18orf54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C18orf63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf48P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C19orf85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C20orf96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C20orf141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C20orf144 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C20orf173 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C20orf181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C20orf202 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C20orf203 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C20orf204 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C21orf58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C21orf91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C21orf91-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C21orf140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C22orf15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C22orf23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C22orf31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C22orf39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C22orf42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| C22orf46P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA5AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA5BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CA15P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAB39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAB39L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAB39P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABCOCO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABLES1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABLES2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABP7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABYR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABYR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CABYRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACFD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1B-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1C-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1C-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1C-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1C-IT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1G-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA1S | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA2D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA2D1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA2D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA2D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA2D3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNA2D4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNB2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNG2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNG6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACNG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACSTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACTIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACTIN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACUL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACYBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACYBPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACYBPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CACYBPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CADM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CADM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CADM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CADM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CADM2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CADM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CADM3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CADM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CADPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CADPS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAGE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAHM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALCB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALCOCO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALCOCO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALCP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALCRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALCRL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALHM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALHM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALHM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALHM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALHM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALHM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALHM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALHM6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALM1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALM2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALM2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALM2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALM2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALML3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALML3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALML4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALML5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALML6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALR4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CALY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK2D-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK2G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK2G-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK2N1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK2N2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMK4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMKK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMKK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMKMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMKV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMLG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMSAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMSAP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMSAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMSAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMTA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMTA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMTA1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMTA1-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMTA1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMTA1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMTA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAMTA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAND2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CANT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CANT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CANX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN10-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPN15-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPNS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPNS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPNS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPRIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPRIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPSL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPSL-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPZA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPZA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPZA1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPZA1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPZA1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPZA1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPZA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPZA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPZB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAPZBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARD19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARHSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARHSP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARINH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARM1LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARMAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARMIL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARMIL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARMIL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARMIL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARMN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARNMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARNMT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARNS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CARTPT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASC23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASKIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASKIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP4LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP8AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASP16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASQ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASQ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASTOR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASTOR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASTOR3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CASZ1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATED | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATIP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATIP-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPER2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPER2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPER3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPER4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPERB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPERD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPERE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPERG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPERH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPERQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPERT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CATSPERZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAV2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAV2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAV3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAVIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAVIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAVIN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAVIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CAVIN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBARP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBARP-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBFA2T2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBFA2T3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBFB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBLB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBLC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBLIF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBLL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBLL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBLL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBLL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBLN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBLN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBR3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBR4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBSLR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX3P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBX8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBY1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CBY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CC2D1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CC2D1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CC2D2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CC2D2A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CC2D2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCAR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCBE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCBE1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC13-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC13-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC15-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC18-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC25P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC25P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC28A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC28A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC28B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC33-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC34P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC39-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC54-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC59P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC59P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC71L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC74A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC74B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC74BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC85A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC85B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC85C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC86-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC86P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC86P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC88A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC88B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC88C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC88C-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC90B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC90B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC92B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC102A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC102B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC106 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC110-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC112-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC121P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC137 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC137P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC137P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC138 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC142 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC144A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC144BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC144CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC144NL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC144NL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC146 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC146-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC148 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC148-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC149 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC149-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC150 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC150P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC154 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC158 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC159 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC162P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC166 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC167 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC169 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC169-SOHLH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC170 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC171 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC172 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC174 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC175 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC177 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC178 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC179 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC183 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC183-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC184 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC185 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC186 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC187 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC188 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC188BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC190 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC191 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC192 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC192-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC194 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC195 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC196 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC197 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC198 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC200 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDC201 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCDST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCEPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCHCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCKAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCKBR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL3L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL3L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL4L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL4L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL15-CCL14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCL28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCM2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCM2L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNB1IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNB1IP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNB1IP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNB1IP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNB3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCND2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCND2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCND2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCND3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCND3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCND3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNDBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNG2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNI-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNI-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNI-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNJL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNJP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNJP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNO-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNQP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNQP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNQP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNY-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNYL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNYL1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNYL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNYL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNYL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNYL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNYL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCNYL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCP110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCPG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR5AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCR12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCRL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCSAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCSER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCSER1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCSER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCSER2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT6P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT8L1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT8L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCT8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCZ1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CCZ1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD2AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD2AP-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD2BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD2BP2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD3E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD3G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD8B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD24P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD24P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD24P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD24P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD24P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD27-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD38-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD40LG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD44-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD44-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD46P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD63-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD79A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD79B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD81-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD82-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD83P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD84-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD84P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD99 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD99L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD99P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD101-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD109 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD109-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD151 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD163L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD164 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD164L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD177 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD177P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD200 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD200LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD200R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD200R1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD200R1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD200R1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD207 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD209 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD226 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD244 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD247 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD248 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD274 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD300A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD300C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD300E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD300H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD300LB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD300LD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD300LD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD300LF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD300LG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD302 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CD320 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDADC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDAN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC14A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC14B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC14C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC20-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC20B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC25A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC25B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC25C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC26P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC27P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC37L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC37L1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC37P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC37P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42BPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42BPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42BPB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42BPG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42EP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42EP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42EP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42EP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42EP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42EP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42EP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42SE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC42SE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDC123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA7L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH10-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH12-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH12-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH12-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH12-AS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH12P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH12P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH12P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH13-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH13-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH18-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH18-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH18-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH23-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDH26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDHR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDHR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDHR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDHR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDHR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDHR17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDHR18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDIPT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDIPTOSP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK2AP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK2AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK2AP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK2AP2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK2AP2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK5R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK5R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK5R2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK5RAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK5RAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK5RAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK5RAP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK13-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDK20-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN2A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN2AIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN2AIPNL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN2AIPNLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN2AIPNLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN2AIPNLP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDKN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDNF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDON | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDONP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDONP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDONP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDONP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDPF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDPF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDR2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDR2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDRT15P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDSN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDV3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDV3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDY23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDYL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDYL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDYL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CDYLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM16-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAM22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAMP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAMP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAMP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAMP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAMP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAMP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAMP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEACAMP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEBPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEBPA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEBPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEBPB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEBPD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEBPE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEBPG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEBPZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEBPZOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CECR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CECR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CECR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CECR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CECR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEDORA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELA2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELA2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELA3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELA3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF2-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF2-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELF6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELSR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELSR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CELSR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEMIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEMIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENATAC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENATAC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENATAC-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENATACP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEND1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEND1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPBD1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPBD2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPH-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPNP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPS-CORT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPUP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPUP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPVL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPVL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPVL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CENPX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP19P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP57L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP57L1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP63-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP72-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP83-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP85L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP104 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP135-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP152-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP162 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP164 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP164P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP170 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP170B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP170P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP192 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP192-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP192P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP250 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP250-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP290 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP295 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP295NL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEP350 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERCAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERKL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERNA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CEROX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERS3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERS6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CERT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CES1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CES1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CES1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CES2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CES3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CES4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CES5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CES5AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CETN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CETN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CETN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CETN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CETN4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CETP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP20-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP20DC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP20DC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP20DC-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP44-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP53P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP58-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP61-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP65-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP69P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP95-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP97D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP97D1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP97D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP97P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP99 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP100-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP144 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP144P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP144P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP144P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP161 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP184 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP184-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP206 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP221 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP251 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP263 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP298 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP298-TCP10L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP299 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP299-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP300 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP410 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP418 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFAP418-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFC1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFHR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFHR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFHR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFHR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFHR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFL1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFL1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFL1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFL1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFL1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFL1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFLAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFLAR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFTR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFTR-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFTRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFTRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CFTRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGGBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGREF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CGRRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CH25H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHADL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHAER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHAF1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHAF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHAMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHASERR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCHD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHCT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHD9NB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHEK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHEK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHEK2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHEK2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHEK2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHEK2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHEK2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHEK2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHEK2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHERP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHFR-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHGA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHGB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHI3L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHI3L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHIA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHIAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHIAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHIAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHIC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHIC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHIC2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHID1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHILL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHKA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHKA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHKB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHKB-CPT1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHKB-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHL1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHLSN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHLSN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHML | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP1B2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP4AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP4BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHMP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHODL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHODL-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHORDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHORDC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHORDC1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHORDC1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHORDC1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHORDC2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHPF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHPF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRDL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRDL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRFAM7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRFAM7AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRFAM7AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRM3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRM3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRND | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHRNG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHROMR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHST15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHSY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHSY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHSY3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHTF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHTF8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHTF18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHTOP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHUK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHUK-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHURC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CHURC1-FNTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIAO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIAO2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIAO2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIAO2AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIAO2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIAO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIAPIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIAPIN1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIART | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIBAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIBAR1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIBAR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIBAR1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIBAR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CICP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIDEA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIDEB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIDEC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIDECP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIDECP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIITA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CILK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CILP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CILP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMAP1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMAP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMAP1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMAP1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMIP2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMIP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMIP2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMIP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMIP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMIP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIMIP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CINP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIP2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIR1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIR1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIRBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIRBP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIROP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIROZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIRSR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CISD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CISD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CISD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CISD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CISH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CISTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CITED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CITED2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CITED4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CIZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKAP2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKAP2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKAP2LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKAP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKLF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKLF-CMTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKMT1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKMT1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKMT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKMT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKS1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKS1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKS1BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKS1BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKS1BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKS1BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKS1BP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKS1BP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CKS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLASP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLASP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLASP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLASRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLBA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCA3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCA4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCN3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCN7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCNKA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCNKB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDN34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDND1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLDND2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC4E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC4F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC4G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC4GP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC4M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC4OP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC12A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC14A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC16A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC17A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC18A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC18B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC18C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC19A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLEC20A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLECL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLHC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLINT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLIP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLK2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLK3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLK3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLK3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLLU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLLU1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLMAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLMB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLMN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLN8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLN8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLNK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLNK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLNK-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLNK-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLNK-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLNS1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLNS1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLOCK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLOCK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLPSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLPSL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLPTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLPTM1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLPTM1L-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLPTM1LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLPX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLRN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLRN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLRN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLSPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLSPN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLSPN-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLSTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLSTN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLSTN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLSTN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLTA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLTAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLTAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLTC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLTCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLTRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUHP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUHP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUHP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUHP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUHP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUHP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUHP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUHP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUHP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLUL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLVS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLVS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLVS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLXN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLYBL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLYBL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLYBL-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CLYBL-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMAHP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMBL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMC1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMC1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMKLR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMKLR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMKLR2-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMPK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMPK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMPK1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMPK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMSS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMTM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMTM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMTM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMTM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMTM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMTM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMTM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMTM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMTR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMTR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMYA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CMYA5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNBD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNBD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNDP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNDP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNEP1R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNEP1R1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNFN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNGA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNGA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNGA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNGA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNGB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNGB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNGB3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNIH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNIH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNIH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNIH3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNIH3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNIH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNKSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNKSR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNKSR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNMD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN2P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNN3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNNM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNNM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNNM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNNM3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNNM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT6L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT6L-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT6LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNOT11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNPPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNPY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNPY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNPY2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNPY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNPY4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNRIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTFR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTN4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTN4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTNAP5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CNTROB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COA6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COASY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COBL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COBLL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COBLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COCH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COCH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COG6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COIL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COILP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COILP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL1A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL1A2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL1AR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL3A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL4A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL4A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL4A2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL4A2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL4A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL4A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL4A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL4A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL5A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL5A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL5A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL5A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL6A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL6A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL6A2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL6A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL6A4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL6A4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL6A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL6A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL7A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL8A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL8A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL9A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL9A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL9A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL10A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL11A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL11A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL11A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL12A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL13A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL14A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL15A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL15A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL16A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL17A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL18A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL18A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL18A1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL19A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL20A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL21A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL22A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL23A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL23A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL24A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL25A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL25A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL25A1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL25A1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL26A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL27A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COL28A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COLCA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COLEC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COLEC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COLEC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COLGALT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COLGALT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COLQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMETT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD3-BMI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD8-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMMD10-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COMTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPB2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPDA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPG2IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPRS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPRSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS8-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS8P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPS9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COPZ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ10BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COQ10BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORIN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORO1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORO1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORO1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORO1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORO1CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORO2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORO2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORO6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORO7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORO7-PAM16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CORT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COSMOC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COTL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COTL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COTL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX4I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX4I1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX4I1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX4I2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5BP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5BP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX5BP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6A1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6A1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6A1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6A1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6A1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6A1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6B1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6B1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6B1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6B1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6B1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6B1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6B1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX6CP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7A2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7A2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7BP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7CP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7CP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX7CP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX8BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX8C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX8CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX10-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX16P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX17P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX18-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COX20P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COXFA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COXFA4L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COXFA4L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COXFA4L3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COXFA4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COXFA4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COXFA4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COXFA4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| COXFA4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPAMD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPAMD8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPEB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPEB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPEB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPEB2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPEB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPEB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPHL1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPHXL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPHXL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPLANE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPLANE1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPLANE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPLX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPLX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPLX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPLX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPLX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPMER | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPNE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPNE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPNE2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPNE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPNE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPNE5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPNE6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPNE7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPNE8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPNE8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPNE9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPPED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPS1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPSF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPSF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPSF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPSF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPSF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPSF4L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPSF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPSF6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPSF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPT1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPT1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPT1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPTP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPVL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPVL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPVL-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPXCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPXM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPXM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPXM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CPZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CR1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRABP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRABP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRACD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRACD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRACDL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRACR2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRACR2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRADD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRADD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRADDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRAMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRB3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRBN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRCP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRCT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREB3L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREB3L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREB3L2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREB3L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREB3L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREBBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREBL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREBRF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREBZF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRELD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRELD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CREM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRHBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRHR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRHR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIM1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIP1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIPT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIPTO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIPTO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIPTOP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIPTOP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIPTOP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIPTOP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIPTOP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRIPTOP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRISP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRISP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRISP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRISPLD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRISPLD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRKL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRLF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRLF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRLF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRLF3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRLF3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRLF3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRLS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRMA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRNDE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRNKL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRNN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CROCC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CROCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CROCCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CROCCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CROCCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CROCCP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CROCCP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CROT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRPPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRPPA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRSP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRTAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRTAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRTAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRTC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRTC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRTC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRTC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRTC3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYAA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYAB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYBA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYBA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYBA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYBB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYBB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYBB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYBB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYBG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYBG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYBG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYGA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYGB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYGC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYGD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYGEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYGFP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYGGP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYGN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYGS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYZL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYZL2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYZL2P-SEC16B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYZP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CRYZP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSAD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSAG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSAG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSAG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSDE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSE1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSE1L-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSF1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSF2RA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSF2RB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSF2RBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSF3R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSGALNACT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSGALNACT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSGALNACT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSGALNACT2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSGALNACT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSGALNACT2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSKMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSMD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSMD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSMD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSN1S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSN1S2AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSN1S2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1A1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1A1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1A1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1G2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1G2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1G3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK1G3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK2A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK2A2IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK2A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSNK2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4P1Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4P2Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4P3Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4P4Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG4P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSRNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSRNP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSRNP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSRP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSRP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSRP2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSRP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST9L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST9LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST9LP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CST13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTF2T | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTF3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CSTPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT45A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT45A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT45A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT45A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT45A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT45A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT45A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT45A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT45A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT45A11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT45B1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT47C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CT83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAG1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAG1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTAGE16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBP2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTBS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTCF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTCF-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTCFL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDNEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDNEP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDNEP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDSP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDSPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDSPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDSPL2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDSPL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTDSPL2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTF2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTHRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTHRC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTIF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTIF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTLA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNA3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNBIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNBIP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNBL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNNBL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNND2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNND2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTNS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTPS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTPS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTRC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSL3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSLP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSLP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSLP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSLP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTSZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTTN-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTTNBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTTNBP2NL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTU2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTXN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTXN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTXN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTXN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTXN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTXND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CTXND2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUBN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUBNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUBNP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUBNP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUEDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUEDC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUEDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUL4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUL4AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUL4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUL9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUPIN1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUTA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUTALP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUTC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUX2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUX2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CUZD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CWC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CWC22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CWC25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CWC27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CWC27-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CWF19L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CWF19L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CWH43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CX3CL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CX3CR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXADR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXADRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXADRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXADRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL13-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCL17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCR2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXCR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXXC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXXC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXXC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXXC4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXXC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXXC5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXorf38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXorf49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXorf49B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXorf49C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXorf51A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXorf51B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXorf58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXorf65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CXorf66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5R3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5R4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB5RL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB561 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB561A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB561D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYB561D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYBA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYBB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYBC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYBRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCSP56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYCTP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYDAER | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYFIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYFIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYGB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYKILR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYLC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYLC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYLD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYLD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYLD-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYMP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP1A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP1B1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP1D1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2A7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2A7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2AB1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2AC1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2B6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2B7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C56P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C58P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C59P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C60P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C61P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C63P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C64P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2C115P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2D6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2D7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2D8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2F2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2G1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2G2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2J2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2T1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2T3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2U1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2U1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP2W1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP3A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP3A4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP3A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP3A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP3A7-CYP3A51P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP3A43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP3A51P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP3A52P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP3A54P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP3A137P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4A22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4A22-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4A26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4A27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4A43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4A44P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F32P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F33P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F34P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F35P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F36P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F44P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F45P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F59P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F60P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F61P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4F62P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4V2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4X1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4Z1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP4Z2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP7A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP7B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP8B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP11A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP11B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP11B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP17A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP17A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP19A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP20A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP21A1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP21A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP24A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP26A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP26B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP26C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP26C1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP27A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP27B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP27C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP39A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP46A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP46A4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP51A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP51A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP51A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP51A1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYP51A1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYREN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYRIA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYRIB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYRIB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYSLTR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYSLTR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYSRT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYSTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYTH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYTH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYTH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYTH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYTH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYTIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYTOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYYR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CYYR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CZIB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| CZIB-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| D2HGDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAAM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAB2IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DACH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DACH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DACOR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DACT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DACT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DACT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DACT3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAGARR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAGLA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAGLB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DALIR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DALRD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DANCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAND5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DANT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DANT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAOA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAOA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAP-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAP3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAPK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAPK1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAPK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAPK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAPP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DARS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAW1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAXX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAZ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAZ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAZ4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAZAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAZAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAZAP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DAZL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBET | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBF4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBF4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBF4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBF4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBIL5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBIL5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBNDD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBNDD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBNL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DBX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF4L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF4L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF8-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF8L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF8L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF12L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF12L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF13P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF13P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAF17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCAKD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCANP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCBLD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCBLD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCDC2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCDC2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCHS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCHS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCHS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCHS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCLK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCLK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCLK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCLRE1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCLRE1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCLRE1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCLRE1CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCP1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCST1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCSTAMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCTD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCTN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCTN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCTN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCTN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCTN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCTN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCTN6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCTPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCUN1D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCUN1D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCUN1D2-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCUN1D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCUN1D4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCUN1D5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCXR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DCXR-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDAH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDAH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDHD1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDHD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDIAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDIT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDIT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDIT4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDIT4L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDIT4L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDOST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDR1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDRGK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDTL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX3ILA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX3X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX3Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX11L17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX18P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX18P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX18P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX18P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX18P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX18P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX19A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX19A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX19B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX25-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX39A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX39AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX39B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX39B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX39BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX39BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX43P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX43P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX43P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX50P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX50P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX55P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX59-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DDX60L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DECR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DECR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEDD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEDD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA1A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFA11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB103A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB103B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB104A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB104B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB105A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB105B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB106A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB106B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB107A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB107B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB108A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB108B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB108C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB108D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB108E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB108F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB109A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB109B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB109C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB109D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB109E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB109F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB129 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB130A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB130B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB130C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB130D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB131A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB131B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB131C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB131D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB131E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFB136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFT1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEFT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEGS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEGS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DELE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DELEC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND5B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND6A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND6A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENND11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DENRP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPDC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPDC1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPDC1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPDC1B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPDC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPDC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPDC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPDC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPDC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPTOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEPTOR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DERA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DERL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DERL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DERL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DERPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DES | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DESI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DESI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DET1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEUP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DEXI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DFFA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DFFB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DFFBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGAT2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGAT2L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGAT2L7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGCR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGCR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGCR6L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGCR8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGCR11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGKA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGKB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGKD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGKE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGKG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGKH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGKI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGKK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGKQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGKZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGKZP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGLUCY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGUOK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DGUOK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHCR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHCR7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHCR24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHCR24-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHDDS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHDDS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHFR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHFRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHFRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHFRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHFRP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHFRP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHODH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS4L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS4L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS7C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRS13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRSX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHRSX-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHTKD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX33-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX35-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX40P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DHX58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIABLO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIAPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIAPH1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIAPH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIAPH2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIAPH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIAPH3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIAPH3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DICER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DICER1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIDO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIMT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DINOL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIO2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIO3OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIP2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIP2A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIP2A-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIP2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIP2C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIP2C-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIP2C-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIPK1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIPK1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIPK1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIPK2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIPK2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIRAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIRAS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIRAS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIRC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIS3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIS3L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIS3L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIS3L2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DISC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DISC1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DISC1FP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DISC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DISP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DISP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DISP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DIXDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DKC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DKK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DKK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DKK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DKK2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DKK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DKK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DKKL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DKKL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLEC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLEC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLEU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLEU1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLEU2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLEU2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLEU7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLEU7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLG2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLG3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLG5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP1-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP1-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP1-AS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP1-AS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLGAP5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLSTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLX2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DLX6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DM1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMAC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMAC2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMBT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMBT1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMBX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMD-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMGDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMKN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMPK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMRT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMRT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMRT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMRTA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMRTA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMRTB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMRTC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMRTC1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMRTC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMTF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMTF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMWD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMXL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMXL1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DMXL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF4-CCPG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAAF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH5-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH8-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH10OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAH17-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAI4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAI7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJA4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB6P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB6P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB6P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB6P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJB14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC5G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC8P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC8P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC17P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC19P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC19P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC19P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC19P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC19P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC19P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC19P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC19P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC19P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC21-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC25-GNG10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC27-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAJC30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNAL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNALI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNASE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNASE1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNASE1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNASE1L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNASE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNASE2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DND1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DND1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNER | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNLZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM1P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM3-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNM3OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNMBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNMBP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNMT3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNMT3AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNMT3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNMT3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNMT3L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNPEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNPEP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNTT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNTTIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DNTTIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOC2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOC2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOC2GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK8-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK9-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOCK11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOHH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOLK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOLPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DONSON | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DONSONP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOP1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DORIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOT1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DOT1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPAGT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPEP2NB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPEP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPH1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPH3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPH3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPH5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPH6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPH7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP10-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPP10-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA3P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPPA5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPRX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPRXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPRXP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPRXP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPRXP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPRXP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPRXP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPRXP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY19L4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPY30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPYD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPYD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPYD-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPYD-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPYS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPYSL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPYSL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPYSL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DPYSL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DQX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRAIC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRAM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRAXIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRAXINP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC11L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRD5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRD5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRG1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRGX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRICH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DROSHA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSCAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSCAM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSCAM-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSCAML1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSCAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSCR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSCR4-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSCR8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSCR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSCR10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSEL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSEL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DST-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSTNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSTNP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSTNP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSTNP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSTNP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DSTYK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTHD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTNA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTNA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTNB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTNB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTNBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTNBP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTWD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTWD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTWD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTWD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTX2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTX2P1-UPK3BP1-PMS2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTX3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DTYMK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUBR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUOXA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUOXA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUS1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUS3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUS4L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUS4L-BCAP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP8P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP13A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUSP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUTP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUTP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUTP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUTP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUTP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUTP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX4L52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXAP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DUXB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DVL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DVL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DVL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DVL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DXO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNAPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNAPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNAPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNC1H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNC1I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNC1I2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNC1I2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNC1LI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNC1LI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNC1LI2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNC2H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNC2I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNC2I2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNC2LI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLL1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLL1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLL1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLL1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLL1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLL2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLRB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLT2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLT3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLT3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYNLT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYRK1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYRK1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYRK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYRK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYRK3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYRK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYSF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DYTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DZANK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DZIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DZIP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| DZIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F3-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E2F8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| E4F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EAF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EAF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EAPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBAG9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBAG9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBF3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBLN3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBNA1BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBVM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EBVS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECE1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECEL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECEL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECEL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECEL1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECHDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECHDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECHDC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECHS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECI1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECI2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECM1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECMXP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECPAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECRG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECSCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECSIT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ECT2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDA2R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDARADD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDDM3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDDM3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDDM3CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDDM3DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDDM13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDEM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDEM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDEM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDIL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDIL3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDNRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDNRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDNRB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDRF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EDRF1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EED | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A1P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1AKMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1AKMT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1AKMT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1AKMT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1AKMT4-ECE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1B2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1B2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1B2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1B2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1B2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1B2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1B2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1B2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1DP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1DP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1DP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1DP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1DP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1DP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1DP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1DP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1E1-BLOC1S5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1E1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1GP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1GP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1GP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1GP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1GP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1GP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1GP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF1GP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF2K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEF2KMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEFSEC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEIG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEIG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EEPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB13-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCAB15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFEMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFEMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFHC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFHC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFHD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFHD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFNA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFNA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFNA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFNA5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFNB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFNB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFR3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFR3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EFTUD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFEM1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFLAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFLAM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFLAM-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFLAM-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFLAM-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFLAM-AS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFLAM-AS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFLAM-AS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGFR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGILA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGLN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGLN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGLN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGLN3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGOT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGR3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EGR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHBP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHBP1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHD4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHHADH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHHADH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHMT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EHMT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EI24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EI24P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EI24P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EI24P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EI24P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EI24P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EI24P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EID1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EID2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EID2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EID3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1AD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1AX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1AX-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1AXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1AXP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1AY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2AK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2AK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2AK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2AK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2AK3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2AK3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2AK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2B5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2B5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF2S3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3CL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3EP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3EP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3EP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3EP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3FP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3FP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3FP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3IP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3J-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3JP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3JP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3JP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3KP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3KP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3KP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3LP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3LP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF3MP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4A3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4BP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4BP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4BP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4BP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4E1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4E2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4E2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4E3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EBP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EBP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EBP2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EBP2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4ENIF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4EP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4G3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4HP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF4HP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5AL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIPR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EIPR1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELANE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELAPOR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELAPOR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELAVL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELAVL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELAVL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELAVL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELAVL4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELDR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELF2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELF2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELF2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELF3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELFN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELFN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELFN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELFN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELK2AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELK2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELL2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELL2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELL2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELMO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELMO1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELMO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELMO2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELMO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELMOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELMOD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELMOD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOA3BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOA3CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOA3DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOA3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOCP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOVL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOVL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOVL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOVL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOVL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOVL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOVL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOVL6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELOVL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELP4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ELSPBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMC3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMCN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EME1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EME2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMICERI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMID1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMILIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMILIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMILIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EML1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EML2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EML2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EML3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EML4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EML4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EML5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EML6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EML6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMSLR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMSY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMSY-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EMX2OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EN2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENAH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENAHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENAM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENDOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENDOG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENDOU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENDOV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENEMAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENGASE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENHO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENHO-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENKD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENKUR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENO1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENO1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENO1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENO1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENO1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENOPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENOPH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENOSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENOX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENOX1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENOX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPEPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENPP7P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENSA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENSAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENSAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENSAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTPD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTPD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTPD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTPD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTPD4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTPD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTPD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTPD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTPD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTR1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTREP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTREP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENTREP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ENY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EOGT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EOGT-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EOLA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EOLA1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EOLA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EOLA2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EOMES | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EP300 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EP300-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EP400 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EP400P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L4A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L4A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L4A-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L4A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB41L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPB42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPC1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPCAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPCAM-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPCART | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPCIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPCIP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPDR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA5-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPHX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPIC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPIST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPM2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPM2A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPM2AIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPN2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPOP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPPIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPPIN-WFDC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPPK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPRS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPS8L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPS8L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPS8L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPS15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPS15-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPS15L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPS15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPSTI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EPYC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EQTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERAP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERBB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERBB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERBB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERBIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERBIN-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERC2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERCC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERCC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERCC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERCC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERCC6L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERCC6L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERCC6L2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERCC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERCC8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERDA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EREG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EREG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERFE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERFL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERG28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERGIC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERGIC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERGIC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERI3-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERICD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERICH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERICH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERICH2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERICH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERICH3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERICH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERICH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERICH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERICH6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERICH6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERLEC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERLEC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERLIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERLIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERLNC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERMAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERMARD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERMN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERO1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERO1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERP29P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERRFI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERRFI1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERV3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERV3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERV9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERV18-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVE-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVE-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVE-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVE-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVE-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVFC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVFH21-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVFRD-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVFRD-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVFRD-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVH-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVH-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVH-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVH-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVH-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVH-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVH-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVH-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVH-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVH-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVH48-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVI-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK-32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK3-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK3-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK3-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK3-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK3-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK3-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK9-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVK13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVMER34-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVMER61-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVPABLB-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVS71-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVS71-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVV-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVV-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ERVW-29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESAM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESCO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESCO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESPNL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESPNP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESRG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESRRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESRRAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESRRAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESRRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESRRG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESYT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESYT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ESYT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETAA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETDB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETF1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETFA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETFB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETFBKMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETFDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETFRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETFRF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETHE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETNK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETNK1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETNK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETNPPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETV2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETV3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETV3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETV4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETV5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETV5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETV6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETV7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ETV7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EUDAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVA1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVA1A-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVA1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVA1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVA1CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVA1CP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVA1CP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVA1CP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVA1CP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVA1CP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVI2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVI2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVI5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVI5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVPLL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVX1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EVX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EWSAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EWSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EWSR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EWSR1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXO5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXO5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC3L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC3L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC3L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXOSC10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXPH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXTL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXTL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXTL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EXTL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EYA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EYA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EYA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EYA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EYA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EYA4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EYS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EZH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EZH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EZH2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EZHIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EZR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EZR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| EZRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F2R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F2R-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F2RL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F2RL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F2RL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F8A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F8A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F8A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F10-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F11R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F13A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| F13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FA2H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAAH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAAH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAAHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAAP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAAP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAAP100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP5P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FABP12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FADD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FADS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FADS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FADS2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FADS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FADS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAHD2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAHD2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAHD2CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAHD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAIM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FALEC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM3C2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM3D-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM8A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM8A2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM8A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM8A4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM8A5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM8A6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM8A7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM8A9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM8A10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM9C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM9CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM13A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM13A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM13B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM13C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM20A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM20B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM20BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM20C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM24A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM24B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM25A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM25BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM25C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM25EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM25G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM27B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM27C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM27D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM27E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM27E3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM27E4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM27E5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM30A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM30B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM30C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM32A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM32BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM32CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM32DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM32EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM41AY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM41AY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM41C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM43A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM43B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM47A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM47B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM47C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM47DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM47E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM47E-STBD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM50A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM50B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM53A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM53B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM53B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM53C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM66A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM66B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM66C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM66D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM66E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM72A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM72B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM72C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM72D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM74A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM74A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM74A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM74A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM74A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM76A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM76AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM76B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM78A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM78B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM78B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM81A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM81B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM81B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM83A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM83A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM83A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM83B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM83C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM83C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM83D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM83E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM83F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM83G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM83H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM85A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM85B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86B2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86B3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86C1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86C2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86JP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86KP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM86MP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM87A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM87B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM88B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM88C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM88D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM88E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM88F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM89A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM89B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM90A28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM91A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM91A2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM91A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM91A4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM95A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM95B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM95C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM98A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM98B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM98BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM98C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM99A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM99B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM106A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM106B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM106C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM106DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM107A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM107B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM110A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM110B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM110C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM110D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM111A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM111A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM111B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM114A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM114A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM117A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM117B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM118A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM118B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM120A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM120A2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM120AOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM120B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM120C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM124A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM124B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM131A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM131B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM131B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM131B-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM131C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM131C2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM133A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM133B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM133CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM133DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM133EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM133FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM133GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM133HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM135A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM135A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM135B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM138A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM138B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM138C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM138D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM138E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM138F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM149A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM149B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM149B1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM151A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM151AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM151B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM151B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM153A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM153B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM153CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM153DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM156A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM156B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM157A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM157B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM157C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM157D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM161A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM161B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM162A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM162B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM163A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM163B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM167A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM167A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM167B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM168A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM168A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM168B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM169A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM169A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM169BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM170A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM170B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM170B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM171A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM171A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM171A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM171B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM171B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM174A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM174A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM174B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM174C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM177A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM177A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM177B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM178B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM180A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM180B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM181A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM181A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM181B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM182A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM182B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM184A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM184B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM185A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM185BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM186A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM186B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM187A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM187B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM187B2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM193A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM193B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM193B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM197Y2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM197Y3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM197Y4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM197Y5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM197Y6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM197Y7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM197Y8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM197Y9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM199X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM199YP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM200A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM200B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM200C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM201A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM201B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM204A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM204BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM204CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM204DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM209A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM209B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM215A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM215B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM216A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM216B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM217A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM217AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM217B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM218A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM218BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM219A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM219B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM220A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM220BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM220CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM221A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM221B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM222A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM222A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM222B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM223A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM223B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM224A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM224B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM225A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM225B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM226A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM226B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM227A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM227B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM228A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM228B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM229A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM229B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM230A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM230B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM230C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM230D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM230E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM230F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM230G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM230H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM230I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM230J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM234A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM234B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM236A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM236B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM236C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM236D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM237A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM237B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM238A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM238B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM238C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM239A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM239B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM239C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM240A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM240B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM240C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM241A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM241B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM242A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM242B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM242C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM242D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM242E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM242F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM245A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM245B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM246A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM246B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM246C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM247A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM247B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM247C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAM247D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCD2OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCD2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANCM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FANK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAR1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAR2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAR2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAR2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAR2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAR2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FARP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FARP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FARP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FARS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FARSA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FARSA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FARSB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FARSBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FASLG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FASN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FASTK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FASTKD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FASTKD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FASTKD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FASTKD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FATE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAUP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAUP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAUP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAUP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAXC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FAXDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBLIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBLIM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBLIM1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBLL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBLN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBLN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBN1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBRS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBRSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBRSL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL7-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL17-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL19-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXL22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO16-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO34-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO36-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO36P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO38-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXO48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FBXW12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCAMR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCER1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCER1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCF1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCGBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCGR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCGR1BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCGR1CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCGR2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCGR2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCGR2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCGR3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCGR3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCGRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCHO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCHO1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCHO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCHO2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCHSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCHSD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCMR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCRL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCRL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCRL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCRL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCRL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCRL4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCRL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCRL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCRL6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCRLA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCRLB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FCSK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDCSP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDFT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDPSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDPSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDPSP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDPSP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDPSP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDPSP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDPSP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDPSP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDPSP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDPSP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDX1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDX1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDX2-ZGLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDXACB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FDXR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FECH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FECHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEM1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEM1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEM1AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEM1AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEM1AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEM1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEM1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FENDRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FER | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FER-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FER-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FER1L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FER1L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FER1L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FER1L6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FER1L6-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FERD3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FERMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FERMT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FERMT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FERP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FERRISR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FERRY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FES | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FETUB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEZ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEZF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEZF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FEZF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FFAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FFAR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FFAR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FFAR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGD5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGD5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF7P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF7P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF7P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF7P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF7P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF7P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF12-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF12-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF13-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF14-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF14-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGF23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFBP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR1OP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR1OP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGFRL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGGY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGGY-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FGR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHAD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHDC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHIP1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHIP1A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHIP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHIP2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHIP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHIT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHOD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIBCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIBCD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIBIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FICD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIGLA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIGLAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIGNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIGNL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIGNL2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FILIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FILIP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FILIP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FILNC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIP1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIP1L1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIRRE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIRRM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FITM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FITM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FIZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FJX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP1A-SDCBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP1AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP1AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP1AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP4P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP4P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP4P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKBPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FKTN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLACC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLICR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLII | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLNA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLNB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLNB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLNC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLNC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLOT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLOT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLRT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLRT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLRT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLRT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLT3LG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLVCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLVCR1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLVCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLVCR2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLYWCH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLYWCH1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLYWCH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FLYWCH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMC1-LUC7L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMNL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMNL1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMNL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMNL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMO11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMOD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMR1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FMR1NB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FN1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FN3K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FN3KRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNBP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNBP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC3CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNDC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNTA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNTAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNTAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FNTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOCAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOCAD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOLH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOLH1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOLR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOLR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOLR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOLR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOLR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOLR3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOSB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOSL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOSL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOSL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXCUT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD4L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD4L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD4L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD4L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXD4L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXF2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXJ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXJ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXL2NB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXL3-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXN3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXN3-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXN3-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXN3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXN3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXO1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXO3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXO6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXO6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXP1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXP4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXQ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXRED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXRED2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FOXS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FPASL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FPGS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FPGT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FPGT-TNNI3K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FPR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FPR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FPR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA1M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA2E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA2F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA2G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA2H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA2I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA2J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA2K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA5D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA5E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA5F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA5G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA6C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA6D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA6E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA6F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA6G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA7C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA7D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA7E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA7F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA7G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA7H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA7I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA7J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA8C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA8D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA8E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA9C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA9D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA9E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA9F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA10AC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA10C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA10D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA10E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA10F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA10G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA11C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA11D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA11E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA11F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA11G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA11H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA11I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA12C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA12D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA12E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA13A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA13C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA13D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA14B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA14C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA15A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA16A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA16B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA16C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA16D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA16E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA17A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA17B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA18A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA18B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA18C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA19A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA19B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA20A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA20B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA22A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRA22B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRAS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRAXA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRAXB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRAXC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRAXD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRAXE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FREM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FREM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FREM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FREM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FREY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG1BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG1CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG1DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG1EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG1FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG1GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG1HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG1JP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG1KP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2JP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2KP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRG2MP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRGCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD4A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD4A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD4A-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD6-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMD8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMPD2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMPD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMPD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMPD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRMPD4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRRS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRRS1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRY-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRYL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRYL-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FRZB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSCB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSCN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSCN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSCN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSD1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSHR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSIP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSIP2LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSTL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSTL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSTL4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSTL4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSTL4-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSTL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FSTL5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTCD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTCDNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTH1P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTHL17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTHL18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTLP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTMT-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTO-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTOP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTSJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTSJ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FTX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUCA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUCA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUCA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUNDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUNDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUNDC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUNDC2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUNDC2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUNDC2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUOM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FURIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUT8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUT9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FUZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXNP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD6-FXYD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FXYD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FYB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FYB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FYCO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FYN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FYTTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FYTTD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZD10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| FZR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G2E3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G2E3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G2E3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G3BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G3BP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G3BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G6PC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G6PC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G6PC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G6PD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G6PR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABARAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABARAPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABARAPL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABARAPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABARAPL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABBR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABBR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABPAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABPB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABPB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABPB1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABPB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRA3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRA4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRA6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRG3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRG3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GABRR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GACAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GACAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GACAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAD3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GADD45A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GADD45AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GADD45B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GADD45G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GADD45GIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GADL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE2E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE12C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE12D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE12E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE12F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE12G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE12H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE12I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE12J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAGE13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAL3ST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAL3ST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAL3ST2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAL3ST3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAL3ST4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT13-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT16-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNT18-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNTL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNTL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNTL6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNTL6-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALNTL6-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GALT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAMTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAMTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GANAB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GANC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDH-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHP77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPDHS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPLINC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAPVD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAR1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAREM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAREM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARIN1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARIN1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARIN3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARIN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARIN5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARIN5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARIN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARNL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARRE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARS1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GARS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GART | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS1RR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS2L1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS2L1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS2L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS2L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAS8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GASAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GASK1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GASK1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GASK1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATA3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATA6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATA6-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATAD2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATAD2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATD1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GATM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GAU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBA1LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBA3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBGT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GBX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCASPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCATP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCAWKR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCFC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCGR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCHFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCKR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCLC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCLC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCLM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNT1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNT1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCNT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCOM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCSAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCSAML | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCSAML-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCSH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCSHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCSHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCSHP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCSHP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCSHP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCSHP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GCSIR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDAP1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDF5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDF15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDI2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDI2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDNF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDNF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDPD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDPD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDPD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GDPGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN8P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEMIN8P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GEN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GET1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GET1-SH3BGR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GET1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GET3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GET4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GET4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFER | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFI1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFOD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFOD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFOD3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFPT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFRA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFRA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFRA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFRA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFRAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFUS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GFY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGACT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGCT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGCTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGCTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGCTP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGCX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGNBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGNBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGPS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGT2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGT3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGT4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGT8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGTA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGTA2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGTLC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGTLC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGTLC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGTLC4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GGTLC5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GHDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GHET1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GHITM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GHR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GHRH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GHRHR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GHRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GHRLOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GHSR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GID4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GID8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIGYF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIGYF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIHCG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIMAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIMAP1-GIMAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIMAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIMAP3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIMAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIMAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIMAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIMAP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIMAP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GINM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GINS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GINS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GINS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GINS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIPC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIPC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIRGL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GIT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJA6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJD2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJD4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GJE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GK-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GK4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GK6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GKAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GKN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GKN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GKN3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLB1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLB1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLB1L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLCCI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLCCI1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLDCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLI4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIDR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIPR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIPR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIPR1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIPR1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIPR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIS3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLIS3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLMN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLOD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLOD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLP1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLP2R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRX3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRX3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRX5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRX5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRX5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRXP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLRXP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLT1D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLT6D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLT8D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLT8D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLTC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLTP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLTPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLTPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLUD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLUD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLUD1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLUD1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLUD1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLUD1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLUD1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLUD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLUL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLULP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLULP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLULP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLULP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLULP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLULP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYATL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYATL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYATL1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYATL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYATL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYATL1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYATL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYATL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYCAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYCTK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYCTK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GLYR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GM2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GM2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GM2AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMCL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMDS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMDS-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMEB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMEB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMFB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMFBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMFG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GML | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMNC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMNN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMPPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMPPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMPR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GMPSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNA13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNA14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNA14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNA15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNA15-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAI2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAI2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAO1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAQP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNAZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNB1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNB1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG5P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNG14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNGT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNGT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNL3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNL3LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNLY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNPAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNPATP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNPDA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNPDA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNPNAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNPNAT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNPNAT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNPNAT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNPTAB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNPTG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNRH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNRH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNRHR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNRHR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNRHR2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GNS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2P2Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2P3Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA6L26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA7B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8N | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8O | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8Q | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8S | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8T | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8UP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGA8VP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLGB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLIM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLM2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLPH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLPH3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLPH3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLT1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOLT1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GON4L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GON7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GORAB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GORAB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GORASP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GORASP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOSR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOSR2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOT1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOT1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOT2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOT2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOT2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOT2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOT2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GOT2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GP1BA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GP1BB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GP6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPA33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPA33-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPAA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPAA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPAA1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPALPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPANK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPAT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPAT2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPAT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPAT4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPATCH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPATCH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPATCH2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPATCH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPATCH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPATCH8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPATCH11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPATCH11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPBAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPBP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPBP1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC5-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC5-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPC6-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPCPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPCPD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPD1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPHA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPHB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPHN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPIHBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPKOW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPLD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPM6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPM6A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPM6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPM6BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPM6BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPM6BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPN3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPNMB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR15LG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR32P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR37L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR50-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR53P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR55-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR75-ASB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR84-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR89A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR89B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR89P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR137 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR137B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR137C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR139 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR141BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR142 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR143YP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR146 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR148 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR149 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR150 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR151 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR153 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR155 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR155-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR156 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR158 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR158-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR160P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR160P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR161 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR162 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR165P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR166P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR171 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR173 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR174 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR176 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR176-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR179 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR183 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPR199P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRACR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRASP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRASP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRASP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRASP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRC5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRC5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRC5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRC5D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRC5D-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRC6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPRIN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPS2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPSM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPSM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPSM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPX1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPX1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPX7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GPX8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD4P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD4P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAMD4P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRAPL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRASLND | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRB14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GREB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GREB1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GREB1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GREB1L-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GREM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GREM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GREM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GREP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRHL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRHL2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRHL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRHL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRHPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRID1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRID1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRID1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRID2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRID2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRID2IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIFIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIK1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIK1-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIN2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIN2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIN2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIN2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIN3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIN3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRINA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRIPAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK5-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM7-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM7-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRM8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRPEL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRPEL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRPEL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRPEL1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRPEL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRPEL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRPEL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRPEL2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRPEL2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRSF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRTP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRWD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRXCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GRXCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| G0S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSC-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSCAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSDMA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSDMB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSDMC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSDMD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSDME | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSE1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSEC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSG1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSG1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSK3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSK3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSK3B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSKIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSPT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTA12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTCD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTM2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTM3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTM3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTM5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTO3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTT2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTT3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSTZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GSX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2A1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2F2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2F2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2H2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2H2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2H2C_2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2H3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2H4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2H5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2I-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IRD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IRD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IRD2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF2IRD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3C2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3C2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3C4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3C5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3C6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3C6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3C6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTF3C6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTPBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTPBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTPBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTPBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTPBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTPBP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTPBP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTSCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTSE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTSE1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTSF1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GTSF2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCA1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCA1ANB-GUCA1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCA1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCA1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCA2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCA2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCY1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCY1A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCY1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCY1B1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCY1B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCY2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCY2C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCY2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCY2EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCY2F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUCY2GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GULOP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GULP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GUSBP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GVINP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GVINP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GVQW3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GXYLT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GXYLT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GXYLT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GXYLT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GXYLT1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GXYLT1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GXYLT1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GXYLT1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GXYLT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYG1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYG1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYG2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYG2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYPE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GYS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GZF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GZMA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GZMAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GZMB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GZMH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GZMH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GZMK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GZMK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| GZMM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-0 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H1-12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AC25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2ACP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2ACP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AL1MP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AL1Q | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AQ1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZ1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZ2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZ2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2AZP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC12L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BC27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BL1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BW1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BW2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BW3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H2BW4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3-3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3-3A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3-3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3C15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3Y1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3Y2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H3Y2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4C16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H6PD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| H19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAAO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HABP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HABP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HACD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HACD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HACD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HACD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HACE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HACL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HACL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HADH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HADHA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HADHAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HADHAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HADHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HADHBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAFML | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAGH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAGHL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAGLR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAGLROS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAND2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAND2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAO2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAPLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAPLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAPLN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAPLN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAPSTR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAPSTR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAPSTR2-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HARBI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HASPIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAUS8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAVCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAVCR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAVCR1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAVCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HAX1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBEGF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBQ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBS1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HBZP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCAR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCAR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCCAT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCCS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCCS-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCFC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCFC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCFC1R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCFC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCFC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG4P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG4P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG4P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG4P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG9P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG9P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCG27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCLS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCN4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCP5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCRTR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCRTR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HCST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC4-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDAC11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDDC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDGF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDGFL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDGFL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDGFL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDGFL3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDGFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDHD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDHD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDHD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDHD5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDLBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDLBP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HDX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEATR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEATR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEATR3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEATR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEATR5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEATR5A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEATR5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEATR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEATR6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEATR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEBP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HECA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HECTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HECTD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HECTD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HECTD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HECTD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HECW1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HECW1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HECW2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HECW2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEIH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HELB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HELLPAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HELLS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HELQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HELT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HELZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HELZ-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HELZ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEMGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEMK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEMK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HENMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEPACAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEPACAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEPFAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEPHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEPN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERC6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERPUD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERPUD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HERPUD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HES1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HES2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HES3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HES4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HES5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HES6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HES7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HESX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEXA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEXA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEXB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEXB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEXD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEXD-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEXIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEXIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEXIM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEXIM2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEY2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HEYL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HFE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HFE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HFM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HGD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HGF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HGFAC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HGH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HGS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HGSNAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HHAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HHATL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HHATL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HHEX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HHIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HHIP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HHIPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HHIPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HHLA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HHLA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIBADH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIBCH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HID1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HID1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIF1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIF1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIF1A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIF1AN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIF1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIF3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1AP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD2AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIGD2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIKESHI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIKESHIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIKESHIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIKESHIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HILPDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HILPDA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HINFP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HINT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HINT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HINT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HINT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HINT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HINT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIP1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIPK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIPK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIPK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIPK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIPK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIRAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIRIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HISLA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIVEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIVEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIVEP2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HIVEP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HJURP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HJV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HK2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HK2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HKDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DMA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DMB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DOA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DOB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DPA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DPB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DPB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DQA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DQA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DQA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DQB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DQB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DQB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DQB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DRB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DRB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DRB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DRB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DRB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DRB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-DRB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-F-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-N | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-S | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-T | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-U | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-V | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-W | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLA-Z | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLCS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLCS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLCS-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLMR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLTF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLTF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HLX-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HM13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HM13-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMBOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMBOX1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMBS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMCES | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMCN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMG20A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMG20B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGA2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB1P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB3P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGCL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGCLL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGCS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGCS1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGCS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN1P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN2P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGXB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMGXB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMHB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMMR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMMR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMSD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HMX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNF1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNF1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNF4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNF4A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNF4G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNF4GP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA0 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA1P77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA2B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPA3P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPAB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPABP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPCP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPD-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPDL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPDLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPDLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPDLP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPDLP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPDLP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPDP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPH1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPH1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPH3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPKP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPKP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPKP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPKP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPLL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPLL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPUL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPUL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPUL2-BSCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HNRNPUP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOATZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOGA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOMER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOMER1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOMER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOMER2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOMER2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOMER3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOMER3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOMEZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOOK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOOK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOOK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOPX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOPX-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HORMAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HORMAD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HORMAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HORMAD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOTAIR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOTAIRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOTTIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA10-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA10-HOXA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA11-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXA@ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXB@ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC13-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXC@ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXD-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXD12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXD13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HOXD@ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HP1BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPCAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPCAL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPDL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPF1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPGD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPGD-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPGDS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPRT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPRT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPRT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPRT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPSE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPSE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPSE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPV6AI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPV18I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPV18I2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HPYR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRCT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRDAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRES1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRGP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRNR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HROB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HRURF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS1BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS1BP3-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS2ST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS3ST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS3ST1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS3ST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS3ST3A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS3ST3B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS3ST4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS3ST5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS3ST6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS6ST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS6ST1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS6ST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS6ST2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HS6ST3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSALR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSBP1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSBP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSCB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD3B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD3B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD3B7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD3BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD3BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD3BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD3BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD3BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD11B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD11B1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD11B1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD11B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B12P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSD17B14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSDL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSDL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSDL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSF2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFY1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFY3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFY4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFY5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFY6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFY7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSFY8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSH2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSH2D-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AA2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AA3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AA4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AA5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AA6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AB2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AB3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AB4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AB5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AB6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90AB7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90B2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSP90B3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA4L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA8P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA12A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPA14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPB1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPB2-C11orf52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPB8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPBAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPBAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPD1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1-MOB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPE1P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HSPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTATIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTATSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTATSF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTATSF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR1DP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR2A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR3C2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR3E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR3E-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR5A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR5BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTR7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTRA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTRA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTRA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTRA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTRA3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTRA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HTT-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HULC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HUNK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HUNK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HUPCOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HUS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HUS1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HUWE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HVBS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HVBS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HVCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYAL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYAL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYAL6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYDIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYDIN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYDIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYDINP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYI-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYKK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYLS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYMAI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYOU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYOU1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| HYPK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IADEN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IAH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IAPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IARS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IATPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IBA57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IBA57-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IBSP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IBTK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IBTKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICA1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICAM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICAM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICAM4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICAM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICE1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICE2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICE2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICMT-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ICOSLG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ID1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ID2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ID2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ID2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ID3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ID4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDH1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDH2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDH3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDH3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDH3B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDH3G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDI1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDI1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDI1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDI2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDNK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IDUA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IER2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IER3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IER3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IER3IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IER5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IER5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IER5L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFFO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFFO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFI6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFI16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFI27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFI27L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFI27L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFI30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFI35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFI44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFI44L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFIH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFIT1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFIT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFIT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFIT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFIT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFIT6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFITM10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNA22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNAR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNGR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNGR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNL3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNL4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNLR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNNP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNW1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNWP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNWP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNWP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNWP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNWP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNWP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFNWP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFRD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT57P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT70A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT70A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT70B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT74-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT122P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT122P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT122P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFT172 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IFTAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGBP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGBP1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGBP1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGBP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGBP1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGBP1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGDCC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGDCC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF1R-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2BP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2BP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2BP2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2BP2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2BP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2BP3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGF2R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFALS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFBP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFBP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFBP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFBP7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFBPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFLR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGFN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD1-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD1-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD1-20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD1-26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD1OR15-1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD1OR15-1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD2-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD2-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD2-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD2OR15-2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD2OR15-2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD3-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD3-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD3-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD3-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD3-22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD3OR15-3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD3OR15-3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD4-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD4-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD4-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD4-23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD4OR15-4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD4OR15-4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD5-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD5-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD5-18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD5-24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD5OR15-5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD5OR15-5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD6-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD6-13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD6-19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD6-25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHD7-27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHGP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHJ1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHJ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHJ2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHJ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHJ3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHJ4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHJ5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHJ6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHMBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-38-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-69-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1-69D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR15-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR15-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR15-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR15-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR15-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR15-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR16-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR16-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR16-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV1OR21-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV2-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV2-26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV2-70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV2-70D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV2OR16-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-30-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-30-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-30-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-33-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-38-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-43D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-64D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-69-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3-79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR15-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV3OR16-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-30-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-30-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-30-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-38-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4-80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV4OR15-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV5-10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV5-51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV5-78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV7-4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV7-27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV7-34-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV7-40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV7-56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV7-81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHV8-51-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-20-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-22-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-26-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-28-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-30-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-30-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-31-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-33-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-40-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-43-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-44-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-46-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-49-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-51-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-53-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-60-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-62-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-65-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-67-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-74-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVII-78-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-5-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-22-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-25-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-26-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-38-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-47-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-67-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-67-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-67-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-76-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIII-82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGHVIV-44-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKDEL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKJ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKJ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKJ4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKJ5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1-39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1D-43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR2-0 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR2-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR2-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR2-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR2-108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR2-118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR15-118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR22-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1OR22-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV1ORY-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2-40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2D-40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2OR2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2OR2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2OR2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2OR2-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2OR2-7D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2OR2-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2OR2-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2OR22-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV2OR22-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3-20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3-25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3-31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3-34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3D-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3D-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3D-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3D-20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3D-25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3D-31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3D-34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3OR2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3OR2-268 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV3OR22-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV5-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV6-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV6D-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV6D-41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGKV7-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLCOR22-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLCOR22-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLJ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLJ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLJ4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLJ5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLJ6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLJ7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLJCOR18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLL2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLL3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLL4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLON5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV1-36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV1-40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV1-41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV1-44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV1-47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV1-50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV1-51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV1-62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV2-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV2-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV2-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV2-18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV2-23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV2-28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV2-33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV2-34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV3-32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV4-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV4-60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV4-69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV5-37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV5-39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV5-45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV5-48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV5-52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV6-57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV7-35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV7-43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV7-46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV8-61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV8OR8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV9-49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV10-54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV10-67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLV11-55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVI-20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVI-38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVI-42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVI-56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVI-63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVI-68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVI-70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVIV-53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVIV-59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVIV-64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVIV-65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVIV-66-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVIVOR22-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVIVOR22-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVV-58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVV-66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVVI-22-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVVI-25-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGLVVII-41-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF21-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF22-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IGSF23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IHH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IHO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKBIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKBKB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKBKB-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKBKE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKBKE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKBKG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKBKGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKZF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKZF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKZF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKZF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IKZF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1F10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1R1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1RAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1RAPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1RAPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1RL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1RL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL1RN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL2RA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL2RA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL2RB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL2RB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL2RG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL3RA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL4I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL4R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL5RA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL6R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL6R-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL6RP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL6ST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL6ST-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL6STP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL7R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL7R-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL9R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL9RP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL9RP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL9RP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL9RP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL9RP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL9RP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL10RA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL10RB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL10RB-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL11RA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL12A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL12B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL12RB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL12RB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL13RA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL13RA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL15RA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL17A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL17B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL17C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL17D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL17F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL17RA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL17RB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL17RC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL17RD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL17RE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL17REL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL18BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL18R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL18RAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL20RA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL20RB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL20RB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL21-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL21R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL21R-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL22RA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL22RA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL23A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL23R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL27RA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL31RA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL36A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL36B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL36G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL36RN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IL37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILDR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILDR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILF3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILKAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILRUN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILRUN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILRUNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ILVBL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMMP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMMP1LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMMP1LP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMMP1LP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMMP2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMMTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMP3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPACT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPDH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IMPG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INAFM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INAFM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INAVA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INAVAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INCA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INCENP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ING1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ING2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ING2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ING3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ING4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ING5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ING5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INGX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INHA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INHBA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INHBA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INHBB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INHBC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INHBE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INHCAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INKA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INKA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INKA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INKILN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INMT-MINDY4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INO80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INO80-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INO80B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INO80B-WBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INO80C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INO80D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INO80D-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INO80E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP4B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP4B-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP5B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP5D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP5E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP5F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP5J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPP5K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INPPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INS-IGF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSIG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSIG1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSIG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSYN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSYN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSYN2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INSYN2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS6L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS6L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTS15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INTU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| INVS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IP6K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IP6K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IP6K3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPAN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPCEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPMK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPMKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPO13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPPK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPPKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IPW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQANK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCB2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCF4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCF5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCJ-SCHIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCJ-SCHIP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQGAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQGAP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQGAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQSEC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQSEC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQSEC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQSEC3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQSEC3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQSEC3-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQSEC3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQSEC3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQSEC3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IQUB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRAG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRAG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRAIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRAK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRAK1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRAK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRAK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRAK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IREB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF2BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF2BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF2BPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRGC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRGM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRGQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRS3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRS4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IRX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCA1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCA1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCA1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCA1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCA1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCA1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISCUP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISG15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISG20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISG20L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISG20L2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISG20L2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISL1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISLR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISLR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISOC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISOC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISOC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISY1-RAB43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISYNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ISYNA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITCH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITCH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITCH-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITFG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITFG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITFG1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITFG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITFG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGAE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGAE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGAEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGAL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGAV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGAX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB1BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB3BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGB8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITGBL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITIH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITIH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITIH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITIH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITIH4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITIH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITIH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITM2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITM2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITM2BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITM2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPKA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPKB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPKB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPKB-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPKC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPR1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPR2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPR3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPRID1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPRID2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPRID2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPRIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPRIP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPRIPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPRIPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITPRIPL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITSN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITSN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ITSN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IUR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IVD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IVL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IVNS1ABP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IWS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IYD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IZUMO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IZUMO1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IZUMO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IZUMO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| IZUMO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JADE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JADE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JADE2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JADE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JADRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAGN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAKMIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAKMIP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAKMIP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAKMIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAKMIP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAKMIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAKMIP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAML | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JARID2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JARID2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JARID2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAZF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JAZF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JCAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JCADP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JCHAIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JCHAINP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JDP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JDP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JHY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JKAMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JKAMPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JMJD1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JMJD1C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JMJD1C-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JMJD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JMJD4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JMJD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JMJD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JMJD7-PLA2G4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JMJD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JMY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JOSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JOSD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JPH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JPH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JPH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JPT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JPT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JPX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JRK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JRKL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JRKL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JSRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JTB-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JTBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JUN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JUN-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JUNB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JUND | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| JUP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KALRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANSL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANSL1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANSL1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANSL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANSL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KANTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KARS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KARS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KARS1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KASH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAT2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAT2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAT6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAT6A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAT6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAT7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAT14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNBL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNBL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNBL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNBL1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNBL1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNBL1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNBL1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KATNIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAZALD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAZALD1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAZN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KAZN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD11-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KBTBD13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCMF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNA6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNAB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNAB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNAB1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNAB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNAB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNC4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCND2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCND3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCND3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCND3-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNE5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNH1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNH7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNH7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNH8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP1-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP4-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNIP4-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNJ18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK4-CATSPERZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK15-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNK18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNMA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNMA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNMA1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNMA1-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNMB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNMB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNMB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNMB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNMB3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNMB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ1DN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ1OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNQ5-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNRG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCNV2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD9P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD9P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD9P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD9P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD13-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD14-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KCTD21-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDELR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDELR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDELR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM2B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM3AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM4A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM4E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM4F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM5C-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM5D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM5D-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM5DP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM7A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDNBY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDSR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KDSR-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KEAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KEL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KERA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KGD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHDC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHDC1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHDC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHDC3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHDC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHDRBS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHDRBS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHDRBS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHNYN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHSRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KHSRPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA0040 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA0087 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA0232 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA0319 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA0319L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA0408 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA0513 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA0586 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA0753 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA0825 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA0930 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1143P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1143P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1191 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1191-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1191P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1191P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1191P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1217 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1328 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1328P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1549 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1549L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1586 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1586P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1614 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1614-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1671 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1671-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1755 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA1958 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA2012 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA2012-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA2013 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIAA2013P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KICS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIDINS220 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF1C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF3A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF3AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF4CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF5C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF13A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF16B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF18A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF18B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF18B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF18BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF19BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF20A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF20B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF21A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF21B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF23-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF25-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF26A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF26A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF26B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF26B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF26B-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF26B-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIF28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIFAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIFAP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIFBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIFC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIFC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIFC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KILH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DL5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DL5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR2DS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR3DL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR3DL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR3DL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR3DP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR3DS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIR3DX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIRREL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIRREL1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIRREL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIRREL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIRREL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIRREL3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIRREL3-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIRREL3-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KISS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KISS1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KITLG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KIZ-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLC2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLC4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF7-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF9-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF11-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF16-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF17P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF17P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLF18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHDC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHDC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHDC7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHDC7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHDC7B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHDC8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHDC8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHDC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHDC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL25P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL30-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLHL42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLK15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLKB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRA1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRC4-KLRK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KLRK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT2CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT2CP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT2CP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT2CP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT2CP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT2E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT2E-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT5AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT5AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT5AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KMT5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNOP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNOP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNOP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNOP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNOP1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNOP1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNSTRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KNTC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPLCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNA2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNA2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNA4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNB1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPNB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KPTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRABD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRABD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRABD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRABD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRABD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRABD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRABD5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRASP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KREMEN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KREMEN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT6C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT7-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT8P52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT16P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT16P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT16P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT16P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT16P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT16P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT17P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT17P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT17P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT17P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT17P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT17P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT17P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT17P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT18P68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT19P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT19P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT19P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT19P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT19P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT33A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT33B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT42P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT73-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT83-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT84-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT86-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT86-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT87P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT88P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT89P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT90P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT125P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT126P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT127P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT128P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT222 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT223P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRT224P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP2-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP3-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP3-4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP4-17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP6-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP6-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP8-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP8-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP9-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP9-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP9-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP9-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP9-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP9-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP9-10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP9-11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP9-12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP10-13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP12-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP12-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP12-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP12-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP13-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP13-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP13-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP13-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP13-6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP17-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP19-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP19-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP19-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP19-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP19-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP19-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP19-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP19-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP19-9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP19-10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP19-11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP20-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP20-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP20-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP20-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP21-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP21-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP21-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP21-4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP22-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP22-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP23-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP24-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP25-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP26-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP27-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTAP29-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTCAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTCAP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTCAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KRTDAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KSR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KSR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KTI12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KTN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KXD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KXD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KYAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KYAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KYNU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KYNUP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KYNUP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| KYNUP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L1CAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L1CAM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L1TD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L1TD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L2HGDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L3HYPDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L3MBTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L3MBTL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L3MBTL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L3MBTL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L3MBTL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| L3MBTL4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LACC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LACRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LACTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LACTB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LACTB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LACTBL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAGE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAGE3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAIR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAIR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LALBA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LALTOP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMA4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMA5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMP5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMTOR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMTOR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMTOR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMTOR3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMTOR3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMTOR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMTOR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMTOR5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAMTOR5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LANCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LANCL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LANCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LANCL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAP3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAPTM4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAPTM4A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAPTM4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAPTM4BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAPTM4BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAPTM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARGE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARGE-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARGE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARGE1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARGE1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARGE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP1BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP1BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP4B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP7P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARP7P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARRPM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LARS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAS1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LASP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LASP1NB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LASTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LATS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LATS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LATS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LAYN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LBH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LBHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LBHD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LBR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LBX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LBX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LBX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LBX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCA5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCDR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE3E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCE7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCEP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCEP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCIIAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCLAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCMT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCMT1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCMT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCMT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCN8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCN9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCN10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCN12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCN15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCORL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCORLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LCTL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDAH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDC1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAL6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAL6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAL6CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAL6DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAL6EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAL6FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHAP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDHD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDLR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDLR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDLRAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDLRAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDLRAD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDLRAD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDLRAD4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDLRAD4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDLRAD4-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDLRAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LDOC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LECT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEFTY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEFTY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEFTY3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEISA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEKR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LELP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEMD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEMD1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEMD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEMD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LENEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LENG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LENG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LENG8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LENG9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEPROT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEPROTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LERFS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LETM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LETM1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LETM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LETM1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LETM1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LETM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LETMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LETR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LEUTX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LFNG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS3BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS9C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS9DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALS16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALSL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGALSL-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGI2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGI4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGMN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGMNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGR4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGSN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LGTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHCGR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHFPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHFPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHFPL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHFPL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHFPL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHFPL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHFPL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHFPL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LHX9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIF-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIFR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LILRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMASI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMCH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMCH1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMCH1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIME1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMK2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIMS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN7C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN28A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN28AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN28AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN28AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN28B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN28B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIN54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC-ADAIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC-PINT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC-ROR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00028 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00029 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00051 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00052 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00092 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00102 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00106 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00158 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00159 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00161 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00165 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00173 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00174 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00184 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00189 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00200 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00205 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00207 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00208 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00216 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00221 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00222 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00226 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00229 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00235 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00237 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00239 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00240 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00242 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00243 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00244 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00251 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00254 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00260 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00261 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00265 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00265-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00265-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00268-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00269 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00272 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00273 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00278 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00279 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00280 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00290 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00293 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00294 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00297 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00299 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00301 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00302 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00303 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00304 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00305 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00307 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00308 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00309 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00310 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00311 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00312 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00313 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00314 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00315 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00316 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00317 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00319 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00320 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00322 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00323 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00324 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00326 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00327 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00328 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00328-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00330 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00331 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00332 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00333 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00334 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00336 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00339 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00342 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00343 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00345 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00347 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00348 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00349 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00351 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00352 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00353 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00354 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00355 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00358 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00359 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00362 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00363 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00364 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00365 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00366 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00367 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00368 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00370 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00373 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00374 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00375 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00376 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00377 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00378 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00379 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00380 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00382 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00383 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00384 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00385 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00387 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00388 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00390 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00391 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00392 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00393 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00395 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00396 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00397 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00398 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00399 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00400 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00402 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00404 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00408 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00410 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00411 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00412 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00415 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00421 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00423 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00424 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00426 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00427 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00428 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00430 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00431 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00433 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00434 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00437 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00440 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00442 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00445 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00446 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00448 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00452 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00454 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00456 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00457 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00458 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00459 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00460 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00462 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00463 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00466 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00467 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00469 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00470 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00471 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00472 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00473 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00474 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00475 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00477 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00479 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00482 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00484 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00485 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00486 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00487 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00488 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00489 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00491 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00492 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00494 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00498 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00499 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00501 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00502 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00504 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00506 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00507 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00508 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00511 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00513 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00515 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00517 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00518 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00519 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00520 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00523 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00524 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00525 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00526 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00528 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00529 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00533 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00534 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00536 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00537 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00538 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00539 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00540 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00543 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00544 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00547 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00548 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00550 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00552 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00554 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00555 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00556 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00557 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00558 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00559 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00561 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00562 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00563 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00564 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00566 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00567 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00570 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00571 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00572 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00574 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00575 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00578 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00581 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00582 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00583 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00587 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00588 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00589 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00592 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00593 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00595 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00596 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00597 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00598 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00601 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00602 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00603 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00604 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00605 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00606 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00607 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00608 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00609 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00612 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00613 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00615 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00616 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00618 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00619 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00620 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00621 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00622 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00623 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00624 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00626 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00628 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00629 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00630 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00632 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00635 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00636 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00639 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00640 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00641 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00642 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00644 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00645 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00648 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00649 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00652 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00654 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00656 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00658 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00659 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00661 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00662 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00663 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00664 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00665 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00667 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00668 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00670 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00671 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00673 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00674 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00676 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00677 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00678 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00680 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00680-GUSBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00681 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00682 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00685 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00686 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00687 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00689 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00690 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00691 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00692 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00693 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00696 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00698 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00700 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00701 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00702 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00703 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00705 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00706 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00708 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00709 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00710 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00824 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00836 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00837 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00838 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00839 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00840 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00841 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00842 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00844 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00845 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00847 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00850 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00851 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00852 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00853 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00856 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00857 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00858 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00861 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00862 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00863 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00865 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00867 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00868 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00869 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00870 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00871 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00877 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00879 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00880 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00881 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00882 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00885 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00886 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00887 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00891 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00892 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00895 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00896 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00898 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00899 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00900 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00901 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00903 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00904 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00905 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00906 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00907 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00908 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00910 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00911 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00917 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00919 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00920 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00921 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00922 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00923 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00924 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00926 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00927 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00928 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00929 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00930 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00933 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00934 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00937 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00938 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00939 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00940 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00941 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00942 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00943 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00944 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00945 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00951 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00954 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00955 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00957 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00958 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00960 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00963 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00964 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00965 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00967 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00968 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00970 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00971 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00972 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00973 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00974 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00976 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00977 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00987 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00989 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00992 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00993 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00994 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00996 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00997 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC00999 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01000 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01001 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01002 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01003 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01005 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01007 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01010 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01011 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01012 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01013 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01014 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01015 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01016 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01018 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01019 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01020 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01022 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01023 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01028 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01029 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01030 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01031 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01033 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01034 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01035 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01036 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01037 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01038 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01039 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01040 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01043 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01044 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01046 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01047 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01048 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01049 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01050 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01052 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01053 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01054 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01055 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01056 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01058 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01060 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01061 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01063 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01065 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01066 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01067 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01068 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01069 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01070 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01072 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01074 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01075 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01076 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01077 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01078 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01079 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01080 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01081 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01082 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01085 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01087 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01088 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01089 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01090 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01091 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01093 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01094 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01095 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01096 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01097 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01098 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01099 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01102 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01103 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01104 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01106 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01109 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01138 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01139 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01142 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01144 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01145 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01147 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01148 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01149 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01150 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01151 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01153 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01159 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01162 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01164 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01165 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01166 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01168 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01169 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01170 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01173 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01176 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01177 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01179 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01186 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01187 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01189 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01191 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01192 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01193 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01194 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01195 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01198 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01201 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01202 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01203 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01204 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01205 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01206 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01208 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01209 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01213 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01214 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01215 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01216 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01217 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01218 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01219 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01220 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01221 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01222 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01224 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01226 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01227 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01228 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01229 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01231 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01232 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01233 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01234 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01235 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01237 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01239 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01241 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01242 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01243 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01246 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01247 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01248 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01249 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01250 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01252 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01254 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01255 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01256 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01257 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01258 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01259 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01262 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01264 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01265 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01266 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01267 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01269 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01270 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01271 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01273 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01275 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01277 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01278 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01280 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01281 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01282 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01283 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01284 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01285 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01287 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01288 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01289 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01290 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01291 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01297 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01298 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01299 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01300 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01301 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01303 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01304 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01305 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01307 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01309 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01310 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01311 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01312 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01315 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01317 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01318 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01320 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01322 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01324 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01326 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01327 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01331 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01333 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01337 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01338 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01339 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01340 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01341 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01342 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01343 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01344 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01345 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01346 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01347 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01348 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01349 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01350 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01352 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01353 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01354 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01355 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01356 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01359 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01360 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01361 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01362 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01363 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01364 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01365 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01366 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01370 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01372 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01375 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01376 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01377 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01378 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01381 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01385 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01386 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01387 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01388 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01389 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01391 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01392 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01393 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01395 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01396 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01397 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01398 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01399 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01400 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01402 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01404 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01409 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01410 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01411 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01412 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01413 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01414 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01415 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01416 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01418 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01419 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01422 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01423 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01424 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01425 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01426 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01427 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01428 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01429 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01430 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01431 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01432 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01433 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01435 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01436 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01438 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01440 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01441 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01442 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01443 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01444 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01445 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01446 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01447 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01448 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01449 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01450 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01451 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01455 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01456 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01460 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01461 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01465 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01467 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01470 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01471 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01472 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01473 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01474 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01475 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01476 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01477 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01478 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01479 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01480 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01482 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01483 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01484 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01485 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01486 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01487 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01488 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01489 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01490 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01491 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01492 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01493 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01495 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01496 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01497 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01498 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01499 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01500 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01501 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01502 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01503 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01504 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01505 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01506 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01507 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01508 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01509 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01511 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01512 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01514 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01515 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01516 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01517 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01518 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01519 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01520 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01521 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01522 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01523 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01524 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01525 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01526 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01527 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01530 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01531 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01532 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01533 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01535 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01537 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01538 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01539 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01541 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01543 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01544 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01545 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01546 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01547 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01548 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01549 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01550 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01551 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01553 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01554 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01555 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01556 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01559 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01560 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01561 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01562 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01563 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01564 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01565 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01566 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01567 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01569 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01570 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01571 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01572 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01574 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01579 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01580 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01581 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01582 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01583 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01584 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01585 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01586 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01587 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01588 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01589 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01590 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01591 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01592 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01593 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01594 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01595 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01596 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01597 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01599 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01600 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01601 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01602 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01603 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01605 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01606 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01607 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01608 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01609 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01610 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01611 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01612 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01613 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01614 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01615 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01616 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01617 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01618 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01619 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01620 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01621 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01622 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01623 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01624 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01625 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01626 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01627 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01628 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01629 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01630 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01632 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01633 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01634 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01635 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01637 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01638 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01639 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01640 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01641 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01643 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01644 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01645 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01646 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01647 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01648 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01649 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01650 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01651 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01653 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01654 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01656 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01657 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01659 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01661 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01664 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01665 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01666 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01667 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01668 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01670 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01671 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01672 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01673 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01674 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01675 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01676 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01677 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01678 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01679 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01680 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01681 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01682 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01683 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01684 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01685 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01686 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01687 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01688 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01689 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01690 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01691 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01692 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01694 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01695 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01696 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01697 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01698 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01699 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01700 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01701 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01702 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01703 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01704 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01705 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01706 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01707 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01708 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01709 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01710 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01711 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01712 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01713 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01714 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01716 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01717 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01718 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01719 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01720 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01721 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01722 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01723 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01724 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01725 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01726 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01727 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01728 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01730 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01732 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01733 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01734 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01735 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01736 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01737 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01738 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01739 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01740 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01741 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01742 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01743 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01744 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01745 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01746 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01747 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01748 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01749 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01750 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01751 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01752 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01753 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01754 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01755 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01756 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01757 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01758 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01760 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01761 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01762 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01763 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01765 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01766 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01767 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01768 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01770 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01772 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01773 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01774 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01775 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01776 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01777 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01778 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01779 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01780 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01781 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01782 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01783 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01784 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01785 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01786 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01787 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01788 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01789 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01790 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01791 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01792 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01794 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01795 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01796 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01797 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01798 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01800 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01801 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01802 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01803 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01804 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01805 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01806 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01807 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01808 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01809 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01810 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01811 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01812 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01813 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01815 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01816 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01817 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01818 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01819 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01820 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01821 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01822 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01823 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01824 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01825 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01826 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01827 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01828 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01829 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01830 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01831 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01832 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01833 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01834 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01836 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01837 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01838 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01839 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01840 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01841 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01842 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01843 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01845 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01846 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01847 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01848 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01849 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01850 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01851 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01852 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01853 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01854 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01856 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01857 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01858 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01859 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01861 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01863 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01864 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01865 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01866 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01867 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01868 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01870 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01871 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01872 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01873 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01874 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01875 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01876 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01877 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01878 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01880 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01881 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01882 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01883 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01884 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01885 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01886 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01887 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01888 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01889 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01890 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01891 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01892 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01893 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01894 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01895 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01896 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01897 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01898 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01899 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01900 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01901 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01902 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01903 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01904 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01905 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01906 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01907 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01908 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01909 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01910 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01911 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01912 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01913 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01914 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01915 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01916 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01917 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01918 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01919 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01920 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01922 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01923 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01924 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01925 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01926 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01927 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01928 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01929 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01930 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01931 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01932 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01933 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01934 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01935 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01936 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01937 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01938 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01939 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01940 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01941 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01942 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01943 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01944 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01945 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01946 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01947 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01948 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01949 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01950 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01951 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01953 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01954 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01955 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01956 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01957 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01958 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01960 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01961 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01962 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01963 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01964 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01965 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01966 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01967 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01968 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01970 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01971 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01972 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01973 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01975 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01976 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01977 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01978 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01979 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01980 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01981 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01982 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01983 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01985 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01986 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01987 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01988 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01989 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01990 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01991 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01992 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01993 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01994 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01996 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01997 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01998 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC01999 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02000 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02002 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02003 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02004 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02005 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02006 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02008 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02009 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02010 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02011 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02012 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02013 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02014 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02015 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02016 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02017 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02018 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02019 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02020 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02021 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02022 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02023 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02024 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02025 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02026 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02027 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02028 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02029 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02030 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02031 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02032 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02033 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02034 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02035 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02037 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02038 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02039 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02040 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02041 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02042 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02043 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02044 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02045 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02046 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02047 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02048 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02049 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02050 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02051 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02052 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02053 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02054 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02055 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02057 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02058 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02059 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02061 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02063 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02064 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02065 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02066 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02067 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02068 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02069 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02070 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02071 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02072 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02073 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02074 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02075 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02076 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02077 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02078 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02079 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02080 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02082 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02083 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02084 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02086 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02087 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02088 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02089 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02090 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02091 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02092 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02093 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02094 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02096 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02097 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02098 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02099 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02102 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02103 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02104 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02105 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02106 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02109 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02129 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02130 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02137 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02138 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02139 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02142 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02144 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02145 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02146 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02147 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02148 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02149 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02150 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02151 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02153 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02154 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02156 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02159 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02161 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02162 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02164 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02165 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02166 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02167 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02168 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02169 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02171 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02172 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02173 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02174 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02175 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02176 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02177 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02178 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02179 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02183 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02184 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02185 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02186 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02188 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02189 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02190 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02191 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02192 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02194 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02195 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02196 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02197 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02198 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02199 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02200 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02201 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02202 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02203 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02204 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02205 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02207 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02208 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02209 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02210-CRHR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02211 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02212 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02213 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02214 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02215 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02216 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02217 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02218 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02219 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02220 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02221 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02222 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02223 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02225 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02226 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02227 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02228 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02229 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02230 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02231 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02232 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02233 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02235 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02236 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02237 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02238 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02239 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02240 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02241 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02242 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02243 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02244 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02245 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02247 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02248 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02249 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02250 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02251 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02252 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02253 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02255 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02256 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02258 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02259 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02260 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02261 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02262 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02263 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02264 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02265 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02266 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02267 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02268 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02269 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02270 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02271 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02272 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02273 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02274 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02275 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02277 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02278 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02279 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02280 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02281 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02282 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02283 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02284 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02285 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02286 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02287 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02288 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02289 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02290 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02291 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02292 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02293 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02294 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02295 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02296 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02297 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02298 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02299 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02300 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02301 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02303 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02304 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02305 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02306 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02307 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02308 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02309 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02310 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02311 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02312 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02313 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02314 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02315 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02316 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02317 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02318 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02319 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02320 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02321 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02322 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02323 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02324 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02325 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02326 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02327 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02328 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02329 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02330 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02331 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02332 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02333 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02334 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02335 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02336 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02337 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02338 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02339 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02341 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02342 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02343 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02344 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02345 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02346 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02347 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02348 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02349 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02350 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02351 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02352 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02353 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02354 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02355 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02356 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02357 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02358 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02359 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02360 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02361 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02362 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02363 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02364 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02365 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02366 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02367 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02368 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02369 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02370 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02371 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02372 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02373 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02374 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02375 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02376 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02377 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02378 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02379 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02380 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02381 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02382 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02383 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02384 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02385 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02386 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02387 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02388 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02389 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02390 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02391 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02392 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02393 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02394 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02395 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02396 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02397 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02398 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02399 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02400 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02401 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02402 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02403 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02404 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02405 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02406 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02408 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02409 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02410 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02411 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02412 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02413 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02414 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02415 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02416 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02417 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02418 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02419 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02420 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02421 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02422 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02423 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02424 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02425 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02426 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02427 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02428 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02429 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02430 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02431 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02432 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02433 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02434 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02435 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02436 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02437 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02438 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02439 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02440 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02441 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02442 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02443 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02444 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02445 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02446 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02447 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02448 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02449 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02450 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02452 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02453 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02454 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02455 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02456 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02457 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02458 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02459 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02460 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02461 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02462 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02463 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02464 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02465 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02466 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02468 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02469 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02470 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02471 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02472 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02473 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02474 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02475 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02476 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02477 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02478 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02479 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02480 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02481 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02482 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02483 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02484 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02485 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02487 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02489 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02490 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02491 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02492 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02493 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02494 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02496 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02497 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02498 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02499 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02500 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02501 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02502 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02503 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02504 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02505 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02506 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02507 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02508 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02509 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02510 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02511 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02512 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02513 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02514 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02515 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02516 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02517 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02518 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02519 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02520 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02521 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02522 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02523 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02524 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02525 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02526 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02527 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02529 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02530 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02531 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02532 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02533 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02534 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02535 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02536 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02537 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02538 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02539 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02540 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02541 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02542 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02543 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02545 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02546 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02547 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02548 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02549 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02550 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02551 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02552 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02553 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02554 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02555 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02556 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02557 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02558 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02559 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02560 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02561 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02562 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02563 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02564 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02565 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02566 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02567 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02568 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02569 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02570 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02571 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02572 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02573 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02574 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02575 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02576 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02577 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02578 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02579 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02580 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02582 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02583 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02584 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02585 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02587 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02589 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02591 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02593 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02594 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02596 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02597 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02598 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02599 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02600 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02601 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02602 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02603 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02604 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02605 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02606 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02607 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02608 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02609 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02610 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02611 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02612 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02613 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02614 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02615 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02616 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02617 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02619 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02620 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02621 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02622 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02623 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02624 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02625 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02626 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02627 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02628 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02629 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02630 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02631 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02632 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02633 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02635 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02636 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02637 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02639 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02640 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02641 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02642 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02643 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02644 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02645 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02646 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02647 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02648 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02649 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02650 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02651 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02652 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02653 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02654 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02655 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02656 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02658 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02659 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02660 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02661 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02662 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02663 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02664 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02665 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02666 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02667 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02668 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02669 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02670 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02671 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02672 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02673 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02674 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02675 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02676 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02677 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02678 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02679 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02680 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02681 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02682 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02683 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02684 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02685 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02686 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02687 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02688 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02689 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02690 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02691 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02692 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02693 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02694 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02695 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02697 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02698 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02699 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02700 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02701 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02702 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02703 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02704 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02705 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02706 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02707 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02708 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02709 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02710 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02711 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02712 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02713 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02714 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02715 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02716 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02717 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02718 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02719 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02720 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02721 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02722 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02723 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02724 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02725 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02726 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02727 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02728 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02729 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02730 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02731 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02732 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02733 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02734 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02735 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02736 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02737 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02739 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02740 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02741 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02742 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02743 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02744 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02745 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02746 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02747 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02748 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02749 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02750 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02751 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02752 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02753 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02754 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02755 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02756 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02757 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02758 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02759 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02760 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02761 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02762 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02763 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02764 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02765 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02766 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02767 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02768 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02769 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02770 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02771 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02772 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02773 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02774 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02775 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02777 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02778 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02779 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02780 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02781 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02782 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02783 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02784 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02786 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02787 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02788 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02789 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02790 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02791 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02792 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02793 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02794 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02795 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02796 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02798 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02799 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02800 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02801 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02802 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02803 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02805 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02806 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02808 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02809 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02810 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02811 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02812 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02813 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02814 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02816 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02817 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02818 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02819 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02820 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02821 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02822 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02823 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02824 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02825 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02826 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02827 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02828 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02829 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02830 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02831 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02832 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02833 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02834 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02835 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02836 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02837 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02838 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02839 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02840 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02841 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02842 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02843 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02844 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02845 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02846 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02847 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02848 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02849 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02850 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02851 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02852 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02853 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02854 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02855 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02856 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02857 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02858 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02859 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02860 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02862 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02863 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02864 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02865 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02866 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02868 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02869 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02870 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02871 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02872 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02873 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02874 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02875 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02877 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02878 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02879 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02880 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02881 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02882 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02883 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02884 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02885 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02886 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02887 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02888 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02889 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02890 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02891 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02893 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02894 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02895 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02896 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02897 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02898 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02899 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02900 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02901 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02902 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02903 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02905 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02906 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02907 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02908 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02909 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02911 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02912 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02913 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02914 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02915 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02916 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02917 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02918 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02919 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02920 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02922 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02923 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02924 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02925 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02926 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02927 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02928 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02929 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02930 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02931 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02932 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02933 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02934 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02935 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02936 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02937 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02938 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02939 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02940 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02941 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02942 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02943 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02944 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02945 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02946 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02947 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02948 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02949 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02950 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02951 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02952 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02953 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02954 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02955 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02956 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02957 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02958 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02959 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02960 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02961 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02963 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02964 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02965 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02966 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02967 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02968 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02970 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02971 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02972 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02973 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02974 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02975 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02976 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02977 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02978 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02979 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02980 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02981 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02982 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02983 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02984 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02985 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02986 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02987 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02988 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02989 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02991 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02992 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02993 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02994 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02995 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02996 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02997 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02998 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC02999 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03000 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03001 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03002 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03003 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03004 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03005 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03006 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03007 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03008 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03009 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03010 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03011 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03012 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03013 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03014 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03015 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03016 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03017 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03018 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03019 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03020 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03021 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03022 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03023 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03024 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03025 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03026 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03027 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03028 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03029 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03030 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03031 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03032 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03033 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03034 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03035 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03036 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03037 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03039 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03040 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03041 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03042 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03043 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03044 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03046 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03047 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03048 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03050 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03051 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03052 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03053 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03054 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03055 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03056 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03057 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03058 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03059 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03060 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03062 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03064 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03065 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03066 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03067 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03068 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03070 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03071 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03072 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03073 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03074 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03075 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03076 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03077 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03078 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03079 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03080 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03082 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03083 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03084 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03085 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03086 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03088 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03089 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03090 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03091 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03092 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03093 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03094 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03095 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03096 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03097 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03098 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03099 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03102 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03103 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03104 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03105 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03106 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03109 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03129 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03130 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03137 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03138 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03139 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03142 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03144 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03145 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03146 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03147 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03148 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03149 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03150 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03151 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03153 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03154 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03155 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03156 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03158 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03159 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03161 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03162 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03164 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03165 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03166 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03167 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03168 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03169 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03170 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03171 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03172 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03173 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03174 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03175 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03176 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03177 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03178 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03179 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03183 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03184 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03185 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03187 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03188 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03189 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03190 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03191 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03193 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03194 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03195 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03196 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03197 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03198 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03199 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03200 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03201 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03202 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03203 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03204 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03205 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03206 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03207 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03208 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03209 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03211 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03212 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03213 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03214 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03215 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03216 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINC03217 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINCADL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINCMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINGO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINGO1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINGO1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINGO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINGO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINGO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LINS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIPT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIRIL2R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LITAF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LITAFD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LITATS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIVAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIX1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LIX1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LKAAEAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LLCFC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LLGL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LLGL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LLPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LLPH-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LLPHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LLPHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LLPHP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMAN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMAN1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMAN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMAN2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMBR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMBR1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMBRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMBRD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMCD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMLN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMNA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMNB1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMNB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMNTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMNTD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMNTD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMO7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMO7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMO7DN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMOD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMOD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMOD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMTK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMTK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMX1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMX1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMX1A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMX1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LMX1B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNC-LBCS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNC-RHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNC-WAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCARGI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCAROD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCARSR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCATV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCBRM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCDAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCEGFL7OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCHR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCNEF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCOB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCOC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCOG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCPNKY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCPOIR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCPRESS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCPRESS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCPTCTS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCR-SMAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCRI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCRMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCRNA-ATB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCRNA-IUR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCROPM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCSRLR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCTAM34A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNCTSI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNMICC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNPEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNPK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNPPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNROP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNX1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LNX2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOH1CR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOH12CR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOHAN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOLI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LONP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LONP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LONRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LONRF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LONRF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LONRF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LONRF2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LONRF2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LONRF2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LONRF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LORICRIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOXHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOXL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOXL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOXL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOXL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOXL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LOXL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPAR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPAR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPAR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPAR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPAR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPCAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPCAT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPCAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPCAT2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPCAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPCAT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPGAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPGAT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPGAT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPIN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPIN2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPP-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LPXN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRATD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRATD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRBA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRBA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRCH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRCH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRCH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRCH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRCOL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRFN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRFN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRFN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRFN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRFN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRFN5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRGUK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRIF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRIG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRIG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRIG2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRIG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRIG3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRIT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRIT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRMDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LROMI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP8-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRPAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRPPRC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC3B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC8C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC8C-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC8D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC8D-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC8E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC14B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC14B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC32-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC34P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC34P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37A17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC37BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC52-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC57P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC59-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC74A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC74B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC75A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC75B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC77P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRC78P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRFIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRFIP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRFIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRFIP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRIQ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRIQ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRIQ4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRK2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRN4CL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRTM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRTM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRTM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRRTM4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRSAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRTM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRTM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRTOMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LRWD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSAMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSAMP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSINCT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM14A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSM14B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSMEM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSMEM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSP1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSP1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LSS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTA4H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTB4R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTB4R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTBR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTC4S | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTO1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LTV1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUADT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUARIS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUC7L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUC7L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUC7L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUC7L3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUCAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUNAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LURAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LURAP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LURAP1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUZP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUZP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUZP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUZP4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LUZP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LVRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LXN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6E-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6G5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6G5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6G6C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6G6D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6G6E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6G6F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6G6F-LY6G6D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6S | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY6S-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY75-CD302 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY86-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LY96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYARP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYNX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYNX1-SLURP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPD6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPD9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPLA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPLA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPLA1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPLA1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPLA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPLA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPLA2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPLA2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPLAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPLAL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYPLAL1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYRM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYRM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYRM4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYRM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYRM9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYRM9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYSET | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYSETP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYSMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYSMD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYSMD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYSMD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYVE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYZL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYZL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYZL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LYZL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LZIC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LZTFL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LZTR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LZTS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LZTS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LZTS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| LZTS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| M1AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| M6PR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| M6PRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAB21L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAB21L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAB21L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAB21L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACC1-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACIR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACORIS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACROD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACROD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACROD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACROD2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACROH2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MACROH2A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAD1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAD2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAD2L1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAD2L1BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAD2L1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAD2L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MADCAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MADCAM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MADD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MADD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAEA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAEA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAEL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAFA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAFA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAFB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAFF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAFG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAFG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAFIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAFK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAFTRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEA13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB17-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEB18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGED2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGED4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGED4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGEL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGI1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGI1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGI2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGI2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGI2-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGIX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGOH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGOH-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGOH2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGOH3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGOHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAGT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAILR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAJIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAK16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MALAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MALINC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MALL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MALLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MALLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MALNC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MALRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MALRD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MALSU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MALT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MALT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAMDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAMDC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAMDC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAML1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAML2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAML3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAML3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAML3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAMLD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAMSTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN1A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN1A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN1B1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN1C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN2A1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN2A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN2A2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN2B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN2B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAN2C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MANBA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MANBAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MANCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MANEA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MANEA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MANEAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MANEALP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MANF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MANSC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MANSC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAOA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAOB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP1LC3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP1LC3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP1LC3B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP1LC3BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP1LC3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP1LC3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP1S | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP2K7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K5-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K7CL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K9-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K20-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP3K21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP4K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP4K1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP4K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP4K3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP4K3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP4K4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP4K5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP6D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP7D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP7D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP7D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK1IP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK6P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK6P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK8IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK8IP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK8IP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK8IP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK8IP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK8IP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPK15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPKAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPKAPK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPKAPK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPKAPK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPKAPK5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPKAPK5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPKBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPRE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPRE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPRE1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPRE1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPRE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPRE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPRE3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAPT-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF10-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCHF11-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCKS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCKSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCKSL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCKSL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCKSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCO-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARCOL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK2P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARVELD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARVELD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MARVELD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAS1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAS1LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MASP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MASP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAST3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAST3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAST4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAST4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAST4-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MASTL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAT1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAT2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAT2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAT2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATCAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATCAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATCAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATR3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATR3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MATR3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAU2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAVS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAX-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MAZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MB21D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD3L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD3L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD3L2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD3L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD3L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD3L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBL1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBL3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBLAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBLAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBNL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBNL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBNL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBOAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBOAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBOAT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBOAT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBP-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBTPS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBTPS1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MBTPS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MC1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MC2R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MC3R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MC4R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MC5R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCC-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCCC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCCD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCCD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCEE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCEMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCF2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCF2L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCF2L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCF2L2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCFD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCFD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCFD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCHR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCHR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCHR2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCIDAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCIDAS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM3AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM3AP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCM10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCMBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCMDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCOLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCOLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCOLN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCPH1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCPH1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCRIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCRIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCRIP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCRIP2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCRS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCTP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCTP1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCTP1-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCTS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCTS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCUB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCUB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCUR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCUR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MCUR1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDFI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDFIC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDFIC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDGA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDGA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDH1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDH1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDM4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MDS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ME1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ME2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ME2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ME3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ME3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ME3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEAF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEAF6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEAK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MECOM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MECOM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MECP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MECR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED10-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED12L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED13L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED14OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED15P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED15P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED15P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED15P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED15P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED15P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED15P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED28-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED28P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED28P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED28P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED28P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED28P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED28P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED28P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED28P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MED31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEDAG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEF2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEF2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEF2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEF2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEF2C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEF2C-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEF2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEFV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEG9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEGF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEGF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEGF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEGF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEGF10-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEGF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEI4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIKIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIKIN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIOB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIOC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIOSIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIS1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIS1-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIS3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEIS3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MELK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MELTF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MELTF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEMO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEMO1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEMO1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEMO1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEMO1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEMO1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEMO1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEP1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEP1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEP1AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEP1AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEP1AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEPCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEPE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEPE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MERTK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MESD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MESDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MESP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MESP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MESTIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MESTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MESTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MESTP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MESTP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MET | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METAP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METAP1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METAP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METRNL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL14-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL15P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL21A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL21AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL21C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL21EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL25B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| METTL27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEX3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEX3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEX3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MEX3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFAP3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFAP3L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFF-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFFP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFGE8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFHAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFNG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFSD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFSD2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFSD2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFSD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFSD6L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFSD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFSD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFSD12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MFSD12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGARP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT4EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT4FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGAT5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGLL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGME1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGRN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGRN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MGST3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MHENCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MHRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIA-RAB4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIATNB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICAL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICAL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICALL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICALL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICALL2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICB-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICOS10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICOS10-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICOS10-NBL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICOS10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICOS10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICOS10P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICOS10P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICOS13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICU2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MICU3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MID1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MID1IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MID1IP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MID2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIDEAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIDEAS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIEF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIEN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIER3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIER3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIF4GD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIF4GD-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIGA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIGA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MILIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MILR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIMS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIMS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIMS3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MINAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MINAR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MINCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MINDY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MINDY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MINDY2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MINDY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MINDY4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MINDY4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MINK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MINPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIOS-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIOXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIPEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIPEPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIPEPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIPEPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIPOL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1-1HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7-3HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9-1HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9-2HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9-3HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR15A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR15B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR16-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR17HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR18A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR18B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR19A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR19B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR19B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR20A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR20B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR22HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR23A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR23AHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR23B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR23C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR24-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR24-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR26A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR26A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR26B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR27A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR27B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR29A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR29B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR29B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR29B2CHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR29C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR30A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR30B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR30C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR30C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR30D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR30DHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR30E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR31HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR33A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR33B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR34A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR34AHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR34B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR34BHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR34C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR92A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR92A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR92B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR98 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR99A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR99AHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR99B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR100HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR101-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR101-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR103A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR103A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR103B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR103B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR105-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR105-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR106A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR106AHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR106B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR122HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR124-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR124-1HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR124-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR124-2HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR124-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR125A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR125B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR125B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR128-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR128-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR129-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR129-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR130A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR130AHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR130B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR133A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR133A1HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR133A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR133B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR135A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR135A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR135B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR137 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR137HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR138-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR138-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR139 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR142 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR142HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR144 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR145 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR146A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR146B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR147A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR147B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR148A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR148B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR149 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR150 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR151A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR151B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR153-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR153-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR154 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR155 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR155HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR181A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR181A1HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR181A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR181A2HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR181B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR181B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR181C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR181D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR183 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR184 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR185 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR186 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR187 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR188 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR190A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR190B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR191 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR192 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR193A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR193B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR193BHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR194-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR194-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR194-2HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR195 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR196A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR196A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR196B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR197 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR198 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR199A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR199A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR199B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR200A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR200B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR200BHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR200C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR200CHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR202 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR202HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR203A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR203B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR204 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR205 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR205HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR206 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR208A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR208B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR210HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR211 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR212 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR214 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR215 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR216A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR216B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR217 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR217HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR218-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR218-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR219A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR219A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR219A2HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR219B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR221 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR222 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR222HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR223 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR223HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR224 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR296 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR297 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR298 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR299 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR300 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR301A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR301B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR302A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR302B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR302C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR302CHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR302D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR302E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR302F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR320A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR320B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR320B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR320C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR320C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR320D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR320D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR320E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR323A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR323B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR324 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR325 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR325HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR326 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR328 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR329-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR329-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR330 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR331 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR335 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR337 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR338 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR339 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR340 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR342 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR345 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR346 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR361 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR362 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR363 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR365A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR365B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR365BHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR367 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR369 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR370 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR371A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR371B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR372 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR373 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR374A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR374B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR374C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR375 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR376A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR376A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR376B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR376C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR377 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378D2HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR378J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR379 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR380 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR381 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR381HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR382 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR383 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR384 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR409 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR410 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR411 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR412 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR421 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR422A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR423 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR424 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR425 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR429 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR431 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR432 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR433 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR448 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR449A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR449B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR449C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR450A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR450A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR450B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR451A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR451B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR452 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR454 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR455 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR466 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR483 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR484 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR485 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR486-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR486-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR487A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR487B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR488 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR489 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR490 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR491 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR492 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR493 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR493HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR494 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR495 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR496 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR497 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR497HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR498 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR499A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR499B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR500A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR500B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR501 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR502 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR503 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR503HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR504 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR505 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR506 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR507 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR508 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR509-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR509-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR509-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR510 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR511 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR512-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR512-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR513A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR513A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR513B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR513C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR514A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR514A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR514A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR514B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR515-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR515-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR516A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR516A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR516B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR516B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR517A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR517B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR517C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR518A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR518A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR518B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR518C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR518D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR518E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR518F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR519A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR519A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR519B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR519C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR519D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR519E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR520A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR520B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR520C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR520D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR520E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR520F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR520G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR520H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR521-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR521-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR522 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR523 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR524 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR525 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR526A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR526A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR526B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR527 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR532 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR539 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR541 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR542 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR543 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR544A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR544B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR545 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548A1HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AJ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548AZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548BA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548BAHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548BB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548BC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548F3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548F4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548F5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548H3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548H4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548H5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548I2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548I3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548I4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548N | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548O | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548O2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548Q | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548S | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548T | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548U | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548V | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548W | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548X2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548XHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR548Z | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR549A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR550A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR550A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR550A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR550A3HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR550B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR550B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR551A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR551B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR552 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR553 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR554 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR555 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR556 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR557 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR558 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR559 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR561 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR562 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR563 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR564 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR567 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR568 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR569 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR570 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR570HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR571 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR572 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR573 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR574 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR575 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR576 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR577 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR578 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR579 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR580 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR581 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR582 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR583 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR584 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR585 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR586 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR587 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR588 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR589 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR590 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR591 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR592 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR593 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR595 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR596 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR597 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR598 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR599 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR600 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR600HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR601 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR602 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR603 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR604 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR605 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR606 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR607 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR608 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR609 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR610 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR611 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR612 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR613 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR614 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR615 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR616 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR617 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR618 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR619 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR620 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR621 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR622 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR623 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR624 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR625 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR626 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR627 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR628 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR629 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR630 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR631 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR632 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR633 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR634 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR635 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR636 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR637 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR638 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR639 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR640 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR641 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR642A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR642B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR643 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR644A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR645 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR646 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR646HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR647 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR648 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR649 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR650 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR651 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR652 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR653 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR654 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR655 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR656 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR657 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR658 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR659 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR660 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR661 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR662 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR663A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR663AHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR663B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR664A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR664B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR665 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR668 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR670 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR670HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR671 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR675 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR676 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR708 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR711 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR718 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR744 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR758 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR759 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR760 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR761 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR762 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR762HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR764 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR765 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR766 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR767 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR769 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR770 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR802 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR873 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR874 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR875 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR876 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR877 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR885 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR887 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR888 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR889 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR890 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR891A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR891B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR892A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR892B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR892C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR920 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR921 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR922 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR924 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR924HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR933 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR934 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR935 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR936 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR937 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR938 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR939 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR940 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR941-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR941-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR941-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR941-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR941-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR942 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR943 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR944 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1178 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1179 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1183 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1184-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1184-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1184-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1185-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1185-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1193 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1197 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1199 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1200 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1202 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1203 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1204 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1205 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1206 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1207 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1208 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1224 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1225 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1226 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1227 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1228 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1229 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1231 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1233-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1233-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1234 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1236 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1237 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1238 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1243 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1244-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1244-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1244-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1244-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1245A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1245B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1246 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1247 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1248 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1249 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1250 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1251 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1252 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1253 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1255A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1255B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1255B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1256 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1257 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1258 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1260A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1260B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1261 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1262 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1263 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1264 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1265 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1266 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1267 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1268A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1268B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1269A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1269B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1270 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1271 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1272 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1273C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1273H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1275 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1277 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1278 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1279 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1281 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1282 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1283-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1283-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1284 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1285-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1285-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1286 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1287 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1288 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1289-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1289-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1290 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1291 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1292 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1293 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1294 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1295A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1295B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1296 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1297 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1298 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1299 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1301 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-2HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-9HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1302-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1303 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1304 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1305 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1306 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1307 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1321 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1322 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1323 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1324 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1343 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1468 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1469 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1470 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1471 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1537 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1538 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1539 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1587 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1825 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1827 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1843 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1908 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1909 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1910 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1911 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1912 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1913 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1914 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1915 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1915HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1972-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1972-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1973 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR1976 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2052 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2052HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2053 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2054 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2113HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2117HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2277 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2278 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2355 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2392 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2467 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2681 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2682 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2861 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR2909 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3059 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3064 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3065 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3074 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3085 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3116-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3116-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3118-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3118-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3118-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3118-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3119-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3119-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3129 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3130-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3130-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3135A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3135B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3137 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3138 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3139 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3142 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3142HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3144 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3145 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3146 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3147 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3147HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3148 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3149 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3150A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3150B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3150BHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3151 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3153 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3154 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3155A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3155B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3156-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3156-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3156-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3158-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3158-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3159 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3160-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3160-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3161 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3162 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3164 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3165 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3166 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3167 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3168 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3169 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3170 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3171 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3171HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3173 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3174 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3175 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3176 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3177 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3178 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3179-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3179-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3179-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3179-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3180-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3180-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3180-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3180-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3180-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3183 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3184 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3185 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3186 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3187 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3188 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3189 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3190 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3191 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3192 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3193 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3194 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3195 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3196 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3197 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3198-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3198-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3199-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3199-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3200 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3201 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3202-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3202-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3529 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3591 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3605 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3606 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3609 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3610 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3611 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3612 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3613 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3614 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3615 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3616 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3617 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3618 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3619 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3620 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3621 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3622A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3622B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3646 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3648-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3648-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3649 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3650 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3651 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3652 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3654 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3655 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3657 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3658 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3659 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3659HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3660 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3660HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3661 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3662 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3663 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3663HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3664 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3665 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3666 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3667 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3667HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3668 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3670-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3670-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3670-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3670-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3671 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3672 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3674 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3675 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3677 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3677HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3678 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3679 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3680-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3680-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3681 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3681HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3682 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3683 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3684 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3685 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3686 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3688-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3688-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3689A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3689B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3689C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3689D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3689D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3689E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3689F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3690 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3691 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3692 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3713 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3714 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3907 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3908 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3909 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3910-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3910-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3911 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3912 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3913-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3913-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3914-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3914-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3915 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3916 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3917 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3918 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3919 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3920 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3921 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3922 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3923 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3924 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3925 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3926-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3926-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3927 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3928 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3929 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3934 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3935 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3936 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3936HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3937 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3938 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3939 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3940 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3941 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3942 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3943 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3944 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3945 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3945HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3960 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3972 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3973 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3974 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3975 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3976 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3976HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3977 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR3978 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4251 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4252 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4253 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4254 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4255 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4256 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4257 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4258 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4259 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4260 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4261 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4262 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4263 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4264 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4265 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4266 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4267 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4268 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4269 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4270 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4271 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4272 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4273 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4274 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4275 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4277 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4277HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4278 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4279 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4280 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4280HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4281 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4282 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4283-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4283-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4284 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4285 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4286 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4287 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4288 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4289 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4290 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4290HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4291 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4292 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4293 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4294 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4295 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4296 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4297 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4298 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4299 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4300 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4300HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4301 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4302 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4303 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4304 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4305 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4306 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4307 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4307HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4308 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4309 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4310 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4311 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4312 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4313 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4314 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4315-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4315-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4316 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4317 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4318 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4319 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4320 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4321 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4322 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4323 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4324 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4325 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4326 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4327 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4328 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4329 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4330 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4418 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4420 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4421 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4422 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4422HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4423 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4424 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4425 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4426 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4427 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4428 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4429 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4430 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4431 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4432 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4432HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4433A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4433B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4434 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4435-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4435-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4435-2HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4436A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4436B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4436B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4437 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4438 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4439 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4440 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4441 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4442 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4443 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4444-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4444-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4445 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4446 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4447 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4448 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4449 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4450 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4451 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4452 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4453 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4453HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4454 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4455 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4456 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4457 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4458 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4458HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4460 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4462 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4463 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4464 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4465 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4466 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4467 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4468 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4469 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4470 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4471 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4472-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4472-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4473 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4474 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4475 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4476 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4477A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4477B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4478 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4479 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4480 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4481 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4482 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4483 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4484 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4485 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4486 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4487 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4488 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4489 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4490 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4491 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4492 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4493 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4494 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4495 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4496 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4497 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4498 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4499 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4500 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4500HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4501 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4502 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4503 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4504 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4505 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4506 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4507 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4508 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4509-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4509-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4509-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4510 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4511 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4512 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4513 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4514 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4515 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4516 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4517 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4518 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4519 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4520-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4520-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4521 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4522 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4523 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4524A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4524B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4525 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4526 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4527 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4527HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4528 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4529 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4530 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4531 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4533 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4534 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4535 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4536-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4536-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4537 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4538 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4539 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4540 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4632 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4633 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4634 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4635 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4636 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4637 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4638 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4639 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4640 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4641 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4642 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4643 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4644 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4645 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4646 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4647 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4648 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4649 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4650-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4650-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4651 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4652 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4653 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4654 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4655 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4656 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4657 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4658 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4659A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4659B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4660 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4661 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4662A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4662B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4663 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4664 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4665 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4666A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4666B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4667 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4668 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4669 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4670 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4671 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4672 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4673 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4674 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4675 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4676 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4677 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4678 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4679-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4679-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4680 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4681 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4682 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4683 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4684 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4685 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4686 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4687 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4688 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4689 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4690 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4691 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4692 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4693 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4694 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4695 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4696 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4697 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4698 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4699 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4700 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4701 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4703 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4704 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4705 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4706 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4707 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4708 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4709 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4710 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4711 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4712 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4713 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4713HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4714 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4715 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4716 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4717 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4718 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4719 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4720 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4721 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4722 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4723 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4724 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4725 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4726 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4727 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4728 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4729 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4730 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4731 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4732 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4733 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4733HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4734 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4735 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4736 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4737 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4738 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4739 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4740 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4741 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4742 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4743 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4744 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4745 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4746 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4747 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4748 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4749 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4750 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4751 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4752 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4753 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4754 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4755 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4756 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4757 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4758 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4759 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4760 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4761 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4762 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4763 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4764 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4765 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4766 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4767 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4768 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4769 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4770 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4771-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4771-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4772 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4773-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4773-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4774 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4775 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4776-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4776-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4777 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4778 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4779 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4780 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4781 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4782 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4783 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4784 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4785 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4786 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4787 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4788 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4789 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4790 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4791 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4793 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4794 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4795 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4796 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4797 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4798 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4799 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4800 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4801 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4802 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4803 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4804 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR4999 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5000 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5001 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5002 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5003 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5004 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5006 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5007 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5008 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5009 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5010 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5011 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5047 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5087 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5088 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5089 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5090 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5091 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5092 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5093 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5094 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5186 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5187 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5188 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5189 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5190 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5191 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5192 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5193 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5194 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5195 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5196 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5197 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5571 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5572 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5579 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5580 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5581 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5582 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5583-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5583-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5584 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5585 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5586 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5587 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5588 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5589 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5590 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5591 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5680 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5681A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5681B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5682 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5683 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5684 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5685 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5687 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5688 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5689 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5689HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5690 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5691 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5692A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5692A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5692B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5692C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5692C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5693 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5694 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5695 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5696 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5697 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5698 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5699 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5700 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5701-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5701-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5701-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5702 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5703 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5704 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5705 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5706 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5707 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5708 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5739 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR5787 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6068 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6069 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6070 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6071 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6072 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6073 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6074 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6075 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6076 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6077 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6078 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6079 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6080 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6081 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6082 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6083 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6084 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6085 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6086 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6088 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6089 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6090 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6129 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6130 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6165 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6499 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6500 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6501 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6502 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6503 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6504 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6505 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6506 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6507 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6508 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6509 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6510 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6511A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6511A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6511A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6511A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6511B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6511B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6512 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6513 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6514 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6515 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6516 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6529 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6715A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6715B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6716 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6717 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6718 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6719 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6720 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6721 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6722 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6724-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6724-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6724-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6724-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6726 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6727 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6728 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6729 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6730 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6731 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6732 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6733 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6734 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6735 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6736 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6737 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6738 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6739 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6740 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6741 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6742 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6743 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6744 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6745 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6746 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6747 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6748 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6749 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6750 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6751 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6752 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6753 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6754 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6755 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6756 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6757 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6758 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6759 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6760 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6761 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6762 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6763 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6764 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6765 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6766 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6767 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6768 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6769A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6769B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6770-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6770-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6770-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6771 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6772 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6773 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6774 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6775 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6776 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6777 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6778 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6779 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6780A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6780B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6781 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6782 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6783 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6784 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6785 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6786 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6787 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6788 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6789 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6790 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6791 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6792 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6793 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6794 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6795 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6796 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6797 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6798 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6799 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6800 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6801 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6802 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6803 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6804 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6805 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6806 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6807 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6808 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6809 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6810 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6811 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6812 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6813 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6814 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6815 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6816 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6817 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6818 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6819 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6820 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6821 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6822 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6823 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6824 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6825 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6826 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6827 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6828 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6829 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6830 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6831 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6832 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6833 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6834 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6835 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6836 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6837 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6838 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6839 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6840 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6841 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6842 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6843 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6844 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6845 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6846 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6847 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6848 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6849 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6850 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6851 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6852 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6853 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6854 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6855 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6856 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6857 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6858 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6859-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6859-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6859-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6859-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6860 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6861 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6862-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6862-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6863 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6864 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6865 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6866 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6867 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6868 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6869 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6870 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6871 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6872 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6873 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6874 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6875 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6876 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6877 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6878 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6879 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6880 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6881 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6882 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6883 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6884 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6885 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6886 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6887 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6888 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6889 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6890 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6891 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6892 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6893 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6894 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR6895 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7106 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7109 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7150 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7151 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7153 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7154 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7155 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7156 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7158 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7159 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7161 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7162 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7515 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7702 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7703 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7704 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7705 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7706 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7843 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7844 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7845 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7846 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7847 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7848 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7849 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7850 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7851 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7852 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7853 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7854 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7855 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7856 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7973-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7973-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7974 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7975 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7976 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7977 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR7978 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8052 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8053 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8054 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8055 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8056 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8057 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8058 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8059 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8060 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8061 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8062 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8063 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8064 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8065 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8066 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8067 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8068 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8069 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8070 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8071-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8071-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8072 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8073 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8074 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8075 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8076 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8077 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8078 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8079 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8080 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8081 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8082 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8083 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8084 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8085 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8086 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8087 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8088 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8089 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR8485 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9500 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9718 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9851 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9898 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9899 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9900 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9901 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9902-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9902-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9903 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9983 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9985 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR9986 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10226 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10392 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10393 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10394 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10396A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10396B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10397 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10398 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10399 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10400 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10522 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10523 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10524 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10525 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10526 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR10527 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR11181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR11399 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR11400 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR11401 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12129 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12130 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIR12136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7A1HG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7BHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIRLET7IHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIS12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIS18A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIS18A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIS18BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MISFA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MISP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MISP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MITA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MITD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MITF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIX23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIX23P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIX23P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIX23P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIX23P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIX23P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MIXL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKI67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKI67P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKKS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKLN1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKNK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKNK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKNK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKNK2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKRN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKRN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKRN2OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKRN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKRN4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKRN5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKRN6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKRN7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKRN8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKRN9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKRN10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MKX-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLANA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLDHR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLEC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLECP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLF1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLIP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLIP-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLKL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLLT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLLT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLLT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLLT10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLLT10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLLT10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLLT11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLNR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLST8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLXIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLXIPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MLYCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMAA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMAB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMACHC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMACHCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMADHC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMADHC-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMADHCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMADHCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MME | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MME-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMEL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMEL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMGT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP20-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP23A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP23B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP24OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP25-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMRN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMRN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMRN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMS19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMS22L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MMUT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MNAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MND1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MNDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MNS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MNT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MNX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MNX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MNX1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB1AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOB4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOCOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOCS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOCS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOCS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOCS2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOCS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOCS3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOCS3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOGAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOGAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOGAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOGS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MON1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MON1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MON2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MON2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4L1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4L1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4L1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4L1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4L1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4L1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4L1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4L2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORF4L2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MORN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOSMO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOSPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOSPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOSPD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOV10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOV10L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOXD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MOXD2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPC1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPC1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPDU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPDU1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPDZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPEG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH10P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH10P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH10P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH10P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH10P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH10P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPHOSPH10P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPIG6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPLKIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPND | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPP7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPPE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPPE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPPE1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPPED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPPED2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPPED2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPRIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPRIP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPRIPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPTX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPV17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPV17L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPV17L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPV17L2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPZL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPZL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPZL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MPZL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRAP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRE11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRE11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MREG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MREGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRFAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRFAP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRFAP1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRFAP1L1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRFAP1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRFAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRGPRX13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRM3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRM3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRM3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRNIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRNIP-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROCKI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH2B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH7-TTC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MROH9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL11P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL11P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL20-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL20-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL22P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL23-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL30P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL30P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL32P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL32P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL35P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL35P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL35P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL35P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL36P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL37P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL40P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL42P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL42P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL42P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL42P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL42P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL42P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL45P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL45P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL48P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL49P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL49P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL50P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL50P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL50P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL50P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL51P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL51P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL53P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL57P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL57P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL57P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL57P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL57P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL57P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL57P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL57P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPL58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS9-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS10P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS16P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS16P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS16P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS17P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS17P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS17P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS17P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS17P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS17P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18CP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18CP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18CP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18CP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18CP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS18CP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS21P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS21P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS21P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS21P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS21P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS21P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS21P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS21P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS21P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS22P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS23P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS24P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS25P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS30-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS31P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS31P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS31P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS31P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS33P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS33P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS33P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS33P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS35-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS35P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS35P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS35P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS36P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS36P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS36P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS36P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS36P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRPS36P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRRF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRRFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRS2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRTFA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRTFA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRTFA-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRTFB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MRTO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A4E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A6E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MS4A19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSANTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSANTD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSANTD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSANTD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSANTD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSANTD3-TMEFF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSANTD3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSANTD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSANTD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSANTD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSGN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSH2-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSH5-SAPCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSI2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSL3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSL3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSL3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSL3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSLNL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSMB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSMO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSRA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSRB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSRB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSRB3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSS51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MST1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MST1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MST1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSTO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSTO2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MSX2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-7SDNA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-ATP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-ATP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-ATT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-CO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-CO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-CO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-CSB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-CSB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-CSB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-CYB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-HPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-HSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-HSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-LIPCAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-LSP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-ND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-ND2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-ND3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-ND4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-ND4L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-ND5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-ND6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-OHR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-OLR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-RNR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-RNR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-RNR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TER | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TFH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TFL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TFX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TFY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT-TY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1HL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1JP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT1XP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTA1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTAPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTAPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTARC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTARC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTARC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP6P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP8P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTATP8P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCH1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCH2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCH2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCH2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCH2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO1P59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO2P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCO3P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTCYBP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTDHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTDHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTDHP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTDHP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTDHP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTERF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTERF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTERF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTERF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTERF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTFMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTFR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTFR1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTFR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTFR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTFR2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTFR2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD2L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFD2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTHFSD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTIF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTIF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTIF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTL3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR9LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR12-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTMR14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTNAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTNAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND1P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND2P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND3P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4LP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND4P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND5P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTND6P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTNR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTNR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTOR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTPAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRES1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRES1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRES1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTREX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTREX-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRF1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRF1LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRF1LP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRNR2L13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTSS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTSS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTTP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTTP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTURN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTUS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTUS1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTUS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTUS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTUS2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTX1LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTX2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MTX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC5AC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC5B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC20-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUC22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUCL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUS81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUSK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUSTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MUTYH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MVB12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MVB12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MVD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MVK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MVP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MVP-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MXD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MXD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MXD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MXI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MXRA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MXRA5Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MXRA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MXRA7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MXRA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYADM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYADM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYADM-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYADML | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYADML2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYBBP1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYBL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYBL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYBPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYBPC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYBPC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYBPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYBPHL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCBP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCBP2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCBPAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCLP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCNOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCNUT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYCT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYD88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYDGF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYEF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYEOV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH9-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYH16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYHAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL6B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL6BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL6P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL12AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL12BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL12BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYL12BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYLIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYLK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYLK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYLK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYLK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYLK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYLKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYLKP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYMK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYMX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYNN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO1D-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO1D-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO1H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO3B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO5BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO5BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO5BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO7B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO9A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO15A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO15B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO16-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO16-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO18A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO18B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO18B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYO19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOCD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOCOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOM3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOPARR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYORG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOSLID | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOSLID-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOZ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOZ2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOZ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYOZ3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYPOP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYRACL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYREM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYRF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYRF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYRFL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYRIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYSM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYT1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYT1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYT1L-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MYZAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MZB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MZF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MZF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MZT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MZT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MZT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MZT2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| MZT2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| N4BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| N4BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| N4BP2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| N4BP2L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| N4BP2L2-IT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| N4BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA40P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA50P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA50P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAA80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAAA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAALAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAALADL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAALADL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAALADL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAALADL2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAALADL2-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NABP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NABP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACA3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACA4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACAP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACAP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACAP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACAP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NACC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NADK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NADK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NADK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NADSYN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAGA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAGK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAGLU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAGPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAGPA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAGS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAIF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAIP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAIPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAIPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAIPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAIPP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NALCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NALCN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NALF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NALF1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NALF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NALT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAMA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAMPT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAMPT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAMPTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAMPTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAMPTP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGNB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGNBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGNBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGNBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOGP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANOS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NANS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAP1L6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAPA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAPEPLD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAPG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAPGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAPGP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAPRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAPSA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAPSB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NARF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NARF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NARF-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NARF-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NARS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NARS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NARS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NASP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NASPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAT8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAT8L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAT9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAT10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAT14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAT16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NATD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NATP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAV2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAV2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAV2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAV2-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAV2-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAV2-AS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAV2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAV3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAV3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAXD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAXD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAXE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAXEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NAXEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBDY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBEA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBEAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBEAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBEAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBEAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBEAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBEAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBEAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBEAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBPF26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NBR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCALD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAM1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAPD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAPD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAPG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAPG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAPGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAPGP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCAPH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCBP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCBP2AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCBP2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCCRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCEH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCF1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCF4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCK1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCKAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCKAP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCKAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCKAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCKAP5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCKAP5-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCKAP5-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCKAP5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCKIPSD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCMAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA5LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOA7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOR1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOR1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOR1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCOR2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCR3LG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCRUPAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCSTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NCSTNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDC80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDE1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDEL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDFIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDFIP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDFIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDFIP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDNF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDNF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDOR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDRG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDRG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDRG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDST1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDST3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDST3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDST4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA5P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFAF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB4P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB8P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB9P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFB11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFC2-KCTD14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS5P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS5P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS5P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFV1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFV2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFV2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFV2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NDUFV3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEBL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEBL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECAB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECAB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECAB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECAP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECTIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECTIN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECTIN1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECTIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECTIN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECTIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECTIN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECTIN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NECTIN4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEDD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEDD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEDD4L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEDD4L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEDD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEDD8-MDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEDD8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEDD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEFH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEFHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEFHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEFL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEFLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEFM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEFMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEGR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEGR1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEIL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEIL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEIL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEIL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEIL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEK11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NELFA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NELFB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NELFCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NELFE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NELL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NELL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NELL1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NELL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEMF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEMP2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NENF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NENFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NENFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NENFP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEPNP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEPRO-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NES | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NET1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NETO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NETO1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NETO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEU2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEU3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEU4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEURL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEURL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEURL1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEURL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEURL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEURL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEUROD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEUROD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEUROD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEUROD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEUROG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEUROG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEUROG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEUROG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEXMIF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEXN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NEXN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFASC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFAT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFATC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFATC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFATC2IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFATC2IP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFATC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFATC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFE2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFE2L1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFE2L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFE2L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFE2L3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFE2L3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFIA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFIA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFIA-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFIB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFIB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFIC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFIL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFILZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFIX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFIX-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFKB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFKB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFKB1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFKB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFKBIA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFKBIB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFKBID | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFKBIE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFKBIL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFKBIZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFRKB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFU1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFU1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFXL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFYA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFYAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFYB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFYBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFYC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFYC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFYCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NFYCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGEF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGFR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGLY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGRNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGRNP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGRNP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NGRNP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHEG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHEJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHERF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHERF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHERF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHLH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHLH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHLRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHLRC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHLRC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHLRC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHP2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHSL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHSL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NHSL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIBAN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIBAN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIBAN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NICN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NICN2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NICOL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NID1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NID2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIF3L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIFK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIFK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIFKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIFKP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIFKP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIFKP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIFKP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIFKP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIFKP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIFKP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIFKP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIHCOLE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIM1K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIM1K-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NINJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NINJ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NINJ2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NINL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIP7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIP7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIP7P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPA2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPA2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPA2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPA2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPAL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPAL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPAL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPAL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPAL4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPBL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPBL-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPSNAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPSNAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPSNAP3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIPSNAP3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NISCH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NIT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKAIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKAIN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKAIN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKAIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKAIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKAIN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKAPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKAPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKAPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKILA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKIRAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKIRAS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKRF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX2-1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX2-2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX2-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX2-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX6-1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX6-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NKX6-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLGN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLGN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLGN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLGN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLGN4X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLGN4Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLGN4Y-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NLRX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMBR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMBR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMD3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMD3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME1-NME2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NME9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMNAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMNAT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMNAT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMNAT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMNAT1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMNAT1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMNAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMNAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMRAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMRAL2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMRK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMRK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRL-TAA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRL-TAA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRL-TAA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRL-TAA4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRL-TAA5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRL-TAA6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRP-TGG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-CTG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG14-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRQ-TTG15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRS-TGA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRS-TGA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRS-TGA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMTRV-TAC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMU-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMUR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NMUR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NNAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NNMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NNT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NNT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOBOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOC2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOC2LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOC2LP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOC3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOC4L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOCT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NODAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL4L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL4L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL4L-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOL12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOLC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOLC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOMO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOMO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOMO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NONO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NONOP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NONOP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP35P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP53-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP56P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP56P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP56P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOP58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOPCHAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NORAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOS1AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOS2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOS2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOS2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOSIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOSTRIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOTCH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOTCH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOTCH2NLA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOTCH2NLB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOTCH2NLC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOTCH2NLR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOTCH2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOTCH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOTCH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOTO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOTUM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOVA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOVA1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOVA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOX4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOXA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOXO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NOXRED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAP1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAP1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAP1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAP1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAP1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAP1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPBWR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPBWR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPC1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPEPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPEPPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPEPPSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPEPPSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPFF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPFFR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPFFR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPHP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPHP3-ACAD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPHP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPHP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPHS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPHS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPB15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPIPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPLOC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM1P52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPNT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPNT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPPA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPRL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPRL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPSR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPTN-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPTX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPTX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPTXR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPVF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPY1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPY2R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPY2R-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPY4R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPY4R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPY5R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NPY6R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NQO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NQO1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NQO1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NQO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NQO2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR1D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR1D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR1H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR1H3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR1H4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR1H5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR1I2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR1I3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR1I4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR2C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR2C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR2C2AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR2E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR2E3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR2F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR2F1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR2F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR2F2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR2F6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR3C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR3C1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR3C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR3C2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR3C2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR4A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR4A1AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR4A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR4A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR5A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR5A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR6A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRADDP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRARP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRAV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR0B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NR0B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRBF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRBF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRBF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRBF2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRBF2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRBF2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRBF2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRCAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRDE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NREP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NREP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NREPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NREPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRG1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRG1-IT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRG3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRGN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRIP3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRIR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRN1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRON | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRROS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRSN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRSN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRSN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRXN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRXN1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRXN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRXN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRXN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRXN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRXN3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NRXN3-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSA2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSA2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSA2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSA2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSA2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSA2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSDHL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSFL1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSMAF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSMCE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSMCE1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSMCE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSMCE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSMCE4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSMF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSRP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSUN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSUN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSUN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSUN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSUN5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSUN5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSUN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSUN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NSUN7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5C1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5C1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5C1B-RDH14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5C3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5C3AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5C3AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5C3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5CP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5CP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5DC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5DC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5DC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5DC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5DC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5DC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5ELP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NT5M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTAN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTAN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTAN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTAN1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTAQ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTF6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTF6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTF6G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTM-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTM-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTM-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTM-IT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTMT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTNG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTNG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTPCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTRAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTRK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTRK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTRK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTRK3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTSR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NTSR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUAK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUAK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUBPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUBPL-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUCB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUCB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUCB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUCKS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUCKS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDCD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDCD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT16-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT16L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT16L2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT19-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT19P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT19P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT19P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT19P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT19P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT19P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT21P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUDT22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUFIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUFIP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUFIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUGGC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUMA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUMA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUMB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUMBL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP35P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP35P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP50-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP50P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP50P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP50P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP50P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP54-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP58P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP62CL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP93-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP98 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP107-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP133-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP153 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP153-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP155 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP188 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP205 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP210L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP210P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP210P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP210P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP214 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUP214-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUPR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUPR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUPR2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUS1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUS1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUSAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTF2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTF2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTF2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTF2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTF2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTF2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTM2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTM2A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTM2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTM2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTM2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTM2E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTM2F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTM2G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NUTM2HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NVL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NWD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NWD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXF2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXNL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXPE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXPE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXPE2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXPE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXPE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXPH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXPH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXPH4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NXTAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NYAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NYAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NYNRIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| NYX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OACYLP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OAF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OARD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OAS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OAS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OASL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OASL2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OATP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OAZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OAZ1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OAZ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OAZ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OBI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OBI1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OBP2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OBP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OBSCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OBSCN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OBSCN-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OBSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OC90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCEL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCIAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCIAD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCIAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCIAD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCLNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OCSTAMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODAD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODAD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODAD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODAPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODC1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODCP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODF2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODF2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ODR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P1Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P2Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P3Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P4Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P5Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P6Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P7Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P8Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P9Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P10Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P11Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P12Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P13Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P14Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P15Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P16Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OFD1P18Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGDHL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGFOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGFOD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGFOD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGFOD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGFR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGFRL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGFRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OGT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OIP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OIP5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OIT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLA1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLA1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLAH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLFM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLFM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLFM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLFM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLFM5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLFML1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLFML2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLFML2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLFML3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLIG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLIG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLIG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLMALINC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OLR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OMA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OMD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OMG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ONECUT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ONECUT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ONECUT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OOEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OOEP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OOEPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OOEPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OOSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OOSP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OOSP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OOSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OOSP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OOSP4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OOSP4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPALIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPCML | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPCML-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPCML-IT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPHN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPLAH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPN1LW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPN1MW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPN1MW2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPN1MW3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPN1SW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPRK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPRL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPRPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPTC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OPTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1AA1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1AB1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1AC1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1D3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1D4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1D5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1E3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1F2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1F12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1H1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1J1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1J2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1J4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1L8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1M1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1M4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1N1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1N2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1Q1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1Q1BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1X1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR1X5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2A42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AD1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AF1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AH1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AI1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AL1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AM1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AO1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AQ1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AS1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AS2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AT1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AT2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2AT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2B4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2B6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2B7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2B8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2B11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2BH1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2E1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2G1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2G3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2G6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2H4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2H5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2J1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2J2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2J3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2J4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2L1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2L6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2L8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2L9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2L13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2M1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2M2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2M3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2M4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2M5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2M7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2N1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2P1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2Q1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2R1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2S1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T32P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2T35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2U1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2U2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2V1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2V2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2W1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2W1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2W2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2W3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2W4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2W5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2W6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2X1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2Y1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR2Z1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR3A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR3A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR3A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR3A4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR3A5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR3B1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR3D1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A40P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A42P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A44P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A45P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A46P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A48P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A49P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4A50P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4B2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C48P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C49P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4C50P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4D5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4D6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4D7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4D8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4D9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4D10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4D11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F8BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4F29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4G1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4G2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4G3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4G4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4G6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4G11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4H6BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4H6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4H12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4K17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4M1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4M2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4M2-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4M2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4N1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4N2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4N3BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4N3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4N4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4N4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4N5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4P1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4Q1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4Q2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4Q3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4R1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4R2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4R3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4T1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4U1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4V1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4W1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4X1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4X2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR4X7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AC4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AH1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AK1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AK3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AK4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AL2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AM1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AN2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AO1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AP1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AQ1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AW1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5AZ1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5B1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5B10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5B12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5B15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5B17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5B19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5B21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BA1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BB1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BC1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BD1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BE1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BH1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BJ1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BK1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BL1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BM1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BN1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BN2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BP1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BQ1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BR1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5BT1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5D2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5D13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5D14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5D15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5D16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5D17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5D18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5E1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5F2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5G1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5G3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5G4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5G5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5H3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5H4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5H5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5H6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5H7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5H8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5H14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5H15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5J1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5J2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5J7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5K3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5K4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5M14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5P1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5P4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5S1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5T1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5T2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5T3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5V1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5W1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR5W2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C64P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C66P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C69P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C71P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C72P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C73P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6C76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6D1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6E1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6J1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6K1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6K3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6K4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6K5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6K6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6L1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6L2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6M1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6M2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6M3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6N1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6N2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6Q1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6R1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6R2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6T1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6U2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6V1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6W1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6X1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR6Y1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7A1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7A2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7A8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7A11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7A15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7A17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7A18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7A19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7D1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7D4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7D11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E33P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E35P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E36P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E37P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E38P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E39P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E46P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E47P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E53P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E55P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E59P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E62P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E66P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E83P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E84P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E85BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E85P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E86P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E87P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E89P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E90P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E91P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E93P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E94P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E96P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E97P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E99P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E100P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E101P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E102P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E103P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E104P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E105P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E106P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E108P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E109P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E110P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E111FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E111P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E115P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E116P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E117P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E121P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E122P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E125P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E126P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E128P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E129P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E130P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E136P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E140P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E145P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E148P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E149P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E154P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E155P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E156P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E157P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E158P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E159P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E160P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E161P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E162P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7E163P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7G3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7G15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7H1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7H2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7K1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7L1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR7M1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8A2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8B1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8B5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8B6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8B7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8B8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8B9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8B10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8B12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8C1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8D4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8F1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8G2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8G3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8G5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8G7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8H3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8I1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8I2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8I4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8J1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8J2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8J3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8K2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8K3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8K4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8K5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8L1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8Q1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8R1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8S21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8T1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8U1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8U3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8U8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8U9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8V1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR8X1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9A1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9G2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9G3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9G4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9G9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9I2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9I3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9K1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9L1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9M1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9N1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9P1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9Q1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9Q2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9R1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR9S24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10AA1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10AB1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10AC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10AD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10AE1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10AE3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10AF1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10AG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10AH1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10AK1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10B1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10D1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10D4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10D5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10G1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10G3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10G4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10G5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10G6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10G7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10G8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10G9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10H3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10H4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10H5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10J1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10J2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10J3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10J4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10J5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10J6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10J7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10J8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10J9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10N1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10Q1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10Q2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10R1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10R3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10T1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10T2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10U1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10V1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10V2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10V3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10V7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10W1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10X1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10Y1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR10Z1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11G1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11H3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11H4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11H5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11H6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11H7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11H12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11H13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11I1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11J1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11J2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11J5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11J6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11J7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11K1BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11K1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11K2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11M1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11N1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11P1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR11Q1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR12D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR12D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR12D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13C1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13C4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13C5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13C6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13C7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13C8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13C9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13D2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13D3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13E1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13I1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13J1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13K1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13Z1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13Z2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR13Z3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR14A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR14A16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR14C36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR14I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR14J1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR14K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR14L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51A1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51A5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51A6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51A8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51A9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51A10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51AB1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51B3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51B5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51B6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51B8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51C4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51F3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51F4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51F5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51H2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51I2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51J1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51K1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51M1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51N1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51P1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51Q1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51R1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51T1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR51V1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52A4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52B1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52B3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52B5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52B6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52E3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52E4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52E5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52E6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52E7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52E8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52H2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52I2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52J1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52J2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52J3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52K3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52L2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52M1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52M2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52N1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52N2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52N3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52N4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52N5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52P2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52Q1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52S1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52T1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52U1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52V1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52W1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52X1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52Y1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR52Z1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR55B1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR56A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR56A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR56A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR56A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR56A7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR56B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR56B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR56B3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OR56B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORAI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORAI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORAI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORMDL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORMDL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORMDL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ORMDL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OS9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OS9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL9P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL9P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL9P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL9P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSBPL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSCAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSER1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSGEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSGEPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSGEPL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSGIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSGIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSMR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSMR-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OST4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTCP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTCP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTCP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTCP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTCP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OSTN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOGL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOP1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOP1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUD4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUD6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUD6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUD6B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUD7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTUD7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTULIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTULIN-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTULINL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTX2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OTX2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVAAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVCA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVCH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVCH1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVCH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVOL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVOL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVOL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVOL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVOS1BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVOS1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OVOS2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXA1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXA1L-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXCT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXCT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXCT1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXCT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXCT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXGR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXLD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXNAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXSM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| OXTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RX5-TAX1BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RX6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RX7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RY4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RY6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RY8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RY10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RY10BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RY11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RY12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RY13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P2RY14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P3H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P3H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P3H2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P3H3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P3H4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P3R3URF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P3R3URF-PIK3R3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P4HA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P4HA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P4HA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P4HA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P4HA3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P4HB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P4HB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| P4HTM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PA2G4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PA2G4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PA2G4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PA2G4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PA2G4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PA2G4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PA2G4P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABIR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABIR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABIR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1L2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1L2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1L2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC4L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPC5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPN1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABPN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PABY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACERR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACRG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACRG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACRG-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACRG-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACRGL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACSIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACSIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PACSIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PADI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PADI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PADI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PADI4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PADI6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAEPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAFAH1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAFAH1B1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAFAH1B1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAFAH1B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAFAH1B2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAFAH1B2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAFAH1B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAFAH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAGE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAGE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAGE2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAGE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAGE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAGE4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAGE5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAGR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAICS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAICSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAICSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAICSP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAICSP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAICSP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAICSP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAICSP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAIP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAIP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAIP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAK1IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAK4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAK6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALLD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALLD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALM2AKAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALM2AKAP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALMD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PALS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAM16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAMR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANDAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANK3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANTR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PANX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPLN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPLN-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPOLA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPOLA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPOLB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPOLG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPPA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPPA-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPSS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPSS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAPSS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAQR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAQR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAQR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAQR5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAQR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAQR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAQR8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAQR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAQR9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARAIL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARD3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARD3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARD6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARD6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARD6BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARD6G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARD6G-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARK7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARK7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARPBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PART1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARTICL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARVA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARVB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PARVG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PASD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PASK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PATE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PATE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PATE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PATE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PATJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PATJ-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PATL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PATL1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PATL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PATZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAUPAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAWR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAWRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAWRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAX6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAX7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAX8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAX8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAX9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAXBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAXBP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAXBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAXIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAXIP1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAXIP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PAXX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBLD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBOV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBX2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBX3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBX4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PBXIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCARE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCAT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCAT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCAT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCAT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCAT14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCAT18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCAT19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCAT29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBP2-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBP2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBP2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBP2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCCA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCCA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCCB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH9-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH9-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH9-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH10-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH11X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH11Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDH20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHA@ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHACT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHB@ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHG@ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGB8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGB9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCDHGCT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCED1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCED1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCED1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCED1CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCF11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCGEM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCGF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCGF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCGF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCGF3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCGF3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCGF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCGF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCGF7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCHILR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCID2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCIF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCLAF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCLO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMTD1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMTD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMTD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMTD1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMTD1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMTD1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMTD1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMTD1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMTD1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCMTD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNPP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNPP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCNX4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCOLCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCOLCE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCOLCE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCOTH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCOTHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCP4L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCSEAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCSK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCSK1N | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCSK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCSK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCSK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCSK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCSK6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCSK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCSK9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCTP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCYOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCYOX1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCYT1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCYT1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCYT1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PCYT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDAP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDAP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD1LG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD6-AHRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD6IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD6IP-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD6IPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD6IPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDCL3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE2A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE2A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE3A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4D-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4D-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4DIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4DIPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4DIPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4DIPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4DIPP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4DIPP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4DIPP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4DIPP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4DIPP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4DIPP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE4DIPP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE6B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE6B-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE6C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE6D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE6G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE6H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE7A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE7B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE9A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE11A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDE12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDGFA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDGFA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDGFB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDGFC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDGFD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDGFDDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDGFRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDGFRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDGFRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDGFRL2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDHA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDHA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDHA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDHX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDIA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDIA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDIA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDIA3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDIA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDIA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDIA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDIK1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDILT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDILT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDK1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDK4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDLIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDLIM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDLIM1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDLIM1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDLIM1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDLIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDLIM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDLIM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDLIM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDLIM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDLIM7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDPK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDPK2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDPR2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDS5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDS5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDS5B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDSS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDSS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDSS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDSS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDXDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDXDC2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDXDC2P-NPIPB14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDXK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDXP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDXP-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDYN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDYN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZD2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZK1IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZPH1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZRN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZRN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZRN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PDZRN4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEA15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEA15-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEAK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEAK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEARL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEBP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEBP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEBP4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PECAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PECR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEDS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEDS1-UBE2V1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEG3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEG10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEG13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PELATON | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PELI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PELI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PELI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PELO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PELO-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PELP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PELP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PENK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PENK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEPD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEPE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PER3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PER3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PERCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PERM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PERP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PERPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PERPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PERPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PES1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PES1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PES1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PES1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PET100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PET100P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PET117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PET117P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX5L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX5L-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX11G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PEX39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PF4V1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFDN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFDN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFDN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFDN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFDN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFDN4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFDN4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFDN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFDN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFKFB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFKFB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFKFB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFKFB3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFKFB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFKL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFKM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFKP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFKP-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFN5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PFPLP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAM5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD4P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD4P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD4P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGCKA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGCKA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGDP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGGHG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGGT1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGGT1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGGT1BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGK1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGLS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGLS-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGLYRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGLYRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGLYRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGLYRP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM5P3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGM5P4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGPEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGPEP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGRMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGRMC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PGS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHACTR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHACTR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHACTR2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHACTR2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHACTR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHACTR3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHACTR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHAX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHETA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHETA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHEX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF5AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF5AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF5AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF5AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF5AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF5AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF5AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF20L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF21A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF21B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHF24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHGDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHGR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKG1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKG1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKG1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHKG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHLDA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHLDA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHLDA1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHLDA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHLDA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHLDB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHLDB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHLDB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHLPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHLPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHOSPHO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHOSPHO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHOX2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHOX2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHOX2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHTF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHTF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHYH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHYHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHYHIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHYHIPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PHYKPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PI4K2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PI4K2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PI4K2B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PI4KA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PI4KAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PI4KAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PI4KB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PI15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PI16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIANP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIAS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIAS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIAS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIBF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PICALM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PICART1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PICK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PICSAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PID1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIDD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIERCE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIERCE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIEZO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIEZO1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIEZO1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIEZO1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIEZO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGBOS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGFP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGO-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGPP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGQP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGUP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGY-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGYP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIGZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIH1D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIH1D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3C2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3C2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3C2G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3CA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3CA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3CB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3CD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3CD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3CD-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3CDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3CG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3IP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3R3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3R4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3R5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3R5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIK3R6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIKFYVE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PILRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PILRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIMREG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIMREGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIMREGP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIMREGP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIMREGP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIN1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIN4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PINCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PINK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PINK1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PINLYP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PINX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PINX1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP4K2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP4K2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP4K2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP5K1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP5K1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP5K1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP5K1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP5K1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIP5KL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIPOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIPSL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC94 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC98 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC99 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC102 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC103 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC104 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC105 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC106 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC109 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRC114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PISD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PISRT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITPNA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITPNA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITPNB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITPNC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITPNM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITPNM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITPNM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITPNM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITRM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITX2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PITX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIWIL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIWIL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIWIL2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIWIL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIWIL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PIWIL4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PJA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PJA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PJVK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1L1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD2L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKD2L2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKDCC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKDREJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKHD1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKIA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKIA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKIB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKIG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKLR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKMP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKMP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKMYT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKMYT1AR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKNOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKNOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKNOX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKNOX2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKP4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PKP4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G2E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G2F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G4C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G4E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G4E-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G4F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10JP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10KP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G12AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G12AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2G15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLA2R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAAT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAAT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAC8L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAC9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAGL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAGL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLAUR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLBD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLBD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLBD1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLBD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCB1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCE1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCE1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCH1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCH1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCL2UT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCXD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCXD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCXD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCXD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCXD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLCZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLD5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLD5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHA8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHG4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHG6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLEKHS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLET1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLGLA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLGLB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLGLB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLGRKT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLIN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLIN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLIN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLK4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLLP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLLPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLOD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLOD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPPR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPPR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPPR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPPR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPPR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLPPR5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLS3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLSCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLSCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLSCR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLSCR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLSCR4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLSCR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLSCR5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLTP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLUT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLVAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXDC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNA4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNA4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNB3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXNC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PLXND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PM20D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PM20D1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PM20D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMAIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMAR72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMCH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMCHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMCHL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMEL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMEPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMF1-BGLAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMFBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMIS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PML | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMM2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMM2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMPCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMPCAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMPCB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2CL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMS2P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PMVK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNCK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNCRNA-D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNISR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNISR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNKD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNKDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNKP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNLDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNLIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNLIPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNLIPRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNLIPRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNLIPRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMA6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMA6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMA6E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMA6F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMA8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMA8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMA8C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNOC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPLA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPLA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPLA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPLA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPLA4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPLA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPLA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPLA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPLA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPLA10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNPT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNRC1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNRC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNRC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNRC2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNRC2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PNRC2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POC1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POC1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POC1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POC1B-GALNT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POC5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PODN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PODNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PODXL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PODXL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POFUT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POFUT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POFUT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POFUT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POGK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POGLUT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POGLUT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POGLUT2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POGLUT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POGZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLDIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLDIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLE4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLG-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLGARF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR1H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR1HASP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2DP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2DP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2F-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2J2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2J3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2J3-UPK3BL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2J4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2KP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2KP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR2MP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3DP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3GL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3GP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3GP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3KP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLR3KP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLRMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POLRMTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POM121L15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POMC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POMGNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POMGNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POMGNT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POMK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POMPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POMT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POMZP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PON1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PON2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PON3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POPDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POPDC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POPDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POPDC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PORCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PORCN-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POSTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTED | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEF-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEKP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POTEM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU1F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU2AF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU2AF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU2AF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU2F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU2F1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU2F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU2F3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU2F3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU3F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU3F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU3F3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU3F4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU4F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU4F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU4F3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU5F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU5F1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU5F1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU5F1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU5F1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU5F1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU5F1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU5F1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU5F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU6F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU6F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU6F2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| POU6F2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PP1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PP2D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPAN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPAN-P2RY11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPARA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPARD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPARG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPARGC1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPARGC1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPARGC1A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPARGC1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPATP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPATP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPBPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPBPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPCDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPCS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPDPF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPDPFL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPDPFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPDPFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPEF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPEF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPEF2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPFIA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPFIA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPFIA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPFIA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPFIA2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPFIA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPFIA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPFIBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPFIBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPHLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAL4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAL4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAL4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAL4E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAL4F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAL4G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAL4H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIAP93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPID | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIEL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIP5K1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIP5K1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPIP5K2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1F-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1J-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1K-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1L-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPM1N | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPME1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1CA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1CB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1CB-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1CC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R1AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R3B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R3B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R3E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R3F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R3G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R9A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R11P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R12A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R12A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R12BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R12BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R12C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R13B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R13L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R14A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R14B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R14B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R14BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R14BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R14BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R14BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R14BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R14C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R14D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R15A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R15B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R15B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R16A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R16B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R21-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R26-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R26P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R26P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R26P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R26P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R26P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R35-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP1R42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2CA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2CA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2CB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2CBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R2B-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R2B-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R2DP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R5CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R5D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP2R5E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP3CA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP3CA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP3CB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP3CB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP3CC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP3R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP3R1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP3R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R3B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP4R4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP5C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP5D1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP6C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP6CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP6R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP6R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP6R2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPP6R3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPT2-EGFL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPTC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPWD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PPY2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PQBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRADC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRADC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRADX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAME | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAME-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF32P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF34P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF35P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMEF36P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAMENP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRANCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRCC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRCP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRCPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM9-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM10-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDM16-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRDX6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PREB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRECSIT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3BP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3BP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3BP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3BP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3BP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELID3BP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRELP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PREP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PREP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PREPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PREX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PREX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRICKLE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRICKLE1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRICKLE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRICKLE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRICKLE2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRICKLE2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRICKLE2-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRICKLE2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRICKLE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRICKLE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRIM2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRIMA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRIMPOL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRINS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAA1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKACA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKACB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKACB-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKACG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAG2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAR1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAR1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAR1B-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAR2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAR2A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAR2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKAR2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCE-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCH-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCQ-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCSH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCZ-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKCZ-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKD3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKG2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKRAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKRIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKX-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKXP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRKY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRLH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRLHR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRLR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRMT9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRNCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRND | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRNP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRNT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROCA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRODH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRODH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRODHLP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROK2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROKR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROKR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRORP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRORSD1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRORY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROS2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROSER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROSER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROSER2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROSER3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PROZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRP4K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF4BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF19-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF19P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF31-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF38A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF38AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF38AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF38B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF39-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF40A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPF40B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPS1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPSAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRPSAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR5-ARHGAP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR13P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR13P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR13P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR13P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR13P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR13P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR14L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR15-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR15L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR20A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR20B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR20C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR20D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR20E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR20FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR20G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR23A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR23B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR23C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR23D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR23D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR23D3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR23E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR23E2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR29-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRR36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRC2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRC2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRC2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRC2CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRT1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRT3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRRX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS23-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS40A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS40B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS42P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS44P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS45P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS46P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS47P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS52P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRSS59P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRTFDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRTG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRTN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRUNE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRUNE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRUNE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRXL2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRXL2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRXL2AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRXL2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRXL2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRXL2CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRYP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRYP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRYP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRYP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRYP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PRYP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSAPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSAT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSAT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSAT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSAT1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSEN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSEN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSENEN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSG11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSIP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSIP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSKH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSKH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSLNR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMB11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC3IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMC6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD6-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD7P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD7P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD10P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD14-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMD14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME3IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME3IP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSME4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMG3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMG3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMG3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSMG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSORS1C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSORS1C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSORS1C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSPC1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSPC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSPC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSPHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSTK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSTPIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PSTPIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTAFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTBP1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCD2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCHD1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCHD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCHD3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCHD3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCHD3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCHD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCSC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCSC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTCSC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTDSS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTDSS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTEN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTENP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTENP1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTER | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTF1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGDR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGDR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGDS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGER3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGER3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGER4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGER4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGER4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGER4P2-CDK2AP2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGER4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGES | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGES2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGES2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGES3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGES3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGES3L-AARSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGES3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGES3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGES3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGES3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGES3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGFRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGIR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGIS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTGS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTH1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTH2R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTHLH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTK2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMAP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTMS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTOV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTOV1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTOV1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTOV1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTP4A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN11BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN11P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN11P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN11P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN11P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN20CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPN23-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRCAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRD-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRJ-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRN2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRN2-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRT-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRVP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTPRZ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTRH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTRH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTRHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTTG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTTG1IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTTG1IP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTTG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTTG1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTTG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTTG3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PTX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUDP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUDPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUDPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUDPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUF60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PURA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PURB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PURG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PURPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUS7L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUS7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUS10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PUSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PVALB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PVALEF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PVR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PVRIG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PVRIG2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PVT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWAR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWAR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWAR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWARSN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWRN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWRN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWRN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWRN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWWP2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWWP2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWWP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWWP3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWWP3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PWWP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PXDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PXDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PXDNL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PXK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PXMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PXMP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PXN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PXN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PXT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PXYLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYCARD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYCARD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYCR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYCR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYDC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYDC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYGB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYGL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYGM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYGO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYGO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYGO2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYHIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYHIN5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYROXD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYROXD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYURF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PYY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PZP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| PZP2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QDPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QKI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QKILA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QNG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QPCT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QPCTL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QPRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QRFP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QRFPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QRICH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QRICH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QRSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QRSL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QRSL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QRSL1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QSER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QSOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QSOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QTGAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QTMAN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QTMAN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QTRT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QTRT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| QTRT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| R3HCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| R3HCC1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| R3HDM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| R3HDM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| R3HDM2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| R3HDM2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| R3HDM2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| R3HDM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| R3HDML | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| R3HDML-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB1AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB3C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB3GAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB3GAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB3IL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB3IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB4A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB4B-EGLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB5C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB5CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB5CP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB5IF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB6C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB6C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB6D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB9AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB9AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB9AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB9AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB9AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB9BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB11AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB11AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB11B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB11FIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB11FIP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB11FIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB11FIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB11FIP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB11FIP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB17-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB22A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB27A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB27B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB27B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB28-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB28P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB28P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB28P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB28P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB28P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB30-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB31P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB33A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB33B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB33B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB35-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB37-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB39A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB39B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB40A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB40AL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB40B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB40C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB42P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB43P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAB44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABEPK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABEPKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGAP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGAP1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGAP1L-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGAP1L-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGEF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGEF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGEF1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGGTA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGGTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABGGTBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABIF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABL2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABL2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RABL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RACGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RACGAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RACK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RACK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RACK1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RACK1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD17P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD17P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD21-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD21L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD21P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD23A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD23B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD23BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD23BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD23BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD51-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD51AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD51AP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD51AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD51B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD51B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD51C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD51D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD52P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD54B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD54L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD54L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAD54L2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RADIL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RADX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAET1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAET1E-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAET1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAET1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAET1K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAET1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAET1M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAI1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAI14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAI14-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALBP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALGAPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALGAPA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALGAPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALGAPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALGDS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALGPS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALGPS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALGPS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALY-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RALYL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAMAC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAMACL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAMP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANBP3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANBP3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANBP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANBP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANBP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANBP20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANGRF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RANP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1BL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1GAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1GAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1GAP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1GDS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP1GDS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP2C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAP2CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAPGEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAPGEF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAPGEF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAPGEF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAPGEF4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAPGEF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAPGEF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAPGEFL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAPSN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARRES2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASA2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASA3-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASA4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASA4CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASA4DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASA4EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASAL2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASAL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASEF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGEF1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGEF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGEF1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGRF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGRF2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGRF2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGRP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGRP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASGRP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASL10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASL10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASL11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASL11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASL12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RASSF10-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAVER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAVER2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RAX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RB1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RB1CC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBAK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBAK-RBAKDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBAKDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP4P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP4P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP8NL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBBP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBCK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBFA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBFADN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBFOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBFOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBFOX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBIS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBISP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBISP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBISP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBISP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBISP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBISP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBKS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM12B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM12B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM14-RBM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM15-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM15B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM17P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM17P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM17P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM17P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM19-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM22P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM22P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM22P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM22P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM22P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM22P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM22P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM22P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM22P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM22P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM25-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM26-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM27-POU4F3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM33-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM38-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM39P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM43P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM46-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM47-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM47-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBM48P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMS3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMS3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMS3-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMX2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMX2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMX2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMX2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMX2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMXL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMXL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMXL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMXP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMXP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMXP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMXP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY1A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY1GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY1HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY1J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY1KP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2JP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2KP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2MP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2NP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2OP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2QP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2SP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2TP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2UP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2VP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2WP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2XP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY2YP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBMY3AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPJ-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPJL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPJP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPJP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPJP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPJP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPJP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPJP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPJP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPMS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPMS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPMS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPMS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBPMSLP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBSN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBX1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RBX1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RC3H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RC3H1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RC3H1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RC3H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCAN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCAN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCAN2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCAN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCAN3AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCBTB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCBTB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCBTB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCC2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCCD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCHY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCOR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCOR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCOR2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCOR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RCVRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RD3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDH5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDH8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDH10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDH10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDH11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDH12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDH13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDH14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDH16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDM1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDM1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDM1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDM1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDUR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDXP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RDXP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REC114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RECK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RECQL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RECQL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RECQL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REDIC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REELD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REEP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REEP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REEP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REEP5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REEP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REG1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REG1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REG1CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REG3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REG3G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REL-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RELA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RELA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RELB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RELCH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RELL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RELL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RELN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RELT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RENBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RENO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REPIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REPIN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REPS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REPS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RERE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RERE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REREP1Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REREP2Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REREP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RERG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RERG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RERG-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RERGL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RESF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RESP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RET | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RETN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RETNLB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RETREG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RETREG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RETREG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RETREG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RETSAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REV3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REV3L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REV3L-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REX1BD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1L1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1L2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1L3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1L4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1L5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1L6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1L8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1L9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1L10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1L11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO1L12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| REXO6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFC3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFC5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFESD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFESDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFFL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFKP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFKP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFKP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFKP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFKP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFLNA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFLNB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFNG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL1S | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL3S | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL4AL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL4AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL4AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL4AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL4AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL4AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL4AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL4AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFPL4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFTN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFTN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFWD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFX8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFXANK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RFXAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGCC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGL4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGMA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGMB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGMB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGPD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGPD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGPD4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGPD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGPD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGPD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS7BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS9BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS12-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS17P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGS22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RGSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHAG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHBDD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHBDD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHBDD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHBDF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHBDF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHBDF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHBDL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHBDL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHBDL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHBG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHCG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHEB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHEBL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHEBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHEBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHEBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHEX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHNO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOA-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOBTB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOBTB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOBTB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOBTB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOG2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOJ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOQ-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOQP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOQP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOQP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOXF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOXF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOXF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOXF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOXF1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOXF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHOXF2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHPN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHPN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHPN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RHPN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIBC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIBC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIC3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIC8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIC8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RICTOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RICTOR-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIDAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIDAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIDAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIGI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIIAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RILP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RILPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RILPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMBP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMBP3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMBP3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMKLA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMKLB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMKLBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMKLBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMOC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIMS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RING1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RINL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RINT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIOK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIOK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIOK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIOK3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPOR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPOR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPOR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPOR3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPPLY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPPLY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPPLY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIPPLY3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RIT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RITA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLIG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLIG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLIG1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLIG1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLIM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLIMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLIMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLIMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RLN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMDN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMDN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMDN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMDN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMEL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMI2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMND5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMND5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMP24P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMP64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMRPP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RMST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP94 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP98 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP99 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP102 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP103 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP104 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP105 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP106 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP109 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP129 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP130 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP137 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP139 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP142 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP144 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP145 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP146 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP147 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP148 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP149 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP150 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP151 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP153 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP154 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP155 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP156 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP158 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP159 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP161 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP162 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP164 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP165 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP166 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP167 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP168 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP169 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP170 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP171 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP172 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP173 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP174 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP175 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP176 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP177 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP178 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP179 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP183 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP184 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP185 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP186 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP187 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP188 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP189 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP190 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP191 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP192 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP193 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP194 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP195 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP196 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP197 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP198 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP199 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP200 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP202 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP203 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP204 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP205 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP206 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP207 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP208 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP209 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP211 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP212 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP213 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP214 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP216 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP217 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP218 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP219 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP220 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP221 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP222 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP223 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP224 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP225 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP226 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP227 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP228 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP229 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP230 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP231 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP232 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP233 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP234 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP235 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP236 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP237 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP238 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP239 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP240 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP241 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP242 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP243 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP244 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP245 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP246 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP247 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP248 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP249 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP250 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP251 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP252 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP253 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP254 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP255 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP256 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP257 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP258 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP259 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP260 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP261 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP262 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP263 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP264 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP265 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP266 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP267 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP268 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP269 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP270 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP271 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP272 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP273 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP275 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP277 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP278 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP279 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP280 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP281 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP282 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP283 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP284 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP285 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP286 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP287 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP288 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP289 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP290 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP291 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP292 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP293 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP294 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP295 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP296 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP297 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP298 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SKP299 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL32P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL33P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL34P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL35P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL36P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL37P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL38P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL39P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL40P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL42P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL44P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL45P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL47P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL48P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL49P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL50P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL51P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL52P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL55P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL57P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL58P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL60P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL62P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL63P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL65P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL66P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL67P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL68P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL69P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL70P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL72P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL73P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL74P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL75P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL76P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL77P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL78P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL79P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL81P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL82P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL83P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL87P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL88P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL89P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL91P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL92P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL93P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL96P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL97P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL98P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL100P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL101P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL104P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL105P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL106P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL107P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL108P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL110P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL111P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL113P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL116P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL117P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL118P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL120P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL121P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL122P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL123P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL124P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL125P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL126P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL127P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL128P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL130P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL131P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL132P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL134P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL135P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL138P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL140P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL141P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL143P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL144P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL145P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL146P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL147P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL148P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL149P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL150P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL151P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL152P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL153P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL154P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL155P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL156P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL159P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL160P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL162P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL163P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL164P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL165P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL166P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL167P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL168P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL169P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL170P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL172P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL173P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL174P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL176P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL177P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL178P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL180P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL181P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL182P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL183P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL184P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL185P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL186P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL187P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL188P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL189P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL190P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL191P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL192P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL193P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL196P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL197P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL198P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL199P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL200P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL201P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL202P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL203P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL204P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL205P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL208P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL209P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL210P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL211P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL213P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL214P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL215P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL216P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL217P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL218P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL219P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL220P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL221P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL222P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL223P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL225P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL228P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL229P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL230P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL231P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL233P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL234P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL236P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL237P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL238P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL239P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL240P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL241P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL242P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL244P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL246P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL248P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL250P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL251P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL252P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL253P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL254P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL255P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL258P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL259P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL260P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL261P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL262P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL263P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL265P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL266P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL267P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL268P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL269P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL270P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL271P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL272P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL273P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL274P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL275P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL277P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL278P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL279P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL280P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL282P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL283P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL284P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL285P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL286P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL288P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL290P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL291P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL292P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL293P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL294P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL296P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL297P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL299P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL300P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL301P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL302P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL303P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL304P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL305P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL306P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL307P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL308P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL309P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL310P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL311P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL313P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL314P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL316P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL317P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL318P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL319P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL320P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL321P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL322P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL323P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL325P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL326P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL327P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL328P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL329P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL330P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL331P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL332P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL333P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL334P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL335P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL336P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL337P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL338P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL339P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL340P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL341P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL342P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL343P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL344P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL346P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL350P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL351P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL352P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL353P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL354P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL356P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL357P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL359P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL361P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL362P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL363P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL364P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL366P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL368P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL369P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL370P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL371P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL372P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL375P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL376P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL377P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL378P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL379P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL380P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL381P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL382P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL383P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL384P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL385P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL386P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL387P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL388P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL390P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL391P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL392P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL393P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL394P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL395P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL396P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL397P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL398P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL399P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL400P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL401P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL402P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL403P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL404P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL405P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL408P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL411P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL413P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL414P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL415P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL416P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL417P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL418P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL419P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL420P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL422P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL423P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL424P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL425P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL426P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL428P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL429P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL430P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL431P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL432P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL434P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL435P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL438P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL440P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL441P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL442P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL443P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL444P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL445P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL446P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL447P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL448P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL449P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL451P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL452P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL453P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL454P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL455P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL456P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL457P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL459P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL460P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL461P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL462P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL464P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL465P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL466P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL468P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL469P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL470P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL471P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL472P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL473P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL474P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL475P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL477P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL478P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL479P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL480P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL481P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL482P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL483P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL484P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL487P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL488P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL489P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL491P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL492P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL493P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL494P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL495P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL496P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL497P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL498P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL499P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL500P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL502P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL503P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL504P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL505P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL507P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL508P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL509P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL510P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL513P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL515P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL516P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL517P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL518P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL519P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL520P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL521P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL523P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL524P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL525P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL526P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL530P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL531P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL535P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL536P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL538P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL539P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL541P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL542P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL543P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL544P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL545P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL546P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL547P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL549P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL551P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL552P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL553P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL554P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL555P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL556P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL557P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL558P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL559P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL560P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL561P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL563P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL564P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL565P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL566P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL567P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL568P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL569P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL570P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL571P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL573P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL574P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL575P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL577P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL578P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL580P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL581P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL582P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL583P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL584P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL585P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL586P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL587P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL589P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL591P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL592P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL594P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL596P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL597P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL598P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL600P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL601P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL602P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL604P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL605P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL606P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL607P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL608P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL610P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL612P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL614P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL615P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL616P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL617P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL618P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL619P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL620P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL621P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL622P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL623P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL624P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL625P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL627P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL628P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL629P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL630P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL632P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL633P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL634P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL635P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL636P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL638P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL640P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL643P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL644P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL645P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL646P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL647P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL648P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL649P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL650P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL652P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL653P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL654P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL655P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL656P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL657P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL658P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL659P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL660P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL663P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL664P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL665P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL666P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL667P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL668P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL670P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL671P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL672P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL673P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL674P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL675P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL676P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL677P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL678P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL679P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL680P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL681P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL683P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL684P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL685P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL687P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL688P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL689P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL690P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL691P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL692P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL693P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL697P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL698P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL700P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL702P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL703P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL704P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL705P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL706P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL708P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL709P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL711P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL712P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL713P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL714P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL715P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL716P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL717P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL718P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL719P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL720P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL722P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL724P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL725P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL726P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL727P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL728P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL731P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL732P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL733P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL734P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL735P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL736P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL737P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL738P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL740P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL741P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL743P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL744P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL745P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL748P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL749P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL750P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL751P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL752P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL753P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL754P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL756P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL757P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL759P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL760P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL761P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL762P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL763P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL764P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL766P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL767P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL769P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL771P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL774P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL775P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL776P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL778P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL782P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL783P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL784P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL785P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL786P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL787P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL788P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL789P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL790P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL791P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL792P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL793P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL794P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL795P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL796P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL797P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL798P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL799P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL800P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL801P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL802P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL803P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL804P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL806P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL807P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL808P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL809P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL810P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL811P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL812P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL813P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL814P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL815P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL817P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL818P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL819P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL820P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL822P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL823P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL824P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL825P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL826P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL827P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL828P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL831P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL832P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL833P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL834P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL835P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL836P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL837P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL838P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL840P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL841P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL842P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL843P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL845P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL846P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL847P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL849P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL850P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL851P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL853P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL854P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL856P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL860P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL861P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL862P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL863P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL864P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL865P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL868P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL869P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RN7SL870P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8S3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8S4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8S5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5-8SP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5S17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP94 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP98 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP99 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP102 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP103 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP104 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP105 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP106 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP109 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP129 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP130 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP137 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP138 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP139 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP142 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP144 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP145 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP146 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP147 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP148 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP149 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP150 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP151 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP153 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP154 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP155 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP156 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP158 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP159 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP161 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP162 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP164 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP165 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP166 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP167 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP168 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP169 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP170 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP171 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP172 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP173 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP174 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP175 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP176 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP177 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP178 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP179 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP183 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP184 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP185 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP186 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP187 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP188 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP189 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP190 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP191 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP192 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP193 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP194 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP195 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP196 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP197 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP198 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP199 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP200 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP201 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP202 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP203 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP204 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP205 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP206 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP207 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP208 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP209 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP211 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP212 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP213 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP214 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP215 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP216 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP217 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP218 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP219 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP220 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP221 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP222 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP223 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP224 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP225 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP226 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP227 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP228 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP229 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP230 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP231 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP232 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP233 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP234 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP235 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP236 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP237 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP238 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP239 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP240 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP241 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP242 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP243 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP244 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP245 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP246 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP247 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP248 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP249 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP250 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP251 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP252 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP253 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP254 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP255 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP256 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP257 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP258 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP259 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP260 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP261 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP262 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP263 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP264 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP265 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP266 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP267 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP268 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP269 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP270 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP271 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP272 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP273 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP274 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP275 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP277 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP278 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP279 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP280 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP281 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP282 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP283 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP284 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP285 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP286 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP287 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP288 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP289 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP290 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP291 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP292 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP293 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP294 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP295 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP296 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP297 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP298 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP299 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP300 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP301 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP302 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP303 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP304 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP305 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP306 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP307 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP308 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP309 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP310 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP311 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP312 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP315 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP317 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP318 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP319 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP320 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP321 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP322 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP323 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP324 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP325 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP326 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP327 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP328 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP329 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP330 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP331 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP332 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP333 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP334 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP335 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP336 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP337 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP338 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP339 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP340 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP341 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP342 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP343 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP344 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP345 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP346 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP347 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP348 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP349 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP350 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP351 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP352 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP353 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP354 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP355 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP356 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP357 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP358 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP359 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP360 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP361 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP362 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP363 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP364 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP365 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP366 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP367 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP368 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP369 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP370 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP371 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP372 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP373 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP374 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP375 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP376 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP377 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP378 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP379 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP380 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP382 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP383 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP384 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP385 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP386 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP387 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP388 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP389 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP390 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP391 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP392 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP393 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP394 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP395 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP396 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP397 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP399 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP400 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP401 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP402 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP403 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP404 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP405 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP406 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP407 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP408 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP409 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP410 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP411 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP412 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP413 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP414 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP415 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP416 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP417 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP418 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP419 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP420 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP421 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP422 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP423 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP424 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP425 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP426 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP427 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP428 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP429 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP430 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP431 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP432 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP433 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP434 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP435 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP436 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP437 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP438 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP439 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP440 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP441 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP442 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP443 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP444 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP445 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP446 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP447 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP448 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP449 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP450 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP451 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP452 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP453 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP454 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP455 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP456 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP457 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP458 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP459 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP460 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP461 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP462 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP463 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP464 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP465 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP466 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP467 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP468 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP469 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP470 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP471 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP472 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP473 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP474 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP475 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP476 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP477 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP478 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP479 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP480 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP481 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP482 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP483 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP484 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP485 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP486 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP487 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP488 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP489 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP490 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP491 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP492 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP493 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP494 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP495 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP496 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP497 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP498 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP499 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP500 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP501 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP502 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP503 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP504 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP505 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP506 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP507 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP508 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP509 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP510 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP511 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP512 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP513 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP514 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP515 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP516 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP517 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP518 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP519 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP520 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP521 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP522 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP523 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP524 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP525 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP526 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP527 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP528 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP529 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP530 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP531 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP532 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP533 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP534 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP535 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA5SP536 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18S3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18S4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18S5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18SN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18SN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18SN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18SN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18SN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18SP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18SP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18SP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA18SP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA28S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA28S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA28S3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA28S4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA28S5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA28SN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA28SN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA28SN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA28SN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA28SN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA45S1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA45S2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA45S3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA45S4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA45S5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA45SN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA45SN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA45SN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA45SN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNA45SN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE2CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASE13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEH1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEH1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEH1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEH2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEH2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEH2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEH2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEH2CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEK-C17orf49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASEL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNASET2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RND2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RND3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF4BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF11P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF14P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF14P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF14P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF19A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF19B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF19BPX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF19BPY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF26-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF32-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF32-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF103 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF103-CHMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF112-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF113A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF113B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF126P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF130 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF130-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF138 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF138P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF138P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF139 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF139-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF144A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF144B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF145 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF146 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF148 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF149 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF150 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF151 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF152P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF157-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF166 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF167 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF168 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF169 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF170 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF175 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF180-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF183 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF185 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF185-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF186 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF186-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF187 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF207 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF207-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF208 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF212 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF212-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF212B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF213 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF213-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF214 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF215 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF216 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF216-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF216P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF217 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF217-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF220 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF222 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF223 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF224 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF225 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF227 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNF228 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNFT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNFT1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNFT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNFT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNFT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNFT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNGTT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNGTTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNLS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNPC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNPC3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNPC3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNPEP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNPEPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNPS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNPS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-32P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-33P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-34P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-35P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-36P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-38P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-39P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-40P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-42P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-44P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-45P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-46P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-47P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-48P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-49P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-51P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-52P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-54P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-55P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-56P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-57P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-58P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-61P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-62P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-63P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-64P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-65P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-67P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-68P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-70P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-72P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-73P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-74P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-75P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-76P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-77P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-78P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-79P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-80P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-82P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-83P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-84P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-86P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-88P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-89P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-91P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-93P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-94P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-95P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-96P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-97P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-98P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-100P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-101P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-103P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-104P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-105P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-107P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-108P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-109P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-112P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-114P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-115P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-116P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-117P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-119P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-123P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-124P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-125P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-128P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-129P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-130P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-131P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-132P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-133P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-134P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-136P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-138P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-139P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-140P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-141P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-142P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-143P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-146P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-148P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-149P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-150P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-151P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-152P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-153P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-154P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU1-155P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-32P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-33P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-34P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-35P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-36P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-37P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-38P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-39P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-40P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-42P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-44P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-45P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-46P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-47P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-48P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-49P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-50P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-51P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-52P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-53P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-54P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-55P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-56P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-57P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-58P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-59P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-60P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-61P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-62P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-63P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-64P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-65P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-66P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-68P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-69P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-70P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-71P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU2-72P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-32P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-33P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-34P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-35P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-36P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-37P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-38P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-39P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-40P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-42P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-44P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-45P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-46P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-47P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-48P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-49P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-50P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-51P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-52P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-53P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-54P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-55P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-56P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-57P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-58P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-59P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-60P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-61P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-62P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-63P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-64P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-65P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-66P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-67P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-68P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-69P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-70P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-71P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-72P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-73P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-74P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-75P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-76P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-77P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-78P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-79P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-80P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-81P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-82P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-83P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-84P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-85P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-86P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-87P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-88P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-89P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-90P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-91P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4-92P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU4ATAC18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5A-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5A-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5A-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5A-4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5A-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5A-6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5A-7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5A-8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5B-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5B-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5B-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5B-4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5B-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5B-6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5D-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5D-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5E-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5E-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5E-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5E-4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5E-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5E-6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5E-7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5E-8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5E-9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5E-10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5F-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5F-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5F-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5F-4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5F-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5F-6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5F-7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU5F-8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-32P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-33P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-34P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-35P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-36P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-37P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-38P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-39P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-40P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-42P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-44P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-45P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-46P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-47P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-48P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-49P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-50P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-52P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-53P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-54P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-55P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-56P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-57P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-58P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-59P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-60P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-61P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-62P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-63P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-64P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-65P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-66P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-67P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-68P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-69P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-70P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-71P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-72P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-73P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-74P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-75P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-76P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-77P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-78P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-79P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-80P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-81P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-82P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-83P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-84P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-85P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-86P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-87P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-88P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-89P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-90P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-91P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-92P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-94P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-95P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-97P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-98P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-99P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-100P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-101P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-102P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-103P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-104P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-105P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-106P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-107P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-108P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-109P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-110P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-111P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-112P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-113P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-114P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-115P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-116P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-117P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-118P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-119P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-120P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-121P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-122P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-123P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-125P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-126P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-127P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-128P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-129P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-130P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-131P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-132P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-133P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-135P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-136P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-137P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-138P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-139P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-140P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-141P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-142P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-143P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-144P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-145P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-146P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-147P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-148P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-150P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-151P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-152P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-153P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-154P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-155P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-156P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-157P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-158P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-159P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-160P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-161P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-162P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-163P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-164P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-165P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-166P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-167P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-168P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-169P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-170P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-171P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-172P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-173P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-174P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-175P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-176P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-177P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-178P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-179P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-180P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-181P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-182P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-183P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-184P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-185P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-187P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-188P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-189P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-190P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-191P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-192P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-193P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-194P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-195P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-196P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-197P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-198P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-199P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-200P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-201P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-202P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-203P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-204P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-205P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-206P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-207P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-208P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-209P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-210P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-211P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-212P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-213P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-214P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-215P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-216P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-217P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-218P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-219P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-220P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-221P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-222P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-223P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-224P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-225P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-226P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-227P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-228P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-229P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-230P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-231P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-232P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-233P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-234P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-235P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-236P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-237P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-238P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-239P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-240P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-241P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-242P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-243P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-244P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-245P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-246P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-247P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-248P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-249P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-250P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-251P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-252P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-253P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-254P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-255P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-256P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-257P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-258P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-259P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-260P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-261P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-262P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-263P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-264P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-266P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-267P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-268P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-269P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-270P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-271P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-272P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-273P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-274P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-275P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-276P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-277P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-278P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-279P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-280P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-281P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-282P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-283P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-284P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-285P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-286P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-287P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-288P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-289P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-290P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-291P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-293P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-294P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-295P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-296P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-297P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-298P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-299P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-300P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-301P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-302P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-303P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-304P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-306P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-307P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-308P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-309P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-310P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-311P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-312P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-313P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-314P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-315P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-316P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-317P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-318P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-319P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-320P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-321P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-322P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-323P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-324P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-325P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-326P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-327P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-328P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-329P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-330P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-331P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-332P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-333P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-334P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-335P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-336P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-337P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-338P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-339P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-340P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-341P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-342P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-343P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-344P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-345P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-346P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-347P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-348P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-349P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-351P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-352P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-353P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-354P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-355P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-356P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-358P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-359P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-360P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-361P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-362P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-363P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-364P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-365P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-366P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-367P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-368P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-369P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-370P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-371P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-373P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-374P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-375P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-376P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-377P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-378P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-379P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-380P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-381P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-382P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-383P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-384P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-386P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-387P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-388P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-389P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-390P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-391P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-392P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-393P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-394P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-395P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-396P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-397P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-398P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-399P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-400P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-401P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-402P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-403P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-405P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-406P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-407P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-408P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-409P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-410P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-411P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-412P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-413P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-414P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-415P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-416P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-417P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-418P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-419P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-420P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-421P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-422P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-424P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-425P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-426P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-428P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-429P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-430P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-431P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-432P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-433P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-434P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-435P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-436P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-437P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-438P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-439P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-440P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-441P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-442P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-443P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-444P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-445P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-446P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-447P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-448P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-449P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-450P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-451P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-452P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-453P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-454P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-455P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-456P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-457P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-458P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-460P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-461P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-462P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-463P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-464P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-465P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-466P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-467P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-468P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-469P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-470P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-471P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-472P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-473P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-474P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-475P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-476P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-477P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-478P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-479P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-480P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-481P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-482P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-483P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-484P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-485P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-486P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-487P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-488P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-489P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-490P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-491P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-492P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-493P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-494P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-495P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-496P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-497P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-498P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-499P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-500P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-501P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-502P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-503P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-504P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-505P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-506P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-507P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-508P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-509P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-510P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-511P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-512P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-513P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-514P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-516P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-517P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-518P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-519P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-520P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-521P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-522P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-523P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-524P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-525P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-526P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-527P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-528P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-529P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-530P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-531P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-532P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-533P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-534P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-535P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-536P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-537P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-538P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-539P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-540P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-541P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-542P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-543P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-544P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-545P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-546P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-547P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-548P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-549P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-550P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-551P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-552P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-553P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-554P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-555P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-556P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-557P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-558P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-559P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-560P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-561P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-562P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-563P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-564P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-565P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-566P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-567P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-570P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-571P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-572P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-573P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-574P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-575P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-576P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-577P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-578P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-579P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-580P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-581P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-582P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-583P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-584P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-586P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-587P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-588P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-589P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-590P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-591P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-592P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-593P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-595P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-596P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-597P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-598P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-599P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-600P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-601P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-602P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-603P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-604P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-605P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-606P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-607P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-608P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-609P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-610P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-611P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-612P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-613P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-614P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-615P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-616P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-617P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-618P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-619P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-620P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-621P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-622P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-623P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-624P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-625P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-626P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-627P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-628P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-629P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-630P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-631P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-632P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-633P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-634P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-635P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-636P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-637P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-638P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-639P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-640P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-641P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-642P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-643P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-644P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-645P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-646P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-647P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-648P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-649P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-650P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-651P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-652P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-653P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-654P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-655P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-656P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-657P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-658P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-659P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-660P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-661P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-662P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-663P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-664P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-665P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-666P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-667P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-668P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-669P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-670P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-672P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-673P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-674P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-675P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-677P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-678P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-679P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-680P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-681P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-682P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-684P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-685P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-686P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-687P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-689P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-690P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-692P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-693P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-694P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-695P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-696P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-697P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-698P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-699P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-700P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-701P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-702P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-703P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-704P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-705P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-706P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-707P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-708P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-709P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-710P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-711P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-712P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-713P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-714P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-715P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-716P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-717P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-718P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-719P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-720P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-721P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-722P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-723P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-724P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-725P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-726P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-727P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-728P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-729P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-730P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-731P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-732P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-733P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-735P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-737P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-738P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-739P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-740P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-741P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-742P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-743P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-744P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-745P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-746P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-747P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-748P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-749P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-750P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-751P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-752P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-753P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-754P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-755P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-756P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-757P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-758P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-759P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-760P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-761P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-762P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-763P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-764P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-765P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-766P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-767P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-768P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-769P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-770P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-771P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-772P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-774P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-775P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-776P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-777P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-778P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-780P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-781P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-782P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-783P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-784P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-785P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-786P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-787P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-788P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-789P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-790P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-791P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-792P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-793P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-794P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-795P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-796P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-797P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-798P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-799P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-800P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-801P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-803P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-804P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-805P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-806P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-807P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-808P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-809P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-810P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-811P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-812P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-813P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-815P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-816P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-817P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-818P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-819P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-820P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-821P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-822P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-823P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-824P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-826P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-827P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-828P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-829P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-830P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-831P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-832P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-833P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-834P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-835P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-836P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-837P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-838P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-839P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-840P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-841P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-842P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-843P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-844P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-845P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-847P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-848P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-849P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-850P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-851P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-853P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-854P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-855P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-856P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-857P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-858P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-859P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-860P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-861P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-862P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-863P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-864P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-865P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-866P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-867P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-869P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-871P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-873P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-874P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-875P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-876P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-877P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-878P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-879P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-880P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-881P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-882P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-883P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-884P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-885P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-886P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-887P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-888P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-889P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-890P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-891P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-892P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-893P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-894P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-895P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-896P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-897P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-898P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-899P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-900P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-901P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-902P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-903P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-904P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-905P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-906P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-907P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-908P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-909P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-910P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-911P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-912P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-913P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-914P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-915P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-916P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-917P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-918P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-919P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-920P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-921P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-922P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-923P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-924P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-925P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-926P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-927P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-928P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-929P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-930P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-931P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-932P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-933P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-934P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-935P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-936P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-937P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-938P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-939P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-940P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-941P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-942P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-943P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-944P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-945P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-946P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-947P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-948P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-949P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-950P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-951P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-952P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-953P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-954P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-955P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-956P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-957P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-958P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-959P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-960P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-961P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-964P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-965P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-966P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-967P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-968P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-969P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-970P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-971P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-972P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-973P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-974P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-975P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-976P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-977P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-978P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-979P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-980P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-982P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-983P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-984P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-985P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-986P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-987P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-988P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-989P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-990P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-991P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-992P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-993P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-994P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-995P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-996P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-997P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-998P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-999P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1000P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1001P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1003P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1004P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1005P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1006P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1007P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1008P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1009P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1010P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1011P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1012P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1013P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1014P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1015P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1016P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1017P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1018P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1019P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1020P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1021P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1022P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1023P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1024P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1025P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1026P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1027P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1028P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1029P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1031P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1032P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1034P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1035P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1036P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1037P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1038P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1039P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1040P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1041P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1042P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1043P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1044P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1045P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1046P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1047P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1048P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1049P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1050P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1051P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1052P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1053P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1054P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1055P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1056P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1057P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1059P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1060P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1061P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1062P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1064P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1065P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1066P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1067P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1068P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1069P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1071P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1072P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1073P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1074P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1075P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1076P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1077P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1078P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1079P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1080P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1081P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1082P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1083P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1084P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1085P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1086P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1087P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1088P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1089P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1090P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1091P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1092P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1093P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1094P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1095P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1096P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1097P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1098P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1099P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1100P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1101P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1102P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1103P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1104P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1105P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1106P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1107P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1108P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1109P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1110P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1111P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1112P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1113P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1114P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1115P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1116P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1117P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1118P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1119P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1120P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1121P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1122P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1123P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1124P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1125P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1126P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1127P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1128P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1129P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1130P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1131P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1132P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1133P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1134P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1135P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1136P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1137P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1138P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1139P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1140P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1141P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1143P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1144P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1145P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1146P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1147P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1148P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1149P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1150P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1151P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1152P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1153P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1154P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1155P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1156P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1157P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1158P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1159P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1160P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1161P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1162P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1163P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1164P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1165P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1167P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1168P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1169P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1170P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1171P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1172P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1174P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1175P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1176P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1177P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1178P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1179P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1180P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1181P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1183P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1184P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1186P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1187P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1188P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1189P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1190P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1191P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1192P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1193P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1194P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1195P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1196P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1197P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1198P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1199P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1200P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1201P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1203P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1204P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1205P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1206P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1207P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1208P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1209P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1210P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1211P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1212P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1213P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1214P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1215P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1216P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1217P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1218P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1219P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1220P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1222P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1223P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1224P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1225P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1226P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1227P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1228P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1229P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1230P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1231P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1232P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1233P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1234P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1235P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1236P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1237P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1238P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1239P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1240P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1241P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1242P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1243P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1244P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1245P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1246P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1247P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1248P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1249P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1250P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1251P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1252P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1254P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1255P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1256P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1257P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1258P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1260P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1261P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1262P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1263P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1264P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1265P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1266P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1267P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1268P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1269P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1270P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1271P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1272P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1273P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1274P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1275P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1276P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1277P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1278P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1279P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1280P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1281P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1282P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1283P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1284P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1285P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1286P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1287P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1288P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1289P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1290P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1291P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1292P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1293P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1294P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1296P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1297P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1298P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1299P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1300P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1301P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1303P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1304P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1305P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1306P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1307P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1308P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1309P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1310P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1311P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1312P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1313P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1314P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1315P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1316P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1317P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1318P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1319P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1320P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1321P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1322P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1323P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1324P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1325P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1326P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1327P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1328P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1329P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1330P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1331P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1332P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1333P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1334P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1335P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1336P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1337P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1338P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1339P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1340P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1341P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6-1342P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC32P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC33P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC34P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC35P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC36P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC37P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC38P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC39P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC40P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6ATAC42P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU6V | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-32P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-33P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-34P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-35P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-36P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-37P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-38P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-39P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-40P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-42P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-44P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-45P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-46P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-47P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-48P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-49P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-50P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-51P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-52P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-53P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-54P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-55P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-56P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-57P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-58P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-59P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-60P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-61P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-62P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-63P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-64P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-65P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-66P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-67P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-68P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-69P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-70P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-71P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-72P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-73P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-74P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-75P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-76P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-77P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-78P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-79P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-80P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-81P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-82P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-83P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-84P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-85P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-86P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-87P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-88P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-89P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-90P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-92P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-93P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-94P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-95P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-96P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-97P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-99P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-102P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-103P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-104P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-105P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-106P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-107P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-110P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-111P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-113P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-115P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-116P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-119P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-120P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-121P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-123P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-124P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-125P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-126P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-127P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-128P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-129P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-130P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-133P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-134P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-136P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-137P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-138P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-140P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-141P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-143P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-144P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-147P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-148P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-149P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-151P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-152P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-153P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-154P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-155P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-156P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-157P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-159P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-160P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-161P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-164P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-165P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-167P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-169P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-170P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-171P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-172P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-173P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-174P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-175P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-176P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-179P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-180P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-181P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-182P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-183P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-185P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-186P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-187P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-188P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-190P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-192P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-193P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-194P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-195P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-196P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-197P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU7-200P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU11-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU11-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU11-4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU11-5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU11-6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU12-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU105B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNU105C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNVU1-34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY3P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY4P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY5P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY5P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY5P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY5P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY5P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RNY5P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RO60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROBO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROBO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROBO2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROBO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROBO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROCK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROCK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROCK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROGDI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROMO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROPN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROPN1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROPN1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROPN1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RORA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RORA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RORA-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RORA-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RORA-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RORB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RORB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RORC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ROS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RP1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RP9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPA2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPA2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPA3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPA3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPAIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPAP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPAP3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPE65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPEL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPEP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPEP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPEP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPEP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPGR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPGRIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPGRIP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPH3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPH3AL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPH3AL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPH3AL-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPH3AL-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPIA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPIAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL3P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL4P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL4P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL5P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL6P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7AP83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7L1P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL7P61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL8P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL8P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL8P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL9P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10AP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL10P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL11P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL11P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL11P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL11P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL12P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13AP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL13P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL14P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL14P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL14P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL14P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL14P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL15P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17-C18orf32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL17P52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18AP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL18P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL19P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P94 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P98 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P99 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P102 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P103 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P104 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P105 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P106 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P109 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P122 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P129 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P130 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL21P137 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL22P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP94 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP96 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23AP97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL23P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL24P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL24P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL24P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL24P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL24P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL24P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL24P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL24P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26L1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL26P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL27P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL28P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL28P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL28P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL28P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL28P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL28P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL29P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL30P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL31P64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL32P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL34P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35AP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL35P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36A-HNRNPH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36AP55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL36P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL37P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL38P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL38P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL38P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL38P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL38P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL38P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL39P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL41P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL41P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL41P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL41P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL41P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL41P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPL41P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPLP0P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPP25L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPP38-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPP40P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPP40P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPPH1-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPPH1-3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPRD1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPRD1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPRD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPRM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPRML | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS2P55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3AP55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4XP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4Y1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4Y1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS4Y2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS5P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS5P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS5P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS5P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KA2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6KL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS6P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS7P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS8P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS8P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS8P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS8P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS8P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS8P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS8P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS8P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS8P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS9P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS9P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10-NUDT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS10P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS11P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS11P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS11P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS11P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS11P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS11P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS12P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS13P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS13P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS13P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS13P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS13P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS13P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS13P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS14P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS14P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS14P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS14P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS14P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS14P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS14P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS14P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS14P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15AP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS15P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS16P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS16P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS16P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS16P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS16P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS16P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS16P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS16P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS16P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS16P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS17P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS18P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS19BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS19P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS19P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS19P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS19P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS19P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS19P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS19P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS20P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS21-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS21P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS21P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS21P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS21P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS21P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS21P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS21P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS21P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS23P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS23P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS23P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS23P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS23P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS23P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS23P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS23P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS23P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS23P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS24P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS25P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS25P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS25P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS25P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS25P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS25P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS25P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS25P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS25P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS25P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS26P59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27AP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS27P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS28P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS28P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS28P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS28P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS28P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS28P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS28P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS28P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS28P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPS29P33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPSAP76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPTOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPUSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPUSD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPUSD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RPUSD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAGA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAGAP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAGB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAGC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAGC-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAGD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRAS2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRBP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RREB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRM2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRM2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRM2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRM2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRN3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRN3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRN3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRN3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRP7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRP7BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RRS1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSBN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSBN1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSC1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSF1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSF1-IT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSKR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL1D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL1D1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSL24D1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPH1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPH4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPH6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPH9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPH10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPH10B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPH14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSPRY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSRC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSRC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSU1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSU1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RSU1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTBDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTBDN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTCA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTCB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTEL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTEL1-TNFRSF6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTEL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTKN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTKN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTL8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTL8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTL8C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN4IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN4IP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN4R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN4RL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN4RL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN4RL1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTN4RL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTRAF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTRAFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTRAFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RTTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUBCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUBCNL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUFY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUFY1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUFY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUFY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUFY4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNDC3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNDC3A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNDC3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNX1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNX1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNX1T1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUNX3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUSC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUSC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUSC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUSF1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUVBL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUVBL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUVBL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RUVBL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RWDD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RWDD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RWDD1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RWDD2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RWDD2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RWDD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RWDD3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RWDD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RWDD4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RWDD4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RXFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RXFP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RXFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RXFP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RXFP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RXRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RXRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RXRG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RXYLT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RXYLT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RYBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RYK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RYKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RYR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RYR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RYR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RYR3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| RYR3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S1PR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S1PR1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S1PR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S1PR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S1PR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S1PR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A7L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A11P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A11P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A11P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A11P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A11P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A11P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A11P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A11P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A11P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A15A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100A16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100PBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| S100Z | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAA2-SAA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAA3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAC3D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SACM1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SACS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SACS-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAFB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAFB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAGE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAGE2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAGE3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAGE4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL4P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL4P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL4P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALL4P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALRNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALRNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SALRNA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD4A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD9L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMD15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMM50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMM50P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMMSON | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMSN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMSN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAMTOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SANBR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP18P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP18P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP18P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP30-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP30BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP30BP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP30L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP30L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP30P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAP130 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAPCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAPCD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAPCD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAPCD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAPCD2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAPCD2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAPCD2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAR1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAR1AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAR1AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAR1AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SARAF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SARDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SARM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SARNP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SART1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SART3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SASH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SASH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SASS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAT1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SATB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SATB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SATB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SATB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SATL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAXO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAXO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAXO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAXO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAXO5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAXO6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SAYSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBDS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBDSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBF2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBNO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBNO1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBNO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBSN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SBSPON | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SC4MOP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SC5D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAANT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAMP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAMP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAMP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAND2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAND3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAND3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAPER | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA9L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA18B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA21B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA26A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA26B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCARNA28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCART1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCAT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCCPDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCD-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCDAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCEL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCEL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCFD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCFD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCFD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCFD2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCG3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCG5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB1B1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB1B2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB1B3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB1C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB1C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB1D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB1D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB1D4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB1D5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB2A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB2B1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB2B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB2B3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB3A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGB3A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCHIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCHLAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCIMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCIRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCLT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCLY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCMH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCMH1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCML1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCML2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCML2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCML2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCML4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCN11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCNM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCNN1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCNN1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCNN1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCNN1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCOC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCOC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCOCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCP2D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCP2D1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCPEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCPPPQ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCREEM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCRG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCRIB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCRN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCRN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCRN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCRT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCRT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCTR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCUBE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCUBE1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCUBE1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCUBE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCUBE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCUBE3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYGR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYGR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYGR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYGR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYGR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYGR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYGR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYGR8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYGR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYGR10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYL2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SCYL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDAD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDAD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDAD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDAD1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDAD1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDC4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDCBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDCBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDCBP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDCBP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDCBPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDCBPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDCBPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDCCAG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDF2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHAF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHAF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHAF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHCP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHCP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHDP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHDP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHDP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHDP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHDP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDHDP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDR9C7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDR16C5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDR16C6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDR39U1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDR42E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDR42E1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDR42E1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDR42E1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDR42E1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDR42E1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDR42E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SDSL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEBOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC11C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC14L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC14L1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC14L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC14L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC14L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC14L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC14L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC16A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC16B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC22A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC22B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC22B2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC22B3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC22B4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC22C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC23A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC23A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC23B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC23IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC24A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC24AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC24B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC24B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC24C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC24D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC31A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC31B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC61A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC61A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC61B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC61G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC61G-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC61GP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC62-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC63P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEC63P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SECISBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SECISBP2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SECTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEH1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEL1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEL1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEL1L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOKP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOKP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENON | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOO-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOOLP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOV | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOW | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELENOWP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SELPLG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA3B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA3E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA3F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA3F-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA3G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA4F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA4G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA5A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA5A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA5A-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA5A-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA6A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA6A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA6C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA6D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMA7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEMG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SENCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SENP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SENP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SENP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SENP3-EIF4A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SENP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SENP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SENP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SENP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPHS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPHS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPHS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPHS1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPHS1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPHS1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPHS1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPHS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPHS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPSECS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPSECS-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN7P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN9-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN11-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEPTIN14P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERBP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERBP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERBP1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERBP1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERBP1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERF1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERF1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERGEF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERHL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERHL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERINC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERINC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERINC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERINC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERINC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERINC5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINA15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINB13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPIND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINE4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPING1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERPINI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERTAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERTAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERTAD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERTAD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERTAD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERTAD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERTAD4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERTAD4BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SERTM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SESN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SESN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SESN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SESTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SET | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETBP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETD1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETD1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETD4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETD6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETDB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETDB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETMAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETSIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SETX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEZ6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEZ6L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEZ6L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SEZ6L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3A3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3A3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3B4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3B5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SF3B6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFMBT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFMBT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFPQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFPQP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFR1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFRP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFRP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFSPAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFSWAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFSWAP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFT2D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFT2D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFT2D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFTA1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFTA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFTA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFTPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFTPA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFTPA3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFTPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFTPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFTPD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFTPD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFXN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFXN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFXN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFXN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFXN4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SFXN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGCB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGCEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGCG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGCZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGF29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGMS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGMS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGMS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGO1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGO1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGO1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGSH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGSM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGSM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGSM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGSM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGSM3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGTA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SGTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2D1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2D1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2D2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2D3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2D3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2D4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2D4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2D5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2D6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH2D7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3BGR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3BGRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3BGRL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3BGRL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3BP5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3BP5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3D19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3D19-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3D21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3GL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3GL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3GL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3GL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3GL1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3GL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3GL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3GLB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3GLB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3KBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3PXD2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3PXD2A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3PXD2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3RF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3RF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3RF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3RF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3RF3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3TC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3TC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3TC2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SH3YL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHANK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHANK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHANK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHANK2-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHANK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHARPIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHBG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHCBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHCBP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHFL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISA5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISA5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISAL2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHISAL2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHKBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHLD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHLD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHLD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHLD2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHLD2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHLD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHMT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHMT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHOC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHOC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHPK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHPRH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHQ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHQ1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHROOM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHROOM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHROOM2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHROOM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHROOM3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHROOM3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHROOM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SHTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIAE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIAH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIAH1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIAH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIAH2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIAH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIDT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIDT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIDT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGIRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC10-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLEC31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGLECL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIGMAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIKE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SILC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIMALR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIMC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIN3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIN3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SINHCAF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SINHCAFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SINHCAFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SINHCAFP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIPA1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIPA1L1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIPA1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIPA1L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRLNT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRPAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRPB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRPB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRPB3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRPD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRPG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRPG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRT1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIRT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIVA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIX3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SIX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKAP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKAP1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKIC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKIC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKIC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKIDA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKIL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKINT1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKOR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKOR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKOR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKP1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKP1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKP1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKP1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SKP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLAIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLAIN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLAMF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLAMF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLAMF6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLAMF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLAMF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLAMF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC1A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC1A2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC1A2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC1A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC1A3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC1A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC1A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC1A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC1A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A4RG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A9-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A9-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC2AXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC3A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC3A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A1AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A1APP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A1APP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC4A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC5A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A14P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A14P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A17-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC6A21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A6OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A11-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC7A15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC8A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC8A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC8A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC8A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC8B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A3-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A3R1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9A9-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9B1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9B1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9B1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9B1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9B1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC9D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC10A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC10A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC10A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC10A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC10A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC10A5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC10A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC10A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC10A7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC11A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC11A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC12A9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC13A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC13A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC13A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC13A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC13A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC14A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC14A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC14A2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC15A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC15A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC15A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC15A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC15A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC16A14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC17A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC17A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC17A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC17A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC17A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC17A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC17A6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC17A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC17A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC17A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC18A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC18A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC18A2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC18A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC18B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC19A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC19A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC19A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC19A4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC20A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC20A1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC20A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC20A1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC20A1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC20A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC22A31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC23A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC23A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC23A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC23A4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC24A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC24A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC24A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC24A3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC24A3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC24A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC24A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A5P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A5P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A5P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A5P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A5P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A6P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A6P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A15P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A15P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A15P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A18P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A21-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A21-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A24P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A24P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A25-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A28-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A29-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A30-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A34-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A36P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A38P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A39P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A39P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A47P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A48-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A48-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A51P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A51P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A51P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A51P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC25A53P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC26A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC27A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC27A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC27A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC27A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC27A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC27A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC28A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC28A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC28A2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC28A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC28A3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC29A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC29A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC29A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC29A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC29A4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC29A4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC30A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC31A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC31A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC31A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC32A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC33A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC33A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC34A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC34A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC34A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35C2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35D4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35E1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35E2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35E2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35E3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35E4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35F2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35F3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35F3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35F4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35F4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35F5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35F6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35G3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35G4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35G5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35G6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC35H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC36A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC36A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC36A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC36A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC37A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC37A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC37A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC37A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A9-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC38A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A13-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC39A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC40A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC41A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC41A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC41A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC41A3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC43A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC43A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC43A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC44A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC44A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC44A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC44A3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC44A3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC44A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC44A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC45A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC45A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC45A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC45A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC45A4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC45A4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC46A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC46A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC46A2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC46A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC47A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC47A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC47A1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC47A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC48A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC49A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC49A3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC49A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC50A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC51A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC51B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC52A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC52A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC52A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC60A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC60A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC60A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC60A2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC60A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC61A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC66A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC66A1LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC66A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC66A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC66A2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC66A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC67A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC67A1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC67A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC68A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC68A2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC71A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC71A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC71A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC71A3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLC75A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO1A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO1B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO1B3-SLCO1B7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO1B7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO1C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO2B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO3A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO4A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO4A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO4A1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO4C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO5A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO5A1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO6A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLCO6A1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLEAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLFN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLFN11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLFN12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLFN12L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLFN13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLFN14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLFNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLFNL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIRP-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIRPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIRPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIT2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIT3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLIT3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLITRK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLITRK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLITRK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLITRK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLITRK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLITRK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLMAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLPI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLTM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLU7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLURP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLURP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLURP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLX1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLX1A-SULT1A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLX1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLX1B-SULT1A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLX4IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLX9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLX9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLX9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SLX9P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAD9-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAGP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMANTIS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCA5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCAD1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCAL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCE1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCE1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCE1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCE1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCE1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMARCE1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMASR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMBD1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMC1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMC1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMC2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMC3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMC4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMCHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMCO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMCO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMCO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMCO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMCO4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMCP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMCR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMCR8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMDT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG6-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMG9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMILR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM10L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM10L2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM10L2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM10L2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM10L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM11P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM14-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM15-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM20-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM29-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM41-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMIM48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMKR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMLR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMNDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMOC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMOC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMPD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMPD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMPD4BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMPD4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMPD4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMPD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMPDL3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMPDL3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMPX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMR3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMR3A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMR3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMTNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMTNL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMU1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMUG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMUG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMUG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMURF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMURF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMURF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMYD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMYD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMYD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMYD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMYD3-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMYD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SMYD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAI1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAI3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAP23P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAP25-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAP47-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAP91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAPC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAPC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAPC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAPC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAPC5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAPIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-A14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-C4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-C5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNAR-I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNCA-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNCAIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNCAIP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNCAIP-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNCAIP-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNCAIP-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNCB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNCG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SND1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SND1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNED1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNF8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNHG33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA11C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA11D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA11E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA11F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA11G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA14A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA14B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA15B-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA15B-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA16A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA16B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA17A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA17B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA20B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA21B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA22B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA22C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA24B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA25B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA30B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA31B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA35B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA36A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA36B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA36C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA38B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA40B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA40C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA41B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA48B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA50A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA50B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA50C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA50D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA58B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA59A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA59B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA63B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA63C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA63D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA63E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA68B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA70B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA70C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA70D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA70E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA70F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA70G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA70H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA70I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA70J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA71A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA71B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA71C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA71D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA71E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA73A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA73B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA74A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA74B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA74C-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA74C-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA74D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA75B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA77B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA79B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA80A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA80B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA80C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA80D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA80E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA94 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA98 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA99 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA101A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA101B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA103 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA104 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA105A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA105B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA105C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA109 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA113 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORA120 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3B-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3B-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD12C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13B-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13B-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13J | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD13P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD14A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD14B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD14C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD14D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD14E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD15A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD15B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD18A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD18B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD18C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD19B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD19C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD28B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD31B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD32A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD32B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD35A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD35B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD36A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD36B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD36C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD38A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD38B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD38C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD38D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD42A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD42B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD45A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD45B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD45C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD49A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD49B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD50A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD50B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD53B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD56B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD58A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD58B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD58C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD59A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD59B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD62A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD62B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD63B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD65B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD65C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD70B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD73A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD73B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD74B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD77B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD83A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD83B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD88A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD88B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD88C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD91A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD91B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD94 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD96A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD96B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD98 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD99 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD102 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD103A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD103B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD103C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD104 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD105 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD105B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD109A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD109B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD111 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD111B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD113-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD113-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD113-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD113-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD113-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD113-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD113-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD113-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD113-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD114-31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD115-48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD116-30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD118 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD121A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD121B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD126 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD129 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD130 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD137 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD138 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD139 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD141A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD141B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD142 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD144 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD145 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD146 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD147 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD148 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD149 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD150 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD151 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD152 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD153 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD154 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD155 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD156 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD158 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD159 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD161 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD162 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD164 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD165 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD166 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD167 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD168 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD169 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD170 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD172 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD173 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNORD175 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNPH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRNP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRNP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRNP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRNP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRNP40P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRNP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRNP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRNP200 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPA1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPA1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPCP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPD2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPEP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPEP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPEP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPEP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPEP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPEP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPEP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPEP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPEP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPF-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPFP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPFP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPGP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNRPNP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNTA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNTB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNTB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNTB1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNTB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNTG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNTG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNTG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNU13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNUPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNURF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNURFL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNW1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX3P1X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX3P1Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P1Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX18P27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX19P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX19P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX19P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX19P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX25P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX29-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX29-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX29-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX29P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX29P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX30-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SNX33P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS5P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOCS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOD1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOD1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOD1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOD2-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOHLH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOHLH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SON | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SONP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORBS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORBS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORBS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORBS2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORBS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORCS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORCS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORCS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORCS3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORD-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORD2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SORT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOS1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOSTDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOWAHA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOWAHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOWAHB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOWAHC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOWAHCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOWAHCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOWAHCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOWAHCP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOWAHCP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOWAHD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX1-OT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX2-OT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX21-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SOX30P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP110 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SP140L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPA17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPA17P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPACA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPACA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPACA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPACA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPACA5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPACA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPACA6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPACA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPACA7BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPACA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPACDR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPADH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG16-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAG17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPANXA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPANXA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPANXA2-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPANXB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPANXC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPANXD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPANXN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPANXN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPANXN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPANXN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPANXN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPARC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPARCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPARCL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPART | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPART-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPAST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA6L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA13-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA17-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31B1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31B2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31C1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31D2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31D4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31D5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31E2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31E3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31F1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31F2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31F3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA31J1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATA46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATC1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPATS2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPC24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPC25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPCS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPCS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPCS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPCS2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPCS2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPCS2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPCS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPCS3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDEF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPDYE22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPECC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPECC1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPECC1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPECC1L-ADORA2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPECC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPECC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPEF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPEG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPEGNB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPEM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPEM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPEM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPEN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPEN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPESP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPG7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPG11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPG21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPHK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPHK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPHKAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPICE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPICE1-CFAP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPICP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPICP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPICP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPICP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPICP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIDR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIN2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIN2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIN4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINDOC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINK5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINK7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINK8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINK9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINK13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINK14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPINT5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIRE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPIRE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMAP2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMAP2L-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPMIP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPNS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPNS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPNS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPNS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPO11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOCK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOCK1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOCK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOCK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOCK3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPON1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPON1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPON2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPON2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOPL-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOPLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOPLP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOPLP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPOUT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPPL2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPPL2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPPL2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPPL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRED2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRED3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRING1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRING1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRING1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRING1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR2E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR2F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR2G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRY4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRY4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRY4-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRYD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRYD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRYD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPRYD7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPSB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPSB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPSB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPSB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTAN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTBN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTBN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTBN1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTBN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTBN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTBN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTLC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTLC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTLC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTLC1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTLC1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTLC1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTLC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTLC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTSSA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTSSB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPTY2D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SPZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SQLE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SQLE-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SQOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SQSTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SQSTM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRARP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRBD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRCAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRCIN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRD5A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRD5A1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRD5A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRD5A2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRD5A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRD5A3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRD5A3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SREBF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SREBF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SREBF2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SREK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SREK1IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SREK1IP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SREK1IP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRFBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGAP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGAP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGAP2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGAP2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGAP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGAP3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGAP3-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGAP3-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRGNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRI-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRMS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP14-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP14P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP14P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP14P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP14P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP54-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP68P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP68P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP68P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP72P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRP72P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRPK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRPK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRPK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRPK2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRPK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRPRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRPRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRPX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRPX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRM1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRM1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRM4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF8BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF8CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRSF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRXN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRXN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRXN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SRY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SS18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SS18L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SS18L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SS18L2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SS18L2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBL2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBL3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBL4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBL5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBL6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSC4D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSC5D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSH2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSMEM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSPN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSPN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSPOP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSR1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSR4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSTR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSTR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSTR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSTR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSTR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSTR5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSU72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSU72-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSU72L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSU72L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSU72L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSU72L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSU72L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSU72L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSU72P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSU72P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSUH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX2IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX2IPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSX21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SSXP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST3GAL6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST6GAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST6GAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST6GAL2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST6GALNAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST6GALNAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST6GALNAC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST6GALNAC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST6GALNAC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST6GALNAC4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST6GALNAC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST6GALNAC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST7-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST7-OT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST7-OT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST7L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST8SIA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST8SIA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST8SIA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST8SIA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST8SIA4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST8SIA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST8SIA5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST8SIA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST8SIA6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST13P22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST18-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST18-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST18-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST20-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ST20-MTHFS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAG1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAG3L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAG3L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAG3L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAG3L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAG3L5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAG3L5P-PVRIG2P-PILRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAM-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAM-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAMBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAMBPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD3NL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD13-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARD13-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STARP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAT4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAT5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAT5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STATH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAU1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAU2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAU2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STAU2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STBD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STBD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STEAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STEAP1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STEAP1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STEAP1B-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STEAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STEAP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STEAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STEAP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STEAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STEEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STIL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STIM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STIM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STIMATE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STIMATE-MUSTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STING1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STIP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STIP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STIP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK4-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK11IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK16P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK17A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK17B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK24-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK24P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK25P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK32A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK32A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK32B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK32B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK32B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK32C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK33P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK38L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STK40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STKLD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STMN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STMN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STMN1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STMN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STMN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STMN3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STMN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STMND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STMP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STMP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STOM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STOML1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STOML2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STOML3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STON1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STON1-GTF2A1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STON2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STOX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STPG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STPG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STPG2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STPG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STPG3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STPG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRA6LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRADA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRADB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRADBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STRN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STT3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STT3A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STT3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STUB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STUB1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STUB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STUM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX16-NPEPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX18-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX18-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX18P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STX19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STXBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STXBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STXBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STXBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STXBP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STXBP5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STXBP5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STXBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STYK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STYX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STYXL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| STYXL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUB1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUB1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUB1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLA2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLA2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLA2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLA2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLG2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLG2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLG2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLG2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCLG2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCNR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUCO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUDS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUDS3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUFU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGCT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGCT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGT1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGT1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGT1P4-STRA6LP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUGT1P4-STRA6LP-CCDC180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1C2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1C2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1C3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1C4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1C5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1D1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1D1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT1E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT2B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT4A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT6B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SULT6B2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO2P21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUMO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUNO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT3H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT4H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT4H1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT4H1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT5H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT6H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT7L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT16H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT16HP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT20H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT20HL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPT20HL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUPV3L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SURF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SURF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SURF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SURF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SURF6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUSD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUSD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUSD2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUSD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUSD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUSD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUSD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUV39H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUV39H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUV39H2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUZ12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUZ12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SUZ12P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SV2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SV2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SV2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SV2C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SV2C-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SVBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SVEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SVIL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SVIL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SVIL2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SVIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SVOP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SVOPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SWAP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SWI5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SWINGN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SWSAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SWT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYBU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYBU-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYCE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYCE1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYCE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYCE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYCP2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYDE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYDE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYMPK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYMPK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYN3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNAGE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNCRIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNCRIPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNDIG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNDIG1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNE1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNE1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNE3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNGAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNGAP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNGR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNGR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNGR2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNGR2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNGR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNGR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNJ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNJ2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNJ2BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNJ2BP-COX16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNM-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNPO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNPO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNPO2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNPO2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNPO2L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNPR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYNRG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYPL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYPL1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYS1-DBNDD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT13-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT14P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT15-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT15B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYT17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYTL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYTL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYTL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYTL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SYVN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SZRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SZRD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SZT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| SZT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAAR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAAR3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAAR4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAAR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAAR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAAR7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAAR8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAAR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAB3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAB3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAB3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAC4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TACC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TACC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TACC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TACC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TACO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TACR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TACR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TACR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TACR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TACR3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TACSTD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TADA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TADA2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TADA2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TADA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF1D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF5L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF5LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF6L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF7L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF9BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF9BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF9P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF11L14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF12-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF13P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAF15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAFA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAFA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAFA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAFA4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAFA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAFAZZIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAGAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAGAP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAGLN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAGLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAGLN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAGLN2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAGLN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TALAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TALDO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TALDO1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAMALIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAMALIN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAMM41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TANAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TANC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TANC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TANGO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TANGO2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TANGO6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TANK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TANK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAOK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAOK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAOK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAPBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAPBPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAPT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARBP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARDBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARDBPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARDBPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARDBPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARDBPP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARDBPP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARID | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARS1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TARS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS1R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS1R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS1R3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R37P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R62P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R63P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R64P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R67P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAS2R68P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TASL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TASOR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TASOR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TASP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TATDN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TATDN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TATDN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TATDN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TATDN2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TATDN2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TATDN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAX1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAX1BP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TAX1BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBATA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3JP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3P1-DHX40P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D9-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D10C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D22A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D22A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D22A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D22B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D26-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBC1D32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCEL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCEL-TECTA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBCK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBILA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBKBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBL1X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBL1XR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBL1XR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBL1Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBL1YP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBPL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBPL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBRG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX18-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBX23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBXA1R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBXA2R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBXAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TBXT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TC2N | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCAF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCAF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCAF2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCAF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCAIM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCAM1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEA1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEA1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEA1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEAL9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEANC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCEANC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCERG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCERG1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCERG1L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCERG1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCERG1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF7L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF7L1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF7L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF12-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCF25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCFL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCHH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCHHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCHP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCIM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCIRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCL1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCL1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCOF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP10L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP10L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP10L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP11L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP11L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP11X1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP11X2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCP11X3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCTA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCTN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCTN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TCTN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRD6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRD9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRD10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRD12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRD15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRKH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRKH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TDRP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEAD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEAD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEAD2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEAD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEAD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEC-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TECPR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TECPR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TECR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TECRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TECRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TECRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TECTA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TECTB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEDC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEDDM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEDDM2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEDDM3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEFM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEKT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEKT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEKT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEKT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEKT4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEKT4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEKT4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEKT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEKTIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEKTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TELO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEN1-CDK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENM2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENM2-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENM2-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENM3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENM3-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENM4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENT2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENT4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENT4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENT5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENT5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENT5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENT5C-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TENT5D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEPSIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEPSIN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERF1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERF1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERF1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERF1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERF1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERF2IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERF2IPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERLR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TERT-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TES | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TESC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TESC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TESHL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TESK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TESK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TESMIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TESPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TET1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TET1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TET2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TET2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TET3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX13A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX13C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX13D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX14BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX26-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX26-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX28P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX28P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX28P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX36-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX56P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX101P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX261 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TEX264 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAP2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAP2A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAP2A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAP2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAP2D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAP2E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAP2E-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFB1M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFB2M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFB2MP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFCP2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFDP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFDP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFDP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFDP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFDP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFEB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFEB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFEC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFIP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFIP11-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFPI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFPI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFPI2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFPT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TFRC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGDS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFA-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFB1I1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFB2-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFB3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFBI | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFBR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFBR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFBR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFBR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFBR3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFBRAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGFBRAP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGIF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGIF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGIF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGIF2-RAB5IF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGIF2LX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGIF2LY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGIF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGILR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGOLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TGS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TH2LCRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THA1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THADA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP12P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP12P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP12P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP12P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP12P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP12P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP12P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP12P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THAP12P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THBD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THBS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THBS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THBS1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THBS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THBS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THBS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THBS3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THBS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THBS4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THEM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THEM4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THEM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THEM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THEM7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THEMIS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THEMIS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THEMIS3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THG1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THNSL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THNSL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THOC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THOC1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THOC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THOC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THOC3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THOC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THOC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THOC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THOC7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THOP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THORLNC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THPO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THRAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THRAP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THRAP3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THRAP3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THRB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THRB-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THRB-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THRIL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THRSP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THSD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THSD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THSD4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THSD4-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THSD7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THSD7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THSD8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THTPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THUMPD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THUMPD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THUMPD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THUMPD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THUMPD3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THUMPD3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THY1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| THYN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIAL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIAL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIALD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIAM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TICAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TICAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TICAM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TICRR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIFA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIFAB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIFAB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIGAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIGD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIGD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIGD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIGD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIGD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIGD6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIGD7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIGIT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TILAM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TILRLS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMCC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMCCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMCCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMCCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMCCP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMCCP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMCCP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMELESS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM8AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM8BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM8BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM9P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM17A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM17B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM17BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM23B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM23B-AGAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMM50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMMDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMMDC1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIMP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TINAG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TINAG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TINAGL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TINCR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TINF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIPARP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIPARP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIPIN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIPINP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIPINP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIPRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIRAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TIRAP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TJAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TJAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TJP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TJP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TJP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TJP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TKFC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TKT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TKTL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TKTL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLCD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLCD3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLCD3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLCD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLCD4-RWDD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLCD5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLE1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLE4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLE5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLE6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLE7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLK2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLK2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLNRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLR12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLX1NB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TLX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM2D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM2D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM2D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM4SF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM4SF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM4SF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM4SF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM4SF18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM4SF18-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM4SF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM4SF19-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM4SF19-DYNLT2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM4SF20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM6SF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM6SF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM7SF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM7SF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM7SF3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM9SF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM9SF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM9SF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM9SF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TM9SF5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMA7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMA16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMA16-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMA16P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMA16P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMBIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMBIM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMBIM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMBIM7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMC3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMC5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCC1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCO1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCO5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCO5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMCO6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMDD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED7-TICAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMED11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEFF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEFF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM9B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM11-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM14A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM14B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM14B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM14C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM14DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM14EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM18-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM26-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM30A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM30A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM30B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM30BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM30CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM33-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM35A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM35B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM38A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM38B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM38BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM39A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM39B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM41A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM41A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM41B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM44-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM44-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM45A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM45B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM50A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM50B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM51-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM51-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM52B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM59L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM63A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM63B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM63C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM69P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM69P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM72-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM74B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM78 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM86A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM86B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM87A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM87B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM92-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM94 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM95 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM97P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM97P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM98 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM98P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM98P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM102 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM105 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM106A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM106B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM106C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM108 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM108-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM109 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM109-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM115 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM116 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM120A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM120B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM121B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM123 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM123-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM125 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM126A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM126B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM127 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM128 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM128-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM129 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM130 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM131L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM131L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM132A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM132B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM132C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM132D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM132D-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM132D-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM132E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM132E-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM138 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM139 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM139-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM144 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM145 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM147 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM147-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM150A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM150B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM150C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM150C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM151A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM151B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM154 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM154-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM154-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM156 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM158 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM161A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM161B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM161B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM161BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM163 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM164 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM165 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM167A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM167AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM167AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM167B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM167B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM168 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM169 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM170A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM170B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM171 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM174 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM175 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM176A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM176B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM177 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM178A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM178B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM179 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM179B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM183A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM183AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM183AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM183AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM183AP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM183AP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM183AP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM183BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM184A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM184B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM184B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM184C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM184C-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM184CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM185A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM185AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM185B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM186 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM187 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM190 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM191A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM191B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM191C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM192 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM196 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM198 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM198B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM200A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM200B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM200C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM201 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM202 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM202-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM203 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM204 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM205 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM207 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM208 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM209 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM210 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM212 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM212-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM212-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM213 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM214 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM215 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM216 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM217 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM217B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM218 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM219 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM220 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM220-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM221 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM222 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM223 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM225 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM225B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM229A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM229B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM229BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM230 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM230P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM230P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM231 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM231P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM232 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM233 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM234 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM235 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM236 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM237 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM238 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM238L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM239 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM240 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM242 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM242-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM243 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM244 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM245 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM246-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM247 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM248 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM248P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM250 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM252 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM252-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM253 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM254 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM254-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM255A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM255B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM256 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM256-PLSCR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM256P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM256P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM258 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM258P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM258P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM259 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM260 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM263 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM263-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM265 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM266 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM267 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM268 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM269 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM269-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM270 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM271 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM272 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM273 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM274P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM275 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM276-ZFTRAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM277P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMEM278 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMIE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMIGD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMIGD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMIGD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMLHE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMLHE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMLHEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMOD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMOD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMOD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMOD4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPO-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPOP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPOP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPPE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS6-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS11BNL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS11CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS11D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS11E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS11F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS11GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMPRSS15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB4X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB4XP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB4XP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB4XP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB4XP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB4XP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB4XP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB4XP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB4XP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB4Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB15A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB15B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB15B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMSB15C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMT1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMT1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMT1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMTC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMTC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMTC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMTC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMUB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMUB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMX1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMX1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMX2-CTNND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMX2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMX4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TMZR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFAIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFAIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFAIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFAIP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFAIP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFAIP8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFAIP8L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFAIP8L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFAIP8L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF10A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF10A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF10B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF10C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF10D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF13C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFRSF25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF12-TNFSF13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNFSF18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNIK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNIP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNIP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNKS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNKS1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNKS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNKS2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNMD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNNC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNNC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNNI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNNI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNNI3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNNI3K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNNT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNPO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNPO1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNPO1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNPO1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNPO1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNPO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNPO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNPO3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNPO3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNR-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNRC6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNRC6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNRC6B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNRC6C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNRC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNRC18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNRC18-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNRC18P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNRC18P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNRC18P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNXA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TNXB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TODL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOGARAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOGARAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOLLIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOLLIP-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOM1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOM1L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOM1L2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM20L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM20L-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM20P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM20P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM20P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM22-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM22P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM22P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM22P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM22P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM22P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM22P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM40L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM40P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM40P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM40P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM40P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMM70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TONSL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TONSL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOP1MT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOP2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOP2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOP3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOP3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOP3BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOP6BL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOPAZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOPBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOPORS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOPORSLP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOR1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOR1AIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOR1AIP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOR1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOR2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOR3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOR4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOX-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TOX4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53AIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53BP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53COR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53I3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53I11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53I13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53INP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53INP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53RK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53RK-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53TG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53TG3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53TG3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53TG3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53TG3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53TG3E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53TG3F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53TG3GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53TG3HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP53TG5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP73-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TP73-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPBG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPBGL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPBGL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPCN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPD52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPD52L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPD52L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPD52L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPGS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPGS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPI1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPI1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPI1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPI1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM3P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM3P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM3P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPM4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPMTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPMTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPMTP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPMTP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPPP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPPP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRG1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRG1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRG1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRG1LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRKB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRKBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRKBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRX1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPRXL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPSAB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPSB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPSD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPSG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPST2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPT1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTE2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTE2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTE2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTE2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTE2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTE2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTE2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTE2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPTEP2-CSNK1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TPX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC8-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC12-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC12-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC13-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC13-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC14-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC14-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC17-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC18-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC18-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC19-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC20-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC21-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC22-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC23-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-AGC24-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-CGC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-CGC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-CGC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-CGC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-CGC5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-TGC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-TGC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-TGC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-TGC3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-TGC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-TGC5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-TGC6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-TGC7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-TGC8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-TGC9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA-TGC10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRA2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRABD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRABD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRABD2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRABD2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRABD2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRADD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF3IP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF3IP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF3IP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF3IP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAFD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAJ61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAM1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAM1L1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRANK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC3L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC6A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC13P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAPPC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRARG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV8-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV8-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV8-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV8-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV8-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV8-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV12-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV12-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV13-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV14DV4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV23DV6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV26-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV26-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV29DV5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV36DV7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV38-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV38-2DV8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRAV41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ1-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ2-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ2-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBJ2-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV4-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV4-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV5-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV5-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV5-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV5-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV5-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV5-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV5-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV6-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV6-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV6-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV6-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV6-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV6-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV6-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV6-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV7-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV7-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV7-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV7-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV7-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV7-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV7-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV7-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV8-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV10-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV10-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV11-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV11-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV12-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV12-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV12-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV12-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV20-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV20OR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV21-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV21OR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV22-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV22OR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV23-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV23OR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV24-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV24OR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV25-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV25OR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV26OR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV29-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV29OR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBV30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBVA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBVAOR9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBVB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRBVC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-ACA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA9-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA9-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA14-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA17-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA18-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA19-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA20-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA21-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA22-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA23-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA24-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRC-GCA25-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRCG1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC2-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC2-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC2-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC2-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC2-10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC2-11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRD-GTC10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDJ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDJ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDJ4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDV2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRDV3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC1-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC1-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC14-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC17-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-CTC18-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC4-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC8-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC14-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRE-TTC16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TREH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TREHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TREM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TREM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TREML1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TREML2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TREML3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TREML4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TREML5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRERF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRERNA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TREX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TREX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA1-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRF-GAA12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-CCC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-CCC1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-CCC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-CCC2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-CCC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-CCC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-CCC5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-CCC6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-CCC7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-CCC8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC2-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-GCC6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-TCC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-TCC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-TCC2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-TCC2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-TCC2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-TCC2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-TCC2-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-TCC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-TCC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-TCC5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRG-TCC6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGJ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGJ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGJP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGJP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGJP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGV11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGVA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRGVB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH-GTG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH-GTG1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH-GTG1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH-GTG1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH-GTG1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH-GTG1-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH-GTG1-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH-GTG1-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH-GTG1-9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH-GTG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRH-GTG3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRHDE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRHDE-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRHR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT5-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT5-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT5-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT5-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT7-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-AAT12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-GAT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-GAT1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-GAT1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-TAT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-TAT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-TAT2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-TAT2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRI-TAT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIB1AL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIDDENT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM6-TRIM34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM7-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM8-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM16L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM26BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM31-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM36-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM39-RPP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM41-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM43B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM43CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM49B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM49C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM49D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM49D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM51BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM51CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM51DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM51EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM51FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM51G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM51HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM51JP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM52-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM53AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM53BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM53CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM56 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM58 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM59-IFT80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P1Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P2Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P3Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P4Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P5Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P6Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P7Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P8Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P9Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P10Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P11Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P12Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM60P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM61 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM63 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM64B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM64C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM64DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM64EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM64FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM64GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM64HP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM64JP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM65 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM67 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM67-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM68 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM77BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIM80P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIML1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIML2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRINGS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIO-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIOBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIP10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIQK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIQK-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT14-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-CTT16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT3-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT3-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT3-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT14-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRK-TTT17-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-AAG8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAA1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAA4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAA5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAA6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAA7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAG1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAG1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAG1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAG1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAG1-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAG1-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAG2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-CAG3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-TAA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-TAA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-TAA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-TAA4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-TAA5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-TAG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-TAG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-TAG3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRL-TAG4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRM-CAT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRM-CAT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRM-CAT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRM-CAT3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRM-CAT4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRM-CAT4-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRM-CAT4-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRM-CAT5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRM-CAT5-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRM-CAT6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRM-CAT7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT2B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT10BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT10C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT44-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT61A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT61A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT61B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT112P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT112P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT112P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT112P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT112P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT112P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT112P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMT112P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRMU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-ATT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-ATT1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT2-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT2-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT2-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT9-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT11-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT14-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT15-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT16-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT16-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT16-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT16-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT17-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT18-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT19-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT19-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT20-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT21-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT22-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT23-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT24-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT25-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT26-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRN-GTT27-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRNAU1AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRNT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRNT1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TROAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TROAP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG2-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG2-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG2-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-AGG6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-CGG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-CGG1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-CGG1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-CGG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-GGG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-TGG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-TGG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-TGG3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-TGG3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-TGG3-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-TGG3-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-TGG3-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-TGG4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRP-TGG5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPA2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC4AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC5OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC6P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC6P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC6P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC6P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC6P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC6P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPC7-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPM2-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPV2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPV3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPV4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPV5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRPV6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG4-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG8-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG8-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG14-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG15-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG16-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG17-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-CTG18-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG3-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRQ-TTG10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-ACG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-ACG1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-ACG1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-ACG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-ACG2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-ACG2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-ACG2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCG1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCG1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCT4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCT5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCT6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCT6-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCT7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCT8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-CCT9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCG1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCG2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCG3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCG4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCG5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCG6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCT3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCT4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRR-TCT5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRRAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-ACT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA2-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA2-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA2-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA2-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-AGA7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-CGA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-CGA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-CGA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-CGA4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-GCT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-GCT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-GCT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-GCT4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-GCT4-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-GCT4-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-GCT5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-GCT6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-TGA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-TGA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-TGA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRS-TGA4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRSUP-CTA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRSUP-CTA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRSUP-CTA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRSUP-TTA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRSUP-TTA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRSUP-TTA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-AGT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-AGT1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-AGT1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-AGT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-AGT2-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-AGT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-AGT4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-AGT5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-AGT6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-AGT7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-CGT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-CGT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-CGT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-CGT4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-CGT5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-CGT6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-TGT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-TGT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-TGT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-TGT4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-TGT5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRT-TGT6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRU-TCA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRU-TCA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRU-TCA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUND-NNN1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUND-NNN2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUND-NNN3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUND-NNN4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUND-NNN5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUND-NNN6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUND-NNN7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUND-NNN8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUND-NNN9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRUND-NNN10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-AAC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-AAC1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-AAC1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-AAC1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-AAC1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-AAC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-AAC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-AAC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-AAC5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-AAC6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-AAC7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC1-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC1-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC11-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC13-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-CAC14-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-TAC1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-TAC1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-TAC2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-TAC3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRV-TAC4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRW-CCA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRW-CCA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRW-CCA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRW-CCA3-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRW-CCA3-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRW-CCA4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRW-CCA5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRW-CCA6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRX-CAT1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRX-CAT1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRX-CAT1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRX-CAT1-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRX-CAT1-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRX-CAT1-6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRX-CAT1-7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRX-CAT1-8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRX-CAT2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRX-CAT3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-ATA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA4-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA5-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA5-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA5-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA5-4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA5-5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA6-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA7-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA8-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA9-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA10-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA11-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TRY-GTA12-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSACC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSBP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSC22D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSC22D1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSC22D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSC22D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSC22D4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSEN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSEN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSEN15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSEN15P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSEN15P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSEN15P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSEN34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSEN54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSFM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSG101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSGA10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSGA10IP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSGA13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSHB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSHR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSHR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSHZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSHZ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSHZ2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSHZ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSHZ3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSIX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSKS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSKU | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSKU-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSLP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSNARE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSNAX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSNAX-DISC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSNAXIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN9-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN16-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN18-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPAN33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPEAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPEAR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPO2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPOAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPOAP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPY26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPYL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPYL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPYL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPYL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSPYL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSSC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSSC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSSK1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSSK1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSSK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSSK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSSK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSSK5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSSK6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSTD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TSTD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTBK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTBK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTBK2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC7B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC7B-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC7B-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC9-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC9C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC12-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC14-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC21A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC21B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC21B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC23-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC23L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC23L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC28-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC29-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC32-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC36-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC39A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC39A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC39B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC39C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC39C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC39CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC39DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTC41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL7-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTLL13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTPAL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY4C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY6B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY17A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY17B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY17C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY23B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTTY31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTYH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTYH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TTYH3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA1B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA1C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA3C-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA3E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA3FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA3GP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBAP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB2BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB4AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB4BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB4BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB4BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB4BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB4BP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB4BP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB4BP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB4BP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBB8P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBBP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBBP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBBP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBBP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBBP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBBP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBBP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBG1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBGCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBGCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBGCP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBGCP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUBGCP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUFM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUFMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUFT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TULP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TULP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TULP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TULP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TULP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUNAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUSC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUSC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUSC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUSC2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUSC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUSC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUSC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TUT7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TVP23A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TVP23B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TVP23BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TVP23BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TVP23BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TVP23C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TVP23C-CDRT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TVP23CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TVP23CP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TVP23CP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TWF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TWF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TWF1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TWF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TWF2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TWIST1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TWIST2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TWNK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TWSG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TWSG1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXLNA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXLNB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXLNG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXLNGY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXN2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC15-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNDC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNL1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNL4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNL4AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNL4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNRD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNRD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNRD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TXNRD3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYMP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYMS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYMSOS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYMSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYMSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYRL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYRO3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYRO3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYROBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYSND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYW1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYW1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYW1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYW2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYW3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TYW5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| TZMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| U2AF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| U2AF1L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| U2AF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| U2SURP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| U2SURP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| U2SURPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UACA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UAP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UAP1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA52P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA52P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA52P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA52P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA52P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA52P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA52P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA52P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBA52P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBAC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBALD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBALD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBAP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBAP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBAP2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBASH3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBASH3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBBP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBDP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2CP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2CP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2CP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2CP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D3P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D3P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2D4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2DNL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2E1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2E1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2E2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2E2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2E3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2E3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2E4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2F-SCLY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2FP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2FP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2FP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2G1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2G2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2H | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2H-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2HP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2I | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2I-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2J1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2J2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2K | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2L3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2L3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2L3P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2L6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2M | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2MP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2N | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2NL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2NP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2O | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P4Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P5Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Q2P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2QL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2R2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2S | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2SP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2SP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2T | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2U | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V1P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2V2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2W | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2WP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE2Z | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE3AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE3AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE3C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE3D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBE4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBFD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBFD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBIAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBL4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBL4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBL5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBL5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBL5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBL5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBL7-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBLCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBOX5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBOX5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBQLN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBQLN1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBQLN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBQLN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBQLN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBQLN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBQLN4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBQLN4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBQLNL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBR5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTD2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTFL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTFL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTFL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTFL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTFL6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTFL7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTFL8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTFL9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTFL10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBTFL11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBXN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBXN2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBXN2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBXN2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBXN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBXN6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBXN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBXN7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBXN8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBXN10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UBXN11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCA1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCHL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCHL1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCHL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCHL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCKL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCKL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCMA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UEVLD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFD1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFD1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFM1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFM1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFM1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UFSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGCG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGDH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGGT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGGT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT1A13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2A3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2A3P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B7-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B28-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT2B29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT3A1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT3A2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UGT8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UHMK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UHRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UHRF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UHRF2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UHRF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UICLM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UIMC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ULBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ULBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ULBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ULK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ULK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ULK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ULK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ULK4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ULK4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ULK4P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UMAD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UMLILO | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UMOD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UMODL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UMODL1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UMPS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC5B-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC5C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC5CL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC5D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC13A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC13C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC13D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC45A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC45B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC93A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC93B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC93B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC93B3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC93B4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC93B5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC93B6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC93B7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC93B8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC119 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNC119B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNCX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNGP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNGP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNGP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNKL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UNKL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPF3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPF3AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPF3AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPF3AP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPF3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPK1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPK1A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPK1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPK3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPK3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPK3BL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPK3BL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPK3BL3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPK3BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UPRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCR10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCR10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCR11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRB-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRBP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRFS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRFS1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRFS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRFS1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRFS1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRHL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRHP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRHP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRHP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRHP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UQCRQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| URAD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| URAHP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| URB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| URB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| URB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| URGCP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| URGCP-MRPS24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| URI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| URM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UROC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UROD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UROS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USH1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USH1G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USH2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USH2A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USH2A-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USHBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP6NL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP6NL-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP9YP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP10P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP12-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP12P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP12P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP12PX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP12PY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP17L30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP21P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP21P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP24P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP27X | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP27X-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP30-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP32P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP32P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP32P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP32P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP34-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP37P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP38-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP46-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP53-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USP54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| USPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UST-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UST-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTP14A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTP14C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTP15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTP18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTP20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTP23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTP25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTS2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTS2R | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UTY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UVRAG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UVRAG-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UVSSA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UXS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UXT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| UXT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAC14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAC14-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAMP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAMP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAMP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAMP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAMP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAMP9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VANGL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VANGL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAPB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VASH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VASH1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VASH1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VASH2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VASN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VASP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAT1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAV2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAV3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAV3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VAX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCAN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCAN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCPIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCPKMT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCX3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCX3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VCY1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC1P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC2P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC2P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDAC3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VDR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VEGFA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VEGFB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VEGFC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VEGFD | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VENTX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VENTXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VENTXP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VENTXP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VENTXP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VENTXP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VENTXP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VENTXP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VENTXP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VEPH1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VESTAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VEZF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VEZF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VEZT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VEZTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VGF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VGLL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VGLL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VGLL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VGLL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VHL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VHLL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VHRT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VILL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VILMIR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIM-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIM2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VINAC1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIPAS39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIPR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIPR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIPR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIRMA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIRMA-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VIT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VKORC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VKORC1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VKORC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VKORC1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VLDLR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VLDLR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VMA12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VMA21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VMA22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VMAC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VMO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R22P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R23P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R24P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R25P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R26P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R27P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R28P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R30P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R31P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R32P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R33P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R34P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R35P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R36P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R37P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R38P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R39P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R40P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R41P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R42P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R43P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R44P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R45P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R46P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R47P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R48P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R49P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R51P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R52P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R53P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R54P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R55P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R56P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R57P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R58P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R59P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R60P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R61P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R62P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R63P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R64P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R65P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R66P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R67P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R68P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R69P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R70P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R71P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R72P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R73P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R74P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R75P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R76P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R77P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R78P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R79P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R80P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R81P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R82P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R83P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R84P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R85P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R86P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R87P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R88P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R89P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R90P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R91P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R92P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R93P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R94P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R95P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R96P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R97P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R98P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R99P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R100P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R101P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R102P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R103P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R104P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R105P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R106P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R107P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R108P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R109P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R110P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R111P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN1R112P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R11P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R12P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R13P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R14P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R15P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R16P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R17P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R18P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R19P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R20P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VN2R21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VNN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VNN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VNN3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VOPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VOPP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VOPP2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPREB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPREB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS4A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS4B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS9D1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS9D1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS11-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS13A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS13A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS13B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS13B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS13C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS13C-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS13D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS25P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS26A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS26AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS26B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS26BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS26C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS26CP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS33A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS33B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS33B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS35L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS35P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS37A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS37B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS37C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS37D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS39-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS45-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS50 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS51P19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS52 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS53-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VPS72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VRK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VRK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VRK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VRTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSIG1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSIG2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSIG4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSIG8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSIG10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSIG10L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSIG10L-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSIG10L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSIR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSNL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSTM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSTM2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSTM2A-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSTM2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSTM2B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSTM2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSTM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSTM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VSX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTA1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTA1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTCN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTCN1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTI1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTI1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTI1BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTI1BP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTI1BP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTI1BP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTRNA1-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTRNA1-2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTRNA1-3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTRNA2-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTRNA2-2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VTRNA3-1P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA3B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA5B1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA5B1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA5B2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWA8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWC2L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWC2L-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWDE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VWFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| VXN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WAC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WAC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WAKMAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WAKMAR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WAPL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WAPL-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WARS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WARS1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WARS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WARS2-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WARS2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WAS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASF3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASF4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASF5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASH2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASH3P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASH4P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASH5P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASH6P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASH7P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASH8P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASH9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASHC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASHC2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASHC2C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASHC2EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASHC2FP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASHC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASHC3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASHC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASHC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASHC5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASIR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASIR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WASL-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1LP12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP2NL | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP11P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP11P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBP11P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WBSCR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDCP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDFY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDFY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDFY3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDFY3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDFY3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDFY4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDHD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDPCP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR4P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR5-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR5B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR5CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR7-OT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR11-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR12P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR12P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR19-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR35-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR45B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR45BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR45P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR53P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR54 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR55 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR59 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR70P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR72 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR75 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR77P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR81-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR82P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR82P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR83OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR86 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR86-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR87 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR87BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR88 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR89 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR95P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDR97 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDSUB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDTC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WDTC1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WEE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WEE1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WEE1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WEE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WEE2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WEE2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFDC21P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFIKKN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFIKKN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WFS1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WHAMM | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WHAMMP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WHAMMP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WHAMMP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WHAMMP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WHR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WHR1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WHRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WHSC1L2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WIF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WIPF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WIPF1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WIPF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WIPF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WIPI1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WIPI2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WIZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WIZP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WLS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNK2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNK3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNK4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT3A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT5A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT9A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT9B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT10A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT10B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WNT16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WRAP53 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WRAP73 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WRN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WRN-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WRNIP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WSB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WSB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WSCD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WSCD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WSPAR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WT1-AS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WTAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WTAPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WTAPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WTIP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWC2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWC2-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWC3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWOX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWOX-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWOX-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWP1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWTR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWTR1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| WWTR1-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XAB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XACT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XAGE1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XAGE1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XAGE2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XAGE3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XAGE5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XBP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XCE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XCL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XCL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XCR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XDH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XGY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XGY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XIAP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XIAP-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XIAPP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XIAPP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XIAPP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XIC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XIRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XIRP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XIRP2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XIST | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XK | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKR3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKR4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKR4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKR5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKR6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKR7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKR8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKR9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKRX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKRY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKRYP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKRYP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKRYP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKRYP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKRYP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKRYP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XKRYP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XNDC1CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XNDC1N | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XNDC1N-ZNF705EP-ALG1L9P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPC-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPNPEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPNPEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPNPEP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPO1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPO4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPO5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPO6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPO7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPOT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPOTP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPOTP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPOTP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XPR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRCC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRCC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRCC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRCC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRCC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRCC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRCC6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRCC6P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRCC6P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRCC6P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRCC6P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XRRA1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XXYLT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XXYLT1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XXYLT1-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XYLB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XYLT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| XYLT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YAE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YAE1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YAF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YAM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YAP1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YAP1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YAP1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YAP1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YARS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YARS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBEY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX1P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX1P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX1P5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX1P6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX1P7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX1P8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX1P9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX1P10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YBX3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YDJC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YEATS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YEATS2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YEATS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YES1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YES1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YIF1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YIF1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YIPF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YIPF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YIPF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YIPF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YIPF5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YIPF6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YIPF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YJEFN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YJU2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YJU2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YKT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YKT6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YLPM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YME1L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YME1L1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YOD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YPEL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YPEL2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YPEL3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YPEL3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YPEL4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YPEL5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YPEL5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YPEL5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YPEL5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YPEL5P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YRDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YRDCP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YRDCP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YRDCP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YTHDC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YTHDC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YTHDC2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YTHDF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YTHDF1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YTHDF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YTHDF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YTHDF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YTHDF3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YTHDF3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHABP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHABP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAE | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAEP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAEP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAEP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAEP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAEP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAEP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAEP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAG | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAH-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAQ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAQP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAQP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAQP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAQP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAQP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAQP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAQP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAQP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAQP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAQP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAZ | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAZP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAZP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAZP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAZP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAZP5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAZP6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAZP7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAZP8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAZP9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YWHAZP10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YY1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YY1-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YY1AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YY1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YY1P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| YY2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZACN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZACNP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZAN | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZAP70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZAR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZAR1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBBX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBED1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBED1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBED2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBED3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBED3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBED4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBED5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBED5-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBED6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBED9-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBED10P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB7C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB7C-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB7C-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB8A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB8B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB8OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB8OSP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB8OSP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB11-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB12BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB20-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB20-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB20-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB20-AS4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB20-AS5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB24-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB33 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB38 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB39 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB40 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB40-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB44-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB45P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB45P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB46 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB46-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB46-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB47 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB47-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZBTB49 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC2HC1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC2HC1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC2HC1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H7A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H7B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H11C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H12A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H12B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H12C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H12D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3H18-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3HAV1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3HAV1L | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC3HC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZC4H2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC10P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC10P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC14-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCCHC24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCRB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCRB1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCWPW1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZCWPW2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDBF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC4P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC8BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC12-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC13 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC20-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC20P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC20P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC20P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC20P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZDHHC24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZEB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZEB1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZEB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZEB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZEB2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZEBTR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZER1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND2A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND2A-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND2AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND2AP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND2B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAND6P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFAT-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFC3H1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFHX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFHX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFHX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFHX3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFHX3-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFHX3-AS3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFHX4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFHX4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP3-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP14-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP28-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP36 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP36L1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP36L2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP37 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP42 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP62 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP64 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP64P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP69B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP69B-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP82 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP91-CNTF | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP91P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFP92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFPL1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFPM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFPM1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFPM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFPM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFR-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFRP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFTA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFTRAF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFX-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFY | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFY-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFYVE1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFYVE9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFYVE9P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFYVE9P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFYVE16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFYVE19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFYVE21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFYVE26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFYVE27 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFYVE28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZFYVE28-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZG16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZG16B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZGLP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZGPAT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZGRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZHX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZHX1-C8orf76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZHX2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZHX2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZHX3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZIC1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZIC2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZIC3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZIC4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZIC4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZIC5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZIK1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZIK1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZIM2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZIM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN7-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN7P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN8P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZKSCAN8P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMAT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMAT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMAT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMAT4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMAT5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMIZ1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMIZ1-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMIZ2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMPSTE24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMPSTE24-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYM4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYND8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYND10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYND10-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYND11 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYND12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYND15 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYND19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZMYND19P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF8-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF8-ERVK3-1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF14 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF17 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF19 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF22-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF24 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF24TR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF25-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF28 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF29P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF30-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF32-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF32-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF33A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF33B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF33BP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF33CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF34 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF35 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF37A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF37BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF37CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF41 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF43 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF44 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF45 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF45-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF48 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF56P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF57 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF66 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF69 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF70 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF70P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF71 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF72AP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF72BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF73P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF74 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF75A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF75BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF75CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF75D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF76 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF77 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF79 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF80 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF81 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF83 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF84 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF84-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF85 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF90 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF90P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF90P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF90P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF91 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF92 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF92P1Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF92P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF93 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF98 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF99 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF100 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF101 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF101P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF101P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF106 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF107 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF112 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF114 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF114-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF114P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF117 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF121 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF123P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF124 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF131 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF132 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF132-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF133 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF133-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF134 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF135 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF136 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF137P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF138 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF140 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF141 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF142 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF143 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF143-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF146 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF148 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF154 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF155 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF157 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF160 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF165 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF169 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF174 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF175 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF177 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF180 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF181 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF182 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF184 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF185 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF189 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF195 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF197 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF200 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF202 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF204P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF205 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF205-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF207 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF208 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF209P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF211 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF212 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF213 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF213-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF214 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF215 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF217 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF217-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF219 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF221 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF222 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF222-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF223 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF224 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF225 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF225-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF226 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF227 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF229 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF230 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF230-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF232 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF232-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF233 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF234 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF235 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF236 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF236-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF239 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF248 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF248-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF250 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF251 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF252P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF252P-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF253 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF254 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF256 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF257 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF260 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF263 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF264 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF266 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF267 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF268 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF271P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF273 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF274 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF275 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF276 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF276-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF277 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF277-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF280A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF280B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF280C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF280D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF281 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF282 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF283 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF284 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF285 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF285BP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF285CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF285DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF286A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF286A-TBC1D26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF286B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF287 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF292 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF295-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF296 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF299P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF300 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF300P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF302 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF304 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF311 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF316 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF317 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF317P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF318 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF319 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF320 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF321P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF322 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF322P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF324 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF324B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF326 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF329 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF330 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF331 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF333 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF334 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF335 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF337 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF337-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF341 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF341-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF343 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF345 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF346 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF346-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF347 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF350 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF350-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF354A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF354B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF354C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF355P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF358 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF362 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF365 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF366 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF367 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF382 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF383 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF384 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF385A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF385B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF385C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF385D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF385D-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF385D-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF391 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF394 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF395 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF396 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF397 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF398 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF402P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF404 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF407 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF407-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF408 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF410 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF414 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF415 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF415P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF416 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF417 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF418 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF419 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF420 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF423 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF425 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF426 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF426-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF428 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF429 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF430 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF431 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF432 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF433 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF433-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF436 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF436-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF438 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF439 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF440 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF441 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF442 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF443 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF444 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF444P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF445 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF446 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF449 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF451 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF451-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF454 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF454-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF460 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF460-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF461 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF462 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF467 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF468 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF469 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF470 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF470-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF471 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF473 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF473-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF473CR | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF474 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF474-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF475 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF479 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF480 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF483 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF484 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF485 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF486 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF487 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF488 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF490 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF491 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF492 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF493 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF496 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF496-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF497 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF497-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF497-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF500 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF501 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF502 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF503 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF503-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF503-AS2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF506 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF507 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF510 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF511 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF511-PRAP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF512 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF512B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF513 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF514 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF516 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF516-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF516-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF517 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF518A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF518B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF519 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF519-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF519P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF519P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF519P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF519P4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF521 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF524 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF525 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF526 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF527 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF528 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF528-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF529 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF529-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF530 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF532 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF534 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF536 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF536-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF540 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF541 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF542P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF543 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF544 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF546 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF547 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF548 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF549 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF550 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF551 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF552 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF554 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF555 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF555-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF556 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF557 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF558 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF559 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF559-ZNF177 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF560 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF561 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF561-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF562 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF563 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF564 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF565 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF566 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF566-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF567 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF567-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF568 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF569 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF570 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF571 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF571-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF572 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF573 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF574 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF575 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF576 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF577 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF578 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF579 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF580 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF581 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF582 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF582-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF583 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF584 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF584-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF585A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF585B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF586 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF587 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF587B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF587P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF589 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF592 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF593 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF593OS | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF594 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF594-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF595 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF596 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF597 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF598 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF599 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF600 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF601P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF602P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF603P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF605 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF606 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF606-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF607 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF608 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF608-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF609 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF610 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF611 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF613 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF614 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF615 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF616 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF618 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF619 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF619P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF620 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF621 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF622 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF622P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF623 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF624 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF625 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF625-ZNF20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF626 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF627 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF628 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF628-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF629 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF630 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF630-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF638 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF639 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF641 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF644 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF646 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF646P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF648 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF649 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF649-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF652 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF652-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF652P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF653 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF654 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF655 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF658 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF658B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF660 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF662 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF663P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF664 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF665 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF667 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF667-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF668 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF669 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF670 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF670-ZNF695 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF671 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF672 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF674 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF674-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF675 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF676 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF677 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF678 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF679 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF680 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF680P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF681 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF682 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF683 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF684 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF687 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF687-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF688 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF689 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF691 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF691-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF692 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF692-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF695 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF696 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF697 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF699 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF700 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF701 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF702P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF703 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF704 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF705A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF705B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF705CP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF705D | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF705EP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF705G | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF706 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF707 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF708 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF709 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF710 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF710-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF711 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF713 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF714 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF716 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF717 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF718 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF721 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF722 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF723 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF724 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF725P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF726 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF726P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF727 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF728 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF729 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF730 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF731P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF732 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF733P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF734P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF735 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P1Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P2Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P3Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P4Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P5Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P6Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P7Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P8Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P9Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P10Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P11Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF736P12Y | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF737 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF738 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF740 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF746 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF747 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF747-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF749 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF750 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF761 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF763 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF764 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF765 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF766 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF767P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF768 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF770 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF771 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF772 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF773 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF774 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF775 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF775-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF776 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF777 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF778 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF778-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF780A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF780B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF781 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF782 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF783 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF784 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF785 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF786 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF787 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF788P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF789 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF790 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF790-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF791 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF792 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF793 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF793-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF799 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF800 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF804A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF804B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF805 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF807P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF808 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF812P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF813 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF814 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF815P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF816 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF816-ZNF321P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF818P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF821 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF823 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF826P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF827 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF829 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF830 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF831 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF833P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF835 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF836 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF837 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF839 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF839P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF840P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF841 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF843 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF844 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF845 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF846 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF846-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF847P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF848P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF849P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF850 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF850-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF852 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF853 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF859P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF860 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF861P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF862 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF863P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF865 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF875 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF876P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF877P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF878 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF879 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF880 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF883 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF884P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF885P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF886P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF887P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF888 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF888-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF890P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF891 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF892 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF962P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF965P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF968P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF969P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF970P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNF971P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNFX1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNG1A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNG1B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNG1C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNG1DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNG1E | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNG1F | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNHIT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNHIT1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNHIT2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNHIT3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNHIT6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNNT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNRD2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNRD2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNRF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNRF2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNRF2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNRF2P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNRF2P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNRF3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNRF3-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNRF3-IT1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZNRF4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZP3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZP3P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZP3P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZP4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZPAXP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZPBP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZPBP2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZPLD1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZPLD2P | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZPR1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZPR1P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZRANB1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZRANB2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZRANB2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZRANB2-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZRANB3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZRSR2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZRSR2P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN2-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN5A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN5A-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN5B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN5C | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN5DP | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN12 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN12P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN16 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN16-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN18 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN20 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN21 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN22 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN23 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN25 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN26 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN29 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN30 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN31 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSCAN32 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM4 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM4-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM5 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM5P1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM5P2 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM5P3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM6 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM6-DT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM7 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM8 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM8-AS1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZSWIM9 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZUP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZW10 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZWILCH | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZWINT | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZXDA | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZXDB | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZXDC | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZYG11A | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZYG11AP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZYG11B | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZYX | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZYXP1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZZEF1 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| ZZZ3 | HGNC approved gene symbol |
| Not Reported | Not provided or available. |
| Unknown | Not known, observed, recorded; or reported as unknown by the data contributor. |

### tissue_or_organ_of_origin_uberon_enum

UBERON codes for tissues and organs of origin

| Value | Description |
|-------|-------------|
| UBERON:0000000 | processual entity |
| UBERON:0000002 | uterine cervix |
| UBERON:0000003 | naris |
| UBERON:0000004 | nose |
| UBERON:0000005 | chemosensory organ |
| UBERON:0000006 | islet of Langerhans |
| UBERON:0000007 | pituitary gland |
| UBERON:0000009 | submucosa |
| UBERON:0000010 | peripheral nervous system |
| UBERON:0000011 | parasympathetic nervous system |
| UBERON:0000012 | somatic nervous system |
| UBERON:0000013 | sympathetic nervous system |
| UBERON:0000014 | zone of skin |
| UBERON:0000015 | non-material anatomical boundary |
| UBERON:0000016 | endocrine pancreas |
| UBERON:0000017 | exocrine pancreas |
| UBERON:0000018 | compound eye |
| UBERON:0000019 | camera-type eye |
| UBERON:0000020 | sense organ |
| UBERON:0000021 | cutaneous appendage |
| UBERON:0000022 | feather |
| UBERON:0000023 | wing |
| UBERON:0000026 | appendage |
| UBERON:0000029 | lymph node |
| UBERON:0000030 | lamina propria |
| UBERON:0000031 | lamina propria of trachea |
| UBERON:0000033 | head |
| UBERON:0000035 | primary ovarian follicle |
| UBERON:0000036 | secondary ovarian follicle |
| UBERON:0000037 | tertiary ovarian follicle |
| UBERON:0000038 | follicular fluid |
| UBERON:0000039 | follicular antrum |
| UBERON:0000041 | odontode scale |
| UBERON:0000042 | serous membrane |
| UBERON:0000043 | tendon |
| UBERON:0000044 | dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0000045 | ganglion |
| UBERON:0000046 | stemma |
| UBERON:0000047 | simple eye |
| UBERON:0000048 | pinhole eye |
| UBERON:0000051 | fornix of vagina |
| UBERON:0000052 | fornix of brain |
| UBERON:0000053 | macula lutea |
| UBERON:0000054 | macula |
| UBERON:0000056 | ureter |
| UBERON:0000057 | urethra |
| UBERON:0000058 | duct |
| UBERON:0000059 | large intestine |
| UBERON:0000060 | anatomical wall |
| UBERON:0000061 | anatomical structure |
| UBERON:0000062 | organ |
| UBERON:0000063 | organ subunit |
| UBERON:0000064 | organ part |
| UBERON:0000065 | respiratory tract |
| UBERON:0000066 | fully formed stage |
| UBERON:0000068 | embryo stage |
| UBERON:0000069 | larval stage |
| UBERON:0000070 | pupal stage |
| UBERON:0000071 | death stage |
| UBERON:0000072 | proximo-distal subdivision of respiratory tract |
| UBERON:0000073 | regional part of nervous system |
| UBERON:0000074 | renal glomerulus |
| UBERON:0000075 | subdivision of skeletal system |
| UBERON:0000076 | external ectoderm |
| UBERON:0000079 | male reproductive system |
| UBERON:0000080 | mesonephros |
| UBERON:0000081 | metanephros |
| UBERON:0000082 | adult mammalian kidney |
| UBERON:0000083 | mesonephric tubule |
| UBERON:0000084 | ureteric bud |
| UBERON:0000085 | morula |
| UBERON:0000086 | zona pellucida |
| UBERON:0000087 | inner cell mass |
| UBERON:0000088 | trophoblast |
| UBERON:0000089 | hypoblast (generic) |
| UBERON:0000090 | blastocele |
| UBERON:0000091 | bilaminar disc |
| UBERON:0000092 | post-embryonic stage |
| UBERON:0000094 | membrane organ |
| UBERON:0000095 | cardiac neural crest |
| UBERON:0000100 | blastopore |
| UBERON:0000101 | lobe of lung |
| UBERON:0000102 | lung vasculature |
| UBERON:0000104 | life cycle |
| UBERON:0000105 | life cycle stage |
| UBERON:0000106 | zygote stage |
| UBERON:0000107 | cleavage stage |
| UBERON:0000108 | blastula stage |
| UBERON:0000109 | gastrula stage |
| UBERON:0000110 | neurula stage |
| UBERON:0000111 | organogenesis stage |
| UBERON:0000112 | sexually immature stage |
| UBERON:0000113 | post-juvenile adult stage |
| UBERON:0000114 | lung connective tissue |
| UBERON:0000115 | lung epithelium |
| UBERON:0000117 | respiratory tube |
| UBERON:0000118 | lung bud |
| UBERON:0000119 | cell layer |
| UBERON:0000120 | blood brain barrier |
| UBERON:0000121 | perineurium |
| UBERON:0000122 | neuron projection bundle |
| UBERON:0000123 | endoneurium |
| UBERON:0000124 | epineurium |
| UBERON:0000125 | neural nucleus |
| UBERON:0000126 | cranial nerve nucleus |
| UBERON:0000127 | facial nucleus |
| UBERON:0000128 | olivary body |
| UBERON:0000130 | transverse foramen |
| UBERON:0000144 | trochlea of humerus |
| UBERON:0000151 | pectoral fin |
| UBERON:0000152 | pelvic fin |
| UBERON:0000155 | theca cell layer |
| UBERON:0000156 | theca externa |
| UBERON:0000157 | theca interna |
| UBERON:0000158 | membranous layer |
| UBERON:0000159 | anal canal |
| UBERON:0000160 | intestine |
| UBERON:0000161 | orifice |
| UBERON:0000162 | cloaca |
| UBERON:0000163 | embryonic cloaca |
| UBERON:0000164 | primitive urogenital sinus |
| UBERON:0000165 | mouth |
| UBERON:0000166 | oral opening |
| UBERON:0000167 | oral cavity |
| UBERON:0000168 | proximal-distal subdivision of colon |
| UBERON:0000170 | pair of lungs |
| UBERON:0000171 | respiration organ |
| UBERON:0000172 | vomit |
| UBERON:0000173 | amniotic fluid |
| UBERON:0000174 | excreta |
| UBERON:0000175 | pleural effusion |
| UBERON:0000176 | oronasal secretion |
| UBERON:0000177 | pus |
| UBERON:0000178 | blood |
| UBERON:0000179 | haemolymphatic fluid |
| UBERON:0000180 | lateral lumbar region of abdomen |
| UBERON:0000199 | neck of radius |
| UBERON:0000200 | gyrus |
| UBERON:0000201 | endothelial blood brain barrier |
| UBERON:0000202 | glial blood brain barrier |
| UBERON:0000203 | pallium |
| UBERON:0000204 | ventral part of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0000205 | papula |
| UBERON:0000207 | compound eye corneal lens |
| UBERON:0000209 | tetrapod frontal bone |
| UBERON:0000210 | tetrapod parietal bone |
| UBERON:0000211 | ligament |
| UBERON:0000218 | vertebral arch of axis |
| UBERON:0000219 | vertebral foramen of atlas |
| UBERON:0000220 | atlanto-occipital joint |
| UBERON:0000221 | supraauricular point |
| UBERON:0000301 | amniotic cavity |
| UBERON:0000303 | adductor longus |
| UBERON:0000304 | tendon sheath |
| UBERON:0000305 | amnion |
| UBERON:0000307 | blastula |
| UBERON:0000309 | body wall |
| UBERON:0000310 | breast |
| UBERON:0000311 | extensor muscle |
| UBERON:0000312 | inner cambium layer of periosteum |
| UBERON:0000313 | portion of cartilage tissue in tibia |
| UBERON:0000314 | cecum mucosa |
| UBERON:0000315 | subarachnoid space |
| UBERON:0000316 | cervical mucus |
| UBERON:0000317 | colonic mucosa |
| UBERON:0000319 | cytotrophoblast |
| UBERON:0000320 | duodenal mucosa |
| UBERON:0000323 | late embryo |
| UBERON:0000325 | gastric gland |
| UBERON:0000326 | pancreatic juice |
| UBERON:0000328 | gut wall |
| UBERON:0000329 | hair root |
| UBERON:0000331 | ileal mucosa |
| UBERON:0000332 | yellow bone marrow |
| UBERON:0000333 | intestinal gland |
| UBERON:0000341 | throat |
| UBERON:0000344 | mucosa |
| UBERON:0000345 | myelin |
| UBERON:0000347 | entire myelin sheath |
| UBERON:0000348 | ophthalmic nerve |
| UBERON:0000349 | limbic system |
| UBERON:0000351 | nuchal ligament |
| UBERON:0000353 | parenchyma |
| UBERON:0000355 | pharyngeal mucosa |
| UBERON:0000358 | blastocyst |
| UBERON:0000359 | preputial gland |
| UBERON:0000361 | red bone marrow |
| UBERON:0000362 | renal medulla |
| UBERON:0000363 | reticuloendothelial system |
| UBERON:0000364 | obsolete rootlet |
| UBERON:0000365 | urothelium |
| UBERON:0000366 | flexor muscle |
| UBERON:0000368 | adductor brevis |
| UBERON:0000369 | corpus striatum |
| UBERON:0000370 | adductor magnus |
| UBERON:0000371 | syncytiotrophoblast |
| UBERON:0000372 | extensor digitorum brevis pes |
| UBERON:0000373 | tapetum of corpus callosum |
| UBERON:0000375 | mandibular nerve |
| UBERON:0000376 | hindlimb stylopod |
| UBERON:0000377 | maxillary nerve |
| UBERON:0000378 | tongue muscle |
| UBERON:0000379 | tracheal mucosa |
| UBERON:0000380 | obsolete tuber |
| UBERON:0000381 | urinary bladder detrusor smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0000382 | apocrine sweat gland |
| UBERON:0000383 | musculature of body |
| UBERON:0000385 | obsolete labial gland |
| UBERON:0000387 | meniscus |
| UBERON:0000388 | epiglottis |
| UBERON:0000389 | lens cortex |
| UBERON:0000390 | lens nucleus |
| UBERON:0000391 | leptomeninx |
| UBERON:0000392 | longissimus muscle |
| UBERON:0000395 | cochlear ganglion |
| UBERON:0000396 | vallate papilla |
| UBERON:0000397 | colonic epithelium |
| UBERON:0000398 | cartilage tissue of sternum |
| UBERON:0000399 | jejunal mucosa |
| UBERON:0000400 | jejunal epithelium |
| UBERON:0000401 | mandibular ramus |
| UBERON:0000402 | nasal vestibule |
| UBERON:0000403 | scalp |
| UBERON:0000407 | sympathetic trunk |
| UBERON:0000408 | vertebral ganglion |
| UBERON:0000409 | serous gland |
| UBERON:0000410 | bronchial mucosa |
| UBERON:0000411 | visual cortex |
| UBERON:0000412 | dermal papilla |
| UBERON:0000414 | mucous gland |
| UBERON:0000415 | artery wall |
| UBERON:0000416 | subdural space |
| UBERON:0000420 | myoepithelium |
| UBERON:0000423 | eccrine sweat gland |
| UBERON:0000424 | gastric pit |
| UBERON:0000426 | extravillous trophoblast |
| UBERON:0000428 | prostate epithelium |
| UBERON:0000429 | enteric plexus |
| UBERON:0000430 | ventral intermediate nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0000431 | ventral medial complex of thalamus |
| UBERON:0000432 | endopeduncular nucleus |
| UBERON:0000433 | posterior paraventricular nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0000434 | anterior paraventricular nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0000435 | lateral tuberal nucleus |
| UBERON:0000437 | arachnoid barrier layer |
| UBERON:0000439 | arachnoid trabecula |
| UBERON:0000440 | trabecula |
| UBERON:0000442 | right testicular vein |
| UBERON:0000443 | left testicular vein |
| UBERON:0000444 | lymphoid follicle |
| UBERON:0000445 | habenular trigone |
| UBERON:0000446 | septum of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0000449 | obsolete decidual cell |
| UBERON:0000450 | corpus albicans |
| UBERON:0000451 | prefrontal cortex |
| UBERON:0000453 | decidua basalis |
| UBERON:0000454 | cerebral subcortex |
| UBERON:0000456 | secretion of exocrine gland |
| UBERON:0000457 | cavernous artery |
| UBERON:0000458 | endocervix |
| UBERON:0000459 | uterine wall |
| UBERON:0000460 | major vestibular gland |
| UBERON:0000461 | minor vestibular gland |
| UBERON:0000463 | organism substance |
| UBERON:0000464 | anatomical space |
| UBERON:0000465 | material anatomical entity |
| UBERON:0000466 | immaterial anatomical entity |
| UBERON:0000467 | anatomical system |
| UBERON:0000468 | multicellular organism |
| UBERON:0000471 | compound organ component |
| UBERON:0000472 | simple organ |
| UBERON:0000473 | testis |
| UBERON:0000474 | female reproductive system |
| UBERON:0000475 | organism subdivision |
| UBERON:0000476 | acellular anatomical structure |
| UBERON:0000477 | anatomical cluster |
| UBERON:0000478 | extraembryonic structure |
| UBERON:0000479 | tissue |
| UBERON:0000480 | anatomical group |
| UBERON:0000481 | multi-tissue structure |
| UBERON:0000482 | basal lamina of epithelium |
| UBERON:0000483 | epithelium |
| UBERON:0000484 | simple cuboidal epithelium |
| UBERON:0000485 | simple columnar epithelium |
| UBERON:0000486 | multilaminar epithelium |
| UBERON:0000487 | simple squamous epithelium |
| UBERON:0000488 | atypical epithelium |
| UBERON:0000489 | cavitated compound organ |
| UBERON:0000490 | unilaminar epithelium |
| UBERON:0000491 | solid compound organ |
| UBERON:0000569 | ileocecal valve |
| UBERON:0000642 | suspensory ligament of duodenum |
| UBERON:0000711 | splenius capitis |
| UBERON:0000908 | hippocampal commissure |
| UBERON:0000910 | chyme |
| UBERON:0000911 | chyle |
| UBERON:0000912 | mucus |
| UBERON:0000913 | interstitial fluid |
| UBERON:0000914 | organismal segment |
| UBERON:0000915 | thoracic segment of trunk |
| UBERON:0000916 | abdomen |
| UBERON:0000918 | obsolete yolk |
| UBERON:0000920 | egg chorion |
| UBERON:0000921 | obsolete pronucleus |
| UBERON:0000922 | embryo |
| UBERON:0000923 | germ layer |
| UBERON:0000924 | ectoderm |
| UBERON:0000925 | endoderm |
| UBERON:0000926 | mesoderm |
| UBERON:0000927 | mesectoderm |
| UBERON:0000929 | pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve |
| UBERON:0000930 | stomodeum |
| UBERON:0000931 | proctodeum |
| UBERON:0000933 | chordate pharyngeal muscle |
| UBERON:0000934 | ventral nerve cord |
| UBERON:0000935 | anterior commissure |
| UBERON:0000936 | posterior commissure |
| UBERON:0000939 | imaginal disc |
| UBERON:0000941 | cranial nerve II |
| UBERON:0000942 | frontal nerve (branch of ophthalmic) |
| UBERON:0000945 | stomach |
| UBERON:0000946 | cardiac valve |
| UBERON:0000947 | aorta |
| UBERON:0000948 | heart |
| UBERON:0000949 | endocrine system |
| UBERON:0000950 | gracilis |
| UBERON:0000951 | rotator muscle of the vertebral column |
| UBERON:0000953 | obsolete visceral muscle |
| UBERON:0000955 | brain |
| UBERON:0000956 | cerebral cortex |
| UBERON:0000957 | lamina |
| UBERON:0000958 | medulla of organ |
| UBERON:0000959 | optic chiasma |
| UBERON:0000960 | obsolete pharyngeal nerve |
| UBERON:0000961 | thoracic ganglion |
| UBERON:0000962 | nerve of cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0000963 | head sensillum |
| UBERON:0000964 | cornea |
| UBERON:0000965 | lens of camera-type eye |
| UBERON:0000966 | retina |
| UBERON:0000970 | eye |
| UBERON:0000971 | ommatidium |
| UBERON:0000972 | antenna |
| UBERON:0000974 | neck |
| UBERON:0000975 | sternum |
| UBERON:0000976 | humerus |
| UBERON:0000977 | pleura |
| UBERON:0000978 | leg |
| UBERON:0000979 | tibia |
| UBERON:0000980 | trochanter |
| UBERON:0000981 | femur |
| UBERON:0000982 | skeletal joint |
| UBERON:0000983 | metatarsus region |
| UBERON:0000984 | imaginal disc-derived wing |
| UBERON:0000985 | axillary vein |
| UBERON:0000987 | haltere |
| UBERON:0000988 | pons |
| UBERON:0000989 | penis |
| UBERON:0000990 | reproductive system |
| UBERON:0000991 | gonad |
| UBERON:0000992 | ovary |
| UBERON:0000993 | oviduct |
| UBERON:0000994 | spermathecum |
| UBERON:0000995 | uterus |
| UBERON:0000996 | vagina |
| UBERON:0000997 | mammalian vulva |
| UBERON:0000998 | seminal vesicle |
| UBERON:0000999 | ejaculatory duct |
| UBERON:0001000 | vas deferens |
| UBERON:0001001 | chitin-based cuticle |
| UBERON:0001002 | cuticle |
| UBERON:0001003 | skin epidermis |
| UBERON:0001004 | respiratory system |
| UBERON:0001005 | respiratory airway |
| UBERON:0001006 | obsolete spiracle |
| UBERON:0001007 | digestive system |
| UBERON:0001008 | renal system |
| UBERON:0001009 | circulatory system |
| UBERON:0001010 | diaphysis of ulna |
| UBERON:0001011 | hemolymph |
| UBERON:0001012 | head of radius |
| UBERON:0001013 | adipose tissue |
| UBERON:0001015 | musculature |
| UBERON:0001016 | nervous system |
| UBERON:0001017 | central nervous system |
| UBERON:0001018 | axon tract |
| UBERON:0001019 | nerve fasciculus |
| UBERON:0001020 | nervous system commissure |
| UBERON:0001021 | nerve |
| UBERON:0001023 | obsolete dendrite |
| UBERON:0001024 | obsolete neurite |
| UBERON:0001025 | obsolete synapse |
| UBERON:0001026 | obsolete motor nerve |
| UBERON:0001027 | sensory nerve |
| UBERON:0001028 | diaphysis of radius |
| UBERON:0001029 | obsolete neuromuscular junction |
| UBERON:0001031 | sheath of Schwann |
| UBERON:0001032 | sensory system |
| UBERON:0001033 | gustatory system |
| UBERON:0001034 | obsolete photoreceptor |
| UBERON:0001035 | dento-alveolar joint |
| UBERON:0001037 | strand of hair |
| UBERON:0001038 | chordotonal organ |
| UBERON:0001040 | yolk sac |
| UBERON:0001041 | foregut |
| UBERON:0001042 | chordate pharynx |
| UBERON:0001043 | esophagus |
| UBERON:0001044 | saliva-secreting gland |
| UBERON:0001045 | midgut |
| UBERON:0001046 | hindgut |
| UBERON:0001047 | neural glomerulus |
| UBERON:0001048 | primordium |
| UBERON:0001049 | neural tube |
| UBERON:0001051 | hypopharynx |
| UBERON:0001052 | rectum |
| UBERON:0001053 | arthropod neurohemal organ |
| UBERON:0001054 | Malpighian tubule |
| UBERON:0001056 | corpus cardiacum |
| UBERON:0001057 | corpus allatum |
| UBERON:0001058 | mushroom body |
| UBERON:0001059 | pars intercerebralis |
| UBERON:0001062 | anatomical entity |
| UBERON:0001063 | flocculus |
| UBERON:0001064 | ventral pancreatic duct |
| UBERON:0001065 | parotid main excretory duct |
| UBERON:0001066 | intervertebral disk |
| UBERON:0001067 | vertebral arch joint |
| UBERON:0001068 | skin of back |
| UBERON:0001069 | head of pancreas |
| UBERON:0001070 | external carotid artery |
| UBERON:0001071 | superficial cervical artery |
| UBERON:0001072 | inferior vena cava |
| UBERON:0001073 | ileocecal junction |
| UBERON:0001074 | pericardial cavity |
| UBERON:0001075 | bony vertebral centrum |
| UBERON:0001076 | neural spine |
| UBERON:0001077 | transverse process of vertebra |
| UBERON:0001078 | pedicle of vertebra |
| UBERON:0001079 | prezygapophysis |
| UBERON:0001080 | postzygapophysis |
| UBERON:0001081 | endocardium of ventricle |
| UBERON:0001082 | epicardium of ventricle |
| UBERON:0001083 | myocardium of ventricle |
| UBERON:0001084 | skin of head |
| UBERON:0001085 | skin of trunk |
| UBERON:0001087 | pleural fluid |
| UBERON:0001088 | urine |
| UBERON:0001089 | sweat |
| UBERON:0001090 | synovial fluid |
| UBERON:0001091 | calcareous tooth |
| UBERON:0001092 | vertebral bone 1 |
| UBERON:0001093 | vertebral bone 2 |
| UBERON:0001094 | sacral vertebra |
| UBERON:0001095 | caudal vertebra |
| UBERON:0001096 | wall of esophagus |
| UBERON:0001097 | axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0001098 | incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0001099 | subcostal vein |
| UBERON:0001100 | pectoralis minor |
| UBERON:0001101 | external jugular vein |
| UBERON:0001102 | cartilage of main bronchus |
| UBERON:0001103 | diaphragm |
| UBERON:0001104 | anterior jugular vein |
| UBERON:0001105 | clavicle bone |
| UBERON:0001106 | cephalic vein |
| UBERON:0001107 | sternohyoid muscle |
| UBERON:0001108 | omohyoid muscle |
| UBERON:0001109 | sternothyroid muscle |
| UBERON:0001110 | thyrohyoid muscle |
| UBERON:0001111 | intercostal muscle |
| UBERON:0001112 | latissimus dorsi muscle |
| UBERON:0001113 | lobe of liver |
| UBERON:0001114 | right lobe of liver |
| UBERON:0001115 | left lobe of liver |
| UBERON:0001116 | quadrate lobe of liver |
| UBERON:0001117 | caudate lobe of liver |
| UBERON:0001118 | lobe of thyroid gland |
| UBERON:0001119 | right lobe of thyroid gland |
| UBERON:0001120 | left lobe of thyroid gland |
| UBERON:0001121 | longus colli muscle |
| UBERON:0001122 | scalenus medius |
| UBERON:0001123 | scalenus posterior |
| UBERON:0001125 | serratus ventralis |
| UBERON:0001126 | serratus dorsalis superior muscle |
| UBERON:0001127 | serratus dorsalis inferior muscle |
| UBERON:0001128 | sternocleidomastoid |
| UBERON:0001129 | subscapularis muscle |
| UBERON:0001130 | vertebral column |
| UBERON:0001131 | vertebral foramen |
| UBERON:0001132 | parathyroid gland |
| UBERON:0001133 | cardiac muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0001134 | skeletal muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0001135 | smooth muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0001136 | mesothelium |
| UBERON:0001137 | dorsum |
| UBERON:0001138 | superior mesenteric vein |
| UBERON:0001139 | common iliac vein |
| UBERON:0001140 | renal vein |
| UBERON:0001141 | right renal vein |
| UBERON:0001142 | left renal vein |
| UBERON:0001143 | hepatic vein |
| UBERON:0001144 | testicular vein |
| UBERON:0001145 | ovarian vein |
| UBERON:0001146 | suprarenal vein |
| UBERON:0001148 | median nerve |
| UBERON:0001149 | bare area of liver |
| UBERON:0001150 | body of pancreas |
| UBERON:0001151 | tail of pancreas |
| UBERON:0001152 | cystic duct |
| UBERON:0001153 | caecum |
| UBERON:0001154 | vermiform appendix |
| UBERON:0001155 | colon |
| UBERON:0001156 | ascending colon |
| UBERON:0001157 | transverse colon |
| UBERON:0001158 | descending colon |
| UBERON:0001159 | sigmoid colon |
| UBERON:0001160 | fundus of stomach |
| UBERON:0001161 | body of stomach |
| UBERON:0001162 | cardia of stomach |
| UBERON:0001163 | lesser curvature of stomach |
| UBERON:0001164 | greater curvature of stomach |
| UBERON:0001165 | pyloric antrum |
| UBERON:0001166 | pylorus |
| UBERON:0001167 | wall of stomach |
| UBERON:0001168 | wall of small intestine |
| UBERON:0001169 | wall of large intestine |
| UBERON:0001170 | mesentery of small intestine |
| UBERON:0001171 | portal lobule |
| UBERON:0001172 | hepatic acinus |
| UBERON:0001173 | biliary tree |
| UBERON:0001174 | common bile duct |
| UBERON:0001175 | common hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0001176 | right hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0001177 | left hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0001178 | visceral peritoneum |
| UBERON:0001179 | peritoneal cavity |
| UBERON:0001180 | superior recess of lesser sac |
| UBERON:0001181 | inferior recess of lesser sac |
| UBERON:0001182 | superior mesenteric artery |
| UBERON:0001183 | inferior mesenteric artery |
| UBERON:0001184 | renal artery |
| UBERON:0001185 | right renal artery |
| UBERON:0001186 | left renal artery |
| UBERON:0001187 | testicular artery |
| UBERON:0001188 | right testicular artery |
| UBERON:0001189 | left testicular artery |
| UBERON:0001190 | ovarian artery |
| UBERON:0001191 | common iliac artery |
| UBERON:0001192 | left gastric artery |
| UBERON:0001193 | hepatic artery |
| UBERON:0001194 | splenic artery |
| UBERON:0001195 | inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery |
| UBERON:0001196 | middle colic artery |
| UBERON:0001197 | ileocolic artery |
| UBERON:0001198 | superior suprarenal artery |
| UBERON:0001199 | mucosa of stomach |
| UBERON:0001200 | submucosa of stomach |
| UBERON:0001201 | serosa of stomach |
| UBERON:0001202 | pyloric sphincter |
| UBERON:0001203 | muscularis mucosae of stomach |
| UBERON:0001204 | mucosa of small intestine |
| UBERON:0001205 | submucosa of small intestine |
| UBERON:0001206 | serosa of small intestine |
| UBERON:0001207 | mucosa of large intestine |
| UBERON:0001208 | submucosa of large intestine |
| UBERON:0001209 | serosa of large intestine |
| UBERON:0001210 | muscularis mucosae of small intestine |
| UBERON:0001211 | Peyer's patch |
| UBERON:0001212 | duodenal gland |
| UBERON:0001213 | intestinal villus |
| UBERON:0001214 | pancreatic tributary of splenic vein |
| UBERON:0001215 | inferior mesenteric vein |
| UBERON:0001216 | jejunal vein |
| UBERON:0001217 | ileal vein |
| UBERON:0001218 | middle colic vein |
| UBERON:0001219 | ileocolic vein |
| UBERON:0001220 | quadratus lumborum |
| UBERON:0001221 | transversus abdominis muscle |
| UBERON:0001222 | right ureter |
| UBERON:0001223 | left ureter |
| UBERON:0001224 | renal pelvis |
| UBERON:0001225 | cortex of kidney |
| UBERON:0001226 | major calyx |
| UBERON:0001227 | minor calyx |
| UBERON:0001228 | renal papilla |
| UBERON:0001229 | renal corpuscle |
| UBERON:0001230 | glomerular capsule |
| UBERON:0001231 | nephron tubule |
| UBERON:0001232 | collecting duct of renal tubule |
| UBERON:0001233 | right adrenal gland |
| UBERON:0001234 | left adrenal gland |
| UBERON:0001235 | adrenal cortex |
| UBERON:0001236 | adrenal medulla |
| UBERON:0001237 | paraaortic body |
| UBERON:0001238 | lamina propria of small intestine |
| UBERON:0001239 | muscularis mucosae of large intestine |
| UBERON:0001240 | muscularis mucosae of intestine |
| UBERON:0001241 | crypt of Lieberkuhn of small intestine |
| UBERON:0001242 | intestinal mucosa |
| UBERON:0001243 | serosa of intestine |
| UBERON:0001244 | internal anal sphincter |
| UBERON:0001245 | anus |
| UBERON:0001246 | interlobular bile duct |
| UBERON:0001247 | falciform ligament |
| UBERON:0001248 | hilum of spleen |
| UBERON:0001249 | spleen lymphoid follicle |
| UBERON:0001250 | red pulp of spleen |
| UBERON:0001251 | marginal zone of spleen |
| UBERON:0001252 | adventitia of ureter |
| UBERON:0001253 | lamina propria of ureter |
| UBERON:0001254 | urothelium of ureter |
| UBERON:0001255 | urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0001256 | wall of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0001257 | trigone of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0001258 | neck of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0001259 | mucosa of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0001260 | serosa of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0001261 | lamina propria of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0001262 | wall of intestine |
| UBERON:0001263 | pancreatic acinus |
| UBERON:0001264 | pancreas |
| UBERON:0001265 | trabecula of spleen |
| UBERON:0001266 | splenic cord |
| UBERON:0001267 | femoral nerve |
| UBERON:0001268 | peritoneal fluid |
| UBERON:0001269 | acetabular part of hip bone |
| UBERON:0001270 | bony pelvis |
| UBERON:0001271 | pelvic girdle region |
| UBERON:0001272 | innominate bone |
| UBERON:0001273 | ilium |
| UBERON:0001274 | ischium |
| UBERON:0001275 | pubis |
| UBERON:0001276 | epithelium of stomach |
| UBERON:0001277 | intestinal epithelium |
| UBERON:0001278 | epithelium of large intestine |
| UBERON:0001279 | portal triad |
| UBERON:0001280 | liver parenchyma |
| UBERON:0001281 | hepatic sinusoid |
| UBERON:0001282 | intralobular bile duct |
| UBERON:0001283 | bile canaliculus |
| UBERON:0001284 | renal column |
| UBERON:0001285 | nephron |
| UBERON:0001286 | Bowman's space |
| UBERON:0001287 | proximal convoluted tubule |
| UBERON:0001288 | loop of Henle |
| UBERON:0001289 | descending limb of loop of Henle |
| UBERON:0001290 | proximal straight tubule |
| UBERON:0001291 | thick ascending limb of loop of Henle |
| UBERON:0001292 | distal convoluted tubule |
| UBERON:0001293 | outer medulla of kidney |
| UBERON:0001294 | inner medulla of kidney |
| UBERON:0001295 | endometrium |
| UBERON:0001296 | myometrium |
| UBERON:0001297 | serosa of uterus |
| UBERON:0001298 | psoas major muscle |
| UBERON:0001299 | glans penis |
| UBERON:0001300 | scrotum |
| UBERON:0001301 | epididymis |
| UBERON:0001302 | right fallopian tube |
| UBERON:0001303 | left fallopian tube |
| UBERON:0001304 | germinal epithelium of ovary |
| UBERON:0001305 | ovarian follicle |
| UBERON:0001306 | cumulus oophorus |
| UBERON:0001307 | capsule of ovary |
| UBERON:0001308 | external iliac artery |
| UBERON:0001309 | internal iliac artery |
| UBERON:0001310 | umbilical artery |
| UBERON:0001311 | inferior vesical artery |
| UBERON:0001312 | superior vesical artery |
| UBERON:0001313 | iliolumbar artery |
| UBERON:0001314 | obturator artery |
| UBERON:0001315 | superior gluteal artery |
| UBERON:0001316 | external iliac vein |
| UBERON:0001317 | internal iliac vein |
| UBERON:0001318 | inferior vesical vein |
| UBERON:0001319 | vaginal vein |
| UBERON:0001320 | iliolumbar vein |
| UBERON:0001321 | obturator vein |
| UBERON:0001322 | sciatic nerve |
| UBERON:0001323 | tibial nerve |
| UBERON:0001324 | common fibular nerve |
| UBERON:0001325 | muscle of pelvis |
| UBERON:0001326 | levator ani muscle |
| UBERON:0001327 | coccygeus muscle |
| UBERON:0001328 | lobe of prostate |
| UBERON:0001329 | prostate gland anterior lobe |
| UBERON:0001330 | pampiniform plexus |
| UBERON:0001331 | skin of penis |
| UBERON:0001332 | prepuce of penis |
| UBERON:0001333 | male urethra |
| UBERON:0001334 | female urethra |
| UBERON:0001335 | prostatic urethra |
| UBERON:0001336 | membranous urethra of male or female |
| UBERON:0001337 | spongiose part of urethra |
| UBERON:0001338 | urethral gland |
| UBERON:0001339 | ischiocavernosus muscle |
| UBERON:0001340 | dorsal artery of penis |
| UBERON:0001341 | lesser sac |
| UBERON:0001342 | mesovarium |
| UBERON:0001343 | seminiferous tubule of testis |
| UBERON:0001344 | epithelium of vagina |
| UBERON:0001345 | obsolete fornix |
| UBERON:0001346 | vaginal hymen |
| UBERON:0001347 | white adipose tissue |
| UBERON:0001348 | brown adipose tissue |
| UBERON:0001349 | externally connecting tube lumen |
| UBERON:0001350 | coccyx |
| UBERON:0001351 | lacrimal sac |
| UBERON:0001352 | external acoustic meatus |
| UBERON:0001353 | anal region |
| UBERON:0001354 | inferior epigastric artery |
| UBERON:0001355 | deep femoral artery |
| UBERON:0001356 | medial circumflex femoral artery |
| UBERON:0001357 | inferior rectal artery |
| UBERON:0001358 | perineal artery |
| UBERON:0001359 | cerebrospinal fluid |
| UBERON:0001360 | deep circumflex iliac vein |
| UBERON:0001361 | femoral vein |
| UBERON:0001362 | perineal vein |
| UBERON:0001363 | great saphenous vein |
| UBERON:0001365 | sacro-iliac joint |
| UBERON:0001366 | parietal peritoneum |
| UBERON:0001367 | external anal sphincter |
| UBERON:0001368 | obturator externus |
| UBERON:0001369 | iliacus muscle |
| UBERON:0001370 | gluteus maximus |
| UBERON:0001371 | gluteus medius |
| UBERON:0001372 | psoas minor muscle |
| UBERON:0001373 | sartorius muscle |
| UBERON:0001374 | biceps femoris |
| UBERON:0001375 | semitendinosus |
| UBERON:0001376 | tensor fasciae latae muscle |
| UBERON:0001377 | quadriceps femoris |
| UBERON:0001378 | rectus femoris |
| UBERON:0001379 | vastus lateralis |
| UBERON:0001380 | vastus medialis |
| UBERON:0001381 | semimembranosus muscle |
| UBERON:0001382 | pectineus muscle |
| UBERON:0001383 | muscle of leg |
| UBERON:0001384 | primary motor cortex |
| UBERON:0001385 | tibialis anterior |
| UBERON:0001386 | extensor digitorum longus |
| UBERON:0001387 | fibularis longus |
| UBERON:0001388 | gastrocnemius |
| UBERON:0001389 | soleus muscle |
| UBERON:0001390 | sural artery |
| UBERON:0001391 | popliteus muscle |
| UBERON:0001392 | flexor hallucis longus |
| UBERON:0001393 | auditory cortex |
| UBERON:0001394 | axillary artery |
| UBERON:0001395 | thoraco-acromial artery |
| UBERON:0001396 | lateral thoracic artery |
| UBERON:0001397 | subscapular artery |
| UBERON:0001398 | brachial artery |
| UBERON:0001399 | deep brachial artery |
| UBERON:0001400 | iliocostalis thoracis muscle |
| UBERON:0001401 | longissimus thoracis muscle |
| UBERON:0001402 | longissimus cervicis muscle |
| UBERON:0001403 | longissimus capitis |
| UBERON:0001404 | radial artery |
| UBERON:0001405 | spinalis thoracis muscle |
| UBERON:0001406 | ulnar artery |
| UBERON:0001407 | semispinalis thoracis |
| UBERON:0001408 | semispinalis cervicis |
| UBERON:0001409 | semispinalis capitis |
| UBERON:0001410 | common palmar digital artery |
| UBERON:0001411 | basilic vein |
| UBERON:0001412 | common palmar digital vein |
| UBERON:0001413 | brachial vein |
| UBERON:0001414 | median basilic vein |
| UBERON:0001415 | skin of pelvis |
| UBERON:0001416 | skin of abdomen |
| UBERON:0001417 | skin of neck |
| UBERON:0001418 | skin of thorax |
| UBERON:0001419 | skin of limb |
| UBERON:0001420 | subscapular vein |
| UBERON:0001421 | pectoral girdle region |
| UBERON:0001422 | facial lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:0001423 | radius bone |
| UBERON:0001424 | ulna |
| UBERON:0001425 | pectoral lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:0001426 | jugular lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:0001427 | radiale |
| UBERON:0001428 | intermedium |
| UBERON:0001429 | pisiform |
| UBERON:0001430 | distal carpal bone 1 |
| UBERON:0001431 | distal carpal bone 2 |
| UBERON:0001432 | distal carpal bone 3 |
| UBERON:0001433 | distal carpal bone 4 |
| UBERON:0001434 | skeletal system |
| UBERON:0001435 | carpal bone |
| UBERON:0001436 | phalanx of manus |
| UBERON:0001437 | epiphysis |
| UBERON:0001438 | metaphysis |
| UBERON:0001439 | compact bone tissue |
| UBERON:0001440 | forelimb skeleton |
| UBERON:0001441 | hindlimb skeleton |
| UBERON:0001442 | skeleton of manus |
| UBERON:0001443 | chest |
| UBERON:0001444 | subdivision of head |
| UBERON:0001445 | skeleton of pes |
| UBERON:0001446 | fibula |
| UBERON:0001447 | tarsal bone |
| UBERON:0001448 | metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0001449 | phalanx of pes |
| UBERON:0001450 | calcaneus |
| UBERON:0001451 | navicular bone of pes |
| UBERON:0001452 | distal tarsal bone 1 |
| UBERON:0001453 | distal tarsal bone 2 |
| UBERON:0001454 | distal tarsal bone 3 |
| UBERON:0001455 | cuboid bone |
| UBERON:0001456 | face |
| UBERON:0001457 | skin of eyelid |
| UBERON:0001458 | skin of lip |
| UBERON:0001459 | skin of external ear |
| UBERON:0001460 | arm |
| UBERON:0001461 | elbow |
| UBERON:0001463 | manual digit 1 |
| UBERON:0001464 | hip |
| UBERON:0001465 | knee |
| UBERON:0001466 | pedal digit |
| UBERON:0001467 | shoulder |
| UBERON:0001468 | intervertebral joint |
| UBERON:0001469 | sternoclavicular joint |
| UBERON:0001470 | glenohumeral joint |
| UBERON:0001471 | skin of prepuce of penis |
| UBERON:0001472 | vaginal venous plexus |
| UBERON:0001473 | lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:0001474 | bone element |
| UBERON:0001476 | deltoid |
| UBERON:0001477 | infraspinatus muscle |
| UBERON:0001478 | teres major muscle |
| UBERON:0001479 | sesamoid bone |
| UBERON:0001480 | proximal carpal bone |
| UBERON:0001481 | distal carpal bone |
| UBERON:0001482 | muscle of shoulder |
| UBERON:0001483 | skin of shoulder |
| UBERON:0001484 | articular capsule |
| UBERON:0001485 | knee joint |
| UBERON:0001486 | hip joint |
| UBERON:0001487 | pes joint |
| UBERON:0001488 | ankle joint |
| UBERON:0001489 | manus joint |
| UBERON:0001490 | elbow joint |
| UBERON:0001491 | wrist joint |
| UBERON:0001492 | radial nerve |
| UBERON:0001493 | axillary nerve |
| UBERON:0001494 | ulnar nerve |
| UBERON:0001495 | pectoral muscle |
| UBERON:0001496 | ascending aorta |
| UBERON:0001497 | muscle of pelvic girdle |
| UBERON:0001498 | muscle of pes |
| UBERON:0001499 | muscle of arm |
| UBERON:0001500 | muscle of manus |
| UBERON:0001501 | lumbrical muscle of manus |
| UBERON:0001502 | interosseous muscle of manus |
| UBERON:0001503 | dorsal interosseous of manus |
| UBERON:0001504 | lumbrical muscle of pes |
| UBERON:0001505 | coracobrachialis muscle |
| UBERON:0001506 | brachialis muscle |
| UBERON:0001507 | biceps brachii |
| UBERON:0001508 | arch of aorta |
| UBERON:0001509 | triceps brachii |
| UBERON:0001510 | skin of knee |
| UBERON:0001511 | skin of leg |
| UBERON:0001512 | skin of ankle |
| UBERON:0001513 | skin of pes |
| UBERON:0001514 | descending aorta |
| UBERON:0001515 | thoracic aorta |
| UBERON:0001516 | abdominal aorta |
| UBERON:0001517 | skin of elbow |
| UBERON:0001518 | skin of wrist |
| UBERON:0001519 | skin of manus |
| UBERON:0001520 | pronator teres |
| UBERON:0001521 | flexor carpi radialis muscle |
| UBERON:0001522 | flexor carpi ulnaris muscle |
| UBERON:0001523 | flexor digitorum profundus |
| UBERON:0001524 | extensor carpi radialis longus muscle |
| UBERON:0001525 | extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle |
| UBERON:0001526 | extensor carpi ulnaris muscle |
| UBERON:0001527 | abductor pollicis longus |
| UBERON:0001528 | radio-ulnar joint |
| UBERON:0001529 | brachiocephalic artery |
| UBERON:0001530 | common carotid artery plus branches |
| UBERON:0001531 | right common carotid artery plus branches |
| UBERON:0001532 | internal carotid artery |
| UBERON:0001533 | subclavian artery |
| UBERON:0001534 | right subclavian artery |
| UBERON:0001535 | vertebral artery |
| UBERON:0001536 | left common carotid artery plus branches |
| UBERON:0001537 | anterior tibial artery |
| UBERON:0001538 | posterior tibial artery |
| UBERON:0001539 | dorsalis pedis artery |
| UBERON:0001540 | peroneal artery |
| UBERON:0001541 | medial plantar artery |
| UBERON:0001542 | inguinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0001543 | popliteal lymph node |
| UBERON:0001544 | popliteal vein |
| UBERON:0001545 | anterior tibial vein |
| UBERON:0001546 | posterior tibial vein |
| UBERON:0001547 | small saphenous vein |
| UBERON:0001548 | lateral marginal vein |
| UBERON:0001549 | dorsal metatarsal vein |
| UBERON:0001550 | medial marginal vein |
| UBERON:0001551 | vein of hindlimb zeugopod |
| UBERON:0001552 | kidney arcuate artery |
| UBERON:0001553 | medial tarsal artery |
| UBERON:0001554 | skin of hip |
| UBERON:0001555 | digestive tract |
| UBERON:0001556 | lower urinary tract |
| UBERON:0001557 | upper respiratory tract |
| UBERON:0001558 | lower respiratory tract |
| UBERON:0001560 | neck of organ |
| UBERON:0001561 | subcostal artery |
| UBERON:0001562 | digastric muscle group |
| UBERON:0001563 | longus capitis muscle |
| UBERON:0001564 | mylohyoid muscle |
| UBERON:0001565 | geniohyoid muscle |
| UBERON:0001566 | cricothyroid muscle |
| UBERON:0001567 | cheek |
| UBERON:0001568 | muscle of larynx |
| UBERON:0001569 | constrictor muscle of pharynx |
| UBERON:0001570 | inferior pharyngeal constrictor |
| UBERON:0001571 | genioglossus muscle |
| UBERON:0001572 | hyoglossus muscle |
| UBERON:0001573 | styloglossus |
| UBERON:0001574 | palatoglossus muscle |
| UBERON:0001575 | extrinsic muscle of tongue |
| UBERON:0001576 | intrinsic muscle of tongue |
| UBERON:0001577 | facial muscle |
| UBERON:0001578 | orbicularis oculi muscle |
| UBERON:0001579 | olfactory nerve |
| UBERON:0001580 | levator labii superioris |
| UBERON:0001581 | depressor labii inferioris |
| UBERON:0001582 | buccinator muscle |
| UBERON:0001583 | extrinsic auricular muscle |
| UBERON:0001584 | left subclavian artery |
| UBERON:0001585 | anterior vena cava |
| UBERON:0001586 | internal jugular vein |
| UBERON:0001587 | subclavian vein |
| UBERON:0001588 | vertebral vein |
| UBERON:0001589 | internal thoracic vein |
| UBERON:0001590 | pericardiacophrenic vein |
| UBERON:0001591 | thymic vein |
| UBERON:0001592 | bronchial vein |
| UBERON:0001593 | venous plexus |
| UBERON:0001594 | azygos vein |
| UBERON:0001595 | auricular muscle |
| UBERON:0001596 | intrinsic auricular muscle |
| UBERON:0001597 | masseter muscle |
| UBERON:0001598 | temporalis muscle |
| UBERON:0001599 | stapedius muscle |
| UBERON:0001600 | tensor tympani |
| UBERON:0001601 | extra-ocular muscle |
| UBERON:0001602 | medial rectus extraocular muscle |
| UBERON:0001603 | lateral rectus extra-ocular muscle |
| UBERON:0001604 | levator palpebrae superioris |
| UBERON:0001605 | ciliary muscle |
| UBERON:0001606 | muscle of iris |
| UBERON:0001607 | sphincter pupillae |
| UBERON:0001608 | dilatator pupillae |
| UBERON:0001609 | isthmus of thyroid gland |
| UBERON:0001610 | lingual artery |
| UBERON:0001611 | sublingual artery |
| UBERON:0001612 | facial artery |
| UBERON:0001613 | occipital artery |
| UBERON:0001614 | superficial temporal artery |
| UBERON:0001615 | transverse facial artery |
| UBERON:0001616 | maxillary artery |
| UBERON:0001617 | mental artery |
| UBERON:0001618 | buccal artery |
| UBERON:0001619 | ophthalmic artery |
| UBERON:0001620 | central retinal artery |
| UBERON:0001621 | coronary artery |
| UBERON:0001622 | lacrimal artery |
| UBERON:0001623 | dorsal nasal artery |
| UBERON:0001624 | anterior cerebral artery |
| UBERON:0001625 | right coronary artery |
| UBERON:0001626 | left coronary artery |
| UBERON:0001627 | middle cerebral artery |
| UBERON:0001628 | posterior communicating artery |
| UBERON:0001629 | carotid body |
| UBERON:0001630 | muscle organ |
| UBERON:0001631 | thoracic duct |
| UBERON:0001632 | temporal artery |
| UBERON:0001633 | basilar artery |
| UBERON:0001634 | mesencephalic artery |
| UBERON:0001635 | superior cerebellar artery |
| UBERON:0001636 | posterior cerebral artery |
| UBERON:0001637 | artery |
| UBERON:0001638 | vein |
| UBERON:0001639 | hepatic portal vein |
| UBERON:0001640 | celiac artery |
| UBERON:0001641 | transverse sinus |
| UBERON:0001642 | superior sagittal sinus |
| UBERON:0001643 | oculomotor nerve |
| UBERON:0001644 | trochlear nerve |
| UBERON:0001645 | trigeminal nerve |
| UBERON:0001646 | abducens nerve |
| UBERON:0001647 | facial nerve |
| UBERON:0001648 | vestibulocochlear nerve |
| UBERON:0001649 | glossopharyngeal nerve |
| UBERON:0001650 | hypoglossal nerve |
| UBERON:0001651 | right pulmonary artery |
| UBERON:0001652 | left pulmonary artery |
| UBERON:0001653 | facial vein |
| UBERON:0001654 | supraorbital vein |
| UBERON:0001655 | submental vein |
| UBERON:0001656 | retromandibular vein |
| UBERON:0001657 | superficial temporal vein |
| UBERON:0001658 | middle temporal vein |
| UBERON:0001659 | transverse facial vein |
| UBERON:0001660 | maxillary vein |
| UBERON:0001661 | deep temporal vein |
| UBERON:0001662 | anterior auricular vein |
| UBERON:0001663 | cerebral vein |
| UBERON:0001664 | inferior cerebral vein |
| UBERON:0001665 | triceps surae |
| UBERON:0001666 | flexor digitorum longus |
| UBERON:0001667 | tibialis posterior |
| UBERON:0001668 | cerebellar vein |
| UBERON:0001669 | superior cerebellar vein |
| UBERON:0001670 | inferior cerebellar vein |
| UBERON:0001671 | temporal vein |
| UBERON:0001672 | anterior cerebral vein |
| UBERON:0001673 | central retinal vein |
| UBERON:0001674 | masseteric vein |
| UBERON:0001675 | trigeminal ganglion |
| UBERON:0001676 | occipital bone |
| UBERON:0001677 | sphenoid bone |
| UBERON:0001678 | temporal bone |
| UBERON:0001679 | ethmoid bone |
| UBERON:0001680 | lacrimal bone |
| UBERON:0001681 | nasal bone |
| UBERON:0001682 | palatine bone |
| UBERON:0001683 | jugal bone |
| UBERON:0001684 | mandible |
| UBERON:0001685 | hyoid bone |
| UBERON:0001686 | auditory ossicle bone |
| UBERON:0001687 | stapes bone |
| UBERON:0001688 | incus bone |
| UBERON:0001689 | malleus bone |
| UBERON:0001690 | ear |
| UBERON:0001691 | external ear |
| UBERON:0001692 | basioccipital bone |
| UBERON:0001693 | exoccipital bone |
| UBERON:0001694 | petrous part of temporal bone |
| UBERON:0001695 | squamous part of temporal bone |
| UBERON:0001697 | orbit of skull |
| UBERON:0001698 | foramen ovale of skull |
| UBERON:0001699 | sensory root of facial nerve |
| UBERON:0001700 | geniculate ganglion |
| UBERON:0001701 | glossopharyngeal ganglion |
| UBERON:0001702 | eyelash |
| UBERON:0001703 | neurocranium |
| UBERON:0001704 | obsolete viscerocranium |
| UBERON:0001705 | nail |
| UBERON:0001706 | nasal septum |
| UBERON:0001707 | nasal cavity |
| UBERON:0001708 | jaw skeleton |
| UBERON:0001709 | upper jaw region |
| UBERON:0001710 | lower jaw region |
| UBERON:0001711 | eyelid |
| UBERON:0001712 | upper eyelid |
| UBERON:0001713 | lower eyelid |
| UBERON:0001714 | cranial ganglion |
| UBERON:0001715 | oculomotor nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0001716 | secondary palate |
| UBERON:0001717 | spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve |
| UBERON:0001718 | mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve |
| UBERON:0001719 | nucleus ambiguus |
| UBERON:0001720 | cochlear nucleus |
| UBERON:0001721 | inferior vestibular nucleus |
| UBERON:0001722 | medial vestibular nucleus |
| UBERON:0001723 | tongue |
| UBERON:0001724 | sphenoidal sinus |
| UBERON:0001725 | cranial synchondrosis |
| UBERON:0001726 | papilla of tongue |
| UBERON:0001727 | taste bud |
| UBERON:0001728 | nasopharynx |
| UBERON:0001729 | oropharynx |
| UBERON:0001730 | extrinsic ligament of larynx |
| UBERON:0001731 | cavity of pharynx |
| UBERON:0001732 | pharyngeal tonsil |
| UBERON:0001733 | soft palate |
| UBERON:0001734 | palatine uvula |
| UBERON:0001735 | tonsillar ring |
| UBERON:0001736 | submandibular gland |
| UBERON:0001737 | larynx |
| UBERON:0001738 | thyroid cartilage |
| UBERON:0001739 | laryngeal cartilage |
| UBERON:0001740 | arytenoid cartilage |
| UBERON:0001741 | corniculate cartilage |
| UBERON:0001742 | epiglottic cartilage |
| UBERON:0001743 | ligament of larynx |
| UBERON:0001744 | lymphoid tissue |
| UBERON:0001745 | secondary nodular lymphoid tissue |
| UBERON:0001746 | capsule of thyroid gland |
| UBERON:0001747 | parenchyma of thyroid gland |
| UBERON:0001748 | capsule of parathyroid gland |
| UBERON:0001749 | parenchyma of parathyroid gland |
| UBERON:0001750 | lacrimal apparatus |
| UBERON:0001751 | dentine |
| UBERON:0001752 | enamel |
| UBERON:0001753 | cementum |
| UBERON:0001754 | dental pulp |
| UBERON:0001755 | distal part of styloid process of temporal bone |
| UBERON:0001756 | middle ear |
| UBERON:0001757 | pinna |
| UBERON:0001758 | periodontium |
| UBERON:0001759 | vagus nerve |
| UBERON:0001760 | frontal sinus |
| UBERON:0001761 | future foramen cecum |
| UBERON:0001762 | turbinate bone |
| UBERON:0001763 | odontogenic papilla |
| UBERON:0001764 | maxillary sinus |
| UBERON:0001765 | mammary duct |
| UBERON:0001766 | anterior chamber of eyeball |
| UBERON:0001767 | posterior chamber of eyeball |
| UBERON:0001768 | uvea |
| UBERON:0001769 | iris |
| UBERON:0001770 | lacrimal canaliculus |
| UBERON:0001771 | pupil |
| UBERON:0001772 | corneal epithelium |
| UBERON:0001773 | sclera |
| UBERON:0001774 | skeletal muscle of trunk |
| UBERON:0001775 | ciliary body |
| UBERON:0001776 | optic choroid |
| UBERON:0001777 | substantia propria of cornea |
| UBERON:0001778 | ciliary epithelium |
| UBERON:0001779 | iris stroma |
| UBERON:0001780 | spinal nerve |
| UBERON:0001781 | layer of retina |
| UBERON:0001782 | pigmented layer of retina |
| UBERON:0001783 | optic disc |
| UBERON:0001785 | cranial nerve |
| UBERON:0001786 | fovea centralis |
| UBERON:0001787 | photoreceptor layer of retina |
| UBERON:0001788 | outer limiting layer of retina |
| UBERON:0001789 | outer nuclear layer of retina |
| UBERON:0001790 | outer plexiform layer of retina |
| UBERON:0001791 | inner nuclear layer of retina |
| UBERON:0001792 | ganglionic layer of retina |
| UBERON:0001793 | nerve fiber layer of retina |
| UBERON:0001794 | inner limiting layer of retina |
| UBERON:0001795 | inner plexiform layer of retina |
| UBERON:0001796 | aqueous humor of eyeball |
| UBERON:0001797 | vitreous humor |
| UBERON:0001798 | vitreous body |
| UBERON:0001799 | vitreous chamber of eyeball |
| UBERON:0001800 | sensory ganglion |
| UBERON:0001801 | anterior segment of eyeball |
| UBERON:0001802 | posterior segment of eyeball |
| UBERON:0001803 | epithelium of lens |
| UBERON:0001804 | capsule of lens |
| UBERON:0001805 | autonomic ganglion |
| UBERON:0001806 | sympathetic ganglion |
| UBERON:0001807 | paravertebral ganglion |
| UBERON:0001808 | parasympathetic ganglion |
| UBERON:0001809 | enteric ganglion |
| UBERON:0001810 | nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0001811 | conjunctiva |
| UBERON:0001812 | palpebral conjunctiva |
| UBERON:0001813 | spinal nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0001814 | brachial nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0001815 | lumbosacral nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0001816 | autonomic nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0001817 | lacrimal gland |
| UBERON:0001818 | tarsal gland |
| UBERON:0001819 | palpebral fissure |
| UBERON:0001820 | sweat gland |
| UBERON:0001821 | sebaceous gland |
| UBERON:0001822 | orbital septum |
| UBERON:0001823 | nasal cartilage |
| UBERON:0001824 | mucosa of larynx |
| UBERON:0001825 | paranasal sinus |
| UBERON:0001826 | nasal cavity mucosa |
| UBERON:0001827 | secretion of lacrimal gland |
| UBERON:0001828 | gingiva |
| UBERON:0001829 | major salivary gland |
| UBERON:0001830 | minor salivary gland |
| UBERON:0001831 | parotid gland |
| UBERON:0001832 | sublingual gland |
| UBERON:0001833 | lip |
| UBERON:0001834 | upper lip |
| UBERON:0001835 | lower lip |
| UBERON:0001836 | saliva |
| UBERON:0001837 | duct of salivary gland |
| UBERON:0001838 | sublingual duct |
| UBERON:0001839 | bony labyrinth |
| UBERON:0001840 | semicircular canal |
| UBERON:0001841 | anterior semicircular canal |
| UBERON:0001842 | posterior semicircular canal |
| UBERON:0001843 | lateral semicircular canal |
| UBERON:0001844 | cochlea |
| UBERON:0001845 | perilymph |
| UBERON:0001846 | internal ear |
| UBERON:0001847 | lobule of pinna |
| UBERON:0001848 | auricular cartilage |
| UBERON:0001849 | membranous labyrinth |
| UBERON:0001850 | lacrimal drainage system |
| UBERON:0001851 | cortex |
| UBERON:0001852 | endolymph |
| UBERON:0001853 | utricle of membranous labyrinth |
| UBERON:0001854 | saccule of membranous labyrinth |
| UBERON:0001855 | cochlear duct of membranous labyrinth |
| UBERON:0001856 | semicircular duct |
| UBERON:0001857 | anterior semicircular duct |
| UBERON:0001858 | posterior semicircular duct |
| UBERON:0001859 | lateral semicircular duct |
| UBERON:0001860 | endolymphatic duct |
| UBERON:0001861 | ductus reuniens |
| UBERON:0001862 | vestibular labyrinth |
| UBERON:0001863 | scala vestibuli |
| UBERON:0001864 | scala tympani |
| UBERON:0001865 | cartilaginous external acoustic tube |
| UBERON:0001866 | sebum |
| UBERON:0001867 | cartilage of external ear |
| UBERON:0001868 | skin of chest |
| UBERON:0001869 | cerebral hemisphere |
| UBERON:0001870 | frontal cortex |
| UBERON:0001871 | temporal lobe |
| UBERON:0001872 | parietal lobe |
| UBERON:0001873 | caudate nucleus |
| UBERON:0001874 | putamen |
| UBERON:0001875 | globus pallidus |
| UBERON:0001876 | amygdala |
| UBERON:0001877 | medial septal nucleus |
| UBERON:0001878 | septofimbrial nucleus |
| UBERON:0001879 | nucleus of diagonal band |
| UBERON:0001880 | bed nucleus of stria terminalis |
| UBERON:0001881 | island of Calleja |
| UBERON:0001882 | nucleus accumbens |
| UBERON:0001883 | olfactory tubercle |
| UBERON:0001884 | phrenic nerve |
| UBERON:0001885 | dentate gyrus of hippocampal formation |
| UBERON:0001886 | choroid plexus |
| UBERON:0001887 | internal capsule of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0001888 | lateral olfactory stria |
| UBERON:0001889 | trunk of phrenic nerve |
| UBERON:0001890 | forebrain |
| UBERON:0001891 | midbrain |
| UBERON:0001892 | rhombomere |
| UBERON:0001893 | telencephalon |
| UBERON:0001894 | diencephalon |
| UBERON:0001895 | metencephalon |
| UBERON:0001896 | medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:0001897 | dorsal plus ventral thalamus |
| UBERON:0001898 | hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0001899 | epithalamus |
| UBERON:0001900 | ventral thalamus |
| UBERON:0001901 | epithelium of trachea |
| UBERON:0001902 | epithelium of small intestine |
| UBERON:0001903 | thalamic reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:0001904 | habenula |
| UBERON:0001905 | pineal body |
| UBERON:0001906 | subthalamic nucleus |
| UBERON:0001907 | zona incerta |
| UBERON:0001908 | optic tract |
| UBERON:0001909 | habenular commissure |
| UBERON:0001910 | medial forebrain bundle |
| UBERON:0001911 | mammary gland |
| UBERON:0001912 | lobule of mammary gland |
| UBERON:0001913 | milk |
| UBERON:0001914 | colostrum |
| UBERON:0001915 | endothelium of capillary |
| UBERON:0001916 | endothelium of arteriole |
| UBERON:0001917 | endothelium of artery |
| UBERON:0001918 | endothelium of venule |
| UBERON:0001919 | endothelium of vein |
| UBERON:0001920 | paraventricular nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0001921 | reuniens nucleus |
| UBERON:0001922 | parafascicular nucleus |
| UBERON:0001923 | central medial nucleus |
| UBERON:0001924 | paracentral nucleus |
| UBERON:0001925 | ventral lateral nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0001926 | lateral geniculate body |
| UBERON:0001927 | medial geniculate body |
| UBERON:0001928 | preoptic area |
| UBERON:0001929 | supraoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:0001930 | paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0001931 | lateral preoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:0001932 | arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0001933 | retrochiasmatic area |
| UBERON:0001934 | dorsomedial nucleus of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0001935 | ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0001936 | tuberomammillary nucleus |
| UBERON:0001937 | lateral hypothalamic nucleus |
| UBERON:0001938 | lateral mammillary nucleus |
| UBERON:0001939 | medial mammillary nucleus |
| UBERON:0001940 | supramammillary nucleus |
| UBERON:0001941 | lateral habenular nucleus |
| UBERON:0001942 | medial habenular nucleus |
| UBERON:0001943 | midbrain tegmentum |
| UBERON:0001944 | pretectal region |
| UBERON:0001945 | superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0001946 | inferior colliculus |
| UBERON:0001947 | red nucleus |
| UBERON:0001948 | regional part of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0001949 | gingival epithelium |
| UBERON:0001950 | neocortex |
| UBERON:0001951 | epithelium of nasopharynx |
| UBERON:0001952 | epithelium of oropharynx |
| UBERON:0001953 | presubiculum |
| UBERON:0001954 | Ammon's horn |
| UBERON:0001955 | epithelium of respiratory bronchiole |
| UBERON:0001956 | cartilage of bronchus |
| UBERON:0001957 | submucosa of bronchus |
| UBERON:0001958 | terminal bronchiole epithelium |
| UBERON:0001959 | white pulp of spleen |
| UBERON:0001960 | periarterial lymphatic sheath |
| UBERON:0001961 | mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue |
| UBERON:0001962 | gut-associated lymphoid tissue |
| UBERON:0001963 | bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue |
| UBERON:0001964 | least splanchnic nerve |
| UBERON:0001965 | substantia nigra pars compacta |
| UBERON:0001966 | substantia nigra pars reticulata |
| UBERON:0001967 | reticular lamina of epithelium |
| UBERON:0001968 | semen |
| UBERON:0001969 | blood plasma |
| UBERON:0001970 | bile |
| UBERON:0001971 | gastric juice |
| UBERON:0001972 | submucosa of esophagus |
| UBERON:0001974 | lamina propria of esophagus |
| UBERON:0001975 | serosa of esophagus |
| UBERON:0001976 | epithelium of esophagus |
| UBERON:0001977 | blood serum |
| UBERON:0001978 | parenchyma of pancreas |
| UBERON:0001979 | venule |
| UBERON:0001980 | arteriole |
| UBERON:0001981 | blood vessel |
| UBERON:0001982 | capillary |
| UBERON:0001983 | crypt of Lieberkuhn |
| UBERON:0001984 | crypt of Lieberkuhn of large intestine |
| UBERON:0001985 | corneal endothelium |
| UBERON:0001986 | endothelium |
| UBERON:0001987 | placenta |
| UBERON:0001988 | feces |
| UBERON:0001989 | superior cervical ganglion |
| UBERON:0001990 | middle cervical ganglion |
| UBERON:0001991 | cervical ganglion |
| UBERON:0001992 | papillary layer of dermis |
| UBERON:0001993 | reticular layer of dermis |
| UBERON:0001994 | hyaline cartilage tissue |
| UBERON:0001995 | fibrocartilage |
| UBERON:0001996 | elastic cartilage tissue |
| UBERON:0001997 | olfactory epithelium |
| UBERON:0001998 | sternocostal joint |
| UBERON:0001999 | iliopsoas |
| UBERON:0002000 | gluteal muscle |
| UBERON:0002001 | joint of rib |
| UBERON:0002002 | interchondral joint |
| UBERON:0002004 | trunk of sciatic nerve |
| UBERON:0002005 | enteric nervous system |
| UBERON:0002006 | cortex of lymph node |
| UBERON:0002007 | medulla of lymph node |
| UBERON:0002008 | cardiac nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0002009 | pulmonary nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0002010 | celiac nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0002011 | thoracodorsal artery |
| UBERON:0002012 | pulmonary artery |
| UBERON:0002013 | superior hypogastric nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0002014 | inferior hypogastric nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0002015 | kidney capsule |
| UBERON:0002016 | pulmonary vein |
| UBERON:0002017 | portal vein |
| UBERON:0002018 | synovial membrane of synovial joint |
| UBERON:0002019 | accessory XI nerve |
| UBERON:0002020 | gray matter |
| UBERON:0002021 | occipital lobe |
| UBERON:0002022 | insula |
| UBERON:0002023 | claustrum of brain |
| UBERON:0002024 | internal carotid nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0002025 | stratum basale of epidermis |
| UBERON:0002026 | stratum spinosum of epidermis |
| UBERON:0002027 | stratum corneum of epidermis |
| UBERON:0002028 | hindbrain |
| UBERON:0002029 | epithelium of gall bladder |
| UBERON:0002030 | nipple |
| UBERON:0002031 | epithelium of bronchus |
| UBERON:0002032 | areola |
| UBERON:0002033 | arrector muscle of hair |
| UBERON:0002034 | suprachiasmatic nucleus |
| UBERON:0002035 | medial preoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:0002036 | striated muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0002037 | cerebellum |
| UBERON:0002038 | substantia nigra |
| UBERON:0002039 | inferior phrenic vein |
| UBERON:0002040 | bronchial artery |
| UBERON:0002041 | terminal bronchus |
| UBERON:0002042 | lymphatic vessel endothelium |
| UBERON:0002043 | dorsal raphe nucleus |
| UBERON:0002044 | ventral nucleus of posterior commissure |
| UBERON:0002045 | cuneate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002046 | thyroid gland |
| UBERON:0002047 | pontine raphe nucleus |
| UBERON:0002048 | lung |
| UBERON:0002049 | vasculature |
| UBERON:0002050 | embryonic structure |
| UBERON:0002051 | epithelium of bronchiole |
| UBERON:0002052 | adrenal gland capsule |
| UBERON:0002053 | zona glomerulosa of adrenal gland |
| UBERON:0002054 | zona fasciculata of adrenal gland |
| UBERON:0002055 | zona reticularis of adrenal gland |
| UBERON:0002056 | inferior suprarenal artery |
| UBERON:0002057 | phrenic artery |
| UBERON:0002058 | main ciliary ganglion |
| UBERON:0002059 | submandibular ganglion |
| UBERON:0002060 | femoral artery |
| UBERON:0002061 | truncus arteriosus |
| UBERON:0002062 | endocardial cushion |
| UBERON:0002063 | sinus venosus |
| UBERON:0002064 | common cardinal vein |
| UBERON:0002065 | posterior cardinal vein |
| UBERON:0002066 | umbilical vein |
| UBERON:0002067 | dermis |
| UBERON:0002068 | urachus |
| UBERON:0002069 | stratum granulosum of epidermis |
| UBERON:0002070 | superior pancreaticoduodenal artery |
| UBERON:0002071 | stratum lucidum of epidermis |
| UBERON:0002072 | hypodermis |
| UBERON:0002073 | hair follicle |
| UBERON:0002074 | hair shaft |
| UBERON:0002075 | viscus |
| UBERON:0002076 | cuticle of hair |
| UBERON:0002077 | cortex of hair |
| UBERON:0002078 | right cardiac atrium |
| UBERON:0002079 | left cardiac atrium |
| UBERON:0002080 | heart right ventricle |
| UBERON:0002081 | cardiac atrium |
| UBERON:0002082 | cardiac ventricle |
| UBERON:0002083 | ductus venosus |
| UBERON:0002084 | heart left ventricle |
| UBERON:0002085 | interatrial septum |
| UBERON:0002086 | sinoatrial valve |
| UBERON:0002087 | atrioventricular canal |
| UBERON:0002088 | lateral thoracic vein |
| UBERON:0002089 | thoracodorsal vein |
| UBERON:0002090 | postcranial axial skeleton |
| UBERON:0002091 | appendicular skeleton |
| UBERON:0002092 | brain dura mater |
| UBERON:0002093 | spinal dura mater |
| UBERON:0002094 | interventricular septum |
| UBERON:0002095 | mesentery |
| UBERON:0002097 | skin of body |
| UBERON:0002098 | apex of heart |
| UBERON:0002099 | cardiac septum |
| UBERON:0002100 | trunk |
| UBERON:0002101 | limb |
| UBERON:0002102 | forelimb |
| UBERON:0002103 | hindlimb |
| UBERON:0002104 | visual system |
| UBERON:0002105 | vestibulo-auditory system |
| UBERON:0002106 | spleen |
| UBERON:0002107 | liver |
| UBERON:0002108 | small intestine |
| UBERON:0002109 | pair of nares |
| UBERON:0002110 | gallbladder |
| UBERON:0002111 | artery smooth muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0002112 | smooth muscle of esophagus |
| UBERON:0002113 | kidney |
| UBERON:0002114 | duodenum |
| UBERON:0002115 | jejunum |
| UBERON:0002116 | ileum |
| UBERON:0002118 | right ovary |
| UBERON:0002119 | left ovary |
| UBERON:0002120 | pronephros |
| UBERON:0002122 | capsule of thymus |
| UBERON:0002123 | cortex of thymus |
| UBERON:0002124 | medulla of thymus |
| UBERON:0002125 | thymus lobule |
| UBERON:0002126 | solitary tract nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0002127 | inferior olivary complex |
| UBERON:0002128 | superior olivary complex |
| UBERON:0002129 | cerebellar cortex |
| UBERON:0002130 | cerebellar nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0002131 | anterior lobe of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0002132 | dentate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002133 | atrioventricular valve |
| UBERON:0002134 | tricuspid valve |
| UBERON:0002135 | mitral valve |
| UBERON:0002136 | hilus of dentate gyrus |
| UBERON:0002137 | aortic valve |
| UBERON:0002138 | habenulo-interpeduncular tract |
| UBERON:0002139 | subcommissural organ |
| UBERON:0002140 | parabigeminal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002141 | parvocellular oculomotor nucleus |
| UBERON:0002142 | pedunculopontine tegmental nucleus |
| UBERON:0002143 | dorsal tegmental nucleus |
| UBERON:0002144 | peripeduncular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002145 | interpeduncular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002146 | pulmonary valve |
| UBERON:0002147 | reticulotegmental nucleus |
| UBERON:0002148 | locus ceruleus |
| UBERON:0002149 | superior salivatory nucleus |
| UBERON:0002150 | superior cerebellar peduncle |
| UBERON:0002151 | pontine nuclear group |
| UBERON:0002152 | middle cerebellar peduncle |
| UBERON:0002153 | fastigial nucleus |
| UBERON:0002154 | lateral reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002155 | gigantocellular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002156 | nucleus raphe magnus |
| UBERON:0002157 | nucleus raphe pallidus |
| UBERON:0002158 | principal inferior olivary nucleus |
| UBERON:0002159 | medial accessory inferior olivary nucleus |
| UBERON:0002160 | nucleus prepositus |
| UBERON:0002161 | gracile nucleus |
| UBERON:0002162 | area postrema |
| UBERON:0002163 | inferior cerebellar peduncle |
| UBERON:0002164 | tectobulbar tract |
| UBERON:0002165 | endocardium |
| UBERON:0002166 | endocardium of atrium |
| UBERON:0002167 | right lung |
| UBERON:0002168 | left lung |
| UBERON:0002169 | alveolar sac |
| UBERON:0002170 | upper lobe of right lung |
| UBERON:0002171 | lower lobe of right lung |
| UBERON:0002172 | alveolar atrium |
| UBERON:0002173 | pulmonary alveolar duct |
| UBERON:0002174 | middle lobe of right lung |
| UBERON:0002175 | intermediolateral nucleus |
| UBERON:0002176 | lateral cervical nucleus |
| UBERON:0002177 | right main bronchus |
| UBERON:0002178 | left main bronchus |
| UBERON:0002179 | lateral funiculus of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002180 | ventral funiculus of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002181 | substantia gelatinosa |
| UBERON:0002182 | main bronchus |
| UBERON:0002183 | lobar bronchus |
| UBERON:0002184 | segmental bronchus |
| UBERON:0002185 | bronchus |
| UBERON:0002186 | bronchiole |
| UBERON:0002187 | terminal bronchiole |
| UBERON:0002188 | respiratory bronchiole |
| UBERON:0002189 | outer cortex of kidney |
| UBERON:0002190 | subcutaneous adipose tissue |
| UBERON:0002191 | subiculum |
| UBERON:0002192 | ventricular system choroidal fissure |
| UBERON:0002193 | hemolymphoid system |
| UBERON:0002194 | capsule of lymph node |
| UBERON:0002195 | trabecula of lymph node |
| UBERON:0002196 | adenohypophysis |
| UBERON:0002197 | median eminence of neurohypophysis |
| UBERON:0002198 | neurohypophysis |
| UBERON:0002199 | integument |
| UBERON:0002200 | vasculature of head |
| UBERON:0002201 | vasculature of trunk |
| UBERON:0002202 | submucosa of trachea |
| UBERON:0002203 | vasculature of eye |
| UBERON:0002204 | musculoskeletal system |
| UBERON:0002205 | manubrium of sternum |
| UBERON:0002206 | mammillary body |
| UBERON:0002207 | xiphoid process |
| UBERON:0002208 | sternebra |
| UBERON:0002209 | fibrous joint |
| UBERON:0002210 | syndesmosis |
| UBERON:0002211 | nerve root |
| UBERON:0002212 | macula of saccule of membranous labyrinth |
| UBERON:0002213 | cartilaginous joint |
| UBERON:0002214 | macula of utricle of membranous labyrinth |
| UBERON:0002215 | synchondrosis |
| UBERON:0002216 | symphysis |
| UBERON:0002217 | synovial joint |
| UBERON:0002218 | tympanic ring |
| UBERON:0002219 | subfornical organ |
| UBERON:0002221 | fontanelle |
| UBERON:0002222 | perichondrium |
| UBERON:0002223 | endolymphatic sac |
| UBERON:0002224 | thoracic cavity |
| UBERON:0002225 | costal arch |
| UBERON:0002226 | basilar membrane of cochlea |
| UBERON:0002227 | spiral organ of cochlea |
| UBERON:0002228 | rib |
| UBERON:0002229 | interparietal bone |
| UBERON:0002230 | head of rib |
| UBERON:0002231 | body of rib |
| UBERON:0002232 | olfactory gland |
| UBERON:0002233 | tectorial membrane of cochlea |
| UBERON:0002234 | proximal phalanx of manus |
| UBERON:0002235 | tubercle of rib |
| UBERON:0002236 | costal cartilage |
| UBERON:0002237 | true rib |
| UBERON:0002238 | false rib |
| UBERON:0002239 | floating rib |
| UBERON:0002240 | spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002241 | chondrocranium |
| UBERON:0002242 | nucleus pulposus |
| UBERON:0002243 | cutaneous vein |
| UBERON:0002244 | premaxilla |
| UBERON:0002245 | cerebellar hemisphere |
| UBERON:0002246 | dorsal thoracic nucleus |
| UBERON:0002247 | uterine horn |
| UBERON:0002248 | transverse pericardial sinus |
| UBERON:0002249 | median artery |
| UBERON:0002250 | popliteal artery |
| UBERON:0002251 | iliocostalis muscle |
| UBERON:0002252 | splenius |
| UBERON:0002254 | thyroglossal duct |
| UBERON:0002255 | vomeronasal organ |
| UBERON:0002256 | dorsal horn of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002257 | ventral horn of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002258 | dorsal funiculus of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002259 | corpora quadrigemina |
| UBERON:0002260 | ventral root of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002261 | dorsal root of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002262 | celiac ganglion |
| UBERON:0002263 | lentiform nucleus |
| UBERON:0002264 | olfactory bulb |
| UBERON:0002265 | olfactory tract |
| UBERON:0002266 | anterior olfactory nucleus |
| UBERON:0002267 | laterodorsal tegmental nucleus |
| UBERON:0002268 | olfactory organ |
| UBERON:0002269 | pupillary membrane |
| UBERON:0002270 | hyaloid artery |
| UBERON:0002271 | periventricular zone of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0002272 | medial zone of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0002273 | lateral zone of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0002274 | perifornical nucleus |
| UBERON:0002275 | reticular formation |
| UBERON:0002276 | lamina of spiral limbus |
| UBERON:0002277 | spiral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002278 | perilymphatic space |
| UBERON:0002279 | vestibular aqueduct |
| UBERON:0002280 | otolith |
| UBERON:0002281 | vestibular membrane of cochlear duct |
| UBERON:0002282 | stria vascularis of cochlear duct |
| UBERON:0002283 | nail matrix |
| UBERON:0002284 | hyponychium |
| UBERON:0002285 | telencephalic ventricle |
| UBERON:0002286 | third ventricle |
| UBERON:0002287 | optic recess of third ventricle |
| UBERON:0002288 | choroid plexus of third ventricle |
| UBERON:0002289 | midbrain cerebral aqueduct |
| UBERON:0002290 | choroid plexus of fourth ventricle |
| UBERON:0002291 | central canal of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002292 | costovertebral joint |
| UBERON:0002293 | costochondral joint |
| UBERON:0002294 | biliary system |
| UBERON:0002295 | scala media |
| UBERON:0002296 | dorsal mesentery |
| UBERON:0002297 | cerumen |
| UBERON:0002298 | brainstem |
| UBERON:0002299 | alveolus of lung |
| UBERON:0002300 | obsolete ventricle |
| UBERON:0002301 | layer of neocortex |
| UBERON:0002302 | myocardium of atrium |
| UBERON:0002303 | juxtaglomerular apparatus |
| UBERON:0002304 | layer of dentate gyrus |
| UBERON:0002305 | layer of hippocampus |
| UBERON:0002306 | nasal mucus |
| UBERON:0002307 | choroid plexus of lateral ventricle |
| UBERON:0002308 | nucleus of brain |
| UBERON:0002309 | medial longitudinal fasciculus |
| UBERON:0002310 | hippocampus fimbria |
| UBERON:0002313 | hippocampus pyramidal layer |
| UBERON:0002314 | midbrain tectum |
| UBERON:0002315 | gray matter of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002316 | white matter |
| UBERON:0002317 | white matter of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0002318 | white matter of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002319 | mesangium |
| UBERON:0002320 | glomerular mesangium |
| UBERON:0002321 | extraglomerular mesangium |
| UBERON:0002322 | periventricular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002323 | coelemic cavity lumen |
| UBERON:0002324 | muscle of back |
| UBERON:0002325 | epithelium of urethra |
| UBERON:0002326 | lamina propria of urethra |
| UBERON:0002327 | trunk of intercostal nerve |
| UBERON:0002328 | notochord |
| UBERON:0002329 | somite |
| UBERON:0002330 | exocrine system |
| UBERON:0002331 | umbilical cord |
| UBERON:0002333 | pulmonary trunk |
| UBERON:0002334 | submandibular duct |
| UBERON:0002335 | macula densa |
| UBERON:0002336 | corpus callosum |
| UBERON:0002337 | endometrial stroma |
| UBERON:0002338 | lamina propria of bronchus |
| UBERON:0002339 | epithelium of lobar bronchus |
| UBERON:0002340 | epithelium of main bronchus |
| UBERON:0002341 | epithelium of segmental bronchus |
| UBERON:0002342 | neural crest |
| UBERON:0002343 | abdomen musculature |
| UBERON:0002345 | descending thoracic aorta |
| UBERON:0002346 | neurectoderm |
| UBERON:0002347 | thoracic vertebra |
| UBERON:0002348 | epicardium |
| UBERON:0002349 | myocardium |
| UBERON:0002350 | conducting system of heart |
| UBERON:0002351 | sinoatrial node |
| UBERON:0002352 | atrioventricular node |
| UBERON:0002353 | bundle of His |
| UBERON:0002354 | cardiac Purkinje fiber |
| UBERON:0002355 | pelvic region of trunk |
| UBERON:0002356 | perineum |
| UBERON:0002357 | serous pericardium |
| UBERON:0002358 | peritoneum |
| UBERON:0002359 | fibrous pericardium |
| UBERON:0002360 | meninx |
| UBERON:0002361 | pia mater |
| UBERON:0002362 | arachnoid mater |
| UBERON:0002363 | dura mater |
| UBERON:0002364 | tympanic membrane |
| UBERON:0002365 | exocrine gland |
| UBERON:0002366 | bulbo-urethral gland |
| UBERON:0002367 | prostate gland |
| UBERON:0002368 | endocrine gland |
| UBERON:0002369 | adrenal gland |
| UBERON:0002370 | thymus |
| UBERON:0002371 | bone marrow |
| UBERON:0002372 | tonsil |
| UBERON:0002373 | palatine tonsil |
| UBERON:0002374 | metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0002375 | cricoid cartilage |
| UBERON:0002376 | cranial muscle |
| UBERON:0002377 | muscle of neck |
| UBERON:0002378 | muscle of abdomen |
| UBERON:0002379 | perineal muscle |
| UBERON:0002380 | trapezius muscle |
| UBERON:0002381 | pectoralis major |
| UBERON:0002382 | rectus abdominis muscle |
| UBERON:0002383 | supraspinatus muscle |
| UBERON:0002384 | connective tissue |
| UBERON:0002385 | muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0002386 | forelimb zeugopod |
| UBERON:0002387 | pes |
| UBERON:0002389 | manual digit |
| UBERON:0002390 | hematopoietic system |
| UBERON:0002391 | lymph |
| UBERON:0002392 | nasolacrimal duct |
| UBERON:0002393 | pharyngotympanic tube |
| UBERON:0002394 | bile duct |
| UBERON:0002395 | talus |
| UBERON:0002396 | vomer |
| UBERON:0002397 | maxilla |
| UBERON:0002398 | manus |
| UBERON:0002399 | lesser omentum |
| UBERON:0002400 | parietal pleura |
| UBERON:0002401 | visceral pleura |
| UBERON:0002402 | pleural cavity |
| UBERON:0002403 | internal intercostal muscle |
| UBERON:0002404 | transversus thoracis |
| UBERON:0002405 | immune system |
| UBERON:0002406 | pericardial sac |
| UBERON:0002407 | pericardium |
| UBERON:0002408 | parietal serous pericardium |
| UBERON:0002409 | pericardial fluid |
| UBERON:0002410 | autonomic nervous system |
| UBERON:0002411 | clitoris |
| UBERON:0002412 | vertebra |
| UBERON:0002413 | cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0002414 | lumbar vertebra |
| UBERON:0002415 | tail |
| UBERON:0002416 | integumental system |
| UBERON:0002417 | abdominal segment of trunk |
| UBERON:0002418 | cartilage tissue |
| UBERON:0002419 | skin gland |
| UBERON:0002420 | basal ganglion |
| UBERON:0002421 | hippocampal formation |
| UBERON:0002422 | fourth ventricle |
| UBERON:0002423 | hepatobiliary system |
| UBERON:0002424 | oral epithelium |
| UBERON:0002425 | visceral serous pericardium |
| UBERON:0002426 | chest muscle |
| UBERON:0002427 | arm skin |
| UBERON:0002428 | limb bone |
| UBERON:0002429 | cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0002430 | lateral hypothalamic area |
| UBERON:0002432 | pars intermedia of adenohypophysis |
| UBERON:0002433 | pars tuberalis of adenohypophysis |
| UBERON:0002434 | pituitary stalk |
| UBERON:0002435 | striatum |
| UBERON:0002436 | primary visual cortex |
| UBERON:0002437 | cerebral hemisphere white matter |
| UBERON:0002438 | ventral tegmental nucleus |
| UBERON:0002439 | myenteric nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0002440 | inferior cervical ganglion |
| UBERON:0002441 | cervicothoracic ganglion |
| UBERON:0002442 | axillary nerve trunk |
| UBERON:0002443 | choroidal blood vessel |
| UBERON:0002444 | lens fiber |
| UBERON:0002445 | ulnare |
| UBERON:0002446 | patella |
| UBERON:0002447 | palatine gland |
| UBERON:0002448 | fungiform papilla |
| UBERON:0002450 | decidua |
| UBERON:0002451 | endometrial gland |
| UBERON:0002453 | ethmoid sinus |
| UBERON:0002454 | dorsal metacarpal artery |
| UBERON:0002455 | common plantar digital arteries |
| UBERON:0002456 | internal thoracic artery |
| UBERON:0002457 | intersomitic artery |
| UBERON:0002458 | spinal artery |
| UBERON:0002459 | inferior palpebral vein |
| UBERON:0002460 | vesical vein |
| UBERON:0002461 | anterior abdominal wall muscle |
| UBERON:0002462 | erector spinae muscle group |
| UBERON:0002463 | muscle of posterior compartment of hindlimb stylopod |
| UBERON:0002464 | nerve trunk |
| UBERON:0002465 | lymphoid system |
| UBERON:0002466 | intestine secretion |
| UBERON:0002467 | filiform papilla |
| UBERON:0002468 | foliate papilla |
| UBERON:0002469 | esophagus mucosa |
| UBERON:0002470 | autopod region |
| UBERON:0002471 | zeugopod |
| UBERON:0002472 | stylopod |
| UBERON:0002473 | intercerebral commissure |
| UBERON:0002474 | cerebellar peduncular complex |
| UBERON:0002475 | saphenous nerve |
| UBERON:0002476 | lateral globus pallidus |
| UBERON:0002477 | medial globus pallidus |
| UBERON:0002478 | orbitosphenoid |
| UBERON:0002479 | dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002480 | ventral lateral geniculate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002481 | bone tissue |
| UBERON:0002482 | lamellar bone |
| UBERON:0002483 | trabecular bone tissue |
| UBERON:0002484 | bone marrow cavity |
| UBERON:0002485 | prostate duct |
| UBERON:0002486 | glottis |
| UBERON:0002487 | tooth cavity |
| UBERON:0002488 | helix of outer ear |
| UBERON:0002489 | coronal suture |
| UBERON:0002490 | frontal suture |
| UBERON:0002491 | lambdoid suture |
| UBERON:0002492 | sagittal suture |
| UBERON:0002493 | uterine artery |
| UBERON:0002494 | papillary muscle of heart |
| UBERON:0002495 | long bone |
| UBERON:0002496 | stapes base |
| UBERON:0002497 | acromion |
| UBERON:0002498 | deltopectoral crest |
| UBERON:0002499 | cochlear labyrinth |
| UBERON:0002500 | zygomatic arch |
| UBERON:0002501 | oval window |
| UBERON:0002502 | round window of inner ear |
| UBERON:0002503 | greater trochanter |
| UBERON:0002504 | lesser trochanter |
| UBERON:0002505 | spiral modiolar artery |
| UBERON:0002506 | iris epithelium |
| UBERON:0002507 | abdominal lymph node |
| UBERON:0002508 | celiac lymph node |
| UBERON:0002509 | mesenteric lymph node |
| UBERON:0002510 | anterior fontanel |
| UBERON:0002511 | trabecula carnea |
| UBERON:0002512 | corpus luteum |
| UBERON:0002513 | endochondral bone |
| UBERON:0002514 | intramembranous bone |
| UBERON:0002515 | periosteum |
| UBERON:0002516 | epiphyseal plate |
| UBERON:0002517 | basicranium |
| UBERON:0002518 | otolith organ |
| UBERON:0002519 | otolithic part of statoconial membrane |
| UBERON:0002520 | submandibular lymph node |
| UBERON:0002521 | elastic tissue |
| UBERON:0002522 | tunica media |
| UBERON:0002523 | tunica intima |
| UBERON:0002524 | mediastinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0002525 | brachial lymph node |
| UBERON:0002526 | lumbar lymph node |
| UBERON:0002527 | pancreatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0002528 | sacral lymph node |
| UBERON:0002529 | limb segment |
| UBERON:0002530 | gland |
| UBERON:0002531 | paired fin bud |
| UBERON:0002532 | epiblast (generic) |
| UBERON:0002533 | post-anal tail bud |
| UBERON:0002534 | paired fin |
| UBERON:0002535 | gill |
| UBERON:0002536 | arthropod sensillum |
| UBERON:0002537 | hermaphrodite gonad |
| UBERON:0002538 | hatching gland |
| UBERON:0002539 | pharyngeal arch |
| UBERON:0002540 | lateral line system |
| UBERON:0002541 | germ ring |
| UBERON:0002542 | scale |
| UBERON:0002544 | digit |
| UBERON:0002545 | obsolete body ganglion |
| UBERON:0002546 | cranial placode |
| UBERON:0002547 | tadpole |
| UBERON:0002548 | larva |
| UBERON:0002549 | ventral trigeminal tract |
| UBERON:0002550 | anterior hypothalamic region |
| UBERON:0002551 | interstitial nucleus of Cajal |
| UBERON:0002552 | vestibulocerebellar tract |
| UBERON:0002553 | anatomical cavity |
| UBERON:0002555 | intermediate hypothalamic region |
| UBERON:0002556 | corticotectal tract |
| UBERON:0002557 | linear nucleus |
| UBERON:0002558 | organ cavity |
| UBERON:0002559 | medullary reticular formation |
| UBERON:0002560 | temporal operculum |
| UBERON:0002561 | lumen of central nervous system |
| UBERON:0002562 | superior frontal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002563 | central nucleus of inferior colliculus |
| UBERON:0002564 | lateral orbital gyrus |
| UBERON:0002565 | olivary pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002566 | superior precentral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002567 | basal part of pons |
| UBERON:0002568 | amiculum of dentate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002569 | transverse temporal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002570 | medial orbital gyrus |
| UBERON:0002571 | external nucleus of inferior colliculus |
| UBERON:0002572 | principal pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002573 | pontine reticular formation |
| UBERON:0002575 | posterior orbital gyrus |
| UBERON:0002576 | temporal pole |
| UBERON:0002577 | pericentral nucleus of inferior colliculus |
| UBERON:0002578 | sublentiform nucleus |
| UBERON:0002580 | brachium of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0002581 | postcentral gyrus |
| UBERON:0002582 | anterior calcarine sulcus |
| UBERON:0002583 | commissure of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0002585 | central tegmental tract of midbrain |
| UBERON:0002586 | calcarine sulcus |
| UBERON:0002587 | nucleus subceruleus |
| UBERON:0002588 | decussation of superior cerebellar peduncle |
| UBERON:0002589 | lateral corticospinal tract |
| UBERON:0002590 | prepyriform area |
| UBERON:0002591 | oral part of spinal trigeminal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002592 | juxtarestiform body |
| UBERON:0002593 | orbital operculum |
| UBERON:0002594 | dentatothalamic tract |
| UBERON:0002595 | orbital sulcus |
| UBERON:0002596 | ventral posterior nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002597 | principal sensory nucleus of trigeminal nerve |
| UBERON:0002598 | paracentral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002599 | medial olfactory gyrus |
| UBERON:0002600 | limbic lobe |
| UBERON:0002601 | fasciolar gyrus |
| UBERON:0002602 | emboliform nucleus |
| UBERON:0002603 | paraterminal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002604 | ventral nucleus of lateral lemniscus |
| UBERON:0002605 | precentral operculum |
| UBERON:0002606 | neuropil |
| UBERON:0002607 | superior rostral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002608 | caudal part of ventral lateral nucleus |
| UBERON:0002609 | spinothalamic tract of midbrain |
| UBERON:0002610 | cochlear nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0002611 | obsolete node of ranvier |
| UBERON:0002612 | transverse orbital sulcus |
| UBERON:0002613 | cerebellum globose nucleus |
| UBERON:0002614 | medial part of ventral lateral nucleus |
| UBERON:0002615 | ventral tegmental decussation |
| UBERON:0002616 | regional part of brain |
| UBERON:0002617 | pars postrema of ventral lateral nucleus |
| UBERON:0002618 | root of trochlear nerve |
| UBERON:0002620 | tuber cinereum |
| UBERON:0002622 | preoptic periventricular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002623 | cerebral peduncle |
| UBERON:0002624 | orbital part of inferior frontal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002625 | median preoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:0002626 | head of caudate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002627 | capsule of medial geniculate body |
| UBERON:0002628 | tail of caudate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002629 | triangular part of inferior frontal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002630 | body of caudate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002631 | cerebral crus |
| UBERON:0002632 | medial part of medial mammillary nucleus |
| UBERON:0002633 | motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve |
| UBERON:0002634 | anterior nucleus of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0002636 | lateral pulvinar nucleus |
| UBERON:0002637 | ventral anterior nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002638 | medial pulvinar nucleus |
| UBERON:0002639 | midbrain reticular formation |
| UBERON:0002640 | cuneocerebellar tract |
| UBERON:0002641 | oral pulvinar nucleus |
| UBERON:0002642 | cuneate fasciculus of medulla |
| UBERON:0002643 | decussation of medial lemniscus |
| UBERON:0002644 | intermediate orbital gyrus |
| UBERON:0002645 | densocellular part of medial dorsal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002646 | dorsal longitudinal fasciculus of medulla |
| UBERON:0002647 | magnocellular part of medial dorsal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002648 | anterior median eminence |
| UBERON:0002649 | dorsolateral fasciculus of medulla |
| UBERON:0002650 | paralaminar part of medial dorsal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002651 | anterior horn of lateral ventricle |
| UBERON:0002652 | posterior median eminence |
| UBERON:0002653 | gracile fasciculus of medulla |
| UBERON:0002654 | parvocellular part of medial dorsal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002655 | body of lateral ventricle |
| UBERON:0002656 | periamygdaloid area |
| UBERON:0002657 | posterior parahippocampal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002658 | medial lemniscus of midbrain |
| UBERON:0002659 | superior medullary velum |
| UBERON:0002660 | medial longitudinal fasciculus of midbrain |
| UBERON:0002661 | superior frontal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002662 | medial pes lemniscus |
| UBERON:0002663 | septal nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0002664 | lateral part of medial mammillary nucleus |
| UBERON:0002665 | supracallosal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002666 | mesencephalic tract of trigeminal nerve |
| UBERON:0002667 | lateral septal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002668 | oculomotor nerve root |
| UBERON:0002669 | anterior horizontal limb of lateral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002670 | anterior ascending limb of lateral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002671 | pallidotegmental fasciculus |
| UBERON:0002672 | anterior subcentral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002673 | vestibular nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0002675 | diagonal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002676 | ventral supraoptic decussation |
| UBERON:0002679 | anterodorsal nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002681 | anteromedial nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002682 | abducens nucleus |
| UBERON:0002683 | rhinal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002684 | nucleus raphe obscurus |
| UBERON:0002685 | anteroventral nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002686 | angular gyrus |
| UBERON:0002687 | area X of ventral lateral nucleus |
| UBERON:0002688 | supramarginal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002689 | supraoptic crest |
| UBERON:0002690 | anteroventral periventricular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002691 | ventral tegmental area |
| UBERON:0002692 | medullary raphe nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0002693 | occipitotemporal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002694 | anterior hypothalamic commissure |
| UBERON:0002695 | parieto-occipital sulcus |
| UBERON:0002696 | cuneiform nucleus |
| UBERON:0002697 | dorsal supraoptic decussation |
| UBERON:0002698 | preoccipital notch |
| UBERON:0002699 | supraopticohypophysial tract |
| UBERON:0002700 | subcuneiform nucleus |
| UBERON:0002701 | anterior median oculomotor nucleus |
| UBERON:0002702 | middle frontal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002703 | precentral gyrus |
| UBERON:0002704 | metathalamus |
| UBERON:0002705 | midline nuclear group |
| UBERON:0002706 | posterior nucleus of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0002707 | corticospinal tract |
| UBERON:0002708 | posterior periventricular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002709 | posterior nuclear complex of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002710 | cingulate sulcus |
| UBERON:0002711 | nucleus of posterior commissure |
| UBERON:0002712 | premammillary nucleus |
| UBERON:0002713 | circular sulcus of insula |
| UBERON:0002714 | rubrospinal tract |
| UBERON:0002715 | spinal trigeminal tract of medulla |
| UBERON:0002716 | collateral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002717 | rostral interstitial nucleus of medial longitudinal fasciculus |
| UBERON:0002718 | solitary tract |
| UBERON:0002719 | spino-olivary tract |
| UBERON:0002720 | mammillary peduncle |
| UBERON:0002721 | lateral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002722 | trochlear nucleus |
| UBERON:0002723 | mammillary princeps fasciculus |
| UBERON:0002724 | limen of insula |
| UBERON:0002726 | cervical spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002727 | medial medullary lamina of globus pallidus |
| UBERON:0002728 | entorhinal cortex |
| UBERON:0002729 | claustral amygdaloid area |
| UBERON:0002731 | vestibulocochlear nerve root |
| UBERON:0002732 | longitudinal pontine fibers |
| UBERON:0002733 | intralaminar nuclear group |
| UBERON:0002734 | superior temporal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002735 | transverse pontine fibers |
| UBERON:0002736 | lateral nuclear group of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002737 | lateral inferior limiting sulcus |
| UBERON:0002738 | isthmus of cingulate gyrus |
| UBERON:0002739 | medial dorsal nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002740 | posterior cingulate gyrus |
| UBERON:0002741 | diagonal band of Broca |
| UBERON:0002742 | lamina of septum pellucidum |
| UBERON:0002743 | basal forebrain |
| UBERON:0002744 | hilum of dentate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002745 | ventral amygdalofugal projection |
| UBERON:0002746 | intermediate periventricular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002747 | neodentate part of dentate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002748 | medial lemniscus of medulla |
| UBERON:0002749 | regional part of cerebellar cortex |
| UBERON:0002750 | medial longitudinal fasciculus of medulla |
| UBERON:0002751 | inferior temporal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002752 | olivocerebellar tract |
| UBERON:0002753 | posterior spinocerebellar tract |
| UBERON:0002754 | predorsal bundle |
| UBERON:0002755 | pyramidal decussation |
| UBERON:0002756 | anterior cingulate gyrus |
| UBERON:0002758 | dorsal nucleus of medial geniculate body |
| UBERON:0002759 | magnocellular nucleus of medial geniculate body |
| UBERON:0002760 | ventral corticospinal tract |
| UBERON:0002761 | inferior frontal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002762 | internal medullary lamina of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002763 | accessory medullary lamina of globus pallidus |
| UBERON:0002764 | inferior precentral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002765 | lateral medullary lamina of globus pallidus |
| UBERON:0002766 | fusiform gyrus |
| UBERON:0002767 | inferior rostral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002768 | vestibulospinal tract |
| UBERON:0002769 | superior temporal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002770 | posterior hypothalamic region |
| UBERON:0002771 | middle temporal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002772 | olfactory sulcus |
| UBERON:0002773 | anterior transverse temporal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002774 | posterior transverse temporal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002775 | olivocochlear bundle |
| UBERON:0002776 | ventral nuclear group |
| UBERON:0002778 | ventral pallidum |
| UBERON:0002779 | lateral superior olivary nucleus |
| UBERON:0002781 | caudal part of ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002782 | medial superior olivary nucleus |
| UBERON:0002783 | central tegmental tract of pons |
| UBERON:0002786 | root of abducens nerve |
| UBERON:0002787 | decussation of trochlear nerve |
| UBERON:0002788 | anterior nuclear group |
| UBERON:0002790 | dorsal acoustic stria |
| UBERON:0002792 | lumbar spinal cord |
| UBERON:0002793 | dorsal longitudinal fasciculus of pons |
| UBERON:0002794 | medial longitudinal fasciculus of pons |
| UBERON:0002795 | frontal pole |
| UBERON:0002796 | motor root of trigeminal nerve |
| UBERON:0002797 | dorsal trigeminal tract |
| UBERON:0002798 | spinothalamic tract of pons |
| UBERON:0002799 | fronto-orbital sulcus |
| UBERON:0002800 | spinal trigeminal tract of pons |
| UBERON:0002801 | stratum zonale of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002802 | left parietal lobe |
| UBERON:0002803 | right parietal lobe |
| UBERON:0002804 | left limbic lobe |
| UBERON:0002805 | right limbic lobe |
| UBERON:0002806 | left occipital lobe |
| UBERON:0002807 | right occipital lobe |
| UBERON:0002808 | left temporal lobe |
| UBERON:0002809 | right temporal lobe |
| UBERON:0002810 | right frontal lobe |
| UBERON:0002811 | left frontal lobe |
| UBERON:0002812 | left cerebral hemisphere |
| UBERON:0002813 | right cerebral hemisphere |
| UBERON:0002814 | posterior superior fissure of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0002815 | horizontal fissure of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0002816 | prepyramidal fissure of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0002817 | secondary fissure of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0002818 | posterolateral fissure of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0002819 | apex of cochlea |
| UBERON:0002820 | zona arcuata of basilar membrane of cochlea |
| UBERON:0002822 | macula lutea proper |
| UBERON:0002823 | clivus of fovea centralis |
| UBERON:0002824 | vestibular ganglion |
| UBERON:0002825 | superior part of vestibular ganglion |
| UBERON:0002826 | inferior part of vestibular ganglion |
| UBERON:0002827 | vestibulocochlear ganglion |
| UBERON:0002828 | ventral cochlear nucleus |
| UBERON:0002829 | dorsal cochlear nucleus |
| UBERON:0002830 | anteroventral cochlear nucleus |
| UBERON:0002831 | posteroventral cochlear nucleus |
| UBERON:0002832 | ventral nucleus of trapezoid body |
| UBERON:0002833 | medial nucleus of trapezoid body |
| UBERON:0002834 | cervical dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002835 | thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002836 | lumbar dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002837 | sacral dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002838 | first cervical dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002839 | second cervical dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002840 | third cervical dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002841 | fourth cervical dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002842 | fifth cervical dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002843 | seventh cervical dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002844 | eighth cervical dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002845 | first thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002846 | second thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002847 | third thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002848 | fifth thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002849 | sixth thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002850 | seventh thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002851 | eighth thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002852 | ninth thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002853 | tenth thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002854 | eleventh thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002855 | twelfth thoracic dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002856 | second lumbar dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002857 | first lumbar dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002858 | third lumbar dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002859 | fifth lumbar dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002860 | first sacral dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002861 | second sacral dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002862 | third sacral dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002863 | fifth sacral dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0002864 | accessory cuneate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002865 | arcuate nucleus of medulla |
| UBERON:0002866 | caudal part of spinal trigeminal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002867 | central gray substance of medulla |
| UBERON:0002868 | commissural nucleus of vagus nerve |
| UBERON:0002869 | diffuse reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002870 | dorsal motor nucleus of vagus nerve |
| UBERON:0002871 | hypoglossal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002872 | inferior salivatory nucleus |
| UBERON:0002873 | interpolar part of spinal trigeminal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002874 | lateral pericuneate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002875 | medial pericuneate nucleus |
| UBERON:0002876 | nucleus intercalatus |
| UBERON:0002877 | parasolitary nucleus |
| UBERON:0002879 | peritrigeminal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002880 | pontobulbar nucleus |
| UBERON:0002881 | sublingual nucleus |
| UBERON:0002882 | supraspinal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002883 | central amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0002884 | intercalated amygdaloid nuclei |
| UBERON:0002885 | accessory basal amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0002886 | lateral amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0002887 | basal amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0002888 | lateral part of basal amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0002889 | medial part of basal amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0002890 | anterior amygdaloid area |
| UBERON:0002891 | cortical amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0002892 | medial amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0002893 | nucleus of lateral olfactory tract |
| UBERON:0002894 | olfactory cortex |
| UBERON:0002895 | secondary olfactory cortex |
| UBERON:0002896 | telodiencephalic fissure |
| UBERON:0002897 | cistern of lamina terminalis |
| UBERON:0002898 | chiasmatic cistern |
| UBERON:0002899 | hippocampal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002900 | transverse occipital sulcus |
| UBERON:0002901 | posterior calcarine sulcus |
| UBERON:0002902 | occipital pole |
| UBERON:0002903 | lunate sulcus |
| UBERON:0002904 | lateral occipital sulcus |
| UBERON:0002905 | intralingual sulcus |
| UBERON:0002906 | anterior occipital sulcus |
| UBERON:0002907 | superior postcentral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002908 | subparietal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002909 | posterior subcentral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002910 | posterior ascending limb of lateral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002911 | parietal operculum |
| UBERON:0002912 | marginal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002913 | intraparietal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002914 | inferior postcentral sulcus |
| UBERON:0002915 | postcentral sulcus of parietal lobe |
| UBERON:0002916 | central sulcus |
| UBERON:0002918 | medial parabrachial nucleus |
| UBERON:0002919 | anterior parolfactory sulcus |
| UBERON:0002920 | callosal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002921 | longitudinal fissure |
| UBERON:0002922 | olfactory trigone |
| UBERON:0002923 | posterior parolfactory sulcus |
| UBERON:0002924 | terminal nerve |
| UBERON:0002925 | trigeminal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002926 | gustatory epithelium |
| UBERON:0002928 | dentate gyrus polymorphic layer |
| UBERON:0002929 | dentate gyrus pyramidal layer |
| UBERON:0002930 | tectopontine tract |
| UBERON:0002931 | dorsal septal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002932 | trapezoid body |
| UBERON:0002933 | nucleus of anterior commissure |
| UBERON:0002934 | ventral oculomotor nucleus |
| UBERON:0002935 | magnocellular part of ventral anterior nucleus |
| UBERON:0002936 | magnocellular part of red nucleus |
| UBERON:0002937 | parvocellular part of ventral anterior nucleus |
| UBERON:0002938 | parvocellular part of red nucleus |
| UBERON:0002939 | ventral posteroinferior nucleus |
| UBERON:0002940 | anterior column of fornix |
| UBERON:0002941 | capsule of red nucleus |
| UBERON:0002942 | ventral posterolateral nucleus |
| UBERON:0002943 | lingual gyrus |
| UBERON:0002944 | spinothalamic tract of medulla |
| UBERON:0002945 | ventral posteromedial nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002947 | frontal operculum |
| UBERON:0002948 | superior occipital gyrus |
| UBERON:0002949 | tectospinal tract |
| UBERON:0002952 | intermediate acoustic stria |
| UBERON:0002953 | lateral lemniscus |
| UBERON:0002954 | dorsal hypothalamic area |
| UBERON:0002955 | rhomboidal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002956 | granular layer of cerebellar cortex |
| UBERON:0002957 | caudal central oculomotor nucleus |
| UBERON:0002958 | medial lemniscus of pons |
| UBERON:0002959 | subfascicular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002960 | central oculomotor nucleus |
| UBERON:0002961 | archicortex |
| UBERON:0002962 | adductor pollicis muscle |
| UBERON:0002963 | caudal pontine reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:0002964 | dorsal oculomotor nucleus |
| UBERON:0002965 | rostral intralaminar nuclear group |
| UBERON:0002967 | cingulate gyrus |
| UBERON:0002968 | central gray substance of pons |
| UBERON:0002969 | inferior temporal sulcus |
| UBERON:0002970 | intermediate oculomotor nucleus |
| UBERON:0002971 | periolivary nucleus |
| UBERON:0002972 | centromedian nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002973 | parahippocampal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002974 | molecular layer of cerebellar cortex |
| UBERON:0002975 | medial oculomotor nucleus |
| UBERON:0002976 | preolivary nucleus |
| UBERON:0002977 | triangular septal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002978 | oral part of ventral lateral nucleus |
| UBERON:0002979 | Purkinje cell layer of cerebellar cortex |
| UBERON:0002980 | opercular part of inferior frontal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002981 | pulvinar nucleus |
| UBERON:0002982 | inferior pulvinar nucleus |
| UBERON:0002983 | lateral posterior nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0002984 | lateral dorsal nucleus |
| UBERON:0002985 | ventral nucleus of medial geniculate body |
| UBERON:0002986 | obsolete neurofilament |
| UBERON:0002987 | anterior spinocerebellar tract |
| UBERON:0002988 | first dorsal interosseous of manus |
| UBERON:0002989 | anconeus muscle |
| UBERON:0002990 | mammillothalamic tract of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0002991 | supramammillary commissure |
| UBERON:0002992 | paratenial nucleus |
| UBERON:0002993 | inferior central nucleus |
| UBERON:0002995 | substantia nigra pars lateralis |
| UBERON:0002996 | nucleus of optic tract |
| UBERON:0002997 | nucleus of medial eminence |
| UBERON:0002998 | inferior frontal gyrus |
| UBERON:0002999 | oral pontine reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:0003000 | obsolete intermediate filament |
| UBERON:0003001 | nervous system lemniscus |
| UBERON:0003002 | medial lemniscus |
| UBERON:0003003 | obsolete microfilament |
| UBERON:0003004 | median raphe nucleus |
| UBERON:0003005 | dorsal longitudinal fasciculus of midbrain |
| UBERON:0003006 | dorsal nucleus of lateral lemniscus |
| UBERON:0003007 | lateral parabrachial nucleus |
| UBERON:0003008 | dorsal longitudinal fasciculus of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0003009 | dorsal tegmental decussation |
| UBERON:0003010 | lateral pes lemniscus |
| UBERON:0003011 | facial motor nucleus |
| UBERON:0003012 | flocculonodular lobe |
| UBERON:0003013 | alar central lobule |
| UBERON:0003015 | anterior quadrangular lobule |
| UBERON:0003016 | postcommissural fornix of brain |
| UBERON:0003017 | substantia innominata |
| UBERON:0003018 | parvocellular part of ventral posteromedial nucleus |
| UBERON:0003019 | oral part of ventral posterolateral nucleus |
| UBERON:0003020 | subcallosal area |
| UBERON:0003021 | central lobule |
| UBERON:0003023 | pontine tegmentum |
| UBERON:0003024 | principal part of ventral posteromedial nucleus |
| UBERON:0003025 | brachium of inferior colliculus |
| UBERON:0003026 | limitans nucleus |
| UBERON:0003027 | cingulate cortex |
| UBERON:0003028 | commissure of inferior colliculus |
| UBERON:0003029 | stria terminalis |
| UBERON:0003030 | posterior nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0003031 | submedial nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0003033 | suprageniculate nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0003034 | central dorsal nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0003036 | central lateral nucleus |
| UBERON:0003037 | septum |
| UBERON:0003038 | thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0003039 | anterior commissure anterior part |
| UBERON:0003040 | central gray substance of midbrain |
| UBERON:0003041 | trigeminal nerve fibers |
| UBERON:0003043 | posterior part of anterior commissure |
| UBERON:0003044 | uncinate fasciculus |
| UBERON:0003045 | dorsal longitudinal fasciculus |
| UBERON:0003046 | ventral acoustic stria |
| UBERON:0003049 | collagen and cuticulin-based cuticle |
| UBERON:0003050 | olfactory placode |
| UBERON:0003051 | ear vesicle |
| UBERON:0003052 | midbrain-hindbrain boundary |
| UBERON:0003053 | ventricular zone |
| UBERON:0003054 | roof plate |
| UBERON:0003055 | periderm |
| UBERON:0003056 | pre-chordal neural plate |
| UBERON:0003057 | chordal neural plate |
| UBERON:0003058 | hypochord |
| UBERON:0003059 | presomitic mesoderm |
| UBERON:0003060 | pronephric duct |
| UBERON:0003061 | blood island |
| UBERON:0003062 | primitive knot |
| UBERON:0003063 | prechordal plate |
| UBERON:0003064 | intermediate mesoderm |
| UBERON:0003065 | ciliary marginal zone |
| UBERON:0003066 | pharyngeal arch 2 |
| UBERON:0003067 | dorsolateral placode |
| UBERON:0003068 | axial mesoderm |
| UBERON:0003069 | otic placode |
| UBERON:0003070 | trigeminal placode complex |
| UBERON:0003071 | eye primordium |
| UBERON:0003072 | optic cup |
| UBERON:0003073 | lens placode |
| UBERON:0003074 | mesonephric duct |
| UBERON:0003075 | neural plate |
| UBERON:0003076 | posterior neural tube |
| UBERON:0003077 | paraxial mesoderm |
| UBERON:0003078 | epibranchial placode |
| UBERON:0003079 | floor plate |
| UBERON:0003080 | anterior neural tube |
| UBERON:0003081 | lateral plate mesoderm |
| UBERON:0003082 | myotome |
| UBERON:0003083 | trunk neural crest |
| UBERON:0003084 | heart primordium |
| UBERON:0003085 | ventral aorta |
| UBERON:0003086 | caudal artery |
| UBERON:0003087 | anterior cardinal vein |
| UBERON:0003088 | caudal vein |
| UBERON:0003089 | sclerotome |
| UBERON:0003090 | supraorbital lateral line |
| UBERON:0003091 | thyroid primordium |
| UBERON:0003092 | ultimobranchial body |
| UBERON:0003093 | occipital lateral line |
| UBERON:0003094 | infraorbital lateral line |
| UBERON:0003095 | dorsal lateral line |
| UBERON:0003096 | middle lateral line |
| UBERON:0003097 | dorsal fin |
| UBERON:0003098 | optic stalk |
| UBERON:0003099 | cranial neural crest |
| UBERON:0003100 | female organism |
| UBERON:0003101 | male organism |
| UBERON:0003102 | surface structure |
| UBERON:0003103 | compound organ |
| UBERON:0003104 | mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003105 | dorsal lateral plate region |
| UBERON:0003106 | urostyle |
| UBERON:0003107 | Meckel's cartilage |
| UBERON:0003108 | suspensorium |
| UBERON:0003109 | parapophysis |
| UBERON:0003110 | otic region |
| UBERON:0003111 | sphenoid region |
| UBERON:0003112 | olfactory region |
| UBERON:0003113 | dermatocranium |
| UBERON:0003114 | pharyngeal arch 3 |
| UBERON:0003115 | pharyngeal arch 4 |
| UBERON:0003116 | pharyngeal arch 5 |
| UBERON:0003117 | pharyngeal arch 6 |
| UBERON:0003118 | pharyngeal arch artery 1 |
| UBERON:0003119 | pharyngeal arch artery 2 |
| UBERON:0003120 | pharyngeal arch artery 3 |
| UBERON:0003121 | pharyngeal arch artery 4 |
| UBERON:0003122 | pharyngeal arch artery 5 |
| UBERON:0003123 | pharyngeal arch artery 6 |
| UBERON:0003124 | chorion membrane |
| UBERON:0003125 | vitelline membrane |
| UBERON:0003126 | trachea |
| UBERON:0003127 | open tracheal system trachea |
| UBERON:0003128 | cranium |
| UBERON:0003129 | skull |
| UBERON:0003130 | arthropod sternum |
| UBERON:0003131 | arthropod tibia |
| UBERON:0003133 | reproductive organ |
| UBERON:0003134 | female reproductive organ |
| UBERON:0003135 | male reproductive organ |
| UBERON:0003142 | prepupa |
| UBERON:0003143 | pupa |
| UBERON:0003148 | obsolete sclerite |
| UBERON:0003153 | insect head capsule |
| UBERON:0003155 | arthropod occiput |
| UBERON:0003161 | dorsal ocellus |
| UBERON:0003162 | lateral ocellus |
| UBERON:0003194 | imaginal disc-derived wing vein |
| UBERON:0003199 | egg chamber |
| UBERON:0003201 | exocuticle |
| UBERON:0003202 | endocuticle |
| UBERON:0003207 | obsolete arthropod appendage segment |
| UBERON:0003209 | blood nerve barrier |
| UBERON:0003211 | median eye |
| UBERON:0003212 | gustatory organ |
| UBERON:0003214 | mammary gland alveolus |
| UBERON:0003215 | alveolus |
| UBERON:0003216 | hard palate |
| UBERON:0003217 | neural lobe of neurohypophysis |
| UBERON:0003220 | metanephric mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003221 | phalanx |
| UBERON:0003222 | flexor digitorum superficialis |
| UBERON:0003224 | chorion syncytiotrophoblast |
| UBERON:0003228 | supinator muscle |
| UBERON:0003229 | epithelium of elbow |
| UBERON:0003230 | epithelium of carpal region |
| UBERON:0003231 | epithelium of hip |
| UBERON:0003232 | epithelium of knee |
| UBERON:0003233 | epithelium of shoulder |
| UBERON:0003234 | extensor pollicis longus muscle |
| UBERON:0003235 | epithelium of upper jaw |
| UBERON:0003236 | epithelium of lower jaw |
| UBERON:0003238 | epithelium of superior semicircular canal |
| UBERON:0003239 | epithelium of posterior semicircular canal |
| UBERON:0003240 | epithelium of lateral semicircular canal |
| UBERON:0003241 | epithelium of utricle |
| UBERON:0003242 | epithelium of saccule |
| UBERON:0003243 | epithelium of cochlear duct |
| UBERON:0003244 | epithelium of mammary gland |
| UBERON:0003246 | epithelium of endolymphatic sac |
| UBERON:0003247 | epithelium of forearm |
| UBERON:0003248 | epithelium of footplate |
| UBERON:0003249 | epithelium of otic placode |
| UBERON:0003250 | rectus capitis lateralis muscle |
| UBERON:0003251 | temporal part of head |
| UBERON:0003252 | thoracic rib cage |
| UBERON:0003253 | neck of rib |
| UBERON:0003254 | amniotic ectoderm |
| UBERON:0003255 | obsolete ectoderm of embryo |
| UBERON:0003256 | obsolete endoderm of embryo |
| UBERON:0003257 | yolk sac endoderm |
| UBERON:0003258 | endoderm of foregut |
| UBERON:0003259 | endoderm of midgut |
| UBERON:0003260 | endoderm of hindgut |
| UBERON:0003261 | thyroid primordium endoderm |
| UBERON:0003262 | amniotic mesoderm |
| UBERON:0003265 | chorionic mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003267 | tooth of upper jaw |
| UBERON:0003268 | tooth of lower jaw |
| UBERON:0003269 | skeletal muscle tissue of eye |
| UBERON:0003274 | mesothelium of omental bursa |
| UBERON:0003277 | skeleton of upper jaw |
| UBERON:0003278 | skeleton of lower jaw |
| UBERON:0003279 | endothelium of trachea |
| UBERON:0003280 | endothelium of main bronchus |
| UBERON:0003281 | mesentery of stomach |
| UBERON:0003282 | mesentery of heart |
| UBERON:0003283 | mesentery of oesophagus |
| UBERON:0003284 | mesentery of midgut |
| UBERON:0003286 | foregut region of duodenum |
| UBERON:0003287 | midgut region of duodenum |
| UBERON:0003288 | meninx of midbrain |
| UBERON:0003289 | meninx of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0003290 | meninx of diencephalon |
| UBERON:0003291 | meninx of hindbrain |
| UBERON:0003292 | meninx of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0003294 | gland of foregut |
| UBERON:0003295 | pharyngeal gland |
| UBERON:0003296 | gland of diencephalon |
| UBERON:0003297 | gland of integumental system |
| UBERON:0003299 | roof plate of midbrain |
| UBERON:0003300 | roof plate of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0003301 | roof plate of diencephalon |
| UBERON:0003302 | roof plate of metencephalon |
| UBERON:0003303 | roof plate of medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:0003304 | mesoderm blood island |
| UBERON:0003306 | floor plate of neural tube |
| UBERON:0003307 | floor plate of midbrain |
| UBERON:0003308 | floor plate of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0003309 | floor plate of diencephalon |
| UBERON:0003310 | floor plate of metencephalon |
| UBERON:0003311 | floor plate of medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:0003312 | mesenchyme of testis |
| UBERON:0003314 | eye mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003315 | mesenchyme of ovary |
| UBERON:0003316 | mesenchyme of yolk sac |
| UBERON:0003317 | odontogenic papilla of incisor |
| UBERON:0003318 | mesenchyme of elbow |
| UBERON:0003319 | mesenchyme of carpal region |
| UBERON:0003320 | mesenchyme of hip |
| UBERON:0003321 | mesenchyme of knee |
| UBERON:0003322 | mesenchyme of shoulder |
| UBERON:0003323 | mesenchyme of upper jaw |
| UBERON:0003324 | mesenchyme of lower jaw |
| UBERON:0003325 | mesenchyme of pinna |
| UBERON:0003326 | mesenchyme of mammary gland |
| UBERON:0003327 | mesenchyme of forearm |
| UBERON:0003328 | mesenchyme of footplate |
| UBERON:0003329 | submucosa of anal canal |
| UBERON:0003330 | submucosa of rectum |
| UBERON:0003331 | submucosa of colon |
| UBERON:0003332 | submucosa of duodenum |
| UBERON:0003333 | submucosa of jejunum |
| UBERON:0003334 | serosa of rectum |
| UBERON:0003335 | serosa of colon |
| UBERON:0003336 | serosa of duodenum |
| UBERON:0003337 | serosa of jejunum |
| UBERON:0003338 | ganglion of peripheral nervous system |
| UBERON:0003339 | ganglion of central nervous system |
| UBERON:0003342 | mucosa of anal canal |
| UBERON:0003343 | mucosa of oral region |
| UBERON:0003346 | mucosa of rectum |
| UBERON:0003350 | epithelium of mucosa |
| UBERON:0003351 | pharyngeal epithelium |
| UBERON:0003352 | epithelium of midgut |
| UBERON:0003353 | epithelium of hindgut |
| UBERON:0003354 | epithelium of rectum |
| UBERON:0003355 | epithelium of incisor |
| UBERON:0003356 | epithelium of nasal septum |
| UBERON:0003357 | epithelium of tongue |
| UBERON:0003358 | epithelium of soft palate |
| UBERON:0003359 | epithelium of submandibular gland |
| UBERON:0003360 | epithelium of parotid gland |
| UBERON:0003361 | epithelium of sublingual gland |
| UBERON:0003362 | epithelium of endolymphatic duct |
| UBERON:0003363 | epithelium of ductus reuniens |
| UBERON:0003364 | epithelium of right lung |
| UBERON:0003365 | epithelium of left lung |
| UBERON:0003366 | epithelium of uterine horn |
| UBERON:0003367 | epithelium of vomeronasal organ |
| UBERON:0003368 | epithelium of hard palate |
| UBERON:0003369 | fossa ovalis of heart |
| UBERON:0003371 | pelvic appendage bud ectoderm |
| UBERON:0003372 | pectoral appendage bud ectoderm |
| UBERON:0003373 | ectoderm of footplate |
| UBERON:0003374 | chorionic ectoderm |
| UBERON:0003378 | cardiac muscle of auricular region |
| UBERON:0003379 | cardiac muscle of right atrium |
| UBERON:0003380 | cardiac muscle of left atrium |
| UBERON:0003381 | cardiac muscle of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0003382 | cardiac muscle of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0003383 | cardiac muscle tissue of interventricular septum |
| UBERON:0003384 | skeletal muscle tissue of pharynx |
| UBERON:0003386 | smooth muscle of eye |
| UBERON:0003387 | smooth muscle of trachea |
| UBERON:0003388 | mesothelium of pericardial cavity |
| UBERON:0003389 | mesothelium of diaphragm |
| UBERON:0003390 | mesothelium of pleural cavity |
| UBERON:0003393 | mesentery of urinary system |
| UBERON:0003394 | mesentery of hindgut |
| UBERON:0003395 | mesentery of rectum |
| UBERON:0003396 | mesentery of colon |
| UBERON:0003397 | mesentery of duodenum |
| UBERON:0003398 | mesentery of jejunum |
| UBERON:0003403 | skin of forearm |
| UBERON:0003404 | lobar bronchus of right lung |
| UBERON:0003405 | lobar bronchus of left lung |
| UBERON:0003406 | cartilage of respiratory system |
| UBERON:0003407 | cartilage of nasal septum |
| UBERON:0003408 | gland of digestive tract |
| UBERON:0003409 | gland of tongue |
| UBERON:0003410 | oropharyngeal gland |
| UBERON:0003412 | pelvic appendage bud mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003413 | pectoral appendage bud mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003414 | mesenchyme of mandible |
| UBERON:0003415 | mesenchyme of nasal septum |
| UBERON:0003416 | mesenchyme of tongue |
| UBERON:0003417 | mesenchyme of soft palate |
| UBERON:0003418 | mesenchyme of submandibular gland |
| UBERON:0003419 | mesenchyme of parotid |
| UBERON:0003420 | mesenchyme of sublingual gland |
| UBERON:0003421 | mesenchyme of vomeronasal organ |
| UBERON:0003422 | mesenchyme of umbilical cord |
| UBERON:0003424 | mesenchyme of hard palate |
| UBERON:0003425 | renal lymph node |
| UBERON:0003426 | dermis adipose tissue |
| UBERON:0003427 | abdominal fat pad |
| UBERON:0003428 | gonadal fat pad |
| UBERON:0003429 | abdomen nerve |
| UBERON:0003430 | neck nerve |
| UBERON:0003431 | leg nerve |
| UBERON:0003432 | chest nerve |
| UBERON:0003433 | arm nerve |
| UBERON:0003434 | wrist nerve |
| UBERON:0003435 | pedal digit nerve |
| UBERON:0003436 | shoulder nerve |
| UBERON:0003437 | eyelid nerve |
| UBERON:0003438 | iris nerve |
| UBERON:0003439 | nerve of trunk region |
| UBERON:0003440 | limb nerve |
| UBERON:0003441 | forelimb nerve |
| UBERON:0003442 | hindlimb nerve |
| UBERON:0003443 | thoracic cavity nerve |
| UBERON:0003444 | pelvis nerve |
| UBERON:0003445 | pes nerve |
| UBERON:0003446 | ankle nerve |
| UBERON:0003447 | digit nerve of manus |
| UBERON:0003448 | manus nerve |
| UBERON:0003449 | tail intervertebral disc |
| UBERON:0003450 | upper jaw incisor |
| UBERON:0003451 | lower jaw incisor |
| UBERON:0003452 | trabecula carnea cardiac muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0003453 | large intestine Peyer's patch |
| UBERON:0003454 | small intestine Peyer's patch |
| UBERON:0003455 | inner renal medulla loop of Henle |
| UBERON:0003456 | respiratory system lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:0003457 | head bone |
| UBERON:0003458 | neck bone |
| UBERON:0003459 | chest bone |
| UBERON:0003460 | arm bone |
| UBERON:0003461 | shoulder bone |
| UBERON:0003462 | facial bone |
| UBERON:0003463 | trunk bone |
| UBERON:0003464 | hindlimb bone |
| UBERON:0003465 | obsolete chondrocranium bone |
| UBERON:0003466 | forelimb zeugopod bone |
| UBERON:0003467 | sesamoid bone of gastrocnemius |
| UBERON:0003468 | ureteric segment of renal artery |
| UBERON:0003469 | respiratory system artery |
| UBERON:0003470 | artery of upper lip |
| UBERON:0003471 | artery of lower lip |
| UBERON:0003472 | cerebellar artery |
| UBERON:0003473 | thoracic cavity artery |
| UBERON:0003474 | meningeal artery |
| UBERON:0003475 | ureteric vein |
| UBERON:0003476 | respiratory system venous blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003477 | vein of upper lip |
| UBERON:0003478 | vein of lower lip |
| UBERON:0003479 | thoracic cavity vein |
| UBERON:0003480 | vein of clitoris |
| UBERON:0003481 | tail vein |
| UBERON:0003482 | vein of trabecular bone |
| UBERON:0003483 | thymus lymphoid tissue |
| UBERON:0003484 | eye sebaceous gland |
| UBERON:0003485 | vagina sebaceous gland |
| UBERON:0003487 | skin sebaceous gland |
| UBERON:0003488 | abdominal mammary gland |
| UBERON:0003489 | respiratory system capillary endothelium |
| UBERON:0003490 | respiratory system reticular lamina |
| UBERON:0003492 | bronchus reticular lamina |
| UBERON:0003493 | trachea reticular lamina |
| UBERON:0003494 | respiratory system venule |
| UBERON:0003495 | respiratory system arteriole |
| UBERON:0003496 | head blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003497 | abdomen blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003498 | heart blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003499 | brain blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003500 | corneal blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003501 | retina blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003502 | neck blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003503 | leg blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003504 | respiratory system blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003505 | trachea blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003506 | chest blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003507 | arm blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003508 | pedal digit blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003509 | arterial blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003510 | eyelid blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003511 | iris blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003512 | lung blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003513 | trunk blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003514 | limb blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003515 | forelimb blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003516 | hindlimb blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003517 | kidney blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003518 | main bronchus blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003519 | thoracic cavity blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003520 | pelvis blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003521 | pes blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003522 | manual digit blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003523 | manus blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003524 | tail blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003526 | respiratory system capillary |
| UBERON:0003527 | kidney capillary |
| UBERON:0003528 | brain gray matter |
| UBERON:0003529 | respiratory system lymphatic vessel endothelium |
| UBERON:0003530 | pedal digit skin |
| UBERON:0003531 | forelimb skin |
| UBERON:0003532 | hindlimb skin |
| UBERON:0003533 | manual digit skin |
| UBERON:0003534 | tail skin |
| UBERON:0003535 | vagus X nerve trunk |
| UBERON:0003536 | right lung alveolar duct |
| UBERON:0003537 | left lung alveolar duct |
| UBERON:0003538 | right lung bronchiole |
| UBERON:0003539 | left lung bronchiole |
| UBERON:0003540 | right lung terminal bronchiole |
| UBERON:0003541 | left lung terminal bronchiole |
| UBERON:0003542 | right lung respiratory bronchiole |
| UBERON:0003543 | left lung respiratory bronchiole |
| UBERON:0003544 | brain white matter |
| UBERON:0003546 | distal convoluted tubule macula densa |
| UBERON:0003547 | brain meninx |
| UBERON:0003548 | forebrain meninges |
| UBERON:0003549 | brain pia mater |
| UBERON:0003550 | forebrain pia mater |
| UBERON:0003551 | midbrain pia mater |
| UBERON:0003552 | telencephalon pia mater |
| UBERON:0003553 | diencephalon pia mater |
| UBERON:0003554 | hindbrain pia mater |
| UBERON:0003555 | spinal cord pia mater |
| UBERON:0003556 | forebrain arachnoid mater |
| UBERON:0003557 | midbrain arachnoid mater |
| UBERON:0003558 | diencephalon arachnoid mater |
| UBERON:0003559 | hindbrain arachnoid mater |
| UBERON:0003560 | spinal cord arachnoid mater |
| UBERON:0003561 | forebrain dura mater |
| UBERON:0003562 | midbrain dura mater |
| UBERON:0003563 | telencephalon dura mater |
| UBERON:0003564 | diencephalon dura mater |
| UBERON:0003565 | hindbrain dura mater |
| UBERON:0003566 | head connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003567 | abdomen connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003568 | neck connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003569 | leg connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003570 | respiratory system connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003571 | trachea connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003572 | chest connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003573 | arm connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003574 | elbow connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003575 | wrist connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003576 | hip connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003577 | knee connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003578 | pedal digit connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003579 | shoulder connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003580 | lower respiratory tract connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003581 | eyelid connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003582 | nasopharynx connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003583 | larynx connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003584 | mammary gland connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003585 | dermis connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003586 | trunk connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003587 | limb connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003588 | forelimb connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003589 | hindlimb connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003590 | main bronchus connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003591 | lobar bronchus connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003592 | bronchus connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003593 | thoracic cavity connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003594 | pelvis connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003595 | pes connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003596 | ankle connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003597 | manual digit connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003598 | manus connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003599 | tail connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003601 | neck cartilage |
| UBERON:0003603 | lower respiratory tract cartilage |
| UBERON:0003604 | trachea cartilage |
| UBERON:0003605 | eye skin gland |
| UBERON:0003606 | limb long bone |
| UBERON:0003607 | forelimb long bone |
| UBERON:0003608 | hindlimb long bone |
| UBERON:0003609 | aorta elastic tissue |
| UBERON:0003610 | heart elastic tissue |
| UBERON:0003611 | respiratory system elastic tissue |
| UBERON:0003613 | cardiovascular system elastic tissue |
| UBERON:0003614 | blood vessel elastic tissue |
| UBERON:0003615 | lung elastic tissue |
| UBERON:0003616 | bronchus elastic tissue |
| UBERON:0003617 | trachea elastic tissue |
| UBERON:0003618 | aorta tunica media |
| UBERON:0003619 | aorta tunica intima |
| UBERON:0003620 | manual digit 1 phalanx |
| UBERON:0003622 | manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0003623 | manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0003624 | manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0003625 | manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0003631 | pedal digit 1 |
| UBERON:0003632 | pedal digit 2 |
| UBERON:0003633 | pedal digit 3 |
| UBERON:0003634 | pedal digit 4 |
| UBERON:0003635 | pedal digit 5 |
| UBERON:0003636 | manual digit 2 phalanx |
| UBERON:0003637 | manual digit 3 phalanx |
| UBERON:0003638 | manual digit 4 phalanx |
| UBERON:0003639 | manual digit 5 phalanx |
| UBERON:0003640 | pedal digit 1 phalanx |
| UBERON:0003641 | pedal digit 2 phalanx |
| UBERON:0003642 | pedal digit 3 phalanx |
| UBERON:0003643 | respiratory system arterial blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003644 | kidney arterial blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003645 | metacarpal bone of digit 1 |
| UBERON:0003646 | metacarpal bone of digit 2 |
| UBERON:0003647 | metacarpal bone of digit 3 |
| UBERON:0003648 | metacarpal bone of digit 4 |
| UBERON:0003649 | metacarpal bone of digit 5 |
| UBERON:0003650 | metatarsal bone of digit 1 |
| UBERON:0003651 | metatarsal bone of digit 2 |
| UBERON:0003652 | metatarsal bone of digit 3 |
| UBERON:0003653 | metatarsal bone of digit 4 |
| UBERON:0003654 | metatarsal bone of digit 5 |
| UBERON:0003655 | molar tooth |
| UBERON:0003656 | mesopodium bone |
| UBERON:0003657 | limb joint |
| UBERON:0003658 | hip muscle |
| UBERON:0003659 | pedal digit muscle |
| UBERON:0003660 | eyelid muscle |
| UBERON:0003661 | limb muscle |
| UBERON:0003662 | forelimb muscle |
| UBERON:0003663 | hindlimb muscle |
| UBERON:0003664 | manual digit muscle |
| UBERON:0003665 | post-anal tail muscle |
| UBERON:0003666 | upper jaw molar |
| UBERON:0003667 | lower jaw molar |
| UBERON:0003668 | synovial bursa |
| UBERON:0003669 | fascia lata |
| UBERON:0003670 | smegma |
| UBERON:0003671 | anterior cruciate ligament of knee joint |
| UBERON:0003672 | dentition |
| UBERON:0003673 | ligamentum flavum |
| UBERON:0003674 | cuspid |
| UBERON:0003675 | tooth crown |
| UBERON:0003676 | patellar ligament |
| UBERON:0003677 | tooth root |
| UBERON:0003678 | tooth apex |
| UBERON:0003679 | mouth floor |
| UBERON:0003680 | posterior cruciate ligament of knee joint |
| UBERON:0003681 | masticatory muscle |
| UBERON:0003682 | palatal muscle |
| UBERON:0003683 | rotator cuff |
| UBERON:0003684 | abdominal cavity |
| UBERON:0003685 | cranial suture |
| UBERON:0003686 | tooth socket |
| UBERON:0003687 | foramen magnum |
| UBERON:0003688 | omentum |
| UBERON:0003689 | sella turcica |
| UBERON:0003690 | fused sacrum |
| UBERON:0003691 | epidural space |
| UBERON:0003692 | acromioclavicular joint |
| UBERON:0003693 | retroperitoneal space |
| UBERON:0003694 | atlanto-axial joint |
| UBERON:0003695 | metacarpophalangeal joint |
| UBERON:0003696 | metatarsophalangeal joint |
| UBERON:0003697 | abdominal wall |
| UBERON:0003698 | subtalar joint |
| UBERON:0003699 | pubic symphysis |
| UBERON:0003700 | temporomandibular joint |
| UBERON:0003701 | calcaneal tendon |
| UBERON:0003702 | inguinal canal |
| UBERON:0003703 | extrahepatic bile duct |
| UBERON:0003704 | intrahepatic bile duct |
| UBERON:0003705 | Meckel's diverticulum |
| UBERON:0003706 | laryngeal vocal fold |
| UBERON:0003707 | sinus of Valsalva |
| UBERON:0003708 | carotid sinus |
| UBERON:0003709 | circle of Willis |
| UBERON:0003710 | vasa vasorum |
| UBERON:0003711 | brachiocephalic vein |
| UBERON:0003712 | cavernous sinus |
| UBERON:0003713 | splenic vein |
| UBERON:0003714 | neural tissue |
| UBERON:0003715 | splanchnic nerve |
| UBERON:0003716 | recurrent laryngeal nerve |
| UBERON:0003718 | muscle spindle |
| UBERON:0003719 | Pacinian corpuscle |
| UBERON:0003720 | anterior cranial fossa |
| UBERON:0003721 | lingual nerve |
| UBERON:0003722 | middle cranial fossa |
| UBERON:0003723 | vestibular nerve |
| UBERON:0003724 | musculocutaneous nerve |
| UBERON:0003725 | cervical nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0003726 | thoracic nerve |
| UBERON:0003727 | intercostal nerve |
| UBERON:0003728 | mediastinum |
| UBERON:0003729 | mouth mucosa |
| UBERON:0003820 | prostate bud |
| UBERON:0003821 | metapodium bone |
| UBERON:0003822 | forelimb stylopod |
| UBERON:0003823 | hindlimb zeugopod |
| UBERON:0003824 | nerve of thoracic segment |
| UBERON:0003825 | nerve of abdominal segment |
| UBERON:0003826 | upper leg bone |
| UBERON:0003827 | thoracic segment bone |
| UBERON:0003828 | abdominal segment bone |
| UBERON:0003829 | urethra muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0003830 | thoracic segment muscle |
| UBERON:0003831 | respiratory system muscle |
| UBERON:0003832 | esophagus muscle |
| UBERON:0003833 | abdominal segment muscle |
| UBERON:0003834 | thoracic segment blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003835 | abdominal segment blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003836 | abdominal segment skin |
| UBERON:0003837 | thoracic segment connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003838 | abdominal segment connective tissue |
| UBERON:0003839 | forelimb joint |
| UBERON:0003840 | hindlimb joint |
| UBERON:0003841 | autopod joint |
| UBERON:0003842 | neural tube lumen |
| UBERON:0003843 | dental epithelium |
| UBERON:0003844 | upper eyelid epithelium |
| UBERON:0003845 | lower eyelid epithelium |
| UBERON:0003846 | thymus epithelium |
| UBERON:0003847 | thyroid artery |
| UBERON:0003848 | gonadal vein |
| UBERON:0003849 | mesencephalic neural crest |
| UBERON:0003850 | telencephalon neural crest |
| UBERON:0003851 | diencephalon neural crest |
| UBERON:0003852 | rhombencephalon neural crest |
| UBERON:0003853 | spinal cord neural crest |
| UBERON:0003854 | spinal cord neural plate |
| UBERON:0003855 | gonad mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003856 | uncondensed odontogenic mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003857 | upper eyelid mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003858 | lower eyelid mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003859 | forelimb mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003860 | hindlimb mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0003861 | neural arch |
| UBERON:0003862 | pedal digit 4 phalanx |
| UBERON:0003863 | pedal digit 5 phalanx |
| UBERON:0003864 | middle phalanx of manus |
| UBERON:0003865 | distal phalanx of manus |
| UBERON:0003866 | middle phalanx of pes |
| UBERON:0003867 | distal phalanx of pes |
| UBERON:0003868 | proximal phalanx of pes |
| UBERON:0003876 | hippocampal field |
| UBERON:0003881 | CA1 field of hippocampus |
| UBERON:0003882 | CA2 field of hippocampus |
| UBERON:0003883 | CA3 field of hippocampus |
| UBERON:0003884 | CA4 field of hippocampus |
| UBERON:0003885 | mesometrium |
| UBERON:0003887 | intraembryonic coelom |
| UBERON:0003888 | extraembryonic coelomic cavity |
| UBERON:0003889 | fallopian tube |
| UBERON:0003890 | Mullerian duct |
| UBERON:0003891 | stroma |
| UBERON:0003893 | capsule |
| UBERON:0003894 | liver primordium |
| UBERON:0003895 | hypaxial myotome region |
| UBERON:0003897 | axial muscle |
| UBERON:0003898 | skeletal muscle tissue of trunk |
| UBERON:0003900 | epaxial myotome region |
| UBERON:0003901 | horizontal septum |
| UBERON:0003902 | retinal neural layer |
| UBERON:0003903 | bursa of Fabricius |
| UBERON:0003906 | cardiac jelly |
| UBERON:0003907 | left atrioventricular canal |
| UBERON:0003908 | right atrioventricular canal |
| UBERON:0003909 | sinusoid |
| UBERON:0003910 | splenic sinusoid |
| UBERON:0003911 | choroid plexus epithelium |
| UBERON:0003913 | tooth-like structure |
| UBERON:0003914 | epithelial tube |
| UBERON:0003916 | fat pad |
| UBERON:0003917 | arthropod fat body |
| UBERON:0003920 | venous blood vessel |
| UBERON:0003921 | pancreas primordium |
| UBERON:0003922 | pancreatic epithelial bud |
| UBERON:0003923 | dorsal pancreatic bud |
| UBERON:0003924 | ventral pancreatic bud |
| UBERON:0003925 | photoreceptor inner segment layer |
| UBERON:0003926 | photoreceptor outer segment layer |
| UBERON:0003928 | digestive system duct |
| UBERON:0003929 | digestive tract epithelium |
| UBERON:0003930 | atrioventricular canal endocardium |
| UBERON:0003931 | diencephalic white matter |
| UBERON:0003932 | cartilage element of chondrocranium |
| UBERON:0003933 | cranial cartilage |
| UBERON:0003934 | mesenchyme pectoral fin |
| UBERON:0003935 | mesenchyme pelvic fin |
| UBERON:0003936 | postoptic commissure |
| UBERON:0003937 | reproductive gland |
| UBERON:0003939 | transverse gyrus of Heschl |
| UBERON:0003941 | cerebellum anterior vermis |
| UBERON:0003942 | somatosensory system |
| UBERON:0003943 | fourth lumbar dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0003945 | somatic motor system |
| UBERON:0003948 | blood-air barrier |
| UBERON:0003949 | tubal tonsil |
| UBERON:0003950 | inner ear canal |
| UBERON:0003951 | ocular fundus |
| UBERON:0003952 | anterior stroma of cornea |
| UBERON:0003953 | posterior stroma of cornea |
| UBERON:0003954 | squamoparietal suture |
| UBERON:0003955 | molar crown |
| UBERON:0003956 | aqueous drainage system |
| UBERON:0003957 | Bruch's membrane |
| UBERON:0003958 | long bone epiphyseal ossification zone |
| UBERON:0003959 | rete testis |
| UBERON:0003960 | styloid process of temporal bone |
| UBERON:0003961 | cingulum of brain |
| UBERON:0003962 | pterygopalatine ganglion |
| UBERON:0003963 | otic ganglion |
| UBERON:0003964 | prevertebral ganglion |
| UBERON:0003965 | sympathetic afferent fiber |
| UBERON:0003966 | gonial bone |
| UBERON:0003967 | cutaneous elastic tissue |
| UBERON:0003968 | peripheral lymph node |
| UBERON:0003973 | nasal concha of ethmoid bone |
| UBERON:0003974 | upper part of vagina |
| UBERON:0003975 | internal female genitalia |
| UBERON:0003976 | saccule duct |
| UBERON:0003977 | utricle duct |
| UBERON:0003978 | valve |
| UBERON:0003980 | cerebellum fissure |
| UBERON:0003981 | primordial ovarian follicle |
| UBERON:0003982 | mature ovarian follicle |
| UBERON:0003983 | conus arteriosus |
| UBERON:0003984 | uterine tube infundibulum |
| UBERON:0003985 | major sublingual duct |
| UBERON:0003986 | minor sublingual duct |
| UBERON:0003987 | Hassall's corpuscle |
| UBERON:0003988 | thymus corticomedullary boundary |
| UBERON:0003989 | medulla oblongata anterior median fissure |
| UBERON:0003991 | fourth ventricle median aperture |
| UBERON:0003992 | fourth ventricle lateral aperture |
| UBERON:0003993 | interventricular foramen of CNS |
| UBERON:0003994 | pelvic ligament |
| UBERON:0003995 | subarcuate fossa |
| UBERON:0003996 | cervical vertebra 1 arcus anterior |
| UBERON:0003997 | hyoid bone greater horn |
| UBERON:0003998 | hyoid bone lesser horn |
| UBERON:0003999 | hyoid bone body |
| UBERON:0004000 | tarsal gland acinus |
| UBERON:0004001 | olfactory bulb layer |
| UBERON:0004002 | posterior lobe of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0004003 | cerebellum hemisphere lobule |
| UBERON:0004004 | cerebellum lobule |
| UBERON:0004006 | cerebellum intermediate zone |
| UBERON:0004008 | cerebellar plate |
| UBERON:0004009 | cerebellum posterior vermis |
| UBERON:0004012 | golgi tendon organ |
| UBERON:0004013 | egg cylinder |
| UBERON:0004014 | labium minora |
| UBERON:0004016 | dermatome |
| UBERON:0004017 | periocular mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0004019 | baroreceptor |
| UBERON:0004021 | spongiotrophoblast layer |
| UBERON:0004023 | ganglionic eminence |
| UBERON:0004024 | medial ganglionic eminence |
| UBERON:0004025 | lateral ganglionic eminence |
| UBERON:0004026 | caudal ganglionic eminence |
| UBERON:0004027 | chorionic plate |
| UBERON:0004029 | canal of Schlemm |
| UBERON:0004030 | aqueous vein |
| UBERON:0004031 | head ectomesenchyme |
| UBERON:0004035 | cortical subplate |
| UBERON:0004040 | cortical intermediate zone |
| UBERON:0004041 | spleen primary B follicle |
| UBERON:0004042 | spleen secondary B follicle |
| UBERON:0004043 | semicircular canal ampulla |
| UBERON:0004044 | anterior visceral endoderm |
| UBERON:0004045 | tailgut |
| UBERON:0004047 | basal cistern |
| UBERON:0004048 | pontine cistern |
| UBERON:0004049 | cerebellomedullary cistern |
| UBERON:0004050 | subarachnoid cistern |
| UBERON:0004051 | lateral cerebellomedullary cistern |
| UBERON:0004052 | quadrigeminal cistern |
| UBERON:0004053 | external male genitalia |
| UBERON:0004054 | internal male genitalia |
| UBERON:0004055 | primitive pit |
| UBERON:0004056 | primitive groove |
| UBERON:0004058 | biliary ductule |
| UBERON:0004060 | neural tube ventricular layer |
| UBERON:0004061 | neural tube mantle layer |
| UBERON:0004062 | neural tube marginal layer |
| UBERON:0004063 | spinal cord alar plate |
| UBERON:0004064 | neural tube basal plate |
| UBERON:0004066 | frontonasal prominence |
| UBERON:0004067 | lateral nasal prominence |
| UBERON:0004068 | medial nasal prominence |
| UBERON:0004069 | accessory olfactory bulb |
| UBERON:0004070 | cerebellum vermis lobule |
| UBERON:0004073 | cerebellum interpositus nucleus |
| UBERON:0004074 | cerebellum vermis lobule I |
| UBERON:0004075 | cerebellum vermis lobule II |
| UBERON:0004076 | cerebellum vermis lobule III |
| UBERON:0004077 | cerebellum vermis lobule IV |
| UBERON:0004078 | cerebellum vermis lobule IX |
| UBERON:0004079 | cerebellum vermis lobule V |
| UBERON:0004080 | cerebellum vermis lobule VI |
| UBERON:0004081 | cerebellum vermis lobule VII |
| UBERON:0004082 | cerebellum vermis lobule VIII |
| UBERON:0004083 | cerebellum vermis lobule X |
| UBERON:0004084 | genital labium |
| UBERON:0004085 | labium majora |
| UBERON:0004086 | brain ventricle |
| UBERON:0004087 | vena cava |
| UBERON:0004088 | orbital region |
| UBERON:0004089 | midface |
| UBERON:0004090 | periorbital region |
| UBERON:0004096 | odontoid process of cervical vertebra 2 |
| UBERON:0004099 | joint space of elbow |
| UBERON:0004100 | renal collecting system |
| UBERON:0004103 | alveolar ridge |
| UBERON:0004104 | hairline |
| UBERON:0004106 | crus of ear |
| UBERON:0004108 | clivus of occipital bone |
| UBERON:0004109 | cortex of humerus |
| UBERON:0004110 | midnasal cavity |
| UBERON:0004111 | anatomical conduit |
| UBERON:0004113 | muscle of auditory ossicle |
| UBERON:0004114 | tympanic cavity |
| UBERON:0004115 | blood vessel of tympanic cavity |
| UBERON:0004116 | nerve of tympanic cavity |
| UBERON:0004117 | pharyngeal pouch |
| UBERON:0004118 | vasculature of iris |
| UBERON:0004122 | genitourinary system |
| UBERON:0004123 | myocardial layer |
| UBERON:0004124 | myocardium trabecular layer |
| UBERON:0004125 | myocardial compact layer |
| UBERON:0004126 | trabecular layer of ventricle |
| UBERON:0004127 | compact layer of ventricle |
| UBERON:0004128 | optic vesicle |
| UBERON:0004130 | cerebellar layer |
| UBERON:0004132 | trigeminal sensory nucleus |
| UBERON:0004134 | proximal tubule |
| UBERON:0004135 | distal tubule |
| UBERON:0004136 | intermediate tubule |
| UBERON:0004139 | cardiogenic plate |
| UBERON:0004140 | primary heart field |
| UBERON:0004141 | heart tube |
| UBERON:0004142 | outflow tract septum |
| UBERON:0004145 | outflow tract |
| UBERON:0004148 | cardiac vein |
| UBERON:0004149 | ventriculo bulbo valve |
| UBERON:0004150 | coronary sinus valve |
| UBERON:0004151 | cardiac chamber |
| UBERON:0004152 | bulbus arteriosus |
| UBERON:0004153 | ventricular septum intermedium |
| UBERON:0004154 | atrial septum primum |
| UBERON:0004155 | atrial septum secundum |
| UBERON:0004160 | proepicardium |
| UBERON:0004161 | septum transversum |
| UBERON:0004164 | branchiomeric muscle |
| UBERON:0004167 | orbitofrontal cortex |
| UBERON:0004170 | spinal cord ventral commissure |
| UBERON:0004171 | trigeminothalamic tract |
| UBERON:0004172 | pons reticulospinal tract |
| UBERON:0004173 | medulla reticulospinal tract |
| UBERON:0004175 | internal genitalia |
| UBERON:0004176 | external genitalia |
| UBERON:0004177 | hemopoietic organ |
| UBERON:0004178 | aorta smooth muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0004179 | prostate glandular acinus |
| UBERON:0004180 | mammary gland fat |
| UBERON:0004184 | prostate gland stroma |
| UBERON:0004185 | endodermal part of digestive tract |
| UBERON:0004186 | olfactory bulb mitral cell layer |
| UBERON:0004187 | Harderian gland |
| UBERON:0004188 | glomerular epithelium |
| UBERON:0004189 | glomerular endothelium |
| UBERON:0004193 | loop of Henle ascending limb thin segment |
| UBERON:0004194 | long nephron |
| UBERON:0004195 | short nephron |
| UBERON:0004196 | proximal convoluted tubule segment 1 |
| UBERON:0004197 | proximal convoluted tubule segment 2 |
| UBERON:0004198 | comma-shaped body |
| UBERON:0004199 | S-shaped body |
| UBERON:0004200 | kidney pyramid |
| UBERON:0004201 | kidney outer medulla inner stripe |
| UBERON:0004202 | kidney outer medulla outer stripe |
| UBERON:0004203 | cortical collecting duct |
| UBERON:0004204 | outer medullary collecting duct |
| UBERON:0004205 | inner medullary collecting duct |
| UBERON:0004212 | glomerular capillary |
| UBERON:0004214 | upper leg nerve |
| UBERON:0004215 | back nerve |
| UBERON:0004216 | lower arm nerve |
| UBERON:0004217 | upper arm nerve |
| UBERON:0004218 | lower leg nerve |
| UBERON:0004219 | urethra smooth muscle layer |
| UBERON:0004220 | large intestine smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004221 | intestine smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004222 | stomach smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004223 | vagina smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004224 | muscular coat of vas deferens |
| UBERON:0004225 | respiratory system smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004226 | gastrointestinal system smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004227 | kidney pelvis smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004228 | urinary bladder smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004229 | urinary bladder trigone smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004230 | urinary bladder neck smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004231 | anal region smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004232 | lymphatic vessel smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004233 | lower respiratory tract smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004234 | iris smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004235 | mammary gland smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004236 | arteriole smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004237 | blood vessel smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004238 | spleen smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004239 | small intestine smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004240 | gallbladder smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004241 | main bronchus smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004242 | bronchus smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004243 | prostate gland smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004245 | oviduct smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004246 | outflow tract smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004247 | bone of dorsum |
| UBERON:0004248 | pedal digit bone |
| UBERON:0004249 | manual digit bone |
| UBERON:0004250 | upper arm bone |
| UBERON:0004251 | hindlimb zeugopod bone |
| UBERON:0004252 | hindlimb stylopod muscle |
| UBERON:0004253 | skin muscle |
| UBERON:0004254 | forelimb zeugopod muscle |
| UBERON:0004255 | forelimb stylopod muscle |
| UBERON:0004256 | hindlimb zeugopod muscle |
| UBERON:0004257 | upper leg blood vessel |
| UBERON:0004258 | back blood vessel |
| UBERON:0004259 | lower arm blood vessel |
| UBERON:0004260 | upper arm blood vessel |
| UBERON:0004261 | lower leg blood vessel |
| UBERON:0004262 | upper leg skin |
| UBERON:0004263 | upper arm skin |
| UBERON:0004264 | lower leg skin |
| UBERON:0004265 | outflow tract myocardium |
| UBERON:0004266 | upper leg connective tissue |
| UBERON:0004267 | back connective tissue |
| UBERON:0004268 | lower arm connective tissue |
| UBERON:0004269 | upper arm connective tissue |
| UBERON:0004270 | lower leg connective tissue |
| UBERON:0004271 | outflow tract pericardium |
| UBERON:0004273 | cartilaginous joint suture |
| UBERON:0004274 | lateral ventricle choroid plexus epithelium |
| UBERON:0004275 | third ventricle choroid plexus epithelium |
| UBERON:0004276 | fourth ventricle choroid plexus epithelium |
| UBERON:0004277 | eye muscle |
| UBERON:0004288 | skeleton |
| UBERON:0004289 | radula |
| UBERON:0004290 | dermomyotome |
| UBERON:0004291 | heart rudiment |
| UBERON:0004292 | cardiac skeleton |
| UBERON:0004293 | parasympathetic nerve |
| UBERON:0004294 | glomerular capillary endothelium |
| UBERON:0004295 | sympathetic nerve trunk |
| UBERON:0004296 | respiratory system lymphatic vessel smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004297 | respiratory system blood vessel smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004300 | distal phalanx |
| UBERON:0004301 | middle phalanx |
| UBERON:0004302 | proximal phalanx |
| UBERON:0004311 | distal phalanx of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0004312 | distal phalanx of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0004313 | distal phalanx of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0004314 | distal phalanx of manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0004315 | distal phalanx of pedal digit 1 |
| UBERON:0004316 | distal phalanx of pedal digit 2 |
| UBERON:0004317 | distal phalanx of pedal digit 3 |
| UBERON:0004318 | distal phalanx of pedal digit 4 |
| UBERON:0004319 | distal phalanx of pedal digit 5 |
| UBERON:0004320 | middle phalanx of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0004321 | middle phalanx of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0004322 | middle phalanx of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0004323 | middle phalanx of manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0004324 | middle phalanx of pedal digit 2 |
| UBERON:0004325 | middle phalanx of pedal digit 3 |
| UBERON:0004326 | middle phalanx of pedal digit 4 |
| UBERON:0004327 | middle phalanx of pedal digit 5 |
| UBERON:0004328 | proximal phalanx of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0004329 | proximal phalanx of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0004330 | proximal phalanx of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0004331 | proximal phalanx of manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0004332 | proximal phalanx of pedal digit 1 |
| UBERON:0004333 | proximal phalanx of pedal digit 2 |
| UBERON:0004334 | proximal phalanx of pedal digit 3 |
| UBERON:0004335 | proximal phalanx of pedal digit 4 |
| UBERON:0004336 | proximal phalanx of pedal digit 5 |
| UBERON:0004337 | distal phalanx of manual digit 1 |
| UBERON:0004338 | proximal phalanx of manual digit 1 |
| UBERON:0004339 | vault of skull |
| UBERON:0004340 | allantois |
| UBERON:0004341 | primitive streak |
| UBERON:0004344 | cardinal vein |
| UBERON:0004345 | trophectoderm |
| UBERON:0004346 | gubernaculum (male or female) |
| UBERON:0004347 | limb bud |
| UBERON:0004348 | optic eminence |
| UBERON:0004353 | female inguinal canal |
| UBERON:0004354 | male inguinal canal |
| UBERON:0004356 | apical ectodermal ridge |
| UBERON:0004357 | paired limb/fin bud |
| UBERON:0004358 | caput epididymis |
| UBERON:0004359 | corpus epididymis |
| UBERON:0004360 | cauda epididymis |
| UBERON:0004361 | stylohyoid ligament |
| UBERON:0004362 | pharyngeal arch 1 |
| UBERON:0004363 | pharyngeal arch artery |
| UBERON:0004364 | ectoplacental cone |
| UBERON:0004365 | vitelline blood vessel |
| UBERON:0004366 | extraembryonic ectoderm |
| UBERON:0004367 | Descemet's membrane |
| UBERON:0004368 | Reichert's cartilage |
| UBERON:0004369 | Reichert's membrane |
| UBERON:0004370 | anterior limiting lamina of cornea |
| UBERON:0004374 | vitelline vasculature |
| UBERON:0004377 | distal metaphysis |
| UBERON:0004378 | proximal metaphysis |
| UBERON:0004379 | distal epiphysis |
| UBERON:0004380 | proximal epiphysis |
| UBERON:0004381 | skeleton of limb |
| UBERON:0004382 | epiphysis of humerus |
| UBERON:0004383 | epiphysis of tibia |
| UBERON:0004384 | epiphysis of femur |
| UBERON:0004385 | epiphysis of radius |
| UBERON:0004386 | epiphysis of ulna |
| UBERON:0004387 | epiphysis of phalanx of manus |
| UBERON:0004388 | epiphysis of fibula |
| UBERON:0004389 | epiphysis of metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004390 | epiphysis of metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0004391 | epiphysis of first metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0004392 | epiphysis of second metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0004393 | epiphysis of third metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0004394 | epiphysis of fourth metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0004395 | epiphysis of first metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004396 | epiphysis of second metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004397 | epiphysis of third metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004398 | epiphysis of fourth metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004399 | epiphysis of fifth metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004400 | bone tissue of epiphysis |
| UBERON:0004401 | bone tissue of distal epiphysis |
| UBERON:0004402 | bone tissue of proximal epiphysis |
| UBERON:0004403 | periosteum of epiphysis |
| UBERON:0004404 | distal epiphysis of humerus |
| UBERON:0004405 | distal epiphysis of tibia |
| UBERON:0004406 | distal epiphysis of femur |
| UBERON:0004407 | distal epiphysis of radius |
| UBERON:0004408 | distal epiphysis of ulna |
| UBERON:0004409 | distal epiphysis of phalanx of manus |
| UBERON:0004410 | distal epiphysis of fibula |
| UBERON:0004411 | proximal epiphysis of humerus |
| UBERON:0004412 | proximal epiphysis of femur |
| UBERON:0004413 | proximal epiphysis of radius |
| UBERON:0004414 | proximal epiphysis of phalanx of manus |
| UBERON:0004415 | proximal epiphysis of metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004416 | proximal epiphysis of metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0004417 | proximal epiphysis of phalanx of manual digit 1 |
| UBERON:0004418 | proximal epiphysis of phalanx of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0004419 | proximal epiphysis of phalanx of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0004420 | proximal epiphysis of phalanx of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0004421 | proximal epiphysis of phalanx of manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0004422 | proximal epiphysis of first metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0004423 | proximal epiphysis of second metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0004424 | proximal epiphysis of third metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0004425 | proximal epiphysis of fourth metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0004426 | proximal epiphysis of fifth metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0004427 | proximal epiphysis of first metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004428 | proximal epiphysis of second metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004429 | proximal epiphysis of third metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004430 | proximal epiphysis of fourth metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004431 | proximal epiphysis of fifth metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0004432 | proximal epiphysis of distal phalanx of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0004433 | proximal epiphysis of distal phalanx of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0004434 | proximal epiphysis of distal phalanx of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0004435 | proximal epiphysis of distal phalanx of manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0004436 | proximal epiphysis of middle phalanx of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0004437 | proximal epiphysis of middle phalanx of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0004438 | proximal epiphysis of middle phalanx of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0004439 | proximal epiphysis of middle phalanx of manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0004440 | proximal epiphysis of proximal phalanx of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0004441 | proximal epiphysis of proximal phalanx of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0004442 | proximal epiphysis of proximal phalanx of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0004443 | proximal epiphysis of proximal phalanx of manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0004444 | proximal epiphysis of distal phalanx of manual digit 1 |
| UBERON:0004445 | proximal epiphysis of proximal phalanx of manual digit 1 |
| UBERON:0004446 | epiphysis of phalanx |
| UBERON:0004448 | distal epiphysis of phalanx |
| UBERON:0004449 | cerebral artery |
| UBERON:0004450 | gastric vein |
| UBERON:0004451 | trunk or cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0004452 | carpal region |
| UBERON:0004453 | metacarpus region |
| UBERON:0004454 | tarsal region |
| UBERON:0004455 | neurula embryo |
| UBERON:0004456 | entire sense organ system |
| UBERON:0004461 | skeletal musculature of head |
| UBERON:0004462 | musculature of body wall |
| UBERON:0004463 | musculature of hindlimb stylopod |
| UBERON:0004464 | musculature of thorax |
| UBERON:0004465 | musculature of neck |
| UBERON:0004466 | musculature of leg |
| UBERON:0004467 | musculature of pharynx |
| UBERON:0004468 | set of muscles of vertebral column |
| UBERON:0004469 | musculature of back |
| UBERON:0004470 | musculature of pelvic girdle |
| UBERON:0004471 | musculature of pectoral girdle |
| UBERON:0004473 | musculature of face |
| UBERON:0004474 | musculature of arm |
| UBERON:0004475 | musculature of hip |
| UBERON:0004476 | musculature of shoulder |
| UBERON:0004478 | musculature of larynx |
| UBERON:0004479 | musculature of trunk |
| UBERON:0004480 | musculature of limb |
| UBERON:0004481 | musculature of upper limb |
| UBERON:0004482 | musculature of lower limb |
| UBERON:0004486 | musculature of perineum |
| UBERON:0004487 | musculature of forelimb zeugopod |
| UBERON:0004488 | musculature of pes |
| UBERON:0004489 | musculature of manus |
| UBERON:0004490 | cardiac muscle tissue of atrium |
| UBERON:0004491 | cardiac muscle tissue of interatrial septum |
| UBERON:0004492 | cardiac muscle tissue of cardiac septum |
| UBERON:0004493 | cardiac muscle tissue of myocardium |
| UBERON:0004494 | cardiac muscle tissue of papillary muscle |
| UBERON:0004495 | skeletal muscle tissue of diaphragm |
| UBERON:0004496 | skeletal muscle tissue of iliacus |
| UBERON:0004497 | skeletal muscle tissue of gluteus maximus |
| UBERON:0004498 | skeletal muscle tissue of quadriceps femoris |
| UBERON:0004499 | skeletal muscle tissue of tibialis anterior |
| UBERON:0004500 | skeletal muscle tissue of deltoid |
| UBERON:0004501 | skeletal muscle tissue of teres major |
| UBERON:0004502 | skeletal muscle tissue of biceps brachii |
| UBERON:0004503 | skeletal muscle tissue of digastric |
| UBERON:0004504 | skeletal muscle tissue of mylohyoid |
| UBERON:0004505 | skeletal muscle tissue of orbicularis oculi |
| UBERON:0004506 | skeletal muscle tissue of masseter |
| UBERON:0004507 | skeletal muscle tissue of temporalis |
| UBERON:0004508 | skeletal muscle tissue of levator palpebrae superioris |
| UBERON:0004509 | skeletal muscle tissue of trapezius |
| UBERON:0004510 | skeletal muscle tissue of pectoralis major |
| UBERON:0004511 | skeletal muscle tissue of rectus abdominis |
| UBERON:0004512 | skeletal muscle tissue of supraspinatus |
| UBERON:0004513 | skeletal muscle tissue of internal intercostal muscle |
| UBERON:0004514 | skeletal muscle tissue of transversus thoracis |
| UBERON:0004515 | smooth muscle tissue of bronchiole |
| UBERON:0004516 | smooth muscle tissue of terminal bronchiole |
| UBERON:0004517 | smooth muscle tissue of respiratory bronchiole |
| UBERON:0004518 | muscle of vertebral column |
| UBERON:0004519 | muscle of anal triangle |
| UBERON:0004520 | striated muscle tissue of prostate |
| UBERON:0004521 | vasculature of muscle organ |
| UBERON:0004522 | vasculature of musculoskeletal system |
| UBERON:0004523 | papillary muscle of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0004524 | papillary muscle of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0004525 | cardiac muscle tissue of trabecula carnea of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0004526 | cardiac muscle tissue of trabecula carnea of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0004527 | alveolar process of maxilla |
| UBERON:0004528 | alveolar ridge of mandible |
| UBERON:0004529 | anatomical projection |
| UBERON:0004530 | bony projection |
| UBERON:0004533 | left testis |
| UBERON:0004534 | right testis |
| UBERON:0004535 | cardiovascular system |
| UBERON:0004536 | lymph vasculature |
| UBERON:0004537 | blood vasculature |
| UBERON:0004538 | left kidney |
| UBERON:0004539 | right kidney |
| UBERON:0004540 | proper plantar digital artery |
| UBERON:0004544 | epididymis epithelium |
| UBERON:0004545 | external capsule of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0004546 | cribriform plate |
| UBERON:0004547 | decidua capsularis |
| UBERON:0004548 | left eye |
| UBERON:0004549 | right eye |
| UBERON:0004550 | gastroesophageal sphincter |
| UBERON:0004552 | digital artery |
| UBERON:0004553 | forelimb digital artery |
| UBERON:0004554 | hindlimb digital artery |
| UBERON:0004561 | proper palmar digital vein |
| UBERON:0004562 | digital vein |
| UBERON:0004563 | forelimb digital vein |
| UBERON:0004564 | hindlimb digital vein |
| UBERON:0004571 | systemic arterial system |
| UBERON:0004572 | arterial system |
| UBERON:0004573 | systemic artery |
| UBERON:0004581 | systemic venous system |
| UBERON:0004582 | venous system |
| UBERON:0004590 | sphincter muscle |
| UBERON:0004601 | rib 1 |
| UBERON:0004602 | rib 2 |
| UBERON:0004603 | rib 3 |
| UBERON:0004604 | rib 4 |
| UBERON:0004605 | rib 5 |
| UBERON:0004606 | rib 6 |
| UBERON:0004607 | rib 7 |
| UBERON:0004608 | rib 9 |
| UBERON:0004609 | rib 10 |
| UBERON:0004610 | rib 11 |
| UBERON:0004611 | rib 12 |
| UBERON:0004612 | mammalian cervical vertebra 3 |
| UBERON:0004613 | mammalian cervical vertebra 4 |
| UBERON:0004614 | mammalian cervical vertebra 5 |
| UBERON:0004615 | mammalian cervical vertebra 6 |
| UBERON:0004616 | mammalian cervical vertebra 7 |
| UBERON:0004617 | lumbar vertebra 1 |
| UBERON:0004618 | lumbar vertebra 2 |
| UBERON:0004619 | lumbar vertebra 3 |
| UBERON:0004620 | lumbar vertebra 4 |
| UBERON:0004621 | lumbar vertebra 5 |
| UBERON:0004622 | sacral vertebra 1 |
| UBERON:0004623 | sacral vertebra 2 |
| UBERON:0004624 | sacral vertebra 3 |
| UBERON:0004625 | sacral vertebra 4 |
| UBERON:0004626 | thoracic vertebra 1 |
| UBERON:0004627 | thoracic vertebra 2 |
| UBERON:0004628 | thoracic vertebra 3 |
| UBERON:0004629 | thoracic vertebra 4 |
| UBERON:0004630 | thoracic vertebra 5 |
| UBERON:0004631 | thoracic vertebra 6 |
| UBERON:0004632 | thoracic vertebra 7 |
| UBERON:0004633 | thoracic vertebra 9 |
| UBERON:0004634 | thoracic vertebra 10 |
| UBERON:0004635 | thoracic vertebra 11 |
| UBERON:0004636 | thoracic vertebra 12 |
| UBERON:0004637 | otic capsule |
| UBERON:0004638 | blood vessel endothelium |
| UBERON:0004639 | renal afferent arteriole |
| UBERON:0004640 | renal efferent arteriole |
| UBERON:0004641 | spleen capsule |
| UBERON:0004642 | third ventricle ependyma |
| UBERON:0004643 | lateral ventricle ependyma |
| UBERON:0004644 | fourth ventricle ependyma |
| UBERON:0004645 | urinary bladder urothelium |
| UBERON:0004646 | infraorbital artery |
| UBERON:0004647 | liver lobule |
| UBERON:0004648 | esophagus muscularis mucosa |
| UBERON:0004649 | sphenoid bone pterygoid process |
| UBERON:0004650 | tongue keratinized epithelium |
| UBERON:0004651 | scapula spine |
| UBERON:0004652 | humerus diaphysis |
| UBERON:0004654 | temporal process of zygomatic bone |
| UBERON:0004655 | zygomatic process of temporal bone |
| UBERON:0004657 | mandible condylar process |
| UBERON:0004658 | mandible head |
| UBERON:0004659 | mandible neck |
| UBERON:0004660 | mandible coronoid process |
| UBERON:0004661 | mandible temporal crest |
| UBERON:0004662 | vertebra lamina |
| UBERON:0004663 | aorta wall |
| UBERON:0004664 | aorta tunica adventitia |
| UBERON:0004665 | muscular coat of seminal vesicle |
| UBERON:0004666 | interventricular septum membranous part |
| UBERON:0004667 | interventricular septum muscular part |
| UBERON:0004668 | fourth ventricle aperture |
| UBERON:0004670 | ependyma |
| UBERON:0004671 | gyrus rectus |
| UBERON:0004672 | posterior horn lateral ventricle |
| UBERON:0004673 | trigeminal nerve root |
| UBERON:0004674 | facial nerve root |
| UBERON:0004675 | hypoglossal nerve root |
| UBERON:0004676 | spinal cord lateral horn |
| UBERON:0004677 | spinal cord gray commissure |
| UBERON:0004678 | apex of spinal cord dorsal horn |
| UBERON:0004679 | dentate gyrus molecular layer |
| UBERON:0004680 | body of fornix |
| UBERON:0004681 | vestibular system |
| UBERON:0004682 | corona radiata of neuraxis |
| UBERON:0004683 | parasubiculum |
| UBERON:0004684 | raphe nuclei |
| UBERON:0004686 | gastro-splenic ligament |
| UBERON:0004687 | lieno-renal ligament |
| UBERON:0004688 | costo-cervical trunk |
| UBERON:0004689 | naso-frontal vein |
| UBERON:0004690 | pancreaticoduodenal vein |
| UBERON:0004691 | bulbourethral gland secretion |
| UBERON:0004692 | external naris epithelium |
| UBERON:0004693 | Peyer's patch epithelium |
| UBERON:0004694 | Harderian gland epithelium |
| UBERON:0004695 | arterial system smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004696 | venous system smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004697 | Peyer's patch germinal center |
| UBERON:0004698 | vena cava endothelium |
| UBERON:0004699 | outflow tract endothelium |
| UBERON:0004700 | arterial system endothelium |
| UBERON:0004701 | venous system endothelium |
| UBERON:0004702 | respiratory system blood vessel endothelium |
| UBERON:0004703 | dorsal thalamus |
| UBERON:0004704 | bone fossa |
| UBERON:0004706 | bulbus cordis |
| UBERON:0004707 | pharyngula stage |
| UBERON:0004708 | paired limb/fin |
| UBERON:0004709 | pelvic appendage |
| UBERON:0004710 | pectoral appendage |
| UBERON:0004711 | jugular vein |
| UBERON:0004713 | corpus cavernosum penis |
| UBERON:0004714 | septum pellucidum |
| UBERON:0004715 | annulus fibrosus disci intervertebralis |
| UBERON:0004716 | conceptus |
| UBERON:0004717 | Brodmann (1909) area 29 |
| UBERON:0004718 | Brodmann (1909) area 26 |
| UBERON:0004719 | kidney arcuate vein |
| UBERON:0004720 | cerebellar vermis |
| UBERON:0004721 | crista ampullaris |
| UBERON:0004722 | deep cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0004723 | interlobular artery |
| UBERON:0004724 | medial palpebral ligament |
| UBERON:0004725 | piriform cortex |
| UBERON:0004726 | vasa recta |
| UBERON:0004727 | cochlear nerve |
| UBERON:0004729 | nematode larval stage |
| UBERON:0004730 | instar larval stage |
| UBERON:0004731 | neuromere |
| UBERON:0004733 | segmental subdivision of hindbrain |
| UBERON:0004734 | gastrula |
| UBERON:0004735 | archenteron |
| UBERON:0004736 | metanephric glomerulus |
| UBERON:0004737 | metanephric collecting duct |
| UBERON:0004739 | pronephric glomerulus |
| UBERON:0004740 | basibranchial bone |
| UBERON:0004741 | cleithrum |
| UBERON:0004742 | dentary |
| UBERON:0004743 | coracoid bone |
| UBERON:0004744 | articular/anguloarticular |
| UBERON:0004745 | parasphenoid |
| UBERON:0004746 | prootic bone |
| UBERON:0004747 | supraoccipital bone |
| UBERON:0004749 | blastodisc |
| UBERON:0004750 | blastoderm |
| UBERON:0004751 | hypohyal bone |
| UBERON:0004752 | palatoquadrate cartilage |
| UBERON:0004753 | scapulocoracoid |
| UBERON:0004754 | foramen ovale of heart |
| UBERON:0004755 | skeletal tissue |
| UBERON:0004757 | rectal salt gland |
| UBERON:0004758 | salt gland |
| UBERON:0004760 | gland of anal canal |
| UBERON:0004761 | cartilaginous neurocranium |
| UBERON:0004763 | endochondral bone tissue |
| UBERON:0004764 | intramembranous bone tissue |
| UBERON:0004765 | skeletal element |
| UBERON:0004766 | cranial bone |
| UBERON:0004767 | vomerine tooth |
| UBERON:0004769 | diaphysis |
| UBERON:0004770 | articular system |
| UBERON:0004771 | posterior nasal aperture |
| UBERON:0004772 | eyelid tarsus |
| UBERON:0004773 | superior eyelid tarsus |
| UBERON:0004774 | inferior eyelid tarsus |
| UBERON:0004775 | outer renal medulla vasa recta |
| UBERON:0004776 | inner renal medulla vasa recta |
| UBERON:0004777 | respiratory system submucosa |
| UBERON:0004778 | larynx submucosa |
| UBERON:0004779 | respiratory system lamina propria |
| UBERON:0004780 | gastrointestinal system lamina propria |
| UBERON:0004781 | gallbladder lamina propria |
| UBERON:0004782 | gastrointestinal system serosa |
| UBERON:0004783 | gallbladder serosa |
| UBERON:0004784 | heart ventricle wall |
| UBERON:0004785 | respiratory system mucosa |
| UBERON:0004786 | gastrointestinal system mucosa |
| UBERON:0004787 | urethra urothelium |
| UBERON:0004788 | kidney pelvis urothelium |
| UBERON:0004789 | larynx mucous gland |
| UBERON:0004790 | skin mucous gland |
| UBERON:0004791 | thymus trabecula |
| UBERON:0004792 | secretion of endocrine pancreas |
| UBERON:0004793 | secretion of exocrine pancreas |
| UBERON:0004794 | esophagus secretion |
| UBERON:0004795 | pancreas secretion |
| UBERON:0004796 | prostate gland secretion |
| UBERON:0004797 | blood vessel layer |
| UBERON:0004798 | respiratory system basal lamina |
| UBERON:0004799 | trachea basal lamina |
| UBERON:0004800 | bronchus basal lamina |
| UBERON:0004801 | cervix epithelium |
| UBERON:0004802 | respiratory tract epithelium |
| UBERON:0004803 | penis epithelium |
| UBERON:0004804 | oviduct epithelium |
| UBERON:0004805 | seminal vesicle epithelium |
| UBERON:0004806 | vas deferens epithelium |
| UBERON:0004807 | respiratory system epithelium |
| UBERON:0004808 | gastrointestinal system epithelium |
| UBERON:0004809 | salivary gland epithelium |
| UBERON:0004810 | nephron tubule epithelium |
| UBERON:0004811 | endometrium epithelium |
| UBERON:0004812 | male prepuce epithelium |
| UBERON:0004813 | seminiferous tubule epithelium |
| UBERON:0004814 | upper respiratory tract epithelium |
| UBERON:0004815 | lower respiratory tract epithelium |
| UBERON:0004816 | larynx epithelium |
| UBERON:0004817 | lacrimal gland epithelium |
| UBERON:0004818 | terminal bronchus epithelium |
| UBERON:0004819 | kidney epithelium |
| UBERON:0004820 | bile duct epithelium |
| UBERON:0004821 | pulmonary alveolus epithelium |
| UBERON:0004822 | extrahepatic bile duct epithelium |
| UBERON:0004823 | intrahepatic bile duct epithelium |
| UBERON:0004825 | dental lamina |
| UBERON:0004827 | thyroid gland medulla |
| UBERON:0004829 | urethra skeletal muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0004830 | respiratory system skeletal muscle |
| UBERON:0004831 | esophagus skeletal muscle |
| UBERON:0004832 | anal region skeletal muscle |
| UBERON:0004833 | lip skeletal muscle |
| UBERON:0004834 | hepatic duct smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004835 | epididymis smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004848 | respiratory system arterial endothelium |
| UBERON:0004849 | respiratory system venous endothelium |
| UBERON:0004850 | lymph node endothelium |
| UBERON:0004851 | aorta endothelium |
| UBERON:0004852 | cardiovascular system endothelium |
| UBERON:0004854 | gastrointestinal system mesentery |
| UBERON:0004857 | skeletal muscle connective tissue |
| UBERON:0004858 | cellular cartilage |
| UBERON:0004859 | eye gland |
| UBERON:0004861 | right lung alveolus |
| UBERON:0004862 | left lung alveolus |
| UBERON:0004863 | thoracic sympathetic nerve trunk |
| UBERON:0004864 | vasculature of retina |
| UBERON:0004865 | actinopterygian parietal bone |
| UBERON:0004866 | actinopterygian frontal bone |
| UBERON:0004867 | orbital cavity |
| UBERON:0004868 | tapetum lucidum of camera-type eye |
| UBERON:0004869 | parietal organ |
| UBERON:0004870 | superficial cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0004871 | somatic layer of lateral plate mesoderm |
| UBERON:0004872 | splanchnic layer of lateral plate mesoderm |
| UBERON:0004873 | splanchnopleure |
| UBERON:0004874 | somatopleure |
| UBERON:0004875 | nephrogenic cord |
| UBERON:0004876 | urogenital fold |
| UBERON:0004877 | visceral endoderm |
| UBERON:0004879 | marginal zone of embryo |
| UBERON:0004880 | chordamesoderm |
| UBERON:0004882 | eponychium |
| UBERON:0004883 | lung mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0004884 | lobar bronchus mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0004885 | hilum |
| UBERON:0004886 | lung hilus |
| UBERON:0004887 | left lung hilus |
| UBERON:0004888 | right lung hilus |
| UBERON:0004890 | right lung accessory lobe |
| UBERON:0004893 | interalveolar septum |
| UBERON:0004894 | alveolar wall |
| UBERON:0004895 | alveolar smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0004896 | right lung accessory lobe lobar bronchus |
| UBERON:0004897 | right lung accessory lobe lobar bronchus mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0004899 | right lung cranial lobe lobar bronchus mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0004900 | right lung middle lobe lobar bronchus mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0004901 | right lung lobar bronchus mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0004902 | urogenital sinus epithelium |
| UBERON:0004903 | bronchoalveolar duct junction |
| UBERON:0004904 | neuron projection bundle connecting eye with brain |
| UBERON:0004905 | articulation |
| UBERON:0004907 | lower digestive tract |
| UBERON:0004908 | upper digestive tract |
| UBERON:0004909 | epithelium of gonad |
| UBERON:0004910 | epithelium of male gonad |
| UBERON:0004911 | epithelium of female gonad |
| UBERON:0004912 | biliary bud |
| UBERON:0004913 | hepatopancreatic ampulla |
| UBERON:0004914 | duodenal papilla |
| UBERON:0004915 | sphincter of hepatopancreatic ampulla |
| UBERON:0004916 | anal sphincter |
| UBERON:0004917 | urethral sphincter |
| UBERON:0004918 | internal urethral sphincter |
| UBERON:0004919 | external urethral sphincter |
| UBERON:0004921 | subdivision of digestive tract |
| UBERON:0004922 | postnatal subventricular zone |
| UBERON:0004923 | organ component layer |
| UBERON:0004924 | submucosa of pharynx |
| UBERON:0004925 | submucosa of laryngopharynx |
| UBERON:0004926 | submucosa of cystic duct |
| UBERON:0004927 | submucosa of cecum |
| UBERON:0004928 | submucosa of appendix |
| UBERON:0004929 | submucosa of ascending colon |
| UBERON:0004930 | submucosa of transverse colon |
| UBERON:0004931 | submucosa of descending colon |
| UBERON:0004932 | submucosa of sigmoid colon |
| UBERON:0004933 | submucosa of fundus of stomach |
| UBERON:0004934 | submucosa of body of stomach |
| UBERON:0004935 | submucosa of cardia of stomach |
| UBERON:0004936 | submucosa of pyloric antrum |
| UBERON:0004937 | submucosa of pylorus |
| UBERON:0004938 | submucosa of biliary tree |
| UBERON:0004939 | submucosa of common bile duct |
| UBERON:0004940 | submucosa of common hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0004941 | submucosa of right hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0004942 | submucosa of left hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0004943 | submucosa of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0004944 | submucosa of trigone of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0004945 | submucosa of neck of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0004946 | submucosa of ileum |
| UBERON:0004947 | submucosa of right main bronchus |
| UBERON:0004948 | submucosa of left main bronchus |
| UBERON:0004949 | submucosa of main bronchus |
| UBERON:0004950 | submucosa of lobar bronchus |
| UBERON:0004951 | submucosa of segmental bronchus |
| UBERON:0004952 | submucosa of bronchiole |
| UBERON:0004980 | mucosa of ureter |
| UBERON:0004982 | mucosa of epiglottis |
| UBERON:0004983 | mucosa of vagina |
| UBERON:0004984 | mucosa of seminal vesicle |
| UBERON:0004985 | mucosa of ejaculatory duct |
| UBERON:0004986 | mucosa of deferent duct |
| UBERON:0004987 | mucosa of laryngopharynx |
| UBERON:0004988 | mucosa of cystic duct |
| UBERON:0004989 | mucosa of appendix |
| UBERON:0004990 | mucosa of ascending colon |
| UBERON:0004991 | mucosa of transverse colon |
| UBERON:0004992 | mucosa of descending colon |
| UBERON:0004993 | mucosa of sigmoid colon |
| UBERON:0004994 | mucosa of fundus of stomach |
| UBERON:0004995 | mucosa of body of stomach |
| UBERON:0004996 | mucosa of cardia of stomach |
| UBERON:0004997 | mucosa of pyloric antrum |
| UBERON:0004998 | mucosa of pylorus |
| UBERON:0004999 | mucosa of biliary tree |
| UBERON:0005000 | mucosa of common bile duct |
| UBERON:0005001 | mucosa of common hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0005002 | mucosa of right hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0005003 | mucosa of left hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0005004 | mucosa of right ureter |
| UBERON:0005005 | mucosa of left ureter |
| UBERON:0005006 | mucosa of renal pelvis |
| UBERON:0005007 | mucosa of major calyx |
| UBERON:0005008 | mucosa of minor calyx |
| UBERON:0005009 | mucosa of trigone of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0005010 | mucosa of neck of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0005011 | mucosa of right fallopian tube |
| UBERON:0005012 | mucosa of left fallopian tube |
| UBERON:0005013 | mucosa of male urethra |
| UBERON:0005014 | mucosa of female urethra |
| UBERON:0005015 | mucosa of prostatic urethra |
| UBERON:0005016 | mucosa of intermediate urethra |
| UBERON:0005017 | mucosa of lacrimal sac |
| UBERON:0005018 | mucosa of nasal septum |
| UBERON:0005019 | mucosa of palate |
| UBERON:0005020 | mucosa of tongue |
| UBERON:0005021 | mucosa of sphenoidal sinus |
| UBERON:0005022 | mucosa of nasopharynx |
| UBERON:0005023 | mucosa of oropharynx |
| UBERON:0005024 | mucosa of soft palate |
| UBERON:0005025 | mucosa of uvula |
| UBERON:0005026 | mucosa of middle ear |
| UBERON:0005027 | mucosa of frontal sinus |
| UBERON:0005028 | mucosa of maxillary sinus |
| UBERON:0005029 | mucosa of lacrimal canaliculus |
| UBERON:0005030 | mucosa of paranasal sinus |
| UBERON:0005031 | mucosa of upper lip |
| UBERON:0005032 | mucosa of lower lip |
| UBERON:0005033 | mucosa of gallbladder |
| UBERON:0005034 | mucosa of right main bronchus |
| UBERON:0005035 | mucosa of left main bronchus |
| UBERON:0005036 | mucosa of main bronchus |
| UBERON:0005037 | mucosa of lobar bronchus |
| UBERON:0005038 | mucosa of segmental bronchus |
| UBERON:0005039 | mucosa of bronchiole |
| UBERON:0005040 | mucosa of terminal bronchiole |
| UBERON:0005041 | mucosa of respiratory bronchiole |
| UBERON:0005042 | inner epithelial layer of tympanic membrane |
| UBERON:0005043 | mucosa of nasolacrimal duct |
| UBERON:0005044 | mucosa of pharyngotympanic tube |
| UBERON:0005045 | mucosa of ethmoidal sinus |
| UBERON:0005046 | mucosa of hard palate |
| UBERON:0005047 | mucosa of vocal fold |
| UBERON:0005048 | mucosa of fallopian tube |
| UBERON:0005049 | mucosa of infundibulum of uterine tube |
| UBERON:0005050 | liver papillary process |
| UBERON:0005051 | mediastinum testis |
| UBERON:0005052 | gizzard |
| UBERON:0005053 | primary nerve cord |
| UBERON:0005054 | primary dorsal nerve cord |
| UBERON:0005055 | zone of long bone |
| UBERON:0005056 | external female genitalia |
| UBERON:0005058 | hemolymphoid system gland |
| UBERON:0005061 | neural groove |
| UBERON:0005062 | neural fold |
| UBERON:0005067 | amphid sensory organ |
| UBERON:0005068 | neural rod |
| UBERON:0005070 | anterior neuropore |
| UBERON:0005071 | posterior neuropore |
| UBERON:0005075 | forebrain-midbrain boundary |
| UBERON:0005077 | neuropore |
| UBERON:0005078 | lamina terminalis of neural tube |
| UBERON:0005079 | eggshell |
| UBERON:0005082 | tube lumen |
| UBERON:0005085 | ectodermal placode |
| UBERON:0005086 | hair follicle placode |
| UBERON:0005087 | tooth placode |
| UBERON:0005090 | muscle structure |
| UBERON:0005091 | left horn of sinus venosus |
| UBERON:0005092 | right horn of sinus venosus |
| UBERON:0005093 | embryonic cement gland |
| UBERON:0005094 | beak |
| UBERON:0005096 | descending thin limb |
| UBERON:0005097 | renal connecting tubule |
| UBERON:0005104 | anterior mesonephric tubule |
| UBERON:0005105 | posterior mesonephric tubule |
| UBERON:0005106 | metanephric tubule |
| UBERON:0005107 | metanephric cap |
| UBERON:0005110 | metanephric nephron |
| UBERON:0005113 | metanephric cortex mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005117 | metanephric distal convoluted tubule |
| UBERON:0005124 | metanephric proximal convoluted tubule |
| UBERON:0005147 | metanephric renal vesicle |
| UBERON:0005153 | epithelial bud |
| UBERON:0005154 | epithelial cord |
| UBERON:0005155 | open tracheal system |
| UBERON:0005159 | pyramid of medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:0005160 | vestigial structure |
| UBERON:0005161 | pelvic spur |
| UBERON:0005162 | multi cell part structure |
| UBERON:0005164 | ascending limb of loop of Henle |
| UBERON:0005167 | papillary duct |
| UBERON:0005168 | renal interlobular vein |
| UBERON:0005169 | interstitial tissue |
| UBERON:0005170 | granulosa cell layer |
| UBERON:0005171 | hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0005172 | abdomen element |
| UBERON:0005173 | abdominal segment element |
| UBERON:0005174 | dorsal region element |
| UBERON:0005175 | chest organ |
| UBERON:0005176 | tooth enamel organ |
| UBERON:0005177 | trunk region element |
| UBERON:0005178 | thoracic cavity element |
| UBERON:0005179 | pelvic region element |
| UBERON:0005181 | thoracic segment organ |
| UBERON:0005184 | hair medulla |
| UBERON:0005185 | renal medulla collecting duct |
| UBERON:0005192 | deferent duct artery |
| UBERON:0005193 | ethmoidal artery |
| UBERON:0005194 | thoracic vein |
| UBERON:0005195 | deferent duct vein |
| UBERON:0005196 | spleen germinal center |
| UBERON:0005197 | segmental spinal nerve |
| UBERON:0005199 | cervical mammary gland |
| UBERON:0005200 | thoracic mammary gland |
| UBERON:0005202 | distal straight tubule macula densa |
| UBERON:0005203 | trachea gland |
| UBERON:0005204 | larynx submucosa gland |
| UBERON:0005205 | lamina propria of vagina |
| UBERON:0005206 | choroid plexus stroma |
| UBERON:0005207 | tonsil capsule |
| UBERON:0005208 | right atrium valve |
| UBERON:0005211 | renal medulla interstitium |
| UBERON:0005212 | Leydig cell region of testis |
| UBERON:0005213 | outer renal medulla interstitium |
| UBERON:0005214 | inner renal medulla interstitium |
| UBERON:0005215 | kidney interstitium |
| UBERON:0005217 | midbrain subarachnoid space |
| UBERON:0005218 | diencephalon subarachnoid space |
| UBERON:0005219 | hindbrain subarachnoid space |
| UBERON:0005220 | pancreas head parenchyma |
| UBERON:0005221 | liver right lobe parenchyma |
| UBERON:0005222 | liver left lobe parenchyma |
| UBERON:0005223 | pancreas body parenchyma |
| UBERON:0005224 | pancreas tail parenchyma |
| UBERON:0005225 | upper leg epithelium |
| UBERON:0005226 | pedal digit epithelium |
| UBERON:0005227 | manual digit epithelium |
| UBERON:0005228 | upper arm epithelium |
| UBERON:0005229 | lower leg epithelium |
| UBERON:0005233 | medial-nasal process ectoderm |
| UBERON:0005234 | optic eminence ectoderm |
| UBERON:0005236 | osseus labyrinth vestibule |
| UBERON:0005239 | basal plate metencephalon |
| UBERON:0005240 | basal plate medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:0005243 | interventricular septum endocardium |
| UBERON:0005244 | lobar bronchus of right lung cranial lobe |
| UBERON:0005245 | lobar bronchus of right lung caudal lobe |
| UBERON:0005248 | bulbus cordis myocardium |
| UBERON:0005249 | metanephric renal pelvis |
| UBERON:0005250 | stomatodeum gland |
| UBERON:0005251 | yolk sac cavity |
| UBERON:0005252 | lesser sac cavity |
| UBERON:0005253 | head mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005254 | upper leg mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005255 | pedal digit mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005256 | trunk mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005257 | manual digit mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005258 | upper arm mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005259 | lower leg mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005261 | atrium cardiac jelly |
| UBERON:0005262 | ventricle cardiac jelly |
| UBERON:0005263 | outflow tract cardiac jelly |
| UBERON:0005268 | renal cortex artery |
| UBERON:0005269 | renal cortex vein |
| UBERON:0005270 | renal cortex interstitium |
| UBERON:0005271 | juxtamedullary cortex |
| UBERON:0005272 | peritubular capillary |
| UBERON:0005273 | nail bed |
| UBERON:0005274 | proximal nail bed |
| UBERON:0005276 | dorsal skin of finger |
| UBERON:0005277 | dorsal skin of toe |
| UBERON:0005278 | nail bed of finger |
| UBERON:0005279 | nail bed of toe |
| UBERON:0005281 | ventricular system of central nervous system |
| UBERON:0005282 | ventricular system of brain |
| UBERON:0005283 | tela choroidea |
| UBERON:0005286 | tela choroidea of midbrain cerebral aqueduct |
| UBERON:0005287 | tela choroidea of fourth ventricle |
| UBERON:0005288 | tela choroidea of third ventricle |
| UBERON:0005289 | tela choroidea of telencephalic ventricle |
| UBERON:0005290 | myelencephalon |
| UBERON:0005292 | extraembryonic tissue |
| UBERON:0005293 | cerebellum lobe |
| UBERON:0005294 | gonadal ridge |
| UBERON:0005295 | sex cord |
| UBERON:0005296 | ovary sex cord |
| UBERON:0005297 | testis sex cord |
| UBERON:0005298 | skin of clitoris |
| UBERON:0005299 | prepuce of clitoris |
| UBERON:0005301 | male preputial gland |
| UBERON:0005302 | female preputial gland |
| UBERON:0005303 | hypogastric nerve |
| UBERON:0005304 | submucous nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0005305 | thyroid follicle |
| UBERON:0005306 | blastema |
| UBERON:0005308 | nephrostome |
| UBERON:0005309 | pronephric nephron |
| UBERON:0005310 | pronephric nephron tubule |
| UBERON:0005311 | mammary placode |
| UBERON:0005313 | mammary duct terminal end bud |
| UBERON:0005316 | endocardial endothelium |
| UBERON:0005317 | pulmonary artery endothelium |
| UBERON:0005319 | mesonephric collecting duct |
| UBERON:0005322 | mesonephric nephron |
| UBERON:0005323 | mesonephric mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005325 | mesonephric glomerulus |
| UBERON:0005331 | mesonephric renal vesicle |
| UBERON:0005333 | mammary bud |
| UBERON:0005334 | oral lamina propria |
| UBERON:0005335 | chorioallantoic membrane |
| UBERON:0005336 | capillary layer of choroid |
| UBERON:0005337 | outflow tract of ventricle |
| UBERON:0005338 | outflow tract aortic component |
| UBERON:0005339 | outflow tract pulmonary component |
| UBERON:0005340 | dorsal telencephalic commissure |
| UBERON:0005341 | ventral commissure |
| UBERON:0005342 | malleus head |
| UBERON:0005343 | cortical plate |
| UBERON:0005344 | peritoneal vaginal process |
| UBERON:0005345 | cerebellum vermis lobule VIIA |
| UBERON:0005346 | cerebellum vermis lobule VIIB |
| UBERON:0005347 | copula pyramidis |
| UBERON:0005348 | ansiform lobule |
| UBERON:0005349 | paramedian lobule |
| UBERON:0005350 | lobule simplex |
| UBERON:0005351 | paraflocculus |
| UBERON:0005352 | spermatic cord |
| UBERON:0005355 | malleus neck |
| UBERON:0005356 | Rathke's pouch |
| UBERON:0005357 | brain ependyma |
| UBERON:0005358 | ventricle of nervous system |
| UBERON:0005359 | spinal cord ependyma |
| UBERON:0005360 | inferior glossopharyngeal IX ganglion |
| UBERON:0005361 | superior glossopharyngeal IX ganglion |
| UBERON:0005362 | vagus X ganglion |
| UBERON:0005363 | inferior vagus X ganglion |
| UBERON:0005364 | superior vagus X ganglion |
| UBERON:0005366 | olfactory lobe |
| UBERON:0005367 | hippocampus granule cell layer |
| UBERON:0005368 | hippocampus molecular layer |
| UBERON:0005370 | hippocampus stratum lacunosum |
| UBERON:0005371 | hippocampus stratum oriens |
| UBERON:0005372 | hippocampus stratum radiatum |
| UBERON:0005373 | spinal cord dorsal column |
| UBERON:0005374 | spinal cord lateral column |
| UBERON:0005375 | spinal cord ventral column |
| UBERON:0005376 | olfactory bulb external plexiform layer |
| UBERON:0005377 | olfactory bulb glomerular layer |
| UBERON:0005378 | olfactory bulb granule cell layer |
| UBERON:0005379 | olfactory bulb internal plexiform layer |
| UBERON:0005380 | olfactory bulb subependymal zone |
| UBERON:0005381 | dentate gyrus granule cell layer |
| UBERON:0005382 | dorsal striatum |
| UBERON:0005383 | caudate-putamen |
| UBERON:0005384 | nasal cavity epithelium |
| UBERON:0005385 | nasal cavity respiratory epithelium |
| UBERON:0005386 | olfactory segment of nasal mucosa |
| UBERON:0005387 | olfactory glomerulus |
| UBERON:0005388 | photoreceptor array |
| UBERON:0005390 | cortical layer I |
| UBERON:0005391 | cortical layer II |
| UBERON:0005392 | cortical layer III |
| UBERON:0005393 | cortical layer IV |
| UBERON:0005394 | cortical layer V |
| UBERON:0005395 | cortical layer VI |
| UBERON:0005396 | carotid artery segment |
| UBERON:0005397 | brain arachnoid mater |
| UBERON:0005398 | female reproductive gland |
| UBERON:0005399 | male reproductive gland |
| UBERON:0005400 | telencephalon arachnoid mater |
| UBERON:0005401 | cerebral hemisphere gray matter |
| UBERON:0005402 | philtrum |
| UBERON:0005403 | ventral striatum |
| UBERON:0005404 | frontonasal suture |
| UBERON:0005405 | pararenal fat |
| UBERON:0005406 | perirenal fat |
| UBERON:0005407 | sublingual ganglion |
| UBERON:0005408 | circumventricular organ |
| UBERON:0005409 | alimentary part of gastrointestinal system |
| UBERON:0005410 | cartilaginous otic capsule |
| UBERON:0005411 | bony otic capsule |
| UBERON:0005412 | optic fissure |
| UBERON:0005413 | spinocerebellar tract |
| UBERON:0005414 | zone of polarizing activity |
| UBERON:0005415 | zone of polarizing activity of pectoral appendage |
| UBERON:0005416 | zone of polarizing activity of pelvic appendage |
| UBERON:0005417 | forelimb bud |
| UBERON:0005418 | hindlimb bud |
| UBERON:0005419 | pectoral appendage bud |
| UBERON:0005420 | pelvic appendage bud |
| UBERON:0005421 | pectoral appendage apical ectodermal ridge |
| UBERON:0005422 | pelvic appendage apical ectodermal ridge |
| UBERON:0005423 | developing anatomical structure |
| UBERON:0005424 | presumptive retinal pigmented epithelium |
| UBERON:0005425 | presumptive neural retina |
| UBERON:0005426 | lens vesicle |
| UBERON:0005427 | corneal primordium |
| UBERON:0005428 | vagal neural crest |
| UBERON:0005429 | dorsal pancreatic duct |
| UBERON:0005430 | ansa cervicalis |
| UBERON:0005431 | anterior spinal artery |
| UBERON:0005432 | aortic sac |
| UBERON:0005434 | cervical region |
| UBERON:0005435 | upper part of cisterna chyli |
| UBERON:0005436 | common hepatic artery |
| UBERON:0005437 | conus medullaris |
| UBERON:0005438 | coronary sinus |
| UBERON:0005439 | definitive endoderm |
| UBERON:0005440 | ductus arteriosus |
| UBERON:0005441 | external intercostal muscle |
| UBERON:0005442 | abdominal external oblique muscle |
| UBERON:0005443 | filum terminale |
| UBERON:0005445 | segment of pes |
| UBERON:0005446 | foramen rotundum |
| UBERON:0005448 | greater omentum |
| UBERON:0005449 | greater sac |
| UBERON:0005450 | greater sac cavity |
| UBERON:0005451 | segment of manus |
| UBERON:0005452 | hepatic cord |
| UBERON:0005453 | inferior mesenteric ganglion |
| UBERON:0005454 | abdominal internal oblique muscle |
| UBERON:0005455 | interventricular groove |
| UBERON:0005456 | jugular foramen |
| UBERON:0005457 | left thymus lobe |
| UBERON:0005458 | left umbilical artery |
| UBERON:0005459 | left umbilical vein |
| UBERON:0005460 | left vitelline vein |
| UBERON:0005461 | levator scapulae muscle |
| UBERON:0005462 | lower back |
| UBERON:0005463 | subcapsular sinus of lymph node |
| UBERON:0005464 | median sacral artery |
| UBERON:0005465 | obturator nerve |
| UBERON:0005467 | platysma |
| UBERON:0005469 | right thymus lobe |
| UBERON:0005470 | right umbilical artery |
| UBERON:0005471 | right umbilical vein |
| UBERON:0005472 | right vitelline vein |
| UBERON:0005473 | sacral region |
| UBERON:0005475 | sigmoid sinus |
| UBERON:0005476 | spinal nerve trunk |
| UBERON:0005477 | stomach fundus epithelium |
| UBERON:0005478 | sulcus limitans of neural tube |
| UBERON:0005479 | superior mesenteric ganglion |
| UBERON:0005480 | superior orbital fissure |
| UBERON:0005481 | tentorial sinus |
| UBERON:0005483 | thymus lobe |
| UBERON:0005484 | tricuspid valve leaflet |
| UBERON:0005485 | valve of inferior vena cava |
| UBERON:0005486 | venous dural sinus |
| UBERON:0005487 | vitelline vein |
| UBERON:0005488 | superior mesenteric plexus |
| UBERON:0005489 | anterior interventricular sulcus |
| UBERON:0005490 | posterior interventricular sulcus |
| UBERON:0005491 | glossopharyngeal neural crest |
| UBERON:0005492 | hyaloid vessel |
| UBERON:0005493 | hyoid muscle |
| UBERON:0005494 | intermediate mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005495 | midbrain lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005496 | neural tube lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005497 | non-neural ectoderm |
| UBERON:0005498 | primitive heart tube |
| UBERON:0005499 | rhombomere 1 |
| UBERON:0005500 | rhombomere floor plate |
| UBERON:0005501 | rhombomere lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005502 | rhombomere roof plate |
| UBERON:0005507 | rhombomere 3 |
| UBERON:0005511 | rhombomere 4 |
| UBERON:0005515 | rhombomere 5 |
| UBERON:0005519 | rhombomere 6 |
| UBERON:0005523 | rhombomere 7 |
| UBERON:0005527 | rhombomere 8 |
| UBERON:0005561 | telencephalon lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005562 | thymus primordium |
| UBERON:0005563 | trigeminal neural crest |
| UBERON:0005564 | gonad primordium |
| UBERON:0005565 | facio-acoustic neural crest |
| UBERON:0005566 | rhombomere 1 floor plate |
| UBERON:0005567 | rhombomere 1 lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005568 | rhombomere 1 roof plate |
| UBERON:0005569 | rhombomere 2 |
| UBERON:0005570 | rhombomere 2 floor plate |
| UBERON:0005571 | rhombomere 2 lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005572 | rhombomere 2 roof plate |
| UBERON:0005573 | rhombomere 3 floor plate |
| UBERON:0005574 | rhombomere 3 lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005575 | rhombomere 3 roof plate |
| UBERON:0005576 | rhombomere 4 floor plate |
| UBERON:0005577 | rhombomere 4 lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005578 | rhombomere 4 roof plate |
| UBERON:0005579 | rhombomere 5 floor plate |
| UBERON:0005580 | rhombomere 5 lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005581 | rhombomere 5 roof plate |
| UBERON:0005582 | rhombomere 6 floor plate |
| UBERON:0005583 | rhombomere 6 lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005584 | rhombomere 6 roof plate |
| UBERON:0005585 | rhombomere 7 floor plate |
| UBERON:0005586 | rhombomere 7 lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005587 | rhombomere 7 roof plate |
| UBERON:0005588 | rhombomere 8 floor plate |
| UBERON:0005589 | rhombomere 8 lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005590 | rhombomere 8 roof plate |
| UBERON:0005591 | diencephalon lateral wall |
| UBERON:0005594 | head somite |
| UBERON:0005597 | lung primordium |
| UBERON:0005598 | trunk somite |
| UBERON:0005599 | common dorsal aorta |
| UBERON:0005600 | crus commune |
| UBERON:0005601 | dorsal mesocardium |
| UBERON:0005602 | dorsal mesogastrium |
| UBERON:0005604 | extrahepatic part of hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0005605 | intrahepatic part of hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0005606 | hyaloid cavity |
| UBERON:0005607 | hyaloid vascular plexus |
| UBERON:0005608 | hyoid artery |
| UBERON:0005609 | iliac artery |
| UBERON:0005610 | iliac vein |
| UBERON:0005611 | inner canthus |
| UBERON:0005612 | intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0005613 | left dorsal aorta |
| UBERON:0005614 | lens anterior epithelium |
| UBERON:0005615 | lens equatorial epithelium |
| UBERON:0005616 | mesenteric artery |
| UBERON:0005617 | mesenteric vein |
| UBERON:0005619 | secondary palatal shelf |
| UBERON:0005620 | primary palate |
| UBERON:0005621 | rhomboid |
| UBERON:0005622 | right dorsal aorta |
| UBERON:0005623 | semi-lunar valve |
| UBERON:0005624 | suprarenal artery |
| UBERON:0005625 | tubotympanic recess lumen |
| UBERON:0005626 | ventral mesogastrium |
| UBERON:0005628 | ileal artery |
| UBERON:0005629 | vascular plexus |
| UBERON:0005630 | fetal membrane |
| UBERON:0005631 | extraembryonic membrane |
| UBERON:0005636 | caecum epithelium |
| UBERON:0005637 | pyloric region epithelium |
| UBERON:0005638 | anterior chamber epithelium |
| UBERON:0005639 | right lung cranial lobe epithelium |
| UBERON:0005640 | right lung caudal lobe epithelium |
| UBERON:0005642 | ultimobranchial body epithelium |
| UBERON:0005643 | foregut duodenum epithelium |
| UBERON:0005644 | midgut duodenum epithelium |
| UBERON:0005645 | manual digit 2 epithelium |
| UBERON:0005646 | manual digit 3 epithelium |
| UBERON:0005647 | manual digit 4 epithelium |
| UBERON:0005648 | manual digit 5 epithelium |
| UBERON:0005649 | pedal digit 2 epithelium |
| UBERON:0005650 | pedal digit 3 epithelium |
| UBERON:0005651 | pedal digit 4 epithelium |
| UBERON:0005652 | pedal digit 5 epithelium |
| UBERON:0005653 | upper jaw molar epithelium |
| UBERON:0005654 | lower jaw molar epithelium |
| UBERON:0005655 | right lung accessory lobe epithelium |
| UBERON:0005656 | lens vesicle epithelium |
| UBERON:0005657 | crus commune epithelium |
| UBERON:0005658 | secondary palatal shelf epithelium |
| UBERON:0005659 | primary palate epithelium |
| UBERON:0005660 | 2nd arch ectoderm |
| UBERON:0005661 | 3rd arch ectoderm |
| UBERON:0005662 | 4th arch ectoderm |
| UBERON:0005664 | 2nd arch endoderm |
| UBERON:0005665 | 3rd arch endoderm |
| UBERON:0005666 | 4th arch endoderm |
| UBERON:0005667 | connecting stalk mesoderm |
| UBERON:0005669 | peritoneal cavity mesothelium |
| UBERON:0005670 | greater omentum mesothelium |
| UBERON:0005671 | greater sac mesothelium |
| UBERON:0005672 | right lung endothelium |
| UBERON:0005673 | left lung endothelium |
| UBERON:0005674 | right lung cranial lobe endothelium |
| UBERON:0005675 | right lung caudal lobe endothelium |
| UBERON:0005676 | right lung accessory lobe endothelium |
| UBERON:0005677 | caecum mesentery |
| UBERON:0005678 | right lung cranial lobe segmental bronchus |
| UBERON:0005679 | right lung caudal lobe segmental bronchus |
| UBERON:0005680 | right lung accessory lobe segmental bronchus |
| UBERON:0005681 | right lung upper lobe bronchiole |
| UBERON:0005682 | right lung accessory lobe bronchiole |
| UBERON:0005685 | midgut dorsal mesentery |
| UBERON:0005686 | caecum dorsal mesentery |
| UBERON:0005687 | orbitosphenoid cartilage element |
| UBERON:0005688 | lens vesicle cavity |
| UBERON:0005689 | 2nd arch mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005690 | 3rd arch mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005691 | 4th arch mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005692 | manual digit 2 mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005693 | manual digit 3 mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005694 | manual digit 4 mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005695 | manual digit 5 mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005696 | pedal digit 2 mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005697 | pedal digit 3 mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005698 | pedal digit 4 mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005699 | pedal digit 5 mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005700 | upper jaw molar odontogenic papilla |
| UBERON:0005701 | lower jaw molar odontogenic papilla |
| UBERON:0005702 | optic eminence mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005704 | secondary palatal shelf mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005705 | primary palate mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0005707 | upper jaw incisor odontogenic papilla |
| UBERON:0005708 | lower jaw incisor odontogenic papilla |
| UBERON:0005709 | upper jaw incisor epithelium |
| UBERON:0005710 | lower jaw incisor epithelium |
| UBERON:0005711 | foregut duodenum mesentery |
| UBERON:0005712 | midgut duodenum mesentery |
| UBERON:0005719 | footplate apical ectodermal ridge |
| UBERON:0005720 | hindbrain venous system |
| UBERON:0005721 | pronephric mesoderm |
| UBERON:0005722 | obsolete nephrotome |
| UBERON:0005723 | floor plate spinal cord region |
| UBERON:0005724 | roof plate spinal cord region |
| UBERON:0005725 | olfactory system |
| UBERON:0005726 | chemosensory system |
| UBERON:0005727 | obsolete somitomere |
| UBERON:0005728 | extraembryonic mesoderm |
| UBERON:0005729 | pectoral appendage field |
| UBERON:0005730 | pelvic appendage field |
| UBERON:0005734 | tunica adventitia of blood vessel |
| UBERON:0005737 | swim bladder tunica externa |
| UBERON:0005738 | swim bladder tunica interna |
| UBERON:0005740 | tunica intima of artery |
| UBERON:0005742 | adventitia |
| UBERON:0005744 | bone foramen |
| UBERON:0005745 | optic foramen |
| UBERON:0005746 | primary vitreous |
| UBERON:0005749 | glomerular tuft |
| UBERON:0005750 | glomerular parietal epithelium |
| UBERON:0005751 | glomerular visceral epithelium |
| UBERON:0005760 | urorectal septum |
| UBERON:0005764 | acellular membrane |
| UBERON:0005769 | basement membrane of epithelium |
| UBERON:0005777 | glomerular basement membrane |
| UBERON:0005787 | lamina densa of glomerular basement membrane |
| UBERON:0005788 | lamina rara interna |
| UBERON:0005789 | lamina rara externa |
| UBERON:0005792 | nephric ridge |
| UBERON:0005795 | embryonic uterus |
| UBERON:0005800 | section of aorta |
| UBERON:0005805 | dorsal aorta |
| UBERON:0005806 | portal system |
| UBERON:0005807 | rostral ventrolateral medulla |
| UBERON:0005808 | bone tissue of long bone |
| UBERON:0005810 | cervical vertebra 1 anterior tubercle |
| UBERON:0005813 | tubercle |
| UBERON:0005814 | arch of atlas |
| UBERON:0005815 | anterior tubercle of transverse process of cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0005816 | posterior tubercle of transverse process of cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0005817 | neuraxis flexure |
| UBERON:0005818 | cephalic midbrain flexure |
| UBERON:0005819 | cervical flexure |
| UBERON:0005820 | pontine flexure |
| UBERON:0005821 | gracile fasciculus |
| UBERON:0005826 | gracile fasciculus of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0005832 | cuneate fasciculus |
| UBERON:0005835 | cuneate fasciculus of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0005837 | fasciculus of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0005838 | fasciculus of brain |
| UBERON:0005839 | thoracic spinal cord dorsal column |
| UBERON:0005840 | sacral spinal cord dorsal column |
| UBERON:0005841 | cervical spinal cord dorsal column |
| UBERON:0005842 | lumbar spinal cord dorsal column |
| UBERON:0005843 | sacral spinal cord |
| UBERON:0005844 | spinal cord segment |
| UBERON:0005845 | caudal segment of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0005847 | thoracic spinal cord lateral column |
| UBERON:0005848 | sacral spinal cord lateral column |
| UBERON:0005849 | cervical spinal cord lateral column |
| UBERON:0005850 | lumbar spinal cord lateral column |
| UBERON:0005852 | thoracic spinal cord ventral column |
| UBERON:0005853 | sacral spinal cord ventral column |
| UBERON:0005854 | cervical spinal cord ventral column |
| UBERON:0005855 | lumbar spinal cord ventral column |
| UBERON:0005856 | developing mesenchymal condensation |
| UBERON:0005863 | cartilaginous condensation |
| UBERON:0005865 | pre-muscle condensation |
| UBERON:0005866 | pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0005867 | mandibular prominence |
| UBERON:0005868 | maxillary prominence |
| UBERON:0005869 | maxillary process of inferior nasal concha |
| UBERON:0005870 | olfactory pit |
| UBERON:0005871 | palatine process of maxilla |
| UBERON:0005872 | 1st arch pharyngeal cleft |
| UBERON:0005873 | 2nd arch pharyngeal cleft |
| UBERON:0005874 | 3rd arch pharyngeal cleft |
| UBERON:0005875 | 4th arch pharyngeal cleft |
| UBERON:0005876 | undifferentiated genital tubercle |
| UBERON:0005879 | pharyngeal cleft |
| UBERON:0005882 | neural tube alar plate |
| UBERON:0005883 | neural tube lateral wall mantle layer |
| UBERON:0005884 | hyoid arch skeleton |
| UBERON:0005886 | post-hyoid pharyngeal arch skeleton |
| UBERON:0005890 | gonad germinal epithelium |
| UBERON:0005891 | coelomic epithelium |
| UBERON:0005892 | mesonephric early distal tubule |
| UBERON:0005893 | leg bone |
| UBERON:0005895 | insect leg |
| UBERON:0005897 | manus bone |
| UBERON:0005899 | pes bone |
| UBERON:0005902 | occipital region |
| UBERON:0005903 | duct of seminal vesicle |
| UBERON:0005905 | insect labrum |
| UBERON:0005906 | serous sac |
| UBERON:0005908 | conjunctival sac |
| UBERON:0005911 | endo-epithelium |
| UBERON:0005912 | transitional epithelium of major calyx |
| UBERON:0005913 | zone of bone organ |
| UBERON:0005919 | supreme nasal concha |
| UBERON:0005920 | superior nasal concha |
| UBERON:0005921 | middle nasal concha |
| UBERON:0005922 | inferior nasal concha |
| UBERON:0005925 | ethmoidal process of inferior nasal concha |
| UBERON:0005928 | external naris |
| UBERON:0005931 | primary choana |
| UBERON:0005932 | bulb of hair follicle |
| UBERON:0005933 | hair root sheath |
| UBERON:0005941 | hair inner root sheath |
| UBERON:0005942 | hair outer root sheath |
| UBERON:0005943 | hair root sheath matrix |
| UBERON:0005944 | axial skeleton plus cranial skeleton |
| UBERON:0005945 | neurocranial trabecula |
| UBERON:0005946 | outflow tract of atrium |
| UBERON:0005953 | outflow part of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0005956 | outflow part of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0005965 | outflow part of right atrium |
| UBERON:0005966 | outflow part of left atrium |
| UBERON:0005967 | conotruncal ridge |
| UBERON:0005968 | infundibulum of hair follicle |
| UBERON:0005969 | eye trabecular meshwork |
| UBERON:0005970 | brain commissure |
| UBERON:0005971 | amniotic fold |
| UBERON:0005972 | tunnel of Corti |
| UBERON:0005974 | posterior cerebellomedullary cistern |
| UBERON:0005975 | hair follicle bulge |
| UBERON:0005976 | ansiform lobule crus I |
| UBERON:0005977 | ansiform lobule crus II |
| UBERON:0005978 | olfactory bulb outer nerve layer |
| UBERON:0005979 | crista terminalis |
| UBERON:0005980 | pectinate muscle |
| UBERON:0005981 | vena cava sinus |
| UBERON:0005982 | Bachmann's bundle |
| UBERON:0005984 | subendocardium layer |
| UBERON:0005985 | coronary vessel |
| UBERON:0005986 | left bundle branch |
| UBERON:0005987 | right bundle branch |
| UBERON:0005988 | atrium myocardial trabecula |
| UBERON:0005989 | atrioventricular septum |
| UBERON:0005990 | aortic valve cusp |
| UBERON:0005991 | aortic valve anulus |
| UBERON:0005992 | pulmonary valve cusp |
| UBERON:0005993 | pulmonary valve anulus |
| UBERON:0005994 | chorda tendineae |
| UBERON:0005995 | mitral valve anulus |
| UBERON:0005997 | tricuspid valve anulus |
| UBERON:0005998 | tricuspid valve cusp |
| UBERON:0006002 | vitelline artery |
| UBERON:0006003 | integumentary adnexa |
| UBERON:0006004 | hair follicle matrix region |
| UBERON:0006005 | hair follicle isthmus |
| UBERON:0006006 | metoptic pillar |
| UBERON:0006007 | pre-Botzinger complex |
| UBERON:0006008 | fibrous ring of heart |
| UBERON:0006009 | cusp of cardiac valve |
| UBERON:0006010 | hyaloid canal |
| UBERON:0006011 | hyaloid vein |
| UBERON:0006012 | interdigital region |
| UBERON:0006013 | interdigital region between manual digits |
| UBERON:0006014 | interdigital region between pedal digits |
| UBERON:0006015 | webbed interdigital region |
| UBERON:0006026 | interdigital region between manual digits 1 and 2 |
| UBERON:0006029 | interdigital region between manual digits 2 and 3 |
| UBERON:0006032 | interdigital region between manual digits 3 and 4 |
| UBERON:0006035 | interdigital region between manual digits 4 and 5 |
| UBERON:0006038 | interdigital region between pedal digits 1 and 2 |
| UBERON:0006041 | interdigital region between pedal digits 2 and 3 |
| UBERON:0006044 | interdigital region between pedal digits 3 and 4 |
| UBERON:0006047 | interdigital region between pedal digits 4 and 5 |
| UBERON:0006048 | digit 1 |
| UBERON:0006049 | digit 2 |
| UBERON:0006050 | digit 3 |
| UBERON:0006051 | digit 4 |
| UBERON:0006052 | digit 5 |
| UBERON:0006054 | surface of occiput |
| UBERON:0006059 | falx cerebri |
| UBERON:0006060 | conotruncus |
| UBERON:0006061 | process of vertebra |
| UBERON:0006062 | zygapophysis |
| UBERON:0006063 | cartilaginous neural arch |
| UBERON:0006065 | hemal arch |
| UBERON:0006067 | musculature of hindlimb zeugopod |
| UBERON:0006068 | bone of tail |
| UBERON:0006071 | caudal region |
| UBERON:0006072 | cervical region of vertebral column |
| UBERON:0006073 | thoracic region of vertebral column |
| UBERON:0006074 | lumbar region of vertebral column |
| UBERON:0006075 | sacral region of vertebral column |
| UBERON:0006076 | caudal region of vertebral column |
| UBERON:0006077 | subdivision of vertebral column |
| UBERON:0006079 | subdivision of spinal cord dorsal column |
| UBERON:0006081 | fundus of gallbladder |
| UBERON:0006082 | fundus of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0006083 | perirhinal cortex |
| UBERON:0006086 | stria medullaris |
| UBERON:0006087 | internal arcuate fiber bundle |
| UBERON:0006088 | inferior parietal cortex |
| UBERON:0006089 | dorsal external arcuate fiber bundle |
| UBERON:0006090 | glossopharyngeal nerve fiber bundle |
| UBERON:0006091 | inferior horn of the lateral ventricle |
| UBERON:0006092 | cuneus cortex |
| UBERON:0006093 | precuneus cortex |
| UBERON:0006094 | superior parietal cortex |
| UBERON:0006095 | anterior transverse temporal area 41 |
| UBERON:0006096 | posterior transverse temporal area 42 |
| UBERON:0006097 | ventral external arcuate fiber bundle |
| UBERON:0006098 | basal nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0006099 | Brodmann (1909) area 1 |
| UBERON:0006100 | Brodmann (1909) area 3 |
| UBERON:0006101 | Brodmann (1909) area 24 |
| UBERON:0006102 | Brodmann (1909) area 35 |
| UBERON:0006104 | Brodmann (1909) area 36 |
| UBERON:0006106 | cochlear canal |
| UBERON:0006107 | basolateral amygdaloid nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0006108 | corticomedial nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0006114 | lateral occipital cortex |
| UBERON:0006115 | posterior column of fornix |
| UBERON:0006116 | vagal nerve fiber bundle |
| UBERON:0006117 | accessory nerve fiber bundle |
| UBERON:0006118 | lamina I of gray matter of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006119 | subbrachial nucleus |
| UBERON:0006120 | superior colliculus superficial gray layer |
| UBERON:0006121 | hemispheric lobule VIII |
| UBERON:0006123 | horizontal limb of the diagonal band |
| UBERON:0006124 | vertical limb of the diagonal band |
| UBERON:0006125 | subdivision of diagonal band |
| UBERON:0006127 | funiculus of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006133 | funiculus of neuraxis |
| UBERON:0006134 | nerve fiber |
| UBERON:0006135 | myelinated nerve fiber |
| UBERON:0006136 | unmyelinated nerve fiber |
| UBERON:0006137 | proper palmar digital artery |
| UBERON:0006138 | plantar digital artery |
| UBERON:0006139 | plantar digital vein |
| UBERON:0006140 | palmar digital vein |
| UBERON:0006142 | common plantar digital vein |
| UBERON:0006143 | proper plantar digital vein |
| UBERON:0006144 | medial plantar digital vein |
| UBERON:0006145 | dorsal digital artery of pes |
| UBERON:0006146 | dorsal digital artery of manus |
| UBERON:0006163 | dorsal digital artery |
| UBERON:0006164 | forelimb common dorsal digital arteries |
| UBERON:0006165 | median dorsal digital artery for digit 1 |
| UBERON:0006166 | lateral dorsal digital artery for digit 5 |
| UBERON:0006167 | forelimb proper dorsal digital arteries |
| UBERON:0006168 | hindlimb common dorsal digital arteries |
| UBERON:0006169 | hindlimb proper dorsal digital arteries |
| UBERON:0006171 | renal sinus |
| UBERON:0006172 | rectal diverticulum |
| UBERON:0006174 | pronephric sinus |
| UBERON:0006194 | renal sinus of right kidney |
| UBERON:0006195 | renal sinus of left kidney |
| UBERON:0006196 | mesonephric sinus |
| UBERON:0006197 | auricular vein |
| UBERON:0006198 | dorsal intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0006199 | posterior auricular vein |
| UBERON:0006200 | caudal humeral circumflex vein |
| UBERON:0006203 | conchal part of pinna |
| UBERON:0006204 | inguinal ligament |
| UBERON:0006205 | pectineal ligament |
| UBERON:0006206 | iridocorneal angle |
| UBERON:0006207 | aortico-pulmonary spiral septum |
| UBERON:0006208 | auditory hillocks |
| UBERON:0006209 | basioccipital cartilage element |
| UBERON:0006210 | body-wall mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0006211 | buccopharyngeal membrane |
| UBERON:0006212 | bulbo-ventricular groove |
| UBERON:0006213 | carpus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0006214 | carpus pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006215 | rhombic lip |
| UBERON:0006216 | cervical sinus of His |
| UBERON:0006217 | cloacal membrane |
| UBERON:0006218 | common atrial chamber |
| UBERON:0006219 | deltoid pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0006220 | diencephalic part of interventricular foramen |
| UBERON:0006222 | future diencephalon |
| UBERON:0006223 | dorsal meso-oesophagus |
| UBERON:0006224 | elbow joint primordium |
| UBERON:0006226 | endolymphatic appendage |
| UBERON:0006227 | ethmoid bone primordium |
| UBERON:0006228 | exoccipital pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006230 | extrinsic ocular pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0006231 | facial bone primordium |
| UBERON:0006232 | facio-acoustic VII-VIII preganglion complex |
| UBERON:0006233 | female genital tubercle |
| UBERON:0006234 | femur pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006235 | foregut-midgut junction |
| UBERON:0006236 | tetrapod frontal bone primordium |
| UBERON:0006238 | future brain |
| UBERON:0006239 | future central tendon |
| UBERON:0006240 | future forebrain |
| UBERON:0006241 | future spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006242 | gallbladder primordium |
| UBERON:0006243 | glossopharyngeal IX preganglion |
| UBERON:0006244 | hip joint primordium |
| UBERON:0006245 | humerus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0006246 | humerus pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006247 | iliac pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006248 | incus pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006250 | infundibular recess of 3rd ventricle |
| UBERON:0006251 | interparietal bone primordium |
| UBERON:0006252 | intersubcardinal venous anastomosis |
| UBERON:0006253 | embryonic intraretinal space |
| UBERON:0006254 | ischial cartilage element |
| UBERON:0006255 | ischial pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006256 | knee joint primordium |
| UBERON:0006257 | laryngotracheal groove |
| UBERON:0006259 | lens pit |
| UBERON:0006260 | lingual swellings |
| UBERON:0006261 | male genital tubercle |
| UBERON:0006262 | malleus pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006263 | Meckel's cartilage pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006264 | mouth-foregut junction |
| UBERON:0006265 | mural trophectoderm |
| UBERON:0006266 | nasolacrimal groove |
| UBERON:0006267 | notochordal plate |
| UBERON:0006268 | notochordal process |
| UBERON:0006270 | optic pit |
| UBERON:0006271 | orbital fissure |
| UBERON:0006272 | oronasal cavity |
| UBERON:0006273 | otic pit |
| UBERON:0006274 | tetrapod parietal bone primordium |
| UBERON:0006275 | pericardio-peritoneal canal |
| UBERON:0006276 | perioptic mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0006277 | pleuropericardial canals |
| UBERON:0006278 | pleuropericardial folds |
| UBERON:0006279 | pleuroperitoneal canal |
| UBERON:0006280 | polar trophectoderm |
| UBERON:0006282 | primary head vein |
| UBERON:0006283 | future cardiac ventricle |
| UBERON:0006284 | early prosencephalic vesicle |
| UBERON:0006285 | pubic pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006286 | radius cartilage element |
| UBERON:0006287 | radius-ulna pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006288 | rib cartilage element |
| UBERON:0006289 | rib pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006290 | scapula cartilage element |
| UBERON:0006291 | scapula pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006292 | shoulder joint primordium |
| UBERON:0006293 | spleen primordium |
| UBERON:0006294 | stapes pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006295 | sternebral bone pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0006296 | subcardinal vein |
| UBERON:0006297 | sublingual gland primordium |
| UBERON:0006298 | submandibular gland primordium |
| UBERON:0006300 | supracardinal vein |
| UBERON:0006301 | telencephalic part of interventricular foramen |
| UBERON:0006303 | tracheal diverticulum |
| UBERON:0006304 | future trigeminal ganglion |
| UBERON:0006305 | tunica vasculosa lentis |
| UBERON:0006306 | ulna cartilage element |
| UBERON:0006307 | urogenital membrane |
| UBERON:0006309 | venous vitelline plexus |
| UBERON:0006311 | chamber of eyeball |
| UBERON:0006312 | ocular refractive media |
| UBERON:0006314 | bodily fluid |
| UBERON:0006318 | orbitalis muscle |
| UBERON:0006319 | spinal cord reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:0006320 | inferior oblique extraocular muscle |
| UBERON:0006321 | superior oblique extraocular muscle |
| UBERON:0006322 | inferior rectus extraocular muscle |
| UBERON:0006323 | superior rectus extraocular muscle |
| UBERON:0006325 | laryngeal intrinsic ligament |
| UBERON:0006326 | base of arytenoid |
| UBERON:0006327 | laryngeal extrinsic muscle |
| UBERON:0006328 | laryngeal intrinsic muscle |
| UBERON:0006329 | superior pharyngeal constrictor |
| UBERON:0006330 | anterior lingual gland |
| UBERON:0006331 | brainstem nucleus |
| UBERON:0006332 | nasal capsule |
| UBERON:0006333 | snout |
| UBERON:0006334 | posterior lateral line |
| UBERON:0006337 | distal early tubule |
| UBERON:0006338 | lateral ventricle choroid plexus stroma |
| UBERON:0006339 | third ventricle choroid plexus stroma |
| UBERON:0006340 | fourth ventricle choroid plexus stroma |
| UBERON:0006341 | outer renal medulla peritubular capillary |
| UBERON:0006342 | left subhepatic recess |
| UBERON:0006343 | right subhepatic recess |
| UBERON:0006345 | stapedial artery |
| UBERON:0006347 | communicating artery |
| UBERON:0006349 | epigastric artery |
| UBERON:0006351 | principal vein of forelimb |
| UBERON:0006353 | principal vein of hindlimb |
| UBERON:0006355 | superior vesical vein |
| UBERON:0006356 | epigastric vein |
| UBERON:0006358 | vasa hyaloidea propria |
| UBERON:0006359 | mesoduodenum |
| UBERON:0006360 | tongue intermolar eminence |
| UBERON:0006364 | ureteric bud tip |
| UBERON:0006373 | perihilar interstitium |
| UBERON:0006374 | part of afferent arteriole forming the juxtaglomerular complex |
| UBERON:0006376 | premacula segment of distal straight tubule |
| UBERON:0006377 | remnant of Rathke's pouch |
| UBERON:0006378 | strand of vibrissa hair |
| UBERON:0006428 | basisphenoid bone |
| UBERON:0006430 | xiphoid cartilage |
| UBERON:0006431 | xiphoid process bone |
| UBERON:0006435 | os penis |
| UBERON:0006436 | principal artery to forelimb |
| UBERON:0006438 | principal artery to hindlimb |
| UBERON:0006440 | os clitoris |
| UBERON:0006442 | subhepatic recess |
| UBERON:0006444 | annulus fibrosus |
| UBERON:0006445 | caudal middle frontal gyrus |
| UBERON:0006446 | rostral middle frontal gyrus |
| UBERON:0006447 | L5 segment of lumbar spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006448 | L1 segment of lumbar spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006449 | L3 segment of lumbar spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006450 | L2 segment of lumbar spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006451 | L4 segment of lumbar spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006452 | T4 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006453 | T5 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006454 | T6 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006455 | T7 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006456 | T8 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006457 | T1 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006458 | T2 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006459 | T3 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006460 | S1 segment of sacral spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006461 | S2 segment of sacral spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006462 | S3 segment of sacral spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006463 | S4 segment of sacral spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006464 | S5 segment of sacral spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006465 | T9 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006466 | T10 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006467 | T11 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006468 | T12 segment of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006469 | C1 segment of cervical spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006470 | C8 segment of cervical spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006471 | Brodmann (1909) area 5 |
| UBERON:0006472 | Brodmann (1909) area 6 |
| UBERON:0006473 | Brodmann (1909) area 18 |
| UBERON:0006474 | Brodmann (1909) area 30 |
| UBERON:0006475 | Brodmann (1909) area 31 |
| UBERON:0006476 | Brodmann (1909) area 33 |
| UBERON:0006477 | Brodmann (1909) area 34 |
| UBERON:0006478 | Brodmann (1909) area 37 |
| UBERON:0006479 | Brodmann (1909) area 38 |
| UBERON:0006480 | Brodmann (1909) area 39 |
| UBERON:0006481 | Brodmann (1909) area 44 |
| UBERON:0006482 | Brodmann (1909) area 45 |
| UBERON:0006483 | Brodmann (1909) area 46 |
| UBERON:0006484 | Brodmann (1909) area 47 |
| UBERON:0006485 | Brodmann (1909) area 48 |
| UBERON:0006486 | Brodmann (1909) area 52 |
| UBERON:0006487 | Hadjikhani et al. (1998) visuotopic area V2d |
| UBERON:0006488 | C3 segment of cervical spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006489 | C2 segment of cervical spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006490 | C4 segment of cervical spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006491 | C5 segment of cervical spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006492 | C6 segment of cervical spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006493 | C7 segment of cervical spinal cord |
| UBERON:0006494 | apex of arytenoid |
| UBERON:0006495 | osseus cochlear canal |
| UBERON:0006496 | external acoustic meatus osseus part |
| UBERON:0006497 | interosseous muscle of pes |
| UBERON:0006499 | dorsal pes interosseous muscle |
| UBERON:0006502 | plantar interosseous muscle of pes |
| UBERON:0006505 | palmar interosseous muscle of manus |
| UBERON:0006508 | interosseous muscle of autopod |
| UBERON:0006514 | pallidum |
| UBERON:0006516 | dorsal pallidum |
| UBERON:0006517 | kidney calyx |
| UBERON:0006518 | right lung lobe |
| UBERON:0006524 | alveolar system |
| UBERON:0006525 | left lung alveolar system |
| UBERON:0006526 | right lung alveolar system |
| UBERON:0006530 | seminal fluid |
| UBERON:0006531 | oculomotor muscle |
| UBERON:0006532 | oblique extraocular muscle |
| UBERON:0006533 | rectus extraocular muscle |
| UBERON:0006534 | renal convoluted tubule |
| UBERON:0006535 | skin secretion |
| UBERON:0006536 | male reproductive gland secretion |
| UBERON:0006537 | female reproductive gland secretion |
| UBERON:0006538 | respiratory system fluid/secretion |
| UBERON:0006539 | mammary gland fluid/secretion |
| UBERON:0006541 | outer medulla inner stripe loop of Henle |
| UBERON:0006542 | outer medulla outer stripe loop of Henle |
| UBERON:0006544 | kidney vasculature |
| UBERON:0006553 | renal duct |
| UBERON:0006558 | lymphatic part of lymphoid system |
| UBERON:0006561 | non-lymphatic part of lymphoid system |
| UBERON:0006562 | pharynx |
| UBERON:0006563 | tunica media of pulmonary trunk |
| UBERON:0006564 | superficial palmar arch |
| UBERON:0006565 | female urethral meatus |
| UBERON:0006566 | left ventricle myocardium |
| UBERON:0006567 | right ventricle myocardium |
| UBERON:0006568 | hypothalamic nucleus |
| UBERON:0006569 | diencephalic nucleus |
| UBERON:0006570 | trabecula carnea of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0006571 | trabecula carnea of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0006574 | pectinate line |
| UBERON:0006575 | mantle |
| UBERON:0006580 | mantle cavity |
| UBERON:0006581 | mantle muscle |
| UBERON:0006583 | statocyst |
| UBERON:0006585 | vestibular organ |
| UBERON:0006586 | otolymph |
| UBERON:0006587 | ligamentum venosum |
| UBERON:0006588 | round ligament of liver |
| UBERON:0006589 | round ligament of uterus |
| UBERON:0006590 | remnant of embryonic structure |
| UBERON:0006591 | transformed artery |
| UBERON:0006592 | transformed vein |
| UBERON:0006594 | gubernacular cord |
| UBERON:0006595 | presumptive endoderm |
| UBERON:0006596 | presumptive blood |
| UBERON:0006597 | quadrate bone |
| UBERON:0006598 | presumptive structure |
| UBERON:0006599 | presumptive hypochord |
| UBERON:0006600 | presumptive enteric nervous system |
| UBERON:0006601 | presumptive ectoderm |
| UBERON:0006603 | presumptive mesoderm |
| UBERON:0006604 | lamina orbitonasalis |
| UBERON:0006605 | tectum synoticum |
| UBERON:0006606 | mandibular symphysis |
| UBERON:0006607 | medial umbilical ligament |
| UBERON:0006608 | corpus cavernosum clitoridis |
| UBERON:0006609 | corpus cavernosum |
| UBERON:0006610 | tunica albuginea |
| UBERON:0006611 | exoskeleton |
| UBERON:0006612 | shell |
| UBERON:0006614 | aponeurosis |
| UBERON:0006615 | venous sinus |
| UBERON:0006616 | right external ear |
| UBERON:0006617 | left external ear |
| UBERON:0006618 | atrium auricular region |
| UBERON:0006630 | left atrium auricular region |
| UBERON:0006631 | right atrium auricular region |
| UBERON:0006632 | musculo-phrenic artery |
| UBERON:0006633 | coracoid process of scapula |
| UBERON:0006634 | lingual vein |
| UBERON:0006635 | anterior abdominal wall |
| UBERON:0006636 | lumbar artery |
| UBERON:0006637 | celiac trunk |
| UBERON:0006638 | remnant of urachus |
| UBERON:0006639 | crus of penis |
| UBERON:0006640 | crus of clitoris |
| UBERON:0006641 | appendix epididymis |
| UBERON:0006642 | muscle layer of oviduct |
| UBERON:0006643 | tunica albuginea of testis |
| UBERON:0006644 | tunica albuginea of ovary |
| UBERON:0006645 | adventitia of epididymis |
| UBERON:0006646 | muscle layer of epididymis |
| UBERON:0006647 | adventitia of ductus deferens |
| UBERON:0006648 | adventitia of seminal vesicle |
| UBERON:0006649 | suspensory ligament of ovary |
| UBERON:0006650 | tunica vaginalis testis |
| UBERON:0006651 | appendix testis |
| UBERON:0006652 | muscular layer of vagina |
| UBERON:0006653 | glans clitoris |
| UBERON:0006654 | perineal body |
| UBERON:0006655 | septum of scrotum |
| UBERON:0006656 | deep dorsal vein of penis |
| UBERON:0006657 | glenoid fossa |
| UBERON:0006658 | interphalangeal joint |
| UBERON:0006659 | cruciate ligament of knee |
| UBERON:0006660 | muscular coat |
| UBERON:0006661 | epicranial aponeurosis |
| UBERON:0006662 | musculo-phrenic vein |
| UBERON:0006663 | hemiazygos vein |
| UBERON:0006664 | greater palatine artery |
| UBERON:0006665 | accessory hemiazygos vein |
| UBERON:0006666 | great cerebral vein |
| UBERON:0006667 | pituitary fossa |
| UBERON:0006668 | carotid canal |
| UBERON:0006669 | alveolar canal |
| UBERON:0006670 | central tendon of diaphragm |
| UBERON:0006671 | orbital fat pad |
| UBERON:0006672 | incisive canal |
| UBERON:0006673 | mandibular canal |
| UBERON:0006674 | inguinal ring |
| UBERON:0006675 | venous valve |
| UBERON:0006676 | muscularis mucosa |
| UBERON:0006677 | surface of epithelium |
| UBERON:0006678 | foramen secundum |
| UBERON:0006679 | carina of trachea |
| UBERON:0006680 | trachealis |
| UBERON:0006681 | interthalamic adhesion |
| UBERON:0006682 | hypoglossal canal |
| UBERON:0006683 | posterior fontanelle |
| UBERON:0006684 | sphenoidal fontanelle |
| UBERON:0006685 | pharyngeal tubercle |
| UBERON:0006686 | spinal vein |
| UBERON:0006687 | median sacral vein |
| UBERON:0006688 | sublingual caruncle |
| UBERON:0006689 | frenulum of tongue |
| UBERON:0006690 | deep dorsal vein of clitoris |
| UBERON:0006691 | tentorium cerebelli |
| UBERON:0006692 | vertebral canal |
| UBERON:0006694 | cerebellum vasculature |
| UBERON:0006696 | mammillothalamic axonal tract |
| UBERON:0006698 | mammillotegmental axonal tract |
| UBERON:0006699 | foramen cecum of tongue |
| UBERON:0006713 | foramen cecum of frontal bone |
| UBERON:0006714 | tibiofibula |
| UBERON:0006715 | radio-ulna |
| UBERON:0006716 | mesopodium region |
| UBERON:0006717 | autopodial skeleton |
| UBERON:0006718 | medial pterygoid muscle |
| UBERON:0006719 | lateral pterygoid muscle |
| UBERON:0006720 | pterygoid muscle |
| UBERON:0006721 | alisphenoid bone |
| UBERON:0006722 | manubrium of malleus |
| UBERON:0006723 | cochlear modiolus |
| UBERON:0006724 | osseus spiral lamina |
| UBERON:0006725 | spiral ligament |
| UBERON:0006726 | outer canthus |
| UBERON:0006727 | liver left lateral lobe |
| UBERON:0006728 | liver left medial lobe |
| UBERON:0006729 | liver perisinusoidal space |
| UBERON:0006742 | canthus |
| UBERON:0006743 | paleodentate of dentate nucleus |
| UBERON:0006749 | superior parathyroid gland |
| UBERON:0006755 | inferior parathyroid gland |
| UBERON:0006756 | median lingual swelling |
| UBERON:0006757 | lateral lingual swelling |
| UBERON:0006761 | corneo-scleral junction |
| UBERON:0006762 | suspensory ligament of lens |
| UBERON:0006763 | epithelium of conjunctiva |
| UBERON:0006764 | anterior communicating artery |
| UBERON:0006765 | left anterior vena cava |
| UBERON:0006766 | right anterior vena cava |
| UBERON:0006767 | head of femur |
| UBERON:0006768 | epiphyseal line |
| UBERON:0006770 | apophysis |
| UBERON:0006771 | long bone epiphyseal plate proliferative zone |
| UBERON:0006772 | long bone epiphyseal plate hypertrophic zone |
| UBERON:0006776 | annular epiphysis |
| UBERON:0006777 | tectal plate |
| UBERON:0006779 | superficial white layer of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006780 | zonal layer of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006782 | stratum lemnisci of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006783 | layer of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006785 | gray matter layer of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006786 | white matter of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006787 | middle white layer of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006788 | middle gray layer of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006789 | deep gray layer of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006790 | deep white layer of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006791 | superficial layer of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006792 | intermediate layer of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006793 | deep layer of superior colliculus |
| UBERON:0006795 | arthropod optic lobe |
| UBERON:0006798 | efferent nerve |
| UBERON:0006799 | glandular epithelium |
| UBERON:0006800 | anatomical line |
| UBERON:0006801 | proximal head of humerus |
| UBERON:0006802 | acetabular rim |
| UBERON:0006803 | obturator foramen |
| UBERON:0006804 | reticular tissue |
| UBERON:0006805 | sternal end of clavicle |
| UBERON:0006806 | entepicondyle of humerus |
| UBERON:0006807 | ectepicondyle of humerus |
| UBERON:0006810 | olecranon |
| UBERON:0006811 | occipital condyle |
| UBERON:0006812 | mental foramen |
| UBERON:0006813 | nasal skeleton |
| UBERON:0006815 | areolar connective tissue |
| UBERON:0006820 | body of sternum |
| UBERON:0006821 | cutaneous muscle |
| UBERON:0006822 | proximal epiphysis of ulna |
| UBERON:0006829 | remnant of left anterior vena cava |
| UBERON:0006831 | pre-tracheal muscle |
| UBERON:0006832 | lumen of open tracheal system trachea |
| UBERON:0006833 | lumen of trachea |
| UBERON:0006834 | uterus or analog |
| UBERON:0006836 | medial tibial tarsal bone |
| UBERON:0006837 | tegmen tympani |
| UBERON:0006838 | ventral ramus of spinal nerve |
| UBERON:0006839 | dorsal ramus of spinal nerve |
| UBERON:0006840 | nucleus of lateral lemniscus |
| UBERON:0006841 | central vein of liver |
| UBERON:0006842 | lymphatic capillary |
| UBERON:0006843 | root of cranial nerve |
| UBERON:0006844 | cusp of tooth |
| UBERON:0006845 | abductor muscle |
| UBERON:0006846 | surface groove |
| UBERON:0006847 | cerebellar commissure |
| UBERON:0006848 | posterior pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0006849 | scapula |
| UBERON:0006851 | renal cortex peritubular capillary |
| UBERON:0006853 | renal cortex tubule |
| UBERON:0006854 | distal straight tubule postmacula segment |
| UBERON:0006855 | muscular coat of ureter |
| UBERON:0006856 | interrenal gland |
| UBERON:0006857 | interrenal primordium |
| UBERON:0006859 | swim bladder bud |
| UBERON:0006860 | swim bladder |
| UBERON:0006861 | diaphysis proper |
| UBERON:0006862 | diaphysis of femur |
| UBERON:0006863 | proximal metaphysis of femur |
| UBERON:0006864 | distal metaphysis of femur |
| UBERON:0006865 | metaphysis of femur |
| UBERON:0006866 | terminal part of digestive tract |
| UBERON:0006867 | anal part of perineum |
| UBERON:0006868 | seminal fluid secreting gland |
| UBERON:0006869 | electric organ |
| UBERON:0006870 | endostyle |
| UBERON:0006871 | embryonic footplate |
| UBERON:0006872 | handplate apical ectodermal ridge |
| UBERON:0006875 | embryonic handplate |
| UBERON:0006876 | vasculature of organ |
| UBERON:0006877 | vasculature of liver |
| UBERON:0006878 | decidua parietalis |
| UBERON:0006904 | head mesenchyme from mesoderm |
| UBERON:0006905 | mandibular process mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0006906 | ala of nose |
| UBERON:0006907 | slow muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0006908 | fast muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0006909 | lumen of digestive tract |
| UBERON:0006911 | digestive system secreted substance |
| UBERON:0006912 | urinary bladder muscularis mucosa |
| UBERON:0006913 | lip epithelium |
| UBERON:0006914 | squamous epithelium |
| UBERON:0006915 | stratified squamous epithelium |
| UBERON:0006916 | non-keratinized epithelium of tongue |
| UBERON:0006918 | parakeratinized epithelium of tongue |
| UBERON:0006919 | tongue squamous epithelium |
| UBERON:0006920 | esophagus squamous epithelium |
| UBERON:0006921 | stomach squamous epithelium |
| UBERON:0006922 | cervix squamous epithelium |
| UBERON:0006923 | vagina squamous epithelium |
| UBERON:0006924 | stomach glandular epithelium |
| UBERON:0006925 | digestive system gland |
| UBERON:0006929 | glandular columnar epithelium |
| UBERON:0006930 | glandular cuboidal epithelium |
| UBERON:0006931 | stomach glandular region mucosa |
| UBERON:0006932 | vestibular epithelium |
| UBERON:0006934 | sensory epithelium |
| UBERON:0006935 | crista ampullaris neuroepithelium |
| UBERON:0006936 | thymus subcapsular epithelium |
| UBERON:0006937 | inner ear epithelium |
| UBERON:0006938 | pinna surface epithelium |
| UBERON:0006946 | efferent duct |
| UBERON:0006947 | male genital duct |
| UBERON:0006948 | efferent duct epithelium |
| UBERON:0006949 | cervical loop |
| UBERON:0006950 | stellate reticulum |
| UBERON:0006951 | inner dental epithelium |
| UBERON:0006952 | outer dental epithelium |
| UBERON:0006953 | ejaculatory duct epithelium |
| UBERON:0006954 | mammary gland myoepithelium |
| UBERON:0006955 | uterine epithelium |
| UBERON:0006956 | buccal mucosa |
| UBERON:0006957 | submandibular gland primordium epithelium |
| UBERON:0006958 | great vein of heart |
| UBERON:0006959 | mandible angular process |
| UBERON:0006960 | ovary stroma |
| UBERON:0006964 | pars distalis of adenohypophysis |
| UBERON:0006965 | vascular cord |
| UBERON:0006966 | coronary capillary |
| UBERON:0006967 | horn |
| UBERON:0006971 | antler |
| UBERON:0006972 | nephridium |
| UBERON:0006973 | protonephridium |
| UBERON:0006974 | metanephridium |
| UBERON:0006976 | peptonephridium |
| UBERON:0006983 | anatomical point |
| UBERON:0006984 | anatomical surface |
| UBERON:0007005 | cardiogenic splanchnic mesoderm |
| UBERON:0007006 | obsolete blastomere |
| UBERON:0007010 | cleaving embryo |
| UBERON:0007021 | sexually immature organism |
| UBERON:0007023 | adult organism |
| UBERON:0007026 | presumptive gut |
| UBERON:0007037 | mechanosensory system |
| UBERON:0007095 | somatic musculature |
| UBERON:0007097 | chordo neural hinge |
| UBERON:0007098 | mandibular neural crest |
| UBERON:0007099 | hyoid neural crest |
| UBERON:0007100 | primary circulatory organ |
| UBERON:0007105 | vitelline duct |
| UBERON:0007106 | chorionic villus |
| UBERON:0007108 | vernix caseosa |
| UBERON:0007109 | meconium |
| UBERON:0007111 | Douglas' pouch |
| UBERON:0007113 | venom |
| UBERON:0007115 | deciduous tooth |
| UBERON:0007116 | primary dentition |
| UBERON:0007118 | umbilicus |
| UBERON:0007119 | neck of femur |
| UBERON:0007120 | premolar tooth |
| UBERON:0007121 | skin nerve field |
| UBERON:0007122 | pharyngeal pouch 1 |
| UBERON:0007123 | pharyngeal pouch 2 |
| UBERON:0007124 | pharyngeal pouch 3 |
| UBERON:0007125 | pharyngeal pouch 4 |
| UBERON:0007126 | pharyngeal pouch 5 |
| UBERON:0007127 | pharyngeal pouch 6 |
| UBERON:0007128 | glomeral mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0007132 | head kidney |
| UBERON:0007134 | trunk ganglion |
| UBERON:0007135 | neural keel |
| UBERON:0007136 | rectouterine fold |
| UBERON:0007140 | parietal mesothelium |
| UBERON:0007141 | visceral mesothelium |
| UBERON:0007142 | left internal carotid artery |
| UBERON:0007143 | right internal carotid artery |
| UBERON:0007144 | embryonic post-anal tail |
| UBERON:0007145 | dome of diaphragm |
| UBERON:0007146 | posterior spinal artery |
| UBERON:0007147 | lumen of midgut |
| UBERON:0007148 | lumen of hindgut |
| UBERON:0007149 | inferior thyroid artery |
| UBERON:0007150 | superior thyroid artery |
| UBERON:0007151 | mitral valve leaflet |
| UBERON:0007152 | inferior sagittal sinus |
| UBERON:0007153 | superior epigastric artery |
| UBERON:0007154 | inferior epigastric vein |
| UBERON:0007155 | superior epigastric vein |
| UBERON:0007156 | inferior thyroid vein |
| UBERON:0007157 | superior thyroid vein |
| UBERON:0007158 | lumen of anal canal |
| UBERON:0007159 | lumen of colon |
| UBERON:0007160 | inferior petrosal sinus |
| UBERON:0007161 | medial arcuate ligament |
| UBERON:0007162 | lateral arcuate ligament |
| UBERON:0007163 | superior nasal meatus |
| UBERON:0007164 | distal radio-ulnar joint |
| UBERON:0007165 | proximal radio-ulnar joint |
| UBERON:0007166 | left dome of diaphragm |
| UBERON:0007167 | right dome of diaphragm |
| UBERON:0007168 | long head of biceps brachii |
| UBERON:0007169 | short head of biceps brachii |
| UBERON:0007170 | squamous part of occipital bone |
| UBERON:0007171 | border of scapula |
| UBERON:0007172 | angle of scapula |
| UBERON:0007173 | lateral border of scapula |
| UBERON:0007174 | medial border of scapula |
| UBERON:0007175 | inferior angle of scapula |
| UBERON:0007176 | superior angle of scapula |
| UBERON:0007177 | lamina propria of mucosa of colon |
| UBERON:0007178 | muscularis mucosae of colon |
| UBERON:0007179 | basal cell layer of urothelium |
| UBERON:0007180 | atretic follicle of ovary |
| UBERON:0007181 | serosa of infundibulum of uterine tube |
| UBERON:0007182 | muscle layer of infundibulum of uterine tube |
| UBERON:0007185 | pericardio-peritoneal canal mesothelium |
| UBERON:0007186 | pericardial visceral mesothelium |
| UBERON:0007187 | pericardial parietal mesothelium |
| UBERON:0007188 | mesothelium of serous pericardium |
| UBERON:0007190 | paracentral gyrus |
| UBERON:0007191 | anterior paracentral gyrus |
| UBERON:0007192 | posterior paracentral gyrus |
| UBERON:0007193 | orbital gyrus |
| UBERON:0007194 | vesicular gland |
| UBERON:0007195 | stroma of bone marrow |
| UBERON:0007196 | tracheobronchial tree |
| UBERON:0007197 | hermaphroditic organism |
| UBERON:0007198 | hermaphrodite anatomical structure |
| UBERON:0007213 | mesenchyme derived from head neural crest |
| UBERON:0007214 | mesenchyme derived from trunk neural crest |
| UBERON:0007215 | trabecula cranii |
| UBERON:0007220 | late embryonic stage |
| UBERON:0007221 | neonate stage |
| UBERON:0007222 | late adult stage |
| UBERON:0007223 | osseus cochlea |
| UBERON:0007224 | medial entorhinal cortex |
| UBERON:0007225 | lateral entorhinal cortex |
| UBERON:0007227 | superior vestibular nucleus |
| UBERON:0007228 | vestibular nucleus |
| UBERON:0007230 | lateral vestibular nucleus |
| UBERON:0007232 | 2 cell stage |
| UBERON:0007233 | 4 cell stage |
| UBERON:0007236 | 8 cell stage |
| UBERON:0007237 | 1st arch mandibular component |
| UBERON:0007238 | 1st arch maxillary component |
| UBERON:0007239 | tunica media of artery |
| UBERON:0007240 | tunica adventitia of artery |
| UBERON:0007241 | tunica adventitia of vein |
| UBERON:0007242 | tunica intima of vein |
| UBERON:0007243 | tunica media of vein |
| UBERON:0007244 | inferior olivary nucleus |
| UBERON:0007245 | nuclear complex of neuraxis |
| UBERON:0007247 | nucleus of superior olivary complex |
| UBERON:0007249 | dorsal accessory inferior olivary nucleus |
| UBERON:0007250 | lingual tonsil |
| UBERON:0007251 | preoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:0007252 | intervertebral disk of cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0007254 | intervertebral disk of thoracic vertebra |
| UBERON:0007255 | intervertebral disk of lumbar vertebra |
| UBERON:0007257 | intervertebral disk of sacral vertebra |
| UBERON:0007260 | intervertebral disk of third cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0007261 | intervertebral disk of fourth cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0007262 | intervertebral disk of fifth cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0007263 | intervertebral disk of sixth cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0007264 | intervertebral disk of seventh cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0007265 | intervertebral disk of axis |
| UBERON:0007266 | intervertebral disk of atlas |
| UBERON:0007267 | trachea pre-cartilage rings |
| UBERON:0007268 | upper esophageal sphincter |
| UBERON:0007269 | pectoral appendage musculature |
| UBERON:0007270 | pelvic appendage musculature |
| UBERON:0007271 | appendage musculature |
| UBERON:0007272 | pectoral appendage skeleton |
| UBERON:0007274 | crista of ampulla of anterior semicircular duct of membranous laybrinth |
| UBERON:0007275 | crista of ampulla of posterior semicircular duct of membranous laybrinth |
| UBERON:0007276 | crista of ampulla of lateral semicircular duct of membranous laybrinth |
| UBERON:0007277 | presumptive hindbrain |
| UBERON:0007278 | presumptive sinus venosus |
| UBERON:0007279 | presumptive atrioventricular canal |
| UBERON:0007280 | presumptive endocardium |
| UBERON:0007281 | presumptive midbrain hindbrain boundary |
| UBERON:0007282 | presumptive segmental plate |
| UBERON:0007283 | presumptive shield |
| UBERON:0007284 | presumptive neural plate |
| UBERON:0007285 | presumptive paraxial mesoderm |
| UBERON:0007286 | presumptive floor plate |
| UBERON:0007287 | presumptive bulbus arteriosus |
| UBERON:0007288 | presumptive forebrain midbrain boundary |
| UBERON:0007289 | presumptive rhombomere 1 |
| UBERON:0007290 | presumptive rhombomere 3 |
| UBERON:0007291 | presumptive rhombomere 4 |
| UBERON:0007292 | presumptive rhombomere 5 |
| UBERON:0007293 | presumptive rhombomere 6 |
| UBERON:0007294 | presumptive rhombomere 7 |
| UBERON:0007295 | presumptive rhombomere 8 |
| UBERON:0007296 | presumptive rhombomere 2 |
| UBERON:0007297 | presumptive pronephric mesoderm |
| UBERON:0007298 | pronephric proximal convoluted tubule |
| UBERON:0007299 | choroid plexus of tectal ventricle |
| UBERON:0007300 | pectoral appendage blood vessel |
| UBERON:0007301 | appendage blood vessel |
| UBERON:0007302 | pectoral appendage vasculature |
| UBERON:0007303 | pharyngeal vasculature |
| UBERON:0007304 | appendage vasculature |
| UBERON:0007306 | pronephric glomerular capillary |
| UBERON:0007307 | pronephric glomerular basement membrane |
| UBERON:0007308 | pronephric distal early tubule |
| UBERON:0007311 | sputum |
| UBERON:0007312 | pudendal artery |
| UBERON:0007314 | superior external pudendal artery |
| UBERON:0007315 | internal pudendal artery |
| UBERON:0007316 | deep external pudendal artery |
| UBERON:0007317 | superficial external pudendal artery |
| UBERON:0007318 | saphenous vein |
| UBERON:0007319 | medial saphenous vein |
| UBERON:0007321 | lateral saphenous vein |
| UBERON:0007324 | pancreatic lobule |
| UBERON:0007329 | pancreatic duct |
| UBERON:0007334 | nidopallium |
| UBERON:0007347 | hyperpallium |
| UBERON:0007349 | mesopallium |
| UBERON:0007350 | arcopallium |
| UBERON:0007351 | nucleus isthmo-opticus |
| UBERON:0007354 | cartilage of pharyngotympanic tube |
| UBERON:0007355 | bony part of pharyngotympanic tube |
| UBERON:0007356 | crop |
| UBERON:0007357 | proventriculus |
| UBERON:0007358 | abomasum |
| UBERON:0007359 | ruminant forestomach |
| UBERON:0007361 | ruminant reticulum |
| UBERON:0007362 | omasum |
| UBERON:0007364 | reticulorumen |
| UBERON:0007365 | rumen |
| UBERON:0007366 | ruminant stomach |
| UBERON:0007367 | surface of tongue |
| UBERON:0007371 | superior surface of tongue |
| UBERON:0007373 | inferior surface of tongue |
| UBERON:0007374 | incus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0007375 | roof of mouth |
| UBERON:0007376 | outer epithelium |
| UBERON:0007377 | stratum compactum of dermis |
| UBERON:0007378 | egg yolk |
| UBERON:0007379 | shelled egg |
| UBERON:0007380 | dermal scale |
| UBERON:0007381 | epidermal scale |
| UBERON:0007383 | enveloping layer of ectoderm |
| UBERON:0007384 | appendage lymph vessel |
| UBERON:0007385 | pectoral appendage lymph vessel |
| UBERON:0007389 | paired limb/fin cartilage |
| UBERON:0007390 | pectoral appendage cartilage tissue |
| UBERON:0007391 | pelvic appendage cartilage tissue |
| UBERON:0007412 | midbrain raphe nuclei |
| UBERON:0007413 | nucleus of pontine reticular formation |
| UBERON:0007414 | nucleus of midbrain tegmentum |
| UBERON:0007415 | nucleus of midbrain reticular formation |
| UBERON:0007416 | cerebellar peduncle |
| UBERON:0007417 | peduncle of neuraxis |
| UBERON:0007418 | neural decussation |
| UBERON:0007425 | decussation of diencephalon |
| UBERON:0007440 | stratum intermedium of tooth |
| UBERON:0007473 | lumen of epithelial sac |
| UBERON:0007475 | matrix-based tissue |
| UBERON:0007486 | fluid-based anatomical entity |
| UBERON:0007490 | keratin-based acellular structure |
| UBERON:0007491 | chitin-based acellular structure |
| UBERON:0007497 | obsolete developing epithelial placode |
| UBERON:0007499 | epithelial sac |
| UBERON:0007500 | epithelial tube open at both ends |
| UBERON:0007501 | arborizing epithelial duct system |
| UBERON:0007502 | epithelial plexus |
| UBERON:0007503 | epithelial vesicle |
| UBERON:0007521 | smooth muscle sphincter |
| UBERON:0007522 | striated muscle sphincter |
| UBERON:0007524 | dense mesenchyme tissue |
| UBERON:0007529 | loose mesenchyme tissue |
| UBERON:0007530 | migrating mesenchyme population |
| UBERON:0007567 | regenerating anatomical structure |
| UBERON:0007573 | migrating epithelium |
| UBERON:0007574 | apical epidermal cap |
| UBERON:0007589 | ciliated columnar oviduct epithelium |
| UBERON:0007590 | cuboidal oviduct epithelium |
| UBERON:0007592 | ciliated columnar epithelium |
| UBERON:0007602 | stratified columnar epithelium |
| UBERON:0007603 | stratified cuboidal epithelium |
| UBERON:0007606 | ciliated stratified columnar epithelium |
| UBERON:0007610 | tibial artery |
| UBERON:0007612 | extensor digitorum communis |
| UBERON:0007613 | extensor digitorum lateralis muscle |
| UBERON:0007614 | extensor digiti minimi muscle |
| UBERON:0007615 | prostate gland ventral lobe |
| UBERON:0007616 | layer of synovial tissue |
| UBERON:0007617 | synovial cavity of joint |
| UBERON:0007618 | synovial cavity of hip joint |
| UBERON:0007619 | limiting membrane of retina |
| UBERON:0007622 | pecten oculi |
| UBERON:0007623 | comb and wattle |
| UBERON:0007625 | pigment epithelium of eye |
| UBERON:0007626 | subparaventricular zone |
| UBERON:0007627 | magnocellular nucleus of stria terminalis |
| UBERON:0007628 | lateral septal complex |
| UBERON:0007629 | medial septal complex |
| UBERON:0007630 | septohippocampal nucleus |
| UBERON:0007631 | accessory olfactory bulb glomerular layer |
| UBERON:0007632 | Barrington's nucleus |
| UBERON:0007633 | nucleus of trapezoid body |
| UBERON:0007634 | parabrachial nucleus |
| UBERON:0007635 | nucleus of medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:0007637 | hippocampus stratum lucidum |
| UBERON:0007639 | hippocampus alveus |
| UBERON:0007640 | hippocampus stratum lacunosum moleculare |
| UBERON:0007641 | trigeminal nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0007642 | ligamentum arteriosum |
| UBERON:0007643 | node of ligamentum arteriosum |
| UBERON:0007644 | thoracic lymph node |
| UBERON:0007645 | future meninx |
| UBERON:0007647 | ectomeninx |
| UBERON:0007650 | esophagogastric junction |
| UBERON:0007651 | anatomical junction |
| UBERON:0007652 | esophageal sphincter |
| UBERON:0007653 | capillary loop nephron |
| UBERON:0007654 | maturing nephron |
| UBERON:0007656 | lateral recess of fourth ventricle |
| UBERON:0007657 | anular ligament of radius |
| UBERON:0007679 | intersomitic vein |
| UBERON:0007681 | facial neural crest |
| UBERON:0007683 | lateral mesenchyme derived from mesoderm |
| UBERON:0007684 | uriniferous tubule |
| UBERON:0007685 | region of nephron tubule |
| UBERON:0007688 | anlage |
| UBERON:0007689 | thyroid diverticulum |
| UBERON:0007690 | early pharyngeal endoderm |
| UBERON:0007691 | gustatory pore |
| UBERON:0007692 | nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0007693 | caroticotympanic artery |
| UBERON:0007699 | tract of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0007702 | tract of brain |
| UBERON:0007703 | spinothalamic tract |
| UBERON:0007707 | superior cerebellar peduncle of midbrain |
| UBERON:0007709 | superior cerebellar peduncle of pons |
| UBERON:0007710 | intermediate nucleus of lateral lemniscus |
| UBERON:0007711 | sixth cervical dorsal root ganglion |
| UBERON:0007712 | fourth thoracic spinal ganglion |
| UBERON:0007713 | fourth sacral spinal ganglion |
| UBERON:0007714 | cervical subsegment of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0007715 | thoracic subsegment of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0007716 | lumbar subsegment of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0007717 | sacral subsegment of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0007721 | interphalangeal joint of pes |
| UBERON:0007722 | interphalangeal joint of manus |
| UBERON:0007723 | interphalangeal joint of manual digit 1 |
| UBERON:0007724 | interphalangeal joint of pedal digit 1 |
| UBERON:0007725 | interphalangeal joint of pedal digit 2 |
| UBERON:0007726 | interphalangeal joint of pedal digit 3 |
| UBERON:0007727 | interphalangeal joint of pedal digit 4 |
| UBERON:0007728 | interphalangeal joint of pedal digit 5 |
| UBERON:0007729 | interphalangeal joint of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0007730 | interphalangeal joint of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0007731 | interphalangeal joint of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0007732 | interphalangeal joint of manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0007735 | metacarpophalangeal joint of manual digit 1 |
| UBERON:0007738 | metacarpophalangeal joint of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0007741 | metacarpophalangeal joint of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0007744 | metacarpophalangeal joint of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0007747 | metacarpophalangeal joint of manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0007750 | metatarsophalangeal joint of pedal digit 1 |
| UBERON:0007753 | metatarsophalangeal joint of pedal digit 2 |
| UBERON:0007756 | metatarsophalangeal joint of pedal digit 3 |
| UBERON:0007759 | metatarsophalangeal joint of pedal digit 4 |
| UBERON:0007762 | metatarsophalangeal joint of pedal digit 5 |
| UBERON:0007763 | cerebellum vermis culmen |
| UBERON:0007764 | paramedian reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:0007767 | dorsal premammillary nucleus |
| UBERON:0007768 | ventral premammillary nucleus |
| UBERON:0007769 | medial preoptic region |
| UBERON:0007770 | osphradium |
| UBERON:0007771 | epidermis gland |
| UBERON:0007772 | scrotal sweat |
| UBERON:0007773 | scrotal sweat gland |
| UBERON:0007774 | secondary dentition |
| UBERON:0007775 | secondary tooth |
| UBERON:0007776 | unerupted tooth |
| UBERON:0007777 | umbilical vein endothelium |
| UBERON:0007778 | umbilical artery endothelium |
| UBERON:0007779 | transudate |
| UBERON:0007780 | exudate |
| UBERON:0007794 | secretion of serous gland |
| UBERON:0007795 | ascitic fluid |
| UBERON:0007798 | vascular system |
| UBERON:0007799 | mixed dentition |
| UBERON:0007801 | pygostyle |
| UBERON:0007802 | uropygial gland |
| UBERON:0007804 | sclerotic ring |
| UBERON:0007805 | synsacrum |
| UBERON:0007806 | connecting stalk |
| UBERON:0007807 | connecting stalk vasculature |
| UBERON:0007808 | adipose tissue of abdominal region |
| UBERON:0007809 | fascia of Camper |
| UBERON:0007811 | craniocervical region |
| UBERON:0007812 | post-anal tail |
| UBERON:0007818 | major alar cartilage |
| UBERON:0007819 | minor alar cartilage |
| UBERON:0007820 | accessory nasal cartilage |
| UBERON:0007821 | lateral nasal cartilage |
| UBERON:0007822 | vomeronasal cartilage |
| UBERON:0007823 | appendage girdle region |
| UBERON:0007825 | reticular membrane of spiral organ |
| UBERON:0007826 | peritoneal mesentery |
| UBERON:0007827 | external nose |
| UBERON:0007828 | girdle bone/zone |
| UBERON:0007829 | pectoral girdle bone |
| UBERON:0007830 | pelvic girdle bone/zone |
| UBERON:0007831 | pectoral girdle skeleton |
| UBERON:0007832 | pelvic girdle skeleton |
| UBERON:0007833 | osseus semicircular canal |
| UBERON:0007834 | lumbar spinal cord ventral commissure |
| UBERON:0007835 | sacral spinal cord ventral commissure |
| UBERON:0007836 | cervical spinal cord ventral commissure |
| UBERON:0007837 | thoracic spinal cord ventral commissure |
| UBERON:0007838 | spinal cord white commissure |
| UBERON:0007840 | spinal cord dorsal white commissure |
| UBERON:0007841 | furcula |
| UBERON:0007842 | membrane bone |
| UBERON:0007843 | uncinate process of ribs |
| UBERON:0007844 | cartilage element |
| UBERON:0007845 | regular connective tissue |
| UBERON:0007846 | dense regular connective tissue |
| UBERON:0007862 | perichordal tissue |
| UBERON:0007914 | bone of craniocervical region |
| UBERON:0007958 | central carpal bone |
| UBERON:0007959 | falciform carpal bone |
| UBERON:0007960 | scapholunate |
| UBERON:0007990 | proximal sesamoid bone of pes |
| UBERON:0007991 | proximal sesamoid bone of manus |
| UBERON:0007993 | ulnar sesamoid bone |
| UBERON:0007997 | sesamoid bone of manus |
| UBERON:0008000 | sesamoid bone of pes |
| UBERON:0008001 | irregular bone |
| UBERON:0008114 | joint of girdle |
| UBERON:0008115 | surface of cartilage |
| UBERON:0008124 | joint articular surface |
| UBERON:0008187 | hypertrophic cartilage zone |
| UBERON:0008188 | tendon of biceps brachii |
| UBERON:0008192 | tendon of triceps brachii |
| UBERON:0008193 | pneumatized bone |
| UBERON:0008194 | tibiotarsus |
| UBERON:0008195 | tarsometatarsus |
| UBERON:0008196 | muscle of pectoral girdle |
| UBERON:0008198 | nail plate |
| UBERON:0008199 | chin |
| UBERON:0008200 | forehead |
| UBERON:0008201 | scute |
| UBERON:0008202 | bone of hip region |
| UBERON:0008203 | pelvic cavity |
| UBERON:0008229 | craniocervical region musculature |
| UBERON:0008230 | tibialis |
| UBERON:0008231 | dorsal thoracic segment of trunk |
| UBERON:0008242 | lower back muscle |
| UBERON:0008243 | upper back muscle |
| UBERON:0008245 | pennate muscle |
| UBERON:0008246 | pyloric stomach |
| UBERON:0008247 | tube foot |
| UBERON:0008248 | echinoderm pyloric cecum |
| UBERON:0008250 | cardiac stomach |
| UBERON:0008251 | water vascular system |
| UBERON:0008252 | tube foot ampulla |
| UBERON:0008253 | Aristotle's lantern |
| UBERON:0008255 | right clavicle |
| UBERON:0008256 | left clavicle |
| UBERON:0008261 | pedicellaria |
| UBERON:0008266 | periodontal ligament |
| UBERON:0008267 | left supracardinal vein |
| UBERON:0008268 | right supracardinal vein |
| UBERON:0008269 | nacre |
| UBERON:0008270 | mollusc shell |
| UBERON:0008274 | mollusc venom |
| UBERON:0008275 | carapace |
| UBERON:0008276 | plastron |
| UBERON:0008280 | cnidarian venom |
| UBERON:0008281 | tooth bud |
| UBERON:0008284 | columnella muscle |
| UBERON:0008285 | rumen epithelium |
| UBERON:0008286 | feather calamus |
| UBERON:0008287 | feather vane |
| UBERON:0008288 | feather rachis |
| UBERON:0008291 | down feather |
| UBERON:0008292 | vaned feather |
| UBERON:0008294 | feather barb |
| UBERON:0008295 | feather barbule |
| UBERON:0008297 | pennaceous feather |
| UBERON:0008304 | inner chondrogenic layer of perichondrium |
| UBERON:0008305 | outer fibrous layer of perichondrium |
| UBERON:0008307 | heart endothelium |
| UBERON:0008310 | nasopharyngeal gland |
| UBERON:0008311 | penile bulb artery |
| UBERON:0008320 | common penile artery |
| UBERON:0008321 | deep artery of penis |
| UBERON:0008322 | deep artery of clitoris |
| UBERON:0008323 | dorsal artery of clitoris |
| UBERON:0008324 | erectile tissue |
| UBERON:0008330 | vestibule of vagina |
| UBERON:0008331 | clitoral smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0008332 | hilum of neuraxis |
| UBERON:0008333 | hilum of inferior olivary complex |
| UBERON:0008334 | subarachnoid sulcus |
| UBERON:0008335 | ventrolateral sulcus of medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:0008337 | inguinal part of abdomen |
| UBERON:0008338 | plantar part of pes |
| UBERON:0008339 | microvascular endothelium |
| UBERON:0008340 | nasal bridge |
| UBERON:0008341 | columella nasi |
| UBERON:0008342 | intestinal villus of duodenum |
| UBERON:0008343 | intestinal villus of jejunum |
| UBERON:0008344 | intestinal villus of ileum |
| UBERON:0008345 | ileal epithelium |
| UBERON:0008346 | duodenal epithelium |
| UBERON:0008367 | breast epithelium |
| UBERON:0008397 | tracheobronchial epithelium |
| UBERON:0008404 | proximal tubular epithelium |
| UBERON:0008408 | distal tubular epithelium |
| UBERON:0008420 | buccal epithelium |
| UBERON:0008424 | inguinal mammary gland |
| UBERON:0008425 | mammary ridge |
| UBERON:0008426 | transverse foramen of atlas |
| UBERON:0008427 | transverse foramen of axis |
| UBERON:0008428 | ceratoglossus |
| UBERON:0008429 | cervical vertebral foramen |
| UBERON:0008430 | lumbar vertebral foramen |
| UBERON:0008431 | sacral foramen |
| UBERON:0008432 | thoracic vertebral foramen |
| UBERON:0008433 | lumbar vertebral arch |
| UBERON:0008434 | cervical vertebral arch |
| UBERON:0008435 | vertebral arch of sacral segment |
| UBERON:0008436 | thoracic vertebral arch |
| UBERON:0008437 | posterior arch of atlas |
| UBERON:0008441 | webbed manus |
| UBERON:0008442 | webbed pes |
| UBERON:0008446 | flexor pollicis longus muscle |
| UBERON:0008447 | intertarsal joint |
| UBERON:0008449 | trochlear notch |
| UBERON:0008450 | psoas muscle |
| UBERON:0008453 | rectus capitis anterior |
| UBERON:0008454 | rectus capitis posterior major |
| UBERON:0008455 | rectus capitis posterior minor |
| UBERON:0008456 | prezygapophysis of lumbar vertebra |
| UBERON:0008457 | prezygapophysis of sacral vertebra |
| UBERON:0008459 | prezygapophysis of cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0008460 | prezygapophysis of thoracic vertebra |
| UBERON:0008461 | postzygapophysis of lumbar vertebra |
| UBERON:0008462 | postzygapophysis of cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0008463 | postzygapophysis of thoracic vertebra |
| UBERON:0008464 | abductor hallucis muscle |
| UBERON:0008465 | abductor pollicis brevis muscle |
| UBERON:0008488 | cremaster muscle |
| UBERON:0008521 | gluteus minimus |
| UBERON:0008522 | nasal muscle |
| UBERON:0008523 | infrahyoid muscle |
| UBERON:0008529 | piriformis muscle |
| UBERON:0008537 | quadratus femoris |
| UBERON:0008544 | splenius cervicis |
| UBERON:0008546 | iliocostalis cervicis muscle |
| UBERON:0008549 | prevertebral muscle |
| UBERON:0008571 | suprahyoid muscle |
| UBERON:0008572 | posterior crico-arytenoid |
| UBERON:0008573 | lateral crico-arytenoid |
| UBERON:0008574 | transverse arytenoid |
| UBERON:0008575 | oblique arytenoid |
| UBERON:0008576 | thyro-arytenoid |
| UBERON:0008577 | vocalis muscle |
| UBERON:0008582 | superior longitudinal muscle of tongue |
| UBERON:0008583 | transverse muscle of tongue |
| UBERON:0008584 | vertical muscle of tongue |
| UBERON:0008585 | levator veli palatini |
| UBERON:0008586 | tensor veli palatini |
| UBERON:0008588 | procerus |
| UBERON:0008589 | depressor septi nasi |
| UBERON:0008591 | depressor supercilii |
| UBERON:0008592 | levator labii superioris alaeque nasi |
| UBERON:0008593 | zygomaticus major muscle |
| UBERON:0008594 | zygomaticus minor muscle |
| UBERON:0008595 | levator anguli oris |
| UBERON:0008596 | mentalis muscle |
| UBERON:0008597 | depressor anguli oris muscle |
| UBERON:0008598 | risorius muscle |
| UBERON:0008603 | helicis major |
| UBERON:0008604 | helicis minor |
| UBERON:0008605 | tragicus muscle |
| UBERON:0008606 | antitragicus muscle |
| UBERON:0008607 | transverse muscle of auricle |
| UBERON:0008608 | oblique muscle of auricle |
| UBERON:0008609 | transversus menti muscle |
| UBERON:0008611 | scalene muscle |
| UBERON:0008612 | muscle of pelvic diaphragm |
| UBERON:0008617 | innermost intercostal muscle |
| UBERON:0008618 | subcostal muscle |
| UBERON:0008622 | scalenus anterior |
| UBERON:0008712 | stylohyoid muscle |
| UBERON:0008713 | pectoral girdle and thoracic body wall skeletal muscle |
| UBERON:0008715 | muscle tissue of prostate |
| UBERON:0008716 | hilum of kidney |
| UBERON:0008772 | proximal epiphysis of tibia |
| UBERON:0008775 | proximal epiphysis of fibula |
| UBERON:0008776 | inner cell mass derived hypoblast |
| UBERON:0008777 | hypaxial musculature |
| UBERON:0008778 | epaxial musculature |
| UBERON:0008779 | subclavius |
| UBERON:0008780 | inner cell mass derived epiblast |
| UBERON:0008781 | blastodisc derived epiblast |
| UBERON:0008783 | dorsal venous arch |
| UBERON:0008784 | lower limb segment |
| UBERON:0008785 | upper limb segment |
| UBERON:0008786 | third trochanter |
| UBERON:0008787 | fourth trochanter |
| UBERON:0008788 | posterior cranial fossa |
| UBERON:0008789 | cranial fossa |
| UBERON:0008790 | rugal fold |
| UBERON:0008791 | rugal fold of stomach |
| UBERON:0008798 | rugal fold of vagina |
| UBERON:0008799 | transverse palatine fold |
| UBERON:0008800 | parietal endoderm |
| UBERON:0008801 | parotid gland primordium |
| UBERON:0008802 | cheek pouch |
| UBERON:0008803 | skin of cheek |
| UBERON:0008804 | stylopharyngeus muscle |
| UBERON:0008805 | gingival groove |
| UBERON:0008807 | coagulating gland |
| UBERON:0008808 | prostate gland dorsolateral lobe |
| UBERON:0008809 | foramina of scarpa |
| UBERON:0008810 | nasopalatine nerve |
| UBERON:0008811 | intromittent organ |
| UBERON:0008812 | hemipenis |
| UBERON:0008813 | helicotrema |
| UBERON:0008814 | pharyngeal arch system |
| UBERON:0008815 | pharyngeal slit |
| UBERON:0008816 | embryonic head |
| UBERON:0008818 | superior mediastinum |
| UBERON:0008819 | inferior mediastinum |
| UBERON:0008820 | anterior mediastinum |
| UBERON:0008821 | middle mediastinum |
| UBERON:0008822 | posterior mediastinum |
| UBERON:0008824 | duct of epididymis |
| UBERON:0008826 | pulmonary surfactant |
| UBERON:0008827 | murine forestomach |
| UBERON:0008828 | presphenoid bone |
| UBERON:0008829 | cerebellum external granule cell layer |
| UBERON:0008830 | cerebellum internal granule cell layer |
| UBERON:0008831 | inner spiral sulcus |
| UBERON:0008832 | outer spiral sulcus |
| UBERON:0008833 | great auricular nerve |
| UBERON:0008834 | prostomium |
| UBERON:0008835 | hepatic diverticulum |
| UBERON:0008836 | liver bud |
| UBERON:0008838 | metapodial pad |
| UBERON:0008839 | palmar pad |
| UBERON:0008840 | plantar pad |
| UBERON:0008842 | suspensory ligament of testis |
| UBERON:0008843 | gubernaculum testis |
| UBERON:0008845 | nonskeletal ligament |
| UBERON:0008846 | skeletal ligament |
| UBERON:0008847 | ovarian ligament |
| UBERON:0008848 | cranial suspensory ligament |
| UBERON:0008851 | ectoplacental cavity |
| UBERON:0008852 | visceral yolk sac |
| UBERON:0008853 | parietal yolk sac |
| UBERON:0008854 | root of molar tooth |
| UBERON:0008855 | placenta metrial gland |
| UBERON:0008856 | stomach muscularis externa |
| UBERON:0008857 | stomach smooth muscle circular layer |
| UBERON:0008858 | pyloric canal |
| UBERON:0008859 | cardiac gastric gland |
| UBERON:0008861 | pyloric gastric gland |
| UBERON:0008862 | stomach smooth muscle inner oblique layer |
| UBERON:0008863 | stomach smooth muscle outer longitudinal layer |
| UBERON:0008866 | enamel knot |
| UBERON:0008867 | trabecular network of bone |
| UBERON:0008870 | pulmonary alveolar parenchyma |
| UBERON:0008873 | alveolar pore |
| UBERON:0008874 | pulmonary acinus |
| UBERON:0008876 | hypodermis skeletal muscle layer |
| UBERON:0008877 | epidermal-dermal junction |
| UBERON:0008878 | palmar part of manus |
| UBERON:0008879 | ligament of pinna |
| UBERON:0008880 | annelid pygidium |
| UBERON:0008881 | rostral migratory stream |
| UBERON:0008882 | spinal cord commissure |
| UBERON:0008883 | osteoid |
| UBERON:0008884 | left putamen |
| UBERON:0008885 | right putamen |
| UBERON:0008886 | pulmonary vascular system |
| UBERON:0008887 | rectal venous plexus |
| UBERON:0008888 | vesical venous plexus |
| UBERON:0008889 | uterine venous plexus |
| UBERON:0008891 | external gill |
| UBERON:0008892 | internal gill |
| UBERON:0008894 | pharyngeal gill precursor |
| UBERON:0008895 | splanchnocranium |
| UBERON:0008896 | post-hyoid pharyngeal arch |
| UBERON:0008897 | fin |
| UBERON:0008902 | lateral recess of third ventricle |
| UBERON:0008904 | neuromast |
| UBERON:0008906 | lateral line nerve |
| UBERON:0008907 | dermal bone |
| UBERON:0008909 | perichordal bone |
| UBERON:0008911 | chondral bone |
| UBERON:0008913 | perichondral bone |
| UBERON:0008915 | pore |
| UBERON:0008917 | ampullary organ |
| UBERON:0008918 | ampulla of Lorenzini |
| UBERON:0008930 | somatosensory cortex |
| UBERON:0008933 | primary somatosensory cortex |
| UBERON:0008934 | secondary somatosensory cortex |
| UBERON:0008935 | gastropod albumen gland |
| UBERON:0008936 | gastropod genital pore |
| UBERON:0008937 | visceral hump |
| UBERON:0008939 | pedal ganglion |
| UBERON:0008940 | parietal ganglion |
| UBERON:0008941 | pleural ganglion |
| UBERON:0008942 | gastropod cerebral ganglion |
| UBERON:0008943 | headfoot |
| UBERON:0008944 | albumen |
| UBERON:0008945 | extraembryonic endoderm |
| UBERON:0008946 | lung parenchyma |
| UBERON:0008947 | respiratory primordium |
| UBERON:0008948 | upper lobe of lung |
| UBERON:0008949 | lower lobe of lung |
| UBERON:0008951 | left lung lobe |
| UBERON:0008952 | upper lobe of left lung |
| UBERON:0008953 | lower lobe of left lung |
| UBERON:0008954 | lingula of left lung |
| UBERON:0008955 | middle lobe of lung |
| UBERON:0008956 | involucrum |
| UBERON:0008957 | sequestrum |
| UBERON:0008959 | auditory bulla |
| UBERON:0008962 | forelimb bone |
| UBERON:0008963 | hoof |
| UBERON:0008964 | abdominal ganglion of visceral hump |
| UBERON:0008967 | centrum semiovale |
| UBERON:0008969 | dental follicle |
| UBERON:0008971 | left colon |
| UBERON:0008972 | right colon |
| UBERON:0008974 | apocrine gland |
| UBERON:0008975 | oviduct shell gland |
| UBERON:0008976 | snake venom gland |
| UBERON:0008977 | pes anserinus of tibia |
| UBERON:0008978 | anal sac |
| UBERON:0008979 | carcass |
| UBERON:0008982 | fascia |
| UBERON:0008987 | renal parenchyma |
| UBERON:0008989 | submucosal esophageal gland |
| UBERON:0008992 | chorion frondosum |
| UBERON:0008993 | habenular nucleus |
| UBERON:0008994 | equine glandular stomach |
| UBERON:0008995 | nucleus of cerebellar nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0008998 | vasculature of brain |
| UBERON:0008999 | hoof lamina |
| UBERON:0009000 | ischial spine |
| UBERON:0009002 | placental membrane |
| UBERON:0009005 | femorotibial joint |
| UBERON:0009006 | deep inguinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0009007 | superficial inguinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0009009 | carotid sinus nerve |
| UBERON:0009010 | periurethral tissue |
| UBERON:0009013 | white fibrocartilage |
| UBERON:0009014 | lower back skin |
| UBERON:0009015 | upper back skin |
| UBERON:0009016 | ciliary stroma |
| UBERON:0009020 | left uterine horn |
| UBERON:0009022 | right uterine horn |
| UBERON:0009024 | adrenal gland X zone |
| UBERON:0009025 | gastroepiploic artery |
| UBERON:0009026 | iliac circumflex artery |
| UBERON:0009027 | vesical artery |
| UBERON:0009029 | pudendal vein |
| UBERON:0009030 | left pulmonary vein |
| UBERON:0009032 | right pulmonary vein |
| UBERON:0009035 | renal straight tubule |
| UBERON:0009038 | sulcus ampullaris |
| UBERON:0009039 | lymph node germinal center |
| UBERON:0009040 | deep circumflex iliac artery |
| UBERON:0009041 | superficial circumflex iliac artery |
| UBERON:0009042 | prostatic venous plexus |
| UBERON:0009044 | pudendal venous plexus |
| UBERON:0009046 | inferior external pudendal vein |
| UBERON:0009047 | superior external pudendal vein |
| UBERON:0009048 | deep external pudendal vein |
| UBERON:0009049 | superficial external pudendal vein |
| UBERON:0009050 | nucleus of solitary tract |
| UBERON:0009051 | gelatinous nucleus of solitary tract |
| UBERON:0009052 | medial nucleus of solitary tract |
| UBERON:0009053 | dorsal nucleus of trapezoid body |
| UBERON:0009054 | open circulatory system |
| UBERON:0009056 | two-pass circulatory system |
| UBERON:0009060 | air sac |
| UBERON:0009064 | cervical air sac |
| UBERON:0009065 | anterior thoracic air sac |
| UBERON:0009066 | posterior thoracic air sac |
| UBERON:0009067 | abdominal air sac |
| UBERON:0009074 | syrinx organ |
| UBERON:0009097 | gravid organism |
| UBERON:0009098 | gravid uterus |
| UBERON:0009099 | typhlosole |
| UBERON:0009117 | indifferent gonad |
| UBERON:0009120 | gill filament |
| UBERON:0009121 | vomeronasal nerve |
| UBERON:0009122 | adenohypophyseal placode |
| UBERON:0009124 | geniculate placode |
| UBERON:0009125 | petrosal placode |
| UBERON:0009126 | nodosal placode |
| UBERON:0009127 | epibranchial ganglion |
| UBERON:0009128 | lateral line placode |
| UBERON:0009129 | right atrium endocardium |
| UBERON:0009130 | dorsal meso-duodenum |
| UBERON:0009132 | peroneus |
| UBERON:0009133 | pleuroperitoneal membrane |
| UBERON:0009138 | right common cardinal vein |
| UBERON:0009139 | right posterior cardinal vein |
| UBERON:0009140 | right subcardinal vein |
| UBERON:0009141 | craniocervical region vein |
| UBERON:0009142 | entire embryonic mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009145 | pharyngeal region of foregut |
| UBERON:0009149 | foramen primum |
| UBERON:0009191 | sphenoid bone pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0009192 | basisphenoid pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0009193 | sphenoid cartilage element |
| UBERON:0009194 | basisphenoid cartilage condenstion |
| UBERON:0009195 | anal membrane |
| UBERON:0009196 | indifferent external genitalia |
| UBERON:0009197 | basioccipital pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0009200 | limb epidermis |
| UBERON:0009201 | nephric duct |
| UBERON:0009203 | internasal suture |
| UBERON:0009204 | medial nasal process mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009205 | lateral nasal process mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009206 | lateral nasal process surface ectoderm |
| UBERON:0009210 | pharyngeal membrane |
| UBERON:0009213 | pharyngeal membrane of 1st arch |
| UBERON:0009215 | pharyngeal membrane of 2nd arch |
| UBERON:0009216 | pharyngeal membrane of 3rd arch |
| UBERON:0009217 | pharyngeal membrane of 4th arch |
| UBERON:0009291 | cartilaginous vertebral centrum |
| UBERON:0009292 | embryonic nasal process |
| UBERON:0009293 | embryonic frontal process |
| UBERON:0009468 | basiotic bone |
| UBERON:0009470 | postsphenoidal bone |
| UBERON:0009471 | dorsum of tongue |
| UBERON:0009472 | axilla |
| UBERON:0009473 | parapodium |
| UBERON:0009474 | ascidian ampulla |
| UBERON:0009476 | madreporite |
| UBERON:0009477 | associated mesenchyme of otic placode |
| UBERON:0009478 | associated mesenchyme of midgut |
| UBERON:0009479 | ectoderm of buccopharyngeal membrane |
| UBERON:0009480 | endoderm of buccopharyngeal membrane |
| UBERON:0009481 | cavity of pericardio-peritoneal canal |
| UBERON:0009482 | associated mesenchyme of foregut-midgut junction |
| UBERON:0009483 | mesentery of foregut-midgut junction |
| UBERON:0009484 | dorsal mesentery of mesentery of foregut-midgut junction |
| UBERON:0009494 | pharyngeal arch mesenchymal region |
| UBERON:0009495 | extrahepatic part of biliary bud |
| UBERON:0009496 | intrahepatic part of biliary bud |
| UBERON:0009497 | epithelium of foregut-midgut junction |
| UBERON:0009499 | parietal of mesothelium of pericardio-peritoneal canal |
| UBERON:0009500 | periotic mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009501 | mesenchyme of fronto-nasal process |
| UBERON:0009502 | ventral mesentery of mesentery of foregut-midgut junction |
| UBERON:0009503 | mesenchyme of hindgut |
| UBERON:0009504 | mesenchyme of main bronchus |
| UBERON:0009505 | mesenchyme of trachea |
| UBERON:0009506 | mesenchyme of middle ear |
| UBERON:0009521 | anal membrane endodermal component |
| UBERON:0009522 | lateral lingual swelling epithelium |
| UBERON:0009523 | mesenchyme of handplate |
| UBERON:0009526 | maxillary process mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009536 | vascular element of left lung |
| UBERON:0009537 | vascular element of right lung |
| UBERON:0009538 | mesenchyme of sublingual gland primordium |
| UBERON:0009539 | mesenchyme of submandibular gland primordium |
| UBERON:0009548 | hepatic sinusoid of left of lobe of liver |
| UBERON:0009549 | hepatic sinusoid of right of lobe of liver |
| UBERON:0009550 | endoderm of foregut-midgut junction |
| UBERON:0009552 | distal segment of manual digit |
| UBERON:0009555 | short pastern bone |
| UBERON:0009556 | long pastern bone |
| UBERON:0009558 | pastern bone |
| UBERON:0009563 | pastern region of limb |
| UBERON:0009564 | distal limb integumentary appendage |
| UBERON:0009565 | nail of manual digit |
| UBERON:0009566 | intestinal submucosa |
| UBERON:0009567 | nail of pedal digit |
| UBERON:0009568 | trunk region of vertebral column |
| UBERON:0009569 | subdivision of trunk |
| UBERON:0009570 | spinal cord sulcus limitans |
| UBERON:0009571 | ventral midline |
| UBERON:0009572 | lumen of central canal of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0009573 | sulcus limitans of fourth ventricle |
| UBERON:0009576 | medulla oblongata sulcus limitans |
| UBERON:0009577 | metencephalon sulcus limitans |
| UBERON:0009578 | myelencephalon sulcus limitans |
| UBERON:0009579 | myelencephalon basal plate |
| UBERON:0009580 | diencephalon mantle layer |
| UBERON:0009581 | midbrain mantle layer |
| UBERON:0009582 | spinal cord lateral wall |
| UBERON:0009583 | spinal cord mantle layer |
| UBERON:0009584 | 1st arch mandibular mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009585 | interdigital region mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009586 | mesenchyme of interdigital region between manual digits 1 and 2 |
| UBERON:0009587 | mesenchyme of interdigital region between manual digits 2 and 3 |
| UBERON:0009588 | mesenchyme of interdigital region between manual digits 3 and 4 |
| UBERON:0009589 | mesenchyme of interdigital region between manual digits 4 and 5 |
| UBERON:0009590 | mesenchyme of interdigital region between pedal digits 1 and 2 |
| UBERON:0009591 | mesenchyme of interdigital region between pedal digits 2 and 3 |
| UBERON:0009592 | mesenchyme of interdigital region between pedal digits 3 and 4 |
| UBERON:0009593 | mesenchyme of interdigital region between pedal digits 4 and 5 |
| UBERON:0009600 | mesenchyme of interdigital region of manus |
| UBERON:0009601 | mesenchyme of interdigital region of pes |
| UBERON:0009602 | left lung associated mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009603 | right lung associated mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009610 | forebrain neural plate |
| UBERON:0009611 | midbrain neural plate |
| UBERON:0009612 | forebrain midbrain boundary neural plate |
| UBERON:0009614 | hindbrain neural plate |
| UBERON:0009615 | midbrain hindbrain boundary neural plate |
| UBERON:0009616 | presumptive midbrain |
| UBERON:0009617 | head paraxial mesoderm |
| UBERON:0009618 | trunk paraxial mesoderm |
| UBERON:0009620 | tail bud paraxial mesoderm |
| UBERON:0009621 | tail somite |
| UBERON:0009622 | pronephric proximal straight tubule |
| UBERON:0009623 | spinal nerve root |
| UBERON:0009624 | lumbar nerve |
| UBERON:0009625 | sacral nerve |
| UBERON:0009629 | coccygeal nerve |
| UBERON:0009630 | root of thoracic nerve |
| UBERON:0009631 | root of lumbar spinal nerve |
| UBERON:0009632 | root of cervical nerve |
| UBERON:0009633 | root of sacral nerve |
| UBERON:0009634 | root of coccygeal nerve |
| UBERON:0009635 | parachordal cartilage |
| UBERON:0009639 | body of sphenoid |
| UBERON:0009641 | ansa lenticularis |
| UBERON:0009643 | central tegmental tract |
| UBERON:0009644 | trachea non-cartilage connective tissue |
| UBERON:0009645 | ampullary gland |
| UBERON:0009646 | lumbar sympathetic nerve trunk |
| UBERON:0009647 | tympanic membrane epithelium |
| UBERON:0009648 | eyelid subcutaneous connective tissue |
| UBERON:0009650 | cortical arch of kidney |
| UBERON:0009651 | nephron tubule basement membrane |
| UBERON:0009652 | bronchus basement membrane |
| UBERON:0009653 | trachea basement membrane |
| UBERON:0009654 | alveolar artery |
| UBERON:0009655 | auricular artery |
| UBERON:0009657 | artery of lip |
| UBERON:0009658 | pancreaticoduodenal artery |
| UBERON:0009659 | spermatic artery |
| UBERON:0009661 | midbrain nucleus |
| UBERON:0009662 | hindbrain nucleus |
| UBERON:0009663 | telencephalic nucleus |
| UBERON:0009664 | gut mesentery |
| UBERON:0009668 | ventral mesentery |
| UBERON:0009669 | embryonic cloacal lumen |
| UBERON:0009670 | rectal lumen |
| UBERON:0009671 | nasal fin |
| UBERON:0009672 | oronasal membrane |
| UBERON:0009673 | accessory XI nerve cranial component |
| UBERON:0009674 | accessory XI nerve spinal component |
| UBERON:0009675 | chorda tympani branch of facial nerve |
| UBERON:0009676 | early telencephalic vesicle |
| UBERON:0009678 | tooth row |
| UBERON:0009679 | set of lower jaw teeth |
| UBERON:0009680 | set of upper jaw teeth |
| UBERON:0009687 | middle cardiac vein |
| UBERON:0009688 | posterior inferior cerebellar artery |
| UBERON:0009689 | anterior inferior cerebellar artery |
| UBERON:0009692 | lumen of pharyngotympanic tube |
| UBERON:0009695 | epithelium of laryngopharynx |
| UBERON:0009697 | epithelium of appendix |
| UBERON:0009708 | dorsal pancreas |
| UBERON:0009709 | ventral pancreas |
| UBERON:0009712 | endocardium of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0009713 | endocardium of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0009714 | intermaxillary process |
| UBERON:0009719 | tunicate siphon |
| UBERON:0009722 | entire pharyngeal arch endoderm |
| UBERON:0009742 | proamniotic cavity |
| UBERON:0009744 | lymph node medullary sinus |
| UBERON:0009745 | lymph node medullary cord |
| UBERON:0009746 | head fold of embryonic disc |
| UBERON:0009747 | tail fold of embryonic disc |
| UBERON:0009748 | cephalic neural fold |
| UBERON:0009749 | limb mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009751 | cardiac mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009752 | pancreas mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009753 | adrenal gland cortex zone |
| UBERON:0009754 | blubber |
| UBERON:0009755 | spermaceti |
| UBERON:0009756 | spermaceti organ |
| UBERON:0009757 | ambergris |
| UBERON:0009758 | abdominal ganglion |
| UBERON:0009767 | proximal interphalangeal joint |
| UBERON:0009768 | distal interphalangeal joint |
| UBERON:0009769 | left common cardinal vein |
| UBERON:0009771 | left anterior cardinal vein |
| UBERON:0009772 | right anterior cardinal vein |
| UBERON:0009775 | lateral medullary reticular complex |
| UBERON:0009776 | intermediate reticular formation |
| UBERON:0009777 | intermediate reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:0009778 | pleural sac |
| UBERON:0009779 | cardiac muscle tissue of right auricle |
| UBERON:0009780 | cardiac muscle tissue of left auricle |
| UBERON:0009834 | dorsolateral prefrontal cortex |
| UBERON:0009835 | anterior cingulate cortex |
| UBERON:0009836 | fronto-orbital gyrus |
| UBERON:0009840 | lower rhombic lip |
| UBERON:0009841 | upper rhombic lip |
| UBERON:0009842 | glandular acinus |
| UBERON:0009844 | urogenital sinus lumen |
| UBERON:0009845 | urogenital sinus mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009846 | embryonic cloacal epithelium |
| UBERON:0009848 | zona limitans intrathalamica |
| UBERON:0009849 | tadpole stage |
| UBERON:0009853 | body of uterus |
| UBERON:0009854 | digestive tract diverticulum |
| UBERON:0009857 | cavum septum pellucidum |
| UBERON:0009858 | outer fibrous layer of periosteum |
| UBERON:0009859 | endosteum |
| UBERON:0009870 | zone of stomach |
| UBERON:0009871 | nephrogenic zone |
| UBERON:0009877 | metapodium region |
| UBERON:0009878 | mesopodial skeleton |
| UBERON:0009879 | tarsal skeleton |
| UBERON:0009880 | carpal skeleton |
| UBERON:0009881 | anterior lateral plate mesoderm |
| UBERON:0009882 | anal column |
| UBERON:0009883 | medullary ray |
| UBERON:0009885 | interlobar artery |
| UBERON:0009887 | interlobar vein |
| UBERON:0009889 | secondary heart field |
| UBERON:0009891 | facial mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0009897 | right auditory cortex |
| UBERON:0009898 | left auditory cortex |
| UBERON:0009899 | pole of cerebral hemisphere |
| UBERON:0009906 | root of optic nerve |
| UBERON:0009907 | sensory root of trigeminal nerve |
| UBERON:0009908 | caudal root of abducens nerve |
| UBERON:0009909 | rostral root of abducens nerve |
| UBERON:0009910 | posterior lateral plate mesoderm |
| UBERON:0009911 | lobule |
| UBERON:0009912 | anatomical lobe |
| UBERON:0009913 | renal lobe |
| UBERON:0009914 | renal lobule |
| UBERON:0009916 | wall of ureter |
| UBERON:0009917 | kidney corticomedullary boundary |
| UBERON:0009918 | retrotrapezoid nucleus |
| UBERON:0009919 | ureter smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0009920 | optic neural crest |
| UBERON:0009948 | clavicular air sac |
| UBERON:0009950 | olfactory bulb plexiform layer |
| UBERON:0009951 | main olfactory bulb |
| UBERON:0009952 | dentate gyrus subgranular zone |
| UBERON:0009953 | post-embryonic organism |
| UBERON:0009955 | neurogenic placode |
| UBERON:0009958 | bladder lumen |
| UBERON:0009959 | lumen of oropharynx |
| UBERON:0009960 | esophagus smooth muscle circular layer |
| UBERON:0009961 | esophagus smooth muscle longitudinal layer |
| UBERON:0009962 | excretory gland |
| UBERON:0009963 | antennal gland |
| UBERON:0009965 | coxal gland |
| UBERON:0009966 | internodal tract |
| UBERON:0009967 | spleen venous sinus |
| UBERON:0009968 | primitive superior sagittal sinus |
| UBERON:0009969 | statoacoustic epithelium |
| UBERON:0009970 | epithelium of pancreatic duct |
| UBERON:0009971 | principal gastric gland |
| UBERON:0009972 | ureteropelvic junction |
| UBERON:0009973 | ureterovesical junction |
| UBERON:0009974 | lumen of Rathke's pouch |
| UBERON:0009975 | remnant of lumen of Rathke's pouch |
| UBERON:0009976 | hypothalamo-hypophyseal system |
| UBERON:0009977 | natal tooth |
| UBERON:0009978 | epicondyle |
| UBERON:0009979 | condyle |
| UBERON:0009980 | condyle of femur |
| UBERON:0009984 | medial condyle of femur |
| UBERON:0009985 | lateral condyle of femur |
| UBERON:0009986 | lateral epicondyle of femur |
| UBERON:0009987 | medial epicondyle of femur |
| UBERON:0009988 | condyle of humerus |
| UBERON:0009989 | condyle of tibia |
| UBERON:0009990 | medial condyle of tibia |
| UBERON:0009991 | lateral condyle of tibia |
| UBERON:0009992 | cranial sensory ganglion |
| UBERON:0009993 | primary chorionic villus |
| UBERON:0009994 | secondary chorionic villus |
| UBERON:0009995 | tertiary chorionic villus |
| UBERON:0010000 | multicellular anatomical structure |
| UBERON:0010001 | cell cluster organ |
| UBERON:0010002 | pulmonary neuroendocrine body |
| UBERON:0010008 | placental cotyledon |
| UBERON:0010009 | aggregate regional part of brain |
| UBERON:0010010 | basal nucleus of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0010011 | collection of basal ganglia |
| UBERON:0010016 | spiral valve of intestine |
| UBERON:0010017 | spiral valve of cystic duct |
| UBERON:0010018 | spiral valve of conus arteriosus |
| UBERON:0010020 | tubotympanic recess epithelium |
| UBERON:0010025 | dorsal part of pharyngeal pouch 3 |
| UBERON:0010026 | ventral part of pharyngeal pouch 3 |
| UBERON:0010031 | 6th arch mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010032 | anterior part of tongue |
| UBERON:0010033 | posterior part of tongue |
| UBERON:0010034 | copula linguae |
| UBERON:0010036 | anterior tegmental nucleus |
| UBERON:0010038 | fundic gastric gland |
| UBERON:0010039 | food storage organ |
| UBERON:0010042 | 1st arch mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010045 | 1st arch maxillary mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010046 | entire pharyngeal arch associated mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010047 | oral gland |
| UBERON:0010052 | mucosa of dorsum of tongue |
| UBERON:0010054 | malleus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010055 | stapes cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010056 | future tongue |
| UBERON:0010057 | hypopharyngeal eminence |
| UBERON:0010059 | hypoglossal cord |
| UBERON:0010060 | pharyngeal opening of pharyngotympanic tube |
| UBERON:0010061 | lumen of nasopharynx |
| UBERON:0010062 | pharyngotympanic tube epithelium |
| UBERON:0010063 | tympanic cavity epithelium |
| UBERON:0010064 | open anatomical space |
| UBERON:0010065 | auditory meatus epithelium |
| UBERON:0010066 | tympanic plate |
| UBERON:0010069 | outer epithelial layer of tympanic membrane |
| UBERON:0010070 | intermediate layer of tympanic membrane |
| UBERON:0010071 | layer of tympanic membrane |
| UBERON:0010074 | chromaffin system |
| UBERON:0010075 | sacral neural crest |
| UBERON:0010076 | network of trabecular spaces in bone tissue |
| UBERON:0010077 | cuboidal epithelium |
| UBERON:0010078 | optic choroid vascular plexus |
| UBERON:0010081 | future common hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0010083 | future dermis |
| UBERON:0010084 | future diaphragm |
| UBERON:0010090 | future falx cerebri |
| UBERON:0010091 | future hindbrain meninx |
| UBERON:0010092 | future metencephalon |
| UBERON:0010096 | future myelencephalon |
| UBERON:0010123 | future facial nucleus |
| UBERON:0010124 | future inferior salivatory nucleus |
| UBERON:0010125 | future superior salivatory nucleus |
| UBERON:0010126 | future nucleus ambiguus |
| UBERON:0010127 | future dorsal motor nucleus of vagus |
| UBERON:0010128 | future pterygopalatine ganglion |
| UBERON:0010129 | femur cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010131 | conducting tissue of heart |
| UBERON:0010132 | gastroduodenal artery |
| UBERON:0010133 | neuroendocrine gland |
| UBERON:0010134 | secretory circumventricular organ |
| UBERON:0010135 | sensory circumventricular organ |
| UBERON:0010141 | primitive sex cord of indifferent gonad |
| UBERON:0010143 | seminal vesicle fluid |
| UBERON:0010145 | paraurethral gland |
| UBERON:0010146 | paraurethral duct |
| UBERON:0010147 | male accessory sex gland |
| UBERON:0010148 | mating plug |
| UBERON:0010150 | duct of major vestibular gland |
| UBERON:0010151 | duct of bulbourethral gland |
| UBERON:0010153 | rumen papilla |
| UBERON:0010154 | inner lining mucosa of the abomasum |
| UBERON:0010155 | parietomastoid suture |
| UBERON:0010156 | sphenofrontal suture |
| UBERON:0010157 | sphenoparietal suture |
| UBERON:0010158 | sphenozygomatic suture |
| UBERON:0010159 | occipitomastoid suture |
| UBERON:0010160 | lumen of lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:0010161 | lumen of blood vessel |
| UBERON:0010162 | post-anal tail tip |
| UBERON:0010163 | eyebrow |
| UBERON:0010164 | collection of hairs |
| UBERON:0010165 | collection of hair on face |
| UBERON:0010166 | coat of hair |
| UBERON:0010167 | beard |
| UBERON:0010168 | collection of eyelashes |
| UBERON:0010169 | moustache |
| UBERON:0010171 | strand of hair of face |
| UBERON:0010172 | bulb of aorta |
| UBERON:0010173 | sinotubular junction |
| UBERON:0010175 | nutrient foramen vein |
| UBERON:0010176 | nutrient foramen artery |
| UBERON:0010181 | straight venules of kidney |
| UBERON:0010185 | rete ovarii |
| UBERON:0010186 | male urethral gland |
| UBERON:0010187 | female urethral gland |
| UBERON:0010188 | protuberance |
| UBERON:0010189 | right atrium venous valve |
| UBERON:0010190 | pair of dorsal aortae |
| UBERON:0010191 | aortic system |
| UBERON:0010192 | genital artery |
| UBERON:0010193 | renal portal vein |
| UBERON:0010194 | hepatic portal system |
| UBERON:0010195 | renal portal system |
| UBERON:0010197 | trunk of common carotid artery |
| UBERON:0010198 | carotid duct |
| UBERON:0010199 | bona-fide anatomical boundary |
| UBERON:0010202 | lateral line |
| UBERON:0010204 | tail vasculature |
| UBERON:0010205 | mesencephalic vein |
| UBERON:0010207 | nictitating membrane |
| UBERON:0010209 | plica semilunaris of conjunctiva |
| UBERON:0010210 | blood clot |
| UBERON:0010211 | granulation tissue |
| UBERON:0010212 | laryngeal apparatus |
| UBERON:0010214 | cricoid pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010215 | arytenoid swellings |
| UBERON:0010219 | thyroid pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010220 | arytenoid pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010221 | laryngeal associated mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010223 | left pupil |
| UBERON:0010224 | right pupil |
| UBERON:0010225 | thalamic complex |
| UBERON:0010227 | future cardiac atrium |
| UBERON:0010228 | ruminal fluid |
| UBERON:0010229 | ruminant esophageal groove |
| UBERON:0010230 | eyeball of camera-type eye |
| UBERON:0010232 | placodal ectoderm |
| UBERON:0010233 | stroma of thyroid gland |
| UBERON:0010234 | palatopharyngeus muscle |
| UBERON:0010235 | uvular muscle |
| UBERON:0010238 | torus pylorus |
| UBERON:0010239 | spiral colon |
| UBERON:0010240 | zygomatic gland |
| UBERON:0010241 | molar gland |
| UBERON:0010242 | anterior buccal gland |
| UBERON:0010243 | merocrine gland |
| UBERON:0010244 | choroid tapetum lucidum |
| UBERON:0010249 | posterior meningeal artery |
| UBERON:0010250 | middle meningeal artery |
| UBERON:0010251 | anterior meningeal artery |
| UBERON:0010252 | 1st arch mandibular mesenchyme from neural crest |
| UBERON:0010253 | 1st arch maxillary mesenchyme from neural crest |
| UBERON:0010254 | 2nd arch mesenchyme from neural crest |
| UBERON:0010255 | 3rd arch mesenchyme from neural crest |
| UBERON:0010256 | 4th arch mesenchyme from neural crest |
| UBERON:0010257 | 6th arch mesenchyme from neural crest |
| UBERON:0010258 | mesenchyme from rhombencephalic neural crest |
| UBERON:0010259 | 1st arch mesenchyme from neural crest |
| UBERON:0010260 | umbilical blood vessel |
| UBERON:0010262 | operculum of brain |
| UBERON:0010263 | obsolete embryoid body |
| UBERON:0010264 | hepatopancreas |
| UBERON:0010269 | filum terminale internum |
| UBERON:0010270 | filum terminale externum |
| UBERON:0010271 | musculus retractor bulbi |
| UBERON:0010272 | hyoid apparatus |
| UBERON:0010273 | zone of hyoid bone |
| UBERON:0010276 | space in vertebral column |
| UBERON:0010277 | mesocardium |
| UBERON:0010279 | pericardial sinus |
| UBERON:0010283 | oblique pericardial sinus |
| UBERON:0010284 | lacrimal punctum |
| UBERON:0010285 | midbrain basal plate |
| UBERON:0010286 | midbrain neural tube |
| UBERON:0010287 | motor root of facial nerve |
| UBERON:0010289 | scleral cartilage |
| UBERON:0010290 | scleral ossicle |
| UBERON:0010292 | episcleral layer of eyeball |
| UBERON:0010293 | suprachoroid lamina |
| UBERON:0010295 | substantia propria of sclera |
| UBERON:0010297 | endochondral scleral ossicle |
| UBERON:0010302 | amnioserosa |
| UBERON:0010304 | non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium |
| UBERON:0010305 | subdivision of conjunctiva |
| UBERON:0010306 | bulbar conjunctiva |
| UBERON:0010307 | conjunctival fornix |
| UBERON:0010312 | immature eye |
| UBERON:0010323 | cranial skeletal system |
| UBERON:0010324 | obsolete craniofacial region |
| UBERON:0010325 | obsolete craniofacial skeleton |
| UBERON:0010330 | eyelid mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010332 | epithelium of handplate |
| UBERON:0010334 | maxillary process mesenchyme from neural crest |
| UBERON:0010335 | maxillary process mesenchyme from head mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010336 | mandibular process mesenchyme from neural crest |
| UBERON:0010337 | mandibular process mesenchyme from head mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010338 | 1st arch maxillary mesenchyme from head mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010339 | 1st arch mandibular mesenchyme from head mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010341 | 1st arch mesenchyme from head mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010343 | 2nd arch mesenchyme from head mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010344 | 3rd arch mesenchyme from head mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010345 | 4th arch mesenchyme from head mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010347 | 6th arch mesenchyme from head mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010348 | hyoid pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010349 | otic capsule pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010354 | Reichert's cartilage pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010355 | ossification center |
| UBERON:0010356 | primary ossification center |
| UBERON:0010357 | secondary ossification center |
| UBERON:0010358 | arch of centrum of vertebra |
| UBERON:0010361 | synostosis |
| UBERON:0010362 | endoskeleton |
| UBERON:0010363 | endochondral element |
| UBERON:0010364 | dermal skeleton |
| UBERON:0010365 | odontoid tissue |
| UBERON:0010366 | conjunctival vasculature |
| UBERON:0010367 | conjunctival vein |
| UBERON:0010368 | pulmonary lobule |
| UBERON:0010369 | secondary pulmonary lobule |
| UBERON:0010370 | tibial vein |
| UBERON:0010371 | ecto-epithelium |
| UBERON:0010372 | uncinate process of ethmoid |
| UBERON:0010373 | uncinate process of pancreas |
| UBERON:0010375 | pancreas dorsal primordium |
| UBERON:0010376 | pancreas ventral primordium |
| UBERON:0010377 | mesenchyme from somatopleure |
| UBERON:0010378 | mesenchyme from splanchnopleure |
| UBERON:0010379 | superior tarsal muscle |
| UBERON:0010380 | enteric nerve |
| UBERON:0010384 | lumen of laryngopharynx |
| UBERON:0010386 | Peyer's patch follicle |
| UBERON:0010387 | Peyer's patch T cell area |
| UBERON:0010388 | proximal segment of rib |
| UBERON:0010389 | pterygoid bone |
| UBERON:0010390 | lumen of urethra |
| UBERON:0010391 | parametrium |
| UBERON:0010395 | lymph node primary follicle |
| UBERON:0010396 | afferent lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:0010397 | efferent lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:0010398 | spleen marginal sinus |
| UBERON:0010399 | spleen trabecular artery |
| UBERON:0010400 | spleen trabecular vein |
| UBERON:0010401 | spleen central arteriole |
| UBERON:0010402 | epidermis suprabasal layer |
| UBERON:0010403 | brain marginal zone |
| UBERON:0010404 | lateral ventricle subependymal layer |
| UBERON:0010405 | spinal cord lateral motor column |
| UBERON:0010406 | cholinergic enteric nerve |
| UBERON:0010408 | ocular angle artery |
| UBERON:0010409 | ocular surface region |
| UBERON:0010410 | inguinal fat pad |
| UBERON:0010411 | retroperitoneal fat pad |
| UBERON:0010412 | epididymal fat pad |
| UBERON:0010413 | parametrial fat pad |
| UBERON:0010414 | omental fat pad |
| UBERON:0010415 | barrel cortex |
| UBERON:0010416 | lymph node B cell domain |
| UBERON:0010417 | lymph node T cell domain |
| UBERON:0010418 | urethral opening |
| UBERON:0010419 | vibrissa follicle |
| UBERON:0010420 | lymph node germinal center mantle zone |
| UBERON:0010421 | spleen B cell corona |
| UBERON:0010422 | primary nodular lymphoid tissue |
| UBERON:0010423 | primary lymphoid nodule of tonsil |
| UBERON:0010424 | distal segment of rib |
| UBERON:0010425 | internal naris |
| UBERON:0010427 | ciliary processes |
| UBERON:0010428 | flat bone |
| UBERON:0010437 | zygomaticus muscle |
| UBERON:0010467 | teres muscle |
| UBERON:0010496 | teres minor muscle |
| UBERON:0010498 | pseudostratified columnar epithelium |
| UBERON:0010499 | pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium |
| UBERON:0010501 | pseudostratified smooth columnar epithelium |
| UBERON:0010505 | periosteal dura mater |
| UBERON:0010506 | meningeal dura mater |
| UBERON:0010507 | layer of dura mater |
| UBERON:0010509 | strand of pelage hair |
| UBERON:0010510 | strand of auchene hair |
| UBERON:0010511 | strand of awl hair |
| UBERON:0010512 | strand of guard hair |
| UBERON:0010513 | strand of zigzag hair |
| UBERON:0010514 | strand of duvet hair |
| UBERON:0010515 | brille |
| UBERON:0010516 | clasper |
| UBERON:0010519 | tail electric organ |
| UBERON:0010522 | replacement element |
| UBERON:0010523 | microcirculatory vessel |
| UBERON:0010524 | fibularis tertius |
| UBERON:0010526 | fibularis brevis |
| UBERON:0010527 | cavity of bone organ |
| UBERON:0010528 | pneumatic cavity of bone |
| UBERON:0010531 | metanephros induced blastemal cells |
| UBERON:0010533 | metanephros cortex |
| UBERON:0010534 | primitive mesonephric nephron |
| UBERON:0010535 | primitive metanephric nephron |
| UBERON:0010537 | mesonephric nephron progenitor |
| UBERON:0010540 | tarsus pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010541 | tarsus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010543 | acropodial skeleton |
| UBERON:0010544 | metacarpus skeleton |
| UBERON:0010545 | metatarsus skeleton |
| UBERON:0010546 | metapodial skeleton |
| UBERON:0010547 | pedal digit 1 metatarsal pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010548 | pedal digit 2 metatarsal pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010549 | pedal digit 3 metatarsal pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010550 | pedal digit 4 metatarsal pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010551 | pedal digit 5 metatarsal pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010557 | pedal digit 1 metatarsal cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010558 | pedal digit 2 metatarsal cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010559 | pedal digit 3 metatarsal cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010560 | pedal digit 4 metatarsal cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010561 | pedal digit 5 metatarsal cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010562 | pedal digit 1 mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010564 | manual digit 1 mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010565 | manual digit 1 metacarpus pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010566 | manual digit 2 metacarpus pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010567 | manual digit 3 metacarpus pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010568 | manual digit 4 metacarpus pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010569 | manual digit 5 metacarpus pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010570 | manual digit 1 metacarpus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010571 | manual digit 2 metacarpus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010572 | manual digit 3 metacarpus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010573 | manual digit 4 metacarpus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010574 | manual digit 5 metacarpus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010575 | manual digit 1 phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010576 | manual digit 2 phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010577 | manual digit 3 phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010578 | manual digit 4 phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010579 | manual digit 5 phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010580 | pedal digit 1 phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010581 | pedal digit 2 phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010582 | pedal digit 3 phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010583 | pedal digit 4 phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010584 | pedal digit 5 phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010585 | pedal digit phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010586 | manual digit phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010675 | manual digit 1 phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010676 | manual digit 2 phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010677 | manual digit 3 phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010678 | manual digit 4 phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010679 | manual digit 5 phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010680 | pedal digit 1 phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010681 | pedal digit 2 phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010682 | pedal digit 3 phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010683 | pedal digit 4 phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010684 | pedal digit 5 phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010685 | pedal digit phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010686 | manual digit phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010687 | pedal digit metatarsal pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010688 | skeleton of manual acropodium |
| UBERON:0010690 | manual digit 1 epithelium |
| UBERON:0010693 | pedal digit 1 epithelium |
| UBERON:0010695 | mesenchyme of tarsal region |
| UBERON:0010696 | skeleton of pedal acropodium |
| UBERON:0010697 | pedal digit metatarsal cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010698 | manual digit metacarpus pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010699 | manual digit metacarpus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010700 | phalanx pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010701 | phalanx cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010702 | digit mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0010703 | forelimb zeugopod skeleton |
| UBERON:0010704 | parenchyma of quadrate lobe of liver |
| UBERON:0010706 | parenchyma of caudate lobe of liver |
| UBERON:0010707 | appendage girdle complex |
| UBERON:0010708 | pectoral complex |
| UBERON:0010709 | pelvic complex |
| UBERON:0010710 | pectoral fin skeleton |
| UBERON:0010711 | pelvic fin skeleton |
| UBERON:0010712 | limb skeleton subdivision |
| UBERON:0010713 | paired fin skeleton |
| UBERON:0010714 | iliac cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010718 | pubic cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010719 | girdle skeleton |
| UBERON:0010720 | hindlimb zeugopod skeleton |
| UBERON:0010721 | distal tarsal bone |
| UBERON:0010722 | accessory bone |
| UBERON:0010723 | os vesalianum pedis |
| UBERON:0010724 | lateral tubercle of talus |
| UBERON:0010725 | accessory navicular bone |
| UBERON:0010727 | sutural bone |
| UBERON:0010728 | sphenoid lesser wing pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010732 | alisphenoid pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010733 | alisphenoid cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010737 | distal tarsal bone 4 |
| UBERON:0010738 | distal tarsal bone 5 |
| UBERON:0010739 | distal carpal bone 5 |
| UBERON:0010740 | bone of appendage girdle complex |
| UBERON:0010741 | bone of pectoral complex |
| UBERON:0010742 | bone of pelvic complex |
| UBERON:0010743 | meningeal cluster |
| UBERON:0010744 | sacral vertebra pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010745 | sacral vertebra cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010746 | iliac blade |
| UBERON:0010747 | body of ilium |
| UBERON:0010748 | lymph node follicle |
| UBERON:0010749 | middle pharyngeal constrictor |
| UBERON:0010750 | prefrontal bone |
| UBERON:0010751 | squamous part of temporal bone primordium |
| UBERON:0010752 | exoccipital cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010753 | lymph node secondary follicle |
| UBERON:0010754 | germinal center |
| UBERON:0010755 | secondary follicle corona |
| UBERON:0010756 | spleen follicular dendritic cell network |
| UBERON:0010757 | rib 8 |
| UBERON:0010758 | subdivision of organism along appendicular axis |
| UBERON:0010759 | equine distal sesamoid |
| UBERON:0010760 | supraglenoid tubercle |
| UBERON:0010801 | calcaneum pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010842 | calcaneum cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010843 | clavicle cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010844 | clavicle pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010846 | radius pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010847 | ulna pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010848 | radius-ulna cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010849 | tibia cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010850 | tibia pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010851 | fibula cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010852 | fibula pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010853 | capitulum of humerus |
| UBERON:0010854 | skin of front of neck |
| UBERON:0010856 | patagium |
| UBERON:0010868 | uropropatagium |
| UBERON:0010869 | calcar |
| UBERON:0010879 | tusk |
| UBERON:0010880 | gular fold |
| UBERON:0010883 | forelimb cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010884 | forelimb bone pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010885 | hindlimb cartilage element |
| UBERON:0010886 | hindlimb pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0010887 | tragus |
| UBERON:0010890 | pelvic complex muscle |
| UBERON:0010891 | pectoral complex muscle |
| UBERON:0010892 | mesethmoid element |
| UBERON:0010895 | sequential hermaphroditic organism |
| UBERON:0010898 | gastralium |
| UBERON:0010899 | synchronous hermaphroditic organism |
| UBERON:0010905 | clavicle bone primordium |
| UBERON:0010910 | opisthotic |
| UBERON:0010911 | ossicle |
| UBERON:0010912 | subdivision of skeleton |
| UBERON:0010913 | vertebral element |
| UBERON:0010921 | thyrohyoid ligament |
| UBERON:0010925 | median thyrohyoid ligament |
| UBERON:0010926 | lateral thyrohyoid ligament |
| UBERON:0010927 | thyroepiglotticus muscle |
| UBERON:0010928 | cricopharyngeus muscle |
| UBERON:0010929 | stapedius pre-muscle condensation |
| UBERON:0010930 | interhyoideus |
| UBERON:0010931 | intermandibularis |
| UBERON:0010932 | crico-arytenoid muscle |
| UBERON:0010933 | orbicularis oris muscle |
| UBERON:0010935 | tensor tympani pre-muscle condensation |
| UBERON:0010936 | thyropharyngeus muscle |
| UBERON:0010937 | salpingopharyngeus muscle |
| UBERON:0010938 | muscle belly |
| UBERON:0010940 | muscle of digastric group |
| UBERON:0010943 | anterior digastric muscle |
| UBERON:0010944 | posterior digastric muscle |
| UBERON:0010946 | occipitofrontalis muscle |
| UBERON:0010947 | occipitalis |
| UBERON:0010948 | cleidooccipital muscle |
| UBERON:0010949 | sternooccipital muscle |
| UBERON:0010952 | frontalis muscle belly |
| UBERON:0010953 | nasalis muscle |
| UBERON:0010954 | ceratohyoideus muscle |
| UBERON:0010955 | trapezius pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010956 | pterygopharyngeal part of superior pharyngeal constrictor |
| UBERON:0010958 | arytenoid muscle |
| UBERON:0010959 | craniocervical muscle |
| UBERON:0010961 | erector spinae pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010962 | extensor pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010963 | trunk and cervical myotome group |
| UBERON:0010970 | intercostal pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010974 | external intercostal pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010975 | external oblique pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010977 | flexor pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010981 | internal intercostal pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010982 | latissimus dorsi pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010983 | levator scapulae pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010984 | pectoral pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010985 | rhomboid pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010986 | serratus ventralis pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010987 | sterno-mastoid pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010988 | teres major pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010989 | transverospinalis pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010990 | transversospinales muscle |
| UBERON:0010993 | subscapularis pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0010994 | coronoid process of ulna |
| UBERON:0010995 | deep part of masseter muscle |
| UBERON:0010996 | articular cartilage of joint |
| UBERON:0011002 | articular cartilage element |
| UBERON:0011004 | pharyngeal arch cartilage |
| UBERON:0011005 | endocardium of auricle |
| UBERON:0011006 | endocardium of left auricle |
| UBERON:0011007 | endocardium of right auricle |
| UBERON:0011011 | brachioradialis |
| UBERON:0011012 | flexor pollicis brevis muscle |
| UBERON:0011013 | spinalis muscle |
| UBERON:0011014 | spinalis capitis muscle |
| UBERON:0011015 | iliac fossa |
| UBERON:0011016 | pyramidalis |
| UBERON:0011017 | semispinalis muscle |
| UBERON:0011022 | flexor hallucis brevis muscle |
| UBERON:0011024 | extrinsic extensor muscle of manus |
| UBERON:0011025 | aryepiglotticus muscle |
| UBERON:0011043 | obturator muscle |
| UBERON:0011048 | obturator internus |
| UBERON:0011049 | uterovesical pouch |
| UBERON:0011050 | thoracic vertebra 8 |
| UBERON:0011060 | perilymphatic channel |
| UBERON:0011078 | endolymphatic space |
| UBERON:0011079 | angular bone |
| UBERON:0011085 | palatoquadrate arch |
| UBERON:0011087 | pharyngeal arch 7 |
| UBERON:0011088 | ligament of knee joint |
| UBERON:0011090 | skeleton of right pelvic girdle |
| UBERON:0011091 | skeleton of left pelvic girdle |
| UBERON:0011092 | right pelvic girdle region |
| UBERON:0011093 | left pelvic girdle region |
| UBERON:0011094 | vertebra cartilage element |
| UBERON:0011095 | vertebra pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0011096 | lacrimal nerve |
| UBERON:0011104 | epiphysis of fifth metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0011106 | cruciate ligament of atlas |
| UBERON:0011107 | synovial joint of pelvic girdle |
| UBERON:0011108 | synovial joint of pectoral girdle |
| UBERON:0011110 | humeroulnar joint |
| UBERON:0011111 | humeroradial joint |
| UBERON:0011112 | tibiofibular joint |
| UBERON:0011113 | inferior tibiofibular joint |
| UBERON:0011117 | superior tibiofibular joint |
| UBERON:0011118 | tarsometatarsal joint |
| UBERON:0011119 | carpometacarpal joint |
| UBERON:0011120 | laryngeal joint |
| UBERON:0011121 | cricothyroid joint |
| UBERON:0011122 | cricoarytenoid joint |
| UBERON:0011123 | stifle joint |
| UBERON:0011124 | xiphisternal joint |
| UBERON:0011130 | temporomandibular joint primordium |
| UBERON:0011131 | intermetacarpal joint |
| UBERON:0011132 | intercarpal joint |
| UBERON:0011133 | intermetatarsal joint |
| UBERON:0011134 | nonsynovial joint |
| UBERON:0011135 | intervertebral cartilage |
| UBERON:0011136 | ligament of vertebral column |
| UBERON:0011137 | axial skeletal system |
| UBERON:0011138 | postcranial axial skeletal system |
| UBERON:0011139 | synovial limb joint |
| UBERON:0011140 | superficial part of masseter muscle |
| UBERON:0011141 | appendicular ossicle |
| UBERON:0011142 | axial ossicle |
| UBERON:0011143 | upper urinary tract |
| UBERON:0011144 | adductor muscle of hip |
| UBERON:0011145 | adductor muscle |
| UBERON:0011146 | silk gland |
| UBERON:0011148 | submucosal gland |
| UBERON:0011149 | Marshall's gland |
| UBERON:0011150 | pharyngeal arch derived gill |
| UBERON:0011151 | jaw depressor muscle |
| UBERON:0011152 | dorsal hyoid arch skeleton |
| UBERON:0011153 | ventral hyoid arch skeleton |
| UBERON:0011154 | gular region |
| UBERON:0011155 | Sylvian cistern |
| UBERON:0011156 | facial skeleton |
| UBERON:0011157 | cuneiform cartilage |
| UBERON:0011158 | primary subdivision of skull |
| UBERON:0011160 | nasal suture |
| UBERON:0011161 | spheno-occipital synchondrosis |
| UBERON:0011162 | supraoccipital cartilage element |
| UBERON:0011163 | supraoccipital pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0011164 | neurocranium bone |
| UBERON:0011165 | crico-esophageal tendon |
| UBERON:0011166 | patellofemoral joint |
| UBERON:0011167 | septomaxilla bone |
| UBERON:0011169 | postorbital bone |
| UBERON:0011170 | quadrate-articular joint |
| UBERON:0011172 | retrorubral area of midbrain reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:0011173 | anterior division of bed nuclei of stria terminalis |
| UBERON:0011175 | fusiform nucleus of stria terminalis |
| UBERON:0011176 | oval nucleus of stria terminalis |
| UBERON:0011177 | posterior division of bed nuclei of stria terminalis |
| UBERON:0011178 | principal nucleus of stria terminalis |
| UBERON:0011179 | transverse nucleus of stria terminalis |
| UBERON:0011183 | corpus spongiosum of penis |
| UBERON:0011184 | epithelium of crypt of Lieberkuhn |
| UBERON:0011185 | gastrointestinal sphincter |
| UBERON:0011186 | Krause's gland |
| UBERON:0011187 | ventral tubercle of humerus |
| UBERON:0011188 | lesser tubercle of humerus |
| UBERON:0011189 | lamina propria of large intestine |
| UBERON:0011190 | lunule of nail |
| UBERON:0011191 | ophthalmic vein |
| UBERON:0011192 | superior ophthalmic vein |
| UBERON:0011193 | inferior ophthalmic vein |
| UBERON:0011194 | ophthalmic plexus |
| UBERON:0011195 | inferior parathyroid epithelium |
| UBERON:0011196 | superior parathyroid epithelium |
| UBERON:0011197 | parathyroid epithelium |
| UBERON:0011198 | muscle layer of large intestine |
| UBERON:0011199 | prostatic utricle |
| UBERON:0011200 | sacrococcygeal symphysis |
| UBERON:0011201 | muscle layer of small intestine |
| UBERON:0011202 | urachus epithelium |
| UBERON:0011203 | urachus mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0011204 | rectovesical pouch |
| UBERON:0011205 | carpometacarpus |
| UBERON:0011206 | hinge joint |
| UBERON:0011207 | iliocostalis lumborum |
| UBERON:0011208 | medial migration pathway NC-derived mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0011209 | lateral migration pathway NC-derived mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0011213 | root of vagus nerve |
| UBERON:0011214 | nucleus of midbrain tectum |
| UBERON:0011215 | central nervous system cell part cluster |
| UBERON:0011216 | organ system subdivision |
| UBERON:0011217 | serratus dorsalis muscle |
| UBERON:0011218 | spinalis cervicis muscle |
| UBERON:0011219 | longissimus lumborum muscle |
| UBERON:0011220 | mastoid process of temporal bone |
| UBERON:0011221 | ora serrata of retina |
| UBERON:0011222 | intra-ocular muscle |
| UBERON:0011233 | synovial membrane of synovial tendon sheath |
| UBERON:0011234 | fibrous membrane of synovial tendon sheath |
| UBERON:0011236 | deep fascia |
| UBERON:0011237 | visceral fascia |
| UBERON:0011238 | mesethmoid bone |
| UBERON:0011241 | ethmoid region |
| UBERON:0011242 | ethmoid cartilage |
| UBERON:0011244 | perpendicular plate of ethmoid |
| UBERON:0011245 | infra-orbital canal of maxilla |
| UBERON:0011248 | procoracoid element |
| UBERON:0011249 | appendicular skeletal system |
| UBERON:0011251 | levator claviculae muscle |
| UBERON:0011252 | scent gland |
| UBERON:0011256 | rhinarium |
| UBERON:0011264 | femoral pore |
| UBERON:0011265 | carpometacarpal joint of digit 1 |
| UBERON:0011266 | obsolete tendon of auricularis superior |
| UBERON:0011267 | quadratojugal bone |
| UBERON:0011268 | sublingua |
| UBERON:0011270 | dorsal trunk |
| UBERON:0011271 | caudal-sacral region of vertebral column |
| UBERON:0011272 | embryonic skin basal layer |
| UBERON:0011273 | nail of manual digit 1 |
| UBERON:0011274 | nail of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0011275 | nail of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0011276 | nail of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0011277 | nail of manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0011278 | nail of pedal digit 1 |
| UBERON:0011279 | nail of pedal digit 2 |
| UBERON:0011280 | nail of pedal digit 3 |
| UBERON:0011281 | nail of pedal digit 4 |
| UBERON:0011282 | nail of pedal digit 5 |
| UBERON:0011283 | epoophoron |
| UBERON:0011287 | rostral organ |
| UBERON:0011288 | stomochord |
| UBERON:0011289 | pharyngobasilar fascia |
| UBERON:0011298 | submucosa of fallopian tube |
| UBERON:0011299 | white matter of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0011300 | gray matter of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0011301 | manubrium sternum pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0011305 | superficial part of temporalis |
| UBERON:0011306 | deep part of temporalis |
| UBERON:0011307 | suprazygomatic part of temporalis |
| UBERON:0011309 | body of mandible |
| UBERON:0011311 | hyoepiglottic ligament |
| UBERON:0011315 | digastric branch of facial nerve |
| UBERON:0011316 | nerve to stylohyoid from facial nerve |
| UBERON:0011317 | nerve to stylopharyngeus from glossopharyngeal nerve |
| UBERON:0011318 | capsule of temporomandibular joint |
| UBERON:0011319 | disk of temporomandibular joint |
| UBERON:0011320 | ligament of temporomandibular joint |
| UBERON:0011321 | masseteric nerve |
| UBERON:0011322 | mylohyoid nerve |
| UBERON:0011325 | pharyngeal nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0011326 | superior laryngeal nerve |
| UBERON:0011327 | deep temporal nerve |
| UBERON:0011332 | extrinsic tongue pre-muscle mass |
| UBERON:0011342 | surface of mandible |
| UBERON:0011343 | medial surface of mandible |
| UBERON:0011344 | lateral surface of mandible |
| UBERON:0011345 | pharyngeal raphe |
| UBERON:0011346 | palatine raphe |
| UBERON:0011347 | raphe of hard palate |
| UBERON:0011348 | raphe of soft palate |
| UBERON:0011349 | pterygomandibular raphe |
| UBERON:0011357 | Reissner's fiber |
| UBERON:0011359 | urophysis |
| UBERON:0011362 | cranial blood vasculature |
| UBERON:0011363 | cranial lymph vasculature |
| UBERON:0011364 | cleidocephalicus muscle |
| UBERON:0011366 | cleidobrachialis muscle |
| UBERON:0011368 | brachiocephalic muscle |
| UBERON:0011369 | omotransversarius muscle |
| UBERON:0011370 | transverse process of atlas |
| UBERON:0011371 | sternocephalicus muscle |
| UBERON:0011374 | prepuce |
| UBERON:0011375 | skin of prepuce of clitoris |
| UBERON:0011376 | iliothoracic muscle |
| UBERON:0011379 | male external urethral sphincter |
| UBERON:0011380 | female external urethral sphincter |
| UBERON:0011383 | inferior pancreaticoduodenal vein |
| UBERON:0011384 | superior pancreaticoduodenal vein |
| UBERON:0011385 | parotidoauricular muscle |
| UBERON:0011386 | facial modiolus |
| UBERON:0011387 | constrictor vulvae muscle |
| UBERON:0011388 | male bulbospongiosus muscle |
| UBERON:0011389 | bulbospongiosus muscle |
| UBERON:0011390 | pudendal nerve |
| UBERON:0011391 | perineal nerve |
| UBERON:0011392 | blood vessel internal elastic membrane |
| UBERON:0011415 | cutaneous trunci muscle |
| UBERON:0011464 | levator nasolabialis muscle |
| UBERON:0011465 | longissimus atlantis muscle |
| UBERON:0011472 | ventral lateral sacrocaudal muscle |
| UBERON:0011495 | rectus thoracis muscle |
| UBERON:0011508 | sphincter colli superficialis muscle |
| UBERON:0011511 | iliococcygeus muscle |
| UBERON:0011512 | puborectalis muscle |
| UBERON:0011528 | pubococcygeus muscle |
| UBERON:0011531 | male pubococcygeus muscle |
| UBERON:0011532 | female pubococcygeus muscle |
| UBERON:0011533 | abductor pollicis, radioulna-prepollox |
| UBERON:0011534 | abductor pollicis muscle |
| UBERON:0011535 | chondroglossus muscle |
| UBERON:0011564 | adductor pollicis muscle of prepollex |
| UBERON:0011565 | lumen of gastrointestinal system |
| UBERON:0011566 | lumen of esophagus |
| UBERON:0011574 | mesonephric duct lumen |
| UBERON:0011575 | styloid process of ulna |
| UBERON:0011576 | supraorbital ridge |
| UBERON:0011577 | flexural organ |
| UBERON:0011579 | venom gland |
| UBERON:0011582 | paired limb/fin skeleton |
| UBERON:0011583 | stylopodial skeleton |
| UBERON:0011584 | zeugopodial skeleton |
| UBERON:0011585 | cell condensation |
| UBERON:0011587 | pre-dentine |
| UBERON:0011588 | pre-enamel |
| UBERON:0011589 | non-mineralized cartilage tissue |
| UBERON:0011590 | commissure of diencephalon |
| UBERON:0011591 | tract of diencephalon |
| UBERON:0011592 | future upper lip |
| UBERON:0011593 | maxillary tooth |
| UBERON:0011594 | dentary tooth |
| UBERON:0011595 | jaw region |
| UBERON:0011596 | future lower lip |
| UBERON:0011598 | coronoid bone |
| UBERON:0011599 | lenticular process of incus bone |
| UBERON:0011601 | gingiva of upper jaw |
| UBERON:0011602 | gingiva of lower jaw |
| UBERON:0011603 | coronoid tooth |
| UBERON:0011606 | hyomandibular bone |
| UBERON:0011607 | hyomandibular cartilage |
| UBERON:0011610 | ceratohyal cartilage |
| UBERON:0011611 | ceratohyal bone |
| UBERON:0011612 | hypohyal cartilage |
| UBERON:0011614 | basihyal element |
| UBERON:0011615 | basihyal cartilage |
| UBERON:0011618 | basihyal bone |
| UBERON:0011619 | stylohyoid bone |
| UBERON:0011622 | thyrohyoid bone |
| UBERON:0011623 | horn of thyroid cartilage |
| UBERON:0011624 | superior horn of thyroid cartilage |
| UBERON:0011625 | inferior horn of thyroid cartilage |
| UBERON:0011626 | tympanohyoid cartilage |
| UBERON:0011627 | orbital part of frontal bone |
| UBERON:0011628 | early premaxilla |
| UBERON:0011634 | ectopterygoid bone |
| UBERON:0011635 | splenial bone |
| UBERON:0011636 | surangular bone |
| UBERON:0011637 | prearticular bone |
| UBERON:0011639 | frontoparietal bone |
| UBERON:0011640 | palatoglossal arch |
| UBERON:0011641 | odontogenic mesenchyme of molar |
| UBERON:0011642 | oral epithelium from ectoderm |
| UBERON:0011647 | depressor mandibulae muscle |
| UBERON:0011648 | jaw muscle |
| UBERON:0011649 | levator operculi |
| UBERON:0011651 | ventral head of rib |
| UBERON:0011652 | dorsal head of rib |
| UBERON:0011653 | diapophysis of neural arch |
| UBERON:0011655 | interclavicle |
| UBERON:0011675 | perichordal ring |
| UBERON:0011678 | hindlimb intermedium bone |
| UBERON:0011683 | adductor mandibulae |
| UBERON:0011688 | pre-enameloid |
| UBERON:0011692 | enameloid |
| UBERON:0011693 | extraembryonic portion of umbilical artery |
| UBERON:0011694 | embryo portion of umbilical artery |
| UBERON:0011695 | embryonic cardiovascular system |
| UBERON:0011696 | left extraembryonic umbilical artery |
| UBERON:0011697 | right extraembryonic umbilical artery |
| UBERON:0011698 | midgut loop |
| UBERON:0011737 | caudate lobe hepatic sinusoid |
| UBERON:0011738 | quadrate lobe hepatic sinusoid |
| UBERON:0011741 | cardiac valve leaflet |
| UBERON:0011742 | aortic valve leaflet |
| UBERON:0011745 | pulmonary valve leaflets |
| UBERON:0011754 | genital swelling |
| UBERON:0011755 | female labial swelling |
| UBERON:0011756 | male genital swelling |
| UBERON:0011757 | differentiated genital tubercle |
| UBERON:0011765 | jugular lymph sac |
| UBERON:0011766 | left recurrent laryngeal nerve |
| UBERON:0011767 | right recurrent laryngeal nerve |
| UBERON:0011768 | pineal gland stalk |
| UBERON:0011769 | cartilaginous projection |
| UBERON:0011770 | mentomeckelian |
| UBERON:0011772 | lower jaw opening |
| UBERON:0011773 | upper jaw opening |
| UBERON:0011774 | utriculosaccular duct |
| UBERON:0011775 | vagus nerve nucleus |
| UBERON:0011776 | dorsal commissural nucleus of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0011777 | nucleus of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0011778 | motor nucleus of vagal nerve |
| UBERON:0011782 | feather follicle |
| UBERON:0011784 | feather shaft |
| UBERON:0011793 | flight feather |
| UBERON:0011818 | superficial fascia |
| UBERON:0011819 | lumen of atrioventricular canal |
| UBERON:0011820 | atrioventricular region |
| UBERON:0011821 | irregular connective tissue |
| UBERON:0011822 | dense irregular connective tissue |
| UBERON:0011823 | dense connective tissue |
| UBERON:0011824 | fibrous connective tissue |
| UBERON:0011825 | loose connective tissue |
| UBERON:0011826 | vestibular gland |
| UBERON:0011827 | areolar gland |
| UBERON:0011828 | areolar tubercle |
| UBERON:0011830 | duct of lesser vestibular gland |
| UBERON:0011831 | duct of vestibular gland |
| UBERON:0011844 | duct of areolar gland |
| UBERON:0011845 | duct of sebaceous gland |
| UBERON:0011846 | acinus of sebaceous gland |
| UBERON:0011847 | acinus of parotid gland |
| UBERON:0011850 | acinus of salivary gland |
| UBERON:0011854 | acinus of areolar gland |
| UBERON:0011856 | acinus of lactiferous gland |
| UBERON:0011857 | acinus of lacrimal gland |
| UBERON:0011859 | internal acoustic meatus |
| UBERON:0011860 | collection of collagen fibrils |
| UBERON:0011866 | condylar joint |
| UBERON:0011867 | extensor carpi radialis muscle |
| UBERON:0011868 | midcarpal joint |
| UBERON:0011869 | pisiform joint |
| UBERON:0011870 | pisotriquetral joint |
| UBERON:0011871 | nasomaxillary suture |
| UBERON:0011873 | synarthrosis |
| UBERON:0011874 | amphiarthrosis |
| UBERON:0011875 | ligament of sternoclavicular joint |
| UBERON:0011876 | body of tongue |
| UBERON:0011877 | margin of tongue |
| UBERON:0011878 | muscle layer of esophagus |
| UBERON:0011879 | mesorchium |
| UBERON:0011892 | anterior uvea |
| UBERON:0011893 | endoneurial fluid |
| UBERON:0011894 | lumen of vagina |
| UBERON:0011895 | endomysium |
| UBERON:0011896 | smooth muscle endomysium |
| UBERON:0011897 | cardiac endomysium |
| UBERON:0011898 | skeletal muscle endomysium |
| UBERON:0011899 | epimysium |
| UBERON:0011900 | perimysium |
| UBERON:0011901 | hair matrix |
| UBERON:0011903 | gizzard smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0011904 | gastrolith |
| UBERON:0011905 | plantaris |
| UBERON:0011906 | muscle head |
| UBERON:0011907 | gastrocnemius medialis |
| UBERON:0011908 | gastrocnemius lateralis |
| UBERON:0011915 | cerebellar glomerulus |
| UBERON:0011917 | thalamic glomerulus |
| UBERON:0011918 | line of Schwalbe |
| UBERON:0011919 | yolk sac blood island |
| UBERON:0011921 | connecting stalk blood islands |
| UBERON:0011922 | cochlear basement membrane |
| UBERON:0011924 | postganglionic autonomic fiber |
| UBERON:0011925 | preganglionic autonomic fiber |
| UBERON:0011926 | postganglionic sympathetic fiber |
| UBERON:0011927 | preganglionic sympathetic fiber |
| UBERON:0011929 | postganglionic parasympathetic fiber |
| UBERON:0011930 | preganglionic parasympathetic fiber |
| UBERON:0011931 | nasal hair |
| UBERON:0011932 | pilosebaceous unit |
| UBERON:0011933 | vibrissa unit |
| UBERON:0011936 | vibrissa hair bulb |
| UBERON:0011937 | vibrissa root sheath |
| UBERON:0011938 | vibrissa inner root sheath |
| UBERON:0011939 | vibrissa outer root sheath |
| UBERON:0011940 | arrector pili muscle of vibrissa |
| UBERON:0011941 | lateral angle of scapula |
| UBERON:0011944 | subintestinal vein |
| UBERON:0011947 | ureter luminal urothelium |
| UBERON:0011948 | ureter subluminal urothelium |
| UBERON:0011949 | endometrium luminal epithelium |
| UBERON:0011950 | mammary gland luminal epithelium |
| UBERON:0011951 | prostate luminal epithelium |
| UBERON:0011953 | stomach glandular region |
| UBERON:0011954 | stomach non-glandular region |
| UBERON:0011955 | left hepatic vein |
| UBERON:0011956 | right hepatic vein |
| UBERON:0011957 | middle hepatic vein |
| UBERON:0011958 | acetabular labrum |
| UBERON:0011959 | glenoid labrum of scapula |
| UBERON:0011960 | articular capsule of glenohumeral joint |
| UBERON:0011961 | articular capsule of hip joint |
| UBERON:0011962 | transverse tarsal joint |
| UBERON:0011963 | talocalcaneonavicular joint |
| UBERON:0011964 | calcaneocuboid joint |
| UBERON:0011965 | saddle joint |
| UBERON:0011966 | manubriosternal joint |
| UBERON:0011967 | costotransverse joint |
| UBERON:0011968 | radio-carpal joint |
| UBERON:0011970 | talofibular ligament |
| UBERON:0011971 | calcaneofibular ligament |
| UBERON:0011972 | medial ligament of ankle joint |
| UBERON:0011973 | epiphysis of phalanx of pes |
| UBERON:0011974 | epiphysis of proximal phalanx of pes |
| UBERON:0011975 | epiphysis of middle phalanx of pes |
| UBERON:0011976 | epiphysis of distal phalanx of pes |
| UBERON:0011977 | epiphysis of proximal phalanx of manus |
| UBERON:0011978 | epiphysis of middle phalanx of manus |
| UBERON:0011979 | epiphysis of distal phalanx of manus |
| UBERON:0011980 | crurotarsal joint |
| UBERON:0011996 | pharyngeal adductor |
| UBERON:0011997 | coelom |
| UBERON:0012054 | myocoele |
| UBERON:0012055 | left lung lower lobe bronchiole |
| UBERON:0012056 | left lung upper lobe bronchiole |
| UBERON:0012059 | right lung lower lobe bronchiole |
| UBERON:0012063 | lobar bronchus of right lung middle lobe |
| UBERON:0012065 | lobar bronchus of left lung upper lobe |
| UBERON:0012066 | lobar bronchus of left lung lower lobe |
| UBERON:0012067 | primary bronchiole |
| UBERON:0012068 | right lung middle lobe bronchiole |
| UBERON:0012069 | epithelium-associated lymphoid tissue |
| UBERON:0012071 | palate bone |
| UBERON:0012074 | bony part of hard palate |
| UBERON:0012075 | replacement bone |
| UBERON:0012076 | tibiotalar joint |
| UBERON:0012078 | fovea capitis of femur |
| UBERON:0012080 | patella cartilage element |
| UBERON:0012081 | patella pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0012082 | bronchial lumen |
| UBERON:0012083 | lumen of primary bronchus |
| UBERON:0012084 | lumen of secondary bronchus |
| UBERON:0012085 | lumen of tertiary bronchus |
| UBERON:0012102 | buccal salivary gland |
| UBERON:0012103 | suspensory ligament of breast |
| UBERON:0012105 | baleen plate |
| UBERON:0012106 | baleen plate bristle |
| UBERON:0012108 | postorbital bar |
| UBERON:0012109 | zygomatic process of frontal bone |
| UBERON:0012110 | frontal process of zygomatic bone |
| UBERON:0012111 | diastema |
| UBERON:0012112 | ingested food |
| UBERON:0012113 | bolus of food |
| UBERON:0012114 | cud |
| UBERON:0012115 | dental comb |
| UBERON:0012117 | lumen of nutrient foramen |
| UBERON:0012118 | infraspinatus tendon |
| UBERON:0012120 | vinculum of tendon |
| UBERON:0012126 | fibulare |
| UBERON:0012127 | feather barbicel |
| UBERON:0012128 | nose tip |
| UBERON:0012129 | radial head of humerus |
| UBERON:0012130 | olecranon fossa |
| UBERON:0012131 | centrale |
| UBERON:0012132 | intercuneiform joint |
| UBERON:0012133 | lateral-intermediate intercuneiform joint |
| UBERON:0012134 | medial-intermediate intercuneiform joint |
| UBERON:0012135 | prepollex skeleton |
| UBERON:0012167 | buccal fat pad |
| UBERON:0012168 | umbilical cord blood |
| UBERON:0012170 | core of nucleus accumbens |
| UBERON:0012171 | shell of nucleus accumbens |
| UBERON:0012172 | stomach primordium |
| UBERON:0012173 | middle suprarenal artery |
| UBERON:0012174 | obsolete geniculate nucleus |
| UBERON:0012175 | acoustico-facial VII-VIII ganglion complex |
| UBERON:0012176 | comb |
| UBERON:0012177 | skin apocrine gland |
| UBERON:0012179 | bone of pelvis |
| UBERON:0012180 | head or neck skin |
| UBERON:0012181 | tonsil crypt |
| UBERON:0012186 | ovary growing follicle |
| UBERON:0012187 | frontal artery |
| UBERON:0012193 | phrenic vein |
| UBERON:0012194 | superior intercostal vein |
| UBERON:0012195 | left superior intercostal vein |
| UBERON:0012196 | right superior intercostal vein |
| UBERON:0012197 | intercostal vein |
| UBERON:0012198 | intercostal space |
| UBERON:0012199 | posterior intercostal vein |
| UBERON:0012200 | anterior intercostal vein |
| UBERON:0012236 | intercostal lymph node |
| UBERON:0012237 | superior phrenic vein |
| UBERON:0012238 | ureteric bud trunk |
| UBERON:0012239 | urinary bladder vasculature |
| UBERON:0012240 | urethral meatus |
| UBERON:0012241 | male urethral meatus |
| UBERON:0012242 | internal urethral orifice |
| UBERON:0012243 | nuptial pad |
| UBERON:0012245 | silk |
| UBERON:0012246 | thyroid follicular lumen |
| UBERON:0012247 | cervical gland |
| UBERON:0012248 | cervical mucosa |
| UBERON:0012249 | ectocervix |
| UBERON:0012250 | cervix glandular epithelium |
| UBERON:0012251 | ectocervical epithelium |
| UBERON:0012252 | endocervical epithelium |
| UBERON:0012253 | cervical squamo-columnar junction |
| UBERON:0012254 | abdominal aorta artery |
| UBERON:0012255 | inferior phrenic artery |
| UBERON:0012270 | forestomach-glandular stomach junction |
| UBERON:0012271 | major duodenal papilla |
| UBERON:0012272 | minor duodenal papilla |
| UBERON:0012273 | periampullary region of duodenum |
| UBERON:0012274 | columnar epithelium |
| UBERON:0012275 | meso-epithelium |
| UBERON:0012276 | endometrium glandular epithelium |
| UBERON:0012278 | gland of nasal mucosa |
| UBERON:0012279 | chromaffin paraganglion |
| UBERON:0012281 | perianal sebaceous gland |
| UBERON:0012282 | mammary fat pad |
| UBERON:0012284 | animal hemisphere |
| UBERON:0012285 | vegetal hemisphere |
| UBERON:0012286 | hemisphere of embryo |
| UBERON:0012287 | Rathkes pouch epithelium |
| UBERON:0012291 | lateral malleolus of fibula |
| UBERON:0012292 | embryonic cloacal fold |
| UBERON:0012293 | anal fold |
| UBERON:0012294 | navicular fossa of spongiose part of urethra |
| UBERON:0012295 | Guérin's valve |
| UBERON:0012296 | urethral crest |
| UBERON:0012297 | male urethral crest |
| UBERON:0012298 | female urethral crest |
| UBERON:0012299 | mucosa of urethra |
| UBERON:0012301 | female membranous urethra |
| UBERON:0012302 | male membranous urethra |
| UBERON:0012303 | ureteral orifice |
| UBERON:0012306 | lateral cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0012307 | anterior cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0012308 | superficial lateral cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0012309 | superficial anterior cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0012310 | deep lateral cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0012311 | deep anterior cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0012312 | maxillary process ectoderm |
| UBERON:0012313 | 1st arch maxillary ectoderm |
| UBERON:0012314 | embryonic facial prominence |
| UBERON:0012315 | incisive foramen |
| UBERON:0012316 | primitive palate |
| UBERON:0012317 | vagina orifice |
| UBERON:0012318 | anterior ethmoidal artery |
| UBERON:0012319 | posterior ethmoidal artery |
| UBERON:0012320 | cervical artery |
| UBERON:0012321 | deep cervical artery |
| UBERON:0012322 | ascending cervical artery |
| UBERON:0012324 | transverse cervical artery |
| UBERON:0012325 | retrocerebral complex |
| UBERON:0012327 | pearly penile papule |
| UBERON:0012328 | penile spine |
| UBERON:0012329 | keratinized stratified squamous epithelium |
| UBERON:0012330 | nasal-associated lymphoid tissue |
| UBERON:0012331 | mesosalpinx |
| UBERON:0012332 | broad ligament of uterus |
| UBERON:0012333 | ovarian bursa |
| UBERON:0012334 | navicular bursa |
| UBERON:0012335 | navicular bursa of manus |
| UBERON:0012336 | perianal skin |
| UBERON:0012337 | cauda equina |
| UBERON:0012344 | holocrine gland |
| UBERON:0012352 | mesangial matrix |
| UBERON:0012355 | manual acropodium region |
| UBERON:0012356 | pedal acropodium region |
| UBERON:0012358 | manual digitopodium bone |
| UBERON:0012360 | bone of jaw |
| UBERON:0012361 | internal anal region |
| UBERON:0012363 | thyroid follicle epithelium |
| UBERON:0012364 | colloid of thyroid follicle |
| UBERON:0012367 | muscle layer of intestine |
| UBERON:0012368 | circular muscle layer of muscular coat |
| UBERON:0012369 | longitudinal muscle layer of muscular coat |
| UBERON:0012373 | sympathetic nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0012374 | subserosal plexus |
| UBERON:0012375 | subserosa |
| UBERON:0012376 | retromolar triangle |
| UBERON:0012377 | muscle layer of jejunum |
| UBERON:0012378 | muscle layer of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0012398 | large intestine smooth muscle circular layer |
| UBERON:0012399 | large intestine smooth muscle longitudinal layer |
| UBERON:0012401 | small intestine smooth muscle circular layer |
| UBERON:0012402 | small intestine smooth muscle longitudinal layer |
| UBERON:0012416 | respiratory system arterial smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0012418 | respiratory system venous smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0012419 | taenia coli |
| UBERON:0012421 | urodeum |
| UBERON:0012423 | layer of microvilli |
| UBERON:0012424 | brush border layer |
| UBERON:0012425 | striated border microvillus layer |
| UBERON:0012426 | short microvillus layer |
| UBERON:0012429 | hematopoietic tissue |
| UBERON:0012430 | tunica fibrosa of eyeball |
| UBERON:0012438 | blastema of regenerating fin/limb |
| UBERON:0012442 | epiploic foramen |
| UBERON:0012448 | Herbst's corpuscle |
| UBERON:0012449 | mechanoreceptor |
| UBERON:0012450 | Meissner's corpuscle |
| UBERON:0012451 | sensory receptor |
| UBERON:0012453 | nerve ending |
| UBERON:0012456 | Merkel nerve ending |
| UBERON:0012457 | Ruffini nerve ending |
| UBERON:0012458 | antler velvet |
| UBERON:0012462 | proctodeum portion of cloaca |
| UBERON:0012463 | cloacal lumen |
| UBERON:0012466 | extraembryonic cavity |
| UBERON:0012467 | enclosed anatomical space |
| UBERON:0012469 | external anal region |
| UBERON:0012471 | hepatogastric ligament |
| UBERON:0012472 | hepatoduodenal ligament |
| UBERON:0012473 | oral cirrus |
| UBERON:0012474 | hepatic cecum |
| UBERON:0012475 | skeleton of pectoral complex |
| UBERON:0012476 | skeleton of pelvic complex |
| UBERON:0012477 | dorsal part of neck |
| UBERON:0012481 | cloacal epithelium |
| UBERON:0012488 | muscle layer of duodenum |
| UBERON:0012489 | muscle layer of colon |
| UBERON:0012490 | muscle layer of anal canal |
| UBERON:0012494 | muscularis mucosae of duodenum |
| UBERON:0012497 | muscularis mucosae of rectum |
| UBERON:0012498 | serosa of appendix |
| UBERON:0012499 | serosa of fallopian tube |
| UBERON:0012503 | serosa of fundus of stomach |
| UBERON:0012504 | adventitia of esophagus |
| UBERON:0012520 | forelimb epitrochlearis muscle |
| UBERON:0012615 | umbilical smooth muscle |
| UBERON:0012621 | muscle of Aristotle's lantern |
| UBERON:0012642 | vestimentum muscle |
| UBERON:0012643 | plume |
| UBERON:0012648 | ampulla of fallopian tube |
| UBERON:0012649 | anococcygeus muscle |
| UBERON:0012650 | gastroduodenal junction |
| UBERON:0012651 | mucosa of gastroduodenal junction |
| UBERON:0012652 | colorectum |
| UBERON:0012925 | bronchial bud |
| UBERON:0013067 | colorectal mucosa |
| UBERON:0013068 | palatine torus |
| UBERON:0013069 | popliteal area |
| UBERON:0013073 | rattle |
| UBERON:0013074 | cornual diverticulum |
| UBERON:0013075 | venom gland duct |
| UBERON:0013076 | snake venom |
| UBERON:0013106 | elapid venom |
| UBERON:0013112 | viper venom |
| UBERON:0013118 | sulcus of brain |
| UBERON:0013119 | haemal node |
| UBERON:0013120 | eyelid submuscular connective tissue |
| UBERON:0013121 | proximal epiphysis of phalanx of pes |
| UBERON:0013122 | distal epiphysis of phalanx of pes |
| UBERON:0013124 | left posterior cardinal vein |
| UBERON:0013125 | left subcardinal vein |
| UBERON:0013126 | vein of abdomen |
| UBERON:0013127 | pulmonary venous system |
| UBERON:0013128 | bulb of penis |
| UBERON:0013129 | bulb of vestibule |
| UBERON:0013132 | penicillar arteriole |
| UBERON:0013133 | superior phrenic artery |
| UBERON:0013135 | interdental plate |
| UBERON:0013136 | vein of lip |
| UBERON:0013137 | external pudendal artery |
| UBERON:0013138 | coronary ligament of liver |
| UBERON:0013139 | ligament of liver |
| UBERON:0013140 | systemic vein |
| UBERON:0013141 | capillary bed |
| UBERON:0013142 | soleal vein |
| UBERON:0013143 | gastrocnemius vein |
| UBERON:0013144 | vein of genicular venous plexus |
| UBERON:0013145 | accessory saphenous vein |
| UBERON:0013146 | venous system of brain |
| UBERON:0013147 | early mesencephalic vesicle |
| UBERON:0013148 | early midbrain vesicle |
| UBERON:0013149 | hindbrain vesicle |
| UBERON:0013150 | future brain vesicle |
| UBERON:0013151 | choroidal artery |
| UBERON:0013152 | interventricular foramen of heart |
| UBERON:0013153 | arachnoid villus |
| UBERON:0013154 | 1st arch maxillary endoderm |
| UBERON:0013155 | 1st arch mandibular ectoderm |
| UBERON:0013156 | 1st arch mandibular endoderm |
| UBERON:0013157 | 1st arch maxillary-mandibular cleft |
| UBERON:0013158 | foregut-midgut junction gland |
| UBERON:0013159 | epithalamus mantle layer |
| UBERON:0013160 | epithalamus ventricular layer |
| UBERON:0013161 | left lateral ventricle |
| UBERON:0013162 | right lateral ventricle |
| UBERON:0013165 | epiglottic vallecula |
| UBERON:0013166 | vallecula of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0013167 | cricopharyngeal ligament |
| UBERON:0013168 | thyroepiglottic ligament |
| UBERON:0013169 | vestibular ligament |
| UBERON:0013170 | cricoarytenoid ligament |
| UBERON:0013171 | cricothyroid ligament |
| UBERON:0013172 | cricotracheal ligament |
| UBERON:0013173 | anterior part of tympanic bone |
| UBERON:0013191 | ovarian cortex |
| UBERON:0013192 | ovarian medulla |
| UBERON:0013196 | strand of wool |
| UBERON:0013199 | stria of neuraxis |
| UBERON:0013201 | olfactory pathway |
| UBERON:0013203 | hypogastrium |
| UBERON:0013204 | epipubic bone |
| UBERON:0013207 | entepicondylar foramen |
| UBERON:0013208 | Grueneberg ganglion |
| UBERON:0013211 | cerumen gland |
| UBERON:0013213 | ossicone |
| UBERON:0013216 | udder |
| UBERON:0013217 | zygomatic plate |
| UBERON:0013218 | rete mirabile |
| UBERON:0013219 | parotoid gland |
| UBERON:0013220 | foramen of Panizza |
| UBERON:0013221 | caudofemoralis |
| UBERON:0013222 | otic notch |
| UBERON:0013223 | alveolar gland |
| UBERON:0013224 | Ciaccio's gland |
| UBERON:0013226 | accessory lacrimal gland |
| UBERON:0013227 | crypt of Henle |
| UBERON:0013228 | sweat gland of eyelid |
| UBERON:0013229 | eyelid gland |
| UBERON:0013230 | nictitans gland |
| UBERON:0013232 | serous acinus |
| UBERON:0013233 | supraorbital gland |
| UBERON:0013234 | violet gland |
| UBERON:0013235 | ventrum |
| UBERON:0013236 | ventral trunk |
| UBERON:0013237 | genital papilla of vulva |
| UBERON:0013239 | future glans penis |
| UBERON:0013240 | future glans clitoris |
| UBERON:0013241 | embryonic urethral groove |
| UBERON:0013244 | vaginal plate |
| UBERON:0013245 | sinovaginal bulb |
| UBERON:0013247 | male paramesonephric duct |
| UBERON:0013248 | paradidymis |
| UBERON:0013249 | paroophoron |
| UBERON:0013250 | vesicular appendage of epoophoron |
| UBERON:0013262 | remnnant of ductus deferens |
| UBERON:0013277 | remnant of processus vaginalis |
| UBERON:0013278 | canal of Nuck |
| UBERON:0013279 | diaphysis of fibula |
| UBERON:0013280 | diaphysis of tibia |
| UBERON:0013399 | blood vessel layer of choroid |
| UBERON:0013403 | asterion of skull |
| UBERON:0013406 | bregma |
| UBERON:0013411 | cranial cavity |
| UBERON:0013412 | crotaphion |
| UBERON:0013417 | epicranium |
| UBERON:0013420 | groove for sigmoid sinus |
| UBERON:0013422 | infratemporal fossa |
| UBERON:0013423 | jugal point |
| UBERON:0013424 | anatomical point connecting sagittal and lambdoidal sutures |
| UBERON:0013426 | obelion |
| UBERON:0013427 | occipital bun |
| UBERON:0013428 | ophryon |
| UBERON:0013436 | porion |
| UBERON:0013442 | postorbital process |
| UBERON:0013445 | pterygomaxillary fissure |
| UBERON:0013447 | sagittal crest of skull |
| UBERON:0013448 | sagittal keel |
| UBERON:0013450 | simian shelf |
| UBERON:0013454 | spheno-maxillary fossa |
| UBERON:0013455 | spheno-petrosal fissure |
| UBERON:0013459 | stephanion |
| UBERON:0013460 | suprainiac fossa |
| UBERON:0013462 | sylvian point |
| UBERON:0013463 | temporal fossa |
| UBERON:0013468 | zygomatic fossa |
| UBERON:0013469 | external occipital protuberance |
| UBERON:0013471 | retromolar space |
| UBERON:0013472 | upper esophagus |
| UBERON:0013473 | lower esophagus |
| UBERON:0013474 | middle part of esophagus |
| UBERON:0013475 | gustatory gland |
| UBERON:0013478 | cecal tonsil |
| UBERON:0013479 | lung endothelium |
| UBERON:0013481 | crypt of Lieberkuhn of ileum |
| UBERON:0013482 | crypt of Lieberkuhn of duodenum |
| UBERON:0013483 | crypt of Lieberkuhn of jejunum |
| UBERON:0013485 | crypt of Lieberkuhn of colon |
| UBERON:0013486 | crypt of Lieberkuhn of appendix |
| UBERON:0013487 | epidermal ridge of digit |
| UBERON:0013488 | panniculus adiposus |
| UBERON:0013489 | superficial cervical fascia |
| UBERON:0013490 | deep cervical fascia |
| UBERON:0013491 | cervical fascia |
| UBERON:0013492 | prevertebral cervical fascia |
| UBERON:0013493 | abdominal fascia |
| UBERON:0013498 | vestibulo-cochlear VIII ganglion complex |
| UBERON:0013499 | glossopharyngeal-vagus IX-X preganglion complex |
| UBERON:0013500 | glossopharyngeal-vagus IX-X ganglion complex |
| UBERON:0013501 | cloacal sphincter |
| UBERON:0013503 | caudal vertebra cartilage element |
| UBERON:0013504 | caudal vertebra pre-cartilage condensation |
| UBERON:0013505 | cervical vertebra cartilage element |
| UBERON:0013507 | thoracic vertebra cartilage element |
| UBERON:0013509 | lumbar vertebra cartilage element |
| UBERON:0013515 | subdivision of oviduct |
| UBERON:0013519 | avian uterine tube isthmus |
| UBERON:0013525 | stomach lumen |
| UBERON:0013526 | otocyst lumen |
| UBERON:0013528 | Brodmann (1909) area 11 |
| UBERON:0013529 | Brodmann area |
| UBERON:0013531 | retrosplenial region |
| UBERON:0013533 | Brodmann (1909) area 2 |
| UBERON:0013535 | Brodmann (1909) area 4 |
| UBERON:0013538 | Brodmann (1909) area 7 |
| UBERON:0013539 | Brodmann (1909) area 8 |
| UBERON:0013540 | Brodmann (1909) area 9 |
| UBERON:0013541 | Brodmann (1909) area 10 |
| UBERON:0013543 | Brodmann (1909) area 12 |
| UBERON:0013544 | Brodmann (1909) area 13 |
| UBERON:0013545 | Brodmann (1909) area 14 |
| UBERON:0013546 | Brodmann (1909) area 15 |
| UBERON:0013547 | Brodmann (1909) area 16 |
| UBERON:0013550 | Brodmann (1909) area 19 |
| UBERON:0013551 | Brodmann (1909) area 20 |
| UBERON:0013552 | Brodmann (1909) area 21 |
| UBERON:0013553 | Brodmann (1909) area 22 |
| UBERON:0013554 | Brodmann (1909) area 23 |
| UBERON:0013556 | Brodmann (1909) area 25 |
| UBERON:0013558 | Brodmann (1909) area 27 |
| UBERON:0013559 | Brodmann (1909) area 28 |
| UBERON:0013560 | Brodmann (1909) area 32 |
| UBERON:0013561 | Brodmann (1909) area 43 |
| UBERON:0013562 | Brodmann (1909) area 8a |
| UBERON:0013573 | Brodmann (1909) area 40 |
| UBERON:0013589 | koniocortex |
| UBERON:0013598 | accessory nucleus of optic tract |
| UBERON:0013599 | dorsal accessory nucleus of optic tract |
| UBERON:0013600 | lateral accessory nucleus of optic tract |
| UBERON:0013601 | medial accessory nucleus of optic tract |
| UBERON:0013606 | magnocellular layer of dorsal nucleus of lateral geniculate body |
| UBERON:0013607 | parvocellular layer of dorsal nucleus of lateral geniculate body |
| UBERON:0013608 | inferior olive dorsal accessory nucleus |
| UBERON:0013609 | inferior olive medial accessory nucleus |
| UBERON:0013615 | koniocellular layer of dorsal nucleus of lateral geniculate body |
| UBERON:0013616 | primary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0013617 | upper primary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0013618 | secondary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0013619 | upper secondary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0013620 | lower primary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0013621 | lower secondary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0013630 | short bone |
| UBERON:0013631 | sesamoid element |
| UBERON:0013632 | sesamoid cartilage |
| UBERON:0013633 | intertrochanteric crest |
| UBERON:0013634 | intertrochanteric line |
| UBERON:0013636 | epithelium of intestinal villus |
| UBERON:0013637 | prostate gland lateral lobe |
| UBERON:0013643 | lophophore |
| UBERON:0013644 | duodenal ampulla |
| UBERON:0013646 | buccal nerve |
| UBERON:0013647 | lateral pterygoid nerve |
| UBERON:0013648 | masseteric artery |
| UBERON:0013655 | elastica externa of notochord |
| UBERON:0013678 | anatomical line between inner canthi |
| UBERON:0013679 | inner canthus of right eye |
| UBERON:0013680 | inner canthus of left eye |
| UBERON:0013682 | peripheral region of retina |
| UBERON:0013683 | left dorsal thalamus |
| UBERON:0013684 | right dorsal thalamus |
| UBERON:0013685 | foramen of skull |
| UBERON:0013686 | anatomical conduit space |
| UBERON:0013687 | pericranium |
| UBERON:0013691 | buttock |
| UBERON:0013692 | inframammary fold |
| UBERON:0013694 | brain endothelium |
| UBERON:0013698 | strand of pubic hair |
| UBERON:0013699 | strand of axillary hair |
| UBERON:0013700 | axial musculature |
| UBERON:0013702 | body proper |
| UBERON:0013704 | notochordal canal |
| UBERON:0013705 | fascia of Scarpa |
| UBERON:0013706 | bone spine |
| UBERON:0013707 | iliac spine |
| UBERON:0013708 | anterior superior iliac spine |
| UBERON:0013709 | anterior inferior iliac spine |
| UBERON:0013710 | posterior superior iliac spine |
| UBERON:0013711 | posterior inferior iliac spine |
| UBERON:0013717 | superficial inguinal ring |
| UBERON:0013718 | dartos muscle |
| UBERON:0013719 | dartos muscle of scrotum |
| UBERON:0013721 | deep inguinal ring |
| UBERON:0013725 | anterior talofibular ligament |
| UBERON:0013726 | posterior talofibular ligament |
| UBERON:0013730 | mycetome |
| UBERON:0013731 | basilar papilla |
| UBERON:0013732 | vestibule of nasal cavity |
| UBERON:0013733 | caudal linear nucleus |
| UBERON:0013734 | rostral linear nucleus |
| UBERON:0013736 | interfascicular linear nucleus |
| UBERON:0013737 | paranigral nucleus |
| UBERON:0013738 | parabrachial pigmental nucleus |
| UBERON:0013748 | ulnar metaphysis |
| UBERON:0013749 | metaphysis of humerus |
| UBERON:0013750 | metaphysis of tibia |
| UBERON:0013751 | metaphysis of radius |
| UBERON:0013752 | diaphysis of metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0013753 | distal epiphysis of metacarpal bone |
| UBERON:0013754 | integumentary system layer |
| UBERON:0013755 | arterial blood |
| UBERON:0013756 | venous blood |
| UBERON:0013757 | capillary blood |
| UBERON:0013758 | cervical os |
| UBERON:0013759 | internal cervical os |
| UBERON:0013760 | external cervical os |
| UBERON:0013761 | cervical cavity |
| UBERON:0013764 | common crus of semicircular duct |
| UBERON:0013765 | digestive system element |
| UBERON:0013766 | epicanthal fold |
| UBERON:0013767 | frontal process of maxilla |
| UBERON:0013768 | great vessel of heart |
| UBERON:0013769 | uterine lumen |
| UBERON:0013770 | intermammary cleft |
| UBERON:0013772 | left nipple |
| UBERON:0013773 | right nipple |
| UBERON:0013774 | diaphysis of metatarsal bone |
| UBERON:0013777 | skin of palm of manus |
| UBERON:0013778 | skin of sole of pes |
| UBERON:0014169 | nigrostriatal tract |
| UBERON:0014277 | piriform cortex layer 1 |
| UBERON:0014280 | piriform cortex layer 2 |
| UBERON:0014283 | piriform cortex layer 3 |
| UBERON:0014284 | endopiriform nucleus |
| UBERON:0014286 | dorsal cap of Kooy |
| UBERON:0014287 | medial accessory olive |
| UBERON:0014370 | extrastriate cortex |
| UBERON:0014371 | future telencephalon |
| UBERON:0014372 | fibroelastic membrane of larynx |
| UBERON:0014374 | embryoid body |
| UBERON:0014375 | intrinsic muscle of manus |
| UBERON:0014376 | thenar muscle |
| UBERON:0014377 | hypothenar muscle |
| UBERON:0014378 | intrinsic muscle of pes |
| UBERON:0014379 | adductor hallucis muscle |
| UBERON:0014380 | flexor digitorum brevis muscle |
| UBERON:0014381 | whorl of hair |
| UBERON:0014385 | aryepiglottic fold |
| UBERON:0014386 | vertebral endplate |
| UBERON:0014387 | mesenchyme derived from neural crest |
| UBERON:0014388 | kidney collecting duct epithelium |
| UBERON:0014390 | muscle layer of ileum |
| UBERON:0014392 | sweat of palm |
| UBERON:0014393 | sweat of axilla |
| UBERON:0014394 | uterine fat pad |
| UBERON:0014397 | lateral process of malleus |
| UBERON:0014398 | respiratory muscle |
| UBERON:0014399 | sinusoidal space |
| UBERON:0014400 | hepatic sinusoidal space |
| UBERON:0014401 | renal venous blood vessel |
| UBERON:0014402 | sex-specific anatomical structure |
| UBERON:0014403 | male anatomical structure |
| UBERON:0014404 | female anatomical structure |
| UBERON:0014405 | nymph stage |
| UBERON:0014406 | nauplius stage |
| UBERON:0014410 | fibularis quartus |
| UBERON:0014411 | greater sciatic notch |
| UBERON:0014430 | sciatic notch |
| UBERON:0014436 | lesser sciatic notch |
| UBERON:0014437 | iliac crest |
| UBERON:0014438 | superior pubic ramus |
| UBERON:0014439 | inferior pubic ramus |
| UBERON:0014440 | ischiopubic ramus |
| UBERON:0014441 | ischial ramus |
| UBERON:0014442 | superior ischial ramus |
| UBERON:0014443 | inferior ischial ramus |
| UBERON:0014444 | pubic ramus |
| UBERON:0014445 | acetabular fossa |
| UBERON:0014446 | acetabular notch |
| UBERON:0014450 | pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0014452 | gustatory epithelium of tongue |
| UBERON:0014454 | visceral abdominal adipose tissue |
| UBERON:0014456 | extraperitoneal space |
| UBERON:0014457 | obsolete adult eye primordium |
| UBERON:0014458 | female bulbospongiosus muscle |
| UBERON:0014461 | infratemporal fenestra |
| UBERON:0014463 | cardiac ganglion |
| UBERON:0014466 | subarachnoid fissure |
| UBERON:0014468 | ansoparamedian fissure of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0014471 | primary fissure of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0014473 | precentral fissure of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0014474 | postcentral fissure of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0014477 | thoracic skeleton |
| UBERON:0014478 | rib skeletal system |
| UBERON:0014479 | elephant trunk |
| UBERON:0014480 | blood feather |
| UBERON:0014481 | sex skin |
| UBERON:0014485 | distal phalanx of digit 3 |
| UBERON:0014486 | distal phalanx of digit 4 |
| UBERON:0014489 | middle phalanx of digit 3 |
| UBERON:0014490 | middle phalanx of digit 4 |
| UBERON:0014503 | proximal phalanx of digit 3 |
| UBERON:0014506 | distal interphalangeal joint of digit 3 |
| UBERON:0014507 | distal interphalangeal joint of pedal digit 3 |
| UBERON:0014508 | distal interphalangeal joint of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0014509 | distal sesamoid impar ligament |
| UBERON:0014510 | lamina of omasum |
| UBERON:0014521 | anterodorsal nucleus of medial geniculate body |
| UBERON:0014522 | dorsolateral oculomotor nucleus |
| UBERON:0014525 | limb of internal capsule of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0014526 | anterior limb of internal capsule |
| UBERON:0014527 | posterior limb of internal capsule |
| UBERON:0014528 | extreme capsule |
| UBERON:0014529 | lenticular fasciculus |
| UBERON:0014530 | white matter lamina of neuraxis |
| UBERON:0014531 | white matter lamina of diencephalon |
| UBERON:0014532 | white matter lamina of cerebral hemisphere |
| UBERON:0014533 | medullary lamina of thalamus |
| UBERON:0014534 | external medullary lamina of thalamus |
| UBERON:0014537 | periamygdaloid cortex |
| UBERON:0014538 | subdivision of spinal cord central canal |
| UBERON:0014539 | precommissural fornix of forebrain |
| UBERON:0014540 | white matter lamina of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0014541 | thoracic division of spinal cord central canal |
| UBERON:0014542 | cervical division of cord spinal central canal |
| UBERON:0014543 | lumbar division of spinal cord central canal |
| UBERON:0014544 | frontomarginal sulcus |
| UBERON:0014547 | sacral division of spinal cord central canal |
| UBERON:0014548 | pyramidal layer of CA1 |
| UBERON:0014549 | pyramidal layer of CA2 |
| UBERON:0014550 | pyramidal layer of CA3 |
| UBERON:0014551 | CA2 stratum oriens |
| UBERON:0014552 | CA1 stratum oriens |
| UBERON:0014553 | CA3 stratum oriens |
| UBERON:0014554 | CA1 stratum radiatum |
| UBERON:0014555 | CA2 stratum radiatum |
| UBERON:0014556 | CA3 stratum radiatum |
| UBERON:0014557 | CA1 stratum lacunosum moleculare |
| UBERON:0014558 | CA2 stratum lacunosum moleculare |
| UBERON:0014559 | CA3 stratum lacunosum moleculare |
| UBERON:0014560 | CA3 stratum lucidum |
| UBERON:0014568 | dorsal tegmental nucleus pars dorsalis |
| UBERON:0014569 | dorsal tegmental nucleus pars ventralis |
| UBERON:0014570 | CA1 alveus |
| UBERON:0014571 | CA3 alveus |
| UBERON:0014589 | anterior nucleus of hypothalamus anterior part |
| UBERON:0014590 | anterior nucleus of hypothalamus central part |
| UBERON:0014591 | anterior nucleus of hypothalamus posterior part |
| UBERON:0014592 | anterior nucleus of hypothalamus dorsal part |
| UBERON:0014593 | tuberomammillary nucleus dorsal part |
| UBERON:0014594 | tuberomammillary nucleus ventral part |
| UBERON:0014595 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus descending division - medial parvocellular part, ventral zone |
| UBERON:0014596 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus descending division - dorsal parvocellular part |
| UBERON:0014597 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus descending division - lateral parvocellular part |
| UBERON:0014598 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus descending division - forniceal part |
| UBERON:0014599 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus magnocellular division - anterior magnocellular part |
| UBERON:0014600 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus magnocellular division - medial magnocellular part |
| UBERON:0014601 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus magnocellular division - posterior magnocellular part |
| UBERON:0014602 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus descending division |
| UBERON:0014603 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus magnocellular division |
| UBERON:0014604 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus parvocellular division |
| UBERON:0014605 | fundus striati |
| UBERON:0014607 | thoracic spinal cord lateral horn |
| UBERON:0014608 | inferior occipital gyrus |
| UBERON:0014609 | thoracic spinal cord dorsal horn |
| UBERON:0014610 | thoracic spinal cord ventral horn |
| UBERON:0014611 | apex of thoracic spinal cord dorsal horn |
| UBERON:0014612 | substantia gelatinosa of thoracic spinal cord dorsal horn |
| UBERON:0014613 | cervical spinal cord gray matter |
| UBERON:0014614 | cervical spinal cord white matter |
| UBERON:0014615 | accessory nerve root |
| UBERON:0014616 | dorsal nerve root of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0014617 | ventral nerve root of thoracic spinal cord |
| UBERON:0014618 | middle frontal sulcus |
| UBERON:0014619 | cervical spinal cord lateral horn |
| UBERON:0014620 | cervical spinal cord dorsal horn |
| UBERON:0014621 | cervical spinal cord ventral horn |
| UBERON:0014622 | apex of cervical spinal cord dorsal horn |
| UBERON:0014623 | substantia gelatinosa of cervical spinal cord dorsal horn |
| UBERON:0014624 | basis modioli |
| UBERON:0014626 | base of cochlear canal |
| UBERON:0014628 | vestibular fissure of the cochlear canal |
| UBERON:0014629 | terminal part of the cochlear canal |
| UBERON:0014630 | ventral gray commissure of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0014631 | dorsal gray commissure of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0014632 | apex of lumbar spinal cord dorsal horn |
| UBERON:0014633 | substantia gelatinosa of lumbar spinal cord dorsal horn |
| UBERON:0014634 | ventral nerve root of cervical spinal cord |
| UBERON:0014635 | dorsal nerve root of cervical spinal cord |
| UBERON:0014636 | thoracic spinal cord gray matter |
| UBERON:0014637 | thoracic spinal cord white matter |
| UBERON:0014638 | lumbar spinal cord dorsal horn |
| UBERON:0014639 | frontal sulcus |
| UBERON:0014640 | occipital gyrus |
| UBERON:0014641 | terminal nerve root |
| UBERON:0014643 | spinocerebellum |
| UBERON:0014644 | cerebrocerebellum |
| UBERON:0014647 | hemisphere part of cerebellar anterior lobe |
| UBERON:0014648 | hemisphere part of cerebellar posterior lobe |
| UBERON:0014649 | white matter of medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:0014650 | dorsal hypothalamic nucleus |
| UBERON:0014663 | nucleus recessus lateralis |
| UBERON:0014664 | nucleus recessus posterioris |
| UBERON:0014665 | nucleus preopticus |
| UBERON:0014666 | nucleus recessus preopticus |
| UBERON:0014667 | periventricular nucleus of hypothalamus |
| UBERON:0014668 | distal interphalangeal joint of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0014670 | distal interphalangeal joint of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0014671 | distal interphalangeal joint of manural digit 5 |
| UBERON:0014672 | distal interphalangeal joint of pedal digit 2 |
| UBERON:0014674 | distal interphalangeal joint of pedal digit 4 |
| UBERON:0014675 | distal interphalangeal joint of pedal digit 5 |
| UBERON:0014677 | distal interphalangeal joint of digit 2 |
| UBERON:0014679 | distal interphalangeal joint of digit 4 |
| UBERON:0014680 | distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5 |
| UBERON:0014685 | pterygoid plexus |
| UBERON:0014686 | angular vein |
| UBERON:0014687 | temporal sulcus |
| UBERON:0014689 | middle temporal sulcus |
| UBERON:0014690 | left gastric vein |
| UBERON:0014691 | right gastric vein |
| UBERON:0014692 | superficial epigastric vein |
| UBERON:0014693 | inferior alveolar artery |
| UBERON:0014694 | posterior auricular artery |
| UBERON:0014695 | deep auricular artery |
| UBERON:0014696 | anterior choroidal artery |
| UBERON:0014697 | posterior choroidal artery |
| UBERON:0014698 | lacrimal caruncle |
| UBERON:0014699 | extraembryonic venous system |
| UBERON:0014701 | extraembryonic vascular system |
| UBERON:0014702 | frontonasal process epithelium |
| UBERON:0014703 | anal membrane ectodermal component |
| UBERON:0014704 | pleuroperitoneal canal lumen |
| UBERON:0014705 | median lingual swelling epithelium |
| UBERON:0014706 | primitive renal collecting duct system |
| UBERON:0014716 | interlobular duct |
| UBERON:0014717 | mucous acinus |
| UBERON:0014719 | intralobular duct |
| UBERON:0014725 | intercalated duct |
| UBERON:0014726 | intercalated duct of pancreas |
| UBERON:0014727 | intercalated duct of salivary gland |
| UBERON:0014729 | striated duct of salivary gland |
| UBERON:0014730 | osteon |
| UBERON:0014731 | haversian canal |
| UBERON:0014732 | compound cell cluster organ |
| UBERON:0014734 | allocortex |
| UBERON:0014735 | paleocortex |
| UBERON:0014736 | periallocortex |
| UBERON:0014738 | medial pallium |
| UBERON:0014740 | dorsal pallium |
| UBERON:0014741 | lateral pallium |
| UBERON:0014757 | hyperpallium apicale |
| UBERON:0014760 | gustatory nucleus |
| UBERON:0014761 | spinal trigeminal tract |
| UBERON:0014764 | anatomical line along groove |
| UBERON:0014765 | crus of diaphragm |
| UBERON:0014766 | right crus of diaphragm |
| UBERON:0014767 | left crus of diaphragm |
| UBERON:0014768 | superior palpebral vein |
| UBERON:0014769 | palpebral vein |
| UBERON:0014770 | palpebral artery |
| UBERON:0014772 | lateral palpebral artery |
| UBERON:0014773 | medial palpebral artery |
| UBERON:0014775 | prosomere |
| UBERON:0014776 | midbrain neuromere |
| UBERON:0014777 | spinal neuromere |
| UBERON:0014779 | liver reticuloendothelial system |
| UBERON:0014780 | palatine aponeurosis |
| UBERON:0014781 | stomodeal ectoderm |
| UBERON:0014782 | allantois of embryonic urinary system |
| UBERON:0014786 | extraembryonic umbilical vein |
| UBERON:0014787 | left extraembryonic umbilical vein |
| UBERON:0014788 | right extraembryonic umbilical vein |
| UBERON:0014789 | embryo portion of umbilical vein |
| UBERON:0014790 | lingual septum |
| UBERON:0014791 | musculature of forelimb stylopod |
| UBERON:0014792 | musculature of pelvic complex |
| UBERON:0014793 | musculature of pectoral complex |
| UBERON:0014796 | common tendinous ring |
| UBERON:0014801 | nuchal line attachment site |
| UBERON:0014802 | highest nuchal line attachment site |
| UBERON:0014803 | superior nuchal line attachment site |
| UBERON:0014805 | inferior nuchal line attachment site |
| UBERON:0014835 | serratus muscle |
| UBERON:0014847 | vastus intermedius |
| UBERON:0014848 | tendon of quadriceps femoris |
| UBERON:0014849 | hemotrichorial placental membrane |
| UBERON:0014851 | chorda tendinea of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0014852 | chorda tendinea of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0014853 | commissural leaflet of mitral valve |
| UBERON:0014854 | anterior leaflet of mitral valve |
| UBERON:0014855 | posterior leaflet of mitral valve |
| UBERON:0014856 | cysticercus stage |
| UBERON:0014858 | crustacean post-larval stage |
| UBERON:0014862 | trochophore stage |
| UBERON:0014863 | veliger stage |
| UBERON:0014864 | caterpillar stage |
| UBERON:0014870 | inferior orbital fissure |
| UBERON:0014871 | distal epiphysis of distal phalanx of pedal digit 1 |
| UBERON:0014872 | distal epiphysis of distal phalanx of pedal digit 2 |
| UBERON:0014873 | distal epiphysis of distal phalanx of pedal digit 3 |
| UBERON:0014874 | distal epiphysis of distal phalanx of pedal digit 4 |
| UBERON:0014875 | distal epiphysis of distal phalanx of pedal digit 5 |
| UBERON:0014881 | distal epiphysis of distal phalanx of manual digit 1 |
| UBERON:0014882 | distal epiphysis of distal phalanx of manual digit 2 |
| UBERON:0014883 | distal epiphysis of distal phalanx of manual digit 3 |
| UBERON:0014884 | distal epiphysis of distal phalanx of manual digit 4 |
| UBERON:0014885 | distal epiphysis of distal phalanx of manual digit 5 |
| UBERON:0014886 | distal epiphysis of distal phalanx of manual digit |
| UBERON:0014889 | left hemisphere of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0014890 | right hemisphere of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0014891 | brainstem white matter |
| UBERON:0014892 | skeletal muscle organ, vertebrate |
| UBERON:0014895 | somatic muscle, invertebrate |
| UBERON:0014898 | lamina terminalis of ischium |
| UBERON:0014899 | anterolateral ligament of knee |
| UBERON:0014903 | primordial vasculature |
| UBERON:0014904 | intersegmental pulmonary vein |
| UBERON:0014907 | intersomitic vessel |
| UBERON:0014908 | cerebellopontine angle |
| UBERON:0014912 | thalamic eminence |
| UBERON:0014913 | ventral pallium |
| UBERON:0014915 | genu of facial nerve |
| UBERON:0014918 | retrosplenial granular cortex |
| UBERON:0014930 | perivascular space |
| UBERON:0014931 | periungual skin |
| UBERON:0014932 | periventricular white matter |
| UBERON:0014933 | periventricular gray matter |
| UBERON:0014935 | cerebral cortex marginal layer |
| UBERON:0014936 | cerebral cortex ventricular layer |
| UBERON:0014940 | cerebral cortex subventricular zone |
| UBERON:0014951 | proisocortex |
| UBERON:0015062 | bone condensation |
| UBERON:0015117 | lamina terminalis of cerebral hemisphere |
| UBERON:0015119 | scolex |
| UBERON:0015120 | right outer canthus |
| UBERON:0015121 | left outer canthus |
| UBERON:0015125 | anterior internodal tract |
| UBERON:0015126 | middle internodal tract |
| UBERON:0015127 | posterior internodal tract |
| UBERON:0015128 | subepicardial layer of epicardium |
| UBERON:0015129 | epicardial fat |
| UBERON:0015130 | connective tissue of prostate gland |
| UBERON:0015131 | subepithelial connective tissue of prostatic gland |
| UBERON:0015132 | extralobar lactiferous duct |
| UBERON:0015133 | terminal lactiferous duct |
| UBERON:0015134 | main lactiferous duct |
| UBERON:0015135 | primary lactiferous duct |
| UBERON:0015136 | secondary lactiferous duct |
| UBERON:0015137 | tertiary lactiferous duct |
| UBERON:0015138 | quarternary lactiferous duct |
| UBERON:0015139 | infundibulum of gallbladder |
| UBERON:0015148 | tail hair |
| UBERON:0015150 | dorsal hair |
| UBERON:0015155 | conjunctival space |
| UBERON:0015156 | terminal branch of ophthalmic artery |
| UBERON:0015157 | zygomatico-orbital artery |
| UBERON:0015160 | supraorbital artery |
| UBERON:0015161 | inferior branch of oculomotor nerve |
| UBERON:0015162 | superior branch of oculomotor nerve |
| UBERON:0015169 | tapetum |
| UBERON:0015171 | uterine spiral artery |
| UBERON:0015172 | endometrial blood vessel |
| UBERON:0015173 | helicine branch of uterine artery |
| UBERON:0015174 | helicine artery of penis |
| UBERON:0015177 | helicine artery |
| UBERON:0015178 | somite border |
| UBERON:0015179 | somite boundary epithelium |
| UBERON:0015180 | neck of talus |
| UBERON:0015181 | neck of tooth |
| UBERON:0015189 | perineural vascular plexus |
| UBERON:0015202 | lymph heart |
| UBERON:0015203 | non-connected functional system |
| UBERON:0015204 | glandular system |
| UBERON:0015213 | barnacle cement gland |
| UBERON:0015214 | arcuate ligament |
| UBERON:0015215 | median arcuate ligament |
| UBERON:0015216 | nasal meatus |
| UBERON:0015219 | middle nasal meatus |
| UBERON:0015220 | inferior nasal meatus |
| UBERON:0015221 | common nasal meatus |
| UBERON:0015226 | bulbar spiral septum |
| UBERON:0015230 | dorsal vessel heart |
| UBERON:0015231 | circulatory system dorsal vessel |
| UBERON:0015232 | nematode pharynx |
| UBERON:0015238 | pineal complex |
| UBERON:0015241 | parapineal organ |
| UBERON:0015243 | lower part of vagina |
| UBERON:0015244 | accessory olfactory bulb granule cell layer |
| UBERON:0015245 | septal olfactory organ |
| UBERON:0015246 | septal organ of Masera |
| UBERON:0015247 | bifurcation of trachea |
| UBERON:0015249 | digit skin |
| UBERON:0015250 | inferior olivary commissure |
| UBERON:0015251 | modified sebaceous gland |
| UBERON:0015252 | coat hair follicle |
| UBERON:0015280 | pancreas left lobe |
| UBERON:0015281 | pancreas right lobe |
| UBERON:0015329 | respiratory system basement membrane |
| UBERON:0015350 | saphenous artery |
| UBERON:0015410 | heart plus pericardium |
| UBERON:0015418 | urethra mesenchymal layer |
| UBERON:0015420 | ureteral valve |
| UBERON:0015423 | hilar portion of hepatic duct |
| UBERON:0015430 | levator auris longus muscle |
| UBERON:0015432 | accessory olfactory bulb mitral cell layer |
| UBERON:0015433 | blood vessel external elastic membrane |
| UBERON:0015445 | anterior lingual gland duct |
| UBERON:0015453 | subcutaneous lymph node |
| UBERON:0015454 | pancreatic fat pad |
| UBERON:0015455 | accessory hepatic vein |
| UBERON:0015458 | mediastinal fat pad |
| UBERON:0015469 | splenic lymph node |
| UBERON:0015472 | tracheobronchial lymph node |
| UBERON:0015474 | axilla skin |
| UBERON:0015476 | nose skin |
| UBERON:0015477 | axillary fat pad |
| UBERON:0015479 | scrotum skin |
| UBERON:0015480 | proper hepatic artery |
| UBERON:0015481 | left hepatic artery |
| UBERON:0015482 | right hepatic artery |
| UBERON:0015484 | epidermis of metapodial pad |
| UBERON:0015485 | choledocho-duodenal junction |
| UBERON:0015488 | sural nerve |
| UBERON:0015510 | body of corpus callosum |
| UBERON:0015593 | frontal gyrus |
| UBERON:0015599 | genu of corpus callosum |
| UBERON:0015703 | rostrum of corpus callosum |
| UBERON:0015704 | sagittal sinus |
| UBERON:0015708 | splenium of the corpus callosum |
| UBERON:0015716 | anal canal epithelium |
| UBERON:0015717 | smooth muscle tissue layer of ejaculatory duct |
| UBERON:0015751 | inferior tarsal muscle |
| UBERON:0015757 | heterogeneous tissue |
| UBERON:0015760 | mixed stratified cuboidal and columnar epithelium |
| UBERON:0015764 | dense regular elastic tissue |
| UBERON:0015766 | epithelium of duct of salivary gland |
| UBERON:0015777 | transitional epithelium of prostatic urethra |
| UBERON:0015783 | smooth muscle layer in fatty layer of subcutaneous tissue |
| UBERON:0015786 | respiratory segment of nasal mucosa |
| UBERON:0015787 | upper respiratory conduit |
| UBERON:0015788 | olfactory apparatus chamber |
| UBERON:0015789 | cranial or facial muscle |
| UBERON:0015790 | autopod skin |
| UBERON:0015791 | digit connective tissue |
| UBERON:0015792 | prostate gland dorsal lobe |
| UBERON:0015793 | induseum griseum |
| UBERON:0015794 | left lung lobar bronchus epithelium |
| UBERON:0015795 | right lung lobar bronchus epitheium |
| UBERON:0015796 | liver blood vessel |
| UBERON:0015800 | taenia tectum of brain |
| UBERON:0015807 | ear epithelium |
| UBERON:0015808 | eye epithelium |
| UBERON:0015813 | middle ear epithelium |
| UBERON:0015814 | outer ear epithelium |
| UBERON:0015828 | cerebellum ventricular layer |
| UBERON:0015829 | forebrain ventricular layer |
| UBERON:0015833 | foregut epithelium |
| UBERON:0015834 | duodenum lamina propria |
| UBERON:0015837 | incisor dental pulp |
| UBERON:0015838 | molar dental pulp |
| UBERON:0015839 | molar epithelium |
| UBERON:0015840 | incisor dental lamina |
| UBERON:0015841 | molar dental lamina |
| UBERON:0015842 | incisor enamel organ |
| UBERON:0015843 | molar enamel organ |
| UBERON:0015844 | molar dental papilla |
| UBERON:0015846 | incisor mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0015847 | upper left incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0015855 | ventral ectodermal ridge |
| UBERON:0015857 | parotid lymph node |
| UBERON:0015859 | hepatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0015860 | visceral abdominal lymph node |
| UBERON:0015863 | gastric lymph node |
| UBERON:0015865 | pancreaticosplenic lymph node |
| UBERON:0015866 | pyloric lymph node |
| UBERON:0015867 | cystic lymph node |
| UBERON:0015868 | lymph node of epiploic foramen |
| UBERON:0015869 | retropharyngeal lymph node |
| UBERON:0015870 | lymph node of head |
| UBERON:0015871 | facial lymph node |
| UBERON:0015872 | mandibular lymph node |
| UBERON:0015873 | heel skin |
| UBERON:0015875 | heel |
| UBERON:0015876 | pelvic lymph node |
| UBERON:0015877 | parietal pelvic lymph node |
| UBERON:0015878 | common iliac lymph node |
| UBERON:0015880 | external iliac lymph node |
| UBERON:0015881 | internal iliac lymph node |
| UBERON:0015883 | gluteal lymph node |
| UBERON:0015884 | presymphysial lymph node |
| UBERON:0015885 | cymba conchae of pinna |
| UBERON:0015886 | root of nail |
| UBERON:0015895 | proximal deep inguinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0015917 | superficial lymph node |
| UBERON:0015918 | deep lymph node |
| UBERON:0015923 | superficial parotid lymph node |
| UBERON:0015925 | superficial intraparotid lymph node |
| UBERON:0016374 | sciatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0016378 | ileocolic lymph node |
| UBERON:0016382 | prescapular lymph node |
| UBERON:0016386 | paraaortic lymph node |
| UBERON:0016390 | auricular lymph node |
| UBERON:0016391 | thymic lymph node |
| UBERON:0016392 | mastoid lymph node |
| UBERON:0016393 | deep parotid lymph node |
| UBERON:0016394 | anterior auricular lymph node |
| UBERON:0016395 | infra-auricular lymph node |
| UBERON:0016396 | intraglandular lymph node |
| UBERON:0016397 | submental lymph node |
| UBERON:0016398 | lymph node of lower limb |
| UBERON:0016399 | lymph node of upper limb |
| UBERON:0016400 | infrapatellar fat pad |
| UBERON:0016401 | pancreaticoduodenal lymph node |
| UBERON:0016402 | mesocolic lymph node |
| UBERON:0016403 | thoracic wall |
| UBERON:0016404 | cervical vertebral arch joint |
| UBERON:0016405 | pulmonary capillary |
| UBERON:0016408 | corona of glans penis |
| UBERON:0016409 | base of glans penis |
| UBERON:0016410 | male breast |
| UBERON:0016412 | central part of body of bony vertebral centrum |
| UBERON:0016413 | medullary cavity of long bone |
| UBERON:0016416 | anterior chest |
| UBERON:0016418 | nasion |
| UBERON:0016419 | bony part of vertebral arch |
| UBERON:0016422 | compact bone of long bone |
| UBERON:0016423 | compact bone of diaphysis |
| UBERON:0016425 | epiphyseal plate of radius |
| UBERON:0016426 | proximal interphalangeal joint of little finger |
| UBERON:0016430 | palmar branch of median nerve |
| UBERON:0016435 | chest wall |
| UBERON:0016440 | glabella region of bone |
| UBERON:0016442 | median palatine suture |
| UBERON:0016446 | hair of head |
| UBERON:0016447 | hair of trunk |
| UBERON:0016452 | upper secondary premolar tooth |
| UBERON:0016453 | lower secondary premolar tooth |
| UBERON:0016454 | upper central secondary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0016455 | upper lateral secondary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0016458 | esophageal hiatus |
| UBERON:0016459 | posterior pole of lens |
| UBERON:0016462 | periorbital skin |
| UBERON:0016464 | dorsum of nose |
| UBERON:0016466 | antihelix |
| UBERON:0016467 | antitragus |
| UBERON:0016475 | skin of forehead |
| UBERON:0016476 | primary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0016477 | zygomatic process of maxilla |
| UBERON:0016478 | liver stroma |
| UBERON:0016479 | capsule of liver |
| UBERON:0016480 | interlobular stroma of liver |
| UBERON:0016481 | bronchial lymph node |
| UBERON:0016482 | dental plaque |
| UBERON:0016486 | posterior fornix of vagina |
| UBERON:0016487 | anterior fornix of vagina |
| UBERON:0016490 | auditory system |
| UBERON:0016491 | vertebral centrum element |
| UBERON:0016492 | foramen spinosum of sphenoid bone |
| UBERON:0016493 | palmaris longus muscle |
| UBERON:0016496 | tendon of palmaris longus |
| UBERON:0016497 | epicondyle of humerus |
| UBERON:0016498 | intestinal-cloacal junction |
| UBERON:0016499 | esophageal-pneumatic duct sphincter |
| UBERON:0016500 | muscularis mucosa of fundus of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:0016501 | muscularis mucosae of fundus of stomach |
| UBERON:0016502 | stomach fundus lumen |
| UBERON:0016504 | umbilical ring |
| UBERON:0016505 | Mullerian tubercle |
| UBERON:0016508 | pelvic ganglion |
| UBERON:0016509 | cavity of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0016510 | epithelium of male urethra |
| UBERON:0016511 | lamina propria of fundus of stomach |
| UBERON:0016512 | lumen of duodenum |
| UBERON:0016513 | cavity of left atrium |
| UBERON:0016514 | cavity of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0016515 | muscular layer of prostatic urethra |
| UBERON:0016516 | lamina propria of prostatic urethra |
| UBERON:0016517 | lumen of jejunum |
| UBERON:0016519 | muscularis mucosae of jejunum |
| UBERON:0016520 | epithelium of female urethra |
| UBERON:0016522 | cavity of right atrium |
| UBERON:0016524 | muscle layer of spongiose part of urethra |
| UBERON:0016525 | frontal lobe |
| UBERON:0016526 | lobe of cerebral hemisphere |
| UBERON:0016527 | white matter of cerebral lobe |
| UBERON:0016528 | white matter of frontal lobe |
| UBERON:0016529 | cortex of cerebral lobe |
| UBERON:0016530 | parietal cortex |
| UBERON:0016531 | white matter of parietal lobe |
| UBERON:0016534 | white matter of temporal lobe |
| UBERON:0016535 | white matter of occipital lobe |
| UBERON:0016536 | white matter of limbic lobe |
| UBERON:0016538 | temporal cortex |
| UBERON:0016540 | occipital cortex |
| UBERON:0016542 | limbic cortex |
| UBERON:0016545 | pharyngeal ectoderm |
| UBERON:0016547 | lower foregut region endoderm |
| UBERON:0016548 | central nervous system gray matter layer |
| UBERON:0016549 | central nervous system white matter layer |
| UBERON:0016552 | phlegm |
| UBERON:0016554 | white matter of midbrain |
| UBERON:0016555 | stria of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0016559 | superficial cerebral vein |
| UBERON:0016564 | deep cerebral vein |
| UBERON:0016566 | pit |
| UBERON:0016567 | statoconial membrane |
| UBERON:0016568 | gelatinous layer of statoconial membrane |
| UBERON:0016570 | lamina of gray matter of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0016574 | lamina III of gray matter of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0016575 | lamina IV of gray matter of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0016576 | lamina V of gray matter of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0016577 | lamina VI of gray matter of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0016578 | lamina VII of gray matter of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0016579 | lamina VIII of gray matter of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0016580 | lamina IX of gray matter of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0016610 | nucleus proprius of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0016630 | neurovascular bundle |
| UBERON:0016631 | actinopterygian frontal-parietal joint |
| UBERON:0016632 | isthmus of fallopian tube |
| UBERON:0016633 | parvocellular reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:0016634 | premotor cortex |
| UBERON:0016635 | paragigantocellular nucleus |
| UBERON:0016636 | supplemental motor cortex |
| UBERON:0016637 | lateral periolivary nucleus |
| UBERON:0016641 | subparafascicular nucleus |
| UBERON:0016824 | lateral paragigantocellular nucleus |
| UBERON:0016825 | dorsal paragigantocellular nucleus |
| UBERON:0016826 | paramedian medullary reticular complex |
| UBERON:0016827 | dorsal paramedian reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:0016832 | paratrigeminal nucleus |
| UBERON:0016843 | lateral nucleus of trapezoid body |
| UBERON:0016848 | retroambiguus nucleus |
| UBERON:0016850 | nucleus of phrenic nerve |
| UBERON:0016851 | renal fascia |
| UBERON:0016852 | skin scent gland |
| UBERON:0016853 | interdigital gland |
| UBERON:0016880 | future nervous system |
| UBERON:0016881 | craniopharyngeal canal |
| UBERON:0016883 | ovarian fossa |
| UBERON:0016884 | shoulder joint |
| UBERON:0016885 | epithelium of terminal part of digestive tract |
| UBERON:0016887 | entire extraembryonic component |
| UBERON:0016888 | transitional anatomical structure |
| UBERON:0016890 | intrahepatic branch of portal vein |
| UBERON:0016896 | periosteum of long bone |
| UBERON:0016910 | frenulum of lip |
| UBERON:0016912 | frenulum of upper lip |
| UBERON:0016913 | frenulum of lower lip |
| UBERON:0016914 | lamina lucida |
| UBERON:0016915 | vermilion |
| UBERON:0016918 | upper vermilion |
| UBERON:0016919 | lower vermilion |
| UBERON:0016920 | descending trunk of arch of aorta |
| UBERON:0016923 | preductal region of aortic arch |
| UBERON:0016924 | postductal region of aortic arch |
| UBERON:0016925 | juxtaductal region of aortic arch |
| UBERON:0016926 | mucus body coating |
| UBERON:0016928 | metaphysis of fibula |
| UBERON:0016929 | lingual cusp of tooth |
| UBERON:0016930 | ridge of tooth |
| UBERON:0016931 | transverse ridge of tooth |
| UBERON:0016932 | triangular ridge of tooth |
| UBERON:0016933 | oblique ridge of tooth |
| UBERON:0016934 | marginal ridge of tooth |
| UBERON:0016937 | transverse marginal ridge of tooth |
| UBERON:0016938 | mesial marginal ridge of tooth |
| UBERON:0016939 | distal marginal ridge of tooth |
| UBERON:0017269 | primary premolar tooth |
| UBERON:0017270 | secondary premolar tooth |
| UBERON:0017295 | cingulum of tooth |
| UBERON:0017296 | cingulum of incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0017297 | cingulum of canine tooth |
| UBERON:0017298 | cingulum of upper incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0017299 | cingulum of lower incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0017312 | cingulum of upper canine tooth |
| UBERON:0017313 | cingulum of lower canine tooth |
| UBERON:0017618 | extensor pollicis brevis muscle |
| UBERON:0017626 | transverse folds of rectum |
| UBERON:0017631 | calcified structure of brain |
| UBERON:0017632 | pineal corpora arenacea |
| UBERON:0017635 | paired venous dural sinus |
| UBERON:0017637 | marginal venous sinus |
| UBERON:0017638 | primitive marginal sinus |
| UBERON:0017639 | sinus of von Szily |
| UBERON:0017640 | unpaired venous dural sinus |
| UBERON:0017641 | meningeal branch of spinal nerve |
| UBERON:0017642 | communicating branch of spinal nerve |
| UBERON:0017643 | external thoracic vein |
| UBERON:0017646 | internal mammary vein |
| UBERON:0017647 | prevertebral muscle of neck |
| UBERON:0017648 | ventral body wall |
| UBERON:0017650 | developing mesenchymal structure |
| UBERON:0017654 | buccal gland |
| UBERON:0017659 | ventral surface of penis |
| UBERON:0017670 | bony part of cervical vertebral arch |
| UBERON:0017671 | bony part of vertebral arch of first sacral vertebra |
| UBERON:0017672 | abdominal viscera |
| UBERON:0017690 | internal surface of frontal bone |
| UBERON:0017692 | internal surface of cranial base |
| UBERON:0017716 | thenar eminence |
| UBERON:0017717 | hypothenar eminence |
| UBERON:0017732 | raphe of scrotum |
| UBERON:0017748 | lower primary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0017749 | withers |
| UBERON:0018103 | posterior fascicle of palatopharyngeus |
| UBERON:0018104 | parafoveal part of retina |
| UBERON:0018105 | perifoveal part of retina |
| UBERON:0018107 | foveola of retina |
| UBERON:0018108 | superior auricular muscle |
| UBERON:0018109 | anterior auricular muscle |
| UBERON:0018110 | posterior auricular muscle |
| UBERON:0018111 | muscle layer of rectum |
| UBERON:0018113 | left kidney interstitium |
| UBERON:0018114 | right kidney interstitium |
| UBERON:0018115 | left renal pelvis |
| UBERON:0018116 | right renal pelvis |
| UBERON:0018131 | periovarian fat pad |
| UBERON:0018135 | fibrocollagenous connective tissue |
| UBERON:0018140 | mammary lobe |
| UBERON:0018141 | anterior perforated substance |
| UBERON:0018143 | transverse process of cervical vertebra |
| UBERON:0018144 | cervical rib |
| UBERON:0018146 | transverse process of lumbar vertebra |
| UBERON:0018149 | angle of oral opening |
| UBERON:0018150 | skin of lower lip |
| UBERON:0018151 | skin of upper lip |
| UBERON:0018152 | pars flaccida of tympanic membrane |
| UBERON:0018153 | pars tensa of tympanic membrane |
| UBERON:0018160 | anterior process of malleus |
| UBERON:0018161 | annular ligament of stapes |
| UBERON:0018226 | pulmonary part of lymphatic system |
| UBERON:0018227 | pulmonary lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:0018228 | extrahepatic branch of portal vein |
| UBERON:0018229 | renin-angiotensin system |
| UBERON:0018230 | femoral canal |
| UBERON:0018231 | labyrinthine artery |
| UBERON:0018233 | gland of Zeis |
| UBERON:0018234 | stroma of pancreas |
| UBERON:0018237 | dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway |
| UBERON:0018238 | dorsal column nucleus |
| UBERON:0018240 | panniculus carnosus muscle |
| UBERON:0018241 | prime adult stage |
| UBERON:0018242 | palatine bone horizontal plate |
| UBERON:0018243 | thymic artery |
| UBERON:0018246 | thyroid vein |
| UBERON:0018251 | meningeal vein |
| UBERON:0018252 | internal pudendal vein |
| UBERON:0018253 | external pudendal vein |
| UBERON:0018254 | skeletal musculature |
| UBERON:0018255 | jejunal artery |
| UBERON:0018256 | lacrimal vein |
| UBERON:0018260 | layer of muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0018262 | dorsal zone of medial entorhinal cortex |
| UBERON:0018263 | ventral zone of medial entorhinal cortex |
| UBERON:0018265 | anterior root of zygomatic arch |
| UBERON:0018276 | egg tooth |
| UBERON:0018282 | lower molar 3 |
| UBERON:0018294 | premolar 1 |
| UBERON:0018303 | adrenal tissue |
| UBERON:0018343 | oviduct mucosal fold |
| UBERON:0018373 | vidian canal |
| UBERON:0018376 | molar tooth 1 |
| UBERON:0018377 | molar tooth 3 |
| UBERON:0018379 | metacestode |
| UBERON:0018382 | second instar larva |
| UBERON:0018385 | metacercaria |
| UBERON:0018388 | cercaria |
| UBERON:0018389 | interoceptor |
| UBERON:0018391 | chemoreceptor |
| UBERON:0018397 | posterior superior alveolar artery |
| UBERON:0018398 | superior alveolar nerve |
| UBERON:0018401 | posterior superior alveolar nerve |
| UBERON:0018405 | inferior alveolar nerve |
| UBERON:0018406 | mental nerve |
| UBERON:0018407 | infra-orbital foramen of maxilla |
| UBERON:0018408 | infra-orbital nerve |
| UBERON:0018409 | infra-orbital groove of maxilla |
| UBERON:0018410 | lacteal |
| UBERON:0018411 | ligament of hip joint |
| UBERON:0018412 | vidian nerve |
| UBERON:0018413 | facial nerve canal |
| UBERON:0018415 | ethmoid foramen |
| UBERON:0018424 | petrosal foramen |
| UBERON:0018508 | foramen of nasal bone |
| UBERON:0018529 | female inguinal ring |
| UBERON:0018530 | male inguinal ring |
| UBERON:0018531 | female superficial inguinal ring |
| UBERON:0018532 | female deep inguinal ring |
| UBERON:0018542 | mandibular symphyseal region |
| UBERON:0018543 | lumen of intestine |
| UBERON:0018544 | trigeminal nerve muscle |
| UBERON:0018545 | nucleus of the bulbocavernosus |
| UBERON:0018549 | ventral wall of dorsal aorta |
| UBERON:0018550 | secondary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018551 | incisor tooth 1 |
| UBERON:0018552 | incisor tooth 2 |
| UBERON:0018561 | upper secondary canine tooth |
| UBERON:0018562 | lower secondary canine tooth |
| UBERON:0018568 | lower central secondary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018570 | lower lateral secondary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018571 | upper first secondary premolar tooth |
| UBERON:0018572 | upper second secondary premolar tooth |
| UBERON:0018573 | lower first secondary premolar tooth |
| UBERON:0018574 | lower second secondary premolar tooth |
| UBERON:0018575 | upper first secondary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0018576 | upper second secondary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0018577 | upper third secondary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0018578 | lower first secondary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0018579 | lower second secondary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0018580 | lower third secondary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0018583 | primary canine tooth |
| UBERON:0018584 | secondary canine tooth |
| UBERON:0018588 | upper first primary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0018589 | lower first primary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0018591 | upper primary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018593 | upper central primary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018594 | upper lateral primary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018595 | lower central primary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018596 | lower lateral primary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018597 | upper primary canine tooth |
| UBERON:0018598 | lower primary canine tooth |
| UBERON:0018599 | upper second primary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0018600 | lower second primary molar tooth |
| UBERON:0018601 | lower central incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018602 | lower lateral incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018603 | upper central incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018604 | upper lateral incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018606 | molar tooth 2 |
| UBERON:0018607 | permanent molar tooth 2 |
| UBERON:0018608 | permanent molar tooth 1 |
| UBERON:0018613 | secondary upper tooth |
| UBERON:0018614 | permanent lower tooth |
| UBERON:0018616 | primary upper tooth |
| UBERON:0018617 | primary lower tooth |
| UBERON:0018623 | lower secondary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0018640 | premolar 2 |
| UBERON:0018643 | deciduous molar tooth 2 |
| UBERON:0018644 | deciduous molar tooth 1 |
| UBERON:0018649 | cardiac muscle tissue of ventricle |
| UBERON:0018650 | annelid peristomium |
| UBERON:0018651 | foramen lacerum |
| UBERON:0018653 | anterior ethmoidal foramen |
| UBERON:0018654 | posterior ethmoidal foramen |
| UBERON:0018656 | puparium |
| UBERON:0018667 | neck of scapula |
| UBERON:0018673 | neck of fibula |
| UBERON:0018674 | heart vasculature |
| UBERON:0018675 | pelvic splanchnic nerve |
| UBERON:0018676 | renal nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0018679 | thoracic splanchnic nerve |
| UBERON:0018680 | greater splanchnic nerve |
| UBERON:0018681 | lesser splanchnic nerve |
| UBERON:0018683 | lumbar splanchnic nerve |
| UBERON:0018684 | sacral splanchnic nerve |
| UBERON:0018685 | nursing stage |
| UBERON:0018687 | glial limiting membrane |
| UBERON:0018707 | bladder organ |
| UBERON:0019042 | reproductive system mucosa |
| UBERON:0019143 | intramuscular adipose tissue |
| UBERON:0019189 | carotid artery endothelium |
| UBERON:0019190 | mucous gland of lung |
| UBERON:0019196 | iliac artery endothelium |
| UBERON:0019197 | dorsal nerve of penis |
| UBERON:0019198 | dorsal nerve of clitoris |
| UBERON:0019199 | lateral side of chest |
| UBERON:0019200 | skin of anterior chest |
| UBERON:0019201 | gemellus muscle |
| UBERON:0019202 | inferior gemellus muscle |
| UBERON:0019203 | superior gemellus muscle |
| UBERON:0019204 | skin epithelium |
| UBERON:0019206 | tongue papilla epithelium |
| UBERON:0019207 | chorioretinal region |
| UBERON:0019208 | anterior pole of lens |
| UBERON:0019210 | pole of lens |
| UBERON:0019243 | skin crease |
| UBERON:0019246 | palmar skin crease |
| UBERON:0019247 | plantar skin crease |
| UBERON:0019248 | early embryo |
| UBERON:0019249 | 2-cell stage embryo |
| UBERON:0019250 | 4-8 cell stage embryo |
| UBERON:0019251 | 4-cell stage embryo |
| UBERON:0019252 | 8-cell stage embryo |
| UBERON:0019253 | upper secondary incisor tooth |
| UBERON:0019254 | upper eyelash |
| UBERON:0019255 | lower eyelash |
| UBERON:0019258 | white matter of hindbrain |
| UBERON:0019261 | white matter of forebrain |
| UBERON:0019262 | white matter of myelencephalon |
| UBERON:0019263 | gray matter of hindbrain |
| UBERON:0019264 | gray matter of forebrain |
| UBERON:0019267 | gray matter of midbrain |
| UBERON:0019269 | gray matter of diencephalon |
| UBERON:0019272 | mesomere 1 |
| UBERON:0019274 | mesomere 2 |
| UBERON:0019275 | uncinate fasciculus of the forebrain |
| UBERON:0019278 | inferior rostral gyrus |
| UBERON:0019279 | superior rostral gyrus |
| UBERON:0019280 | rostral gyrus |
| UBERON:0019283 | lateral longitudinal stria |
| UBERON:0019284 | rhombomere 9 |
| UBERON:0019285 | rhombomere 10 |
| UBERON:0019286 | rhombomere 11 |
| UBERON:0019289 | accessory olfactory bulb external plexiform layer |
| UBERON:0019290 | accessory olfactory bulb internal plexiform layer |
| UBERON:0019291 | white matter of metencephalon |
| UBERON:0019292 | white matter of pons |
| UBERON:0019293 | white matter of pontine tegmentum |
| UBERON:0019294 | commissure of telencephalon |
| UBERON:0019295 | caudal intralaminar nuclear group |
| UBERON:0019303 | occipital sulcus |
| UBERON:0019304 | sensory organ epithelium |
| UBERON:0019306 | nose epithelium |
| UBERON:0019307 | epithelium of external nose |
| UBERON:0019308 | septohypothalamic nucleus |
| UBERON:0019310 | glossopharyngeal nerve root |
| UBERON:0019311 | root of olfactory nerve |
| UBERON:0019312 | ventrolateral nucleus of solitary tract |
| UBERON:0019314 | epifascicular nucleus |
| UBERON:0019320 | precordial region |
| UBERON:0019324 | intraorbital lacrimal gland |
| UBERON:0019325 | exorbital lacrimal gland |
| UBERON:0019326 | lobe of lacrimal gland |
| UBERON:0019327 | orbital lobe of lacrimal gland |
| UBERON:0019328 | palpebral lobe of lacrimal gland |
| UBERON:0020358 | accessory XI nerve nucleus |
| UBERON:0020550 | auricular blood vessel |
| UBERON:0022229 | posterior amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0022230 | retrohippocampal region |
| UBERON:0022232 | secondary visual cortex |
| UBERON:0022234 | medial longitudinal stria |
| UBERON:0022235 | peduncle of diencephalon |
| UBERON:0022236 | peduncle of thalamus |
| UBERON:0022237 | anterior thalamic peduncle |
| UBERON:0022241 | superior thalamic peduncle |
| UBERON:0022242 | inferior thalamic peduncle |
| UBERON:0022243 | posterior thalamic peduncle |
| UBERON:0022244 | anterior orbital gyrus |
| UBERON:0022246 | superior longitudinal fasciculus |
| UBERON:0022247 | forebrain ipsilateral fiber tracts |
| UBERON:0022248 | cerebral nerve fasciculus |
| UBERON:0022250 | subcallosal fasciculus |
| UBERON:0022252 | precentral sulcus |
| UBERON:0022254 | ventral thalamic fasciculus |
| UBERON:0022256 | subthalamic fasciculus |
| UBERON:0022258 | endolemniscal nucleus |
| UBERON:0022259 | white matter radiation |
| UBERON:0022260 | radiation of cerebral hemisphere |
| UBERON:0022262 | auditory radiation |
| UBERON:0022264 | optic radiation |
| UBERON:0022268 | planum temporale |
| UBERON:0022271 | corticopontine fibers |
| UBERON:0022272 | corticobulbar tract |
| UBERON:0022273 | lacrimal lake |
| UBERON:0022274 | lacrimal papilla |
| UBERON:0022275 | colic flexure |
| UBERON:0022276 | splenic flexure of colon |
| UBERON:0022277 | hepatic flexure of colon |
| UBERON:0022278 | nucleus of pudendal nerve |
| UBERON:0022279 | strand of hair on external ear |
| UBERON:0022280 | epithelium of crypt of Lieberkuhn of small intestine |
| UBERON:0022281 | epithelium of crypt of Lieberkuhn of large intestine |
| UBERON:0022283 | pineal recess of third ventricle |
| UBERON:0022284 | lacrimal gland bud |
| UBERON:0022285 | strand of tylotrich hair |
| UBERON:0022288 | surface of eyeball |
| UBERON:0022292 | splenic arteriole |
| UBERON:0022294 | morphological boundary |
| UBERON:0022296 | inferior palpebral branch of infra-orbital nerve |
| UBERON:0022297 | palpebral branch of infra-orbital nerve |
| UBERON:0022300 | nasociliary nerve |
| UBERON:0022301 | long ciliary nerve |
| UBERON:0022302 | short ciliary nerve |
| UBERON:0022303 | nervous system cell part layer |
| UBERON:0022314 | superior colliculus stratum zonale |
| UBERON:0022315 | primary motor cortex layer 5 |
| UBERON:0022316 | primary motor cortex layer 6 |
| UBERON:0022317 | olfactory cortex layer 1 |
| UBERON:0022318 | olfactory cortex layer 2 |
| UBERON:0022319 | lateral geniculate nucleus parvocellular layer |
| UBERON:0022320 | dorsal cochlear nucleus pyramidal cell layer |
| UBERON:0022323 | entorhinal cortex layer 4 |
| UBERON:0022325 | entorhinal cortex layer 5 |
| UBERON:0022326 | molecular layer of dorsal cochlear nucleus |
| UBERON:0022327 | entorhinal cortex layer 3 |
| UBERON:0022329 | entorhinal cortex layer 6 |
| UBERON:0022336 | entorhinal cortex layer 1 |
| UBERON:0022337 | entorhinal cortex layer 2 |
| UBERON:0022340 | piriform cortex layer 2a |
| UBERON:0022341 | piriform cortex layer 2b |
| UBERON:0022346 | dentate gyrus molecular layer middle |
| UBERON:0022347 | dentate gyrus molecular layer inner |
| UBERON:0022348 | dentate gyrus granule cell layer inner blade |
| UBERON:0022349 | dentate gyrus granule cell layer outer blade |
| UBERON:0022350 | visceral serous membrane |
| UBERON:0022351 | parietal serous membrane |
| UBERON:0022352 | medial orbital frontal cortex |
| UBERON:0022353 | posterior cingulate cortex |
| UBERON:0022355 | basal layer of endometrium |
| UBERON:0022356 | outer layer of endometrium |
| UBERON:0022357 | mesentery of ileum |
| UBERON:0022358 | placenta blood vessel |
| UBERON:0022361 | lung field |
| UBERON:0022364 | occipital fusiform gyrus |
| UBERON:0022367 | inferior lateral occipital cortex |
| UBERON:0022368 | superior lateral occipital cortex |
| UBERON:0022383 | anterior parahippocampal gyrus |
| UBERON:0022394 | posterior parahippocampal white matter |
| UBERON:0022395 | temporal fusiform gyrus |
| UBERON:0022398 | paracingulate gyrus |
| UBERON:0022421 | pontocerebellar tract |
| UBERON:0022423 | sagulum nucleus |
| UBERON:0022424 | supragenual nucleus of pontine tegmentum |
| UBERON:0022425 | anterior corona radiata |
| UBERON:0022426 | superior corona radiata |
| UBERON:0022427 | posterior corona radiata |
| UBERON:0022428 | cingulate cortex cingulum |
| UBERON:0022429 | temporal cortex cingulum |
| UBERON:0022434 | primary superior olive |
| UBERON:0022437 | dorsal periolivary nucleus |
| UBERON:0022438 | rostral anterior cingulate cortex |
| UBERON:0022453 | olfactory entorhinal cortex |
| UBERON:0022469 | primary olfactory cortex |
| UBERON:0022534 | pericalcarine cortex |
| UBERON:0022649 | habenulo-interpeduncular tract of diencephalon |
| UBERON:0022695 | orbital gyri complex |
| UBERON:0022716 | lateral orbital frontal cortex |
| UBERON:0022730 | transverse frontopolar gyri complex |
| UBERON:0022776 | composite part spanning multiple base regional parts of brain |
| UBERON:0022783 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus magnocellular division - posterior magnocellular part medial zone |
| UBERON:0022791 | paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus magnocellular division - posterior magnocellular part lateral zone |
| UBERON:0022941 | dorsal nerve root of sacral spinal cord |
| UBERON:0022943 | reticulospinal tract |
| UBERON:0023094 | posterodorsal nucleus of medial geniculate body |
| UBERON:0023255 | sub-lobar region |
| UBERON:0023378 | medullary anterior horn |
| UBERON:0023390 | medial subnucleus of solitary tract |
| UBERON:0023415 | lateral amygdaloid nucleus, dorsolateral part |
| UBERON:0023416 | lateral amygdaloid nucleus, ventrolateral part |
| UBERON:0023417 | lateral amygdaloid nucleus, ventromedial part |
| UBERON:0023443 | superficial feature part of forebrain |
| UBERON:0023462 | superficial feature part of occipital lobe |
| UBERON:0023541 | conical papilla |
| UBERON:0023564 | cytoarchitectural part of dentate gyrus |
| UBERON:0023623 | ventral nerve root of sacral spinal cord |
| UBERON:0023740 | habenulo-interpeduncular tract of midbrain |
| UBERON:0023752 | intermediate part of hypophysis |
| UBERON:0023787 | subicular complex |
| UBERON:0023836 | gross anatomical parts of the cerebellum |
| UBERON:0023852 | temporoparietal junction |
| UBERON:0023855 | commissural nucleus of the solitary tract |
| UBERON:0023859 | primary somatosensory cortex layer 6 |
| UBERON:0023861 | planum polare |
| UBERON:0023862 | hippocampal formation of GP94 |
| UBERON:0023865 | medial ventral tegmental area |
| UBERON:0023867 | islands of Calleja of olfactory tubercle |
| UBERON:0023868 | isla magna of Calleja |
| UBERON:0023879 | neural system |
| UBERON:0023900 | piriform cortex layer 1a |
| UBERON:0023901 | piriform cortex layer 1b |
| UBERON:0023920 | basal ganglia of rodent |
| UBERON:0023927 | subbrachial nucleus of mouse of Franklin and Paxinos 2008 |
| UBERON:0023928 | postrhinal cortex of rodent of Burwell et al 1995 |
| UBERON:0023932 | Sommer's sector |
| UBERON:0023934 | olfactory bulb main glomerular layer |
| UBERON:0023936 | perirhinal cortex of Burwell et al 1995 |
| UBERON:0023943 | molecular system |
| UBERON:0023958 | bed nuclei of the stria terminalis oval nucleus |
| UBERON:0023983 | central cervical spinocerebellar tract |
| UBERON:0023984 | rostral spinocerebellar tract |
| UBERON:0023998 | cerebellum hemispheric lobule II |
| UBERON:0023999 | cerebellum hemispheric lobule III |
| UBERON:0024000 | cerebellum hemispheric lobule IV |
| UBERON:0024001 | cerebellum hemispheric lobule V |
| UBERON:0024003 | cerebellum hemispheric lobule VII |
| UBERON:0024009 | cerebellum hemispheric lobule X |
| UBERON:0024037 | vermis of the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum |
| UBERON:0024043 | rostral portion of the medial accessory olive |
| UBERON:0024045 | white matter of the cerebellar cortex |
| UBERON:0024046 | superficial feature part of the cerebellum |
| UBERON:0024078 | principal anterior division of supraoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:0024079 | tuberal supraoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:0024090 | chemoarchitectural part of brain |
| UBERON:0024110 | basis pontis |
| UBERON:0024151 | tegmentum |
| UBERON:0024183 | inferior transverse frontopolar gyrus |
| UBERON:0024193 | medial transverse frontopolar gyrus |
| UBERON:0024201 | superior transverse frontopolar gyrus |
| UBERON:0024382 | ventral nerve root of lumbar spinal cord |
| UBERON:0024900 | left sub-lobar region |
| UBERON:0024901 | right sub-lobar region |
| UBERON:0024914 | circuit part of central nervous system |
| UBERON:0024940 | ganglion part of peripheral nervous system |
| UBERON:0025096 | superior calcarine sulcus |
| UBERON:0025102 | inferior occipital sulcus |
| UBERON:0025103 | inferior calcarine sulcus |
| UBERON:0025104 | ectocalcarine sulcus |
| UBERON:0025261 | thalamic fiber tract |
| UBERON:0025525 | motor system |
| UBERON:0025533 | proprioceptive system |
| UBERON:0025534 | sensorimotor system |
| UBERON:0025581 | perirhinal cortex of primate of Burwell et al 1995 |
| UBERON:0025584 | perirhinal cortex of rodent of Burwell et al 1995 |
| UBERON:0025588 | histaminergic system |
| UBERON:0025589 | catecholamine system |
| UBERON:0025591 | gABAergic system |
| UBERON:0025592 | glutamatergic system |
| UBERON:0025593 | serotonergic system |
| UBERON:0025595 | cholinergic system |
| UBERON:0025677 | paravermis parts of the cerebellar cortex |
| UBERON:0025736 | chemoarchitectural part of striatum |
| UBERON:0025763 | rostral sulcus |
| UBERON:0025768 | posterior middle temporal sulcus |
| UBERON:0025772 | spur of arcuate sulcus |
| UBERON:0025829 | anterior parieto-occipital sulcus |
| UBERON:0025883 | superior ramus of arcuate sulcus |
| UBERON:0025903 | principal sulcus |
| UBERON:0026006 | dorsal nerve root of lumbar spinal cord |
| UBERON:0026137 | annectant gyrus |
| UBERON:0026246 | sacral spinal cord white matter |
| UBERON:0026293 | thoracic spinal cord gray commissure |
| UBERON:0026382 | inferior ramus of arcuate sulcus |
| UBERON:0026384 | lateral orbital sulcus |
| UBERON:0026386 | lumbar spinal cord white matter |
| UBERON:0026391 | medial orbital sulcus |
| UBERON:0026541 | dorsomedial subnucleus of solitary tract |
| UBERON:0026546 | principal neuronal circuit |
| UBERON:0026547 | intrinsic neuronal circuit |
| UBERON:0026584 | tympanic canal |
| UBERON:0026586 | vestibular canal |
| UBERON:0026663 | dorsolateral subnucleus of solitary tract |
| UBERON:0026666 | parvocellular subnucleus of solitary tract |
| UBERON:0026719 | intermediate frontal sulcus |
| UBERON:0026721 | medial precentral sulcus |
| UBERON:0026722 | transverse parietal sulcus |
| UBERON:0026723 | inferior parietal sulcus |
| UBERON:0026724 | superior parietal sulcus |
| UBERON:0026725 | angular sulcus |
| UBERON:0026760 | inferior sagittal sulcus |
| UBERON:0026761 | superior sagittal sulcus |
| UBERON:0026765 | Hadjikhani et al. (1998) visuotopic partition scheme region |
| UBERON:0026775 | Tootell and Hadjikhani (2001) LOC/LOP complex |
| UBERON:0026776 | Press, Brewer, Dougherty, Wade and Wandell (2001) visuotopic area V7 |
| UBERON:0026777 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) prefrontal cortical partition scheme region |
| UBERON:0027061 | isthmus of cingulate cortex |
| UBERON:0027109 | lateral eminence of hypophysis |
| UBERON:0027113 | anterior middle temporal sulcus |
| UBERON:0027221 | adrenergic system |
| UBERON:0027225 | noradrenergic system |
| UBERON:0027239 | dopaminergic system |
| UBERON:0027244 | striosomal part of body of caudate nucleus |
| UBERON:0027245 | matrix part of head of caudate nucleus |
| UBERON:0027246 | matrix part of tail of caudate nucleus |
| UBERON:0027285 | paravermis lobule area |
| UBERON:0027309 | paravermis of the posterior lobe of the cerebellum |
| UBERON:0027310 | paravermis of the anterior lobe of the cerebellum |
| UBERON:0027331 | flocculonodular lobe, hemisphere portion |
| UBERON:0027333 | arbor vitae |
| UBERON:0027368 | matrix compartment |
| UBERON:0027371 | striosome |
| UBERON:0027513 | posterior superior frontal sulcus |
| UBERON:0027716 | anterior superior frontal sulcus |
| UBERON:0027768 | suprachiasmatic nucleus dorsomedial part |
| UBERON:0027771 | suprachiasmatic nucleus ventrolateral part |
| UBERON:0028194 | spiral prominence of cochlear duct |
| UBERON:0028395 | calcarine sulcus (dorsal) |
| UBERON:0028396 | calcarine sulcus (ventral) |
| UBERON:0028398 | Hadjikhani et al. (1998) visuotopic area V1d |
| UBERON:0028399 | Hadjikhani et al. (1998) visuotopic area V1v |
| UBERON:0028401 | Hadjikhani et al. (1998) visuotopic area V2v |
| UBERON:0028402 | Hadjikhani et al. (1998) visuotopic area V3 |
| UBERON:0028403 | Hadjikhani et al. (1998) visuotopic area V3A |
| UBERON:0028404 | Hadjikhani et al. (1998) visuotopic area VP |
| UBERON:0028405 | Hadjikhani et al. (1998) visuotopic area V4v |
| UBERON:0028406 | Hadjikhani et al. (1998) visuotopic area V8 |
| UBERON:0028412 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 10p |
| UBERON:0028413 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 10r |
| UBERON:0028414 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 10o |
| UBERON:0028415 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 10m |
| UBERON:0028416 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 11m |
| UBERON:0028417 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 47s |
| UBERON:0028418 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 13b |
| UBERON:0028419 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 13a |
| UBERON:0028420 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 14r |
| UBERON:0028421 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 14c |
| UBERON:0028422 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 24 |
| UBERON:0028423 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 25 |
| UBERON:0028424 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 32 |
| UBERON:0028425 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area G |
| UBERON:0028426 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area PrCO |
| UBERON:0028427 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 11l |
| UBERON:0028428 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 13m |
| UBERON:0028429 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 13l |
| UBERON:0028430 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 47l |
| UBERON:0028431 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 47m |
| UBERON:0028432 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 47r |
| UBERON:0028433 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area Iam |
| UBERON:0028434 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area Ial |
| UBERON:0028435 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area Iai |
| UBERON:0028436 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 9 |
| UBERON:0028437 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area 10l |
| UBERON:0028439 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area Iapm |
| UBERON:0028440 | Ongur, Price, and Ferry (2003) area AON |
| UBERON:0028622 | banks of superior temporal sulcus |
| UBERON:0028715 | caudal anterior cingulate cortex |
| UBERON:0028918 | paravermic lobule II |
| UBERON:0028919 | paravermic lobule III |
| UBERON:0028920 | paravermic lobule IV |
| UBERON:0028921 | paravermic lobule IX |
| UBERON:0028922 | paravermic lobule V |
| UBERON:0028923 | paravermic lobule VI |
| UBERON:0028924 | paravermic lobule VII |
| UBERON:0028925 | paravermic lobule VIII |
| UBERON:0029001 | matrix compartment of caudate nucleus |
| UBERON:0029002 | matrix compartment of putamen |
| UBERON:0029004 | striosomal part of caudate nucleus |
| UBERON:0029005 | striosomal part of putamen |
| UBERON:0029009 | granular cell layer of dorsal cochlear nucleus |
| UBERON:0029503 | sacral spinal cord gray matter |
| UBERON:0029538 | sacral spinal cord lateral horn |
| UBERON:0029626 | cervical spinal cord gray commissure |
| UBERON:0029636 | lumbar spinal cord gray matter |
| UBERON:0030276 | lumbar spinal cord ventral horn |
| UBERON:0030649 | cytoarchitecture of entorhinal cortex |
| UBERON:0031111 | sacral spinal cord gray commissure |
| UBERON:0031906 | lumbar spinal cord lateral horn |
| UBERON:0032748 | sacral spinal cord ventral horn |
| UBERON:0033483 | lumbar spinal cord gray commissure |
| UBERON:0033939 | sacral spinal cord dorsal horn |
| UBERON:0034671 | arcuate sulcus |
| UBERON:0034672 | lateral eminence of fourth ventricle |
| UBERON:0034673 | amygdalohippocampal area |
| UBERON:0034674 | sulcus of limbic lobe |
| UBERON:0034676 | forceps major of corpus callosum |
| UBERON:0034678 | forceps minor of corpus callosum |
| UBERON:0034680 | laryngeal prominence |
| UBERON:0034688 | spermatic fascia |
| UBERON:0034690 | external spermatic fascia |
| UBERON:0034691 | internal spermatic fascia |
| UBERON:0034693 | cremasteric artery |
| UBERON:0034696 | fold of peritoneum |
| UBERON:0034697 | inflow tract |
| UBERON:0034698 | inflow tract of ventricle |
| UBERON:0034699 | inflow tract of atrium |
| UBERON:0034703 | inflow tract of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0034704 | inflow tract of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0034705 | developing neuroepithelium |
| UBERON:0034706 | proliferating neuroepithelium |
| UBERON:0034707 | differentiating neuroepithelium |
| UBERON:0034708 | cerebellum marginal layer |
| UBERON:0034709 | hindbrain marginal layer |
| UBERON:0034710 | spinal cord ventricular layer |
| UBERON:0034711 | cortical preplate |
| UBERON:0034712 | yellow fibrocartilage |
| UBERON:0034715 | pineal tract |
| UBERON:0034725 | pterygopalatine nerve |
| UBERON:0034727 | vestibular bulb artery |
| UBERON:0034728 | autonomic nerve |
| UBERON:0034729 | sympathetic nerve |
| UBERON:0034730 | olfactory tract linking bulb to ipsilateral dorsal telencephalon |
| UBERON:0034734 | medial olfactory stria |
| UBERON:0034735 | oviduct albumen gland |
| UBERON:0034736 | coracoclavicular ligament |
| UBERON:0034743 | inferior longitudinal fasciculus |
| UBERON:0034745 | radiation of thalamus |
| UBERON:0034746 | anterior thalamic radiation |
| UBERON:0034747 | posterior thalamic radiation |
| UBERON:0034749 | retrolenticular part of internal capsule |
| UBERON:0034750 | visual association cortex |
| UBERON:0034751 | primary auditory cortex |
| UBERON:0034752 | secondary auditory cortex |
| UBERON:0034753 | inferior occipitofrontal fasciculus |
| UBERON:0034754 | occipitofrontal fasciculus |
| UBERON:0034762 | areolar sweat gland |
| UBERON:0034763 | hindbrain commissure |
| UBERON:0034764 | remnant of cardiac valve |
| UBERON:0034765 | glabella skin |
| UBERON:0034766 | glabella region |
| UBERON:0034767 | buccal vestibule |
| UBERON:0034769 | lymphomyeloid tissue |
| UBERON:0034770 | bulbourethral gland epithelium |
| UBERON:0034771 | ventral commissural nucleus of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0034772 | margin of eyelid |
| UBERON:0034773 | uncus of parahippocampal gyrus |
| UBERON:0034774 | uncal CA1 |
| UBERON:0034775 | uncal CA2 |
| UBERON:0034776 | uncal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034777 | rostral CA1 |
| UBERON:0034778 | rostral CA2 |
| UBERON:0034779 | rostral CA3 |
| UBERON:0034780 | caudal CA1 |
| UBERON:0034781 | caudal CA2 |
| UBERON:0034782 | caudal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034798 | stratum lacunosum-moleculare of caudal CA1 |
| UBERON:0034799 | stratum radiatum of caudal CA1 |
| UBERON:0034800 | stratum pyramidale of caudal CA1 |
| UBERON:0034801 | stratum oriens of caudal CA1 |
| UBERON:0034803 | stratum lacunosum-moleculare of caudal CA2 |
| UBERON:0034804 | stratum radiatum of caudal CA2 |
| UBERON:0034805 | stratum pyramidale of caudal CA2 |
| UBERON:0034806 | stratum oriens of caudal CA2 |
| UBERON:0034808 | stratum lacunosum-moleculare of caudal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034809 | stratum radiatum of caudal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034810 | stratum lucidum of caudal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034811 | stratum pyramidale of caudal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034812 | stratum oriens of caudal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034828 | stratum lacunosum-moleculare of rostral CA1 |
| UBERON:0034829 | stratum radiatum of rostral CA1 |
| UBERON:0034830 | stratum pyramidale of rostral CA1 |
| UBERON:0034831 | stratum oriens of rostral CA1 |
| UBERON:0034833 | stratum lacunosum-moleculare of rostral CA2 |
| UBERON:0034834 | stratum radiatum of rostral CA2 |
| UBERON:0034835 | stratum pyramidale of rostral CA2 |
| UBERON:0034836 | stratum oriens of rostral CA2 |
| UBERON:0034838 | stratum lacunosum-moleculare of rostral CA3 |
| UBERON:0034839 | stratum radiatum of rostral CA3 |
| UBERON:0034840 | stratum lucidum of rostral CA3 |
| UBERON:0034841 | stratum pyramidale of rostral CA3 |
| UBERON:0034842 | stratum oriens of rostral CA3 |
| UBERON:0034858 | stratum lacunosum-moleculare of uncal CA1 |
| UBERON:0034859 | stratum radiatum of uncal CA1 |
| UBERON:0034860 | stratum pyramidale of uncal CA1 |
| UBERON:0034861 | stratum oriens of uncal CA1 |
| UBERON:0034863 | stratum lacunosum-moleculare of uncal CA2 |
| UBERON:0034864 | stratum radiatum of uncal CA2 |
| UBERON:0034865 | stratum pyramidale of uncal CA2 |
| UBERON:0034866 | stratum oriens of uncal CA2 |
| UBERON:0034868 | stratum lacunosum-moleculare of uncal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034869 | stratum radiatum of uncal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034870 | stratum lucidum of uncal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034871 | stratum pyramidale of uncal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034872 | stratum oriens of uncal CA3 |
| UBERON:0034873 | bodily gas |
| UBERON:0034874 | air in respiratory system |
| UBERON:0034875 | future pituitary gland |
| UBERON:0034876 | future neurohypophysis |
| UBERON:0034877 | angioblastic cord |
| UBERON:0034884 | juxtaglomerular arteriole |
| UBERON:0034885 | viscerocranial mucosa |
| UBERON:0034888 | primary motor cortex layer 1 |
| UBERON:0034889 | posterior parietal cortex |
| UBERON:0034891 | insular cortex |
| UBERON:0034892 | granular insular cortex |
| UBERON:0034893 | agranular insular cortex |
| UBERON:0034894 | lateral nucleus of stria terminalis |
| UBERON:0034895 | medial nucleus of stria terminalis |
| UBERON:0034896 | ansa peduncularis |
| UBERON:0034898 | alveolar ridge of premaxilla |
| UBERON:0034900 | palatine process of premaxilla |
| UBERON:0034901 | cervical sympathetic nerve trunk |
| UBERON:0034902 | sacral sympathetic nerve trunk |
| UBERON:0034903 | left atrium endocardium |
| UBERON:0034907 | pineal parenchyma |
| UBERON:0034909 | intermaxillary suture |
| UBERON:0034910 | medial pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0034918 | anterior pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0034919 | juvenile stage |
| UBERON:0034920 | infant stage |
| UBERON:0034921 | multi organ part structure |
| UBERON:0034922 | cell cluster |
| UBERON:0034923 | disconnected anatomical group |
| UBERON:0034924 | aligned anatomical group |
| UBERON:0034926 | anatomical row |
| UBERON:0034927 | arcuate artery of foot |
| UBERON:0034928 | dorsal surface of penis |
| UBERON:0034931 | perforant path |
| UBERON:0034932 | epithelium of biliary system |
| UBERON:0034935 | pars plicata of ciliary body |
| UBERON:0034936 | pars plana of ciliary body |
| UBERON:0034940 | venous sinus cavity |
| UBERON:0034944 | zone of organ |
| UBERON:0034946 | gas excreted from digestive tract |
| UBERON:0034949 | lymphatic valve |
| UBERON:0034951 | subcutaneous lymph sac |
| UBERON:0034953 | embryonic lymph sac |
| UBERON:0034958 | retroperitoneal embryonic lymph sac |
| UBERON:0034959 | right lymph heart |
| UBERON:0034960 | left lymph heart |
| UBERON:0034963 | lateral fornix of vagina |
| UBERON:0034964 | superficial epigastric artery |
| UBERON:0034965 | middle thyroid vein |
| UBERON:0034968 | sagittal sulcus |
| UBERON:0034969 | epithelial layer of duct |
| UBERON:0034971 | aortic body |
| UBERON:0034972 | jugular body |
| UBERON:0034978 | paraganglion (generic) |
| UBERON:0034979 | nonchromaffin paraganglion |
| UBERON:0034981 | superior bulb of internal jugular vein |
| UBERON:0034982 | inferior bulb of internal jugular vein |
| UBERON:0034983 | ischial tuberosity |
| UBERON:0034984 | nerve to quadratus femoris |
| UBERON:0034986 | sacral nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0034987 | lumbar nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0034988 | tendon of obturator internus |
| UBERON:0034989 | amygdalopiriform transition area |
| UBERON:0034991 | anterior cortical amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0034993 | basal ventral medial nucleus of thalamus |
| UBERON:0034994 | hindbrain cortical intermediate zone |
| UBERON:0034995 | jaw mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0034996 | outer renal medulla loop of Henle |
| UBERON:0034997 | renal medulla loop of Henle |
| UBERON:0034999 | posterolateral cortical amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0035001 | posteromedial cortical amygdaloid nucleus |
| UBERON:0035004 | preputial swelling |
| UBERON:0035005 | preputial swelling of male |
| UBERON:0035006 | preputial swelling of female |
| UBERON:0035007 | nasal concha cartilage |
| UBERON:0035011 | central gray substance |
| UBERON:0035013 | temporal cortex association area |
| UBERON:0035014 | functional part of brain |
| UBERON:0035015 | association cortex |
| UBERON:0035016 | tactile mechanoreceptor |
| UBERON:0035017 | nociceptor nerve ending |
| UBERON:0035018 | thermoreceptor |
| UBERON:0035019 | inferior olive, beta nucleus |
| UBERON:0035020 | left vagus X nerve trunk |
| UBERON:0035021 | right vagus X nerve trunk |
| UBERON:0035022 | trunk of segmental spinal nerve |
| UBERON:0035024 | lateral spinal nucleus |
| UBERON:0035026 | amygdalohippocampal transition area |
| UBERON:0035027 | amygdalohippocampal area, magnocellular division |
| UBERON:0035028 | amygdalohippocampal area, parvocellular division |
| UBERON:0035032 | abdominal oblique muscle |
| UBERON:0035034 | eyelid epithelium |
| UBERON:0035036 | naris epithelium |
| UBERON:0035037 | jaw epithelium |
| UBERON:0035038 | carpal tunnel |
| UBERON:0035039 | rectal artery |
| UBERON:0035040 | superior rectal artery |
| UBERON:0035041 | deep temporal artery |
| UBERON:0035042 | middle temporal artery |
| UBERON:0035043 | temporal branch of lateral pretrosal artery |
| UBERON:0035044 | olfactory cortex layer 3 |
| UBERON:0035049 | excretory duct of salivary gland |
| UBERON:0035050 | excretory duct |
| UBERON:0035053 | interlobular duct of salivary gland |
| UBERON:0035073 | duct of eccrine sweat gland |
| UBERON:0035074 | duct of apocrine sweat gland |
| UBERON:0035076 | parotid gland myoepithelium |
| UBERON:0035077 | lateral nasal gland |
| UBERON:0035079 | deep intraparotid lymph node |
| UBERON:0035080 | intraparotid lymph node |
| UBERON:0035085 | anatomical plane |
| UBERON:0035103 | perineal body smooth muscle muscle tissue |
| UBERON:0035104 | raphe of penis |
| UBERON:0035105 | sac of scrotum |
| UBERON:0035106 | raphe of perineum |
| UBERON:0035108 | temporalis fascia |
| UBERON:0035109 | plantar nerve |
| UBERON:0035110 | lateral plantar nerve |
| UBERON:0035111 | medial plantar nerve |
| UBERON:0035113 | central part of mediodorsal nucleus of the thalamus |
| UBERON:0035114 | lateral part of mediodorsal nucleus of the thalamus |
| UBERON:0035120 | fauces |
| UBERON:0035122 | interincisive suture |
| UBERON:0035123 | palatomaxillary suture |
| UBERON:0035124 | palatoethmoidal suture |
| UBERON:0035126 | transverse palatine suture |
| UBERON:0035128 | manus cartilage element |
| UBERON:0035129 | pes cartilage element |
| UBERON:0035131 | auditory ossicle cartilage element |
| UBERON:0035132 | auditory ossicle pre-cartilage element |
| UBERON:0035133 | longitudinal arch of pes |
| UBERON:0035139 | anterior nasal spine of maxilla |
| UBERON:0035142 | preputial space of male |
| UBERON:0035144 | preputial space |
| UBERON:0035149 | gingival epithelial attachment |
| UBERON:0035150 | superior cerebral vein |
| UBERON:0035151 | dorsal cerebral vein |
| UBERON:0035152 | internal cerebral vein |
| UBERON:0035153 | dorsolateral prefrontal cortex layer 1 |
| UBERON:0035154 | dorsolateral prefrontal cortex layer 2 |
| UBERON:0035155 | dorsolateral prefrontal cortex layer 3 |
| UBERON:0035156 | dorsolateral prefrontal cortex layer 4 |
| UBERON:0035157 | dorsolateral prefrontal cortex layer 5 |
| UBERON:0035158 | dorsolateral prefrontal cortex layer 6 |
| UBERON:0035159 | entire surface of organism |
| UBERON:0035162 | infraclavicular lymph node |
| UBERON:0035165 | posterior surface of prostate |
| UBERON:0035168 | infraclavicular region |
| UBERON:0035171 | obturator lymph node |
| UBERON:0035174 | right ear |
| UBERON:0035177 | abdominal part of esophagus |
| UBERON:0035180 | sigmoid artery |
| UBERON:0035183 | calcarine artery |
| UBERON:0035186 | valve of foramen ovale |
| UBERON:0035195 | plantar metatarsal artery |
| UBERON:0035198 | superficial lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:0035201 | gastrocolic ligament |
| UBERON:0035204 | occipital lymph node |
| UBERON:0035207 | deep fibular nerve |
| UBERON:0035210 | paracolic gutter |
| UBERON:0035213 | basal zone of heart |
| UBERON:0035216 | thoracic part of esophagus |
| UBERON:0035219 | parasternal lymph node |
| UBERON:0035222 | posterior parietal artery |
| UBERON:0035225 | anterior temporal artery |
| UBERON:0035228 | tonsillar fossa |
| UBERON:0035231 | superficial middle cerebral vein |
| UBERON:0035234 | medial circumflex femoral vein |
| UBERON:0035237 | branch of internal carotid artery |
| UBERON:0035240 | posterior wall of oropharynx |
| UBERON:0035243 | anal sinus |
| UBERON:0035246 | posterior longitudinal ligament |
| UBERON:0035249 | posterior external jugular vein |
| UBERON:0035252 | left subcostal vein |
| UBERON:0035258 | mons pubis |
| UBERON:0035261 | posterior temporal artery |
| UBERON:0035267 | neck of gallbladder |
| UBERON:0035270 | roof of nasopharynx |
| UBERON:0035273 | superior thoracic artery |
| UBERON:0035276 | epigastrium |
| UBERON:0035279 | supraclavicular lymph node |
| UBERON:0035286 | lateral wall of oropharynx |
| UBERON:0035289 | axillary tail of breast |
| UBERON:0035292 | branch of posterior tibial artery |
| UBERON:0035295 | left ear |
| UBERON:0035298 | tuberculum sellae |
| UBERON:0035304 | branch of ulnar artery |
| UBERON:0035307 | branch of vertebral artery |
| UBERON:0035310 | inferolateral surface of prostate |
| UBERON:0035313 | posterior wall of laryngopharynx |
| UBERON:0035316 | prostatic capsule |
| UBERON:0035319 | anterior median fissure of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0035322 | right common iliac artery |
| UBERON:0035328 | upper outer quadrant of breast |
| UBERON:0035331 | base of prostate |
| UBERON:0035338 | sphenoparietal sinus |
| UBERON:0035341 | posterior lobe of prostate |
| UBERON:0035350 | branch of middle cerebral artery |
| UBERON:0035359 | branch of brachial artery |
| UBERON:0035365 | lower outer quadrant of breast |
| UBERON:0035368 | anterior surface of kidney |
| UBERON:0035371 | retroperitoneal lymph node |
| UBERON:0035374 | small cardiac vein |
| UBERON:0035377 | transverse fold of rectum |
| UBERON:0035380 | branch of anterior cerebral artery |
| UBERON:0035383 | lateral wall of nasopharynx |
| UBERON:0035386 | space of Mall |
| UBERON:0035392 | cystic vein |
| UBERON:0035395 | branch of left coronary artery |
| UBERON:0035398 | branch of external carotid artery |
| UBERON:0035401 | posterior wall of nasopharynx |
| UBERON:0035404 | superior hypophysial artery |
| UBERON:0035410 | left inguinal part of abdomen |
| UBERON:0035416 | diaphragma sellae |
| UBERON:0035419 | anterior longitudinal ligament |
| UBERON:0035422 | circumflex branch of left coronary artery |
| UBERON:0035425 | falx cerebelli |
| UBERON:0035428 | postcapillary venule |
| UBERON:0035431 | mediastinal pleura |
| UBERON:0035435 | right suprarenal vein |
| UBERON:0035438 | mucoid tissue |
| UBERON:0035441 | apex of prostate |
| UBERON:0035444 | triangular ligament of liver |
| UBERON:0035445 | urogenital diaphragm |
| UBERON:0035450 | cervical part of esophagus |
| UBERON:0035453 | laryngeal ventricle |
| UBERON:0035462 | anterior parietal artery |
| UBERON:0035465 | endometrial cavity |
| UBERON:0035468 | costodiaphragmatic recess |
| UBERON:0035471 | posterior surface of kidney |
| UBERON:0035474 | right subcostal vein |
| UBERON:0035477 | lower inner quadrant of breast |
| UBERON:0035480 | surface of prostate |
| UBERON:0035483 | left suprarenal vein |
| UBERON:0035489 | branch of basilar artery |
| UBERON:0035492 | inferior hypophysial artery |
| UBERON:0035495 | hilum of lymph node |
| UBERON:0035498 | gastrophrenic ligament |
| UBERON:0035501 | unencapsulated tactile receptor |
| UBERON:0035505 | right inguinal part of abdomen |
| UBERON:0035508 | branch of posterior cerebral artery |
| UBERON:0035514 | special sense organ system |
| UBERON:0035520 | anterior mediastinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0035523 | anterior surface of prostate |
| UBERON:0035526 | superficial fibular nerve |
| UBERON:0035529 | left common iliac artery |
| UBERON:0035530 | basal vein |
| UBERON:0035532 | deep middle cerebral vein |
| UBERON:0035536 | body of gallbladder |
| UBERON:0035539 | esophageal artery |
| UBERON:0035542 | upper inner quadrant of breast |
| UBERON:0035545 | deep lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:0035546 | uveal vein |
| UBERON:0035547 | posterior ciliary vein |
| UBERON:0035548 | colic artery |
| UBERON:0035549 | vasculature of integument |
| UBERON:0035550 | superficial vein |
| UBERON:0035552 | deep vein |
| UBERON:0035553 | left cardiac chamber |
| UBERON:0035554 | right cardiac chamber |
| UBERON:0035560 | obsolete fascia dentata |
| UBERON:0035562 | intermediate pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0035563 | magnocellular superficial pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0035564 | parvocellular superficial pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0035565 | caudal pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0035566 | central pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0035567 | accessory pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0035569 | periventricular pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0035570 | tectothalamic tract |
| UBERON:0035575 | paracommissural nucleus of solitary tract |
| UBERON:0035577 | paracommissural periventricular pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:0035595 | accessory optic tract |
| UBERON:0035596 | circular nucleus of antherior hypothalamic nucleus |
| UBERON:0035597 | profundal placode |
| UBERON:0035606 | cartilage of external acoustic meatus |
| UBERON:0035607 | accessory nerve cord of dorsal region |
| UBERON:0035609 | outer root sheath companion layer |
| UBERON:0035617 | peripharyngeal space |
| UBERON:0035618 | parapharyngeal space |
| UBERON:0035619 | retropharyngeal space |
| UBERON:0035634 | quadrant of breast |
| UBERON:0035639 | ocular adnexa |
| UBERON:0035640 | middle vesical artery |
| UBERON:0035642 | laryngeal nerve |
| UBERON:0035646 | anterior superior alveolar nerve |
| UBERON:0035647 | posterior auricular nerve |
| UBERON:0035648 | nerve innervating pinna |
| UBERON:0035649 | nerve of penis |
| UBERON:0035650 | nerve of clitoris |
| UBERON:0035651 | glans |
| UBERON:0035652 | fibular nerve |
| UBERON:0035655 | paraumbilical vein |
| UBERON:0035659 | deep facial vein |
| UBERON:0035662 | parotid vein |
| UBERON:0035675 | anterior facial vein |
| UBERON:0035676 | secondary yolk sac cavity |
| UBERON:0035677 | primary yolk sac cavity |
| UBERON:0035753 | capillary plexus |
| UBERON:0035754 | pulmonary capillary plexus |
| UBERON:0035755 | systemic capillary plexus |
| UBERON:0035756 | capillary network of liver |
| UBERON:0035757 | embryonic capillary plexus |
| UBERON:0035758 | peritubular capillary plexus of kidney |
| UBERON:0035762 | capillary network of kidney |
| UBERON:0035763 | cavity of cardiac chamber |
| UBERON:0035764 | pulmonary lymph node |
| UBERON:0035765 | subsegmental lymph node |
| UBERON:0035766 | median lobe of prostate |
| UBERON:0035767 | intrapulmonary bronchus |
| UBERON:0035768 | coccygeal nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0035769 | mesenteric ganglion |
| UBERON:0035770 | inferior mesenteric nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0035771 | mesenteric plexus |
| UBERON:0035772 | aortic plexus |
| UBERON:0035773 | abdominal nerve plexus |
| UBERON:0035774 | thoracic aortic plexus |
| UBERON:0035775 | submandibular region |
| UBERON:0035785 | telencephalic song nucleus HVC |
| UBERON:0035786 | layer of CA1 field |
| UBERON:0035787 | layer of CA2 field |
| UBERON:0035788 | layer of CA3 field |
| UBERON:0035802 | alveus of CA2 field |
| UBERON:0035803 | extrapyramidal tract system |
| UBERON:0035804 | future mouth |
| UBERON:0035805 | muscle layer of sigmoid colon |
| UBERON:0035808 | robust nucleus of arcopallium |
| UBERON:0035809 | serous cavity |
| UBERON:0035814 | pericardial fat |
| UBERON:0035819 | abdominopelvic cavity |
| UBERON:0035820 | peritoneal sac |
| UBERON:0035825 | left adrenal gland cortex |
| UBERON:0035826 | left adrenal gland medulla |
| UBERON:0035827 | right adrenal gland cortex |
| UBERON:0035828 | right adrenal gland medulla |
| UBERON:0035829 | right gastroepiploic artery |
| UBERON:0035830 | left gastroepiploic artery |
| UBERON:0035831 | costal diaphragm |
| UBERON:0035835 | apical region of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0035836 | apical region of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0035837 | apical region of heart ventricle |
| UBERON:0035838 | esophagogastric junction mucosa |
| UBERON:0035839 | esophagogastric junction submucosa |
| UBERON:0035840 | esophagogastric junction muscularis mucosa |
| UBERON:0035845 | enthesis |
| UBERON:0035848 | infraorbital margin |
| UBERON:0035849 | orbital margin |
| UBERON:0035872 | primary somatosensory area barrel field layer 5 |
| UBERON:0035873 | primary somatosensory area barrel field layer 1 |
| UBERON:0035874 | primary somatosensory area barrel field layer 2/3 |
| UBERON:0035875 | primary somatosensory area barrel field layer 6b |
| UBERON:0035876 | primary somatosensory area barrel field layer 6a |
| UBERON:0035877 | primary somatosensory area barrel field layer 4 |
| UBERON:0035879 | frontomaxillary suture |
| UBERON:0035880 | zygomaticomaxillary suture |
| UBERON:0035881 | ethmoidomaxillary suture |
| UBERON:0035882 | sphenomaxillary suture |
| UBERON:0035883 | lacrimomaxillary suture |
| UBERON:0035885 | dorsal auditory area |
| UBERON:0035886 | posterior parietal association areas |
| UBERON:0035890 | postrhinal area |
| UBERON:0035892 | primary visual area, layer 6a |
| UBERON:0035893 | anteromedial visual area |
| UBERON:0035894 | anterolateral visual area |
| UBERON:0035895 | lateral visual area |
| UBERON:0035897 | posterolateral visual area |
| UBERON:0035900 | posteromedial visual area |
| UBERON:0035904 | primary visual area, layer 4 |
| UBERON:0035906 | primary visual area, layer 5 |
| UBERON:0035907 | primary visual area, layer 2/3 |
| UBERON:0035908 | anterolateral visual area, layer 5 |
| UBERON:0035909 | posteromedial visual area, layer 6a |
| UBERON:0035911 | postrhinal area, layer 4 |
| UBERON:0035912 | rostrolateral visual area |
| UBERON:0035913 | anteromedial visual area, layer 5 |
| UBERON:0035914 | posteromedial visual area, layer 4 |
| UBERON:0035915 | lateral visual area, layer 4 |
| UBERON:0035916 | lateral visual area, layer 5 |
| UBERON:0035917 | dorsal auditory area, layer 4 |
| UBERON:0035918 | lateral visual area, layer 6a |
| UBERON:0035919 | posterolateral visual area, layer 4 |
| UBERON:0035920 | rostrolateral area, layer 5 |
| UBERON:0035922 | intraculminate fissure of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0035924 | radiation of corpus callosum |
| UBERON:0035925 | central sulcus of insula |
| UBERON:0035926 | preculminate fissure of cerebellum |
| UBERON:0035927 | sulcus of parietal lobe |
| UBERON:0035928 | dorsolateral part of supraoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:0035930 | retro-olivary nucleus |
| UBERON:0035931 | sagittal stratum |
| UBERON:0035932 | anterior segment of paracentral lobule |
| UBERON:0035933 | paracentral lobule |
| UBERON:0035934 | posterior segment of paracentral lobule |
| UBERON:0035935 | Meyer's loop of optic radiation |
| UBERON:0035937 | arcuate fasciculus |
| UBERON:0035938 | amiculum of inferior olive |
| UBERON:0035939 | amiculum |
| UBERON:0035940 | central medullary reticular nuclear complex |
| UBERON:0035956 | epididymal lumen |
| UBERON:0035960 | velum feeding organ |
| UBERON:0035962 | supravaginal part of cervix |
| UBERON:0035963 | epithelial lining fluid |
| UBERON:0035964 | promontory of tympanic cavity |
| UBERON:0035965 | wall of blood vessel |
| UBERON:0035966 | scleral lamina cribrosa |
| UBERON:0035967 | alveolar mucosa |
| UBERON:0035968 | bulboid corpuscle |
| UBERON:0035969 | encapsulated tactile receptor |
| UBERON:0035970 | calcar avis of the lateral ventricle |
| UBERON:0035971 | postsubiculum |
| UBERON:0035972 | interanterodorsal nucleus of the thalamus |
| UBERON:0035973 | nucleus incertus |
| UBERON:0035974 | anteroventral preoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:0035975 | intergeniculate leaflet of the lateral geniculate complex |
| UBERON:0035976 | accessory abducens nucleus |
| UBERON:0035977 | bed nucleus of the accessory olfactory tract |
| UBERON:0035999 | dopaminergic cell groups |
| UBERON:0036000 | A8 dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036001 | A14 dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036002 | A15 dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036003 | A9 dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036004 | A17 dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036005 | A10 dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036006 | A11 dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036007 | A13 dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036008 | A16 dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036009 | A12 dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036010 | Aaq dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036011 | telencephalic dopaminergic cell group |
| UBERON:0036012 | nucleus of the brachium of the inferior colliculus |
| UBERON:0036013 | intergluteal cleft |
| UBERON:0036014 | gluteal sulcus |
| UBERON:0036016 | honey |
| UBERON:0036043 | paravermic lobule X |
| UBERON:0036044 | cerebellum vermis lobule VIIAf |
| UBERON:0036063 | quadrangular lobule |
| UBERON:0036065 | cerebellum vermis lobule VIIAt |
| UBERON:0036068 | subglottis |
| UBERON:0036069 | tracheoesophageal fold |
| UBERON:0036070 | tracheoesophageal septum |
| UBERON:0036072 | respiratory primordium epithelium |
| UBERON:0036073 | respiratory primordium mesenchyme |
| UBERON:0036074 | vein of vestibular aqueduct |
| UBERON:0036143 | meningeal branch of mandibular nerve |
| UBERON:0036144 | incisive duct |
| UBERON:0036145 | glymphatic system |
| UBERON:0036164 | ambient gyrus |
| UBERON:0036172 | palmaris brevis |
| UBERON:0036173 | abductor digiti minimi of hand |
| UBERON:0036174 | flexor digiti minimi brevis of hand |
| UBERON:0036176 | opponens digiti minimi of hand |
| UBERON:0036185 | Sertoli cell barrier |
| UBERON:0036186 | fibroelastic connective tissue |
| UBERON:0036212 | intertragic incisure |
| UBERON:0036214 | rectosigmoid junction |
| UBERON:0036215 | anatomical surface region |
| UBERON:0036216 | tympanic nerve |
| UBERON:0036217 | coelomic fluid |
| UBERON:0036218 | secondary prosencephalon |
| UBERON:0036219 | ungulate coronary band |
| UBERON:0036224 | corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts |
| UBERON:0036243 | vaginal fluid |
| UBERON:0036244 | secretion of serous membrane |
| UBERON:0036246 | incudostapedial joint |
| UBERON:0036247 | incudomallear joint |
| UBERON:0036248 | joint of auditory ossicle |
| UBERON:0036249 | zona pectinata of basilar membrane of cochlea |
| UBERON:0036250 | zone of basilar membrane of cochlea |
| UBERON:0036252 | interdigital space |
| UBERON:0036253 | orifice of skull |
| UBERON:0036254 | piriform aperture |
| UBERON:0036255 | interoceptive system |
| UBERON:0036256 | iliac lymph sac |
| UBERON:0036260 | embryonic cisterna chyli |
| UBERON:0036262 | uterine ligament |
| UBERON:0036263 | supraglottic part of larynx |
| UBERON:0036264 | zygomaticotemporal nerve |
| UBERON:0036265 | conjunctival papilla |
| UBERON:0036266 | pars interarticularis of vertebra |
| UBERON:0036267 | vulval vein |
| UBERON:0036268 | pelvic vein |
| UBERON:0036269 | penis blood vessel |
| UBERON:0036274 | tonsillar pillar |
| UBERON:0036285 | wall of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0036286 | wall of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0036288 | anterior wall of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0036289 | anterior wall of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0036290 | myocardium of anterior wall of left ventricle |
| UBERON:0036291 | myocardium of anterior wall of right ventricle |
| UBERON:0036292 | adnexa of uterus |
| UBERON:0036293 | oral frenulum |
| UBERON:0036294 | mucosa of lip |
| UBERON:0036295 | renal pelvis/ureter |
| UBERON:0036300 | tributary of central retinal vein |
| UBERON:0036301 | vasculature of spleen |
| UBERON:0036303 | vasculature of central nervous system |
| UBERON:0036328 | wall of coronary artery |
| UBERON:0036337 | wall of appendix |
| UBERON:0036343 | wall of gallbladder |
| UBERON:0036351 | wall of brachiocephalic artery |
| UBERON:0036352 | wall of subclavian artery |
| UBERON:0036362 | wall of anal canal |
| UBERON:0036375 | wall of right ureter |
| UBERON:0036376 | wall of left ureter |
| UBERON:0036422 | wall of pulmonary artery |
| UBERON:0036441 | wall of fallopian tube |
| UBERON:0036521 | wall of urethra |
| UBERON:0036523 | wall of vagina |
| UBERON:0036553 | wall of synovial tendon sheath |
| UBERON:0036654 | wall of lateral ventricle |
| UBERON:0036655 | wall of cerebral aqueduct |
| UBERON:0036656 | wall of third ventricle |
| UBERON:0036657 | wall of fourth ventricle |
| UBERON:0036658 | wall of central canal of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0036661 | wall of ventricular system of brain |
| UBERON:0036925 | wall of eyeball |
| UBERON:0036990 | wall of pharyngotympanic tube |
| UBERON:0037089 | wall of orbit |
| UBERON:0037094 | wall of common carotid artery |
| UBERON:0037144 | wall of heart |
| UBERON:0037191 | wall of membranous labyrinth |
| UBERON:0037237 | wall of lacrimal duct |
| UBERON:0037447 | wall of male urethra |
| UBERON:0037455 | wall of female urethra |
| UBERON:0037458 | hair of neck |
| UBERON:0037459 | hair of limb |
| UBERON:0037461 | primary hair |
| UBERON:0037462 | vellus hair |
| UBERON:0037463 | terminal hair |
| UBERON:0037465 | catagen hair |
| UBERON:0037466 | telogen hair |
| UBERON:0037467 | anagen hair |
| UBERON:0037468 | waist |
| UBERON:0037480 | supramammary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037494 | paracardial gastric lymph node |
| UBERON:0037500 | subscapular axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037501 | pectoral axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037502 | central axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037503 | apical axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037514 | intermediate mesenteric lymph node |
| UBERON:0037515 | juxta-arterial mesenteric lymph node |
| UBERON:0037518 | epicolic lymph node |
| UBERON:0037521 | preterminal colic lymph node |
| UBERON:0037522 | ileal lymph node |
| UBERON:0037527 | superior pancreaticoduodenal lymph node |
| UBERON:0037528 | inferior pancreaticoduodenal lymph node |
| UBERON:0037530 | inferior pancreatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0037531 | intestinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0037532 | medial common iliac lymph node |
| UBERON:0037533 | intermediate common iliac lymph node |
| UBERON:0037534 | lateral common iliac lymph node |
| UBERON:0037535 | subaortic common iliac lymph node |
| UBERON:0037536 | promontory lymph node |
| UBERON:0037538 | medial external iliac lymph node |
| UBERON:0037539 | intermediate external iliac lymph node |
| UBERON:0037540 | lateral external iliac lymph node |
| UBERON:0037541 | interiliac lymph node |
| UBERON:0037548 | superior gluteal lymph node |
| UBERON:0037549 | inferior gluteal lymph node |
| UBERON:0037559 | anorectal lymph node |
| UBERON:0037560 | superficial axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037566 | diaphragmatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0037580 | left gastric lymph node |
| UBERON:0037590 | lateral axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037601 | left parietal lumbar lymph node |
| UBERON:0037614 | appendicular lymph node |
| UBERON:0037615 | pararectal lymph node |
| UBERON:0037722 | right retropharyngeal lymph node |
| UBERON:0037723 | left retropharyngeal lymph node |
| UBERON:0037763 | lateral superior deep cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0037764 | anterior superior deep cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0037765 | lateral inferior deep cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0037766 | anterior inferior deep cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0037787 | right occipital lymph node |
| UBERON:0037788 | left occipital lymph node |
| UBERON:0037789 | right apical axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037790 | left apical axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037793 | right subscapular axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037794 | left subscapular axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037795 | right pectoral axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037796 | left pectoral axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037797 | right central axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037798 | left central axillary lymph node |
| UBERON:0037865 | jugular lymph node |
| UBERON:0037995 | supramandibular lymph node |
| UBERON:0037998 | external jugular lymph node |
| UBERON:0038001 | sternal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038002 | upper intercostal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038003 | lower intercostal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038037 | subclavian lymph node |
| UBERON:0038048 | antebrachial lymph node |
| UBERON:0038053 | cardiophrenic angle lymph node |
| UBERON:0038054 | retrocrural lymph node |
| UBERON:0038093 | jejunal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038094 | inferior rectal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038124 | medial diaphragmatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038137 | parietal pre-aortic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038139 | retro-aortic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038587 | paracardiac lymph node |
| UBERON:0038632 | pericardial lymph node |
| UBERON:0038633 | aortopulmonary lymph node |
| UBERON:0038634 | para-aortic thoracic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038635 | interlobar lymph node |
| UBERON:0038638 | lobar lymph node |
| UBERON:0038641 | segmental lymph node |
| UBERON:0038647 | lymph node of inferior pulmonary ligament |
| UBERON:0038651 | superior mediastinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038684 | superior left gastric lymph node |
| UBERON:0038685 | inferior left gastric lymph node |
| UBERON:0038687 | visceral lymph node of abdomen |
| UBERON:0038691 | common hepatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038694 | hepatoportal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038695 | proximal superior pancreatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038696 | distal superior pancreatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038697 | anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038698 | posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038699 | anterior inferior pancreaticoduodenal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038700 | posterior inferior pancreaticoduodenal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038707 | anterior pancreaticoduodenal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038727 | juxta-intestinal mesenteric lymph node |
| UBERON:0038734 | visceral pre-aortic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038735 | juxta-arterial jejunal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038736 | juxta-arterial ileal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038737 | intermediate jejunal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038738 | intermediate ileal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038746 | gastro-epiploic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038784 | pararectal lymph node of pelvis |
| UBERON:0038787 | superior ileocolic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038796 | lymph node along bile duct |
| UBERON:0038818 | posterior ancreaticoduodenal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038849 | craniocervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0038853 | superficial popliteal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038854 | deep popliteal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038855 | superior medial inguinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038856 | superior lateral inguinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038857 | inferior inguinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038859 | intermediate deep inguinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038860 | distal deep inguinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038861 | tibial lymph node |
| UBERON:0038864 | fibular lymph node |
| UBERON:0038867 | interpectoral lymph node |
| UBERON:0038868 | paramammary lymph node |
| UBERON:0038870 | cubital lymph node |
| UBERON:0038871 | supratrochlear lymph node |
| UBERON:0038878 | lateral diaphragmatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038879 | anterior diaphragmatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038882 | posterior diaphragmatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038885 | brachiocephalic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038888 | posterior mediastinal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038894 | paratracheal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038897 | superior tracheobronchial lymph node |
| UBERON:0038900 | inferior tracheobronchial lymph node |
| UBERON:0038920 | buccinator lymph node |
| UBERON:0038922 | nasolabial lymph node |
| UBERON:0038923 | malar lymph node |
| UBERON:0038925 | lingual lymph node |
| UBERON:0038929 | infrahyoid lymph node |
| UBERON:0038930 | prelaryngeal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038931 | thyroid lymph node |
| UBERON:0038932 | pretracheal lymph node |
| UBERON:0038934 | superior deep lateral cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0038935 | inferior deep lateral cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0038936 | jugulodigastric lymph node |
| UBERON:0038938 | accessory cervical lymph node |
| UBERON:0038943 | superior diaphragmatic lymph node |
| UBERON:0038951 | suprapyloric lymph node |
| UBERON:0038952 | subpyloric lymph node |
| UBERON:0038953 | retropyloric lymph node |
| UBERON:0039162 | inferior ileocolic lymph node |
| UBERON:0039163 | lateral sacral lymph node |
| UBERON:0039164 | medial sacral lymph node |
| UBERON:0039167 | bronchopulmonary lymph node |
| UBERON:0039168 | colic lymph node |
| UBERON:0039169 | anterior intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0039170 | mammary branch of internal thoracic artery |
| UBERON:0039175 | subarachnoid space of brain |
| UBERON:0039176 | subarachnoid space of spinal cord |
| UBERON:0039185 | accessory vertebral vein |
| UBERON:0039186 | anterior vertebral vein |
| UBERON:0039187 | suprascapular vein |
| UBERON:0039188 | superior laryngeal vein |
| UBERON:0039215 | appendicular artery |
| UBERON:0039222 | cystic artery |
| UBERON:0039228 | sigmoid vein |
| UBERON:0039230 | prepyloric vein |
| UBERON:0039232 | conus artery |
| UBERON:0039256 | pubic vein |
| UBERON:0039258 | external vertebral venous plexus |
| UBERON:0039259 | vertebral venous plexus |
| UBERON:0039260 | thyrocervical artery |
| UBERON:0039261 | pancreatic artery |
| UBERON:0039262 | segmental pulmonary artery |
| UBERON:0039267 | obsolete deep vein of penis |
| UBERON:0039288 | rima vulvae |
| UBERON:0039300 | obsolete male pudendum |
| UBERON:0039302 | obsolete pudendum |
| UBERON:0039351 | posterior labial artery |
| UBERON:0039355 | urethral artery |
| UBERON:0039376 | penile bulb vein |
| UBERON:0039377 | urethral vein |
| UBERON:0039379 | vestibular bulb vein |
| UBERON:0039418 | Alcock's canal |
| UBERON:0039421 | superficial dorsal vein of penis |
| UBERON:0039838 | seventh anterior intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0039839 | eighth anterior intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0039840 | ninth anterior intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0039841 | first anterior intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0039842 | second anterior intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0039843 | third anterior intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0039844 | fourth anterior intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0039845 | fifth anterior intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0039846 | sixth anterior intercostal artery |
| UBERON:0039847 | suprascapular artery |
| UBERON:0039848 | anterior external vertebral venous plexus |
| UBERON:0039849 | posterior external vertebral venous plexus |
| UBERON:0039850 | left anterior segmental artery |
| UBERON:0039851 | apicoposterior segmental artery |
| UBERON:0039856 | right ovarian vein |
| UBERON:0039857 | left ovarian vein |
| UBERON:1000003 | dewlap |
| UBERON:1000010 | mole |
| UBERON:1000011 | labial commissure |
| UBERON:1000015 | skin of snout |
| UBERON:1000019 | top of head |
| UBERON:1000021 | skin of face |
| UBERON:1000022 | Zymbal's gland |
| UBERON:1000023 | spleen pulp |
| UBERON:1000024 | parenchyma of spleen |
| UBERON:2000000 | Brachet's cleft |
| UBERON:2000001 | Kupffer's vesicle |
| UBERON:2000003 | obsolete adaxial cell |
| UBERON:2000004 | anterior axial hypoblast |
| UBERON:2000006 | ball |
| UBERON:2000023 | obsolete forerunner cell group |
| UBERON:2000033 | intermediate cell mass of mesoderm |
| UBERON:2000039 | median axial vein |
| UBERON:2000040 | median fin fold |
| UBERON:2000043 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 1 |
| UBERON:2000044 | myotome somite 14 |
| UBERON:2000052 | dorsal actinotrichium |
| UBERON:2000058 | polster |
| UBERON:2000068 | neural plate proneural cluster |
| UBERON:2000070 | obsolete sensory axons peripheral |
| UBERON:2000072 | somite 1 |
| UBERON:2000073 | somite 5 |
| UBERON:2000074 | somite 26 |
| UBERON:2000078 | ventral actinotrichium |
| UBERON:2000083 | ventral mesoderm |
| UBERON:2000084 | yolk |
| UBERON:2000088 | yolk syncytial layer |
| UBERON:2000089 | actinotrichium |
| UBERON:2000090 | apical ectodermal ridge dorsal fin |
| UBERON:2000093 | obsolete blastomere |
| UBERON:2000096 | cardinal system |
| UBERON:2000098 | proliferative region |
| UBERON:2000102 | dorsal fin fold |
| UBERON:2000106 | extension |
| UBERON:2000116 | macula lagena |
| UBERON:2000120 | lateral line ganglion |
| UBERON:2000125 | mandibular lateral line neuromast |
| UBERON:2000136 | otic lateral line neuromast |
| UBERON:2000156 | somite 20 |
| UBERON:2000157 | somite 30 |
| UBERON:2000164 | ventral mesenchyme |
| UBERON:2000165 | inferior lobe |
| UBERON:2000168 | anterior macula |
| UBERON:2000174 | caudal cerebellar tract |
| UBERON:2000175 | posterior lateral line nerve |
| UBERON:2000177 | caudal oblique |
| UBERON:2000178 | caudal peduncle |
| UBERON:2000181 | obsolete caudal zone of D |
| UBERON:2000182 | central caudal thalamic nucleus |
| UBERON:2000183 | central pretectum |
| UBERON:2000185 | commissura rostral, pars ventralis |
| UBERON:2000188 | corpus cerebelli |
| UBERON:2000193 | diffuse nuclei |
| UBERON:2000194 | dorsal accessory optic nucleus |
| UBERON:2000195 | dorsal depressor muscle |
| UBERON:2000196 | dorsal hypohyal bone |
| UBERON:2000199 | dorsal periventricular hypothalamus |
| UBERON:2000201 | dorsal transverse |
| UBERON:2000202 | efferent portion of pharyngeal arch artery |
| UBERON:2000205 | external ventral flexor |
| UBERON:2000209 | lateral preglomerular nucleus |
| UBERON:2000210 | gigantocellular part of magnocellular preoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:2000211 | gill lamella |
| UBERON:2000212 | granular eminence |
| UBERON:2000214 | hypobranchial vessel |
| UBERON:2000216 | infracarinalis |
| UBERON:2000221 | internal levator |
| UBERON:2000222 | isthmic primary nucleus |
| UBERON:2000223 | infraorbital 1 |
| UBERON:2000224 | quadrate ventral process |
| UBERON:2000225 | lateral crista primordium |
| UBERON:2000226 | lateral ethmoid bone |
| UBERON:2000228 | lateral line primordium |
| UBERON:2000230 | longitudinal hypochordal |
| UBERON:2000232 | lateral semicircular canal primordium |
| UBERON:2000233 | lower oral valve |
| UBERON:2000234 | macula neglecta |
| UBERON:2000235 | obsolete magnocellular superficial pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:2000237 | obsolete medial forebrain bundle diencephalon |
| UBERON:2000238 | olfactory tract linking bulb to ipsilateral ventral telencephalon |
| UBERON:2000239 | mesocoracoid bone |
| UBERON:2000240 | metapterygoid |
| UBERON:2000241 | midline column |
| UBERON:2000245 | nucleus of the descending root |
| UBERON:2000246 | obsolete nucleus taeniae |
| UBERON:2000248 | magnocellular preoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:2000250 | opercle |
| UBERON:2000256 | obsolete pars subcommissuralis of V |
| UBERON:2000259 | mandibular lateral line |
| UBERON:2000261 | pharyngohyoid |
| UBERON:2000264 | preopercle |
| UBERON:2000265 | obsolete presumptive dorsal mesoderm |
| UBERON:2000266 | obsolete pretecto-mamillary tract |
| UBERON:2000267 | primary olfactory fiber layer |
| UBERON:2000268 | anal fin proximal radial bone |
| UBERON:2000269 | inferior ventral flexor |
| UBERON:2000271 | radial bone |
| UBERON:2000274 | rostral octaval nerve sensory nucleus |
| UBERON:2000276 | rostrolateral thalamic nucleus of Butler & Saidel |
| UBERON:2000278 | secondary gustatory nucleus medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:2000280 | medial division |
| UBERON:2000281 | obsolete hair cell posterior macula |
| UBERON:2000283 | obsolete sternohyoid |
| UBERON:2000284 | subopercle |
| UBERON:2000285 | superficial adductor |
| UBERON:2000286 | superficial lateralis (teleost) |
| UBERON:2000287 | superior dorsal flexor |
| UBERON:2000288 | supracarinalis |
| UBERON:2000289 | preopercle horizontal limb |
| UBERON:2000291 | medial octavolateralis nucleus |
| UBERON:2000293 | synencephalon |
| UBERON:2000294 | torus lateralis |
| UBERON:2000296 | uncrossed tecto-bulbar tract |
| UBERON:2000297 | vagal lobe |
| UBERON:2000298 | vent |
| UBERON:2000299 | obsolete ventral entopeduncular nucleus V |
| UBERON:2000300 | ventral hypohyal bone |
| UBERON:2000305 | ventral sulcus |
| UBERON:2000307 | vestibulolateralis lobe |
| UBERON:2000309 | external yolk syncytial layer |
| UBERON:2000311 | adductor mandibulae complex |
| UBERON:2000313 | anal inclinator |
| UBERON:2000315 | asteriscus |
| UBERON:2000318 | brainstem and spinal white matter |
| UBERON:2000319 | branchiostegal membrane |
| UBERON:2000321 | caudal levator |
| UBERON:2000322 | caudal octaval nerve sensory nucleus |
| UBERON:2000324 | caudal periventricular hypothalamus |
| UBERON:2000331 | obsolete commissure infima of Haller |
| UBERON:2000335 | crossed tecto-bulbar tract |
| UBERON:2000336 | preopercle vertical limb |
| UBERON:2000337 | basioccipital posterodorsal region |
| UBERON:2000340 | obsolete dorsal entopeduncular nucleus |
| UBERON:2000341 | dorsal flexor |
| UBERON:2000342 | dorsal inclinator muscle |
| UBERON:2000343 | obsolete dorsal nucleus of V |
| UBERON:2000348 | exoccipital posteroventral region |
| UBERON:2000349 | epaxialis |
| UBERON:2000350 | epipleural |
| UBERON:2000352 | external cellular layer |
| UBERON:2000356 | gill raker |
| UBERON:2000358 | granular layer corpus cerebelli |
| UBERON:2000362 | hypaxialis |
| UBERON:2000363 | hypobranchial bone |
| UBERON:2000364 | hypural |
| UBERON:2000371 | internal pharyngoclavicularis |
| UBERON:2000372 | interpeduncular nucleus medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:2000375 | anal fin actinotrichium |
| UBERON:2000376 | infraorbital |
| UBERON:2000379 | obsolete lateral forebrain bundle diencephalon |
| UBERON:2000381 | lateral line sensory nucleus |
| UBERON:2000384 | levator arcus palatini |
| UBERON:2000388 | medial caudal lobe |
| UBERON:2000389 | medial funicular nucleus medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:2000390 | medial preglomerular nucleus |
| UBERON:2000391 | obsolete medial zone of D |
| UBERON:2000392 | median tuberal portion |
| UBERON:2000394 | molecular layer corpus cerebelli |
| UBERON:2000395 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 2 |
| UBERON:2000397 | nucleus subglomerulosis |
| UBERON:2000398 | nucleus isthmi |
| UBERON:2000399 | secondary gustatory nucleus trigeminal nuclei |
| UBERON:2000401 | octaval nerve sensory nucleus |
| UBERON:2000406 | obsolete parvocellular superficial pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:2000408 | periventricular nucleus of caudal tuberculum |
| UBERON:2000410 | postcleithrum |
| UBERON:2000411 | posterior crista primordium |
| UBERON:2000412 | posterior semicircular canal primordium |
| UBERON:2000414 | presumptive cephalic mesoderm |
| UBERON:2000419 | pterosphenoid |
| UBERON:2000422 | retroarticular |
| UBERON:2000424 | opercular lateral line |
| UBERON:2000425 | anterior lateral line nerve |
| UBERON:2000426 | rostral parvocellular preoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:2000429 | scaphium |
| UBERON:2000430 | secondary gustatory tract |
| UBERON:2000437 | caudal fin actinotrichium |
| UBERON:2000438 | parhypural |
| UBERON:2000439 | superficial pelvic abductor |
| UBERON:2000440 | superior raphe nucleus |
| UBERON:2000442 | supraneural bone |
| UBERON:2000448 | tertiary gustatory nucleus |
| UBERON:2000449 | torus longitudinalis |
| UBERON:2000451 | upper oral valve |
| UBERON:2000452 | urohyal |
| UBERON:2000454 | ventral accessory optic nucleus |
| UBERON:2000455 | ventral flexor |
| UBERON:2000456 | obsolete ventral nucleus of V |
| UBERON:2000459 | ventromedial thalamic nucleus |
| UBERON:2000461 | Weberian ossicle |
| UBERON:2000462 | abductor hyohyoid |
| UBERON:2000464 | otic lateral line |
| UBERON:2000465 | adductor operculi |
| UBERON:2000466 | anal depressor |
| UBERON:2000468 | anterior crista primordium |
| UBERON:2000469 | anterior semicircular canal primordium |
| UBERON:2000474 | intercalar |
| UBERON:2000475 | paraventricular organ |
| UBERON:2000476 | branchiostegal ray |
| UBERON:2000479 | caudal mesencephalo-cerebellar tract |
| UBERON:2000480 | caudal octavolateralis nucleus |
| UBERON:2000481 | caudal preglomerular nucleus |
| UBERON:2000482 | caudal tuberal nucleus |
| UBERON:2000484 | celiacomesenteric artery |
| UBERON:2000485 | central nucleus inferior lobe |
| UBERON:2000487 | obsolete central zone of D |
| UBERON:2000488 | ceratobranchial bone |
| UBERON:2000491 | obsolete commissure of the caudal tuberculum |
| UBERON:2000492 | coracoradialis |
| UBERON:2000493 | obsolete decussation of medial funicular nucleus |
| UBERON:2000495 | infraorbital 5 |
| UBERON:2000497 | pelvic adductor profundus |
| UBERON:2000498 | dilatator operculi |
| UBERON:2000499 | dorsal arrector |
| UBERON:2000500 | dorsal erector muscle |
| UBERON:2000502 | dorsal motor nucleus trigeminal nerve |
| UBERON:2000503 | dorsal oblique branchial muscle |
| UBERON:2000504 | dorsal retractor |
| UBERON:2000506 | obsolete dorsal zone of D |
| UBERON:2000507 | epineural |
| UBERON:2000508 | pelvic fin radial bone |
| UBERON:2000510 | external levatores |
| UBERON:2000512 | facial lobe |
| UBERON:2000513 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 1 |
| UBERON:2000516 | periventricular grey zone |
| UBERON:2000517 | glossopharyngeal lobe |
| UBERON:2000520 | obsolete horizontal commissure |
| UBERON:2000522 | inferior hyohyoid |
| UBERON:2000523 | inferior reticular formation |
| UBERON:2000525 | intercalarium |
| UBERON:2000526 | intermuscular bone |
| UBERON:2000527 | pharyngobranchial bone |
| UBERON:2000528 | interradialis |
| UBERON:2000530 | lapillus |
| UBERON:2000532 | lateral division |
| UBERON:2000534 | obsolete lateral longitudinal fasciculus |
| UBERON:2000536 | obsolete lateral zone of D |
| UBERON:2000540 | magnocellular octaval nucleus |
| UBERON:2000541 | obsolete marginal blastomere |
| UBERON:2000542 | medial column |
| UBERON:2000544 | pectoral fin actinotrichium |
| UBERON:2000549 | posttemporal |
| UBERON:2000551 | nucleus lateralis valvulae |
| UBERON:2000555 | opercular flap |
| UBERON:2000557 | preural 1 vertebra |
| UBERON:2000558 | posterior macula |
| UBERON:2000564 | pelvic abductor profundus |
| UBERON:2000571 | obsolete presumptive telencephalon |
| UBERON:2000573 | internal cellular layer |
| UBERON:2000576 | pterotic |
| UBERON:2000579 | rostral mesencephalo-cerebellar tract |
| UBERON:2000580 | rostral preglomerular nucleus |
| UBERON:2000581 | rostral tuberal nucleus |
| UBERON:2000582 | saccus dorsalis |
| UBERON:2000585 | kinethmoid cartilage |
| UBERON:2000586 | preural 2 vertebra |
| UBERON:2000587 | sphenotic |
| UBERON:2000589 | sulcus ypsiloniformis |
| UBERON:2000592 | superficial pelvic adductor |
| UBERON:2000593 | superior reticular formation medial column |
| UBERON:2000594 | supracleithrum |
| UBERON:2000596 | pelvic fin actinotrichium |
| UBERON:2000599 | torus semicircularis |
| UBERON:2000601 | obsolete pretectal periventricular nucleus |
| UBERON:2000602 | uroneural |
| UBERON:2000603 | valvula cerebelli |
| UBERON:2000606 | obsolete ventral oblique branchial muscle |
| UBERON:2000607 | obsolete ventral rhombencephalic commissure brain stem |
| UBERON:2000608 | ventral transverse |
| UBERON:2000609 | ventrolateral nucleus |
| UBERON:2000610 | vertical myoseptum |
| UBERON:2000611 | visceromotor column |
| UBERON:2000614 | abductor profundus |
| UBERON:2000615 | adductor arcus palatini |
| UBERON:2000616 | adductor profundus |
| UBERON:2000617 | anal erector |
| UBERON:2000618 | obsolete ansulate commissure |
| UBERON:2000620 | autopalatine |
| UBERON:2000622 | barbel |
| UBERON:2000623 | basipterygium bone |
| UBERON:2000624 | obsolete brachium conjunctivum |
| UBERON:2000626 | obsolete bulbo-spinal tract |
| UBERON:2000627 | posterior ceratohyal |
| UBERON:2000628 | caudal fin musculature |
| UBERON:2000629 | caudal motor nucleus of abducens |
| UBERON:2000630 | caudal parvocellular preoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:2000633 | caudal tuberculum |
| UBERON:2000635 | obsolete central pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:2000636 | cerebellar crest |
| UBERON:2000637 | claustrum cartilage |
| UBERON:2000638 | commissura rostral, pars dorsalis |
| UBERON:2000639 | commissure of the secondary gustatory nuclei |
| UBERON:2000642 | obsolete decussation of the medial octavolateralis nucleus |
| UBERON:2000643 | rostral cerebellar tract |
| UBERON:2000644 | obsolete dental plate |
| UBERON:2000645 | descending octaval nucleus |
| UBERON:2000646 | anal fin distal radial bone |
| UBERON:2000647 | dorsal caudal thalamic nucleus |
| UBERON:2000648 | dorsal fin musculature |
| UBERON:2000651 | dorsal pelvic arrector |
| UBERON:2000654 | rostral motor nucleus of abducens |
| UBERON:2000655 | obsolete dorsomedial optic tract |
| UBERON:2000657 | entopterygoid |
| UBERON:2000658 | epibranchial bone |
| UBERON:2000660 | epural |
| UBERON:2000662 | external pharyngoclavicularis |
| UBERON:2000663 | extrascapula |
| UBERON:2000666 | filamental artery |
| UBERON:2000673 | hypobranchial artery |
| UBERON:2000674 | interopercle |
| UBERON:2000676 | sagitta |
| UBERON:2000677 | segmental intercostal artery |
| UBERON:2000678 | obsolete hair cell anterior macula |
| UBERON:2000685 | superficial abductor |
| UBERON:2000687 | superficial pretectum |
| UBERON:2000688 | obsolete olfactory support cell |
| UBERON:2000689 | obsolete supracommissural nucleus of V |
| UBERON:2000690 | obsolete supraoptic commissure |
| UBERON:2000691 | supraorbital bone |
| UBERON:2000692 | symplectic |
| UBERON:2000693 | tangential nucleus |
| UBERON:2000694 | ceratobranchial 5 tooth |
| UBERON:2000695 | labial cavities |
| UBERON:2000698 | tripus |
| UBERON:2000701 | ventral arrector |
| UBERON:2000703 | ventral motor nucleus trigeminal nerve |
| UBERON:2000704 | ventral pelvic arrector |
| UBERON:2000707 | ventral zone |
| UBERON:2000708 | obsolete ventrolateral optic tract |
| UBERON:2000710 | viscerosensory commissural nucleus of Cajal |
| UBERON:2000711 | deep cell layer (gastrulation) |
| UBERON:2000712 | internal yolk syncytial layer |
| UBERON:2000714 | obsolete accessory pretectal nucleus |
| UBERON:2000715 | adductor hyohyoid |
| UBERON:2000716 | afferent portion of pharyngeal arch artery |
| UBERON:2000717 | apical ectodermal ridge median fin fold |
| UBERON:2000718 | epaxial region somite 27 |
| UBERON:2000719 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 21 |
| UBERON:2000720 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 24 |
| UBERON:2000721 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 27 |
| UBERON:2000722 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 3 |
| UBERON:2000723 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 5 |
| UBERON:2000724 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 8 |
| UBERON:2000725 | somite 11 |
| UBERON:2000726 | somite 14 |
| UBERON:2000727 | somite 17 |
| UBERON:2000728 | somite 2 |
| UBERON:2000729 | epaxial region somite 3 |
| UBERON:2000730 | somite 23 |
| UBERON:2000731 | somite 27 |
| UBERON:2000732 | somite 3 |
| UBERON:2000733 | somite 7 |
| UBERON:2000734 | preural vertebra |
| UBERON:2000735 | hemal postzygapophysis |
| UBERON:2000739 | epaxial region somite 11 |
| UBERON:2000740 | epaxial region somite 5 |
| UBERON:2000741 | epaxial region somite 14 |
| UBERON:2000742 | epaxial region somite 17 |
| UBERON:2000743 | epaxial region somite 2 |
| UBERON:2000744 | epaxial region somite 22 |
| UBERON:2000745 | epaxial region somite 25 |
| UBERON:2000746 | epaxial region somite 28 |
| UBERON:2000747 | epaxial region somite 30 |
| UBERON:2000748 | epaxial region somite 6 |
| UBERON:2000749 | epaxial region somite 9 |
| UBERON:2000750 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 10 |
| UBERON:2000751 | epaxial region somite 8 |
| UBERON:2000752 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 13 |
| UBERON:2000753 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 16 |
| UBERON:2000754 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 19 |
| UBERON:2000755 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 21 |
| UBERON:2000756 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 24 |
| UBERON:2000757 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 27 |
| UBERON:2000758 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 3 |
| UBERON:2000759 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 5 |
| UBERON:2000760 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 8 |
| UBERON:2000766 | granular layer valvula cerebelli |
| UBERON:2000767 | hypaxial region somite 11 |
| UBERON:2000768 | hypaxial region somite 14 |
| UBERON:2000769 | hypaxial region somite 17 |
| UBERON:2000770 | hypaxial region somite 2 |
| UBERON:2000771 | hypaxial region somite 22 |
| UBERON:2000772 | hypaxial region somite 25 |
| UBERON:2000773 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 12 |
| UBERON:2000774 | hypaxial region somite 28 |
| UBERON:2000775 | hypaxial region somite 30 |
| UBERON:2000776 | hypaxial region somite 6 |
| UBERON:2000777 | hypaxial region somite 9 |
| UBERON:2000778 | obsolete interneuron spinal cord |
| UBERON:2000779 | lateral forebrain bundle telencephalon |
| UBERON:2000784 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 15 |
| UBERON:2000788 | mesenchyme dorsal fin |
| UBERON:2000790 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 10 |
| UBERON:2000791 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 13 |
| UBERON:2000792 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 16 |
| UBERON:2000793 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 19 |
| UBERON:2000794 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 22 |
| UBERON:2000795 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 18 |
| UBERON:2000796 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 25 |
| UBERON:2000797 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 28 |
| UBERON:2000798 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 30 |
| UBERON:2000799 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 6 |
| UBERON:2000800 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 9 |
| UBERON:2000801 | myotome somite 11 |
| UBERON:2000802 | myotome somite 15 |
| UBERON:2000803 | myotome somite 18 |
| UBERON:2000804 | myotome somite 20 |
| UBERON:2000805 | myotome somite 23 |
| UBERON:2000806 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 20 |
| UBERON:2000807 | myotome somite 26 |
| UBERON:2000808 | myotome somite 29 |
| UBERON:2000809 | myotome somite 4 |
| UBERON:2000810 | myotome somite 7 |
| UBERON:2000813 | infraorbital lateral line neuromast |
| UBERON:2000814 | opercular lateral line neuromast |
| UBERON:2000815 | nucleus of medial longitudinal fasciculus of medulla |
| UBERON:2000817 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 23 |
| UBERON:2000819 | obsolete postcommissural nucleus of V central entopeduncular nucleus |
| UBERON:2000820 | presumptive neuron neural tube |
| UBERON:2000821 | obsolete primary neuron hindbrain |
| UBERON:2000826 | central nucleus torus semicircularis |
| UBERON:2000827 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 26 |
| UBERON:2000829 | sclerotome somite 11 |
| UBERON:2000830 | sclerotome somite 14 |
| UBERON:2000831 | sclerotome somite 17 |
| UBERON:2000832 | sclerotome somite 2 |
| UBERON:2000833 | sclerotome somite 22 |
| UBERON:2000834 | sclerotome somite 25 |
| UBERON:2000835 | sclerotome somite 28 |
| UBERON:2000836 | sclerotome somite 30 |
| UBERON:2000837 | sclerotome somite 6 |
| UBERON:2000838 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 29 |
| UBERON:2000839 | sclerotome somite 9 |
| UBERON:2000840 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 11 |
| UBERON:2000841 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 14 |
| UBERON:2000842 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 17 |
| UBERON:2000843 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 2 |
| UBERON:2000844 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 22 |
| UBERON:2000845 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 25 |
| UBERON:2000846 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 28 |
| UBERON:2000847 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 30 |
| UBERON:2000848 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 6 |
| UBERON:2000849 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 4 |
| UBERON:2000850 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 9 |
| UBERON:2000851 | somite 12 |
| UBERON:2000852 | somite 15 |
| UBERON:2000853 | somite 18 |
| UBERON:2000854 | somite 21 |
| UBERON:2000855 | somite 24 |
| UBERON:2000856 | somite 28 |
| UBERON:2000857 | somite 4 |
| UBERON:2000858 | somite 8 |
| UBERON:2000859 | specialized hemal arch and spine |
| UBERON:2000860 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 7 |
| UBERON:2000864 | epaxial region somite 1 |
| UBERON:2000865 | epaxial region somite 12 |
| UBERON:2000866 | epaxial region somite 15 |
| UBERON:2000867 | epaxial region somite 18 |
| UBERON:2000868 | epaxial region somite 20 |
| UBERON:2000869 | epaxial region somite 23 |
| UBERON:2000870 | epaxial region somite 26 |
| UBERON:2000872 | epaxial region somite 29 |
| UBERON:2000873 | epaxial region somite 4 |
| UBERON:2000874 | epaxial region somite 7 |
| UBERON:2000876 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 11 |
| UBERON:2000877 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 14 |
| UBERON:2000878 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 17 |
| UBERON:2000879 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 2 |
| UBERON:2000880 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 22 |
| UBERON:2000881 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 25 |
| UBERON:2000883 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 28 |
| UBERON:2000884 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 30 |
| UBERON:2000885 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 6 |
| UBERON:2000886 | obsolete fast muscle cell somite 9 |
| UBERON:2000887 | floor plate neural rod |
| UBERON:2000891 | hypaxial region somite 1 |
| UBERON:2000892 | hypaxial region somite 12 |
| UBERON:2000894 | hypaxial region somite 15 |
| UBERON:2000895 | hypaxial region somite 18 |
| UBERON:2000896 | hypaxial region somite 20 |
| UBERON:2000897 | hypaxial region somite 23 |
| UBERON:2000898 | hypaxial region somite 26 |
| UBERON:2000899 | hypaxial region somite 29 |
| UBERON:2000900 | hypaxial region somite 4 |
| UBERON:2000901 | hypaxial region somite 7 |
| UBERON:2000902 | hypural musculature |
| UBERON:2000910 | medial forebrain bundle telencephalon |
| UBERON:2000912 | mesenchyme median fin fold |
| UBERON:2000913 | molecular layer valvula cerebelli |
| UBERON:2000915 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 11 |
| UBERON:2000916 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 14 |
| UBERON:2000917 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 17 |
| UBERON:2000918 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 20 |
| UBERON:2000919 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 23 |
| UBERON:2000920 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 26 |
| UBERON:2000921 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 29 |
| UBERON:2000922 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 4 |
| UBERON:2000923 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 7 |
| UBERON:2000924 | myotome somite 1 |
| UBERON:2000925 | hypaxial region somite 10 |
| UBERON:2000926 | myotome somite 12 |
| UBERON:2000927 | myotome somite 16 |
| UBERON:2000928 | myotome somite 19 |
| UBERON:2000929 | myotome somite 21 |
| UBERON:2000930 | myotome somite 24 |
| UBERON:2000931 | myotome somite 27 |
| UBERON:2000932 | myotome somite 3 |
| UBERON:2000933 | myotome somite 5 |
| UBERON:2000934 | myotome somite 8 |
| UBERON:2000936 | dorsal fin distal radial bone |
| UBERON:2000937 | hypaxial region somite 13 |
| UBERON:2000939 | middle lateral line neuromast |
| UBERON:2000940 | posterior lateral line neuromast |
| UBERON:2000941 | nucleus of the medial longitudinal fasciculus synencephalon |
| UBERON:2000946 | hypaxial region somite 16 |
| UBERON:2000947 | dorsal fin proximal radial bone |
| UBERON:2000952 | sclerotome somite 1 |
| UBERON:2000953 | sclerotome somite 12 |
| UBERON:2000954 | sclerotome somite 15 |
| UBERON:2000955 | sclerotome somite 18 |
| UBERON:2000956 | sclerotome somite 20 |
| UBERON:2000957 | hypaxial region somite 19 |
| UBERON:2000958 | sclerotome somite 23 |
| UBERON:2000959 | sclerotome somite 26 |
| UBERON:2000960 | sclerotome somite 29 |
| UBERON:2000961 | sclerotome somite 4 |
| UBERON:2000962 | sclerotome somite 7 |
| UBERON:2000963 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 1 |
| UBERON:2000964 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 12 |
| UBERON:2000965 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 15 |
| UBERON:2000966 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 18 |
| UBERON:2000967 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 20 |
| UBERON:2000968 | hypaxial region somite 21 |
| UBERON:2000969 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 23 |
| UBERON:2000970 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 26 |
| UBERON:2000971 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 29 |
| UBERON:2000972 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 4 |
| UBERON:2000973 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 7 |
| UBERON:2000974 | somite 10 |
| UBERON:2000975 | somite 13 |
| UBERON:2000976 | somite 16 |
| UBERON:2000977 | somite 19 |
| UBERON:2000978 | somite 22 |
| UBERON:2000979 | hypaxial region somite 24 |
| UBERON:2000980 | somite 25 |
| UBERON:2000981 | somite 29 |
| UBERON:2000982 | somite 6 |
| UBERON:2000983 | somite 9 |
| UBERON:2000984 | superior reticular formation tegmentum |
| UBERON:2000985 | ventral rhombencephalic commissure medulla oblongata |
| UBERON:2000986 | hypaxial region somite 27 |
| UBERON:2000987 | hypaxial region somite 3 |
| UBERON:2000988 | hypaxial region somite 5 |
| UBERON:2000989 | hypaxial region somite 8 |
| UBERON:2000991 | epaxial region somite 10 |
| UBERON:2000993 | lateral wall neural rod |
| UBERON:2000997 | medial funicular nucleus trigeminal nuclei |
| UBERON:2001001 | epaxial region somite 13 |
| UBERON:2001002 | obsolete motor axons peripheral |
| UBERON:2001003 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 12 |
| UBERON:2001004 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 15 |
| UBERON:2001005 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 18 |
| UBERON:2001006 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 21 |
| UBERON:2001007 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 24 |
| UBERON:2001008 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 27 |
| UBERON:2001009 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 3 |
| UBERON:2001010 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 5 |
| UBERON:2001011 | obsolete muscle pioneer somite 8 |
| UBERON:2001012 | epaxial region somite 16 |
| UBERON:2001013 | myotome somite 10 |
| UBERON:2001014 | myotome somite 13 |
| UBERON:2001015 | myotome somite 17 |
| UBERON:2001016 | myotome somite 2 |
| UBERON:2001017 | myotome somite 22 |
| UBERON:2001018 | myotome somite 25 |
| UBERON:2001019 | myotome somite 28 |
| UBERON:2001020 | myotome somite 30 |
| UBERON:2001021 | myotome somite 6 |
| UBERON:2001022 | myotome somite 9 |
| UBERON:2001023 | epaxial region somite 19 |
| UBERON:2001025 | occipital lateral line neuromast |
| UBERON:2001026 | supraorbital lateral line neuromast |
| UBERON:2001028 | hypurapophysis |
| UBERON:2001030 | epaxial region somite 21 |
| UBERON:2001036 | sclerotome somite 10 |
| UBERON:2001037 | sclerotome somite 13 |
| UBERON:2001038 | sclerotome somite 16 |
| UBERON:2001039 | sclerotome somite 19 |
| UBERON:2001040 | epaxial region somite 24 |
| UBERON:2001041 | sclerotome somite 21 |
| UBERON:2001042 | sclerotome somite 24 |
| UBERON:2001043 | sclerotome somite 27 |
| UBERON:2001044 | sclerotome somite 3 |
| UBERON:2001045 | sclerotome somite 5 |
| UBERON:2001046 | sclerotome somite 8 |
| UBERON:2001047 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 10 |
| UBERON:2001048 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 13 |
| UBERON:2001049 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 16 |
| UBERON:2001050 | obsolete slow muscle cell somite 19 |
| UBERON:2001051 | caudal division of the internal carotid artery |
| UBERON:2001052 | primordial hindbrain channel |
| UBERON:2001053 | future internal carotid artery |
| UBERON:2001054 | lateral dorsal aorta |
| UBERON:2001055 | pronephric duct opening |
| UBERON:2001059 | cranial division of the internal carotid artery |
| UBERON:2001060 | basidorsal |
| UBERON:2001062 | presumptive mesencephalic artery |
| UBERON:2001063 | posterior caudal vein |
| UBERON:2001065 | obsolete lateral mesoderm |
| UBERON:2001069 | ventral fin fold |
| UBERON:2001073 | axial vasculature |
| UBERON:2001076 | intestinal bulb |
| UBERON:2001086 | obsolete muscle pioneer |
| UBERON:2001089 | myoseptum |
| UBERON:2001095 | immature macula |
| UBERON:2001096 | immature anterior macula |
| UBERON:2001097 | immature posterior macula |
| UBERON:2001098 | obsolete immature hair cell anterior macula |
| UBERON:2001099 | obsolete immature hair cell posterior macula |
| UBERON:2001109 | obsolete oocyte |
| UBERON:2001118 | urogenital papilla |
| UBERON:2001125 | organizer inducing center |
| UBERON:2001126 | noninvoluting endocytic marginal cell cluster |
| UBERON:2001129 | pharyngeal pouches 2-6 |
| UBERON:2001137 | ventral tooth row |
| UBERON:2001139 | mediodorsal tooth row |
| UBERON:2001140 | dorsal tooth row |
| UBERON:2001141 | tooth 1V |
| UBERON:2001142 | tooth 5V |
| UBERON:2001143 | tooth 4V |
| UBERON:2001144 | tooth 2V |
| UBERON:2001145 | tooth 3V |
| UBERON:2001146 | tooth 1MD |
| UBERON:2001147 | tooth 2MD |
| UBERON:2001148 | tooth 1D |
| UBERON:2001150 | tooth 2D |
| UBERON:2001151 | tooth 4MD |
| UBERON:2001152 | tooth 3MD |
| UBERON:2001154 | anal fin musculature |
| UBERON:2001156 | posterior lateral line placode |
| UBERON:2001157 | posterior lateral line primordium |
| UBERON:2001163 | supraneural 7 bone |
| UBERON:2001164 | supraneural 6 bone |
| UBERON:2001165 | supraneural 5 bone |
| UBERON:2001166 | supraneural 9 bone |
| UBERON:2001169 | vertebral element 3 |
| UBERON:2001170 | vertebral element 4 |
| UBERON:2001171 | os suspensorium |
| UBERON:2001172 | roofing cartilage |
| UBERON:2001179 | epidermal superficial stratum |
| UBERON:2001181 | epidermal intermediate stratum |
| UBERON:2001183 | dermal superficial region |
| UBERON:2001186 | collagenous dermal stroma |
| UBERON:2001188 | Weberian apparatus |
| UBERON:2001190 | Weberian vertebra |
| UBERON:2001191 | supraneural 2 bone |
| UBERON:2001192 | supraneural 3 bone |
| UBERON:2001193 | supraneural 8 bone |
| UBERON:2001200 | corpuscles of Stannius |
| UBERON:2001201 | ventral lateral mesoderm |
| UBERON:2001203 | obsolete ciliary body |
| UBERON:2001220 | basibranchial copula |
| UBERON:2001221 | anterior copula |
| UBERON:2001222 | posterior copula |
| UBERON:2001223 | basibranchial 1 bone |
| UBERON:2001224 | basibranchial 2 bone |
| UBERON:2001225 | basibranchial 3 bone |
| UBERON:2001226 | basibranchial 4 bone |
| UBERON:2001228 | pharyngeal arch 3 skeleton |
| UBERON:2001229 | pharyngeal arch 7 skeleton |
| UBERON:2001230 | pharyngeal arch 6 skeleton |
| UBERON:2001231 | pharyngeal arch 4 skeleton |
| UBERON:2001232 | pharyngeal arch 5 skeleton |
| UBERON:2001233 | hypobranchial 1 bone |
| UBERON:2001234 | hypobranchial 4 bone |
| UBERON:2001235 | hypobranchial 3 bone |
| UBERON:2001236 | hypobranchial 2 bone |
| UBERON:2001237 | ceratobranchial 1 bone |
| UBERON:2001239 | ceratobranchial 5 bone |
| UBERON:2001240 | ceratobranchial 4 bone |
| UBERON:2001241 | ceratobranchial 3 bone |
| UBERON:2001242 | ceratobranchial 2 bone |
| UBERON:2001243 | epibranchial 1 bone |
| UBERON:2001244 | epibranchial 5 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001245 | epibranchial 4 bone |
| UBERON:2001246 | epibranchial 2 bone |
| UBERON:2001247 | epibranchial 3 bone |
| UBERON:2001250 | pharyngobranchial 2 bone |
| UBERON:2001251 | pharyngobranchial 4 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001252 | pharyngobranchial 3 bone |
| UBERON:2001256 | lateral floor plate |
| UBERON:2001257 | medial floor plate |
| UBERON:2001259 | obsolete forebrain ventricle |
| UBERON:2001263 | ovarian follicle stage I |
| UBERON:2001265 | ovarian follicle stage II |
| UBERON:2001266 | ovarian follicle stage III |
| UBERON:2001269 | regenerating fin/limb |
| UBERON:2001274 | coronomeckelian |
| UBERON:2001277 | anterior chamber swim bladder |
| UBERON:2001278 | posterior chamber swim bladder |
| UBERON:2001279 | branchiostegal ray 1 |
| UBERON:2001280 | branchiostegal ray 3 |
| UBERON:2001281 | branchiostegal ray 2 |
| UBERON:2001285 | obsolete intersegmental vessel |
| UBERON:2001286 | caudal vein plexus |
| UBERON:2001293 | posterior kidney |
| UBERON:2001297 | vagal placode 1 |
| UBERON:2001298 | vagal placode 2 |
| UBERON:2001299 | vagal placode 3 |
| UBERON:2001300 | vagal placode 4 |
| UBERON:2001302 | vagal ganglion 1 |
| UBERON:2001303 | vagal ganglion 2 |
| UBERON:2001304 | vagal ganglion 3 |
| UBERON:2001305 | vagal ganglion 4 |
| UBERON:2001312 | dorsal anterior lateral line ganglion |
| UBERON:2001313 | ventral anterior lateral line ganglion |
| UBERON:2001314 | posterior lateral line ganglion |
| UBERON:2001316 | anterior lateral line placode |
| UBERON:2001322 | obsolete dorsoventral diencephalic tract |
| UBERON:2001324 | enteric musculature |
| UBERON:2001335 | supradorsal |
| UBERON:2001337 | obsolete spermatogonia |
| UBERON:2001339 | obsolete nucleus of the tract of the anterior commissure |
| UBERON:2001340 | nucleus of the tract of the postoptic commissure |
| UBERON:2001341 | intervening zone |
| UBERON:2001342 | presumptive intervening zone |
| UBERON:2001343 | telencephalon diencephalon boundary |
| UBERON:2001347 | stratum fibrosum et griseum superficiale |
| UBERON:2001348 | stratum marginale |
| UBERON:2001349 | stratum opticum |
| UBERON:2001352 | stratum periventriculare |
| UBERON:2001357 | alar plate midbrain |
| UBERON:2001359 | obsolete pineal complex |
| UBERON:2001360 | obsolete parapineal organ |
| UBERON:2001361 | basiventral |
| UBERON:2001363 | neural complex of Weberian apparatus |
| UBERON:2001364 | hemal spine |
| UBERON:2001366 | tract of the postoptic commissure |
| UBERON:2001371 | pancreatic system |
| UBERON:2001373 | obsolete migratory slow muscle precursor cell |
| UBERON:2001378 | axial hypoblast |
| UBERON:2001382 | epibranchial bone uncinate process |
| UBERON:2001388 | epithelial mesenchymal boundary of regenerating fin/limb |
| UBERON:2001389 | regeneration epithelium of fin/limb |
| UBERON:2001391 | anterior lateral line ganglion |
| UBERON:2001392 | parapophysis 1 |
| UBERON:2001393 | parapophysis 2 |
| UBERON:2001394 | neural arch 3 |
| UBERON:2001395 | neural arch 4 |
| UBERON:2001396 | parapophysis + rib of vertebra 4 |
| UBERON:2001397 | post-Weberian supraneural |
| UBERON:2001403 | supraethmoid |
| UBERON:2001404 | preethmoid bone |
| UBERON:2001406 | kinethmoid bone |
| UBERON:2001407 | infraorbital 2 |
| UBERON:2001408 | infraorbital 3 |
| UBERON:2001409 | infraorbital 4 |
| UBERON:2001412 | epiotic |
| UBERON:2001415 | pelvic fin distal radial bone 2 |
| UBERON:2001416 | pelvic fin distal radial bone 3 |
| UBERON:2001417 | pelvic fin distal radial bone 1 |
| UBERON:2001419 | dorsal fin pterygiophore |
| UBERON:2001420 | anal fin pterygiophore |
| UBERON:2001425 | basal plate cartilage |
| UBERON:2001426 | posterior naris |
| UBERON:2001427 | anterior naris |
| UBERON:2001428 | olfactory rosette |
| UBERON:2001430 | pneumatic duct |
| UBERON:2001431 | primitive olfactory epithelium |
| UBERON:2001432 | anterior sclerotic bone |
| UBERON:2001433 | posterior sclerotic bone |
| UBERON:2001437 | ductus communicans |
| UBERON:2001450 | apical ectodermal ridge pelvic fin |
| UBERON:2001456 | pectoral fin endoskeletal disc |
| UBERON:2001457 | postcranial axial cartilage |
| UBERON:2001462 | obsolete somite border |
| UBERON:2001463 | melanophore stripe |
| UBERON:2001467 | pharyngeal mesoderm |
| UBERON:2001468 | anterior lateral line system |
| UBERON:2001470 | anterior lateral line |
| UBERON:2001471 | posterior lateral line system |
| UBERON:2001472 | anterior lateral line neuromast |
| UBERON:2001473 | obsolete deep blastomere |
| UBERON:2001480 | dorsal anterior lateral line nerve |
| UBERON:2001481 | ventral anterior lateral line nerve |
| UBERON:2001482 | middle lateral line nerve |
| UBERON:2001483 | middle lateral line ganglion |
| UBERON:2001484 | obsolete superficial blastomere |
| UBERON:2001502 | epiphyseal bar |
| UBERON:2001504 | occipital arch cartilage |
| UBERON:2001505 | taenia marginalis anterior |
| UBERON:2001508 | trabecula communis |
| UBERON:2001511 | interhyal cartilage |
| UBERON:2001515 | taenia marginalis posterior |
| UBERON:2001516 | ceratobranchial cartilage |
| UBERON:2001517 | ceratobranchial 2 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001518 | ceratobranchial 3 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001519 | ceratobranchial 4 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001520 | ceratobranchial 1 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001521 | ceratobranchial 5 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001522 | hypobranchial cartilage |
| UBERON:2001523 | hypobranchial 4 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001524 | hypobranchial 1 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001525 | hypobranchial 2 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001526 | hypobranchial 3 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001527 | epibranchial cartilage |
| UBERON:2001528 | epibranchial 1 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001529 | epibranchial 3 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001530 | epibranchial 2 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001531 | epibranchial 4 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001533 | pharyngobranchial cartilage |
| UBERON:2001534 | pharyngobranchial 3 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001535 | median fin cartilage |
| UBERON:2001536 | pharyngobranchial 2 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001537 | mesocoracoid cartilage |
| UBERON:2001538 | pelvic radial cartilage |
| UBERON:2001539 | basipterygium cartilage |
| UBERON:2001540 | pelvic radial 3 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001541 | pelvic radial 2 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001542 | pelvic radial 1 cartilage |
| UBERON:2001546 | neural spine 4 |
| UBERON:2001548 | intercalarium ascending process |
| UBERON:2001553 | manubrium |
| UBERON:2001560 | hypural 1 |
| UBERON:2001561 | hypural 2 |
| UBERON:2001562 | hypural 3 |
| UBERON:2001563 | hypural 4 |
| UBERON:2001564 | hypural 5 |
| UBERON:2001565 | obsolete oocyte stage II |
| UBERON:2001566 | obsolete oocyte stage III |
| UBERON:2001567 | obsolete oocyte stage I |
| UBERON:2001568 | obsolete oocyte stage IV |
| UBERON:2001569 | obsolete oocyte stage V |
| UBERON:2001570 | obsolete unfertilized egg |
| UBERON:2001571 | postovulatory follicle |
| UBERON:2001577 | premaxilla ascending process |
| UBERON:2001578 | anterior dorsomedial process of autopalatine |
| UBERON:2001579 | ural vertebra 2 |
| UBERON:2001581 | ural centrum 2 |
| UBERON:2001582 | non-Weberian precaudal vertebra |
| UBERON:2001583 | preural centrum 1+ ural centrum 1 |
| UBERON:2001584 | caudal procurrent ray |
| UBERON:2001585 | caudal principal ray |
| UBERON:2001586 | pectoral fin radial bone |
| UBERON:2001587 | pectoral fin proximal radial bone |
| UBERON:2001588 | pectoral fin distal radial bone |
| UBERON:2001589 | propterygium cartilage |
| UBERON:2001592 | claustrum bone |
| UBERON:2001593 | caudal fin upper lobe |
| UBERON:2001594 | caudal fin lower lobe |
| UBERON:2001608 | autopalatine-lateral ethmoid joint |
| UBERON:2001612 | sensory canal |
| UBERON:2001617 | trunk sensory canal |
| UBERON:2001619 | post-otic sensory canal |
| UBERON:2001620 | lagenar capsule |
| UBERON:2001629 | otic sensory canal |
| UBERON:2001630 | supratemporal sensory canal |
| UBERON:2001640 | notochordal ossification |
| UBERON:2001666 | rudimentary neural arch |
| UBERON:2001671 | anal fin radial bone |
| UBERON:2001672 | dorsal fin radial bone |
| UBERON:2001679 | mesethmoid-lateral ethmoid joint |
| UBERON:2001680 | mesethmoid-vomer joint |
| UBERON:2001685 | lateral ethmoid-ectopterygoid ligament |
| UBERON:2001686 | bony shelf above orbit |
| UBERON:2001687 | interopercular-mandibular ligament |
| UBERON:2001709 | infraorbital series |
| UBERON:2001710 | opercle-interopercle joint |
| UBERON:2001711 | frontal-pterotic joint |
| UBERON:2001713 | caudal principal ray 1 |
| UBERON:2001714 | caudal principal ray 2 |
| UBERON:2001715 | caudal principal ray 3 |
| UBERON:2001716 | caudal principal ray 4 |
| UBERON:2001717 | caudal principal ray 5 |
| UBERON:2001718 | caudal principal ray 6 |
| UBERON:2001719 | caudal principal ray 7 |
| UBERON:2001720 | caudal principal ray 8 |
| UBERON:2001721 | caudal principal ray 9 |
| UBERON:2001722 | caudal principal ray 10 |
| UBERON:2001723 | caudal principal ray 11 |
| UBERON:2001724 | caudal principal ray 12 |
| UBERON:2001725 | caudal principal ray 13 |
| UBERON:2001726 | caudal principal ray 14 |
| UBERON:2001727 | caudal principal ray 15 |
| UBERON:2001728 | caudal principal ray 16 |
| UBERON:2001729 | caudal principal ray 17 |
| UBERON:2001730 | caudal principal ray 18 |
| UBERON:2001731 | caudal principal ray 19 |
| UBERON:2001732 | vertebral element 5 |
| UBERON:2001735 | scapular foramen |
| UBERON:2001737 | coracoid foramen |
| UBERON:2001742 | auditory foramen |
| UBERON:2001748 | superficial ophthalmic nerve foramen |
| UBERON:2001749 | dentary-anguloarticular joint |
| UBERON:2001750 | rib of vertebra 6 |
| UBERON:2001751 | rib of vertebra 5 |
| UBERON:2001753 | posttemporal fossa |
| UBERON:2001754 | dorsal fin ray 1 |
| UBERON:2001755 | dorsal fin ray 2 |
| UBERON:2001756 | dorsal fin ray 3 |
| UBERON:2001757 | dorsal fin ray 4 |
| UBERON:2001758 | dorsal fin ray 5 |
| UBERON:2001759 | dorsal fin ray 6 |
| UBERON:2001760 | dorsal fin ray 7 |
| UBERON:2001761 | pectoral fin ray 1 |
| UBERON:2001762 | pectoral fin ray 2 |
| UBERON:2001763 | pectoral fin ray 3 |
| UBERON:2001764 | pectoral fin ray 4 |
| UBERON:2001765 | pectoral fin ray 5 |
| UBERON:2001766 | pectoral fin ray 6 |
| UBERON:2001767 | pectoral fin ray 7 |
| UBERON:2001769 | anal fin ray 1 |
| UBERON:2001770 | anal fin ray 2 |
| UBERON:2001771 | anal fin ray 3 |
| UBERON:2001772 | anal fin ray 4 |
| UBERON:2001773 | anal fin ray 5 |
| UBERON:2001774 | anal fin ray 6 |
| UBERON:2001775 | anal fin ray 7 |
| UBERON:2001776 | pelvic fin ray 1 |
| UBERON:2001777 | pelvic fin ray 2 |
| UBERON:2001778 | pelvic fin ray 3 |
| UBERON:2001779 | pelvic fin ray 4 |
| UBERON:2001784 | autopalatine-vomer joint |
| UBERON:2001785 | branched dorsal fin ray |
| UBERON:2001794 | orbitosphenoid-prootic joint |
| UBERON:2001799 | recessus lateralis |
| UBERON:2001801 | quadrate-hyomandibula joint |
| UBERON:2001803 | quadrate-metapterygoid joint |
| UBERON:2001804 | olfactory nerve foramen |
| UBERON:2001810 | supraorbital sensory canal |
| UBERON:2001811 | infraorbital sensory canal |
| UBERON:2001812 | preoperculo-mandibular sensory canal |
| UBERON:2001813 | preopercular sensory canal |
| UBERON:2001814 | mandibular sensory canal |
| UBERON:2001818 | dorsal fin proximal radial bone 1 |
| UBERON:2001819 | dorsal fin proximal radial bone 2 |
| UBERON:2001821 | notochord posterior region |
| UBERON:2001824 | lateral line scale |
| UBERON:2001827 | premaxillary-maxillary ligament |
| UBERON:2001828 | primordial ligament |
| UBERON:2001829 | caudal fin dorsal procurrent ray |
| UBERON:2001830 | caudal fin ventral procurrent ray |
| UBERON:2001831 | pterosphenoid-orbitosphenoid joint |
| UBERON:2001832 | parasphenoid-basioccipital joint |
| UBERON:2001841 | interhyal-epihyal joint |
| UBERON:2001842 | epihyal-ceratohyal joint |
| UBERON:2001843 | ceratohyal-dorsal hypohyal joint |
| UBERON:2001844 | ceratohyal-ventral hypohyal joint |
| UBERON:2001845 | dorsal hypohyal-ventral hypohyal joint |
| UBERON:2001846 | inter-ventral hypohyal joint |
| UBERON:2001847 | dorsal hypohyal-urohyal joint |
| UBERON:2001848 | ventral hypohyal-urohyal joint |
| UBERON:2001849 | epihyal-branchiostegal ray joint |
| UBERON:2001850 | ceratohyal-branchiostegal ray joint |
| UBERON:2001856 | gill ray |
| UBERON:2001863 | inter-hypobranchial 3 joint |
| UBERON:2001873 | head sensory canal system |
| UBERON:2001878 | rib of vertebra 2 |
| UBERON:2001879 | rib of vertebra 1 |
| UBERON:2001880 | rib of vertebra 3 |
| UBERON:2001881 | rib of vertebra 4 |
| UBERON:2001922 | inter-frontal joint |
| UBERON:2001927 | anterior myodome |
| UBERON:2001928 | articular fossa of opercle |
| UBERON:2001932 | sensory canal tubular ossicle |
| UBERON:2001933 | sensory canal tubule |
| UBERON:2001937 | anterior nasal barbel |
| UBERON:2001938 | maxillary barbel |
| UBERON:2001939 | inter-basipterygium joint |
| UBERON:2001940 | vertebra 4-vertebra 5 joint |
| UBERON:2001941 | orbitosphenoid-lateral ethmoid joint |
| UBERON:2001942 | autopalatine-maxillary joint |
| UBERON:2001944 | lateral ethmoid-autopalatine ligament |
| UBERON:2001947 | hyomandibular-otic region joint |
| UBERON:2001950 | inter-premaxillary joint |
| UBERON:2001951 | skin flap |
| UBERON:2001969 | inner mental barbel |
| UBERON:2001972 | intercostal ligament |
| UBERON:2001974 | subtemporal fossa |
| UBERON:2001977 | pad |
| UBERON:2001979 | hyomandibula-metapterygoid joint |
| UBERON:2001980 | vertebral element 6 |
| UBERON:2001981 | vertebral element 7 |
| UBERON:2001982 | vertebral element 8 |
| UBERON:2001992 | branched anal fin ray |
| UBERON:2002010 | hyoideomandibular nerve |
| UBERON:2002011 | lateral fontanel of frontal |
| UBERON:2002012 | dentary foramen |
| UBERON:2002024 | mental barbel |
| UBERON:2002031 | orbital foramen |
| UBERON:2002032 | lateral ethmoid-frontal joint |
| UBERON:2002033 | prootic-pterosphenoid joint |
| UBERON:2002034 | prootic-exoccipital joint |
| UBERON:2002038 | basioccipital-exoccipital joint |
| UBERON:2002040 | inter-coracoid joint |
| UBERON:2002051 | scale circulus |
| UBERON:2002052 | prootic depression |
| UBERON:2002053 | bony plate |
| UBERON:2002054 | vertebra 5-vertebra 6 joint |
| UBERON:2002055 | vertebra 6 - vertebra 7 joint |
| UBERON:2002057 | gill opening |
| UBERON:2002062 | branched caudal fin ray |
| UBERON:2002066 | auditory fenestra |
| UBERON:2002090 | pro-otic fossa |
| UBERON:2002094 | dorsal fin pterygiophore 1 |
| UBERON:2002111 | prootic bulla |
| UBERON:2002141 | annular ligament |
| UBERON:2002144 | obsolete anterior catecholaminergic tract |
| UBERON:2002145 | anterior swim bladder bud |
| UBERON:2002147 | arrector muscle |
| UBERON:2002149 | vertebral element 9 |
| UBERON:2002150 | vertebral element 10 |
| UBERON:2002151 | vertebral element 11 |
| UBERON:2002152 | vertebral element 12 |
| UBERON:2002154 | opercular cavity |
| UBERON:2002172 | branchial mesenchyme |
| UBERON:2002174 | octaval nerve motor nucleus |
| UBERON:2002175 | rostral octaval nerve motor nucleus |
| UBERON:2002176 | caudal octaval nerve motor nucleus |
| UBERON:2002179 | obsolete peripheral nucleus of ventral telencephalon |
| UBERON:2002180 | obsolete central nucleus of ventral telencephalon |
| UBERON:2002185 | climbing fiber |
| UBERON:2002192 | dorsolateral motor nucleus of vagal nerve |
| UBERON:2002193 | dorsolateral septum |
| UBERON:2002195 | epidermal placode |
| UBERON:2002199 | obsolete hindbrain commissure |
| UBERON:2002200 | hypobranchial muscle |
| UBERON:2002202 | intermediate nucleus |
| UBERON:2002203 | obsolete immature Schwann cell |
| UBERON:2002204 | obsolete lateral nucleus of ventral telencephalon |
| UBERON:2002206 | macula communis |
| UBERON:2002207 | medial motor nucleus of vagal nerve |
| UBERON:2002208 | obsolete mesonephric podocyte |
| UBERON:2002210 | mossy fiber |
| UBERON:2002213 | obsolete optic nerve head |
| UBERON:2002214 | os suspensorium medial flange |
| UBERON:2002215 | otic vesicle protrusion |
| UBERON:2002216 | otic vesicle ventral protrusion |
| UBERON:2002218 | parallel fiber, teleost |
| UBERON:2002219 | parvocellular preoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:2002221 | pericardial muscle |
| UBERON:2002222 | obsolete periventricular nucleus of ventral telencephalon |
| UBERON:2002223 | pillar of the semicircular canal |
| UBERON:2002224 | pleuroperitoneal cavity |
| UBERON:2002225 | posterior pronephric duct |
| UBERON:2002226 | preglomerular nucleus |
| UBERON:2002229 | presumptive atrium primitive heart tube |
| UBERON:2002232 | presumptive cardiac ventricle primitive heart tube |
| UBERON:2002235 | presumptive ventral mesoderm |
| UBERON:2002237 | obsolete pronephric podocyte |
| UBERON:2002240 | Purkinje cell layer corpus cerebelli |
| UBERON:2002241 | Purkinje cell layer valvula cerebelli |
| UBERON:2002242 | scale primordium |
| UBERON:2002244 | supraoptic tract |
| UBERON:2002288 | obsolete aqueous humor |
| UBERON:2002290 | obsolete vitreous |
| UBERON:2005000 | basal communicating artery |
| UBERON:2005010 | mid cerebral vein |
| UBERON:2005011 | pseudobranchial artery |
| UBERON:2005012 | afferent filamental artery |
| UBERON:2005013 | concurrent branch afferent branchial artery |
| UBERON:2005014 | recurrent branch afferent branchial artery |
| UBERON:2005015 | afferent lamellar arteriole |
| UBERON:2005017 | primordial midbrain channel |
| UBERON:2005018 | efferent filamental artery |
| UBERON:2005019 | efferent lamellar arteriole |
| UBERON:2005020 | central artery |
| UBERON:2005021 | cerebellar central artery |
| UBERON:2005022 | opercular artery |
| UBERON:2005025 | dorsal longitudinal anastomotic vessel |
| UBERON:2005026 | primary head sinus |
| UBERON:2005027 | posterior cerebral vein |
| UBERON:2005029 | rostral blood island |
| UBERON:2005030 | dorsal ciliary vein |
| UBERON:2005031 | dorsal longitudinal vein |
| UBERON:2005032 | optic vein |
| UBERON:2005034 | parachordal vessel |
| UBERON:2005036 | supraintestinal artery |
| UBERON:2005038 | supraintestinal vein |
| UBERON:2005039 | anterior lateral mesoderm |
| UBERON:2005040 | obsolete posterior lateral mesoderm |
| UBERON:2005044 | optic artery |
| UBERON:2005048 | primitive prosencephalic artery |
| UBERON:2005049 | prosencephalic artery |
| UBERON:2005050 | palatocerebral artery |
| UBERON:2005051 | communicating vessel palatocerebral artery |
| UBERON:2005052 | anterior mesencephalic central artery |
| UBERON:2005053 | nasal ciliary artery |
| UBERON:2005054 | inner optic circle |
| UBERON:2005055 | median palatocerebral vein |
| UBERON:2005056 | palatocerebral vein |
| UBERON:2005066 | bulbus arteriosus outer layer |
| UBERON:2005067 | bulbus arteriosus middle layer |
| UBERON:2005068 | bulbus arteriosus inner layer |
| UBERON:2005072 | endocardial ring |
| UBERON:2005073 | atrioventricular ring |
| UBERON:2005074 | central cardiac conduction system |
| UBERON:2005075 | peripheral cardiac conduction system |
| UBERON:2005076 | obsolete primordial vasculature |
| UBERON:2005078 | middle mesencephalic central artery |
| UBERON:2005079 | posterior mesencephalic central artery |
| UBERON:2005080 | anterior mesenteric artery |
| UBERON:2005082 | dorsal branch nasal ciliary artery |
| UBERON:2005083 | ventral branch nasal ciliary artery |
| UBERON:2005084 | metencephalic artery |
| UBERON:2005085 | nasal artery |
| UBERON:2005087 | pectoral vein |
| UBERON:2005088 | posterior mesenteric artery |
| UBERON:2005089 | swim bladder artery |
| UBERON:2005093 | nasal vein |
| UBERON:2005097 | caudal fin vasculature |
| UBERON:2005098 | central ray artery |
| UBERON:2005099 | ray vein |
| UBERON:2005100 | intervessel commissure |
| UBERON:2005101 | interray vessel |
| UBERON:2005102 | presumptive median fin fold |
| UBERON:2005103 | presumptive ventral fin fold |
| UBERON:2005104 | presumptive dorsal fin fold |
| UBERON:2005106 | longitudinal lateral lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:2005113 | dorsal lateral line neuromast |
| UBERON:2005114 | middle lateral line system |
| UBERON:2005115 | primary posterior lateral line primordium |
| UBERON:2005116 | secondary posterior lateral line primordium |
| UBERON:2005117 | anterior lateral line primordium |
| UBERON:2005118 | middle lateral line primordium |
| UBERON:2005119 | barbel primordium |
| UBERON:2005121 | middle lateral line placode |
| UBERON:2005122 | dorsal axial hypoblast |
| UBERON:2005126 | intestinal bulb epithelium |
| UBERON:2005135 | primary dental epithelium |
| UBERON:2005144 | ampullary nerve |
| UBERON:2005149 | distal epidermal cap of regenerating fin/limb |
| UBERON:2005150 | basal regeneration epithelium of regenerating fin/limb |
| UBERON:2005151 | obsolete gold iridophore |
| UBERON:2005152 | obsolete silver iridophore |
| UBERON:2005170 | extrahepatic duct |
| UBERON:2005174 | ventral liver lobe |
| UBERON:2005175 | obsolete CoPA |
| UBERON:2005176 | obsolete CoSA |
| UBERON:2005177 | obsolete VeLD |
| UBERON:2005178 | obsolete DoLA |
| UBERON:2005179 | obsolete MiP motor neuron |
| UBERON:2005180 | obsolete RoP motor neuron |
| UBERON:2005181 | obsolete VaP motor neuron |
| UBERON:2005182 | obsolete t-interneuron |
| UBERON:2005183 | obsolete MiD2i |
| UBERON:2005184 | obsolete MiD2cl |
| UBERON:2005185 | obsolete MiD2cm |
| UBERON:2005186 | obsolete CoB |
| UBERON:2005187 | obsolete MiM1 |
| UBERON:2005188 | obsolete MiR1 |
| UBERON:2005189 | obsolete MiR2 |
| UBERON:2005190 | obsolete MiV1 |
| UBERON:2005191 | obsolete MiV2 |
| UBERON:2005192 | obsolete RoI2C |
| UBERON:2005193 | obsolete RoI2R |
| UBERON:2005194 | obsolete RoL1 |
| UBERON:2005195 | obsolete MiD3cl |
| UBERON:2005196 | obsolete MiD3cm |
| UBERON:2005197 | obsolete MiD3i |
| UBERON:2005198 | obsolete RoL2 |
| UBERON:2005199 | obsolete RoL2r |
| UBERON:2005200 | obsolete RoL2c |
| UBERON:2005201 | obsolete obsolete RoL3 |
| UBERON:2005202 | obsolete RoM1c |
| UBERON:2005203 | obsolete RoM1r |
| UBERON:2005205 | obsolete RoM2l |
| UBERON:2005206 | obsolete RoM2m |
| UBERON:2005207 | obsolete RoM3l |
| UBERON:2005208 | obsolete RoM3m |
| UBERON:2005209 | obsolete hindbrain interneuron |
| UBERON:2005210 | obsolete midbrain interneuron |
| UBERON:2005211 | obsolete MeL |
| UBERON:2005212 | obsolete MeM |
| UBERON:2005213 | obsolete MeLr |
| UBERON:2005214 | obsolete MeLc |
| UBERON:2005215 | obsolete MeLm |
| UBERON:2005216 | obsolete MeM1 |
| UBERON:2005217 | obsolete CaV |
| UBERON:2005218 | obsolete CaD |
| UBERON:2005219 | choroid plexus vascular circuit |
| UBERON:2005220 | larval melanophore stripe |
| UBERON:2005221 | dorsal larval melanophore stripe |
| UBERON:2005222 | ventral larval melanophore stripe |
| UBERON:2005223 | lateral larval melanophore stripe |
| UBERON:2005224 | yolk larval melanophore stripe |
| UBERON:2005227 | protoneuromast |
| UBERON:2005230 | obsolete CoBL |
| UBERON:2005231 | obsolete bifurcate interneuron |
| UBERON:2005232 | obsolete MCoD |
| UBERON:2005233 | obsolete CiD |
| UBERON:2005234 | obsolete CoLA |
| UBERON:2005235 | obsolete UCoD |
| UBERON:2005239 | obsolete micropylar cell |
| UBERON:2005240 | obsolete Kolmer-Agduhr neuron |
| UBERON:2005241 | obsolete polychromatophilic erythroblast |
| UBERON:2005244 | obsolete auditory epithelial support cell |
| UBERON:2005245 | inter-parietal joint |
| UBERON:2005246 | obsolete regeneration fibroblast |
| UBERON:2005247 | obsolete CiA |
| UBERON:2005248 | trans-choroid plexus branch |
| UBERON:2005256 | intervillus pockets |
| UBERON:2005259 | continuous capillary |
| UBERON:2005260 | fenestrated capillary |
| UBERON:2005264 | supraoccipital-parietal joint |
| UBERON:2005265 | hyomandibula-opercle joint |
| UBERON:2005266 | pterotic fossa |
| UBERON:2005267 | erector muscle |
| UBERON:2005268 | preopercle horizontal limb-symplectic joint |
| UBERON:2005269 | hypophyseal fenestra |
| UBERON:2005270 | depressor muscle |
| UBERON:2005272 | immature gonad |
| UBERON:2005273 | intestinal mucosal muscle |
| UBERON:2005275 | hyomandibular foramen |
| UBERON:2005276 | inclinator muscle |
| UBERON:2005278 | preopercle vertical limb-hyomandibula joint |
| UBERON:2005279 | enteric circular muscle |
| UBERON:2005292 | distal late tubule |
| UBERON:2005295 | axial blood vessel |
| UBERON:2005303 | caudal fin lymph vessel |
| UBERON:2005304 | caudal fin blood vessel |
| UBERON:2005311 | pronephric glomerular capsule epithelium |
| UBERON:2005316 | fin fold pectoral fin bud |
| UBERON:2005317 | pectoral fin fold |
| UBERON:2005319 | intersegmental lymph vessel |
| UBERON:2005320 | dorsal longitudinal lymphatic vessel |
| UBERON:2005324 | obsolete gill ionocyte |
| UBERON:2005325 | obsolete integument ionocyte |
| UBERON:2005326 | obsolete NaK ionocyte |
| UBERON:2005327 | obsolete vH ionocyte |
| UBERON:2005336 | obsolete presumptive swim bladder |
| UBERON:2005338 | posterior recess |
| UBERON:2005339 | nucleus of the lateral recess |
| UBERON:2005340 | nucleus of the posterior recess |
| UBERON:2005341 | medial longitudinal catecholaminergic tract |
| UBERON:2005343 | endohypothalamic tract |
| UBERON:2005344 | preopticohypothalamic tract |
| UBERON:2005346 | extrapancreatic duct |
| UBERON:2005365 | dorsal fin pterygiophore 2 |
| UBERON:2005366 | dorsal fin pterygiophore 3 |
| UBERON:2005367 | dorsal fin pterygiophore 4 |
| UBERON:2005368 | dorsal fin pterygiophore 5 |
| UBERON:2005369 | dorsal fin pterygiophore 6 |
| UBERON:2005370 | dorsal fin pterygiophore 7 |
| UBERON:2005371 | dorsal fin pterygiophore 8 |
| UBERON:2005372 | dorsal fin distal radial bone 1 |
| UBERON:2005373 | dorsal fin distal radial bone 2 |
| UBERON:2005374 | dorsal fin distal radial bone 3 |
| UBERON:2005375 | dorsal fin distal radial bone 4 |
| UBERON:2005376 | dorsal fin distal radial bone 5 |
| UBERON:2005377 | dorsal fin distal radial bone 6 |
| UBERON:2005378 | dorsal fin distal radial bone 7 |
| UBERON:2005379 | dorsal fin distal radial bone 8 |
| UBERON:2005380 | dorsal fin proximal radial bone 3 |
| UBERON:2005381 | dorsal fin proximal radial bone 4 |
| UBERON:2005382 | dorsal fin proximal radial bone 5 |
| UBERON:2005383 | dorsal fin proximal radial bone 6 |
| UBERON:2005384 | dorsal fin proximal radial bone 7 |
| UBERON:2005385 | dorsal fin proximal radial bone 8 |
| UBERON:2005409 | pars superior ear |
| UBERON:2005410 | pars inferior ear |
| UBERON:2005412 | transverse canal |
| UBERON:2005415 | inner ear foramen |
| UBERON:2005416 | sacculoagenar foramen |
| UBERON:2007001 | dorso-rostral cluster |
| UBERON:2007002 | ventro-rostral cluster |
| UBERON:2007003 | ventro-caudal cluster |
| UBERON:2007004 | epiphysial cluster |
| UBERON:2007005 | hemal prezygapophysis |
| UBERON:2007008 | ventral intermandibularis anterior |
| UBERON:2007010 | obsolete eminentia thalami |
| UBERON:2007011 | obsolete vagal root |
| UBERON:2007012 | lateral forebrain bundle |
| UBERON:2007013 | preplacodal ectoderm |
| UBERON:2007014 | anterior presumptive neural plate |
| UBERON:2007015 | posterior presumptive neural plate |
| UBERON:2007023 | posterior neural keel |
| UBERON:2007024 | anterior neural keel |
| UBERON:2007025 | midbrain neural keel |
| UBERON:2007026 | forebrain neural keel |
| UBERON:2007027 | forebrain midbrain boundary neural keel |
| UBERON:2007028 | spinal cord neural keel |
| UBERON:2007029 | hindbrain neural keel |
| UBERON:2007030 | posterior neural rod |
| UBERON:2007031 | anterior neural rod |
| UBERON:2007032 | midbrain neural rod |
| UBERON:2007033 | forebrain midbrain boundary neural rod |
| UBERON:2007034 | forebrain neural rod |
| UBERON:2007035 | spinal cord neural rod |
| UBERON:2007036 | hindbrain neural rod |
| UBERON:2007040 | forebrain midbrain boundary neural tube |
| UBERON:2007041 | forebrain neural tube |
| UBERON:2007042 | spinal cord neural tube |
| UBERON:2007043 | hindbrain neural tube |
| UBERON:2007045 | midbrain hindbrain boundary neural keel |
| UBERON:2007046 | midbrain hindbrain boundary neural rod |
| UBERON:2007047 | midbrain hindbrain boundary neural tube |
| UBERON:2007048 | ventral intermandibularis posterior |
| UBERON:2007050 | constrictor dorsalis |
| UBERON:2007051 | ventral interhyoideus |
| UBERON:2007052 | hyohyoideus |
| UBERON:2007053 | dorsal adductor hyomandibulae |
| UBERON:2007054 | pillar of the anterior semicircular canal |
| UBERON:2007055 | pillar of the lateral semicircular canal |
| UBERON:2007059 | neurogenic field |
| UBERON:2007060 | dorsolateral field |
| UBERON:2007061 | epibranchial field |
| UBERON:2007062 | olfactory field |
| UBERON:2007067 | obsolete vagal ganglion |
| UBERON:3010029 | obsolete gonochoristic organism |
| UBERON:3010272 | obsolete asexual organism |
| UBERON:3010273 | obsolete cell space |
| UBERON:3010463 | animal cap |
| UBERON:3010586 | vasa efferentia |
| UBERON:3010840 | obsolete portion of cell substance |
| UBERON:4000002 | obsolete mode of ossification |
| UBERON:4000013 | mineralized skeletal tissue |
| UBERON:4000104 | ganoine |
| UBERON:4000141 | obsolete intramembranous ossification |
| UBERON:4000162 | median fin |
| UBERON:4000163 | anal fin |
| UBERON:4000164 | caudal fin |
| UBERON:4000166 | anal fin skeleton |
| UBERON:4000167 | caudal fin skeleton |
| UBERON:4000168 | dorsal fin skeleton |
| UBERON:4000170 | median fin skeleton |
| UBERON:4000172 | lepidotrichium |
| UBERON:4000173 | pelvic fin lepidotrichium |
| UBERON:4000174 | caudal fin lepidotrichium |
| UBERON:4000175 | pectoral fin lepidotrichium |
| UBERON:4000176 | anal fin lepidotrichium |
| UBERON:4000177 | dorsal fin lepidotrichium |
| UBERON:4200172 | neck of humerus |
| UBERON:4200215 | suture |
| UBERON:4300174 | actinopterygian pyloric caecum |
| UBERON:4300194 | photophore |
| UBERON:4300223 | precaudal vertebra |
| UBERON:4300249 | lateral occipital foramen |
| UBERON:6000002 | arthropod tagma |
| UBERON:6000004 | panarthropod head |
| UBERON:6000005 | insect ocular segment |
| UBERON:6000006 | insect head segment |
| UBERON:6000007 | procephalic segment |
| UBERON:6000008 | labral segment |
| UBERON:6000009 | antennal segment |
| UBERON:6000011 | insect gnathal segment |
| UBERON:6000014 | insect labial segment |
| UBERON:6000015 | insect thorax |
| UBERON:6000016 | insect thoracic segment |
| UBERON:6000017 | insect prothoracic segment |
| UBERON:6000018 | insect mesothoracic segment |
| UBERON:6000019 | insect metathoracic segment |
| UBERON:6000020 | insect abdomen |
| UBERON:6000021 | insect abdominal segment |
| UBERON:6000029 | insect abdominal segment 8 |
| UBERON:6000030 | insect abdominal segment 9 |
| UBERON:6000046 | insect dorsal appendage |
| UBERON:6000096 | insect ventral furrow |
| UBERON:6000097 | insect cephalic furrow |
| UBERON:6000104 | insect mesoderm anlage |
| UBERON:6000112 | insect dorsal ectoderm |
| UBERON:6000119 | insect anterior ectoderm |
| UBERON:6000128 | insect trunk mesoderm |
| UBERON:6000130 | insect visceral mesoderm |
| UBERON:6000137 | embryonic tagma |
| UBERON:6000154 | insect embryonic segment |
| UBERON:6000157 | insect embryonic head segment |
| UBERON:6000158 | insect embryonic procephalic segment |
| UBERON:6000160 | insect embryonic antennal segment |
| UBERON:6000162 | insect embryonic gnathal segment |
| UBERON:6000165 | insect embryonic labial segment |
| UBERON:6000166 | insect embryonic thorax |
| UBERON:6000167 | insect embryonic thoracic segment |
| UBERON:6000168 | insect embryonic prothoracic segment |
| UBERON:6000169 | insect embryonic mesothoracic segment |
| UBERON:6000170 | insect embryonic metathoracic segment |
| UBERON:6000171 | insect embryonic abdomen |
| UBERON:6000172 | insect embryonic abdominal segment |
| UBERON:6000180 | insect embryonic abdominal segment 8 |
| UBERON:6000181 | insect embryonic abdominal segment 9 |
| UBERON:6000186 | insect embryonic optic lobe primordium |
| UBERON:6001055 | insect presumptive embryonic/larval nervous system |
| UBERON:6001056 | insect presumptive embryonic/larval central nervous system |
| UBERON:6001059 | insect visual primordium |
| UBERON:6001060 | insect embryonic brain |
| UBERON:6001135 | insect proneural cluster |
| UBERON:6001648 | insect embryonic imaginal precursor |
| UBERON:6001649 | insect imaginal disc primordium |
| UBERON:6001650 | insect labial disc primordium |
| UBERON:6001652 | insect eye-antennal disc primordium |
| UBERON:6001653 | insect dorsal thoracic disc primordium |
| UBERON:6001655 | insect dorsal mesothoracic disc primordium |
| UBERON:6001656 | insect dorsal metathoracic disc primordium |
| UBERON:6001657 | insect ventral thoracic disc primordium |
| UBERON:6001658 | insect ventral prothoracic disc primordium |
| UBERON:6001661 | insect genital disc primordium |
| UBERON:6001662 | insect male genital disc primordium |
| UBERON:6001663 | insect female genital disc primordium |
| UBERON:6001664 | insect embryonic/larval circulatory system |
| UBERON:6001668 | insect embryonic/larval lymph gland |
| UBERON:6001722 | insect ring gland |
| UBERON:6001728 | insect larval tagma |
| UBERON:6001729 | insect larval segment |
| UBERON:6001730 | insect larval head |
| UBERON:6001731 | insect larval ocular segment |
| UBERON:6001732 | insect larval head segment |
| UBERON:6001733 | insect larval procephalic segment |
| UBERON:6001734 | insect larval labral segment |
| UBERON:6001735 | insect larval antennal segment |
| UBERON:6001737 | insect larval gnathal segment |
| UBERON:6001740 | insect larval labial segment |
| UBERON:6001741 | insect larval thorax |
| UBERON:6001742 | insect larval thoracic segment |
| UBERON:6001743 | insect larval prothoracic segment |
| UBERON:6001744 | insect larval mesothoracic segment |
| UBERON:6001745 | insect larval metathoracic segment |
| UBERON:6001746 | insect larval abdomen |
| UBERON:6001747 | insect larval abdominal segment |
| UBERON:6001755 | insect larval abdominal segment 8 |
| UBERON:6001756 | insect larval abdominal segment 9 |
| UBERON:6001760 | insect embryonic/larval imaginal precursor |
| UBERON:6001764 | insect labial disc |
| UBERON:6001765 | insect clypeo-labral disc |
| UBERON:6001766 | insect eye-antennal disc |
| UBERON:6001767 | insect antennal disc |
| UBERON:6001776 | insect dorsal thoracic disc |
| UBERON:6001778 | insect wing disc |
| UBERON:6001779 | insect haltere disc |
| UBERON:6001780 | insect ventral thoracic disc |
| UBERON:6001781 | insect prothoracic leg disc |
| UBERON:6001784 | insect genital disc |
| UBERON:6001785 | insect male genital disc |
| UBERON:6001787 | insect female genital disc |
| UBERON:6001790 | insect histoblast nest |
| UBERON:6001842 | insect embryonic/larval digestive system |
| UBERON:6001845 | insect cephalopharyngeal skeleton |
| UBERON:6001848 | insect epipharyngeal sclerite |
| UBERON:6001911 | insect embryonic/larval nervous system |
| UBERON:6001919 | insect embryonic/larval central nervous system |
| UBERON:6001920 | insect embryonic/larval brain |
| UBERON:6001925 | insect embryonic/larval protocerebrum |
| UBERON:6002639 | insect larval sense organ |
| UBERON:6002642 | insect embryonic/larval ocular segment sensillum |
| UBERON:6003005 | insect adult tagma |
| UBERON:6003006 | insect adult segment |
| UBERON:6003007 | insect adult head |
| UBERON:6003009 | insect adult head segment |
| UBERON:6003010 | insect adult procephalic segment |
| UBERON:6003011 | insect adult labral segment |
| UBERON:6003012 | insect adult antennal segment |
| UBERON:6003018 | insect adult thorax |
| UBERON:6003019 | insect adult thoracic segment |
| UBERON:6003020 | insect adult prothoracic segment |
| UBERON:6003021 | insect adult mesothoracic segment |
| UBERON:6003023 | insect adult abdomen |
| UBERON:6003024 | insect adult abdominal segment |
| UBERON:6003039 | dorsal trunk of insect trachea |
| UBERON:6003259 | insect adult somatic muscle |
| UBERON:6003559 | insect adult nervous system |
| UBERON:6003623 | insect adult central nervous system |
| UBERON:6003624 | insect adult brain |
| UBERON:6003626 | insect supraesophageal ganglion |
| UBERON:6003627 | insect protocerebrum |
| UBERON:6003632 | insect adult central complex |
| UBERON:6004296 | insect sex comb |
| UBERON:6004340 | insect wing hair |
| UBERON:6004475 | insect sclerite |
| UBERON:6004476 | insect tergite |
| UBERON:6004477 | insect sternite |
| UBERON:6004481 | insect adult external head |
| UBERON:6004519 | insect arista |
| UBERON:6004520 | insect mouthpart |
| UBERON:6004521 | insect clypeus |
| UBERON:6004535 | insect proboscis |
| UBERON:6004540 | insect basiproboscis |
| UBERON:6004551 | insect adult external thorax |
| UBERON:6004552 | insect tergum |
| UBERON:6004578 | insect adult external mesothorax |
| UBERON:6004580 | insect mesothoracic tergum |
| UBERON:6004646 | insect tarsal segment |
| UBERON:6004648 | insect metatarsus |
| UBERON:6004663 | insect prothoracic leg |
| UBERON:6004668 | insect prothoracic tarsal segment |
| UBERON:6004670 | insect prothoracic metatarsus |
| UBERON:6004788 | insect adult external abdomen |
| UBERON:6004823 | insect analia |
| UBERON:6004824 | insect female analia |
| UBERON:6004825 | insect male analia |
| UBERON:6004979 | insect trichome |
| UBERON:6004983 | insect embryonic/larval cuticle |
| UBERON:6004986 | insect third instar larval cuticle |
| UBERON:6005023 | insect imaginal precursor |
| UBERON:6005036 | insect tracheal pit |
| UBERON:6005037 | insect tracheal primordium |
| UBERON:6005043 | insect trachea |
| UBERON:6005054 | insect spiracle |
| UBERON:6005096 | insect stomatogastric nervous system |
| UBERON:6005168 | insect external sensory organ |
| UBERON:6005177 | insect chaeta |
| UBERON:6005378 | insect wing margin |
| UBERON:6005380 | insect pharynx |
| UBERON:6005393 | insect embryonic/larval integumentary system |
| UBERON:6005396 | insect adult integumentary system |
| UBERON:6005427 | insect ectoderm anlage |
| UBERON:6005461 | insect circulatory system primordium |
| UBERON:6005467 | insect lymph gland primordium |
| UBERON:6005514 | insect adult clypeo-labral primordium |
| UBERON:6005526 | insect dorsal epidermis primordium |
| UBERON:6005533 | insect ventral epidermis primordium |
| UBERON:6005538 | insect clypeo-labral primordium |
| UBERON:6005558 | insect ventral ectoderm |
| UBERON:6005569 | insect presumptive embryonic/larval tracheal system |
| UBERON:6005805 | insect Bolwig organ |
| UBERON:6005830 | insect Bolwig organ primordium |
| UBERON:6005831 | insect dorsal imaginal precursor |
| UBERON:6005913 | insect arista lateral |
| UBERON:6006011 | insect pharate adult |
| UBERON:6006032 | insect mesothoracic tergum primordium |
| UBERON:6007020 | insect metatarsus of male prothoracic leg |
| UBERON:6007045 | insect trunk ectoderm |
| UBERON:6007070 | insect centro-posterior medial synaptic neuropil domain |
| UBERON:6007116 | insect presumptive embryonic/larval system |
| UBERON:6007145 | insect adult protocerebrum |
| UBERON:6007149 | segment of antenna |
| UBERON:6007150 | insect segment of leg |
| UBERON:6007231 | insect external sensillum |
| UBERON:6007232 | insect eo-type sensillum |
| UBERON:6007233 | insect internal sensillum |
| UBERON:6007240 | insect embryonic/larval sensillum |
| UBERON:6007242 | insect embryonic/larval head sensillum |
| UBERON:6007245 | insect cuticular specialization |
| UBERON:6007248 | insect chorionic specialization |
| UBERON:6007280 | insect embryonic/larval head sense organ |
| UBERON:6007284 | insect region of integument |
| UBERON:6007285 | insect segmental subdivision of integument |
| UBERON:6007288 | insect integumentary specialisation |
| UBERON:6007289 | insect tagmatic subdivision of integument |
| UBERON:6007331 | insect segmental subdivision of organ system |
| UBERON:6007373 | insect internal sense organ |
| UBERON:6007424 | insect epithelial furrow |
| UBERON:6016022 | insect abdominal histoblast primordium |
| UBERON:6040003 | insect non-connected developing system |
| UBERON:6040005 | insect synaptic neuropil |
| UBERON:6040007 | insect synaptic neuropil domain |
| UBERON:6041000 | insect synaptic neuropil block |
| UBERON:6100153 | insect sensilla row |
| UBERON:6110636 | insect adult cerebral ganglion |
| UBERON:6110746 | insect presumptive prothoracic metatarsus |
| UBERON:6110811 | insect presumptive arista |
| UBERON:8300000 | skin of scalp |
| UBERON:8300001 | right forelimb |
| UBERON:8300002 | left forelimb |
| UBERON:8300003 | right hindlimb |
| UBERON:8300004 | left hindlimb |
| UBERON:8410000 | duodeno-jejunal junction |
| UBERON:8410010 | fimbria of fallopian tube |
| UBERON:8410017 | left colic vein |
| UBERON:8410018 | right colic vein |
| UBERON:8410022 | left colic artery |
| UBERON:8410023 | right colic artery |
| UBERON:8410037 | high endothelial venule |
| UBERON:8410070 | levator costarum |
| UBERON:8410077 | airway submucosal gland |
| UBERON:8410078 | right lymphatic duct |
| UBERON:8420001 | ethmoidal vein |
| UBERON:8420002 | anterior ethmoidal vein |
| UBERON:8420003 | posterior ethmoidal vein |
| UBERON:8440007 | periventricular hypothalamic nucleus, anterior part |
| UBERON:8440008 | periventricular hypothalamic nucleus, intermediate part |
| UBERON:8440010 | Brodmann (1909) area 17 |
| UBERON:8440012 | cerebral nuclei |
| UBERON:8440013 | fasciola cinerea |
| UBERON:8440014 | ventrolateral preoptic nucleus |
| UBERON:8440018 | noradrenergic cell group A4 |
| UBERON:8440021 | noradrenergic cell group A7 |
| UBERON:8440024 | visceral area |
| UBERON:8440025 | parapyramidal nucleus |
| UBERON:8440026 | parapyramidal nucleus, deep part |
| UBERON:8440027 | parapyramidal nucleus, superficial part |
| UBERON:8440028 | Perihypoglossal nuclei |
| UBERON:8440029 | rubroreticular tract |
| UBERON:8440030 | striatum-like amygdalar nuclei |
| UBERON:8440031 | medial corticohypothalmic tract |
| UBERON:8440032 | prelimbic area |
| UBERON:8440033 | infralimbic area |
| UBERON:8440034 | bulbocerebellar tract |
| UBERON:8440035 | sublaterodorsal nucleus |
| UBERON:8440036 | supratrigeminal nucleus |
| UBERON:8440037 | accessory facial motor nucleus |
| UBERON:8440038 | efferent vestibular nucleus |
| UBERON:8440039 | piriform-amygdalar area |
| UBERON:8440040 | dorsal peduncular area |
| UBERON:8440041 | tuberal nucleus (sensu Rodentia) |
| UBERON:8440072 | lateral tegmental nucleus |
| UBERON:8440073 | magnocellular reticular nucleus |
| UBERON:8440074 | interstitial nucleus of the vestibular nerve |
| UBERON:8440075 | gustatory cortex |
| UBERON:8440076 | somatomotor area |
| UBERON:8440077 | rhinal incisure |
| UBERON:8450002 | excretory system |
| UBERON:8480040 | ovarian fluid |
| UBERON:8480045 | subiliac lymph node |
| UBERON:8480048 | calf |
| UBERON:8480049 | front hindlimb zeugopod |
| UBERON:8480050 | skin of calf |
| UBERON:8480065 | labial gland |
| UBERON:8600043 | lateral wall of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:8600044 | left lateral wall of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:8600045 | right lateral wall of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:8600046 | anterior wall of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:8600047 | posterior wall of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:8600048 | apex of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:8600049 | dome of urinary bladder |
| UBERON:8600051 | segmental pulmonary vein |
| UBERON:8600052 | subsegmental pulmonary vein |
| UBERON:8600053 | esophageal vein |
| UBERON:8600054 | supreme intercostal vein |
| UBERON:8600055 | atrioventricular nodal artery |
| UBERON:8600056 | lateral sacral vein |
| UBERON:8600057 | middle hemorrhoidal vein |
| UBERON:8600058 | uterine vein |
| UBERON:8600059 | deep cervical vein |
| UBERON:8600060 | subsegmental pulmonary artery |
| UBERON:8600062 | thyrocervical trunk |
| UBERON:8600065 | lateral femoral circumflex vein |
| UBERON:8600066 | basivertebral vein |
| UBERON:8600069 | deep lingual vein |
| UBERON:8600070 | dorsal lingual vein |
| UBERON:8600071 | sublingual vein |
| UBERON:8600074 | thoracoacromial vein |
| UBERON:8600075 | transverse cervical vein |
| UBERON:8600076 | suboccipital venous plexus |
| UBERON:8600077 | pulmonary arteriole |
| UBERON:8600078 | ascending pharyngeal artery |
| UBERON:8600080 | pericardial artery |
| UBERON:8600081 | percardiacophrenic artery |
| UBERON:8600082 | superficial iliac circumflex vein |
| UBERON:8600083 | fibular vein |
| UBERON:8600087 | external nasal vein |
| UBERON:8600088 | supratrochlear vein |
| UBERON:8600091 | inferior anastomotic vein |
| UBERON:8600092 | radial vein |
| UBERON:8600093 | ulnar vein |
| UBERON:8600095 | ascending palatine artery |
| UBERON:8600096 | submental artery |
| UBERON:8600097 | deep lingual artery |
| UBERON:8600098 | dorsal lingual artery |
| UBERON:8600099 | accessory meningeal artery |
| UBERON:8600100 | artery of pterygoid canal |
| UBERON:8600101 | descending palatine artery |
| UBERON:8600102 | left anterior descending artery |
| UBERON:8600103 | anterior internal vertebral venous plexus |
| UBERON:8600104 | intervertebral vein |
| UBERON:8600105 | lumbar vein |
| UBERON:8600106 | anterior humeral circumflex artery |
| UBERON:8600107 | posterior humeral circumflex artery |
| UBERON:8600108 | proximal ureter |
| UBERON:8600109 | distal ureter |
| UBERON:8600110 | intramural ureter |
| UBERON:8600111 | right distal ureter |
| UBERON:8600112 | left distal ureter |
| UBERON:8600113 | right proximal ureter |
| UBERON:8600114 | left proximal ureter |
| UBERON:8850000 | lumen of pulmonary alveolus |
| UBERON:8900000 | sensory corpuscle |